Merrill’s Atlas of Radiographic Positioning and Procedures 14th Edition Long Test Bank Chapter 01: Preliminary Steps in Radiography Long: Merrill’s Atlas of Radiographic Positioning and Procedures, 14th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The Radiography Practice Standards are written and maintained by the: a. American Registry of Radiologic Technologists. b. American Medical Association. c. American Society of Radiologic Technologists. d. Joint Commission on Education in Radiologic Technology. ANS: C 2. The Standards of Ethics for radiographers was written and is maintained by the: a. American Registry of Radiologic Technologists. b. American Medical Association. c. American Society of Radiologic Technologists. d. Joint Commission on Education in Radiologic Technology. ANS: A 3. Radiographic images of the hands, wrist, feet, and toes are routinely displayed with the digits: a. positioned toward the ceiling. b. positioned toward the floor. c. horizontal and pointed to the left. d. horizontal and pointed to the right. ANS: A 4. How often should the radiographic tabletop be cleaned? a. Only when visibly soiled b. Weekly c. Daily d. After every procedure/patient ANS: D 5. The easiest and most convenient method of preventing the spread of microorganisms is: a. wearing PPE. b. following cough etiquette protocols. c. handwashing. d. proper handling of sharps. ANS: C 6. All are apparent abnormalities that could affect the radiographic result and should be recorded
by the radiographer in the clinical history, except: a. tattoos with ferrous pigments. b. freckles and moles. c. swelling or masses. d. surface scars.
ANS: B 7. Involuntary motion can be caused by which of the following?
1. Peristalsis 2. Spasm 3. Breathing a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A 8. Nervousness, discomfort, and fear are causes of: a. voluntary motion. b. involuntary motion. c. imaging procedure failure. d. image artifacts. ANS: A 9. Radiographers can control voluntary motion by: a. using a high kVp. b. increasing the length of exposure time. c. performing the examination in the recumbent position. d. giving clear instruction to the patient. ANS: D 10. Which type of accessory equipment reduces the amount of scatter and off-focus radiation that
reaches the image receptor? a. Compensating filter b. Grid c. Sandbag d. Sponge ANS: B 11. Information that must be included on all radiographic images includes all of the following
except: a. right or left side marker. b. patient’s name or ID number. c. radiographer’s name. d. date of exam. ANS: C 12. The metric conversion of 40 inches is a. 16 b. 18 c. 90 d. 102
cm.
ANS: D 13. The simplest and most common shape of compensating filter is the: a. wedge. b. trough. c. double-wedge. d. Boomerang. ANS: A 14. All are guidelines for gonad shielding, except: a. the gonads lie in the primary beam. b. shielding is used when it will not compromise the exam objective. c. patients with reasonable reproductive potential should be shielded. d. gonad shields are only needed for pediatric patients. ANS: D 15. What is the most common image receptor general position? a. Diagonal b. Crosswise c. Lengthwise d. Vertical ANS: C 16. The central or principle beam of x-rays is termed the: a. center beam (CB). b. image beam (IB). c. central ray (CR). d. image receptor (IR). ANS: C 17. The general goal for central ray placement is: a. parallel with the structure of interest. b. perpendicular to the structure of interest. c. angled along the long axis of the part of interest. d. angled against the long axis of the part of interest. ANS: B 18. What term is defined as the distance from the anode focal spot inside the x-ray tube to the
image receptor? a. Collimation b. Source-to-image receptor distance (SID) c. Central ray (CR) d. Image receptor (IR) ANS: B 19. All of the following are affected by the SID used for a radiographic image, except:
a. b. c. d.
spatial resolution. magnification of the anatomy in the image. patient dose. contrast resolution.
ANS: D 20. The image receptor used in computed radiography IRs is a: a. tethered solid-state digital detector. b. wireless flat-panel detector. c. cassette with film. d. photostimulable storage phosphor imaging plate. ANS: D 21. Blood and body fluid recommendations are issued by the: a. CDC. b. ASRT. c. ARRT. d. JCAHO. ANS: A 22. Each radiology department must write age-specific competencies to meet the standards of the: a. CDC. b. ASRT. c. ARRT. d. JCAHO. ANS: D 23. Gonad shielding is required when the gonads lie within a. 3 b. 5 c. 6 d. 8
cm of the primary x-ray field.
ANS: B 24. Which of the following radiographic examinations would give a male patient the highest
gonad dose? a. Limb b. Skull c. Pelvis d. Lumbar spine ANS: C 25. Which of the following radiographic examinations would give a female patient the highest
gonad dose? a. Limb b. Skull c. Pelvis
d. Lumbar spine ANS: D 26. Which of the following is affected when imaging patients who are obese?
1. Image quality 2. Ability to transfer safely 3. Ability to find positioning landmarks a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D 27. A fundamental responsibility of radiographers is to ensure that each radiation exposure
upholds the ALARA concept. ALARA stands for: a. as low as reasonably achievable. b. as long as radiograph is acceptable. c. acceptable limits allowed for radiographic attempts. d. attempts to lessen all radiographic allowances. ANS: A 28. The source of radiation in an x-ray tube (the anode) shall not be closer than
inches from
the patient. a. 12 b. 15 c. 10 d. 18 ANS: A 29. A physician who is board certified to read or interpret, x-ray examinations is a: a. hospitalist. b. radiographer. c. radiologist. d. surgeon. ANS: C 30. Which term refers to restriction of the exposure field? a. Collimation b. Filter c. Shuttering d. Central ray (CR) ANS: A 31. Which side marker would be placed on the image receptor on the edge of the collimated field
for a radiographic image of a patient with an injured right hand? a. The left (L) marker on the left side of the patient’s right hand b. The right (R) marker on the right side of the patient’s left hand
c. The left (L) marker on either side of the patient’s hand d. The right (R) marker on either side of the patient’s hand ANS: D MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. Radiographers who obtain additional education, clinical practice, and certification to provide
advanced clinical imaging procedures are designated as which two of the following titles? (Select all that apply.) a. Radiologist deputies (RD) b. Radiologist assistants (RA) c. Radiology practitioner assistants (RPA) d. Advanced radiography practitioners (ARP) ANS: B, C 2. Which two are the most common pre-exposure breathing instructions for radiographic
procedures? (Select all that apply.) a. Rapid, shallow breaths b. Slow, deep breaths c. At the end of inspiration d. At the end of expiration ANS: C, D 3. Collimation of the x-ray beam prompts which two of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. A decrease in radiographic N coUnRtrS asIt NGTB.COM b. An increase in radiographic contrast c. A decrease of scatter radiation d. An increase of scatter radiation ANS: B, C 4. An increase in SID will result in which two of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. Decreased magnification b. Increased magnification c. Increased spatial resolution d. Decreased spatial resolution ANS: A, C
Chapter 02: General Anatomy and Radiographic Positioning Terminology Long: Merrill’s Atlas of Radiographic Positioning and Procedures, 14th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. In the “anatomic position,” the palms of the hands are facing: a. backward. b. forward. c. up. d. down. ANS: B 2. A plane passing through the body parallel with the midsagittal plane is termed: a. coronal. b. sagittal. c. axial. d. oblique. ANS: B 3. A plane passing vertically through the body from side to side is termed: a. oblique. b. sagittal. c. coronal. d. horizontal. ANS: C 4. Any plane passing through the body at right angles to its longitudinal axis is termed: a. coronal. b. oblique. c. sagittal. d. horizontal. ANS: D 5. All of the following are located in the thoracic cavity except: a. trachea. b. spleen. c. lungs. d. esophagus. ANS: B 6. All of the following are located in the abdominal cavity except: a. kidneys. b. stomach. c. rectum. d. pancreas. ANS: C
7. Into how many regions is the abdomen divided? a. Two b. Four c. Six d. Nine ANS: D 8. The lower, center region on this figure is termed the:
a. b. c. d.
epigastrium. lumbar. inguinal. hypogastrium.
ANS: D 9. The external landmark indicated by the arrow in this figure is the:
a. b. c. d.
mastoid tip. vertebra prominens. gonion. transverse process.
ANS: B 10. T9 and T10 are located at the level of the: a. sternal angle. b. xiphoid process.
c. jugular notch. d. vertebra prominens. ANS: B 11. L4 and L5 are located at the level of the: a. costal margin. b. superior iliac spine. c. umbilicus. d. superior aspect of the iliac crests. ANS: D 12. S1 and S2 are located at the level of the: a. costal margin. b. umbilicus. c. superior aspect of the iliac crests. d. anterior superior iliac spines (ASISs). ANS: D 13. All of the following are types of body habitus, except: a. atrophic. b. sthenic. c. asthenic. d. hypersthenic. ANS: A 14. Approximately what percentage of the population has a sthenic body habitus? a. 5% b. 10% c. 35% d. 50% ANS: D 15. Which body habitus is shown in this figure?
a. b. c. d.
Hypersthenic Hyposthenic Asthenic Atrophic
ANS: A
16. The least-occurring body habitus is the: a. hyposthenic. b. hypersthenic. c. asthenic. d. atrophic. ANS: B 17. The adult skeleton is composed of how many bones? a. 185 b. 200 c. 206 d. 208 ANS: C 18. Bones are composed of an outer layer of compact bony tissue called the: a. compact bone. b. periosteum. c. spongy tissue. d. medullary canal. ANS: A 19. Long bones have a central cylindrical cavity called the: a. meniscus. b. periosteum. c. medullary cavity. d. spongy tissue. ANS: C 20. How many specific types of synovial joints are there? a. Three b. Four c. Five d. Six ANS: D 21. Some synovial joints contain synovial fluid–filled sacs outside the main joint cavity called: a. bursae. b. menisci. c. ligaments. d. fibrous capsules. ANS: A 22. How many saddle joints are there in the body? a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four
ANS: A 23. Some synovial joints contain a thick cushioning pad of fibrocartilage called the: a. bursae. b. meniscus. c. cartilage. d. fibrous capsule. ANS: B 24. Which specific type of joint allows multiaxial movement? a. Pivot b. Gliding c. Ellipsoid d. Ball and socket ANS: D 25. After birth, a separate bone begins to develop at the ends of long bones. Each end is called
the: a. b. c. d.
diaphysis. epiphysis. epiphyseal line. epiphyseal plate.
ANS: B 26. A rounded process at an articulN arUeRxS treImNiG tyTisBc.aC lleOdMa: a. condyle. b. malleolus. c. tubercle. d. styloid. ANS: A 27. A hole in a bone for transmission of blood vessels and nerves is called a: a. groove. b. foramen. c. fissure. d. facet. ANS: B 28. A small, smooth-surfaced process for articulation of bones is called a: a. condyle. b. coronoid. c. facet. d. tuberosity. ANS: C 29. A term that means the same as anterior is:
a. b. c. d.
plantar. distal. dorsal. ventral.
ANS: D 30. The term that may also be used to refer to the posterior surface of the body is: a. dorsal. b. ventral. c. volar. d. plantar. ANS: A 31. The term that refers to parts away from the head of the body, or angling the central ray toward
the feet is: a. caudad. b. cephalad. c. medial. d. proximal. ANS: A 32. The term that refers to parts nearer the point of attachment, or origin, is: a. distal. b. proximal. c. caudad. d. cephalad. ANS: B 33. The term used to describe the sole of the foot is: a. ventral. b. posterior. c. plantar. d. dorsal. ANS: C 34. A large, rounded, elevated process on a bone is called a(n): a. malleolus. b. epicondyle. c. tubercle. d. tuberosity. ANS: D 35. All of the following terms are used to describe “body positions,” except: a. upright. b. axial. c. prone. d. LPO.
ANS: B 36. Which of the following is an x-ray “projection”? a. RPO b. LAO c. Dorsoplantar d. Recumbent ANS: C 37. Which of the following is an x-ray “position”? a. Mediolateral b. Craniocaudal c. Orbitoparietal d. Trendelenburg ANS: D 38. Which of the following is an x-ray “projection”? a. Tangential b. Lordotic c. Right anterior oblique (RAO) d. Right lateral decubitus ANS: A 39. The path of the central ray stated as it exits the x-ray tube, travels through the patient and
strikes the IR defines: a. radiography. b. decubitus. c. position. d. projection. ANS: D 40. If the central ray enters the anterior body surface and exits the posterior body surface, the
x-ray projection is termed: a. PA. b. AP. c. lateral. d. axiolateral. ANS: B 41. The x-ray projection identified in this figure is:
a. b. c. d.
AP. PA. AP axial. AP oblique.
ANS: C 42. Identify the x-ray projection illustrated in this figure.
a. b. c. d.
Tangential PA axial oblique. Orbitoparietal Parietoorbital
ANS: A 43. When there is longitudinal angulation of the central ray with the long axis of the body, the
projection will always use the term: a. oblique. b. axial. c. lateral. d. decubitus. ANS: B 44. Which of the following terms are used both as an x-ray projection and a body position?
1. Axial 2. Oblique 3. Lateral a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: C 45. The term used to describe the act of placing the patient appropriately for a radiographic
examination is:
a. b. c. d.
supine. recumbent. projection. position.
ANS: D 46. Which of the following terms is used to describe a patient placed “lying on the back”? a. Supine b. Prone c. Lateral d. Recumbent ANS: A 47. What is the patient position illustrated in this figure?
a. b. c. d.
Dorsal recumbent Right lateral recumbent Left lateral decubitus Trendelenburg
ANS: B 48. Oblique positions are always named according to the side of the patient that is: a. closest to the x-ray tube. b. the source of pathology. c. closest to the IR. d. farthest from the IR. ANS: C 49. The patient in this figure is placed in which position?
a. b. c. d.
RPO LPO RAO LAO
ANS: D 50. The body position depicted below results in which x-ray projection?
a. b. c. d.
PA oblique AP oblique Recumbent Mediolateral
ANS: A 51. Which of the following positioning terms indicates that the patient is lying down and the
central ray is horizontal? a. Lateral b. Decubitus c. Recumbent d. Mediolateral ANS: B
NURSINGTB.COM
52. The patient in this figure is placed in which of the following positions?
a. b. c. d.
Left lateral decubitus Right lateral decubitus Dorsal decubitus Ventral decubitus
ANS: C 53. The x-ray projection shown in this figure is:
a. b. c. d.
AP. PA. right lateral. right lateral decubitus.
ANS: A 54. The movement shown in this figure is:
NURSINGTB.COM
a. b. c. d.
adduction. abduction. extension. flexion.
ANS: D 55. Movement of a part away from the central axis of the body or body part is termed: a. adduction. b. abduction. c. extension. d. flexion. ANS: B 56. Forced or excessive extension of a limb or part is termed: a. eversion. b. inversion. c. hyperextension. d. hyperflexion.
ANS: C 57. Rotation of the arm toward the midline of the body from the anatomic position is termed: a. pronation. b. supination. c. lateral rotation. d. medial rotation. ANS: D 58. If the foot is turned inward at the ankle joint, the body movement is termed: a. inversion. b. eversion. c. flexion. d. extension. ANS: A 59. Movement of a part toward the central axis of the body is termed: a. abduction. b. adduction. c. medial rotation. d. lateral rotation. ANS: B 60. Turning the forearm so that the palm of the hand is up is termed: a. pronation. b. supination. c. abduction. d. adduction. ANS: B 61. A club-shaped process on a bone is called a: a. coronoid. b. trochanter. c. tuberosity. d. malleolus. ANS: D 62. The term that refers to a part on the opposite side of the body is a. distal. b. proximal. c. ipsilateral. d. contralateral. ANS: D 63. Which of the following terms is plural? a. Calculi
b. Labium c. Vertebra d. Bronchus ANS: A 64. Study of the bones of the body is known as: a. physiology. b. radiology. c. osteology. d. orthopedics. ANS: C 65. Which of the following planes divides the body into superior or inferior portions? a. Horizontal b. Oblique c. Midsagittal d. Midcoronal ANS: A 66. Which plane specifically divides the body into equal right and left halves? a. Axial b. Transverse c. Midcoronal d. Midsagittal ANS: D 67. The plane that divides the body into equal posterior and anterior halves is termed: a. horizontal. b. longitudinal. c. midcoronal. d. midsagittal. ANS: C 68. The upper, center region on this illustration is termed the:
a. b. c. d.
umbilical. epigastrium. hypogastrium. hypochondrium.
ANS: B 69. The vertebra prominens is located at the level of the: a. L2-L3. b. L4-L5. c. C3-C4. d. C7-T1. ANS: D 70. The jugular notch is located at the level of: a. T2-T3. b. T4-T5. c. L2-L3. d. L4-L5. ANS: A 71. For which type of body habitus will the lungs be very short and wide? a. Sthenic b. Asthenic c. Hypersthenic d. Hyposthenic ANS: C 72. For which type of body habitus will the stomach be the lowest? a. Sthenic b. Asthenic c. Hypersthenic d. Hyposthenic
ANS: B 73. For which type of body habitus will the diaphragm be very high? a. Sthenic b. Asthenic c. Hyposthenic d. Hypersthenic ANS: D 74. The longest lungs will be found in which type of body habitus? a. Sthenic b. Asthenic c. Hyposthenic d. Hypersthenic ANS: B 75. The lungs will be a moderate length in which body habitus? a. Sthenic b. Asthenic c. Hyposthenic d. Hypersthenic ANS: A 76. The stomach is positioned the highest in which type of body habitus? a. Sthenic b. Asthenic c. Hyposthenic d. Hypersthenic ANS: D 77. Which type of body habitus is shown in this illustration?
a. b. c. d.
Sthenic Asthenic Hyposthenic Hypersthenic
ANS: B
78. The appendicular skeleton allows the body to move in various positions. How many bones
does it contain? a. 14 b. 80 c. 126 d. 206 ANS: C 79. Bones provide which of the following?
1. Protection of internal organs 2. Production of red and white blood cells 3. Attachment for the skin and fat layers a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A 80. The red marrow within bones produces
cells.
1. adipose 2. red blood 3. white blood a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: C 81. What is the name of the tough, fibrous tissue that covers all bony surfaces? a. Endosteum b. Periosteum c. Compact bone d. Spongy bone ANS: B 82. The tissue lining the medullary cavity of bones is called the: a. endosteum. b. periosteum. c. trabeculae. d. compact bone. ANS: A 83. The part of the bone where muscles, tendons, or ligaments are attached is called: a. a foramina. b. the meatus. c. the fossa.
d. a tuberosity. ANS: D 84. Near the center of all long bones is a specific opening in the periosteum called the: a. foramen. b. nutrient foramen. c. medullary cavity. d. epiphyseal plate. ANS: B 85. The area of the bone indicated by the line on this figure is the:
a. b. c. d.
periosteum. endosteum. compact bone. epiphyseal line.
ANS: D 86. The area of the bone indicated by the arrow on this figure is the:
a. b. c. d.
spongy bone. compact bone. medullary cavity. medullary cavity.
ANS: C 87. The piece of cartilage that separates the end of a developing long bone from the central shaft
is called the: a. diaphysis.
b. epiphysis. c. epiphyseal line. d. epiphyseal plate. ANS: D 88. Near the age of 21, full ossification occurs between the ends and the central shaft of long
bones. The moderately visible area where the bones join is called the: a. epiphyseal line. b. epiphyseal plate. c. primary center of ossification. d. secondary center of ossification. ANS: A 89. What is the classification of the bone shown in this illustration?
a. b. c. d.
Long Short Irregular Sesamoid
ANS: C 90. The study of joints or articulations is known as: a. arthrology. b. osteology. c. radiology. d. radiography. ANS: A 91. How many specific types of joints are contained within the structural classification of joints? a. 3 b. 4 c. 6 d. 11 ANS: D 92. The syndesmosis, suture, and gomphosis joints belong to which structural joint group? a. Hinge joints b. Fibrous joints c. Synovial joints
d. Cartilaginous joints ANS: B 93. Which structural joint group contains joints that are all freely movable? a. Hinge joints b. Fibrous joints c. Synovial joints d. Cartilaginous joints ANS: C 94. Which specific type of joint permits only flexion and extension? a. Hinge joints b. Gliding joints c. Pivot joints d. Saddle joints ANS: A 95. The small, rounded, elevated process on a bone is called a(n): a. malleolus. b. tubercle. c. epicondyle. d. protuberance. ANS: B
UiRthSinIaNbGoTneBi.s CcaOllMed a: 96. A tubelike passageway runningNw a. fossa. b. groove. c. meatus. d. foramen. ANS: C 97. Which of the following terms refers to the covering of an organ? a. External b. Internal c. Visceral d. Parietal ANS: C 98. Which of the following terms refers to the back part of a body or organ? a. Ventral b. Dorsal c. Distal d. Proximal ANS: B 99. Reference toward the head of the body is termed:
a. b. c. d.
external. proximal. caudad. cephalad.
ANS: D 100. The term that refers to parts farthest from the point of attachment, point of reference, or away
from the center of the body is: a. distal. b. proximal. c. caudad. d. cephalad. ANS: A 101. A serious fracture in which the broken bone or bones project through the skin is called a(n) a. b. c. d.
fracture. open closed displaced nondisplaced
ANS: A 102. A serious fracture in which the bones are not in anatomic alignment is called: a. impacted. b. compression. c. displaced. d. nondisplaced. ANS: C 103. When a fractured bone retains its normal alignment, it is called: a. greenstick. b. compound. c. displaced. d. nondisplaced. ANS: D 104. When a fractured bone is shattered into many pieces, it is called: a. spiral. b. transverse. c. compression. d. comminuted. ANS: D 105. The body position in this illustration is:
a. b. c. d.
prone. Fowler. Trendelenburg. anteroposterior.
ANS: B 106. The projection shown in this illustration is:
a. b. c. d.
AP. PA. AP axial. PA axial.
ANS: B 107. Movement or positioning of the hand toward the radius or ulna is termed: a. abduction. b. eversion. c. supination. d. deviation. ANS: D 108. Tipping or slanting a body part slightly is termed:
a. b. c. d.
extension. eversion. tilting. oblique.
ANS: C 109. The plane indicated by the arrow in this figure is the:
a. b. c. d.
sagittal. coronal. oblique. horizontal.
ANS: A 110. The plane indicated by the arroN wUiR nS thI isNfG igT urBe . isCthOeM:
a. b. c. d.
sagittal. coronal. oblique. horizontal.
ANS: C 111. The body plane indicated by the arrow in this figure is the:
a. b. c. d.
midcoronal. midsagittal. horizontal. transverse.
ANS: B 112. The body plane indicated by the arrow in this figure is the:
a. b. c. d.
sagittal. coronal. midsagittal. midcoronal.
ANS: D 113. When the hand is turned toward the radial side, it is termed: a. radial deviation. b. ulnar deviation. c. abduction. d. adduction. ANS: A 114. When the hand is turned toward the ulnar side, it is termed:
a. b. c. d.
adduction. abduction. ulnar deviation. radial deviation.
ANS: C 115. The largest sesamoid bone in the body is the: a. atlas. b. axis. c. patella. d. flabella. ANS: C 116. The portion of the abdominal cavity labeled as D in this figure is the
a. b. c. d.
quadrant.
right upper left upper right lower left lower
ANS: D 117. The portion of the abdominal cavity labeled as B in this figure is the
a. b. c. d.
quadrant.
right upper left upper right lower left lower
ANS: A 118. The portion of the abdominal cavity labeled as C in this figure is the
quadrant.
a. b. c. d.
right upper left upper right lower left lower
ANS: B 119. In which quadrant of the abdomen is the appendix usually located? a. RUQ b. RLQ c. LUQ d. LLQ ANS: B 120. The vertebrae located at approximately the same level as the xiphoid process are: a. C7-T1. b. T1-T2. c. T9-T10. d. L2-L3. ANS: C 121. Which structure can be palpated by an imaging professional palpate to locate the level of the
pubic symphysis? a. Coccyx b. ASIS c. Iliac crest d. Greater trochanter ANS: D 122. Which bone classification is defined as those that develop in or near tendons? a. Sesamoid b. Irregular c. Short d. Flat ANS: A
MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. Which two of the following lie in the pelvic cavity? (Select all that apply.) a. Kidneys b. Rectum c. Urinary bladder d. Pancreas ANS: B, C 2. Which two terms are used to describe x-ray “projections”? (Select all that apply.) a. AP b. PA axial c. Supine d. RPO ANS: A, B
Chapter 03: Thoracic Viscera: Chest and Upper Airway Long: Merrill’s Atlas of Radiographic Positioning and Procedures, 14th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. All are part of the respiratory system, except: a. lungs. b. trachea. c. pharynx. d. esophagus. ANS: D 2. The area between the two lungs is termed the: a. carina. b. thorax. c. mediastinum. d. pleural space. ANS: C 3. The respiratory system proper consists of the:
1. larynx. 2. trachea and bronchi. 3. both lungs. a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D 4. Where does the trachea lie in relation to the esophagus? a. Posterior b. Anterior c. To the left d. To the right ANS: B 5. What is the name of the hooklike process on the last tracheal cartilage? a. Carina b. Larynx c. Alveolus d. Bronchiole ANS: A 6. After entering the hilum, each primary bronchus divides. How many primary branches are in
the right lung? a. Two
b. Three c. Four d. Five ANS: B 7. The lungs are composed of a light, spongy, elastic substance called the: a. pleura. b. bronchioles. c. parenchyma. d. serous membrane. ANS: C 8. The part of the lung that extends above the clavicle is termed the: a. apex. b. base. c. hilum. d. lingula. ANS: A 9. The right lung is about how much shorter than the left? a. 1 centimeter b. 1 inch c. 2 centimeters d. 2 inches ANS: B 10. What is the name of the double-walled serous membrane sac that encloses the lung? a. Lingula b. Pleura c. Pleural cavity d. Costodiaphragmatic recess ANS: B 11. What is the name of the tongue-shaped process on the anterior-medial border of the left lung? a. Apex b. Base c. Hilum d. Lingula ANS: D 12. The area identified in this figure is the:
a. b. c. d.
hilum. lingula. mediastinum. pulmonary veins.
ANS: A 13. What structure is in the mediastinum? a. Larynx b. Lungs c. Thymus d. Diaphragm ANS: C 14. Where does the esophagus lie in relation to the trachea? a. To the right b. To the left c. In front of the trachea d. Behind the trachea ANS: D 15. Which of the following best describes the position of the thymus gland? a. In the inferior mediastinum b. In the anterior neck c. Behind the heart d. Behind the manubrium ANS: D 16. What is the most optimal position of the patient for examinations of the heart and lungs? a. Prone
b. Supine c. Upright d. Decubitus ANS: C 17. Why is the upright left lateral position the most commonly used for lateral radiographs of the
chest? a. Less chance of body rotation b. Patient’s heart is closer to the image receptor c. There is greater magnification of the heart d. Easier to visualize interlobar fissures ANS: B 18. The presence of gas or air in the pleural cavity is termed: a. pneumonias. b. pneumothorax. c. pneumomediastinum. d. pneumopericardium. ANS: B 19. Which of the following exposure techniques is required to penetrate all of the thoracic
anatomy? a. Low kVp b. High kVp c. Short exposure time d. Long exposure time ANS: B 20. How far above the shoulders should the IR be positioned for PA and lateral chest radiographs? a. 1 to 2 centimeters b. 2 to 3 inches c. 2.5 to 3.5 inches d. 1.5 to 2 inches ANS: D 21. Where are the hands placed for a PA projection of the chest? a. Back of the hands on the hips b. Palms of the hands on the hips c. Backs of the hands on the lateral thighs d. Palms of the hands on the lateral thighs ANS: A 22. What is the central-ray angle for a PA projection of the chest? a. 5 degrees caudad b. 5 degrees cephalad c. 5 to 7 degrees caudad d. Perpendicular
ANS: D 23. What is the optimal respiration phase for a PA or lateral chest radiograph? a. First breath, full inspiration b. First breath, full expiration c. Second breath, full inspiration d. Second breath, full expiration ANS: C 24. How many ribs should be visible above the diaphragm on a PA chest radiograph? a. 9 b. 10 c. 11 d. 12 ANS: B 25. Which plane must be accurately parallel with the IR to prevent distortion of the thoracic
structures during a lateral chest radiograph? a. Coronal plane b. Horizontal plane c. Transverse plane d. Midsagittal plane ANS: D 26. How many degrees of body rotN atU ioRnSaI reNreGqTuB ire.dCfO orMroutine AP or PA oblique chest
radiography? a. 30 b. 45 c. 60 d. 35 ANS: B 27. Where should the top of the IR be positioned for a PA oblique projection of the lungs? a. 2 inches above the clavicles b. 1 to 2 inches above the relaxed shoulders c. 1 to 2 inches above the vertebral prominens d. 3 to 4 inches above the vertebral prominens ANS: C 28. What is the degree of body rotation for the PA oblique, LAO position of the chest during a
cardiac series? a. 45 to 50 degrees b. 60 to 65 degrees c. 55 to 60 degrees d. 65 to 70 degrees ANS: C
29. What is the central-ray angulation for an AP or PA oblique projection of the chest? a. 0 degrees b. 10 degrees caudad c. 15 to 20 degrees caudad for PA d. 15 to 20 degrees cephalad for AP ANS: A 30. When the patient is properly positioned for a PA oblique projection of the chest, the central
ray will enter the body: a. at the thoracic spine. b. 2 inches anterior to the spine. c. 2 inches posterior to the spine. d. midway between the lateral surface of the elevated side and the spine. ANS: D 31. For AP oblique projections of the chest, the side of interest is generally the side a. closer to b. farther from
the IR.
ANS: A 32. For PA oblique projections of the chest, the side of interest is generally the side a. closer to b. farther from
the IR.
ANS: B 33. The AP oblique projection, RPO position of the chest essentially produces the same image as
the a. b. c. d.
. AP oblique projection, LPO position PA oblique projection RAO position PA, oblique projection LAO position AP axial projection, lordotic position
ANS: C 34. Which of the following is a recommended SID for a supine AP chest radiograph? a. 40 inches b. 48 inches c. 72 inches d. 120 inches ANS: C 35. The Lindblom method is used to demonstrate the: a. posterior ribs. b. upper anterior ribs. c. heart and great vessels. d. pulmonary apices.
ANS: D 36. What is the central-ray angle for the Lindblom method (lordotic position) of demonstrating
the pulmonary apices? a. 0 degrees b. 10 degrees cephalad c. 15 degrees cephalad d. 15 to 20 degrees cephalad ANS: A 37. How far should the patient stand in front of the grid device before leaning backward for the
lordotic position? a. foot b. 1 foot c. 1 feet d. 2 feet ANS: B 38. What is the respiration phase for the AP axial projection of the pulmonary apices? a. Inspiration b. Expiration c. Suspended expiration d. Slow, shallow breathing ANS: A 39. If the patient cannot be placed in the lordotic position for radiography of the pulmonary
apices, what is the central-ray angle that can be used to project the clavicles above the apices? a. 5 to 10 degrees caudad b. 5 to 10 degrees cephalad c. 15 to 20 degrees caudad d. 15 to 20 degrees cephalad ANS: D 40. How is the central ray positioned for an x-ray projection done with the patient placed in a
decubitus position? a. Vertical b. Horizontal c. Transverse d. Longitudinal ANS: B 41. How long should the patient remain in position before making the exposure when performing
a projection in the lateral or dorsal decubitus position? a. 1 minute b. 2 minutes c. 5 minutes d. 10 minutes
ANS: C 42. If the lateral decubitus position is used to demonstrate fluid in the pleural cavity, on which
side must the patient lie? a. Affected side b. Unaffected side c. The patient’s left side d. The patient’s right side ANS: A 43. If the lateral decubitus position is used to demonstrate free air in the pleural cavity, on which
side must the patient lie? a. Affected side b. Unaffected side c. The patient’s left side d. The patient’s right side ANS: B 44. All are radiographic projections performed using the decubitus positions, except: a. AP. b. lateral. c. PA. d. oblique. ANS: D 45. What is the patient position for a lateral projection done in the dorsal decubitus position? a. Seated b. Standing c. Prone d. Supine ANS: D 46. Which side of the patient’s chest is placed against the vertical IR for a ventral or dorsal
decubitus lateral projection? a. Affected side b. Unaffected side c. The patient’s left side d. The patient’s right side ANS: A 47. What is the respiration phase for AP or lateral projections performed in the decubitus
position? a. Suspended respiration b. Full inspiration c. Full expiration d. Slow, shallow breathing
ANS: B 48. Which of the following must be clearly demonstrated on x-ray projections done using a
decubitus position? 1. Entire lung fields 2. Patient’s arms not visible in the image 3. Identification to indicate which decubitus a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D 49. The thoracic cavity contains all of the following, except: a. larynx. b. heart. c. thymus gland. d. inferior esophagus. ANS: A 50. The thoracic cavity is enclosed with a shiny, slippery lining called the: a. carina. b. mediastinum. c. diaphragm. d. serous membrane. ANS: D 51. Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged by diffusion within the: a. alveoli. b. alveolar duct. c. bronchioles. d. terminal bronchioles. ANS: A 52. The costophrenic angle is a part of the: a. heart. b. lungs. c. diaphragm. d. trachea. ANS: B 53. The smallest subdivision of the bronchial tree is the a. terminal b. tertiary c. secondary d. primary ANS: A
bronchial.
54. The space between the two pleural walls is called the: a. lingula. b. mediastinum. c. pleural cavity. d. parenchyma. ANS: C 55. Each lung is divided into specific segments called: a. lobes. b. fissures. c. pleura. d. bronchopulmonary segments. ANS: A 56. What is the recommended SID for a PA chest radiograph? a. 40 inches b. 48 inches c. 72 inches d. 120 inches ANS: C 57. Which of the following should be clearly demonstrated on an AP or PA oblique projection of
the lungs? 1. Both lungs in their entirety 2. R and L primary bronchi 3. The trachea filled with air a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: B 58. Where should the top of the IR be positioned for an AP oblique projection of the lungs? a. 1 inches above the relaxed shoulders b. 1 inches above the jugular notch c. 1 to 2 inches above the vertebral prominens or 2 inches above the jugular notch d. 1 to 2 inches above the vertebral prominens or 5 inches above the jugular notch ANS: D 59. Where should the top of the IR be positioned for a supine AP chest radiograph? a. At the level of the shoulders b. At the level of the clavicles c. 1 inch above the relaxed shoulders d. 1 to 2 inches above the relaxed shoulders ANS: D
60. How far above the top of the shoulders should the IR be positioned for any decubitus position
of the chest? a. At the level of the shoulders b. 1 to 2 inches above the shoulders c. 2 to 3 inches above the shoulders d. 3 to 4 inches above the shoulders ANS: B 61. Inflammation of the bronchi would be termed: a. branchioma. b. bronchitis. c. bronchotomy. d. bronchiectasis. ANS: B 62. A chronic condition with persistent obstruction of the bronchial airflow is termed: a. bronchitis. b. bronchotomy. c. bronchiectasis. d. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). ANS: D 63. Fluid that collects in the pleural cavity is termed: a. pneumonia. b. pneumoconiosis. c. pleural effusion. d. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). ANS: C 64. When fluid replaces air in the lung interstitium and alveoli, the patient is said to have: a. pulmonary edema. b. pneumonia. c. pleural effusion. d. pneumothorax. ANS: A 65. The aspiration of a foreign particle in the lung is termed: a. pneumonia. b. bronchitis. c. viral pneumonia. d. aspiration pneumonia. ANS: D 66. Which positioning maneuver moves the scapulae out of the lateral aspects of the lungs? a. Placing the backs of the hands low on the hips b. Rolling the shoulders forward
c. Depressing the shoulders to lie in the same transverse plane d. Placing the patient in an upright position ANS: B 67. What anatomy is labeled as letter A in the image below?
a. b. c. d.
Apex of right lung Apex of left lung Costophrenic angle of right lung Costophrenic angle of left lung
ANS: B 68. What anatomy is labeled as letter D and outlined with white dots in the image below?
a. b. c. d.
Apex of right lung Apex of left lung Costophrenic angle of right lung Costophrenic angle of left lung
ANS: C
69. What anatomy is labeled as letter B in the image below?
a. b. c. d.
Apex of right lung Apex of left lung Aortic arch Thymus gland
ANS: C 70. What anatomy is labeled as letter C in the image below?
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a. b. c. d.
Thymus gland Heart Lingula Aortic arch
ANS: B 71. Which of the following lies in the anterior neck?
1. Thyroid gland 2. Parathyroid glands 3. Thymus gland a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A 72. The organ of voice is the: a. uvula. b. epiglottis. c. pharynx. d. larynx. ANS: D 73. The laryngeal prominence known as the Adam’s apple is the: a. epiglottis. b. cricoid cartilage. c. thyroid cartilage. d. hyoid bone. ANS: C 74. Which is the most common imaging modality for examination of the soft palate, pharynx, and
larynx? a. Computed radiography b. Computed tomography c. Magnetic resonance imaging d. Nuclear medicine ANS: B 75. Which of the following serves as a passage for both food and air? a. Pharynx b. Larynx c. Trachea d. Bronchus ANS: A 76. The roof of the posterior wall of the nasopharynx contains a mass of lymphoid tissue known
as the: a. thymus gland. b. thyroid gland. c. pharyngeal tonsil. d. epiglottis. ANS: C 77. The anatomy identified on the lateral neck above is the:
a. b. c. d.
oropharynx. nasopharynx. soft palate. epiglottis.
ANS: B 78. The anatomy identified on the lateral neck below is the:
a. b. c. d.
oropharynx. esophagus. larynx. trachea.
ANS: D 79. For the AP projection of the pharynx and larynx, the central ray should be directed
perpendicular to the: a. thyroid cartilage. b. laryngeal prominence. c. cricoid cartilage. d. jugular notch. ANS: B
80. All of the following are techniques used during radiographic examination of the
pharyngolaryngeal structures except: a. swallowing. b. phonation. c. sneezing. d. breathing. ANS: C MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. Which two of the following are a part of the mediastinum? (Select all that apply.) a. Lungs b. Heart c. Esophagus d. Diaphragm ANS: B, C 2. Which two of the following will be observed on a supine AP chest radiograph? (Select all that
apply.) a. All 12 ribs are seen. b. Lung fields appear shorter. c. Lung fields appear longer. d. Clavicles projected higher. ANS: B, D 3. Which two of the following are required to produce a radiograph using a decubitus position?
