TEST BANK for Microbiology Principles And Explorations 10th Edition and by Jacquelyn G. Black Microbiology: Principles Explorations 10th Edition Black Test Bank
Chapter 1: Scope and History of Microbiology
Question Type: Multiple Choice
1) Microbes live in us, on us and nearly everywhere around us. Which of the following activities are microbes involved in? a) Decomposing dead organisms b) Aiding the digestive processes of grazing animals c) Capturing energy from the sun d) All of the above Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.1 Distinguish the different types of microbes in terms of their cellular structure, including the types of jobs microbiologists may hold as they study them. Section Reference 1: Section 1.1 Why Study Microbiology?
2) Which of the following is a reason microorganisms are useful in many different research laboratories (such as ecology, biochemistry, evolution and genetics)? a) They are easy to see and count b) They have fairly complex structures and are expensive c) They reproduce fast and grow in large numbers d) They live everywhere so contaminants from the environment are not a problem. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.1 Distinguish the different types of microbes in terms of their cellular structure, including the types of jobs microbiologists may hold as they study them. Section Reference 1: Section 1.2 Scope of Microbiology
3) Microbiology is the study of bacteria, algae, fungi, viruses and protozoa. Most of these are single-celled, except for which two: a) bacteria (some of which are multicellular) and algae b) algae and fungi (some have many cells) c) protozoa and fungi
d) bacteria and viruses Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.1 Distinguish the different types of microbes in terms of their cellular structure, including the types of jobs microbiologists may hold as they study them. Section Reference 1: Section 1.2 Scope of Microbiology
4) A parasitologist studies parasites. What does a mycologist study? a) protozoa b) how viruses cause disease and are involved in cancer c) the development of chemical substances to treat diseases d) fungi Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.1 Distinguish the different types of microbes in terms of their cellular structure, including the types of jobs microbiologists may hold as they study them. Section Reference 1: Section 1.2 Scope of Microbiology
5) While a doctor may diagnose and treat a patient who presents with a disease, an epidemiologist: a) helps in the development and use of vaccines b) investigates what organism is responsible for a particular patients disease c) figures out how to use microorganisms to clean up the environment d) studies the frequency and distribution of the disease in the community Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.1 Distinguish the different types of microbes in terms of their cellular structure, including the types of jobs microbiologists may hold as they study them. Section Reference 1: Section 1.2 Scope of Microbiology
6) What did ancient civilizations know about disease?
a) Even though they could not see microbes the Greeks and Romans knew that they caused disease and could be transmitted. b) The ancient Mosaic laws in the bible forbid the burial of waste and encouraged the separation of lepers and other diseased individuals. c) All ancient civilizations thought that disease struck people that were morally corrupt. d) Infectious diseases did not have much impact on the survival of people in ancient civilizations. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 1.2 Compare the germ theory with that of spontaneous generation, describing the contributions made by Redi, Spallanzani, Pasteur, Tyndall, and Koch that led to a resolution of these conflicting theories and an understanding the role microbes play in disease. Section Reference 1: Section 1.3 Historical Roots
7) What discovery was crucial to the founding of the field of microbiology? a) Isolation of lepers limiting the spread of infectious disease b) Agglutination of bacteria in immune serum c) The chemical composition of DNA, the genetic material d) Microscopes which allowed for the direct observation of microbes Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.2 Compare the germ theory with that of spontaneous generation, describing the contributions made by Redi, Spallanzani, Pasteur, Tyndall, and Koch that led to a resolution of these conflicting theories and an understanding the role microbes play in disease. Section Reference 1: Section 1.3 Historical Roots
8) The English scientist Robert Hooke coined the term cell because the small boxes he saw in the microscope reminded him of a monk’s room. What is the cell theory that was later proposed? a) Cells are fundamental units of life. b) Replication requires the division of cells into two equal cells. c) Hereditary information is passed on in the form of DNA. d) All organisms are unicellular, made up of one cell. Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.2 Compare the germ theory with that of spontaneous generation, describing the contributions made by Redi, Spallanzani, Pasteur, Tyndall, and Koch that led to a resolution of these conflicting theories and an understanding the role microbes play in disease. Section Reference 1: Section 1.3 Historical Roots
9) All of the following statements agree with the germ theory of disease, except: a) microorganisms can invade other organisms and cause disease b) maggots only grow on meat that is left in an open flask because microbes are transmitted by flies and do not spontaneously generate c) disease causing organisms will spontaneously arise from decaying meat d) disease is not caused by bad air or spirits Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.2 Compare the germ theory with that of spontaneous generation, describing the contributions made by Redi, Spallanzani, Pasteur, Tyndall, and Koch that led to a resolution of these conflicting theories and an understanding the role microbes play in disease. Section Reference 1: Section 1.4 The Germ Theory of Disease
10) Louis Pasteur made several important contributions to microbiology. These included studying wine making, identifying diseases in silkworms and which of the following: a) developing culture techniques b) developing the first rabies vaccine c) using a swan-necked flask to prove that air contained the vital force that brought microbes d) discovering a method to introduce unwanted organisms into food and wine Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 1.2 Compare the germ theory with that of spontaneous generation, describing the contributions made by Redi, Spallanzani, Pasteur, Tyndall, and Koch that led to a resolution of these conflicting theories and an understanding the role microbes play in disease. Section Reference 1: Section 1.4 The Germ Theory of Disease 11) Koch’s postulates were:
a) specific to anthrax and tuberculosis but don’t apply to other diseases b) designed to establish a casual relationship between a causative microbe and a disease c) strict in that microorganisms isolated from experimentally inoculated hosts had to be different from the microorganism that was introduced into the host. d) interpreted as many organism could cause the same disease Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.2 Compare the germ theory with that of spontaneous generation, describing the contributions made by Redi, Spallanzani, Pasteur, Tyndall, and Koch that led to a resolution of these conflicting theories and an understanding the role microbes play in disease. Section Reference 1: Section 1.4 The Germ Theory of Disease
12) Koch developed tuberculin, which he hoped would be a vaccine against tuberculosis. Tuberculin is: a) the current vaccine used against tuberculosis b) responsible for definitively proving that one organism causes one disease c) administered as a skin test to diagnose tuberculosis d) an exception to germ theory Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 1.2 Compare the germ theory with that of spontaneous generation, describing the contributions made by Redi, Spallanzani, Pasteur, Tyndall, and Koch that led to a resolution of these conflicting theories and an understanding the role microbes play in disease. Section Reference 1: Section 1.4 The Germ Theory of Disease
13) Which of the following statements is true about infection control? a) Semmelweiss encouraged physicians to go directly from autopsies to examining women in labor without changing their white coats in hopes of reducing puerperal fever. b) Surgery which uses aseptic technique increases surgical wound infections. c) Lister aided infection control by encouraging wounds to be left open to the air instead of using bandages. d) Semmelweiss was ridiculed by physicians for his suggestion that physicians should wash their hands and adopt more sanitary practices before seeing patients. Answer: d
Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.2 Compare the germ theory with that of spontaneous generation, describing the contributions made by Redi, Spallanzani, Pasteur, Tyndall, and Koch that led to a resolution of these conflicting theories and an understanding the role microbes play in disease. Section Reference 1: Section 1.4 The Germ Theory of Disease
14) Vaccines are: a) specific disease-causing molecules that incorporate into cells b) the causative agent of Black Death c) selective chemicals used to treat infectious disease d) preparations that establish immunity to a disease Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.3 Describe the specialized studies of immunology, virology, chemotherapy, and molecular biology. Section Reference 1: Section 1.5 Emergence of Special Fields of Microbiology
15) Which statement about variolation is false? a) Variolation originated in ancient China. b) Variolation involves infecting a person with dried scabs from lesions of people who had recovered from the disease. c) Variolation used chemicals produced from another microorganism to immunize against the disease causing microbe. d) Variolation leads to a controlled infection that induces immunity against further infection. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 1.3 Describe the specialized studies of immunology, virology, chemotherapy, and molecular biology. Section Reference 1: Section 1.5 Emergence of Special Fields of Microbiology
16) Pasteur worked on rabies and cholera vaccine during the emergence of immunology. While culturing a chicken cholera he noted that an old culture was weakened and useful as a vaccine as it: a) caused disease
b) caused severe cholera symptoms and prevented further infection c) allowed for the cholera to spread from person to person d) did not cause disease symptoms and immunized against chicken cholera Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 1.3 Describe the specialized studies of immunology, virology, chemotherapy, and molecular biology. Section Reference 1: Section 1.5 Emergence of Special Fields of Microbiology
17) Viruses were initially identified as small infectious agents that could pass through filters. How was it believed that these agents could survive? a) They had small compact structures that allowed for the production of metabolites and replication. b) They survived on the metabolites and poisons that pass through the filter. c) They borrowed the use of existing metabolic and replicative mechanisms of the host cells they infected. d) They are capable of capturing energy from the sun. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.3 Describe the specialized studies of immunology, virology, chemotherapy, and molecular biology. Section Reference 1: Section 1.5 Emergence of Special Fields of Microbiology
18) Because viruses could not be visualized using conventional microscopes further progress required the development of techniques for isolating, propagating and analyzing viruses. All of the following are true except: a) crystal structure of the tobacco mosaic virus showed that it was made up of RNA and protein b) viruses were first observed with an electron microscope c) viral DNA has a different structure from that discovered by Watson and Crick d) Hershey and Chase demonstrated that the genetic material of some viruses is DNA Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 1.3 Describe the specialized studies of immunology, virology, chemotherapy, and molecular biology. Section Reference 1: Section 1.5 Emergence of Special Fields of Microbiology
19) Before Ehrlich began a systematic search for a chemical to kill specific bacteria, the only chemotherapies available were substances derived from medicinal plants. What distinguished Ehrlich’s chemotherapy research? a) Ehrlich systematically tested hundreds of compounds for their ability to destroy specific bacteria without damaging surrounding tissue. b) Ehrlich used metals, such as antimony and mercury to treat diseases. c) Ehrlich inoculated his own son with fluid from a cowpox blíster. d) Ehrlich introduced cinchona tree bark, a native American remedy to treat malaria. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.3 Describe the specialized studies of immunology, virology, chemotherapy, and molecular biology. Section Reference 1: Section 1.5 Emergence of Special Fields of Microbiology
20) All of the following are true statements about the development of antibiotics, except: a) most bacteria that stopped the growth of other bacteria by producing antibiotics were soil bacteria b) Fleming noticed that a contaminant mold (Penicillium) prevented the growth of bacteria adjacent to itself c) an antibiotic was discovered in the sea after a scientist noted the absence of disease causing organisms in the seawater where the sewage entered d) sulfa drugs did not prove to be useful as the body converted them into inactive molecules Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 1.3 Describe the specialized studies of immunology, virology, chemotherapy, and molecular biology. Section Reference 1: Section 1.5 Emergence of Special Fields of Microbiology
21) Microbiologists investigate problems by designing and carrying out experiments. What is true about the scientific method? a) A hypothesis is the definitive explanation to account for the observation and therefore does not need to be tested. b) A prediction is the factor that can change but is prevented from changing during the duration of the experiment.
c) A good hypothesis is one that offers the simplest most reasonable explanation and can be tested. d) The goal of an experiment is to prove that scientists are always correct in their predictions. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.4 Explain how advances in microbiological sciences have positively impacted medicine, agriculture, and food science. Section Reference 1: Section 1.6 Tomorrow’s History
22) To design a good experiment, an investigator must consider all variables that might affect the outcome. What is a variable? a) the record of all the observations b) everything that a scientist cannot control c) an outcome that will result if the hypothesis is true d) anything that can change for the purpose of the experiment Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.4 Explain how advances in microbiological sciences have positively impacted medicine, agriculture, and food science. Section Reference 1: Section 1.6 Tomorrow’s History
23) Microbes have played important roles in genetics and in the discovery of DNA as the genetic material. What discoveries depended on bacteria? a) The ability of a previously harmless bacterium to change into a disease-causing bacterium was due to DNA acquisition. b) The discovery of the intracellular reproduction of tobacco mosaic virus. c) The development of the microscope d) The identification of a virus that causes yellow fever. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.3 Describe the specialized studies of immunology, virology, chemotherapy, and molecular biology. Section Reference 1: Section 1.5 Emergence of Special Fields of Microbiology
24) Microbiology continues to be an important research field for all of the following reasons, except: a) all infectious diseases have had vaccines developed and therefore can be prevented b) many forms of genetic engineering depend on microorganisms c) new and emerging diseases like AIDS need to be studied d) microorganisms can be used as factories to cheaply produce drugs, hormones and vaccines Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.4 Explain how advances in microbiological sciences have positively impacted medicine, agriculture, and food science. Section Reference 1: Section 1.6 Tomorrow’s History
25) Bacteriophages are: a) modified antibiotics that were used in the Soviet Union b) viruses that attack and kill specific kinds of bacteria including antibiotic resistant bacteria c) used to introduce genes in gene therapy d) some of the genes in the human genome Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.4 Explain how advances in microbiological sciences have positively impacted medicine, agriculture, and food science. Section Reference 1: Section 1.6 Tomorrow’s History
26) Which is a false statement about genomes? a) genomes contain all the genetic material of a species. b) all of the genome is made up of useful genes whose function we already know c) humans have only 300 genes not found in the mouse d) most microbial genomes are smaller than the human genome Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.4 Explain how advances in microbiological sciences have positively impacted medicine, agriculture, and food science. Section Reference 1: Section 1.6 Tomorrow’s History
27) Over 100 microbial genomes have been sequenced. Beyond yielding insight into microbial genetics, these sequencing projects have been important because: a) they allow insights into microbial pathogenicity b) knowing how many chromosomes a microbe has lets us know if it causes disease. c) without the sequence of the genome we cannot tell what the organism uses as its genetic material. d) it demonstrates that microorganisms do not cause infectious diseases. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.4 Explain how advances in microbiological sciences have positively impacted medicine, agriculture, and food science. Section Reference 1: Section 1.6 Tomorrow’s History
28) All of the following are considered microbes except: a) viruses b) bacteria c) protozoa d) worms Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.1 Distinguish the different types of microbes in terms of their cellular structure, including the types of jobs microbiologists may hold as they study them. Section Reference 1: Section 1.2 Scope of Microbiology
29) The concept of putting microbes to work to clean up the environment is called: a) bioremediation b) pasteurization c) immunization d) fermentation Answer: a Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective 1: LO 1.1 Distinguish the different types of microbes in terms of their cellular structure, including the types of jobs microbiologists may hold as they study them. Section Reference 1: Section 1.1 Why Study Microbiology?
