TEST BANK for Microbiology A Systems Approach 6th Edition bY Kelly Cowan, Heidi Smith by ACADEMIAMILL

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) A hypothesis must be tested many times before it can be considered a theory. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) Many chronic medical conditions have been found to be associated with microbial agents. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) All bacteria and archaea are microorganisms, but only some eukaryotes are microorganisms. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) The scientific method involves formulating a tentative explanation, called the hypothesis, to account for what has been observed or measured. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) Members of the same species share many more characteristics compared to those shared by members of the same kingdom. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The names of the three proposed domains are: Bacteria, Protista, and Eukarya. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 7) Microorganisms are best defined as organisms that _______.

A) cause human disease B) lack a cell nucleus C) are infectious particles D) are too small to be seen with the unaided eye E) can only be found growing in laboratories

Which of the following are not considered microorganisms?

A) Mosquitoes B) Protozoa C) Bacteria D) Viruses E) Fungi

Helminths are ______.

A) bacteria B) protozoa C) molds D) parasitic worms E) infectious particles

10)

Among these types of microorganisms, the ______ arenoncellular.

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A) B) C) D)

viruses helminths protozoans bacteria

11) Studies of the immune response to an infection caused by microorganisms would be performed by a/an _______.

A) B) C) D)

hypersensitivity specialist epidemiologist immunologist geomicrobiologist

12) Which of the following pairs of career descriptions and work tasks is not correctly matched?

A) B) C) D)

Industrial microbiologist -- manipulate bacterial strains to be less pathogenic Agricultural microbiologist -- identify bacterial causes of crop disease Public health microbiologist -- track the incidence of AIDS in a population Medical microbiologist -- identify the cause of a bladder infection at a hospital lab

13) A scientist who studies the influence of microbes in the formation of caves is called a/an ______.

A) B) C) D)

14)

geomicrobiologist astrobiologist epidemiologist immunologist

Astrobiology is considered a sub-discipline of microbiology because _______.

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A) B) C) D)

life elsewhere in the universe is likely to be microbial microbes are known to exist on other planets all extraterrestrials known are microbial only microbes can reproduce under the extreme conditions in outer space

15) Which of the following does not indicate microbe involvement in energy and nutrient flow?

A) B) C) D)

Thermal hot springs warmed by heat from earth's interior Formation of greenhouse gases, CO 2 and methane Digestion of complex carbohydrates in animal diets Decomposition of dead matter and wastes

16) The microorganisms that recycle nutrients by breaking down dead matter and wastes are called ______.

A) decomposers B) prokaryotes C) pathogens D) eukaryotes E) fermenters

17)

The majority of oxygen in earth's atmosphere is a product of photosynthesis by ______.

A) B) C) D)

microorganisms rain forests agricultural lands green plants

18) The three cell types discussed, eukaryotes, archaea, and bacteria, all derived from ______.

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A) B) C) D)

19)

a common ancestral cell photosynthetic bacteria archaea cells with a true nucleus

The first cells appeared about _____ billion years ago.

A) 5 B) 4 C) 3.5 D) 2 E) 1

20) Which area of biology states that living things undergo gradual structural and functional changes over long periods of time?

A) Morphology B) Phylogeny C) Evolution D) Genetics E) Transformation

21)

When humans manipulate the genes of microorganisms, the process is called ______.

A) bioremediation B) genetic engineering C) epidemiology D) immunology E) taxonomy

22)

Which activity is an example of biotechnology?

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A) Bacteria in the soil secreting an antibiotic to kill competitors B) A microbiologist using the microscope to view bacteria C) Egyptians usingmoldy bread on wounds D) Escherichia coli producing human insulin E) Public health officials monitoring diseases in a community

23)

Which of the following is a traditional human use of microorganisms?

A) B) C) D)

Baking bread Treating water and sewage Mass-producing antibiotics Cleaning up oil spills

24) Using microbes to detoxify a site contaminated with heavy metals is an example of ______.

A) biotechnology B) bioremediation C) decomposition D) immunology E) epidemiology

25)

Disease-causing microorganisms are called ______.

A) decomposers B) bacteria C) pathogens D) eukaryotes E) fermenters

26)

The number one worldwide infectious diseases are ______.

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A) AIDS-related diseases B) diarrheal diseases C) malaria and other protozoan diseases D) measles and other rash diseases E) respiratory diseases

27) The incidence of deaths from communicable disease is ______ in the United States compared to the entire world.

A) less B) greater C) about the same

28)

In which way are bacteria and eukaryotes the same?

A) B) C) D)

29)

Contain membrane-bound organelles Possess a cell membrane Contain a nucleus to hold DNA Always have a cell wall for rigidity

In which way are archaea and eukaryotesthe same?

A) B) C) D)

Contain membrane-bound organelles Have similar ssu rRNA sequences Contain mitochondria for energy production Possess RNA instead of DNA

30) Which of the following is a unique characteristic of viruses that distinguishes them from the other major groups of microorganisms?

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A) Cause human disease B) Lack a nucleus C) Cannot be seen without a microscope D) Contain genetic material E) Lack cell structure

31) Which group of microorganisms is composed only of hereditary material wrapped in a protein covering?

A) Viruses B) Bacteria C) Parasites D) Fungi E) Yeasts

32) Eukaryotic cells are larger than bacterial or archaeal cells; allcells are larger than macromolecules. Where do viruses fit on this scale?

A) B) C) D)

33)

In general, eukaryotic cells are about ______ times larger than bacterial or archaeal cells.

A) B) C) D)

34)

Viruses are larger than eukaryotic cells. Viruses are smaller than eukaryotic cells, but larger than bacterial or archaeal cells. Viruses are smaller than bacterial or archaeal cells, but larger than macromolecules. Viruses are smaller than macromolecules.

2 10 50 1000

Archaealcells are about ______ bacterial cells.

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A) the same size as B) ten times larger than C) ten times smaller than

35) Which of the following historical microbiologists is incorrectly paired with his contribution to the science?

A) Francesco Redi: tested spontaneous generation with meat exposed to the air or covered with cloth B) Antonie van Leeuwenhoek:made and used quality magnifying lenses to observe and record microorganisms C) Louis Pasteur: demonstrated that anthrax was caused by a bacterium D) Joseph Lister: promoted disinfecting hands and air prior to surgery

36) In the experiments constructed by Pasteur to disprove spontaneous generation, swannecked flasks were used. Why was this shape of flask used in this experiment? A) The glass necks needed to be open to the air, yet constructed so that bacteria would settle in the lowest part of the neck. B) These flask shapes were the easiest and cheapest to produce. C) The shape of the glass neck allowed the bacteria into the flask and then into the media, but air could not enter. D) Because the glass necks were stretched out, the heat used to sterilize the medium inside of the flask could not kill the bacteria in the neck.

37)

Koch's postulates are criteria used to establish that ______.

A) microbes are found on dust particles B) a specific microbe is the cause of a specific disease C) life forms can only arise from preexisting life forms D) a specific microbe should be classified in a specific kingdom E) microbes can be used to clean up toxic spills

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38) Which of the following is NOT a recent discovery that has had a huge impact on the understanding of microbiology? A) Restriction enzymes B) PCR technique C) Human microbiome project D) Small RNAs E) All are significant discoveries.

39)

The sum total of all the microbes in a certain environment is termed the ______.

A) microbiome B) biofilm C) microbial niche D) domain E) phylogeny

40)

Which of the following is not a process in the scientific method?

A) Belief in a preconceived idea B) Formulation ofa hypothesis C) Systematic observation D) Laboratory experimentation E) Development of a theory

41)

Experimentation _______.

A) is designed to refute an hypothesis B) is designed to support an hypothesis C) provides a means to gather subjective data D) provides a means to gather objective data E) is the first step in the scientific method

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42)

The scientific method includes all of the following except ______.

A) hypothesis B) experimentation C) observation D) publication

43) Caring for patients infected with a new virus requires safety precautions for medical personnel. Choosing appropriate procedures is an example of a/an ______ process.

A) B) C) D)

44)

deductive inductive hypothetical pathogenic

Sterile is best described as ______.

A) pathogen-free B) absence of spores C) absence of any life forms and viral particles D) pasteurized E) homogenized

45)

Taxonomy does not involve ______.

A) B) C) D)

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nomenclature classification identification a common name

46) Which scientific field is involved in the identification, classification, and naming of organisms?

A) Nomenclature B) Taxonomy C) Phylogeny D) Pathology E) Epidemiology

47)

The orderly arrangement of organisms into a hierarchy of taxa is called ______.

A) classification B) identification C) nomenclature D) experimentation E) biotechnology

48)

Which of the following is a taxon that contains all the other taxa listed?

A) Species B) Phylum C) Kingdom D) Genus E) Family

49)

The smallest and most significant taxon is a ______.

A) genus B) species C) kingdom D) family E) phylum

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50)

Select the correct descending taxonomic hierarchy (left to right).

A) Family, order, class B) Family, genus, species C) Genus, species, family D) Class, phylum, order E) Kingdom, domain, phylum

51) A mnemonic for remembering the taxonomic levels from Domain to Species is "Dear King Phillip Came Over for Good Soup." The word "came" here is a reminder of the taxonomic level of ______. A) class B) category C) chain D) colony E) culture

52)

Which of the following is a scientific name?

A) B) C) D)

53)

Gram-positive streptococcus Streptococcus pyogenes Anthrax Streptobacilli

When assigning a scientific name to an organism, _______.

A) the species name is capitalized B) the species name is placed first C) the species name can be abbreviated D) both genus and species names are capitalized E) both genus and species names are italicized or underlined

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54)

Which scientific name is written correctly?

A) Staphylococcus aureus B) staphylococcus aureus C) Staphylococcus Aureus D) Staphylococcusaureus E) S. aureus

55) A diagram of the three domains (Bacteria, Archaea, Eukarya) proceeding from the Last CommonAncestor would show Archaea _______.

A) as the original cells from which the others derived B) branching off the Domain Eukarya C) branching off the Domain Bacteria

56) Analysis of the small subunit rRNAs from all organisms in the three current domains suggests that _______. A) the eukaryotes arose from prokaryotes B) the Archaea are more closely related to bacteria than eukaryotes C) all modern and extinct organisms on earth arose from a common ancestor D) bacteria, archaea, and eukaryotes are not related

57)

The study of evolutionary relationships among organisms is called ______.

A) biotechnology B) genetics C) recombinant DNA D) phylogeny E) taxonomy

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58) A scientist studying the sequence of nucleotides in the rRNA of a bacterial species is working on _______.

A) determining evolutionary relatedness B) bioremediation C) recombinant DNA D) nomenclature E) determining if that species is the cause of a new disease

59) Trees of life that illustrate the phylogenetic relationships of all organisms were traditionally based on ______; newer methods for determining phylogeny rely on ______.

A) morphology; nucleic acid sequences B) nucleic acid sequences; morphology C) morphology; virology D) morphology; nutritional requirements E) nucleic acid sequences; microbiomes

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Answer Key Test name: Microbiology1 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) D 8) A 9) D 10) A 11) C 12) A 13) A 14) A 15) A 16) A 17) A 18) A 19) B 20) C 21) B 22) D 23) A 24) B 25) C 26) E Version 1

27) A 28) B 29) B 30) E 31) A 32) C 33) B 34) A 35) C 36) A 37) B 38) E Refer to the text and read about the recent discoveries that have had a huge impact on the understanding of microbiology. 39) A 40) A 41) D 42) D 43) A 44) C 45) D 46) B 47) A 48) C 49) B 50) B 51) A 52) B 53) E 54) D Version 1

55) B 56) C Refer to "Systems of Presenting a Universal Tree of Life" for a discussion of the ssu rRNAs and their role in taxonomy. 57) D 58) A 59) A

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Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Electrons that participate in chemical bonding are typically located closest to the nucleus. ⊚ ⊚

Water molecules are nonpolar molecules. ⊚ ⊚

true false

A covalent bond is formed between an anion and a cation. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Polar molecules have more reactivity compared to nonpolar molecules. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The concentration of a solution expresses the amount of solvent present. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) If solution A has a lower pH compared to solution B, then solution A is more acidic than solution B. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The only part of an amino acid that differs from other amino acids is its R group.

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⊚ ⊚

All proteins are enzymes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Nucleic acids have primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary levels of organization. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) The most important outcome of polypeptide intrachain bonding and folding is the unique shape of the protein. ⊚ ⊚

true false

11) A new organism was identified that contained arsenic in place of phosphate in its DNA double helix structure.Based upon this information alone, it can be determined that this change will greatly alter the information encoded by this genetic material. ⊚ true ⊚ false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 12) An atom has gained an electron; it has been ______.

A) oxidized B) reduced C) ionized D) deionized E) neutralized

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13)

Anything that occupies space and has mass is called ______.

A) atomic B) living C) matter D) energy E) space

14)

The electrons of an atom are _______.

A) always equal to the number of neutrons in an atom B) found in the nucleus C) used to determine atomic number D) positively charged E) moving in pathways called orbitals

15)

The electrons of an atom are _______.

A) always equal to the number of protons B) used to determine the atomic weight C) carrying a positive charge D) used to determine the atomic number E) always in full orbitals

16)

All of the following pertain to the atom Carbon-14 except it _______.

A) B) C) D)

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has 6 protons has 6 electrons has 14 neutrons is an isotope of carbon

17)

The subatomic particles that surround the nucleus are the ______.

A) electrons B) protons C) neutrons D) protons and neutrons E) protons and electrons

18)

What is the maximum number of electrons in the second energy shell of an atom?

A) 2 B) 4 C) 8 D) 18 E) 32

19)

What is the maximum number of electrons in the first energy shell of an atom?

A) 2 B) 4 C) 8 D) 18 E) 32

20)

Protons and neutrons make up the atom's central core, which is referred to as its ______. A) B) C) D)

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valence number isotope nucleus center of gravity

21)

The valence number is the _______.

A) number of protons B) number of neutrons C) atomic weight D) number of electrons in the innermost orbital E) number of electrons in the outermost orbital

22)

Two or more atoms bonded together are called a(n) ______.

A) ion B) isotope C) element D) electrolyte E) molecule

23) What would be the valence number of electrons in the sulfur (S) atom? Its atomic number is 16.

A) 2 B) 6 C) 8 D) 16 E) 32

24)

Polar molecules _______.

A) have an equal charge distribution B) have an unequal charge distribution C) are insoluble in water D) always contain carbon E) always involve oxygen

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25) Organic chemicals always have a basic framework of the element _____ bonded to other atoms.

A) carbon B) nitrogen C) oxygen D) hydrogen E) phosphorous

26)

12O

6+C

12O

6→C

12 H

22O

11 + H

2O represents _______.

A) the formation of a peptide bond B) a decomposition reaction C) a denaturation reaction D) the formation of a polysaccharide E) a dehydration synthesis

27)

Substances that release ions when dissolved in water and conduct electricity are ______.

A) covalent B) nonpolar C) electrons D) electrolytes E) solvents

28) A capillary tube is used to acquire a small blood sample for CBC (complete blood count) analysis. Suction is not required to transfer the blood from the fingertip prick to the tube in part due to _______.

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A) B) C) D)

29)

ionic bonding between the water molecules cohesive forces between the glass particles of the tube and the water molecules covalent bonding between the water molecules adhesive forces between the water molecules and the glass particles of the tube

Polar molecules are composed of covalently bonded _______.

A) identical atoms B) carbon atoms C) ions D) atoms of different electronegativity E) atoms of identical electronegativity

30)

Covalent bonds _______.

A) result from losing electrons B) are always polar C) are always nonpolar D) result from sharing electrons E) result from gaining electrons

31)

Cations are _______.

A) charged subatomic particles B) atoms that have gained electrons C) atoms that have gained neutrons D) capable of forming ionic bonds with anions E) atoms without protons

32)

A reaction where an electron is lost is called ______.

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A) oxidation B) reduction C) ionization D) decomposition E) dissolution

33)

Ionic bonds _______.

A) result from sharing electrons B) result from transferring electrons C) result from like charge attraction D) are the weakest chemical bonds E) always involve carbon

34)

Hydrogen bonds _______.

A) result from attractive forces between molecules with polar covalent bonds B) result from attractive forces between molecules with polar ionic bonds C) result from attractive forces between molecules with nonpolar covalent bonds D) result from attractive forces between molecules with nonpolar ionic bonds E) are the strongest bonds between molecules

35)

Atoms that gain or lose electrons become charged particles called ______.

A) B) C) D)

36)

cations anions ions isotopes

Which of the following represents a synthesis reaction?

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A) B) C) D)

37)

Which of the following represents a reversible reaction?

A) B) C) D)

38)

AB → A + B A + B → AB AB + XY → AY +XB AB + XY ↔ AY +XB

Ionic compounds _______.

A) are hydrophobic B) are hydrophilic C) are acidic in solution D) are basic in solution E) always form salts in solution

39)

The important solvent associated with living things is ______.

A) carbon dioxide B) sodium chloride C) ethyl alcohol D) benzene E) water

40)

In the cell cytoplasm, molecules of ATP are a ______.

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A) solute B) solvent

41) Burning coal produces sulfur dioxide in the atmosphere. When combined with rain that falls into bodies of water, this leads to _______. A) B) C) D)

42)

Compared to a solution of pH 9, a solution of pH 7 _______. A) B) C) D)

43)

an increase in pH level of the water a greater concentration of OH- ions in the water a decrease in the pH level of the water no change in the pH level of the water

is more basic has no OH - ions has more H + ions has a higher pH

Compared to a solution of pH 9, a solution of pH 7 is _______. A) 2 times more acidic B) 20 times more acidic C) 20 times more basic D) 100 times more acidic E) 100 times more basic

44) One techniquefor staining bacteria for viewing under the microscope is called theGram stain.In this technique, alcohol is used as a decolorizer because it degrades the outer membrane found insome bacteria.What chemical component of the cell does alcohol affect?

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A) B) C) D)

45)

Protein Carbohydrate Lipid Nucleic acids

What type of bond is formed by dehydration synthesis between two amino acids?

A) Glycosidic B) Ester C) Peptide D) Disulfide E) Phosphate

46) The purine ______always hydrogen bonds with the pyrimidine ______ indouble-stranded DNA. A) B) C) D)

47)

guanine;cytosine cytosine;guanine adenine;guanine thymine;guanine

In what way would life be different if the element carbon was absent? A) B) C) D)

There would be no organic compounds. There would be no inorganic compounds. Life would not exist in any shape or form. The concept of pH would not exist.

48) A student forgot to label a beaker containing a DNA solution and a beaker containing a glucose solution. If chemical analysis was performed to identify the contents of each beaker, which of the following would be found in the beaker of DNA but not in the beaker with glucose?

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A) Amino acids B) Hydrogen and oxygen atoms C) Nitrogen and phosphorus D) Fatty acids E) Carbon atoms

49) Which of the following functional groups is mismatched to the organic compound in which it is typically found? A) Phosphate - carbohydrates B) Sulfhydryl - proteins C) Amino - proteins D) Hydroxyl - alcohols E) Carboxyl - fatty acids

50)

Most biochemical macromolecules are polymers, which are chains of ______.

A) hydrophobic molecules B) electrolytic molecules C) repeating monomers D) repeating carbohydrates E) hydrogen bonds

51)

All of the following are monosaccharides except ______.

A) B) C) D)

52)

glucose glycogen fructose deoxyribose

Which of the following would have glycosidic bonds?

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A) Triglycerides B) Monosaccharides C) Polypeptides D) Polysaccharides E) ATP

53)

Starch is the primary storage food for all of the following except ______.

A) B) C) D)

green plants algae animals some fungi

54) Select the statement that most accurately reflects the process of plant material digestion in humans. A) It is a very efficient process the produces very little undigested material in feces. B) It is a process that is dependent upon enzyme (cellulase) production by gut microbiota. C) It requires the action of enzymes called kinases. D) It is linked to the digestion of glycogen.

55)

All of the following are lipids except ______.

A) cholesterol B) starch C) phospholipid D) wax E) triglyceride

56)

What part of a phospholipid comprises the hydrophobic tail?

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A) Fatty acids B) Glycerol C) Phosphate D) Alcohol E) Hydroxyl

57) A fat is called _______ if all carbons of the fatty acid chain are single-bonded to 2 other carbons and 2 hydrogens.

A) B) C) D)

58)

unsaturated polyunsaturated monounsaturated saturated

The building blocks of an enzyme are ______.

A) nucleotides B) glycerol and fatty acids C) monosaccharides D) phosphate, glycerol, and fatty acids E) amino acids

59)

An amino acid contains all of the following except a/an ______.

A) amino group B) carboxyl group C) variable R group D) α carbon E) phosphate

60)

An example of an amphipathic molecule found in living cells is ______.

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A) glucose B) phospholipid C) protein D) nucleic acid E) ATP

61)

The lipid group that serves as energy storage molecules is the ______. A) prostaglandins B) waxes C) phospholipids D) steroids E) triglycerides

62)

All of the following are polysaccharides except ______.

A) dextran in some bacterial slime layers B) agar used to make solid culture media C) a cell's glycocalyx D) cellulose in certain cell walls E) sterols in cell membranes

63)

The lipid group that is the major component of cell membranes is the ______.

A) prostaglandins B) waxes C) phospholipids D) steroids E) triglycerides

64)

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding protein structure?

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A) The interaction between various R groups of amino acids determines the primary structure of a protein. B) Beta-pleated sheets are a type of protein secondary structure. C) The folding of a protein to form its active site creates its tertiary structure. D) Proteins, such as antibodies that are comprised of multiple polypeptide chains, have quaternary structure.

65)

Which of the following is not true about enzymes?

A) Enzymes are found in all cells. B) Enzymes are catalysts. C) Enzymes participate in the cell's chemical reactions. D) Enzymes can be denaturated by heat and other agents. E) Enzymes have high-energy bonds between phosphates.

66)

The alpha (α)helix is a type of _____ protein structure.

A) primary B) secondary C) tertiary D) quaternary

67)

ATP differs from the nucleotides found in DNA in the _______.

A) sugar portion of the molecule B) use of phosphate instead of sulfatein the backbone C) use of phosphorus in the nitrogenous base portion of the molecule D) use of adenosine instead of adenine E) use of uracil in the nitrogenous base portion of the molecule

68)

One nucleotide contains one _______.

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A) B) C) D)

69)

phosphate pentose sugar nitrogen base All of the choices are correct.

Purines and pyrimidines are components in the building block units of all ______.

A) nucleic acids B) carbohydrates C) polysaccharides D) amino acids E) enzymes

70)

Which of the following is not a pyrimidine?

A) B) C) D)

71)

Uracil Adenine Thymine Cytosine

Which pertains to DNA but not to RNA?

A) Contains ribose B) Contains adenine C) Contains thymine D) Contains uracil E) Contains nucleotides

72)

Which of the following is a correct description of a component of the ATP molecule?

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A) Sugar: deoxyribose B) Nitrogenous base: alanine C) High energy bond:peptide bond D) Sugar: ribose E) High energy bond: glycosidic bond

73)

ATP is best described as _______.

A) B) C) D)

an enzyme a double helix an electron carrier the energy molecule of cells

74) A culture of an organism believed to cause intestinal symptoms is viewed under the microscope, and the microbiologist observes a cell membrane, flagella, mitochondria, and some dark unrecognizable structures within each cell. The microbiologist notes that the cells are eukaryotic because _______.

A) only eukaryotic cells have a cell membrane B) only eukaryotic cells have mitochondria C) only eukaryotic cells have flagella D) the dark structures must be the cell nuclei

75) NASA has published a list of criteria for identifying fossil bacteria in samples from Mars, as part of a search for evidence of life. Which of the following is good evidence for the presence of bacterial cells?

A) B) C) D)

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Cell size of 0.5 to 2 microns Three-dimensional organization of cells in a starburst pattern Absence of carbon in the material No evidence of water in the surrounding mineral

76)

Characteristics shared by all cells include _______.

A) a membrane serving as a cell boundary B) the possession of genetic information C) the presence of cellular fluid D) All of the choices are correct.

77)

All cells contain _______.

A) ribosomes for protein synthesis B) cell walls made of cellulose C) uracil in their DNA D) organelles for compartmentalization E) mitochondria to generate ATP

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Answer Key Test name: Microbiology2 1) FALSE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) FALSE 10) TRUE 11) FALSE 12) B 13) C 14) E 15) A 16) C 17) A 18) C 19) A 20) C 21) E 22) E 23) B 24) B 25) A 26) E Version 1

27) D 28) D 29) D 30) D 31) D 32) A 33) B 34) A 35) C 36) B 37) D 38) B 39) E 40) A 41) C 42) C 43) D 44) C 45) C 46) A 47) A 48) C 49) A 50) C 51) B 52) D 53) C 54) B 55) B 56) A Version 1

57) D 58) E 59) E 60) B 61) E 62) E 63) C 64) A 65) E 66) B 67) A 68) D 69) A 70) B 71) C 72) D 73) D 74) B 75) A 76) D 77) A

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Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) The procedures for culturing a microorganism require the use of a microscope. ⊚ ⊚

Some microbes are not capable of growing on artificial media as pure cultures. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Bacterial cultures are easily identified from their microscopic appearance. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Mixed cultures are also referred to as contaminated cultures. ⊚ ⊚

true false

A medium that is gel-like has less agar in it compared to a solid medium. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) A selective medium contains one or more substances that inhibit growth of some microbes to facilitate the growth of other desired microbes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The bending of light rays as they pass from one medium to another is called refraction.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

8) A differential interference contrast microscope uses dyes to give colored, threedimensional images. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Fixed smears of specimens are required to perform the Gram stain or the endospore stain. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) Following a properly-performed Gram stain, gram-positive bacteria will appear as pink or red cells. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11) A microbiologist inoculates Staphylococcus aureus into a culture medium. Following incubation, both Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis are determined to be growing in this culture. What is the most likely explanation?

A) Themicrobiologist used too much inoculum. B) The culture was contaminated. C) The incubation temperature was incorrect. D) The culture medium was selective. E) The culture medium was differential.

12) A microbiologist inoculates Staphylococcus epidermidis and Escherichia coli into a culture medium. Following incubation, only the E. coli grows in the culture. What is the most likely explanation? Version 1

A) Themicrobiologist used too much inoculum. B) The culture was contaminated. C) The incubationtemperature was incorrect. D) The culture medium was selective. E) The culture medium was differential.

13) Robert Koch and his colleagues first used agar in bacteriological media. Why was this ingredientan improvement on previous materials used to culture bacteria? A) B) C) D)

Bacteriagrowing on the solidified mediumdid not degrade or break down the agar. Agar canconvert from liquid to solid form, and back again, very easily. Agar was less expensive than the nutrients that Koch was previously using in the lab. Agar is a complete source of nutrients for most bacteria.

14) The bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes the sexually-transmitted infection gonorrhea. Although it can be isolated from the vagina, there are numerous normal biota in that location as well. To generate a pure culture of this pathogenic bacterium, the best choice is a/an ______. A) B) C) D)

enrichment medium selective medium differential medium liquid medium

15) Thioglycolate medium contains the following: yeast extract, pancreatic digest of casein, glucose, L-cysteine, sodium chloride, sodium thioglycolate, and agar. It is considered a complex medium because _______.

A) both yeast extract and pancreatic digest of casein are not chemically defined B) it has multiple ingredients for a broad range of nutrients C) depending on their oxygen utilization pattern, organisms will grow differently on it D) thioglycolate has a carbon-sulfur bond that many microbes cannot break enzymatically

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16) Humans can see objects as small as 0.1 mm. Leeuwenhoek's best microscope could magnify objects to 300X. Which of the following would be invisibleusing Leeuwenhoek's microscope?

A) B) C) D)

Poliovirus, 30 nm Red blood cell, 8μm Pandora virus, 0.5 mm X 1 mm Escherichia coli, 1μm X 4μm

17) Cells of Staphylococcus aureus are cocci measuring about 1 μm in diameter. In a textbook image of S. aureus, each cell measures about 1 cm. The magnification of the image on the page is ______.

A) 10,000X B) 1,000X C) 100X D) 0.01X E) 0.001X F) 0.0001X G) This is impossible to calculate without more information.

18) A textbook uses Paramecium to illustrate several types of light microscopy.Each image is magnified 230Xand measures about 4 cm. The actual size of a Paramecium is about ______.

A) 175 μm B) 0.2μm C) 4,000μm D) 920μm E) 57.5μm

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19) Your microscope has a resolving power of 0.15 μm. The specimen that you will be observing has bacterial cocci the size of 0.1μm in diameter.Which of the following statements is correct? A) The cocci will be readily visible and distinct. B) The cocci will be fuzzy-looking and blend together. C) The cocci will appear much smaller than their actual size because of the low resolution. D) The cocci will not be visible.

20) A microbiology student with a visual disability is viewing a sample of Bacillus endospores in a phase contrast microscope that is linked to an iPad. By "stretching" the image on the iPad screen, the student can increase the apparent size of the endospores. How does this manipulation affect resolution and contrast? (No software is being used to alter the image!)

A) Only the magnification can be increased; resolution and contrast are unchanged. B) Both magnification and resolution increase; contrast is unchanged. C) Contrast will improve because the microscope is phase-contrast. D) Resolution and magnification will decrease because the screen is not as good as the human eye.

21)

Agar is an important component of media because _______.

A) B) C) D)

22)

bacteria require agar as a source of carbon agar inhibits mold growth agar provides a solid surface for bacterial growth agar prevents contamination

The Five I's of studying microorganisms include all of the following except ______.

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A) inoculation B) incubation C) infection D) isolation E) identification

23) The term that refers to the purposeful addition of microorganisms into a laboratory nutrient medium is ______.

A) isolation B) inoculation C) immunization D) infection E) contamination

24)

A pure culture contains _______.

A) only one identified species of microorganism B) only bacteria C) microbes from a single source D) a variety of species from the same genus

25) The correct microbiological term for the sample of specimen that is put into a nutrient medium to produce a culture is ______.

A) B) C) D)

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colony inoculum streak loop

26) Which isolation technique is most effective for the majority of applicationsand is most commonly used for colony isolation in the laboratory? A) Pour plate B) Streak plate C) Spread plate D) Loop dilution E) Culture plate

27)

Which of the following is not an inoculating tool?

A) Petri dish B) Loop C) Needle D) Pipette E) Swab

28)

What is the term for a culture made from one isolated colony?

A) Axenic B) Mixed C) Pure D) Both axenic andmixed are correct. E) Both axenic andpure are correct.

29) Newly inoculated cultures must be _____ at a specific temperature and time to encourage growth.

A) B) C) D)

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streaked poured incubated spread

30) Which method often results in colonies developing down throughout the agar along with some colonies on the surface?

A) B) C) D)

Streak plate Spread plate Pour plate Replica plate

31) All of the following are examples of different types of microbiological media except ______.

A) broth B) enriched C) agar D) Petri dish E) semisolid

32)

Which of the following is essential for the development of discrete, isolated colonies? A) Broth medium B) Differential medium C) Selective medium D) Solid medium E) Assay medium

33) Which of the following is produced by adding 1% to 5% agar to nutrient broth that is then boiled and cooled?

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A) A pure culture B) A mixed culture C) A solid medium D) A liquid medium E) A contaminated medium

34)

The three physical forms of laboratory media are ______.

A) B) C) D)

35)

solid, liquid, and gas solid, semisolid, and liquid a streak plate, a pour plate, and a broth reducing, transport, and enumeration

Agar is a complex polysaccharide that comes from a/an ______.

A) green plant B) fungus C) bacterium D) algae E) marine invertebrate

36)

Which of the following is not a benefit of agar as a solid medium?

A) Flexibility B) Holds moisture C) Can be inoculated and poured at a temperature that is not harmful D) Solid at room temperature E) Easily digested by most microbes

37) Which type of medium would be the best choice when shipping a sample of bacteriafrom a clinic to a laboratory for testing?

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A) B) C) D)

38)

Transport medium Eosin-methylene blue agar Blood agar Thioglycolate medium

A common medium for culturing fastidious bacteria is ______.

A) blood agar B) trypticase soy agar C) mannitol salt agar D) MacConkey medium E) reducing medium

39)

A reducing medium contains _______.

A) sugars that can be fermented B) extra oxygen C) hemoglobin, vitamins, or other growth factors D) substances that remove oxygen E) inhibiting agents

40) Which type of medium distinguishes different types of microorganisms based on an observable change in the colonies or in the medium?

A) Differential B) Selective C) Enumeration D) Enriched E) Reducing

41)

Differential media result in which of the following observable characteristics?

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A) Differently colored colonies B) Different media color after incubation C) Chemical precipitates D) Gas bubbles E) All of thechoices are correct.

42)

A reducing medium is used to culture ______ organisms.

A) B) C) D)

43)

fastidious aerobic anaerobic pathogenic

Mannitol salt agar is selective for organisms in which bacterial genus?

A) Salmonella B) Streptococcus C) Neisseria D) Staphylococcus E) Escherichia

44) A microbiologist must culture a patient's feces for intestinal pathogens. Which of the following components would likely be present in a selective medium for this purpose?

A) NaCl B) Sheep red blood cells C) Bile salts D) Thioglycolic acid E) Peptone

45)

Bacteria that require special growth factors and complex nutrients are termed ______.

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A) aerobic B) anaerobic C) fastidious D) fermentative E) hemolytic

46) Eosin-methylene blue agar, or EMB, is a commonly used bacteriological medium forgrowing gram-negative bacteria from complex environments. It contains two dyes, eosin and methylene blue, as well as the sugar lactose. Eosin is a pH indicator that changes color when the medium is acidic, while methylene blue inhibits the growth of most gram-positive bacteria. If an organism consumes lactose, acid will be produced, causing the bacterial colonies to change color. Based upon this description, this medium is ______. A) reducing B) for enrichment C) selective D) differential E) differential and selective

47) A nutrient medium that has all of its chemical components identified and their precise concentrations known and reproducible is termed ______.

A) B) C) D)

complex reducing enriched defined

48) A nutrient medium that contains at least one ingredient that is not chemically defined is termed ______.

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A) B) C) D)

complex reducing enriched synthetic

49) All of the following are diameters of cells that would be resolved in a microscope with a limit of resolution of 0.2 µm except ______.

A) B) C) D)

50)

0.2 µm 0.2 mm 0.1 µm 2.0 µm

Who invented the first crude microscope by grinding glass?

A) Redi B) Lister C) Schultz andSchwann D) Leeuwenhoek E) Pasteur

51) The simple microscopes used by the earliest practitioners of microscopy contained which of the following?

A) Magnifying lens B) Oil-immersion lens C) Condenser D) Ocular E) Lamp

52)

The _____ of the microscope holds and allows selection of the objective lenses.

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A) stage B) condenser C) ocular D) nosepiece

53) Which of the following parts of a microscopemagnifies the specimen to produce a real image of the specimen? A) Condenser B) Objective lens C) Ocular lens D) Body E) Nosepiece

54) Which of the following parts of the microscope magnifies the specimen to produce the virtual image of the specimen?

A) B) C) D)

Objective lens Ocular lens Condenser Body

55) If a microbiologist is studying a specimen at a total magnification of 950X, what is the magnifying power of the objective lens if the ocular lens is 10X?

A) B) C) D)

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940X 950X 9500X 95X

56) Magnification is achieved in a compound microscope through the initial magnification of the specimen by the _____ lens. This image is then projected to the _____ lens that will further magnify the specimen to form a virtual image received by the eye.

A) ocular;objective B) scanning;objective C) objective;ocular D) ocular; oilimmersion

57) Which term refers to the microscope's ability to show two separate objects as discrete and distinct? A) B) C) D)

58)

Resolution Magnification Refraction Contrast

The wavelength of light used and the numerical aperture governs ______.

A) illumination B) resolution C) magnification D) size of the field E) contrast

59) Scattering of peripheral light rays through the glass slide under very high magnification can be prevented by ______.

A) the cover slip B) the condenser C) immersion oil D) the ocular

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60) The type of microscopy in which you would observe brightly illuminated specimens against a black background is ______.

A) confocal B) dark-field C) phase-contrast D) fluorescence E) electron

61) Which type of microscopy transforms the subtle variations in cell density into differences in light intensity, allowing for increased internal detail without staining?

A) Bright-field B) Confocal C) Phase-contrast D) Fluorescence E) Electron

62)

Which type of microscope shows cells against a white background?

A) Bright-field B) Confocal C) Phase-contrast D) Fluorescence E) Electron

63)

All of the following pertain to the fluorescence microscope except _______.

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A) it uses electrons to produce a specimen image B) it is a type of compound microscope C) it requires the use of dyes like acridine or fluorescein D) it is used to diagnose certain infections E) it requires an ultraviolet radiation source

64)

A scanningconfocalmicroscope _______.

A) B) C) D)

65)

uses ultraviolet light to form a specimen image scans narrow planes and can build a three-dimensional image of the specimen produces specimen images on electron micrographs uses dyes that emit visible light when excited by ultraviolet radiation

The specimen preparation technique that is best for viewing cell motility is the ________.

A) hanging drop B) fixed, stained smear C) Gram stain D) negative stain E) flagellar stain

66)

Which type of microscope does not use light in forming the specimen image?

A) Bright-field B) Dark-field C) Phase-contrast D) Fluorescence E) Electron

67)

Which type of microscope achieves the greatest resolution and highest magnification?

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A) Bright-field B) Dark-field C) Phase-contrast D) Fluorescence E) Electron

68)

Which type of microscope cannot image live specimens?

A) Bright-field B) Phase-contrast C) Dark-field D) Electron E) Differential interference

69) Which type of microscope bombards a whole, metal-coated specimen with electrons moving back and forth over it?

A) Fluorescence B) Differential interference contrast C) Scanning electron D) Transmission electron E) Phase-contrast

70) Comparing transmission electron microscopy withscanning electron microscopy, the following statement is true. A) B) C) D)

71)

Transmission EM requires dyes. Transmission EM gives detail of theexternal architecture of cells. Transmission EM is used for internal detail of cells and subcellular structures. Transmission EM can provide good images of bacteria but not viruses.

The purpose of staining cells on a microscope slide is to ______.

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A) kill them B) secure them to the slide C) enlarge the cells D) add contrast to see them better E) observe motility

72)

The Gram staining procedure is best described as a ______ staining technique.

A) B) C) D)

73)

selective differential negative simple

What do the Gram stain, the acid-fast stain, and theendospore stain have in common?

A) They are used on a wet mount of the specimen. B) They use heat to force the dye into cell structures. C) The staining outcome varies with the charge of the cell wall. D) They use a negative stain technique. E) They are differential stains.

74)

Basic dyes are _______.

A) attracted to the acidic surface of bacterial cells B) anionic C) used in negative staining D) repelled by cells E) dyes such as India ink and nigrosin

75) A microbiologist makes a fixed smear of bacterial cells and stains it withmethylene blue. All cells appear blue under the oil immersion lens. This is an example of ______.

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A) negative staining B) using an acidic dye C) simple staining D) the acid-fast stain E) capsule staining

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Answer Key Test name: Microbiology3 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) FALSE 11) B 12) D 13) A 14) B 15) A 16) A 17) A 18) A 19) B 20) A 21) C 22) C 23) B 24) A 25) B 26) B Version 1

27) A 28) E 29) C 30) C 31) D 32) D 33) C 34) B 35) D 36) E 37) A 38) A 39) D 40) A 41) E 42) C 43) D 44) C 45) C 46) E 47) D 48) A 49) C 50) D 51) A 52) D 53) B 54) B 55) D 56) C Version 1

57) A 58) B 59) C 60) B 61) C 62) A 63) A 64) B 65) A 66) E 67) E 68) D 69) C 70) C 71) D 72) B 73) E 74) A 75) C

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Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) If you observe rod-shaped, pink cells on a slide that had just been Gram stained, you can assume that their cell envelope contains endotoxin. 2-20-13 ⊚ true ⊚ false

Archaea do not have the typical peptidoglycan structure found in bacterial cell walls. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) Endospores of certain bacterial species can enter tissues in the human body, germinate, and cause an infectious disease. ⊚ ⊚

Boiling water (100°C) can normally destroy endospores. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Some bacteria have a cytoskeleton of sterols to help maintain their shape. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The cell envelope or its parts can interact with human tissue and cause disease. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

7) If the bacterial cells were viewed immediately after crystal violet was applied during the Gram stain procedure, gram-positive cells would be purple but gram-negative cells would be colorless. ⊚ ⊚

true false

8) The cell envelope of gram-positive bacteria has two layers: a thick cell wall and the cell membrane. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Hot carbol fuchsin is the primary dye in the acid-fast stain. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) The region between the bacterial cell membrane and the cell wall is called the outer membrane. ⊚ ⊚

11)

Both gram-positive and gram-negative cells have outer membranes. ⊚ ⊚

12)

true false

Flagella move in a whip-like motion. ⊚ ⊚

13)

true false

A slime layer gives bacterial cells greater pathogenicity than a capsule.

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⊚ ⊚

14)

The term diplococcus refers to an irregular cluster of spherical bacterial cells. ⊚ ⊚

15)

true false

The bacterial cell membrane is a site for many enzymes and metabolic reactions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 16) E. coli has been isolated and cultured from three different individuals. Upon biochemical testing of these three cultures, you find that there are differences in some reactions. What is the best explanation of these differences? A) Two of the cultures are mutants of the other. B) The other two cultures are not really E. coli. C) Mistakes have been made in the testinterpretation. D) This is normal genetic variation seen among strains of E. coli. E) These represent three different species of E. coli.

17)

In which situation would a bacterium most likely have cytoplasmic inclusions? A) When producing anendospore B) In a habitat abundant innutrients C) When the cell is starvedfor nutrients D) When the cell is synthesizing flagella

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18) You apply the acid-fast stain method toa patient's specimen, an aspirate from the lungs. Microscopic examination revealsa large number of bright pink-red bacillus-shaped bacteria in the smear. Which statement is true? A) This is the expected outcome for normal sputum. B) The patient has pneumonia. C) The patient has tuberculosis. D) The patient has an HIV infection.

19) A patient has a serious respiratory infection. A sputum sample yielded a bacterium that did not have any peptidoglycan. You hypothesize that the identity of this microbe could possibly be ______.

A) Mycobacterium tuberculosis B) Borrelia burgdorferi C) Streptococcus pneumoniae D) Mycoplasma pneumoniae E) Staphylococcus aureus

20) You have made a smear of a bacterial culture and have performed the Gram stain on it. Looking at the organism under the microscope, you notice that the cells do not seem to be the dark blue-purple of a gram-positive reaction, but instead are light purple. Your staining procedure was performed correctly. What is your best explanation as to why the bacteria have stained this way? A) There is something in the wall of the bacteria that has affected the uptake of the crystal violet into the cell wall, thereby staining it improperly. B) These are mutant bacteria which cannot be stained like other bacteria. C) The specimen did not undergo heat fixation before staining; therefore, the primary dye does not stick properly to the wall. D) The bacteria were taken from an inappropriate medium,and a chemical is interfering with proper staining of the cells.

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21) You have found a mutant of Streptococcus pneumoniae that has lost the ability to produce a capsule. If you inject this strain into a population of healthy mice, what prediction can you make about the consequences? A) The mice will remain healthy. B) The mice will die of pneumonia. C) The mice will get a severe case of pneumonia and recover. D) The infection will respond to antiviral medication.

22) You've just isolated a new bacterium in pure culture, and you culture it on a general purpose medium where its cells have a coccobacillus morphology. When you examine the cells after culturing on a variety of differential media, you find that in some cases, the cells appear as coccobacillus, but in others, they can be filamentous, cocci, or club-shaped. The best explanation for this observation is that _______.

A) the bacterium is pleomorphic B) your culture has become contaminated C) the differential media are contaminated D) the media were incubated at an incorrect temperature E) the microscope is out of adjustment

23) You've just isolated a new bacterium in pure culture, and you culture it on a general purpose mediumwhere its cells have a rod-shape (bacillus) morphology. In addition to culturing it on solid media, you inoculate a slide to grow it asa biofilm. When you use confocal microscopy to image the biofilm, you observe that there are several cellular morphologies, ranging from coccus to coccobacillusto long bacillus. The best explanation for this observation is that _______. A) the microenvironments within a biofilm promote structural variation B) the biofilmis no longer a pure culture of the microbe C) the biofilm culture was not incubated under the appropriate conditions D) the confocal microscope is out of adjustment

24) A new drug is found to act byblocking the incorporation of subunits into sterol molecules for the cell membrane. Which statement is true?

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A) Most bacteria would be unaffected by this drug. B) A drug with this mechanismwould be an excellent antibiotic. C) This kind of drug would destroy viruses only. D) Only archaeal cells would be affected by this drug. E) Only biofilms would be affected by this drug.

25) You need to determine if a pure culture of bacteria is gram-positive or gram-negative, but you've just spilled your only solution of crystal violet so you can't do a Gram stain. You decide to try a lysozyme treatment on a sample of each culture and then examine the samples under the microscope. The expected result is _______.

A) gram-positives will lyse and appears as debris; gram-negatives will be unaffected B) gram-negatives will lyse and appears as debris; gram-positives will be unaffected C) gram-positives will lyse and appears as debris; gram-negatives will lyse but more slowly D) gram-positives will lyse and appears as debris; gram-negatives will lose cellular morphology and appear as cocci E) gram-negatives will lyse and appears as debris; gram-positives will lose cellular morphology and appear as cocci

26) Researchers studying the rigidity and flexibility of the cell envelope used chemotaxis to measure the ability of microbes to squeeze through tight spaces. E. coli, a gram-negative bacterium, was able to traverse narrower channels than B. subtilis, a gram-positive microbe, even though both cells are the same size when grown without restriction. E. coli has the more flexible cell envelope because _______.

A) there is less structural carbohydrate B) it has fewer flagella C) it has only a single membrane D) there are fewer protein receptors E) lipopolysaccharide has no charge

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27) The process of sporangium formation and endosporematuration requires6-8 hours. What is most likely to result if the temperature of the environment was raised to 100°C about 2 hours after the process started?

A) The endospore would not form properly because it is not yet heat resistant. B) The organismwould be termed a hyperthermophile. C) The endospore would form more slowly and be heat resistant. D) The chromosome in theendosporewould likely carry mutations. E) The endospore would form properly but would be unable to germinate.

28) Archaea have been found in many microenvironments in the human body. Which of the following microenvironments is most likely to fit with the designation of Archaeaas "extremophiles?"

A) The gingiva and the gut are anaerobic. B) The temperature of the testes is less than 37°C. C) The surface of the tongue has salt receptors. D) The inner ear can withstand increased pressure.

29) At present, the most accurate indicator of evolutionary relatedness among organisms isthe _______. A) size of the periplasmic space B) similarities of cell membrane proteins C) size of the bacterial chromosome D) sequence of the ribosomal small subunitRNA E) size of the ribosomes

30)

Serological analysis for bacterial identification typically involves using _______.

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A) specific antibodies to the bacterial cell antigens B) methods to identify cell enzymes C) the analysis of the appearance of colonies D) a microscope to determine cell morphology E) the determination of guanine + cytosine base concentrations

31)

Which of the following bacteria is not closely related to the others?

A) Salmonella bongori B) Salmonella enterica subsp . arizonae C) Salmonella enterica subsp. indica D) Salmonella enterica subsp . enterica

32)

Which of the following is mismatched?

A) Gracilicutes -gram-negative cell walls B) Firmicutes -gram-positive cell walls C) Tenericutes - waxy,acid-fast cell walls D) Mendosicutes -archaea cell walls

33) A research laboratory that identifies the subspecies of bacterial isolates from a recent Salmonella epidemic would refer to Bergey's Manual of ______ Bacteriology for guidance in identification.

A) Determinative B) Systematic C) Evolutionary D) Classical

34) A clinical laboratory that identifies the bacterial agents that cause human disease would refer to Bergey's Manual of ______ Bacteriology for guidance in identification.

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A) Determinative B) Systematic C) Evolutionary D) Classical

35) The reference for bacterial descriptions and classifications is_____ Manual of Systematic Bacteriology.

A) Pasteur's B) Lister's C) Bergey's D) Leeuwenhoek's E) Koch's

36)

Which of the following is not a phenotypic trait of bacteria?

A) rRNA sequence B) Cell shape C) Nutrient requirements D) Biochemical reactions

37)

Which of the following is mismatched?

A) Methanogens - convert CO 2 and H 2 into methane B) Extreme halophiles - adapted to salty habitats C) Psychrophiles - adapted to very low temperatures D) Hyperthermophiles - adapted to high temperatures E) Thermoplasmas - adapted to warm-blooded animal environments

38) Halobacterium salinarum lives in and requires a high salt concentration. This is an example of an archaeondescribed as a______.

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A) halophile B) thermophile C) psychrophile D) barophile

39)

The function of bacterial endospores is _______.

A) reproduction and growth B) protection of genetic material during harsh conditions C) storage of excess cellular building blocks D) to provide a protected site for photosynthesis

40) Chemical analysis of a bacterial cell detectsdipicolinic acid. What is the identity of this structure?

A) Cell wall B) Capsule C) Biofilm D) Nucleoid E) Endospore

41)

Endospores are _______.

A) metabolically inactive B) resistant to heat and chemical treatments C) resistant to destruction by radiation D) living structures E) All of the choices are correct.

42)

Bacterial endospores are produced by ______.

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A) Staphylococcus B) Entamoeba C) Bacillus D) Mycoplasma

43)

All of the following occur during endospore germination except _______.

A) dehydration of the cell components B) binding of a small organic molecule to initiate germination C) enzymes digest the endospore cortex D) the cell grows out of its protein coats

44) All of the following structures contribute to the ability of pathogenic bacteria to cause disease except ______.

A) inclusions B) fimbriae C) capsule D) slime layer E) gram-negativeouter membrane

45)

Magnetosomes are _______.

A) infoldings of the cell membrane B) also termed metachromatic granules C) responsible for the heat resistance of endospores D) composed of magnetic iron oxide particles E) found in all bacteria and some archaea

46)

Plasmids _______.

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A) are found in all bacteria B) are essential for survival C) cannot be passed between organisms D) are located in microcompartments E) often carry genes controlling pathogenicity

47)

All bacterial cells have ______.

A) a chromosome B) an S-layer C) the ability to produce endospores D) capsules E) flagella

48)

Which of the following bacterial structures is incorrectly matched with a function?

A) Ribosomes - protein synthesis B) Inclusions - excess cell nutrients and materials C) Plasmids - contain genes essential for growth and metabolism D) Nucleoid - hereditary material E) Cytoplasm - dense, gelatinous solution

49)

The site for ATP synthesis in bacterial cells is the ______.

A) ribosome B) mitochondrion C) cell wall D) cell membrane E) microcompartment

50)

The most immediate result of destruction of a cell's ribosomes would be that _______.

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A) material would not cross the cell membrane B) protein synthesis would stop C) the chromosome would unravel D) glycogen inclusions would form E) holes would appear in the capsule

51)

The chromosome in bacteria and archaea _______.

A) is located in the cell membrane B) contains all the cell's plasmids C) is part of the nucleoid D) forms a single linear strand of DNA

52)

The chemical components of ribosomes are proteins and ______.

A) mRNA B) tRNA C) rRNA D) DNA

53)

A bacterial genus that has waxy mycolic acid in the cell walls is ______.

A) Mycobacterium B) Mycoplasma C) Streptococcus D) Corynebacterium. E) Bacillus

54) Mycobacterium and Nocardiaare different from most gram-positive bacteria in that their cell walls _______.

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A) contain more peptidoglycan B) contain unique, waxy lipids C) areeasily decolorized during staining D) contain a layer of lipopolysaccharide

55)

Which of the following does not pertain to endotoxin?

A) Endotoxin is abacterial cell wall lipid. B) Endotoxin can stimulate fever in the human body. C) Endotoxin can cause septic shock in the human body. D) Endotoxin is found in acid-fast bacterial cell walls.

56)

Lipopolysaccharide is an important cell envelope component of ______. A) gram-negative bacteria B) gram-positive bacteria C) acid-fast bacteria D) mycoplasmas E) protoplasts

57)

Which of the following is not true of the outer membrane?

A) The uppermost layer is made of lipopolysaccharide. B) The innermost layer is a phospholipid bilayer. C) Porins create channels through the outer membrane. D) Gram-positivebacteria have an outer membrane. E) The lipid portion of the lipopolysaccharide layer is termedendotoxin.

58)

Peptidoglycan is a unique macromolecule found in bacterial ______.

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A) cell walls B) cell membranes C) capsules D) slime layers E) inclusions

59) A bacterial cell wall that has primarily peptidoglycan with small amounts of teichoic acid and lipoteichoic acid is ______.

A) gram-negative B) gram-positive C) a protoplast D) a spheroplast E) acid-fast

60) The macromolecule containing alternating N-acetylglucosamine(NAG)and Nacetylmuramic acid (NAM) chains cross-linked by short peptide fragments is ______.

A) mycolic acid B) lipopolysaccharide C) peptidoglycan D) lysozyme E) teichoic acid

61)

Gram-negative bacteria _______. A) are generally more susceptible to antibiotics than gram-positive bacteria B) have a more complex cell envelope with a greater variation in chemical composition C) appear purple following the Gram stain D) include all pathogens

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62) If bacteria living in salty seawater were displaced to a freshwater environment, the cell structure that would prevent the cells from rupturing is the ______.

A) endospore B) cell wall C) cell membrane D) capsule E) slime layer

63)

The outcome of the Gram stain is based on differences in the ______.

A) ribosomes B) cell wall C) cell membrane D) flagella

64)

Which is the correct order for the application of reagents in theGram stain?

A) Crystal violet, safranin, iodine, alcohol/acetone B) Crystal violet, alcohol/acetone, iodine, safranin C) Crystal violet, iodine, alcohol/acetone, safranin D) Iodine, safranin, crystal violet, alcohol/acetone E) Safranin, crystal violet,alcohol/acetone, iodine

65)

The cell membrane, the cell wall, and the outer membrane comprise the ______. A) glycocalyx B) cell envelope C) peptidoglycan D) slime layer E) S-layer

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66) During the Gram stain, the applicationof alcohol results in the decolorization of______ cells.

A) gram-positive B) gram-negative C) all D) pleomorphic

67)

Mycobacterium and Nocardiaare distinguishedfrom other bacteria by the ______ stain.

A) acid-fast B) methylene blue C) endospore D) Gram E) basic

68) The chemical bonds inpeptidoglycancan be hydrolyed by the enzyme _____, found in tears and saliva.

A) penicillinase B) lysozyme C) peptidase D) kinase

69)

Lysozyme is most effective against ______.

A) gram-negative organisms B) gram-positive organisms C) mycoplasmas D) cyanobacteria E) archaea

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70)

Chemotaxis refers to the ability of a cell to _______.

A) move in response to light B) move in response to a chemical C) halt movement in response to a chemical D) transport desired molecules into a cell

71)

A nutrient binds to receptors near the flagellar basal body. This will result in _______.

A) clockwise rotation of flagella B) counterclockwise rotation of flagella C) inhibition of flagella rotation D) numerous tumbles

72)

A bacterial cell exhibiting chemotaxis must have ______.

A) fimbriae B) a capsule C) thylakoids D) flagella E) metachromatic granules

73)

Which externalstructure protects bacteria fromphagocytosis?

A) Slime layer B) Fimbriae C) Cell membrane D) Capsule

74)

Two structures that allow bacteria to adhere to surfaces are ______ and ______.

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A) pili;ribosomes B) fimbriae; capsules C) lipopolysaccharide; techoic acid D) actin filaments;phospholipid membranes E) endospores;metachromatic granules

75)

Spirochetes are able to move due to ______.

A) a periplasmic flagellum B) a membrane-bound flagellum C) cilia serving as walking feet D) pseudopods E) glycocalyx for gliding motility

76)

Two functions of bacterial appendages are ______ and ______.

A) attachment; motility B) motility; energy production C) antibiotic resistance; motility D) attachment; energy production

77)

The basal body of a flagellum is anchored into the ______.

A) hook B) outer membrane C) cell wall D) peptidoglycan layer E) cell membrane

78)

The term that refers to the presence of flagella all over the cell surface is ______.

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A) amphitrichous B) atrichous C) lophotrichous D) monotrichous E) peritrichous

79) The term that refers to the presence of a tuft of flagella emerging from a single site is ______.

A) amphitrichous B) atrichous C) lophotrichous D) monotrichous E) peritrichous

80)

The term that refers to flagella at both poles of the cell is ______.

A) amphitrichous B) atrichous C) lophotrichous D) monotrichous E) peritrichous

81) The bacterial flagellum has three components. In order from the cytoplasm to the external environment, they are ______.

A) filament, hook, and basal body B) filament, basal body, and hook C) basal body, hook, and filament D) hook, basal body, and filament E) basal body, filament, and hook

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82) The short, numerous appendages used by some bacterial cells for adhering to surfaces are called ______.

A) flagella B) cilia C) fimbriae D) periplasmic flagella (axial filaments) E) pili

83) The transfer of genes during bacterial conjugation involves rigid, tubular appendages called ______.

A) flagella B) cilia C) fimbriae D) periplasmic flagella (axial filaments) E) sex pili

84) When bacilli in a chain fold back upon each other like a hinge, this cellular arrangement is termed a ______.

A) tetrad B) strep C) staph D) sarcina E) palisade

85)

An irregular cluster of spherical bacterial cells is termed ______.

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A) streptobacillus B) staphylobacillus C) staphylococcus D) streptococcus E) staphylospirillum

86)

A chain of rod-shaped cells would be called a ______.

A) streptobacillus B) Staphylobacillus C) streptococcus D) staphylococcus E) palisade

87)

Which term is not used to describe bacterial cell shape?

A) Coccus B) Tetrad C) Vibrio D) Bacillus E) Spirochete

88)

Bacterial cells could have any of the following appendages except ______.

A) flagella B) cilia C) fimbriae D) periplasmic flagella (axial filaments) E) pili

89)

Which of the following is not a characteristic ofbacteria?

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A) DNA is free in the cytoplasm. B) The cell wall is made of peptidoglycanor other distinct polysaccharides. C) Ribosomes are present as the site of protein synthesis. D) Organelles termed mitochondria are the site of ATP production.

90)

Which of the following statements regarding chemotaxis is incorrect?

A) In a cell with peritrichous flagella, each flagellum moves individually but in a coordinated direction during a run. B) In a tumble, the flagellum reverses direction, causing the cell to stop moving and change course. C) When a cell detects a nutrient gradient, it will increase the frequency of runs to move toward the nutrient. D) The fuel for flagellar motion is not ATP, but a proton gradient.

91) Alcohol-based hand sanitizers specifically target lipids, making them most effective when trying to eliminate ______.

A) gram-negatives B) gram-positives C) endospores D) viruses E) biofilms

92)

Which of the following properties are shared by both bacteria and archaea?

A) Method of DNA compaction B) Single, circular chromosome C) Ester linkages in fatty acids D) Cell wall polysaccharides

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93) The division of microbes termed the Mendosicuteshave a cell wall type best described as ______.

A) archaeal B) gram-negative C) gram-positive D) lacking a cell wall

94) The division of microbes termed the Firmicuteshave a cell wall type best described as ______.

A) archaeal B) gram-negative C) gram-positive D) lacking a cell wall

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Answer Key Test name: Microbiology4 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) TRUE 10) FALSE 11) FALSE 12) FALSE 13) FALSE 14) FALSE 15) TRUE 16) D 17) B 18) C 19) D 20) A 21) A 22) A 23) A 24) A 25) A 26) A Version 1

27) A 28) A 29) D 30) A 31) A 32) C 33) B 34) A 35) C 36) A 37) E 38) A 39) B 40) E 41) E 42) C 43) A 44) A 45) D 46) E 47) A 48) C 49) D 50) B 51) C 52) C 53) A 54) B 55) D 56) A Version 1

57) D 58) A 59) B 60) C 61) B 62) B 63) B 64) C 65) B 66) B 67) A 68) B 69) B 70) B 71) B 72) D 73) D 74) B 75) A 76) A 77) E 78) E 79) C 80) A 81) C 82) C 83) E 84) E 85) C 86) A Version 1

87) B 88) B 89) D 90) A 91) A 92) B 93) A 94) C

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Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) The eukaryotic cell membrane is a bilayer of sterols. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The cell walls of fungi and algae are chemically identical to the bacterial cell wall. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) Chromosomes are generally not visible by light microscopy unless the cell is undergoing nuclear division. ⊚ ⊚

The nuclear envelope is a single lipid layer. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Rough endoplasmic reticulum is studded with ribosomes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

All algae have chloroplasts. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Eukaryotic mitochondria have their own 70S ribosomes and circular DNA.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

All fungi can form hyphae. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Fungi can reproduce both sexually and asexually. ⊚ ⊚

10)

Infections caused by fungi are called mycoses. ⊚ ⊚

11)

true false

There are no algae that can cause human disease. ⊚ ⊚

14)

true false

All fungi cause some kind of disease in plants or animals. ⊚ ⊚

13)

true false

In humans, fungi can only infect the skin. ⊚ ⊚

12)

true false

Plankton are floating communities of helminths.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

15)

true false

Algae are classified into divisions based principally on their type of motility. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 16) In the condition called athlete's foot, the fungus Trichophyton consumes the keratin protein found in hair, nails, and dead skin. Which of the following descriptors does not apply to Trichophyton?