(Select all that apply.) a. Horizontal x-ray beam b. Vertical x-ray beam c. Patient in recumbent position d. Patient in the upright position ANS: A, C 4. Which two of the following radiographs are usually taken on a patient who is suspected of
having a small amount of free air in the pleural cavity? a. Right lateral decubitus b. Left lateral decubitus c. AP, full inspiration d. AP, full expiration ANS: C, D 5. Which two of the following are advantages of using an SID of 72 inches for chest
radiography? a. Decreased magnification of the heart b. Increased spatial resolution of delicate lung structures c. Increased ability to position patient accurately d. Greater penetration of the mediastinum
ANS: A, B
Chapter 04: Abdomen Long: Merrill’s Atlas of Radiographic Positioning and Procedures, 14th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The serous membrane that lines the abdominopelvic walls is called the: a. peritoneum. b. mesentery. c. omentum. d. peritoneal cavity. ANS: A 2. The pathologic accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity is termed: a. obstruction. b. ascites. c. aortic aneurysm. d. ileus. ANS: B 3. A properly exposed abdominal image will exhibit all of the following, except the: a. psoas muscles. b. transverse processes of the lumbar vertebrae. c. lower border of the liver. d. pancreas. ANS: D 4. Which of the following are prime considerations in producing an optimal image of the
abdomen? 1. Apply compression. 2. Explain the breathing procedure to the patient. 3. Do not start the exposure for 1 to 2 seconds after suspension of respiration. a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: C 5. The most commonly performed abdominal examination is referred to as a(n): a. KUB. b. EXU. c. IVP. d. IVC. ANS: A 6. If a patient is unable to stand for an upright AP abdominal image, which position should be
used?
a. b. c. d.
Ventral decubitus Dorsal decubitus Left lateral decubitus Tight lateral decubitus
ANS: C 7. Where is the center of the IR positioned for an AP abdominal image performed with the
patient in the supine position? a. L3 b. Lower rib margin c. At the umbilicus d. Iliac crests ANS: D 8. Where is the center of the IR positioned for an AP abdominal image performed with the
patient in the upright position? a. L3 b. Lower rib margin c. Iliac crests d. 2 inches above the iliac crests ANS: D 9. What is the respiration phase for an AP abdominal image obtained with the patient in the
supine position? a. Inspiration b. Expiration c. Suspended respiration d. Slow, deep breathing ANS: B 10. The central-ray angulation for an AP abdominal image is: a. 0 degrees. b. 5 degrees caudad. c. 5 degrees cephalad. d. 7 degrees cephalad. ANS: A 11. Where is the center of the IR positioned for an upright PA abdominal image? a. L3 b. At the lower rib margin c. At the iliac crests d. 2 inches above the iliac crests ANS: D 12. What is the respiration phase for an AP or PA abdominal image obtained with the patient in
the upright position? a. Inspiration
b. Expiration c. Suspended respiration d. Shallow breathing ANS: B 13. Where is the center of the IR positioned for an AP abdominal image obtained in the left lateral
decubitus position? a. L3 b. Xiphoid c. 2 inches above the iliac crests d. Iliac crests ANS: C 14. What is the respiration phase for an AP abdominal image obtained with the patient in the left
lateral decubitus position? a. Suspended b. Inspiration c. Expiration d. Variable, depending on the patient status ANS: C 15. One of the primary reasons a left lateral decubitus abdominal image is performed is to
demonstrate: a. foreign bodies. b. the location of tumor masseNsU . RSINGTB.COM c. intestinal gas. d. air-fluid levels. ANS: D 16. Demonstrating small amounts of intraperitoneal gas in patients with an acute abdomen is often
necessary. How long should the patient lie in the left lateral position before the exposure is made? a. 10 to 20 minutes b. 30 to 45 minutes c. Variable, depending on the body habitus d. Variable, depending on the patient’s condition ANS: A 17. Which of the following is placed perpendicular to the long axis of the grid for a lateral
projection of the abdomen? a. Transverse plane b. Horizontal plane c. Midcoronal plane d. Midsagittal plane ANS: C
18. Where is the center of the IR positioned for a lateral projection of the abdomen performed
with the patient in the dorsal decubitus position? a. L3 b. At the iliac crests c. 2 inches above the iliac crests d. 2 inches below the iliac crests ANS: C 19. Which of the following are clearly shown on a lateral abdomen projection performed with the
patient in the dorsal decubitus position? 1. Prevertebral space 2. Air-fluid levels 3. Urinary bladder a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A 20. All of the following organs lie in the abdominal cavity, except: a. urinary bladder. b. gallbladder. c. kidneys. d. stomach. ANS: A 21. The outer portion of the sac that lines the abdominopelvic cavity is termed the: a. parietal peritoneum. b. visceral peritoneum. c. parietal pleura. d. visceral pleura. ANS: A 22. The inner portion of the sac that covers the abdominal organs is termed the: a. parietal peritoneum. b. visceral peritoneum. c. parietal pleura. d. visceral pleura. ANS: B 23. The folds of peritoneum that support the abdominal organs are called the:
1. omenta. 2. mesentery. 3. pleura. a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3
d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A 24. The space between the two layers of peritoneum is called the: a. pleural cavity. b. peritoneal cavity. c. diaphragm. d. abdominopelvic cavity. ANS: B 25. What is the cavity posterior to the peritoneum? a. Parietal peritoneum b. Peritoneal cavity c. Retroperitoneum d. Retrogastrium ANS: C 26. Which structures are outlined with dots in this AP image of the abdomen?
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a. b. c. d.
Stomach Liver Kidneys Psoas muscles
ANS: C 27. All of the following are used to evaluate rotation on a KUB image, except: a. lumbar spinous processes in the center of the vertebral body. b. alae of the ilia are symmetric. c. ischial spines, if visible, are symmetric. d. superimposed posterior ribs. ANS: D 28. A three-way abdominal series may be ordered to rule out all of the following except: a. infection. b. tumor mass.
c. bowel obstruction. d. free air. ANS: B MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. For which two of the following projections of the abdomen is the x-ray beam placed in the
horizontal position? (Select all that apply.) a. PA, upright b. AP, supine c. AP, lateral decubitus d. AP oblique, LPO ANS: A, C 2. Which two of the following organs lie in the pelvic cavity? (Select all that apply.) a. Kidneys b. Liver c. Urinary bladder d. Rectum ANS: C, D
Chapter 05: Upper Extremity Long: Merrill’s Atlas of Radiographic Positioning and Procedures, 14th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The hand consists of how many bones? a. 8 b. 14 c. 27 d. 32 ANS: C 2. How many phalanges are there in the hand? a. 14 b. 27 c. 30 d. 32 ANS: A 3. The thumb is also known as the: a. lateral digit. b. first digit. c. medial digit. d. fifth digit. ANS: B 4. The palm of the hand is formed by: a. five carpals. b. five metacarpals. c. eight carpals. d. eight metacarpals. ANS: B 5. Which of the following bones make up the wrist? a. Five carpals b. Five metacarpals c. Eight carpals d. Eight metacarpals ANS: C 6. The first bone located on the proximal row and lateral side of the wrist is called the: a. trapezoid. b. trapezium. c. lunate. d. scaphoid. ANS: D
7. Which of the following is the largest carpal bone? a. Capitate b. Hamate c. Scaphoid d. Triquetrum ANS: A 8. The third metacarpal of the hand articulates with the: a. lunate. b. scaphoid. c. hamate. d. capitate. ANS: D 9. The bone part shown in this figure is the:
a. b. c. d.
distal ulna. proximal ulna. distal radius. proximal radius.
ANS: B 10. The bone part labeled with the arrow in this figure is the:
a. b. c. d.
radial notch. trochlear notch. coronoid process. olecranon process.
ANS: C 11. The area on the bone labeled with the arrow is this figure is the:
a. b. c. d.
radial notch. trochlear notch. coronoid process. olecranon process.
ANS: B
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12. What is the bone in the upper arm? a. Radius b. Ulna c. Humerus d. Capitulum ANS: C 13. What bone is shown in this figure?
a. b. c. d.
Radius Tibia Ulna Humerus
ANS: D 14. How many phalanges are there in the thumb? a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four ANS: B 15. The carpal bones articulate with the: a. radius only. b. ulna only. c. phalanges only. d. radius, ulna, and phalanges. ANS: A 16. Which of the following passes through the carpal canal? a. Radial vein b. Radial nerve c. Median vein d. Median nerve ANS: D 17. The head of the radius articulates on the medial side with the: a. coronoid process.
b. trochlear notch. c. ulnar styloid process. d. radial notch. ANS: D 18. The capitulum of the humerus articulates with the: a. radial head. b. trochlea. c. lateral epicondyle. d. ulnar coronoid process. ANS: A 19. Soft tissue radiographs of the elbow in the lateral position are often ordered to demonstrate: a. veins. b. nerves. c. fat pads. d. fractures. ANS: C 20. The bone indicated by the arrow in this figure is the:
a. b. c. d.
ulna. radius. tibia. humerus.
ANS: A 21. The bone identified by the arrow in this figure is the:
a. b. c. d.
ulna. radius. fibula. humerus.
ANS: B 22. What anatomy is indicated by the arrow in this figure?
a. b. c. d.
Trochlea Capitulum Radial head Olecranon process
ANS: C 23. The bone part identified by the arrow in this figure is the:
a. trochlea.
b. capitulum. c. radial head. d. olecranon process. ANS: D 24. The bone or bone part identified by the arrow in this figure is the:
a. b. c. d.
ulna. radius. humerus. olecranon process.
ANS: A 25. The general patient position most commonly used to perform a radiograph of a finger (digit)
is: a. b. c. d.
AP. PA. sitting at the end of the table. standing at the end of the table.
ANS: C 26. For a PA projection of the second digit, the central ray is directed to the: a. distal interphalangeal joint. b. proximal interphalangeal joint. c. metacarpophalangeal joint. d. carpometacarpal joint. ANS: B 27. For a lateral projection of the second through fifth digits, the central ray is directed: a. 0 degrees. b. 5 degrees caudad. c. 5 degrees cephalad. d. 2 to 5 degrees cephalad. ANS: A 28. The most common oblique projection of the second through fifth digits is
rotation.
with
a. b. c. d.
AP; medial AP; lateral PA; medial PA; lateral
ANS: D 29. How many degrees is the hand rotated for a PA oblique projection of the digit? a. 25 b. 40 c. 45 d. 35 ANS: C 30. Which of the following objects would be needed to perform a PA oblique projection of a
finger? 1. 2-inch block 2. Lead shield 3. 45-degree foam wedge a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: C 31. For a PA oblique projection ofN thUeRfiS rsIt N diG giT tB (th.uCmObM ), the hand is positioned in: a. supination. b. pronation. c. medial rotation. d. lateral rotation. ANS: B 32. For the AP projection of the thumb, Lewis suggests angling the central ray toward the wrist to
demonstrate the first metacarpal free of the sesamoids and of the soft tissue of the palm. What is the suggested central-ray angle? a. 10 degrees b. 15 degrees c. 5 to 10 degrees d. 10 to 15 degrees ANS: D 33. The central-ray angulation for the PA projection of the hand is a. 0 b. 5 c. 7 d. 3 ANS: A
degrees.
34. For a PA projection of the hand, the central ray is directed to enter the: a. second MCP joint. b. third MCP joint. c. head of the third metacarpal. d. head of the second metacarpal. ANS: B 35. All of the following positions are used to demonstrate the hand in the lateral projection,
except: a. ulnar surface on IR, hand extended. b. radial surface on IR, hand extended. c. ulnar surface on IR, digits in “fan lateral.” d. radial surface on IR, digits in “fan lateral.” ANS: D 36. For a lateral projection of the hand, the central ray is directed to enter the: a. second digit MCP joint. b. PIP joint. c. distal PIP joint. d. midmetacarpal area. ANS: A 37. Flexing the fingers for a PA projection of the wrist causes which of the following? a. Placement of the carpal bones farther from the IR b. Placement of the carpal bonNeU sR clS osIerNtG o TthBe.IR COM c. Less pain for the patient when the wrist is broken d. Greater resolution of the carpal interspaces ANS: B 38. The central ray for a PA projection of the wrist is directed to enter the: a. radiocarpal joint. b. scaphoid. c. midcarpal area. d. third CMC joint. ANS: C 39. Which of the following should be in contact with the tabletop for a PA projection of the wrist?
1. Arm 2. Axilla 3. Forearm a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D
40. Which of the following projections would be used to better demonstrate the carpal
interspaces? a. AP b. PA c. Lateral d. PA oblique with lateral rotation ANS: A 41. Which of the following central-ray angles is used for the lateral projection of the wrist? a. 0 degrees b. 5 degrees c. 7 degrees d. 0 to 5 degrees ANS: A 42. How many degrees is the elbow flexed for a lateral projection of the wrist? a. 0 b. 25 c. 45 d. 90 ANS: D 43. Which of the following is the primary projection used to demonstrate anterior or posterior
displacement of fractures of the hand or wrist? a. AP b. PA c. Lateral d. AP oblique ANS: C 44. How much wrist rotation is required for the PA oblique projection, lateral rotation position of
the wrist? a. 25 b. 30 c. 40 d. 45 ANS: D 45. For exact positioning of the PA oblique wrist, and to ensure duplication in follow-up
examinations, which of the following is required? a. 30-degree foam wedge b. 45-degree foam wedge c. 2-inch block d. 3-inch block ANS: B 46. How many degrees is the central-ray angled for a PA oblique projection of the wrist?
a. b. c. d.
0 5 12 0 to 5
ANS: A 47. The PA projection of the wrist in ulnar deviation clearly demonstrates the: a. trapezium. b. trapezoid. c. hamate. d. scaphoid. ANS: D 48. Which of the following projections corrects foreshortening of the scaphoid? a. PA b. PA oblique in lateral rotation c. PA in radial deviation d. PA in ulnar deviation ANS: D 49. For the PA projection of the wrist in ulnar deviation, how many degrees is the central ray
angled? a. 0 b. 5 c. 7 d. 5 to 7 ANS: A 50. For the PA projection of the wrist in ulnar deviation, the central ray is directed to the: a. pisiform. b. scaphoid. c. radiocarpal joint. d. midcarpal area. ANS: B 51. The PA axial projection of the wrist (Stecher method) clearly demonstrates the: a. lunate. b. capitate. c. scaphoid. d. distal row of carpal bones. ANS: C 52. The IR must be elevated how many degrees for the PA axial projection of the wrist (Stecher
method)? a. 5 degrees b. 10 degrees c. 15 degrees
d. 20 degrees ANS: D 53. If the IR and wrist are placed flat on the table for the PA axial projection of the wrist (Stecher
method), what central ray orientation is required? a. 10 degrees toward the elbow b. 10 degrees toward the hand c. 20 degrees toward the elbow d. 20 degrees toward the hand ANS: C 54. If the IR and wrist are elevated for the PA axial projection of the wrist (Stecher method), the
central ray orientation is: a. perpendicular to the IR. b. 20 degrees toward the elbow. c. 20 degrees toward the hand. d. variable according to the degree of IR/part elevation. ANS: A 55. Which of the following methods is used to demonstrate the carpal canal? a. Stecher (PA axial) b. Norgaard (AP oblique) c. Lawrence (inferosuperior axial) d. Gaynor-Hart (tangential) ANS: D 56. Which of the following tangential projections is used to demonstrate the carpal canal?
1. Axial 2. Inferosuperior 3. Superoinferior a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: C 57. The central-ray angulation for the tangential projection (inferosuperior) of demonstrating the
carpal canal is a. 15 b. 20 c. 25 to 30 d. 35 to 45
degrees.
ANS: C 58. For the AP projection of the forearm, the hand is: a. supinated. b. pronated.
c. placed in the lateral position. d. placed in a 45-degree oblique position. ANS: A 59. How many degrees is the central ray angled for the AP forearm? a. 0 b. 5 c. 7 d. 3 ANS: A 60. Which of the following joints should be clearly demonstrated on the AP projection of the
forearm? 1. Wrist 2. Elbow 3. Proximal humerus a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A 61. For the lateral projection of the forearm, the elbow should be flexed: a. 45 degrees. b. 80 degrees. c. 90 degrees. d. 120 degrees. ANS: C 62. The lateral projection of the forearm should clearly demonstrate all of the following, except: a. radius and ulna. b. MCP joints. c. elbow joint. d. proximal row of carpal bones. ANS: B 63. For the AP projection of the elbow, the humeral epicondyles are positioned: a. perpendicular to the IR. b. parallel to the IR. c. superimposed over each other. d. not clearly seen. ANS: B 64. How many degrees is the elbow flexed for the lateral projection of the elbow? a. 0 b. 45 c. 75
d. 90 ANS: D 65. Which of the following should be on the same plane for a lateral projection of the elbow?
1. Wrist joint 2. Elbow joint 3. Shoulder joint a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D 66. What structure is shown in profile on a lateral projection of the elbow? a. Radial neck b. Radial head c. Olecranon process d. Humeral epicondyles ANS: C 67. How many degrees should the elbow be angled for an AP oblique projection in medial
rotation? a. 35 degrees b. 40 degrees c. 45 degrees d. 55 degrees ANS: C 68. What anatomy should be projected free of superimposition for an AP oblique projection of the
elbow with medial rotation? a. Lateral epicondyle b. Coronoid process c. Olecranon process d. Olecranon fossa ANS: B 69. How many degrees should the elbow be angled for an AP lateral oblique projection? a. 30 degrees b. 40 degrees c. 45 degrees d. 50 degrees ANS: C 70. What anatomy should be demonstrated free of superimposition on an AP oblique projection of
the elbow in lateral rotation? a. Capitulum b. Trochlea
c. Radial head and neck d. Olecranon process ANS: C 71. What projection of the elbow demonstrates the radial head and neck free of superimposition? a. AP oblique projection, lateral rotation b. AP oblique projection, medial rotation c. AP projection, partial flexion d. AP projection, acute flexion ANS: A 72. If a patient is unable to extend the forearm for an AP projection of the elbow, how many
projections are necessary to avoid distortion of the joint? a. Two b. Three c. Four d. Five ANS: A 73. What is the central-ray angulation for the AP elbow when the forearm is partially flexed? a. 0 degrees b. 5 degrees c. 10 degrees d. 5 to 10 degrees ANS: A 74. The position recommended to increase patient comfort when performing an AP projection of
the humerus is: a. prone. b. recumbent. c. supine. d. upright. ANS: D 75. How far above the humeral head should the upper margin of the IR be placed for an AP
humerus? a. inch b. 1 inch c. 1 inches d. 2 inches ANS: C 76. For the AP projection of the humerus, the hand is positioned: a. supinated. b. pronated. c. lateral.
d. in 30-degree medial rotation. ANS: A 77. Which of the following positions of the hand will place the epicondyles parallel with the plane
of the IR? a. Lateral b. Pronation c. Supination d. 45-degree lateral rotation ANS: C 78. Where is the central ray directed for an AP projection of the humerus? a. Elbow joint b. Shoulder joint c. Body of the humerus d. Midpoint of the humerus ANS: D 79. What anatomic structure is shown in profile on an AP projection of the humerus? a. Capitulum b. Glenoid cavity c. Greater tubercle d. Lesser tubercle ANS: C 80. Which of the following must be clearly demonstrated on an lateral projection of the humerus?
1. Elbow joint 2. Glenoid cavity 3. Shoulder joint a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: B 81. How far above the humeral head should the upper margin of the IR be placed for a lateral
projection of the humerus? a. inch b. 1 inch c. 1 inches d. 2 inches ANS: C 82. How is the upper extremity positioned for the lateral projection of the humerus? a. Laterally rotated to place humeral epicondyles at a 45-degree angle b. Medially rotated to place humeral epicondyles at a 45-degree angle
c. Laterally rotated to place the humeral epicondyles parallel with the IR d. Medially rotated to place humeral epicondyles perpendicular to the IR ANS: D 83. Which of the following breathing techniques should be used for an AP projection of the
humerus? a. Suspended respiration b. Full inspiration c. Full expiration d. Shallow breathing ANS: A 84. Which of the following breathing techniques should be used for a lateral projection of the
humerus? a. Shallow breathing b. Full inspiration c. Full expiration d. Suspended respiration ANS: D 85. What anatomic structure is shown in profile on a lateral projection of the humerus? a. Capitulum b. Glenoid cavity c. Lesser tubercle d. Greater tubercle ANS: C 86. Which of the following positions can be used to perform a lateral projection of the humerus
on a patient who has a suspected fracture? a. Supine b. Standing c. Lateral decubitus d. Lateral recumbent ANS: D 87. Where is the central ray directed for a lateral projection of the humerus? a. Elbow joint b. Shoulder joint c. Glenoid cavity d. Midpoint of the humerus ANS: D 88. Which of the following methods is used when the arm cannot be abducted for the standard AP
or lateral projection of the humerus? a. Stecher b. Lawrence c. Norgaard
d. Gaynor-Hart ANS: B 89. The shallow depression, located on the anterior surface of the distal humerus, receives which
of the following when the elbow is flexed? a. Trochlea b. Coronoid process c. Capitulum d. Radial tuberosity ANS: B 90. The head of the radius fits into a depression on the lateral aspect of the coronoid process of
the ulna. This depression is called the: a. radial fossa. b. coronoid fossa. c. radial notch. d. trochlear notch. ANS: C 91. The central area of the long cylindrical shaft of the radius, ulna, and humerus is called the: a. body. b. neck. c. styloid. d. fissure. ANS: A 92. The 10 joints of the upper limb are all:
1. hinge. 2. synovial tissue. 3. freely movable. a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: C 93. The only saddle joint in the human body is the a. radioulnar b. radiocarpal c. first digit, carpometacarpal d. fifth digit, carpometacarpal ANS: C 94. The posterior fat pad lies in the: a. coronoid fossa. b. olecranon fossa. c. radial fossa.
joint.
d. radial notch. ANS: B 95. Which fat pad lies parallel with the anterior aspect of the proximal radius? a. Anterior b. Coronoid c. Posterior d. Supinator ANS: D 96. Which fat pads are seen on a negative lateral elbow radiograph?
1. Anterior 2. Posterior 3. Supinator a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: B 97. Which fat pad is identified by the arrow in this figure?
a. b. c. d.
Anterior Posterior Coronoid Supinator
ANS: A 98. Which of the following devices is necessary to demonstrate the IP joints with a PA oblique
projection of the hand? a. Finger holder strap b. 20-degree angle block c. 45-degree foam block d. 45-degree foam wedge ANS: D 99. How many degrees is the central ray angled for both of the axiolateral projections (Coyle
method) of the elbow?
a. b. c. d.
30 35 40 45
ANS: D 100. To demonstrate the radial head in the axiolateral projection of the elbow (Coyle method), the
elbow is flexed a. 30 b. 45 c. 80 d. 90
degrees.
ANS: D 101. To demonstrate the coronoid process in the axiolateral projection of the elbow (Coyle
method), the elbow is flexed a. 45 b. 80 c. 90 d. 75
degrees.
ANS: B 102. How is the hand positioned for the axiolateral projection of the elbow (Coyle method)? a. Supinated b. Pronated c. 30-degree medial oblique d. 45-degree medial oblique ANS: C 103. The primary structures shown when demonstrating the elbow using the Coyle method is the:
1. coracoid process. 2. coronoid process. 3. radial head. a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: C 104. A fracture of the metacarpal neck is known as a _ a. Colles b. Smith c. Boxer d. Bennett
fracture.
ANS: C 105. What projection of the third digit is demonstrated in the figure above?
a. b. c. d.
PA PA oblique Mediolateral Lateromedial
ANS: A 106. What anatomy of the third digit is labeled as letter D in the figure above?
a. b. c. d.
Distal IP joint Proximal IP joint Metacarpophalangeal joint Carpometacarpal joint
ANS: B 107. What anatomy of the third digit is labeled as letter C in the figure above?
a. b. c. d.
Distal phalanx Proximal phalanx Middle phalanx Metacarpal
ANS: C 108. What anatomy of the third digit is labeled as letter E in the figure above?
a. b. c. d.
Distal phalanx Proximal phalanx Middle phalanx Metacarpal
ANS: B 109. Which projection of the first digit is demonstrated in the figure above?
a. b. c. d.
PA PA oblique Mediolateral Lateromedial
ANS: B 110. Which portion of the first digit is labeled as letter C in the figure above?
a. b. c. d.
Proximal phalanx Middle phalanx Distal phalanx Metacarpal
ANS: A 111. Which bone is labeled as letter G in the figure above?
a. b. c. d.
Scaphoid Pisiform Sesamoid Trapezium
ANS: D 112. The anatomy labeled as letter D in the figure above is the
a. b. c. d.
proximal IP distal IP metacarpophalangeal carpometacarpal
ANS: C 113. Letter E in the figure above labels the:
joint.
a. b. c. d.
pisiform. ulna. radius. scaphoid.
ANS: B 114. Letter B in the figure above labels the
phalanx of the
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a. b. c. d.
distal; first distal; second proximal; first first; second
ANS: B 115. Letter D in the figure above labels the:
digit.
a. b. c. d.
first metacarpal. proximal phalanx of the fifth digit. fifth metacarpal. proximal phalanx of the first digit.
ANS: C 116. What projection of the hand is demonstrated in the figure above?
a. b. c. d.
PA PA oblique Lateral, fan lateral position Lateral, in extension
ANS: B 117. Which anatomy is well demonstrated in this projection of the hand in the figure above?
1. Joint spaces 2. Distal phalanges 3. Middle phalanges a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D 118. The hand in the figure above was positioned:
a. b. c. d.
with the fingers flexed and resting on the IR. with the fingers extended and parallel with the IR. in radial deviation. supinated.
ANS: B 119. Which bone is labeled as letter E in the figure above?
a. b. c. d.
Capitate Scaphoid Triquetrum Lunate
ANS: D 120. The scaphoid in the figure above is labeled as letter:
a. b. c. d.
A. B. C. H.
ANS: C 121. Letter J in the figure above labels the:
a. b. c. d.
radial styloid. ulnar styloid. humeral styloid. radial head.
ANS: A 122. Which bone is labeled as letter G in the figure above?
a. b. c. d.
Pisiform Scaphoid Triquetrum Lunate
ANS: C 123. Which bone is labeled as letter B in the figure above?
a. b. c. d.
Capitate Hamate Trapezoid Trapezium
ANS: D 124. In the figure above, the hamate is labeled as letter:
a. b. c. d.
D. F. G. H.
ANS: B 125. What projection is depicted in the image below?
a. b. c. d.
AP AP oblique in medial rotation AP oblique in lateral rotation Mediolateral
ANS: A 126. What anatomy is labeled as letter A in the image below?
NURSINGTB.COM
a. b. c. d.
Lateral epicondyle of the humerus Medial epicondyle of the humerus Coronoid process of the ulna Trochlea
ANS: B 127. What anatomy is labeled as letter B in the image below?
a. b. c. d.
Lateral epicondyle of the humerus Medial epicondyle of the humerus Coronoid process of the ulna Trochlea
ANS: D 128. What anatomy is labeled as letter C in the image below?
a. b. c. d.
Lateral epicondyle of the humerus Medial epicondyle of the humerus Coronoid process of the ulna Trochlea
ANS: A 129. What anatomy is labeled as letter D in the image below?
a. b. c. d.
Lateral epicondyle of the humerus Medial epicondyle of the humerus Capitulum Trochlea
ANS: C 130. What anatomy is labeled as letter E in the image below?
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a. b. c. d.
Radial head Capitulum Coronoid process of ulna Trochlea
ANS: A 131. What projection and position is depicted in the image below?
a. b. c. d.
AP, anatomic position AP oblique, lateral rotation position AP oblique, medial rotation position Mediolateral, lateral position
ANS: B 132. Letter A in the image below labels the:
a. b. c. d.
medial epicondyle of the humerus. capitulum. radial head. trochlea.
ANS: B 133. Letter B in the image below labels the:
a. b. c. d.
medial epicondyle of the humerus. capitulum. radial head. trochlea.
ANS: C 134. Letter C in the image below labels the:
a. b. c. d.
radial tuberosity. capitulum. radial head. trochlea.
ANS: A 135. What projection and position is demonstrated in the image below?
a. b. c. d.
AP AP oblique, medial rotation AP oblique, lateral rotation AP distal humerus, partial flexion position
ANS: B 136. What anatomy is labeled as letter A in the image below?
a. b. c. d.
Capitulum Lateral epicondyle of humerus Trochlea Coronoid process of ulna
ANS: C 137. What anatomy is labeled as letter B in the image below?
a. b. c. d.
Capitulum Lateral epicondyle of humerus Trochlea Coronoid process of ulna
ANS: D 138. What anatomy is labeled as letter B in the image below?
a. b. c. d.
Greater tubercle Lesser tubercle Humeral head Glenoid
ANS: A 139. What projection and anatomy is demonstrated in the image below?
a. b. c. d.
AP forearm AP humerus Lateral forearm Lateral humerus
ANS: B 140. What anatomy is labeled as number 1 in the image below?
a. b. c. d.
First metacarpal Fifth metacarpal Proximal phalange, fifth digit Proximal phalange, first digit
ANS: B 141. What anatomy is labeled as number 2 in the image below?
a. b. c. d.
Lunate Pisiform Hamate Capitate
ANS: C 142. What anatomy is labeled as number 6 in the image below?
a. b. c. d.
Trapezoid Lunate Scaphoid Capitate
ANS: D MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. Which two bones comprise the forearm? (Select all that apply.) a. Ulna b. Fibula c. Radius d. Humerus ANS: A, C
2. Which two of the following projections clearly demonstrate the scaphoid? (Select all that
apply.) a. PA oblique in medial rotation b. PA in ulnar flexion c. PA oblique in lateral rotation d. PA axial (Stecher method) ANS: B, D 3. For the lateral projection of the elbow, the humeral epicondyles are positioned: (Select all that
apply.) a. perpendicular to the IR. b. parallel to the IR. c. superimposed on each other. d. in 45-degree medial rotation. ANS: A, C 4. Which two of the following should be demonstrated on the AP projection of the humerus?
(Select all that apply.) a. Wrist joint b. Shoulder joint c. Elbow joint d. Entire clavicle ANS: B, C 5. Which two of the following muNsU t bReScI leN arG lyTdBe. mC onOsM trated on a lateral projection of the
humerus? (Select all that apply.) a. Wrist joint b. Entire clavicle c. Shoulder joint d. Elbow joint ANS: C, D
6. What anatomy is not well demonstrated when the PA oblique hand is performed as show in
this photograph? (Select all that apply.)
a. b. c. d.
Radiocarpal articulation Distal phalanges IP joints Metacarpals
ANS: B, C 7. Which two of the following methods can be used to demonstrate the first CMC joint? (Select
all that apply.) a. Robert b. Burman c. Stecher d. Norgaard ANS: A, B
Chapter 06: Shoulder Girdle Long: Merrill’s Atlas of Radiographic Positioning and Procedures, 14th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The bones that connect the upper limb to the trunk are collectively termed the: a. upper extremity girdle. b. upper limb fixators. c. shoulder girdle. d. shoulder joint proper. ANS: C 2. The acromial extremity of the clavicle articulates with the: a. glenoid cavity. b. coracoid process. c. sternal extremity of the clavicle. d. acromion process of the scapula. ANS: D 3. The part identified on the clavicle in this figure is the:
NURSINGTB.COM a. b. c. d.
sternal extremity. acromial extremity. inferior angle. subscapular fossa.
ANS: B 4. The part identified by the arrow in this figure is the:
a. acromion. b. coracoid process.
c. glenoid cavity. d. superior border. ANS: A 5. The part identified by the arrow in this figure is the:
a. b. c. d.
superior angle. inferior angle. coracoid process. lateral border.
ANS: B 6. The bone part identified by the arrow in this figure is the:
a. b. c. d.
acromion. costal surface. coracoid process. glenoid cavity.
ANS: C 7. The bony area identified by the arrow in this figure is the:
a. b. c. d.
acromion. costal surface. coracoid process. glenoid cavity.
ANS: D 8. The area of the proximal humerus located directly below the tubercles, which is the site of
many fractures, is called the: a. anatomic neck. b. surgical neck. c. coracoid process. d. intertubercular groove. ANS: B 9. The small, rounded, elevated process identified by the arrow in this figure is the:
a. b. c. d.
acromion. anatomic neck. greater tubercle. lesser tubercle.
ANS: D 10. The depression identified in this figure is called the:
a. b. c. d.
infraspinous fossa. supraspinous fossa. intertubercular groove. surgical neck.
ANS: C 11. The large, rounded, elevated process prominently located on the lateral surface of the
proximal humerus is the: a. greater tubercle. b. lesser tubercle. c. medial epicondyle. d. lateral epicondyle. ANS: A 12. The small, synovial fluid–filled sacs, which relieve pressure and reduce friction in joint
tissues, are called: a. bursae. b. ligaments. c. tendons. d. cartilage. ANS: A 13. What joint is formed by the articulation between the glenoid cavity and head of the humerus? a. Synovial b. Spheroidal c. Acromioclavicular d. Scapulohumeral ANS: D 14. The scapulohumeral articulation is classified as a a. cartilaginous; gliding b. fibrous; gliding c. synovial; ball and socket d. synovial; condyloid
joint,
type.
ANS: C 15. Patients often arrive in the radiology department with trauma to the shoulder. Which of the
following positions is recommended for x-ray examination of the shoulder on these patients? a. Supine b. Upright c. Lateral recumbent d. Lateral decubitus ANS: B 16. All of the following positions of the humerus are commonly used when performing an AP
projection of the shoulder, except: a. superior rotation. b. external rotation. c. neutral rotation. d. internal rotation. ANS: A 17. To demonstrate the greater tubercle of the humerus on an AP projection of the shoulder, the
epicondyles must be: a. in a neutral position. b. at a 45-degree angle with the plane of the IR. c. parallel with the plane of the IR. d. perpendicular with the plane of the IR. ANS: C 18. What is the recommended exposure field dimensions for the AP projection of the shoulder? a. 8 10 inches (18 24 cm) b. 10 12 inches (24 30 cm) c. 11 14 inches (30 35 cm) d. 7 17 inches (18 43 cm) ANS: B 19. The respiration phase for an AP projection of the shoulder should be: a. inspiration. b. expiration. c. suspended. d. shallow breathing. ANS: C 20. For an AP projection of the shoulder, the central ray should be directed: a. 15 degrees. b. 30 degrees. c. 15 to 30 degrees. d. perpendicular to the IR. ANS: D
21. For an AP projection of the shoulder, the central ray should enter: a. 1 inch (2.5 cm) inferior to the coracoid process. b. 1 inch (2.5 cm) superior to the coracoid process. c. 2 inches (5 cm) inferior to the coracoid process. d. 2 inches (5 cm) superior to the coracoid process. ANS: A 22. Which of the following is prominently shown in profile on an AP projection of the shoulder
with the humerus in external rotation? a. Lesser tubercle b. Greater tubercle c. Scapulohumeral joint d. Acromioclavicular joint ANS: B 23. The greater tubercle will be partially superimposed over the humeral head on which of the
following projections and positions? a. AP, external rotation b. AP, neutral rotation c. AP, internal rotation d. PA oblique, scapular Y ANS: B 24. For an AP projection of the shoNuU ldR erSw heBa.rm IiNthGtT COinMa neutral position, how should the
humeral epicondyles be positioned in regards to the IR plane? a. Parallel b. Perpendicular c. 45 degrees d. 60 degrees ANS: C
25. If the patient places the palm of the hand against the thigh, the humerus will be in: a. lateral position. b. external rotation. c. internal rotation. d. neutral position. ANS: D 26. For an AP projection of the shoulder with the humerus in internal rotation, how should the
humeral epicondyles be positioned in relation to the IR plane? a. Perpendicular b. Parallel c. 45 degrees d. 60 degrees ANS: A
27. What structure is prominently shown in profile on an AP projection of the shoulder, internal
rotation position? a. Lesser tubercle b. Greater tubercle c. Glenoid cavity d. Acromioclavicular joint ANS: A 28. If the patient places the back of the hand against the hip, the humerus will be in: a. external rotation. b. internal rotation. c. abduction. d. adduction. ANS: B 29. The use of compensating filters is particularly useful when using: a. small focal spot. b. digital radiography systems. c. a larger exposure field. d. less collimation. ANS: B 30. When the arm cannot be rotated or abducted due to injury, which of these can be used to
perform a lateral projection of the shoulder? a. Tangential projection, SetteNgU asRt S mI etN hoGdTB.COM b. PA axial projection, Holmblad method c. Transthoracic lateral projection, Lawrence method d. AP projection, Pearson method ANS: C 31. Where should the center of the IR be positioned for a lateral projection of the shoulder? a. Acromion process b. Anatomical neck c. Surgical neck d. Greater tubercle ANS: C 32. For a transthoracic lateral projection (Lawrence) of the shoulder, lung detail may be blurred to
better visualize the shoulder area. Which exposure time is recommended to blur the lung structures? a. Minimum of 1 second b. Minimum of 2 seconds c. Minimum of 3 seconds d. Minimum of 5 seconds ANS: C
33. If a breathing technique cannot be used for the transthoracic lateral projection of the shoulder
(Lawrence) the exposure should be made using: a. full expiration. b. full inspiration. c. partial inspiration. d. partial expiration. ANS: B 34. If the patient can be positioned properly, the central-ray angle for the transthoracic lateral
projection (Lawrence) of the shoulder is: a. 0 degrees. b. 5 degrees cephalad. c. 10 degrees cephalad. d. 15 degrees cephalad. ANS: A 35. If the patient cannot elevate the unaffected shoulder for a transthoracic lateral projection
(Lawrence) of the shoulder, what central ray orientation is needed? a. 3 to 5 degrees cephalad b. 3 to 5 degrees caudad c. 10 to 15 degrees cephalad d. 10 to 15 degrees caudad ANS: C 36. The projection of the shoulder N deUmRoS nsItrNaG teT dB in.thCiO sM figure is the:
a. b. c. d.
axiolateral. inferosuperior axial (Lawrence). transthoracic lateral (Lawrence). acromioclavicular (Pearson).