30) A substance derived from one microorganism that kills or restricts the growth of other microorganisms is best described as a. a) poison b) antibody c) vaccine d) antibiotic Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.3 Describe the specialized studies of immunology, virology, chemotherapy, and molecular biology. Section Reference 1: Section 1.5 Emergence of Special Fields of Microbiology
31) Microbiology is the study of microorganisms which include all of the following except: a) bacteria b) viruses c) plants d) protozoa Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.1 Distinguish the different types of microbes in terms of their cellular structure, including the types of jobs microbiologists may hold as they study them. Section Reference 1: Section 1.2 Scope of Microbiology
32) Which of the following diseases has been eradicated? a) Chicken pox b) Measles c) Smallpox d) Mumps
Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.3 Describe the specialized studies of immunology, virology, chemotherapy, and molecular biology. Section Reference 1: Section 1.5 Emergence of Special Fields of Microbiology
33) Which of the following is not true of algae? a) they photosynthesize to produce their own food b) they are found in both fresh- and salt-water c) they have a nucleus d) they never cause disease in humans Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.1 Distinguish the different types of microbes in terms of their cellular structure, including the types of jobs microbiologists may hold as they study them. Section Reference 1: Section 1.2 Scope of Microbiology
34) In which of the following groups would you find a mushroom? a) bacteria b) protozoa c) fungi d) viruses Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.1 Distinguish the different types of microbes in terms of their cellular structure, including the types of jobs microbiologists may hold as they study them. Section Reference 1: Section 1.2 Scope of Microbiology
35) Which of the following groups of organisms contains members better known for transmitting agents of disease than for causing disease themselves? a) Arthropods b) Protozoa c) Fungi
d) Helminths Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.1 Distinguish the different types of microbes in terms of their cellular structure, including the types of jobs microbiologists may hold as they study them. Section Reference 1: Section 1.2 Scope of Microbiology
36) Collecting information and tracking the spread of disease is the primary responsibility of what U. S. government agency a) Food and Drug Administration b) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention c) Department of Health and Human Services d) Department of Homeland Security Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.1 Distinguish the different types of microbes in terms of their cellular structure, including the types of jobs microbiologists may hold as they study them. Section Reference 1: Section 1.2 Scope of Microbiology
37) The first person to use a microscope to observe cells invisible to the naked eye was: a) Robert Hooke b) Matthias Schleiden c) Anton van Leeuwenhoek d) Louis Pasteur Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.2 Compare the germ theory with that of spontaneous generation, describing the contributions made by Redi, Spallanzani, Pasteur, Tyndall, and Koch that led to a resolution of these conflicting theories and an understanding the role microbes play in disease. Section Reference 1: Section 1.3 Historical Roots 38) The curve in Pasteur’s swan neck flasks was important because
.
a) It prevented flies from escaping the flask b) It allowed only warm air to reach the infusion c) It trapped microbes that otherwise would have entered the flask d) It prevented oxygen from reaching organisms inside the flask Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.2 Compare the germ theory with that of spontaneous generation, describing the contributions made by Redi, Spallanzani, Pasteur, Tyndall, and Koch that led to a resolution of these conflicting theories and an understanding the role microbes play in disease. Section Reference 1: Section 1.4 The Germ Theory of Disease
39) A pure culture refers to a culture: a) containing bacteria that all have the same shape b) which has never been used to inoculate a patient c) which causes only a single disease d) which contains only a single type of organism Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.2 Compare the germ theory with that of spontaneous generation, describing the contributions made by Redi, Spallanzani, Pasteur, Tyndall, and Koch that led to a resolution of these conflicting theories and an understanding the role microbes play in disease. Section Reference 1: Section 1.4 The Germ Theory of Disease
40) Edward Jenner is best known for what contribution to the developing field of microbiology? a) Developing some of the earliest vaccines b) Disproving spontaneous generation c) Controlling infections in patients d) Developing methods of obtaining pure cultures of microorganisms Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.3 Describe the specialized studies of immunology, virology, chemotherapy, and molecular biology.
Section Reference 1: Section 1.5 Emergence of Special Fields of Microbiology
41) From the following choices, who is not known primarily for their work with antibiotics? a) Alexander Fleming b) Gregor Mendel c) Selman Waksman d) Gerhard Domagk Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.3 Describe the specialized studies of immunology, virology, chemotherapy, and molecular biology. Section Reference 1: Section 1.5 Emergence of Special Fields of Microbiology
42) Who first elucidated the structure of DNA? a) Hershey and Chase b) Avery, McCarty and MacLeod c) Watson and Crick d) Tatum and Beadle Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.3 Describe the specialized studies of immunology, virology, chemotherapy, and molecular biology. Section Reference 1: Section 1.5 Emergence of Special Fields of Microbiology
43) The field of against microbial infection. a) molecular biology b) virology c) mycology d) immunology Answer: d Difficulty: Easy
involves studying how a person defends him/ herself
Learning Objective 1: LO 1.3 Describe the specialized studies of immunology, virology, chemotherapy, and molecular biology. Section Reference 1: Section 1.5 Emergence of Special Fields of Microbiology
44) A microorganism that causes disease is
.
a) pathogenic b) phagocytic c) virulent d) algae Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.3 Describe the specialized studies of immunology, virology, chemotherapy, and molecular biology. Section Reference 1: Section 1.5 Emergence of Special Fields of Microbiology
45) The study of chemical reactions that occur in microbes is called
.
a) microbial ecology b) taxonomy c) microbial metabolism d) epidemiology Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.1 Distinguish the different types of microbes in terms of their cellular structure, including the types of jobs microbiologists may hold as they study them. Section Reference 1: Section 1.2 Scope of Microbiology
46) Which of the following statements about pasteurization is false? a) It originally involved heating a substance to 56 C in the absence of oxygen for 30 minutes. b) It kills unwanted organisms. c) Pasteurization was orginally developed as a method to keep milk from spoiling. d) It was developed by Pasteur. Answer: c
Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 1.2 Compare the germ theory with that of spontaneous generation, describing the contributions made by Redi, Spallanzani, Pasteur, Tyndall, and Koch that led to a resolution of these conflicting theories and an understanding the role microbes play in disease. Section Reference 1: Section 1.4 The Germ Theory of Disease
47) The period from 1874 to 1917 is generally referred to as the .
because
a) golden age of seminal discovery; research on viruses was fruitful b) age of molecular genetics; important discoveries were made about molecular processes c) golden age of microbiology; microbiology was at the forefront of biomedical research in medicine and biology d) age of microbial appreciation; many people were excited about viruses Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.4 Explain how advances in microbiological sciences have positively impacted medicine, agriculture, and food science. Section Reference 1: Section 1.6 Tomorrow’s History
48) Bacteriophages have been successfully used in all of the following circumstances, except: a) to treat wounds of Soviet Union soldiers b) prevent Listeria infections on cut apples and melons c) remove E. coli O157:H7 from herds of animals d) attack weeds Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.4 Explain how advances in microbiological sciences have positively impacted medicine, agriculture, and food science. Section Reference 1: Section 1.6 Tomorrow’s History
49) Bioterrorism: a) involves using antibiotics and vaccines for terrorist means b) converts factories to produce tanks, trucks and cars c) prevents getting bacteria into ground beef to keep our food supply safe
d) uses microbes, such as anthrax, as part of terrorist attacks Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.4 Explain how advances in microbiological sciences have positively impacted medicine, agriculture, and food science. Section Reference 1: Section 1.6 Tomorrow’s History
50) Which of the following statements about microbes is true? a) Prions are proteins without any nucleic acid. b) Viroids are single-celled microscopic organisms. c) Protozoa are nucleic acids without a protein coat. d) Algae depend on the metabolic processes of host cells. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 1.1 Distinguish the different types of microbes in terms of their cellular structure, including the types of jobs microbiologists may hold as they study them. Section Reference 1: Section 1.2 Scope of Microbiology
51) This microorganism can be observed with:
a) the naked eye b) a light microscope c) a scanning electron microscope d) B and C are correct Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.1 Distinguish the different types of microbes in terms of their cellular structure, including the types of jobs microbiologists may hold as they study them. Section Reference 1: Section 1.2 Scope of Microbiology
52) This microorganism can infect
.
a) algae b) bacteria c) viruses d) prions Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.1 Distinguish the different types of microbes in terms of their cellular structure, including the types of jobs microbiologists may hold as they study them. Section Reference 1: Section 1.2 Scope of Microbiology
53) This microorganism uses
to get its food.
a) pinocytosis b) endocytosis c) photosynthesis d) phagocytosis Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.1 Distinguish the different types of microbes in terms of their cellular structure, including the types of jobs microbiologists may hold as they study them. Section Reference 1: Section 1.2 Scope of Microbiology
Question Type: Essay
54) Microorganisms are often referred to as the “invisible emperors” of our world. Why is this? How would you characterize their rule? Are they helpful or demanding emperors? Give one example to support your characterization. Answer: Microorganisms are everywhere. They are small, replicate rapidly and are well adapted to live in most conditions found on our planet. Research has suggested that bacteria are living below the surface of our planet and they have been found in other extreme conditions (e.g., hot springs, etc). Not only are they ubiquitous, living in the soil, on plants, in animals and in the ocean, but they also exceed the biomass of all other living things. Microorganisms are emperors, in that they control a number of vital aspects of our lives whether we desire it or not. They can determine health or disease for our families, our livestock and our plant crops. They can influence water ecology affecting marine and other aquatic life. They are necessary components of the web of life necessary for all other living things. In the ocean they trap energy from sunlight and store it as molecules that other organisms then use as food. They make nitrogen available to plants. They play an essential role in the food webs that all plants and animals depend on. Like a benevolent emporer, microorganisms are mostly helpful and only occasionally demanding. The vast majority are directly or indirectly beneficial to humans. They are helpful in their role in the food web (capturing energy from sunlight, decomposing dead organisms or waste materials, making nitrogen available to plants and aiding the digestion of mammals). They also provide humans food (mushrooms, other fungi and algae) and are used to make human food (i.e. pickles, yogurt, sauerkraut, beer/wine, bread, fructose and aspartame in soft drinks). They also produce antibiotics and can be used in genetic engineering or bioremediation. One might consider their potential to cause disease or food spoilage as demanding or capricious. Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.1 Distinguish the different types of microbes in terms of their cellular structure, including the types of jobs microbiologists may hold as they study them. Section Reference 1: Section 1.1 Why Study Microbiology?
55) What is the germ theory of disease? What did people believe caused disease to be transmitted before the germ theory of disease? Describe one experiment that supported the germ theory. Name an important innovation that arouse from the germ theory of disease. Answer: The germ theory of disease states that microorganisms are the cause of many diseases. Before the germ theory was proven people believed that microbes were spontaneously generated and carried by bad air. The germ theory views disease as being created by microorganisms that grow by reproduction and can be transmitted.