A) B) C) D)

17)

Which of the following statements is correct?

A) B) C) D)

18)

Saprobe Parasite Heterotroph Eukaryote

All fungi, whether parasiteor saprobe, are heterotrophs. All heterotrophs are parasites, but only some are saprobes. All saprobes are heterotrophic, but only some are parasitic. All heterotrophs are fungi, and include both parasites and saprobes.

A saprobe differs from a parasite in that _______.

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A) a saprobederives nutrients from dead plants and animals, but a parasite derives nutrients from living plants and animals B) a saprobehas a pseudohyphae morphology, but a parasite hastrue hyphae C) a saprobehas the ability to undergo meiosis to produce sexual spores, but a parasite can only perform mitosis to produce asexual spores D) a saprobe is a fungus, but a parasite is a protozoan

19)

Most fungi obtain nutrients from dead plants and animals. These fungi are called ______.

A) saprobes B) parasites C) antagonists D) free-living E) mutualistic

20) Endosymbiosis of a photosynthetic bacterial cell is widely accepted as an explanation for the development of chloroplasts. The presence of these endosymbiotic bacteria provided a cell with the advantage of ______.

A) photosynthesis B) a membrane-bound nucleus C) an electron transport chain D) tolerance to oxygen E) simple, rapid gene transfer

21)

The endosymbiotic theory has been developed to explain the emergence of ______.

A) archaea B) bacteria C) prokaryotes D) eukaryotes E) viruses

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22) Biologists have found evidence that eukaryotic cells evolved from prokaryotic organisms by a process of intracellular ______.

A) B) C) D)

symbiosis parasitism commensalism mutualism

23) Select that statement that reflects evidence that directly supports the endosymbiotic theory. A) Enzymes for photosynthesis are found embedded in membranes of the Golgi apparatus. B) Lysosomes contain their own DNA in the form of plasmids. C) The electron transport system is locatedinthe cell membrane in bacteria,while in eukaryotes it is locatedinthe mitochondrialcristae. D) Glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm ofbacterial cells.

24)

Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

A) Protozoa; multicellular B) Protozoa; unicellular C) Fungi; unicellular D) Helminths; multicellular E) Algae; multicellular F) Fungi; multicellular

25)

Protists include ______.

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A) yeasts and molds B) algae and protozoa C) helminths D) bacteria E) viruses

26)

Which of the following is found in eukaryotic cells but not in bacterial cells?

A) Nucleus B) Mitochondria C) Endoplasmic reticulum D) Lysosomes E) All of the choicesare correct.

27) You are observing an organismunder the microscope and you note that it has a cell wall, no chloroplasts, and a nucleus. Your prediction would be that this organism is a/an ______. A) bacterium B) fungus C) alga D) protozoan E) virus

28) You are observing an organismunder the microscope, and it is clearly multicellularwith no cell walls. Your prediction is that this organism is a/an ______. A) bacterium B) fungus C) alga D) protozoan E) helminth

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29) Eukaryotic flagella differ from bacterial flagella because only eukaryotic flagella _______.

A) are used for cell motility B) facilitate chemotaxis C) facilitate phototaxis D) are long, whip-like structures E) contain microtubules

30)

Cilia are exhibited by certain ______. A) protozoa B) algae C) fungi D) bacteria E) viruses

31) There are nine peripheral pairs and one central pair of _____ found inside eukaryotic flagella and cilia.

A) filaments B) microtubules C) activeproteins D) cilia E) endoflagella

32) As part of their reproductive cycle, helminths produce egg and sperm cells. Both of these eukaryotic cell types have an outer surface composed of polysaccharides known as the ______.

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A) glycocalyx B) cell wall C) cell membrane D) microtubule E) cyst

33)

The glycocalyxof a eukaryotic cellis _______.

A) mostly polysaccharides B) the site where many metabolic reactions occur C) also called the cell wall D) composed of many diverse proteins E) a protective mechanism against osmotic lysis

34)

Which of the following is not a function of the eukaryoticglycocalyx? A) B) C) D)

35)

Which of the following organisms has a cell wall?

A) B) C) D)

36)

Protection Adherence Movement Reception of chemical signals

Candida albicans Trypanosoma cruzi Entamoeba histolytica Enterobius vermicularis

Cell walls are not typically possessed by ______.

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A) B) C) D)

37)

protozoa algae fungi bacteria

Chitin is a chemical component of the cell walls of ______.

A) protozoa B) algae C) fungi D) bacteria E) helminths

38) The cell membranes of bacteria and eukaryotes are quite similar, differing only in _______.

A) the presence of sterols B) the presence of phospholipids C) being selectively permeable D) the presence of proteins in the bilayer E) the ability to transport wastes out of the cell

39)

The eukaryotic cell membrane is composed of ______. A) sterols B) proteins C) phospholipids D) sterols, proteins, and phospholipids E) sterols and phospholipids only

40)

The site for ribosomal RNA synthesis is the ______.

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A) ribosome B) nucleolus C) nucleus D) Golgi apparatus E) lysosome

41) When a eukaryotic cell is not undergoing mitosis, the DNA and its associated proteins appear as a visible, thread-like mass called ______. A) the nuclear envelope B) the nucleosome C) the nucleolus D) nucleoplasm E) chromatin

42)

Histones are _______.

A) found in polyribosomes B) enzymes found in lysosomes C) proteins of the cytoskeleton D) proteins associated with DNA in the nucleus E) on the surface of rough endoplasmic reticulum

43) The passageways in the nuclear envelope for movement of substances between the nucleus and cytoplasm are called nuclear ______.

A) histones B) chromatin C) pores D) endoplasmic reticulum E) inclusions

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44)

In eukaryotic cells, which of the following organelles contain DNA?

A) Nucleus, mitochondria, and Golgi apparatus B) Nucleus, endoplasmic reticulum, and Golgi apparatus C) Nucleus, nucleolus, and Golgi apparatus D) Nucleus, chloroplast, and mitochondrion E) Nucleus, chloroplast, and peroxisome

45)

Which organelle is found in algae but not in protozoa or fungi?

A) Mitochondria B) Lysosomes C) Golgi apparatus D) Chloroplasts E) Endoplasmic reticulum

46) Chloroplasts are composed of membranous sacs called ______ that carry chlorophyll. Surrounding these sacs is a ground substance called _______.

A) thylakoids;stroma B) grana; stroma C) cristae;stroma D) cristae;matrix E) thylakoid;matrix

47)

Pfiesteria is a/an ______ that produces a toxin harmful to humans.

A) fungus B) alga C) helminth D) protozoan E) endospore

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48) The plasma cells of the immune system are responsible for secreting protein antibodies into the bloodstream. Within the plasma cell, the antibody moves through several organelles in what order?

A) Ribosomes, endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus, vesicles B) Ribosomes, Golgi apparatus, endoplasmic reticulum, vesicles C) Ribosomes, Golgi apparatus, endoplasmic reticulum, lysosome D) Ribosomes, endoplasmic reticulum, nucleolus, Golgi apparatus, vesicles E) Ribosomes, vesicles,endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus

49)

The series of tunnel-like membranes functioning in transport and storage are the ______.

A) mitochondria B) lysosomes C) Golgi apparatus D) chloroplasts E) endoplasmic reticulum

50) An organelle that is a stack of flattened, membranous sacs and functions to receive, modify, and package proteins for secretion is the ______.

A) mitochondrion B) lysosome C) Golgi apparatus D) chloroplast E) endoplasmic reticulum

51) The vesicle that originates from the Golgi apparatus and contains a variety of digestive enzymes is the ______.

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A) centrosome B) lysosome C) magnetosome D) inclusion E) ribosome

52)

The eukaryotic cell organelle that most resembles a bacterial cell is the ______.

A) nucleus B) Golgi apparatus C) mitochondrion D) lysosome E) ribosome

53) Which organelle contains cristae where enzymes and electron carriers for aerobic respiration are found?

A) Mitochondrion B) Lysosome C) Golgi apparatus D) Chloroplast E) Endoplasmic reticulum

54)

Mitochondria possess all of the following except ______.

A) metabolic enzymes B) cristae C) electron carriers D) enzymes for photosynthesis E) 70S ribosomes

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55)

The size of a eukaryotic ribosome is ______.

A) 30S B) 40S C) 50S D) 70S E) 80S

56) In eukaryotic cells, ribosomes have two locations. They arescattered in the ______ and on the surface of ______.

A) B) C) D)

cytoplasm; Golgiapparatus nucleus; Golgiapparatus cytoplasm;endoplasmic reticulum nucleus;endoplasmic reticulum

57) The drug cytochalasin targets actin filaments in the cytoskeleton, preventing them from forming. Treatment of a cell with cytochalasin would result in its inability to ______.

A) form cellular extensions B) transport substances within the cell C) form the nuclear envelopestructure D) prevent mutations in its chromosome

58) Choose the correct order of the three main types of cytoskeletal elements in increasing order of size.

A) Actin filaments, intermediate filaments, microtubules B) Actin filaments, intermediate filaments, flagella C) Microtubules, intermediate filaments, actin filaments D) Microtubules, cilia, flagella E) Microtubules,flagella,cilia

Version 1

59)

The cytoskeleton _______.

A) anchors organelles B) provides architectural support C) functions in movements of the cytoplasm D) helps maintain cell shape E) All of the choices are correct.

60) When fungal buds remain attached in a row following cell division, the resulting chains of yeast cells are called ______.

A) pseudohyphae B) septa C) molds D) dimorphic E) mycelia

61)

The long, thread-like branching cells of molds are called ______.

A) conidiophores B) pseudohyphae C) hyphae D) septa E) asci

62) Fungi that grow as yeasts at one temperature but as molds at another temperature are called ______.

Version 1

A) dimorphic B) saprobes C) pseudohyphae D) spores E) parasites

63)

Which is not a characteristic of fungi?

A) B) C) D)

64)

Presence of cell walls Photosynthetic Include single-cell and filamentous forms Heterotrophic nutrition

The intertwined mass of hyphae that constitutes the body of a mold is a ______.

A) stem B) rhizoid C) stock D) bud E) mycelium

65)

Fungal asexual spores _______.

A) are produced when nutrients are limiting B) produce offspring with different combinations of genes from the parent C) cannot be seen using a light microscope D) are the products of meiotic division by a single parent cell E) are used to identify fungi

66) Fungireproduce sexually less frequently thanasexually. What might be the reason behind this infrequency of sexual reproduction?

Version 1

A) together. B) C) D)

Sexual reproduction requires two genetically different strains of the fungus to come Sexual reproduction is more energy-intensive than asexual reproduction. In asexual reproduction, one parent divides. All of the choices are correct.

67) In producing beer and wine, humans have exploited themicrobial ability to ferment sugar to alcohol. The microbes responsible for this process are ______.

A) B) C) D)

68)

fungi bacteria algae protozoans

Protozoan cells do not exhibit ______. A) motility B) ectoplasm and endoplasm C) heterotrophic nutrition D) cystformation E) a cell wall

69)

The motile, feeding stage of protozoa is called the ______.

A) trophozoite B) cyst C) sporozoite D) oocyst E) food vacuole

70)

Protozoan endoplasm contains ______.

Version 1

A) ectoplasm B) mitochondria C) flagella D) oral grooves E) cilia

71)

Protozoa are classified into four groups based on ______.

A) how they move B) their required nutrients C) the resistance properties of their cysts D) their pathogenicity

72)

A protozoan having a flagellum would be classified in the genus ______. A) Entamoeba B) Toxoplasma C) Trypanosoma D) Plasmodium E) Enterobius

73)

A group of protozoa that are not motile are the ______. A) amoebas B) ciliates C) trophozoites D) Plasmodium sp. E) dimorphics

74)

A protozoan cyst differs from a helminth egg in that _______.

Version 1

A) B) C) D)

the cyst can germinate to form the organism but the egg must be fertilized cysts have a uniform structure, but eggs have a wide variety of morphologies a cyst is metabolically active, but an egg is not the chromosome is free in the cytoplasm of a cyst, but enclosed in a nucleus in an

egg

75) During unfavorable growth conditions, many protozoa can convert to a resistant, dormant stage called a/an ______.

A) endospore B) cyst C) seed D) trophozoite E) sporozoa

76)

Protozoan cysts are _______.

A) part of all protozoan life cycles B) necessary for transmission to a new host C) analogous to bacterial endospores D) the primary form of replication E) are produced bybinary fission

77) A specimen from a patient suffering diarrhea shows aone-celled organism in the microscope. The organism moves very slowlyby protruding its cytoplasm. You would predict that the patient has an infection caused by ______. A) Entamoeba B) Toxoplasma C) Trichomonas D) Giardia E) Plasmodium

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78)

Which pairis mismatched?

A) Giardia - transmitted by feces in drinking water B) Histoplasma - causes Ohio Valley fever C) Trichomonas - sexually transmitted D) Plasmodium - causes Chagas disease E) Trypanosoma - causes African sleeping sickness

79)

Amoebic dysentery is most commonly contracted through _______. A) the fecal-oral route from contaminated food or water B) direct transmission from one host to another C) puncture wounds D) insect bites E) contaminated blood products

80) After returning from a trip to Africa, Tom feels tired and weak and has severe anemia. A blood smear reveals a protozoan in his blood and the health care provider diagnoses malaria. Which of the following could be the causative agent of this disease?

A) HIV B) Taeniasolium C) Plasmodium vivax D) Trichophytonrubrum E) Giardia lamblia

81) You are attempting to identify the type of helminth that has been isolated from a patient stool sample. The most important consideration to make this distinction is to _______.

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A) B) C) D)

82)

look at the gross anatomy to determine if the body is segmented or not ask the patient about recent food and water consumption examine the sample to see if microscopic eggs are present determine if the cells are eukaryotic or bacterial by looking for nuclei

The two major groups of helminths are the ______ and the ______.

A) roundworms; flatworms B) tapeworms; flukes C) roundworms; pinworms D) cestodes; trematodes

83)

In humans, helminths generally infect the ______. A) gastrointestinal tract B) urinary tract C) nervous system D) muscular system E) skin

84)

All of the following are helminths except ______.

A) pinworms B) flukes C) trypanosomes D) roundworms E) tapeworms

85)

Which of the following does not pertain to helminths?

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A) Members of Kingdom Protista B) Parasitic worms C) Eggs and sperm used for reproduction D) Often alternate hosts in complex life cycles E) Have organ systems

86)

Larvae and eggs are developmental forms of ______.

A) protozoa B) algae C) helminths D) fungi E) yeasts

87)

Adulthood and mating of helminths occur in which host?

A) Primary host B) Secondary host C) Definitive host D) Transport host E) Mating occurs in all hosts.

88)

Larval development of helminths occurs in which host?

A) Primary host B) Intermediate host C) Definitive host D) Transport host E) Larvaldevelopment takes place in all hosts.

89)

Parasitic helminths have a highly developed ______ system to enhance host transmission.

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A) digestive B) nervous C) respiratory D) muscular E) reproductive

90) Eating undercooked meat can lead to food-borne disease via helminthic infection. What is the common host for Taenia solium? A) Geese B) Ducks C) Pigs D) Cows E) Chickens

91) In the life cycle of the pinworm Enterobius, a common pediatricinfection, the child carries the adult worm in his/her intestine. The adult worm releases eggs, which are transmitted out of the body in the feces. The child will scratch the itching anal region, picking up the worm eggs and re-inserting them into his/her mouth. For this helminth life cycle, the human is the ______ host. A) B) C) D)

Version 1

intermediate definitive primary intermediate and definitive

Answer Key Test name: Microbiology5 1) FALSE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) FALSE 12) FALSE 13) FALSE 14) FALSE 15) FALSE 16) A 17) A 18) A 19) A 20) A 21) D 22) A 23) C 24) A 25) B 26) E Version 1

27) B 28) E 29) E 30) A 31) B 32) A 33) A 34) C 35) A 36) A 37) C 38) A 39) D 40) B 41) E 42) D 43) C 44) D 45) D 46) A 47) B 48) A 49) E 50) C 51) B 52) C 53) A 54) D 55) E 56) C Version 1

57) A 58) A 59) E 60) A 61) C 62) A 63) B 64) E 65) E 66) D 67) A 68) E 69) A 70) B 71) A 72) C 73) D 74) A 75) B 76) C 77) A 78) D 79) A 80) C 81) A 82) A 83) A 84) C 85) A 86) C Version 1

87) C 88) B 89) E 90) C 91) D

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Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) When a virus enters a host cell, the viral genes redirect the genetic and metabolic activities of the host cell. ⊚ ⊚

Viruses are used to produce vaccines for prevention of certain viral infections. ⊚ ⊚

3) mm.

true false

A fully formed virus that can cause an infection in a host cell is called a virion. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Viruses are considered ultramicroscopic because they range in size from 2 mm to 450 ⊚ ⊚

true false

Spikes are glycoproteins that can be found projecting from the viral capsid. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) Each virus is classified into a genusbased on its host, target tissue, and type of disease it causes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Animal viruses have the ability to attach to and enter almost any animal host cell.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

Viral spikes are inserted into the host cell membrane before budding or exocytosis. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Prophages can be activated into viral replication and enter the lytic cycle. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) Bacteriophages do not undergo adsorption to specific host cell receptors prior to penetration. ⊚ ⊚

true false

11) Viruses are the most common cause of acute infections that do not result in hospitalization. ⊚ ⊚

12)

The adeno-associated virus (AAV) and the delta agent are prions. ⊚ ⊚

13)

true false

Viruses are simple, noncellular, lacking mRNA and ribosomes. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

14)

Viruses mutate, and some viruses have not been discovered. ⊚ ⊚

15)

Viruses are not filterable. ⊚ ⊚

16)

true false

Viruses are unable to multiply outside of a host cell. ⊚ ⊚

true false

17) Viral nomenclature uses the same system as living organisms; a genus and specific epithet is designated for each virus. ⊚ ⊚

true false

18) Using species names for viruses is controversial since viruses are not considered living organisms, and they change over time so characteristics that may be used for speciation are unstable. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 19) Viruses exhibit all the following except ______.

Version 1

A) definite shape B) metabolism C) genes D) ability to infect host cells E) ultramicroscopic size

20)

Host cells of viruses include ______.

A) humans and other animals B) plants and fungi C) bacteria D) protozoa and algae E) All of the choices are correct.

21)

Viruses ______.

A) B) C) D)

22)

cannot be seen in a light microscope are prokaryotic contain 70S ribosomes undergo binary fission

Viral capsids are made from subunits called ______. A) envelopes B) spikes C) capsomeres D) prophages E) peptones

23)

Helical and icosahedral are terms used to describe the shape of a viral ______.

Version 1

A) spike B) capsomere C) envelope D) capsid E) core

24)

A/an _______ is the protein shell around the nucleic acid core of a virus.

A) capsomere B) capsid C) spike D) envelope E) monolayer

25) One of the principal viral capsid shapes is a 20-sided figure with 12 evenly spaced corners referred to as a/an _______ capsid. A) spiked B) complex C) icosahedral D) helical E) buckeyball

26)

A naked virus only has a/an ______.

A) B) C) D)

27)

capsomere nucleocapsid envelope antigenic surface

Which of the following is not a typical capsid shape?

Version 1

A) B) C) D)

28)

Tetrahedral Complex Helical Icosahedron

All of the following pertain to virus envelopes except ________.

A) gained as a virus leaves the host cell membrane B) gained as a virus leaves the nuclear membrane C) contain special virus proteins D) help the virus particle attach to host cells E) located between the capsid and nucleic acid

29)

Viral spikes ________.

A) are always present on enveloped viruses B) attach the viral capsid and envelope C) allow bacteria to evade host defenses D) are derived from host proteins E) are for recognition among the various types of viruses

30)

The core of every virus particle always contains ______.

A) DNA B) capsomeres C) enzymes D) DNA and RNA E) either DNA or RNA

31)

Which of the following is not associated with every virus?

Version 1

A) Envelope B) Capsomeres C) Capsid D) Nucleic acid E) Genome

32)

Viral nucleic acid types include which of the following? A) Double-stranded DNA B) Single-stranded DNA C) Double-stranded RNA D) Single-stranded RNA E) All of thechoices are correct.

33)

Reverse transcriptase synthesizes ________.

A) B) C) D)

34)

a positive RNA strand from a negative RNA strand a negative RNA strand from a positive RNA strand viral RNA from DNA viral DNA from RNA

A negative RNA virus must first ________.

A) synthesize a DNA copy of its genome B) synthesize a negative RNA copy of its genome C) synthesize a positive RNA copy of its genome D) transcribe reverse transcriptase E) transcribe RNA polymerase

35) Viruses with _____-sense RNA contain the correct message for translation, while viruses with _____-sense RNA must first be converted into a correct message.

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A) positive;negative B) negative;positive C) primary;secondary D) secondary;primary E) intermediate; primary

36) Classification of viruses into families involves determining all the following characteristics except ________.

A) type of nucleic acid B) type of capsid C) presence of an envelope D) biochemical reactions E) number of strands in the nucleic acid

37)

Which of the following represents a virus family name?

A) Herpes simplex virus B) Herpesviridae C) Picornavirus D) Enterovirus E) Hepatitis B virus

38)

Which of the following is not a viral order in the classification system?

A) B) C) D)

39)

Caudovirales Vaccinia virus Nidovirales Mononegavirales

The correct sequence of events in viral multiplication is ________.

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A) penetration, uncoating, synthesis, adsorption, assembly, and release B) uncoating, penetration, synthesis, assembly, absorption, and release C) adsorption, penetration, uncoating, synthesis, assembly, and release D) assembly, synthesis, uncoating, release, penetration, and adsorption E) adsorption, release, synthesis, uncoating, assembly, and penetration

40)

Viruses acquire envelopes around their nucleocapsids during ______.

A) replication B) assembly C) adsorption D) release E) penetration

41) In general, most DNA viruses multiply in the host cell's _____, while most RNA viruses multiply in the host cell's _____.

A) nucleus;cytoplasm B) cytoplasm; cellmembrane C) cell membrane;cytoplasm D) cytoplasm;nucleus E) nucleus;endoplasmic reticulum

42)

Host range is limited by the _______.

A) type of nucleic acid in the virus B) age of the host cell C) type of host cell receptors on cell membrane D) size of the host cell

43)

Oncogenic viruses include all the following except ______.

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A) hepatitis B virus B) measles virus C) Papillomavirus D) HTLV-I and HTLV-II viruses E) Epstein-Barr virus

44)

Which of the following is/are type(s) of cytopathic effects?

A) Inclusions in the nucleus B) Multinucleated giant cells C) Inclusions in the cytoplasm D) Rounding of cells E) All of thechoices are correct.

45)

The envelope of enveloped viruses _______.

A) is identical to the host plasma membrane B) is only composed of host endomembrane C) does not contain spikes D) is obtained by viral budding or exocytosis E) makes the virus very susceptible to drug therapy

46)

Viruses attach to their hosts via ______.

A) host glycoproteins B) host phospholipids C) viral phospholipids D) viral flagella E) carbohydrate attachments of the viral capsid

47)

Viral tissue specificities are called ______.

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A) ranges B) virions C) receptacles D) tropisms E) uncoating

48) The process of dissolving the envelope and capsid to release the viral nucleic acid is ______.

A) adsorption B) penetration C) uncoating D) synthesis E) assembly

49)

Which of the following occurs during assembly?

A) The nucleocapsid is formed. B) New viral nucleic acid is formed. C) Viral spikes insert in host cell membrane. D) The nucleocapsid is formed and viral spikes insert in host cell membrane. E) The viral envelope and the host cell membrane fuse.

50)

Mammalian viruses capable of starting tumors are ______.

A) chronic latent viruses B) oncoviruses C) syncytia D) inclusion bodies

51)

Persistent viruses that can reactivate periodically are ______.

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A) chronic latent viruses B) oncoviruses C) syncytia D) inclusion bodies E) cytopathic

52)

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a transformed cell?

A) Viral nucleic acid integrated into host DNA B) Decreased growth rate C) Alterations in chromosomes D) Changes in cell surface molecules E) Capacity to divide indefinitely

53)

New, nonenveloped virus release occurs by ______.

A) lysis B) budding C) exocytosis D) both lysis and budding E) both budding and exocytosis

54)

What structures are used by bacteriophages to attach to host cell receptors?

A) B) C) D)

55)

Viral sheaths Tail fibers Nucleic acids Capsid heads

Which of the following is incorrect about prophages?

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A) Present when the virus is in lysogeny B) Formed when viral DNA enters the bacterial chromosome C) Replicated with host DNA and passed on to progeny D) Cause lysis of host cells E) Occur when temperate phages enter host cells

56)

T-even phages ______.

A) B) C) D)

include the poxviruses infect Escherichia coli cells enter host cells by engulfment have helical capsids

57) The event that occurs in bacteriophage multiplication that does not occur in animal virus replication is ______.

A) adsorption to the host cells B) injection of only the viral nucleic acid into the host cell C) host cell synthesis of viral enzymes and capsid proteins D) assembly of nucleocapsids E) replication of viral nucleic acid

58) Viruses that cause infection resulting in alternating periods of activity with symptoms and inactivity without symptoms are called ______.

A) latent B) oncogenic C) prions D) viroids E) delta agents

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59)

Uncoating of viral nucleic acid _______.

A) does not occur in bacteriophage multiplication B) involves enzymatic destruction of the capsid C) occurs during penetration in the multiplication cycle D) occurs before replication E) All of the choices are correct.

60)

In transduction, the viral genome _______.

A) B) C) D)

61)

initiates lysis of the host includes DNA from the previous host is replicated in the cytoplasm is replicated in the nucleus

Lysogeny refers to _______.

A) altering the host range of a virus B) the latent state of herpes infections C) virions exiting host cell D) the viral genome inserting into bacterial host chromosome

62)

Viruses that infect bacteria are specifically called ______.

A) B) C) D)

viroids prions bacteriophages satellite viruses

63) During lysogeny, an inactive prophage state occurs when the viral DNA is inserted into the host ______.

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A) cytoplasm B) nucleus C) nucleolus D) DNA E) cell membrane

64)

What type of phage enters an inactive prophage stage?

A) Primary B) Secondary C) Temperate D) Temporary E) Transformed

65)

The activation of a prophage is called ______.

A) activation B) lysogeny C) transformation D) induction E) adsorption

66)

When a bacterium acquires a trait from its temperate phage, it is called ______.

A) transformation B) lysogenic conversion C) viral persistence D) transcription E) translation

67)

Which of the following will not support viral cultivation?

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A) Live lab animals B) Embryonated bird eggs C) Primary cell cultures D) Continuous cell cultures E) All of thechoices will support viral cultivation.

68) Visible, clear, well-defined patches in a monolayer of virus-infected cells in a culture are called ______.

A) patches B) buds C) plaques D) cytopathic effects E) pocks

69) Viral growth in bird embryos can cause discrete, opaque spots in the embryonic membranes called ______.

A) patches B) buds C) plaques D) cytopathic effects E) pocks

70)

Cells grown in culture form a/an ______.

A) B) C) D)

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monolayer bilayer aggregate plaque

71) Diagnosis of viral infections sometimes involves analyzing the patient's blood for specific _____ that the immune system produces against the virus. A) B) C) D)

glycoproteins antibodies complementproteins antigens

72) Freshly isolated animal tissue that is placed in a growth medium and allowed to produce a cell monolayer is referred to as a/n _____ cell culture.

A) initial B) primary C) secondary D) continuous E) positive

73) A common method for cultivating viruses in the lab is to use in vitro systems called _____ cultures.

A) embryo B) cell C) plaque D) bacteriophage E) egg

74)

Infectious protein particles are called ______.

A) viroids B) phages C) prions D) oncogenic viruses E) spikes

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75)

Infectious naked strands of RNA that affect plants are called ______.

A) viroids B) phages C) prions D) oncogenic viruses E) spikes

76)

Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease is _______. A) caused by a chronic latent virus B) initiated by an oncogenic virus C) caused by a viroid D) a spongiform encephalopathy of humans E) also called "mad cow disease"

77)

Satellite viruses are _______.

A) also called viroids B) dependent on other viruses for replication C) the cause of spongiform encephalopathies D) significant pathogens of plants

78) Two noncellular agents, smaller than viruses, are infectious proteins called _____ and infectious RNA strands called _____. A) prions;capsomeres B) virions;prions C) viroids;phages D) prions;phages E) prions;viroids

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79) Who developed a rabies vaccine after realizing the disease was caused by something smaller than a bacterium? A) Leeuwenhoek B) Koch C) Pasteur D) Cohn E) Ivanovski

80)

The primary purpose(s) of viral cultivation is/are to _______.

A) isolate and identify viruses in clinical specimens B) prepare viruses for vaccines C) do detailed research on viral structure, lifestyle, genetics, and effects on host cells D) perform wide-scale harvesting of viruses E) All of thechoices are correct.

81) A treatment for bacterial infections from the early 20th century has made a comeback; the use of bacterial viruses to eliminate bacterial infections. Which explanation most accurately describes the mechanism of action behind this treatment? A) A wide variety of bacteria cause a large percentage of human infections, producing much sickness and death. B) Viruses can infect bacteria, transferring pathogenic genes. The viral genes can then be suppressed, causing the bacteria to not replicate viruses. C) The attachment structures on the virus and the receptors on the host cells make for exquisite specificity of viruses for particular bacterial species. D) Antibiotic resistance in humans is on the increase, so using a different kind of therapy is more beneficial.

82) Some animals can become infected with multiple influenza virus strains usually associated with other animals. Which statement below describes the result of these infections?

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A) A new novel strain of flu may be produced, for which the human population has no immunity. B) Major genetic variations in the flu viruses can be reproduced. C) The viral genomes within the host cells can become recombined. D) All of the choices are correct.

83)

How are viroids transmitted? A) B) C) D)

Respiratory secretions Sex Plant seeds Blood products

84) Tamiflu is a common medication given for influenza treatment. It works by protecting and blocking sialic acid molecules on the surfaces of host cells and influenza virus envelopes as they leave the cell. Which statement reflects the mechanism of Tamiflu's action? A) B) flu virus. C) cells. D)

Tamiflublocks protein synthesis of the viral genome. Tamiflu interferes with the replication of +ssRNA from the -ssRNA genome of the Tamiflu interferes with the release of the budding viruses from the infected host Tamiflu interferes with the metabolic properties of the virus.

85) Successful anti-HIV drug therapies today work by blocking the action of viral reverse transcriptase. Select which step of virus multiplication that would be directly blocked by this mechanism. A) Adsorption B) Penetration C) Synthesis D) Assembly E) Release

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86) You are working in a laboratory that is studying a newly isolated virus. Your job is to culture the virus using in vitro methods. Upon observing your inoculated tissue culture specimen one day, you notice clumps of cells growing on top of the original monolayer of cells. Microscopic analysis of stained cells from the culture reveal an alteration in host cell membrane protein content and chromosomal structure. Based upon this information, you hypothesize that the virus you are studying is ______. A) a bacteriophage B) a prion C) a viroid D) an oncovirus E) a satellite virus

87) Select the statement that most accurately describes the action of antimicrobial drugs today. A) Antiviral drug treatment is more effective than vaccination against a viral disease. B) Effective antiviral drugs have a long history of development and use. C) Antiviral drugs often result in toxic side effects due to their inhibition of host cell activity. D) The development of antiviral drug resistance has not been observed, as compared to the high rate of antibiotic resistance seen today.

88)

Sterilizing filters have a pore size of 0.22 μm. Which of the following statements is true?

A) Bacterial cells are typically between 1-10 μm and are blocked by the filter, whereas most viruses are between 20 and 200 nm and therefore pass through. B) Bacterial cells are typically between 1-10 nm and are blocked by the filter, whereas most viruses are between 20 and 200 μm and therefore pass through. C) Bacterial cells are typically between 1-10 μm and pass through the filter, whereas most viruses are between 20 and 200 nm and are therefore blocked. D) Bacterial cells are typically between 1,000-10,000 nm and pass through the filter, whereas most viruses are between 20 and 200 nm and are therefore blocked.

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89)

Compared to bacteria that have a typical size range between 1-10 μm, _______.

A) B) C) D)

viruses range in size between 20-200 nm and are much larger than bacterial cells viruses have a much greater size range; between 22 nm and 1000 nm all viruses are 22 nm viruses are larger and are blocked by sterilizing filters

90) In order to synthesize proteins, a virus with a genome comprised of single-stranded negative-sense RNA _______.

A) B) C) D)

can directly translate its negative-sense RNA strand into proteins must use reverse transcriptase to make a negative-sense DNA strand first must use DNA polymerase to make a positive-sense DNA strand first must use its negative-sense strand as a template to make a positive-sense RNA

91) In order to replicate within a host cell, a virus with a genome comprised of singlestranded positive-sense RNA _______. A) must use its genomic strand as a template to make copies of negative-sense RNA for packaging B) must use its genomic strand as a template to make copies of positive-sense RNA for packaging C) must first use its genomic strand as a template to make a negative-sense RNA, which then serves as a template to synthesize positive-sense RNA for packaging D) must first use its genomic strand as a template to make copies of DNA for packaging

92) Viral classification has changed over the years and while they are given genus names, the use of species names has not been widely accepted. This is because ________.

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A) viruses are not organisms B) viruses change over time making species characteristics difficult to stabilize C) viruses that could be classified into a single species may have many, but not all, properties in common D) All of these choices are arguments against using species designations for viruses.

93)

Antiviral drugs are often difficult to develop, largely because ________.

A) viruses are obligate intracellular parasites so the drugs must enter the host cell and often cause toxic side effects in order to destroy the virus B) viruses are much smaller than bacterial cells C) viruses are more abundant in the body than bacterial cells D) viruses are more pathogenic than bacterial cells

94) A treatment for bacterial infections from the early 20th century has made a comeback; the use of bacterial viruses to eliminate bacterial infections. Which explanation most accurately describes the reason for the return of this treatment?

A) A wide variety of bacteria cause a large percentage of human infections, producing much sickness and death. B) Viruses can infect bacteria, transferring pathogenic genes; the viral genes can then be suppressed, causing the bacteria to not replicate viruses. C) The attachment structures on the virus and the receptors on the host cells make for exquisite specificity of viruses for particular bacterial species. D) Antibiotic resistance in bacteria is on the increase, so using a different kind of therapy offers an alternative to traditional drugs.

95)

Which of the following is a true statement regarding lysogeny?

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A) B) humans. C) D)

96)

Once the phage genome is integrated into the host cell, it remains there permanently. The host bacterial cell acquires new characteristics that are often detrimental to It halts the viral life cycle because the phage genes are no longer replicated. The host bacterial cell is lysed once the phage genome is integrated.

Why do some animal viruses have an external envelope, while bacteriophages never do?

A) Some animal viruses bud out, taking part of the plasma membrane with them, whereas phages always lyse the host bacterial cell when they exit. B) When bacteriophages bud out, the plasma membrane is beneath the cell wall and therefore cannot be removed. C) When animal cells are lysed, part of the plasma membrane attaches to the virus; in bacterial cells, it is covered by the cell wall. D) When phages bud out of the host bacterial cell, they take with them part of the cell wall which forms the capsid, not an envelope.

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Answer Key Test name: Microbiology6 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) TRUE 10) FALSE 11) TRUE 12) FALSE 13) TRUE 14) TRUE 15) FALSE 16) TRUE 17) FALSE 18) TRUE 19) B 20) E 21) A 22) C 23) D 24) B 25) C 26) B Version 1

27) A 28) E 29) A 30) E 31) A 32) E 33) D 34) C 35) A 36) D 37) B 38) B 39) C 40) D 41) A 42) C 43) B 44) E 45) D 46) A 47) D 48) C 49) D 50) B 51) A 52) B 53) A 54) B 55) D 56) B Version 1

57) B 58) A 59) E 60) B 61) D 62) C 63) D 64) C 65) D 66) B 67) E 68) C 69) E 70) A 71) B 72) B 73) B 74) C 75) A 76) D 77) B 78) E 79) C 80) E 81) C 82) D 83) C 84) C 85) C 86) D Version 1

87) C 88) A 89) B 90) D 91) C 92) D 93) A 94) D 95) B 96) A

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Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Inorganic nitrogen must be converted to ammonia to be used by a cell. ⊚ ⊚

Phosphorus is one of the major elements needed in larger quantities by microorganisms. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Obligate saprobes can adapt to a living host. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Lithoautotrophs use inorganic nutrients for carbon and energy sources. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Whether an organism is a phototroph or a chemotroph depends on its source of energy. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Whether an organism is an autotroph or heterotroph depends on its source of nitrogen. ⊚ ⊚

true false

A saprobe with a cell wall will utilize extracellular digestion.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

Saprobes do not need a carbon source for growth and metabolism. ⊚ ⊚

true false

9) Facilitated diffusion and active transport require a carrier protein to mediate the movement across the plasma membrane. ⊚ ⊚

10)

true false

Anaerobes can be cultured in a CO ⊚ ⊚

2 environment.

true false

11) Most microorganisms can only grow in habitats that are similar to human body conditions. ⊚ ⊚

12)

true false

The majority of microbes live and grow in habitats between pH 7 and 9. ⊚ ⊚

true false

13) In a commensal relationship, the commensal benefits but the cohabitant is neither harmed nor benefited. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

14)

After binary fission, daughter cells will differ genetically. ⊚ ⊚

15)

true false

Bacteria like E. coli have an average generation time of 24 hours. ⊚ ⊚

true false

16) The time it takes for a freshly inoculated agar culture to develop visible colonies is primarily governed by the generation time of that species. ⊚ ⊚

17)

A closed culture system is used to determine a population growth curve. ⊚ ⊚

18)

true false

The degree of turbidity in a broth culture correlates to the amount of cell growth. ⊚ ⊚

19)

true false

A Coulter counter can count viable cells as well as determine their size. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 20) Many lakes in the United States are suffering from periodic algae blooms, which can be thought of as an infection of the lake. Although the algae are naturally-occurring in the lake, when adjacent farm fields are over-fertilized with diammonium phosphate, the run-off deposits these nutrients in the lake, allowing the algae to grow without limit. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the overgrowth of algae?

A) The algae are heterotrophs. B) The nitrogen in the fertilizer is in the ammonium form, the preferred nitrogen source of most microbes. C) The phosphorus in the fertilizer is in the phosphate form, the preferred phosphorus source of most microbes. D) The carbon source for these algae is not limiting in lakes. E) Lakes have sufficient micronutrients for algae to grow.

21) Following the Deepwater Horizon accident in the Gulf of Mexico in 2010, bioremediation was used to eliminate much of the oil from the contaminated water. To encourage the growth of oil-degrading microbes, "fertilizer" including iron and nitrogen was added to the water. Which of the following statements regarding the growth of these microbes is incorrect?

A) Large amounts of iron were needed, as iron is a macronutrient for oil-degrading microbes. B) The oil-degrading microbes used oil (hydrocarbons) as their carbon source. C) The concentration of sulfate in the Gulf of Mexico is sufficient for the growth of oildegrading microbes. D) Nitrogen gas (N 2) present in air is not in a form that can be used by oildegradingmicrobes.

22)

Most of the dry weight of a microbial cell is from ______.

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A) inorganic compounds B) minerals C) water D) organic compounds E) salts

23)

Which compound has the highest concentration in a cell?

A) CO 2 B) CH 4 C) H 2O D) Glucose E) NH 3

24)

Which of the following is not a major element of a microbial cell?

A) Copper B) Carbon C) Hydrogen D) Nitrogen E) Oxygen

25) An organic nutrient that cannot be synthesized by the organism and must be provided is called a/an ______.

A) element B) macronutrient C) compound D) growth factor E) trace element

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26)

Calcium is required for bacteria because it _______.

A) stabilizes the cell wall B) stabilizes the ribosomes C) stabilizes the nucleoid D) maintains cellular pH E) makes strong cell walls

27)

Growth factors _______.

A) are inorganic B) are synthesized by the organism C) contain elemental oxygen D) cannot be synthesized by the organism E) All of the choicesare correct.

28) Microorganisms require large quantities of ______ for use in cell structure and metabolism. A) electrolytes B) macronutrients C) water D) growth factors E) trace elements

29) Microorganisms require small quantities of ______ for enzyme function and maintenance of protein structure. A) electrolytes B) macronutrients C) water D) growth factors E) trace elements

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30) An important mineral ion found in the cytochrome pigments of cellular respiration is ______.

A) iron B) zinc C) calcium D) magnesium E) potassium

31) An important mineral ion that is a component of chlorophyll and serves as a stabilizer of membranes and ribosomes is ______. A) iron B) zinc C) calcium D) magnesium E) potassium

32) An organism that uses CO be called a ______.

2 for its carbon needs and sunlight for its energy needs would

A) heterotroph B) photoautotroph C) chemoheterotroph D) saprobe E) halotroph

33)

The methanogens, producers of methane gas, require environments that _______.

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A) are directly exposed to sunlight B) are very acidic C) have abundant oxygen and CO 2 D) are extremely cold E) are anaerobic with hydrogen gas and CO 2

34) This microbe is photosynthetic, but in the absence of light it can use organic compounds as an energy source. Its carbon source is an organic compound. The appropriate classification for this organismwould be ______. A) B) C) D)

35)

photoheterotroph photoautotroph chemoautotroph lithotroph

A saprobe differs from a parasite in that _______.

A) a saprobe derive nutrients from dead plants and animals, but a parasite derives nutrients from living plants and animals B) a saprobe is a fungus, but a parasite can be any type of microbe C) a saprobe cannot infect a human, but a parasite is always infectious D) a saprobe does not harm a host that it lives on, whereas a parasite does harm a host

36)

Organisms that feed on dead organisms for nutrients are called ______.

A) saprobes B) parasites C) autotrophs D) lithoautotrophs E) phototrophs

37)

Contractile vacuoles are _______.

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A) used to expel excess water from cells B) found in bacterial cells C) important to certain organisms in hypertonic environments D) protein carriers in cell membranes E) used to bring solutes into a cell

38) The movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration is called ______.

A) facilitated diffusion B) diffusion C) active transport D) osmosis E) endocytosis

39)

Diffusion of water through a semipermeable membrane is called ______.

A) facilitated diffusion B) diffusion C) active transport D) osmosis E) endocytosis

40)

Bacteria living in a freshwater stream that are transferred to ocean water would _______.

A) B) C) D)

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be in a hypotonic solution gain water be in an isotonic solution become dehydrated due to the loss of water

41) Which of the following microorganisms would find hypotonic conditions most damaging?

A) Bacteria B) Protozoa C) Fungi D) Algae E) Cyanobacteria

42)

The cell wall will help prevent the cell from bursting in ______ conditions.

A) B) C) D)

hypertonic hypotonic isotonic mesotonic

43) You want to experiment with microbial growth in various nutrients, so you inoculate a loopful of E. coli into a tube of honey. Which statement best describes what you expect to happen and why? A) B) C) D)

E. coli grows well in the honey because fructose is a good carbon source. E. coli does not grow because it hasbeen dehydrated by the honey. E. coli will not growbecause the excessive sugar is toxic. E. coli do not growbecause there is only sugar in the honeyand no other nutrients.

44) Which organism has a challenge tomaintaincellular electrolyte and fluid balance in its environment? A) B) C) D)

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A protozoan in a freshwater lake A bacterium in a fresh-water lake A bacterium in Great Salt Lake All of the choices are correct.

45) The movement of substances from lower to higher concentration across a semipermeable membrane via a specific protein carrier and cell expenditure of energy is called ______.

A) facilitated diffusion B) diffusion C) active transport D) osmosis E) endocytosis

46) The movement of substances from higher to lower concentration across a semipermeable membrane via a specific protein carrier but without energy expenditure is called ______.

A) facilitated diffusion B) diffusion C) active transport D) osmosis E) endocytosis

47) The process by which a cell uses ATP to enclose a substance in its membrane,by forming a vacuole and engulfing it, is called ______. A) facilitated diffusion B) diffusion C) active transport D) osmosis E) endocytosis

48)

Which of the following require the cell to use energy?

A) B) C) D)

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Facilitated diffusion Diffusion Endocytosis Osmosis

49)

Nutrient absorption is mediated by the ______.

A) cell wall B) peptidoglycan layer C) proteins in the periplasmic space D) cell membrane E) nuclear membrane

50)

Facilitated diffusion is limited by _______.

A) the substrate concentration B) carrier proteins in the membrane C) the size of the pores in the membrane D) osmotic pressure E) the size of the cell

51) When whole cells or large molecules in solution are engulfed by a cell, this endocytosis is specifically termed ______.

A) pinocytosis B) phagocytosis C) facilitated transport D) facilitated diffusion E) exocytosis

52) Mediated transport of polar molecules and ions across the plasma membrane utilizes a/an _____ carrier that binds to the substance and causes a conformational change to allow its movement across the membrane.

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A) B) C) D)

protein lipid porin enzyme

53) Cultures of a bacterial strain were incubated in a refrigerator (5°C),on a lab bench(22°C), in a 37°C incubator, and ina 50°C incubator. After incubation, there was no growth at 37°C and 50°C, slight growth in the refrigerator, and abundant growth on the lab bench top. Whichterm best describes this organism? A) Halophile B) Mesophile C) Anaerobe D) Psychrotolerant E) Capnophile

54) A microorganism that has an optimum growth temperature of 37°C, but can survive short exposure to high temperatures is called a/an ______.

A) extremophile B) thermophile C) psychrophile D) facultative psychrophile E) thermoduric microbe

55) An organism that grows slowly in the cold but has an optimum growth temperature of 30°C is called a/an ______.

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A) extremophile B) thermophile C) psychrophile D) psychrotolerant microbe E) thermoduricmicrobe

56) An organism with a temperature growth range of 45°C to 60°C would be called a/an ______.

A) extremophile B) thermophile C) psychrophile D) facultative psychrophile E) thermoduric microbe

57)

Human pathogens fall into the group called ______.

A) psychrophiles B) thermophiles C) halophiles D) mesophiles E) acidophiles

58) Whichstatement is correct regarding microbial growth on food at refrigeration temperatures?

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A) There is no growth of microbes in food in the refrigerator; the cold temperature kills or inactivates microbial cells. B) The absence of light in the refrigerator greatly reduces the growth of most microbial pathogens. C) Most food does not have enough oxygen content for microorganisms to thrive. D) The growth of microbes in food depends on their optimal growth temperature;some grow slowlyand others faster.

59) All of the following could find a location in or on human body tissues suitable for growth except ______.

A) psychrophiles B) anaerobes C) facultative anaerobes D) mesophiles E) capnophiles

60)

The term obligate refers to _______.

A) the ability to exist in a wide range of conditions B) existing in a very narrow niche C) using chemicals for energy production D) using light for energy production E) using oxygen for metabolism

61)

The term facultative refers to _______.

A) the ability to exist in a wide range of conditions B) existing in a very narrow niche C) using chemicals for energy production D) using light for energy production E) using oxygen for metabolism

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62) Cultures of a bacterial strain were incubated in a standard incubator, in an anaerobic jar, and in a candle jar. After incubation, there was moderate growth of cultures in the candle and anaerobic jars, but heavy growth of the culture in the incubator. This species is a/an ______. A) obligate aerobe B) anaerobe C) facultative anaerobe D) microaerophile E) capnophile

63) A microorganism that does not have catalase or superoxide dismutase would find it difficult to live in an environment with ______.

A) carbon dioxide B) oxygen C) high salt D) temperatures above 37° C E) high acidity

64)

A microaerophile _______.

A) B) C) D)

grows best in an anaerobic jar grows with or without oxygen needs normal atmospheric levels of oxygen requires a small amount of oxygen but won't grow at normal atmospheric levels of

oxygen

65)

The toxic superoxide ion is converted to harmless oxygen by two enzymes, _______.

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A) catalase and hydrogen peroxidase B) superoxide dismutase and hydrogen peroxidase C) superoxide dismutase and catalase D) catalase and oxidase E) superoxide dismutase and oxidase

66) An organism that can use gaseous oxygen in metabolism and has the enzymes to process toxic oxygen products is a/an ______.

A) B) C) D)

67)

aerobe facultative anaerobe microaerophile obligate anaerobe

An organism that can exist in both oxygen and oxygen-free environments is a/an ______.

A) aerobe B) obligate aerobe C) facultative anaerobe D) microaerophile E) obligate anaerobe

68)

An organism that cannot tolerate an oxygen environment is a/an ______.

A) aerobe B) obligate aerobe C) facultative anaerobe D) microaerophile E) obligate anaerobe

69)

An organism that cannot grow without oxygen is a/an ______.

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A) aerobe B) obligate aerobe C) facultative anaerobe D) microaerophile E) obligate anaerobe

70)

What type of medium is used to demonstrate oxygen requirements of microbes?

A) B) C) D)

Blood agar Thioglycollate Sulfite polymyxin sulfadiazine Sodium chloride

71) A bacterium is inoculated into a tube of thioglycollateand incubated. After incubation, turbidity appears throughout, top to bottom, with the greatestturbidty at the very top. This bacterium would be called a(n) ______. A) aerotolerant microbe B) microaerophile C) obligate aerobe D) facultative anaerobe E) psychrotroph

72) You have inoculated a Clostridium species into a tube of media. After incubation, you observe that there is no growth, and you remember that Clostridiumis an obligate anaerobe. What is the best explanation for the observedlack of growth? A) Clostridium does not have enzymes to process toxic oxygen. B) There is not enough oxygen for use when toxic oxygen is present. C) There is not enough water in the environment for Clostridium to grow. D) Oxygen in the medium destroys the enzymes needed by Clostridium to undergo aerobic respiration.

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73) Microorganisms that live in severe habitats, such as very hot, acidic, or salty environments, are called ______.

A) thermophiles B) halophiles C) psychrophiles D) extremophiles E) barophiles

74)

A halophile would grow best in ______.

A) acid pools B) fresh water ponds C) hot geyser springs D) arid, desert soil E) salt lakes

75)

A barophile would grow best in ______.

A) acid pools B) deep oceans C) hot geyser springs D) arid, desert soil E) salt lakes

76) You inoculate a bacterium into threetubes of nutrient broth medium containing added salt:0.5% NaCl, 5% NaCl, and 15% NaCl. After incubation, you notice significant turbidityin the 15% NaClmediumand modest turbidityin the 5% NaCl medium. There is no growth in the third tube. This organism would be termed ______.

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A) haloduric B) osmophobic C) halophilic D) barophilic

77) After using jelly on a sandwich, you close the jar and place it on a room temperature shelf instead of in the refrigerator. When you open the jar severalweeks later, you notice microbial growth on the surface. What type of organism is likely to grow in this environment? A) B) C) D)

Bacteria Protozoa Fungus Virus

78) Organisms called _______ live on or in the body of a host and cause some degree of harm.

A) mesophiles B) aerobes C) commensals D) pathogens E) halophiles

79) E. coli bacteria normally live in the human gut and produce vitamin K that the body uses. This isbest termed a/an ______ relationship. A) B) C) D)

80)

parasitic saprobic antagonistic mutualistic

The production of antibiotics is a form of antagonism called ______.

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A) B) C) D)

81)

symbiosis antibiosis mutualism synergism

When microbes live independently but cooperate and share nutrients, it is called ______.

A) B) C) D)

symbiosis antibiosis mutualism synergism

82) When microbes are in a close nutritional relationship and one benefits but the other is not harmed, it is called ______.

A) B) C) D)

symbiosis commensalism mutualism synergism

83) In a close relationship, achange in one partnerthat results from a change in the other partner is termed ______.

A) symbiosis B) coevolution C) antibiosis D) mutualism E) synergism

84)

What is the difference between mutualism and synergism?

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A) In a synergistic relationship, the organisms cannot survive without each other. B) In a mutualistic relationship,the organisms are dependent upon each other. C) In a mutualistic relationship, both organisms benefit, but in a synergistic relationship both organisms are harmed. D) In a synergistic relationship, both organisms benefit, but in a mutualistic relationship both organisms are harmed.

85) Termites are insects thatrequirethe protozoan Trichonympha in theirgut to synthesize the enzyme cellulase to degrade the cellulose in wood. The protozoan uses the end products of the cellulose breakdown (glucose). This is a/an ______ relationship. A) B) C) D)

commensualistic mutualistic parasitic antagonistic

86) The biofilm that forms in your shower ("shower curtain scum") can tolerate exposure to hot water when you shower and is resistant to desiccation between showers. The microbes in the biofilm are not endospores, so what is the best explanation for their survival under these conditions?

A) Although some microbes will be killed, those embedded deeply within the biofilm are protected from environmental challenges. B) Bioflms are composed of diverse microbes, and within each biofilm, there are certain to be endospore-formers and thermophiles. C) The shower hasn't been thoroughly cleaned in a while, and when I really scrub it, the microbes will all be killed. D) Dead skin cells continuously replenish the biofilm, and organic soaps provide a continuous carbon source.

87) Which of the following properties is likely to be found in a pioneer colonizer of a biofilm on an artificial joint implant?

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A) B) C) D)

88)

Microbes in a biofilm use quorum sensing to _______.

A) B) C) D)

89)

Surface structures for attaching to tissue The ability to use the titanium from the implant as an energy source No susceptibility to reactiveoxygen species like peroxides The ability to grow at thermophilicbodytemperature (37 ºC)

assess the size of a particular microbial population inactivate antibiotic molecules attach to surfaces transfer genetic material among individual cells

Which of the following is not a step in binary fission of bacterial cells?

A) B) C) D)

Mitotic spindle segregates daughter chromosomes. Chromosome is replicated. Protein band forms in the center of the cell to mark the division site. Septum formation separates the cytoplasm of the daughter cells.

90) As described in "A Note About Bacterial Reproduction -- and the "Culture Bias,"" the organism Epulopiscium does not divide by binary fission. Rather, each cell increases in size and divides to produce multiple daughter cells that are held within the original cell well. After lysis, those daughters are released to repeatthe process. Assuming Epulopiscium could be grown in pure culture in the laboratory in broth and on solid media (it currently cannot), which method would be best for measuring the increase in biomass during growth?

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A) Turbidity readings from a spectrophotometer; the increase in biomass will directly vary with the turbidity of the culture. B) The viable plate count; each colony derives from a single cell and the number of colonies equals the number of cells. C) Direct microscopic count; the experimenter can directly count the number of cells and extrapolate to the biomass. D) Chemostat growth; it will prevent the culture from entering the death phase.

91) Endospore-forming bacteria like Bacillus species begin the sporulation process with an asymmetric cell division to produce two cells with different fates. One will differentiate into the endospore, and the other is the sporangium that will ultimately lyse to release the mature endospore. During this asymmetric cell division, one of the compartments does not receive an intact copy of the chromosome. Which compartment can function with only part of the genome and why?

A) The sporangium; it supports endospore development and then lyses. B) The sporangium; much of the genome is "junk DNA" and not required for endospore maturation. C) The endospore; it is a dormant stage and requires very little to maintain its dormancy. D) The endospore; the endospore is built from the outside via the sporangium and not from the inside.

92)

The time interval from parent cell to two new daughter cells is called ______.

A) binary fission B) the lag time C) the generation time D) the death phase E) the culture time

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93) A loopful of bacteria containing 1000 bacterial cells is inoculated into a nutrient broth and incubated. After a negligible lag phase,the culturegoes into exponential growth for twohours. The generation time for the bacterium is fifteenminutes. Which equation is the correct one to determine the number of cellspresentafter twohours of log phase growth? A) B) C) D)

1000 X 28 1000 X 16 1000 X 22 1000 X 2X 2 X 15

94) The phase of the bacterial growth curve in which the rate of multiplication equals the rate of cell death is the ______.

A) lag phase B) exponential phase C) stationary phase D) death phase E) telophase

95) The phase of the bacterial growth curve in which newly inoculated cells are adjusting to their new environment, metabolizing but not growing at an exponential rate, is the ______. A) lag phase B) exponential phase C) stationary phase D) death phase E) prophase

96) The phase of the bacterial growth curve that shows the maximum rate of cell division is the ______.

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A) lag phase B) exponential phase C) stationary phase D) death phase E) prophase

97) In the viable plate count method, a measured volume of a culture is evenly spread across an agar surface and incubated. Each _____ represents one _____ from the original sample.

A) cell; cell B) cell; colony C) colony; cell D) species;colony E) generation;cell

98) When it is important to count the number of cells, determine cell size, and differentiate between dead and live cells, a/an ______ is used.

A) flow cytometer B) SEM C) methyleneindicator dye D) spectrophotometer E) Coulter counter

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Answer Key Test name: Microbiology7 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) FALSE 12) FALSE 13) TRUE 14) FALSE 15) FALSE 16) TRUE 17) TRUE 18) TRUE 19) FALSE 20) A 21) A 22) D 23) C 24) A 25) D 26) A Version 1

27) D 28) B 29) E 30) A 31) D 32) B 33) E 34) A 35) A 36) A 37) A 38) B 39) D 40) D 41) B 42) B 43) B 44) D 45) C 46) A 47) E 48) C 49) D 50) B 51) B 52) A 53) D 54) E 55) D 56) B Version 1

57) D 58) D 59) A 60) B 61) A 62) C 63) B 64) D 65) C 66) A 67) C 68) E 69) B 70) B 71) D 72) A 73) D 74) E 75) B 76) C 77) C 78) D 79) D 80) B 81) D 82) B 83) B 84) B 85) B 86) A Version 1

87) A 88) A 89) A 90) A 91) A 92) C 93) A 94) C 95) A 96) B 97) C 98) A

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Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) ATP molecules are catalysts that lower the activation energy needed to initiate a reaction. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) Building block molecules for biosynthetic pathways come from the cell's catabolic pathways and from the environment. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) Hydrolysis reactions are catabolic reactions that use water to split the reactant into smaller subunits. ⊚ ⊚

Exoenzymes from pathogens are called virulence factors. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The best way to control a metabolic pathway is to control the fastest enzyme in the series. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) Denaturing an apoenzyme will destroy the three-dimensional shape of the protein, making it nonfunctional. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

ATP is composed of deoxyribose, adenine, and three phosphate groups. ⊚ ⊚

true false

8) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate is an intermediary of glycolysis that can also be utilized in biosynthetic pathways. ⊚ ⊚

true false

ATP synthase is a complex enzyme needed for oxidative phosphorylation. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) All aerobic bacterial species have identical electron acceptors in their electron transport systems. ⊚ ⊚

true false

11)

Only yeast produce alcohol as a fermentation product. ⊚ true ⊚ false

12)

Oxygen-containing ions are used by some bacteria in their electron transportsystem. ⊚ ⊚

13)

true false

Microbes can utilize only carbohydrates for energy production. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

14)

Photosynthesis occurs in chloroplasts of prokaryotes. ⊚ ⊚

15)

true false

All organisms that are photosynthetic are oxygenic. ⊚ ⊚

true false

16) Recently discovered bacteria that inhabit the ocean floor undergo photosynthesis using light from chemical reactions, the breaking of mineral crystals, or from bubble formation. ⊚ ⊚

true false

17) Cells generate ATP from the release of chemical energy from nutrients, whereas chlorophyll-containing organisms generate ATP via the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis as well as from the oxidation of nutrients. ⊚ ⊚

true false

18) During the Calvin cycle, carbon dioxide gas is fixed into a solid, organic form; this is an endergonic process driven by ATP generated from aerobic respiration. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 19) The term used to describe all of the chemical reactions within a cell is ______.

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A) catabolism B) redox reactions C) phosphorylation D) metabolism E) cellular respiration

20)

Enzymes are _______.

A) broken down in reactions that require energy input B) proteins that function as catalysts C) used up in chemical reactions D) not needed for catabolic reactions E) carbohydrate or protein in composition

21) The formation of peptide bonds between amino acids to build a polypeptide is an example of ______.

A) anabolism B) phosphorylation C) fermentation D) catabolism E) glycolysis

22)

Reactants are converted to products by _______.

A) B) C) D)

23)

enzymes releasing energy breaking and forming bonds enzymes binding to products reactants always releasing energy

Each of the following are true of enzymes except _______.

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A) they can be used over and over B) they may or may not require cofactors C) their active site is specific to the substrate D) they increase the activation energy of a reaction E) their action may involve minerals

24) The cell's metabolic reactions involve the participation of _______ that lower the activation energy needed for the initiation of a reaction.