ANS: B 37. How far (approximately) should the head, shoulders, and elbow be elevated for the
inferosuperior axial projection (Lawrence) of the shoulder? a. 2 inches b. 3 inches c. 4 inches d. 5 inches
ANS: B 38. How far should the arm be abducted for an inferosuperior projection (Lawrence) of the
shoulder joint? a. 15 degrees b. 30 degrees c. 45 degrees d. 90 degrees ANS: D 39. How should the humerus be positioned for an inferosuperior axial projection (Lawrence) of
the shoulder joint? a. Internal rotation b. External rotation c. Neutral position d. Variable according to central ray angle ANS: B 40. How is the central ray directed for an inferosuperior axial projection (Lawrence) of the
shoulder joint? a. 5 degrees horizontally b. 15 to 30 degrees horizontally c. 5 degrees cephalad d. 15 to 30 degrees cephalad ANS: B 41. Which of the following are clearly demonstrated on the inferosuperior axial projection
(Lawrence) of the shoulder joint? 1. Proximal humerus 2. Scapulohumeral joint 3. Acromioclavicular articulation a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D 42. The PA oblique projection of the shoulder joint (scapular Y) is performed in which of the
following positions? a. AP b. Lateral c. RAO or LAO d. RPO or LPO ANS: C 43. PA oblique projection of the shoulder (scapular Y) is performed to evaluate: a. carcinoma.
b. fractures. c. dislocations. d. soft tissue swelling. ANS: C 44. For the PA oblique projection (scapular Y) of the shoulder, the body is rotated so that the
midcoronal plane is how many degrees from the IR? a. 25 b. 45 c. 45 to 60 d. 25 to 60 ANS: C 45. What is the central ray angle for the PA oblique projection (scapular Y) of the shoulder joint? a. 0 degrees b. 5 degrees caudad c. 10 degrees caudad d. 15 degrees caudad ANS: A 46. What anatomy is superimposed over the junction of the Y on the PA oblique (scapular Y)
projection on a patient with a normal shoulder joint? a. Humerus b. Humeral head c. Coracoid process d. Acromion process ANS: B 47. Which structures is projected in lateral profile on a PA oblique (scapular Y) projection? a. Humerus b. Scapula c. Clavicle d. Acromion ANS: B 48. Which projection clearly demonstrates the glenoid cavity? a. AP b. PA oblique (scapular Y) c. AP oblique (Grashey) d. Transthoracic lateral (Lawrence) ANS: C 49. How many degrees is the body rotated for the AP oblique projection (Grashey method) of the
shoulder joint? a. 20 degrees toward the affected side b. 20 degrees away from the affected side c. 35 to 45 degrees away from the affected side
d. 35 to 45 degrees toward the affected side ANS: D 50. The Pearson method is an AP projection of the: a. shoulder joint. b. proximal humerus. c. scapulohumeral joint. d. acromioclavicular articulation. ANS: D 51. How many pounds of weight should be affixed to each wrist for the AP projection of the AC
joint? a. 2 lb b. 5 lb c. 2 to 4 lb d. 5 to 8 lb ANS: D 52. Two exposures are commonly made of the AC joints—one without weights and one with
weights. How are the weights applied? a. Affixed to the elbows b. Affixed to the wrists c. Held in the hands d. Held by the fingers ANS: B 53. How should the central ray be angled for the AP projection (Pearson method) of the AC
joints? a. 0 degrees b. 5 degrees cephalad c. 7 degrees cephalad d. 5 to 7 degrees cephalad ANS: A 54. The AP projection of the AC joints places the joints at an increased OID. Which of the
following is the recommended SID to compensate for this distance? a. 40 inches b. 48 inches c. 72 inches d. 120 inches ANS: C 55. In an image of an AP axial projection of the clavicle, the clavicle should be demonstrated
with: 1. most of the clavicle projected above the ribs. 2. only the lateral end superimposing the coracoid process. 3. only the medial end superimposing the first or second ribs.
a. b. c. d.
1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2, and 3
ANS: B 56. All of these projections can be used to demonstrate the clavicle, except: a. AP. b. AP axial. c. PA axial. d. Lateral. ANS: D 57. The central-ray angle for an AP axial projection of the clavicle when performed on a patient in
the supine position is a. 5 to 10 b. 10 to 25 c. 15 to 25 d. 15 to 30
degrees.
ANS: D 58. To elevate the clavicle above the ribs and scapula for the AP axial projection, the phase of
respiration should be: a. full inspiration. b. full expiration. c. shallow breathing. d. suspended respiration. ANS: A 59. For an AP projection of the scapula, the recommended exposure field is: a. 8 10 inches (18 24 cm) lengthwise. b. 10 12 inches (24 30 cm) lengthwise. c. 8 10 inches (18 24 cm) crosswise. d. 10 12 inches (24 30 cm) crosswise. ANS: B 60. The respiration phase for an AP projection of the scapula is: a. inspiration. b. expiration. c. suspended respiration. d. shallow breathing. ANS: D 61. How is the upper extremity positioned for an AP scapula? a. Abducted 90 degrees, with elbow flexed b. Abducted 45 degrees, with elbow flexed
c. Adducted, lateral rotation d. Adducted, medial rotation ANS: A 62. For the lateral projection of the scapula, the body is placed in which position? a. True lateral b. 15- to 25-degree posterior oblique c. 45- to 60-degree anterior oblique d. Prone ANS: C 63. For delineation of the acromion and coracoid processes of the scapula in the lateral projection,
how is the arm positioned? a. Flex the elbow and place the hand on the anterior abdomen. b. Flex the elbow and place the hand on the posterior thorax. c. Extend the arm upward and rest the forearm on the head. d. Extend the arm straight down at the side in the anatomic position. ANS: B 64. When the patient is positioned properly for a lateral projection of the scapula, the body of the
scapula will be the plane of the IR. a. perpendicular to b. parallel with c. at a 30-degree angle to d. at a 60-degree angle to ANS: A 65. The central-ray angulation for a lateral scapula is: a. 0 degrees. b. 5 degrees caudad. c. 10 degrees cephalad. d. 5 to 10 degrees cephalad. ANS: A 66. How much is the body rotated for a PA oblique projection of the shoulder? a. 5 to 15 degrees b. 20 to 45 degrees c. 30 to 55 degrees d. 45 to 60 degrees ANS: D 67. The clavicle is classified as a(n) a. short b. long c. flat d. irregular
bone.
ANS: B 68. The scapula is classified as a(n) a. flat b. short c. long d. irregular
bone.
ANS: A 69. The rounded head of the humerus fits into an oval depression on the lateral aspect of the
scapula called the: a. neck. b. acromion. c. lateral angle. d. glenoid cavity. ANS: D 70. The lesser tubercle is situated on which surface of the humerus? a. Medial b. Lateral c. Anterior d. Posterior ANS: C 71. All of the joints of the shoulder girdle are: a. synovial, freely movable. b. fibrous, slightly movable. c. fibrous, immovable. d. cartilaginous, immovable. ANS: A 72. Which position of the hand will place the humerus in external rotation? a. Pronation b. Supination c. Palm against the thigh d. Back of the hand against the thigh ANS: B 73. Which position of the hand will place the humerus in neutral position? a. Pronation b. Supination c. Palm against the thigh d. Back of the hand against the thigh ANS: C 74. Which position of the hand will place the humerus in internal rotation? a. Pronation
b. Supination c. Palm against the thigh d. Back of the hand against the thigh ANS: D 75. What is the central-ray angulation for the AP oblique projection (Grashey method) of the
shoulder joint? a. 0 degrees b. 5 degrees c. 0 to 5 degrees d. 5 to 10 degrees ANS: A 76. A Hill-Sachs defect is defined as a: a. fracture due to posterior dislocation of the humeral head. b. wedge-shaped compression fracture of the articular surface of the humeral head. c. congenital deformity of the humeral head. d. congenital deformity of the glenoid cavity. ANS: B 77. Which of the following methods best demonstrates the supraspinatus outlet (coracoacromial
arch)? a. Neer b. Alexander c. West Point d. Stryker notch ANS: A 78. For delineation of the body of the scapula for the lateral projection, how is the arm
positioned? a. Flex the elbow and place the hand on the anterior abdomen. b. Flex the elbow and place the hand on the posterior thorax. c. Extend the arm straight down at the side. d. Extend the arm upward and rest the forearm on the head. ANS: D 79. When the tangential projection of the intertubercular groove is performed with the patient
supine, the position of the hand is: a. supinated. b. pronated. c. lateral. d. neutral. ANS: A 80. When the Fisk modification is used for the tangential projection of the intertubercular groove,
the patient is: a. prone.
b. supine. c. sitting. d. standing. ANS: D 81. When the Fisk modification is used for the tangential projection of the intertubercular groove,
the vertical humerus is placed at an angle of a. 0 b. 5 c. 5 to 10 d. 10 to 15
_ degrees.
ANS: D 82. All of these projections are improved significantly with the use of a compensating filter,
except: a. lateral scapula. b. PA oblique (scapular Y). c. AP shoulder. d. transthoracic lateral (Lawrence). ANS: D 83. The projection in the image below was obtained with the arm positioned in:
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a. b. c. d.
neutral position. external rotation. internal rotation. oblique rotation.
ANS: B 84. Letter A in the image below labels the:
a. b. c. d.
acromion. coracoid process. clavicle. first rib.
ANS: C 85. Letter B in the image below labels the:
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a. b. c. d.
acromion. coracoid process. clavicle. glenoid.
ANS: A 86. Letter C in the image below labels the:
a. b. c. d.
acromion. coracoid process. clavicle. glenoid.
ANS: B 87. The white arrow in the image below points to the:
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a. b. c. d.
acromion. coracoid process. greater tubercle. lesser tubercle.
ANS: C 88. The glenoid of the scapula in the image below is labeled as letter:
a. b. c. d.
B. C. D. E.
ANS: C 89. What projection, position, and anatomy of interest in the image below is demonstrated?
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a. b. c. d.
AP projection of the shoulder in external rotation AP projection of the shoulder in internal rotation AP projection of the shoulder in neutral position AP oblique projection of the shoulder (Grashey)
ANS: B 90. The anatomy labeled in the image below by the arrowhead is the:
a. acromion.
b. coracoid process. c. glenoid. d. lesser tubercle. ANS: D 91. What projection (method) is demonstrated in the image below?
a. b. c. d.
AP oblique (Grashey) PA oblique (Scapular Y) Transthoracic (Lawrence) Inferosuperior axial (Lawrence)
ANS: D 92. What anatomy is labeled as letter A in the image below?
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a. b. c. d.
Greater tubercle Lesser tubercle Acromion Coracoid process
ANS: B 93. What anatomy is labeled as letter C in the image below?
a. b. c. d.
Greater tubercle Lesser tubercle Acromion Coracoid process
ANS: D 94. What anatomy is labeled as letter D in the image below?
NURSINGTB.COM a. b. c. d.
Glenoid Lesser tubercle Acromion Coracoid process
ANS: A MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. Which two bones connect the upper limb to the trunk? (Select all that apply.) a. Clavicle b. Sternum c. Scapula d. Humerus ANS: A, C 2. Which two are achieved when the transthoracic lateral projection (Lawrence method) of the
shoulder is done on full inspiration? (Select all that apply.) a. Higher contrast b. Increased latitude c. Decrease in exposure
d. Lower contrast ANS: A, C 3. What two structures articulate to form the SC joint? (Select all that apply.) a. Sternal angle b. Manubrium of sternum c. Lateral end of the clavicle d. Medial end of the clavicle ANS: B, D 4. A Hill-Sachs defect may be demonstrated using which two of the following projections?
(Select all that apply.) a. Transthoracic lateral (Lawrence) b. Inferosuperior axial (Rafert modification) c. Inferosuperior axial (Lawrence) d. AP oblique (Grashey) ANS: B, C
Chapter 07: Lower Extremity Long: Merrill’s Atlas of Radiographic Positioning and Procedures, 14th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The bone of the foot indicated by the arrow in this figure is the:
a. b. c. d.
navicular. talus. calcaneus. medial cuneiform.
ANS: A 2. The bone of the foot indicated by the arrow in this figure is the:
a. b. c. d.
navicular. talus. calcaneus. medial cuneiform.
ANS: B 3. The aspect of the foot shown in this figure is the:
a. dorsal. b. plantar. c. medial.
d. lateral. ANS: C 4. How many bones are in the foot? a. 14 b. 26 c. 27 d. 29 ANS: B 5. How many phalanges are in the foot? a. 5 b. 7 c. 14 d. 26 ANS: C 6. The superior surface of the foot is termed the a. dorsal b. plantar c. anterior d. superior
surface.
ANS: A
SeIdNthGeTB.COsM 7. The inferior aspect of the foot iN sU teR rm urface. a. posterior b. caudal c. dorsal d. plantar ANS: D 8. How many phalanges are in the great toe? a. None b. One c. Two d. Three ANS: C 9. How many metatarsal bones are in the foot? a. Four b. Five c. Six d. Seven ANS: B 10. How many tarsal bones are in the foot?
a. b. c. d.
Four Five Six Seven
ANS: D 11. The largest and strongest tarsal bone is the: a. calcaneus. b. navicular. c. medial cuneiform. d. lateral cuneiform. ANS: A 12. The second largest tarsal bone, and the one that occupies the highest position in the foot, is
the: a. b. c. d.
talus. navicular. calcaneus. medial cuneiform.
ANS: A 13. The second largest bone in the body is the: a. hip. b. tibia. c. femur. d. skull. ANS: B 14. How many bones make up the leg? a. Two b. Three c. Four d. Five ANS: A 15. The bone part identified by the arrow in this figure is the:
a. b. c. d.
lateral condyle. medial condyle. lateral malleolus. medial malleolus.
ANS: C 16. The bone part identified by the arrow in this figure is the:
a. b. c. d.
medial epicondyle. tibial tuberosity. medial malleolus. medial condyle.
ANS: D 17. The largest and strongest bone in the body is the: a. tibia. b. femur. c. hip.
d. skull. ANS: B 18. The bone part identified in this figure is the:
a. b. c. d.
lateral condyle. lateral malleolus. medial condyle. medial epicondyle.
ANS: C 19. The bone part identified in this figure is the:
a. lateral condyle.
b. medial condyle. c. greater trochanter. d. lesser trochanter. ANS: D 20. The area identified on the patella in this figure is the:
a. b. c. d.
apex. base. inferior articulating surface. superior articulating surface.
ANS: A 21. The name of the small round bones located on the plantar surface of the foot, typically
beneath the first MTP joint, is tNhU e:RSINGTB.COM a. cuneiforms. b. sesamoids. c. tarsals. d. epicondyles. ANS: B 22. All of the following forms the ankle mortise, except: a. lateral malleolus of the fibula. b. medial surface of the tibia. c. inferior surface of the tibia. d. medial malleolus of the tibia. ANS: B 23. The bone identified by the arrow in this figure is the:
a. b. c. d.
tibia. cuboid. talus. navicular.
ANS: B 24. How many degrees of angulation are required to open the IP joint spaces of the toes on an AP
projection? a. 0 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20 ANS: C 25. How many degrees are the lower leg and foot rotated for the AP oblique projection of the toes
in medial rotation? a. 10 to 15 b. 20 to 25 c. 40 to 60 d. 30 to 45 ANS: D 26. The central-ray angulation for an AP oblique projection of the toes is: a. 0 degrees. b. 5 degrees posteriorly. c. 10 degrees posteriorly. d. 15 degrees posteriorly. ANS: A 27. For an AP projection of the toes, the central ray is directed to the: a. second IP joint b. second MTP joint c. third MTP joint d. base of the third metatarsal ANS: C 28. How is the patient placed for a lateral projection of the great toe and second toe? a. Supine, with the affected leg turned out b. Supine, with the affected leg turned in c. Lateral, on the affected side d. Recumbent, on the unaffected side ANS: D 29. What is the patient position for a lateral projection of the third, fourth, or fifth toes? a. Supine, with the leg and foot laterally rotated b. 45 degrees oblique, with the leg and foot laterally rotated c. Lateral recumbent, on the affected side
d. Lateral recumbent, on the unaffected side ANS: C 30. To better demonstrate the TMT joint spaces of the foot, a posterior angulation of how many
degrees is required? a. 0 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20 ANS: B 31. The central ray is directed to which of the following for an AP or AP axial projection of the
foot? a. Head of the second metatarsal b. Head of the third metatarsal c. Base of the third metatarsal d. Base of the fourth metatarsal ANS: C 32. The most commonly performed oblique projection of the foot is the a. AP; medial rotation b. AP; lateral rotation c. PA; medial rotation d. PA; Grashey method
oblique in
.
ANS: A 33. For an AP oblique projection of the foot in either medial or lateral rotation, the plantar surface
of the foot should form an angle of: a. 15 degrees. b. 30 degrees. c. 45 degrees. d. 60 degrees. ANS: B 34. The central ray for an AP oblique projection of the foot is: a. 0 degrees. b. 5 degrees posteriorly. c. 10 degrees posteriorly. d. 15 degrees posteriorly. ANS: A 35. Which of the following will clearly demonstrate the cuboid? a. AP b. Lateral c. AP oblique in lateral rotation d. AP oblique in medial rotation
ANS: D 36. For a lateral projection of the foot, the central ray is directed to the: a. head of the third metatarsal. b. base of the third metatarsal. c. tibiotalar joint. d. navicular. ANS: B 37. Which lateral projection of the foot is the most commonly performed? a. Lateromedial (lateral recumbent position) b. Mediolateral (lateral recumbent position) c. Lateromedial (standing weight-bearing) d. Mediolateral (standing weight-bearing) ANS: B 38. Which projections of the foot will best demonstrate the structural status of the longitudinal
arch? a. AP axial b. AP oblique medial rotation c. Lateral (lateromedial) d. Lateral (lateromedial) weight-bearing ANS: D 39. Which projection is demonstrated in this photograph?
a. b. c. d.
PA foot AP axial foot Axial calcaneus (plantodorsal) Axial calcaneus (dorsoplantar)
ANS: C 40. What is the central-ray angulation for the axial (plantodorsal) projection of the calcaneus? a. 25 degrees b. 30 degrees c. 35 degrees
d. 40 degrees ANS: D 41. For an axial projection of the calcaneus, the ankle should be dorsiflexed so the plantar surface
of the foot is: a. parallel with the central ray. b. perpendicular to the central ray. c. 70 degrees from the plane of the IR. d. 90 degrees from the plane of the IR. ANS: D 42. The central-ray angulation for a lateral projection of the calcaneus is: a. 0 degrees. b. 5 degrees cephalad. c. 10 degrees cephalad. d. 5 to 10 degrees cephalad. ANS: A 43. Which of the following is the essential lateral projection of the calcaneus? a. Lateral (lateromedial) b. Lateral (mediolateral) c. Lateromedial oblique d. Lateromedial oblique, weight-bearing ANS: B 44. The central-ray angulation for the AP ankle projection is: a. 0 degrees. b. 5 degrees caudad. c. 10 degrees caudad. d. 15 to 20 degrees caudad. ANS: A 45. For an AP projection of the ankle, the central ray must enter the: a. talus. b. subtalar joint. c. talofibular joint. d. ankle joint, midway between the malleoli. ANS: D 46. Which of the following is not clearly demonstrated on an AP projection of the ankle? a. Tibiotalar b. Lateral malleoli c. Ankle mortise d. Tibiofibular overlapping ANS: C
47. To prevent lateral rotation, how should the foot be positioned for a lateral projection of the
ankle? a. In dorsiflexion b. In plantar flexion c. On a 10-degree angle wedge d. On a 15-degree angle wedge ANS: A 48. The central-ray angle for a lateral projection of the ankle is: a. 0 degrees. b. 5 degrees cephalad. c. 7 degrees cephalad. d. 10 degrees caudad. ANS: A 49. For a lateral projection of the ankle, the central ray must enter the: a. navicular. b. tibiofibular joint. c. medial malleolus. d. lateral malleolus. ANS: C 50. Where will the fibula be located on a properly positioned lateral radiograph of the ankle? a. Directly over the tibia b. Behind the tibia c. Over the anterior half of the tibia d. Over the posterior half of the tibia ANS: D 51. All of the following must be rotated for all oblique projections of the ankle, except: a. pelvis. b. knee joint. c. foot. d. leg. ANS: A 52. To demonstrate the ankle mortise, the leg and foot should be rotated medially how many
degrees? a. 10 b. 25 c. 45 d. 15 to 20 ANS: D 53. When the malleoli of the ankle are positioned parallel with the IR, the ankle is in position for
which projection? a. AP
b. AP oblique, 45-degree lateral rotation c. AP oblique, 45-degree medial rotation d. AP oblique, 15- to 20-degree medial rotation for the ankle mortise ANS: D 54. The medial and lateral oblique projections of the ankle require the leg and foot to be rotated
how many degrees? a. 15 b. 20 c. 45 d. 30 ANS: C 55. Which ankle projection will clearly demonstrate the ankle mortise in profile? a. AP b. AP oblique, 15- to 20-degree internal rotation c. AP oblique, 45-degree internal rotation d. AP oblique, 45-degree external rotation ANS: B 56. The central-ray angulation for an AP oblique projection of the ankle is: a. 0 degrees. b. 5 degrees caudad. c. 7 degrees caudad. d. 15 degrees caudad. ANS: A 57. Which projection will clearly demonstrate the joint spaces between the talus and both
malleoli? a. AP b. AP oblique, 15- to 20-degree internal rotation c. AP oblique, 45-degree internal rotation d. AP oblique, 45-degree external rotation ANS: B 58. Which projections of the ankle are performed on a patient following an inversion or eversion
injury? a. AP and lateral b. AP and both obliques c. AP stress studies d. AP, lateral, and both obliques ANS: C 59. What is the central-ray angle for an AP projection of the leg? a. 0 degrees b. 5 degrees caudad c. 7 degrees caudad
d. 5 to 7 degrees cephalad ANS: A 60. What is the position of the femoral condyles when the leg is properly positioned for an AP
projection? a. Perpendicular to the IR b. Parallel to the IR c. At a 15- to 20-degree oblique position (laterally) d. At a 15- to 20-degree oblique position (medially) ANS: B 61. How far should the IR or collimated field extend beyond the ankle or knee joint for an AP
projection of the leg? a. to 1 inch b. 1 to 2 inches c. 1 to 1 inches d. 2 to 2 inches ANS: C 62. Often, the leg is too long to fit on one IR for radiographs. Which joint or joints should be
included on the IR when the site of a lesion is known? a. The ankle joint b. The knee joint c. Both joints on two IRs d. The joint closest to the lesion ANS: D 63. Which of the following objects should be available in the radiography room for performing
radiographs of the lower limb? 1. Angle sponges 2. Sandbags 3. Pull straps a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D 64. Which of the following should be clearly demonstrated on a lateral projection of the leg?
1. Knee joint 2. Ankle joint 3. Entire femoral condyles a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3
ANS: A 65. Where is the IR centered for an AP projection of the knee? a. inch above the patellar apex b. 1 inch above the patellar apex c. inch below the patellar apex d. 1 inch below the patellar apex ANS: C 66. When the knee is properly positioned for an AP projection, the patella will lie: a. directly in the center of the limb. b. slightly to the medial side. c. slightly to the lateral side. d. parallel with the tabletop. ANS: B 67. Where is the central ray directed for an AP projection of the knee? a. inch above the patellar base b. c. d.
inch above the patellar apex inch below the patellar base inch below the patellar apex
ANS: D 68. When the ASIS-to-tabletop meN asUuR reS mI enNtGisTbBe. twCeO enM19 and 24 cm, the central-ray angulation
for an AP knee is: a. 0 degrees. b. 5 degrees cephalad. c. 5 degrees caudad. d. 7 degrees cephalad. ANS: A 69. When the ASIS-to-tabletop measurement is greater than 24 cm, the central-ray angulation for
an AP knee is: a. 0 degrees. b. 5 degrees cephalad. c. 5 degrees caudad. d. 7 degrees cephalad. ANS: B 70. When the ASIS-to-tabletop measurement is less than 19 cm, the central-ray angulation for an
AP knee is: a. 0 degrees. b. 5 degrees cephalad. c. 5 degrees caudad. d. 7 degrees caudad.
ANS: C 71. How much should the leg be flexed for a lateral projection of the knee? a. 10 degrees b. 45 degrees c. 10 to 20 degrees d. 20 to 30 degrees ANS: D 72. Which of the following will ensure that the knee is in proper position for a lateral projection?
1. Epicondyles perpendicular to the IR 2. Patella perpendicular to the IR 3. Leg flexed 20 to 30 degrees a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D 73. The central-ray angulation for a lateral projection of the knee is: a. 0 degrees. b. 3 to 5 degrees cephalad. c. dependent upon the ASIS-to-tabletop measurement. d. 5 to 7 degrees cephalad. ANS: D 74. Which of the following projections of the knee best demonstrates the narrowing of a joint
space? a. AP b. AP oblique c. Lateral d. AP of both knees with weight-bearing ANS: D 75. Valgus and varus deformities of the knee can be evaluated with which of the following
projections? a. AP b. AP oblique c. PA, bilateral weight-bearing d. AP, bilateral weight-bearing ANS: D 76. The central-ray angle for an AP, bilateral weight-bearing knee is: a. 0 degrees. b. 5 to 7 degrees cephalad. c. 5 to 7 degrees caudad. d. dependent upon the ASIS-to-tabletop measurement.
ANS: A 77. The central-ray angle for AP oblique projections of the knee is: a. 0 degrees. b. 5 degrees caudad. c. 7 degrees cephalad. d. variable, depending on the ASIS-to-tabletop distance. ANS: D 78. For an AP oblique projection of the knee, the limb is rotated a. 25 b. 30 c. 45 d. 40
degrees.
ANS: C 79. Which of the following is clearly demonstrated on an AP oblique projection of the knee in
medial rotation? a. Distal fibula b. Tibiotalar articulation c. Patellofemoral joint space d. Tibiofibular articulation ANS: D 80. The patient position and central ray shown in this figure will demonstrate the:
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a. b. c. d.
patella. patellofemoral joint. intercondylar fossa. tibiofibular joint space.
ANS: C 81. How is the central ray directed for the PA axial projection (Holmblad method) of the
intercondylar fossa? a. Perpendicular to the lower leg b. Perpendicular to the femur c. 40 to 50 degrees to lower leg
d. 40 to 50 degrees to the femur ANS: A 82. Which of the following positions can be used to demonstrate the intercondylar fossa using the
Holmblad method? 1. Standing (horizontal central ray) 2. Kneeling on the table (vertical central ray) 3. Standing with knee on stool (vertical central ray) a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D 83. The patient position and central-ray method demonstrated in this figure is the:
NURSINGTB.COM a. b. c. d.
Holmblad (intercondylar fossa). Camp-Coventry (intercondylar fossa). Settegast (patellofemoral joint). Hughston (patellofemoral joint).
ANS: B 84. In which position is the patient placed for a PA projection of the patella? a. Supine b. Prone c. Lateral d. Upright ANS: B 85. To place the patella parallel with the plane of the IR for a PA projection, the heel must be
rotated: a. 5 to 10 degrees laterally. b. 5 to 10 degrees medially. c. 10 to 15 degrees laterally. d. 10 to 15 degrees medially.
ANS: A 86. What is the central-ray angle for a PA projection of the patella? a. 0 degrees b. 5 degrees cephalad c. 10 degrees cephalad d. 5 to 15 degrees cephalad ANS: A 87. Where should the central ray be directed for a PA projection of the patella? a. Inch below the patella b. Midpopliteal area c. Base of the patella d. Apex of the patella ANS: B 88. How much is the knee flexed for a lateral projection of the patella? a. 0 degrees b. 3 to 5 degrees c. 3 to 7 degrees d. 5 to 10 degrees ANS: D 89. What is the central-ray angle for a lateral projection of the patella? a. 0 degrees b. 5 degrees cephalad c. 7 degrees cephalad d. 10 degrees cephalad ANS: A 90. Where does the central ray enter the knee for a lateral projection of the patella? a. Posterior margin of the medial epicondyle b. Anterior margin of the medial epicondyle c. Through the patellofemoral joint space d. Directly to the lateral aspect of the patella ANS: C 91. Which of the following is the essential method of demonstrating the patella in the tangential
projection? a. Merchant b. Settegast c. Hughston d. Kuchendorf ANS: B 92. The projection of the patella demonstrated in this figure is the:
a. b. c. d.
Hughston. Merchant. Settegast. Holmblad.
ANS: C 93. Which of the following positions can be used to perform the tangential projection (Settegast
method) of the patella? 1. Seated 2. Supine 3. Prone a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D 94. The preferred method of positioning the patient for the tangential projection (Settegast
method) of the patella is: a. prone. b. supine. c. seated on the table. d. seated at the end of the table. ANS: A 95. Where is the central ray directed for the tangential projection (Settegast method) of the
patella? a. Through the patellofemoral joint space b. To the anterior aspect of the patella c. At the level of the femoral condyles d. To the apex of the patella ANS: A 96. What is the degree of angulation for the tangential projection of the patella (Settegast
method)? a. 30 degrees
b. 45 degrees c. Perpendicular to the long axis of the femur d. Variable—depending on the degree of knee flexion ANS: D 97. What is the central-ray angle for an AP projection of the femur? a. 0 degrees b. 5 degrees c. 7 degrees d. Variable—depending on body habitus ANS: A 98. How many degrees should the limb be internally rotated for an AP projection of the femur? a. 10 b. 15 c. 18 d. 10 to 20 ANS: B 99. How far should the IR/collimated field extend below the knee for a lateral projection of the
femur? a. 1 inch b. 2 inches c. 3 inches d. 4 inches ANS: B 100. If a lateral projection of the femur will include the hip joint, where should the top of the
IR/collimated field be placed? a. Level of the iliac crest b. Level of the greater trochanter c. Anterior superior iliac spine d. Level of the pubic symphysis ANS: C 101. How far should the patient be rolled posteriorly from the lateral position, for a lateral
projection of the hip that will include the proximal femur? a. 5 to 10 degrees b. 10 to 15 degrees c. 15 to 20 degrees d. 20 to 25 degrees ANS: B 102. The superior portion of the calcaneus contains a groove called the calcaneal sulcus. The
inferior portion of the talus contains a matching groove called the sulcus tali. Collectively, these two sulci form the: a. trochlea.
b. ankle mortise. c. sinus tarsi. d. sustentaculum tali. ANS: C 103. Which tarsal bone lies directly anterior to the talus? a. Cuboid b. Navicular c. Medial cuneiform d. Lateral cuneiform ANS: B 104. On which aspect of the foot does the cuboid lie? a. Lateral b. Medial c. Superior d. Inferior ANS: A 105. The talus articulates with how many bones? a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four ANS: D 106. The proximal end of the tibia presents two prominent processes called the: a. tubercles. b. condyles. c. malleoli. d. tuberosities. ANS: B 107. The two flat, superior surfaces of the tibia are called the: a. tubercles. b. malleoli. c. condyles. d. tibial plateaus. ANS: D 108. The tibial plateaus slope a. anteriorly b. posteriorly c. laterally d. medially ANS: B
10 to 20 degrees.
109. On the anterior surface of the tibia is a prominent process called the: a. body. b. anterior border. c. tibial tuberosity. d. intercondylar eminence. ANS: C 110. When the femur is vertical, the medial condyle is lower than the lateral condyle. How many
degrees difference is there between the two? a. 3 b. 5 c. 5 to 7 d. 8 to 10 ANS: C 111. Posteriorly, the femoral condyles are separated by a deep depression called the: a. popliteal surface. b. intercondylar eminence. c. patellar surface. d. intercondylar fossa. ANS: D 112. The area identified on this figure is the:
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a. b. c. d.
patella surface. intercondylar eminence. intercondylar fossa. tibial tuberosity.
ANS: A 113. The area identified on the ankle illustration above is the:
a. b. c. d.
medial malleolus. lateral malleolus. anterior tubercle. lateral tubercle.
ANS: C 114. Which anatomic part must be identified on lateral radiographs of the knee in order to identify
over- or under-rotation? a. Adductor tubercle b. Lateral condyle c. Medial condyle d. An open patellofemoral joint space ANS: A 115. The circular fibrocartilage disks or pads that lie on the tibial plateaus are called the: a. bursae. b. menisci. c. articular cartilages. d. articular capsules. ANS: B 116. The ligament identified in this figure is the:
a. b. c. d.
posterior cruciate. anterior cruciate. tibial collateral. fibular collateral.
ANS: A 117. Which projection of the foot will show the cuboid in profile? a. AP b. Lateral c. AP oblique, lateral rotation d. AP oblique, medial rotation ANS: D 118. Where is the central ray directed for a lateral projection of the calcaneus? a. 1 inch distal to the medial malleolus b. 2 inches distal to the medial malleolus c. 1 inch posterior to the medial malleolus d. 2 inches posterior to the medial malleolus ANS: A 119. Where is the central ray directed for an AP projection of knees, weight-bearing? a. inch below the apices of the patellae b. 1 inch below the apices of the patellae c. 1 inches below the apices of the patellae d. 2 inches below the apices of the patellae ANS: A 120. If the knee is flexed 40 degrees for the PA axial intercondylar fossa (Camp-Coventry)
projection, how many degrees is the central ray angled? a. 0 b. 40 c. 50
d. 40 to 50 ANS: B 121. How much is the knee flexed for a lateral projection? a. 5 to 10 degrees b. 15 to 20 degrees c. 20 to 30 degrees d. 30 to 45 degrees ANS: C 122. Which part of the knee is identified on this figure?
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Medial meniscus Lateral meniscus Tibial collateral ligament Fibular collateral ligament
ANS: A 123. The only ball-and-socket joint in the foot is the: a. ankle mortise. b. tarsometatarsal. c. calcaneocuboid. d. talocalcaneonavicular. ANS: D 124. All of the joints of the foot are synovial (freely movable) except the: a. femorotibial. b. patellofemoral. c. distal tibiofibular. d. proximal tibiofibular. ANS: C 125. What type of joint is the ankle mortise?
a. b. c. d.
Synovial—gliding Synovial—hinge Synovial—ellipsoidal Synovial—ball and socket
ANS: B 126. Which of the following bones does not bear body weight? a. Tibia b. Fibula c. Navicular d. Calcaneus ANS: B 127. An avulsion fracture of the base of the fifth metatarsal is called a a. Pott b. Colles c. Jones d. Boxer
fracture.
ANS: C 128. The incomplete separation or avulsion of the tibial tuberosity is known as: a. osteosarcoma. b. osteomalacia. c. Paget disease. d. Osgood-Schlatter disease. ANS: D 129. What anatomy is labeled as letter A in the image below?
a. b. c. d.
First metatarsophalangeal joint Proximal interphalangeal joint of first digit Distal interphalangeal joint of first digit Interphalangeal joint of first digit
ANS: A 130. The group of bones labeled as G in the image below are the:
a. b. c. d.
phalanges. metatarsals. digits. tarsals.
ANS: D 131. Letter H in the image below labNeU lsRthSeI : NGTB.COM
a. b. c. d.
navicular. cuboid. talus. lateral cuneiform.
ANS: B
132. What is the projection and anatomy of interest depicted in the image below?
a. b. c. d.
AP axial calcaneus AP calcaneus Plantodorsal axial calcaneus Superoinferior axial calcaneus
ANS: C 133. What anatomy is labeled as letter A in the image below?
a. b. c. d.
Tibiotalar joint Tibiofibular joint Sinus tarsi Tibiocalcaneal joint
ANS: A 134. What anatomy is labeled as letter D in the image below?
a. b. c. d.
Tibia Fibula Talus Calcaneus
ANS: C 135. What anatomy is labeled as letter B in the image below? a. Sinus tarsi b. Sustentaculum tali c. Navicular d. Tibiotalar joint ANS: A 136. What anatomy is labeled as letter E in the image below?
a. b. c. d.
Sinus tarsi Sustentaculum tali Navicular Tibiotalar joint
ANS: C
137. What anatomy is labeled as letter E in the image below?
a. b. c. d.
Sinus tarsi Tibiotalar joint Mortise joint Medial malleolus
ANS: C 138. How is the lower limb positioned to obtain the projection in the image below?
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a. b. c. d.
30- to 45-degree medial rotation 15- to 20-degree medial rotation 30- to 45-degree lateral rotation 15- to 20-degree lateral rotation
ANS: B 139. What anatomy is labeled with the letter D in the image below?
a. b. c. d.
Lateral malleolus Medial malleolus Talus Tibiotalar joint
ANS: B 140. What anatomy is labeled with the letter B in the image below?
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a. b. c. d.
Lateral malleolus Medial malleolus Talus Tibiotalar joint
ANS: A 141. What is needed to complete the projection of the leg in the image below?
a. b. c. d.
Nothing. This is a complete projection An AP of the knee and proximal leg An AP of the ankle and distal leg A lateral projection of the knee
ANS: B 142. The anatomy labeled with letter E in the image below is the:
a. b. c. d.
medial femoral condyle. lateral tibial condyle. medial tibial condyle. lateral tibial plateau.
ANS: D 143. The anatomy labeled with letter F in the image below is the:
a. b. c. d.
tibial tuberosity. intercondylar eminence. medial malleolus. lateral malleolus.
ANS: B 144. What is the central-ray direction needed to produce the image below?
a. b. c. d.
Perpendicular 3 to 5 degrees cephalad 5 to 7 degrees cephalad Central-ray angle depends upon patient size
ANS: C 145. Where does the central ray enter the patient in the image below?
a. b. c. d.
Inch below the patellar apex 1 inch below the patellar apex Inch proximal to the medial epicondyle 1 inch distal to the medial epicondyle
ANS: D 146. What lower limb position is required to obtain the image below?
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a. b. c. d.
Anatomic position 45-degree medial rotation 45-degree lateral rotation Tibial epicondyles perpendicular to IR
ANS: B 147. What anatomy is labeled with the letter B in the image below?
a. b. c. d.
Lateral femoral condyle Lateral tibial condyle Proximal tibiofibular joint Tibial tuberosity
ANS: C 148. What anatomy is labeled with the letter C in the image below?
a. b. c. d.
Greater trochanter Lesser trochanter Femoral head Femoral neck
ANS: A 149. What is the projection and anatomy of interest in the image below?
a. b. c. d.
AP proximal femur AP distal femur Lateral proximal femur Lateral distal femur
ANS: A MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. Which bones comprise the leg? (Select all that apply.) a. Femur b. Fibula c. Humerus d. Tibia ANS: B, D 2. The fibula articulates with the tibia at the: (Select all that apply.) a. distal end. b. proximal end. c. posterior surface. d. lateral surface. ANS: A, B 3. Which two are essential projections of the calcaneus? (Select all that apply.) a. Axial (dorsoplantar) b. Lateral (mediolateral) c. Axial (plantodorsal) d. Lateral (lateromedial) ANS: B, C
4. Which two are the essential oblique projections of the ankle? (Select all that apply.) a. AP oblique, 15-to 20-degree lateral rotation b. AP oblique, 15-to 20-degree medial rotation c. AP oblique, 45-degree lateral rotation d. AP oblique, 45-degree medial rotation ANS: B, D 5. Which two specific projections of the ankle are performed to diagnose a tear of the medial or
lateral ligament? (Select all that apply.) a. AP, eversion stress b. AP, inversion stress c. AP oblique, eversion stress d. AP oblique, inversion stress ANS: A, B 6. Which two of the following methods are used to demonstrate the intercondylar fossa? (Select
all that apply.) a. Holmblad (PA axial) b. Settegast (Tangential) c. Camp-Coventry (PA axial) d. Hughston (Tangential) ANS: A, C 7. Which two of the following are required to position the knee correctly for the lateral
projection of the patella? (SelecNt U alRl S thI atNaGpT plB y.. ) COM a. Patella is perpendicular to the IR b. 20-degree flexion c. Epicondyles are superimposed d. 30-degree flexion ANS: A, C 8. Which two of these are options for knee flexion for the tangential projection (Settegast
method) of the patella when obtained with the patient in prone position? (Select all that apply.) a. 50 degrees from the table b. 50 degrees from the CR c. As much as possible d. Until the patella is perpendicular to the IR ANS: C, D 9. Which two of the following are the allowed amount of knee flexion for the PA axial
intercondylar fossa (Camp-Coventry) projection? (Select all that apply.) a. 20 degrees b. 30 degrees c. 40 degrees d. 50 degrees
ANS: C, D 10. Which two of the following projections would benefit from the use of a compensating filter?