There are four early experiments that support germ theory. Francesco Redi used three flasks with meat in each flasks and covered one with gauze, the other was tightly sealed and the last was left open After a few days he found maggots only on surfaces that were accessible by flies (e.g., on the meat in the open flask and on the surface of the gauze). Another supporting observation that was made was that no organisms spontaneously generated from boiled broth containing organic matter and either sealed in a flask or with filtered air. Pasteur and Tyndall demonstrated that freshly boiled broth exposed to air but with either a filter or a long tortuous tube that wouldn’t allow for dust particles grew nothing, therefore the living organisms that grew in such broths came from outside instead of being generated within the broth. Lastly, Robert Koch demonstrated that anthrax was caused by a specific bacterium and not from a substance that spontaneously generated. Germ theory has lead to important innovations such as improved sanitation, antibiotics, hygienic practices and aseptic technique in surgery. Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 1.2 Compare the germ theory with that of spontaneous generation, describing the contributions made by Redi, Spallanzani, Pasteur, Tyndall, and Koch that led to a resolution of these conflicting theories and an understanding the role microbes play in disease. Section Reference 1: Section 1.4 The Germ Theory of Disease
Chapter 2: The Microbiome
1) Microorganisms are involved in each of the following processes EXCEPT A) infection. B) decomposition of organic material. C) O2 production. D) food production. E) smog production. Answer: E Section: 1.1 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge Learning Outcome: 1.1 Global Outcome: 5 2) Each of the following organisms would be considered a microbe EXCEPT A) yeast. B) protozoan. C) bacterium. D) mushroom. E) virus. Answer: D Section: 1.1 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge
Learning Outcome: 1.3 3) The term used to describe a disease-causing microorganism is A) microbe. B) bacterium. C) virus. D) pathogen. E) infection. Answer: D Section: 1.1 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge Learning Outcome: 1.3 4) Common commercial benefits of microorganisms include synthesis of A) riboflavin. B) acetone. C) insulin. D) aspirin. E) riboflavin, acetone and insulin. Answer: E Section: 1.1 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge Learning Outcome: 1.1
5) Commercial utilization of microbial products has become increasingly popular due to their environmentally friendly nature. Production of these products which are readily degraded and, thus, non-toxic typically utilizes A) enzymes. B) organic acids. C) organic solvents. D) soap. E) alcohol. Answer: A Section: 1.4 Blooms Taxonomy: Application Learning Outcome: 1.1 6) The formal system for classifying and naming organisms was developed by A) Robert Koch. B) Ignaz Semmelweis. C) Aristotle. D) Carolus Linnaeus. E) Louis Pasteur. Answer: D Section: 1.2 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge Learning Outcome: 1.2
7) In the name Staphylococcus aureus, aureus is the A) genus. B) domain name. C) species. D) kingdom. E) family name. Answer: C Section: 1.2 Blooms Taxonomy: Comprehension Learning Outcome: 1.2 8) A prokaryotic cell may possess each of the following cellular components EXCEPT A) flagella. B) a nucleus. C) ribosomes. D) a cell wall. E) a cell membrane. Answer: B Section: 1.2 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge ASMcue Outcome: 2.1 Learning Outcome: 1.3
9) Which of the following is NOT associated with viruses? A) organelles B) nucleic acid C) envelope D) chemical reactions E) protein coat Answer: A Section: 1.2 Blooms Taxonomy: Comprehension Learning Outcome: 1.3 10) Figure 1.1 The bacterial shape of the cells in the scanning electron micrograph shown in Figure 1.1 would best be described as A) bacillus. B) spiral. C) coccus. D) ovoid. E) columnar. Answer: A Section: 1.2 Blooms Taxonomy: Comprehension ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
Learning Outcome: 1.3 11) Protozoan motility structures include A) cilia. B) flagella. C) pseudopods. D) cilia and pseudopods only. E) cilia, flagella, and pseudopods. Answer: E Section: 1.2 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge Learning Outcome: 1.3 12) Viruses are not considered living organisms because they A) cannot reproduce by themselves. B) are structurally very simple. C) can only be visualized using an electron microscope. D) are typically associated with disease. E) are ubiquitous in nature. Answer: A Section: 1.2 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge ASMcue Outcome: 4.4
Learning Outcome: 1.3 13) The infectious agent that causes AIDS is a A) virus. B) bacterium. C) yeast. D) protozoan. E) mold. Answer: A Section: 1.2 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge Learning Outcome: 1.3 14) Which of the following is NOT a domain in the three-domain system? A) animalia B) archaea C) bacteria D) eukarya Answer: A Section: 1.2 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge ASMcue Outcome: 1.5 Learning Outcome: 1.4
15) Classification of organisms into three domains is based on A) the presence of a cell wall. B) the number of cells in the organism. C) cellular organization. D) nutritional requirements. E) cellular proteins. Answer: C Section: 1.2 Blooms Taxonomy: Comprehension ASMcue Outcome: 1.5 Learning Outcome: 1.4 16) Archaea differ from bacteria in that archaea A) have diverse cell wall compositions. B) lack nuclei. C) use organic compounds for food. D) reproduce by binary fission. E) are prokaryotic. Answer: A Section: 1.2 Blooms Taxonomy: Comprehension ASMcue Outcome: 2.3
Learning Outcome: 1.3 17) Who is credited with first observing cells? A) Robert Hooke B) Anton van Leeuwenhoek C) Robert Koch D) Louis Pasteur E) Carolus Linnaeus Answer: A Section: 1.3 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge ASMcue Outcome: 2.1 Learning Outcome: 1.5 18) Who is credited with first observing microorganisms? A) Robert Hooke B) Anton van Leeuwenhoek C) Robert Koch D) Louis Pasteur E) Carolus Linnaeus Answer: B Section: 1.3 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1 Learning Outcome: 1.5 19) Biogenesis refers to the A) spontaneous generation of organisms from nonliving matter. B) development of life forms from preexisting life forms. C) development of aseptic technique. D) germ theory of disease. Answer: B Section: 1.3 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge Learning Outcome: 1.6 20) If you were setting up an experiment to disprove spontaneous generation in a liquid medium, which of the following would be essential to the experiment? A) supplying the liquid with nutrients B) starting with a liquid that contains microorganisms C) adding antibiotics to the liquid D) using a sterile liquid and eliminating exposure to microorganisms E) adding carbon dioxide to the liquid Answer: D Section: 1.3 Blooms Taxonomy: Comprehension Learning Outcome: 1.6
21) The arguments supporting spontaneous generation were finally disproved by A) Louis Pasteur. B) Francesco Redi. C) Rudolf Virchow. D) John Needham. E) Lazzaro Spallanzani. Answer: A Section: 1.3 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge Learning Outcome: 1.7 22) Regarding Louis Pasteurs experiments with the S-neck flask, which of the following statements is TRUE? A) Air exchange was involved. B) A food source was provided. C) The possibility of contamination was removed. D) All preexisting microorganisms were killed. E) All of the answer choices are correct. Answer: E Section: 1.3 Blooms Taxonomy: Comprehension Learning Outcome: 1.7 23) The microbial process of converting sugars to alcohol is known as
A) fermentation. B) pasteurization. C) tyndallization. D) lyophilization. E) alcoholism. Answer: A Section: 1.3 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge ASMcue Outcome: 3.1 Learning Outcome: 1.7 24) Proof that a microbe could cause disease was provided by A) Pasteur. B) Lister. C) Koch. D) Wasserman. E) Semmelweis. Answer: C Section: 1.3 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge ASMcue Outcome: 5.4 Learning Outcome: 1.9
25) The use of phenol (carbolic acid) as a wound disinfectant was first practiced by A) Lister. B) Semmelweis. C) Pasteur. D) Holmes. E) Koch. Answer: A Section: 1.3 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge ASMcue Outcome: 3.4 Learning Outcome: 1.8 26) Mycology is the study of A) mycoplasma. B) mushrooms. C) protozoa. D) molds. E) molds, yeast, and mushrooms. Answer: E Section: 1.3 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge Learning Outcome: 1.12
27) The first step for directly linking a microbe to a specific disease according to Kochs postulates is to A) culture the blood or other body fluid from a diseased animal using nutrient medium. B) inject a sample of blood or other body fluid from a diseased animal into a healthy animal. C) obtain a sample of blood or other body fluid from a diseased animal. D) compare the blood of a sick animal to blood obtained from a healthy animal. E) isolate microbes from the blood of healthy animals. Answer: C Section: 1.3 Blooms Taxonomy: Application ASMcue Outcome: 5.4 Learning Outcome: 1.9 28) In which of the following situations would Kochs postulates be utilized? A) determination of the cause of a new emerging disease by scientists studying disease transmission B) development of a new antibiotic in a pharmaceutical lab C) determination of the cause of cancer in a patient D) formulation of a vaccine against a new pathogen in a genetic engineering lab E) whenever the scientific method is used to investigate a microbiological problem Answer: A Section: 1.3 Blooms Taxonomy: Application ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Learning Outcome: 1.9 Global Outcome: 5 29) Robert Koch identified the cause of A) smallpox. B) anthrax. C) diphtheria. D) AIDS. E) tuberculosis. Answer: B Section: 1.3 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge ASMcue Outcome: 5.4 Learning Outcome: 1.9 Global Outcome: 5 30) Which physician is first associated with vaccination? A) Ehrlich B) Jenner C) Lister D) Koch E) Escherich Answer: B
Section: 1.3 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge ASMcue Outcome: 6.3 Learning Outcome: 1.10 Global Outcome: 5 31) Which of the following findings was essential for Edward Jenners vaccination process? A) Exposure to a milder disease form may produce immunity. B) A weakened microorganism will not cause disease. C) Someone who recovers from a disease will not acquire that disease again. D) Disease is caused by viruses. E) Pathogenic microorganisms infect all humans and animals in the same manner. Answer: A Section: 1.3 Blooms Taxonomy: Comprehension ASMcue Outcome: 6.3 Learning Outcome: 1.10 Global Outcome: 5 32) Penicillin was discovered by accident by A) Alexander Fleming. B) Paul Ehrich. C) Edward Jenner.
D) Robert Koch. E) Joseph Lister. Answer: A Section: 1.3 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge ASMcue Outcome: 3.4 Learning Outcome: 1.11 Global Outcome: 5 33) Who was the first scientist to pursue a magic bullet that could be used to treat infectious disease? A) Jenner B) Pasteur C) Ehrlich D) Lister E) Semmelweis Answer: C Section: 1.3 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge ASMcue Outcome: 3.4 Learning Outcome: 1.11 Global Outcome: 5 34) Fungal infections are studied by
A) virologists. B) bacteriologists. C) parasitologists. D) mycologists. E) herpetologists. Answer: D Section: 1.3 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge ASMcue Outcome: 5.4 Learning Outcome: 1.12 35) Which disease has been eliminated through the use of vaccines? A) tuberculosis B) measles C) rubella D) smallpox E) influenza Answer: D Section: 1.3 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge ASMcue Outcome: 3.4 Learning Outcome: 1.10
Global Outcome: 5 36) Recombinant DNA refers to the A) study of bacterial ribosomes. B) study of the function of genes. C) interaction between human and bacterial cells. D) synthesis of proteins from genes. E) DNA resulting when genes from one organism are inserted into another organism. Answer: E Section: 1.3 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge ASMcue Outcome: 4.5 Learning Outcome: 1.13 37) Molecular biology includes the study of A) DNA synthesis. B) RNA replication. C) protein synthesis. D) enzyme function. E) how genetic information directs protein synthesis. Answer: E Section: 1.3 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge
ASMcue Outcome: 4.2 Learning Outcome: 1.13 38) Microorganisms are essential to our life. Each of the following is an example of a beneficial function of microorganisms EXCEPT A) alternative fuel production. B) bioremediation. C) gene therapy. D) agriculture. E) increased number of illnesses. Answer: E Section: 1.4 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge ASMcue Outcome: 6.3 Learning Outcome: 1.14 Global Outcome: 5 39) The major food producers for other living organisms is/are A) higher plants. B) cyanobacteria. C) algae. D) higher plants and algae. E) higher plants, cyanobacteria, and algae. Answer: E
Section: 1.4 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge ASMcue Outcome: 6.1 Learning Outcome: 1.14 40) Gene therapy is currently used to treat all of the following diseases EXCEPT A) severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID). B) Duchennes muscular dystrophy. C) cystic fibrosis. D) LDL-receptor deficiency. E) colon cancer. Answer: E Section: 1.4 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge ASMcue Outcome: 6.3 Learning Outcome: 1.15 Global Outcome: 5 41) Recombinant DNA technology has become an increasingly important part of our life. It is used for all of the following EXCEPT A) vaccine production. B) enhancing food longevity. C) synthesis of water. D) drug production.