A) cofactors B) vitamins C) enzymes D) ATP E) coenzymes

25)

An apoenzyme is ______.

A) part of a simple enzyme B) also called a coenzyme C) the protein part of a holoenzyme D) often an inorganic metal ion E) an RNA molecule

26)

A holoenzyme is a combination of a protein and one or more substances called ______.

A) substrates B) apoenzymes C) catalysts D) cofactors E) ribozymes

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27)

Important components of coenzymes are _______.

A) vitamins B) metallic ions C) active sites D) substrates E) ribozymes

28)

A type of cofactor would be ______.

A) vitamins B) metallic ions C) active sites D) substrates E) ribozymes

29)

Ribozymes are ______.

A) ribosomes which catalyze reactions B) unique to prokaryotes C) unique to eukaryotes D) catalysts for RNA splicing E) catalysts for DNA splicing

30)

Enzymes that are only produced when substrate is present are termed ______.

A) exoenzymes B) endoenzymes C) constitutive enzymes D) induced enzymes E) conjugated enzymes

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31) Enzymes that catalyze the removal of electrons from one substrate and the addition of electrons to another are called ______. A) transferases B) oxidoreductases C) lyases D) isomerases E) ligases

32) The bacterial genus Bacillus can utilize starch as a nutrient by splitting the starch molecule into smaller molecules of glucosewith the addition of water. The enzymes to do this would be classified as ______. A) transferases B) oxidoreductases C) ligases D) hydrolases E) isomerases

33) Enzymes that catalyze the removal of a a functional group and its subsequent attachment to a new substrate are called ______. A) transferases B) oxidoreductases C) isomerases D) lyases E) ligases

34)

The most likely place where an exoenzyme participates in a chemical reaction is ______.

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A) in mitochondria B) within the cell membrane C) in lysosomes D) in cytoplasm E) outside of the cell

35)

All of the following are exoenzymes except ______.

A) B) C) D)

36)

ATP synthase streptokinase penicillinase collagenase

During aerobic cellular respiration, the final electron acceptor is ______.

A) pyruvic acid B) oxygen C) nitrate D) cytochrome C E) FAD

37) Anabolic reactions that involve ligasesand release water molecules when bonds are formed are called ______ reactions.

A) reduction B) condensation C) oxidation D) transfer

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38) Your bacterium is growing on a type of medium called casein agar, which contains milk protein (casein). There is a clear zone around the growth area of the bacterium, showing that it is synthesizing the enzymes needed to catalyze the breakdown of casein. These enzymes are considered ______. A) B) C) D)

39)

apoenzymes exoenzymes ribozymes endoenzymes

Enzymes that function inside a cell are ______.

A) apoenzymes B) exoenzymes C) constitutive enzymes D) regulated enzymes E) endoenzymes

40)

Enzymes that are always present, regardless of the amount of substrate, are ______.

A) apoenzymes B) exoenzymes C) constitutive enzymes D) regulated enzymes E) endoenzymes

41) When enzyme action stops due to a buildup of end product that acts as a regulatory molecule, this control is called ______.

A) B) C) D)

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competitive inhibition enzyme induction enzyme repression noncompetitive inhibition

42)

Each of the following are denaturing agents except ______.

A) B) C) D)

43)

high temperature low temperature high pH low pH

Noncompetitive inhibition is best described as _______. A) the substrate binding to DNA, blocking enzyme transcription B) the end product binding to DNA, blocking enzyme transcription C) the substrate binding to enzyme in a regulatory site D) the end product binding to enzyme in noncompetitive site E) an anabolic reaction

44)

Metabolic pathways that regenerate their starting molecule are called ______ pathways.

A) linear B) bidirectional C) convergent D) cyclic E) divergent

45) When the product of reaction A becomes the reactant of reaction B, this exemplifies a _______ metabolic pathway. A) linear B) bidirectional C) convergent D) cyclic E) divergent

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46)

Most electron carriers are ______.

A) B) C) D)

47)

coenzymes enzymes hydrogen inorganic phosphate

Exergonic reactions _______.

A) include synthesis of large carbohydrates B) only occur in heterotrophs C) occur during aerobic cellular respiration D) do not occur in anaerobic cellular respiration E) occur when ADP binds to inorganic phosphate to form ATP

48)

In the cell, energy released by electrons is often used to phosphorylate ______.

A) ATP B) ADP C) pyruvic acid D) oxygen E) NAD

49)

In addition to electrons, which of the following is also involved in electron transfer?

A) ADP B) Glucose C) Carbon D) Hydrogen E) Carbon dioxide

50)

Each of the following are electron carriers except ______.

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A) B) C) D)

51)

NAD FAD NADP FADP

FAD, NADP, NAD, and coenzyme A are all carriers of ________. A) B) C) D)

hydrogens electrons ATP Both hydrogens and electrons are correct.

52) The step involving ATP, hexokinase, and the phosphorylation of glucose to glucose-6phosphate is _______.

A) the final step of the Krebs cycle B) the first redox reaction of the electron transport system C) an example of oxidative phosphorylation D) an example of substrate-level phosphorylation E) an example of photophosphorylation

53)

Which of the following is not a process that regenerates ATP?

A) B) C) D)

54)

Oxidative phosphorylation Reductive phosphorylation Substrate-level phosphorylation Photophosphorylation

All of the following pertain to glycolysis except _______.

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A) it occurs without oxygen B) it ends with formation of pyruvic acid C) it occurs during fermentation D) it degrades glucose to CO 2 and H 2O E) it involves reduction of NAD

55)

Glycolysis uses 2 ATP and produces _______.

A) B) C) D)

56)

2 ATP only if oxygen is present 2 ATP without oxygen 4 ATP only if oxygen is present 4 ATP without oxygen

The formation of citric acid from oxaloacetic acid and an acetyl group begins ______.

A) glycolysis B) the electron transport system C) the Krebs cycle D) fermentation E) oxidative phosphorylation

57) Which of the following is not part of the step that occurs between glycolysis and the Krebs cycle?

A) B) C) D)

58)

Reduction of NAD+ Coenzyme A attaches to an acetyl group Oxidation of pyruvic acid Pyruvic acid accepts electrons from NADH

Substrate-level phosphorylation occurs in _______.

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A) glycolysis and the electron transport chain B) photosynthesis and glycolysis C) glycolysis and the Krebs cycle D) the Krebs cycle and the electron transport system E) the electron transport system only

59)

The majority of NADH is produced in ______.

A) glycolysis B) the Krebs cycle C) the electron transport system D) photosynthesis E) fermentation

60)

In bacterial cells, the electron transport system is located in the ______.

A) cell membrane B) mitochondria C) chloroplasts D) ribosomes E) cytoplasm

61) Each NADH that enters the electron transport system results in the production of _____ ATPs.

A) 2 B) 3 C) 24 D) 36 E) 38

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62) As the electron transport carriers shuttle electrons, they actively pump _______ into the outer membrane compartment, setting up a concentration gradient called the proton motive force.

A) ATP B) phosphate C) hydrogen ions D) oxygen E) NADH

63) The redox carriers of the electron transport system that have a tightly bound metal atom responsible for accepting and donating electrons are ______. A) NAD molecules B) FAD molecules C) NADP molecules D) the cytochromes E) the flavoproteins

64) Each FADH2 from the Krebs cycle that enters the electron transport system results in the production of _____ ATP(s). A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5

65)

In which pathway is the most NADH generated?

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A) The electron transport system B) The Krebs cycle C) Glycolysis D) Alcoholic fermentation E) Mixed acid fermentation

66)

During which phase of cellular respiration is the majority of ATP formed?

A) Electron transport system B) The Krebs cycle C) Glycolysis D) Processing of pyruvic acid for the Krebs cycle E) All phases produce the same number of ATP molecules.

67) In bacterial cells, when glucose is completely oxidized by all the pathways of aerobic cellular respiration, what is the maximum number of ATP generated?

A) 2 B) 3 C) 24 D) 36 E) 38

68)

In which stage of aerobic respiration is water produced?

A) Glycolysis B) The Krebs cycle C) The electron transport system

69) How many carbon dioxide molecules are produced by the complete aerobic breakdown of one glucose molecule?

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A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 E) 6

70) An oxidase detection test can be used to identify certain bacteria because they are missing or lack expression of ______.

A) cytochrome C oxidase B) NAD C) mitochondria D) ATP synthase E) coenzyme Q

71) What chemical causes death in many eukaryotes because it blocks cytochrome C oxidase?

A) Copper B) Iron C) Cyanide D) Oxygen E) Carbon monoxide

72)

Which of the following is not true of anaerobic respiration?

A) B) C) D)

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It involves glycolysis. It generates some ATP. It utilizes an electron transport system. It uses the same final electron acceptor as aerobic respiration.

73)

Reduction of nitrogen-oxygen ions and compounds by some bacteria is called ______.

A) aerobic respiration B) denitrification C) nitrification D) fermentation E) deamination

74) The reactions of fermentation function to produce _______ molecules for further use in glycolysis.

A) pyruvic acid B) ATP C) NAD+ D) NADH E) glucose

75) When glucose is broken down by glycolysis during bacterial fermentation, what is the usual net production of ATP? A) 2 B) 3 C) 24 D) 36 E) 38

76)

Mixed acid fermentation _______.

A) produces butyric acid B) occurs in all bacteria C) produces several different acids plus CO 2 and H 2 gases D) is seen in Streptococcus and Lactobacillus E) also produces ethanol

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77)

Fermentation ______.

A) requires an organic electron acceptor B) requires oxygen C) only occurs in aerobic organisms D) is equivalent to aerobic respiration in ATP production E) is the same as anaerobic respiration

78)

Which of the following is not a photosynthetic pigment? A) B) C) D)

79)

Carotenoid Leukophyll Phycobilin Chlorophyll

Which of the following is not true of the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis?

A) They occur in thylakoid membranes. B) They generateNADPH. C) They generate glucose from CO 2 and H 2O. D) The photons cause magnesium to release electrons. E) ATP is generated by a chemiosmotic mechanism.

80) The unknown bacterium that you are testing makes the enzyme phenyalanine deaminase, as indicated by the results of aphenylalanine test. This enzyme facilitates the removal of a/an______ group from the organic compound so it can be converted into an intermediate compound for the Krebs cycle. A) B) C) D)

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carboxyl amino phosphate hydroxyl

81) The property of organisms to integrate catabolic and anabolic pathways to improve cell efficiency is called ______.

A) metabolism B) amphibolism C) anabolism D) catabolism E) biosynthesis

82)

The process of forming glucose from various metabolic intermediates is called ______.

A) glycolysis B) amphibolism C) phosphorylation D) amination E) gluconeogenesis

83)

The principle sites of amphibolic interaction occur during ______.

A) glycolysis and photosynthesis B) the Krebs cycle and the electron transport system C) glycolysis and the Krebs cycle D) fermentation and the Krebs cycle E) fermentation and glycolysis

84) Intermediates from the Krebs cycle can be converted to amino acids by the process of ______.

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A) amination B) deamination C) phosphorylation D) beta oxidation E) gluconeogenesis

85)

Which of the following characterize the Calvin cycle? A) A process that requires light B) Nitrogen is fixed into an organic form C) Produces glucose as an end product D) Produces carbon dioxide and water E) Produces oxygen

86) Sulfa drugs like Bactrim, given for bacterial infections, inhibit bacteria by blocking folic acid synthesis. The precursor molecule of folic acid is para-amino benzoic acid (PABA). Interestingly, PABA has a structure very similar to a sulfa drug. If a sulfa drug is present, the bacterial enzyme will bind the sulfa drug because of structural similarity. This is an example of ______. A) enzyme induction B) enzyme repression C) noncompetitive inhibition D) competitive inhibition E) catabolite repression

87) You have a tube of nutrient broth, in which E. coli is growing. Upon analyzing the broth chemistry, you find: ● oxygen content has dropped a bit, but carbon dioxide has gone up a lot ● formic, acetic, and lactic acids are present What kind of metabolism has most likely occurred?

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A) B) C) D)

88)

Fermentation Aerobic respiration Anaerobic respiration Photosynthesis

When comparing fermentation and anaerobic respiration, which statement would be true? A) B) C) D)

Fermentation and anaerobic respiration are the same. Fermentation produces carbon dioxide, whereas anaerobic respiration does not. Anaerobic respiration and fermentation both employ the electron transport system. Both anaerobic respiration and fermentation use phosphorylation to make ATP.

89) The space between the cell membrane and the cell wall is important during aerobic respiration. Why? A) Hydrogen ions are transported out into the space to set up a hydrogen gradient. B) Cytochrome electron carriers are located in the space. C) Oxygen combines with electrons in that space to form water. D) Pyruvate is transported into the space to be converted into acetyl coenzyme A to enter the Krebs cycle.

90) A bacterium that you isolated from pond water appears to use light for energy. Based upon this information, you inoculate the organism into fresh media, infused with lots of carbon dioxide. Even after incubation at the correct temperature (of pond water), the organism is not growing. Your best explanation of what might have happened is _______.

A) there was no sulfur compound added to the medium, that could be used as an electron donor B) no oxygen was added to the medium so the organism died C) there is some inhibitory chemical that is preventing the growth of the bacterium D) you were using the wrong type of sunlight as the energy source for the bacterium

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91) Below is a metabolic pathway having 3 chemical reactions and 3 enzymes. Enzyme 1 has 2 binding sites--1 for the substrate A and another for the end product D. As the pathway proceeds, the end product in higher quantities will react with enzyme 1, blocking the enzyme's binding to the substrate. Which statement is true about this pathway? enz1 enz2 enz3 Substrate A --> B --> C --> D end product A) This is a case of noncompetitive inhibition. B) As a result of the inhibition of the enzyme, there will eventually be less substrate converted to the end product D. C) Enzyme 1 has an active site and a regulatory site. D) All of the choices are correct.

92)

Which of the following metabolic system descriptions is mismatched?

A) B) C) D)

Cyclic - the starting molecule is regenerated to initiate another turn Convergent - a linear pathway branches into two or more alternative processes Linear - the product of enzyme A becomes the substrate for enzyme B Divergent - one or more branches deviate from a linear path

93) Oxidoreductase apoenzymes utilize a coenzyme to function. The NAD coenzymes _______.

A) B) C) D)

and FAD

are reduced when they remove electrons from the substrate are oxidized when they remove electrons from the substrate are reduced when they add electrons to the substrate carry only electrons between molecules

94) Often the mnemonic device "OIL RIG" is used to remember the principles of redox reactions. Oxidation Is Loss and Reduction Is Gain of what?

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A) Electrons only B) Hydrogen only C) Oxygen only D) Electrons and hydrogen E) Oxygen and electrons

95)

Which of the following statements is false regarding amphibolic pathways?

A) Metabolic pathways are amphibolic, that is, catabolism and anabolism are intertwined in order to conserve energy in the cell. B) Glucose is broken down in glycolysis;however, not all of the intermediates in the pathway are utilized as an energy source. Many leave the pathway to serve as precursors for complex molecules. C) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate is used as a precursor for amino acid, lipid, and carbohydrate synthesis. D) All organisms use metabolic pathways to synthesize the 20 amino acids necessary for protein synthesis using precursors from catabolic processes. E) Glucose is broken down during glycolysis to pyruvate; however, when glucose is in short supply, pyruvate is used as a precursor in the process of gluconeogenesis.

96) The relationship between the light-dependent and light-independent reactions in photosynthesis is that _______.

A) the light-independent reactions are driven by the ATP and NADPH generated from the light reactions B) the energy stored in the glucose made during the Calvin cycle is used to drive the light reactions C) the ATP made during the light-dependent reactions is used for the growth and development of the cell and the ATP from the oxidation of glucose drives the light reactions D) the light-dependent and light-independent reactions both take place within the membranes of bacterial cells or thylakoid membranes of chloroplasts

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97) One turn of the Calvin cycle fixes a molecule of CO 2 gas and is driven by 3 molecules of ATP and 2 molecules of NADPH from the light reactions. Which of the following is true?

A) It takes 6 turns of the cycle, 18 molecules of ATP, and 12 molecules of NADPH to make a glucose molecule. B) The cycle is exergonic. C) It takes 3 turns of the cycle, 9 molecules of ATP, and 6 molecules of NADPH to make one molecule of glucose. D) The cycle must be carried out in the dark.

98)

Which of the following processes is endergonic?

A) Burning wood B) The oxidation of glucose C) Carbon fixation D) Deamination E) Beta oxidation of fatty acids

99)

The light-harvesting units in the thylakoid membranesare the ______.

A) photosystems B) grana C) ATP synthases D) electrons E) ATP molecules

100) What process is described here? A concentration gradient of H+ ions is created in the periplasmic space by actively transporting the ions across the membrane using the energy liberated when carrier molecules are oxidized. When the H+ ions pass through ATPase, enough energy is generated to add phosphate groups onto ADP molecules.

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A) Fermentation B) The Calvin cycle C) Substrate-level phosphorylation D) Oxidative phosphorylation E) Deamination

101) Glycolysis and the Krebs cycle yield 10 molecules of NADH per molecule of glucose. How many molecules of ATP will be made from them in the electron transport system?

A) 10 B) 38 C) 36 D) 2 E) 30

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Answer Key Test name: Microbiology8 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) TRUE 10) FALSE 11) FALSE 12) TRUE 13) FALSE 14) FALSE 15) FALSE 16) TRUE 17) TRUE 18) FALSE 19) D 20) B 21) A 22) B 23) D 24) C 25) C 26) D Version 1

27) A 28) B 29) D 30) D 31) B 32) D 33) A 34) E 35) A 36) B 37) B 38) B 39) E 40) C 41) D 42) B 43) D 44) D 45) A 46) A 47) C 48) B 49) D 50) D 51) D 52) D 53) B 54) D 55) D 56) C Version 1

57) D 58) C 59) B 60) A 61) B 62) C 63) D 64) B 65) B 66) A 67) E 68) C 69) E 70) A 71) C 72) D 73) B 74) C 75) A 76) C 77) A 78) B 79) C 80) B 81) B 82) E 83) C 84) A 85) C 86) D Version 1

87) A 88) D 89) A 90) A 91) D 92) B 93) A 94) D 95) D 96) A 97) A 98) C 99) A 100) D 101) E

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Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) The smallest unit of heredity is a chromosome. ⊚ ⊚

true false

DNA polymerase can only add new nucleotides to the 3' DNA end of the template. ⊚ true ⊚ false

DNA replication proceeds in one direction around the bacterial chromosome. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Transcription occurs within the nucleus or at the nucleoid. ⊚ true ⊚ false

In bacteria, initiator tRNA carries formyl methionine. ⊚ ⊚

Introns have no detectable functions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Excised introns form structures called lariats. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

Lactose is a corepressor in the lac operon. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Repressible operons are normally turned on in the cell. ⊚ ⊚

10)

true false

Induced mutations are initiated by errors in DNA replication. ⊚ ⊚

true false

11) DNA photolyase, in the presence of visible light, can repair DNA damage due to ultraviolet radiation. ⊚ ⊚

12)

true false

All mutations are not beneficial to the cell. ⊚ ⊚

true false

13) A bacterial cell has replicated its plasmid, and when this cell divides into 2 daughter cells, each cell receives one copy of the plasmid. This is an example of horizontal gene transfer. ⊚ true ⊚ false

14) Proteomics is the study of all proteins that are expressed by an organism, whereas genomics refers to the study of the organism's entire genome, not simply the protein-coding regions.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

15) Recombinant organisms are those that have received new DNA in the form of a conjugated plasmid; genetically engineered cells are not considered recombinant. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 16) Microorganisms exhibit genomes contained on _______. A) chromosomes B) plasmids C) mitochondrial DNA D) chloroplast DNA E) All of the choices are correct depending on the type of microorganism observed.

17) Eukaryotic chromosomes differ from bacterial chromosomes because only eukaryotes have _______.

A) histone proteins B) chromosomes in a nucleus C) several to many chromosomes D) elongated, not circular, chromosomes E) All of the choices are correct.

18)

Which of the following is not true of an organism's genotype?

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A) It is inherited. B) It contains structural genes that code for proteins. C) It contains genes that code for RNA. D) It has regulatory genes that control gene expression. E) It has expressed traits governed by the genes.

19)

The _____ is all of the genetic material of a cell.

A) chromosome B) plasmid C) prophage D) genome E) proteome

20)

A nucleosome is a linear chromosome wound around the _______.

A) nuclear membrane B) rRNA C) mRNA D) histone E) nucleolus

21) A ______ is a specific segment of DNA that codes for the production of one functional product. A) intron B) exon C) gene D) operator E) triplet

22)

The expression of genetic traits is referred to as the organism's ______.

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A) genome B) genotype C) proteome D) phenotype E) proteotype

23)

The DNA of an organism is made up of subunits called _______. A) histones B) amino acids C) nucleotides D) mRNA E) polymerases

24)

Which is incorrect about purines?

A) They are only found in DNA, not in RNA. B) They are nitrogenous bases. C) They are always paired with a specific pyrimidine. D) They include adenine and guanine. E) They are found within nucleotides.

25)

The antiparallel arrangement within DNA molecules refers to _______.

A) each base bonding at the 1' position of the sugar B) a purine always bonding to a pyrimidine C) one helix strand that runs from the 5' to 3' direction and the other strand runs from the 3' to 5' direction D) an original parent DNA strand and one newly synthesized DNA strand comprising a new DNA molecule

26)

All of the following pertain to nitrogenous bases except _______.

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A) they form pairs by hydrogen bonding B) guanine pairs with uracil C) adenine pairs with thymine D) cytosine and thymine are pyrimidines E) they allow variation from one nucleotide to another which creates the encoded information

27)

Each nucleotide is composed of _______.

A) one phosphate, one nitrogenous base, and one sugar B) one phosphate, one nitrogenous base, and two sugars C) two phosphates, one nitrogenous base, and one sugar D) two phosphates, one nitrogenous base, and two sugars E) one phosphate, two nitrogenous bases, and one sugar

28)

Base pairs in DNA are held together by ______ bonds.

A) peptide B) nonpolarcovalent C) polarcovalent D) hydrogen E) sulfhydryl

29)

The duplication of a cell's DNA is called _______.

A) mitosis B) replication C) transcription D) translation E) mutation

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30)

Structural genes code for _______.

A) ribosomal RNA molecules B) transfer RNA molecules C) cellular proteins D) gene expression elements

31) During replication, each parent DNA strand serves as a ______ for synthesis of new DNA strands.

A) copy point B) template C) comparisonmolecule D) scaffold E) reservoir

32)

Semiconservative replication refers to _______.

A) each base bonding at the 1' position of the sugar B) a purine always bonding to a pyrimidine C) one helix strand that runs from the 5' to 3' direction and the other strand that runs from the 3' to 5' direction D) an original parent DNA strand and one newly synthesized DNA strand comprising a new DNA molecule

33)

DNA polymerase III ______.

A) B) C) D)

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is needed for adding nucleotides during mRNA synthesis synthesizes new DNA only in the 5' to 3' direction cannot add nucleotides to the lagging strand synthesizes an RNA primer

34)

Okazaki fragments are attached to the growing end of the lagging strand by _______.

A) DNA ligase B) DNA polymerase C) DNA helicase D) DNA gyrase E) primase

35) The enzyme that helps pack DNA into the cell by coiling the DNA into a tight bundle is _______.

A) DNA ligase B) DNA polymerase C) DNA helicase D) DNA gyrase E) primase

36) The enzyme that can proofread replicating DNA, detect incorrect bases, excise them, and correctly replace them is _______.

A) DNA ligase B) DNA polymerase C) DNA helicase D) DNA gyrase E) primase

37) The site where the old DNA strands separate and new DNA strands will be synthesized is called the ________.

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A) primer B) Okazaki fragment C) template D) rolling circle E) replication fork

38)

DNA gyrase _______.

A) B) C) D)

39)

Helicase ______.

A) B) C) D)

40)

unwinds DNA supercoils DNA unwinds RNA winds RNA

DNA Polymerase I _______.

A) B) C) D)

41)

copies DNA bases synthesizes RNA primers closes gaps between DNA bases removes supercoiling ahead of origin

removes primers adds bases to new DNA chain seals DNA gaps proofreads DNA chain

DNA Polymerase III _______.

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A) synthesizes the primer B) removes the primer C) joins Okazaki fragments D) unzips the DNA helix E) proofreads new DNA

42)

A permanent, inheritable change in the genetic information is called ________.

A) translation B) transcription C) a mutation D) an alteration E) regeneration

43)

Replication of DNA begins at a/an _______ rich area.

A) guanine-cytosine B) uracil-adenine C) adenine-thymine D) adenine-cytosine E) guanine-adenine

44)

A primer comprised of _______ is needed at the origin of nucleotide addition. A) polymeraseIII B) polymerase I C) helicase D) RNA E) DNA

45) Groups of three consecutive bases along the DNA of a gene have the code for one _______. Version 1

A) B) C) D)

46)

protein nucleotide amino acid purine

The three-base sequence on DNA that codes for an amino acid is called a/an ________.

A) codon B) exon C) anticodon D) intron E) triplet

47) The RNA molecules that carry amino acids to the ribosomes during protein synthesis are called ________.

A) ribosomal RNA B) messenger RNA C) transfer RNA D) primer RNA E) ribozymes

48) Which molecule is translated into an amino acid sequence? 2-20-13 A) Ribosomal RNA B) Messenger RNA C) Transfer RNA D) Primer RNA E) Ribozymes

49)

RNA molecules differ from DNA molecules because only RNA _______.

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A) has ribose B) has uracil C) is typically one strand of nucleotides D) does not have thymine E) All of thechoices are correct.

50)

Which of the following is not a type of microRNA?

A) tRNA B) miRNA C) Antisense RNA D) Riboswitch E) siRNA

51)

All of the following pertain to transcription except _______.

A) it occurs on a ribosome in the cytoplasm B) it occurs before translation C) it requires RNA polymerase D) it requires a template DNA strand E) it is a process that contributes to the synthesis of protein

52) The nontranscribed region of DNA to which RNA polymerase binds to initiate transcription is called the ________.

A) promoter B) operator C) operon D) exon E) intron

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53)

RNA polymerase binds to the _______.

A) start codon B) termination sequence C) regulation sequence D) promoter sequence

54)

Which of the following is incorrect about transfer RNA?

A) It has a bottom hairpin loop with an anticodon. B) It has an anticodon that is complementary to a codon. C) It contains a binding site for an amino acid. D) The initiator tRNA that binds to the P site has the anticodon UAC. E) The initiator tRNA in bacteria carries tryptophan.

55)

If a codon for alanine is GCA, then the anticodon is ______.

A) GCA B) CGT C) ACG D) CGU E) UGC

56)

The following pertain to ribosomes during protein synthesis except _______.

A) they contain codons within their rRNA molecules B) they participate only in translation C) they bind to the 5' end of mRNA by their small subunit D) they use their large subunit to supply enzymes for peptide bonding E) they shift towards the 3' direction along the mRNA strand from one codon to the next

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57)

Which of the following is incorrect about termination codons?

A) They are also called nonsense codons. B) They are the location where the bond between the final tRNA and the polypeptide is broken. C) They include AUG. D) They are UAA, UAG, and UGA. E) They do not have corresponding tRNA.

58)

Which of the following is not associated with a bacterial ribosome?

A) It is a 70s holoenzyme. B) It has a peptide (P) site. C) It has an exit site. D) Its small subunit provides the enzymes for making peptide bonds. E) It has an amino acid (A) site.

59)

A sequence of bases within a gene that does not code for protein is called a/an _______. A) promoter B) operator C) operon D) exon E) intron

60)

Split genes _______.

A) are common in bacteria and eukaryotes B) only have exons initially transcribed to mRNA C) have introns located only at the beginning and end of a coding region D) are acted upon by spliceosomes to excise introns and then join exons

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61)

Which is incorrect about inducible operons?

A) They have genes turned off by a buildup of end product. B) They are often for use in catabolic pathways. C) They are normally turned off. D) They are turned on by the substrate of the enzyme. E) They include the lac operon.

62) The operon segment composed of the gene that codes for a protein repressor is called the ________. A) B) C) D)

63)

Synthesis of an inducible enzyme requires _______.

A) B) C) D)

64)

repressor alone bound to operator substrate bound to repressor substrate bound to promoter corepressor and repressor binding to operator

Synthesis of a repressible enzyme is inhibited by _______.

A) B) C) D)

65)

operator structural locus regulator promoter

repressor alone bound to operator substrate bound to repressor substrate bound to promoter corepressor and repressor binding to operator

Full induction of the lactose operon requires _______.

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A) B) C) D)

66)

lactose present lactose and glucose present lactose present without glucose lactose and arabinose present

The lactose repressor _______.

A) B) C) D)

is transcribed with the structural lac genes is activated by binding lactose is inactivated by binding lactose requires lactose for its transcription

67) Gene regulation can involve a protein repressor that blocks ______ from initiating transcription.

A) DNA polymerase I B) DNA polymerase III C) RNA polymerase D) mRNA E) rRNA

68) Repressible operons require that ______ binds to the repressor protein before it can bind to the operator. A) the product B) a cofactor C) a coenzyme D) the substrate E) the reactant

69)

A mutation that changes a normal codon to a stop codon is called a ______ mutation.

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A) point B) silent C) back D) missense E) nonsense

70)

The most serious type of mutation is a ______ mutation.

A) B) C) D)

point silent frameshift back

71) If the wild type DNA sequence reads THE CAT ATE THE BIG RAT, what type of mutation would change the sequence to THE CAT ATA ETH EBI GRA T?

A) Missense B) Nonsense C) Insertion D) Deletion E) Silent

72) If the wild type DNA sequence reads THE CAT ATE THE BIG RAT, what type of mutation would change the sequence to THE CAT ATE THE BAG RAT?

A) Point B) Nonsense C) Insertion D) Deletion E) Silent

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73) If the wild type DNA sequence reads THE CAT ATE THE BIG RAT, what type of mutation would change the sequence to THE CAT ATE (stop)?

A) Missense B) Nonsense C) Insertion D) Deletion E) Silent

74)

A frameshift is caused by ______ mutations.

A) missense andinsertion B) missense andnonsense C) nonsense anddeletion D) deletion andinsertion E) insertion andnonsense

75)

What type of mutation alters the base but not the amino acid being coded for?

A) Silent B) Back C) Point D) Nonsense E) Missense

76) A screening system called the _______ test is used for detecting chemicals with carcinogenic potential.

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A) Koch B) Ames C) mutation D) cancer E) Iowa

77) The process in which mutations are removed and the correct bases added is called ________.

A) transduction B) excision repair C) frameshift D) back-mutation E) transformation

78)

Bacterial conjugation involves _______.

A) B) C) D)

79)

a bacteriophage carrying donor DNA to the recipient cell a donor cell with a plasmid that synthesizes a pilus naked DNA fragments from a lysed donor cell taken up by a recipient cell new progeny cells with genes from two parent bacterial cells

Which cell can transfer the most DNA? A) F + cell B) F - cell C) Hfr cell D) R cell E) B cell

80)

Which of the following is not a type of bacterial DNA recombination?

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A) B) C) D)

81)

Transformation Conjugation Mitosis Transduction

Which of the following is not true of conjugation?

A) Involves direct contact between cells B) Transfers genes for drug resistance C) Transfers genes for enzymes and adherence molecules D) Involves the action of bacteriophage E) The donor retains a copy of the transferred genes

82)

Hfr transfer involves all of the following except _______.

A) gene integration into the bacterial chromosome B) independent plasmid transfer C) F factor is part of the F+ donor chromosome D) high frequency transfer E) a pilus connection between F+ and F- cells

83) The transfer of DNA fragments from a dead cell to a live, competent recipient cell that results in a changed recipient cell is termed ________. A) transduction B) conjugation C) transformation D) transmission E) mitosis

84) The development of virulent, toxin-producing bacterial strains due to the presence of a temperate phage can occur through the process of ________. Version 1

A) bacterial conjugation B) transformation C) generalized transduction D) specialized transduction

85) A bacteriophage transfers a random fragment of DNA of the previous host to the current host. This is an example of _______.

A) B) C) D)

86)

conjugation generalized transduction specialized transduction the creation of an Hfr cell

The jumping of a gene from one location to another is done by ________.

A) conjugation B) transposons C) transformation D) transduction E) transmission

87)

Which of the following is not true of transposons?

A) They can change pigmentation. B) They can replace damaged DNA. C) They can transfer drug resistance. D) They can change the genome. E) They are always part of plasmids.

88) Which of the following additions have been made to principles of the central dogma of biology?

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A) B) C) D)

DNA informationcannot be converted into RNA information. Proteininformation can be converted into DNA information. RNA can be usedto regulate gene function. DNA codes forproteins.

89) In Griffith's experiments with Streptococcus pneumoniae, rough nonencapsulated streptococci were converted into smooth encapsulated streptococci in the presence of the heatkilled smooth encapsulated streptococci. Which microbial process had Griffith identified? A) B) C) D)

90)

Transduction Conjugation Transformation Cloning

Of the following list, which antibiotics affect protein synthesis?

A) Penicillin B) Tetracycline C) Chloramphenicol D) Ciprofloxacin E) Both tetracyclineand chloramphenicol are correct.

91) An unidentified cell was found to contain introns and exons. It also expresses DNA polymerase and RNA polymerase. Although it exhibits a promoter region, it has no operons. You conclude that this cell _______.

A) B) C) D)

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is eukaryotic is prokaryotic is either a prokaryotic or eukaryotic cell is actually a virus

92) Looking at your results of the Ames test using bacteriological agar medium plates lacking the amino acid histidine, you find that there are many colonies growing on the agar. How do you interpret this result?

A) The bacterium has turned its operon genes on, producing proteins necessary for growth. B) The chemical being tested is mutagenic. C) The bacterium does not have any plasmids, so it cannot grow on the medium. D) The drug being tested has no inhibitory effect on the bacterium; therefore, it is not a good antibiotic to give for treatment of disease.

93) A mutation has occurred during DNA replication while the cell was preparing to divide. As a result of this, the codon ACU of mRNA has now become ACC. Interestingly, there is no change to the protein being made. Why not? A) This is a silent mutation. B) The original amino acid isoleucine was changed to leucine, but they are the same variation of amino acid so no change to the protein. C) The mutation was fixed, and even though the codon is now ACC the correct amino acid is put into place for the normal protein. D) This is not a mutation that causes a big change, so there is no change to the protein being made.

94) You have taken E. coli strain A which has its own plasmids, and mixed it with E. coli B strain without plasmids. E. coli B cells now have plasmids but, in addition, they also carry some genes from E. coli A strain. What has happened is _______. A) B) C) D)

the E. coli B cells have become mutants of the original culture vertical transmission of DNA has occurred an example of transformation the cells of E. coli A were Hfr cells

95) The fundamental difference between an organism's genotype and its phenotype is that _______.

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A) the genotype refers to all of the genetic material in the organism, whereas the phenotype represents only the genetic material that is expressed into proteins B) the phenotype refers to all of the genetic material in the organism, whereas the genotype represents only the genetic material that is expressed into proteins C) the genotype refers to the organism's genes and the phenotype refers to the noncoding segments of DNA D) the genotype refers to eukaryotic genes that contain both introns and exons, whereas phenotype refers to bacterial DNA that has only exons

96) The mechanism of DNA synthesis differs between the two new daughter strands during replication. This is due to the fact that _______.

A) the DNA strands run antiparallel to each other and the DNA polymerase can only add nucleotides to the 3' end of the growing strand B) one RNA primer attaches to the 5' end of the parent strand and the other primer to the 3' end C) both RNA primers attach to the 3' end of the template strands, which are at opposite ends from each other D) both daughter strands can't extend toward the replication fork because there would not be room for two DNA polymerase enzymes

97) DNA polymerase can catalyze a dehydration synthesis reaction only at the 3' carbon of the daughter strand of DNA. This means that _______.

A) since the strands are antiparallel, one strand will grow toward the fork as it opens, and the other strand will grow in fragments away from the fork B) Okazaki fragments extend toward the replication fork as the parent strands are unzipped by helicase C) the leading and lagging strands extend in the 3' - 5' direction toward the replication fork as the nucleotide bases are exposed D) the antiparallel nature of the parent molecules determine that the leading strand must be grown in fragments away from the fork and the lagging strand is synthesized continuously toward the fork

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98) In order for protein synthesis to begin, which of the following statements reflects the correct sequence of events?

A) The 5' end of the mRNA binds to the small ribosomal subunit, and the large subunit joins, creating the P and A sites where reactions between codons on the mRNA and anticodons on tRNA are stabilized. B) The AUG codon on mRNA base pairs with the UAC anticodon on tRNA allowing the small and large ribosomal subunits to join the complex. C) Translation begins when the ribosome translocates from the A site to the P site on the mRNA D) The 3' end of the mRNA binds to the small ribosomal subunit and the AUG anticodon on the tRNA base pairs with the UAC codon on the mRNA, allowing the large ribosomal subunit to attach.

99)

The fields of genomics and proteomics differ in that _______.

A) genomics refers to the study of an organism's entire genome, whereas proteomics is the study of expressed proteins B) genomics is the study of an organism's chromosomes and the resulting proteins are studied in the field of proteomics C) genomics is the study of an organism's chromosomes and proteomics is the study of transcription and translation of proteins D) the field of genomics involves the study of DNA replication and the field of proteomics refers to the study of transcription and translation

100)

The field of genomics refers to _______.

A) the study of an organism's complete genome, including plasmid, mitochondrial, and chloroplast DNA B) the study of an organism's plasmids C) the study of cellular, but not viral, genomes D) the study of chromosomal DNA

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101) The antibiotic rifamycin is selectively toxic in blocking protein synthesis in Mycobacterium tuberculosis because _______.

A) it binds preferentially to bacterial RNA polymerase rather than the eukaryotic protein, effectively halting transcription in the pathogen but not the host B) the antibiotic binds to the mRNA once synthesized, preventing it from participating in the initiation complex with the ribosome C) bacterial ribosomes are 70s whereas host ribosome are 80s, thus the antibiotic binds to the M. tuberculosis ribosome but does not bind to the eukaryotic machinery D) the drug binds to the initiator tRNA, preventing the formation of the protein synthesis initiation complex in the bacterial cell

102)

Erythromcycin, a macrolide, inhibits protein synthesis _______.

A) by binding to the ribosome, preventing translocation due to interference with the attachment of mRNA B) by preventing the formation of the initiation complex C) by binding to the tRNA preventing peptide bond formation between amino acids D) by interfering with both the initiation and elongation stages of translation

103)

Streptomycin, an aminoglycoside, inhibits protein synthesis _______.

A) by binding to the ribosome, preventing translocation due to interference with the attachment of mRNA B) by binding to the tRNA preventing peptide bond formation between amino acids C) by preventing the formation of the initiation complex D) by interfering with both the initiation and elongation stages of translation

104)

The term 'recombinant organism' refers to _______.

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A) an organism that expresses proteins coded for by genes that originated in a different organism B) an organism that has recombined its genes C) an organism that has genes passed down from the parent cell to the daughter cells during binary fission D) genetically engineered cells, but not those that have new genes as a result of horizontal gene transfer

Version 1

Answer Key Test name: Microbiology9 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) FALSE 11) TRUE 12) FALSE 13) FALSE 14) TRUE 15) FALSE 16) E 17) E 18) E 19) D 20) D 21) C 22) D 23) C 24) A 25) C 26) B Version 1

27) A 28) D 29) B 30) C 31) B 32) D 33) B 34) A 35) D 36) B 37) E 38) D 39) A 40) A 41) E 42) C 43) C 44) D 45) C 46) E 47) C 48) B 49) E 50) A 51) A 52) A 53) D 54) E 55) D 56) A Version 1

57) C 58) D 59) E 60) D 61) A 62) C 63) B 64) D 65) C 66) C 67) C 68) A 69) E 70) C 71) C 72) A 73) B 74) D 75) A 76) B 77) B 78) B 79) C 80) C 81) D 82) B 83) C 84) D 85) B 86) B Version 1

87) E 88) C 89) C 90) E 91) A 92) B 93) A 94) D 95) A 96) A 97) A 98) A 99) A 100) A 101) A 102) A 103) D 104) A

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Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Restriction endonucleases are obtained from various species of bacteria. ⊚ ⊚

When DNA is heated, the two strands will separate. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Reverse transcriptase is used to make cDNA from an RNA template. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) After three replication cycles in PCR, there will be a total of three double-stranded DNA molecules. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Viruses are often used as cloning hosts in recombinant DNA methods. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) Vectors often contain a gene conferring drug resistance to their cloning host, in order to detect cells harboring the plasmid. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

7) E. coli is the best host for cloning because it possesses the mechanisms for processing and modifying proteins. ⊚ ⊚

true false

8) An example of gene therapy is the insertion of the gene for human growth hormone into E. coli cells. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Transformation and transduction are methods used to introduce DNA into host cells. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) The process of introducing a needed, normal gene into human cells is called DNA mapping. ⊚ ⊚

11)

It is now possible to very quickly map the genome of an organism or virus. ⊚ ⊚

12)

true false

It is possible to identify mRNA molecules using fluorescently labeled cDNA. ⊚ ⊚

true false

13) Identification of unique DNA fingerprints relies on the presence of single nucleotide polymorphisms among samples.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

14) The advantage of germline therapy over somatic cell therapy is that the normal gene is inserted into an egg, sperm, or developing embryo so that the repair is present in every cell of the organism as it matures to adulthood. ⊚ ⊚

true false

15) When micro RNA molecules malfunction, their effect is limited to the inhibition of protein production, which results in tumor growth. ⊚ ⊚

true false

16) The field of pharmacogenomics uses knowledge of an individual's single nucleotide polymorphisms to determine how they will respond to a particular drug. ⊚ ⊚

true false

17) A proteome is an organism's full array of expressed proteins, and proteomics is the study of those proteins and the functions they mediate. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 18) Any use of an organism's biochemical processes to create a product is referred to as ______.

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A) genetic engineering B) biotechnology C) recombinant DNA D) gel electrophoresis E) gene probes

19) The various techniques by which scientists manipulate DNA in the lab are termed ______. A) genetic engineering B) biotechnology C) recombinant DNA D) gel electrophoresis E) gene probes

20)

A technique that separates a readable pattern of DNA fragments is ______.

A) genetic engineering B) biotechnology C) recombinant DNA D) gel electrophoresis E) gene probes

21) DNA strands can be clipped crosswise at selected positions by using enzymes called ______.

A) palindromes B) reverse transcriptases C) restriction endonucleases D) ligases E) DNA polymerases

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22)

Geneticists can create sequences of DNA from RNA using enzymes called ______.

A) palindromes B) reverse transcriptases C) restriction endonucleases D) ligases E) DNA polymerases

23)

EcoRI and HindIII are ______.

A) palindromes B) reverse transcriptases C) restriction endonucleases D) ligases E) DNA polymerases

24) Sequences of DNA that are identical when read from the 5' to 3' direction on one strand and the 3' to 5' direction on the other strand are ______.

A) palindromes B) reverse transcriptases C) restriction endonucleases D) ligases E) DNA polymerases

25)

Analysis of DNA fragments in gel electrophoresis is based on ______.

A) larger fragments moving slowly and remaining closer to the wells B) DNA having an overall negative charge and moving to the positive pole C) DNA fragments being stained so that they can be seen D) application of an electric current through the gel causing DNA fragments to migrate E) All of the choices are correct.

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26)

DNA strands can begin to separate at the temperature of ______. A) 37 oC B) 42 oC C) 60 oC D) 90 oC E) 100 oC

27)

DNA fragments can be separated in gel electrophoresis because______.

A) B) C) D)

28)

nitrogenous bases have a net positive charge nitrogenous bases have a net negative charge phosphate groups have a net positive charge phosphate groups have a net negative charge

Restriction endonucleases recognize and clip DNA base sequences called ______. A) codons B) palindromes C) introns D) exons E) genes

29) In the formation of recombinant DNA, what enzyme is needed to seal the sticky ends of genes into plasmids or chromosomes? A) DNA polymerase I B) DNA polymerase II C) DNA helicase D) DNA ligase E) Primase

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30) Labeled, known, short stretches of DNA used to detect a specific sequence of nucleotides in a mixture are known as ______.

A) genetic engineering B) biotechnology C) recombinant DNA D) gel electrophoresis E) gene probes

31)

Gene probes can be labeled for detection with reporter molecules such as _____.

A) B) C) D)

enzymes fluorescent dyes radioisotopes All of the choices can be used.

32) Fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH) probes are applied to intact cells and observed microscopically for the presence and location of______ . A) DNA B) RNA C) proteins D) recombinant DNA E) a specific genetic marker sequence

33)

Two different nucleic acids can _____ by annealing at their complementary sites.

A) B) C) D)

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hybridize covalentlybond form a peptidebond ligate

34)

Which of the following is not true of fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH)? A) Probes can be applied to intact cells. B) Probes can locate genes on chromosomes. C) It can be used to identify unknown bacteria without culturing. D) It uses electrophoresis to separate the DNA. E) It can be used to detect RNA in cells.

35)

The size of DNA is often given in the number of _____ that it contains.

A) genes B) codons C) base pairs D) proteins E) triplets

36)

Amplification of DNA is accomplished by ______.

A) the polymerase chain reaction B) DNA sequencing C) gene probes D) a Southern blot E) a Western blot

37)

DNA polymerases used in PCR______.

A) B) C) D)

38)

use an RNA template to make complementary DNA must remain active at very cold temperatures include Taq polymerases and Vent polymerase are labeled with fluorescent dyes

Which PCR step causes the denaturation of double-stranded DNA?

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A) Add DNA polymerase and nucleotides at 72° C. B) Cool DNA to between 50° C and 65° C. C) Add primers. D) Heat target DNA to 94° C. E) Repeat the cycle of heating and cooling.

39)

Which PCR step synthesizes complimentary DNA strands?

A) Add DNA polymerase and nucleotides at 72° C. B) Cool DNA to between 50° C and 65° C. C) Add primers. D) Heat target DNA to 94° C. E) Repeat the cycle of heating and cooling.

40) Thermococcus litoralis and Thermus aquaticus are thermophilic bacteria that are______.

A) B) C) D)

41)

used as cloning vectors sources of heat-stable DNA polymerases genetically engineered bacteria principal sources of restriction endonucleases

The primers in PCR are______.

A) synthetic DNA oligonucleotides B) bacterial enzymes C) short RNA strands D) DNA polymerases E) reverse transcriptases

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42) If you start with 3 double-stranded DNA fragments, after 4 cycles of PCR you will have ______ fragments.

A) 12 B) 24 C) 27 D) 48 E) 81

43)

Which of the following is a list of the materials required for PCR? A) B) C) D)

Reverse transcriptase, Taq RNA polymerase, nucleotides Reverse transcriptase, Taq DNA polymerase, nucleotides Primers, Taq DNA polymerase, nucleotides Primers, Taq RNA polymerase, nucleotides

44) The deliberate removal of genetic material from one organism and its subsequent transfer into the genome of another organism is a specific technique called ______. A) genetic engineering B) biotechnology C) recombinant DNA technology D) gel electrophoresis E) gene probe technology

45)

Each of the following are features of a cloning host except______.

A) quick generation time B) minimal growth requirements C) mapped genome D) pathogenicity E) transformable

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46)

Each of the following are features of a cloning vector except______.

A) origin of replication B) reverse transcriptases C) genetic markers used to screen for recombinants D) capacity for large inserts E) multiple cloning sites

47)

Common vectors used to transfer a piece of DNA into a cloning host are______.

A) plasmids B) viruses C) bacteriophages D) artificial chromosomes E) All of the choices are correct.

48)

Genomic _____ are collections of isolated genes maintained in cloning hosts.

A) DNA B) libraries C) clones D) digests E) books

49)

Which of the following is not true of vectors?

A) An origin of replication (ORI) is present. B) They must accept DNA of desired size. C) They contain a gene for drug resistance. D) They are easy to manipulate. E) They can detect RNA in cells.

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50)

Which of the following is the second step in gene cloning? A) Target DNA removed from cells and isolated B) Cloning host treated with calcium chloride and receives plasmid C) Separate DNA fragments with gel electrophoresis D) Desired protein is produced by cloning host E) Gene is amplified by multiplication of cloning host

51)

Which step in gene cloning involves transformation?

A) Target DNA removed from cells and isolated B) Cloning host receives plasmid C) Target DNA and plasmid treated with the same restriction endonuclease D) Desired protein is produced by cloning host E) Gene is amplified by multiplication of cloning host

52)

Which step in gene cloning can occur even more rapidly by PCR?

A) Target DNA removed from cells and isolated B) Cloning host treated with calcium chloride and receives plasmid C) Target DNA and plasmid treated with the same restriction endonuclease D) Desired protein is produced by cloning host E) Gene is amplified by multiplication of cloning host

53)

Making new genomes is called ______. A) bioengineering B) synthetic biology C) genetic engineering D) cloning E) recombinant DNA

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54) The commercial product Frostban consists of a genetically altered bacterium which prevents ice crystals from forming on plants, thereby reducing freezing of plants and financial distress to the farmers as a result of freezing weather. This product contains a strain of ______.

A) Escherichia coli B) Saccharomyces cerevisiae C) Thermus aquaticus D) Pseudomonas syringae E) Pseudomonas fluorescens

55) Recombinant strains of _____ are released to colonize plant roots to produce an insecticide to destroy invading insects.

A) Escherichiacoli B) Saccharomycescerevisiae C) Thermusaquaticus D) Pseudomonassyringae E) Pseudomonasfluorescens

56)

Transgenic animals______.

A) can be engineered to become factories for manufacturing proteins B) are often obtained from germline engineering C) will pass the genes on to their offspring D) commonly include mice E) All of the choices are correct

57)

Transgenic organisms are ______.

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A) created in nature B) only microorganisms C) copyrighted D) patented

58)

Transgenic animals are referred to as _____ modified organisms. A) B) C) D)

59)

genetically naturally chemically physically

Genetically modified organisms include _____.

A) bacteria B) viruses C) plants D) nonhuman animals E) All of the above have been genetically modified.

60) When patient tissues are transfected with viruses carrying a needed, normal human gene, the technique is called ______.

A) B) C) D)

cloning gene therapy antisense therapy DNA fingerprinting

61) Which of the following is a promising treatment for stopping the expression of an unwanted gene?

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A) B) C) D)

62)

Cloning Gene therapy Antisense therapy DNA fingerprinting

The first genetically engineered protein approved for human use was ______.

A) human growth hormone B) hemophilia factor VIII C) human testosterone D) human insulin E) human adrenaline

63)

Humans display how much DNA similarity with mice? A) 50% B) 60% C) 70% D) 80% E) 90%

64)

What type of DNA map is most detailed?

A) Linkage B) Sequence C) Physical D) Geographical E) Chromosomal

65)

The study of genomes of a particular community is called ______.

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A) metagenomics B) genomics C) proteomics D) genomology E) metabolomics

66)

Which of the following techniques is mismatched with its use in DNA fingerprinting?

A) Restriction endonucleases to cut DNA B) PCR amplification to get more copies of DNA C) Electrophoresis to separate DNA fragments D) Hybridization probes to digest the DNA sample E) Southern blot for a visual record of DNA fragments

67) Of the following choices, which could be used in the treatment of a patient in order to determine the patient's cancer subtype?

A) Transformation B) PCR C) Microarray analysis D) Oryzasativa E) Western Blot analysis

68)

What is the evolutionary advantage of bacteria producing restriction endonucleases?

A) They make these enzymes for humans to use in manipulating DNA. B) Bacteria use these enzymes to repair their own mistakes made during DNA replication. C) Bacteria use these enzymes to attack other bacteria and destroy their DNA. D) These enzymes are a defensive measure of bacteria to defend themselves against invading DNA of bacteriophages.

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69) You want to identify Mycobacterium tuberculosis in a patient sputum sample. Which procedure would be most useful in this case? A) B) C) D)

70)

Polymerase chain reaction Whole genome sequencing DNA probe analysis Microarray analysis

Why is an enzyme from a thermophilic bacterium used in PCR? A) B) C) D)

The enzyme makes DNA that is more similar to human DNA. It is cheaper to obtain from live microorganisms than producing the enzyme in a lab. This thermohile's enzyme will synthesize DNA. DNA is replicated at a high temperature that denatures most proteins.

71) In choosing the vector used to carry human genes into a host cell, which of the following should be the important consideration? A) B) C) D)

Whether the vector contains RNA or DNA What kind of plasmid it is Whether the vector comes from a bacterium or a virus How much donor DNA can be carried on the vector

72) Your infant has been diagnosed with severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID). Your doctor suggests which treatment as a possible cure for the disease? A) B) C) D)

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Gene therapy Genome mapping Reverse transcription Microarrays

73) You have made a specific DNA probe that will bind to a key sequence on the DNA of Neisseria gonorrhoeae, allowing your company to market a gonorrhea test kit that can be used to identify the bacterium in genital tract specimens.However, upon testing it out against a known Neisseria gonorrhoeae culture, you find that it does not work. Which of the following is a possible explanation for this negative result?

A) B) C) D)

You forgot to label the probe sequence with a reporter molecule. You forgot to digest the probe with restriction endonucleases. You forgot to add the mRNA to the DNA probe sample. You forgot to incubate the test at the 75 oC temperature required for hybridization.

74) The enzyme required to attach the sticky ends of DNA and used when splicing DNA fragments into other DNA is ______. A) B) C) D)

helicase ligase reverse transcriptase endonuclease

75) Before the advent of biotechnology, diabetics would use insulin harvested from cows. Now they receive human insulin produced through ______.

A) B) C) D)

76)

recombinant DNA technology PCR gene therapy gel electrophoresis

Which of the following recombinant DNA technology products is mismatched?

A) B) C) D)

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Erythropoietin - stimulates erythrocyte production in bone marrow Factor VIII - a protein necessary for the coagulation cascade Interferons - stimulate antiviral protein production Tissue plasminogen activating factor - stimulates blood clotting

77)

The difference between somatic cell gene therapy and germline therapy is that______.

A) somatic cell gene therapy overcomes a protein malfunction in specific tissues but is not repaired in the entire organism and cannot be passed on to offspring B) germline therapy overcomes a protein malfunction in specific tissues but is not repaired in the entire organism and cannot be passed on to offspring C) somatic cell gene therapy is introduced into the egg, sperm or developing embryo, whereas germline therapy introduces a new gene into a mature tissue D) germline therapy is the temporary repair of a genetic mutation, whereas somatic cell therapy is a permanent fix

78)

Micro RNA therapy is based on the premise that______.

A) miRNA molecules function to regulate gene expression, usually by inhibiting transcription; a non-functional miRNA can be replaced thereby reducing unwanted protein production B) miRNA molecules function to regulate gene expression, usually by promoting translation; a non-functional miRNA can be repaired thereby reducing unwanted protein production C) miRNA molecules function to regulate gene expression, usually by initiating transcription; an over-production of miRNA can be replaced thereby promoting necessary protein production D) miRNA molecules function to regulate protein production, usually by inhibiting translation; a hyperactive miRNA can be replaced thereby reducing unwanted proteins

79)

SNPs are derived from ______.

A) B) C) D)

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point mutations frameshift mutations genetic engineering gene therapy

80) Often natural disasters leave little intact DNA with which to identify the victim's remains using traditional DNA fingerprinting techniques. The discovery of ______ made genetic analysis possible with minute amounts of genetic material.

A) B) C) D)

81)

SNPs miRNAs frameshift mutations microarrays

Microarray analysis is used to______.

A) B) C) D)

determine which genes are being expressed in an organism determine the size of gene fragments after digesting with restriction endonucleases analyze an individual's single nucleotide polymorphisms analyze an organism's entire genome

82) One reason the field of proteomics is continually evolving following the systematic study of an organism's genome is because ______.

A) it became apparent that while the organism's genome is relatively stable, protein expression in an organism is constantly changing B) once the genome had been sequenced, all protein expression was understood C) it became apparent that protein expression is relatively uniform, whereas the genome is constantly changing D) the expression of proteins is fixed in each organism so sequencing the genome is essential to understanding phenotypes

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Answer Key Test name: Microbiology10 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) FALSE 11) TRUE 12) TRUE 13) TRUE 14) TRUE 15) FALSE 16) TRUE 17) TRUE 18) B 19) A 20) D 21) C 22) B 23) C 24) A 25) E 26) D Version 1

27) D 28) B 29) D 30) E 31) D 32) E 33) A 34) D 35) C 36) A 37) C 38) D 39) A 40) B 41) A 42) D 43) C 44) C 45) D 46) B 47) E 48) B 49) E 50) C 51) B 52) E 53) B 54) D 55) E 56) E Version 1

57) D 58) A 59) E 60) B 61) C 62) D 63) D 64) B 65) A 66) D 67) C 68) D 69) C 70) D 71) D 72) A 73) A 74) B 75) A 76) D 77) A 78) A 79) A 80) A 81) A 82) A

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Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) All microbicidal agents are sterilants. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Bacteriostatic agents kill bacterial cells. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) Prions require more extensive methods of sterilization than are needed for bacterial endospores. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) The presence of organic matter such as saliva and pus can interfere with the actions of disinfectants. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) When a control agent targets the metabolic processes of microbial cells, active younger cells typically die more rapidly than older cells. ⊚ ⊚

true false

A microorganism that is not motile and has stopped metabolizing is considered dead. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Most microbial contaminants of food are killed or inactivated at freezing temperatures.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

Pasteurization is used to sterilize milk. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Pasteurization does not inactivate endospores or thermoduric microbes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

10) Ionizing radiation is more effective than nonionizing radiation in killing or inactivating microbes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

11)

Chlorine compounds remain stable and effective in the presence of excess organic matter. ⊚ ⊚

12)

Alcohols are more effective at inactivating enveloped viruses than naked viruses. ⊚ ⊚

13)

true false

Isopropyl alcohol wiped across a skin site can sterilize it. ⊚ ⊚

14)

true false

Hydrogen peroxide is used in the process of sterilizing instruments such as endoscopes.

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⊚ ⊚

15)

Soaps and detergents are very effective as sterilants. ⊚ ⊚

16)

true false

Organisms in the genus Pseudomonas are resistant to quats. ⊚ ⊚

17)

true false

Chlorine and ethylene oxide are sterilizing gases. ⊚ ⊚

true false

18) Continued widespread use of the phenolic compound triclosan is advantageous in that it is important to remove as many organisms as possible from our hands and there is little risk of resistant organisms evolving. ⊚ ⊚

true false

19) Surgeons preparing for an invasive surgical procedure will scrub their hands thoroughly, and then they use a strong alcohol-based hand sanitizer which renders their hands sterile. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 20) Which of the following microbial forms has the highest resistance to physical and chemical controls?

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A) Naked viruses B) Protozoan cysts C) Fungal spores D) Bacterial endospores E) Yeast

21) The process that destroys or removes all microorganisms and microbial forms, including bacterial endospores, on inanimate objects is ______. A) disinfection B) sterilization C) antisepsis D) sanitization E) degermation

22) The use of a physical or chemical process to destroy vegetative pathogens on inanimate objects is ______. A) disinfection B) sterilization C) antisepsis D) sanitization E) degermation

23) The use of chemical agents directly on exposed body surfaces to destroy or inhibit vegetative pathogens is _______.

A) B) C) D)

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disinfection sterilization antisepsis sanitization

24) Scrubbing or immersing the skin in chemicals to reduce the numbers of microbes on the skin is _______.

A) B) C) D)

25)

disinfection sterilization sanitization degermation

Which of the following types of control agents would be used to achieve sterility?

A) Virucide B) Bactericide C) Germicide D) Sporicide E) Fungicide

26)

The easiest microbial forms to kill or inhibit are ______.

A) naked viruses B) vegetative bacteria and fungi C) endospores D) protozoan cysts E) mycobacteria and staphylococci

27) The method of removing vegetative microbial life forms and debris to reduce contamination to safe levels is termed ______. A) antisepsis B) disinfection C) sterilization D) decontamination E) sanitization

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28)

The method of removing vegetative life forms from living surfaces is termed ______.

A) B) C) D)

29)

antisepsis disinfection sterilization decontamination

The removal of all life forms from inanimate objects is termed ______.

A) antisepsis B) disinfection C) sterilization D) decontamination E) degerming

30)

The alcohol wipe used on a patient's skin before an injection is an example of ______. A) antisepsis B) disinfection C) sterilization D) decontamination E) sanitization

31)

Which is correct regarding the rate of microbial death?

A) Cells die atincreasingly greater rates. B) Only older cellsdie in a culture. C) Cells in aculture die at a constant rate. D) Upon contact withthe control agent, all cells die at one time. E) Cells becomemetabolically inactive but are never killed.