(Select all that apply.) a. Lateral calcaneus b. Axial calcaneus c. AP foot d. AP toes ANS: B, C
Chapter 08: Pelvis and Hip Long: Merrill’s Atlas of Radiographic Positioning and Procedures, 14th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What is the name of the bone and aspect of the bone in this figure?
a. b. c. d.
Hip bone, medial Hip bone, lateral Ilium, anterior Ilium, posterior
ANS: B 2. The bone shown in this figure is the:
a. b. c. d.
ilium. ischium. hip bone. pelvis.
ANS: C 3. The part identified by the arrow in this figure is the:
a. b. c. d.
anterior superior iliac spine. posterior superior iliac spine. anterior inferior iliac spine. posterior inferior iliac spine.
ANS: A 4. All of these comprise the hip bN onUeR , eSxI ceNpG t: TB.COM a. pubis. b. ischium. c. ilium. d. ileum. ANS: D 5. The aspect of the proximal femur shown in this figure is the:
a. b. c. d.
posterior. anterior. lateral. medial.
ANS: A 6. The area identified on the bone shown in this figure is the:
a. b. c. d.
posterior inferior spine. lesser trochanter. greater trochanter. intertrochanteric crest.
ANS: D 7. The neck of the femur projects anteriorly at an approximate angle of a. 5 to 10 b. 10 to 15 c. 15 to 20 d. 20 to 25
_ degrees.
ANS: C 8. To accurately position the patient for hip radiographs, one must localize two bony points on
the pelvis. These two reference points are the: 1. superior margin of the symphysis. 2. greater trochanter of the femur. 3. anterior superior iliac spine. a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: B 9. The ilia articulate with the sacrum posteriorly at the:
a. b. c. d.
hip joint. pubic symphysis. sacroiliac joint. lumbar-5 and sacral-1 area.
ANS: C 10. How many degrees should the feet and lower limbs be internally rotated for an AP pelvis
radiograph? a. 5 to 10 degrees b. 15 to 20 degrees c. 20 to 30 degrees d. 25 to 30 degrees ANS: B 11. The central ray for an AP pelvis is directed perpendicular to the center of the IR. The
central-ray entrance point will be about a. 2; superior b. 3; superior c. 2; inferior d. 3; inferior
inches
to the pubic symphysis.
ANS: A 12. Which of the following will be shown “in profile” if the lower limbs are in correct position for
an AP pelvis? a. Lesser trochanters b. Greater trochanters c. Anterior superior iliac spines d. Anterior inferior iliac spines ANS: B 13. Which of the following methods will demonstrate the femoral necks in the AP oblique
projection? a. Original Cleaves b. Modified Cleaves c. Danelius-Miller d. Lauenstein, Hickey ANS: B 14. For the AP oblique femoral necks (modified Cleaves method), the central ray is directed
degrees. a. b. c. d.
0 15 35 45
ANS: A
15. How much should the thighs be abducted for the AP oblique projection of the femoral necks
(modified Cleaves method)? a. 10 degrees b. 20 degrees c. 30 degrees d. 45 degrees ANS: D 16. Where does the central ray enter the patient for an AP hip? a. The midsagittal plane (MSP) at the level of the ASIS b. A sagittal plane 2 inches lateral from MSP at the level of the pubic symphysis c. 2 inches distal on a line drawn perpendicular to the midpoint of a line between
ASIS and pubic symphysis d. A sagittal plane 3 inches medial to the ASIS ANS: C 17. How many degrees is the lower limb and foot rotated internally for an AP hip? a. 5 to 10 degrees b. 12 to 15 degrees c. 15 to 20 degrees d. 30 to 35 degrees ANS: C 18. What is the recommended collimated field size for an AP hip? a. 6 6 inches (15 15 cm) b. 8 10 inches (18 24 cm) c. 10 12 inches (24 30 cm) d. 14 17 inches (35 43 cm) ANS: C 19. What is the central-ray angle for an AP projection of the hip? a. 15 degrees b. 20 degrees c. 15 to 20 degrees d. Perpendicular ANS: D 20. Which of the following methods will demonstrate the hip in a lateral projection? a. Cleaves b. Modified Cleaves c. Danelius-Miller d. Lauenstein, Hickey ANS: D 21. Which method demonstrates the hip in an axiolateral projection? a. Hickey
b. Modified Cleaves c. Danelius-Miller d. Lauenstein ANS: C 22. Which projection of the hip is shown in this figure?
a. b. c. d.
Lateral Axiolateral Axiolateral oblique Superoinferior
ANS: B 23. Unless contraindicated, the lower limb and leg should be internally rotated for an axiolateral
projection of the hip (Danelius-Miller). How many degrees of rotation are required? a. 10 to 15 b. 15 to 20 c. 20 to 25 d. 25 to 30 ANS: B 24. Which of the following devices are necessary to perform an axiolateral projection of the hip
(Danelius-Miller)? 1. Sandbags 2. Leg support device 3. IR holder a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D
25. Which of the following describes the position of the IR for the axiolateral projection of the hip
(Danelius-Miller)? 1. Parallel with the long axis of the femoral neck 2. Its upper border in the crease above the iliac crest 3. Perpendicular to the long axis of the femur a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A 26. The respiration phase for the axiolateral projection of the hip (Danelius-Miller) is: a. inspiration. b. expiration. c. suspended respiration. d. shallow breathing. ANS: C 27. What is the respiration phase for the AP projection of the pelvis? a. Full expiration b. Full inspiration c. Suspended respiration d. Shallow breathing ANS: C 28. Which ramus is labeled with the arrow in this figure?
a. b. c. d.
Superior pubic Inferior pubic Superior ischial Inferior ischial
ANS: A
29. What is the recommended exposure field size and orientation for the AP projection of the hip? a. 10 12 inch (24 30 cm), crosswise b. 10 12 inch (24 30 cm), lengthwise c. 14 17 inch (35 43 cm), lengthwise d. 14 17 inch (35 43 cm), crosswise ANS: B 30. Which of the following is an important and frequently used radiographic positioning reference
point? a. Acetabulum b. Ischial spine c. Anterior superior iliac spine d. Posterior superior iliac spine ANS: C 31. The anatomy indicated by the arrow on this figure is the:
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a. b. c. d.
pubis. ischium. acetabulum. obturator foramen.
ANS: D 32. The strongest bone in the body is the: a. femur. b. pelvis. c. skull. d. humerus. ANS: A 33. In the anatomic position, the body of the femur is angled a. 5 b. 10
degrees.
c. 15 d. 20 ANS: B 34. The hip joint is a joint. a. fibrous, gomphosis b. fibrous, syndesmosis c. synovial, gliding d. synovial, ball and socket ANS: D 35. How far apart should the heels be placed to internally rotate the lower limbs for an AP pelvis? a. 1 to 3 inches b. 4 to 6 inches c. 8 to 10 inches d. 12 to 15 inches ANS: C 36. Where is the IR centered for an AP pelvis? a. Midway between the ASIS and the pubic symphysis b. At the level of the ASIS c. At the level of the pubic symphysis d. 2 inches below the iliac crest ANS: A 37. Where is the central ray directed for the AP oblique projection (modified Cleaves) of the
femoral necks? a. At the pubic symphysis b. 1 inch superior to the pubic symphysis c. 1 inch inferior to the pubic symphysis d. 2 inches superior to the pubic symphysis ANS: B 38. Which of the following best describes the female pelvis?
1. Heavy bones 2. Oval inlet 3. Wide outlet a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: C 39. The SI joint is a joint. a. synovial irregular, gliding b. synovial, ellipsoidal c. cartilaginous, synchondroses
d. cartilaginous, symphysis ANS: A 40. A malformation of the acetabulum causing displacement of the femoral head is known as: a. osteopetrosis. b. Paget disease. c. congenital hip dysplasia. d. Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease. ANS: C 41. Flattening of the femoral head due to a vascular interruption is known as: a. chondrosarcoma. b. Paget disease. c. congenital hip dysplasia. d. Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease. ANS: D 42. Which of the following projections can be performed with one exposure if a compensating
filter is used? a. AP hip b. AP oblique ilium c. AP oblique acetabulum (Judet method) d. Axiolateral hip (Danelius-Miller method) ANS: D 43. The angle of the SI joints is a. 10 b. 20 c. 25 to 30 d. 30 to 35
degrees relative to the midsagittal plane.
ANS: C 44. The body is placed at what angle for the AP oblique projection (Judet method) of the
acetabulum? a. 45 degrees b. 50 degrees c. 40 to 50 degrees d. 45 to 60 degrees ANS: A 45. How much is the central ray angled for the AP oblique projection (Judet method) of the
acetabulum? a. 0 degrees b. 10 degrees c. 12 degrees d. 15 degrees
ANS: A 46. What is the central-ray entrance point for the AP oblique projection (Judet method) of the
acetabulum? a. 2 inches superior to the ASIS b. 2 inches inferior to the ASIS c. 3 inches superior to the ASIS d. 3 inches inferior to the ASIS ANS: B 47. The external oblique position of the AP oblique projection (Judet method) demonstrates the a. b. c. d.
column and rim of acetabulum. iliopubic; posterior iliopubic; anterior ilioischial; posterior ilioischial; anterior
ANS: D 48. The AP axial projection (Bridgeman method) requires that the central ray be directed: a. perpendicular. b. 20 to 35 degrees caudad for males; 30 to 45 degrees caudad for females. c. 40 degrees caudad. d. 40 degrees cephalad. ANS: C
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49. What anatomy is labeled as letter C in the image below?
a. b. c. d.
Iliac crest Ala of ilium ASIS AIIS
ANS: C
50. What anatomy is labeled as letter H in the image below?
a. b. c. d.
Pubic symphysis Obturator foramen Ischial tuberosity Superior pubic ramus
ANS: B 51. What projection and anatomy of interest is depicted in the image below?
a. b. c. d.
AP oblique (modified Cleaves), femoral necks AP oblique (Cleaves), femoral necks AP axial (Taylor), anterior pelvic bones AP axial (Bridgeman), pelvic inlet
ANS: A 52. What positioning error is evident in the image below?
a. b. c. d.
None. This image meets all evaluation criteria for this projection. The lower limbs were not internally rotated. The lower limbs were not externally rotated. The knees were not flexed to reduce lordotic curve.
ANS: B 53. What projection (method) is demonstrated in the image below?
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a. b. c. d.
AP oblique (modified Cleaves) Mediolateral (Lauenstein) Axiolateral (Danelius-Miller) AP oblique (Judet)
ANS: C 54. What anatomy is labeled as letter A in the image below?
a. b. c. d.
Acetabulum Femoral head Femoral neck Greater trochanter
ANS: A 55. What anatomy is labeled as letter B in the image below?
a. b. c. d.
Acetabulum Femoral head Lesser trochanter Iliac crest
ANS: C 56. What anatomy is labeled as letter C in the image below?
a. b. c. d.
Acetabulum Femoral head Femoral neck Iliac crest
ANS: B 57. Examine this AP oblique (Judet) image of the right hip obtained with the patient positioned
for the internal oblique. What patient position is depicted?
a. b. c. d.
45 degrees RPO 45 degrees LPO 45 degrees RAO 45 degrees LAO
ANS: B 58. Examine this AP oblique (Judet) image of the right hip obtained with the patient positioned
for the internal oblique. What is the anatomy of interest?
a. b. c. d.
Anterior acetabular rim and iliopubic column Posterior acetabular rim and iliopubic column Anterior acetabular rim and ilioischial column Posterior acetabular rim and ilioischial column
ANS: B MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. Which two of the following describes the central ray for an axiolateral projection of the hip
(Danelius-Miller)? (Select all that apply.) a. Perpendicular to the IR b. 10 to 15 degrees cephalad c. 10 to 15 degrees caudad d. Perpendicular to the long axis of the femoral neck ANS: A, D
Chapter 09: Vertebral Column Long: Merrill’s Atlas of Radiographic Positioning and Procedures, 14th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. All are functions of the vertebral column, except: a. supports the trunk. b. protects the spinal cord. c. supports the skull. d. produces cerebrospinal fluid. ANS: D 2. The vertebral column articulates with the hip bone at the: a. sacroiliac joint. b. pubic symphysis. c. acetabulum. d. L5-S1 joint. ANS: A 3. How many vertebrae make up the vertebral column? a. 24 b. 27 c. 33 d. 54 ANS: C 4. How many vertebrae are there in the sacrum? a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6 ANS: C 5. When viewed from the side, the vertebral column should present how many curves? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 ANS: C 6. An abnormal increase in the convexity of the thoracic spine is termed: a. scoliosis. b. spondylosis. c. lordosis. d. kyphosis. ANS: D
7. An abnormally increased concavity of the lumbar spine is termed: a. lordosis. b. kyphosis. c. scoliosis. d. scoliokyphosis. ANS: A 8. An abnormal lateral curvature of the spine is termed: a. scoliosis. b. kyphosis. c. lordosis. d. scoliokyphosis. ANS: A 9. The articulations between the articular processes of the vertebral arches are called the
joints. a. costovertebral b. costotransverse c. intervertebral d. zygapophyseal ANS: D 10. The short, thick processes that project posteriorly on each side of a vertebral body are called
the: a. b. c. d.
pedicles. laminae. transverse processes. spinous processes.
ANS: A 11. Spinal nerves and blood vessels exit the spinal column through the: a. vertebral arch. b. vertebral notches. c. vertebral foramen. d. intervertebral foramina. ANS: D 12. Which vertebral process projects posteriorly from the junction of the laminae and pedicles? a. Spinous process b. Transverse process c. Superior articular process d. Inferior articular process ANS: A 13. The condition in which an intervertebral disk “slips” and protrudes into the vertebral canal is
called:
a. b. c. d.
vertebrogenesis. spondylolysis. spondylolisthesis. herniated nucleus pulposus.
ANS: D 14. The part identified in this figure is the:
a. b. c. d.
body. lamina. pedicle. transverse process.
ANS: C 15. The part identified in this figure is the:
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a. b. c. d.
vertebral arch. vertebral foramen. intervertebral foramina. transverse foramen.
ANS: B 16. The part identified in this figure is the:
a. b. c. d.
lamina. pedicle. superior articular process. inferior articular process.
ANS: C 17. The first cervical vertebra is called the: a. axis. b. atlas. c. dens. d. vertebra prominens. ANS: B 18. The vertebra prominens is the name given to the _ a. first cervical b. second cervical c. seventh cervical d. first thoracic
vertebra.
ANS: C 19. The part identified by the arrow on the vertebra in this figure is the:
a. b. c. d.
superior articular process. inferior articular process. transverse process. lateral mass.
ANS: A 20. The openings in the cervical vertebrae for the transmission of the vertebral artery and vein are
called the:
a. b. c. d.
transverse foramen. vertebral foramina. intervertebral foramina. inferior vertebral notch.
ANS: A 21. The bony part identified in this figure is the:
a. b. c. d.
spinous process. transverse process. pedicle. lamina.
ANS: B 22. The bony part identified in this figure is the:
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a. b. c. d.
lamina. pedicle. superior articular process. inferior articular process.
ANS: A 23. The intervertebral foramina of the cervical spine open: a. laterally. b. 45 degrees anteriorly. c. 70 degrees anteriorly. d. 45 degrees anteriorly and 15 degrees inferiorly. ANS: D 24. The zygapophyseal joints of the cervical spine are clearly demonstrated on which projection?
a. b. c. d.
AP Lateral AP oblique PA oblique
ANS: B 25. How many thoracic vertebrae have a small concave facet on the transverse process, for
articulation with the tubercle of a rib? a. 7 b. 8 c. 10 d. 12 ANS: C 26. The zygapophyseal joints of the thoracic spine form an angle of how many degrees with the
midsagittal plane? a. 45 b. 90 c. 15 to 20 d. 70 to 75 ANS: D 27. How much is the body rotated from the lateral position to demonstrate the zygapophyseal
joints of the thoracic region? a. 30 degrees b. 45 degrees c. 15 to 20 degrees d. 70 to 75 degrees ANS: C 28. The intervertebral foramina of the thoracic spine are clearly demonstrated on which
projection? a. AP b. Lateral c. PA oblique d. AP oblique ANS: B 29. The intervertebral foramina of the thoracic spine form an angle of how many degrees with the
midsagittal plane? a. 45 b. 90 c. 15 to 20 d. 70 to 75 ANS: B 30. The part on the lumbar vertebra identified in this figure is the:
a. b. c. d.
superior vertebral notch. inferior vertebral notch. superior articular process. inferior articular process.
ANS: D 31. The part identified on the lumbar vertebra in this figure is the:
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superior vertebral notch. inferior vertebral notch. superior articular process. inferior articular process.
ANS: A 32. The zygapophyseal joints of the lumbar spine form an angle of how many degrees from the
posterior midsagittal plane? a. 40 to 60 b. 15 to 20 c. 30 to 50 d. 70 to 75 ANS: C 33. The intervertebral foramina of the superior four lumbar vertebrae are situated how many
degrees from the midsagittal plane? a. 90 b. 15 to 20 c. 30 to 50 d. 70 to 75
ANS: A 34. The condition of the lumbar spine in which there is anterior displacement of one vertebra over
another is termed: a. scoliosis. b. spondylolysis. c. spondylolisthesis. d. scoliokyphosis. ANS: C 35. On each side of the sacral base is a large winglike mass called the: a. ala. b. base. c. promontory. d. superior articular process. ANS: A 36. The angle of the articulation between the sacrum and the ilia (the sacroiliac joints) is
degrees. a. 10 to 15 b. 15 to 20 c. 25 to 30 d. 45 to 50 ANS: C 37. The x-ray projection demonstrated in this figure is the:
a. b. c. d.
AP cervical spine. AP axial cervical spine. AP, open mouth, atlas and axis. AP, Fuchs method, atlas and axis.
ANS: C
38. Where should the center of the IR be positioned for the “open mouth” AP projection of the
atlas and axis? a. To the “Adam’s apple” b. First cervical vertebra c. Second cervical vertebra d. Fourth cervical vertebra ANS: C 39. Which of the following lines must be perpendicular to the IR for the AP “open mouth” atlas
and axis? a. Glabellomeatal line b. Orbitomeatal line c. Acanthiomeatal line d. A line drawn from the lower edge of the upper incisors to the tip of the mastoid process ANS: D 40. For which projection is the patient instructed to softly phonate “ah” during the exposure? a. Lateral cervical vertebrae b. AP “open mouth” atlas and axis c. AP dens, Fuchs method d. AP axial cervical spine ANS: B 41. Where is the central ray directeN dUfoRrSaI nN “oGpT enBm .oCuOthM” AP projection of the atlas and axis? a. Perpendicular through the open mouth b. Perpendicular to the acanthion c. Parallel to the acanthiomeatal line d. Parallel to the orbitomeatal line ANS: A 42. The respiration phase for the “open mouth” AP projection of the atlas and axis is: a. inspiration. b. expiration. c. suspended respiration. d. softly phonate “ah” during the exposure. ANS: D 43. Which of the following methods is used to demonstrate the dens within the foramen magnum? a. Grandy b. Fuchs c. Twining d. Pawlow ANS: B 44. Which of the following describes the anatomy of interest for the Fuchs method? a. AP, dens
b. AP, atlas and axis c. AP, cervicothoracic region d. Lateral, cervicothoracic region ANS: A 45. Where is the center of the IR positioned for the AP projection of the dens, Fuchs method? a. Acanthion b. Mental point c. External acoustic meatus d. Tip of the mastoid process ANS: D 46. What is the central-ray angulation for the AP projection of the dens, Fuchs method? a. 0 degrees b. 5 degrees caudad c. 15 degrees cephalad d. 20 degrees cephalad ANS: A 47. Which of the following is placed perpendicular to the tabletop for the AP axial cervical
vertebrae? a. Glabellomeatal line b. Orbitomeatal line c. Acanthiomeatal line d. The occlusal plane ANS: D 48. Where is the IR centered for an AP axial cervical spine? a. Second cervical vertebra b. Third cervical vertebra c. Fourth cervical vertebra d. Seventh cervical vertebra ANS: C 49. The central-ray angle for an AP axial of cervical vertebrae is: a. 10 to 15 degrees cephalad. b. 5 to 10 degrees cephalad. c. 15 to 20 degrees cephalad. d. variable, depending on the body habitus. ANS: C 50. How are small weights applied to the arms for the lateral projection of the cervical spine
(Grandy method)? a. Affixed to the elbows b. Affixed to the wrists c. Held in the hands d. Held by the fingers
ANS: B 51. Where is the IR centered for a lateral cervical spine (Grandy method)? a. Second cervical vertebra b. Third cervical vertebra c. Fourth cervical vertebra d. Seventh cervical vertebra ANS: C 52. Where is the central ray directed for a lateral cervical spine? a. Third cervical vertebra b. Fourth cervical vertebra c. Fifth cervical vertebra d. Seventh cervical vertebra ANS: B 53. What is the recommended SID for the lateral cervical spine (Grandy method)? a. 40 inches b. 48 inches c. 40 to 55 inches d. 60 to 72 inches ANS: D 54. The respiration phase for a lateral cervical spine is: a. full expiration. b. full inspiration. c. suspended respiration. d. softly phonate “ah” during the exposure. ANS: A 55. The Grandy method is a(n): a. lateral projection of the cervical vertebrae. b. lateral projection of the cervicothoracic region. c. AP/PA thoracolumbar spine. d. lateral thoracolumbar spine. ANS: A 56. Where is the central ray centered for a hyperflexion or hyperextension lateral cervical spine? a. Second cervical vertebra b. Third cervical vertebra c. Fourth cervical vertebra d. Seventh cervical vertebra ANS: C 57. The phase of respiration for a hyperflexion or hyperextension lateral cervical spine is: a. shallow breathing.
b. suspended respiration. c. full expiration. d. full inspiration. ANS: B 58. Which projections of the cervical spine will demonstrate the lower five zygapophyseal joints
of the cervical spine? 1. Lateral 2. Lateral in hyperflexion 3. Lateral in hyperextension a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D 59. Where is the IR centered for a hyperflexion or hyperextension lateral projection of the cervical
spine? a. Second cervical vertebra b. Third cervical vertebra c. Fourth cervical vertebra d. Seventh cervical vertebra ANS: C 60. How much is the body rotated N foU rR anSA obCliOqM ue projection of the cervical intervertebral IPNaGxTiaBl .
foramina? a. 45 degrees b. 60 degrees c. 70 degrees d. 40 to 60 degrees ANS: A
61. What is the central-ray angle for the AP axial oblique projection of the cervical intervertebral
foramina? a. 15 degrees cephalad b. 15 to 20 degrees cephalad c. 15 to 20 degrees caudad d. Perpendicular ANS: B 62. Which intervertebral foramina are demonstrated on an AP axial oblique projection of the
cervical spine? a. Those farthest from the IR b. Those closest to the IR c. Both sides equally demonstrated d. The inferior six closest to the IR
ANS: A 63. Where is the central ray directed for the AP axial oblique projection of the cervical
intervertebral foramina? a. Second cervical vertebra b. Third cervical vertebra c. Fourth cervical vertebra d. Seventh cervical vertebra ANS: C 64. What is the recommended SID for the AP axial oblique projection of the cervical spine? a. 40 to 48 inches b. 48 to 60 inches c. 54 to 62 inches d. 60 to 72 inches ANS: D 65. Where is the central ray directed for a PA axial oblique projection of the cervical
intervertebral foramina? a. Second cervical vertebra b. Third cervical vertebra c. Fourth cervical vertebra d. Seventh cervical vertebra ANS: C
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66. What is the central-ray angle for the PA axial oblique projection of the cervical intervertebral
foramina? a. 45 degrees cephalad b. 45 degrees caudad c. 15 to 20 degrees cephalad d. 15 to 20 degrees caudad ANS: D 67. Which intervertebral foramina are demonstrated on the PA axial oblique projection of the
cervical spine? a. Those closest to the IR b. Those farthest from the IR c. Both sides are equally demonstrated d. The inferior side farthest from the IR ANS: A 68. The respiration phase for an AP or PA axial oblique projection of the cervical spine is: a. shallow breathing. b. suspended respiration. c. full inspiration. d. full expiration. ANS: B
69. Which of the following methods uses a chewing motion of the mandible to demonstrate the
cervical spine in an AP projection? a. Ottonello b. Grandy c. Twining d. Fuchs ANS: A 70. Which projection is recommended to demonstrate the cervical vertebral arches or pillars when
the patient cannot hyperextend the neck? a. AP axial b. PA axial c. AP axial oblique with right and left head rotation d. Lateral projection, dorsal decubitus position ANS: C 71. How is the neck positioned for the AP axial projection of the vertebral arch (pillars)? a. With the occlusal plane perpendicular to the image receptor b. With the occlusal plane parallel to the image receptor c. In hyperextension d. In hyperflexion ANS: C 72. What is the central-ray angulatN ioU nR foSr I anNA ax.iaCl O obMlique projection of the cervical spine on a GPTB
trauma patient? a. 15 to 20 degrees caudad b. 15 to 20 degrees cephalad c. 30 to 40 degrees caudad d. 30 to 40 degrees cephalad ANS: C
73. Where does the central ray exit for the AP axial oblique projection to demonstrate the cervical
spine pillars and laminae? a. C4 b. C5 c. C7 d. T2 ANS: C 74. Which of the following will demonstrate the cervicothoracic region in the lateral projection? a. Ottonello method b. Swimmer’s technique c. Ferguson method d. Fuchs method ANS: B
75. The swimmer’s technique demonstrates the cervicothoracic region in which projection? a. AP b. Lateral c. AP axial d. AP axial oblique ANS: B 76. The swimmer’s technique lateral projection is performed to demonstrate the: a. cervical vertebrae. b. thoracic vertebrae. c. atlas and axis. d. cervicothoracic vertebrae. ANS: D 77. Where is the IR centered for the lateral projection of the cervicothoracic region (swimmer’s
technique)? a. C5 b. C6 c. C6-C7 interspace d. C7-T1 interspace ANS: D 78. What is the central-ray angulation for the lateral projection of the cervicothoracic region
(swimmer’s technique) when the shoulder can be depressed? a. 0 degrees b. 5 degrees caudad c. 10 degrees caudad d. 15 degrees caudad ANS: A 79. Where is the central ray directed for the lateral projection of the cervicothoracic region
(swimmer’s technique)? a. C4 b. C5 c. C6-C7 interspace d. C7-T1 interspace ANS: D 80. When the shoulder is immobile and cannot be depressed sufficiently for the cervicothoracic
region lateral projection (swimmer’s technique), the central ray is angled: a. 10 to 20 degrees cephalad. b. 10 to 20 degrees caudad. c. 3 to 5 degrees caudad. d. 3 to 5 degrees cephalad. ANS: C
81. For the cervicothoracic region lateral projection (swimmer’s technique), the recommended
position of the humeral head closest to the IR is moved: a. anteriorly. b. posteriorly. c. medially. d. laterally. ANS: A 82. Where should the superior edge of the IR/collimated field be placed for an AP projection of
the thoracic vertebrae? a. 1 inch above the shoulders b. 1 to 2 inches above the shoulders c. 1 to 2 inches below the shoulders d. At the level of the shoulders ANS: B 83. Which of the following should be performed to place the back in contact with the table for an
AP thoracic spine? 1. Flex the hips. 2. Flex the knees. 3. Flex the cervical spine. a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A 84. What is the central-ray angle for an AP thoracic spine? a. 3 to 5 degrees caudad b. 3 to 5 degrees cephalad c. 5 to 7 degrees caudad d. 5 to 7 degrees cephalad ANS: A 85. Where should the cathode end of an x-ray be placed for an AP thoracic spine to take
advantage of the “heel effect” of the tube? a. Toward the head b. Toward the feet c. Head or foot end d. Variable, depending on body habitus ANS: B 86. Where should the arms be placed for a lateral projection of the thoracic spine? a. Over the head b. Flexed in front of the thorax c. At right angles to the long axis of the body d. Variable, depending on body habitus
ANS: C 87. What is the central-ray angulation for the lateral projection of the thoracic spine if the
vertebral column is not elevated to a horizontal plane? a. 3 to 5 degrees caudad b. 3 to 5 degrees cephalad c. 10 to 15 degrees caudad d. 10 to 15 degrees cephalad ANS: D 88. Where is the central ray directed for a lateral thoracic spine? a. Level of T5 b. Level of T7 c. Level of T9 d. Level of T10 ANS: B 89. If a lead rubber sheet is not placed on the table when performing a lateral projection of the
thoracic spine, the image may be: a. underexposed. b. overexposed. c. too high in contrast. d. too low in contrast. ANS: A 90. Which positioning maneuver helps to reduce the lordotic curvature of the lumbar spine for the
AP projection? a. Flexing the hips and knees b. Abducting the legs 45 degrees c. Raising the arms overhead d. Arms in right angle abduction, elbows flexed ANS: A 91. Where is the central ray directed for an AP lumbosacral spine? a. L2 b. L3 c. Iliac crests d. The ASIS ANS: C 92. Where is the IR centered for an AP projection of the lumbosacral spine? a. L2 b. L3 c. The ASIS d. The iliac crests ANS: D
93. The phase of respiration for an AP projection of the lumbar spine is: a. suspended respiration. b. deep inspiration. c. deep expiration. d. shallow breathing. ANS: A 94. Which of the following planes is placed perpendicular to the tabletop and centered to the
midline of the grid for a lateral lumbar spine? a. Horizontal plane b. Midcoronal plane c. Midsagittal plane d. Transverse plane ANS: B 95. All of the following might be used to provide an optimal image on a lateral projection of the
lumbar spine, except: a. close collimation. b. sponge to support spine in horizontal position. c. 72-inch SID. d. leaded rubber sheet. ANS: C 96. Where is a 14 17 inch (35 4N3UcR mS) I exNpG osTuB re.fC ieO ldMcentered for a lateral lumbar spine? a. L2 b. L3 c. The ASIS d. The iliac crests ANS: D 97. If the lumbar spine cannot be adjusted so it is horizontal for the lateral projection, the central
ray should be angled: a. 5 degrees men, 8 degrees women, cephalad. b. 5 degrees men, 8 degrees women, caudad. c. 8 degrees men, 12 degrees women, cephalad. d. 8 degrees men, 12 degrees women, caudad. ANS: A 98. Which of the following will prevent the AEC detector from prematurely terminating the
exposure during a lateral lumbar spine? a. Using a 10 12 inch (24 30 cm) exposure field b. Using a 14 17 inch (35 43 cm) exposure field c. Collimating a 2-inch border from the IR edges d. Placing a sheet of lead rubber on the table behind the patient ANS: D
99. Which of the following describes the central-ray centering point for the L5-S1 lateral
projection? a. 2 inches posterior to the ASIS b. 3 inches posterior to the ASIS c. 2 inches posterior to the ASIS and 1 inches below the iliac crest d. 2 inches posterior to the ASIS and 2 inches below the iliac crest ANS: C 100. An alternate method of positioning the central ray for the L5-S1 lateral projection is: a. parallel with the interiliac line. b. perpendicular to the interiliac line. c. parallel with the midsagittal plane. d. perpendicular to the midcoronal plane. ANS: A 101. Which of the following is the essential projection used to demonstrate the zygapophyseal
joints of the lumbar spine? a. AP b. Lateral c. AP oblique d. PA oblique ANS: C 102. To demonstrate the zygapophyN seU alRjS oiI ntNs G ofTtB he.lC um bar spine, MSP of the patient is rotated OM
degrees.
a. b. c. d.
30 45 50 55
ANS: B 103. Which zygapophyseal joints are demonstrated on the AP oblique projection of the lumbar
spine? a. Joints farthest from the IR b. Joints closest to the IR c. Both joints equally demonstrated d. The L1 to L4 joints closest to the IR ANS: B 104. Where is the longitudinal plane of the lumbar spine positioned for the AP oblique projection? a. 2 inches medial to the elevated ASIS b. 2 inches lateral to the elevated ASIS c. 2 inches medial to the lower ASIS d. 2 inches lateral to the lower ASIS ANS: A
105. The respiration phase for the AP oblique projection of the lumbar spine is: a. inspiration. b. expiration. c. suspended respiration. d. shallow breathing. ANS: B 106. What is the central-ray centering point for an AP oblique lumbar spine? a. At MSP at the level of the ASIS b. 2 inches medial to the elevated ASIS at the level of the iliac crest c. 2 inches medial to the elevated ASIS and 1 to 1 inch above the iliac crest d. 2 inches lateral to the elevated ASIS and 2 inches above the iliac crest ANS: D 107. Which projection of the lumbar spine displays the vertebrae in the form of a “Scottie dog”?
1. Lateral 2. AP oblique 3. PA oblique a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: C 108. What is the central-ray angle foNrU thReSAIPNaG xiTalBp.roCjO ecMtion (Ferguson method) of the
lumbosacral junction? a. 25 to 30 degrees cephalad b. 30 to 35 degrees cephalad c. 35 to 45 degrees cephalad d. 40 to 50 degrees cephalad ANS: B
109. How are the lower limbs positioned for the AP axial projection (Ferguson method) of the
lumbosacral junction? a. Extended b. Flexed c. Externally rotated d. Internally rotated ANS: A 110. Where does the central ray enter the body for the AP axial projection (Ferguson method) of
the lumbosacral junction? a. At the pubic symphysis b. 1 inches superior to the pubic symphysis c. 3 inches superior to the pubic symphysis d. At the level of the ASISs
ANS: B 111. The projection demonstrated in this figure is the:
a. b. c. d.
AP oblique, sacroiliac joint. PA oblique, sacroiliac joint. AP oblique, lumbar spine. PA oblique, lumbar spine.
ANS: A 112. How many degrees is the body rotated for the AP oblique projection of the sacroiliac joint? a. 20 to 25 b. 25 to 30 c. 30 to 35 d. 35 to 40 ANS: B 113. Which plane is centered to the midline of the grid when positioning for an AP oblique
sacroiliac joint? a. Midcoronal plane b. Midsagittal plane c. Longitudinal plane 1 inch medial to the elevated ASIS d. Longitudinal plane 2 inches medial to the elevated ASIS ANS: C 114. The central-ray angle for an AP oblique sacroiliac joint is: a. 0 degrees. b. 5 degrees caudad. c. 10 degrees caudad. d. 15 degrees caudad. ANS: A 115. The central-ray angle for an AP axial projection of the sacrum is: a. 10 degrees caudad. b. 10 degrees cephalad. c. 15 degrees caudad. d. 15 degrees cephalad. ANS: D
116. Where does the central ray enter the patient for an AP axial projection of the sacrum? a. 2 inches at the pubic symphysis b. 1 inch inferior to the symphysis c. 1 inch at the pubic symphysis d. 2 inches superior to the pubic symphysis ANS: D 117. Occasionally, a patient may have to be placed in the prone position for a sacrum radiography,
and a PA projection performed. What is the central-ray angle for this projection? a. 10 degrees caudad b. 15 degrees caudad c. 10 degrees cephalad d. 15 degrees cephalad ANS: B 118. The central-ray angle for an AP axial projection of the coccyx is: a. 10 degrees caudad. b. 15 degrees caudad. c. 10 degrees cephalad. d. 15 degrees cephalad. ANS: A 119. Where does the central ray enter the patient for an AP axial projection of the coccyx? a. At the pubic symphysis b. 1 inch inferior to the pubic symphysis c. 2 inches superior to the pubic symphysis d. 3 inches superior to the pubic symphysis ANS: C 120. Occasionally, a patient may have to be placed in the prone position for a PA projection of the
coccyx. What is the central-ray angle for this projection? a. 10 degrees caudad b. 10 degrees cephalad c. 15 degrees caudad d. 15 degrees cephalad ANS: B 121. Where is the central ray positioned for a lateral sacrum? a. At the level of the ASIS and 3 inches posterior b. At the level of the ASIS and 4 inches posterior c. 3 inches inferior to the iliac crest d. 4 inches inferior to the iliac crest ANS: A 122. Where is the central ray positioned for a lateral coccyx? a. 3 inches posterior to ASIS and 1 inch inferior
b. 3 inches posterior to ASIS and 2 inches inferior c. 4 inches inferior to the iliac crest d. 5 inches inferior to the iliac crest ANS: B 123. Which of the following devices should be used to improve image quality on the lateral
projection of the sacrum or coccyx? 1. Sandbags 2. Close collimation 3. Sheet of leaded rubber a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: C 124. In reference to the ASIS, where is the central-ray entrance for a lateral coccyx? a. 3 inches (9 cm) posterior and 2 inches (5 cm) inferior b. 3 inches (9 cm) anterior and 2 inches (5 cm) superior c. 2 inches (5 cm) posterior and 3 inches (9 cm) inferior d. 2 inches (5 cm) anterior and 3 inches (9 cm) superior ANS: A 125. The central-ray angle for a lateral coccyx and sacrum is: a. 0 degrees. b. 5 degrees caudad. c. 10 degrees caudad. d. 5 to 10 degrees cephalad. ANS: A 126. Which of the following techniques should be utilized to decrease radiation dose during
scoliosis radiography? 1. Close collimation 2. Breast shields 3. PA projection a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D 127. Which of the following methods is used to evaluate the thoracic and lumbar spine during
scoliosis radiography? a. Pawlow b. Ferguson c. Twining d. Lindblom
ANS: B 128. The part identified in this figure is the:
a. b. c. d.
ala. base. promontory. first sacral segment.
ANS: B 129. How many true, or movable, vertebrae are there in the vertebral column? a. 7 b. 12 c. 24 d. 33 ANS: C 130. The vertebral body and the vertebral arch surround a space called the: a. lamina. b. vertebral notch. c. vertebral foramen. d. intervertebral foramina. ANS: C 131. Spina bifida is a congenital deformity of the vertebral column in which the
fail to unite
posteriorly. a. arches b. bodies c. pedicles d. lamina ANS: D 132. The articulating surfaces of the articular processes of the vertebrae are covered with
fibrocartilage. These surfaces are called: a. facets.
b. notches. c. foramens. d. tubercles. ANS: A 133. The articulating facet on the inferior articular process of the vertebrae is located on its
surface. a. posterior b. anterior c. superior d. inferior ANS: B 134. The articulating facet on the superior articular process of the vertebrae is located on its
surface. a. inferior b. superior c. anterior d. posterior ANS: D 135. Which vertebra contains both an anterior and a posterior arch? a. Cervical b. Thoracic c. Lumbar d. Sacral ANS: A 136. The vertebral foramen of the first cervical vertebra contains the:
1. dens. 2. facets. 3. spinal cord. a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: B 137. The second cervical vertebra is called the: a. dens. b. atlas. c. axis. d. vertebra prominens. ANS: C 138. How many foramina are located in each cervical vertebra? a. One
b. Two c. Three d. Four ANS: C 139. The superior and inferior articular processes of the cervical spine form thick columns called
the: a. b. c. d.
facets. laminae. pedicles. articular pillars.