E) increasing the nutritional value of food. Answer: C Section: 1.4 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge ASMcue Outcome: 6.3 Learning Outcome: 1.13 Global Outcome: 5 42) Normal microbiota are typically found in and on all the following body locations EXCEPT the A) skin. B) mouth. C) colon. D) blood. E) upper respiratory system. Answer: D Section: 1.5 Blooms Taxonomy: Comprehension ASMcue Outcome: 5.4 Learning Outcome: 1.16 43) Which of the following statements about biofilms is FALSE? A) Compared to free-living bacteria, biofilms are more sensitive to antibiotics. B) Biofilms in pipes can block the flow of water.
C) Biofilms in your body protect mucous membranes from harmful microbes. D) Biofilms on medical devices cause infections. E) Biofilms on rocks provide food for animal life. Answer: A Section: 1.5 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge ASMcue Outcome: 6.1 Learning Outcome: 1.17 44) Development of emerging infectious disease can be a result of all of the following EXCEPT A) microbial mutation. B) modern transportation. C) use of genetically modified foods. D) changes in the environment. E) overuse of antibiotics. Answer: C Section: 1.5 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge ASMcue Outcome: 1.3 Learning Outcome: 1.18 1.2 True/False Questions 1) Infectious disease is almost totally eradicated in our world.
Answer: FALSE Section: 1.5 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge ASMcue Outcome: 5.4 Learning Outcome: 1.18 2) A student has obtained a sample of pond water for study. Using the high-power lens, he observes several cells with nuclei. He can conclude that the cells are NOT bacteria. Answer: TRUE Section: 1.2 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge ASMcue Outcome: 2.1 Learning Outcome: 1.3 3) The process of pasteurization to reduce food spoilage utilizes high heat to kill all bacteria present. Answer: FALSE Section: 1.3 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge ASMcue Outcome: 3.4 Learning Outcome: 1.7 Global Outcome: 5 4) Anton van Leeuwenhoek was the first microbiologist to use a microscope to examine environmental samples for the presence of microorganisms. Answer: TRUE
Section: 1.3 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge ASMcue Outcome: 2.1 Learning Outcome: 1.5 5) Spontaneous generation refers to living cells arising only from other living cells. Answer: FALSE Section: 1.3 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge Learning Outcome: 1.6 6) Microbes are associated with life-sustaining benefits as well as life-threatening diseases. Answer: TRUE Section: 1.1 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge ASMcue Outcome: 5.4 Learning Outcome: 1.1 7) All cells possess a cell wall. Answer: FALSE Section: 1.2 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge ASMcue Outcome: 2.1 Learning Outcome: 1.3
8) All pathogens known to infect humans have been identified at this point in time. Answer: FALSE Section: 1.5 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge ASMcue Outcome: 1.3 Learning Outcome: 1.18 1.3 Essay Questions 1) What is an emerging disease, and what are some of the sources for these new infectious diseases? Section: 1.5 Blooms Taxonomy: Comprehension ASMcue Outcome: 1.3 Learning Outcome: 1.18 Global Outcome: 8 2) Compare and contrast prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. Section: 1.2 Blooms Taxonomy: Analysis ASMcue Outcome: 2.4 Learning Outcome: 1.3 Global Outcome: 8 3) What was the function and importance of S-necked flasks in Louis Pasteurs experiments in disproving spontaneous generation?
Section: 1.3 Blooms Taxonomy: Comprehension Learning Outcome: 1.7 Global Outcome: 5 4) Explain the germ theory of disease and discuss why this theory is essential to the treatment of infectious disease.
Question Type: Multiple Choice
Chapter 3: Fundamentals of Chemistry
Question Type: Multiple Choice
1) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? a) Protein-amino acids b) Nucleic acids-nucleotides c) Polysaccharides – simple sugars d) Fats-aldehyde Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.3 Describe the four important types of organic molecules found in cells. Section Reference 1: Section 2.4 Complex Organic Molecules 2) A nucleic acid has a “backbone” consisting of: a) nitrogenous bases b) sugars c) phosphates d) b and c are correct Answer: d Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective 1: LO 2.3 Describe the four important types of organic molecules found in cells. Section Reference 1: Section 2.4 Complex Organic Molecules
3) Proteins are chains of a) disaccharides; cell wall b) amino acids; enzymes c) lipids; energy compounds d) glycogen ; enzymes Answer: b Difficulty: Easy
that sometimes function as
.
Learning Objective 1: LO 2.3 Describe the four important types of organic molecules found in cells. Section Reference 1: Section 2.4 Complex Organic Molecules
4) The total number of protons in an atom is equal to its
.
a) atomic weight b) molecular weight c) chemical weight d) atomic number Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1 Describe the structure of an atom and explain how its structure functions in elements and chemical bonds. Section Reference 1: Section 2.2 Chemical Building Blocks and Chemical Bonds
5) Which one of the following pairs is matched correctly? a) carbon-organic compounds b) glucose- hydrogen bonds c) ions-covalent bonds d) phosphate-enzyme Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 2.3 Describe the four important types of organic molecules found in cells. Section Reference 1: Section 2.4 Complex Organic Molecules
6) When sodium hydroxide, a strong base, is added to water, the pH of the solution
.
a) goes up. b) remains the same. c) goes down. d) cannot be determined. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.2 Identify important inorganic molecules within cells such as water, acids, and bases, describing their roles in sustaining life.
Section Reference 1: Section 2.3 Water and Solutions
7) The double helix is a structure associated with: a) disaccharides b) a compound with hydrogen bonds c) lipids d) DNA Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.3 Describe the four important types of organic molecules found in cells. Section Reference 1: Section 2.4 Complex Organic Molecules
8) In order to become an ion, an atom of chlorine must
.
a) gain an electron b) form a covalent bond c) lose an electron d) form a hydrogen bond Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1 Describe the structure of an atom and explain how its structure functions in elements and chemical bonds. Section Reference 1: Section 2.2 Chemical Building Blocks and Chemical Bonds
9) When proteins are made up of several polypeptide chains, the arrangement of these chains is referred to as the: a) primary structure b) secondary structure c) tertiary structure d) quaternary structure Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.3 Describe the four important types of organic molecules found in cells.
Section Reference 1: Section 2.4 Complex Organic Molecules
10) Two or more atoms combine to form a/an: a) cation. b) molecule. c) protein. d) ion. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1 Describe the structure of an atom and explain how its structure functions in elements and chemical bonds. Section Reference 1: Section 2.2 Chemical Building Blocks and Chemical Bonds
11) Atoms take part in bond formation to: a) form polypeptides b) attain a stable electron configuration c) increase their charge density d) increase their energy Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1 Describe the structure of an atom and explain how its structure functions in elements and chemical bonds. Section Reference 1: Section 2.2 Chemical Building Blocks and Chemical Bonds
12) Charged atomswith electrostatic attraction are generally held together by
.
a) covalent bonds b) ionicbonds c) hydrogen bonds d) municipal bonds Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1 Describe the structure of an atom and explain how its structure functions in elements and chemical bonds. Section Reference 1: Section 2.2 Chemical Building Blocks and Chemical Bonds
13) The smallest particle of matter that can take part in chemical reactions is: a) glucose b) compound c) neutron d) atom Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1 Describe the structure of an atom and explain how its structure functions in elements and chemical bonds. Section Reference 1: Section 2.2 Chemical Building Blocks and Chemical Bonds
14) The three fundamental particles of the atom are
.
a) elements, molecules, and compounds b) ions, cations, and anions. c) proteins, lipids, and sugars d) protons, neutrons, and electrons. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1 Describe the structure of an atom and explain how its structure functions in elements and chemical bonds. Section Reference 1: Section 2.2 Chemical Building Blocks and Chemical Bonds
15) Chemical reactions occur: a) between elements that have magnetic repulsion. b) rarely as very few elements have electrons in their outer shell. c) during metabolism as they are necessary for making the substance of cells. d) only in eukaryotes as they require a nucleus. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1 Describe the structure of an atom, explaining how its structure functions in elements and chemical bonds. Section Reference 1: Section 2.1 Why Study Chemistry?
16) Molecules that contain mixtures of different elements are called
.
a) isotopes b) atoms c) ions d) compounds Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1 Describe the structure of an atom and explain how its structure functions in elements and chemical bonds. Section Reference 1: Section 2.2 Chemical Building Blocks and Chemical Bonds
17) The atomic nucleus consists of: a) cations and anions b) protons, electrons and neutrons c) protons and neutrons d) solutes and colloids Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1 Describe the structure of an atom and explain how its structure functions in elements and chemical bonds. Section Reference 1: Section 2.2 Chemical Building Blocks and Chemical Bonds
18) Electrons have a
charge and are found in the
.
a) positive; inner electron shell b) positive; outer electron shell c) negative; nucleus d) negative; outer electron shell Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1 Describe the structure of an atom and explain how its structure functions in elements and chemical bonds. Section Reference 1: Section 2.2 Chemical Building Blocks and Chemical Bonds
19) Chemically stable atoms are inert or less likely to form chemical bonds. A chemically stable element: a) has l full outer electron shell b) has the same number of protons as electrons c) has an atomic number is equal to the atomic mass d) forms hydrogen bonds Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1 Describe the structure of an atom and explain how its structure functions in elements and chemical bonds. Section Reference 1: Section 2.2 Chemical Building Blocks and Chemical Bonds
20) An ion is all of the following except: a) a charged atom b) an atom that has lost or gained one or more electrons c) either a cation or an anion d) an atom with the same number of protons as electrons Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1 Describe the structure of an atom and explain how its structure functions in elements and chemical bonds. Section Reference 1: Section 2.2 Chemical Building Blocks and Chemical Bonds
21) In salt, a sodium atom loses an electron to a chlorine atom. What is true about the chloride ion found in salt? a) It has one less electron than proton. b) It is less chemically stable than a chlorine atom. c) It is an anion. d) It is in a covalent bond. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.2 Identify important inorganic molecules within cells such as water, acids, and bases, describing their roles in sustaining life. Section Reference 1: Section 2.3 Water and Solutions
22) What is true about atomic weight? a) It is the sum of the number of electrons and protons in an atom. b) The higher the atomic weight the more likely an atom will form a chemical bond. c) It is always a whole number. d) Atoms of a particular element that have different atomic weights are called isotopes. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1 Describe the structure of an atom and explain how its structure functions in elements and chemical bonds. Section Reference 1: Section 2.2 Chemical Building Blocks and Chemical Bonds
23) Which statement is true for radioisotopes? a) Radioisotopes have unstable nuclei that emit subatomic particles and radiation. b) All radioisotopes have gained electrons. c) Radioisotopes are useful to guard against radioactive elements. d) Radioisotopes contain particles too large to form true solutions. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1 Describe the structure of an atom and explain how its structure functions in elements and chemical bonds. Section Reference 1: Section 2.2 Chemical Building Blocks and Chemical Bonds
24) Food consists of molecules with lots of energy stored in their chemical bonds. What is true about how microorganisms use nutrients? a) When microorganisms break the chemical bonds in nutrients, they release energy. b) It takes microorganisms more energy to break the bonds in nutrients than are released. c) All energy that microorganisms receive from nutrients comes from anabolism. d) Microorganisms break down hydrogen bonds to release electrons as energy. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1 Describe the structure of an atom and explain how its structure functions in elements and chemical bonds. Section Reference 1: Section 2.2 Chemical Building Blocks and Chemical Bonds
25) Which is a false statement about water? a) Water molecules are polar. b) Water has a high specific heat because of the extensive covalent bonding between molecules. c) Hydrogen atoms in water form dipoles with a partial positive charge. d) Water’s polarity allows for many ionic compounds to be dissolved in it. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.2 Identify important inorganic molecules within cells such as water, acids, and bases, describing their roles in sustaining life. Section Reference 1: Section 2.3 Water and Solutions
26) Which is a false statement about chemical reactions? a) Catabolic reactions are exergonic and release energy. b) Polymerization and the building up of large molecules is a catabolic reaction. c) Anabolic reactions require energy. d) Energy is stored in the form of chemical bonds. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.2 Identify important inorganic molecules within cells such as water, acids, and bases, describing their roles in sustaining life. Section Reference 1: Section 2.3 Water and Solutions
27) When glucose is dissolved in water, the water is the .