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32)

Which of the following factors will influence the action of microbial agents?

A) The number of microorganisms B) The type of microorganisms present C) Temperature and pH D) Mode and dosage of the agent E) All of the choices will influence the action.

33)

Microbial death occurs when there is _______.

A) no movement B) no reproduction C) a change in appearance D) a decrease in size E) All of the choices occur.

34)

Each of the following is a target of antimicrobial agents except ______. A) cell walls B) cell membranes C) ribosomes D) cellular proteins E) cytoplasm

35)

Surfactants work by _______.

A) B) C) D)

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coating the organism preventing interaction with its environment blocking transport into the organism blocking transport out from the organism disrupting membrane integrity

36) Some microbial control agents are able to _____ cell proteins by breaking bonds that maintain the native state, thethree-dimensional configuration of the proteins.

A) B) C) D)

37)

denature bind dissolve mutate

Agents that can denature microbial proteins include all of the following except ______.

A) moist heat B) alcohol C) acids D) metallic ions E) X rays

38)

Which of the following does not affect microbial nucleic acids?

A) Moist heat B) Ultraviolet light C) X rays D) Ethylene dioxide E) Formaldehyde

39) Physical agents for controlling microbial growth include all of the following except ______.

A) B) C) D)

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ultraviolet radiation boiling water pasteurization hydrogen peroxide

40)

Sterilization is achieved by _______.

A) flash pasteurization B) hot water C) boiling water D) steam autoclave E) All of the choices are correct.

41)

Dry heat _______.

A) is less efficient than moist heat B) cannot sterilize C) includes tyndallization D) is used in devices called autoclaves E) will sterilize at 121°C for 15 minutes

42)

The minimum sterilizing conditions in a steam autoclave are _______.

A) 121°C at 15 psi for 15 minutes B) 63°C for 30 minutes C) 160°C for 2 hours D) 71.6°C for 15 seconds E) 100°C for 30 minutes

43) The shortest time required to kill or inactivate all the microbes in a sample at a specified temperature is called the _______. A) thermal death point (TDP) B) thermal death time (TDT) C) sporicidal time D) death phase point

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44) The lowest temperature needed to kill or inactivate all microbes in 10 minutes is the ______. A) thermal death point (TDP) B) thermal death time (TDT) C) sporicidal time D) death phase point

45) Disinfection of beverages such as apple juice, milk, and wine is optimally achieved by ______.

A) pasteurization B) chlorination C) moist heat autoclave D) filtration E) boiling water

46)

Placing organisms at 4

C is ______.

A) bactericidal B) bacteriostatic C) decontamination D) sterilization E) germicidal

47)

Pasteurization _______.

A) kills all vegetative forms B) reduces the number of vegetative forms C) reduces the number of endospores D) increases food nutrient value E) is used to sterilize food products

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48)

_____ heat is more rapidly effective and efficient compared to _____ heat.

A) High; dry B) High; moist C) Dry; moist D) Moist; dry E) Moist; high

49)

A method for sterilizing milk, called _____ treatment, uses 134°C for 1 to 2 seconds.

A) pasteurization B) batchpasteurization C) flashpasteurization D) ultra hightemperature E) tyndallization

50)

What instrument is most effective for pressure-temperature sterilization?

A) Oven B) Autoclave C) Water-bath D) Bunsen burner E) Incubator

51) Intermittent sterilization, which uses 3 days of lower temperature steam for short periods of time, is also called ______.

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A) pasteurization B) incubation C) tyndallization D) disinfection E) desiccation

52)

Which of the following is not a primary target of milk pasteurization?

A) Salmonella B) Campylobacterjejuni C) Lactobacillus D) Listeriamonocytogenes E) Brucella

53) Vials of microorganisms that undergo the freeze-drying process, called _____, will remain preserved and viable for years.

A) desiccation B) flash freeze C) lyophilization D) pasteurization E) sterilization

54)

Removal of moisture by dehydration is called ______.

A) desiccation B) flash freeze C) lyophilization D) pasteurization E) sterilization

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55) _____ radiation excites atoms to a higher energy state within molecules such as DNA, which leads to the formation of pyrimidine dimers.

A) Infrared B) Ultraviolet C) Gamma D) Particle E) Ionizing

56)

Electrons are ejected from atoms in cells when organisms are exposed to ______.

A) desiccation B) ultraviolet light C) ethyl alcohol D) hydrogen peroxide E) gamma rays and X rays

57)

Which of the following items are typically irradiated in order to kill microbes?

A) Cured meats B) Human tissues such as heart valves and skin C) Operating room air D) Surgical gloves E) All of the choices are correct.

58) Which control method would not be a suitable choice for killing Mycobacterium in a capped culture tube?

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A) Ultraviolet (germicidal) light B) Gamma rays C) 121°C at 15 psi for 15 minutes D) 160°C for 2 hours E) All of the choices are correct.

59) Which of the following forms of radiation are in order from the most penetrating to the least penetrating?

A) Gamma, cathode, X rays B) Gamma, X rays, cathode C) Cathode, gamma, X ray D) Cathode, X ray, gamma E) X ray, gamma,cathode

60)

HEPA filters are used to remove microbes from _______.

A) air B) liquids C) human tissues D) medical instruments E) All of the choices are correct.

61)

The use of filtration for sterilization _______.

A) can remove viruses B) relies on gravity C) removes toxins D) uses heat and filtration E) leaves behind endospores

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62) _____ is a control method that removes microorganisms rather than inhibiting or killing them.

A) Boiling B) Sterilization C) Radiation D) Filtration E) Disinfection

63)

Which of the following is not a factor that affects germicidal activity?

A) Material being treated B) Length of exposure C) Strength of the germicide D) Microorganism being treated E) All of the choices are factors.

64)

All of the following pertain to hypochlorites except _______.

A) they release hypochlorous acid in solution B) they cause denaturation of enzymes C) they are found in iodophors D) they are used to disinfect dairy, restaurant, and medical equipment E) they are found in common household bleach

65)

Iodophors include ______.

A) chloramines B) betadine C) tincture of iodine D) alcohols E) chlorhexidine

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66) _____ is a halogen used in gaseous and liquid form for large scale disinfection of drinking water and sewage.

A) Iodine B) Chlorine C) Bromine D) Fluorine E) Betadine

67)

Which of the following is not true of chloramines?

A) They contain chlorine. B) They can sanitize and disinfect. C) They form trihalomethanes with organic compounds. D) They are safer than free chlorine. E) They are used to treat wounds and skin surfaces.

68)

All of the following are phenols or phenolics except ______.

A) Lysol B) hexachlorophene C) triclosan D) cresols E) Zephiran

69) The compound that is an organic base containing chlorine and two phenolic rings, and is used increasingly for wound degerming, neonatal washes, hand scrubbing, and prepping surgical skin sites is _______.

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A) carbolic acid B) chlorhexidine C) triclosan D) formalin E) a quaternary ammonium compound

70)

Which of the following germicides is/are also sporicidal?

A) Betadine B) Chlorine C) Phenolics D) Chlorhexidine E) All of the choices except phenolics.

71)

Alcohols _______.

A) denature proteins when in a 50-95% alcohol-water solution B) disinfect items when soaking method is utilized C) are skin degerming agents D) at 50% or higher concentrations dissolve cell membrane lipids E) All of the choices are correct.

72) The chemical agent/s that produce/s highly reactive hydroxyl-free radicals and also decomposes to O 2 gas is _______.

A) Cidex B) cationic detergents C) hydrogen peroxide D) chlorhexidine E) iodophors

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73)

Hydrogen peroxide is _______.

A) sporicidal B) fungicidal C) bactericidal D) virucidal E) All of the choices are correct.

74)

All of the following act as surfactants except ______.

A) detergents B) soaps C) quaternary ammonia D) alcohols E) iodine

75)

Which of the following is not a heavy metal?

A) Tincture of iodine B) Merthiolate C) Silver nitrate solution D) Zinc E) Mercurochrome

76) _____ solution was introduced in the late 19th century for preventing gonococcal infections in a newborn's eyes after exposure to the mother's infected birth canal.

A) Merthiolate B) Triclosan C) Betadine D) Silver nitrate E) Zinc oxide

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77)

Heavy metals work by _______.

A) rupturing the cell membrane B) inactivating proteins C) binding to DNA D) dissolving the cell wall E) mutating DNA

78)

Which of the following is not used as an antiseptic?

A) Iodophor B) Chlorhexidine C) 3% hydrogen peroxide D) Merthiolate E) Aqueous glutaraldehyde

79)

Which of the following is not true of glutaraldehyde?

A) It is classified as a carcinogen. B) It inactivates viruses. C) It does not damage plastics. D) It cross-links proteins on cell surfaces. E) It inactivates endospores in 3 hours.

80)

Endospores can be inactivated by _______. A) dry heat at 170°C for 2 hours B) incineration C) glutaraldehyde for 3 or more hours D) ethylene oxide for 3 or more hours E) All of the choices are correct.

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81)

Which is mismatched?

A) Sodium hypochlorite - chlorine B) Iodophor - iodine C) Benzalkonium chloride - quaternary ammonium compound D) Merthiolate - silver E) Formalin - formaldehyde

82)

All of the following are alkylating control agents except ______.

A) ethylene oxide B) iodophor C) glutaraldehyde D) formaldehyde E) propylene oxide

83)

The sterilizing gas used in chemiclaves is ______.

A) ethylene oxide B) iodophor C) glutaraldehyde D) formaldehyde E) chlorine dioxide

84)

Ethylene oxide is ______.

A) sporicidal B) only effective with high heat C) the active agent in household bleach D) used as an antiseptic against anaerobes E) a halogen

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85)

Which of the following acids is not used to destroy or inhibit microbial cells in food?

A) Acetic acid B) Benzoic acid C) Lactic acid D) Phosphoric acid E) Propionic acid

86) Using a HEPA filter in a vacuum or furnace is an example of which microbial control method?

A) B) C) D)

87)

Dry control Chemical agent Gases Surfactant

In lab, inoculating loops are sterilized using ______.

A) moist heat B) chemicals C) incineration D) filtration E) gas sterilization

88)

Antimicrobial agents can target the cell wall by _______.

A) B) C) D)

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blocking its synthesis digesting it denaturing proteins All of the choices are correct.

89) Which of the following represents the use of osmotic pressure as a microbial control method?

A) B) C) D)

Bleaching a kitchen counter Salting of meat Rinsing of a cut with Betadine Exposing dental equipment to UV light

90) You have inherited some old glass baby milk bottles from your grandmother, and you would like to use them instead of plastic bottles. The bottles are placed into a large metal container and placed in the ovenat 325oF for about 2 hours. What factor would you change if you wanted the sterilization to occur much quicker? A) B) C) D)

Use a pressure cooker to sterilize the bottleswithsteam Increase the temperature of the oven by 5 degrees Pour an antimicrobial chemical into the bottles before placing into the oven Place the bottles outside in the sunlight and then place in the oven

91) Your aim is to sterilize prosthetic devices like heart valves and artificial joint structures before being used in the patient. Considering where they will be placed and the probable composition of the devices, what would be the best chemical to use? A) B) C) D)

92)

Iodine Crystal violet dye Quaternary ammonium compounds Bleach

Which antimicrobial method does not sterilize? A) B) C) D)

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Autoclave Ethylene oxide gas Pasteurization Ionizing radiation

93) You have some old plastic Petri dishes that you would like to use for pouring bacteriological agar plates. The only method of physical sterilization is ultraviolet radiation sterilization with your UV light (you cannot use the autoclave because it will disfigure and melt the plastic).After sterilizing the plates, pouring the sterilized agar medium, and then leaving the plates out at room temperature for a day or two to let them solidify and dry, you find contaminating bacterial colonies growing on the agar. Predict what has happened in this situation.

A) B) C) D)

The agar had bacteria in it, even after sterilization in the autoclave. The lids of the Petri dishes were inadvertently left on while being sterilized. The room temperature enhanced the growth of normal biota of the agar. Air got into the poured agar plates, contaminating them.

94) Your friend Joe recently visited the doctor for steroid injections into his knee to reduce swelling due to a previous knee injury. Within a couple of days, he had an infection caused by Pseudomonas, a very pathogenic and drug resistant bacterium.Luckily, Joe went to the doctor immediately and received antibiotics. The doctor tells him that the same problem has occurred to many other people across the United States. Predict the most likely cause of this situation.

A) The staff giving the steroid injections did not use proper aseptic technique. B) The steroid was contaminated at the production plant, so multiple batches of that drug made at that plant were contaminated with that bacterium. C) The bacterium is normally on the skin of people, so can easily access the patient's blood during the needle stick. D) The needles were re-used and already contaminated before being used on the patients.

95) The difference between thermal death time and thermal death point in microbicidal activity is that _______.

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A) thermal death time is the shortest amount of time required to kill an organism at a specific temperature, whereas thermal death temperature is the lowest temperature required to kill an organism in 10 minutes B) thermal death time is the greatest amount of time required to kill an organism at a specific temperature, whereas thermal death temperature is the lowest temperature required to kill an organism in 10 minutes C) thermal death time is the shortest amount of time required to kill an organism at a o 100 C, whereas thermal death temperature is the lowest temperature required to kill an organism in 10 minutes D) thermal death time is the shortest amount of time required to kill an organism at a specific temperature, whereas thermal death temperature is the lowest temperature required to kill an organism in 30 minutes

96)

When considering time and temperature as factors in microbicidal activity, _______.

A) they are inversely proportional to each other B) they are directly proportional to each other C) they must be of equal value e.g. 30 minutes at 30 oC D) time is not a factor, only temperature

97) Which of the following is a disadvantage of dry heat methods such as using a Bunsen burner to incinerate microbes from an inoculating loop and the use of a hot air oven?

A) Use of an open flame can be dangerous and hot air ovens take much longer to sterilize than autoclaves. B) Neither of these methods actually sterilize; they only kill vegetative cells. C) Bunsen burners take too long to sterilize and hot air ovens are hazardous for the operators. D) Bunsen burners and hot air ovens only reach a maximum of 100 oC so they are not effective against endospores.

98) Which of the following is true regarding the use of osmotic pressure as an antimicrobial agent?

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A) Exposing a microbe to a hypertonic environment draws water out of the cell, causing plasmolysis. B) Salt is an effective solute to create an osmotic pressure gradient outside of a cell; however, the use of sugar, such as in jams and jellies, works via a different mechanism. C) Salts and sugars external to a microbe create a hypotonic environment, which causes lysis of the cell. D) Exposing organisms to the air on a benchtop so they completely dry out is an example of using osmotic pressure as a means of microbial control.

99)

Which of the following represents microbial control by osmotic pressure?

A) The crew of the Mayflower using salted meats throughout their voyage to the New World B) Placing fruit slices on a drying rack C) Pickling cucumbers and other vegetables for long-term storage D) Canning tomatoes after a summer growing season to use throughout the winter

100)

Which of the following is an advantage to using phenolics as antimicrobial agents?

A) B) C) D)

101)

The presence of organic matter does not limit its antimicrobial qualities. They have low toxicity. They are effective sterilants against all microbial forms. They are not susceptible to resistance by organisms.

Which of the following methods of microbial control is mismatched?

A) B) C) D)

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Heating a liquid to 71.6 oC for 15 seconds - pasteurization Exposure of surgical equipment to ultraviolet light - radiation Pickling eggs - osmotic pressure Autoclaving nutrient agar before pouring into Petri plates - sterilization

102) Cold temperatures are considered microbistatic, whereas excessive heat is considered microbicidal. This is due to the fact that _______.

A) in cold temperatures, the energy of activation is not sufficient to drive chemical reactions regardless of the presence of enzymes, whereas excessive heat denatures enzymes and/or incinerates the cell causing irreparable damage B) cold temperatures denature enzymes causing irreparable damage to the cell, whereas heat limits the energy of activation available to drive chemical reactions C) cold temperatures freeze and therefore kill the cell, whereas excess heat keeps the cell metabolically active but not dividing D) cold temperatures halt binary fission and is therefore considered a sterilant, whereas heat does not kill spores so it is not an effective method of control

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Answer Key Test name: Microbiology11 1) FALSE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) FALSE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) FALSE 12) TRUE 13) FALSE 14) TRUE 15) FALSE 16) TRUE 17) TRUE 18) FALSE 19) FALSE 20) D 21) B 22) A 23) C 24) D 25) D 26) B Version 1

27) E 28) A 29) C 30) A 31) C 32) E 33) B 34) E 35) D 36) A 37) E 38) A 39) D 40) D 41) A 42) A 43) B 44) A 45) A 46) B 47) B 48) D 49) D 50) B 51) C 52) C 53) C 54) A 55) B 56) E Version 1

57) E 58) A 59) B 60) A 61) A 62) D 63) E 64) C 65) B 66) B 67) C 68) E 69) B 70) E 71) E 72) C 73) E 74) E 75) A 76) D 77) B 78) E 79) A 80) E 81) D 82) B 83) A 84) A 85) D 86) A Version 1

87) C 88) D 89) B 90) A 91) C 92) C 93) B 94) B 95) A 96) A 97) A 98) A 99) A 100) A 101) C 102) A

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Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Antimicrobial drugs that inhibit folic acid synthesis work with no side effects because mammals must get folic acid from their diet. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Species of Bacillus produce bacitracin and the polymyxin drugs. ⊚ true ⊚ false

An antibiotic of the penicillin family is penicillin G. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The first modern antimicrobial drugs were sulfa drugs. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Ciprofloxacin is used to treat viral respiratory infections. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) Resistance genes can be transferred to other bacterial cells during transformation, transduction, and conjugation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Bacteria can have a natural resistance to a drug to which they havenever been exposed.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

8) When a patient's immune system reacts adversely to a drug, this serious side effect is called a superinfection. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Drugs that are hepatotoxic cause damage to a patient's kidneys. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) The MIC is the smallest concentration of an antimicrobial required to inhibit the growth of the microbe. ⊚ ⊚

true false

11) The Kirby-Bauer test uses an agar surface seeded with the test bacterium, and small discs containing a specific concentration of several drugs are placed on the surface. ⊚ ⊚

true false

12) An antimicrobial with a low therapeutic index is a safer choice compared to a drug with a high therapeutic index. ⊚ ⊚

true false

13) It is better to use a broad-spectrum drug instead of a more specific, narrow-spectrum drug.

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⊚ ⊚

14)

true false

Newer, more expensive antimicrobials are always better to use than cheaper, older drugs. ⊚ ⊚

true false

15) Indwelling catheter biofilm infections are more resistant to antibiotics than nonbiofilm infections. ⊚ ⊚

true false

16) The use of antibiotics in cattle feed leads to the development of antibiotic-resistant bacteria. ⊚ ⊚

true false

17) Drug toxicity occurs when an antimicrobial drug acts as antigen and stimulates an allergic response. ⊚ ⊚

18)

true false

Selective toxicity should be avoided when developing a new antimicrobial drug. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 19) Substances that are naturally produced by certain microorganisms that can inhibit or destroy bacteria are called ______.

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A) antibiotics B) narrow-spectrum drugs C) semisynthetic drugs D) synthetic drugs E) broad-spectrum drugs

20)

Antimicrobials effective against a wide variety of microbial types are termed ______.

A) antibiotics B) narrow-spectrum drugs C) semisynthetic drugs D) synthetic drugs E) broad-spectrum drugs

21)

Antibiotics are derived from all of the following, except ______.

A) Penicillium B) Bacillus C) Staphylococcus D) Streptomyces E) Cephalosporium

22)

Important characteristics of antimicrobial drugs include _______.

A) low toxicity for human tissues B) high toxicity against microbial cells C) a lack of serious side effects in humans D) stability and solubility in body tissues and fluids E) All of the choices are correct.

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23) An ideal antimicrobial therapeutic drug exhibits all of the following characteristics, except _______. A) they are nontoxic to host B) they are easily broken down by host C) they are easily administered D) they have limited capacity to elicit resistance E) they are nonallergenic

24)

The use of a drug to prevent imminent infection is called ______.

A) competitive inhibition B) synergism C) prebiotics D) prophylaxis E) lantibiotics

25) The use of any chemical in the treatment, relief, or prophylaxis of a disease is called ______.

A) prophylaxis B) chemotherapy C) selective toxicity D) nephrotoxicity E) synergism

26)

Penicillins and cephalosporins _______.

A) destroy peptidoglycan B) are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis C) attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis D) damage cell membranes E) block peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules

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27)

Selective toxicity refers to damage to _______.

A) pathogenic organisms B) prokaryotic cell membranes C) the target organisms but not vertebrate cells D) nucleic acids

28)

Each of the following affect cell walls, except ______. A) penicillin B) cycloserine C) vancomycin D) erythromycin E) cephalosporin

29)

Aminoglycosides ______.

30)

Each of the following target bacterial ribosomes, except ______.

A) streptomycin B) gentamycin C) polymyxins D) tetracycline E) erythromycin

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31)

Antibiotics that disrupt bacterial ribosomes can also affect _______.

A) B) C) D)

eukaryotic large ribosomal subunit eukaryotic small ribosomal subunit ribosomal RNA eukaryotic mitochondrial ribosomes

32) Drugs that insert on the ______ ribosomal subunit prevent peptide bond formation or inhibit translocation of the subunit during translation. A) 30S B) 40S C) 50S D) 60S E) 70S

33)

Which of the following antimicrobials does not inhibit DNA synthesis?

A) Chloroquine B) Quinolone C) Penicillin D) Azidothymidine E) Acyclovir

34)

Sulfonamides _______.

A) interfere with elongation of peptidoglycan B) are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis C) attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis D) damage cell membranes E) block peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules

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35)

Sulfa drugs work on _______.

A) B) C) D)

36)

nucleic acid biosynthesis ribosome biosynthesis peptidoglycan biosynthesis folic acid biosynthesis

Sulfonamides are analogs of PABA and, as a result, they inhibit _____ synthesis.

A) protein B) DNA C) RNA D) folic acid E) phospholipid

37) Drugs that act by mimicking the normal substrate of an enzyme, thereby blocking its active site, are called ______.

A) B) C) D)

38)

Ampicillin, amoxicillin, mezlocillin, and penicillin G all have ______.

A) B) C) D)

39)

inhibitors blockers competitive inhibitors noncompetitiveinhibitors

a beta-lactam ring resistance to the action of penicillinase a semisynthetic nature an expanded spectrum of activity

A chemical that inhibits beta-lactamase enzymes is ______.

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A) synercid B) penicillinase C) aztreonam D) clavulanic acid E) imipenem

40)

What molecule will allow some bacteria to be resistant to many penicillins?

A) Synercid B) Penicillinase C) Aztreonam D) Clavulanic acid E) Imipenem

41)

All of the following pertain to cephalosporins, except ______.

A) they have a beta-lactam ring B) they have greater resistance to beta-lactamases C) newer generations have activity against gram-negative bacteria D) many are administered by injection, not orally E) they are are synthetic drugs

42)

Which antimicrobial does not inhibit cell wall synthesis?

A) Gentamicin B) Vancomycin C) Cephalosporins D) Penicillins E) Carbapenems

43)

Which drug is used to treat cases of tuberculosis?

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A) Penicillin G B) Vancomycin C) Tetracycline D) Synercid E) Isoniazid

44) What drug is used in cases of penicillin and methicillin resistance and also used to treat endocarditis?

A) Penicillin G B) Vancomycin C) Tetracycline D) Erythromycin E) Isoniazid

45)

Clavulanic acid inhibits _______.

A) B) C) D)

46)

beta-lactamase activity peptidoglycan synthesis formation of peptidoglycan cross linkages cell membrane synthesis

All _____ consist of a thiazolidine ring, a beta-lactam ring, and an R group.

A) penicillins B) tetracyclines C) macrolides D) cephalosporins E) aminoglycosides

47)

A major source of naturally produced penicillin is the mold ______.

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A) B) C) D)

Penicillium notatum Penicillium chrysogenum Penicillium familiaris Naturally produced penicillin is no longer used.

48) What antibiotic is mixed with neomycin and polymyxin to make an antibiotic ointment (Neosporin) for superficial skin infections?

A) Vancomycin B) Bacitracin C) Chloramphenicol D) Streptomycin E) Clindamycin

49)

Infections caused by gram-negative bacilli are often treated with ______. A) penicillin G B) vancomycin C) aminoglycosides D) synercid E) isoniazid

50)

Which antimicrobial does not interfere with protein synthesis?

A) Aminoglycosides B) Tetracyclines C) Erythromycin D) Trimethroprim E) Chloramphenicol

51)

Which of these drugs has the most narrow-spectrum activity?

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A) Tetracycline B) Isoniazid C) Erythromycin D) Aminoglycosides E) Cephalosporins

52)

Antimicrobials that are macrolides _______.

A) disrupt cell membrane function B) include tetracyclines C) include azithromycin, clarithromcyin, and erythromycin D) are very narrow-spectrum drugs E) are hepatotoxic

53) The drug that is used to treat typhoid fever and brain abscesses, but can cause aplastic anemia, is _______. A) chloramphenicol B) clindamycin C) ciprofloxacin D) bacitracin E) gentamicin

54)

Which of the following is not an aminoglycoside?

A) Streptomycin B) Gentamicin C) Tetracycline D) Amikacin E) Tobramycin

55)

Which of the following antibacterial drug groups does not target protein synthesis?

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A) Oxazolidinones B) Macrolides C) Aminoglycosides D) Sulfonamides E) Tetracyclines

56)

Which antibiotic is used to treat MRSA and VRE infections?

A) Synercid B) Clindamycin C) Linezolid D) Azithromycin E) Clarithromycin

57)

Which group are the key drugs used to treat Hansen's disease (leprosy)?

A) Sulfonamides B) Sulfones C) Fluoroquinolones D) Polymyxins E) Streptomyces

58)

All of the following pertain to fluoroquinolones, except _______.

A) they are broad spectrum B) they include ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin C) they are nephrotoxic D) they are used to treat respiratory, urinary, and sexually transmitted infections E) they are readily absorbed from intestines

59)

Which of the following is not true of polymyxins?

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A) The source is Bacillus polymyxa. B) They are narrow spectrum. C) They are toxic to kidneys. D) They target cell walls. E) They can be used to treat severe urinary tract infections caused by gram-negative bacilli.

60) The antifungal drug that can be used to treat serious systemic fungal infections is _______.

A) nystatin B) griseofulvin C) amphotericin B D) sulfa drugs E) metronidazole

61) Ketoconazole, fluconazole, clotrimazole, and miconazole are broad-spectrum azoles used to treat _______ infections.

A) bacterial B) fungal C) protozoan D) helminthic E) viral

62)

Which of the following is not a drug group used to treat fungal infections?

A) Quinolones B) Macrolide polyene antibiotics C) Griseofulvin D) Synthetic azoles E) Flucytosine

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63)

The drug used for several protozoan infections is ______.

A) nystatin B) griseofulvin C) amphotericin B D) sulfa drugs E) metronidazole

64)

Mebendazole, thiabendazole, and ivermectin are drugs used to treat _______ infections.

A) bacterial B) fungal C) protozoan D) helminthic E) viral

65) There are fewer antifungal, antiprotozoan, and antihelminthic drugs compared to antibacterial drugs because fungi, protozoa, and helminths _______. A) do not cause many human infections B) are not affected by antimicrobials C) are so similar to human cells that drug selective toxicity is difficult to achieve D) are parasites found inside human cells E) have fewer target sites in their cellscompared to bacteria

66)

Primaquine and chloroquine are drugs used in the treatment of ______ infections.

A) gram-positive bacterial B) gram-negative bacterial C) fungal D) protozoan E) viral

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67)

Which of the following is not used to treat malaria?

A) Quinine B) Chloroquine C) Metronidazole D) Primaquine E) Meflaquine

68)

Which of the following is not a mode of action of antiviral drugs?

A) Block penetration B) Block transcription and translation C) Inhibit DNA synthesis D) Block maturation E) Bond to ergosterol in the cell membrane

69) An antiviral that is a guanine analog would have an antiviral mode of action that _______.

A) blocks penetration B) blocks transcription and translation C) inhibits DNA synthesis D) blocks maturation E) bonds to ergosterol in the cell membrane

70) Antiviral drugs that target reverse transcriptase would be used to treat infections caused by ______.

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A) influenza A virus B) HIV C) herpes zoster virus D) respiratory syncytial virus E) hepatitis C virus

71)

Acyclovir is used to treat infections caused by ______. A) influenza A virus B) HIV C) herpes simplex virus D) respiratory syncytial virus E) hepatitis C virus

72)

Which of the following blocks HIV binding to host cell receptors?

A) AZT B) Acyclovir C) Nevirapine D) Fuzeon E) Amantidine

73)

Which of the following is not a therapeutic benefit of interferon?

A) Reduces healing time B) Increases white blood cell count C) Prevents or reduces some cold symptoms D) Slows progress of some cancers E) Treats hepatitis C

74)

The cellular basis for bacterial resistance to antimicrobials include _______.

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A) bacterial chromosomal mutations B) synthesis of enzymes that alter drug structure C) prevention of drug entry into the cell D) alteration of drug receptors on cell targets E) All of the choices are correct.

75)

The multidrug resistant pumps in many bacterial cell membranes function by _______.

A) bacterial chromosomal mutations B) synthesis of enzymes that alter drug structure C) removing the drug from the cell when it enters

76)

Microbial resistance resulting from mutation occurs because ______.

A) bacterial genomes undergo mutation rapidly B) bacterial genomes undergo mutation often C) short generation times accumulate mutations in populations D) mutations are passed between organisms E) All of the choices are correct.

77)

Each of the following results in drug resistance, except _______.

A) a drug being pumped out of the cell B) a drug being used as a nutrient by the cell C) a drug binding site being altered D) a drug being inactivated E) a drug being blocked from entering the cell

78) Each of the following is a mechanism for drug resistance transfer between microorganisms, except _______.

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A) B) C) D)

79)

transposons R-plasmids conjugation mutation

Each of the following contributes to emerging drug resistance except _______.

A) overuse of antibiotics B) improper use of antibiotics C) multiple drug therapy D) ingestion of antibiotics with animal feed E) addition of antibiotics to common household products

80) Nutrients that encourage the growth of beneficial microbes in the intestines are known as _______.

A) prebiotics B) probiotics C) lantibiotics D) phytobiotics E) riboswitches

81) The use of vaginal inserts of Lactobacillus to restore a healthy acidic environment is an example of ________.

A) prebiotics B) probiotics C) lantibiotics D) phytobiotics E) riboswitches

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82)

Broad-spectrum drugs that disrupt the body's normal biota often cause _______. A) B) C) D)

nephrotoxicity superinfections allergic reactions drug toxicity

83) The drug used against intestinal anaerobic bacteria, that can also alter normal biota leading to antibiotic-associated colitis, is ______. A) chloramphenicol B) clindamycin C) ciprofloxacin D) bacitracin E) gentamicin

84) Side effects that occur in patient tissues while they are on antimicrobial drugs include all of the following, except _______.

A) development of resistance to the drug B) hepatotoxicity C) nephrotoxicity D) diarrhea E) deafness

85)

A superinfection results from _______.

A) build up of a drug to toxic levels in the patient B) the wrong drug administered to the patient C) an immune system reaction to the drug D) a decrease in most normal biota resulting in the overgrowth of an unaffected species

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86) The _____ are drugs that deposit in developing teeth and cause a permanent brown discoloration.

A) streptomycins B) cephalosporins C) macrolides D) tetracyclines E) penicillins

87)

Drug susceptibility testing determines _______.

A) the patient's response to various antimicrobials B) the pathogen's response to various antimicrobials C) if normal biota will be affected by antimicrobials D) if the drug is increasing to toxic levels in a patient

88) A clinical microbiologist makes serial dilutions of several antimicrobials in broth, and then incubates each drug dilution series with a standard amount of a patient's isolated pathogen. What is this microbiologist setting up?

A) A Kirby-Bauer technique B) A antibiogram C) An E-test D) A minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) test E) A therapeutic index (TI)

89) A ratio of the dose of the drug that is toxic to humans versus the minimum effective dose for that pathogen is assessed to predict the potential for toxic drug reactions. This is called the ______.

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A) Kirby-Bauer technique B) antibiogram C) E-test D) minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) E) therapeutic index (TI)

90) If pathogen A is more resistant to an erythromycin disc on a Kirby-Bauer plate compared to pathogen B, then pathogen A will have a/an _____ zone of inhibition compared to pathogen B.

A) smaller B) equal C) larger

91) A drug exhibiting which therapeutic index value would be the safest, most effective to use on a patient? A) 20 B) 10 C) 1 D) 0.1 E) Any choice would be equally effective.

92)

Who is considered to be the father of modern antibiotics?

A) Fleming B) Chargaff C) Watson D) Crick E) Domagk

93)

Which two antibiotics affect nucleic acids of bacteria?

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A) Tetracycline and amphotericin B B) Trimethoprim and sulfonamides C) Rifampin and quinolones D) Tetracycline and bacitracin E) Penicillin and vancomycin

94) A patient has a staphylococcal infection of the blood; a septicemia - very serious and possibly deadly. As the doctor, you would like to prescribe a relatively non-toxic and inexpensive drug out of the cephalosporin family. However, if the patient harbors a strain of Staphylococcus that is resistant to a variety of antibiotics, you would prefer to use vancomycin-which is highly effective against Staphylococcus. Which of the following explains why the cephalosporin drug is preferred for use over the vancomycin? A) You would rather give an inexpensive drug to save the family money. B) You really do not know that much about vancomycin, so you would rather go with a drug that you can find out more about. C) Vancomycin is very toxic, and the Staphylococcus strain could become resistant leaving no back-up drugs with which to treat the infection. D) Vancomycin is one of the most selectively toxic drugs there is, so you would prefer one that has a more broad-spectrum effect.

95) You have given a dosage of an antibiotic to a patient for his infection, but the patient is not getting any better. The MIC tests shows that the drug that you prescribed, at the dosage that was given, should work against this particular strain of bacterium. What do you think might be the problem? A) The drug might be broken down in the patient's body before it can have its full effect on the bacterium. B) The patient is resistant to the drug. C) The bacterium is immune to the chemical effects of the drug. D) The drug was improperly made at the pharmaceutical company, so is no longer effective.

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96) Alexander Fleming had been running tests using Staphylococcus, and he left some plates out to incubate. Evidently, after returning to his lab after the weekend, he found that Penicillium mold was growing on his agar plates containing the growth of Staphylococcus. Looking more closely, he found a large, clear area around the mold colony where Staphylococcus colonies did not grow. Given this situation, a valid hypothesis would be that ________. A) the Staphylococcus was being inhibited by the Penicillium mold B) the Penicillium mold was being killed by the Staphylococcus C) the bacteriological medium being used in the plates was somehow inhibitory to the Staphylococcus growth D) the room temperature incubation was inhibitory to the growth of Staphylococcus

97) Your patient has been on antibiotics for 6 weeks after a case of streptococcal endocarditis, an infection of the inner heart wall. The infection clears up. However, the patient just visited you about a urinary tract infection, and the lab verified that the culprit was E. coli.What do you hypothesize happened in this situation?

A) The lab has made a mistake in identifying the cause, and, in fact, the UTI was caused by the original Streptococcus. B) The lab has made a mistake in identifying the cause, and, in fact, the endocarditis was caused by the E. coli. C) Her normal microbiota in the genitourinary tract were killed, allowing E. coli (not killed by the antibiotics) to establish an infection. D) The antibiotics damaged her immune system, making her very susceptible to environmental bacteria.

98) Three classmates from microbiology class are talking about drug resistance. They each disagree about the definition of the term so they state his or her definition and give a justification.Compare the various definitions and justifications below and pick the one that is most accurate.

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A) The bacterium becomes immune to the drug;the drug no longer kills or inhibits the bacterium. B) The person becomes resistant to the drug; the body adjusts to the dosage of the chemical and no longer responds to its action. C) The drug is changed in the body and is inactivated physically and chemically so it no longer works properly against the bacterium. D) The bacterium has changed physically or chemically in some way to be able to destroy the drug or avoid its action, allowing it to grow unimpeded by the drug.

99) Over 50 percent of all sales of medically important antibiotics in the United States are for livestock use. Why is this problematic for humans? A) The livestock will become resistant to the antibiotics and not respond to treatment when they have infections. B) Resistant bacteria grow in the animals and may then be passed to humans. C) The use of antibiotics for livestock means that there are not enough for use in the human population. D) The animals may become sick from the antibiotic ingestion.

100)

The production of antibiotics by microbes evolved so that _______.

A) the growth of other organisms sharing their habitat was inhibited, thus giving them a selective advantage B) diseases could be cured C) bacteria and viruses could be eliminated D) certain environments can be protected from pathogenic bacteria

101)

A high therapeutic index is advantageous. This refers to _______.

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A) the ratio between high selective toxicity and low human toxicity B) the ratio between low selective toxicity and high human toxicity C) selective toxicity and human toxicity are both high D) high efficacy of the drug against the target microbe

102)

Selective toxicity exhibited by a drug means that _______.

A) the drug is effective against the target organism, but not the human host B) the drug is toxic to the human host but ineffective against the organism C) the drug kills some organisms but not others D) the drug is effective against gram-positive bacteria but not gram-negative

103)

Beta-lactams are selectively toxic because _______.

A) they inhibit the formation of peptidoglycan, which humans do not make B) they initiate allergic reactions in many humans C) they often initiate the evolution of drug-resistant organisms D) they cause hepato- and nephrotoxicity in humans

104)

The most selectively toxic drugs are those that _______.

A) cause damage to host tissues B) target microbial sites that are not present in humans, e.g., the bacterial cell wall C) target structures present in both microbes and humans, thus causing host tissue damage D) cause allergic reactions in humans

105) Organisms have a tendency to develop resistance to beta-lactams, and humans can develop allergic reactions to them. A drug that also targets the cell wall and can be used as an alternative is _______.

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A) vancomycin B) streptomycin C) chloramphenicol D) tetracycline E) fluoroquinolone

106)

Drugs that target the plasma membrane are able to do so because _______.

A) they contain a lipid part that enables them to act as a detergent B) they act as enzymes to break down the phospholipids C) they are able to denature the membrane-associated proteins, creating pores thereby disrupting the integrity D) they target the phosphate group on the phospholipids, breaking down the bilayer

107)

Which of the following phrases reflects an effective treatment of biofilms?

A) B) C) D)

Add DNase to the antibiotics to disrupt extracellular debris Interrupt quorum-sensing pathways, preventing signaling between cells Pre-treat with newly-discovered antimicrobials before exposure to established drugs All of the choices are correct.

108) Bacteriophages selectively infect bacterial cells. How might they be used as a therapeutic treatment in humans?

A) Humans suffering from infections with antibiotic resistant bacteria can be treated with phages, which will infect and lyse the bacterial cells, leaving human cells unaffected. B) Phages can carry genes into cells which will genetically modify the host cells to prevent infection. C) Bacteriophages can be used to genetically engineer bacterial cells making them more susceptible to drugs. D) Phages can be used to stimulate human immune cells to attack and kill bacterial cells.

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Answer Key Test name: Microbiology12 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) FALSE 10) TRUE 11) TRUE 12) FALSE 13) FALSE 14) FALSE 15) TRUE 16) TRUE 17) FALSE 18) FALSE 19) A 20) E 21) C 22) E 23) B 24) D 25) B 26) E Version 1

27) C 28) D 29) C 30) C 31) D 32) C 33) C 34) B 35) D 36) D 37) C 38) A 39) D 40) B 41) E 42) A 43) E 44) B 45) A 46) A 47) B 48) B 49) C 50) D 51) B 52) C 53) A 54) C 55) D 56) C Version 1

57) B 58) C 59) D 60) C 61) B 62) A 63) E 64) D 65) C 66) D 67) C 68) E 69) C 70) B 71) C 72) D 73) B 74) E 75) C 76) E 77) B 78) D 79) C 80) A 81) B 82) B 83) B 84) A 85) D 86) D Version 1

87) B 88) D 89) E 90) A 91) A 92) A 93) C 94) C 95) A 96) A 97) C 98) D 99) B 100) A 101) A 102) A 103) A 104) B 105) A 106) A 107) D 108) A

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Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) A pathologic state begins with contact with a microbe. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Under certain circumstances, a person's resident biota can act as opportunistic pathogens. ⊚ true ⊚ false

3) The skin's resident biota are localized to only the outermost superficial layer of the epidermis. ⊚ true ⊚ false

4) The virulence factors of a pathogen are determined by how strong or weak a patient's body defenses are at the time of infection. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention assigns the most virulent microbes known to cause human disease to biosafety level 4. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) A fetus can get an infection when a pathogen in the mother's blood is capable of crossing the placenta to the fetal circulation and tissues. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

7) When an infected person is in the incubation period, that person cannot transmit the pathogen to others. ⊚ ⊚

Septicemia means that a pathogen is present and multiplying in the blood. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Fomites, food, and air serve as indirect transmission routes of pathogens. ⊚ ⊚

11)

true false

Latency is a dormant state of an infectious agent. ⊚ ⊚

10)

true false

Koch's postulates are easily satisfied for viral diseases. ⊚ ⊚

true false

12) The terms pathogenicity and virulence can be used synonymouslybecause they both refer to an organism's ability to cause disease. ⊚ ⊚

true false

13) Virulence refers to the degree of pathogenicity manifested by a microbe, not simply whether or not it causes disease.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

14) For a successful emergence or re-emergence to occur, a pathogen must be introduced into a vulnerable population and have the ability to spread readily from person-to-person causing disease. ⊚ ⊚

true false

15) An epigenetic change is one that occurs when a microbial cell produces a toxin or an exoenzyme that directly damages host cells. ⊚ ⊚

true false

16) The infectious dose of Giardia is about 10 cells. This means that if less than 10 cells are ingested when taking a drink of cold mountain water, it is likely that no infection will result. ⊚ ⊚

true false

CHECK ALL THAT APPLY. Choose all options that best completes the statement or answers the question. 17) Which of the following diseases are notifiable in the United States?

A) Measles B) Viral-caused diarrhea C) Tuberculosis D) Rabies E) HIV F) Otitis media

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MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 18) The term infection refers to _______.

A) B) C) D)

19)

microorganisms colonizing the body contact with microorganisms contact with pathogens pathogens penetrating host defenses

Which of the following is not correct terminology used for resident biota?

A) Pathogenic biota B) Normal biota C) Indigenous biota D) Normal microbiota E) Commensals

20)

Endogenous infectious agents arise from microbes that are ______.

A) in food B) the patient's own normal biota C) on fomites D) in the air E) transmitted from one person to another

21) Based on new information from the Human Microbiome Project, the human body typically begins to be colonized by its normal biota _______. A) before birth, in utero B) during and immediately after birth C) when a child first goes to school D) when an infant gets its first infectious disease E) during puberty

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22)

Resident biota are found in/on the ______.

A) skin B) mouth C) nasal passages D) large intestine E) All of the choices are correct.

23)

Normal biota includes each of the following except ______.

A) bacteria B) fungi C) protozoans D) viruses E) All of the choicesare correct.

24)

Each of the following is inoculation of normal biota to a newborn except _______.

A) the birth process through the birth canal B) bottle feeding C) breastfeeding D) contact with hospital staff E) All of the choices are correct.

25) The effect of beneficial microbes of normal biota against invading microbes is called ______. A) microbial antagonism B) endogenous infection C) infectious disease D) axenic E) gnotobiotism

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26)

All of the following genera are considered resident biota of skin sites except ______.

A) Escherichia B) Staphylococcus C) Corynebacterium D) Micrococcus E) Candida

27)

Resident biota of the gastrointestinal tract include ______.

A) Streptococcus B) Bacteroides C) Lactobacillus D) Haemophilus E) All of the choicesare correct.

28) Which genus is resident biota of the mouth, large intestine, and within the vagina from puberty to menopause? A) Lactobacillus B) Treponema C) Haemophilus D) Escherichia E) Clostridium

29)

Opportunistic pathogens _______.

A) B) C) D)

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cause disease in every individual cause disease in compromised individuals are always pathogens have well-developed virulence factors

30)

Pathogenic microbes that cause disease in healthy people are called ______.

A) opportunistic pathogens B) normal biota C) indigenous biota D) true pathogens E) micropathogens

31)

Which of the following is not a factor that weakens host defenses against infections?

A) Genetic defects in immunity B) Physical and mental stress C) Strong, healthy body D) Chemotherapy E) Old age

32)

Which genus is the most common resident biota of mouth surfaces?

A) Lactobacillus B) Streptococcus C) Haemophilus D) Escherichia E) Mycobacterium

33)

TORCH is an acronym that represents the most common ______.

A) genera of resident biota B) sexually transmitted infections C) portals of entry D) vectors E) infections of the fetus and neonate

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34)

The greatest number of pathogens enter the body through the ______.

A) respiratory system B) gastrointestinal system C) urinary system D) genital system E) skin

35)

An infectious agent that originates from outside the body is called ______.

A) exogenous B) an exotoxin C) an enterotoxin D) endogenous E) axenic

36)

An infectious agent already existing on or in the body is called ______.

A) exogenous B) an exotoxin C) an enterotoxin D) endogenous E) axenic

37) The minimum number of microbes required for infection to proceed is termed a/an ______. A) virulence factor B) indigenous biota C) infectious dose D) endotoxin E) minimal dose

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38)

Which of the following is not astructure used forbacterial adhesion? A) Fimbriae B) Surface proteins C) Specialized receptors D) Adhesive slime or capsules E) Cilia

39) Once a microbe has entered a host, what process performed by certain white blood cells will attempt to destroy the microbes?

A) Phagocytosis B) Adhesion C) Encapsulation D) Margination E) Exocytosis

40)

Which of the following is not an antiphagocytic factor?

A) Secretion of slime B) Production of leukocidins C) Adhering to the host D) Secretion of a capsule E) Ability to survive intracellularly

41)

Virulence factors include all of the following except ______.

A) capsules B) ribosome C) exoenzymes D) endotoxin E) exotoxin

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42)

Microbial hyaluronidase, coagulase, and streptokinase are examples of _______.

A) adhesive factors B) exotoxins C) hemolysins D) antiphagocytic factors E) exoenzymes

43)

Exotoxins are _______.

A) proteins secreted by living bacterial cells B) only released after a cell is damaged or lysed C) antiphagocytic factors D) secretions that always target nervous tissue E) lipopolysaccharides

44)

Enterotoxins are ______.

A) virulence factors B) toxins that target the intestines C) proteins D) exotoxins E) All of thechoices are correct.

45)

Which term-definition pair is mismatched? A) Fimbriae - adherence to substrate B) Capsule - antiphagocytic factor C) Coagulase - dissolves fibrin clots D) Leukocidins - damage white blood cells E) Hemolysins - damage red blood cells

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46)

Keratinase has the greatest effect on the ______.

A) respiratory system B) gastrointestinal system C) urinary system D) genital system E) skin

47)

Mucinase has the greatest effect on the ______.

A) respiratory system B) gastrointestinal system C) urinary system D) genital system E) skin

48)

Exotoxins______.

A) are secreted by pathogenic organisms B) are bound to the membrane of pathogenic organisms C) are bound to the cell wall of pathogenic organisms D) cause more damage than endotoxins E) are host specific

49)

An endotoxin is ______.

A) secreted by pathogenic organisms B) indicative of gram-negative bacterial infection C) secreted by gram-positive organisms D) indicative of fungal infections E) indicative of viral infections

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50)

Lipopolysaccharide of the outer membrane of gram-negative cell walls is called ______. A) exotoxin B) endotoxin C) enterotoxin D) leukocidin E) hemolysin

51)

Various bacterial enzymes that dissolve fibrin clots are ______.

A) coagulases B) mucinases C) keratinases D) kinases E) hyaluronidases

52)

Which of the following is the endotoxin?

A) Hemolysin B) Hyaluronidase C) Streptokinase D) Collagenase E) Lipopolysaccharide

53)

Hyaluronidase is a virulence factor in ______.

A) amoebic dysentery B) ringworm C) clostridia D) cold virus E) diphtheria

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54)

The suffix –itis means ______.

A) blood B) a disease or morbid process C) an inflammation D) tumor E) pertaining to

55)

The suffix –osis means ______.

A) blood B) a disease or morbid process C) an inflammation D) tumor E) pertaining to

56)

The suffix –emia means ______.

A) blood B) a disease or morbid process C) an inflammation D) tumor E) pertaining to

57) The stage of an infectious disease when specific signs and symptoms are seen and the pathogen is at peak activity is the ______.

A) B) C) D)

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prodromal stage convalescent stage incubation period period of invasion

58) The time from when pathogen first enters the body and begins to multiply, until symptoms first appear is the ______.

A) B) C) D)

prodromal stage convalescent stage incubation period period of invasion

59) The initial, brief period of early, general symptoms such as fatigue and muscle aches is the ______.

A) B) C) D)

60)

prodromal stage convalescent stage incubation period period of invasion

Which of the following is a mismatched term and description? A) Secondary infection - infection spreads to several tissue sites B) Mixed infection - several agents established at infection site C) Acute infection - rapid onset of severe, short-lived symptoms D) Local infection - pathogen remains at or near entry site E) Toxemia - pathogen's toxins carried by the blood to target tissues

61)

The subjective evidence of disease sensed by the patient is termed a/an ______.

A) syndrome B) symptom C) sign D) pathology E) inflammation

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62) The objective, measurable evidence of disease evaluated by an observer is termed a/an ______.

A) syndrome B) symptom C) sign D) pathology E) inflammation

63) Local edema, swollen lymph nodes, fever, soreness, and abscesses are indications of ______.

A) toxemia B) inflammation C) sequelae D) a syndrome E) latency

64)

A symptom is _______.

A) B) C) D)

65)

an objective indication of disease a subjective indication of disease measurable by health care personnel a temperature

A sign is _______.

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A) an objective indication of disease B) a subjective indication of disease C) measurable by health care personnel D) malaise and body aches E) an objective indication of disease that is measurable by health care personnel

66)

Leukopenia is the _____ in the level of white blood cells in a patient.

A) B) C) D)

67)

The term _______ refers to the presence of small numbers of bacteria in the blood. A) B) C) D)

68)

elevation stabilization decrease abnormalproduction

bacteremia septicemia viremia toxemia

Infections that go unnoticed because there are no symptoms are called ________.

A) syndromes B) malaise C) inflammation D) asymptomatic E) secondary infections

69)

Which of the following is not a normal portal of exit of an infectious disease?

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A) Removal of blood B) Urogenital tract and feces C) Coughing and sneezing D) Skin E) All of these choices are normal exit portals.

70)

Which of the following is an example of sequelae?

A) B) C) D)

71)

Headache from meningitis Difficulty swallowing from streptococcal infection Arthritis from Lyme disease Diarrhea from Salmonella enteritidis infection

Some diseases can cause long-term or permanent damage in the patient termed ______. A) edema B) sequelae C) granulomas D) abscesses E) swollen lymph nodes

72) The primary, natural habitat of a pathogen where it continues to exist is called the ______.

A) fomite B) carrier C) vector D) reservoir E) source

73)

Someone who inconspicuously harbors a pathogen and spreads it to others is a _______.

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A) fomite B) carrier C) vector D) reservoir E) source

74) An animal, such as an arthropod, that transmits a pathogen from one host to another is a ________.

A) fomite B) carrier C) vector D) reservoir E) source

75) An intermediary inanimate object from which an infectious agent is acquired is termed a _______.

A) B) C) D)

76)

fomite carrier vector reservoir

Reservoirs include ______.

A) humans B) animals C) soil D) water E) All of the choicesare correct.

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77) Animals that participate in the life cycles of pathogens and transmit pathogens from host to host are ______.

A) fomites B) aerosols C) mechanical vectors D) droplet nuclei E) biological vectors

78)

An infection spread between animals and humans is a ______. A) B) C) D)

secondary infection sequela healthcare-associated infection zoonosis

79) Carriers that shed and transmitpathogens while they are recovering from an infectious disease are called ______ carriers. A) asymptomatic B) passive C) incubation D) chronic E) convalescent

80) Carriers that shed and transmitpathogens a long time after they have recovered from an infectious disease are called ______ carriers. A) asymptomatic B) passive C) incubation D) chronic E) convalescent

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81)

All communicable diseases ______. A) are contagious B) only occur in animals C) are caused by microorganisms or their products D) are caused by vectors E) involve viruses as the pathogen

82)

An inanimate object that harbors and transmits a pathogen is a ______.

A) fomite B) carrier C) vector D) reservoir E) source

83) A laboratory technologist splashed a blood specimen onto his face, eyes, nose, and mouth. This specimen was from an HIV positive patient. If this blood exposure leads to HIV infection in the technologist, the transmission route is _______.

A) direct B) fomite C) vehicle D) droplet nuclei E) aerosol

84) The dried residues of fine droplets from mucus or saliva that harbor and transmit pathogen are ________.

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A) fomites B) aerosols C) mechanical vectors D) droplet nuclei E) biological vectors

85)

Which of the following is a direct contact method of microbe transmission?

A) Fomites B) Water C) Droplet nuclei D) Aerosols E) Droplets

86)

Which of the following is transmission of disease from mother to fetus?

A) Vertical B) Direct C) Vector D) Droplets E) Fomites

87)

Which of the following is not true regarding healthcare-associated infections? A) These infections are only transmitted by medical personnel. B) These infections often involve the patient's urinary tract and surgical incisions. C) The patient's resident biota can be the infectious agent. D) Escherichia coli and staphylococci are common infectious agents. E) Medical and surgical asepsis help lower their occurrence.

88) Which of the following does not illustrate the use of universal precaution methods in the handling of patients and body substances? Version 1

A) Mask and gloves B) Proper disposal of needles C) Healthcare worker with active, open lesions handling patients D) Hand washing E) Sterilizing or disinfection of dental hand pieces

89)

When would Koch's postulates be utilized?

A) To determine the cause of a patient's illness in a hospital microbiology lab B) To develop a new antibiotic in a pharmaceutical lab C) To determine the cause of a new disease in a microbiology research lab D) To formulate a vaccine against a new pathogen in a genetic engineering lab E) Whenever the scientific method cannot be used to investigate a microbiological problem

90) The study of the frequency and distribution of a disease in a defined population is ______.

A) pathology B) clinical microbiology C) medicine D) immunology E) epidemiology

91) The principal government agency responsible for tracking infectious diseases in the United States is the _______.

A) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention B) World Health Organization C) National Institutes of Health D) United States Department of Agriculture E) Infection Control Committee

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92) The number of new cases of a disease in a population over a specific period of time compared with the healthy population is the ______.

A) mortality rate B) morbidity rate C) incidence rate D) prevalence rate E) epidemic rate

93) A disease that has a steady frequency over time in a particular geographic location is referred to as ______. A) epidemic B) endemic C) pandemic D) sporadic E) chronic

94)

The total number of deaths in a population due to a disease is the ______ rate.

A) morbidity B) mortality C) incidence D) endemic E) pandemic

95)

The number of persons afflicted with an infectious disease is the _____ rate.

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A) morbidity B) mortality C) incidence D) endemic E) pandemic

96)

What is one goal of the Human Microbiome Project?

A) To sequence the DNA of all microorganisms B) To study the prevalence of disease C) To study microorganisms in an artificial habitat D) To provide comprehensive characterization of microbiota relating to human health and disease E) To elucidate genetically linked diseases

97) Bacterial toxins are chemical products made by bacteria. A person ingests some honey containing Clostridium botulinum. The C. botulinum is actively growing and releases toxin in the honey. The person becomes ill from ingesting the toxin. This is an example of a/an ______.

A) intoxication B) toxemia C) hemolysin D) pandemic E) infection

98)

Which is not true about the Human Microbiome Project?

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A) The HMP can only identify bacteria, not viruses. B) The importance of the project is in analyzing the normal biota and correlating with human health and disease. C) The HMP is looking for pathogens as well as nonpathogens in and on the human body. D) Molecular biological lab techniques will be used for identification rather than standard biochemical lab techniques.

99) Treponema pallidum is the bacterium that causes syphilis. The gram-negative spirochete has never been cultured on bacteriological media. Select the statement that most accurately describes this disease-causing microbe. A) There is no way to perform an epidemiological study on this disease. B) Koch's postulates cannot be fulfilled for this disease. C) Because the bacterium cannot be grown, there is no way to characterize the organism as to staining features, biochemical test reactions, molecular testing, etc. D) There is no satisfactory way to identify the disease without being able to grow it.

100) Your patient has a rash, a fever, and a very high white blood cell count. Blood specimens are taken, put into culture bottles, and sent down to the microbiology lab for incubation and analysis. Select the statement that best reflects why microbial analysis of blood is an important step in patient diagnosis. A) Microbial growth in blood samples may indicate sepsis. B) A few bacterial cells in a blood sample are no big deal and should be ignored. C) Blood specimens are often obtained through poor aseptic technique by the healthcare worker: this is documentation of their failure to employ proper universal precautions. D) A lack of microbes in the blood means that the patient's health is critical.

101) If you were a bacterial cell, which of the following would be the most beneficial for you to have or be able to make for the survival of your species?

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A) B) C) D)

Endospore Cilia Pilus Exotoxin

102) You are studying a newly identified infectious disease within a population. Think of the typical graph of the course of infection--incubation period through to convalescent period. The new disease reveals a course of infection characterized by fluctuating symptoms, with intermittent periods of invasion (acute period) between prodromal periods. The whole course of infection occurs over a period of months or even years. Based upon the information presented, select the statement that most accurately reflects this new infectious disease. A) This infectious disease exhibits latency. B) This is not an infectious disease at all. C) The host has immune problems and this is the typical course of a disease for that population. D) Viral infections always present with this type of disease course.

103) In the movie "Contagion", one person who has become infected with a recombinant pathogenic virus spreads it to a large number of people with whom she comes into contact. Those people then spread it to others, and, before you know it, the disease has spread all over the world. This is an example of a/an _______ epidemic.

A) B) C) D)

point-source common-source propagated endemic

104) Assume that there are 335,104 new cases of gonorrhea reported among the U.S. population. When calculated, this would be 115.2 per 100,000 or approximately 1 reported case per 1,000 population. The value represents ______.

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A) B) C) D)

prevalence rate incidence rate morbidity rate mortality rate

105) The prevalence rate of tuberculosis in one particular county in Texas is 7/1000 people, while the incidence rate for 2011 is 2/1000 people. Analyze this data and summarize the situation. A) The data were collected incorrectly because the two values should match. B) Incidence rate should really be higher than prevalence rate because it includes all new cases for the year. C) Prevalence rate is higher than incidence rate because the number of people still alive with tuberculosis is higher because of better treatments. D) Prevalence rate and incidence rate cannot be determined for the same disease.

106)

The difference between the terms pathogenicity and virulence is that _______.

A) pathogenic organisms cause disease, virulent organisms do not B) virulent organisms cause disease, pathogens do not C) pathogens cause disease and their virulence describes the degree of pathogenicity D) virulent organisms cause disease and their pathogenicity describes the degree of disease manifestations

107) Physicians are required to report new cases of gonorrhea to the CDC, whereas new cases of genital herpes are not notifiable. Evaluate the statements below and choose which statement best represents why some diseases are reportable and others are not.

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A) Gonorrhea is treatable with antibiotics and therefore may develop resistance; genital herpes is not treatable with antibiotics. B) Genital herpes is less deadly than gonorrhea. C) Gonorrhea is more contagious than genital herpes. D) Gonorrhea affects certain populations and geographic areas, whereas genital herpes does not.

108) The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention mandates that some diseases must be reported, while it is not necessary for others. This is so that _______.

A) statistics may be gathered for certain diseases B) the incidence and prevalence for diseases of public health importance can be tracked C) disease trends and areas of outbreak can be monitored for certain diseases D) high-risk epidemics can be identified and dealt with as quickly as possible E) All of these choices validate why it is important to report certain diseases to the CDC.

109) Since the 1970s, approximately 40 new infectious disease agents have been discovered, including SARS, chikungunya and Zika. The ability of these agents to spread rapidly and cause global concern is due to all of the following except _______. A) individuals are traveling more frequently and farther distances than in the previous half-century B) communities are becoming more sparsely populated C) communities are spreading into rural areas/wildlife habitats D) communities are becoming more densely populated

110) Diseases can re-emerge for a variety of reasons. Evaluate the following statements and choose the one that does not provide evidence for a re-emergence.

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A) B) C) D)

111)

Pathogens evolve over time. Climate change influences arthropods to expand their geographical areas. Humans have avoided animal habitats. Agents of bioterrorismhave been introduced into a population.

Which of the following is not true of the preliminary findings by the HMP thus far?

A) The number of bacterial genes outnumber human genes by millions in the holobiont B) There are many more sterile sites in the human than were previously assumed C) Microbial antagonism prevents potential pathogens in the resident biota from causing disease D) Viruses have played an important role in guiding the evolution of both humans and their resident flora

112)

An example of an epigenetic change is ______.