ANS: D 140. Which thoracic vertebrae contain only a single costal facet on each side of its body? a. T1, T2 b. T1, T2, T3 c. T11, T12 d. T10, T11, T12 ANS: D 141. Which thoracic vertebrae contain costal facets on the transverse process? a. T1-T3 b. T1-T9 c. T1-T10 d. T1-T12 ANS: C 142. The part identified on the vertebra above is the:
a. b. c. d.
pedicle. lamina. transverse process. superior articular process.
ANS: B 143. The part identified on the vertebrae above is the:
a. b. c. d.
pedicle. lamina. spinous process. mammillary process.
ANS: D 144. The part identified on the lumbar vertebra above is the:
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a. b. c. d.
pedicle. lamina. superior articular process and facet. transverse process.
ANS: C 145. The part of the lamina that lies between the superior and inferior articular processes on a
typical lumbar vertebra is called the: a. transverse process. b. pars interarticularis. c. accessory process. d. mammillary process. ANS: B 146. All of the joints of the vertebral column are synovial—freely movable—except one. Which
joint is not?
a. b. c. d.
Intervertebral Zygapophyseal Costovertebral Costotransverse
ANS: A 147. The intervertebral joints of the spinal column are classified as: a. fibrous, syndesmosis. b. cartilaginous, symphysis. c. synovial, gliding. d. synovial, pivot. ANS: B 148. The zygapophyseal joints of the vertebral column are classified as: a. synovial, gliding. b. synovial, pivot. c. synovial, ellipsoidal. d. cartilaginous, symphysis. ANS: A 149. What is the projection and anatomy of interest in the figure below?
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a. b. c. d.
AP oblique cervical spine PA axial cervical spine Lateral cervical spine AP axial cervical spine
ANS: D 150. Which projection of the vertebral column is depicted in the figure below?
a. b. c. d.
Lateral cervical spine Lateral cervicothoracic spine AP axial oblique cervical spine Oblique thoracic spine
ANS: B 151. Where is the central ray centered on the patient to obtain the image below?
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a. b. c. d.
MCP at the level of C7-T1 MCP at the level of T1-T2 MSP at the level of C7-T1 MSP at the level of C7-T1
ANS: A 152. To reduce distortion of the intervertebral joint spaces of the lumbar spine for an AP
projection, an SID of a. 36 b. 40 c. 48 d. 72 ANS: C
inches is suggested.
153. When only the lumbar vertebrae (not lumbosacral) are imaged in the AP projection, the
central ray is directed a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
inches above the iliac crests.
ANS: A 154. One fourth of the length of the vertebral column is made up of the: a. vertebral bodies. b. intervertebral disks. c. transverse processes. d. intervertebral foramina. ANS: B 155. What type of compensating filter is suggested for the AP projection of the thoracic spine? a. Wedge b. Double wedge c. Trough d. Boomerang ANS: A 156. A fracture of the anterior arch of C2 due to hyperextension is termed a a. Pott b. Jefferson c. Hangman d. clay-shoveler
fracture.
ANS: C 157. The average range of the angle of the L4-S1 zygapophyseal joints are a. 0 to 30 b. 0 to 45 c. 15 to 45 d. 45 to 60
_ degrees.
ANS: D 158. The average range of the angle of the L1-L3 zygapophyseal joints are a. 0 to 30 b. 0 to 35 c. 15 to 45 d. 45 to 60 ANS: A 159. What projection and position are demonstrated in the image below?
_ degrees.
a. b. c. d.
Lateral, left lateral in hyperflexion Lateral, left lateral in hyperextension AP, hyperflexion AP, hyperextension
ANS: A 160. Examine this AP oblique projection image. What patient position was required to obtain this
image?
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a. b. c. d.
25 to 30 degree LPO 25 to 30 degree RPO 30 to 45 degree LPO 30 to 45 degree RPO
ANS: B 161. What anatomy is labeled with the letter C in the image below?
a. b. c. d.
Occipital base Lateral mass of C1 Dens of C2 Body of C2
ANS: C 162. What anatomy is labeled with the letter E in the image below?
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a. b. c. d.
Occipital base Lateral mass of C1 Dens of C2 Body of C2
ANS: B 163. What anatomy is labeled with the letter D in the image below?
a. b. c. d.
T1 C5 C7 T2
ANS: C 164. What anatomy is labeled with the letter A in the image below?
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a. b. c. d.
Zygapophyseal joint of C4-C5 Zygapophyseal joint of C5-C6 Intervertebral foramen of C4-C5 Intervertebral foramen of C5-C6
ANS: C 165. What anatomy is labeled with the letter C in the image below?
a. b. c. d.
Intervertebral disk space of C6-C7 Intervertebral foramen of C6-C7 Intervertebral disk space of C7-T1 Intervertebral foramen of C7-T1
ANS: A 166. What anatomy is labeled with the letter B in the image below?
a. b. c. d.
Lamina of C6 Pedicle of C6 Lamina of C5 Pedicle of C5
ANS: B 167. What anatomy is labeled with the letter B in the image below?
a. b. c. d.
Body of L2 Body of L3 Pedicle of L2 Pedicle of L3
ANS: A 168. What anatomy is labeled with the letter D in the image below?
a. b. c. d.
Intervertebral foramen of L4-L5 Zygapophyseal joint of L4-L5 Intervertebral foramen of L3-L4 Zygapophyseal joint of L3-L4
ANS: A 169. What anatomy is labeled with the letter C in the image below?
a. b. c. d.
Intervertebral foramen of L2-L3 Intervertebral disk space of L2-L3 Intervertebral foramen of L3-L4 Intervertebral disk space of L3-L4
ANS: C 170. What anatomy is labeled with tN heUlRetSteIr N CGinTB th. eC imOaM ge below?
a. b. c. d.
L2-L3 zygapophyseal joint L2-L3 intervertebral foramen L1-L2 zygapophyseal joint L1-L2 intervertebral foramen
ANS: C 171. What anatomy is labeled with the letter E in the image below?
a. b. c. d.
L2 pedicle L2 lamina L3 pedicle L3 lamina
ANS: C 172. If this is an AP oblique projection, what is the patient position in the image below?
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a. b. c. d.
45 degree RPO 45 degree LPO 45 degree RAO 45 degree LAO
ANS: A
173. What anatomy is demonstrated in this AP oblique projection in the image below?
a. b. c. d.
Right SI joint Left SI joint L5-S1 joint space L5-S1 zygapophyseal joint
ANS: B 174. What anatomy and projection is demonstrated in the image below?
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a. b. c. d.
AP axial sacrum AP oblique SI joints AP coccyx AP axial lumbosacral junction (Ferguson method)
ANS: A 175. How is the central ray directed to obtain this image?
a. b. c. d.
15 to 20 degrees cephalad 15 to 20 degrees caudad 25 to 30 degrees cephalad 25 to 30 degrees caudad
ANS: A 176. Letter A in the image below labels the
ody. COM NURSINGTBb.
a. b. c. d.
C2 C3 C4 C5
ANS: C 177. Letter B in the image below labels the:
a. b. c. d.
pedicle. lamina. spinous process. transverse process.
ANS: C MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. Which two vertebral areas have a lordotic curve? (Select all that apply.) a. Sacral b. Lumbar c. Thoracic d. Cervical ANS: B, D 2. Which two vertebral areas have a kyphotic curve? (Select all that apply.) a. Cervical b. Thoracic c. Lumbar d. Sacrococcygeal ANS: B, D 3. A typical vertebra is composed of which two main parts? (Select all that apply.) a. Lamina b. Vertebral foramen c. Body d. Vertebral arch ANS: C, D 4. The intervertebral foramina of the cervical spine are demonstrated on which two of the
following projections? (Select all that apply.) a. AP axial b. Lateral c. AP axial oblique d. PA axial oblique
ANS: C, D 5. Which two of the following devices are necessary to obtain optimal image quality on a lateral
projection of the thoracic spine? (Select all that apply.) a. Close collimation b. IR holder c. Compression band d. Leaded rubber sheet ANS: A, D 6. Which two breathing techniques can be used for a lateral projection of the thoracic vertebrae?
(Select all that apply.) a. Suspended after full inhalation b. Suspended respiration c. Quiet breathing d. Rapid, shallow panting ANS: B, C 7. Which two projections will demonstrate the right sacroiliac joint? (Select all that apply.) a. AP oblique, RPO position b. AP oblique, LPO position c. PA oblique, RAO position d. PA oblique, LAO position ANS: B, C
NURSINGTB.COM
8. Which two projections of the spine are improved significantly with the use of a compensating
filter? (Select all that apply.) a. AP axial cervical b. Lateral sacrum/coccyx c. AP thoracic d. Lateral cervicothoracic (swimmer’s) ANS: C, D
Chapter 10: Bony Thorax Long: Merrill’s Atlas of Radiographic Positioning and Procedures, 14th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. All of the following form the bony thorax, except: a. clavicles. b. 12 thoracic vertebrae. c. 12 pairs of ribs. d. sternum. ANS: A 2. The anatomic part of the sternum identified in the figure below is the:
a. b. c. d.
xiphoid. jugular notch. manubrium. sternal angle.
ANS: C 3. Ribs lie in an oblique plane in the thorax. How are the anterior ends situated in comparison to
the posterior ends? a. 1 inch lower b. 1 inch higher c. 3 to 5 inches lower d. 3 to 5 inches higher ANS: C 4. The space between each of the ribs is called the: a. costal cartilage. b. intercostal spaces. c. costovertebral joints. d. costotransverse joints. ANS: B
5. The part of the rib identified in the figure above is the:
a. b. c. d.
head. neck. facet. shaft.
ANS: A 6. For which type of body habitus will the diaphragm be at the highest level in the body? a. Sthenic b. Asthenic c. Hyposthenic d. Hypersthenic ANS: D 7. For which type of body habitus will the diaphragm be at the lowest position in the body? a. Obese b. Hyposthenic c. Hypersthenic d. Emaciated ANS: B 8. What is the distance of movement of the diaphragm between deep inspiration and deep
expiration? a. 1 inch b. 2 inches c. 3 inches d. 4 inches ANS: A 9. The total movement of the diaphragm will be less for which type of body habitus? a. Sthenic b. Asthenic c. Hyposthenic d. Hypersthenic
ANS: D 10. Which of the following is the recommended breathing technique that should be used when
examining the ribs that lie at the level of the diaphragm? a. One deep inspiration (or expiration) and hold b. Two deep expirations (or inspirations) and hold c. Suspended respiration d. Slow, shallow breathing ANS: B 11. Which projection and body position will demonstrate the sternum through the heart? a. PA oblique, RAO b. PA oblique, LAO c. AP oblique, RPO d. AP oblique, LPO ANS: A 12. Which of the following projections would be used to demonstrate the sternum on a trauma
patient who must remain relatively supine? a. AP projection b. PA projection, RAO c. AP projection, LPO d. AP projection, RPO ANS: C
NURSINGTB.COM
13. How much should the body be rotated for a PA oblique projection of the sternum? a. 10 degrees b. 20 degrees c. 5 to 10 degrees d. 15 to 20 degrees ANS: D 14. Where is the IR centered for a PA oblique sternum? a. Fifth thoracic vertebra b. Seventh thoracic vertebra c. Manubrium sterni d. Jugular notch ANS: B 15. Which breathing techniques can be used when performing an oblique projection of the
sternum? 1. Inspiration 2. Expiration 3. Slow, shallow breathing a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3
d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: C 16. The central-ray angle for the PA oblique projection of the sternum is: a. 5 degrees caudad. b. 10 degrees caudad. c. 15 degrees caudad. d. perpendicular. ANS: D 17. Which SID is recommended for the lateral projection of the sternum for management of
magnification? a. 48 inches b. 60 inches c. 72 inches d. 120 inches ANS: D 18. Where should the patient’s hands be positioned for an upright lateral sternum? a. Locked behind the back b. Straight down at the side c. Locked above the head d. Back of the hands against the thighs ANS: A 19. What is the respiration phase for a lateral projection of the sternum? a. Deep expiration b. Deep inspiration c. Slow, shallow breathing d. Long, deep breathing ANS: B 20. The central-ray angle for a lateral sternum is: a. 5 degrees caudad. b. 10 degrees caudad. c. 10 to 12 degrees caudad. d. perpendicular. ANS: D 21. Where is the center of the IR positioned for a PA projection of sternoclavicular joints? a. Second thoracic vertebra b. Third thoracic vertebra c. Manubrium sterni d. Body of the sternum ANS: B
22. How is the head positioned for a PA projection of both sternoclavicular articulations? a. On the left side b. On the right side c. With the forehead and nose on the table d. With the midsagittal plane vertical ANS: D 23. How is the patient’s head positioned for a PA projection of one sternoclavicular joint? a. Turn the head to face the affected side. b. Turn the head to face the unaffected side. c. With the forehead and nose on the table. d. With the midsagittal plane vertical. ANS: A 24. The phase of respiration for a PA projection of the sternoclavicular joints is: a. expiration. b. inspiration. c. suspended respiration. d. slow, shallow breathing. ANS: A 25. The central-ray angulation for a PA projection of the sternoclavicular joint is: a. 0 degrees. b. 5 degrees caudad. c. 10 degrees caudad. d. 10 to 15 degrees caudad. ANS: A 26. How much is the body rotated for the PA oblique projection of the sternoclavicular
articulation (body rotation technique)? a. 10 degrees b. 20 degrees c. 10 to 15 degrees d. 20 to 30 degrees ANS: C 27. The central-ray angulation for the PA oblique projection of the sternoclavicular articulation
(body rotation technique) is: a. 5 degrees cephalad. b. 7 degrees cephalad. c. 10 degrees cephalad. d. perpendicular. ANS: D 28. When performing the PA oblique projection (body rotation technique) of the sternoclavicular
articulations, which of the joints would be demonstrated? a. Both joints are demonstrated
b. The joint closest to the IR c. The joint farthest from the IR d. Both joints—but varies depending on body habitus ANS: B 29. What is the recommended position for optimal demonstration of the upper anterior ribs? a. Supine b. Lateral decubitus c. Upright d. Prone ANS: C 30. How far is the top of the 14 17 inch (35 43 cm) IR or exposure field placed above the
upper border of the shoulder for projections of the ribs? a. 1 inch b. 1 inches c. 2 inches d. 2 inches ANS: B 31. How are the hands placed for a PA projection of the ribs so that the scapulae are rotated away
from the rib cage? a. Palms of the hands against the hips b. Palms of the hands against the mid-thigh c. Back of the hands against tN heUhRipSsINGTB.COM d. Back of the hands against the mid-thigh ANS: C 32. What is the respiration phase for the PA projection of the upper ribs? a. Full expiration b. Full inspiration c. Suspended respiration d. Slow, shallow breathing ANS: B 33. The central ray for a PA projection of the upper ribs is: a. 0 degrees. b. 5 degrees caudad. c. 10 degrees cephalad. d. 12 degrees cephalad. ANS: A 34. What is the respiration phase for the AP projection of the ribs below the diaphragm? a. Suspended respiration b. Full inspiration c. Full expiration
d. Slow, shallow breathing ANS: C 35. Where is the bottom of the IR positioned for an AP projection of the ribs (below the
diaphragm)? a. At the xiphoid b. At the ASIS c. 1 inch above the crest of the ilium d. At the iliac crest ANS: D 36. How much is the body rotated for an AP or PA axillary projection of the ribs? a. 30 degrees b. 45 degrees c. 20 to 30 degrees d. 35 to 45 degrees ANS: B 37. Which ribs are demonstrated on an AP oblique projection? a. Upper ribs only b. Lower ribs only c. Side farthest from the IR d. Side closest to the IR ANS: D 38. The approximate length of the sternum is a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6
inches.
ANS: D 39. The part of the sternum identified on the figure below is the:
a. b. c. d.
body. manubrium. xiphoid. sternal angle.
ANS: C 40. The easily palpable superior border of the manubrium is called the: a. body. b. xiphoid. c. sternal angle. d. jugular notch. ANS: D 41. How many ribs attach directly to the sternum? a. 5 b. 7 c. 10 d. 12 ANS: B 42. The costal cartilages of the eighth through tenth ribs attach to: a. each other. b. the sternum. c. the costal cartilage of the seventh rib. d. the body of the seventh rib. ANS: C 43. Which ribs are called the true ribs? a. 1 to 7 b. 1 to 10 c. 8 to 12 d. 11 and 12 ANS: A 44. Which ribs are called the false ribs? a. 1 to 7 b. 1 to 10 c. 8 to 12 d. 11 and 12 ANS: C 45. Which ribs are attached to the vertebrae only? a. 1 to 7 b. 1 to 10 c. 8 to 12 d. 11 and 12 ANS: D 46. The part of the rib identified in the figure below is the:
a. b. c. d.
body. angle. costal groove. sternal end.
ANS: A 47. The 12 costovertebral joints of the ribs are: a. synovial—pivot. b. synovial—gliding. c. cartilaginous—symphysis. d. cartilaginous—synchondroses. ANS: B
NURSINGTB.COM
48. The 10 costochondral joints of the ribs are: a. synovial—pivot. b. synovial—gliding. c. cartilaginous—symphysis. d. cartilaginous—synchondroses. ANS: D
49. What degree of x-ray tube angulation is required to demonstrate the sternum on a patient
whose thorax measures 30 cm? a. 12 degrees b. 16 degrees c. 19 degrees d. 22 degrees ANS: A 50. What degree of x-ray tube angulation is required to demonstrate the sternum on a patient
whose thorax measures 15 cm? a. 20 degrees b. 22 degrees c. 28 degrees d. 30 degrees ANS: B
51. What is the recommended SID necessary to blur the posterior ribs on a PA oblique projection
of the sternum? a. 30 inches b. 40 inches c. 48 inches d. 72 inches ANS: A 52. How is the IR positioned for a lateral sternum? a. Top of the IR is at C7-T1. b. Top of the IR is at T3. c. Top of the IR is 1 inch above the jugular notch. d. Top of the IR is 2 inches above the jugular notch. ANS: C 53. To obtain a more uniform density, the respiration phase for the PA oblique projection of the
sternoclavicular joints is: a. inspiration. b. expiration. c. suspended respiration. d. slow, shallow breathing. ANS: B 54. Where is the top of the exposurNeUfiR elS dIpN osGitT ioB ne.dCfO orMan AP oblique projection of the ribs? a. At the level of T1 b. 1 inch above the upper border of the shoulder c. 1 inch above the upper border of the shoulder d. 2 inches above the upper border of the shoulder ANS: C 55. Which of the following exposure field size and orientation is for the AP projection of the
lower ribs? a. 14 17 inches (35 43 cm) lengthwise b. 14 17 inches (35 43 cm) crosswise c. 10 12 inches (24 30 cm) lengthwise d. 10 14 inches (24 35 cm) crosswise ANS: B 56. Which ribs are best demonstrated in this image? a. Axillary portion of the right ribs b. Axillary portion of the left ribs c. Ribs above the diaphragm d. Ribs below the diaphragm ANS: D
57. What breathing instructions are given to the patient before making the exposure for this
image? a. Inhale and hold your breath. b. Exhale and hold your breath. c. Inhale, exhale, inhale and hold your breath. d. Breathe normally. ANS: B 58. Which ribs are best demonstrated in the image below? a. Axillary portion of right ribs b. Axillary portion of left ribs c. Left ribs above the diaphragm d. Right ribs below the diaphragm ANS: A 59. Which ribs are best demonstrated in the image below? a. Axillary portion of right ribs b. Axillary portion of left ribs c. Ribs above the diaphragm d. Ribs below the diaphragm ANS: C MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. Which two joints articulate witN hU aR veSrI teN brG a?T(BS. elC ecOt M all that apply.) a. Costovertebral b. Costochondral c. Costospinal d. Costotransverse ANS: A, D 2. Which two of the following body positions will project the left ribs clear of the heart? (Select
all that apply.) a. RAO b. RPO c. LAO d. LPO ANS: B, C
Chapter 11: Cranium Long: Merrill’s Atlas of Radiographic Positioning and Procedures, 14th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. How many bones make up the cranium? a. 4 b. 6 c. 8 d. 10 ANS: C
PTS: 1
2. How many bones make up the face? a. 4 b. 10 c. 12 d. 14 ANS: D
PTS: 1
3. The cranial bones are rigidly jointed together by articulations called: a. joints. b. bursae. c. sutures. d. cartilage. ANS: C
PTS: 1
4. All of the following are cranial bones except the: a. maxillae. b. frontal. c. sphenoid. d. occipital. ANS: A
PTS: 1
5. All of the following are facial bones except the: a. ethmoid. b. maxillae. c. mandible. d. zygomatic bones. ANS: A
PTS: 1
6. Which skull suture is found between the frontal and parietal bones? a. Sagittal b. Coronal c. Squamosal d. Lambdoidal ANS: B
PTS: 1
7. Which skull suture is located between the parietal bones? a. Hyoid b. Coronal c. Sagittal d. Squamosal ANS: C
PTS: 1
8. The bone indicated in the figure below is the:
a. b. c. d.
parietal. orbital. temporal. zygoma.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
9. The bone identified in the figure below is the:
a. b. c. d.
maxilla. frontal. mandible. ethmoid.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
10. The bone indicated in the figure below is the:
a. b. c. d.
temporal. parietal. occipital. sphenoid.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
11. The part of the frontal bone indicated in the figure below is the:
a. b. c. d.
bregma. lambda. glabella. acanthion.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
12. The part of the cranial base identified in the figure below is the:
a. sella turcica. b. foramen ovale.
c. hypoglossal canal. d. foramen magnum. ANS: D
PTS: 1
13. The part of the cranial base identified in the figure below is the:
a. b. c. d.
auditory canal. dorsum sellae. greater wing. petrous portion.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
14. All of the following bones contain air sinuses, except: a. frontal. b. parietal. c. ethmoid. d. sphenoid. ANS: B
PTS: 1
15. Which bone has condyles that articulate with the atlas of the cervical spine? a. Temporal b. Occipital c. Parietal d. Foramen magnum ANS: B
PTS: 1
16. The zygomatic arches are a part of which bone? a. Frontal b. Parietal c. Temporal d. Sphenoid ANS: C
PTS: 1
17. Which bone in the skull contains the auditory organs and the organs of hearing? a. Temporal b. Sphenoid
c. Occipital d. Ethmoid ANS: A
PTS: 1
18. The petromastoid portion is a part of which bone? a. Temporal b. Sphenoid c. Occipital d. Ethmoid ANS: A
PTS: 1
19. The vestibulocochlear organ is the organ of:
1. hearing. 2. sensation. 3. balance. a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: B
PTS: 1
20. Which of the following is located in the middle ear? a. Cochlea b. Bony labyrinth c. Tympanic membrane d. External acoustic meatus ANS: C
PTS: 1
21. Which of the following is located in the internal ear? a. Concha b. Auditory tube c. Tympanic membrane d. Semicircular canals ANS: D
PTS: 1
22. The maxillary sinus is located in which bone? a. Temporal b. Sphenoid c. Maxilla d. Ethmoid ANS: C
PTS: 1
23. The largest and most dense bone of the face is the: a. maxilla. b. mandible. c. frontal. d. sphenoid.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
24. The small bone situated at the base of the tongue is the: a. hyoid. b. alveolar. c. cornu. d. styloid. ANS: A
PTS: 1
25. The part of the mandible identified in the figure below is the:
a. b. c. d.
body. ramus. symphysis. alveolar portion.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
26. The portion of the mandible identified in the figure below is the:
a. b. c. d.
body. ramus. symphysis. alveolar portion.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
27. The external landmark identified in the figure below is the:
a. b. c. d.
glabella. acanthion. outer canthus. infraorbital margin.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
28. The landmark identified in the figure below is the:
NURSINGTB.COM a. b. c. d.
nasion. glabella. acanthion. auricular point.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
29. The landmark identified in the figure below is termed the:
a. b. c. d.
nasion. glabella. acanthion. inner canthus.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
30. The topographic line shown in the figure below is the:
a. b. c. d.
glabellomeatal. orbitomeatal. acanthiomeatal. infraorbitomeatal.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
31. The topographic line identified in the figure below is the:
a. b. c. d.
orbitomeatal. mentomeatal. acanthiomeatal. infraorbitomeatal.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
32. Which of the following skull types is considered average in size and shape? a. Mesocephalic b. Brachycephalic c. Dolichocephalic ANS: A
PTS: 1
33. Which skull type is narrow from side to side? a. Mesocephalic b. Dolichocephalic c. Brachycephalic ANS: B
PTS: 1
34. In a typically shaped head, the petrous pyramids project anteriorly and medially at what
angle? a. 37 degrees b. 40 degrees c. 47 degrees d. 54 degrees ANS: C
PTS: 1
35. Which plane of the head is placed parallel to the plane of the image receptor for a lateral
projection of the skull? a. Interpupillary b. Transverse c. Midsagittal d. Midcoronal ANS: C
PTS: 1
36. The central ray and center of the image receptor position for a lateral projection of the skull is a. b. c. d.
inch(es) 1; below 2; below 1; above 2; above
ANS: D
the EAM.
PTS: 1
37. Which projection of the skull rN eqUuR ireSsIM osOitM ioned parallel and interpupillary line NSGPTbBe.pC
perpendicular to the IR plane? a. Lateral b. PA axial (Caldwell) c. AP axial (Towne) d. SMV (Schüller) ANS: A
PTS: 1
38. All of the following should be seen on a lateral image of the skull, except: a. superimposed orbital roofs. b. sella turcica in profile. c. temporomandibular joints superimposed. d. mandible overlapping cervical spine. ANS: D
PTS: 1
39. Which method of examining the skull will demonstrate the petrous ridges in the orbits, the
ethmoid and frontal sinuses, and the crista galli? a. Towne b. Caldwell c. Schüller d. Waters ANS: B
PTS: 1
40. The central-ray angle for the PA axial (Caldwell) projection of the skull is: a. 5 degrees cephalad. b. 10 degrees cephalad. c. 12 degrees caudad. d. 15 degrees caudad. ANS: D
PTS: 1
41. Which of the following is perpendicular to the image receptor plane for a Caldwell projection
of the skull? a. Glabellomeatal line b. Acanthiomeatal line c. Orbitomeatal line d. Mentomeatal line ANS: C
PTS: 1
42. Often a patient cannot be turned into the prone position for a PA axial projection of the skull
(Caldwell method). What central-ray angle would be used if the AP axial projection is used instead? a. 10 degrees caudad b. 15 degrees cephalad c. 10 to 15 degrees caudad d. 10 to 15 degrees cephalad ANS: B
PTS: 1
43. Which of the following lines isNpU laR ceSdIpNerGpT enBd. icC ulOarMto the image receptor plane for the AP
axial (Towne) projection? a. Orbitomeatal line b. Supraorbitomeatal line c. Glabellomeatal line d. Acanthiomeatal line ANS: A
PTS: 1
44. If the patient cannot flex the neck to place the orbitomeatal line perpendicular to the image
receptor for an AP axial (Towne) projection, which line should be placed perpendicular? a. Acanthiomeatal line b. Infraorbitomeatal line c. Glabellomeatal line d. Mentomeatal line ANS: B
PTS: 1
45. For an AP axial (Towne) projection of the skull, the center of the IR is at or near the level of
the: a. b. c. d.
foramen magnum. EAM. glabella. acanthion.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
46. Which method of examining the skull is identified in the figure below?
a. b. c. d.
Haas Towne Shüller Caldwell
ANS: B
PTS: 1
acRedSI peNrpGeT ndBi. cuClaOr M to the image receptor during an AP axial 47. If the infraorbitomeatal line is p NlU (Towne) projection of the skull, how much is the central ray angled? a. 15 degrees caudad b. 30 degrees caudad c. 37 degrees caudad d. 45 degrees caudad ANS: C
PTS: 1
48. What is the central-ray angulation for demonstration of the entire foramen magnum during an
AP axial (Towne) projection? a. 37 degrees caudad b. 40 degrees caudad c. 60 degrees caudad d. 40 to 60 degrees caudad ANS: D
PTS: 1
49. What is the average central-ray angulation for the PA axial (Haas) projection of the skull? a. 25 degrees caudad b. 25 degrees cephalad c. 30 degrees caudad d. 30 degrees cephalad ANS: B
PTS: 1
50. Which line should be placed parallel to the plane of the image receptor for the SMV
projection of the cranial base? a. Acanthiomeatal line b. Orbitomeatal line c. Infraorbitomeatal line d. Mentomeatal line ANS: C
PTS: 1
51. Radiographic demonstration of the cranial base is performed by which method? a. Haas b. Rhese c. Towne d. Schüller ANS: D
PTS: 1
52. What is the central-ray angulation for the SMV projection? a. 0 degrees b. 5 degrees caudad c. 5 degrees cephalad d. 5 to 7 degrees cephalad ANS: A
PTS: 1
53. The x-ray projection demonstrated in the figure below is the:
a. b. c. d.
SMV. VSM. AP axial. PA axial.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
54. For an SMV projection of the cranial base, the central ray should always be perpendicular to
the
line.
a. b. c. d.
mentomeatal orbitomeatal infraorbitomeatal acanthiomeatal
ANS: C
PTS: 1
55. All are clearly demonstrated on an SMV projection of the cranial base, except: a. carotid canals. b. sphenoid sinuses. c. mastoid process. d. frontal sinuses. ANS: D
PTS: 1
56. How many bones are contained in the skull? a. 8 b. 14 c. 22 d. 24 ANS: C
PTS: 1
57. The bones of the cranium are joined together by fibrous joints called: a. diploë. b. sulci. c. sutures. d. cartilage. ANS: C
PTS: 1
58. The suture located between the occipital bone and the parietal bones is the: a. lambdoidal. b. squamosal. c. sagittal. d. coronal. ANS: A
PTS: 1
59. The suture identified on the figure below is the:
a. b. c. d.
coronal. squamosal. sagittal. lambdoidal.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
60. The bone identified on the skull below is the:
NURSINGTB.COM
a. b. c. d.
temporal. parietal. zygoma. sphenoid.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
61. The six areas of incomplete ossification in a newborn infant’s skull are called the: a. sulci. b. sutures. c. diploë. d. fontanels. ANS: D
PTS: 1
62. The opening into the apex of the orbit for the transmission of the optic nerve and ophthalmic
artery is called the: a. optic canal. b. optic foramen. c. foramen ovale. d. foramen rotundum. ANS: B
PTS: 1
63. The superior aspect of the sphenoid bone contains a deep depression that contains the: a. pituitary gland. b. pineal gland. c. carotid sulcus. d. optic canal. ANS: A
PTS: 1
64. The part of the sphenoid bone identified in the figure below is the:
a. b. c. d.
clivus. foramen magnum. sella turcica. dorsum sellae.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
65. The part of the sphenoid bone identified in the figure below is the:
a. clivus. b. clinoid processes. c. sella turcica.
d. dorsum sellae. ANS: D
PTS: 1
66. The posterior half of the base of the skull is formed by which bone? a. Temporal b. Sphenoid c. Occipital d. Parietal ANS: C
PTS: 1
67. The large aperture in the occipital bone, through which the medulla oblongata and spinal cord
exit, is termed the: a. foramen magnum. b. basilar part. c. occipital protuberance. d. hypoglossal canal. ANS: A
PTS: 1
68. The base of the anterior portion of the occipital bone contains two large openings that allow
blood vessels and nerves to pass through. These two openings are called the: a. jugular foramina. b. foramen magnum. c. foramen ovale. d. hypoglossal canal. ANS: A
PTS: 1
69. The thickest and densest portion of bone in the cranium is the: a. mastoid portion of the temporal bone. b. petrous portion of the temporal bone. c. basilar part of the occipital bone. d. glabella of the frontal bone. ANS: B
PTS: 1
70. The base of the temporal bone contains an opening through which the internal carotid artery
passes and is termed the: a. foramen spinosum. b. foramen ovale. c. foramen lacerum. d. jugular foramen. ANS: C
PTS: 1
71. Which facial bone contains a foramen through which the tear duct passes? a. Nasal b. Palatine c. Maxilla d. Lacrimal
ANS: D
PTS: 1
72. All of these structures are demonstrated on an AP axial (Towne method) projection of the
skull, except: a. foramen magnum. b. frontal bone. c. occipital bone. d. petrous ridges. ANS: B
PTS: 1
73. How many bones compose the bony orbit? a. 5 b. 7 c. 9 d. 11 ANS: B
PTS: 1
74. The orbit is made up of _ a. three; four b. two; five c. four; five d. three; two ANS: A
cranial bones and _
facial bones.
PTS: 1
75. What bone is labeled as letter B in the diagram below of the orbit?
a. b. c. d.
Frontal Zygoma Maxilla Sphenoid
ANS: A
PTS: 1
76. Letter G in the diagram below of the orbit labels the:
a. b. c. d.
frontal. palatine. maxilla. lacrimal.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
77. Letter E in the diagram below of the orbit labels the:
a. b. c. d.
sphenoid. zygoma. maxilla. frontal.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
78. Letter A in the diagram below of the orbit labels the:
a. b. c. d.
ethmoid. sphenoid. lacrimal. maxilla.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
79. Letter C in the diagram below of the orbit labels the:
a. b. c. d.
ethmoid. sphenoid. lacrimal. maxilla.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
80. Letter D in the diagram below of the orbit labels the:
a. b. c. d.
ethmoid. sphenoid. lacrimal. palatine.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
81. What is the projection (method) demonstrated in the image below used to evaluate trauma to
the orbit?
NURSINGTB.COM
a. b. c. d.
Parietoacanthial (Waters) PA axial (Caldwell) AP axial (Towne) PA axial (Haas)
ANS: A
PTS: 1
82. What projection (method) used to evaluate the cranium is demonstrated in the image below?
a. b. c. d.
Parietoacanthial (Waters) PA axial (Caldwell) AP axial (Towne) PA
ANS: D
PTS: 1
83. How was the central ray directed to obtain the image below, used to evaluate the cranium?
a. b. c. d.
Perpendicular 15 degrees caudad 15 degrees cephalad 37 degrees caudad
ANS: A
PTS: 1
84. How was the central ray directed to obtain the image below, used to evaluate the cranium?
a. b. c. d.
Perpendicular to IOML 15 degrees caudad 25 degrees cephalad 37 degrees caudad
ANS: A
PTS: 1
85. What projection (method) is demonstrated in the image below, used to evaluate the cranium?
a. b. c. d.
PA axial (Caldwell) AP axial (Towne) PA axial (Haas) SMV (Shüller)
ANS: D
PTS: 1
86. What projection (method) is demonstrated in the image below, used to evaluate the cranium?
a. b. c. d.
PA axial (Caldwell) AP axial (Towne) PA axial (Haas) SMV (Shüller)
ANS: A
PTS: 1
87. What structure is labeled as letter B in the image below, used to evaluate the cranium?
NURSINGTB.COM
a. b. c. d.
Acanthion Crista galli Cribriform plate Petrous ridge
ANS: B
PTS: 1
88. Letter F in the image below used to evaluate the cranium labels the:
a. b. c. d.
ethmoid sinuses. crista galli. petrous ridge. inferior orbital margin.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
89. What projection (method) is demonstrated in the image below, used to evaluate the cranium?
a. b. c. d.
PA AP axial (Towne) PA axial (Caldwell) SMV (Schüller)
ANS: B
PTS: 1
90. Letter A in the image below, used to evaluate the cranium, labels the:
a. b. c. d.
dorsum sella. foramen magnum. petrous ridge. parietal bone.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
91. Letter B in the image below, used to evaluate the cranium, labels the:
a. b. c. d.
dorsum sella. foramen magnum. petrous ridge. parietal bone.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
92. Letter C in the image below, used to evaluate the cranium, labels the:
a. b. c. d.
dorsum sella. foramen magnum. petrous ridge. parietal bone.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
93. Letter D in the image below, used to evaluate the cranium, labels the:
a. b. c. d.
dorsum sella. foramen magnum. petrous ridge. parietal bone.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
94. For a lateral projection of the facial bones, the image receptor is centered to the: a. glabella. b. nasion.
c. acanthion. d. zygomatic bone. ANS: D
PTS: 1
95. Which of the following is placed perpendicular to the front edge of the IR for a lateral
projection of the facial bones? a. Mentomeatal line b. Acanthiomeatal line c. Orbitomeatal line d. Infraorbitomeatal line ANS: D
PTS: 1
96. For a lateral projection of the facial bones, the central ray will enter: a. at the TMJ. b. at the EAM. c. at the outer canthus. d. halfway between the outer canthus and the EAM. ANS: D
PTS: 1
97. The lateral projection of the facial bones clearly demonstrates: a. the maxillae. b. the petrous ridge. c. the petromastoid portion. d. all facial bones in their entirety. ANS: D
PTS: 1
98. The parietoacanthial projection of the facial bones is commonly called the a. Towne b. Waters c. Caldwell d. Rhese ANS: B
method.
PTS: 1
99. For the Waters method for the facial bones, the orbitomeatal line is placed at what angle to the
IR? a. b. c. d.
30 degrees 35 degrees 37 degrees 55 degrees
ANS: C
PTS: 1
100. Which of the following is(are) true regarding positioning for the Waters method for the facial
bones? 1. The orbitomeatal line forms a 37-degree angle with the plane of the IR. 2. The infraorbitomeatal line forms a 37-degree angle with the plane of the IR. 3. The midsagittal plane is perpendicular to the IR plane. a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: B
PTS: 1
101. Which of the following is centered to the image receptor for a parietoacanthial projection of
the facial bones? a. Nasion b. Acanthion c. Glabella d. Mental point ANS: B
PTS: 1
102. The figure below demonstrates the
a. b. c. d.
method.
Haas Stenvers Waters reverse Waters
ANS: C
PTS: 1
103. All of the following are clearly demonstrated on the parietoacanthial projection (Waters
method), except: a. foramen magnum. b. orbits. c. zygomatic arches. d. maxillae. ANS: A
PTS: 1
104. The parietoacanthial projection (Waters method) of the facial bones is often modified so that
there is less angulation of the facial bones. For this modification, the orbitomeatal line is adjusted to degrees.
a. b. c. d.
30 37 55 60
ANS: C
PTS: 1
105. Which of the following is placed perpendicular to the image receptor for the acanthoparietal
projection (reverse Waters method) of the facial bones? a. Mentomeatal line b. Infraorbitomeatal line c. Acanthiomeatal line d. Glabellomeatal line ANS: A
PTS: 1
106. The central-ray angulation for the reverse Waters method when OML is properly positioned
is: a. b. c. d.