and the glucose is the
a) solvent, solute b) solvent, solution c) solute, solvent d) solute, solution Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.2 Identify important inorganic molecules within cells such as water, acids, and bases, describing their roles in sustaining life. Section Reference 1: Section 2.3 Water and Solutions
28) Water plays an important role in the chemical reactions in cells, including: a) denaturing proteins b) stabilizing the primary structure of a protein c) forming covalent bonds with proteins d) breaking down large proteins into amino acids in hydrolysis reactions Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 2.2 Identify important inorganic molecules within cells such as water, acids, and bases, describing their roles in sustaining life. Section Reference 1: Section 2.3 Water and Solutions
29) Solutions made up of molecules that are not chemically bonded and are not limited to specific proportions are called: a) mixtures b) elements c) chemical compounds d) polar compounds Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.2 Identify important inorganic molecules within cells such as water, acids, and bases, describing their roles in sustaining life. Section Reference 1: Section 2.3 Water and Solutions
30) Which of the following statements about solutions is false? a) The solute is the substance dissolved in a solvent. b) Left alone on a counter, a solution will separate out. c) Solutes can consist of atoms, ions or molecules. d) In cells, water is typically a solvent. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 2.2 Identify important inorganic molecules within cells such as water, acids, and bases, describing their roles in sustaining life. Section Reference 1: Section 2.3 Water and Solutions
31) Which of the following is not a colloid? a) salt water b) gelatin desserts c) agar plates used to grow microorganisms d) fluid in cells Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 2.2 Identify important inorganic molecules within cells such as water, acids, and bases, describing their roles in sustaining life. Section Reference 1: Section 2.3 Water and Solutions
32) The pH scale is used to specify the acidity or alkalinity of a solution. Which of the following statements is true? a) Stomach acid has a pH around 10. b) Neutral solutions, like water, have a pH of 10. c) A solution with a pH of 12 has 10 times the number of protons as a solution with a pH of 11. d) A strong base will have a pH less than 10. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.2 Identify important inorganic molecules within cells such as water, acids, and bases, describing their roles in sustaining life. Section Reference 1: Section 2.3 Water and Solutions
33) Which statement about acids and bases is false? a) A hydrogen ion (H+) is a proton. b) Acids are proton acceptors. c) Bases are proton acceptors d) A hydroxyl ion donor is also a proton acceptor Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 2.2 Identify important inorganic molecules within cells such as water, acids, and bases, describing their roles in sustaining life. Section Reference 1: Section 2.3 Water and Solutions
34) Ketones, alcohols, aldehydes and organic acids are four of the organic compounds found in all living cells. What do these four classes of organic compounds share? a) They contain the same atoms but differ in structure. b) They are chains of carbon atoms with functional groups that contain oxygen. c) They are all fully oxidized. d) They can only be synthesized inside a cell. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 2.3 Describe the four important types of organic molecules found in cells. Section Reference 1: Section 2.4 Complex Organic Molecules
35) What is true about oxidation? a) The more oxidized a molecule, the less energy it contains. b) Oxidation is the removal of oxygen or the addition of hydrogen or electrons to a substance. c) Gasoline represents the extreme of energy-rich oxidized compounds. d) Oxidation reactions only occur in polar compounds. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 2.3 Describe the four important types of organic molecules found in cells. Section Reference 1: Section 2.4 Complex Organic Molecules
36) Carbohydrates: a) are hydrophobic. b) have a four ring structure. c) are used primarily for energy and cellular structures. d) have primary, secondary, tertiary and quaternary structure. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.3 Describe the four important types of organic molecules found in cells. Section Reference 1: Section 2.4 Complex Organic Molecules
37) Glucose: a) is abundant in milk and fruit b) is a rare monosaccharide c) is never produced within cells d) none of the above Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 2.3 Describe the four important types of organic molecules found in cells. Section Reference 1: Section 2.4 Complex Organic Molecules
38) Disaccharides, such as sucrose and lactose, are formed from: a) two monosaccharides connected by a glycosidic bond. b) chains of two amino acids. c) long chain of carbon atoms and a carboxyl group at one end of chain. d) three fatty acids combined with glycerol. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.3 Describe the four important types of organic molecules found in cells. Section Reference 1: Section 2.4 Complex Organic Molecules
39) Polysaccharides: a) include ribose, fructose and glucose. b) include cholesterol and vitamin D. c) are monosaccharides joined by glycosidic bonds. d) are found only in eukaryotic cells. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.3 Describe the four important types of organic molecules found in cells. Section Reference 1: Section 2.4 Complex Organic Molecules
40) Fatty acids that are
have
.
a) saturated; lost their secondary structure b) unsaturated, a double bond between two carbons that have lost hydrogen atoms c) saturated, one or more double bonds d) denatured, all the hydrogen it can. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.3 Describe the four important types of organic molecules found in cells. Section Reference 1: Section 2.4 Complex Organic Molecules
41) Phospholipids: a) have a charged phosphate group that can mix with water and insoluble fatty acids. b) can serve as hormones. c) always remain liquid at room temperature. d) form straight chains in water. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.3 Describe the four important types of organic molecules found in cells. Section Reference 1: Section 2.4 Complex Organic Molecules
42) Atoms are most likely to form ions when they have: a) an even number of electrons in their outer shells b) a nearly empty outer shell c) an odd number of electrons in their outer shells d) four electrons in their outer shells Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1 Describe the structure of an atom and explain how its structure functions in elements and chemical bonds. Section Reference 1: Section 2.2 Chemical Building Blocks and Chemical Bonds
43) Chemical bonds usually form between atoms through the interaction of:
a) protons b) neutrons c) electrons d) isotopes Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1 Describe the structure of an atom and explain how its structure functions in elements and chemical bonds. Section Reference 1: Section 2.2 Chemical Building Blocks and Chemical Bonds
44) Chemical bonds found in living organisms do not normally include: a) ionic bonds b) hydrogen bonds c) covalent bonds d) magnetic bonds Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1 Describe the structure of an atom and explain how its structure functions in elements and chemical bonds. Section Reference 1: Section 2.2 Chemical Building Blocks and Chemical Bonds
45) When pairs of electrons are shared between two atoms, the result is a/an
bond.
a) ionic b) covalent c) hydrogen d) carbonic Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1 Describe the structure of an atom and explain how its structure functions in elements and chemical bonds. Section Reference 1: Section 2.2 Chemical Building Blocks and Chemical Bonds
46) Hydrogen bonds are generally:
a) stronger than covalent bonds b) stronger than ionic bonds but weaker than covalent bonds c) present in large numbers d) found in non-polar compounds Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1 Describe the structure of an atom and explain how its structure functions in elements and chemical bonds. Section Reference 1: Section 2.2 Chemical Building Blocks and Chemical Bonds
47) Reactions in which molecules are degraded and energy is released are best termed
.
a) anabolic b) catabolic c) metabolic d) exerbolic Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1 Describe the structure of an atom and explain how its structure functions in elements and chemical bonds. Section Reference 1: Section 2.2 Chemical Building Blocks and Chemical Bonds
48) Anabolic reactions tend to: a) use energy and break chemical bonds. b) produce energy, and break chemical bonds. c) produce energy and new chemical bonds. d) use energy and produce new chemical bonds. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1 Describe the structure of an atom and explain how its structure functions in elements and chemical bonds. Section Reference 1: Section 2.2 Chemical Building Blocks and Chemical Bonds
49) Chemical reactions that require energy are best termed a) catabolic
.
b) anabolic c) exergonic d) endergonic Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1 Describe the structure of an atom and explain how its structure functions in elements and chemical bonds. Section Reference 1: Section 2.2 Chemical Building Blocks and Chemical Bonds
50) Which of the following pH values would indicate the weakest acid? a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.2 Identify important inorganic molecules within cells such as water, acids, and bases, describing their roles in sustaining life. Section Reference 1: Section 2.3 Water and Solutions
51) Organic molecules with the same molecular formula but different structures are: a) elements b) isotopes c) isomers d) anions Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.3 Describe the four important types of organic molecules found in cells. Section Reference 1: Section 2.4 Complex Organic Molecules
52) Carbohydrates do not include which of the following? a) Glucose b) Starch
c) Cellulose d) Sterols Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.3 Describe the four important types of organic molecules found in cells. Section Reference 1: Section 2.4 Complex Organic Molecules
53) Amino acids in a protein are joined together by
.
a) peptide bonds b) hydrogen bonds c) phosphodiester bonds d) tertiary bonds Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.3 Describe the four important types of organic molecules found in cells. Section Reference 1: Section 2.4 Complex Organic Molecules
54) The specific sequence of amino acids in a protein is known as its: a) primary structure b) secondary structure c) tertiary structure d) quaternary structure Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.3 Describe the four important types of organic molecules found in cells. Section Reference 1: Section 2.4 Complex Organic Molecules
55) In DNA, the nucleotide cytosine always base pairs to: a) adenine b) guanine c) thymine
d) uracil Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.3 Describe the four important types of organic molecules found in cells. Section Reference 1: Section 2.4 Complex Organic Molecules
56) Which of the following is a three carbon sugar alcohol?
a) a b) b c) c d) d Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 2.3 Describe the four important types of organic molecules found in cells. Section Reference 1: Section 2.4 Complex Organic Molecules
57) How many electrons are in the first shell of the sodium atom?
a) one b) two c) four d) six Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1 Describe the structure of an atom and explain how its structure functions in elements and chemical bonds. Section Reference 1: Section 2.2 Chemical Building Blocks and Chemical Bonds
58) How many electrons are in the second shell of the chlorine atom?
a) two b) four c) eight d) ten Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1 Describe the structure of an atom and explain how its structure functions in elements and chemical bonds. Section Reference 1: Section 2.2 Chemical Building Blocks and Chemical Bonds 59) Which of the following has the fewest hydroxyl ions?
a) Oven cleaner b) Household bleach c) Saliva d) Vinegar Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.2 Identify important inorganic molecules within cells such as water, acids, and bases, describing their roles in sustaining life. Section Reference 1: Section 2.3 Water and Solutions
60) Which of the following has the fewest hydrogen ions?
a) Stomach hydrochloric acid b) Urine c) Ocean water d) Household ammonia Answer: d
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.2 Identify important inorganic molecules within cells such as water, acids, and bases, describing their roles in sustaining life. Section Reference 1: Section 2.3 Water and Solutions
Question Type: Essay
61) Describe the formation and importance of a hydrogen bond. Why is water the universal dissolving medium (e.g., solvent) of life? Name two roles water plays in cells. Answer: A hydrogen bond is a special type of bond that forms between a proton that has a partial positive charge because of a bond to atoms that strongly attract electrons (e.g., oxygen or nitrogen) and another atom that has a partial negative charge. This type of bond always involves a hydrogen atom. The hydrogen bond is important because it is found between water molecules and because in large numbers they contribute to the structure of large molecules such as proteins or nucleic acids. Water is essential to life because water can act as a dissolving medium or solvent. Water is a good solvent because the polar water molecules surround ions. In other words, many different kinds of ions can be distributed evenly throughout water because water is polar. Water plays the following roles in cells: it keeps them moist by forming a thin film of water (surface tension), it is an ideal medium for most chemical reactions being able to donate protons and hydroxyl ions, its polarity allows many different ions to be dissolved in cells, it contributes to the structure of large molecules such as proteins or nucleic acids, it participates in dehydration synthesis and hydrolysis reactions. Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.2 Identify important inorganic molecules within cells such as water, acids, and bases, describing their roles in sustaining life. Section Reference 1: Section 2.3 Water and Solutions
62) Energy is an important chemical currency. How does energy affect electrons in the atom? What is the role of energy in a chemical bond? Name two complex organic molecules that are used by cells for energy. How does the cell release this energy? Answer: Electrons can have different levels of energy. Electrons with the least energy are located nearest the nucleus and those with more energy are located farther away from the nucleus (and are most likely to interact to form bonds with other atoms). Energy associated with chemical bonds hold the atoms together forming molecules. It is the energy from sharing the electrons that allow two atoms to form chemical bonds. The cell uses fats, sugars and proteins for energy and energy storage. The cell releases this energy by breaking down complex molecules (macromolecules) into simple molecules. For example, polysaccharides are broken down into monosaccharides. Proteins can be broken down
into amino acids. The cell releases this energy by breaking down high energy bonds that form within these chemicals- these bonds are most commonly between carbon and hydrogen atoms. Enzymes are needed to catalyze the breaking of these bonds. If a molecular structure is very complex and too many enzymatic steps are needed for the molecule to be degrade, no net energy will be gained by the cell. This is why nucleic acids are not used by cells for energy yield. Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.3 Describe the four important types of organic molecules found in cells. Section Reference 1: Section 2.4 Complex Organic Molecules
63) Describe the chemical composition, type/structure and function for the following complex organic molecules: carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, DNA and RNA Answer: Carbohydrates are simple sugars or polymers known as polysaccharides such as starch, glycogen and cellulose. The carbon atoms may be associated with alcohols or a ketone or aldehyde group. Microbes use carbohydrates for immediate energy, storage of energy and cell wall components. Lipids are organic molecules that are insoluble in water. Many are polymers composed of glycerol bound to two or more fatty acids. They include fats, phospholipids and steroids. They are used for energy storage and cell membrane components. Proteins consist of chains of amino acids linked by peptide bonds. They form part of the structure of all cellular components and act as enzymes and defense molecules. DNA and RNA are composed of chains of nucleotides (formed of nitrogenous base, sugar, phosphates). DNA molecules form double stranded helixes. RNA is usually single stranded. DNA and RNA serve as the genetic material (information encoding proteins) for all life forms and play a role in genetic expression as well. Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 2.3 Describe the four important types of organic molecules found in cells. Section Reference 1: Section 2.4 Complex Organic Molecules
Chapter 4: Microscopy and Staining
Question Type: Multiple Choice 1) Which of the following statements about Leeuwenhoek’s microscopes is false? a) Leeuwenhoek kept his technique secret. b) They magnified objects 100 to 300 times. c) For each specimen a new microscope had to be made. d) They were able to reveal very fine details of bacteria. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.1 Review the known properties of light, such as wavelength and resolution, and how light travels through various media. Section Reference 1: Section 3.1 Historical Microscopy
2) Which of the following statements about resolution is true? a) Resolution refers to the ability of a lens to distinguish adjacent objects. b) With regard to light, resolution means the same thing as wavelength. c) Resolution refers to a microscope’s ability to magnify objects. d) Resolution is equal to the distance between two adjacent crests of a wave. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 3.1 Review the known properties of light, such as wavelength and resolution, and how light travels through various media. Section Reference 1: Section 3.2 Principles of Microscopy
3) A compound light microscope can generally see objects as no smaller than a a) ribosome b) large protozoa c) small bacterium d) typical virus Answer: c Difficulty: Easy
.
Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2 Identify the components and purposes of the compound light microscope and electron microscope, providing examples of applications of these types of microscopy. Section Reference 1: Section 3.3 Light Microscopy
4) Light of
wavelength typically will result in
resolution.
a) longer, better b) shorter, better c) any, poor d) shorter, worse Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.1 Review the known properties of light, such as wavelength and resolution, and how light travels through various media. Section Reference 1: Section 3.2 Principles of Microscopy
5) The formula for the resolving power (resolution distance) of a lens is x numerical aperture). What does this say about resolving power?
/2NA (wavelength /2
a) The smaller the wavelength, the greater the resolving power of the lens. b) Resolving power is not related the lens’ numerical aperture. c) We cannot precisely calculate a lens resolving power. d) A larger resolving power is indicative of a better lens. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.1 Review the known properties of light, such as wavelength and resolution, and how light travels through various media. Section Reference 1: Section 3.2 Principles of Microscopy
6) When light passes through an object, a) reflection b) absorption c) transmission d) fluorescence Answer: c
of the light has occurred.
Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.1 Review the known properties of light, such as wavelength and resolution, and how light travels through various media. Section Reference 1: Section 3.2 Principles of Microscopy
7) When light bends as it passes through an object,
, of the light has occurred.
a) reflection b) absorption c) transmission d) refraction Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.1 Review the known properties of light, such as wavelength and resolution, and how light travels through various media. Section Reference 1: Section 3.2 Principles of Microscopy
8) When light rays pass into an object but do not emerge,
has taken place.
a) reflection b) absorption c) refraction d) transmission Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.1 Review the known properties of light, such as wavelength and resolution, and how light travels through various media. Section Reference 1: Section 3.2 Principles of Microscopy
9) In order to make use of light for a microscopic examination of an object the object must or light. a) absorb, luminesce b) transmit, absorb c) transmit, reflect d) reflect, absorb Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.1 Review the known properties of light, such as wavelength and resolution, and how light travels through various media. Section Reference 1: Section 3.2 Principles of Microscopy
10) Electron microscopes have a much better resolving power when compared to light microscopes because electrons . a) are invisible to the eye b) have longer wavelengths than visible light rays c) have shorter wavelengths than visible light rays d) are negatively charged Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2 Identify the components and purposes of the compound light microscope and electron microscope, providing examples of applications of these types of microscopy. Section Reference 1: Section 3.4 Electron Microscopy
11) Diffraction occurs when light
.
a) is reflected by an object b) passes through a small opening c) changes wavelengths d) is absorbed by a normally transparent object (like a glass slide) Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.1 Review the known properties of light, such as wavelength and resolution, and how light travels through various media. Section Reference 1: Section 3.2 Principles of Microscopy
12) Why is diffraction a problem for microscopy? a) The lens acts as a large aperture through which light must pass. b) The small size of higher-power lenses causes severe diffraction. c) The loss of light results in blurred images. d) Diffraction of light is useful when using an oil immersion lens to view objects. Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.1 Review the known properties of light, such as wavelength and resolution, and how light travels through various media. Section Reference 1: Section 3.2 Principles of Microscopy
13) What is true about the index of refraction? a) If light rays are taken up by the object than it has a high index of refraction. b) Refraction measures the frequency of the light as it reflects from a material. c) Oil immersion lenses increase the problem of refraction. d) Light will bend as it passes through two substances with different indices of refraction. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 3.1 Review the known properties of light, such as wavelength and resolution, and how light travels through various media. Section Reference 1: Section 3.2 Principles of Microscopy
14) During microscopic observation of a specimen, the amount of light that is allowed to pass through the specimen is controlled by the: a) condenser b) objective lens c) iris diaphragm d) ocular lens Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2 Identify the components and purposes of the compound light microscope and electron microscope, providing examples of applications of these types of microscopy. Section Reference 1: Section 3.3 Light Microscopy
15) The lens closest to the slide during a microscopic examination is the a) ocular b) objective c) condenser d) compound
.
Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2 Identify the components and purposes of the compound light microscope and electron microscope, providing examples of applications of these types of microscopy. Section Reference 1: Section 3.3 Light Microscopy
16) A compound microscope has
.
a) two eyepieces b) a total magnification of 5,000X c) only fine adjustment and no coarse adjustment d) more than one lens Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2 Identify the components and purposes of the compound light microscope and electron microscope, providing examples of applications of these types of microscopy. Section Reference 1: Section 3.3 Light Microscopy
17) The lens closest to your eyes during a microscopic examination is the
.
a) ocular b) objective c) condenser d) compound Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2 Identify the components and purposes of the compound light microscope and electron microscope, providing examples of applications of these types of microscopy. Section Reference 1: Section 3.3 Light Microscopy
18) Most light microscopes contain a/an through the specimen. a) objective lens b) iris diaphragm
that converges the light beam so that it passes
c) mechanical stage d) condenser Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2 Identify the components and purposes of the compound light microscope and electron microscope, providing examples of applications of these types of microscopy. Section Reference 1: Section 3.3 Light Microscopy
19) The total magnification of a specimen being viewed with a 10X ocular lens and a 40X objective lens is . a) 4X b) 40X c) 400X d) 4000X Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2 Identify the components and purposes of the compound light microscope and electron microscope, providing examples of applications of these types of microscopy. Section Reference 1: Section 3.3 Light Microscopy
20) To calculate the total magnification of a light microscope you must know the magnification of the lenses. a) objective and condenser b) ocular and condenser c) objective and condenser d) objective and ocular Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2 Identify the components and purposes of the compound light microscope and electron microscope, providing examples of applications of these types of microscopy. Section Reference 1: Section 3.3 Light Microscopy
21) A parfocal microscope: a) has more than one source of illumination b) has both coarse and fine focusing adjustment c) accentuates small differences in the refractive index of intracellular structures d) allows for specimens to remain in focus when changing between magnification Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2 Identify the components and purposes of the compound light microscope and electron microscope, providing examples of applications of these types of microscopy. Section Reference 1: Section 3.3 Light Microscopy
22) A microscope in which light rays pass directly through a specimen is a microscope. a) bright field b) dark field c) phase-contrast d) Nomarski Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2 Identify the components and purposes of the compound light microscope and electron microscope, providing examples of applications of these types of microscopy. Section Reference 1: Section 3.3 Light Microscopy
23) A microscope that converts changes in the speed of light as it passes through an object into differences in brightness is a microscope. a) bright field b) dark field c) phase-contrast d) Nomarski Answer: c Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2 Identify the components and purposes of the compound light microscope and electron microscope, providing examples of applications of these types of microscopy. Section Reference 1: Section 3.3 Light Microscopy
24) Ultraviolet light is a key component of: a) bright-field microscopy b) dark-field microscopy c) phase-contrast microscopy d) fluorescence microscopy Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2 Identify the components and purposes of the compound light microscope and electron microscope, providing examples of applications of these types of microscopy. Section Reference 1: Section 3.3 Light Microscopy
25) Which is a false statement about light microscopy? a) A dark-field microscope produces bright images against a dark background. b) A phase contrast microscope gives 3-dimensional images. c) Fluorescent antibody staining cannot determine whether a foreign organism such as a microbe is present in a specimen. d) A Nomarski microscope produces much higher resolution than the standard phase-contrast microscope. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2 Identify the components and purposes of the compound light microscope and electron microscope, providing examples of applications of these types of microscopy. Section Reference 1: Section 3.3 Light Microscopy
26) The advent of the electron microscope allowed a) protozoa b) bacteria c) viruses d) algae
to be viewed for the first time.
Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2 Identify the components and purposes of the compound light microscope and electron microscope, providing examples of applications of these types of microscopy. Section Reference 1: Section 3.4 Electron Microscopy
27) Electron microscopes use
to focus the electron beam.
a) glass lenses b) electromagnets c) mechanical stages d) laser beams Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2 Identify the components and purposes of the compound light microscope and electron microscope, providing examples of applications of these types of microscopy. Section Reference 1: Section 3.4 Electron Microscopy
28) The best electron microscopes have a resolution of
nm.
a) 0.1 b) 1 c) 10 d) 100 Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2 Identify the components and purposes of the compound light microscope and electron microscope, providing examples of applications of these types of microscopy. Section Reference 1: Section 3.4 Electron Microscopy 29) Transmission electron microscopes have a maximum magnification of a) 1,000X b) 100,000X c) 500,000X
.
d) 1,000,000X Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2 Identify the components and purposes of the compound light microscope and electron microscope, providing examples of applications of these types of microscopy. Section Reference 1: Section 3.4 Electron Microscopy
30) Electron microscopes: a) that are scanning have better resolution than those that are transmission b) are much more expensive and take up more space than light microscopes c) can use the same preparations of specimens that have been prepared for viewing with a light microscope d) have a resolving power approximately 10 times better than the best light microscope Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2 Identify the components and purposes of the compound light microscope and electron microscope, providing examples of applications of these types of microscopy. Section Reference 1: Section 3.4 Electron Microscopy
31) Three dimensional views of cells and other small object could best be obtained using a: a) phase contrast microscope b) dark-field microscope c) transmission electron microscope (TEM) d) scanning electron microscope (SEM) Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2 Identify the components and purposes of the compound light microscope and electron microscope, providing examples of applications of these types of microscopy. Section Reference 1: Section 3.4 Electron Microscopy
32) Which of the following can be used to examine live specimens?
a) TEM b) SEM c) scanning tunneling electron microscope d) atomic force microscope Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2 Identify the components and purposes of the compound light microscope and electron microscope, providing examples of applications of these types of microscopy. Section Reference 1: Section 3.4 Electron Microscopy
33) The technique that involves the evaporation of water from a frozen and fractured specimen is called: a) shadow casting b) freeze-etching c) heat fixation d) freeze-fracturing Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2 Identify the components and purposes of the compound light microscope and electron microscope, providing examples of applications of these types of microscopy. Section Reference 1: Section 3.4 Electron Microscopy
34) Colored photos of electron micrographs: a) reflect the color of the specimen before it was frozen b) are false color added on during image preparation c) reflect the color of the specimen after it was frozen d) are always in pastel shades Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2 Identify the components and purposes of the compound light microscope and electron microscope, providing examples of applications of these types of microscopy. Section Reference 1: Section 3.4 Electron Microscopy
35) Atomic force microscope: a) allows 3 dimensional imaging and measurement of structures as small as nucleotides in DNA b) is not yet capable of measuring small forces c) involves ultraviolet light exciting molecules so that they release light of a longer wavelength d) has a special condenser and objective lens Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2 Identify the components and purposes of the compound light microscope and electron microscope, providing examples of applications of these types of microscopy. Section Reference 1: Section 3.4 Electron Microscopy 36) The term “basic dyes” refers to the fact that these dyes are
.
a) easily prepared b) positively charged c) attracted to positively charged cell structures d) simple in their composition Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Discuss the techniques and purpose of staining specimens and why differential stains such as the Gram stain, capsule stain, endospore stain, and flagellar stain are used. Section Reference 1: Section 3.5 Techniques of Light Microscopy
37) Which of the following statements about preparing a light microscope specimen is false? a) Organisms must be heat fixed before viewed in a hanging drop slide. b) Smears are loopfuls of medium spread on the surface of a glass slide. c) Wet mounts preparations give good views of microbial mobility. d) The depth of a smear affects the results; if too thin you may find no organisms. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Discuss the techniques and purpose of staining specimens and why differential stains such as the Gram stain, capsule stain, endospore stain, and flagellar stain are used.