A) a microbe secreting hyaluronidase to break down host hyaluronic acid B) Clostridium tetani secreting the exotoxin tetanospasmin C) a gram-negative organism releasing lipopolysaccharide from its cell wall upon lysis D) a microbe that can induce changes in host DNA, resulting in suppression of defenses or weakening of individual cells

113)

All of the following are examples of epigenetic changes except _______.

A) B) C) D)

histones are altered, which affects replication and transcription microbial mucinase digests the protective lining of mucous membranes host cell genome is altered, interrupting transcription microbe binds to small RNAs disrupting gene regulation

114) The infectious doses for various bacterial infections are listed in the table below. Which of these bacteria would likely have the greatest virulence?

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Bacterium

Infectious Dose (ID)

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

1,000

Vibrio cholerae

1,000,000,000

Salmonella enterica

10,000

A) B) C) D)

Salmonella enterica Vibrio cholerae Mycobacterium tuberculosis Neisseria gonorrhoeae

115) Due to efforts by the federal government and healthcare facilities from 2008-2013, the number of HAIs has decreased in all areas except which of the following?

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A) B) C) D)

Catheter-associated UTIs Central line-associated blood infections Surgical site infections Ventilator-associated events

116) John Snow famously traced a London outbreak of cholera to a pump on Broad Street. This cholera outbreak was an example of a _________ epidemic.

A) common-source B) point-source C) propagated

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Answer Key Test name: Microbiology13 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) FALSE 12) FALSE 13) TRUE 14) TRUE 15) FALSE 16) TRUE 17) [A, C, D, E] 18) D 19) A 20) B 21) A 22) E 23) E 24) E 25) A 26) A Version 1

27) E 28) A 29) B 30) D 31) C 32) B 33) E 34) A 35) A 36) D 37) C 38) E 39) A 40) C 41) B 42) E 43) A 44) E 45) C 46) E 47) B 48) A 49) B 50) B 51) D 52) E 53) C 54) C 55) B 56) A Version 1

57) D 58) C 59) A 60) A 61) B 62) C 63) B 64) B 65) E 66) C 67) A 68) D 69) E 70) C 71) B 72) D 73) B 74) C 75) A 76) E 77) E 78) D 79) E 80) D 81) C 82) A 83) A 84) D 85) E 86) A Version 1

87) A 88) C 89) C 90) E 91) A 92) C 93) B 94) B 95) A 96) D 97) A 98) A 99) B 100) A 101) A 102) A 103) C 104) B 105) C 106) C 107) A 108) E 109) B 110) C 111) B 112) D 113) B 114) C 115) A 116) A Version 1

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Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Genetic differences among species and within a species can convey genetic immunity to certain diseases. ⊚ ⊚

Plasma is also called lymph. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Monocytes and lymphocytes are agranular leukocytes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes mature in the thymus gland. ⊚ ⊚

true false

During inflammation, a high neutrophil count is a common sign of bacterial infection. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) Inflammatory responses are orchestrated by the immune system and are part of the body's third line of defense. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Endotoxin is an exogenous pyrogen.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

8) A low to moderate fever in an otherwise healthy person should be treated immediately with antipyretic drugs. ⊚ ⊚

During phagocytosis, intracellular digestion begins as soon as the phagosome is formed. ⊚ ⊚

10)

true false

Complement proteins are produced by the spleen. ⊚ ⊚

12)

true false

The production of interferon will protect the host cell from a viral infection. ⊚ ⊚

11)

true false

Certain complement components stimulate inflammation and phagocytosis. ⊚ ⊚

true false

13) Despite not being a physical barrier, the resident microbiota are considered part of the first line of defense since they stimulate inflammation and fever, enhancing pathogen removal. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

14) The second line of defense includes inflammation, phagocytosis, fever, and antimicrobial proteins. ⊚ ⊚

15)

Interferons do not protect the cell that secretes them. ⊚ ⊚

16)

true false

The alternate complement pathway uses complement proteins C1, C2, and C4. ⊚ ⊚

17)

true false

Monocytes are the mature form of macrophages; they are found in tissues. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 18) Components of the first line of defense include all of the following, except _______.

A) the tough cell sheet of the upper epidermis of the skin B) nasal hairs C) the flushing action of tears and blinking D) the flushing action of urine E) phagocytic white blood cells

19)

Nonspecific chemical defenses include _______.

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A) lysozyme B) lactic acid and electrolytes of sweat C) the skin's acidic pH and fatty acids D) stomach hydrochloric acid E) All of the choices are correct.

20) The chemical found in tears and saliva that hydrolyzes the peptidoglycan in certain bacterial cell walls is ______.

A) lactic acid B) hydrochloric acid C) lysozyme D) histamine E) bile

21) The body region where a ciliary escalator helps to sweep microbes trapped in mucus away from that body site is the ______.

A) skin B) respiratory tract C) digestive tract D) urinary tract E) eyes

22) Which body region is protected by fatty acids, acidic pH, lactic acid, and a tough cell barrier with its own normal biota?

A) Skin B) Respiratory tract C) Digestive tract D) Urinary tract E) Eyes

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23)

Keratin is an important aspect of nonspecific defense because it______.

A) B) C) D)

24)

is toxic to pathogens creates a physical barrier against pathogens destroys pathogens physically restricts pathogens to a specific region

All of the following are physical barriers to pathogens, except ______.

A) unbroken skin B) mucous C) hairs D) tears E) T cells

25)

Lysozyme is found in ______.

A) B) C) D)

26)

A properly functioning immune system is responsible for______.

A) B) C) D)

27)

tears salivary secretions sweat from sweat glands All of the choices are correct.

surveillance of the body recognition of foreign material destruction of foreign material All of the choices are correct.

Immune system cells differentiate between self and foreign cells by their ______.

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A) cell walls B) shapes C) markers D) sizes E) cell processes

28) The term _____ is given to any foreign substance that stimulates a specific immune system response.

A) B) C) D)

29)

The main function of the mononuclear phagocyte system is to provide______. A) B) C) D)

30)

surveillance cells a connection between tissues and organs filtration of extracellular fluid filtration of blood

Which of the following fluid compartments is not a partner in immune function?

A) B) C) D)

31)

antibody allergen antigen foreign body

Blood stream Extracellular fluid Lymphatic system Intracellular fluid

Plasma______.

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A) is the liquid portion of blood in which blood cells are suspended B) is mostly water C) contains albumin and globulins D) contains fibrinogen E) All of the choices are correct.

32)

Which of the following is incorrect about blood cells?

A) After birth, they are produced in red bone marrow sites. B) They develop from undifferentiated stem cells. C) They include glial cells. D) They include leukocytes that are either granulocytes or agranulocytes. E) They include erythrocytes that, when mature, lose their nuclei.

33) The blood cells that function in allergic reactions and inflammation, contain peroxidase and lysozyme, and particularly target parasitic worms and fungi are ______.

A) basophils B) eosinophils C) neutrophils D) monocytes E) lymphocytes

34) The least numerous of all white blood cells that release histamine during inflammation and allergic reactions are ______.

A) basophils B) eosinophils C) neutrophils D) monocytes E) lymphocytes

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35) Which white blood cells comprise 20% to 30% of the circulating WBCs and are the cells that function in the body's specific immune system? A) Basophils B) Eosinophils C) Neutrophils D) Monocytes E) Lymphocytes

36) The most numerous WBCs that have multilobed nuclei and are very phagocytic are ______.

A) basophils B) eosinophils C) neutrophils D) monocytes E) lymphocytes

37) Which white blood cells comprise 3-7% of circulating WBCs, are phagocytic, and can migrate out into body tissues to differentiate into macrophages?

A) Basophils B) Eosinophils C) Neutrophils D) Monocytes E) Lymphocytes

38)

All of the following pertain to platelets, except______.

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A) they contain hemoglobin to transport oxygen and carbon dioxide B) they function primarily in hemostasis C) they originate from giant multinucleate cells called megakaryocytes D) they function in blood clotting and inflammation E) they are not whole cells but are pieces of cells

39)

Hematopoiesis is the______.

A) loss of blood due to hemorrhaging B) production of only red blood cells C) production of white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets D) plugging of broken vessels to stop bleeding E) migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues

40)

Plasma cells______.

A) B) C) D)

function in cell-mediated immunity are derived from T lymphocytes function in blood clotting produce and secrete antibodies

41) Which type of white blood cell is particularly attracted to sites of parasitic worm infections? A) Monocytes B) Eosinophils C) Basophils D) Neutrophils E) Lymphocytes

42)

All of the following are granulocytes except _____.

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A) neutrophils B) eosinophils C) lymphocytes D) basophils E) All of the choices are granulocytes.

43)

The granules of neutrophils contain ______.

A) antibodies B) antigens C) digestive enzymes D) histamine E) peroxidase

44)

The granules of eosinophils contain ______.

A) antibodies B) antigens C) serotonin D) histamine E) peroxidase

45)

The granules of basophils contain ______.

A) antibodies B) antigens C) digestive enzymes D) histamine E) lysozyme

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46) Place the following cells in order from greatest to least phagocytic activity: neutrophils, eosinophils, macrophages.

A) Neutrophils, eosinophils, macrophages B) Neutrophils, macrophages, eosinophils C) Eosinophils, macrophages, neutrophils D) Macrophages, neutrophils, eosinophils E) Macrophages, eosinophils, neutrophils

47) Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils are called ______ because they have prominent cytoplasmic inclusions that appear with identifying, characteristic colors in a stained blood smear.

A) B) C) D)

48)

leukocytes granulocytes agranulocytes monocytes

Humoral immunity involves ______, while _____ function in cell-mediated immunity.

A) B cells; Tcells B) T cells; Bcells C) monocytes; basophils D) basophils; T cells E) B cells;neutrophils

49) When monocytes migrate from the blood out to the tissues, they are transformed by inflammatory mediators to develop into ______.

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A) primary phagocytes B) neutrophils C) killer T cells D) cytotoxic T cells E) macrophages

50)

A type of monocyte that has long, thin processes to trap pathogens is a/an ______. A) dendritic cell B) eosinophil C) macrophage D) platelet E) mast cell

51) Which of the following lymphoid organs or tissues has the immunological function of filtering pathogens from the blood?

A) Lymph nodes B) Thymus C) Spleen D) GALT E) Tonsils

52) What structures are found along lymphatic vessels and are heavily clustered in the armpit, groin, and neck?

A) Lymph nodes B) Thymus C) Spleen D) GALT E) Tonsils

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53) Which gland shrinks in size during adulthood and has hormones that function in maturation of T lymphocytes?

A) Lymph nodes B) Thymus C) Spleen D) GALT E) Tonsils

54)

The lymphoid tissues of the intestinal tract are collectively referred to as ______.

A) lymph nodes B) the thymus C) the spleen D) GALT E) tonsils

55)

Diapedesis is the _______.

56) The four classic signs and symptoms of inflammation include all of the following except ______.

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A) redness B) warmth C) swelling D) pain E) chills

57)

All of the following are events of early inflammation except______.

A) macrophages appear first and begin phagocytosis B) chemical mediators and cytokines are released C) brief vasoconstriction is followed by vasodilation D) exudate and pus can accumulate E) capillaries become more permeable, resulting in edema

58)

Which of the following is incorrect about inflammation?

A) Inflammation can last hours to years. B) Pyrogens cause vasodilation and increased capillary permeability. C) Serotonin causes smooth muscle contraction. D) Fever could be beneficial to inhibiting the pathogen. E) Basophils and mast cells release histamine.

59)

Histamine, serotonin, and bradykinin are all______.

A) vasoactive mediators B) mediators of B-cell activity C) mediators of T-cell activity D) mediators that increase chemotaxis E) fever inducers

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60) Each of the following is a term reflecting a process involved in the migration of white blood cells except ______. A) chemotaxis B) diapedesis C) motility D) vasodilation E) phagocytosis

61)

The leakage of vascular fluid into tissues is called ______.

A) chemotaxis B) edema C) diapedesis D) vasoactivity E) pus

62)

Which of the following is mismatched in relation to inflammation? A) B) C) D)

63)

Rubor - redness Calor - warmth Tumor - cancer Dolor - pain

Which of the following is not a chief function of inflammation?

A) Start tissue repair B) Destroy microbes C) Mobilize and attract immune components to injury site D) Block further invasion E) Cause a fever

64)

The circulating substances that affect the hypothalamus and initiate fever are ______.

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A) complement B) interferons C) leukotrines D) pyrogens E) lysozymes

65) A person will typically experience the sensation of _____ when fever is starting to occur in the body.

A) B) C) D)

66)

heat pain chills sweating

Each of the following are benefits of fever except______.

A) it reduces the ability of temperature-sensitive organisms to multiply B) it increases the availability of iron C) it increases phagocytosis D) it increases metabolism E) it stimulates hematopoiesis

67)

Which of the following is not a type of phagocyte?

A) Neutrophil B) Macrophage C) Kupffer cell D) Monocyte E) Lymphocyte

68)

Which of the following is not an event of phagocytosis?

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A) Diapedesis B) Chemotaxis C) Phagolysosome formation D) Destruction E) Ingestion

69)

What type of molecules act to draw phagocytes to foreign substances?

A) MALTs B) RES C) PAMPs D) BALTs E) IFNs

70) Which of the following is a chemical used by phagocytes to destroy ingested foreign substances?

A) Hydrogen peroxide B) Nitric oxide C) Lactic acid D) Superoxide anion E) All of these choices are used.

71)

All of the following pertain to interferon except______.

A) it is a protein B) it is produced by certain white blood cells and tissue cells C) it includes alpha, beta, and gamma types D) it inhibits viruses, tumors, and cancer gene expression E) it increases capillary permeability and vasodilation

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72)

Which of the following is incorrect about complement?

A) It is composed of at least 20 blood proteins. B) It only appears in the blood during a response to a pathogen. C) It acts in a cascade reaction. D) It involves a classical pathway. E) It involves an alternate pathway.

73)

The membrane attack stage of the complement cascade involves______.

A) initiation of the cascade B) the production of inflammatory cytokines C) a ring-shaped protein digesting holes in bacterial cell membranes and virus envelopes D) the cleaving of C3 to yield C3a and C3b E) C1q binding to surface receptors on a membrane

74)

The _____ system of blood proteins act to lyse foreign cells and viruses.

A) B) C) D)

75)

humoralimmunity cell-mediated complement lymphoid

What is the first step in the major events of the inflammatory process? A) Formation of pus and edema B) Scar formation and/or resolution C) Vascular reactions D) Injury and mast cells releasing chemical mediators E) Activation of complement

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76) During what process are hypochlorite and hydrogen peroxide produced in order to destroy bacteria and inhibit viral replication? A) Inflammation B) Phagocytosis C) Interferon production D) Complement production E) Lysozyme production

77) Which protein can be produced by a virus-infected cell, in order to communicate with other cells that need to produce antiviral proteins? A) Complement B) Albumin C) Interferon D) Histamine E) Lysozyme

78) After loading wood into a fireplace, you realize you have gotten a splinter in your finger. Within a short period of time, your finger is painful, red, and swollen, and is warm to the touch. This is an example of ______. A) B) C) D)

nonspecific resistance specific resistance acquired immunity adaptive immunity

79) Mycobacterium tuberculosis has chemicals in its cell wall that inhibit the fusion of phagocytic vacuoles with lysosomes. Which statement is true?

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A) Complement proteins will take over to destroy the bacteria. B) The bacterium can produce chemicals which can destroy the macrophage housing the bacterium. C) The bacterium can survive and replicate inside of the phagocytic cell. D) Antibodies produced by the cells can more effectively kill the bacteria.

80) You have severe itching problems when bitten by an insect. Your friend gives you an ointment to spread on your skin around the bite so that the redness and itching do not bother you. The likely mechanism of this medication would be______. A) the destruction of phagocytic cells B) the inactivation of neutrophils C) the inhibition of lysozyme D) to act as an antagonist of histamine

81) Your 81-year-old grandfather has been diagnosed with cancer of the thymus. The doctor is urging surgical removal of the cancer, but you and the family are worried about the consequences of removing an entire organ such as the thymus. Which statement is correct? A) Your grandfather would not be able to produce complement proteins necessary for pathogen control and inflammation. B) Your grandfather will have a loss of T lymphocytesand will have an immune deficiency. C) Your grandfather would not have sufficient phagocytic cells and would not be able to contain bacterial infections. D) There is nothing to worry about;thymus removal will not affect your grandfather's immune status at his age.

82) A patient visits your clinic often with recurrent respiratory infections. Based upon their medical history, it appears they have been an active smoker for over 40 years. Select the statement that most accurately reflects how this information may reveal why the patient is highly susceptible to respiratory pathogens.

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A) B) C) D)

Smoking decreases the formation and effectiveness of complement proteins. Smoking can paralyze the ciliary escalator. Smoking decreases the activity of neutrophils. Smoking directly inhibits B- and T-cell action.

83) The normal human microbiota is considered part of the first line of defense because______.

A) B) C) D)

84)

microbial antagonism keeps potential pathogens in check resident bacterial cells stimulate phagocytosis of pathogens pathogens and normal biota cannot exist in the same location microbiota cause an inflammatory response, eliminating pathogens

Microbial antagonism is the______.

A) competition for nutrients, oxygen, and space between the resident microbiota and potential pathogens B) inhibition of T cell binding to microbes C) prevention of immune responses by the resident microbiota D) suppression of the complement cascade by microbes

85)

Genetic markers that distinguish a self cell from a foreign invader are typically ______.

A) B) C) D)

proteins or glycoproteins DNA or RNA lipids or lipoproteins polysaccharides

86) The mononuclear phagocyte system (MPS) is an intricate network throughout the body that comprises______.

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A) B) C) D)

87)

connective tissue fibers and phagocytic white blood cells connective tissue and lymphocytes connective tissue and monocytes connective tissue fibers, mast cells, and basophils

All of the following comprise the second line of defense except ______.

A) fever B) complement proteins C) inflammation D) phagocytosis E) antibody production

88)

One of the major differences between the first and second line of defense is that______.

A) the first line defenses are anatomical barriers whereas the second line defenses are mechanisms B) the first line defenses involve complement proteins whereas the second line defenses involve antibodies C) the first line defenses involve the respiratory tract whereas the second line defenses involve the gastrointestinal tract D) the first line defenses are mechanisms whereas the second line defenses are physical barriers to infection

89) Which of the following represents the correct order of activity in the complement cascade?

A) Membrane attack, initiation, polymerization, and amplification B) Initiation, membrane attack, polymerization, and amplification C) Amplification, initiation, membrane attack, and polymerization D) Initiation, amplification, polymerization, and membrane attack E) Polymerization, initiation, membrane attack, and amplification

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90) If an individual has a genetic disorder whereby they lack the ability to make complement protein C3, the likely consequence is______.

A) B) C) D)

a higher incidence of bacterial and viral infections an inability to synthesize antibodies excessive fever development enhanced inflammation

91) You cut your finger dicing chicken for dinner. Which of the following is not a source of chemicals that stimulate the inflammatory response that results from the injury?

A) B) C) D)

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Host tissues damaged by the knife Bacterial cells that infect the wound Localized leukocytes Antibody-producing plasma cells

Answer Key Test name: Microbiology14 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) FALSE 10) FALSE 11) FALSE 12) TRUE 13) FALSE 14) TRUE 15) TRUE 16) FALSE 17) FALSE 18) E 19) E 20) C 21) B 22) A 23) B 24) E 25) D 26) D Version 1

27) C 28) C 29) B 30) D 31) E 32) C 33) B 34) A 35) E 36) C 37) D 38) A 39) C 40) D 41) B 42) C 43) C 44) E 45) D 46) D 47) B 48) A 49) E 50) A 51) C 52) A 53) B 54) D 55) E 56) E Version 1

57) A 58) B 59) A 60) E 61) B 62) C 63) E 64) D 65) C 66) B 67) E 68) A 69) C 70) E 71) E 72) B 73) C 74) C 75) D 76) B 77) C 78) A 79) C 80) D 81) D 82) B 83) A 84) A 85) A 86) A Version 1

87) E 88) A 89) D 90) A 91) D

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Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Antibody molecules circulate in lymph, blood, and tissue fluids. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Human B lymphocytes mature in an intestinal region called the bursa. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) Activation of B cells can occur when antigen binds to B cell surface immunoglobulin receptors. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Clonal selection requires the presence of foreign antigens. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) After secreting antibodies during an immune response, plasma cells then differentiate into memory cells. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) The hinge region of an antibody has a hypervariable amino acid region where the antigenic determinant fits. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

7) The structural and functional differences that distinguish immunoglobulin isotypes are due to variations associated with their Fc fragments. ⊚ ⊚

true false

8) One plasma cell will secrete antibodies of various classes, but the antibodies will all have the same specificity. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The secondary response to an antigen is more rapid and robust than the primary response. ⊚ true ⊚ false

10)

Gamma globulin can be given as immunotherapy to confer artificial passive immunity. ⊚ ⊚

true false

11) The adaptive immune system is complex, but it can be summarized in four consecutive stages: i) lymphocyte encounter with an immunogen, ii) development of lymphocyte specificity against that immunogen, iii) 2nd encounter with the immunogen, and iv) development of memory cells. ⊚ ⊚

true false

12) B and T lymphocytes are specific; they have only a single type of cell marker on their surface. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 13) A foreign molecule that causes a specific immune response is a/an ______.

A) PAMP B) marker C) hapten D) antibody E) antigen

14)

Acquired specific immunity involves the response of _______.

A) skin barriers B) B and T lymphocytes C) lysozyme D) mucus membranes E) interferon

15)

The embryonic yolk sac, the liver, and the bone marrow are sites where _______.

A) immune responses to antigen occur B) stem cells give rise to immature lymphocytes C) antigen is filtered from the blood D) antigen is filtered from tissue fluid E) T lymphocytes complete maturation

16)

The antibody-secreting progeny cells of a B-cell clone are called _______. A) antibodies B) sensitized T cells C) activated macrophages D) plasma cells E) bursa cells

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17)

Helper T cells _______.

A) secrete antibodies B) function in allergic reactions C) directly destroy target cells D) suppress immune reactions E) activate B cells and other T cells

18)

Plasma cells _______.

A) secrete antibodies B) function in allergic reactions C) directly destroy target cells D) suppress immune reactions E) activate B cells and other T cells

19)

Lymphocyte maturation involves _______.

A) hormonal signals that initiate development B) B cells maturing in bone marrow sites C) T cells maturing in the thymus D) release of mature lymphocytes to begin migration to various lymphoid organs E) All of these choices are correct.

20)

What type of cells secrete antibodies?

A) Memory B cells B) Cytotoxic T cells C) Plasma cells D) Helper T cells E) Antigen-presenting cells

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21)

Cell surface markers involved in immune reactions _______.

A) are the result of genetic expression B) function in recognition of self molecules C) receive and transmit chemical messages among other cells of the system D) aid in cellular development E) All of these choices are correct.

22)

The major histocompatibility complex is _______.

A) a set of glycoproteins, called MHC antigens, found on all body cells B) a set of genes that code for MHC glycoproteins C) found on the third chromosome D) located in the thymus gland E) All of these choices are correct.

23)

Class II MHC genes code for _______.

A) certain secreted complement components B) self receptors recognized by T lymphocytes C) all HLA antigens D) receptors located primarily on macrophages and B cells E) All of these choices are correct.

24)

Class I MHC genes code for _______.

A) B) C) D)

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certain secreted complement components self receptors recognized by T lymphocytes all HLA antigens receptors located primarily on macrophages and B cells

25)

The histocompatibility complex proteins function in _______.

A) B) C) D)

26)

recognition of self antibody proliferation B cell maturation T cell maturation

MHC molecules are found on all of the following cells except ______.

A) leukocytes B) eosinophils C) epithelial cells D) red blood cells E) islet of Langerhans cells

27)

Lymphocytes _______.

A) possess MHC antigens for recognizing self B) have membrane receptors that recognize foreign antigens C) gain tolerance to self by destruction of lymphocytes that could react against self D) develop into clones of B and T cells with extreme variations of specificity E) All of these choices are correct.

28) The monomer subunit of immunoglobulin molecules has all of the following except _______.

A) two identical heavy polypeptide chains B) two identical light polypeptide chains C) disulfide bonds between polypeptide chains D) four antigen binding sites E) a variable and constant region on each polypeptide chain

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29) The region of each antibody molecule where amino acid composition is highly diversified from one clone of B lymphocytes to another is the _______ region.

A) variable B) joining C) constant D) light E) hinge

30) Which of the following is not true of the antigen-independent period of lymphocyte development?

A) Lymphocytes formfrom stem cells in the bone marrow. B) Random geneticrearrangements occur to produce different surface protein receptors. C) Maturelymphocytes populate lymphatic organs and encounter antigens. D) Lymphocytes withspecificity for self are destroyed. E) Many lymphocyteswith different specificities are formed.

31)

Destruction of lymphocytes with self-specificity is called _______.

A) clonal deletion B) proliferation C) clonal selection D) differentiation E) hypersensitivity

32)

Properties of effective antigens include all of the following except _______.

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A) they are foreign to the immune system B) they have molecular complexity C) they are large molecules with a minimum molecular weight of 1,000 D) they are large polymers made up of repeating subunits E) they are cells or large, complex molecules

33) The molecular fragment on an antigen molecule that a lymphocyte recognizes and responds to is called a/an _______.

A) B) C) D)

epitope hapten antigen binding site variable region

34) Small foreign molecules that are too small by themselves to elicit an immune response are termed ________.

A) B) C) D)

35)

Superantigens are _______.

A) B) C) D)

36)

epitopes haptens antigen binding sites variable regions

body tissues that the immune system mistakes as foreign cell markers found in some member of a species but not in other members bacterial toxins that activate T cells at a 100 times greater rate than other antigens antigens that evoke allergic reactions

Antigens that elicit allergic reactions are called _______.

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A) B) C) D)

37)

superantigens heterophilic antigens allergens autoantigens

Which of the following is not a property of B cells?

A) They produce plasma cells and memory cells. B) There are low numbers circulating in the blood. C) They require antigen presented with MHC proteins. D) They have receptors called immunoglobulins. E) They mature in the bone marrow.

38)

Antigen presenting cells _______.

A) include dendritic cells B) include macrophages C) engulf and modify antigen to be more immunogenic D) hold and present processed antigen on their cell membrane surface E) All of these choices are correct.

39)

T cell response to T-dependent antigens requires _______.

A) typically a protein antigen B) binding of the T cell to a class II MHC receptor on a macrophage C) binding of theT cell to a site on the antigen D) interleukin-1 activating the T helper cell E) All of these choices are correct.

40) During presentation of APC-bound antigen, macrophages and dendritic cells secrete the cytokine _______, which activates T helper cells.

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A) B) C) D)

41)

interferon interleukin-1 interleukin-2 histamine

Which is incorrect about the Fc region of an immunoglobulin?

A) It is called the crystallizable fragment. B) It forms the antigen binding sites. C) It contains an effector molecule that can bind to cells such as macrophages and mast cells. D) It contains an effector molecule that can fix complement. E) It determines the class to which the immunoglobulin belongs.

42) Which process involves antibodies covering surface receptors on a virus or toxin molecule, thereby disrupting their activity?

A) Neutralization B) Opsonization C) Complement fixation D) Agglutination E) Anamnestic response

43)

Which process involves antibodies cross-linking cells or particles into large aggregates?

A) Neutralization B) Opsonization C) Complement fixation D) Agglutination E) Anamnestic response

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44) Which process involves antibodies coating microorganisms in order to facilitate phagocytosis?

A) Neutralization B) Opsonization C) Complement fixation D) Agglutination E) Anamnestic response

45) Which process involves a more rapid synthesis and greatly increased titer of antibody when the immune system is subsequently exposed to the same antigen?

A) Neutralization B) Opsonization C) Complement fixation D) Agglutination E) Anamnestic response

46) The immunoglobulin class that has a dimer form found in mucus, saliva, colostrum, and other body secretions is ______.

A) IgA B) IgD C) IgE D) IgG E) IgM

47)

The immunoglobulin class that is the only one capable of crossing the placenta is ______.

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A) IgA B) IgD C) IgE D) IgG E) IgM

48) The immunoglobulin class that has an Fc region that binds to receptors on basophils and mast cells is ______.

A) IgA B) IgD C) IgE D) IgG E) IgM

49)

All of the following are characteristics of IgM except _______.

A) it has 10 antigen binding sites B) it contains a central J chain C) it is the first class synthesized by a plasma cell D) it can serve as a B-cell receptor E) it is a dimer

50)

Which immunoglobulin class/es can fix complement?

A) IgM only B) IgG only C) IgD only D) IgM and IgG E) IgE and IgA

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51)

The immunoglobulin/s found on the surface of B cells is/are _______.

A) IgM only B) IgG only C) IgD only D) IgM and IgD E) IgD and IgE

52)

The most abundant class of antibodies in serum is _______.

A) IgG B) IgM C) IgA D) IgD E) IgE

53) Each _____ fragment of an antibody molecule contains the variable regions of a heavy and light chain that folds into a groove for one epitope.

A) variable B) FAb C) Fc D) terminal E) hinge

54) An activated T cytotoxic T cells.

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H cell produces _______, which is a growth factor for T helper cells and

A) interleukin-1 B) interleukin-2 C) interleukin-12 D) antiserum E) complement

55) What process generates many B cells and T cells that are activated against specific antigens? A) Antigen expression B) Antibody production C) Clonal expansion D) Antigen presentation E) Opsonization

56)

The most significant cells in graft rejection are _______.

A) helper T cells B) suppressor T cells C) cytotoxic T cells D) delayed hypersensitivity T cells E) natural killer (NK) cells

57) Which lymphocytes lack specificity for antigen and attack cancer cells and virus-infected cells? A) Helper T cells B) Suppressor T cells C) Cytotoxic T cells D) Delayed hypersensitivity T cells E) Natural killer (NK) cells

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58)

Cytotoxic T cells _______.

A) B) C) D)

59)

are activated by free, soluble antigens lack specificity for antigen secrete granzymes and perforins that damage target cells secrete interleukin-2 to stimulate B and T cells

Which of the following is not a target for T

C cells?

A) Bacteria B) Virus-infected cells C) Cancer cells D) Human transplanted liver E) Pig transplanted heart

60)

Specific immunity provides long-lasting protection through the production of _______. A) antibodies B) plasma cells C) T helper cells D) memory cells E) phagocytoticcells

61)

An example of artificial passive immunity would be _______.

A) chickenpox infection, followed by lifelong immunity B) chickenpox vaccine triggering extended immunity to chickenpox C) giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease D) a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta

62)

An example of natural passive immunity would be _______.

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63)

An example of artificial active immunity would be _______.

64)

An example of natural active immunity would be _______.

65)

Edward Jenner's work involved _______.

A) inoculation of dried pus from smallpox pustules into a person to stimulate immunity B) development of passive immunotherapy C) development of an immunization to protect people against cowpox D) immunization using a related, less pathogenic organism to give protection against a more pathogenic one

66)

Immunotherapy is the _______.

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A) use of antitoxins B) use of immune serum globulin C) conferring of passive immunity D) administering of preformed antibodies E) All of these choices are correct.

67)

High titers of specific antibodies are characteristic of _______.

A) specific immune globulin (SIG) B) gamma globulin C) immune serum globulin (ISG) D) attenuated vaccines E) toxoids

68)

Killed or inactivated vaccines are prepared by _______.

A) removal of virulence genes from the microbe B) treatment with formalin, heat, or radiation C) passage of the pathogen through unnatural hosts or tissue culture D) long-term subculturing of the microbe

69)

Live, attenuated vaccines _______.

A) include the Sabin polio vaccine B) include the measles, mumps, rubella vaccine (MMR) C) contain viable microbes that can multiply in the person D) require smaller doses and fewer boosters compared to inactivated vaccines E) All of these choices are correct.

70)

Acellular vaccines and subunit vaccines _______.

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A) contain modified bacterial exotoxin molecules B) are always genetically engineered C) contain select antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses D) confer passive immunity E) utilize DNA strands that will produce the antigen

71)

Antitoxins _______.

72)

Vaccinia virus is often used in the technique to make _______.

A) an adjuvant B) a booster C) antibodies to toxin D) gamma globulin E) a "Trojan horse" recombinant vaccine

73) Which of the following is a special binding substance that enhances immunogenicity and prolongs antigen retention at the injection site?

A) Adjuvant B) Booster C) Antibodies to toxin D) Gamma globulin E) "Trojanhorse" recombinant vaccine

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74)

All nucleated cells contain _______.

A) class I MHC B) class II MHC C) secretory antibodies D) IgE receptors E) IgD receptors

75) During which response to the antigen do we display a latent period of no secretory antibody synthesis?

A) B) C) D)

Primary Secondary Tertiary Quaternary

76) The array of potential antibodies to the variety of possible antigens is amazing. Which statement explains this development? A) Recombination of genes coding for the variable regions of immunoglobulins occurs during the developmental stage of lymphocyte production. B) Mutations in the antibody gene occur within the activated B cells, since they meet the antigen. C) There is a shuffling of genes that code for self markers as well as nonself markers, mixing them together and producing reactive lymphocytes to those markers. D) The existing antibody molecules change their shapes, allowing them to fit with a large number of antigens.

77) A cytotoxic T lymphocyte, having been activated against a particular viral antigen, "sees" this same antigen displayed on the surface of a host cell. What will happen?

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A) The cytotoxic T cell will produce antibodies against the antigen. B) The antigen will move inside of the host body cell, thereby hiding from the cytotoxic T cell. C) The cytotoxic T cell will produce proteins that cause the host body cell to die. D) The cytotoxic body cell will activate B cells which then produce antibody against the antigen.

78) Fluzone is a brand name for a very commonly given influenza vaccine. The vaccine is prepared by first harvesting flu viruses in chicken embryos and then breaking apart virus particles into protein subunits, thereby inactivating the virus.Your friend refuses to get the vaccine. Which of these statements is the only valid reason for her not to get the flu vaccine? A) B) C) D)

She could catch the flu from the inactivated vaccine. She could pass the virus onto her baby, causing the child to become autistic. She could die from the vaccine. She is allergic to eggs.

79) You do not really want to get your 3 children vaccinated. Your view is why do itwhen others around you will get the vaccine and end up protecting you and your children.Which is an accurate statement that your physician may provide to you in response to your challenge to vaccination? A) Your choice is fine;your children will never become infected since this is actually the basis of herd immunity. B) This is not a smart choice. If enough people choose not to get vaccinated, the susceptible population grows to a large size, breaking the protective effect of herd immunity. C) Your choice is fine;maybe you will change your mind when your child goes to college. D) This is not a smart choice. You could face potential arrest for not vaccinating your child per the regulations of the U.S. government.

80) You have received the first hepatitis A vaccine. It was required for your mission trip to Nicaragua in Central America, where hepatitis A is common. However, you never went back for the booster shot of the vaccine, which should have been received within 6 months of the initial vaccination. What statement accurately reflects your present immunity to this pathogen? Version 1

A) This is not a problem because the second dosage is just extra protection. Your immune status would be very high. B) The one dosage is not enough because it only activated humoral immunity. The second dosage is used toactivate cell-mediated immunity. The combination of the two immune responses gives you 100% coverage of immunity to hepatitis A. C) Not a problem because at any time, in a year, 5 years, etc., you can go get the booster vaccine for hepatitis A and be fully covered by immunity. D) You are at risk to get hepatitis A since your immune status is only partial. Not enough immune memory cells were produced since you received one dosage of vaccine, so you are likely to get the disease when exposed to the virus.

81) A patient enters your clinic with a suspected helminthic infection. In support of this diagnosis, you suspect elevated levels of which antibody in the patient's serum? A) B) C) D)

IgD IgE IgG IgM

82) As an adult who never developed chickenpox infection as a child, you elect to receive the protective vaccine against this pathogen at the age of 35. This vaccine will stimulate _______. A) B) C) D)

a primary immune response latency a secondary immune response an anamnestic response

83) Autoimmune disorders are characterized by immune destruction of self tissues. The underlying basis of these disorders is _______. A) B) C) D)

Version 1

an oversecretion of antibodies from memory B cells a lack of immune tolerance lack of an anamnestic response an overproduction of complement

84)

The adaptive immune response differs from the innate response in that _______.

A) the adaptive immune response targets specific immunogens and remembers them, mounting an even stronger response on subsequent encounters, whereas the innate response is nonspecific and has no memory B) the innate immune response targets a specific immunogen and remembers it to mount an even stronger response on subsequent encounters with that immunogen, whereas the adaptive response is nonspecific and has no memory C) B and T lymphocytes can each target multiple proteins, whereas the innate response targets only a single type of antigen D) the adaptive immune response involves physical barriers and nonspecific processes, whereas the innate immune response relies on the actions of B and T lymphocytes

85) The third line of defense against foreign invaders can be described as having _______ and ________.

A) B) C) D)

specificity; memory complexity; versatility diversity; barriers surveillance; complexity

86) Which of the statements below represents the correct order of events in the adaptive immune response?

A) response B) response C) response D) response

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Lymphocyte development, antigen presentation, lymphocyte challenge, lymphocyte Lymphocyte challenge, antigen presentation, lymphocyte development, lymphocyte Antigen presentation, lymphocyte challenge, lymphocyte development, lymphocyte Antigen presentation, lymphocyte development, lymphocyte challenge, lymphocyte

87) In order for B cells to produce antibodiesand cytotoxic T cells to attack infected host cells, they must first _______.

A) undergo maturation, encounter their specific antigen target, and then become activated through cytokines B) encounter an antigen, develop specificity for that antigen, and then remember the antigen C) be activated by interleukins, encounter an antigen, and then develop specificity toward it D) recognize self markers, develop specificity for the markers, and then produce clones

88) Which of the following statements does not represent the role of a cell marker in the third line of defense?

A) B) C) D)

89)

They serve as transcription factors to initiate antibody production. They serve as recognition factors for self and nonself molecules. They receive and transmit signals to coordinate the immune response. They are attachment sites for foreign molecules.

B cell receptors differ from T cell receptors in that _______.

A) B cell receptors are comprised of four polypeptides, whereas T cell receptors have only two polypeptides in their quaternary structure B) B cell receptors have two antigen binding sites, whereas T cell receptors have only one antigen binding site C) B cell receptors are immunoglobulin in nature, whereas T cell receptors are not immunoglobulin molecules D) B cell receptor immunoglobulins can be secreted as antibodies, whereas T cell receptors are never secreted E) All of the choices represent differences between B cell and T cell receptors.

90)

Which of the following do not serve as antigen presenting cells?

Version 1

A) B) C) D)

B lymphocytes Macrophages Dendritic cells Basophils

91) Not all phagocytic cells are antigen-presenting cells. B cells, macrophages, and dendritic cells differ from neutrophils in that they synthesize _______.

A) MHC-II receptors B) MHC-I receptors C) CD4 receptors D) CD8 receptors E) interleukin-2

92) The ability of T C cells to initiate apoptosis in virally-infected cells and cancer cells is dependent on their ability to produce ________ and ________; proteins that punch holes in the target cell membrane.

A) B) C) D)

perforin; granzyme interleukin-1; interleukin-2 interferon; interleukins antibodies; interferons

93) All of the following statements reflect the qualities of a safe and effective vaccine, except _______.

A) B) C) D)

Version 1

the injected material should be antigenic, but not pathogenic it should confer both humoral and cell-mediated immunity it should have a long shelf-life, be cheap to produce, and easy to administer efficacy must be maintained by booster shots every five years

Answer Key Test name: Microbiology15 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) TRUE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) FALSE 12) FALSE 13) E 14) B 15) B 16) D 17) E 18) A 19) E 20) C 21) E 22) B 23) D 24) B 25) A 26) D Version 1

27) E 28) D 29) A 30) C 31) A 32) D 33) A 34) B 35) C 36) C 37) C 38) E 39) E 40) B 41) B 42) A 43) D 44) B 45) E 46) A 47) D 48) C 49) E 50) D 51) D 52) A 53) B 54) B 55) C 56) C Version 1

57) E 58) C 59) A 60) D 61) C 62) D 63) B 64) A 65) D 66) E 67) A 68) B 69) E 70) C 71) D 72) E 73) A 74) A 75) A 76) A 77) C 78) D 79) B 80) D 81) B 82) A 83) B 84) A 85) A 86) A Version 1

87) A 88) A 89) E 90) D 91) A 92) A 93) D

Version 1

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Systemic anaphylaxis can quickly result in airway blockage, shock, and death. ⊚ ⊚

Food allergies include gastrointestinal symptoms and often hives. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Allergic rhinitis is also known as asthma. ⊚ ⊚

true false

A person who is Rh ⊚ ⊚

will have anti-Rh antibodies in his/her serum from early infancy.

true false

5) The tuberculin reaction develops within 30 minutes of the skin test in people with prior sensitization due to tuberculosis infection. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) During graft rejection, cytotoxic T cells of the recipient recognize and respond to foreign class I MHC receptors on the grafted cells. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The allergen in poison ivy plants is an oil called urushiol.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

8) A xenograft is graft tissue from a donor of one species transplanted to a recipient of another species. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Eczema is an autoimmune disorder. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10)

A viral infection can lead to the development of type I diabetes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

11)

The most common immunoglobulin deficiency is an IgG deficiency. ⊚ ⊚

true false

12) AIDS is a secondary immunodeficiency disease that affects several types of immune cells. ⊚ ⊚

true false

13) Autoimmune diseases and immunodeficiencies are studied and treated by immunopathologists. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

14) The leukocyte histamine-release test (LHRT) measures the amount of histamine released from the patient’s mast cells and eosinophils when exposed to a specific allergen. ⊚ ⊚

true false

15) Before a type II hypersensitivity can proceed, three immune components must be in place: complement, IgG, and IgM. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 16) The major category(ies) of hypersensitivity(ies)that typically involve(s) a B-cell immunoglobulin response include(s) _______.

A) type I only B) type I and type IV C) type IV only D) type I, type II, and type III E) type I, type II, type III, and type IV

17)

Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

A) Food allergy - type I hypersensitivity B) Poison ivy dermatitis - type IV hypersensitivity C) Serum sickness - type III hypersensitivity D) Transfusion reaction - type II hypersensitivity E) Hay fever - type IV hypersensitivity

18)

Any heightened immune response resulting in tissue damage is called a/an _______.

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A) autoimmune disease B) immunodeficiency C) hypersensitivity D) transfusion reaction E) desensitization

19) The study of diseases associated with excesses and deficiencies of the immune system is _______.

A) humoralpathology B) hemopathology C) epidemiology D) immunopathology E) histopathology

20)

Atopy and anaphylaxis are hypersensitivities in the category(ies) _______.

A) type I only B) type I and type IV C) type IV only D) type I, type II, and type III E) type I, type II, type III, and type IV

21)

Bee sting venom is considered to be which type of allergen?

A) B) C) D)

22)

Ingestant Inhalant Injectant Contactant

Fungal spores and animal dander are considered to be which type of allergen?

Version 1

A) B) C) D)

23)

Ingestant Inhalant Injectant Contactant

The initial encounter with an allergen is called the _______ dose.

A) sensitizing B) provocative C) allergic D) hypersensitivity E) desensitizing

24)

A second encounter with an allergen that causes a response is called the ______ dose.

A) sensitizing B) provocative C) allergic D) hypersensitivity E) desensitizing

25) What will be the immediate action of an allergen when it enters the body for a second time?

A) Degranulation B) Binding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils C) Binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils D) Histamine acts on smooth muscle E) Prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability

26)

Which event represents the process of releasing chemical mediators?

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A) Degranulation B) Binding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils C) Binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils D) Histamine actingon smooth muscle E) Prostaglandins causingvasodilation and increased vascular permeability

27)

Which event occurs with the sensitizing dose of allergen?

A) Degranulation B) Binding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils C) Binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils D) Histamine acting on smooth muscle E) Prostaglandins causing vasodilation and increased vascular permeability

28)

Which of the following is not a possible outcome of a type I hypersensitivity reaction? A) Rhinitis B) Rashes C) Sneezing D) Diarrhea E) Contact dermatitis

29)

Histamine causes all of the following except _______.

A) increased sensitivity to pain B) constriction of smooth muscle of bronchi and the intestine C) relaxation ofvascular smooth muscle D) wheal and flare reaction in skin E) pruritis and headache

30) The chemical mediator that causes prolonged bronchospasm, vascular permeability, and mucus secretion of asthmatic patients is ______. Version 1

A) prostaglandin B) histamine C) leukotriene D) serotonin E) platelet-activating factor

31)

Which type/s of hypersensitivities is IgG is involved with?

A) Anaphylaxis B) Antibody-mediated C) Immune complex-mediated D) Both anaphylaxis and antibody-mediated E) Both antibody-mediated and immune complex-mediated

32)

Allergic reactions to penicillins are considered a/an _______ hypersensitivity.

A) T-cell-mediated B) antibody-mediated C) immunecomplex-mediated D) immediate E) Both T-cell-mediated and antibody-mediated are correct.

33)

Allergies run in families because _______.

A) immunoglobulins pass from mother to fetus B) immunoglobulins pass through breast milk C) the variable region of antibodies is genetically determined D) the relative production of IgE is inherited

34)

A chronic, local allergy such as hay fever is considered ______.

Version 1

A) delayed B) T-cell-mediated C) atopic D) antibody-mediated E) systemic anaphylactic

35) A systemic, sometimes fatal, reaction with airway obstruction and circulatory collapse is _______.

A) delayed B) T-cell-mediated C) atopic D) antibody-mediated E) systemic anaphylaxis

36)

A seasonal reaction to inhaled allergens is ______.

A) atopic dermatitis B) eczema C) allergic rhinitis D) asthma E) anaphylaxis

37) All of the following are associated with IgE and mast-cell-mediated allergy except ______.

A) drug allergies B) eczema C) anaphylaxis D) allergic asthma E) systemic lupus erythematosus

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38)

Epinephrine _______.

A) B) C) D)

is an antihistamine reverses constriction of airways causes desensitization inhibits the activity of lymphocytes

39) Allergic patients receiving small, controlled injections of specific allergens are undergoing ______.

A) desensitization B) sensitization C) tissue matching D) degranulation

40)

An antihistamine will _______.

A) B) C) D)

41)

Corticosteroids will _______.

A) B) C) D)

42)

inhibit the activity of lymphocytes bind to histamine receptors on target organs block synthesis of leukotrienes reverse spasms of respiratory smooth muscles

All of the following are involved in type II hypersensitivity except ______.

Version 1

A) IgM B) IgG C) IgE D) complement E) foreign cells

43)

Human blood types involve all of the following except _______.

A) MHC genes B) ABO antigen markers C) inheritance of two of three possible alleles D) genetically determined glycoprotein markers E) genes that code for an enzyme that adds a terminal carbohydrate to RBC receptors

44) The serum of a person with blood type A and Rh the following antibodies?

will have the ability to make which of

A) Anti-A andanti-Rh B) Anti-B and anti-Rh C) Anti-A D) Anti-B E) Anti-A, anti-B, and anti-Rh

45)

A person with O type blood _______.

A) B) C) D)

Version 1

lacks all of the alleles for ABO blood type lacks A and B antigens could not have the Rh factor is called a universal recipient

46) A person who produces anti-A and anti-B serum antibodies will have blood type _______. A) A B) B C) AB D) O E) Rh

47)

Transfusion of the wrong blood type can cause _______.

A) recipient antibody activation ofthe complement cascade to attack the RBCs B) fever and anemia C) systemic shock and kidney failure D) massive hemolysis of the donor RBCs E) All of the choices are correct.

48)

A female who is Rh

A) B) C) D)

49)

–

_______.

inherited two dominant genes is in the majority of the population with regard to Rh status is at risk for a pregnancy resulting in hemolytic disease of the newborn can never have an Rh+ baby

The potential for hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when _______. A) maternal Rh + cells enter an Rh - fetus B) fetal Rh + cells enter an Rh - mother C) maternal Rh - cells enter an Rh + fetus D) fetal Rh - cells enter an Rh + mother E) fetal Rh + cells enter an Rh + mother

Version 1

50)

Once a mother has been sensitized to the Rh factor, _______.

A) all other Rh + fetuses are at risk B) she can be given RhoGAM in future pregnancies to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn C) she can never again have a low risk pregnancy D) only future Rh - fetuses are at risk E) None of the choices are correct.

51)

Which of the following is not true of type III hypersensitivity?

A) Antigen-antibody complexes are deposited in the basement membrane of epithelial tissues. B) It involves production of IgE antibodies. C) It involves an immune complex reaction. D) The Arthus reaction is a local response. E) Serum sickness is a systemic response.

52)

Which of the following is not a target for immune complex deposition?

A) Blood vessels and skin B) Heart and lungs C) Brain D) Joints E) Kidneys

53) Large quantities of antibodies that react to the second entry of antigen and lead to formation of antigen-antibody complexes occurs in _______.

Version 1

A) B) C) D)

54)

serum sickness delayed hypersensitivity anaphylaxis hemolytic disease of the newborn

Contact dermatitis involves _______.

A) a sensitizing and provocative dose B) an allergen entering the skin C) T lymphocytes secreting inflammatory cytokines D) the production of itchy papules and blisters E) All of the choices are correct.

55) What may result when grafted tissue such as bone marrow contains passenger lymphocytes?

A) B) C) D)

Host rejection of graft Graft versus host disease Formation of autoantibodies Hypogammaglobulinemia

56) Tissue transplanted from one body site on a patient to a different body site on that patient is called a/an ______.

A) isograft B) autograft C) allograft D) xenograft E) hypograft

57)

Autoimmunity is typically due to _______.

Version 1

A) a transfusion reaction B) IgE and mast cells C) autoantibodies and T cells D) graft rejection E) a deficiency in T-cell development

58)

Autoantibodies cause tissue injury in all of the following diseases except _______.

A) rheumatoid arthritis B) myasthenia gravis C) Graves' disease D) tuberculin reaction E) multiple sclerosis

59)

All of the following are autoimmune diseases except _______.

A) systemic lupus erythematosus B) Graves' disease C) type I diabetes D) metastatic cancer E) rheumatoid arthritis

60)

Myasthenia gravis disease arises from the production of autoantibodies against _______.

A) myelin sheath cells of the nervous system B) acetylcholine receptors on smooth muscle C) acetylcholine receptors on skeletal muscle D) sodium pump proteins in the cell membrane E) cells in thyroid follicles

61)

In multiple sclerosis, autoantibodies attack _______.

Version 1

62) Which of the following is not a possible explanation for the origin of autoimmune diseases?

A) Sequestered antigens B) Forbidden clones C) Molecular mimicry D) The gut microbiome E) All the choices are currently being investigated as possible explanations.

63)

What can be a consequence of a genetic deficiency in B-cell survival and maturity?

A) B) C) D)

64)

Host rejection of graft Graft versus host disease Formation of autoantibodies Hypogammaglobulinemia

DiGeorge syndrome is the result of _______. A) autoantibodies B) delayed hypersensitivity C) congenital absence or immaturity of the thymus gland D) failure of B-cell development and maturity E) a genetic defect in the development of both T cells and B cells

65)

Severe combined immunodeficiencies (SCIDs) are due to _______.

Version 1

A) autoantibodies B) delayed hypersensitivity C) congenital absence or immaturity of the thymus gland D) failure of B-cell development and maturity E) a genetic defect in the development of both T cells and B cells

66)

An example of a secondary acquired immunodeficiency is _______. A) AIDS B) adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency C) DiGeorge syndrome D) agammaglobulinemia E) SCID

67)

All of the following can result in acquired immune deficiency except ______. A) malnutrition B) stress C) enzyme deficiency D) bacterial infection E) radiation treatment

68) In the theory for allergic desensitization, which immunoglobulin blocks the allergen from binding with IgE?

A) IgE B) IgG C) IgA D) IgD E) IgM

Version 1

69)

Degranulation of mast cells leads to _______.

A) B) C) D)

decreased mucus production constriction of blood vessels lymph node swelling constricted bronchioles

70) Predict why insect stings and medication injections more often provoke anaphylactic shock, as compared to other allergens found in food or in air. A) The allergens go directly into the blood in large amounts, compared to allergens entering the digestive tract or respiratory tract. B) Chemicals from insects cause a combination of antibody types to be produced, resulting in much larger amounts of total antibody. C) Chemicals injected as medications cause problems in immune response, resulting in a reduced immune coverage. D) Histamine is overproduced as a result of injected chemicals.

71) John, a Peace Corps worker in the country of Mali in Africa, was in a car accident while traveling through a rural area. He was treated at a tiny rural hospital, and due to his loss of blood, he required a transfusion. John has B- blood type and has never received a transfusion before. Which statement is correct regarding this scenario?

A) He can safely receive O- blood even though he makes anti-A antibodies. B) He can be given types O or B, no matter whether Rh- or Rh+. At this point in time, he does not have anti-Rh antibody. O has no antigens on the blood cells, so he is also safe to receive that type in addition to his own B type. C) He can be given A+ blood type in addition to B+. Rh- means that he makes no antibody to Rh. D) The preferred blood type to give John, in addition to his own B type blood, would be AB. Both types of blood have the B antigen on the cells, so they would correspond to his own antigens. As for Rh, he can receive only Rh- blood since he would have a reaction against Rh+.

Version 1

72) You have dermatitis triggered by a particular material in your socks. Your feet are covered with a really itchy rash, which has developed blisters over the last day or so. You had first worn them two to three days ago, and you did not launder them after buying them at the store. Finding some antihistamine medication in your bathroom cabinet, you decide to take it to relieve the itching rash. Which statement is true? A) The rash will go away because the antihistamine neutralizes the histamine chemicals coming from mast cells in your skin. B) The antihistamine will make the rash worse because it reacts with chemicals release by the lymphocytes in your skin, exacerbating the situation. C) The anti-histamine will have no effect on the rash because histamine is not the chemical mediator in this hypersensitivity. D) The anti-histamine will have no effect because once a type I hypersensitivity kicks in, it will last for a few days.

73) You were out in the garage going through boxes when you were bitten by an a spider. You tell the doctor that the spider was tiny and black, causing the doctor to think perhaps that it was a black widow spider. The doctor gives you an injection of antibody to the spider venom to give you immediate protection. The antibody is produced in horses by injecting them with small doses of the spider venom, causing the horse's immune system to make large amounts of specific antibody to the antigen. The horse serum is then purified before being given to humans. A week later, you notice a red rash spreading away from the injection spot, where the doctor gave you the anti-venom shot. A few days later, the rash has spread and swelling in also present. You have joint pain as well as sore muscles all over your body. The lymph nodes in the armpit are swollen and painful. Going back to the doctor, he diagnoses you with _______. A) a Staphylococcus infection related to the spider bite B) anaphylactic shock C) a delayed type hypersensitivity mediated by cytotoxic T cells along with helper T cells D) serum sickness E) Arthus reaction

Version 1

74) In systemic lupus erythematosis (called lupus), complexes of antibody and antigen form, and these immune complexes insert themselves into small blood vessels, joints, heart, and kidney, causing damage to the organ tissue. The course of the disease is unpredictable, with periods of illness alternating with remissions. How is lupus, a type III autoimmune disease, similar to the tuberculin reaction, a type IV hypersensitivity reaction? A) The mechanism of both lupus and the tuberculin reaction involve large amounts of inflammatory chemicals released into tissue. B) Both lupus and the tuberculin reaction involve large amounts of antibody production. C) Both lupus and the tuberculin reaction are immediatehypersensitivities, occurring within a few hours. D) Both lupus and the tuberculin reaction utilizeIgE in their mechanisms.

75) Many men make antibodies to sperm, resulting in destruction of sperm to the point of sterility. What would be the likely origin of this autoimmune disease? A) Since sperm are not made until after puberty, the immune system cannot scan the antigens on the sperm for immune tolerance. After sperm are made and the immune system sees them, they are recognized as foreign. B) Antigens on sperm cells are similar to antigens on a variety of bacterialike Streptococcus. After a strep throatcaused by Streptococcus, the immune system produces antibodies to streptococcal antigens, which then cross react with sperm antigens and destroythem. C) T helper cells erroneously identify sperm cells as foreign invaders, triggering the T cytotoxic cells to start killing sperm. D) These antibodies are produced as a result of mutations in T lymphocytes, causing them to make large amounts of antibody.

76)

Immunopathology is defined as _______.

A) the study of immunodeficiencies B) the study of autoimmune diseases C) the study of AIDS D) the study of immune imbalance, whether hyper- or hypoactivity

Version 1

77) An effective test to determine whether an individual is allergic to a specific substance is to _______.

A) test for levels of IgE specific for the allergen B) test for the allergen in the blood C) inject high levels of the allergen so see if the patient goes into anaphylactic shock D) test for high levels of IgG in the serum

78)

High levels of tryptase in the blood is indicative of _______.

A) high levels of degranulating mast cells suggesting an allergic reaction B) overuse of dietary supplements C) a bacterial infection D) a viral and/or fungal infection

79) Infection with enteroviruses, such as rotavirus and cytomegalovirus, has been implicated in the onset of type I diabetes. This area of research involves the study of ______.

A) forbidden clones B) the gut microbiome C) molecular mimicry D) sequestered antigens

80) SCID is defined by a lack of functional B and T cells which eliminates protection by humoral and cell-mediated immunity. Which of the following is true?

Version 1

A) A genetic defect disrupts the development of the lymphocytic cell lines. B) A genetic mutation renders the individual incapable of removing a toxic DNA metabolite from lymphocytes, which ultimately destroys them. C) Genes coding for B and T cell receptors are mutated so the cells are incapable of binding antigens. D) Genes that code for interleukin receptors are mutated so the individual's B and T cells do not receive the activation signals, rendering them useless. E) All of the choices describe cases of SCID.

81)

All of the following represent potential therapy for patients with SCID except _______.

A) gene therapy B) stem cell grafts C) bone marrow transplants D) transfusion with adensosine deaminase E) graft versus host

82) Serum sickness and the Arthus reaction are both type III hypersensitivities, but they differ in that _______.

A) serum sickness is a systemic reaction to an injected therapy, whereas the Arthus reaction remains localized to the injection site B) serum sickness is a localized reaction to an injected therapy, whereas the Arthus reaction is systemic C) serum sickness is vomiting and diarrhea in response to animal serum, whereas the Arthus reaction causes arthritis D) serum sickness is an infection in the blood serum, whereas the Arthus reaction is a swelling in the joints

Version 1

Answer Key Test name: Microbiology16 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) FALSE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) TRUE 8) TRUE 9) FALSE 10) TRUE 11) TRUE 12) TRUE 13) TRUE 14) FALSE 15) TRUE 16) D 17) E 18) C 19) D 20) A 21) C 22) B 23) A 24) B 25) B 26) A Version 1

27) C 28) E 29) A 30) C 31) E 32) D 33) D 34) C 35) E 36) C 37) E 38) B 39) A 40) B 41) A 42) C 43) A 44) B 45) B 46) D 47) E 48) C 49) B 50) A 51) B 52) C 53) A 54) E 55) B 56) B Version 1

57) C 58) D 59) D 60) C 61) A 62) E 63) D 64) C 65) E 66) A 67) C 68) B 69) D 70) A 71) A 72) C 73) D 74) A 75) A 76) D 77) A 78) A 79) C 80) E 81) E 82) A

Version 1

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) It is necessary to do lab tests to diagnose all diseases. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) When antibodies or other substances in serum cross-react with the test reagents, a false positive result can occur. ⊚ ⊚

Serological testing always involves reactions between specific antibody and antigen. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Serological tests should have low sensitivity and specificity. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The ELISA is commonly used for diagnosing salmonellosis. ⊚ true ⊚ false

ELISA tests use a fluorescent dye as a label to trace antigen-antibody reactions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The tuberculin test is an example of an in vitro serological test.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

The polymerase chain reaction requires endonuclease to cut samples of DNA. ⊚ ⊚

true false

9) Nucleic acid testing is appropriate as a testing method when one is not sure what microorganisms are present in the specimen. ⊚ true ⊚ false

10) Antibiotics are often added to biochemical media to restrict the growth to only those organisms that are being looked for in the specimens. ⊚ true ⊚ false

11) An infectious organism isolated from a patient has a sequence on its genome TATTGAAGC. This will hybridize to the RNA probe UAUUGAAGC. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 12) Which of the following is not a phenotypic method of identification?

A) Morphology B) Gram stain reaction C) Acid-fast reaction D) Antibody response E) Endospore production

Version 1

13)

Biochemical tests include all of the following except______.