0 degrees. 15 degrees. 30 degrees to the acanthiomeatal line. 37 degrees to the acanthiomeatal line.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
107. Trauma patients may arrive in the radiology department with their head immobilized. A
reverse Waters method can always be performed on these patients by adjusting the central ray parallel to the line. a. mentomeatal b. orbitomeatal c. infraorbitomeatal d. acanthiomeatal ANS: A
PTS: 1
108. Which of the following is true regarding the lateral projection of the nasal bones?
1. MSP is parallel with the tabletop. 2. Both sides are done for comparison. 3. The interpupillary line is perpendicular to the tabletop. a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D
PTS: 1
109. For the submentovertical projection of the zygomatic arches, the central ray is directed
perpendicular to the a. mentomeatal b. orbitomeatal c. infraorbitomeatal d. acanthiomeatal
line.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
110. Both zygomatic arches can be demonstrated on one projection for which of the following
projections? 1. Tangential 2. SMV 3. AP axial a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: C
PTS: 1
111. For the tangential projection of the zygomatic arch, the head is positioned so that the
midsagittal plane of the skull is a. 10; toward b. 15; toward c. 10; away from d. 15; away from ANS: B
degrees
the side being examined.
PTS: 1
112. For the tangential projection of the zygomatic arch, the top of the head is tilted how many
degrees? a. 10 degrees away from the side examined b. 15 degrees away from the side examined NURSINGTB.COM c. 10 degrees toward the side examined d. 15 degrees toward the side examined ANS: B
PTS: 1
113. For the tangential projection of the zygomatic arch, the central ray is directed perpendicular to
the a. b. c. d.
line. infraorbitomeatal mentomeatal orbitomeatal acanthiomeatal
ANS: A
PTS: 1
114. Which line is placed perpendicular to the plane of the image receptor for the AP axial
projection of the zygomatic arches? a. Orbitomeatal line b. Mentomeatal line c. Acanthiomeatal line d. Glabellomeatal line ANS: A
PTS: 1
115. Where does the central ray enter the patient for the AP axial projection of the zygomatic
arches?
a. b. c. d.
EAM Acanthion 1 inch above the nasion Mandibular angles
ANS: C
PTS: 1
116. What is the central-ray angulation for the AP axial projection of the zygomatic arches if OML
is used as the positioning baseline? a. 10 degrees caudad b. 15 degrees caudad c. 30 degrees caudad d. 35 degrees caudad ANS: C
PTS: 1
117. Which of the following is centered to the image receptor for the PA projection of the
mandibular rami? a. Nasion b. Glabella c. Mental point d. Tip of the nose ANS: D
PTS: 1
118. What is the central-ray angulation for the PA axial projection of the mandibular rami? a. 15 to 20 degrees cephalad b. 20 to 25 degrees cephalad c. 25 to 30 degrees cephalad d. 30 to 35 degrees cephalad ANS: B
PTS: 1
119. Several methods area available to perform the axiolateral oblique projection of the mandible
to demonstrate the symphysis, body, or ramus. What is the central-ray angulation for all of these projections? a. 15 degrees cephalad b. 15 degrees caudad c. 25 degrees cephalad d. 25 degrees caudad ANS: C
PTS: 1
120. Which of the following lines is placed perpendicular to the plane of the image receptor for the
AP axial projection of the TMJ articulation? a. Orbitomeatal line b. Mentomeatal line c. Acanthiomeatal line d. Infraorbitomeatal line ANS: A
PTS: 1
121. What is the central-ray angulation for the AP axial projection of the TMJ?
a. b. c. d.
25 degrees caudad 25 degrees cephalad 35 degrees caudad 35 degrees cephalad
ANS: C
PTS: 1
122. The midsagittal plane of the head is rotated how many degrees for the axiolateral oblique
projection of the TMJ? a. 0 degrees toward the IR b. 15 degrees toward the IR c. 0 degrees away from the IR d. 15 degrees away from the IR ANS: B
PTS: 1
123. Which of the following lines is placed parallel with the transverse axis of the IR for the
axiolateral oblique projection of the TMJ? a. Orbitomeatal line b. Mentomeatal line c. Glabellomeatal line d. Acanthiomeatal line ANS: D
PTS: 1
124. What is the central-ray angulation for the axiolateral oblique projection of the TMJ? a. 15 degrees b. 20 degrees c. 25 degrees d. 30 degrees ANS: A
PTS: 1
125. Which part of the patient’s face is touching the upright bucky, or table, for a parietoacanthial
projection (Waters method)? a. Forehead b. Nose c. Chin d. Nose and chin ANS: C
PTS: 1
126. Which of the following lines is placed as nearly parallel to the image receptor as possible for
the SMV projection of the zygomatic arches? a. AML b. IOML c. OML d. MML ANS: B
PTS: 1
127. At which level will the central ray be placed for the SMV projection of the zygomatic arches? a. Level of the EAM
b. Level of the TMJ c. Level of the outer canthi d. At a level 1 inch posterior to the outer canthi ANS: D
PTS: 1
128. At which level will the central ray be placed for the tangential projection of the zygomatic
arch? a. Level of the EAM b. Level of the TMJ c. Level of the outer canthi d. At a level 1 inch posterior to the outer canthi ANS: D
PTS: 1
129. Which reference line is perpendicular to the IR for the PA and PA axial mandibular rami? a. OML b. AML c. MML d. IOML ANS: A
PTS: 1
130. How is the head positioned to demonstrate the ramus of the mandible in the axiolateral
oblique projection? a. True lateral b. 30 degrees toward the IR c. 45 degrees toward the IR d. 30 to 45 degrees toward the IR ANS: A
PTS: 1
131. How is the head positioned to demonstrate the body of the mandible in the axiolateral oblique
projection? a. True lateral b. 15 degrees toward the IR c. 30 degrees toward the IR d. 45 degrees toward the IR ANS: C
PTS: 1
132. How is the head positioned to demonstrate the symphysis of the mandible in the axiolateral
oblique projection? a. True lateral b. 15 degrees toward the IR c. 30 degrees toward the IR d. 45 degrees toward the IR ANS: D
PTS: 1
133. Which of the following projections best demonstrates the condyle and neck of the mandible? a. AP axial b. Axiolateral
c. Axiolateral oblique d. Verticosubmental ANS: C
PTS: 1
134. What projection (method) of the facial bones is demonstrated in the image below?
a. b. c. d.
AP axial (Towne) Parietoacanthial (Waters) Parietoacanthial (modified Waters) PA axial (Caldwell)
ANS: C
PTS: 1
135. What projection and anatomy is demonstrated in the image below?
a. b. c. d.
SMV of the TMJs SMV of the zygomatic arches AP axial of the TMJs AP axial of the zygomatic arches
ANS: B
PTS: 1
136. What projection and anatomy is demonstrated in the image below?
a. b. c. d.
AP axial of the TMJs PA axial of the mandibular rami PA of the mandibular body Axiolateral oblique of the mandibular body
ANS: C
PTS: 1
137. What projection and anatomy is demonstrated in the image below?
NURSINGTB.COM
a. b. c. d.
AP axial of the TMJs PA axial of the mandibular rami PA of the mandibular body Axiolateral oblique of the mandibular body
ANS: D
PTS: 1
138. The sinus identified in the figure below is the:
a. b. c. d.
frontal. maxillary. ethmoidal. sphenoidal.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
139. The sinus identified in the figure below is the:
NURSINGTB.COM
a. b. c. d.
frontal. maxillary. ethmoidal. sphenoidal.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
140. At what age are all of the sinuses completely developed? a. 8 b. 10 c. 14 d. 18 ANS: D
PTS: 1
141. The largest sinus is the: a. frontal. b. maxillary.
c. ethmoidal. d. sphenoidal. ANS: B
PTS: 1
142. Which sinus is located immediately below the sella turcica? a. Frontal b. Maxillary c. Ethmoidal d. Sphenoidal ANS: D
PTS: 1
143. The paranasal sinuses should always be examined in the upright position to:
1. demonstrate the presence or absence of fluid. 2. differentiate between fluid and other pathologic conditions. 3. make it easier for the radiographer to position the patient. a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A
PTS: 1
144. For a lateral projection of the paranasal sinuses, the central ray is directed: a. 1 inch posterior to the outer canthus. b. 2 inches posterior to the outer canthus. c. 1 inch anterior to the EAM.N URSINGTB.COM d. 2 inches anterior to the EAM. ANS: A
PTS: 1
145. All of the following should be clearly demonstrated on a lateral projection of the paranasal
sinus, except: a. all four paranasal sinus groups. b. petrous ridge in lower third of orbits. c. sella turcica in profile. d. superimposed orbital roofs. ANS: B
PTS: 1
146. Which projection will best demonstrate the frontal and anterior ethmoidal sinuses? a. PA b. Parietoacanthial (Waters) c. PA axial (Caldwell) d. SMV ANS: C
PTS: 1
147. When using the angled grid technique for the PA axial (Caldwell method) projection of the
sinuses, the vertical grid device must be angled a. 7 b. 10
degrees.
c. 15 d. 20 ANS: C
PTS: 1
148. Which of the following must be projected below the maxillary sinuses for the parietoacanthial
projection (Waters method) of the sinuses? a. Zygomatic bones b. Petrous pyramids c. Inferior orbital margin d. Sphenoidal sinuses ANS: B
PTS: 1
149. The parietoacanthial projection (Waters method) of the sinuses requires the orbitomeatal line
to be placed how many degrees from the plane of the image receptor? a. 20 degrees b. 27 degrees c. 30 degrees d. 37 degrees ANS: D
PTS: 1
150. Which sinus is projected through the mouth on the open-mouth modification of the Waters
method? a. Frontal b. Ethmoidal c. Sphenoidal d. Maxillary ANS: C
PTS: 1
151. Which projection best demonstrates the maxillary sinuses? a. Parietoacanthial (Waters) b. PA axial (Caldwell) c. Submentovertical d. AP axial (Towne) ANS: A
PTS: 1
152. For the open-mouth modification of the Waters method, the central ray should exit the: a. nasion. b. glabella. c. acanthion. d. open mouth. ANS: D
PTS: 1
153. Which drawing in the figure below demonstrates the correct head position for the Waters
method?
a. b. c. d.
A B C D
ANS: A
PTS: 1
154. At which level should the central ray enter the base of the skull for the SMV projection of the
sinuses? a. inch posterior to the level of the EAM b. inch anterior to the level of the EAM c. inch below the mental protuberance d. 1 inch below the mental protuberance ANS: B
PTS: 1
155. All of these projections will demonstrate the ethmoidal sinuses, except: a. SMV. b. PA axail (Caldwell). c. parietoacanthial (Waters). d. lateral. ANS: C
PTS: 1
156. The respiration phase for all projections of the facial bones and sinuses is: a. suspended. b. inspiration. c. expiration. d. shallow breathing.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
157. Which of the following are included as functions of the sinuses?
1. Decrease the weight of the skull. 2. Warm and moisten inhaled air. 3. Provide a resonating chamber for voice. a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D
PTS: 1
158. Which of the sinuses is developed at birth and visible radiographically? a. Maxillary b. Ethmoidal c. Sphenoidal d. Frontal ANS: A
PTS: 1
159. The ethmoidal sinuses are located within which portion of the bone? a. Squamous b. Labyrinths c. Cribriform plate d. Crista galli ANS: B
PTS: 1
160. Which reference line is positioned horizontal to ensure proper extension of the head during a
lateral projection of the sinuses? a. AML b. OML c. IOML d. MML ANS: C
PTS: 1
161. Which reference line is positioned perpendicular to the angled image receptor for the PA axial
(Caldwell method) projection of the sinuses? a. AML b. OML c. MML d. IOML ANS: B
PTS: 1
162. The central ray forms an angle of how many degrees with the OML for the PA axial
(Caldwell) projection of the sinuses? a. 5 degrees b. 12 degrees c. 15 degrees
d. 20 degrees ANS: C
PTS: 1
163. Which of the following reference lines is placed perpendicular to the image receptor for a
parietoacanthial (Waters method) projection? a. MML b. OML c. AML d. IOML ANS: A
PTS: 1
164. Where is the image receptor centered for the parietoacanthial (Waters method) projection of
the sinuses? a. Nasion b. Inion c. Glabella d. Acanthion ANS: D
PTS: 1
165. Where are the petrous ridges seen on an image of a parietoacanthial (Waters method)
projection of the paranasal sinuses? a. In the middle of the maxillary sinuses b. Superior to the maxillary sinuses c. Inferior to the floor of the maxillary sinuses d. In the lower two thirds of thNeUm illN arGyTsiBn. usCesOM RaSxI ANS: C
PTS: 1
166. Which of the following foramina will be demonstrated in the orbit on a parietoacanthial
(Waters method) radiograph? a. Ovale b. Jugular c. Spinosum d. Rotundum ANS: D
PTS: 1
167. The OML forms an angle of how many degrees from the plane of the image receptor for an
open-mouth parietoacanthial (Waters method) projection? a. 25 degrees b. 37 degrees c. 45 degrees d. 35 to 40 degrees ANS: B
PTS: 1
168. The central ray is directed perpendicular to which reference line for the SMV projection of the
sinuses? a. OML b. AML
c. MML d. IOML ANS: D
PTS: 1
169. What projection (method) is demonstrated in the image below of the paranasal sinuses?
a. b. c. d.
PA axial (Caldwell) Parietoacanthial (Waters) Lateral SMV
ANS: B
PTS: 1
170. Which paranasal sinuses are labeled with the letter A in this image?
a. b. c. d.
Frontal Ethmoid Maxillary Sphenoid
ANS: A
PTS: 1
171. The letter B in the image below of the paranasal sinuses labels the
a. b. c. d.
frontal ethmoid maxillary sphenoid
ANS: C
PTS: 1
172. The letter C in the image below of the paranasal sinuses labels the:
NURSINGTB.COM
a. b. c. d.
sphenoid sinuses. condyle of the mandible. petrous ridge. vomer.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
173. The letter C in the image below of the paranasal sinuses labels the:
sinuses.
a. b. c. d.
sphenoid sinuses. maxillary sinuses. petrous ridge. ethmoid sinuses.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
174. The letter A in the image below of the paranasal sinuses labels the:
NURSINGTB.COM
a. b. c. d.
frontal sinuses. ethmoid sinuses. sphenoid sinuses. crista galli.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
175. The letter D in the image below of the paranasal sinuses labels the
sinuses.
a. b. c. d.
frontal ethmoid sphenoid maxillary
ANS: C
PTS: 1
176. The letter B in the image below of the paranasal sinuses labels the
NURSINGTB.COM
a. b. c. d.
frontal ethmoid sphenoid maxillary
ANS: B
PTS: 1
177. The letter D in the image below of the paranasal sinuses labels the:
sinuses.
a. b. c. d.
crista galli. vomer. perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone. cribriform plate.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
178. The letter B in the image below of the paranasal sinuses labels the
sinuses.
NURSINGTB.COM
a. b. c. d.
ethmoid sphenoid maxillary frontal
ANS: A
PTS: 1
179. The letter E in the image below of the paranasal sinuses labels the
sinuses.
a. b. c. d.
ethmoid sphenoid maxillary frontal
ANS: B
PTS: 1
180. The letter F in the image below of the paranasal sinuses labels the:
NURSINGTB.COM
a. b. c. d.
ethmoid sinuses. sphenoid sinuses. maxillary sinuses. pharynx.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
181. The letter A in the image below of the paranasal sinuses labels the
sinuses.
a. b. c. d.
ethmoid sphenoid maxillary frontal
ANS: D
PTS: 1
182. The letter B in the image below of the paranasal sinuses labels the
NURSINGTB.COM
a. b. c. d.
ethmoid sphenoid maxillary frontal
ANS: A
PTS: 1
183. The letter C in the image below of the paranasal sinuses labels the:
sinuses.
a. b. c. d.
ethmoid sinuses. sphenoid sinuses. maxillary sinuses. petrous ridge.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
184. The letter D in the image below of the paranasal sinuses labels the
NURSINGTB.COM
a. b. c. d.
ethmoid sphenoid maxillary frontal
ANS: B
PTS: 1
185. The letter G in the image below of the paranasal sinuses labels the:
sinuses.
a. b. c. d.
ethmoid sinuses. sphenoid sinuses. maxillary sinuses. petrosa.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. Which two are clearly demonstrated within the foramen magnum during an AP axial (Towne)
projection of the skull? (Select N alUl R thS atIaNpG plT y.B ) .COM a. Dorsum sellae b. Posterior clinoids c. Sella turcica d. Anterior clinoids ANS: A, B
PTS: 1
2. Which two methods will clearly demonstrate the petrous ridges, foramen magnum, dorsum
sellae, and posterior clinoid processes? (Select all that apply.) a. Towne (AP axial) b. Caldwell(PA axial) c. Schüller (SMV) d. Haas (PA axial) ANS: A, B
PTS: 1
3. Which two bones are contained in the floor of the cranium? (Select all that apply.) a. Mandible b. Sphenoid c. Vomer d. Ethmoid ANS: B, D
PTS: 1
4. Which two bones are contained in the calvarium? (Select all that apply.)
a. b. c. d.
Frontal Parietal Ethmoid Temporal
ANS: A, B
PTS: 1
5. Which two of the following foramina lie in the sphenoid bone? (Select all that apply.) a. Jugular foramen b. Foramen rotundum c. Foramen lacerum d. Optic foramen ANS: B, D
PTS: 1
6. Which two facial bones form the roof of the mouth? (Select all that apply.) a. Vomer b. Palatine bones c. Maxillae d. Ethmoid ANS: B, C
PTS: 1
7. Which two parts of the patient’s face touch the table for a PA axial projection (Caldwell
method)? (Select all that apply.) a. Nose b. Acanthion c. Chin d. Forehead ANS: A, D
PTS: 1
8. Which two of the following projections will clearly demonstrate any medial or lateral
displacement of fractures of the mandibular rami? (Select all that apply.) a. PA axial b. Axiolateral oblique c. PA d. SMV ANS: A, C
PTS: 1
9. Which two must occur to successfully demonstrate the ethmoidal and sphenoidal sinuses on
the SMV projection? (Select all that apply.) a. Central ray aligned horizontal and enters perpendicular to IOML. b. Patient must be recumbent. c. IOML aligned parallel with the image receptor. d. OML aligned parallel with the image receptor. ANS: A, B
PTS: 1
Chapter 12: Trauma Radiography Long: Merrill’s Atlas of Radiographic Positioning and Procedures, 14th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following would be considered a trauma radiography guideline?
1. Remove all splints. 2. Do not move the patient unless necessary. 3. Obtain a minimum of two radiographs of each body part. a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: C 2. Which imaging modality has replaced conventional trauma skull radiography in most Level I
trauma centers? a. CT b. MRI c. Nuclear medicine d. Angiography ANS: A 3. The trauma radiographer must ensure other team members are protected from unnecessary
radiation. Which of the followiN ngUpRrS acItiN ceGsTwBil. l aCcO coMmplish this? 1. Lead aprons for all personnel who remain in the room during exposures 2. Short exposure times 3. Announcement of impending exposure to allow nonessential personnel to exit the room a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: B
4. Which of the following procedures are appropriate for trauma patients?
1. Remove immobilization devices that may cause imaging artifacts. 2. Move tube and IR, instead of injured part, when possible. 3. Perform all AP projections, then all lateral projections. a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: C 5. Which projection is necessary if the top of T1 and the C7-T1 interspace is not clearly
demonstrated on the lateral projection, dorsal decubitus position of the cervical spine?
a. b. c. d.
AP projection, open-mouth position Lateral projection, swimmer’s technique Lateral projection of the thoracic spine AP axial C-spine
ANS: B 6. Which projection must be evaluated before taking any other images on a trauma patient? a. AP projection of the atlas and axis, open-mouth position b. Lateral projection, swimmer’s technique c. Lateral projection of the C-spine, dorsal decubitus position d. AP axial C-spine ANS: C 7. Which imaging modality is often used to evaluate trauma to the abdomen? a. CT b. MRI c. NM d. Sonography ANS: D 8. Extreme eversion of the foot is a sign of traumatic injury to the: a. tibia and fibula. b. knee joint. c. pelvis. d. hip. ANS: D 9. If a trauma patient loses consciousness during an imaging procedure, the imaging professional
should: a. assess the patient’s airway. b. check the patient’s pulse. c. notify the ED physician immediately. d. check the patient’s pupil responses. ANS: C 10. Signs of shock include all of the following except: a. cool, clammy skin. b. diaphoresis. c. excessive thirst. d. vomiting. ANS: D 11. What is the central-ray angle and direction for the AP axial, reverse Caldwell, of the cranium? a. 15 degrees caudad b. 15 degrees cephalad c. 30 degrees caudad d. 30 degrees cephalad
ANS: B 12. Which method is used to obtain a lateral projection of the hip on a trauma patient who has had
bilateral hip arthroplasty? a. Clements-Nakayama b. Danelius-Miller c. Towne d. Reverse Waters ANS: A 13. Which position is used to demonstrate air-fluid levels in the abdomen on a severely injured
patient? a. Prone b. Supine c. Left lateral decubitus d. Dorsal decubitus position ANS: D 14. What is the central-ray orientation for the modified axiolateral hip (Clements-Nakayama)? a. 25 degrees posteriorly b. 25 degrees caudad c. 15 degrees posteriorly d. 15 degrees caudad ANS: C MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. Which two images demonstrate the anterior cranium on a trauma patient? (Select all that
apply.) a. AP projection b. Acanthioparietal (reverse Waters) c. AP axial projection (Towne) d. AP axial projection (reverse Caldwell) ANS: A, D
Chapter 13: Contrast Arthrography Long: Merrill’s Atlas of Radiographic Positioning and Procedures, 14th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. All of these imaging modalities have reduced the use of contrast arthrography, except: a. ultrasound. b. computed tomography. c. magnetic resonance imaging. d. nuclear medicine. ANS: D 2. The radiography examination in which a contrast medium is introduced into a joint space and
radiographs are made of the joint is called: a. arthrosis. b. arthrography. c. arthrogenesis. d. arthroendoscopy. ANS: B 3. Which of the following contrast media may be injected into a joint space for radiography of
the menisci, cartilage, bursae, etc.? 1. Air 2. Barium sulfate suspension 3. Water-soluble iodinated conN traUsR t SINGTB.COM a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: B 4. Which of the following joints are most commonly examined by contrast arthrography?
1. Knee 2. Hip 3. Shoulder a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D 5. Which of the following is administered during arthrography before the injection of contrast? a. Conscious sedation b. Sterile saline c. Local anesthetic d. General anesthetic
ANS: C
Chapter 14: Myelography and Other Central Nervous System Imaging Long: Merrill’s Atlas of Radiographic Positioning and Procedures, 14th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The area of the brain identified in the figure below is the:
a. b. c. d.
pons. cerebrum. cerebellum. brain stem.
ANS: C 2. The largest part of the brain is the: a. cerebellum. b. cerebrum. c. brain stem. d. medulla oblongata. ANS: B 3. How many pairs of spinal nerves arise from the spinal cord? a. 14 b. 24 c. 29 d. 31 ANS: D 4. The brain and spinal cord are enclosed by three protective membranes called the: a. meninges. b. pia mater. c. arachnoid. d. subarachnoid layer.
ANS: A 5. How many fluid-containing cavities make up the ventricular system of the brain? a. Two b. Four c. Six d. Eight ANS: B 6. Where is the contrast medium injected for a myelogram? a. Brachial vein b. Femoral artery c. L1-L2 interspace d. L2-L3 or L3-L4 interspace ANS: D 7. Which of the following projections are performed during myelography?
1. PA 2. PA obliques 3. Lateral (decubitus) a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: B 8. What patient position is used postmyelography during recovery? a. Prone b. Supine c. Head and shoulders elevated 30 to 45 degrees d. 30 to 45 degrees Trendelenburg ANS: C 9. How is the patient’s head positioned during myelography to prevent contrast from passing
into the cerebral ventricles? a. Lateral flexion b. Acute extension c. Forward flexion d. Acute flexion ANS: B 10. Percutaneous vertebroplasty is done under fluoroscopy to: a. stabilize fracture fragments. b. restore the spine to a more normal curve. c. reduce hunchback deformities. d. locate vascular abnormalities. ANS: A
11. What part of the brain is indicated by the line in the diagram?
a. b. c. d.
Pons Cerebrum Cerebellum Brain stem
ANS: A 12. Which interventional procedure uses a balloon catheter to expand a compressed vertebral
body to near its original heightNbU efR orSeIinNjeGcT tioBn.oCf O thMe bone cement? a. Myelography b. Vertebroplasty c. Kyphoplasty d. Discography ANS: C
13. Which term is defined as percutaneous techniques aimed at stabilizing weakened vertebral
bodies? a. Percutaneous myeloplasty b. Percutaneous augmentation c. Vertebral myeloplasty d. Vertebral augmentation ANS: D 14. All of the following are interventional pain management procedures, except: a. facet injections. b. provocative diskography. c. nerve root blocks. d. epidural steroid injections. ANS: B
MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. Which two patient positions may be used for spinal puncture? (Select all that apply.) a. Sims b. Prone c. Lateral, in extension d. Lateral, in flexion ANS: B, D
Chapter 15: Digestive System: Salivary Glands, Alimentary Canal, and Biliary System Long: Merrill’s Atlas of Radiographic Positioning and Procedures, 14th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. How long is the entire alimentary canal? a. 5 feet b. 10 feet c. 20 feet d. 30 feet ANS: D 2. How many pairs of salivary glands are in the mouth? a. Two b. Three c. Four d. Five ANS: B 3. Which of the following is not one of the salivary glands? a. Tonsil b. Parotid c. Sublingual d. Submandibular ANS: A 4. Radiographic examination of the salivary glands using contrast medium is called: a. parotitis. b. angiography. c. sialography. d. sialostenosis. ANS: C 5. The hard palate is formed by the: a. ethmoid and vomer. b. ethmoid and palatine bone. c. maxillae and vomer. d. maxillae and palatine bone. ANS: D 6. The salivary glands produce how much saliva each day? a. 0.25 L b. 0.50 L c. 1 L d. 1.5 L ANS: C
7. Which salivary glands are the largest? a. Parotid b. Submandibular c. Sublingual d. Submandibular and sublingual are equal in size ANS: A 8. Which gland is identified in the figure below? a. Parotid b. Submandibular c. Sublingual d. Thymus ANS: B 9. Which salivary gland is located on the floor of the mouth? a. Parotid b. Submandibular c. Sublingual d. Submandibular and sublingual ANS: C 10. Where does the parotid duct open into the oral cavity? a. In the floor of the mouth next to the frenulum b. In the floor of the mouth along the crest of the sublingual fold NURSINGTB.COM c. Opposite the second upper molar d. Opposite the second lower molar ANS: C 11. Where does the submandibular duct open into the oral cavity? a. In the floor of the mouth next to the frenulum b. In the floor of the mouth along the crest of the sublingual fold c. Opposite the second upper molar d. Opposite the second lower molar ANS: A 12. How many natural constrictions are in the esophagus? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 ANS: D 13. The expanded portion of the terminal esophagus is called the: a. cardiac notch. b. abdominal esophagus. c. cardiac antrum.
d. esophagogastric junction. ANS: C 14. The stomach wall is composed of how many layers? a. One b. Two c. Four d. Five ANS: C 15. The area identified in the figure below is the:
a. b. c. d.
fundus. angular notch. cardiac antrum. lesser curvature.
ANS: C 16. The part of the stomach identified in the figure below is the:
a. b. c. d.
greater curvature. pyloric antrum. pyloric canal. pyloric sphincter.
ANS: B 17. The area identified in the figure below is the:
a. b. c. d.
fundus. body. cardiac antrum. greater curvature.
ANS: A 18. The muscle controlling the opening between the stomach and the duodenum is termed the: a. pylorus. b. pyloric sphincter. c. pyloric antrum. d. ileocecal valve. ANS: B 19. For which type of body habitus is the stomach almost horizontal? a. Sthenic b. Asthenic c. Hyposthenic d. Hypersthenic ANS: D 20. For which type of body habitus is the stomach nearly vertical? a. Sthenic b. Asthenic c. Hyposthenic d. Hypersthenic ANS: B 21. What is the length of the average adult small intestine? a. 10 feet b. 12 feet c. 20 feet d. 22 feet ANS: D 22. The wall of the small intestine is composed of how many coats? a. Two b. Three
c. Four d. Five ANS: C 23. The small intestine is divided into how many distinct portions? a. Three b. Four c. Five d. Eight ANS: A 24. The anatomy labeled with the arrow in this figure is the:
a. b. c. d.
cystic duct. common hepatic duct. common bile duct. pancreatic duct.
ANS: C 25. The widest portion of the small bowel is the: a. ileum. b. duodenum. c. jejunum. d. sigmoid. ANS: B 26. The most distal portion of the small intestine is the: a. ileum.
b. pylorus. c. jejunum. d. duodenum. ANS: A 27. The jejunum and ileum are attached to the posterior wall of the abdomen by the: a. haustra. b. iliacus muscle. c. psoas muscle. d. mesentery. ANS: D 28. The main functions of the small bowel are
of food.
1. digestion 2. absorption 3. storage a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A 29. What is the length of the large intestine? a. 3 feet b. 5 feet c. 7 feet d. 8 feet ANS: B 30. The wall of the colon is composed of how many layers? a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four ANS: D 31. The vermiform appendix of the colon is attached to the: a. cecum. b. ileum. c. sigmoid. d. ascending colon. ANS: A 32. The opening between the small intestine and the large intestine is called the: a. ileocecal valve. b. ampulla of Vater. c. pyloric valve.
d. greater duodenal papilla. ANS: A 33. The area of the colon identified in the figure below is the:
a. b. c. d.
left colic flexure. right colic flexure. ascending colon. descending colon.
ANS: C 34. The area of the colon identified in the figure below is the:
a. b. c. d.
cecum. ileum. sigmoid. rectum.
ANS: A
35. The area of the colon identified in the figure below is the:
a. b. c. d.
cecum. ileum. rectum. sigmoid.
ANS: D 36. The contraction waves by which the digestive tube moves its contents toward the rectum are
called: a. respiration. b. peristalsis. c. mastication. d. deglutition. ANS: B 37. The largest gland in the body is the: a. liver. b. spleen. c. pancreas. d. duodenum. ANS: A 38. Which two regions of the abdomen are almost entirely occupied by the liver? a. Epigastrium and left hypochondrium b. Right hypochondrium and epigastrium c. Right lateral and umbilical d. Umbilical and left lateral ANS: B 39. The two vessels that supply blood to the liver are the: a. portal vein and hepatic artery. b. portal artery and hepatic vein.
c. portal vein and cystic artery. d. cystic vein and portal artery. ANS: A 40.
The gallbladder functions to: a. produce and secrete bile. b. store and concentrate bile. c. regulate digestion of fatty acids. d. break down toxins in the bloodstream. ANS: B 41. The exocrine cells of the pancreas function to produce and secrete: a. bile. b. insulin. c. glucagon. d. digestive juice. ANS: D 42. In which abdominal quadrant is the spleen located? a. LUQ b. RUQ c. LLQ d. RLQ ANS: A 43. How long does it take barium to go through the alimentary canal and reach the rectum? a. 12 hours b. 24 hours c. 36 hours d. 48 hours ANS: B 44. Which of the following contrast media are used for examinations of the gastrointestinal tract?
1. Air 2. Barium sulfate 3. Water-soluble iodinated solution a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D 45. The most common contrast medium used for radiologic examinations of the gastrointestinal
tract is: a. air. b. carbon dioxide. c. barium sulfate.
d. water-soluble iodine. ANS: C 46. What is the absolute maximum exposure time for images of the GI tract to avoid imaging
peristaltic motion? a. 0.01 second b. 0.05 second c. 0.1 second d. 0.5 second ANS: D 47. One of the most important technical considerations in gastrointestinal radiography is: a. elimination of motion. b. speed of the examination. c. production of a high-contrast image. d. production of a high-resolution image. ANS: A 48. What is the respiration phase for all radiographic exposures of the stomach and intestines? a. Inspiration b. Expiration c. Suspended respiration d. Slow, shallow breathing ANS: B 49. What is the recommended oblique projection and position for the best demonstration of the
esophagus? a. AP, LAO b. AP, LPO c. PA, RAO d. PA, LAO ANS: C 50. What is the degree of body rotation for the PA oblique projection of the esophagus? a. 20 degrees b. 30 degrees c. 20 to 30 degrees d. 35 to 40 degrees ANS: D 51. What is the recommended general body position for a radiographic series of the esophagus? a. Upright b. Recumbent c. Seated d. Trendelenburg ANS: B
52. All of the following are the essential projections for an esophagus series, except: a. AP axial oblique. b. AP. c. lateral. d. PA oblique. ANS: A 53. Which position is used for the PA oblique projection of the esophagus? a. 25 to 30 degree LAO b. 25 to 30 degree RAO c. 35 to 40 degree LAO d. 35 to 40 degree RAO ANS: D 54. Which of the following best describes the administration of barium for an esophagram being
performed for esophageal varices? a. Swallow the barium, inhale. b. Swallow the barium, exhale. c. Exhale, swallow the barium, hold breath out. d. Inhale, swallow the barium, hold breath out. ANS: C 55. The patient “prep” for a morning stomach examination is food and fluid are withheld: a. after midnight. b. after the evening meal. c. for 12 hours. d. for 24 hours. ANS: A 56. Food and fluid should be withheld for how many hours before a stomach examination? a. 2 b. 4 c. 8 d. 12 ANS: C 57. Which structure is air-filled on double-contrast images of the stomach obtained in the PA
oblique projection, RAO position? a. Pylorus b. Body c. Fundus d. Duodenal loop ANS: C 58. Which of the following are advantages of using the double-contrast technique for examination
of the stomach?
1. Fewer images are required. 2. Small lesions are not obscured. 3. The mucosal lining of the stomach can be more clearly visualized. a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: C 59. Which drug may be given to the patient before a double-contrast examination of the stomach
to relax the gastrointestinal tract? a. Heparin b. Glucagon c. Demerol d. Oral chlorhydrate ANS: B 60. A PA projection of the stomach and duodenum can be performed using a 10 12-inch (24
30 cm) exposure field. Which of the following describes the plane that is centered to the grid for this projection? a. The midsagittal plane b. A sagittal plane passing 4 inches to the right of the vertebral column c. A sagittal plane passing 4 inches to the left of the vertebral column d. A sagittal plane passing halfway between the midline and the lateral border of the abdomen ANS: D 61. At which level is the IR centered for a PA projection of the stomach and duodenum? a. T12/L1 b. L1/L2 c. L2/L3 d. Iliac crests ANS: B 62. How much lower should the IR be positioned when the upright position is used for projections
of the stomach? a. to 1 inch b. 2 to 2 inches c. 4 to 5 inches d. 3 to 6 inches ANS: D 63. A PA projection of the stomach and duodenum is often performed using a 14 17-inch (35
43 cm) exposure field. Which of the following describes the plane that is centered to the grid for this projection? a. The midsagittal plane
b. A sagittal plane passing 4 inches to the right of the vertebral column c. A sagittal plane passing 4 inches to the left of the vertebral column d. A sagittal plane passing halfway between the midline and the lateral border of the
abdomen ANS: A 64. Which are essential oblique projections of the stomach and duodenum?
1. AP projection, LPO 2. PA projection, RAO 3. PA projection, LAO a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A 65. How much is the body rotated for the PA oblique projection of the stomach and duodenum? a. 10 to 20 degrees b. 15 to 45 degrees c. 30 to 60 degrees d. 40 to 70 degrees ANS: D 66. The degree of body rotation for the PA oblique projection of the stomach will depend on the
body habitus. The greatest degN reU eR ofSrI otNatGioTnBw.oC uO ldMbe used for which body habitus? a. Sthenic b. Asthenic c. Hypersthenic d. Hyposthenic ANS: C 67. Which of the following will demonstrate the duodenal bulb and loop in profile? a. PA b. PA oblique, RAO c. AP oblique, LPO d. AP oblique, RPO ANS: B 68. Which of the following planes is centered to the grid for the PA oblique projection of the
stomach and duodenum? a. Midsagittal plane b. A longitudinal plane passing 4 inches to the right of the vertebral column c. A longitudinal plane passing 4 inches to the left of the vertebral column d. A longitudinal plane midway between the vertebrae and the lateral border of the elevated side ANS: D
69. Which projection of the stomach is demonstrated in this figure?
a. b. c. d.
PA PA oblique AP oblique Lateral
ANS: C 70. At which level is the IR centered for an AP or PA oblique stomach and duodenum? a. L1/L2 b. L2/L3 c. L3/L4 d. Iliac crests ANS: A 71. What is the average degree of body rotation for an AP oblique projection of the stomach and
duodenum? a. 45 degrees b. 50 degrees c. 55 degrees d. 60 degrees ANS: A 72. The degree of body rotation for an AP oblique stomach radiographic images ranges from a. b. c. d.
degrees. 20 to 30 30 to 40 40 to 50 30 to 60
ANS: D 73. Which of the following projections will best demonstrate the fundus of the stomach? a. PA
b. AP oblique, LPO c. PA oblique, LAO d. PA oblique, RAO ANS: B 74. Which of the following planes is positioned to the center of the grid for the lateral projection
of the stomach and duodenum? a. Midcoronal plane b. A coronal plane passing 2 inches posterior to the median coronal plane c. A coronal plane passing 2 inches anterior to the median coronal plane d. A plane passing midway between the midcoronal plane and the anterior surface of the abdomen ANS: D 75. Which projection of the stomach demonstrates its anterior and posterior surfaces? a. PA b. Lateral c. AP oblique, LPO d. PA oblique, RAO ANS: B 76. Which projection of the stomach would best demonstrate a diaphragmatic herniation? a. PA b. AP c. AP, Trendelenburg position d. AP, R lateral decubitus ANS: C 77. Which positions will best demonstrate the retrogastric portion of the duodenum and jejunum
on an AP projection of the stomach? 1. Supine 2. Trendelenburg 3. Standing a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A 78. Which methods are used to administer barium for a radiographic examination of the small
intestine? 1. By mouth 2. Reflux filling 3. Enteroclysis a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3
d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D 79. The patient preparation for a small intestine examination is food and fluid withheld: a. after the evening meal. b. after the evening meal and no breakfast. c. for 12 hours. d. for 24 hours. ANS: B 80. Where is the IR centered for images of the small intestine that are taken within 30 minutes of
drinking the barium? a. Level of the iliac crests b. 1 inch above the iliac crests c. 2 inches above the iliac crests d. At the costal margin/L3 ANS: C 81. Where is the IR centered for delayed images of the small intestine? a. Level of the iliac crests b. 1 inch above the iliac crests c. 2 inches above the iliac crests d. At the costal margin/L3 ANS: A 82. Which examination requires the use of time markers on the images? a. Stomach b. Small intestine c. Large intestine d. ERCP ANS: B 83. Methods of radiographically examining the colon include:
1. enteroclysis. 2. single-contrast. 3. double-contrast. a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: C 84. For which radiographic exams of the GI tract is “high-density” barium sulfate used? a. enteroclysis b. single-contrast c. double-contrast d. modified barium swallow
ANS: C 85. The primary importance of preparation of the intestinal tract for examination of the colon is
that: a. it improves retention of contrast. b. it decreases risk of adverse reactions. c. it eliminates the need for a scout image. d. retained fecal matter can simulate pathology. ANS: D 86. Inflation of the retention balloon for a barium enema should be inflated by the: a. radiographer without fluoroscopy. b. radiologist using fluoroscopy. c. radiographer using fluoroscopy. d. radiologists without fluoroscopy. ANS: B 87. In which position should the patient be placed to insert the enema tip for a barium enema? a. Sims b. Trendelenburg c. Lithotomy d. Right lateral ANS: A
RaSbIaNg GplTaB 88. How far above the anus is the eNnU em ce. dCdO urM ing a barium enema? a. 8 to 12 inches b. 18 to 24 inches c. 24 to 36 inches d. 4 to 6 feet ANS: B 89. What anatomy is best demonstrated in this image?
a. b. c. d.