A) antibiotic sensitivity tests B) tests for the presence of specific enzymes C) ribotyping tests D) sugar fermentation tests E) gas production tests

14)

The primary advantage of genotypic analysis for identification is that______. A) B) C) D)

15)

it is easier than any other method it is less expensive than other methods it is widely available culturing of the organism is not required

Specimen collection______.

A) B) C) D)

is always done by a medical professional must be done under sterile conditions must utilize aseptic techniques does not require special handling

16) All of the following are routinely collected for microbial analysis of a specimen except ______. A) saliva B) skin C) spinal fluid D) hair E) blood

17)

Which sample is not collected by sterile needle aspiration?

Version 1

A) Blood B) Urine C) Cerebrospinal fluid D) Tissue fluids E) All of the choices are collected by sterile needle aspiration.

18)

Urine and fecal specimens require______.

A) sterile collection conditions B) incubation in differential media C) incubation in selective media D) Both sterile collection conditions and incubation in differential media are correct. E) Both incubation in differential media and incubation in selective media are correct.

19)

Phage typing is useful in identifying ______.

A) Treponema pallidum B) Mycobacterium leprae C) Streptococcus pyogenes D) Salmonella E) Clostridium

20)

Which test is especially good for bacteria that are not readily cultivated in the lab?

A) Gram stain B) Direct antigen test C) Dichotomous key analysis D) Direct fluorescence antibody (DFA) test E) Phage test

21)

Which of the following is not a genotypic method of identification?

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A) rRNA sequencing B) Pulse-field gel electrophoresis C) G + C composition D) Direct antigen testing E) DNA analysis with probes

22) The property of a test to detect even small amounts of antibodies or antigens that are test targets is ______.

A) cross-reaction B) agglutination C) precipitation D) specificity E) sensitivity

23) The property of a test to detect only a certain antibody or antigen and not to react with any others is ______.

A) cross-reaction B) agglutination C) precipitation D) specificity E) sensitivity

24)

A serum titer involves______.

A) B) C) D)

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quantifying the number of infectious particles in a specimen determining the lowest dilution of serum that produces a visible reaction determining the highest dilution of serum that produces a visible reaction the Western blot method

25)

A positive serological test for tuberculosis indicates that the patient______.

A) B) C) D)

26)

has active tuberculosis is an asymptomatic carrier of tuberculosis has been exposed to tuberculosis is immune to tuberculosis

Serological testing can be used to test each of the following except ______.

A) blood serum B) cerebrospinal fluid C) urine D) saliva E) skin

27)

Titer is the amount of _____ in serum.

A) antigen B) antibody C) WBC D) complement E) memory cells

28)

Serological testing relies upon______.

A) the specificity of the Fc region of antibodies B) the specificity of the variable regions of antibodies C) a patient who is not immunocompromised D) a very high viral or bacterial load in the patient

29)

Antibody testing requires______.

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A) only a known antigen B) only a known antibody C) both a known antigen and a known antibody D) either a known antigen or a known antibody

30)

What type of test will detect cell-associated antigens? A) Cross-reaction B) Agglutination C) Precipitation D) Specificity E) Sensitivity

31)

Soluble antigens are detected in what type of test?

A) Cross-reactions B) Agglutination C) Precipitation D) Specificity E) Sensitivity

32) The testing method involving the separation of serum proteins by electrophoresis, their subsequent transfer to special filters, and then probing with patient sera is called ______. A) Ouchterlony double diffusion B) the Western blot C) immunelectrophoresis D) a radioimmunoassay (RIA) E) the Quellung test

33)

In precipitation tests, the antigen______.

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A) B) C) D)

34)

Rickettsial infections can be diagnosed by the______.

A) B) C) D)

35)

is a soluble molecule is an insoluble molecule is a whole cell -antibody complex settles to the bottom of the tube

rapid plasma reagin test latex agglutination test antistreptolysin O test Weil-Felix agglutination test

Which of the following is correct regarding the polymerase chain reaction test? A) B) C) D)

Antigen and antibody are allowed to react first. An enzyme-linked indicator is added. Sheep red blood cells are added to the gel. The two strands of the DNA molecules are separated by heat.

36) Which test is the confirming test for people who initially tested antibody-positive in the screening ELISA test?

A) Ouchterlony double diffusion B) Western blot C) Immunelectrophoresis D) Radioimmunoassay (RIA) E) Quellung test

37)

Serotyping of bacteria cannot be used to identify which component?

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A) B) C) D)

38)

Cell wall Flagella Capsule DNA

The Western blot test is confirmatory for HIV because it______.

A) is more sensitive than the ELISA B) has fewer false positives than the ELISA C) requires electrophoresis, whereas the ELISA does not D) uses an indicator of some sort to visualize the antibody E) All of the choices are correct.

39) Viruses can be used to identify bacteria because of viral specificity for a host cell. This identification method is called ______. A) B) C) D)

40)

ELISA immunochromatography probing phage typing

Which test is used to identify antigens on red blood cells for blood typing? A) ELISA B) Western blot C) Agglutination D) Precipitation E) Microarrays

41)

A direct immunofluorescence test involves a/an ______.

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A) B) C) D)

42)

precipitation reaction agglutination reaction known antibody binding to an unknown antigen lysis reaction

A positive sandwich ELISA result requires______. A) one known antibody, one unknown antibody, and an unknown antigen B) one known antibody, one unknown antibody, and a known antigen C) two known antibodies andone known antigen D) two known antibodies and one unknown antigen

43) The indirect ELISA test is commonly used to diagnose infections caused by all of the following except ______. A) rubella virus B) HIV C) hepatitis A virus D) Helicobacter E) hepatitis C virus

44)

In vivo testing is useful for diagnosing ______.

A) tuberculosis B) rubella C) hepatitis A D) HIV E) whooping cough

45)

The tuberculin skin test is read______.

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A) within 1 hour B) after 12 hours C) from 12-24 hours D) from 24-48 hours E) from 48-72 hours

46) When minute samples of DNA need to be genetically analyzed for identification purposes, which test can be effectively used?

A) Direct fluorescence antibody B) Widal C) Weil-Felix reaction D) PCR E) Western Blot

47) A urine specimen obtained from a patient went to the microbiology lab for a bacterial culture and antibiotic sensitivity testing. The specimen sat out on the processing counter for a couple of hours before being cultured. Twenty fours hours later, the lab report goes into the computer---over 100,000 bacterial cells per milliliter of urine. Which statement is an accurate assessment of these results? A) The bacterial count is not accurate since the culture sat without refrigeration. B) Not all bacteria will grow on bacteriological media, so the total count is grossly underestimated. C) Urine is a sterile fluid as it leaves the body, so it is likely that the specimen was mishandled by the nursing staff when the sample was obtained. D) Urine samples have to be taken from the kidney in order to get a true bacterial count.

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48) A patient's vaginal specimen is sent from the walk-in clinic to the microbiology laboratory. Thereit is cultured on bacteriological mediaand then placed into an ambient air incubator set at 22% oxygen and 37 degrees Celsius. The patient is strongly suspected of having gonorrhea. She had sexual contact with a partner recently diagnosed with gonorrhea, and she is now displaying the typical symptoms of a vaginal exudate or fluid. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a microaerophilic gram-negative coccus-shaped bacterium. Seventy-two hours later, the culture has still not grown Neisseria gonorrhoeae so the lab reports the results back as negative. Interpret this result. A) The clinical personnel took the sample from an incorrect body area. B) The culture was placed into the wrong environment for Neisseria gonorrhoeae. C) The inoculating loop was too hot while streaking the specimen onto agar medium, and the bacteria were all killed. D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae cannot be grown in bacteriological media and requires genetic analysis for identification.

49) Dr. John Doe, a research microbiologist for a university medical center, has been accused of sending Bacillus anthracis, the causative agent of anthrax, through the mail to the President. You, as a public health official with the CDC, have to determine if it is the same strain as the two strains of B. anthracis found cultured in his lab. Which method of identification would you use to compare these three bacterial samples? A) B) C) D)

Serological testing using agglutination Gram staining Biochemical test identification Pulse-field gel electrophoresis

50) Both pulse-field gel electrophoresis and Western blotting utilize electrophoresis in their procedures. When comparing the two procedures, which statement is true?

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A) Pulse-field gel electrophoresis is used for genetic analysis. B) Pulse-field gel electrophoresis separates DNA fragments while Western blotting separates proteins. C) The presence of antibodies in a patient specimen can be identified in the Western Blot. D) Pulse-field gel electrophoresis is excellent for identifying minute genetic differences among strains of one species of an organism. E) All of the statements are true.

51) Your daughter probably has strep throatcaused by Streptococcus pyogenes.The traditional method of diagnosis involves culturing on blood agar, but this process is time consuming. Your doctor wants a more rapid identification of the infectious agent using a specimen directly obtained from the patient's throat. He would prefer to usea test that can be read in his officewithout having to culture and isolate the organism. He would likely choose the______. A) B) C) D)

direct fluorescence test Western Blot test immunochromatographic test pulse-field gel electrophoresis

52) Mycobacterium tuberculosis has traditionally been identified in patient samples using biochemical tests, and more recently through DNA probe analysis.In vivo testing can also be completed using the tuberculin skin test. A more recent test that seems to be surpassing the others is the QuantiFERON-TB gold test. Blood samples are mixed with protein antigens of M. tuberculosis. After 16 to 24 hours of incubation, the amount of the cytokine interferon produced by the patient's cells is measured.If the patient is infected with M. tuberculosis, their WBCs will release interferon in response to contact with the tuberculosis protein antigens. This test falls under which category of identification tests? A) Microarray test B) Immunologic test C) Enzymatic test D) Genotypic test E) DNA fingerprinting test

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53) The ELISA test has been used as the most common, rapid screening test for HIV infection. Its sensitivity is very high but its specificity is rather low (for an important identification test). Which statement describes this accurately? A) Only certain kinds of instruments can be used to pick up the small amounts of fluorescence given off in the ELISA. B) The test can identify the patient's antibody to HIV only when it is large quantities. C) The patient's specimen has to be handled in a certain way to maintain the integrity of the viral DNA. D) A false positive test result may develop due to the test antigens capturing normal antibodies.

54) You are the supervisor of a new reference microbiology laboratory, which will receive clinical specimens for identification of bacterial pathogens. When choosing the types of media to order for culture and isolation procedures in your laboratory, what question(s) do you need to answer? A) B) C) D)

55)

What type of bacteria will you be culturing? What are the growth factors required by the bacteria that you will be identifying? What kind of microbiotawill the patient specimens contain? All of the choices are correct.

Which statement about clinical identification tests is true? A) B) C) D)

Not all diseases are identified by clinical tests. Biochemical tests are quicker than genetic analysis tests. Serological tests are always based on identifying antibodies in the patient. Microarray tests are based on electrophoresis methodology.

56) If you were going to identify microorganisms within a specimen containing large numbers of organisms (seawater, normal microbiota, etc.), you would have to______.

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A) use different kinds of serological tests B) use a wide variety of microbiological media to identify all of the different species of microorganisms C) use a wide variety of antibodies to react with the antigens D) amplify gene sequences within the sample to identify each of the different organisms

57) You would like to identify as many bacterial species as possible in the human mouth. Why is biochemical testing not the most efficient and accurate method of completing this task? A) Since you do not know the growth characteristics and metabolic properties of the bacteria in the mouth, you cannot determine all varieties of media to use for isolation and culture. B) Bacteria in the mouth are difficult to grow because of the adverse conditions in the oral habitat. C) Bacteriological media is very expensive, particularly when you would have to use a variety of types to identify the different bacteria. D) Biochemical testing, using a variety of media, is inaccurate. It has been replaced by more advanced testing procedures.

58) Staphylococcus aureus can be identified by mixing the organism with specific antibody and visually recognizing a clumping reaction between the antigen and the antibody. This is a/an _______ test. A) B) C) D)

59)

microarray biochemical agglutination ELISA

The polymerase chain reaction can be used for identification of______. A) B) C) D)

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antibodies in the patient's serum microorganisms proteins growth characteristics of microorganisms

60)

Which test cannot be used for identification of a person's HIV status? A) B) C) D)

ELISA Western Blot Immunochromatographic testing Biochemical tests

61) You place an inoculum of your bacterium on a glass slide and add a drop of hydrogen peroxide reagent. Promptly you see bubbles appear, indicating the presence of a particular enzyme that the bacterium produces. What type of identification test does this exemplify? A) B) C) D)

62)

Biochemical test Microarray Precipitation test Immunochromatography

Which of these tests is an in vivo test? A) B) C) D)

Tuberculin test Western Blot Agglutination test PCR

63) Microarrays, hybridization tests, and ribotyping are increasing in frequency in their use in clinical labs for diagnosis of infectious diseases and the microorganisms causing them. Why is this? A) They are cheaper than biochemical tests. B) They have greater specificity for the organism because they employ specific antibody. C) Genomic testing has less errors compared to biochemical tests and serological tests. D) The tests are more easily performed in a doctor's office or hospital, right there where the specimens are taken.

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64) You have a very sore throat with symptoms indicating strep throat. Since you are taking microbiology right now, you decide that you will take a swab from your throat and swab it onto an enrichment medium like a blood agar plate or a brain-heart infusion agar plate.Why is this not a good idea? A) Due to the fact that you cannot easily see the sampling site, there is a high probability that you will not be able to obtain your own specimen without contaminating the sample with your own normal biota. B) You are on a diet now, and you are afraid that the food that you are eating will in some way impact the growth of the bacteria. As a result, you will not get valid results. C) You use a mouthwash a couple of times a day, so you think that the antibacterial properties of the mouthwash will inhibit or kill the oral bacteria and results in invalid results. D) All of these choices are correct.

65) In your microbiology lab, your class is identifying bacteria. You are using dichotomous keys to aid in the identification process using the data from a variety of biochemical tests. What problems do you foresee in this procedure? A) Dichotomous keys are too sophisticated to read properly, so you are worried that there will be a large degree of error in your identification. B) Dichotomous keys are not valid for identification. C) The dichotomous key does not contain information on your bacterium. D) If you misread a biochemical test or write down the wrong result, the key will likely take you to an alternative organism that is not your unknown bacterium.

66) Phenotypic testing is often beneficial in identifying infectious agents from patient samples; however, some disadvantages include______.

A) lengthy culturing times and the inability to grow some bacteria in vitro B) difficulty in identifying motile organisms C) non-specificity of some biochemical tests since all pathogens utilize the same substrate as a fuel source D) organisms must be grown on the same culture media so it is difficult to distinguish them from each other

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67) A method of identification using immobilized, known antigens to identify unknown antibodies and vice versa, where the presence of the agent being tested for immediately brings about a color change is called ______.

A) B) C) D)

immunochromatography ELISA radioimmunoassay Western blotting

68) Technology has introduced a range of specific, rapid tests for identifying and diagnosing infectious disease. While culturing a pathogen from a patient is always advantageous, what disadvantage(s) exist for traditional diagnostic techniques?

A) The isolated organism is not the pathogen causing the disease. B) Critically ill patients may have to wait up to 48 hours for a culture to grow. C) Certain pathogens are not able to be cultured in vitro. D) Some diseases are caused by more than one organism. E) All of these are valid arguments against traditional diagnostic techniques.

69)

Microarrays are a powerful diagnostic tool because______.

A) a patient sample can be simultaneously tested for potentially thousands of suspected agents in the realm of the afflicting disease B) PCR can be performed rapidly and the DNA matched against known gene sequence C) analysis of the pathogen's genome can be performed and the gene sequences compared to suspected pathogens D) ribosomal RNA can be isolated, sequenced, and analyzed with speed and accuracy

70) Scanning the whole genome of every infectious agent in a patient sample and comparing that to known genome sequences maintained in libraries would be the most accurate and efficient way to diagnose disease. We are moving closer to this becoming a reality largely because______.

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A) the cost of high throughput genetic analysis has plummeted in recent years and continues to decrease B) more people are being trained in high throughput genetic analysis C) gene libraries have greater accessibility D) multiple organisms have the same genome so it will minimize the number of screenings necessary

71) Depending on the organism, direct examination of a specimen is often the most rapid diagnostic tool used in the clinical microbiology lab. You have a sample of pus from a patient's penis. What will be the easiest test to confirm that the patient has gonorrhea?

A) B) C) D)

Gram stain Agglutination reaction ELISA Microarray

72) The gene that codes for the bacterial 16s RNA molecule is highly conserved across species, but also contains hypervariable regions that are highly species-specific. FISH analysis of rRNA is beneficial because______.

A) it can precisely identify the 16s sequences from patient samples without the lag time it takes to culture the organism B) it is much cheaper than traditional analytical methods C) it can narrow down the list of potential infectious organisms to three or four D) it incorporates both direct testing and serological testing for added accuracy

73) What is the advantage of using imaging such as CT scans, MRIs, and PET scans in diagnosis?

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A) B) C) D)

May save the patient from an invasive procedure Can determine the antibiotic sensitivity of the infectious agent Very inexpensive and requires no cultivation of the specimen Amplifies the DNA in the patient sample for better genetic analysis

74) A technique known as ______ can analyze a culture or a patient sample in minutes based on a microbe's protein profile.

A) B) C) D)

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MALDI-TOF real-time PCR pulsed-field gel electrophoresis positron emission tomography

Answer Key Test name: Microbiology17 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) FALSE 6) FALSE 7) FALSE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) FALSE 12) D 13) C 14) D 15) C 16) D 17) B 18) E 19) D 20) D 21) D 22) E 23) D 24) C 25) C 26) E Version 1

27) B 28) B 29) D 30) B 31) C 32) B 33) A 34) D 35) D 36) B 37) D 38) E 39) D 40) C 41) C 42) D 43) A 44) A 45) E 46) D 47) A 48) B 49) D 50) E 51) C 52) B 53) D 54) D 55) A 56) D Version 1

57) A 58) C 59) B 60) D 61) A 62) A 63) C 64) A 65) D 66) A 67) A 68) E 69) A 70) A 71) A 72) A 73) A 74) A

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Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Impetigo involves itching papules that break and form a very contagious yellow crust. ⊚ ⊚

All warts caused by human papillomaviruses are linked to cancers. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Chickenpox is caused by an orthopoxvirus. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Debridement of diseased tissue is important in the care of patients with gas gangrene. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) Molluscum contagiosum is transmitted by direct contact with skin lesions, fomites, and sexual activity. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Mottled, discolored skinpigmentation is observed in patients with tinea versicolor. ⊚ ⊚

true false

7) Diseases that manifest as skin rashes are transmitted through direct contact withaffected individuals or with fomites.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

8) The most serious teratogenic effects of intrauterine rubella infection occur if it is acquired during the third trimester. ⊚ ⊚

The eye generally has diverse normal biota present, similar to the skin microbiome. ⊚ ⊚

10)

true false

Occassionally, Staphylococcus epidermidis may be isolated from the eye. ⊚ ⊚

11)

true false

Herpes keratitis is an infection of the eye. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 12) Microbes are not likely to be found in which of the following locations on human skin?

A) B) C) D)

13)

Sensory nerve fiber in the dermis The stratum corneum Hair follicle Sebaceous gland

The integument includes all of the following except ______.

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A) skin B) hair C) nails D) sweat glands E) surface capillaries

14)

In the skin, blood vessels are found in the ______.

A) stratum corneum B) dermis C) stratum basale D) subcutaneous layer E) dermis and subcutaneous layers

15)

Which of the following statements about blisters is correct?

A) B) C) D)

16)

Which of the following skin defenses and its mechanism is mismatched?

A) B) C) D)

17)

Blistersare confined to the epidermis. Blistersoriginate in the dermis. Blistersoriginate in the subcutaneous layer. Blistersresult from a separation of epidermis from dermis.

Keratinized surface; protein that provides waterproofing Antimicrobial peptides; disrupt positively charged bacterial membranes Sebum; lipid hydrolysis leads to toxic by-products that inhibit microbial growth Lysozyme; hydrolyzes peptidoglycan in bacterial cell walls

Protective features of the skin include all of the following except ______.

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A) a keratinized surface B) resident biota C) high salt content D) high pH E) lysozyme

18) Which material in skin provides protection from abrasions, water damage, and microorganism entry?

A) Lysozyme B) Keratin C) Sweat D) Sebum E) Salt

19) The environment of human skin requires an adaptation for microbes that can tolerate moderately ______ conditions.

A) halophilic B) psychrophilic C) thermophilic D) anaerobic E) alkaline

20)

Which microorganism species is most well-adapted to life on the skin?

A) Streptococcus pyogenes B) Corynebacterium diphtheriae C) Staphylococcus epidermidis D) Malassezia E) Candidaalbicans

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21)

The smallpox vaccine uses the ______ virus.

A) smallpox B) herpessimplex C) vaccinia D) human herpesvirus 6 E) variola

22)

Which of the following statements about measlesis incorrect?

A) It is transmitted by direct contact with the rash. B) Humans are the only reservoir for the pathogen. C) Secondary bacterial otitis media and sinusitis can occur. D) It may involve a fatal complication called subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE). E) Dry cough, sore throat, fever, and conjunctivitis are symptoms.

23)

Measles is described as a ______ skin lesion.

A) pustular B) bulla C) vesicular D) macule E) maculopapular

24) Which of the following isa febrile disease characterized by a rash and is caused by a virus that can cross the placenta to cause serious fetal damage?

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A) Impetigo B) Shingles C) Smallpox D) Measles E) Rubella

25)

Which of the following statements is correct regarding rubella?

A) It is caused by the measles virus ( Morbillivirus). B) It is not preventable by a vaccine. C) It is associated with congenital transmission causing miscarriage, deafness, and cardiac and mental defects in the infant. D) It manifests as high fever, severe sore throat, severe cough, and myalgia.

26) The organisms that cause ringworm, or tinea, use keratin protein as their growth substrate. This is why these infections ________. A) B) C) D)

27)

produce a rash all over the body during an infection are restricted to superficial skin layers cause a discoloration of the skinby damaging skin pigment protein have a high mortality rate

The enzyme that clots plasma is ______.

A) catalase B) coagulase C) hyaluronidase D) staphylokinase E) kinase

28)

Necrotizing fasciitis is _______.

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A) also called impetigo B) possibly caused by antibodies to Group A streptococci that cross-react with body tissues C) associated with strains of S treptococcus pyogenes producing destructive enzymes and toxins D) typically a sequelae of streptococcal pharyngitis E) not treatable with antimicrobial drugs

29)

Which of the following is the most common form of transmission for impetigo? A) Fomites B) Direct contact C) Mechanical vectors D) Blood E) Body fluids

30)

Impetigo is caused by ______.

A) C. perfringens B) C. diphtheriae C) S. aureus D) S. pyogenes E) Both S. aureus and S. pyogenesare correct.

31) The toxin of Staphylococcus aureusthat causes blisters and desquamation of skin in staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome is ______.

A) enterotoxin B) hemolysin C) toxic shock syndrome toxin D) exfoliative toxin E) erythrogenic toxin

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32)

Infections caused by Staphylococcus aureus include all of the following except ______.

A) meningitis B) carbuncles C) impetigo D) scalded skin syndrome E) chickenpox

33)

Which of the following statements does not pertain to Streptococcus pyogenes?

A) It is often spread from an endogenous source. B) It secretes streptokinase. C) It causes impetigo. D) It coats itself with host proteins. E) It causes gas gangrene.

34)

Streptococcus pyogenes causes all of the following infections except ______.

A) necrotizing fasciitis B) erysipelas C) impetigo D) scarlet fever E) scalded skin syndrome

35)

Which of the following is not true of cellulitis?

A) It is caused by S. aureus or S. pyogenes. B) It affects the epidermis layer of the skin. C) It causes pain, tenderness, swelling, and warmth. D) Lymphangitis may occur with this infection. E) Surgery may be required for treatment.

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36)

Which of the following is not true of staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (SSSS)?

A) It predominantly affects newborns and babies. B) It is an exotoxin-mediated disease. C) The toxins causebullous lesions. D) The skin splits between the dermis and epidermis. E) The skin splits within the epidermis.

37)

The main causative agent of gas gangrene is ______.

A) Staphylococcus aureus B) Streptococcus pyogenes C) Mycobacterium leprae D) Staphylococcus epidermidis E) Clostridium perfringens

38)

Smallpox is a disease in which _______.

A) fever, malaise, and rash occur B) the virus becomes latent in ganglia of sensory neurons C) recurrent episodes are called shingles D) transmission occurs by direct contact with skin crusts E) All of thechoices are correct.

39)

Chickenpox _______.

A) is transmitted by inhalation of respiratory secretions B) is transmitted by skin lesion contact or airborne spread of lesion material C) has an incubation period of 10 to 20 days D) has fever and vesicular rash that occurs in successive crops E) All of thechoices are correct.

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40)

Human herpesvirus 3 (HHV-3) _______.

A) uses the respiratory epithelium as its portal of entry B) becomes latent in dorsal root ganglia that serve specific dermatomes C) has humans as its reservoir D) causes chickenpox and shingles E) All of thechoices are correct.

41) If a person who has never been infected withhuman herpesvirus 3comes in contact with the fluid of shingles lesions, they will come down with ______.

A) herpes labialis B) shingles C) chickenpox D) infectious mononucleosis E) herpes keratitis

42)

Oral lesions called Koplik's spots are seen in patients with ______.

A) croup B) mumps C) influenza D) measles E) rubella

43)

Which of the following statements is incorrect about the MMR vaccine?

A) B) C) D)

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It contains attenuated viruses. It contains toxoids. It is given in early childhood. It protects against three different viral diseases.

44)

Measles is also known as ______.

A) rubella B) shingles C) rubeola D) fifth disease E) varicella

45)

Which of the following is not true of measles?

A) Its causative agent is a member of the Morbillivirus genus. B) It is asingle-stranded nonenveloped RNA virus. C) It is in theParamyxovirus family. D) It causes cellmembranes to fuse to form syncytia. E) It is transmittedby respiratory droplets.

46)

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding fifth disease?

A) It is caused by Parvovirus B19. B) It is a childhood febrile disease characterized by a red rash on the cheeks. C) The causative agent iscapable of crossingthe placenta. D) It is characterized by a maculopapular rash that lasts for days to weeks. E) All of thechoices are correct.

47)

Which of the following statement is incorrect about warts?

A) They are caused by human papillomaviruses (HPV). B) They are transmitted by direct contact or fomites. C) They include deep plantar warts on the soles of the feet. D) They are frequently cancerous. E) Topical salicylic acid can be used for removal.

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48)

Cutaneous anthrax is _______. A) foundonly in humans B) transmitted by contact C) a high mortality disease D) seen in epidemic proportions in the United States

49)

Which form of anthrax involves a black eschar on the skin?

A) B) C) D)

50)

Inhalational Gastrointestinal Cutaneous Muscular

Leishmaniasis is transmitted through the bite of a/an ______. A) reduviid "kissing" bug B) tsetse fly C) Anopheles mosquito D) sand fly E) hard-bodied tick

51)

Which of the following is mismatched?

A) Tinea capitis - ringworm of the beard B) Tinea pedis - ringworm of the foot C) Tinea cruis - ringworm of the groin D) Tinea corporis - ringworm of the body E) Tinea unguium - ringworm of the nails

52)

Transmission of tineas include _______.

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A) B) C) D)

53)

Which of the following is not a causative agent of cutaneous mycoses?

A) B) C) D)

54)

human to human animal to human soil to human All of the choices are correct.

Malassezia Trichophyton Microsporum Epidermophyton

Which of the following is the causative agent of tinea versicolor?

A) B) C) D)

Malassezia Trichophyton Microsporum Epidermophyton

55) Your sister cut herself with a knife, and within a few days, she had a severe pusproducing infection of the hand.A day later, skin begins to come off, exposing muscle and other tissue below the skin. Predict what caused the severity of this infection. A) B) C) D)

The infectious agent is a fungus. This is not an infectious disease;it is an autoimmune disease. The infectious agent produces exotoxins. The infectious agent is likely a virus.

56) In a recent surgery, when the cut area was sutured, bacteria entered the open tissue. As a result, you now have an infection of deep tissue exhibiting redness, swelling, pain, fever, and a rash. With your knowledge of microbiology, you predict that you have a developed an infection caused by ______. Version 1

A) B) C) D)

57)

E. coli human herpesvirus 3 Staphylococcus Neisseria

Which of the following statements regarding viremia is incorrect?

A) B) C) D)

Droplet transmission of viruses like the measles virus results in viremia. Shingles is a manifestation of persistent viremia after a course of chicken pox. HHV-3is disseminated to the skin by viremia. The variola virus multiplies in white blood cells, andcell lysis results in viremia.

58) Considering the diseases and conditions described in this chapter, those transmitted by respiratory droplets are caused by ______.

A) B) C) D)

59)

viruses bacteria fungi All of these choices are correct.

Which of the following statements concerning rubella immunization is correct?

A) The rubella vaccine given in childhood can protect both the child and any children that she may bear in the future. B) A pregnant woman who contracts rubella should be immunized to protect her unborn child. C) A child born with congenital rubella may be immunized to prevent recurrence of the disease. D) Administration of the rubella vaccine at 12 to 15 months of age is good protection against congenital rubella.

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60) Which of the following statements regarding vaccines as disease preventatives is incorrect?

A) B) C) D) blindness.

Zostavax is recommended for older adults to prevent shingles. There is currently no smallpox vaccine available to the general public. Immunization is currentlynot possible against Clostridium perfringens. The Carter Center has promoted the development of a vaccine against river

61) Despite the fact that skin-to-skin contact is important in establishing bonding between babies and their caregivers, that same contact can also expose them to pathogens. You have been asked to teach a short class for child care workers to help them identify highly contagious diseases that can cause outbreaks in their environment. Which two of these conditions are most common and most infectious in babies?

A) Impetigo and conjunctivitis B) Conjunctivitis and rubella C) Impetigo and ringworm D) Ringworm and hand, foot, and mouth disease E) Impetigo and cellulitis

62) Impetigo can be caused by either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. Culture-based identification of the causative organism can be complicated by _______.

A) the ability of S. aureus to kill S. pyogenes B) the common surface antigens of these two organisms C) the fastidious nature of both organisms D) their common optimal growth temperature, 37°C

63) To perform the coagulase test on a strain of bacteria that is believed to be S. aureus, the first step is to inoculate a tube of ______ with the strain of interest.

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A) B) C) D)

64)

blood plasma blood nutrient broth mannitol salt medium

Staphylococcus can be differentiated from Streptococcus by the ______.

A) Gram stain B) coagulase test C) catalase test D) fermentation of mannitol E) cellular morphology

65) Current recommendations for the treatment of MRSA infections in the United States will change based on _______.

A) patterns of antibiotic resistance B) the availability of different antibiotics C) the cost of different antibiotics D) congressional approval

66) Current recommendations in the United States for treatment of MRSA are to use _______.

A) morethan one antibiotic B) erythromycin and a second antibiotic C) any antibiotic other than methicillin D) no antibiotics to allow the immune system to function E) no antibiotics to curb the development of resistance

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67) Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the effects of rubella and rubeola in different populations?

A) Infection during pregnancy with either of these viruses can cause serious injury to the fetus. B) A 30-year-old man infected with rubella will experience severe symptoms and require constant medical attention for several weeks. C) A six-year-old child infected with rubeola will experience fever, cough, and a rash, and barring complications, should recover in a few weeks. D) Congenitalrubella is least serious if it is contracted during the final trimester of pregnancy.

68)

Which of the following ocular tissues and infections is mismatched?

A) B) C) D)

69)

Trachoma - infection of epithelial cells Keratitis - infection of deepeye tissue Conjunctivitis - milky discharge and infection of eyelid lining River blindness - microfilariaevisible in the vitreous chamber

Eyes are relatively vulnerable to infection because _______.

A) they are not covered by keratinized epithelium B) immune privilege restricts access to the cells conferring innate immunity C) there is a restricted response by B and T cells D) All of these choices are correct.

70) The two tissues of the eye with exposed surfaces susceptible to contamination are the ______ and the ______.

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A) conjunctiva; cornea B) conjunctiva; iris C) conjunctiva; lens D) cornea; lens E) cornea; iris

71) Among the natural defenses present in tears is the protein lactoferrin. As you can infer from its name, it is also present in milk and other body secretions, and its function involves binding iron ions. The presence of lactoferrin in tears is protective against bacterial infection because _______.

A) all pathogens must acquire iron from their environment and lactoferrinensures that the iron concentration is low B) pathogens withmagnetosomes will be segregated from the eye tissue and swept away by the tears C) free iron serves as an immune signal to recruit T cells to the eye D) in the presence of lysozyme, as found in tears, the proteins form a protective barrier on the lens

72)

A higher rate of eye infections can be expected from a person who _______. A) B) C) D)

73)

has a vitamin deficiency is very young wears glasses cannot producetears

Which of the following provides the eye with its best defense against microorganisms?

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A) Conjunctiva B) Eyelids C) Lymphocytes D) Tears E) Eyelashes

74)

Which of the following statements regarding eye infections is correct?

A) Eye infections may be opportunistic infections by the normal microbiota of the eye. B) Immune privilege restricts virtually all microbes from the tissues of the eye. C) Lysozyme in tears targets the gram-negative microbes that contact the eye. D) Inflammation occurs in most eye infections and serves to initiate repair of the damaged tissue.

75)

Which of the following is not true of bacterial conjunctivitis?

A) B) C) D)

76)

Which of the following statements is true of viral conjunctivitis?

A) B) C) D)

77)

It can be transmitted through both direct and indirect contact. It can be caused by S. pyogenes or S. pneumoniae. Treatment is with a broad-spectrum topical antibiotic. Infection produces a clear discharge from the eye.

It is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis or Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It has a mucopurulent discharge. It is caused by adenoviruses. It must be treated with both topical and oral antibiotics.

Which eye disease is characterized by a pannus forming over the cornea?

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A) Simple conjunctivitis B) Keratitis C) Stye D) Trachoma E) River blindness

78)

The causative agent of trachoma is ______.

A) adenovirus B) S. aureus C) C. trachomatis D) herpes simplex virus type 1(HSV-1) E) N. gonorrhoeae

79)

Keratitis is usually caused by ______.

A) B) C) D)

80)

River blindness is _______.

A) B) C) D)

81)

Streptococcus pyogenes Staphylococcus aureus herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1) Neisseria gonorrhoeae

preventable by a vaccine administered to travelers a disease caused by helminths invading the eyes endemic in Australia, New Zealand, and South Pacific islands transmitted by mosquito vector

The disease pathogenesis seen in river blindness iscaused by ______.

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A) Wolbachia bacteria B) Onchocerca volvulus worms C) a blood fluke D) herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1) E) Both Wolbachiaand Onchocerca volvulusare correct.

82)

What is the only way to prevent non-neonatal conjunctivitis?

A) Insect repellent B) Good hygiene C) Prophylactic antiviral chemotherapy D) Vaccine E) Screen pregnant women

83) Your child has developed an eye infection with a yellowish discharge. You predict that this is a case of _______. A) trachoma B) herpes keratitis C) rubella D) bacterial conjunctivitis E) helminth infection

84)

Neonatal conjunctivitis differs from non-neonatal conjunctivitis in that ________.

A) it is transmitted during birth and occurs only in neonates less than four weeks old B) neonatal conjunctivitis can be caused by Chlamydia trachomatis, Neisseriagonnorhoeae, or any number of viruses C) it cannot be prevented as the causative organisms are normal microbiotafor the mother D) neonates have immune privilege, and are therefore more susceptible to all types of infection

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85) Many gyms are abundantly supplied with towels and antimicrobial sprays for wiping down equipment after each user. The reason for this is to cut down on the transmission of _______.

A) skin microbes like MRSA B) athlete's foot fungus C) measles virus D) ringworm E) shingles

86) Mannitol salt agar is selective for Staphylococcus aureus because this organism ________.

A) can withstand high salt concentration B) is unique in its ability to ferment mannitol C) can synthesizecatalase D) can tolerate brief exposures to high temperature E) is often resistant to methicillin

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Answer Key Test name: Microbiology18 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) TRUE 12) A 13) E 14) E 15) D 16) B 17) D 18) B 19) A 20) C 21) C 22) A 23) E 24) E 25) C 26) B Version 1

27) B 28) C 29) B 30) E 31) D 32) E 33) E 34) E 35) B 36) D 37) E 38) A 39) E 40) E 41) C 42) D 43) B 44) C 45) B 46) E 47) D 48) B 49) C 50) D 51) A 52) D 53) A 54) A 55) C 56) C Version 1

57) B 58) A 59) A 60) D 61) A 62) A 63) A 64) C 65) A 66) A 67) B 68) D 69) D 70) A 71) A 72) D 73) D 74) A 75) D 76) C 77) D 78) C 79) C 80) B 81) E 82) B 83) D 84) A 85) A 86) A Version 1

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Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Pneumovax is a vaccine for prevention of disease caused by strains of Neisseria meningitidis. ⊚ ⊚

Cryptococcal meningitis is highly communicable among humans. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Viral meningitis normally requires aggressive antiviral treatment. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis is caused by a prion. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Some cases of CJD may be caused by a mutation of the PrP gene. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Prions can be destroyed by autoclaving. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Botulism is often referred to as lockjaw.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

In rabies, spasms of muscles for swallowing lead to a fear of water. ⊚ ⊚

true false

9) Up to 50% of persons who survived polio as children will suffer from post-polio syndrome later in life. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) In both botulism and tetanus, respiratory muscles cannot facilitate breathing and, if untreated, respiratory collapse leads to death. ⊚ ⊚

11)

true false

Botox injections contain botulinum toxin. ⊚ true ⊚ false

12) Tetanus can be prevented with the DTaP childhood immunization and boosters with the tetanus toxoid. ⊚ true ⊚ false

13)

The oral and inactivated polio vaccines are made from plant cell cultures. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

14) No cases of attenuated polio virus reverting to a neurovirulent strain have been documented. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 15) Which brain defense restricts substances from entering the brain via the vascular system?

A) Meninges B) Blood-brain barrier C) Macrophages D) Microglia E) Cranium

16)

Cerebrospinal fluid is found in the ______.

A) pia mater B) dura mater C) subarachnoid space D) arachnoid mater E) All of the choices are correct.

17) Place the following components of the nervous system anatomy in order from skull to brain.

A) Subarachnoid space, arachnoid mater, dura mater, pia mater B) Dura mater, arachnoid mater, subarachnoid space, pia mater C) Dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater, subarachnoid space D) Arachnoid mater, subarachnoid space, dura mater, pia mater E) Pia mater, arachnoid mater, subarachnoid space, dura mater

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18)

The presence of Neisseria in a sample of cerebrospinal fluid indicates that _______.

A) the patient has an infection with Neisseria B) the patient has previously had an infection with Neisseria C) the patient is healthy; Neisseria is part of the normal biota D) there is a deficiency in the patient's blood-brain barrier

19) The concept of "immune privilege" explains why the central nervous system has _______.

A) B) C) D)

20)

a greater immune response than the rest of the body a reduced immune response compared to the rest of the body a completely different set of immune responses more MHC markers than other tissues

Which type of cell has phagocytic capabilities in the central nervous system?

A) Astrocytes B) Schwann cells C) Macrophages D) Microglial cells E) Neurons

21)

The gut-brain axis refers to _______.

A) changes in brain chemistry and behavior caused by the gut microbiota B) neurons in the spinal cord that connect the gut and the brain C) the location of dormant viruses that infect both the gut and the brain D) pores in the blood-brain barrier that permit the passage of glucose and other nutrients

22)

The normal biota of the central nervous system includes _______.

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A) Neisseria meningitidis B) Herpes simplex I C) Herpes simplex II D) Streptococcus agalactiae E) The CNS has nonormal biota.

23)

Although many viruses can cause meningitis, the most common viral cause is ______.

A) herpes simplex B) cytomegalovirus C) arbovirus D) enterovirus E) arenavirus

24)

The organism responsible for the majority of neonatal meningitis is ______.

A) Streptococcus agalactiae B) Escherichia coli K1 C) Listeria monocytogenes D) Haemophilus influenzae E) Neisseria meningitidis

25)

Meningococcemia is _______.

A) best treated with penicillin G B) associated with vascular collapse, hemorrhage, and petechiae C) started from a nasopharyngeal infection D) caused by a gram-negative diplococcus E) All of the choicesare correct.

26)

Which of the following does not apply to Neisseria meningitidis?

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A) Its virulence factors include a capsule, pili, endotoxin, and IgA protease. B) It causes a serious meningitis. C) Its reservoir is the nasopharynx of human carriers. D) It can be easily transmitted in day care facilities, dorms, and military barracks. E) It is a common cause of bacterial pneumonia.

27)

Which of the following is/are a sign or symptom of meningitis? A) Headache B) Stiff neck C) White blood cells in cerebrospinal fluid D) Fever E) All of the choicesare correct.

28)

Meningococci initially colonize the ______.

A) lacrimal ducts B) oral mucosa C) nasopharynx D) Eustachian tube

29)

Neisseria meningitidis is transmitted by ______.

A) B) C) D)

30)

an insect vector close contact sexual contact fomites

Treatment for Neisseria meningitidis consists of ______.

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A) vancomycin B) oral penicillin G C) intravenouspenicillin G D) rifampin E) tetracycline

31)

Which of the following is not true of Streptococcus pneumoniae?

A) B) C) D)

32)

It is the most frequent cause of community-acquired meningitis. It has a polysaccharide capsule that resists phagocytosis. It produces analpha-hemolysin and hydrogen peroxide. It is a small, gram-negative coccus.

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding Listeria monocytogenes?

A) It is resistant to cold B) It is fastidious C) It is resistant to heat D) It is resistant to salt E) It does not produce a capsule

33) Which organism is a common cause of meningitis in AIDS patients and can be found in bird droppings?

A) Listeriamonocytogenes B) Haemophilusinfluenzae C) Neisseriameningitidis D) Cryptococcusneoformans E) Streptococcusagalactiae

34)

Cryptococcus neoformans is a ______.

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A) B) C) D)

gram-negative bacterium gram-positive bacterium prion fungus

35) Agricultural workers and field archaeologists are exposed to this organism which, despite entering via the respiratory tract, can cause meningitis.

A) Haemophilusinfluenzae B) Coccidioidesimmitis C) Cryptococcusneoformans D) Streptococcuspneumoniae E) Neisseriameningitidis

36) Arthrospores of Coccidioides immitis develop into ______ that will releaseendospores into the lungs. A) hyphae B) capsules C) spherules D) capsids E) buds

37)

Neonatal meningitis is most commonly transmitted by ______.

A) breastfeeding B) hospital personnel C) transplacental infection D) exposure in the birth canal E) exposure from other infants

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38) The organism found in contaminated powdered infant formula that can cause meningitis is ______.

A) Escherichia coli O157:H7 B) Escherichia coli K1 C) Cronobacter sakazakii D) Streptococcus agalactiae E) Cryptococcus neoformans

39)

Which of the following is not true of meningoencephalitis?

A) B) C) D)

40)

The causative organisms are Naegleria fowleri and Acanthamoeba. The condition involves infection of both the brain and meninges. The mode of transmission is via respiratory droplets. The treatment for primary amoebic meningoencephalitis (PAM)is mostly ineffective.

Which of the following is caused by Haemophilus influenzae?

A) Bacterial meningitis B) Influenza (flu) C) Pharyngitis D) Kuru E) Tetanus

41)

Which of the following diseases exhibits the highest mortality rate? A) B) C) D)

42)

Jamestown Canyon encephalitis La Crosse encephalitis Eastern equineencephalitis West Nileencephalitis

The best defense against arboviruses is ______.

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A) B) C) D)

prophylactic rifampin vector control vaccination prompt treatment with acyclovir

43) As a nurse, you have to teach your patients about control and management of their diseases as well as the facts of the disease--risk, treatment, symptoms, etc. How might you instruct a patient who has West Nile virus to avoid the infectious agent in the future? A) Be sure to treat your dogs and catswith flea medication. B) Do not eat food served from kiosks and food trucks in foreign countries. C) Always drink bottled water when outside of the United States. D) Do not go outside at dusk ordawn, and cover the skin if this is unavoidable. E) Get an annual vaccination if you live in an area where the virus is known to circulate.

44)

Encephalitis is most commonly caused by a ______.

A) B) C) D)

bacterium protozoan virus helminth

45) What is the likelihood that a patient infected by West Nile virus will develop West Nile encephalitis? A) Less than 1% B) Between 1% and 10% C) Between 10% and 15% D) Greater than 20% E) Greater than 50%

46)

Toxoplasmosis prevention includes ______.

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A) B) C) D)

47)

vaccination of humans vaccination of cats hygienic precautions vector control

Which of the following is not a causative agent of acute encephalitis?

A) JC virus B) Arbovirus C) Herpes simplex virus D) Toxoplasmagondii E) Varicella-zoster virus

48)

Encephalitis caused by arboviruses involves the development of _______. A) fever, headache, and rash B) coma, convulsions, and paralysis in severe cases C) myalgia and orbital pain D) muscle aches and joint stiffness E) All of the choices are correct.

49)

Each of the following statements is true for Toxoplasma gondii except that _______.

A) B) C) D)

50)

it is a flagellated parasite infection often fatal for AIDS patients it can cause stillbirth it has a narrow host range

What organism is the main reservoir and host for Toxoplasma gondii?

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A) Cat B) Dog C) Mouse D) Mosquito E) Raccoon

51)

Spongiform encephalopathies are _______.

A) associated with abnormal, transmissible, protein in the brain B) chronic, fatal infections of the nervous system C) caused by prions D) Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease, kuru, and Gertsmann-Straussler-Scheinker syndrome E) All of thechoices are correct.

52)

Which of the following is not a prion disease?

A) B) C) D)

53)

Scrapie Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease Bovine spongiform encephalopathy Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis

Patients with Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease live ______ post diagnosis.

A) less than 1year B) 1 to 5 years C) 5 to 10 years D) 10 to 20 years E) greater than 25years

54)

Prions can be transmitted by all of the following except _______.

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A) ingesting brain material B) ingesting meat from infected animals C) surgical instruments D) cornea transplants E) All of the choices have been documentedas methods of prion transmission.

55)

Subacute encephalitis may be caused by ______.

A) Toxoplasma gondii B) prions C) herpes simplex virus D) persistent measles virus E) All of the choices are correct.

56) Although prion infectious agents are more closely related to viruses than any other kind of infectious agents, there are still some major differences between the two. Which statement describes a major difference? A) Prions are not destroyed by heat, but viruses can be inactivated by heat. B) Viruses can be transmitted by animal to human or human to human, but prions are always human to human transmission. C) Viruses do not contain protein, whereas prions do. D) Viral infections can always be treated and cured, whereas prion diseases cannot.

57)

Tetanus differs from botulism in that _______.

A) tetanus results in flaccid paralysis, while botulism paralysis is rigid B) tetanus results from an exotoxin, botulism from an endotoxin C) there is a vaccine for botulism but not for tetanus D) muscles cannot relax in tetanus, while muscles cannot contract in botulism E) All of thechoices are correct.

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58)

Which of the following statements about rabies is incorrect?

A) Rabies is azoonotic disease. B) Wild populationsof bats, skunks, raccoons, cats, and canines are primary reservoirs. C) Transmission caninvolve bites, scratches, and inhalation. D) The average incubation period in human is one week. E) Symptoms includeanxiety, agitation, muscle spasms, convulsions, and paralysis.

59)

Which of the following statements regarding poliomyelitis is incorrect?

A) Summer outbreaks in the U.S. have been increasing in frequency. B) The virus is transmitted by contaminated water. C) It can be asymptomatic or mild with headache, sore throat, fever, and nausea. D) If the virus enters the central nervous system, motor neurons can be infected and destroyed. E) It is caused by poliovirus (genus Enterovirus).

60)

Poliovirus initially multiplies in the ______.

A) intestine B) central nervous system C) lymphoid tissue D) basal ganglia E) nasopharynx

61)

In paralytic polio, which structures are damaged?

A) Peripheral nerves B) Diaphragm C) Anterior horn cells D) Sensory nerves E) Brain stem

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62) Production of a neurotoxin that binds to target sites on spinal cord neurons responsible for inhibiting skeletal muscle contraction is a characteristic of ______.

A) B) C) D)

63)

Clostridium botulinum Clostridium perfringens Clostridium difficile Clostridium tetani

The food-borne disease that involves neurotoxin is ______.

A) B) C) D)

gastrointestinal anthrax Bacillus cereus intoxication botulism Clostridium perfringens gastroenteritis

64) Production of a neurotoxin that prevents acetylcholine release from motor neurons at neuromuscular junctions is a characteristic of ______.

A) B) C) D)

65)

Clostridium botulinum Clostridium perfringens Clostridium difficile Clostridium tetani

Which of the following pertains to both tetanus and foodborne botulism?

A) They occurwhen endospore-contaminated soil enters deep wounds. B) They are caused by enterotoxins of the pathogen. C) An exotoxin blocks acetylcholine release. D) Nausea and diarrhea are symptoms. E) Treatment involves antitoxin therapy.

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66)

Which is the exotoxin of botulism?

A) Hemolysin B) Tetanospasmin C) Peroxidase D) Factor V E) Botulinum

67)

African sleeping sickness is caused by ______.

A) Toxoplasma gondii B) Trypanosoma brucei C) Leishmania braziliensis D) Lyssavirus E) Plasmodium falciparum

68)

The vector involved in African sleeping sickness is the ______.

A) reduviid "kissing" bug B) tsetse fly C) Anopheles mosquito D) sand fly E) hard-bodied tick

69) What do all of these diseases --amoebic encephalitis, rabies, Creutzfeld-Jacob disease -have in common? A) B) C) D)

They are all caused by protozoans. Mortaility rates are all extremely high. They are all transmitted through animal bites. There is a genetic component to all of these diseases, in addition to the infectious

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agent.

70)

Treatment of an animal bite for possible rabies includes _______.

A) debridement B) washing the bite with soap or detergent C) infusing the wound with human rabies immune globulin (HRIG) D) postexposure vaccination E) All of thechoices are correct.

71) Your friend was bitten by an aggressive dog with a history of biting without cause, and it is suspected to have rabies. The city health department recommends the rabies vaccination, even though she has already been exposed to the infectious agent. Which statement best describes why the vaccine can be given post-exposure? A) This particular strain of the rabies virus is probably nonpathogenic, so the vaccine is given to boost the immune system's protective functions. B) Since there is no treatment available, they suggest the vaccine as a last resort. C) The virus exhibits a long incubation period, and therefore, in many cases, this providesthe vaccine adequate time to have a protective effect in the patient. D) There were few virus particles in the bite, so her immune system has enough time to respond.

72)

The preferred preventative measure for polio in the United States is the _______.

A) inactive vaccine developed by Jonas Salk B) oral, active vaccine developed by Jonas Salk C) inactive vaccine developed by Albert Sabin D) oral, active vaccine developed by Albert Sabin E) No preventativemeasures are used because polio has been eradicated in the United States.

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73) As a child, you received the OPVvaccine and its boosters. Now you are going on a mission trip to Pakistan, and the vaccine is recommended by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. When you go to the health office for the vaccine, they giveyou the IPV vaccine. When you ask why you are receiving the IPV rather than the OPV, the personnel explain that _______. A) the IPV is preferred by patients because it can be taken orally B) the IPV has fewer active viruses in it than the OPV, soit is safer C) IPV is used as a booster only, and OPV is used exclusively for children's first immunization D) there is no possibility of actually developing polio from this vaccine

74) Toxoplasma gondii infects the brain, as do many otherpathogens. However, Toxoplasma differs from otherpathogens in that it _______. A) B) C) D)

manifests in behavioral changes in the host causes tumor formation in the brain causes destruction of brain tissue always kills the host

75) The expected outcome of an oxidase test performed to identify Neisseria menigitidis is _______.

A) a color change of a colony from tan to black when oxidase reagent is added B) the amplification of the oxi gene as detected on an agarose gel C) a zone of clearing surrounding colonies on chocolate agar D) cells colored black when stained and viewed under the microscope E) the appearance of bubbles when cells are mixed with hydrogen peroxide

76) Meningitis can be caused by a number of microbes, and the causative organism is often identified by microscopic observation of the cerebrospinal fluid. Identify the mismatch in the following list oforganisms and the description of the microscopic observation.

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A) Listeria monocytogenes; gram-negative coccobacillus with flagella B) Enterovirus; no bacteria appear to be present in CSF C) Neisseria meningitidis; gram-negative diplococcus D) Streptococcus pneumoniae; gram-positive flattened coccus E) Cryptococcus neoformans; fungal cells with a thick capsule

77) Infectious diseases of the nervous system include those that affect the meninges only (meningitis), those that affect both the meninges and the brain (meningoencephalitis), and those that affect the brain only (encephalitis). From the list below, identify the disease and its classification that is mismatched.

A) Naegleria fowleri infection - meningoencephalitis B) La Crosse Virus infection - encephalitis C) Polio - meningitis D) African sleeping sickness - encephalitis E) Valley Fever - meningitis

78) Cultivation of Coccidioides species to confirm a diagnosis of Valley Fever is accomplished by plating the samples on ______ agar.

A) B) C) D)

Sabourad's blood birdseed chocolate

79) A group of men make an annual week-long hunting trip for deer season in West Virginia. This year, they had to chase a family of squirrels out of the cabin, and during the week, they killed several deer and processed the meat, eating venison steaks most nights. All of the men had a few mosquito bites, and two cases of beer were consumed. The following week, they all developed symptoms of fever, headache, confusion, and seizures. Which of the following organisms can be ruled out as the cause of this encephalitis?

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A) B) C) D)

Jamestown Canyon Virus Eastern Equine Encephalitis Virus JC Virus Powassan Virus

80) A group is planning a cross-country hike on the Pacific Crest Trail, from the Mexican border, through California, Oregon, and Washington, to the Canadian border. Which of the following should not be a concern for the group while on this trip?

A) B) C) D)

Powassan Virus Valley Fever Rabies West Nile Encephalitis

81) Two nervous system diseases are food-borne, botulism caused by Clostridium botulinum and listeriosis, a form ofmeningitis, caused by Listeria monocytogenes. These diseases differ in that _______,

A) botulism results from an intoxication, whereas listeriosis is an infection B) listeriosisprimarilyaffects pregnant women, whereas botulism can affect anyone C) listeriosis is associated with contaminated low-acid vegetables, whereas botulism is associated with contaminated infant formula D) botulism has a very high mortality rate (~50%), whereas listeriosis is readily cured by a course of antibiotics

82) Both Streptococcus pneumoniae and Cryptococcusneoformans are causes of meningitis, and both are diagnosed by microscopic observation. How are they distinguished in the microscope?

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A) Cryptococcus is a fungus whereas Streptococcus is a bacterium; cells will be dramatically different in complexity and size. B) Streptococcus has a prominent capsule that can be observed by negative staining of the sample. C) These organisms have different cellular arrangements; Streptococcus form chains, whereas Cryptococcus forms irregular clusters of cells. D) Because Cryptococcus is a fungus, it will not react in the Gram stain, and the cells will always remain colorless.

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Answer Key Test name: Microbiology19 1) FALSE 2) FALSE 3) FALSE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) TRUE 12) TRUE 13) FALSE 14) FALSE 15) B 16) C 17) B 18) A 19) B 20) D 21) A 22) E 23) D 24) A 25) E 26) E Version 1

27) E 28) C 29) B 30) C 31) D 32) B 33) D 34) D 35) B 36) C 37) D 38) C 39) C 40) A 41) C 42) B 43) D 44) C 45) A 46) C 47) D 48) B 49) D 50) A 51) E 52) D 53) A 54) E 55) E 56) A Version 1

57) D 58) D 59) A 60) C 61) C 62) D 63) C 64) A 65) E 66) E 67) B 68) B 69) B 70) E 71) C 72) A 73) D 74) A 75) A 76) A 77) C 78) A 79) C 80) A 81) A 82) A

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Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Under normal healthy circumstances, the lymphatic system filters any microorganisms present. ⊚ ⊚

The cardiovascular and lymphatic systems have no normal biota. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Plague is a quarantinable disease. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Lyme disease is only seen in people living in Lyme, Connecticut. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Humans should be routinely vaccinated against Lyme disease. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Aedes mosquitoes are the vectors involved in Chikungunya and dengue fever. ⊚ ⊚

true false

7) In severe cases of Rocky Mountain spotted fever, the enlarged lesions of the rash can become necrotic and predispose the patient to gangrene of toes and fingertips.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

Rifampin is the drug of choice for malaria. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 9) After a Drug Enforcement Agency raid on a location that housed intravenous drug users, several were brought to the hospital with rapid breathing, fever, and an altered mental state. Which of the following statements is correct?

A) A broad-spectrum antibiotic is needed promptly, as they are likely to be in septic shock from intravenous introduction of microbes into the blood. B) Unsanitary conditions in the house probably resulted in infestations with insects, so it's prudent to examine them for insect bites that may provide a clue. C) Many drug users are HIV-positive, so the patients should all be monitored for levels of CD4 T-cells before any other action is taken. D) Stained blood smears should be performed promptly to look for abnormalities in the blood cells.

10) Epidemiologists classify diseases by their mortality rate (the percent of infected individuals who die from the disease) and by their communicability (how easy it is to transmit the disease). Which of the following diseases of the cardiovascular system is mismatched with a description of its properties?

A) B) C) D)

11)

Ebola; high mortality rate and high communicability AIDS; high mortality rate and low communicability Malaria;low mortality rate and high communicability Plague; somewhat high mortality rate and low communicability

Which of the following infectious agents and means of disposal are mismatched?

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A) Coagulation factors purified from blood must be heat-treated to destroy HIV. B) Carcasses of animals that died of anthrax must be incinerated to avoid endospores entering the soil. C) Mosquito bed nets must be washed in bleach weekly to eliminate any residual Plasmodium. D) Drums made with animalhides should be treated with sterilizing gas to eliminate endospores.

12) Several infections of the cardiovascular system can be identified by inspecting a stained blood smear in the microscope. For the following infections, identify the microscope observation that does not fit the disease.

A) B) C) D)

Chagas disease; protozoan visible amongblood cells Malaria; ring trophozoites visible inside red blood cells Babesiosis; protozoan visible inside red blood cells Epstein-Barr virus; virus visible inside red blood cells

13) Despite the aggressive defense of the cardiovascular system by the immune system, some microbes can invade and establish an infection in the blood. From the following list of microbes and their virulence factors, identify the mismatch.

A) B) C) D)

Bacillus anthracisproduces antioxidants to combat lysosomes. Trypanosoma cruzicloaks itself in host proteins to avoid immune recognition. Borrelia burgdorferichanges its surface antigens to avoid immune recognition. Coxiella burnetiiproduces an endospore-like structure.

14) Endocarditis is often a consequence of bacteria attached to the heart valves. These microbes are not eliminated by circulating lymphocytes because _______.

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A) these microbes become covered in platelets and fibrin which is not recognized as foreign by the immune system B) lymphocytes do not circulate through the heart valves to detect the presence of microbes C) Gram-positive microbes don't have an exotoxin surface molecule to trigger an immune response D) lymphocytes cannot engulf microbes attached to tissue

15) The heart wall has three layers. In order from the outer layer to the inner layer, they are ______.

A) B) C) D)

16)

epicardium, myocardium, and endocardium endocardium,epicardium, and myocardium endocardium, myocardium, and epicardium myocardium,endocardium, and epicardium

Which of the following statements regarding the structure of blood vessels is incorrect?

A) In contrast to veins, arteries have higher blood pressure, more tissue layers, and are thinner vessels. B) Capillaries have only a single layer of endothelium, rendering them fragile and leaky during an infection with a hemorrhagic fever virus. C) Connective tissue and muscle fibers are found in the layers of tissue surrounding both arteries and veins. D) Blood vessels are often found in parallel with lymphatic vessels.

17) Hemorrhagic and nonhemorrhagic fever diseases have a common feature of a high fever. These categories of diseases are distinguished by _______.

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A) the integrity of the capillary endothelium and its ability to contain the blood B) viral causes in hemorrhagic fevers and bacterial or protozoan causes in nonhemorrhagic fevers C) the overall mortality rate, as hemorrhagic fevers have a much higher mortality rate D) the pattern of the fever, whether it is constant or varies with time E) the viral load in the blood, specifically the viral titer

18)

The fibrous sac that encloses the heart is the ______.

A) epicardium B) myocardium C) endocardium D) pericardium E) ectocardium

19)

The cardiovascular system is highly protected from microbial infection because _______.

A) B) C) D)

20)

The most important defense of the cardiovascular system against infection is ______.

A) B) C) D)

21)

failure to do so will result in a systemic infection it is the only body system that is liquid-based, i.e., with blood it is the only body system that has no normal microbiota it is so close to the skin that even minor injuries could lead to major infection

lymphocytes in the blood fever lymph nodes the blood-brain barrier

The presence of viruses in the blood is called ______.

Version 1

A) B) C) D)

22)

When bacteria flourish and grow in the blood stream, the condition is termed ______.

A) B) C) D)

23)

viremia fungemia hemovirus septicemia

viremia fungemia bactocarditis sepsis

Which of the following statementsis incorrect regarding subacute endocarditis?

A) B) C) D)

It occurs exclusively in patients that have prior heart damage. It is caused by autoantibodies that inappropriately target heart and valve tissue. It can be caused by oral bacteria that are introduced to the bloodby dental procedures. Bacteria colonize previously damaged heart tissue resulting in biofilm growth.

24) Your patient was admitted for a gunshot wound about a week ago. As a precautionary activity, the doctor placed her on antibiotics for a few days while recuperating. Blood specimens are drawn on the patient a several times daily and sent to the microbiology lab for analysis of bacteria. Nothing has grown in culture. On her 4th day in the hospital, she has had no fever and no other signs of infection, but one set of blood specimens has been reported positive for a bacterium. The culture was identified by the lab as Staphylococcus epidermidis, a common organism on the skin. Predict the likely situation leading to this.

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A) The patient is immunodepressed and very susceptible to bacterial infection. B) Staphylococcus epidermidis has converted to a pathogen because of the antibiotics prescribed for the patient. C) Staphylococcus epidermidis isa skin contaminant that ended up in the blood specimen as a consequence of poor aseptic technique during the venipuncture. D) Staphylococcus epidermidis is a very slow growing bacterium and was probably in the blood right after the gunshot wound, but failed to grow until now.

25)

Most cases of sepsis are caused by ______.

A) fungi B) viruses C) prions D) bacteria E) protozoans

26)

Anthrax is ______.

A) a zoonosis B) transmitted by contact, inhalation, or ingestion C) a disease that, in humans, can cause a rapidly fatal toxemia and septicemia D) only seen sporadically in the United States E) All of thechoices are correct.

27)

Which of the following statements regarding Bacillus anthracis is incorrect?

A) A capsule and exotoxins are virulence factors. B) It grows primarily under anaerobic conditions. C) Its reservoir includes grazing animals and soil. D) It is a gram-positive bacillus. E) It is capable of formingendospores.

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28)

Which of the following is incorrect regarding Yersinia pestis?

A) It exhibits bipolar staining and appears to resemble a safety pin. B) It is a gram-negative rod. C) It produces coagulase as a virulence factor. D) It has a capsule as a virulence factor. E) It produces anenterotoxin.

29)

Control of rodent populations is important for preventing ______.

A) B) C) D)

30)

brucellosis plague malaria Q fever

The causative organism of malaria is a ______.

A) bacterium B) virus C) fungus D) protozoan E) prion

31)

The most common causative agent of acute endocarditis is ______.

A) Staphylococcus aureus B) Streptococcus pneumoniae C) Streptococcus pyogenes D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae E) Epstein-Barrvirus

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32)

Acute endocarditis is most commonly contracted through ______.

A) ingestion B) parenteral entry C) casual contact D) droplets E) fomites

33)

Yersinia pestis _______.

A) B) C) D)

34)

was virulent historically but currently circulating strains are not virulent has deer as an endemic reservoir does not respond to antimicrobial drugs is usually transmitted by a flea vector

Which of the following is not true of bubonic plague?

A) It is transmitted by the fecal-oral route. B) It is caused by Yersinia pestis. C) A patient often has enlarged inguinal lymph nodes. D) A patient exhibits fever, headache, nausea, and weakness. E) An infection can progress to septicemia.

35)

Plague exhibits a _______. A) B) C) D)

36)

septic form historically called the Black Death bubonic form in which swollen lesions termed buboes develop pneumonic form that manifests as a respiratory disease All of thechoices are correct.

Bubonic plague is transmitted by ______.

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A) mosquitoes B) rats C) fomites D) sexual contact E) fleas

37)

Which of the following is not true of tularemia?

A) It is a zoonosis. B) It is transmitted by arthropod vectors. C) The causative agent is a gram-positive bacterium. D) Its symptoms include fever, swollen lymph nodes, ulcerative lesions, conjunctivitis, and pneumonia. E) It is sometimes called rabbit fever.

38)

Rabbits and rodents are the chief reservoirs of the causative agent of ______.

A) tularemia B) plague C) Lyme disease D) brucellosis E) mononucleosis

39)

The causative agent of Lyme disease is ______.

A) Ixodes scapularis B) Borrelia hermsii C) Borrelia burgdorferi D) Ixodes pacificus E) Leptospira interrogans

40)

Erythema migrans, a bull's-eye rash, at the site of a tick bite is associated with ______.

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A) plague B) Rocky Mountain spotted fever C) Q fever D) Lyme disease E) ehrlichiosis

41) The white-footed mouse, deer, and deer ticks are important to maintaining the zoonotic transmission cycle associated with ______. A) Lyme disease B) babesiosis C) Q fever D) Rocky Mountain spotted fever E) plague

42)

Lyme disease is transmitted by ______.

A) flies B) droplets C) lice D) fleas E) ticks

43)

Which of the following statements regarding the Epstein-Barr virus is incorrect?

A) An infection typically requires hospitalization for about a week. B) The virus is transmitted by direct oral contact and saliva. C) An infection results in sudden leukocytosis. D) The virus has a 30-50 day incubation period. E) Transmission has been documented through contaminated blood transfusions and organ transplants.

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44)

Symptoms of infectious mononucleosis include _______.

A) B) C) D)

45)

vesicular lesions in oral mucosa fever and pocks on skin sore throat, fever, cervical lymphadenopathy, and splenomegaly fever, severe diarrhea, pneumonitis, hepatitis, and retinitis

The preferred treatment for anthrax is ______.

A) penicillin B) ciprofloxacin C) quinine D) the Bio-Thrax vaccine E) decided after consultation with the CDC

46)

A common cardiovascular/lymphatic system disease in AIDS patients is ______.

A) acute endocarditis B) Burkitt's lymphoma C) cytomegalovirus D) ehrlichiosis E) brucellosis

47) Your 49-year-old mother has just been diagnosed with subacute endocarditis with the following symptoms:fever, a rash, and early congestive heart failure. You wonder how this infection occurred, particularly since she appeared to be healthy before this. Which of the following questions for her physician is most pertinent to understanding the cause of this infection?

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A) Is this infection related to menopause? B) Could she have AIDS? C) Does she have an abnormal heart valve or a murmur? D) Could she have contracted this from a mosquito bite, since she does so much gardening?

48) Youjust returnedfrom a hiking/camping trip and areexperiencing symptoms of an infection:high fever, swollen lymph nodes, and black-and-blue marks or hemorrhages under the skin.Your doctor asks if you have been in the four corners area of the United States(where the states of Arizona, Colorado, New Mexico, and Utah all meet). Whatdoes the doctor suspect? A) Since there are many mosquitoes in that area, you might have been infected withPlasmodium. B) Those fourstates have high rates of Chikungunya, which is what the doctor suspects that you have. C) You might have picked up the plague bacterium from fleas that normally feed on rodents in that area. D) Hemorrhagic fever is often associated with bats in that region of the United States.

49) Ehrlichiosis, Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever,dengue fever, and tularemia are all infectious diseases of the cardiovascular system. What feature do they have in common? A) B) C) D)

The causative agent of each of these diseases is a bacterium. They are all endemic in the mountainstates in the western United States. People with immune deficiencies are especially susceptible to these diseases. They are all transmitted by arthropod vectors.

50) Which of these diseases would most likely be identified by viewing a stained blood smear in a light microscope? A) B) C) D)

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Chagas disease Ebola hemorrhagic fever Dengue fever HIV

51)

The causative agent in a case of sepsis can be isolated by _______.

A) B) C) D)

52)

inoculating blood agar with a sample of the patient's blood performing a Kirby-Bauer assay on a sample of the patient's blood sending a blood sample to the CDC laboratories in Atlanta centrifugation of the blood to separate cells and plasma

Which of the following statements regarding sepsis is incorrect?

A) The presence of microbes in the blood results in increased viscosity, and a rise in blood pressure is a hallmark of sepsis. B) The Gram-negative cell envelope stimulates an inflammatory response that leads to endotoxic shock. C) Both gram-negative and gram-positive bacteria in the blood can induce sepsis. D) A sample of blood plated on a variety of bacterial media is a good method to identify the causative organism in sepsis.

53)

Which of the following is not associated with sepsis? A) Fever and shaking chills B) Respiratory acidosis C) Endotoxic shock D) Parenteral or endogenous transfer E) Drop in blood pressure

54) Which of the following are features that make Bacillus anthracis a potentialbioterrorism weapon?

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A) It is naturally occurring worldwide in soil, and intentional release may not be suspected. B) It forms endospores that can be stored in powder form indefinitely. C) Pulmonary anthrax is rapidly fatal. D) Vaccination is not widespread in the United States. E) All of these choices are correct.

55)

Anthrax is not routinely diagnosed in the United States because _______.

A) B) C) D)

56)

it is a rare infection infections are usually asymptomatic infection is generally only seen in late-stage AIDS patients healthcare workers haven't been trained to detect it

Which of the following is a hemorrhagic fever?

A) Chikungunya B) Trench fever C) Q fever D) Rocky Mountain spotted fever E) Cat-scratch fever

57)

Which of the following is not true of Ebola and Marburg?

A) They are filoviruses. B) Blood clotting is disrupted in an infection with these viruses. C) They transmitted by direct contact with body fluids from affected individuals. D) The viruses are transmitted by mosquitoes. E) There is currently no effective treatment for infected individuals.

58)

Which type of hemorrhagic fever has been shown to respond to ribavirin?

Version 1

A) B) C) D)

Lassa fever Ebola Marburg Rocky Mountain spotted fever

59) Which type of hemorrhagic fever is also known as "breakbone fever" because of the severe pain in muscles and joints?

A) Lassa fever B) Ebola C) Marburg D) Dengue fever E) Chikungunya

60)

The reservoir for theLassa fever virus is the ______.

A) Aedes mosquito B) multimammate rat C) Anopheles mosquito D) fruit bat E) deer tick

61)

Brucellosis is _______.

A) treated with a 3-6 week course of antibiotics B) seen in patients as a fluctuating fever, with headache, muscle pain, and weakness C) diagnosed with serological testing of the patient's blood D) an occupational illness of people who work with animals E) All of thechoices are correct.

62)

Pasteurization of milk helps to prevent _______.

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A) tularemia B) plague C) endocarditis D) brucellosis E) mononucleosis

63) The gram-negative bacillus associated with abscesses from cat bites or scratches is _______.

A) Salmonella typhimurium B) Yersinia pestis C) Bartonella henselae D) Brucella suis E) Francisella tularensis

64)

Which of the following statements concerning Rocky Mountain spotted fever is correct?

A) B) C) D)

65)

Infections are seen in highest numbers in the Rocky Mountains. The causative bacteriumis transmitted by Ixodes ticks. Disease symptoms include fever, headache, and rash. An infection rarely has complications beyond mild discomfort.

Which of the following statements regarding erhlichiosis is incorrect?

A) The disease vector is transmitted by Ixodes ticks. B) The disease is diagnosed by PCR or indirect fluorescent antibody tests. C) Treatment requires an extensive course of antibiotics, usually 3-6 weeks. D) Symptoms include fever, headache, and muscle pains. E) It often coinfects with Borrelia burgdorferi.

66)

Which of the following statements regarding Q feveris incorrect?

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A) The causative agent, Coxiella burnetii, is transmitted by lice. B) The causative agent, Coxiella burnetii, produces resistant endospore-like structures. C) Humans can be infected from theairborne spread of particles from infected animals. D) Symptoms include fever, muscle aches, rash, and occasionally pneumonia. E) The disease is mild, and most cases go undetected.

67)

Which of the following is mismatched?

A) Yersiniapestis - plague B) Coxiellaburnetii - Q fever C) Bartonellaquintana - trench fever D) Bartonella henselae - cat-scratch disease E) Rickettsia typhi - Rocky Mountain spotted fever

68)

Cat scratch disease can be prevented by ______, A) avoiding environments with ticks B) avoiding unpasteurized milk C) vaccination D) animal control E) promptly cleaning any scratch wound

69)

Select the statement that is correct regarding Chagas disease. A) B) C) D)

It is caused by a fungal pathogen. It is transmitted by respiratory droplets. An effective vaccine is available for prevention in endemic areas. Late-stage disease is characterized by autoimmune reactions in the host.

70) The symptoms that occur in cyclic 48- to 72-hour episodes in a malaria patient are _______.

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A) bloody, mucus-filled stools, fever, diarrhea, and weight loss B) fever, swollen lymph nodes, and joint pain C) urinary frequency and pain, and vaginal discharge D) chills, fever, and sweating E) sore throat, low grade fever, and swollen lymph nodes

71)

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding malaria?

A) B) C) D)

72)

The cyclic bouts of fever and chills in malaria are caused by _______.

A) B) C) D)

73)

Merozoites enter and multiply in liver cells. Trophozoites develop in red blood cells. The mosquito inoculates human blood with sporozoites. Gametocytes enter the mosquito as she draws a blood meal from a human.

the timing of the viral life cycle white blood cell lysis red blood cell lysis neurological involvement

Malaria may be prevented by ________.

A) using bed nets sprayed with insecticide B) eliminating standing water C) taking prophylactic drugs D) using genetically engineeredmosquitoes E) All of the choices arecorrect.

74) Atthe blood donation facility, you are completing an information form. The form asks about your health history and includes aquestion about whether you have ever had malaria or visited a country where malaria is endemic. Why is this information relevant?

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A) This is just one of many pathogens that blood is screened for. The information given by the donor saves the staff time in testing the blood. B) Malarial parasites can persist in the liver, and, as a result, could be contaminating your blood and transferred to a recipient. C) Recipients differ in their susceptibilityto malaria; if you have had malaria, the staff will earmark your blood to specific kinds of recipients. D) If you are infected with malaria, you are probably also infected with HIV, and that would disqualify your donation.

75) Which of the following statements regarding the development of AIDS following infection with HIV is incorrect?

A) CD4 T cells are present in low numbers in an uninfected individual, but become elevated upon HIV infection, and ultimately fall to very low numbers (<200 cells/ml) as the infection progresses to AIDS. B) Viral antigens can be detected at high levels in the blood within days following infection, then their numbers fall dramatically during a latent period and rise again when AIDS symptoms occur. C) Antibodies to HIV antigens formed in response to HIV infection appear within a few weeks of infection and remain high through latency and AIDS. D) An HIV-positive individual in the latency phasecan be distinguished from an uninfectedindividual by the presence of antibodies to HIV antigens in their blood.

76)

Retroviruses have all of the following characteristics except _______.

A) glycoprotein spikes B) a DNA genome C) an envelope D) reverse transcriptase E) integration into the host genome

77)

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding patients with AIDS?

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A) AIDS patients have an immunodeficiency. B) AIDS patients have a CD4 T-cell titer below 200 cells/mm 3 of blood. C) AIDS patients get repeated, life-threatening, opportunistic infections. D) AIDS patients can get unusual cancers and neurological disorders. E) The highest number of AIDS cases worldwide is in the United States.

78)

Which of the following statements regarding HIV is incorrect?

A) The virus attaches to host cells with CD4 receptors. B) The viral DNA integrates into the host DNA. C) The virus becomes latent in host cells. D) PCR is the primary technique for detecting HIV in blood. E) The virus can enter into nervous tissues and cause abnormalities.

79)

A frequent cancer that is seen in AIDS patients is ______.

A) leukemia B) Hodgkin's lymphoma C) Kaposi's sarcoma D) melanoma E) myeloma

80) For the following list of anti-HIV drugs and their mechanism of action. Identify the mismatch.

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A) AZT (azidothymidine) - as an analog of thymidine, it is incorporated into viral RNA in place of thymidine B) Protease inhibitor - blocks the active site of the protease required for assembling new viral particles C) Integrase inhibitor - blocks the active site of the enzyme required to splice HIV DNA into the human genome D) Reverse transcriptase inhibitor - blocks the active site of the enzyme required to convert viral RNA to DNA

81)

An HIV-positive patient should be treated with a wide array of drugs because _______.

A) s/he is susceptible to a variety of opportunistic infections and AIDS-defining illnesses B) multiple antibiotics and antivirals should kill HIV and any resistant strains that might arise C) most HIV-positive patients are also intravenous drug users and require chemotherapy for their addiction D) the sooner s/he is treated with antivirals, the more likely it is that the virus will be eliminated from their blood

82) Which drug interferes with the action of an HIV enzyme needed for final assembly and maturation of the virus?

A) B) C) D)

83)

Reverse transcriptase inhibitor Protease inhibitor Fusion inhibitor Integrase inhibitor

Documented transmission of HIV involves ______.

Version 1

A) B) C) D)

mosquitoes unprotected sexual intercourse or contact with blood/blood products respiratory droplets contaminated food

84) Following unprotected sex with a guy you met at a party, you are now worried about what you might have been exposed to during this episode. Ten days later, you talk to your doctor about getting an HIV test. What is the doctor's response? A) It's too soon to detect the antibody produced by your immune system in response to HIV exposure, so a test will come back negative. Wait a few more weeks to be tested. B) The incidence of HIV infection in the United States is at an all-time low level, so transmission was not at all likely, especially after only a single possible exposure. C) The antibioticthat you have been taking for a urinary tract infection will also destroy HIV, so you don't have to worryabout an infection. D) HIV infection can be latent and asymptomatic for years, so testing should be postponed until you exhibit symptoms of AIDS.

85)

Lyme disease involves ______.

A) early symptoms of fever, headache, and stiff neck B) crippling polyarthritis, cardiovascular issues, and neurological problems C) people exposed to wooded or forested areas D) treatment with antimicrobials E) All of thechoices are correct.

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Answer Key Test name: Microbiology20 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) A 10) A 11) C 12) D 13) A 14) A 15) A 16) A 17) A 18) D 19) A 20) A 21) A 22) D 23) B 24) C 25) D 26) E Version 1

27) B 28) E 29) B 30) D 31) A 32) B 33) D 34) A 35) D 36) E 37) C 38) A 39) C 40) D 41) A 42) E 43) A 44) C 45) E 46) B 47) C 48) C 49) D 50) A 51) A 52) A 53) B 54) E 55) A 56) A Version 1

57) D 58) A 59) D 60) B 61) E 62) D 63) C 64) C 65) C 66) A 67) E 68) E 69) D 70) D 71) A 72) C 73) E 74) B 75) A 76) B 77) E 78) D 79) C 80) A 81) A 82) B 83) B 84) A 85) E

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Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) The primary transmission route for acquiring agents of the common cold is by contact with hands and fomites contaminated with the nasal discharges of an infected person. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Secondary bacterial infections may occur with the common cold. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) Antibiotic treatment immediately upon the diagnosis of otitis media is standard procedure today. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Treatment for diphtheria requires only penicillin or erythromycin. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Pertussis outbreaks still occur in the United States. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) Respiratory syncytial virus is a major cause of global respiratory infection outbreaks in infants 6 months of age or younger. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Influenza is predominantly transmitted by the fecal-oral route.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

8) People who have received the BCG immunization will generally have a negative tuberculin skin test. ⊚ ⊚

An induration of less than 5mm in the Mantoux test is negative for TB. ⊚ ⊚

10)

true false

The major reservoir for the hantavirus is the deer mouse. ⊚ ⊚

11)

true false

Legionellosis is a zoonosis. ⊚ ⊚

true false

12) The pathogen that causes Legionnaires' pneumonia also causes a milder infection called Pontiac fever. ⊚ ⊚

13)

true false

A paroxysmal cough is associated with Legionnaires' disease. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

14) The high mortality rate for patients with MDR-TB and XDR-TB is due in part because of the severe side effects from the daily multidrug regimen and the stimulation of a strong cellmediated immune response. ⊚ true ⊚ false

15) The causative organisms for CAP and HCAP differ, but the modes of transmission do not; that are all transmitted via aerosolized droplets which enter the lungs. ⊚ ⊚

true false

16) Pneumonias have different signs and symptoms depending on whether they are classified as CAP or HCAP. ⊚ ⊚

true false

17) The trachea, due to its location in the body, is considered to be part of both the upper and lower respiratory tract. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 18) Which of the following is not part of the upper respiratory tract?

A) Mouth B) Nasal cavity C) Trachea D) Pharynx E) Larynx

19)

Which of the following is not part of the lower respiratory system?

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A) Alveoli B) Bronchi C) Bronchioles D) Trachea E) Sinuses

20)

What features of the respiratory system protect it from infection?

A) Nasal hairs B) Cilia C) Mucus D) Macrophages E) All of the choicesare correct.

21)

Which antibody is concentrated in the respiratory tract?

A) IgA B) IgE C) IgG D) IgM E) IgD

22)

Normal biota of the respiratory tract _______. A) are localized to the nasopharynx only B) can cause disease in immunocompromised patients C) do not include yeasts or viruses D) only includeStaphylococcus aureus E) are only comprised of staphylococcal species

23)

What is the function of normal biota of the respiratory tract?

Version 1

A) B) C) D) correct.

24)

Competes with pathogens for resources and space Microbial antagonism Provides antibodies Both competes with pathogens for resources and space / microbial antagonism are

The most common type of virus leading to rhinitis is _______.

A) coronavirus B) adenovirus C) rhinovirus D) herpes simplex virus E) retrovirus

25)

Cold viruses are transmitted by _______.

A) B) C) D)

26)

droplet contact indirect contact direct contact All of the choices are correct.

The most common mode of transmission for sinusitis is _______.

A) exotoxin B) direct contact C) indirect contact D) endogenous infection E) droplet contact

27)

Which of the following is true about sinusitis caused by allergy?

Version 1

A) Produces a greenish or yellowish mucous discharge B) Caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae C) Usually introduced by trauma D) Produces a clear, watery discharge E) Preceded by viral rhinitis

28)

The most common causative agent in fungal sinusitis is _______.

A) Aspergillus fumigatus B) Haemophilus influenzae C) Candida albicans D) Corynebacterium diphtheriae E) Streptococcus pneumoniae

29)

Infection travels to the middle ear by way of the ______.

A) auditory canal B) sinuses C) nasal cavity D) eustachian (auditory) tubes E) subarachnoid space

30)

The most common causative agent of otitis media is ______.

A) Aspergillus fumigatus B) Haemophilus influenzae C) Candida albicans D) Corynebacterium diphtheriae E) Streptococcus pneumoniae

31)

Which of the following statements is not true regarding streptococcal pharyngitis?

Version 1

A) It presents with a purulent exudate over the tonsils. B) It can lead to scarlet fever if it is an erythrogenic toxin-producing strain. C) It can lead to serious sequelae. D) It is usually caused by the viridans streptococci. E) It causes redness, difficulty in swallowing, and fever.

32)

The bright red rash and fever of scarlet fever is due to _______.

A) enterotoxins B) hemolysins C) toxic shock syndrome toxin D) exfoliative toxin E) erythrogenic toxin

33)

Rheumatic fever is caused by a/an ______ infection. A) primarystreptococcal B) primary viral C) opportunistic streptococcal D) endogenous

34)

Superantigens _______.

A) include streptolysin O B) include erythrogenic toxin C) induce production of tumor necrosis factor D) are potent stimulators of T cells E) All of thechoices are correct.

35)

Which of the following is/are the main causative agent/s of pharyngitis?

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A) Streptococcus pyogenes B) Aspergillus fumigatus C) Viruses D) Both Aspergillus fumigatus and viruses are correct. E) Both Streptococcus pyogenes and viruses are correct.

36)

Untreated streptococcal pharyngitis can lead to all of the following except _______.

A) scarlet fever B) otitis media C) rheumatic fever D) glomerulonephritis

37)

Virulence factors of S. pyogenes include _______.

A) polysaccharides on the cell wall B) lipoteichoic acid C) spiky M proteins D) hyaluronic acid capsule E) All of thechoices are correct.

38)

Which of the following does not describe S. pyogenes?

A) Group A streptococcus B) Gram-positive C) Forms endospores D) Sensitive to bacitracin E) Beta-hemolytic

39)

Formation of a pseudomembrane in the back of the throat is seen in cases of _______.

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A) diphtheria B) pharyngitis C) tuberculosis D) pertussis E) SARS

40)

Which of the following pertains to diphtheria?

A) B) C) D)

Results in meningitis Symptoms include vomiting and diarrhea Can be transmitted from mother's birth canal to neonate Prevented by the DTaP immunization

41) The major virulence factor of Corynebacterium diphtheriae that causes serious systemic effects is its ______.

A) capsule B) metachromatic granules C) exotoxin D) endospores E) endotoxin

42)

In addition to antimicrobials, patients with diphtheria are treated with ______.

A) antitoxin B) tracheostomy C) heart medication D) bronchoscopy E) All of thechoices are correct.

43)

Pertussis has all of the following characteristics except _______.

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A) the pathogen has virulence factors to destroy the action of respiratory cilia B) the catarrhal stage has persistent, hacking coughs with "whoops" C) the early stage resembles a cold with nasal discharge and sneezing D) DTaP immunization will prevent it E) transmission is by respiratory droplets

44)

The causative organism of whooping cough is ______.

A) Bordetella pertussis B) Streptococcus pneumoniae C) Haemophilus influenzae D) Streptococcus pyogenes E) Cornyebacterium diphtheriae

45)

Which of the following is not a virulence factor of Bordetella pertussis?

A) Endotoxin B) Tracheal cytotoxin C) M protein D) Pertussis toxin E) Filamentous hemagglutinin

46)

Which of the following is not true of whooping cough?

A) Secondaryinfections can occur during the convalescent phase. B) It is caused by asmall, aerobic, gram-negative rod. C) Incubation period is 3-21 days. D) Cold-likesymptoms are common for the paroxysmal stage. E) An uncontrollablecough occurs during the paroxysmal stage.

47)

Respiratory syncytial virus _______.

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A) causes serious disease in infants 6 months old or younger B) uses the nasopharynx as its main replication site C) can be treated with the antiviral aerosol ribavirin D) has symptoms of dyspnea and rales E) All of the choices are correct.

48) The enzyme associated with the influenza virus that hydrolyzes the protective mucous coating of the respiratory tract is ______.

A) catalase B) reverse transcriptase C) hyaluronidase D) neuraminidase E) kinase

49)

Symptoms of influenza include _______.

A) nasal discharge, mild fever, and absence of cough B) fever, diarrhea, and vomiting C) fever, myalgia, sore throat, cough, and nasal discharge D) fever, sore throat, rash, and cough E) fever and pneumonia

50)

Influenza vaccines include all of the following except _______.

A) inactivated, intramuscular vaccine B) usually incorporates three or four different strains C) attenuated, nasal drops vaccine D) provides lifelong immunity E) has an overall effectiveness of 70% - 90%

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51)

Which of the following is not true of influenza?

A) Influenza hasglycoprotein spikes of hemagglutinin (H) and neuraminidase (N). B) Antigenic driftchanges the antigens to reduce immune recognition. C) Antigenic shiftcauses changes in the RNA strands. D) Influenza Bviruses undergo both antigenic drift and antigenic shift. E) H5N1 is the birdflu strain that may cause a pandemic.

52)

Which is not correct about Mycobacterium species?

A) All species arehuman pathogens. B) Cell walls havewaxy lipids. C) It is an acid-fast bacterium. D) It exhibits a very slow growth rate. E) Cells appear as long, slender rods via microscopy.

53)

Mycobacterium tuberculosis _______.

A) produces several virulence factor enzymes and an exotoxin B) integrates its genome into host cell DNA C) can survive for 8 months in fine aerosol particles D) has a capsule E) lives in the soil

54)

All of the following pertain to tuberculosis except _______.

A) live bacilli can remain dormant in the lungs and reactivate later in life B) symptoms of active TB include low-grade fever, coughing, fatigue, weight loss, and night sweats C) lung infection can disseminate to many other organs in extrapulmonary TB D) the BCG vaccine is used in other countries E) antimicrobials cannot treat and cure tuberculosis

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55)

Tuberculin skin testing _______.

A) involves the injectionof PPD intradermally B) uses a purified protein filtrate of Mycobacterium tuberculosis C) will be positive if person has had previous exposure D) will be positive in active TB E) All of thechoices are correct.

56)

A diagnosis of tuberculosis involves a/an ______.

A) chest X ray B) acid-fast stain of sputum C) sputum culture D) tuberculin skin test E) All of the choicesare correct.

57) Which of the following causes a noncommunicable pulmonary infection that resembles tuberculosis?

A) Mycobacteriumavium complex (MAC) B) Mycobacteriumkansasii C) Mycobacteriumscrofulaceum D) Mycobacteriumfortuitum complex E) Mycobacteriummarinum

58)

The tubercles formed in primary tuberculosis are caused by an influx of ______.

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A) neutrophils B) basophils C) mononuclear cells D) polymorphonuclear leukocytes E) antibodies

59)

Extrapulmonary TB is more common in _______.

A) young children and immunosuppressed patients B) the elderly C) organ transplant patients D) AIDS patients E) All of thechoices are correct.

60) When the centers of tubercles break down into _____ lesions, they gradually heal by calcification that replaces normal lung tissue.

A) primary B) secondary C) necroticcaseous D) granuloma E) tertiary

61)

Which is incorrect about Mycoplasma pneumoniae?

A) Has birds as a reservoir B) Common cause of primary atypical pneumonia C) Initially causes fever, malaise, sore throat, and headache D) After 2 to 3 weeks, develops into an unproductive cough and earache E) Is a bacterial cell without a cell wall

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62)

Streptococcus pneumoniae is _______.

A) alpha-hemolytic on blood agar B) found in up to 50% of people as normal biota C) a gram-positive diplococcus with a capsule D) a pathogen with endotoxin E) All of thechoices are correct.

63)

Disease/s caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae include _______.

A) otitis media B) meningitis C) lobar pneumonia D) bronchial pneumonia E) All of thechoices are correct.

64) People at greatest risk for pneumococcal infections include all the following except _______.

A) the elderly B) those with underlying lung disease and viral infections C) patients without a spleen D) adolescents and young adults E) young infants

65)

Legionella pneumophila _______.

A) requires special lab growth media B) often lives intracellularly in amoebas C) causes fever, cough, and diarrhea D) always causes a severe pneumonia

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66) Which disease involves transmission by aerosolized water from whirlpool spas, air conditioners, cooling towers, and supermarket vegetable misters?

A) Legionellosis B) Pertussis C) Brucellosis D) Plague E) Traveler's diarrhea

67)

Which of the following is caused by Haemophilus influenzae in the respiratory tract?

A) Bacterial meningitis B) Influenza (flu) C) Otitis media D) Bronchitis E) Epiglottitis

68)

The vaccine for immunity to Haemophilus influenzae serotype b is ______.

A) B) C) D)

69)

DTaP Pneumovax MMR Hib

Which of the following is a characteristicof Histoplasma capsulatum?

A) B) C) D)

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It grows in moist soil, rich in nitrogen from bird and bat droppings. It is a protozoan. It is a dermatophyte. It grows in dry, arid soil.

70)

The highest incidence of histoplasmosis in the United States occurs in the ______.

A) southeast B) southwest C) east and Midwest D) northeast E) Rocky Mountains

71)

Which is incorrect about histoplasmosis?

A) The pathogen grows inside macrophages. B) It is transmitted by inhalation of spores. C) It causes respiratory infections that range from mild to severe. D) Chronic cases have symptoms similar to tuberculosis. E) It never spreads to sites outside the respiratory tract.

72)

Pneumocystis (carinii) jiroveci _______.

A) B) C) D)

is a bacterium lacks ergosterol in its plasma membrane is an obligate parasite causes serious infection in the elderly, premature infants, and AIDS patients

73) Inhalation of respiratory secretions is involved in the transmission of all of the following except ______.

A) influenza B) rhinitis C) legionella D) diphtheria E) SARS

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74)

Hantavirus has all of the following characteristics except _______.

A) the reservoir is human carriers B) it is a zoonosis C) symptoms are abrupt fever, lung edema, respiratory distress, and hypotension D) it is transmitted by aerosol transmission from rodent excreta E) the first U.S. outbreak occurred in 1993 in the southwest

75)

Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) _______.

A) causes high fever, pneumonia, and respiratory distress B) began with an initial outbreak in the United States and then spread to Canada and China C) is caused by the respiratory syncytial virus D) is classified as an opportunistic infection

76) Which opportunist is the most frequent cause of life-threatening pneumonia in AIDS patients?

A) B) C) D)

77)

Cryptococcus neoformans Candida albicans Malassezia furfur Pneumocystis (carinii) jiroveci

Drug-resistant strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae are now treated with ______. A) penicillin V B) eryrthromycin C) tetracyline D) vancomycin E) Ketek

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78) Influenza virus can exhibit constant mutation of viral glycoproteins, called antigenic ________, or alternatively antigenic ________, which is a more serious phenomenon caused by the exchange of a viral gene with that of another influenza virus strain. A) B) C) D)

drift;exchange exchange;drift drift; shift shift; drift

79) Both Streptococcus pyogenes and Corynebacterium diphtheriae are highly pathogenic, and the disease symptomology can be very severe. Why is this? A) Infants and children are the high-risk groups, and their mortality rate is higher than for other ages. B) Both bacteria produce potent exotoxins. C) They induce autoimmune states in the patients. D) There are no antibiotics useful for diseases caused by these bacteria.

80) Your dog has flu caused by an H3N8 strain. Assume that you breathe in this strain, after you have already come in contact with an H1N1 strain. Both viruses go into the cells of your upper respiratory tract. During the viral replication cycle inside of your epithelial cells, genetic information for hemagglutinin antigen and for neuraminidase antigen are recombined. Your cells end up producing a new variant---H3N1. Predict what might happen as a result of this set of events. A) Only people who have never had flu before will get sick from the new H3N1 variant. B) This is not a problem because the human immune system can respond quickly to any new antigens never seen before. C) This novel virus will spread through the human population without much resistance. D) Since this new virus has antigens from a dog strain, the new strain will not be able to infecthuman cells.

81) Differentiate between disease caused by Haemophilus influenzae and the disease caused by influenza virus.

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A) One causes an upper respiratory disease, and the other causes a lower respiratory disease. B) One causes a mild flu, and the other causes a severe flu. C) One organism is a virus while the other is a fungus. D) One organism causes symptomatic disease, while the other organism always causes asymptomatic disease.

82) Your patient has pneumonia. Since there are so many microorganisms causing pneumonia, what might be the best test to do first for identification of the agent?

A) B) C) D)

An antibody test A culture from a lung aspirate A skin test A Gram stain of a saliva specimen

83) Otitis media is commonly treated with broad spectrum antibiotics, although there is a lot of push-back or pressure against doing this. Why are these drugs given for this condition? A) No other kinds of drugs and antibiotics can kill the bacteria causing otitis media other than the broad-spectrum class of drugs. B) The narrow-spectrum drugs are very toxic as opposed to the rather benign broadspectrum ones. C) Otitis mediais often caused by a variety of bacteria growing together in a biofilm, and the bacteria often exhibit different susceptibilities to drugs. D) Fungi are the most common cause of otitis media, and the fungi do not respond well to the narrow-spectrum drugs.

84) Diphtheria is considered to be an upper respiratory tract infection. However, it can have a very high mortality rate if not caught early and treated. Predict why this is so.

Version 1

A) the heart. B) C) D)

It makes a toxin that can be carried in blood and produce organ damage, particularly It successfully hides from the immune system of the patient. The patient cannot eat or drink and sobasically starvesto death. The bacterium moves from the throat to the brain, causing strokes to occur.

85) Pertussis has been making a big comeback in the last few years, after being on the decline for quite a long time. Why is this? A) Few people have ever received pertussis vaccines because there have been links to autism. B) The strain of Bordetella pertussis that is now the major cause of pertussis is much more virulent than earlier strains. C) The pertussis vaccine does not seem to protect for a lifetime, so those who received the vaccine as kids may become susceptible in adulthood. D) People eat so much refined sugars and starches that our immune systems are much weaker, thereby not being able to adequately protect against pertussis bacteria.

86) A factor in the development of multidrug-resistant strains of Mycobacterium tuberculosis is that _______.

A) multiple antibiotics must be taken in the daily regimen B) the daily multidrug regimen lasts up to nine months C) many TB patients live in less-than ideal circumstances D) All of these choices contribute to the development of resistant strains of Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

87)

The difference between MDR-TB and XDR-TB is that _______.

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A) XDR-TB is predominantly seen in the USA whereas MDR-TB is common in India and China B) MDR-TB exhibits resistance to isoniazid and rifampin whereas XDR-TB strains are resistant to bedaquiline C) MDR-TB strains have a higher mortality rate than XDR-TB strains D) MDR-TB strains are classified as having resistance to two antibiotics, whereas XDRTB strains are classified when they are resistant to four antibiotics

88)

The difference between CAP and HCAP is that _______.

A) CAP symptoms include nausea and vomiting whereas HCAP involves the upper respiratory tract only B) CAP may be caused by a variety of pathogens including Streptococcus pneumoniae, as well as viruses and mycoplasmas, whereas HCAP is predominantly caused by methicillinresistant Staphylococcus aureus C) CAP has a higher mortality rate that HCAP because the causative organisms are more pathogenic D) CAP is caused by gram-positive bacteria whereas HCAP is caused by gram-negative bacteria

89)

Which of the following respiratory tract defenses is mismatched?

A) Complement - second line of defense B) Ciliary escalator - first line of defense C) Mucous membranes - third line of defense D) Nasal hairs - first line of defense E) IgA antibody - third line of defense

90) Organisms other than bacteria make up the microbiota; non-bacterial microbes that occupy the respiratory tract include ________.

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A) Pseudomonas B) Candida C) Prevotella D) Acinetobacter E) Staphylococcus

91)

Which of the following statements is false regarding RSV?

A) While RSV is most prevalent in infants 6 months of age and younger, the highest mortality rate is in those children with underlying risk factors such as prematurity. B) Infants aged 6 months and younger are the most susceptible to infection by RSV; however, adults and older children can also become infected with this virus. C) RSV infects infants aged 6 months and younger; it is unlikely that a 4-year-old would develop a respiratory disease as a result of this virus. D) Although RSV is most prevalent in infants aged 6 months and younger, usually by age 2 most children have been exposed to this virus.

92)

Annual influenza vaccinations are important for all individuals because _______.

A) the virus is stable so once the vaccine is administered, protection from antibodies is lifelong B) the vaccine prevents secondary infections in individuals with influenza C) the oral-fecal transmission route makes it easy to pass to others D) the highly contagious nature of the virus means that transmission from a robust individual to those with a weaker immune system, such as the young or the elderly, is facilitated in crowded winter conditions

93) Influenza viruses A and B contain eight RNA strands and influenza virus C has seven strands. During antigenic drift, genes coding for glycoproteins recognized by the host immune system are mutated, whereas during antigenic shift, whole RNA strands can be swapped with those of another influenza virus, greatly increasing the virulence and transmissibility of the virus and minimizing the ability of the host's defenses to recognize it. Which of the following statements is true?

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A) Genetic drift creates a need for an annual flu vaccine to keep up with the seasonal genetic changes, and if genetic shift occurs, an additional vaccine will have to be administered since the shift creates a different strain of virus. B) Genetic drift creates a need for an annual flu vaccine to keep up with the seasonal genetic changes, and if a genetic shift occurs, the same vaccine will be effective against both strains. C) If a novel strain resulting from antigenic shift appears, it is not necessary to get vaccinated because these strains are typically less pathogenic than seasonal strains. D) The worst influenza pandemics throughout history have occurred as a result of genetic drift rather than genetic shift.

94)

Hantavirus is transmitted by which of the following ways?

A) Aerosolized droplets from human to human B) Directly from the saliva of a deer mouse after being bitten C) From a mosquito that first bites a deer mouse, and then bites a human D) Aerosolized particles of deer mouse feces, urine, or saliva E) Via the oral-fecal route when deer mouse feces contaminate drinking water

Version 1

Answer Key Test name: Microbiology21 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) FALSE 12) TRUE 13) FALSE 14) TRUE 15) FALSE 16) FALSE 17) FALSE 18) C 19) E 20) E 21) A 22) B 23) D 24) C 25) D 26) D Version 1

27) D 28) A 29) D 30) E 31) D 32) E 33) D 34) E 35) E 36) B 37) E 38) C 39) A 40) D 41) C 42) E 43) B 44) A 45) C 46) D 47) E 48) D 49) C 50) D 51) D 52) A 53) C 54) E 55) E 56) E Version 1

57) A 58) C 59) A 60) C 61) A 62) E 63) E 64) D 65) B 66) A 67) C 68) D 69) A 70) C 71) E 72) D 73) C 74) A 75) A 76) D 77) E 78) C 79) B 80) C 81) A 82) B 83) C 84) A 85) C 86) D Version 1

87) D 88) B 89) C 90) B 91) C 92) D 93) A 94) D

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Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) There are no infectious agents that can penetrate intact skin. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) Despite acidic conditions, some microorganisms have been found residing within the human stomach. ⊚ ⊚

E. coli O157:H7 secretes shiga exotoxin. ⊚ ⊚

true false

In the absence of dietary carbohydrates, bacteria do not cause tooth decay. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC) causes gut effacement with shiga toxin. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Antibiotics are used to treat diarrhea caused by shiga toxin-producing E. coli. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Mumps causes permanent sterility in young male adults.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

8) Research does not indicate a link between the numbers and types of bacteria causing periodontitis and thicker carotid arteries in an individual. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The best treatment for acute diarrhea is oral replacement of electrolytes and water. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) Only feces from humans that contaminates food and water can be involved in transmission of amoebiasis. ⊚ true ⊚ false

11)

Boiling will not inactivate Giardia lamblia cysts in contaminated water. ⊚ true ⊚ false

12)

Carriers of Hepatitis B virus are not common. ⊚ ⊚

13)

There are vaccines for immunity to the Hepatitis B virus. ⊚ ⊚

14)

true false

The only body fluid that can transmit Hepatitis B virus is blood.

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⊚ ⊚

15)

true false

Most antihelminthic medications act only against the pathogens, not the human host. ⊚ true ⊚ false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 16) The gastrointestinal tract has both a long tube that nutrients traverse from mouth to anus and accessory organs that aid in food digestion. From the following list of organs in the digestive system, identify the mismatch.

A) Liver; part of the digestive tube B) Appendix; accessory organ C) Salivary glands; accessory organ D) Rectum; part of the digestive tube E) Pharynx; part of the digestive tube

17) Cells of the immune system are not found in which of the following tissues in the gastrointestinal tract?

A) B) C) D)

Tooth enamel Tonsils and adenoids Peyer's patches Appendix

18) Most of the bacteria involved in periodontal disease are obligate (strict) anaerobes. Explain why this is the case.

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A) Mouthwashes and toothpaste destroy most of the strict aerobes that are found on teeth. B) The crevice between the gingiva and the tooth is low in oxygen. C) Sugar and other carbohydrates used by the oral bacteria can be more easilyconsumed anaerobically. D) The oral cavity is a low oxygen environment.

19) Which of the following fluids within the gastrointestinal tract is correctly pairedwith its antimicrobial effect?

A) B) C) D)

20)

GALT refers to _______.

A) B) C) D)

21)

Saliva; lysozyme Stomach fluid; high pH Bile; lactoferrin Pancreatic fluid; IgE

Gut- Associated Lymphoid Tissue sterile organs of the GI tract: Gingiva, Appendix, Large intestine, Tonsils defenses of the GI tract: Gut microbes, Adenoids, Lysozyme, Tonsils Gingival Adhesive Labile Toxin, a virulence factor for gingivitis

Defenses of the GI tract against pathogens include _______.

A) mucus, acid, and saliva B) secretory IgA and lysozyme C) peristalsis D) GALT (gut-associated lymphoid tissue) E) All of the choicesare correct.

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22) Which of the following groups of microorganisms is not found among the normal gut microbiota?

A) Firmicutes ( Streptococcus, Staphylococcus, Clostridium, Bacillus) B) Fungi ( Candida) C) Spirilla( Leptospira, Borrelia) D) Enterics ( Escherichia, Enterobacter) E) Protozoa ( Entamoeba, Trichomonas)

23)

Oral bacteria on the tooth surface _______. A) B) C) D)

develop a biofilm usefimbriae and slime layers to adhere metabolize sucrose, produce sticky glucans, and form plaque All of the choices are correct.

24) Which organ of the gastrointestinal tract has a largecommensal population of microorganisms?

A) Liver B) Salivary glands C) Pancreas D) Large intestine E) Small intestine

25) Because the gut microbiome is a tremendously diverse population, an infection can be viewed as _______.

A) a shift in the relative proportions of the microbes in this environment B) the presence of helminths instead of the normal bacteria in the gut C) a change in a person's enterotype D) an increase in the overall number of microbes in the gut

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26)

The gastrointestinal microbiota has been implicated in the development of _______.

A) B) C) D)

27)

Enterotoxin productionis a characteristic of ______.

A) B) C) D)

28)

non-infectious diseases like obesity appropriate immune responses to microbial antigens dental plaque All of the choices are correct.

Clostridium botulinum Clostridium perfringens Clostridium difficile Clostridium tetani

Salmonella are ______.

A) methane producers B) motile C) gram-positive bacilli D) lactose fermenters E) All of the choicesare correct.

29)

Which of the following statements is incorrect about shigellosis?

A) Outbreaks haveoccurred in day care centers. B) Symptoms includewatery diarrhea with bloody, mucoid stools and abdominal cramps. C) It frequently complicates to sepsis. D) Human carrierscause fecal transmission. E) It is also calleddysentery.

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30)

Which of the following statements regarding shiga toxin-producing E. coli is correct?

A) B) C) D)

31)

Which of the following is not true of enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC)?

A) B) C) D)

32)

Itsynthesizesshiga exotoxin from a bacteriophage. Itsynthesizes shiga exotoxin from the E. coli chromosome. Itsynthesizesshiga endotoxin from a bacteriophage. Itsynthesizes shiga endotoxin from the E. coli chromosome.

It causes traveler's diarrhea. Fluid replacement is vital to surviving an infection. It causes a high fever. It can be life-threatening in infants.

Which of the following statements is not true of enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC)?

A) Prompt treatment with a broad-spectrum antibiotic is essential to recover from an infection. B) It invades the gut mucosa. C) Blood and pus are found in the stool. D) It makes no heat-labile or heat-stable exotoxins. E) High fever is present.

33)

Escherichia coli infections _______.

A) are often transmitted by fecal contaminated water and food B) include EIEC that destroys gut mucosa C) involve enterotoxin in traveler's diarrhea D) are self-limiting with the only treatment being rehydration E) All of the choices are correct.

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34)

The most common bacterial cause of diarrhea in the United States is _______.

A) B) C) D)

35)

E. coli Salmonella Shigella Campylobacter

Which of the following statements regarding Campylobacter infection is incorrect?

A) It can last over 2 weeks. B) Campylobacter burrows into the mucosa of the ileum and multiplies. C) It can lead to Guillain-Barre syndrome. D) It can cause acute temporary paralysis. E) It is caused by a shiga toxin.

36)

Which of the following statementsis not true regarding Clostridium difficile?

A) It is a gram-positive, endospore-forming rod. B) It is part of the normal intestinal biota. C) Infection is precipitated by broad-spectrum antibiotic therapy. D) It is also called pseudomembranous colitis. E) It produces "rice-water" stools.

37)

The virulence of Vibrio cholerae is due to its ______.

A) B) C) D)

38)

capsule neurotoxin invasive enzymes enterotoxin

Cholera symptoms are _______.

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A) copious watery diarrhea B) loss of blood volume C) acidosis, sunken eyes, and thirst D) hypotension, tachycardia, and shock E) All of thechoices are correct.

39) The most immediate and important treatment needed to prevent death in cholera victims is ______.

A) B) C) D)

40)

water and electrolyte replacement broad-spectrum antimicrobials antitoxin surgery

"Rice-water stools" are associated with disease caused by which organism?

A) Vibriovulnificus B) Vibrioparahaemolyticus C) Vibriocholerae D) Campylobacterjejuni E) Helicobacterpylori

41) Infection with which apicomplexanhas been associated with fecal-contaminated drinking water?

A) B) C) D)

42)

Cryptosporidium Ascaris lumbricoides Entamoeba histolytica Rotavirus

Symptoms of cryptosporidiosis include _______.

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A) B) C) D)

43)

headache, sweats, vomiting, severe abdominal cramps, and diarrhea chills, fever, and sweats bloody, mucus-filled stools and fever a red skin papule that spreads to a large ulcer

The primary viral cause of chronic diarrhea globally is ______.

A) Cryptosporidium B) rotavirus C) adenovirus D) norovirus E) arbovirus

44) A current newsstory describes a cruiseship in the Caribbean with an outbreak of diarrheal illness, affecting hundreds of people. With all of those people in a small area, opening and closing doors, using handrails, etc, you are trying to figure out what infectious agent may be the cause. Your most likely guess is that the pathogen is ______. A) cholera B) norovirus C) Clostridium difficile D) hepatitis B E) shiga-toxin-producing E. coli

45) All of the following diseases can be transmitted by drinking contaminated water except ______.

A) cryptosporidiosis B) cyclosporiasis C) trichinosis D) Campylobacter E) giardiasis

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46)

Which of the following statements regarding Clostridium difficile infection is incorrect?

A) B) C) D)

47)

It is due to ingestion of contaminated, improperly stored, cooked meats and gravies. It is acolitis that is a superinfection. It is associated with disruption of normal biota due to broad-spectrum antimicrobials. It is the major cause of diarrhea in hospitals.

The most common infectious disease in humans is ______.

A) the common cold B) dental caries C) pharyngitis D) diarrhea E) gastritis

48)

Gingivitis _______.

A) is primarily caused by normal anaerobic biota B) involves the formation of calculus and plaque C) involves a crevice in the gum along the tooth D) may involve archaeal species E) All of the choicesare correct.

49) All of the following are true of acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG) except that it _______.

A) involves Treponema vincentii, Prevotella intermedia, and Fusobacterium B) is associated with severe pain, bleeding, pseudomembranes, and necrosis C) is due to poor oral hygiene, altered host defenses, or prior gum disease D) is highly contagious E) is common in AIDS patients

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50)

The causative organism for mumps is ______.

A) Paramyxovirus B) Morbillivirus C) Streptococcus pyogenes D) Corynebacterium diphtheriae E) Vibrio cholerae

51)

Orchitis and epididymitis are seen in young, adult males as a complication of ______.

A) B) C) D)

52)

tapeworm infestation mumps hepatitis gingivitis

Helicobacter pylori causes ______.

A) gastritis B) duodenal ulcers C) stomach ulcers D) increased risk for stomach cancer E) All of thechoices are correct.

53)

Which is not a characteristic of Helicobacter pylori? A) Gram-negative B) Produces enteroxin that causes diarrhea C) Curved rods D) Lives in the stomach E) Produces urease to buffer stomach acidity

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54) Your son has not had the MMR vaccine (measles, mumps, rubella) because you are apprehensive about vaccines and their side effects. Your sister says that you are setting him up for a potentially damaging scenario. Which argument has the great scientific validity and why? A) You are correct to be apprehensive because vaccines have been the cause of autism in children. B) Your sister is correct. Even if your son does not get the mumps now when he is young, but gets the infectionlater in life, there is a possibility of severe side effects. C) You are correct in protecting your son. If you can keep him from getting mumps when young, it is no longer a problem. It is simply a childhood disease. D) Your sister is correct in her warnings. If your son gets a severe case of mumps, he will likely develop a fatal secondary infection.

55) As recently as the1980s, the medical establishment believedulcers to be caused by stress and an increase in gastricacidity. How has the current understanding of ulcer development changed patient treatment? A) B) C) D)

56)

Antibiotics are now used to treat ulcers. Doctors now give their patients sedatives to calm patients with ulcers. There is no treatment for ulcers, then or now. Different foods are now suggested for patients having ulcers.

Which of the following antigen types found in gram-negative entericsis mismatched?

A) B) C) D)

H antigen -flagellar K antigen - capsule O antigen - cellwall All of the choices are correct matches.

57) Shiga toxin-producing E. coli characteristics include all of the following except that it _______.

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A) only causes occupational illness in people who work with animals B) is transmitted by ingestion of contaminated, undercooked food, especially hamburger C) causes a bloody diarrhea D) has a reservoir inside of cattle intestines E) in some cases, leads to the development of hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) with possible kidney failure

58)

Which of the following statements regarding Campylobacter jejuni is incorrect?

A) It is transmitted through ingestion of contaminated chicken, meat, milk, or water. B) It causes fever and a watery to bloody diarrhea. C) It infects the stomach. D) It produces an enterotoxin that stimulates diarrhea. E) The cells are gram-negative, curved rods with darting motility.

59)

Giardiasis involves _______.

A) a protozoan that does not form cysts B) infection of the large intestine C) symptoms of abdominal pain, flatulence, and diarrhea D) vector transmission E) All of the choices are correct.

60) Which of the following is not a normal causative agent of acute diarrhea with vomiting (food poisoning)?

A) B) C) D)

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Clostridiumperfringens Staphylococcus aureus Clostridiumdifficile Bacilluscereus

61)

A common food intoxication is caused by enterotoxin-producing strains of ______.

A) Staphylococcus aureus B) Staphylococcus epidermidis C) Staphylococcus saprophyticus D) Streptococcus pyogenes E) Streptococcus agalactiae

62) Which of the following statements is incorrect about Staphylococcus aureus food intoxication?

A) Food becomes contaminated by a human carrier. B) Common affected foods include custards, ham, cream pastries, and processed meats. C) Food left unrefrigerated for several hours is at risk for contamination. D) Ingestion of the pathogen allows it to multiply and damage the GI tract lining. E) Symptoms come on quickly and include nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea.

63) It is now past the normal dinner time, but you do not even want to think about food. Only diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and vomiting are on your mind. This all started a few hours ago after having a ham sandwich for lunch purchased from a street vendor. With your microbiology knowledge, you surmise that it is a Staphylococcus aureus-related disorder. Why do you think this? A) The toxin produced by Staphylococcus aureus was already in the ham, so the symptoms can occur quickly. B) Ham is notorious for being contaminated with Staphylococcus aureus bacteria. C) Only Staphylococcus aureus infection causes vomiting, along with cramps and diarrhea. D) Staphylococcus aureus isthe most common cause of gastrointestinal disease.

64) Outbreaks of which protozoan disease have been associated with fecal-contaminated imported raspberries, fresh greens, and drinking water?

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A) B) C) D)

Cryptosporidiosis Cyclosporiasis Trichinosis Toxoplasmosis

65) Just back from a trip to South America, you now have a severe diarrheal illness. Your symptoms, other than diarrhea, are pain, cramps, some fecal blood, and fever. These are symptoms of many of the gastrointestinal diseases, so that information does not help you or the doctors identify the infectious agent. Your doctor wants to send a fecal sample to the microbiology lab for them to look at it under the light microscope. Based upon this protocol selection, the physician believes that you have ______.

A) cholera B) salmonellosis C) hepatitis A D) amoebiasis E) rotavirus

66) Which of the following attributes is not common to the life and transmission cycles of Opisthorchis sinensis, Clonorchis sinensis, and Fasciola hepatica?

A) B) C) D)

They are transmitted by consuming inadequately cooked fish. Fresh water snails are an intermediate host. Infectioncauses obstruction of the bile duct. Eggs are released in the feces.

67) Inflammation of the liver with necrosis of the hepatocytes and swelling due to a mononuclear response is a disease called ______.

Version 1

A) B) C) D)

68)

hepatitis jaundice cirrhosis mononucleosis

Hepatitis B virus _______.

A) is principally transmitted by blood B) transmission risks include shared needles, anal intercourse, and heterosexual intercourse C) is transmitted to newborns from chronic carrier mothers D) has many chronic carriers E) All of thechoices are correct.

69)

Hepatitis B infection _______.

A) B) C) D)

70)

has an incubation of 2 to 3 weeks can be transmitted by the fecal-oral route increases risk for hepatocellular cancer is responsible for most cases of post-transfusion hepatitis

Which of the following statements is incorrect about hepatitis A?

A) It is transmitted by the oral-fecal route. B) The virus produces flu-like symptoms with discomfort near the liver and darkened urine. C) An infection predisposes a person for liver cancer. D) Immune globulin therapy helps decrease the severity. E) Havrix is an inactivated vaccine for prevention.

71)

Which of the following hepatitis viruses is mismatched with its description?

Version 1

A) B) C) D)

72)

The most common cause of liver cancer in the United Statesis hepatitis ______ virus.

A) B) C) D)

73)

Secretion of toxins Degradative enzymes to damage host tissue Thick cuticle to escape detection from thehost immune system Specialized structures for attachment to host tissues

The most definitive test to diagnose a helminth infection is _______.

A) B) C) D)

75)

A B C D

Which of the following is not a virulence factor associated with helminths?

A) B) C) D)

74)

Hepatitis A virus - nonenveloped, single-stranded RNA enterovirus Hepatitis B virus - enveloped DNA virus Hepatitis C virus - RNA virus Hepatitis D virus - defective RNA virus that coinfects with hepatitis A virus

an ova and parasite smear for microscopy a blood cell count to look for elevated levels of eosinophils a serological test for the presence of anti-helminthic antibodies a good medical history of the patient, including recent foreign travel

Enterobius vermicularis is _______.

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A) a whipworm B) common only to the tropics and subtropics C) an intestinal helminth that easily contaminates fingers and fomites D) often fatal in heavy infestations E) All of thechoices are correct.

76)

Which of the following statements about parasitic helminths is incorrect? A) B) C) D)

They are multicellular animals. They have a definitive host in which the adult form lives. They have larval forms that do not affect humans. They include roundworms and tapeworms.

77) The transmission cycle of Fasciola hepatica differs from the cycles of Opisthorchis sinensis and Clonorchis sinensis in that _______.

A) B) C) D)

78)

Which of the following symptoms of trichinosis is most indicative of this disease?

A) B) C) D)

79)

encystment occurs ona freshwater plant eggs are released from an infected human via the urine freshwater snails release cercariae helminth development occurs in the liver

Eosinophilia Abdominal pain Shortness of breath Puffiness around the eyes

General symptoms of helminth infection includes all of the following except _______.

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A) eggs, larvae, or adult worms found in feces B) increased sensitivity to helminth antigens C) intense abdominal pain D) increased eosinophil count E) vague nausea

80)

Which of the following is not a helminththat causes primarily intestinal symptoms?

A) B) C) D)

Diphyllobothrium latum Enterobius vermicularis Trichuris trichiura Taenia solium

81) Which of the following statements comparing Enterobius vermicularisand Diphyllobothrium latumis incorrect?

A) Both helminths affect primarily children. B) Symptoms of both infections are mild. C) D. latum has fish as an intermediate host, whereas E. vermicularis has no intermediate host. D) E. vermicularis is best treated with mebendazole, whereas D. latum is susceptible to praziquantel.

82)

Identify the mismatch in the following list of helminths and their common names.

A) Opisthorchis sinensis; liver fluke B) Schistosoma mansoni; blood fluke C) Taenia solium; pinworm D) Ascaris lumbricoides; intestinal roundworm E) Trichuris trichiura; whipworm

Version 1

83)

Which of the following helminths is correctlypaired with its portal of entry?

A) B) C) D)

84)

Ascaris lumbricoides - enters through the skin Enterobius vermicularis - sexual transmission Taenia solium - eggs or larvae can be ingested Schistomoma species - carried by an insect vector into human

Which of the following statements regarding tapeworms is incorrect?

A) The scolex is the head. B) The body is comprised of proglottids. C) Proglottids are reproductive segments. D) Cysticerci are young, infective larvae ingested in undercooked meat. E) They can produce a variety of toxins.

85) Which of the following is not a helminththat causes intestinal symptoms accompanied by migratory symptoms?

A) B) C) D)

Toxocara Ascaris lumbricoides Necator americanus Trichuristrichiura

86) Which of the following statements regarding helminthscausing intestinal distress plus migratory symptoms is incorrect?

A) Praziquantel is the best treatment option for infection with these helminths. B) Nearly all newborn puppies in the U.S. are infected with Toxocara species. C) All of these infections are associated with eosinophilia, which can be detected in a complete blood count. D) Tissues along the migratory route of the helminthexperience inflammation.

Version 1

87)

Ascaris lumbricoides _______.

A) is an intestinal roundworm B) spreads to humans by ingestion of Ascaris eggs in food C) larvae penetrate into lymphatics and capillaries around intestines D) larvae migrate to the pharynx, get swallowed, and return to intestines to mature E) All of thechoices are correct.