Sigmoid Ascending colon Rectum Descending colon
ANS: C 90. Where is the IR centered on sthenic patients for the double-contrast images of the large
intestine? a. Iliac crests b. Costal margin c. 2 inches above the iliac crests d. 2 inches below the iliac crests ANS: A 91. The respiration phase for all projections of the large intestine is: a. inspiration. b. expiration. c. suspended respiration. d. slow, shallow breathing. ANS: C 92. All of these projections taken during a barium enema will demonstrate the rectosigmoid area,
except: a. lateral. b. left lateral decubitus. c. PA axial. d. AP axial. ANS: B 93. What is the central-ray angulation for the PA axial projection of the large intestine? a. 10 to 20 degrees cephalad b. 30 to 40 degrees cephalad
c. 10 to 20 degrees caudad d. 30 to 40 degrees caudad ANS: D 94. The degree of body rotation for the PA oblique projection (RAO or LAO) of the large
intestine is a. 10 to 15 b. 15 to 25 c. 20 to 30 d. 35 to 45
degrees.
ANS: D 95. At which plane is the central ray positioned for the PA oblique projections (LAO or RAO) of
the large intestine? a. Midsagittal plane b. A longitudinal plane directly over the vertebral column c. A longitudinal plane 1 to 2 inches lateral to the midline of the body on the elevated side d. A longitudinal plane 4 inches lateral to the midline of the body on the elevated side ANS: C 96. Which projection of the colon best demonstrates the right colic flexure? a. PA oblique, RAO b. PA oblique, LAO c. PA axial d. AP axial ANS: A 97. Which projection of the colon best demonstrates the ascending colon? a. PA oblique, RAO b. PA oblique, LAO c. PA axial d. AP axial ANS: A 98. The PA oblique projection of the colon done in the LAO position clearly demonstrates the: a. ascending colon. b. descending colon. c. R colic flexure. d. transverse colon. ANS: B 99. Which projection of the colon best demonstrates the left colic flexure? a. AP axial b. Lateral c. PA oblique, LAO d. PA oblique, RAO
ANS: C 100. At what level is the center of the IR positioned for a lateral projection of the rectosigmoid
area? a. ASIS b. Iliac crests c. 2 inches above the iliac crests d. 2 inches below the iliac crests ANS: A 101. Which plane is centered to the grid for a lateral projection of the large intestine? a. Midsagittal plane b. Midcoronal plane c. A longitudinal plane 2 inches anterior to the median coronal plane d. A longitudinal plane 2 inches posterior to the median coronal plane ANS: B 102. The central-ray angulation for the AP axial projection of the large intestine is: a. 10 to 20 degrees caudad. b. 30 to 40 degrees caudad. c. 10 to 20 degrees cephalad. d. 30 to 40 degrees cephalad. ANS: D 103. The degree of body rotation forNaUnRASPIoNbG liqTuB e. pC roO jeM ction of the large intestine is: a. 10 to 20. b. 15 to 30. c. 20 to 30. d. 35 to 45. ANS: D 104. Which projections will clearly demonstrate the right colic flexure?
1. Right lateral 2. AP oblique, LPO 3. PA oblique, RAO a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: C 105. Which projections will clearly demonstrate the descending colon?
1. PA oblique, LAO 2. AP oblique, RPO 3. Left lateral a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A 106. Where is the IR centered for all decubitus projections of the large intestine? a. Costal margin b. Iliac crests c. 2 inches above the iliac crests d. 2 inches below the iliac crests ANS: B 107. What anatomy is labeled with the arrow in this image?
a. b. c. d.
Cecum Ascending colon Descending colon Sigmoid
ANS: C 108. The general term used to describe the surgical procedure of forming an artificial opening to
the intestine for the passage of fecal material is: a. colostomy. b. enterectomy. c. enterotomy. d. enterostomy. ANS: D 109. Which projection is used for images made during defecography? a. AP b. AP axial c. Lateral d. AP, decubitus position ANS: C
110. The wall of the esophagus is composed of how many layers of tissue? a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four ANS: D 111. The folds of the thick inner lining of the stomach are termed the: a. rugae. b. serous. c. mucous layer. d. submucous layer. ANS: A 112. The esophagus joins the stomach through an opening called the: a. pyloric orifice. b. cardiac orifice. c. cardiac sphincter. d. pyloric sphincter. ANS: B 113. The opening between the stomach and the small intestine is termed the pyloric: a. sphincter. b. antrum. c. orifice. d. canal. ANS: C 114. What percentage of the population will have a combination of sthenic and hyposthenic body
habitus? a. 50% b. 60% c. 75% d. 85% ANS: D 115. The mucosa of the small intestine contains a series of fingerlike projections called: a. villi. b. rugae. c. haustra. d. taeniae coli. ANS: A 116. The common bile duct and the pancreatic duct usually unite to form the: a. pyloric portion. b. duodenal bulb.
c. hepatopancreatic ampulla. d. greater duodenal papilla. ANS: C 117. The opening inside the duodenum where pancreatic enzymes and bile enter is called the: a. pyloric portion. b. duodenal bulb. c. hepatopancreatic ampulla. d. greater duodenal papilla. ANS: D 118. The large intestine is made up of a series of pouches called the: a. cecum. b. rugae. c. haustra. d. taeniae coli. ANS: C 119. The pouchlike portion of the large intestine that is situated below the junction of the ileum and
colon is the: a. cecum. b. rectum. c. sigmoid colon. d. vermiform appendix. ANS: A 120. The ascending portion of the colon joins the transverse colon at the: a. left colic flexure. b. right colic flexure. c. sigmoid colon. d. duodenojejunal flexure. ANS: B 121. For which type of body habitus is the large intestine bunched together and positioned very low
in the abdomen? a. Sthenic b. Asthenic c. Hyposthenic d. Hypersthenic ANS: B 122. For all projections of the esophagus, the top of the IR is positioned at: a. C7. b. T5. c. the level of the eyes. d. the level of the mouth.
ANS: D 123. The PA projection of the stomach best demonstrates the: a. fundus. b. duodenal bulb. c. anterior aspect. d. stomach contour and duodenal bulb. ANS: D 124. How far is the enema tip inserted into the rectum for a colon examination? a. No more than 2 inches b. No more than 3 inches c. No more than 4 inches d. No more than 5 inches ANS: C 125. The entire colon is best demonstrated in which projection? a. PA or AP b. PA axial c. PA oblique d. Lateral ANS: A 126. Which projection of the colon will best demonstrate the medial aspect of the ascending colon
and the lateral aspect of the descending colon when the colon is inflated with air? a. AP oblique, RPO b. AP oblique, LPO c. AP, right lateral decubitus d. AP, left lateral decubitus ANS: C 127. Which projection of the colon best demonstrates the lateral aspect of the ascending colon and
the medial aspect of the descending colon, when the colon is inflated with air? a. AP oblique, RPO b. AP oblique, LPO c. AP, right lateral decubitus d. AP, left lateral decubitus ANS: D 128. Which projection of the colon best demonstrates the posterior portions of the colon? a. Lateral b. Lateral, ventral decubitus c. AP oblique, LPO and RPO d. AP, right lateral decubitus ANS: B 129. Which of the following describes the function of the spleen?
1. Produces glucagon. 2. Produces lymphocytes. 3. Stores and removes dead red blood cells. a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: C 130. A specific radiographic examination of the biliary ducts is termed: a. cholangiography. b. cholecystography. c. hepatography. d. hepatorrhaphy. ANS: A 131. During an operative cholangiogram, the surgeon injects the contrast medium directly into the
biliary system. Which of the following projections are typically done during this procedure in surgery? 1. AP 2. AP oblique, RPO 3. AP oblique, LPO a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. Which two are components of the alimentary canal? (Select all that apply.) a. Pharynx b. Liver c. Pancreas d. Stomach ANS: A, D 2. Functions of the stomach include which two of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. Absorption of nutrients b. Chemical breakdown of food c. Elimination of waste products d. Storage of food ANS: B, D 3. Which two are the main functions of the large intestine? (Select all that apply.) a. Elimination of waste products b. Digestion of food
c. Reabsorption of fluids d. Absorption of food ANS: A, C 4. Which two are advantages of using the recumbent position for images of the esophagus?
(Select all that apply.) a. Easier to swallow barium b. Varices better filled with contrast c. Proximal portion more completely filled with contrast d. Demonstration of hiatal hernia ANS: B, C 5. Which two are essential projections for examination of the small intestine? (Select all that
apply.) a. AP b. Lateral c. PA d. AP oblique ANS: A, C 6. Which two positions will demonstrate the right colic flexure? (Select all that apply.) a. LPO b. RAO c. RPO d. LAO ANS: A, B
Chapter 16: Urinary System and Venipuncture Long: Merrill’s Atlas of Radiographic Positioning and Procedures, 14th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Functions of the kidney include:
1. removing waste products from the blood. 2. maintaining fluid and electrolyte balance. 3. secreting substances that affect blood pressure. a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D 2. How much urine is excreted by the kidneys each day? a. 0.5 to 1 L b. 1 to 2 L c. 1.5 to 2.5 L d. 2 to 3 L ANS: B 3. Which of the following is secreted by the suprarenal glands? a. Epinephrine b. Thyroxine c. Prolactin d. Glucagon ANS: A 4. Which of the following is true regarding the kidneys? a. The left kidney is longer and narrower than the right. b. The left kidney is lower than the right. c. The right kidney is longer and narrower than the left. d. Both kidneys are the same length and width. ANS: A 5. For which body habitus will the kidneys lie at the highest level? a. Sthenic b. Asthenic c. Hypersthenic d. Hyposthenic ANS: C 6. How much will the kidneys drop in the change from the supine to the upright position? a. 1 inch b. 2 inches
c. 3 inches d. 3 inches ANS: B 7. The microscopic components of the parenchyma of the kidney are called: a. nephrons. b. calyces. c. the glomerulus. d. cortical substances. ANS: A 8. The organ identified in the figure below is the:
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a. b. c. d.
spleen. liver. left kidney. right kidney.
ANS: C 9. The area of the kidney identified in the figure below is the:
a. b. c. d.
hilum. renal pelvis. renal sinus. minor calyx.
ANS: B 10. The cluster of blood capillaries contained within the capsule of a nephron is called the: a. cortex. b. medulla. c. Henle loop. d. glomerulus. ANS: D 11. Which of the following serves as the filter for the blood in the kidney? a. Glomerulus b. Afferent tubule c. Henle loop d. The convoluted tubules ANS: A 12. The cup-shaped recesses in the center of each kidney that receive the urine from the collecting
ducts are called the: a. hilum. b. calyces. c. renal sinuses. d. renal pelvis. ANS: B 13. Where do the ureters lie in relation to the peritoneum? a. In the peritoneum b. Behind the peritoneum c. In front of the peritoneum d. In the peritoneal space ANS: B
14. Which of the following serve(s) as a reservoir to store urine? a. Kidneys b. Calyces c. Ureters d. Urinary bladder ANS: D 15. How much fluid can the adult bladder hold when full? a. 75 mL b. 100 mL c. 400 mL d. 500 mL ANS: D 16. Where do the ureters enter the bladder? a. Posterior wall b. Superior wall c. Anterior wall d. Posterosuperior wall ANS: A 17. The site where the ureters enter the bladder is termed the a. ureterocalyceal b. cystoureteral c. ureterovesical d. ureterocystic
junction.
ANS: C 18. How long is the urethra in the female? a. 1 inch b. 1 inches c. 2 inches d. 2 inches ANS: B 19. The technique of injecting contrast media into a vein and taking radiographic images of the
kidneys, ureters, and bladder is termed: a. pyelography. b. antegrade urography. c. intravenous urography. d. nephrotomography. ANS: C 20. In some radiography procedures involving the urinary system, the contrast medium is
introduced against the normal flow. This is termed:
a. b. c. d.
infusion. percutaneous. antegrade. retrograde.
ANS: D 21. A radiographic examination of the urinary bladder is termed: a. cystography. b. cystourethrography. c. cystoureterography. d. retrograde urography. ANS: A 22. For which of the following anatomic areas is the retrograde technique used?
1. Bladder 2. Lower ureters 3. Urethra a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D 23. The concentration of iodine in ionic contrast media is: a. 40% to 60%. b. 50% to 70%. c. 60% to 80%. d. 70% to 90%. ANS: B 24. Nonionic contrast agents are preferred because: a. they produce fewer adverse reactions. b. less is required to perform an exam. c. the cost of nonionics is lower. d. the kidneys filter it faster, thus decreasing the exam time. ANS: A 25. Significant reactions to contrast media include:
1. nausea. 2. vomiting. 3. edema of the respiratory mucous membrane. a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D
26. Nearly all life-threatening reactions to contrast media occur immediately or within
minutes of the injection. a. 2 b. 5 c. 10 d. 20 ANS: D 27. Preparation of the patient for an IVU includes all of the following, except: a. NPO after midnight. b. cleansing enemas. c. a nongas forming laxative. d. a light evening meal. ANS: B 28. The technical factors used for an IVU should provide sufficient exposure technique to clearly
demonstrate all of these, except: a. borders of psoas muscles. b. lower liver border. c. renal shadows. d. nephrons. ANS: D 29. Which of the following must be available during an IVU?
1. Nurse 2. Radiologist 3. Emergency cart a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: C 30. Where is the compression applied during an IVU? a. Over the kidneys b. Distal ends of the ureters c. Middle portion of the ureters d. Directly over the bladder ANS: B 31. Compression should not be used during an IVU if the patient has a(n):
1. iodine allergy. 2. aneurysm. 3. colostomy. a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3
d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: C 32. The respiration phase for all exposures made during an IVU is: a. inspiration. b. expiration. c. suspended respiration. d. shallow breathing. ANS: B 33. Contraindications for intravenous urography include:
1. anuria. 2. renal failure. 3. elderly patients. a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A 34. Within how many minutes does contrast medium appear in the pelvicalyceal system? a. 0.5 to 1 b. 2 to 8 c. 5 to 11 d. 12 to 18 ANS: B 35. How many minutes after injection does the greatest concentration of contrast medium appear
in the kidneys? a. 1 to 5 b. 6 to 9 c. 15 to 20 d. 20 to 30 ANS: C 36. The series of radiographic images made during an IVU examination are typically done at time
intervals between a. 2 and 10 b. 5 and 10 c. 3 and 20 d. 5 and 30
minutes.
ANS: C 37. Where is the IR centered for all abdominal images taken during examinations of the urinary
system? a. L3 b. Iliac crests
c. 2 inches above the iliac crests d. 2 inches below the iliac crests ANS: B 38. What is the central-ray angle for the AP oblique projections of the urinary system? a. 0 degrees b. 5 degrees c. 10 degrees d. 15 degrees ANS: A 39. How much is the patient rotated from the supine for an AP oblique projection of the urinary
system? a. 30 degrees b. 35 degrees c. 40 degrees d. 45 degrees ANS: A 40. Which of the following is true regarding positioning of the abdomen for a lateral projection of
the urinary system? a. The midcoronal plane is centered to the grid. b. A coronal plane 1 inch anterior to the midcoronal plane is centered to the grid. c. A coronal plane 2 inches anterior to the midcoronal plane is centered to the grid. d. A coronal plane 2 inches poNsU teR riS orItoNG thT eB m. idCcoOrM onal plane is centered to the grid. ANS: A 41. Which decubitus position is commonly used during an IVU examination to demonstrate the
ureteropelvic junction? a. Ventral decubitus b. Dorsal decubitus c. L lateral decubitus d. R lateral decubitus ANS: B 42. Which of the following is true regarding retrograde urography?
1. The ureters must be catheterized. 2. The exam provides little physiologic information. 3. Contrast is injected directly into the pelvicalyceal system. a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D 43. Which technique is used to get contrast medium into the urinary bladder for a cystogram? a. Percutaneous technique
b. Physiologic technique c. Retrograde filling technique d. Antegrade filling technique ANS: C 44. All of the following projections are used during a cystogram, except: a. PA oblique. b. AP. c. lateral. d. AP oblique. ANS: A 45. What if the recommended size and orientation of the radiation field for examination of the
urinary bladder (cystogram)? a. 8 10 inches (18 24 cm) crosswise b. 10 12 inches (24 30 cm) crosswise c. 10 12 inches (24 30 cm) lengthwise d. 14 17 inches (35 43 cm) crosswise ANS: C 46. Where is the IR centered for an AP axial projection of the urinary bladder (cystogram)? a. At the pubic symphysis b. 1 inch above the upper border of the pubic symphysis c. 1 inches above the upper border of the pubic symphysis d. 2 inches above the upper boNrU deRr S ofItN heGsTyB m. phCyOsiMs pubis ANS: D 47. How much is the body rotated for the AP oblique projection of the urinary bladder during a
cystogram? a. 25 degrees b. 45 degrees c. 40 to 60 degrees d. 60 to 80 degrees ANS: C 48. Which plane is centered to the grid for a lateral projection during a cystogram? a. The midcoronal plane b. A coronal plane 1 inch anterior to the midcoronal plane c. A coronal plane 2 inches anterior to the midcoronal plane d. A coronal plane 2 inches posterior to the midcoronal plane ANS: A 49. What is the essential projection used for a cystourethrogram on a male patient? a. AP b. AP oblique c. PA oblique
d. Lateral ANS: B 50. Where is the IR centered for the AP oblique projection during a male or female
cystourethrogram? a. Superior border of the pubic symphysis b. 2 inches above the pubic symphysis c. 2 inches below the pubic symphysis d. Variable based on body habitus ANS: A 51. How much is the body rotated for the AP oblique projection during a male or female
cystourethrogram? a. 20 degrees b. 30 degrees c. 45 degrees d. 35 to 40 degrees ANS: D 52. How is the central ray positioned to free the bladder neck of superimposition during a female
cystourethrogram? a. 0 degrees b. 5 degrees caudad c. 5 degrees cephalad d. 10 degrees cephalad ANS: B 53. The two kidneys lie: a. behind the peritoneum. b. behind the stomach. c. inside the peritoneum. d. inside the peritoneal cavity. ANS: A 54. The concave medial border of the kidney where the blood vessels and ureter exit is called the: a. sinus. b. hilum. c. renal pelvis. d. renal papilla. ANS: B 55. The mucosal folds on the inside of the urinary bladder are called: a. serosa. b. omenta. c. rugae. d. pleura.
ANS: C 56. The abbreviation for the excretory technique of urography is: a. IVP. b. EXU. c. KUB. d. IVU. ANS: D 57. The radiographic examination of the urethra is called: a. cystography. b. cystourethrography. c. cystoureterography. d. retrograde urography. ANS: B 58. The center of the compression device that is placed over the lower ureters during intravenous
urography is positioned: a. 1 inch above the pubic symphysis. b. 1 inch above the iliac crests. c. at the level of the ASIS. d. at the level of the iliac crests. ANS: C 59. Which projection will demonstrate the mobility of the kidneys during intravenous urography? a. AP, upright position b. PA, prone position c. Lateral d. Dorsal decubitus ANS: A 60. Which position may be helpful to demonstrate the lower ureters? a. Fowler 10 degrees b. Fowler 15 to 20 degrees c. Trendelenburg 10 degrees d. Trendelenburg 15 to 20 degrees ANS: D 61. Which projection would place the right kidney perpendicular to the IR? a. Right lateral b. Right lateral, dorsal decubitus c. AP oblique, RPO d. AP oblique, LPO ANS: C 62. The respiration phase for radiographic images made during intravenous urography is: a. suspended inspiration.
b. suspended expiration. c. suspended respiration. d. slow breathing. ANS: B 63. Which of the following is considered an operative examination? a. Intravenous pyelography b. Cystourethrography c. Intravenous urography d. Retrograde urography ANS: D 64. What is the central-ray angulation for the AP axial urinary bladder? a. 0 degrees b. 10 degrees c. 10 to 15 degrees caudad d. 10 to 15 degrees cephalad ANS: C 65. What is the central-ray angulation for the PA axial urinary bladder? a. 0 degrees b. 10 degrees c. 10 to 15 degrees caudad d. 10 to 15 degrees cephalad ANS: D 66. Guidelines from which of the following organizations must be adhered to with regard to
venipuncture administration? 1. Professional society (ASRT) 2. State agencies 3. The institution a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D 67. Which of the following is true with regard to the use of injection needles used for
venipuncture? 1. Steel needles may be sterilized and used again. 2. The needles may only be used one time. 3. All needles can be sterilized and used again. a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3
ANS: B 68. IV medications are administered via the a. arterial b. venous c. lymphatic d. arterial and venous
system.
ANS: B 69. The vessels most often used for venipuncture are found on the:
1. anterior forearm. 2. posterior hand. 3. ulnar aspect of the wrist. a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A 70. The antiseptic used to cleanse the skin before venipuncture should remain on the skin for: a. 15 seconds. b. 30 seconds. c. 1 minute. d. 2 minutes. ANS: B 71. What type of motion is used to cleanse the skin before venipuncture? a. Circular b. Upward c. Downward d. “Up-down” ANS: A 72. During venipuncture, how far above the site of the puncture is the tourniquet placed? a. 2 inches b. 4 to 7 inches c. 5 inches d. 6 to 8 inches ANS: D 73. What is the angle of the needle to the skin’s surface during venipuncture? a. 15 degrees b. 30 degrees c. 45 degrees d. 55 degrees ANS: C
74. After the needle enters the skin during venipuncture, the angle of the needle is reduced how
many degrees to the long axis of the vessel? a. 5 degrees b. 10 degrees c. 15 degrees d. 20 degrees ANS: C 75. When blood or the medication injected into a vessel leaks out, it is called: a. infiltration. b. extraversion. c. infusion. d. angiitis. ANS: A 76. A severe reaction to a medication or contrast medium would be: a. itching. b. sneezing. c. vomiting. d. anaphylactic reaction. ANS: D 77. A mild reaction to a medication or contrast medium would be: a. nausea. b. itching. c. warmth. d. vomiting. ANS: C 78. A moderate reaction to a medication or contrast medium would be: a. warmth. b. vomiting. c. sneezing. d. anaphylactic reaction. ANS: B 79. The most common cause of contrast medium leaking out of a vessel and infiltrating the
surrounding tissues is: a. needle displacement. b. disease processes/pathology. c. using a needle that is too large. d. pulling the needle out too fast. ANS: A 80. Which of the following therapies would be applied if contrast medium infiltrates the
surrounding tissues? 1. Application of pressure immediately
2. Application of a cold compress 3. Application of a warm compress a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: C 81. A calculation that uses the creatinine level, age, race, gender, and body size, and is the best
overall indicator of kidney function is: a. glomerular filtration rate. b. blood urea nitrogen level. c. creatine-plus rate. d. kidney function indicator. ANS: A 82. The normal GFR is: a. 90 mL/min/1.73 m2 or below. b. 100 to 135 mL/min/1.73 m2 c. 90 to 120 mL/min/1.73 m2 d. 130 to 140 mL/min/1.73 m2 ANS: C 83. A GFR of 90 mL or below is an indication of: a. normal renal function. b. normal liver function. c. liver dysfunction. d. renal dysfunction. ANS: D 84. A normal creatinine level is a. 0.5 to 1.2 b. 1.0 to 1.5 c. 1.2 to 1.7 d. 2.0 to 2.5
mg/100 mL.
ANS: A 85. What vein, often used for venipuncture, is labeled with the arrow in the diagram below?
a. b. c. d.
Basilic vein Cephalic vein Radial vein Median cubital vein
ANS: D 86. The dilated, proximal portion of the ureter is labeled with an arrow. What is the name of this
anatomy shown in the image frN om IVNUGbTeB lo.wC?OM URanSI
a. b. c. d.
Renal pelvis Hilum Calyx Trigone
ANS: A 87. What anatomy is labeled with the letter A shown in the image from an IVU examination
below?
a. b. c. d.
Left ureter Right ureter Left renal pelvis Right renal pelvis
ANS: B 88. Letter B shown in the image from an IVU examination below labels the:
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a. b. c. d.
right renal pelvis. right ureter. urinary bladder. symphysis pubis.
ANS: C 89. What anatomy is indicated by letter C in the image below?
a. b. c. d.
Left kidney Right kidney Right renal pelvis Left renal pelvis
ANS: A 90. What is the projection and procedure demonstrated in this image?
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a. b. c. d.
AP, IVU AP, cystogram PA, retrogram urogram AP oblique, IVU
ANS: B 91. What is the patient position demonstrated in this image?
a. b. c. d.
20- to 30-degree LPO 20- to 30-degree RPO 40- to 60-degree LPO 40- to 60-degree RPO
ANS: D MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. Two common reactions to contrast media include: (Select all that apply.) a. warmth. b. anaphylactic reaction. c. flushing. d. seizures. ANS: A, C 2. The urinary system includes which two of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. Suprarenal glands b. Prostate c. Urethra d. Kidneys ANS: C, D 3. Before venipuncture is performed, the radiologic technologist must assess which two of the
following? (Select all that apply.) a. Age of the patient b. Previous contrast reactions c. Iodine allergy d. Liver function ANS: B, C
Chapter 17: Reproductive System Long: Merrill’s Atlas of Radiographic Positioning and Procedures, 14th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. All are part of the male reproductive system, except: a. ductus deferens. b. seminal vesicles. c. infundibulum. d. testes. ANS: C 2. Radiographic examination of the uterus and uterine tubes is termed: a. vaginography. b. hysterosalpingography. c. pelvic pneumography. d. pelvimetry. ANS: B 3. Measurement of the fetal head and pelvic outlet can be performed using which of the
following? 1. Sonography 2. Hysterosalpingography 3. Pelvimetry a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: B 4. Radiographic examinations of the male reproductive structures are rarely performed as a result
of advances in: a. computed tomography. b. nuclear medicine. c. sonography. d. magnetic resonance imaging. ANS: C 5. Which of the following is a type of temporary intrauterine contraceptive device (IUD)? a. Essure b. ParaGard c. Insure d. CerviGard ANS: B
6. Which examination is performed 3 months after insertion of an IUD to determine effective
uterine tube occlusion? a. Hysterosalpingogram b. Pelvic pneumography c. Vaginography d. Pelvic sonogram ANS: A 7. The condition of an undescended testis is termed: a. ectopic testicle. b. cryptorchidism. c. testicular torsion. d. cryptoscrotalism. ANS: B 8. What is the most common type of testicular tumor? a. Cryptorchidism b. Prostate cancer c. Seminoma d. Dermoid ANS: C 9. What reproductive system procedure is demonstrated in the image below?
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a. b. c. d.
Hysterosalpingogram Vaginography Vesiculography Pelvimetry
ANS: A 10. Letter A in the image below labels the:
a. b. c. d.
uterus. contrast spill from open uterine tube. speculum. vagina.
ANS: A MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. Which two are parts of the female reproductive system? (Select all that apply.) a. Uterine tubes b. Seminal vesicles c. Ductus deferens d. Ovaries ANS: A, D
Chapter 18: Mammography Long: Merrill’s Atlas of Radiographic Positioning and Procedures, 14th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The overall most common cause of death in women is: a. breast cancer. b. lung cancer. c. ovarian cancer. d. auto accidents. ANS: B 2. Since 1989, death rates from breast cancer have been: a. dramatically increasing. b. slowly increasing. c. relatively unchanged. d. steadily decreasing. ANS: D 3. Which breast imaging technique sparked the beginning of widespread population screening
for breast cancer? a. Molybdenum-target tubes b. Xeromammography c. High-resolution x-ray film d. Specialized grids ANS: B 4. Which of the following terms is also referred to as 3D breast imaging? a. Digital breast tomosynthesis (DBT) b. Breast MRI c. Full-field digital mammography d. Breast sonography ANS: A 5. The mean glandular dose for a typical two-projection mammogram done using a
screen-film-grid was: a. 100 mrad. b. 320 mrad. c. 400 mrad. d. 450 mrad. ANS: B 6. The most common material used for the target in mammography tubes is: a. vanadium. b. rhodium. c. tungsten.
d. molybdenum. ANS: D 7. Which projections of the breast are routinely performed during screening mammography?
1. Lateral 2. Craniocaudal 3. Mediolateral oblique a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: C 8. Which of the following is true regarding the radiographic examination of the breast?
1. Imaging the posterior breast tissue is critical. 2. Use adequate compression to produce a uniform breast thickness. 3. Perform positioning of the breast consistently so that lesions can be accurately localized. a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D 9. The pectoral muscle is seen on the craniocaudal projection of the breast in what percentage of
patients? a. 20% b. 30% c. 50% d. 75% ANS: B 10. Which of the following is true regarding the craniocaudal image of the breast?
1. The nipple should be in profile and at midline. 2. All of the medial breast tissue should be shown. 3. The marker should be positioned along the medial side. a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A 11. For the craniocaudal projection of the breast, the height of the C-arm should be at the level of
the: a. b. c. d.
nipple. axillary tail. pectoral muscle. inframammary fold.
ANS: D 12. What is the angle of the central ray for the mediolateral oblique projection of the breast? a. 25 degrees b. 45 degrees c. 30 to 60 degrees, depending on the angle of the pectoral muscle d. 45 to 50 degrees, depending on the angle of the pectoral muscle ANS: C 13. Which of the following is true regarding the mediolateral oblique projection of the breast?
1. The central ray enters the superomedial aspect of the breast. 2. The marker is placed along the lower border of the breast. 3. The breast should not droop on the image. a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: B 14. Which of the following describes the placement of the IR holder for the mediolateral oblique
projection of the breast? a. The superior border level with the axilla b. Perpendicular to the pectoral muscle c. Parallel with the anterior aspect of the affected upper arm d. Parallel with the line drawn from the axilla to the xiphoid NURSINGTB.COM ANS: A 15. Which breast pathology is defined as a solid, benign tumor of glandular and connective tissues
with clearly defined margins? a. Cyst b. Lipoma c. Fibroadenoma d. Hamartoma ANS: C 16. How many projections are required for a complete examination of both breasts on a patient
who has implants? a. Four b. Eight c. Four, depending on the patient’s age d. Eight, depending on the patient’s age ANS: B 17. The method used to image the breasts of women who have had implants is the: a. Towne. b. Eklund. c. Stecher.
d. Lawrence. ANS: B 18. MRI is commonly used in mammography for imaging: a. male patients. b. patients older than 75. c. after lumpectomy surgery. d. the augmented breast. ANS: D 19. In what year did mammography become the only x-ray examination regulated by the federal
government? a. 1990 b. 1994 c. 1996 d. 1996 ANS: B 20. What is the recommended frequency of mammography for women over age 40? a. Every 6 months b. Once a year c. Every 1 to 2 years d. Every 3 years ANS: B 21. The first dedicated mammography machine was introduced in what year? a. 1945 b. 1950 c. 1960 d. 1967 ANS: D 22. What type of generators do mammography machines have? a. Single-phase b. Three-phase c. Falling load d. High frequency ANS: D 23. The kVp used in mammography is typically: a. 15 kVp or lower. b. never higher than 20 kVp. c. in the range of 25 to 55 kVp. d. 35 kVp or lower. ANS: D
24. The projection of the breast shown in the figure below is a:
a. b. c. d.
mediolateral (ML). lateromedial (LM). mediolateral oblique (MLO). lateromedial oblique (LMO).
ANS: C 25. For which projection of the breast is the AEC turned off? a. CC with full implant b. CC with displaced implant c. All magnification projections d. Mediolateral oblique ANS: A 26. For which projections of the breast would minimal compression be used? a. All postsurgery projections b. All magnification projections c. CC and MLO with displaced implant d. CC and MLO with full impN laUnR t SINGTB.COM ANS: D 27. Which of the following is the essential lateral projection of the breast? a. 90 degrees lateromedial b. 90 degrees mediolateral c. 75 to 90 degrees lateromedial d. 75 to 90 degrees mediolateral ANS: B 28. Which of the following projections of the breast will best demonstrate “milk of calcium”? a. Craniocaudal b. Mediolateral c. Mediolateral oblique d. Lateromedial oblique ANS: B 29. Which projection is used when the lateral portion of the breast is not well seen on the standard
CC projection? a. Lateromedial (LM) b. Lateromedial oblique (LMO) c. Mediolateral oblique (MLO) d. Exaggerated craniocaudal (XCCL)
ANS: D 30. What percentage of patients in the United States will develop breast cancer during their
lifetime? a. 5% b. 8% c. 12% d. 15% ANS: C 31. What percent of nonpalpable lesions in the breast are not malignant? a. 5% b. 8% c. 70% d. 80% ANS: D 32. Examine the images below. Which mammographic projections are demonstrated?
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a. b. c. d.
Craniocaudal Caudocranial Mediolateral oblique Lateromedial
ANS: A 33. The arrow in the images below points to a mass with the characteristics of a:
a. benign tumor.
b. malignant tumor. c. fibrous tissue mass. d. cystic lesion. ANS: B 34. What projection is demonstrated in the images below?
a. b. c. d.
Craniocaudal Exaggerated craniocaudal Mediolateral oblique Lateromedial
ANS: C 35. The white line, labeled as X in the images below is the
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a. b. c. d.
posterior nipple pectoralis muscle breast width breast length
ANS: A
line.
Chapter 19: Bone Densitometry Long: Merrill’s Atlas of Radiographic Positioning and Procedures, 14th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What is the chief benefit of using a high and low x-ray energy source with a DXA system? a. Reduces patient dose significantly. b. Reduces wear and tear on the x-ray tube to change energies. c. Demonstrates attenuation difference between bone and soft tissue. d. Reduces postprocessing time of bone for the digital image. ANS: C 2. The purpose of bone densitometry is to: a. establish the diagnosis of osteoporosis. b. assess the response to osteoporosis therapy. c. measure bone mineral density. d. do all of the above. ANS: D 3. Which vertebral region(s) is (are) analyzed during a DXA scan? a. T12 b. T7 to L1 c. L1 to L5 d. L4 to S2 ANS: C 4. All are risk factors for osteoporosis, except: a. daily physical activity. b. alcohol consumption. c. low body weight. d. low calcium intake. ANS: A 5. Bone-destroying cells are called: a. osteoblasts. b. osteoclasts. c. cancellous. d. cortical. ANS: B 6. Peak bone mass is reached at about age a. 10 to 20 b. 20 to 30 c. 30 to 40 d. 40 to 50 ANS: B
years.
7. The most common osteoporotic fracture is found in the: a. hips. b. femurs. c. vertebrae. d. ankles. ANS: C 8. Accuracy in bone densitometry relates to the ability of the system to: a. measure the true value of an object. b. reproduce the same results in repeat measurements of the same object. c. reflect the bone measurement by the scanner software. d. measure the variability of the spread of data values around the mean. ANS: A 9. Precision relates to the ability of the system to: a. measure the true value of an object. b. reproduce the same results in repeat measurements of the same object. c. reflect the bone measurement by the scanner software. d. measure the variability of the spread of data values around the mean. ANS: B 10. A BMD measurement from a patient is most useful when it can be compared statistically to: a. the same patient age population. b. a population living in the same area. NURSINGTB.COM c. multiple scans on the same patient. d. an appropriate sex-matched reference population. ANS: D 11. Risk factors for falling and causing fractures are:
1. antidepressants. 2. impaired muscle strength. 3. environmental hazards. a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D 12. Radiation dose for DXA scans is: a. twice as much as for a diagnostic lumbar x-ray. b. half as much as for a lumbar CT examination. c. similar to natural background radiation. d. similar to a diagnostic hand x-ray. ANS: C 13. The T-score is used to assess:
a. b. c. d.
the reference population. fracture risk for the patient. if the measured BMD is reasonable. patient age and bone loss.
ANS: B 14. The Z-score is used to determine: a. the reference population. b. fracture risk for the patient. c. if the measured BMD is reasonable. d. patient age and bone loss. ANS: C 15. DXA calculations are based on: a. body position and bone density. b. bone density only. c. soft tissue only. d. soft tissue and bone. ANS: D 16. Patient positioning should be exactly the same for all scans because: a. the images need to look the same over time. b. the results will be more precise, reflecting a true biologic change. c. that will allow scans from different manufacturers to be comparable. d. radiologists want the same N poUsR itiSoI niN ngGtToBre.aC dO thMe images. ANS: B 17. When obtaining patient history for a bone density exam, the technologist should obtain the
patient’s: 1. history of fractures. 2. standing height and weight. 3. insurance information. a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D 18. The measurement of bone density uses two different beam energies, allowing the separation
of soft tissue and bone due to: a. filtration differences in the beam. b. mass attenuation coefficient differences. c. BMD population calculations. d. the two-dimensional area. ANS: B 19. All of the following are primary factors that affect precision in bone densitometry, except:
a. b. c. d.
geometric factors on array scanners. large weight changes over time. stability of scanner calibration. crossover in K-edge filtration.
ANS: D MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. The bone densitometry parameters reported on the DXA printouts include which two of the
following? (Select all that apply.) a. Area in centimeters squared (cm2) b. Mass attenuation coefficient c. BMD in g/cm2 d. Volumetric density ANS: A, C
Chapter 20: Mobile Radiography Long: Merrill’s Atlas of Radiographic Positioning and Procedures, 14th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The central ray must be centered within how many inches of the midline of the grid to avoid
grid cutoff? a. 1 inch b. 1 inches c. 2 inches d. 2 inches ANS: B 2. Most grids used for mobile radiography have ratios of: a. 6:1 or 8:1. b. 8:1 or 10:1. c. 10:1 or 12:1. d. 12:1 or 16:1. ANS: A 3. The anode heel effect is an important consideration in mobile radiography. Which of the
following will produce a more pronounced heel effect? 1. Short SID 2. Large field size 3. Use of low kVp techniques a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A 4. To keep exposure times to a minimum during mobile radiography, the recommended SID
should be a. 30 b. 36 c. 40 d. 48
inches.
ANS: C 5. Which of the following should be available on every mobile radiography machine?
1. Lead apron 2. Radiographic technique chart 3. Measuring caliper a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3
d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D 6. During a mobile exposure, the radiographer should be how far from the patient or part being
radiographed? a. 4 feet b. 5 feet c. 6 feet d. 10 feet ANS: C 7. During mobile radiography, the radiographer ideally should be standing at what degree of
angle from the primary beam? a. 0 degrees b. 45 degrees c. 90 degrees d. 45 to 90 degrees ANS: C 8. During mobile radiography, the least amount of scattered radiation will occur at what angle to
the patient or part being radiographed? a. 45 degrees b. 50 degrees c. 70 degrees d. 90 degrees ANS: D 9. The single most effective means of radiation protection during mobile radiography is: a. distance. b. exposure time. c. choice of kVp. d. use of a nongrid technique. ANS: A 10. During mobile radiography, shielding should be used on:
1. children. 2. exams in which the gonads are near the primary beam. 3. patients of reproductive age. a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D 11. According to federal regulations, the source-to-skin (SSD) distance during mobile
radiography may not be less than a. 10
inches.
b. 12 c. 15 d. 24 ANS: B 12. Which of the following attire is worn by the radiographer when entering a strict isolation
room for a mobile radiography examination? 1. Mask 2. Gown 3. Gloves a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D 13. Which protective attire is worn by the radiographer if a patient has drainage secretion
precautions? a. Gown b. Shoe covers c. Gloves d. Mask ANS: C 14. How long should the patient lieNiU nR thSeIdN ecGuT biB tu. sC poOsM ition before making the exposure during a
mobile decubitus chest examination? a. 1 minute b. 2 minutes c. 3 minutes d. 5 minutes ANS: D
15. For which mobile examinations is the cathode of the x-ray tube placed toward the head end of
the patient? 1. AP abdomen 2. AP and lateral femur 3. AP chest a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 2 and 3 ANS: A 16. Which of the following preliminary steps should the radiographer perform before beginning a
mobile x-ray examination? 1. Invite family members to remain in the room. 2. Introduce oneself to the patient and family.
3. Determine that the correct patient is in the room. a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: C 17. Which position is recommended for a mobile AP chest examination on a critically ill patient? a. Seated upright at a 90-degree angle b. Seated upright at a 45-degree angle c. Supine d. Left lateral decubitus ANS: C 18. What will result if the grid IR is leaning on a mobile lateral decubitus during examination of
the chest or abdomen? a. Increased scatter b. Distortion c. The distal anatomy will not be demonstrated d. The proximal anatomy will not be demonstrated ANS: B TRUE/FALSE
NaUvR 1. Mobile radiographic units can h eS diI reN ctGdTigBit. alCcO apMability with wired to the unit or wireless. ANS: T 2. The generators for mobile units have the same kilowatt rating as stationary x-ray equipment. ANS: F
Chapter 21: Surgical Radiography Long: Merrill’s Atlas of Radiographic Positioning and Procedures, 14th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The sterile field is the: a. whole surgical room. b. area around the surgeon. c. area prepared for the patient. d. surgical incision. ANS: C 2. Institution-approved attire worn in the OR: a. can be worn over 2 days. b. should be fresh for each shift. c. can be used regardless of condition. d. is not necessary in the semi-restricted areas. ANS: B 3. What should be done if the sterile field is compromised? a. Determine if the area is important. b. Don’t tell anyone. c. Call your manager. d. Tell OR staff immediately. ANS: D 4. Less frequently used x-ray equipment in the OR should be cleaned: a. every 3 days. b. at least once a week. c. every 2 weeks. d. once a month. ANS: B 5. Sterile gowns are considered sterile from shoulder to: a. cuff on the arms. b. level of sterile field. c. waist. d. knee. ANS: B 6. Reaching over a sterile field is allowed by: a. both sterile and nonsterile team members. b. only nonsterile team members. c. only sterile team members. d. only the surgeon. ANS: C
7. Who would be included as nonsterile team members?
1. Anesthesia provider 2. Physician assistant 3. Radiographer a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: B 8. What should the radiographer do after removing the cover from the IR? a. Quickly take it to be processed. b. Give it to a nonsterile team member. c. Put it on the floor. d. Remove gloves before handling it. ANS: D 9. When positioning the IR under the OR table, the radiographer should: a. lift the drapes up high to keep them away from the IR. b. not lift the drapes above table level to avoid the sterile field. c. squat down to place the IR below the table. d. give the IR to a sterile team member to place. ANS: B 10.1 Which of the following surgical procedures require the C-arm to be positioned between the 0 patient’s legs? . a. Tibia nailing b. Operative cholangiography c. Hip pinning d. Antegrade femoral nailing ANS: C 11. How often should the OR imaging equipment be cleaned? a. After each case b. At the beginning of the day c. At the beginning of each shift d. At least once a week ANS: A 12. How much is the C-arm angled for the PA projection during a cervical diskectomy and
fusion? a. 15 degrees caudad b. 15 degrees cephalad c. 3 to 5 degrees caudad d. 3 to 5 degrees cephalad ANS: B
Chapter 22: Pediatric Imaging Long: Merrill’s Atlas of Radiographic Positioning and Procedures, 14th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. An important safety rule for pediatric radiography is to: a. never leave the patient unattended. b. speak directly to the child using age-appropriate language. c. maintain adequate lighting in the exam room. d. always immobilize the patient to avoid repeats. ANS: A 2. Which of the following might be provided to distract and reduce anxiety for pediatric patients
and their parents in the waiting room? a. Informational pamphlets on imaging procedures b. Brochures for medical insurance c. Gender-neutral toys and activities d. Comfortable seating ANS: C 3. All of the following are appropriate communication skills for pediatric radiography except: a. avoid medical jargon. b. introduce yourself to both the patient and the parents. c. explain the imaging exam. d. direct communications to thNeUpR arSeI ntN sG onTlyB. .COM ANS: D 4. All of the following are universal approaches to working with children except: a. setting limits. b. addressing their fears. c. being authoritative and firm. d. making eye contact. ANS: C 5. Which pediatric age-groups benefit from a warmer exam room? a. Toddlers and adolescents b. Premature infants and neonates c. Preschoolers and school-age d. All pediatric age-groups ANS: B 6. Respecting the need for privacy is an important patient care consideration for: a. toddlers. b. preschoolers. c. school-agers. d. adolescents.
ANS: D 7. Which of the following can protect children from unnecessary radiation exposure?
1. Appropriate use of filters 2. Precise collimation 3. Gonad shielding always a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A 8. When performing limb radiography on a pediatric patient, what may not be required to
evaluate for fracture? a. Images showing the relative position of the two ends of the bone b. The contralateral side c. Use of large focal spot d. Soft tissue ANS: B 9. What is the most common location for an aspirated foreign body? a. Stomach b. Esophagus c. Right side of bronchial tree d. Left side of bronchial tree ANS: C 10. When a radiographer suspects child abuse, what is the required response? a. Notify the state child welfare office/social services. b. Call the police. c. Ask a nurse to look at the child. d. Notify the radiologist or attending physician. ANS: D 11. Which types of fractures have high specificity for nonaccidental trauma to a child?
1. Spiral fractures 2. Scapular fractures 3. Posterior rib fractures a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: C 12. According to the Centers for Disease Control (CDC), commonly recognized signs of autism
are: 1. difficulty with social interaction.
2. problems with verbal and nonverbal communication. 3. repetitive behaviors or narrow, obsessive interests. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D 13. Which body parts can be imaged on pediatric patients using the Pigg-O-Stat immobilizer? a. Head and neck b. Chest and abdomen c. Upper and lower limb d. Pelvis and lower limbs ANS: B 14. How is rotation evaluated on a pediatric chest image? a. Superimposition of anterior and posterior midline structures b. Visualization of eight to nine posterior ribs c. Visualization of the intervertebral disk spaces through the heart d. Anatomy from the trachea to the costophrenic angles is seen ANS: A 15. Which of the following is used to evaluate adequate inspiration on a pediatric chest image? a. Superimposition of anterior and posterior midline structures b. Visualization of eight to ninNeUpR oS steIrN ioG rT ribBs.COM c. Visualization of the intervertebral disk spaces through the heart d. Anatomy from the trachea to the costophrenic angles is seen ANS: B 16. All of the following are commonly assessed using hip radiographic images in pediatric patient
except: a. Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease. b. traumatic sports injuries. c. developmental dysplasia of the hip. d. slipped capital femoral epiphysis. ANS: B 17. Which of the following are common pediatric fractures?
1. Salter-Harris 2. Plastic 3. Supracondylar a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D
18. Common reasons for performing skull radiography on a pediatric patient are: a. craniosynostosis and fracture. b. sinusitis and fracture. c. craniosynostosis and meningomyelocele. d. meningomyelocele and sinusitis. ANS: A 19. Which sinuses are usually aerated at birth? a. Maxillary only b. Maxillary and frontal only c. Maxillary, ethmoid, and sphenoid d. All paranasal sinuses are aerated at birth, if normal ANS: C 20. Idiopathic scoliosis is most common in: a. male infants. b. adolescent females. c. male toddlers. d. utero, between 3 and 6 weeks’ gestation. ANS: B
Chapter 23: Geriatric Radiography Long: Merrill’s Atlas of Radiographic Positioning and Procedures, 14th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Ageism is a term that is used to describe a. a chronic condition b. social and psychological changes c. stereotyping and discrimination d. preferential treatment
of the elderly.
ANS: C 2. The aging experience is individual and is affected by:
1. attitude. 2. lifestyle choices. 3. heredity. a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D 3. What system accounts for almost 50% of disability in patients older than age 65? a. Cardiovascular b. Gastrointestinal c. Musculoskeletal d. Nervous ANS: D 4. A common fracture site for an elderly person with osteoporosis is the: a. first metatarsal. b. distal radius. c. humeral head. d. olecranon process. ANS: B 5. What is one of the leading causes of death among the elderly? a. Pneumonia b. Pancreatitis c. Bronchitis d. Emphysema ANS: A 6. Traditional positioning for a chest radiograph may be difficult for the elderly patient. An
alternative would be to: a. position the patient for an AP.
b. have a CT scan for the chest. c. wrap his or her arms around the chest stand. d. leave arms down at the side of the body. ANS: C 7. Exposure factors for the elderly: a. do not require any changes. b. call for increased kVp. c. may need longer time settings. d. often require lower kVp. ANS: D 8. When imaging the upper or lower limbs on geriatric patients, keep in mind that: a. many projections can be combined to decrease time and discomfort. b. mobility and flexibility is often decreased. c. long bones shrink as age increases. d. scatter radiation is greater in those with osteoporosis. ANS: B 9. Which of the following musculoskeletal conditions increases in incidence as age increases?
1. Osteoporosis 2. Degenerative joint disease 3. Osgood-Schlatter disease a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A 10. Which of the following is a warning sign of emotional abuse of an older adult? a. Sudden change in financial status b. An increase in insomnia c. Sudden change in alertness d. Development of decubitus ulcers ANS: C 11. A common cause of death in patients with Alzheimer is: a. hemorrhagic stroke. b. myocardial infarction. c. elder abuse. d. pneumonia. ANS: D 12. Which of the following help with communications with geriatric patients? a. Speaking lower and closer b. Bright lighting in the exam room c. Assistance in stepping down from the table
d. Allowing time for the patient to rest between positions ANS: A MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. Which two of the following are common sites for decubitus ulcers? (Select all that apply.) a. Knee b. Heel c. Shoulder d. Elbow ANS: B, D TRUE/FALSE 1. Aging and disease are considered synonymous. ANS: F 2. Dementia is a natural part of the aging process. ANS: F 3. It is inappropriate to address elderly patients as “honey” or “dear.” ANS: T 4. Elder abuse occurs in many forms, such as sexual, emotional, exploitive, or physical. ANS: T 5. The preclinical stage of Alzheimer disease may be asymptomatic, but evidence of this disease
can often be detected on imaging. ANS: T
Chapter 24: Sectional Anatomy for Radiographers Long: Merrill’s Atlas of Radiographic Positioning and Procedures, 14th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Study this image. Identify the imaging plane and modality.
a. b. c. d.
MRI, sagittal CT, sagittal MRI, axial CT, axial
ANS: C 2. The red arrow is pointing to the bright structure within the dark gray structure. What anatomy
is indicated by the arrow?
a. Septum pallucidum b. Corpus callosum
c. Caudate nucleus d. Choroid plexus ANS: D 3. What imaging plane is presented in this image?
a. b. c. d.
Sagittal Axial Oblique Coronal
ANS: A 4. Which imaging modality produced this image?
a. b. c. d.
CT MRI Radiography Ultrasound
ANS: A 5. Line A is pointing to the
in this CT image of the brain.
a. b. c. d.
choroid plexus third ventricle lateral ventricle, anterior horn lateral ventricle, occipital horn
ANS: C 6. Line B is pointing to the
in this CT image of the brain.
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a. b. c. d.
pituitary gland third ventricle lateral ventricle foramen of Monroe
ANS: B 7. Line A is pointing to the:
a. b. c. d.
optic nerve. pituitary gland. carotid artery. carotid vein.
ANS: A 8. The lines in this image point to the:
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a. b. c. d.
pons. third ventricle. cerebellum. lateral ventricles.
ANS: D 9. In this cross section of the thorax, line A identifies the:
a. b. c. d.
bronchus. esophagus. ascending aorta. descending aorta.
ANS: D 10. In this cross section of the thorax, line B identifies the:
NURSINGTB.COM a. b. c. d.
bronchus. esophagus. ascending aorta. descending aorta.
ANS: C 11. Line A in this axial CT scan identifies the left:
a. b. c. d.
clavicle. brachiocephalic vein. subclavian artery. subclavian vein.
ANS: C
12. Line B in this axial CT scan identifies the left:
a. b. c. d.
clavicle. brachiocephalic vein. subclavian artery. subclavian vein.
ANS: A 13. This image is a(n)
a. b. c. d.
plane of the
axial; upper coronal; upper axial; lower coronal; lower
ANS: A 14. The line on this image is pointing to the:
a. b. c. d.
colon. kidney. stomach. spleen.
ANS: D
abdomen.
15. Line A on this image is pointing to the:
a. b. c. d.
right lobe of the liver. left lobe of the liver. caudate lobe of the liver. falciform ligament.
ANS: B 16. Line B on this image is pointing to the:
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a. b. c. d.
liver. stomach. spleen. small bowel.
ANS: B 17. Line A on this image is pointing to the:
a. liver.
b. spleen. c. L kidney. d. gallbladder. ANS: D 18. Line B on this image is pointing to the:
a. b. c. d.
liver. spleen. L kidney. gallbladder.
ANS: C 19.1 The line on this CT scan is pointing to the: NURSINGTB.COM 9 .
a. b. c. d.
liver. sternum. stomach. transverse colon.
ANS: D 20. Line A on this CT scan is pointing to the:
a. b. c. d.
uterus. rectum. bladder. small bowel.
ANS: C 21. Line B on this CT scan is pointing to the:
a. b. c. d.
uterus. rectum. bladder. small bowel.
ANS: B 22. Identify the imaging plane, anatomy, and modality in this figure.
a. b. c. d.
Midcoronal CT, female pelvis Midcoronal CT, male pelvis Midsagittal MRI, female pelvis Midsagittal MRI, male pelvis
ANS: C 23. The line on this image labels the:
a. b. c. d.
uterine cavity. urinary bladder. rectum. kidney.
ANS: A 24. Which number labels the straight sinus in this image?
a. b. c. d.
1 2 3 4
ANS: D
25. The line on the image below points to the:
a. b. c. d.
occipital lobe. temporal lobe. pons. cerebellum.
ANS: D 26. What imaging plane is demonstrated in this image?
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a. b. c. d.
Sagittal Coronal Axial Oblique
ANS: B 27. On the image below, the line points to the:
a. b. c. d.
spinal cord. ascending aorta. descending aorta. abdominal aorta.
ANS: C 28. Examine the image below. The line points to the:
a. b. c. d.
stomach. liver. kidney. heart.
ANS: B 29. Which of the following organs are demonstrated in the image below?
1. Spleen 2. Kidneys 3. Pancreas
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D 30. Examine the image below. The line points to the
a. b. c. d.
left psoas right psoas rectus abdominis external oblique
ANS: A
muscle.
Chapter 25: Computed Tomography Long: Merrill’s Atlas of Radiographic Positioning and Procedures, 14th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. CT is able to differentiate between tissues with similar densities compared with conventional
radiography because of: a. digital magnification. b. the use of a computer for data processing. c. improved contrast resolution. d. axial slices. ANS: C 2. Which generation of CT scanners uses a dual-energy source (two x-ray tubes)? a. Third generation b. Fourth generation c. Fifth generation d. Sixth generation ANS: D 3. An array of numbers arranged in a grid of rows and columns is called a: a. pixel. b. voxel. c. matrix. d. scan profile. ANS: C 4. The reference material for CT is and is related to the a. water; field of view b. water; linear attenuation coefficient c. muscle; gray level d. bone; mass attenuation
of the tissue.
ANS: B 5. Contrast is adjusted by windowing, changing window width and window level. Window
width determines the: a. number of gray levels displayed. b. midpoint of the gray range. c. size of the field of view. d. slice thickness. ANS: A 6. Contrast is adjusted by windowing, changing window width and window level. Window level
determines the: a. number of gray levels displayed. b. midpoint of the gray range.
c. size of the field of view. d. slice thickness. ANS: B 7. Oral contrast for CT should be mixed so it is: a. the same as for general diagnostic examinations. b. more concentrated than for general examinations. c. less concentrated than for general examinations. d. contrast media is not necessary. ANS: C 8. The advantages of multislice helical CT (MSHCT) include:
1. multiphase studies. 2. isotropic viewing. 3. longer anatomic coverage. a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D 9. Dose in CT is considered to be: a. independent of size. b. size dependent. c. related to the CT numbers. d. similar to a chest examination. ANS: B 10. The most common reporting method of dose reporting on the present scanners is: a. multiple scan average dose (MSAD). b. computed tomography dose index (CTDI). c. dose-length product (DLP). d. computed tomography dose index volume (CTDIvol). ANS: C 11. The measured x-ray transmission values are called: a. raw data. b. pixels. c. voxels. d. Hounsfield units. ANS: A 12. CT detectors are most commonly a. ionization (xenon gas) b. scintillation (solid state) c. thermoluminescent d. phosphorescent
detectors.
ANS: B 13. The most significant geometric factor that contributes to spatial resolution is: a. detector aperture width. b. FOV. c. slice thickness. d. x-ray beam energy. ANS: A 14. The CT system’s ability to freeze any motion of a scanned object is termed: a. detector quantum efficiency. b. temporal resolution. c. reconstruction algorithm. d. spatial resolution. ANS: B 15. All of the following are methods of 3D reconstruction techniques in CT except: a. volume rendering. b. maximum intensity projection. c. shaded surface display. d. pixel-voxel reregistration. ANS: D MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. Which two factors affect image quality in CT? (Select all that apply.) a. Spatial resolution b. Contrast media c. Noise d. Aperture size ANS: A, C
Chapter 26: Magnetic Resonance Imaging Long: Merrill’s Atlas of Radiographic Positioning and Procedures, 14th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. CT is able to differentiate between tissues with similar densities compared with conventional
radiography because of: a. digital magnification. b. the use of a computer for data processing. c. improved contrast resolution. d. axial slices. ANS: C 2. Which generation of CT scanners uses a dual-energy source (two x-ray tubes)? a. Third generation b. Fourth generation c. Fifth generation d. Sixth generation ANS: D 3. An array of numbers arranged in a grid of rows and columns is called a: a. pixel. b. voxel. c. matrix. d. scan profile. ANS: C 4. The reference material for CT is and is related to the a. water; field of view b. water; linear attenuation coefficient c. muscle; gray level d. bone; mass attenuation
of the tissue.
ANS: B 5. Contrast is adjusted by windowing, changing window width and window level. Window
width determines the: a. number of gray levels displayed. b. midpoint of the gray range. c. size of the field of view. d. slice thickness. ANS: A 6. Contrast is adjusted by windowing, changing window width and window level. Window level
determines the: a. number of gray levels displayed. b. midpoint of the gray range.
c. size of the field of view. d. slice thickness. ANS: B 7. Oral contrast for CT should be mixed so it is: a. the same as for general diagnostic examinations. b. more concentrated than for general examinations. c. less concentrated than for general examinations. d. contrast media is not necessary. ANS: C 8. The advantages of multislice helical CT (MSHCT) include:
1. multiphase studies. 2. isotropic viewing. 3. longer anatomic coverage. a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D 9. Dose in CT is considered to be: a. independent of size. b. size dependent. c. related to the CT numbers. d. similar to a chest examination. ANS: B 10. The most common reporting method of dose reporting on the present scanners is: a. multiple scan average dose (MSAD). b. computed tomography dose index (CTDI). c. dose-length product (DLP). d. computed tomography dose index volume (CTDIvol). ANS: C 11. The measured x-ray transmission values are called: a. raw data. b. pixels. c. voxels. d. Hounsfield units. ANS: A 12. CT detectors are most commonly a. ionization (xenon gas) b. scintillation (solid state) c. thermoluminescent d. phosphorescent
detectors.
ANS: B 13. The most significant geometric factor that contributes to spatial resolution is: a. detector aperture width. b. FOV. c. slice thickness. d. x-ray beam energy. ANS: A 14. The CT system’s ability to freeze any motion of a scanned object is termed: a. detector quantum efficiency. b. temporal resolution. c. reconstruction algorithm. d. spatial resolution. ANS: B 15. All of the following are methods of 3D reconstruction techniques in CT except: a. volume rendering. b. maximum intensity projection. c. shaded surface display. d. pixel-voxel reregistration. ANS: D MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. Which two factors affect image quality in CT? (Select all that apply.) a. Spatial resolution b. Contrast media c. Noise d. Aperture size ANS: A, C
Chapter 27: Vascular, Cardiac, and Interventional Radiography Long: Merrill’s Atlas of Radiographic Positioning and Procedures, 14th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The central organ of the blood-vascular system is the: a. brain. b. lung. c. heart. d. aorta. ANS: C 2. The muscular wall of the heart is called the: a. myocardium. b. epicardium. c. endocardium. d. pericardium. ANS: A 3. Blood is supplied to the myocardium by the: a. atria. b. right ventricle. c. left ventricle. d. coronary arteries. ANS: D 4. Which of the following pumps deoxygenated blood into the pulmonary artery? a. Right ventricle b. Left ventricle c. Inferior vena cava d. Superior vena cava ANS: A 5. The lymphatic system drains into the: a. aorta. b. duodenum. c. kidneys. d. junction of the left subclavian and internal jugular veins. ANS: D 6. The radiographic recording of blood vessels on movie IR is termed: a. angiography. b. arteriography. c. cinefluorography. d. serial radiographic IRing. ANS: C
7. What is the most common arterial site of catheterization for selective angiography? a. Brachial b. Femoral c. Axillary d. Carotid ANS: B 8. The most widely used method of catheterization for selective angiography is known as the a. b. c. d.
method. Amplatz Stecher Seldinger Schüller
ANS: C 9. What is the injection site for a lower limb venogram? a. Popliteal vein b. External iliac vein c. Common iliac vein d. Superficial vein in the foot ANS: A 10. The artery identified in the figure below is the:
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a. b. c. d.
brachiocephalic. left subclavian. right subclavian. right common carotid.
ANS: A 11. The artery identified in the figure below is the:
a. b. c. d.
left vertebral. right vertebral. right common carotid. left internal carotid.
ANS: B 12. The therapeutic radiologic procedure designed to dilate or reopen stenotic or occluded areas
within a vessel is termed: a. “gamma knife” therapy. b. percutaneous transluminal angioplasty. c. interventional radiology. d. transcatheter embolization. ANS: B 13. The computerized technique by which bone structures are removed from an image of bone
.aCgOeMof the vessels, is termed: and opacified vessels, leaving aNnUuR noSbIscNuGreTdBim a. digital subtraction angiography. b. magnetic resonance imaging. c. percutaneous transluminal angioplasty. d. computed radiography (CR). ANS: A
14. Why is an introducer sheath used in many angiographic procedures? a. To position guidewires b. To reduce vessel trauma c. For use only with angioplasty d. For stent placement ANS: B 15. Guidewires come in a variety of shapes and sizes, and selection is based on:
1. injector pressure. 2. access needle size. 3. catheter. a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3
ANS: C 16. The artery in the figure labeled 1 below is the:
a. b. c. d.
vertebral. posterior cerebral. internal carotid. middle cerebral.
ANS: D 17. Which number in this figure identifies the basilar artery?
a. b. c. d.
8 6 10 14
ANS: A 18. The artery labeled 6 in this figure is the
a. b. c. d.
brachiocephalic left common carotid left subclavian left coronary
ANS: C 19. The artery labeled as 3 in this figure is the:
a. brachiocephalic. b. right coronary.
artery.
c. right intercostal. d. ascending aorta. ANS: B 20. Radiofrequency (RF) ablation is primarily used to treat: a. cardiac conduction system disorders. b. occlusion of small arteries. c. arteriovenous malformations. d. cerebral aneurysms. ANS: A 21. Potential complications of angiographic procedures include:
1. bleeding at the puncture site. 2. stroke. 3. death. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D 22. A stent is used to: a. open up a stenosis in a vessel. b. reduce or stop blood flow. c. remove plaque within arterN yU wR alS lsI . NGTB.COM d. filter emboli from the blood. ANS: A 23. Letter A in the abdominal aortogram image below is the
a. b. c. d.
splenic celiac R renal hepatic
ANS: D
artery.
24. Letter B in the abdominal aortogram image below is the
a. b. c. d.
artery.
splenic celiac R renal hepatic
ANS: C 25. Letter C in the abdominal aortogram image below is the:
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a. b. c. d.
R common iliac artery. abdominal aorta. R femoral artery. gonadal artery.
ANS: A 26. Letter D in the abdominal aortogram image below is the
artery.
a. b. c. d.
hepatic splenic L renal superior mesenteric
ANS: B 27. Letter E in the abdominal aortogram image below is the
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a. b. c. d.
hepatic splenic L renal superior mesenteric
ANS: C 28. Letter F in the abdominal aortogram image below is the:
artery.
a. b. c. d.
abdominal aorta. common iliac artery. superior mesenteric artery. inferior mesenteric artery.
ANS: A 29. Letter A in the angiographic image of the aortic arch and its branches below is the
artery.
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a. b. c. d.
innominate (brachiocephalic) R common carotid R subclavian R vertebral
ANS: C 30. Letter B in the angiographic image of the aortic arch and its branches below is the
artery.
a. b. c. d.
innominate (brachiocephalic) R common carotid R subclavian R vertebral
ANS: B 31. Letter C in the angiographic image of the aortic arch and its branches below is the
artery.
a. b. c. d.
innominate (brachiocephalic) R common carotid R subclavian R vertebral
ANS: D 32. Letter D in the angiographic image of the aortic arch and its branches below is the
artery.
a. b. c. d.
innominate (brachiocephalic) L common carotid L subclavian L vertebral
ANS: D 33. Letter E in the angiographic image of the aortic arch and its branches below is the
artery.
a. b. c. d.
innominate (brachiocephalic) L common carotid L subclavian L vertebral
ANS: A 34. Letter F in the angiographic image of the aortic arch and its branches below is the
artery.
a. b. c. d.
innominate (brachiocephalic) L common carotid L subclavian L vertebral
ANS: B 35. Letter G in the angiographic image of the aortic arch and its branches below is the
artery.
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a. b. c. d.
innominate (brachiocephalic) L common carotid L subclavian L vertebral
ANS: C 36. In what year was the first human cardiac catheterization performed? a. 1896 b. 1926 c. 1952 d. 1978 ANS: D
37. According to the American College of Cardiology and the American Heart Association
(ACC/AHA), all of the following are relative contraindications for cardiac catheterization except: a. active gastrointestinal bleeding. b. severe anemia. c. diabetes. d. recent stroke. ANS: C 38. Which of the following has been identified as a major predictor of increased complication risk
from a cardiac catheterization? a. Cardiomyopathy b. Diabetes c. Deep vein thrombosis d. Renal insufficiency ANS: A MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. Which two compose the circulatory system? (Select all that apply.) a. Central nervous system b. Portal venous system c. Lymphatic system d. Blood-vascular system ANS: C, D 2. Which two projections are used to image the left main coronary artery? (Select all that apply.) a. PA b. RAO 5 to 15 degrees c. LAO 30 to 40 degrees d. RAO 20 to 40 degrees ANS: A, B
Chapter 28: Diagnostic Medical Sonography Long: Merrill’s Atlas of Radiographic Positioning and Procedures, 14th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The velocity of an ultrasound beam is: a. constant in speed. b. constant for all solids. c. determined by the density of material. d. proportional to frequency cubed. ANS: C 2. The frequency for diagnostic ultrasound is in the range of: a. 2 to 30 MHz. b. 2 to 30,000 kHz. c. 1 to 20 MHz. d. 1 to 20,000 kHz. ANS: D 3. The principle on which the ultrasound transducer operates is the a. photoelectric b. crystalline c. piezoelectric d. transducer ANS: C 4. Hertz measures: a. cycles per second. b. amplitude of an echo. c. number of waves. d. wavelength. ANS: A 5. The echo pattern of a cyst can be referred to as: a. echogenic. b. anechoic. c. hyperechoic. d. hypoechoic. ANS: B 6. Ultrasonic sound waves are: a. poorly transmitted by liquids. b. poorly transmitted by solids. c. reflected at tissue interfaces. d. constant in speed. ANS: C
effect.
7. The propagation speed of sound in soft tissue is a. 150 b. 330 c. 1020 d. 1540
m/s.
ANS: D 8. Sound is attenuated by: a. soft tissue. b. fluid-filled structures. c. most bony structures. d. solid organs. ANS: C 9. If an echo pattern is similar throughout a structure or mass, it is termed: a. heterogeneous. b. homogeneous. c. complex. d. anechoic. ANS: B 10. Sometimes examinations in the abdominal cavity are difficult to perform because of: a. air or gas in the gastrointestinal tract. b. bony anatomy. c. tissue differences. d. too much fluid. ANS: A 11. A normal liver scan should have an a. hyperechoic b. hypoechoic c. homogeneous d. heterogeneous
echo pattern.
ANS: C 12. A full bladder is used for imaging the female pelvis as a sonic window and to also: a. flatten the vagina. b. reposition the intestines laterally. c. distend the uterus. d. flatten the ovaries. ANS: B 13. Routine obstetric screening exams are usually requested between a. 8 and 12 b. 12 and 16 c. 16 and 24
gestational weeks.
d. 24 and 30 ANS: C 14. The exam to evaluate for deep vein thrombosis and venous insufficiency is: a. duplex sonography. b. endovaginal. c. transabdominal. d. volume scanning. ANS: A 15. Which position is used at the beginning of echocardiography exam? a. 45- to 60-degree LPO b. Supine c. Right lateral debuitus d. Left lateral decubitus ANS: D
Chapter 29: Nuclear Medicine and Molecular Imaging Long: Merrill’s Atlas of Radiographic Positioning and Procedures, 14th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Naturally occurring radionuclides are not used for nuclear medicine imaging because: a. synthetic ones are cheaper. b. there is a high patient dose from natural ones. c. synthetic ones decay differently. d. they are not strong emitters. ANS: B 2. Half-life is described as the time required for: a. half the nuclide to leave the body. b. half the nuclide to disappear. c. the nuclide to decay to half its original activity. d. the original activity to increase by one half. ANS: C 3. The most common radionuclide used in nuclear medicine is: a. technetium (99mTc). b. iodine (123I). c. thallium (201Tl). d. xenon (133Xe). ANS: A 4. One desirable characteristic of a radiopharmaceutical is: a. long physical half-life in days. b. millisecond effective half-life. c. easily absorbed in surrounding tissues. d. primary photon energy between 100 and 140 keV. ANS: D 5. Scintillation detectors or gamma cameras use crystals that change: a. x-rays into electrons. b. radioactive emissions into light photons. c. radioactive emissions into electrons. d. radioactive emissions into electrical pulses. ANS: B 6. The crystal used in gamma cameras is made of: a. sodium iodide. b. cesium-activated iodide. c. thallium-activated sodium iodide. d. lithium fluoride. ANS: C
7. Collimators are used in nuclear medicine to: a. cone down the beam. b. limit patient dose from the radiation. c. maintain signal strength. d. keep scattered rays from entering the camera. ANS: D 8. An array of photomultiplier tubes (PMTs) is located: a. in front of the crystal. b. to the back of the crystal. c. after the pulse height analyzer. d. after the collimator. ANS: B 9. Unwanted photons or “noise” are reduced by using a: a. pulse height analyzer. b. collimator. c. Geiger counter. d. scintillator. ANS: A 10. SPECT imaging produces images that: a. are similar to those done in CT. b. will show only large lesions. NURSINGTB.COM c. require increased amounts of radionuclides. d. show only motion. ANS: A 11. Positron-emitting radionuclides have a:
1. proton-rich nucleus. 2. proton-deficient nucleus. 3. similar size to electrons. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: B 12. The radiotracer for PET scanning is chosen for: a. studies that will show only anatomy. b. its long half-life compared with nuclear medicine. c. its similarity to naturally occurring biochemicals. d. faster examination times. ANS: C 13. When a positron and an electron combine, the result is annihilation radiation of:
a. b. c. d.
two photons of 1.022 MeV. two photons of 0.511 MeV. two photons of 180 MeV. multiple gamma photons.
ANS: B 14. PET scanning is an examination that can visualize a patient’s: a. physiology. b. anatomy. c. soft tissue. d. bone detail. ANS: A 15. PET scanners have to be close to the source of positrons because: a. the positrons cannot travel very far. b. the nuclides are so unstable. c. of the examination radioactivity of the nuclides. d. of the short half-lives of the nuclides. ANS: D 16. The most common device used to produce nuclides for PET scanning is the: a. high-frequency generator. b. compact medical cyclotron. c. linear accelerator. d. pulse height analyzer. ANS: B 17. If only one photon is detected and no other photon is observed during the time window for an
annihilation pair, then: a. the original event is discarded. b. only the one photon is recorded. c. the computer estimates the probable location. d. the examination must be repeated in an hour. ANS: A 18. One of the major benefits of fusion imaging with PET and CT is: a. attenuation coefficients are the same. b. radiation dose is less. c. metabolic and anatomic evaluation is easier. d. the same detector can be used for both. ANS: C 19. An ionized nucleus of heavy hydrogen (deuterium), which contains one proton and one
neutron is called a: a. deuteron. b. daughter. c. alpha particle.
d. positron. ANS: A MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. Which two are used primarily to image physiology? (Select all that apply.) a. MRI b. CT c. PET d. SPECT ANS: C, D
Chapter 30: Radiation Oncology Long: Merrill’s Atlas of Radiographic Positioning and Procedures, 14th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The goal of radiation oncology is to: a. destroy all tissue in the portion of the body where the cancer is located. b. deliver a cancericidal dose to the tumor but limit the dose to normal tissue. c. limit dose to the cancer and normal tissue to avoid toxicity. d. deliver a large dose all at once to the cancer. ANS: B 2. a. b. c. d.
is done to relieve symptoms, not to cure. Fractionation Differentiation Palliation Conformal radiation
ANS: C 3. Treatment that is designed to deliver radiation to the exact target volume is called: a. fractionation. b. differentiation. c. palliation. d. conformal radiation. ANS: D 4. One way to treat cancer but minimize the toxic effects of radiation is to use: a. fractionation. b. differentiation. c. palliation. d. conformal radiation. ANS: A 5. The spread of cancer is termed: a. differentiation. b. palliation. c. metastasis. d. prophylaxis. ANS: C 6. The most common cancers that occur in the United States are:
1. prostate. 2. lymph. 3. lung. a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: B 7. The majority of cancers arise from the epithelium and are classified as: a. sarcomas. b. lymphomas. c. myelomas. d. carcinomas. ANS: D 8. Radiation has more effect on cancer cells because than normal cells. a. they are more highly differentiated b. a greater percentage of these cells are undergoing mitosis c. cancer cells undergo more direct interactions d. it interacts more readily with cancer cells ANS: B 9. The most common machine used to deliver external-beam therapy is the: a. linear accelerator. b. betatron. c. cobalt-60 unit. d. orthovoltage. ANS: A 10. The accurate calculation and measurement of radiation dose for treatment of a therapy patient
is referred to as: a. brachytherapy. b. simulation. c. dosimetry. d. linear energy transfer. ANS: C 11. Radiation oncology may be used in conjunction with:
1. surgery. 2. chemotherapy. 3. angiography. a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A 12. The technique that uses radioactive material placed within the patient is called: a. brachytherapy. b. simulation. c. dosimetry.
d. linear energy transfer. ANS: A 13. The method that is used to determine the volume of tissue that must be included in the
radiation field is called: a. brachytherapy. b. simulation. c. dosimetry. d. linear energy transfer. ANS: B 14. Which member of the radiation therapy team is responsible for developing the treatment plan
to irradiate the tumor while protecting surrounding normal tissues? a. Medical dosimetrist b. Medical physicist c. Radiation therapist d. Radiation oncologist ANS: A 15. The basic principle of cancer treatment with radiation is that radiation: a. stimulates cancer cells to grow. b. damages cancer cells but stimulates normal cells. c. damages cancer cells and normal cells equally. d. usually damages cancer cells more than normal cells. ANS: D 16. Intensity-modulated radiation therapy (IMRT) uses: a. radioactive isotopes. b. multileaf collimators. c. cerrobend blocks. d. permanent implants. ANS: B 17. Gamma knife is primarily used to treat small benign or malignant lesions located in the: a. abdomen. b. breast. c. brain. d. prostate. ANS: C 18. Tomotherapy combines the principles of:
1. helical CT. 2. stereotaxis. 3. 6 MV linear accelerator. a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3
d. 1, 2, 3 ANS: B 19. The retractable imaging device used to produce a digital image that is displayed immediately
is called: a. CyberKnife. b. image-guided radiation therapy (IGRT). c. electronic portal imaging devices (EPIDs). d. tomotherapy. ANS: C 20. The linac can produce a beam of electrons of varying energies when: a. filtration is changed. b. the target is removed. c. IMRT is used. d. simulation is required. ANS: B