88) The most dangerous outcome of a Taenia solium infection occurs when humans ingest tapeworm eggs rather than cysticerci. This type of transmission occurs by _______.

A) B) C) D)

89)

drinking water contaminated with feces from infected animals consuming undercooked pork with encysted Taenia consuming plants that haven't been thoroughly washed of soil consuming "chitlins," pig intestines from an infected animal

The most dangerous outcome of a Taenia solium infection occurs when _______.

A) eggs are ingested B) cysticerci are ingested C) larvae cross the placenta D) larvae enter the body through intact skin E) the host immune system fails to react against it

90) Both Taenia and Trichinellacan be found as cysts embedded in pork muscle. Which of the following statements about these organisms is incorrect?

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A) For both organisms, cyst envelopes are digested in the stomach, releasing the larvae to the intestine. B) Both helminths can exit the digestive system and migrate to other tissues. C) Both organisms release eggs in the feces to propagate the helminth. D) Only Taenia can be transmitted from one human to another.

91) Trichinellaspecies spend their entire life within the body of a mammalian host, but can move from one species to another upon consumption of an infected animal. Which of the following statements regarding trichinosis is incorrect?

A) Ground pork is safe, as the grinding process both inactivates the Trichinella cysts and mixes it with meats from multiple animals, effectively diluting any remaining cysts. B) Venison (deer) is safe from trichinosis because deer are herbivores not carnivores. C) An important hazard of consuming roadkill meats is the potential presence of Trichinella cysts. D) Affected muscle tissue has multiple cysts. Upon consumption, this generates a population that includes both males and females for the infection to propagate.

92)

Which of the following statements regardingtrichinosis is incorrect? A) B) C) D)

The disease can be transmitted by the fecal-oral route. The disease is associated with undercooked pork. Larvae migratefrom intestines to blood and various body tissues. Coiled larvae areencysted in skeletal muscle.

93) Because of the complexity of the Schistosomalife cycle, there are several parts of the cycle that could be disrupted to halt the spread of the disease. Which of the following proposals is not likely to succeed in decreasing the prevalence of schistosomiasis?

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A) Install sanitary sewage treatment facilities to prevent the dispersal of eggs present in urine and feces. B) Identify a surface protein on Schistosomamiracidia that the immune system can recognize and create a vaccine using that antigen. C) Apply chemical molluscicides (chemicals targeted to molluscs like snails) to bodies of fresh water. D) Monitor water bodies to detect the presence of infectiousmiracidia and enforceno bathing rules when they are present.

94)

Which of the following statements regarding schistosomiasis is incorrect?

A) Once a person has recovered from an infection with Schistosoma mansoni, they are protected with lifelong immunity. B) There is only a single drug available to treat Schistosoma infection, praziquantel, and drug-resistant strains are beginning to arise. C) Efficacy of treatment is assess by observing fecal samples placed in water for whether eggs can hatch to release live miracidia. D) Schistosomiasis is transmitted by exposing the skin to a water source that has been contaminated with sewage.

95)

Which of the following is not true of schistosomiasis?

A) Schistosomiasisis caused by blood flukes. B) Larvae called cercariae can penetrate intact skin through hair follicles. C) Freshwater snails are the intermediate host. D) Schisotosomiasis cases are beginning to appear in the southern U.S., as climate change brings warming waters to the region. E) Schistosomiasiscovers its outer surface with blood proteins to escape detection by the immune system.

96)

Which of the following statements concerning archaea in the microbiome is correct?

Version 1

A) Methanogens are associated with anaerobic regions of the gut and the gingival pockets. B) The human body is a hostile environment for archaea. C) Archaea evolved under extremeconditions and are not commensal with humans. D) Archaealinfections aretreated with translation inhibitors, as their ribosomes are the same as bacterial ribosomes.

97) A metagenomic study from a never-before-seen type of gingival infection indicates the presence of large numbers of archaea. Which of the following would be a good practice to isolate this organism?

A) B) C) D)

98)

Use an anaerobic medium and incubate in a sealed container. Incubate the isolation medium at about 90°C. Incubate the isolation medium adjacent to a bright full-spectrum light. Adjust the pH of the medium to below 5.

From the surface to the interior of a tooth, the tissues in order are _______.

A) enamel, dentin, and pulp B) enamel, pulp, and dentin C) pulp, dentin, and enamel D) dentin, enamel, and pulp E) dentin, pulp, and enamel

99)

Paramyxoviruses evade the host immune system by _______.

A) B) C) D)

Version 1

entering new cells by inducing syncytia formation a display of host antigens on its surface infecting only red blood cells producing an inhibitor specific for lymphocyte receptors

100)

Pathogenicity islands are _______.

A) B) C) D)

101)

gene clusters that confer the ability to become pathogenic a lymphoid tissue present in the small intestine enzymes like proteases and hemolysins that promote pathogenesis closely related groups of pathogenic enteric organisms

The fact that Salmonella has a high ID

A) B) C) D) facilities

50 means that _______.

consuming just a few cells of Salmonella will not result in illness it is more pathogenic than 50% of all gut microbes an antibiotic dose of 50 μg/ml can be expected to kill the organism the most stringent decontamination measures must be used in food preparation

102) Identification of the causative microbe for a diarrheal infection often requires a stool culture. The best medium for this purpose is _______.

A) a medium containing bile as a selective agent B) a general purpose medium that supports the growth of the diverse gut microbiota C) a medium containing a broad-spectrum antibiotic as a selective agent D) a medium containing mammalian blood to provide extra growth factors E) a liquid medium, as the diarrhea conditions are more liquid than solid

103)

Which of the following statements regarding fecal transplant is correct?

Version 1

A) This treatment is designed to jump-startthe intestinal microbiota after an infection with Clostridium difficileresuts in acute diarrhea. B) Donors and recipients must be carefully matched to prevent an immune reaction in the recipient. C) Fecal matter must be carefully disinfected and screened for viruses, cysts, and endospores before transfer to a recipient patient. D) The goal is to completely eradicate Clostridium difficile from a patient's gut microbiota and replace it with a healthy community.

104) Vibrio cholerae can be readily isolated and identified in the laboratory from stool samples by _______.

A) B) C) D)

dark-field microscopy looking for motility growth on selective media followed by PCR of its 16S rRNA gene its robust chemotactic response to the presence of chitin its ability to grow at high temperature and produce zones of clearing on blood agar

105) Which of the following pathogens has an infectious dose so low that a single infectious particle (cell, cyst, endospore, virus) can cause disease?

A) Norovirus B) Shigella C) Giardia D) Clostridium difficile E) Hepatitis A virus

106) WASH initiatives arepublic health initiatives that address WAter, Sanitation, and Hygiene. Which of the following diseases would not be expected to show a decrease in prevalence following a successful WASH campaign?

Version 1

A) Clostridium difficile infection B) Shigellainfection C) Entamoeba infection D) Schistosomiasis E) Ascaris lumbricoides infection

Version 1

Answer Key Test name: Microbiology22 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) FALSE 11) FALSE 12) FALSE 13) TRUE 14) FALSE 15) FALSE 16) A 17) A 18) B 19) A 20) A 21) E 22) C 23) D 24) D 25) A 26) D Version 1

27) C 28) B 29) C 30) A 31) C 32) A 33) E 34) D 35) E 36) E 37) D 38) E 39) A 40) C 41) A 42) A 43) B 44) B 45) C 46) A 47) B 48) E 49) D 50) A 51) B 52) E 53) B 54) B 55) A 56) D Version 1

57) A 58) C 59) C 60) C 61) A 62) D 63) A 64) B 65) D 66) A 67) A 68) E 69) C 70) C 71) D 72) C 73) A 74) A 75) C 76) C 77) A 78) A 79) C 80) A 81) A 82) C 83) C 84) E 85) D 86) A Version 1

87) E 88) A 89) A 90) C 91) A 92) A 93) B 94) A 95) D 96) A 97) A 98) A 99) A 100) A 101) A 102) A 103) A 104) A 105) A 106) A

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Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Chlamydia trachomatis is commonly transmitted bysexual activity. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Chlamydia infection can lead to cervicitis, salpingitis, and pelvic inflammatory disease. ⊚ true ⊚ false

3) The antivirals used for herpes simplex infections have the ability to completely destroy the virus and permanently cure the latent infection. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Gardasil prevents infection by group B Streptococcus types 6, 11, 16, and 18. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) Group B Streptococcus infections can cause serious infections in infants through vertical transmission. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 6) Trichomonas vaginalis _______.

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A) does not produce cysts B) infection is generally asymptomatic in males C) causes vaginitisin females D) has four flagella and an undulating membrane E) All of the choicesare correct.

Restriction factors in the reproductive tract _______.

A) B) C) D)

provide an innate protective effect against viral infection are enzymes that hydrolyze the phosphodiester bond in DNA adjust the pH of the mucosa and are modified during sexual maturation appear to derive from unculturable microbes in the normal microbiota

Which of the following is not a part of the male genital (reproductive) system?

A) B) C) D)

Ureter Prostate Epididymis Vas deferens

9) A woman is much more likely than a man to contract a UTI. Which of the following practices would best reduce her chances of getting a UTI? A) B) C) D)

10)

Using birth control pills Not wearing tight-fitting clothes Daily antibiotic dose Wiping with toilet paper in a front-to-back direction

Lactobacillus in the female reproductive tract _______.

Version 1

A) is protective B) is indicative of underlying infection C) is the causative agent in common yeast infections D) can lead to pelvic inflammatory disease E) can contribute to STIs

11) Which of the following is not a characteristic of the normal biota of the female reproductive tract during childbearing years?

A) Vaginal pH isneutral. B) Estrogen causesglycogen release. C) Lactobacilliconvert sugars to acid. D) Candida albicans is present in small amounts. E) Secretory IgAprovides protection.

12)

Which of the following is not a defense of the genitourinary tract?

A) Flushing action of urine B) Lysozyme C) IgA D) IgG E) Mucus secretions

13) Normal biota of the urinary tract in both genders include all of the following except ______.

A) nonhemolytic Streptococcus B) Staphylococcus C) Corynebacterium D) Escherichia coli E) Lactobacillus

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14)

Which of the followingstatements is true regarding the male urethral biota? A) B) C) D)

15)

There are no resident biota in the urethra. The urethral biota varies with sexual activity of the male. The urethral biota is the same as the anal biota. The urethral biota in the male is exactly the same biota as in the female urethra.

The vaginal microbiome changes as a female matures because _______.

A) hormonal changes and sexual activity alter the environment of the vagina B) episodic treatments with antibiotics for UTIs and antifungals for vaginitis eliminate many of the normal microbiota C) most sexually mature women use douching as a means to eliminate the vaginal microbiome D) estrogen has an antibiotic effect on the vaginal microbiome

16) Why does the microbiota of the reproductive tract change as the female agesfrom childhood to adulthood to old age? A) Her estrogen and progesterone levels change over time. B) The pH of the vagina changes over time. C) The microbesin the vagina change the environment, which affects the populations of microbes living there. D) Post-menopausal women have a stable microbiota. E) All of these statements are true.

17)

The most common causative agent of urinary tract infections is ______.

A) B) C) D)

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Escherichia coli Staphylococcus aureus Streptococcus pyogenes Pseudomonas aeurginosa

18)

Which of the following organisms causes urinary tract infections?

A) Proteusmirabilis B) Schistosomahaematobium C) Treponemapallidum D) Group B Streptococcus E) Gardnerellavaginalis

19)

Whichof the following statements regarding leptospirosis in incorrect? A) It is most common in cattle, horses, pigs, and dogs. B) The causative organism is a spirochete. C) The causative organism infects the kidneys, liver, brain, and eyes. D) Humans acquire it by contact with abraided skin or mucous membranes. E) It can be transmitted by animal bites.

20)

Prostatitis and urinary tract infections (UTIs) are alike in that _______.

A) both result from the transfer of normal biota from the GI tract B) women are far more susceptible to both infections than men C) treatment will minimize the symptoms but will never completely eliminate the disease D) untreated cases may complicate by infecting the kidneys

21)

All of the following are signs and symptoms of urinary tract infection except ______.

A) red blood cells in urine B) painful urination C) white blood cells in urine D) nausea E) diarrhea

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22)

Infection of the urinary bladder is called ______.

A) urethritis B) pyelonephritis C) cystitis D) vaginitis E) PID

23)

Infected animals shed Leptospira interrogans in their ______.

A) B) C) D)

24)

feces blood urine saliva

Schistosomahaematobium infection _______.

A) begins with larval entry throughabraded skin B) has no effective treatment at this time C) predisposes victims to bladder cancer D) predisposes victims to liver cancer E) is transmitted via the fecal-oral route

25) The patient's symptoms are pain upon urinationand blood in the urine but no bacteria are cultured from the urine. The doctor suspects schistosomiasis. Whatquestion did the doctor askedthat gave hera clue about the disease? A) B) C) D)

Version 1

Have you had a blood transfusion? Have you been eating at places that might not be hygienic? Have you traveled out of the U.S.? Have you been having unprotected sex?

26) Janey has been taking antibiotics for 10 daysto counter a urinary tract infection caused by E. coli. Her UTI is eliminated, but two weeks later she has a vaginal itch. What is the likely cause? A) Candida albicans B) Staphylococcus aureus C) Lactobacillus acidophilus D) Clostridium difficile E) Escherichia coli

27)

The most common mode of disease transmission in UTIs is ______.

A) fomites B) indirect contact C) opportunism D) aerosol E) endogenous transfer

28)

Leptospirosis _______.

A) has only humans as a reservoir B) is communicable C) can be contracted from the environment D) is strictly transmitted by sexual contact E) is contracted by the fecal-oral route

29)

The most common mode for the transmission of Schistosoma haematobium is ______.

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A) fomites B) contaminated water C) fecal-oral route D) opportunism E) contaminated meat

30)

Which of the following is a causative agent of a discharge disease?

A) Leptospira interrogans B) Escherichia coli C) Neisseriagonorrhoeae D) Schistosomahaematobium E) Herpes simplex virus 2

31)

Neisseria gonorrhoeae is _______.

A) the cause of ophthalmia neonatorum B) the cause of gonorrhea C) called the gonococcus D) virulent due to fimbriae and a protease that inactivates IgA E) All of the choicesare correct.

32)

Which of the following statements regarding gonorrhea is incorrect?

A) A chancre-type lesion develops at the portal of entry. B) It is a sexually transmitted infection. C) Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), epididymitis, and infertility are complications. D) Females can have asymptomatic infections. E) Symptoms include painful urination and discharge.

33)

Chlamydia trachomatis causes _______.

Version 1

A) nongonococcal urethritis in males B) cervicitis in females C) congenital conjunctivitis D) pelvic inflammatory disease in females E) All of the choicesare correct.

34)

Which is not a characteristic of spirochetes?

A) All are pathogenic. B) The cells stain gram-negative. C) The cells exhibit a helical shape. D) The cells are always motile. E) All cells have a cell wall.

35)

Treponema pallidum _______.

A) has humans as the sole reservoir B) can cross the placenta C) has a hooked tip to attach to epithelium D) is transmitted by direct sexual contact E) All of the choices are correct.

36)

The chancre of syphilis _______.

A) occurs due to small hemorrhaging of capillaries B) is very painful C) occurs during the tertiary stage D) develops into a lesion with firm margins and an ulcerated central crater

37)

The secondary stage of syphilis _______.

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A) is when the patient is no longer infectious to others B) occurs within 10 days of the primary stage C) is a time when the pathogen enters and multiplies in the blood D) has no symptoms E) is when gummas develop in tissues

38) During which stage of syphilis does fever, lymphadenopathy, and a red to brown rash occur?

A) B) C) D)

39)

Primary Secondary Tertiary Latent

Permanent cardiovascular and neurological damage is seen in which stage of syphilis?

A) B) C) D)

Primary Secondary Tertiary Latent

40) During the tertiary stage of syphilis,tumors called _______ develop in the liver, skin, bone, and cartilage.

A) B) C) D)

41)

chancres gummas ulcers nodules

The Tuskegee Study gathered information on ______.

Version 1

A) gonorrhea B) chlamydia C) genital herpes D) syphilis E) HIV

42)

The rash of secondary syphilis _______.

A) causes severe itching B) is intensely painful C) only lasts a few days D) can last for months E) does not impair function

43)

The latency period of syphilis is ______.

A) B) C) D)

44)

Which of the following has not been an effective treatment for syphilis?

A) B) C) D)

45)

3 to 6 months 1 year 10 years 20 years or longer

Mercury Arsenic Penicillin G Vancomycin

Herpes simplex-1 _______.

Version 1

A) is exclusive to oral mucosa B) is exclusive to genitourinary tract C) confers immunity to herpes simplex 2 D) is cleared by praziquantel E) None of the choices are correct.

46)

Herpes simplex-2 (HSV-2) causes _______.

A) genital lesions B) intensely sensitive vesicles on or near the genitals C) symptoms that include urethritis, cervicitis, and itching D) infection in neonates that contact lesions in the birth canal E) All of the choices are correct.

47)

An occasional serious complication of herpes simplex-1 infection is ______. A) shingles B) paralysis C) encephalitis D) infertility E) kidney failure

48)

Which of the following statements regardingHSV-2 (genital herpes)is incorrect?

A) B) C) D)

49)

It can become latent in the sacral ganglion. Virus is shed from active lesions only. It can be reactivated by bacterial infections. It can also infect oral mucosa.

Which of the following statements regarding genital warts is incorrect?

Version 1

A) They are not common in the United States. B) They are sexually transmitted. C) They often occur on the penis, vagina, and cervix. D) They formlarge cauliflower-like masses called condyloma acuminata. E) Certain strains predispose a person to cancer of the cervix or penis.

50) You, a 29-year-old sexually active male, havediscovered some small vesicles on the penis. They are fluid-filled, red, and very painful. This is the second time that you have seen this. The first time around, about 2 months ago, you saw them but managed to ignore them. The lesions went away--no doctor, no treatment. But here they are again. You think that perhaps you picked up thisinfectionsix months ago, the last time that you had sex. Identify the likely infection. A) HSV-1 infection B) HSV-2 infection C) Candidiasis D) Syphilis E) Chlamydia

51)

The key characteristic of the herpes family of viruses is _______. A) their ability to transform normal cells into cancer cells B) their ability to stay in host cells without causing symptoms C) their ability to cause organ death D) their propensity to destroy bone marrow

52)

The primary virulence factor of Neisseria gonorrhoeae is ______.

A) an endotoxin B) an exotoxin C) a protease D) fimbriae E) ahemolysin

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53)

Which of the following statements aboutChlamydia is incorrect? A) It is gram-negative. B) It is an obligate parasite that needs host cells for growth. C) Elementary bodies are the infectious form. D) Elementary bodies lack enzyme systems for making ATP. E) Reticulate bodies differentiate into elementary bodies.

54)

The most commonly reported STI in the United States is ______. A) gonorrhea B) Chlamydia infection C) genital herpes D) syphilis E) HIV infection

55)

The most common cause of vaginitis is ______.

A) Candida albicans B) Escherichia coli C) Staphlococcus aureus D) Streptococcus pyogenes E) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

56)

Candida albicans is a ______.

A) B) C) D)

57)

fungus bacterium helminth protozoan

Trichomonas vaginalis is a ______.

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A) B) C) D)

58)

fungus bacterium helminth protozoan

Lymphogranuloma venereum is a complication of ______.

A) gonorrhea B) Chlamydia infection C) genital herpes D) syphilis E) HIV infection

59)

The best way to directly observe Treponema pallidum is through ______ microscopy. A) bright-field B) dark-field C) fluorescent D) phasecontrast E) scanningelectron

60)

Chancroid _______.

A) B) C) D)

61)

is caused by a spirochete presents with a hard chancre is caused by Haemophilus ducreyi is very painful in both sexes

Warts are caused by ______.

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A) bacteria B) enveloped DNA viruses C) nonenveloped DNA viruses D) enveloped RNA viruses E) nonenveloped RNA viruses

62) As a couple, you have been trying to get pregnant for a few years, but there appears to be a medical cause for the infertility. After a full checkup, your doctor tells you that there is scar tissue in the uterine tubes. What disease is the most likely cause of this problem? A) B) C) D)

Trichomoniasis Syphilis Gonorrhea Leptospirosis

63) You have been a carrier of HSV-2 for many years, with sporadic outbreaks perhaps once a year. You are pregnant and about to deliver your baby. What does your doctor suggest, now that you currently have an outbreak of herpes lesions?

A) B) C) D)

64)

Have an abortion Put the baby on a high dose ofantivirals Give you a high dose of antibiotics Delivery by cesarean section

Which of the following statements regarding vaginosis and vaginitis is correct?

A) Both conditions result in a vaginal discharge with itching. B) Vaginitis may be caused by fungi or protozoans, whereas vaginosis is invariably a viral infection. C) Both conditions can be prevented with vaccinations. D) Vaginitis can complicateto pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), but vaginosis cannot.

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65) A healthcare provider who suspects that a woman may have vaginitis caused by Candida infection can confirm that by _______.

A) identifying pseudohyphae in a Gram-stained smear examined usinga light microscope B) identifying the characteristic protozoansin a smear examined using afluorescence microscope C) submitting a sample of the discharge for PCR amplification D) submitting a sample of the discharge for metagenomic sequencing E) plating a sample of the discharge on a medium containing salt as a selective agent

66)

Which of the following characteristics can distinguish vaginitis and vaginosis?

A) B) C) D)

67)

Causative agent Presence of vaginal inflammation Presence of discharge All of thechoices are correct.

Which of the following statements regarding prostatitis is incorrect?

A) B) C) D)

It is caused by GI tract biota. It can be chronic or acute. The specific causative agent is readily cultured and identified. It is accompanied by pain and frequent, difficult urination.

68) Even after a positive test for a microbial cause, chronic prostatitis is unresponsive to antibiotic therapy. Why might this be the case?

A) B) C) D)

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It is a viralinfection. The side effects of the drug are too great. Mixed speciesbiofilms are hard to eliminate with antibiotics. The infection issporadic.

69)

The leading cause of pelvic inflammatory disease is ______.

A) gonorrhea B) Chlamydia infection C) genital herpes D) syphilis E) HIV infection

70)

Pelvic inflammatory disease often leads to ______.

A) low birthweight babies B) HIV infection C) cervical cancer D) infertility E) multiple births

71) Research published in January 2017 presented an estimate of the prevalence of HPV infection in American males at 45%. Adult males are an unvaccinated population. What are the consequences of HPV infection in males?

A) Males can developgenitourinary tract cancer from HPV infection. B) Males with HPV have a significantly higher likelihood of developing prostate cancer. C) There are no long-term consequences; a course of antiviral medication will clear up the infection. D) HPV-infected males should also be screened for gonorrhea, as the two often coinfect.

72) There is a controversy overpre-teen girls receiving the HPV vaccine. Many parents think that giving this vaccine condones sexual activity at a young age. On the other hand, there are parents who do not want their kids to pick up STIs. Why is the vaccine recommended for 11-12 year old girls? Why not give the vaccine to young adult women who are just becoming sexually active?

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A) The immune system is strongest in pre-teen girls, so it is best to give the vaccine very early in life. B) Very young women tend to get cancer from HPV, whereas women who are older get warts from HPV. C) The vaccine is cheaper for young girls since the dosage of virus in the vaccine is far less than that given for older women. D) Once the young woman becomes infected with HPV, the virus gets into cells. It is then too late to vaccinate.

73)

Which population is at greatest risk for group B Streptococcus infection?

A) Pregnant women B) Neonates C) College age women D) AIDS patients E) Post-menopausal women

74) In the final trimester of pregnancy, your test results came back positive for an infection that would likely be damaging for the newborn, so your doctor wants to prescribe an antibiotic. What organism is the likely culprit here? A) B) C) D)

Herpes simplex 2 Group B Streptococcus Leptospira Trichomonas

75) Common spermicidal preparations have a toxic effect on Lactobacillus species and are associated with increased risk of urinary tract infection. Which of the following statements best explains this observation?

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A) Without the protective coating of Lactobacillus, organisms like E. coli can attach to bladder epithelial cells. B) Use of spermicide must be carefully monitored so that it doesn't inadvertently enter the urinary tract. C) Lactobacilluscan cause urinary tract infections when transferred from the reproductive system to the urinary system. D) Production of spermicidal chemicals must be rigorously controlled to avoid contamination with organisms like E. coli.

76) The population most likely to be affected by catheter-associated urinary tract infections is _______.

A) B) C) D)

elderly women in a nursing home women who have recently delivered a baby by caesarean section women who abuse intravenous drugs urban sex workers

77) The pathogenesis of Neisseria gonorrhoeae is dependent upon phase variation. Which of the following statements concerning phase variation is incorrect?

A) B) C) D)

78)

Phase variation involves alterations to the structure of the fimbriae. Phase variation allows Neisseria cells to escape immune detection. Phase variations results from genetic rearrangements in the Neisseria chromosome. Phase variation results in Neisseria cells adopting a pleomorphic morphology.

Which of the following statements regarding the Chlamydia life cycle is incorrect?

A) B) C) D)

The elementary body is the infectious stage of Chlamydia. Elementary bodies differentiate into reticulate bodies in the cell nucleus. Reticulate bodies multiple by binary fission. Elementary bodies are released from the host cell to continue the infectious cycle.

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79)

In which of the following ways are Chlamydia and viruses the same?

A) B) C) D)

80)

Both are able to reproduce only within a eukaryotic cell. Both are best treated with antiviral chemotherapy. Both have surface proteins that cannot be recognized by the immune system. Both can remain dormant in the cell nucleus for long periods of time.

The best method for culturing Chlamydia is _______.

A) eukaryotic cell culture B) a minimal, defined selective medium C) to incubate the medium at slighty lower than body temperature D) enrichment through several rounds of blood culture

81) A patient in your clinic has tested positive for syphilis, and following his visit, you must prepare the room for future use. To avoid spreading this organism to other patients, the best approach is to _______.

A) B) C) D)

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clean all surfaces with a common disinfectant lock the room and post a sign that it must be professionally decontaminated discard all linens and instruments in biohazard containers contact the CDC for guidance on proper cleaning

Answer Key Test name: Microbiology23 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) E 7) A 8) A 9) D 10) A 11) A 12) D 13) D 14) B 15) A 16) E 17) A 18) A 19) E 20) A 21) E 22) C 23) C 24) C 25) C 26) A Version 1

27) E 28) C 29) B 30) C 31) E 32) A 33) E 34) A 35) E 36) D 37) C 38) B 39) C 40) B 41) D 42) D 43) D 44) D 45) E 46) E 47) C 48) B 49) A 50) B 51) B 52) D 53) D 54) B 55) A 56) A Version 1

57) D 58) B 59) B 60) C 61) C 62) C 63) D 64) A 65) A 66) D 67) C 68) C 69) B 70) D 71) A 72) D 73) B 74) B 75) A 76) A 77) D 78) B 79) A 80) A 81) A

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Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Living or dead organisms that occupy an organism's habitat are called biotic factors. ⊚ ⊚

Phytoplankton is composed of protozoa and small invertebrates. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The primary role of producers is the recycling of nutrients in an ecosystem. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Both energy and nutrients cycle through an ecosystem. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Toxic substances accumulate through natural trophic flow of an ecosystem. ⊚ ⊚

true false

There are very few viruses in aquatic environments. ⊚ ⊚

true false

7) Chemical elements needed in trace amounts for biochemical reactions have a biogeochemical cycle, including boron, chromium, manganese, and cobalt.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

8) The combustion of fossil fuels, such as coal, oil, and gas, have contributed to the steady increase in atmospheric CO 2 gas over the last 25 years. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The bacterium Thiobacillus secretes sulfuric acid into the environment. ⊚ true ⊚ false

10) Metagenomic analysis involves DNA sequencing of various samples taken from a particular habitat. ⊚ ⊚

true false

11) Mycorrhizae are the mutualistic relationship between fungi and the roots of certain plants. ⊚ ⊚

true false

12) The total amount of water in the hydrologic cycle has been decreasing over the last million years. ⊚ ⊚

13)

true false

The thermocline is broken down by temperature changes that allow upwelling to occur. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 14) Thestudy of interactions between microbes and their environment and how those interactions affect the earth is called ______. A) appliedmicrobiology B) biotechnology C) bioengineering D) microbialecology E) industrialmicrobiology

15) The study of the practical uses of microbes in various industries and technologies is ______.

A) applied microbiology B) biotechnology C) bioengineering D) microbial ecology E) industrial microbiology

16)

The thin envelope of life that surrounds the earth's surface is called the ______.

A) atmosphere B) biosphere C) lithosphere D) hydrosphere E) ecosystem

17)

The conversion of gaseous nitrogen (N

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2) to ammonia (NH

) occurs during ______.

A) ammonification B) nitrogen fixation C) photosynthesis D) nitrification E) denitrification

18) The oxidation of ammonia (NH ______.

) to nitrate (NO

) and nitrite (NO

) is called

A) ammonification B) nitrogen fixation C) photosynthesis D) nitrification E) denitrification

19)

The conversion of nitrate (NO

) to nitrogen gas (N

2) is called ______.

A) ammonification B) nitrogen fixation C) photosynthesis D) nitrification E) denitrification

20)

Why are waterlogged soils often infertile?

A) Nitrifying bacteria require oxygen, and the excess water takes the place of oxygencontaining air. B) Water molecules are used instead of oxygen for cellular respiration. C) The lack of physical space in this type of soil blocks bacterial growth. D) There is less carbon in waterlogged soil than dry soil.

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21) The major group of organisms that fix nitrogen into ammonia and then oxidize it to nitrate are ______. A) B) C) D)

22)

protozoa bacteria algae fungi

Scientists have learned the full extent of viral abundance on earth because _______.

A) metagenomic sequencing has identified viruses in a broad variety of environments B) a wide variety of microbes is available to act as hosts for these viruses C) the final step of the viral life cycle, release of mature viruses and cell lysis, releases millions of viruses D) viruses are known to grow on all life forms: animal, plant, fungi, and bacteria

23) The full extent of the diversity and abundance of life on earth has only been understood in the past few years as a result of _______.

A) techniques to identify organisms that do not rely on culturing B) advances in deep oceanography and deep earth mining engineering C) environmental movements to preserve parks, coral reefs, and glaciers D) microscopy techniques to identify the vast quantity of viruses present in all environments

24)

Which environment represents the largest pool of microbial genes? A) Humans and animals B) Rainforest C) Soil D) Oceans E) Freshwater lakes

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25)

A group of organisms of the same genus within a community is called a ______.

A) niche B) habitat C) population D) community E) biome

26) A collection of organisms, together with the physical and chemical factors in their environment, are called a/an ______.

A) atmosphere B) biosphere C) lithosphere D) hydrosphere E) ecosystem

27) The terrestrial realm of the biosphere is distributed into particular climatic regions called ______.

A) niches B) habitats C) populations D) communities E) biomes

28) You have been using massive amounts of weed killer and insecticide to kill weeds in your yard, as well as the grubs and aphids that are munching on your roses and your grass. What effect might this have from a microbiological standpoint?

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A) Loss of microbial diversity in the soil B) Reduction in microbial numbers in the soil C) Damage to the nitrogen fixing bacteria D) Damage to the mycorrhizae E) All of the choices are correct.

29)

The physical location in the environment to which an organism has adapted is its ______.

A) niche B) habitat C) population D) community E) biome

30)

Which trophic level forms the base of a food chain?

A) Primary consumers B) Secondary consumers C) Tertiary consumers D) Quaternary consumers E) Primary producers

31) Organisms that inhabit soil or water and breakdown and absorb the organic matter of dead organisms are called ______.

A) B) C) D)

32)

primary consumers autotrophs secondary consumers decomposers

A Paramecium is an example of a ______.

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A) primary consumer B) secondary consumer C) tertiary consumer D) quaternary consumer E) primary producer

33)

Organisms whose sole source of carbon for growth is CO

2 are called ______.

A) lithotrophs B) consumers C) decomposers D) saprophytes E) autotrophs

34)

Heterotrophs include _______.

A) producers only B) consumers only C) consumers and decomposers D) producers and consumers E) producers, consumers, and decomposers

35)

Which of the following statements regardingbiogeochemical cycles is incorrect?

A) All organisms directly participate in recycling. B) All elementsoriginate from a nonliving, long-term reservoir. C) Cycles are simple systems between living and nonliving components. D) Elements cyclethrough biotic and abiotic environments. E) Recycling keepsnutrients in balance.

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36) Methane is a significant part of the carbon cycle in ______ environments dominated by methanogens.

A) anaerobic B) thermophilic C) oligotrophic D) autotrophic

37)

When methanogens convert carbon dioxide to methane, it is a/an ______ reaction.

A) reduction B) oxidation C) aerobic D) ammonification

38)

Carbon dioxide (CO

2) is _______.

A) removed from the atmosphere during photosynthesis B) a source of carbon for autotrophs C) returned to the atmosphere during respiration and fermentation D) used by marine organisms to make limestone for their hard shells E) All of thechoices are correct.

39)

The energy of the sun is converted into chemical energy during ______.

A) ammonification B) nitrogen fixation C) photosynthesis D) nitrification E) denitrification

40)

Which of the following is a source of methane?

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A) Gastrointestinal tract of cattle and sheep B) Photosynthesis from halophiles in the Dead Sea C) Decomposition of organic detritus on the forest floor D) Degradation of cellulose and lignin by fungi E) All of these processes produce methane.

41)

Which organism is a nitrogen-fixing symbiont of legumes?

A) B) C) D)

42)

Rhizobium Nitrobacter Pseudomonas Clostridium

The advantage of nitrogen fixation to the host plant is _______.

A) the production ofnucleotides required for nucleic acid synthesis B) the ability to use nitrogen gas instead of oxygen gas in cellular respiration, particularly when the soil is compacted C) the production of antibiotics that protectthe plant against pathogenic soil bacteria D) the ability to synthesize amino acids and proteins from the ammonia produced

43)

Which crop plant would likely have a mutualistic relationship with Rhizobium bacteria? A) Potatoes B) Peas C) Cotton D) Wheat E) Corn

44) Which of the following organisms anaerobically reduces sulfates to hydrogen sulfide or metal sulfide?

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A) Thiobacillus ferrooxidans B) Thiobacillus thiooxidans C) Nitrosococcus D) Desulfovibrio E) Rhizobium

45)

Which of the following statements regarding the phosphorus cycle is incorrect?

A) The phosphorus pool is in sedimentary rock. B) Phosphorus is released naturally by mining. C) Phosphorus must be phosphatized to enter biological systems. D) Phosphorus mineralization occurs by microbial action. E) Thiobacillus produces sulfuric acid thatdissolves phosphate rock.

46)

Most of the organic sulfur is located in _______. A) B) C) D)

47)

monosaccharides and carbohydrates fatty acids and lipids nucleotides and nucleic acids amino acids and proteins

How are the sulfur cycle and the phosphate cycle interconnected? A) B) C) D)

Phosphate is released from rock and soil by sulfuric acid. Phosphate is the nutrient source used by sulfur oxidizers. Sulfite is the nutrient used by phosphate reducers. Sulfate and phosphate react together to produce amino acids for protein production.

48) Which of the following processes is not a part of metagenomic analysis of an environment?

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A) Polymerase chain reaction B) High-throughput sequencing C) DNA sequence assembly D) Reverse transcription E) Extraction of DNA from original sample

49)

Which of the following statements concerning metagenomic sequencing is incorrect?

A) B) C) methods. D)

Proteins are extracted from an environment, fragmented, and adaptors are added. The samples are subject to polymerase chain reaction for amplification. The sequences of the amplified fragments are determined by next-generation Software aligns sequences and assemblelarge portions of genomes.

50) The slowly decaying organic litter from plant and animal tissues that is found in the soil is called ______.

A) a biofilm B) aggregate C) the lithosphere D) detritus

51)

Which of the following is true of water-saturated soils?

A) B) C) D)

52)

They provide gases for soil microbes. They contain anaerobes. They have a high oxygen content. They have a low carbon dioxide content.

The zone of soil around roots of plants is called the ______.

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A) lithosphere B) biosphere C) ionosphere D) rhizosphere E) hydrosphere

53)

The mutualistic partnership between plant roots and microbes is ______.

A) hyphae B) basidia C) mycorrhizae D) rhizopods E) lichens

54) You have drained a pond on your propertyto make itdeeper. In the process of using a machine to dig, you find that the mud is black and smells terrible. Your prediction is that ______ bacteria predominate in this area of the mud. A) nitrogen-fixing B) sulfur-oxidizing C) sulfur-reducing D) nitrifying E) denitrifying

55) You are preparing a garden and want to provide the best environment for your plants. Which of the following would you add to the potting soil? A) B) C) D)

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Mycorrhizae inoculant Sulfur oxidizers Coliform bacteria Bacteriophage

56)

The majority of Earth's water is found in ______.

A) freshwater lakes B) icecaps andglaciers C) ground water D) oceans E) soil moisture

57) You have been diagnosed withneurotoxic poisoning after having ingested an algal toxin, called brevetoxin, produced by Karenia brevis. In which food did you likely consume this?

A) B) C) D)

58)

Freshwater trout Tomatoes Oysters Canned tuna

Which microorganism is considered phytoplankton? A) B) C) D)

Nitrogen fixing bacteria Cyanobacteria Sulfatereducers Mycorrhizae

59) Plastic marine debris was collected from multiple sites in the ocean and examined with electron microscopy and next-generation sequencing. These techniques revealed microbial communities growing on the plastics. Which of the following statements is correct regarding these communities?

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A) At least one member of the community must synthesize an enzyme to degrade the hydrocarbon comprising the plastic. B) The community within the plastic must be very similar to the community in the surrounding ocean waters. C) There are no bacteriophage that use these microbes as hosts, as viruses are rare in marine ecosystems. D) These communities are very likely to be pure cultures, as plastics have been synthesized precisely because they are resistant to microbial degradation.

60) Vast numbers of microorganisms are being genetically characterized without culturing them in the laboratory today through ______.

A) B) C) D)

column chromatography mass spectrometry and proteomics metagenomic sequencing polymerase chain reaction

61) Select the statement that explains the usefulness of metagenomic analysis in research today. A) B) C) D)

It evaluates microbial diversity in a habitat. It allows the identification of unculturable microorganisms. It detects the abundance of microorganisms in an environment. All of these are correct statements.

62) Which of the following types of microbes is most likely to be found in the sediment of Lake Michigan?

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A) B) C) D) numbers

63)

Anaerobes; oxygen is least abundant in the sediment layer Autotrophs; their carbon source is dissolved carbon dioxide Mesophiles; temperatures in the hypolimnionsupport growth in the 4-9°C range Cyanobacteria; seasonal upwelling of nutrients can cause dramatic increases in their

The warmest area of a lake during the summer is the ______.

A) epilimnion B) thermocline C) limnion D) benthic zone E) hypolimnion

64) Considering the increase in tick-borne diseases in the context of "One Health," which of the following statements is correct?

A) Ticks carrying Borreliaare likely to encounter hosts already infected with Babesia or Ehrlichia, resulting in ticks that co-infect with multiple pathogens. B) Ticks carrying multiple pathogens reproduce at a slower rate, rendering them less likely to infect humans. C) Lyme disease has spread from deer to humans upon increasing development of the forested environments usually inhabited by deer. D) Borrelia, Babesia, and Ehrlichiacan rapidly adapt to changing insectvectors, thereby increasing their populations as they move from ticks to mosquitoes.

65) Looking at the use of antibiotics as growth promoters in livestock through the lens of "One Health," which of the following statements best describes the interrelationship of these components of the biosphere?

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A) Spontaneous antibiotic resistance that arises in animals can be rapidly spread to humans who work on factory farms. B) Livestock can be more susceptible to infectious diseases because of the energy required for such rapid growth. C) Choosing a vegetarian lifestyle goes a long way to avoid risks associated with antibiotic-treated livestock. D) The broad range of antibiotics available will provide widespread protection from pathogenic microbes.

66)

The three components that interact for one health are _______.

A) B) C) D)

67)

Which of the following statements regarding red tides is incorrect?

A) B) C) D)

68)

the environment, humans, and animals bacteria, archaea, and eukaryotes prokaryotes, eukaryotes, and viruses producers, consumers, and decomposers

Red tides result from anovergrowth ofdinoflagellates. Dinoflagellates produce a toxin thatcauses paralytic shellfish poisoning. Red tides are also known as harmful algal blooms (HABs). Toxins produced by dinoflagellatesare skin irritants.

Eutrophication _______.

A) is characterized by heavy surface algal blooms B) restricts the O 2 supply to water below the surface C) occurs when there are excess nutrients in aquatic ecosystems D) causes massive die-off of fish and invertebrates E) All of the choices are correct.

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69)

Nutrient deficient aquatic ecosystems are called ______.

A) eutrophic B) oligotrophic C) epitrophic D) hypotrophic E) autotrophic

70) You are "living off the grid" meaning that you are not using any public utilities: no water supply, sewer connection, natural gas, or electricity. You do have a septic tank, whose pipe carries sewage underground where it is released over a wide area, the leaching field. There is also a small pond out there that you have stocked with fish. However, you notice that the fish are floating dead in the water, and the pond has a green scum on it. What happened?

A) Chemical toxins from your septic tank cleaner have killed the fish. B) There are not enough nutrients in the water, so the fish died. C) There is oxygen depletion in the pond due to theleakage of phosphates and other compounds from your septic tank. D) The fish died due to a lack of calcium, which then caused the algae to overgrow.

71)

Using microbes to break down or remove toxic wastes in water and soil is called ______.

A) decomposition B) synergism C) mineralization D) bioremediation E) recycling

72)

The breakdown of man-made compounds by decomposers is called ______.

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A) mineralization B) bioremediation C) decomposition D) parasitism E) saprobism

73)

Consider a deep sea hydrothermal vent. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A) B) C) D)

Its biome is the deep marine biopshere. The vent hosts communities of chemolithotrophic bacteria. The vent is a habitat. The associated chemolithotrophs are primary producers.

74) Which of the following statements considering the human body as an ecosystem is incorrect?

A) The skin, the gut, and the nasopharynx are all habitats. B) The microbes present in dental plaque constitute a community. C) Lactobacillus acidophilus and Lactobacillus jensenii are populations within the vaginal community. D) An infection can be considered a habitat's response to an alteration in environmental conditions.

75) Considering the human body as an ecosystem, which of the following statements is incorrect?

A) Microbes act as producers, consumers, and decomposers within the human ecosystem. B) Energy for the human microbiome derives exclusively from the food we eat. C) The microbiota in the human gut is comprised of heterotrophs. D) The human ecosystem lacks an autotrophicniche.

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76) Which of the following statements regarding the infection of root hairs by Rhizobium species is incorrect?

A) Attachment of Rhizobium cells to plant root hair cells induce curling of the root hair. B) The presence of Rhizobiumtriggers the formation of syncytial cells. C) Nodules begin to form in the roots as both plant and bacterial partners differentiate. D) This is a mutualistic relationship between plant and bacteria.

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Answer Key Test name: Microbiology24 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) FALSE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) TRUE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) TRUE 12) FALSE 13) TRUE 14) D 15) A 16) B 17) B 18) D 19) E 20) A 21) B 22) A 23) A 24) D 25) C 26) E Version 1

27) E 28) E 29) B 30) E 31) D 32) A 33) E 34) C 35) C 36) A 37) A 38) E 39) C 40) A 41) A 42) D 43) B 44) D 45) B 46) D 47) A 48) D 49) A 50) D 51) B 52) D 53) C 54) C 55) A 56) D Version 1

57) C 58) B 59) A 60) C 61) D 62) A 63) A 64) A 65) A 66) A 67) D 68) E 69) B 70) C 71) D 72) B 73) A 74) D 75) A 76) B

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Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) In the secondary phase of water treatment, organic matter undergoes biodegradation by a diverse mix of bacteria, algae, and protozoa. ⊚ ⊚

Yeast fermentation in breads is aerobic. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Rennin is added to cheese to help preserve it. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Most cases of food poisoning occur in the home, not restaurants. ⊚ true ⊚ false

A quick warming of chicken or eggs is enough to kill Salmonella. ⊚ ⊚

Freezing chicken does not kill Salmonella. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Irradiated food becomes radioactive.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

Dehydration is an excellent microbicidal method. ⊚ ⊚

true false

9) In industrial microbiology, microbes growing on inexpensive nutrients are induced to synthesize valuable products such as amino acids, nucleotides, organic acids and vitamins. ⊚ ⊚

10)

true false

Secondary metabolites are essential molecules needed by the microorganism. ⊚ ⊚

true false

11) In batch fermentation, substrate is added continuously, and the product is siphoned off throughout the run. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 12) Biotechnology includes all of the following except _______.

A) potency B) C) D) vectors

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modifying antibiotics with different chemical functional groups to increase their using bacterial antifreeze proteins to protect crops from lethal frosts using genetically-modified E. coli as a tool to detect cancer using bacterial insecticidal proteins as a means to combat mosquitoes as disease

13) The mass, controlled culture of microbes to produce desired organic compounds is ______.

A) B) C) D)

biotechnology fermentation biosynthesis bioremediation

14) The study of the practical use of microbes in various industries and technologies is ______.

A) B) C) D)

applied microbiology biotechnology bioremediation microbial ecology

15) Which chemical is used in both water purification and sewage treatment to provide longterm disinfection?

A) B) C) D)

16)

Fluorine Activated charcoal Copper sulfate Chlorine

Place the steps of the water purification process in order. A) B) C) D)

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Filtration and settling, chemical disinfection, aeration, release into a water reservoir Aeration, filtration and settling, chemical disinfection, release into a water reservoir Chemical disinfection, aeration, filtration and settling, release into a water reservoir Release into a water reservoir, aeration, filtration and settling, chemical disinfection

17)

Primary sewage treatment includes ______.

A) sludge digesting B) skimming C) filtration D) chlorination E) aeration

18)

The difference between water purification and sewage treatment is _______.

A) the types of microorganisms used for the treatment B) the amount of air pumped into the water for treatment C) whether the water source is residential or commercial D) there is microbial degradation in sewage treatment, but not in water purification

19)

The first step in sewage treatment is ______.

A) B) C) D)

20)

chlorination aeration andsettling sedimentation filtration

The final treatment of sewage before release into the environment is ______.

A) sludge digesting B) skimming C) filtration D) chlorination E) aeration

21) Sewage sludge, the solid that remains after aerobic decomposition, makes a useful fertilizer because _______. Version 1

A) B) C) D)

it is rich in nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium it is rich in carbon and nitrogen it contains significant energy in the form of methane it has been treated to remove microbes and will not be a source of pathogens

22) Sewage treatment processes result in the production of ______, which can be used to make electricity.

A) B) C) D)

23)

carbohydrates hydrogen gas methane nitrates

Methane can be produced from agricultural or industrial products by ______.

A) anaerobic respiration B) oxidation of nitrogen gas C) fermentation D) glycolysis

24)

Which of the following statements regarding waterborne pathogens is incorrect?

A) Waterborne pathogens are primarily Campylobacter, Salmonella, Shigella, Vibrio, and Mycobacterium. B) Waterborne pathogens include bacteria, viruses, and protozoans. C) Encysted protozoans can survive in water for long periods without a human host. D) Microbes can enter surface water through ordinary exposure to air and soil.

25)

Which of the following statements regarding coliform bacteria is correct?

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A) Coliforms derive from the intestinal tract and therefore indicate fecal contamination. B) The presence of Klebsiellais a strong indicator of fecal contamination. C) Coliforms from the human and bovine GI tracts differ, so identifying the specific microbe will indicate the source of contamination. D) Petri dishes used to enumerate coliforms are best incubated at 45-48°C.

26)

Potable water must be ______. A) B) C) D)

absolutely clear free of pathogens sterile free of all elements

27) The most prominent water-borne pathogens of recent times include all of the following except______. A) B) C) D)

28)

Indicator bacteria for contaminated water are ______. A) B) C) D)

29)

Staphylococcus Cryptosporidium Norwalk viruses Salmonella

coliforms Clostridia staphylococci all bacteria

Which of the following is not true of coliforms?

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A) B) C) D)

They are gram-negative, lactose-fermenting, and gas-producing. They includeE. coli,Enterobacter,andGiardia. Coliform counts are not specific for a particular species of bacteria. Finding coliformsin water indicates fecal contamination.

30) A 100 ml sample of water is filtered through a sterile membrane, and the membrane is transferred to a plate of m-Endo agar. Following overnight incubation at 37°C, 57 green metallic colonies appear. The coliform count is _______.

A) acceptable for drinking water and recreational use B) acceptable for recreational use but too high for drinking water C) too high for both drinking water and recreational use

31) A 100 ml sample of water is filtered through a sterile membrane, and the membrane is transferred to a plate of m-Endo agar. Following overnight incubation at 37°C, 57 green metallic colonies appear. The coliform count is _______.

A) B) C) D)

0.57 per 100 ml 57 per 100 ml 5700 per 100 ml too numerous to count

32) Media used for coliform enumeration include chemicals that change color depending on the enzymes present in the microbes, thereby allowing a count of total bacteria and total coliforms from a single plate. This type of medium is termed ______.

A) B) C) D)

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differential selective defined complex

33) Analysis of a water sample by a series of presumptive, confirmatory, and completed tests that provide an estimate of coliform numbers in the water is called the ______. A) B) C) D)

34)

membrane filter method most probable number (MPN) standard plate count coliform count

The basis of the membrane filter technique is that _______.

A) the dilutions of the sample allow a total bacterial count when plated out using pour or spread plates B) the membrane has an antibiotic that kills bacteria in the water C) bacteria are small enough to go right through the filter D) bacteria are larger than the holes in the filter

35) Which step in making beer involves soaking malt grain, grinding it, and heating with sugar and starch?

A) Preparing a mash B) Malting C) Aging D) Wort boiled with hops E) Fermentation

36)

Which of the following is not a desired outcome from using microbes in makingbread?

A) Leavening B) Giving flavor and odor C) Producing ethyl alcohol D) Conditioning the dough to make it workable E) Helping the dough rise

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37)

Which of the following is not a gas-forming microbe used to make bread?

A) Saccharomycescerevisiae B) Clostridiumperfringens C) Coliform bacteria D) Heterofermentative lactic acid bacteria E) Streptococcuslactis

38)

The products of maltose fermentation in bread-making are ______.

A) ethanol and water B) ethanol and carbon dioxide C) carbon dioxide and water D) lactic acid and water E) lactic acid and carbon dioxide

39)

The yeast used in making bread, beer, and wine is ______.

A) Saccharomyces cerevisiae B) Leuconostoc mesenteroides C) Streptococcus lactis D) Propionibacterium E) Spirulina

40) You made your first batch (ever) of wine about 6 weeks ago. You used a new plastic garbage can, covered with plastic wrap over the top, for the process. Now you get a cup of it out of the container only to find no alcohol--just really bad juice. What went wrong? A) B) C) D)

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The plastic of the container released chemicals that killed the yeasts. The yeasts were not under anaerobic conditions. Your yeasts mutated into non-alcohol producing organisms. You bought the wrong yeast species at the store.

41) You want to make wine that will be 20-25% alcohol, but wine rarely gets to that concentration of alcohol. What can you do to accomplish your goal of high-yield alcohol production?

A) B) C) D)

42)

Which of the following statements is true? A) B) C) D)

43)

Add more sugar to your starting material Let your fermentation go longer Find an alcohol-tolerant yeast strain Add brandy to your wine

Microorganisms can be a food source. Microbial metabolism can alter a food to improve its flavor. Not all microorganisms in food cause foodborne disease. All of the choices are correct.

A pure or mixed sample of known microbes added to food is a/an ______. A) leavening B) fermenter C) starter culture D) flavor inducer E) aerator

44) Which step in making beer involves sprouting and softening the barley to release amylases to act on starch and proteases to digest protein?

A) Preparing a mash B) Malting C) Aging D) Wort boiled with hops E) Fermentation

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45) Which step in making beer involves inoculating the wort with a species of Saccharomyces?

A) Preparing a mash B) Malting C) Aging D) Wort boiled with hops E) Fermentation

46)

Which step in wine production involves crushing fruit?

A) Aging B) Fermentation C) Preparation of must D) Storage E) Malting

47)

The source of wild yeasts carried in a biofilm on grapes is the ______.

A) B) C) D)

48)

must malt wort bloom

Which organism is used to initiate the fermentation of cabbage to make sauerkraut?

A) Saccharomycescerevisiae B) Leuconostocmesenteroides C) Streptococcuslactis D) Propionibacterium E) Spirulina

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49)

Which organisms are used to make salt pickles?

A) Saccharomycescerevisiae and Leuconostoc mesenteroides B) Streptococcuslactis and Lactobacillus C) Pediococcuscerevisiae and Lactobacillus plantarum D) Propionibacterium and Spirulina E) Leuconostocmesenteroides and Spirulina

50)

The first stage in making vinegar involves fermentation by ______.

A) Gluconobacter B) Saccharomyces C) Acetobacter D) Pediococcus E) Spirulina

51)

Which bacteria ferment lactose inmilk, producing acids that curdle the milk?

A) Saccharomyces cerevisiae B) Leuconostoc mesenteroides C) Streptococcus lactis and Lactobacillus D) Pediococcus E) Spirulina

52)

The organism used to make bleu cheese is ______.

A) Penicillium roqueforti B) Leuconostoc mesenteroides C) Streptococcus lactis D) Propionibacterium E) Micrococcus

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53) What is made by fermenting milk with Streptococcus thermophilus and Lactobacillus bulgaricus?

A) Kefir B) Cheese C) Sour cream D) Tofu E) Yogurt

54)

The starting substrate for vinegar production is ______. A) B) C) D)

55)

fruit juice an alcoholic solution water a salt solution

Identify the chemical formula missing from the following equation.

Yeast + _______ → 2C2H5OH + 2CO2 A) C 5H 12O 5 B) O 2 C) C 6H 12O 6 D) H 2O E) CH 3CHO

56)

"Live and Active Cultures" on the label of many yogurt products means that _______.

A) the product contains live bacteria B) the product was made by fermentation but then pasteurized C) the product may become contaminated by microbes if exposed to air D) yeast cultures were used to produce the yogurt

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57)

Which of the following is/are microorganism/s that can be used as food?

A) Spirulina B) Methylophilusmethylotrophus C) Algae D) Fusariumgraminearum E) All of thechoices are correct.

58) Which of the following would be found within the Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Point guidelines for food safety?

A) B) C) D)

59)

Parameters for oyster harvests based on water quality assessment Temperature requirements for pasteurization of milk Precise definitions to distinguish fruit juice from fruit nectar All of these are found in the HACCP management program.

Preservation of food to limit microbial survival and growth includes _______.

A) high temperature and pressure B) pasteurization C) refrigeration and freezing D) irradiation E) All of thechoices are correct.

60)

Preventing the incorporation of microbes into food can by achieved by _______. A) washing fruits and vegetables B) aseptic techniques for handling meat, eggs, and milk C) handwashing and proper hygiene in the kitchen D) avoiding cross-contamination of utensils and cutting boards E) All of thechoices are correct.

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61) Which organism is not a common cause of food poisoning, but its frequency is dramatically increasing as warmer ocean temperatures expand its habitat toward the U.S.?

A) B) C) D)

Vibrio Shiga-toxin-producing E. coli Salmonella Campylobacter

62) You ask the butcher to grind a sirloin roast to be used for hamburger. You family likes hamburgers rare, so you undercook the meat. Unfortunately, within two days they develop the symptoms of gastrointestinal disease: diarrhea, bloating, and vomiting. Which of the following statements best describes what happened?

A) The meat grinder was contaminated, and bacteria were transferred and distributed throughout the meat. B) The animal was sick before slaughter, and the sirloin was contaminated. C) The meat became contaminated by bacteria from other foods in your refrigerator. D) The meat became contaminated by bacteria on thebarbeque grill, coating both sides of the hamburger patties.

63)

All of the following are food-borne pathogens except ______.

A) Salmonella B) Campylobacter jejuni C) Lactobacillus acidophilus D) Clostridium perfringens E) Staphylococcus aureus

64)

A good range of temperature to store food is ______.

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A) 0° to 50°C B) 20° to 80°C C) below 10°C and above 80°C D) below 4°C and above 60°C E) below –10°C and above 100°C

65)

Which statement is true regarding pasteurization?

A) It does not kill all microorganisms in milk. B) The process was first used in the wine industry. C) During pasteurization, the heating is done very quickly to prevent achange in the integrity and taste of the product. D) All statements are true.

66)

What type of radiation is best for destroying microbes throughout food?

A) Ultraviolet B) Visible light C) Gamma rays D) Infrared E) Microwaves

67)

Which is not used as a chemical preservative in food?

A) Antibiotics B) Organic acids C) Sulfite D) Ethylene oxide gas E) Salt

68)

Nitrates and nitrites are used in cured meats to prevent ______.

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A) B) C) D)

69)

botulism intoxication S. aureus food poisoning mold growth infection from fruits and nuts

Bacteriophages sprayed on cold cuts are effective against ______.

A) Mycobacterium B) S. aureus C) Listeria D) Clostridium E) coliforms

70) You have to determine what method is best to prevent the growth of microorganisms in your company's food,ham roasts. This method should be efficient, have a high kill rate, not change the food integrity or taste for the most part, and not add much in the way of chemicals. What would you choose? A) Filtration B) Pasteurization C) Gamma radiation D) Freezing E) Food preservatives

71)

Which of the following is an example of a secondary metabolite?

A) B) C) D)

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Toxin produced by species of Clostridium Alcohol produced by Saccharomyces during fermentation Lactic acid made during yogurt production. All of these are secondary metabolites.

72) You have never seen a jar of jelly contaminated with microbial growth, even though it is used for months at a time. Which is the best explanation?

A) B) C) D)

73)

Which of the following is not true of industrial microbiology?

A) B) C) D)

74)

Jelly is pasteurized. Jelly has a high osmotic pressure. Jelly is filter sterilized. A variety of chemicals are added to jelly to make it inhospitable for bacteria.

Primarymetabolites are essential to a microbe's function. Secondary metabolites include amino acids. Growthenvironment is enhanced to increase metabolite synthesis. Select microbialstrains are not controlled by feedback mechanisms.

Industrial microbiology is used in the production of ______.

A) antibiotics B) hormones C) vitamins D) vaccines E) All of thechoices are correct.

75) Which of the following is not a step in the mass production of an organic substrate in a fermentor?

A) Inoculate the sterile media in the growth vessel with the microbe of interest. B) Adjust the environmental conditions for optimal growth of the organism. C) Add enzymes to catalyze all required steps in the process. D) Harvest cells and purify the product. E) Remove waste products and dispose responsibly.

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76)

Which of the following activities uses microbial biotransformation? A) B) C) D)

Sewage treatment Alcohol production Yogurt production Production of antibiotics

77) A device in which mass cultures are grown, reactions take place, and product develops is a/an ______.

A) B) C) D)

sparger activator fermentor incubator

78) The disadvantage of batch fermentations, as opposed to continuous feed systems, is that _______.

A) new substrate must be added to the fermentor continuously for the fermentation to continue B) there is a limit to the amount of product formed since all materials are added to the fermentor at the beginning C) it is small scale production of a product D) the end product is not as pure as the product made by the continuous feed process

79)

A common substrate for industrial fermentation products is ______. A) B) C) D)

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alcohol cholesterol nucleotides molasses

80)

Which enzyme is used in medicine as a blood thinner?

A) Streptokinase B) Protease C) Hemolysin D) Rennet E) Cellulase

81)

An organism used to make a variety of industrial enzymes by fermentation is ______. A) B) C) D)

82)

Penicillium E. coli Salmonella Aspergillus

What is the best definition of biotransformation?

A) B) C) D)

Production of alcohol from a substrate Production of a toxin from a nontoxic chemical Oxidation of sugar to carbon dioxide Use of microorganisms to modify substances not normally used for growth

83) The first product produced by genetic manipulation and recombinant technology was ______. A) B) C) D)

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penicillin insulin cortisone amylase

Answer Key Test name: Microbiology25 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) FALSE 11) FALSE 12) A 13) B 14) A 15) D 16) B 17) B 18) D 19) C 20) D 21) A 22) C 23) A 24) A 25) A 26) B Version 1

27) A 28) A 29) B 30) B 31) B 32) A 33) B 34) D 35) A 36) C 37) E 38) C 39) A 40) B 41) C 42) D 43) C 44) B 45) E 46) C 47) D 48) B 49) C 50) B 51) C 52) A 53) E 54) B 55) C 56) A Version 1

57) E 58) D 59) E 60) E 61) A 62) A 63) C 64) D 65) D 66) C 67) A 68) A 69) C 70) C 71) A 72) B 73) B 74) E 75) C 76) D 77) C 78) B 79) D 80) A 81) D 82) D 83) B

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