Section Reference 1: Section 3.5 Techniques of Light Microscopy
38) A simple stain: a) uses only a single dye. b) requires only one step to stain a slide. c) distinguishes between two different parts of an organism. d) is composed of an equal balance of acid and basic dyes. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Discuss the techniques and purpose of staining specimens and why differential stains such as the Gram stain, capsule stain, endospore stain, and flagellar stain are used. Section Reference 1: Section 3.5 Techniques of Light Microscopy
39) Which of the following is not a differential stain? a) Gram stain b) Schaeffer-Fulton c) acid-fast stain d) flagellar stain Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Discuss the techniques and purpose of staining specimens and why differential stains such as the Gram stain, capsule stain, endospore stain, and flagellar stain are used. Section Reference 1: Section 3.5 Techniques of Light Microscopy
40) In a Gram stain, the mordant is a) crystal violet b) iodine c) water d) alcohol Answer: b Difficulty: Medium
.
Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Discuss the techniques and purpose of staining specimens and why differential stains such as the Gram stain, capsule stain, endospore stain, and flagellar stain are used. Section Reference 1: Section 3.5 Techniques of Light Microscopy
41) In a properly executed Gram stain, Gram positive organisms appear negative organisms appear .
while Gram
a) pink, clear b) pink, purple c) purple, pink d) purple, blue Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Discuss the techniques and purpose of staining specimens and why differential stains such as the Gram stain, capsule stain, endospore stain, and flagellar stain are used. Section Reference 1: Section 3.5 Techniques of Light Microscopy
42) Why do basic dyes attach to most bacterial surfaces? a) Most bacterial surfaces are negatively charged. b) Bacterial cells take up safranin. c) Most bacterial surfaces resist taking up the stain. d) Most bacterial surfaces do not have a charge. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Discuss the techniques and purpose of staining specimens and why differential stains such as the Gram stain, capsule stain, endospore stain, and flagellar stain are used. Section Reference 1: Section 3.5 Techniques of Light Microscopy
43) If the step involving iodine were left out of a Gram stain, which of the following would best describe the results? a) Gram negative cells would look Gram positive. b) Gram positive cells would look Gram negative. c) All rods would be pink, all cocci purple. d) All cells would be purple.
Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Discuss the techniques and purpose of staining specimens and why differential stains such as the Gram stain, capsule stain, endospore stain, and flagellar stain are used. Section Reference 1: Section 3.5 Techniques of Light Microscopy
44) Which stain would be the best choice for detecting mycobacterium (the bacteria responsible for tuberculosis and leprosy)? a) simple stain b) endospore stain c) acid-fast stain d) Gram stain Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Discuss the techniques and purpose of staining specimens and why differential stains such as the Gram stain, capsule stain, endospore stain, and flagellar stain are used. Section Reference 1: Section 3.5 Techniques of Light Microscopy
45) Suitable stains for use in the Ziehl-Neelsen acid-fast stain are
.
a) crystal violet and eosin b) carbolfuschin and methylene blue c) carbolfuschin and safranin d) safranin and methylene blue Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Discuss the techniques and purpose of staining specimens and why differential stains such as the Gram stain, capsule stain, endospore stain, and flagellar stain are used. Section Reference 1: Section 3.5 Techniques of Light Microscopy
46) Which type of staining results in a clear object being viewed against a dark background? a) Simple stain
b) Negative stain c) Endospore stain d) Flagellar stain Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Discuss the techniques and purpose of staining specimens and why differential stains such as the Gram stain, capsule stain, endospore stain, and flagellar stain are used. Section Reference 1: Section 3.5 Techniques of Light Microscopy
47) The counterstain in the endospore stain is
.
a) malachite green b) crystal violet c) safranin d) methylene blue Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Discuss the techniques and purpose of staining specimens and why differential stains such as the Gram stain, capsule stain, endospore stain, and flagellar stain are used. Section Reference 1: Section 3.5 Techniques of Light Microscopy
48) Bacteria capsules can best be visualized by
staining.
a) flagellar b) crystal violet c) negative d) mordant Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Discuss the techniques and purpose of staining specimens and why differential stains such as the Gram stain, capsule stain, endospore stain, and flagellar stain are used. Section Reference 1: Section 3.5 Techniques of Light Microscopy
49) What statement about microscopy and staining techniques is false?
a) Many species look identical under the microscope. b) Staining and microscopic examination are usually all that is need to identify a microorganism. c) Microscopes are of little use unless the specimens are prepared properly. d) The degree of contrast is equally important as resolution and magnification. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Discuss the techniques and purpose of staining specimens and why differential stains such as the Gram stain, capsule stain, endospore stain, and flagellar stain are used. Section Reference 1: Section 3.5 Techniques of Light Microscopy
50) When given a microorganism to identify, which of the following would be useful? a) A gram stain b) A transmission electron micrograph c) Biochemical and genetic characteristics d) All of the above Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Discuss the techniques and purpose of staining specimens and why differential stains such as the Gram stain, capsule stain, endospore stain, and flagellar stain are used. Section Reference 1: Section 3.5 Techniques of Light Microscopy
51) Which of the following stains has been used on this microorganism?
a) Flagellar stain b) Capsule stain c) Endospore stain d) No stain Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Discuss the techniques and purpose of staining specimens and why differential stains such as the Gram stain, capsule stain, endospore stain, and flagellar stain are used. Section Reference 1: Section 3.5 Techniques of Light Microscopy
52) The image of this fungus was taken using a:
a) confocal microscope b) atomic force microscope c) compound light microscope d) fluorescence microscope Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2 Identify the components and purposes of the compound light microscope and electron microscope, providing examples of applications of these types of microscopy. Section Reference 1: Section 3.4 Electron Microscopy
53) This structure converges the light beams so they pass through the specimen.
a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2 Identify the components and purposes of the compound light microscope and electron microscope, providing examples of applications of these types of microscopy. Section Reference 1: Section 3.3 Light Microscopy
Question Type: Essay
54) Would light of a shorter or longer wavelength give you better resolution when using a microscope? Why? Would a light microscope that had a total magnification of 500X give you better resolution as one that has a magnification of 100X? Why? Answer: Light of a shorter wavelength would give you better resolution when using a microscope because shorter wavelengths can pass more easily between the separate structures and therefore define them more clearly and produce a sharper image. There is no direct relationship between the total magnification and the resolution, rather an indirect relationship in that the resolving power is related to the numerical aperture. The numerical aperture of the lens differs in accordance with the power of magnification and intrinsic properties of the lens. Although it is possible to have lenses of different powers of magnification with the same numerical aperture, it is more likely that the larger the magnification the larger the numerical aperture and therefore the lower the resolving power of the lens. It is more likely that the 500X lens will give you less resolution than the 100X lens. Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 3.1 Review the known properties of light, such as wavelength and resolution, and how light travels through various media. Section Reference 1: Section 3.2 Principles of Microscopy
55) What is the Gram stain? What does it distinguish? Answer: Gram staining is based on the ability of the bacterial cell wall to take up and retain a crystal violet/iodine dye complex. Bacteria cell walls are stained by the crystal violet. Iodine is subsequently added as a mordant to form the crystal violet-iodine complex so that the dye cannot be removed easily. A decolorizer is then added to dissolve the lipid layer from the gram-negative cells which allows the complex to wash out of this type of cell wall. Gram stain distinguishes between gram-positive cells (purple), gram-negative cells (red from the saffranin counterstain) and cells which are nonreactive or gram-variable. Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Discuss the techniques and purpose of staining specimens and why differential stains such as the Gram stain, capsule stain, endospore stain, and flagellar stain are used. Section Reference 1: Section 3.5 Techniques of Light Microscopy
56) Compare and contrast light microscopy and electron microscopy. Be sure to include how they work and what they can see (or the extent of their total magnification). Answer: Light microscopy uses visible wavelengths of light, while electron microscopes use beams of electrons instead of light. Light microscopy directs the light with glass lenses, while
electron microscopy directs the electron beam with electromagnetic lense. Electrons, which have a smaller wavelength than visible light, allow a much higher resolution. Electron microscopy requires that the beam pass through a vacuum as air molecules would otherwise scatter the beam and therefore are much more expensive than light microscopes. They also take up more room and are not as portable. The magnification of a light microscope is up to 1000X, while an electron microscope allows for many time that magnification (e.g., 500,000X). In other words with a light microscope one can see individual cells and bacteria (e.g., 1um to 10nm range), while with an electron microscope one can see all that plus viruses, organelles (e.g., ribosomes) and even individual proteins (e.g., 1nm to 10nm range). Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2 Identify the components and purposes of the compound light microscope and electron microscope, providing examples of applications of these types of microscopy. Section Reference 1: Section 3.3 Light Microscopy Section Reference 2: Section 3.4 Electron Microscopy
Chapter 5: Characteristics of Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cells
Question Type: Multiple Choice
1) Which of the following groups of organisms is not prokaryotic? a) Archaea b) Bacteria c) Eubacteria d) Eukarya Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1 Compare and contrast prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell types, describing typical sizes, shapes, and arrangements of bacterial cells. Section Reference 1: Section 4.2 Prokaryotic Cells
2) Which of the following is not a common bacterial shape? a) Spirochete b) Coccus c) Disc d) Bacillus Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1 Compare and contrast prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell types, describing typical sizes, shapes, and arrangements of bacterial cells. Section Reference 1: Section 4.2 Prokaryotic Cells
3) A small comma shaped bacteria is described as being a a) spirochete b) bacillus c) spirillum d) vibrio Answer: d Difficulty: Medium
.
Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1 Compare and contrast prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell types, describing typical sizes, shapes, and arrangements of bacterial cells. Section Reference 1: Section 4.2 Prokaryotic Cells
4) Which of the following statements about the prokaryotic cells surface-to-volume ratio is false? a) Because of their small size, bacteria have a small surface-to-volume ratio b) Eukaryotes have surface-to-volume ratio that is only 1/10 that of prokaryotes c) The prokaryotes surface-to-volume ratio means that nutrients can easily and quickly reach all parts of the cell as no internal part of the cell is very far from the surface. d) A bacteria with a surface area of about 12 microns squared and a volume of 4 cubic microns has a surface-to-volume ratio of 3:1 Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1 Compare and contrast prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell types, describing typical sizes, shapes, and arrangements of bacterial cells. Section Reference 1: Section 4.2 Prokaryotic Cells
5) While division in one plane produces cells in pairs, what does random division produce? a) Sarcinae b) Eight cells arranged in a cube c) Grapelike clusters (staphylo-) d) Four cells arranged in a cube Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1 Compare and contrast prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell types, describing typical sizes, shapes, and arrangements of bacterial cells. Section Reference 1: Section 4.2 Prokaryotic Cells
6) occurs when bacteria differ widely in form. a) Pleomorphism b) Polymorphism c) Anamorphism d) Telomorphism Answer: a Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1 Compare and contrast prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell types, describing typical sizes, shapes, and arrangements of bacterial cells. Section Reference 1: Section 4.2 Prokaryotic Cells
7) Which of the following is not found in bacterial cells? a) A cell membrane, usually surrounded by a cell wall b) An internal cytoplasm with ribosomes, a nuclear region and in some cases granules c) A variety of external structures, such as capsules, flagella and pili d) Respiratory enzymes contained in an internal structure surrounded by membranes Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1 Compare and contrast prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell types, describing typical sizes, shapes, and arrangements of bacterial cells. Section Reference 1: Section 4.2 Prokaryotic Cells
8) Which of the following cellular structures are found only in prokaryotic cells? a) endoplasmic reticulum b) pili c) nucleolus d) lysosomes Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1 Compare and contrast prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell types, describing typical sizes, shapes, and arrangements of bacterial cells. Section Reference 1: Section 4.2 Prokaryotic Cells
9) Extrachromosomal DNA in prokaryotic cells can be found in the form of a) chromosomes b) plasmids c) mitochondria d) chloroplasts Answer: b Difficulty: Easy
.
Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1 Compare and contrast prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell types, describing typical sizes, shapes, and arrangements of bacterial cells. Section Reference 1: Section 4.2 Prokaryotic Cells
10) Which of the following cellular structures can be found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells? a) Golgi apparatus b) lysosomes c) peroxisomes d) ribosomes Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1 Compare and contrast prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell types, describing typical sizes, shapes, and arrangements of bacterial cells. Section Reference 1: Section 4.2 Prokaryotic Cells
11) Coccus-shaped cells which divide along two planes will produce cells arranged into a) diplococci b) streptococci c) tetrads d) staphylococci Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1 Compare and contrast prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell types, describing typical sizes, shapes, and arrangements of bacterial cells. Section Reference 1: Section 4.2 Prokaryotic Cells
12) Prokaryotic cells divide by
.
a) mitosis b) binary fission c) meiosis d) mitosis asexually and meiosis sexually Answer: b Difficulty: Easy
.
Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1 Compare and contrast prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell types, describing typical sizes, shapes, and arrangements of bacterial cells. Section Reference 1: Section 4.2 Prokaryotic Cells
13) Bacilli produce fewer arrangements than cocci because
.
a) cocci are smaller than bacilli b) bacilli only reproduce asexually c) bacilli divide along several different planes while cocci divide along a single plane d) cocci divide along several different planes while bacilli divide along a single plane Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1 Compare and contrast prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell types, describing typical sizes, shapes, and arrangements of bacterial cells. Section Reference 1: Section 4.2 Prokaryotic Cells
14) The shape of a bacterial cell is determined (and maintained) by the
.
a) cell membrane b) cell wall c) capsule d) slime layer Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1 Compare and contrast prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell types, describing typical sizes, shapes, and arrangements of bacterial cells. Section Reference 1: Section 4.2 Prokaryotic Cells
15) The most important structural component of bacterial cell walls is a) teichoic acid b) lipotechoic acid c) peptidoglycan d) glutamic acid Answer: c Difficulty: Medium
.
Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1 Compare and contrast prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell types, describing typical sizes, shapes, and arrangements of bacterial cells. Section Reference 1: Section 4.2 Prokaryotic Cells
16) The outer (cell) membrane component of the cell wall
.
a) is found only in Gram positive bacteria b) is made primarily of peptidoglycan c) contains lipopolysaccharrides d) is primarily a reproductive structure Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1 Compare and contrast prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell types, describing typical sizes, shapes, and arrangements of bacterial cells. Section Reference 1: Section 4.2 Prokaryotic Cells
17) Removal of the cell wall of a Gram positive bacteria results in the formation of a a) protoplast b) spheroplast c) periplast d) polyplast Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1 Compare and contrast prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell types, describing typical sizes, shapes, and arrangements of bacterial cells. Section Reference 1: Section 4.2 Prokaryotic Cells
18) The periplasmic space is found
.
a) only in Gram positive organisms b) between the nuclear area and the cell membrane c) primarily in acid fast bacteria d) between the innercell membrane and outer cell wall membrane Answer: d Difficulty: Easy
.
Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1 Compare and contrast prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell types, describing typical sizes, shapes, and arrangements of bacterial cells. Section Reference 1: Section 4.2 Prokaryotic Cells
19) Mycolic acid would be found primarily in the cell wall of: a) Gram positive bacteria b) Gram negative bacteria c) Gram variable bacteria d) acid-fast bacteria Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1 Compare and contrast prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell types, describing typical sizes, shapes, and arrangements of bacterial cells. Section Reference 1: Section 4.2 Prokaryotic Cells
20) Peptidoglycan makes up more than 50% of a
cell wall.
a) Gram negative b) Gram positive c) Gram variable d) acid-fast Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1 Compare and contrast prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell types, describing typical sizes, shapes, and arrangements of bacterial cells. Section Reference 1: Section 4.2 Prokaryotic Cells
21) Which of the following is true about bacteria? a) All bacteria cells are smaller than 100 micrometers in diameter. b) The cell wall controls the movement of small molecules into and out of the cell. c) Gram negative bacteria become protoplasts when their cell wall is digested away. d) Bacterial endospores are reproductive structures. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1 Compare and contrast prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell types, describing typical sizes, shapes, and arrangements of bacterial cells. Section Reference 1: Section 4.2 Prokaryotic Cells
22) Penicillin controls the growth of bacteria by
.
a) destroying cell membranes b) preventing protein synthesis c) removing cell walls d) preventing peptidoglycan synthesis Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1 Compare and contrast prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell types, describing typical sizes, shapes, and arrangements of bacterial cells. Section Reference 1: Section 4.2 Prokaryotic Cells
23) Lysozyme, found in human tears, controls the growth of bacteria by
.
a) fusing with vacuoles b) containing multiple kinds of digestive enzymes c) digesting peptidoglycan d) preventing peptidoglycan synthesis Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1 Compare and contrast prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell types, describing typical sizes, shapes, and arrangements of bacterial cells. Section Reference 1: Section 4.2 Prokaryotic Cells
24) Which bacterial genus normally lacks a cell wall? a) Mycobacterium b) Streptococcus c) Mycoplasma d) Bacillus Answer: c Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1 Compare and contrast prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell types, describing typical sizes, shapes, and arrangements of bacterial cells. Section Reference 1: Section 4.2 Prokaryotic Cells
25) The Fluid-mosaic model describes the structure of
.
a) cell walls b) cell membranes d) capsules d) endosymbiotic relationships Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1 Compare and contrast prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell types, describing typical sizes, shapes, and arrangements of bacterial cells. Section Reference 1: Section 4.2 Prokaryotic Cells
26) The portion of the cell membrane functions as a barrier while the provides specific functions, including pumps, receptors, adhesion, etc.
portion
a) carbohydrate; nucleic acid b) lipid; protein c) lipid; carbohydrate d) nucleic acid; lipid Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1 Compare and contrast prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell types, describing typical sizes, shapes, and arrangements of bacterial cells. Section Reference 1: Section 4.2 Prokaryotic Cells
27) In bacteria, the cell membrane functions in the all of the following ways except: a) regulate movement of materials into and out of the cell b) synthesizes cell wall components c) serve as the site for protein synthesis d) assists with DNA replication Answer: c Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1 Compare and contrast prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell types, describing typical sizes, shapes, and arrangements of bacterial cells. Section Reference 1: Section 4.2 Prokaryotic Cells
28) The charged, phosphate end of a membrane phospholipid is: a) water-fearing b) hydrophilic c) hydrophobic d) none of the above Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1 Compare and contrast prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell types, describing typical sizes, shapes, and arrangements of bacterial cells. Section Reference 1: Section 4.2 Prokaryotic Cells
29) Bacterial ribosomes: a) have a sedimentation rate of 70S b) are made up of 30S and 40S subunits c) have a sedimentation rate of 80S d) are made up of 50S and 30S subunits Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1 Compare and contrast prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell types, describing typical sizes, shapes, and arrangements of bacterial cells. Section Reference 1: Section 4.2 Prokaryotic Cells
30) Genetic information in bacteria is: a) found in the nucleus b) found only in RNA c) found in DNA condensed by histones d) sometimes found in the form of plasmids Answer: d Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1 Compare and contrast prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell types, describing typical sizes, shapes, and arrangements of bacterial cells. Section Reference 1: Section 4.2 Prokaryotic Cells
31) Inclusions found in bacteria generally would not include: a) granules b) volutin c) metachromatic granules d) ribosomes Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1 Compare and contrast prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell types, describing typical sizes, shapes, and arrangements of bacterial cells. Section Reference 1: Section 4.2 Prokaryotic Cells
32) Endospores are typically found in the genus: a) Streptococcus b) Clostridium c) Mycobacterium d) Staphylococci Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1 Compare and contrast prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell types, describing typical sizes, shapes, and arrangements of bacterial cells. Section Reference 1: Section 4.2 Prokaryotic Cells
33) Endospores are usually induced to form when: a) temperatures rise b) certain nutrient are depleted c) radiation is detected d) water is lost from the cell Answer: b Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1 Compare and contrast prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell types, describing typical sizes, shapes, and arrangements of bacterial cells. Section Reference 1: Section 4.2 Prokaryotic Cells
34) Bacteria move by means of: a) cilia b) flagella c) fimbriae d) pili Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1 Compare and contrast prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell types, describing typical sizes, shapes, and arrangements of bacterial cells. Section Reference 1: Section 4.2 Prokaryotic Cells
35) Bacteria with flagella all over their surface are said to be: a) monotrichous b) peritrichous c) amphitrichous d) lophotrichous Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1 Compare and contrast prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell types, describing typical sizes, shapes, and arrangements of bacterial cells. Section Reference 1: Section 4.2 Prokaryotic Cells
36) Which of the following structures is not normally part of a bacterial flagellum? a) Hook b) Filament c) Basal body d) Anchor Answer: d Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1 Compare and contrast prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell types, describing typical sizes, shapes, and arrangements of bacterial cells. Section Reference 1: Section 4.2 Prokaryotic Cells
37) Some bacteria can transfer DNA to another cell using: a) conjugation pili b) fimbriae c) axial filaments d) lophotrichous flagella Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1 Compare and contrast prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell types, describing typical sizes, shapes, and arrangements of bacterial cells. Section Reference 1: Section 4.2 Prokaryotic Cells
38) Eukaryotic cells add rigidity to their plasma membrane by including what component in the membrane? a) Protein b) Lipids c) Sugars d) Sterols Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.2 Describe the organelles and motility structures commonly found in eukaryotic cells. Section Reference 1: Section 4.3 Eukaryotic Cells
39) Which of these statements about eukaryotic cell division is false? a) the nuclei of eukaryotic cells divide via the process of mitosis b) haploids are cells that receive only one chromosome from each pair of chromosomes c) a single round of mitosis results in the production of four haploid cells d) during mitosis the nuclear envelope breaks apart and the spindle apparatus forms Answer: c Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective 1: LO 4.2 Describe the organelles and motility structures commonly found in eukaryotic cells. Section Reference 1: Section 4.3 Eukaryotic Cells
40) Mitochondria: a) are responsible for converting sunlight to chemical energy b) are present only in photosynthetic organisms c) have a double membrane d) are responsible for protein synthesis Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.2 Describe the organelles and motility structures commonly found in eukaryotic cells. Section Reference 1: Section 4.3 Eukaryotic Cells
41) Which of the following is responsible for converting sunlight into chemical energy? a) Chromatophores b) Chloroplasts c) Endoplasmic reticulum d) Two of the above Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 4.2 Describe the organelles and motility structures commonly found in eukaryotic cells. Section Reference 1: Section 4.3 Eukaryotic Cells
42) The rough endoplasmic reticulum appears rough because of a) sterols in its membrane b) fats and sugars on its surface c) multiple ribosomes on its surface d) proteins in the lumen of the ER Answer: c Difficulty: Medium
.
Learning Objective 1: LO 4.2 Describe the organelles and motility structures commonly found in eukaryotic cells. Section Reference 1: Section 4.3 Eukaryotic Cells
43) The cytoskeleton consists of
.
a) microfilaments and sterols b) microtubules and proteins c) microfilaments and microtubules d) sterols and proteins Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.2 Describe the organelles and motility structures commonly found in eukaryotic cells. Section Reference 1: Section 4.3 Eukaryotic Cells
44) Which of the following statements about the endosymbiotic hypothesis is false? a) Eukaryotic cells have both 70S and 80S ribosomes. b) Mitochondria have their own DNA. c) When removed from cells, mitochondria continue to grow and divide. d) Mitochondria are about the same size as prokaryotic cells. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.3 Explain the evidence for the endosymbiosis theory. Section Reference 1: Section 4.4 Evolution by Endosymbiosis
45) During diffusion, molecules
.
a) move from hotter areas to cooler areas b) move from areas of higher concentration to areas of lower concentration c) move from areas of lower concentration to areas of higher concentration d) expend energy to more around Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4 Describe ways in which molecules may move across a semipermeable membrane and the phenomena of endocytosis and exocytosis.
Section Reference 1: Section 4.5 The Movement of Substances Across Membranes
46) A charged molecule which moves down its concentration gradient and across a pore in a cell membrane without energy being expended by the cell is experiencing . a) simple diffusion b) osmosis c) active transport d) facilitated diffusion Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4 Describe ways in which molecules may move across a semipermeable membrane and the phenomena of endocytosis and exocytosis. Section Reference 1: Section 4.5 The Movement of Substances Across Membranes
47) Osmosis most directly involves: a) water moving down a concentration gradient b) organic molecules crossing a membrane c) energy being expended to import large molecules into the cell d) sugars and salts moving down their concentration gradient Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4 Describe ways in which molecules may move across a semipermeable membrane and the phenomena of endocytosis and exocytosis. Section Reference 1: Section 4.5 The Movement of Substances Across Membranes
48) When the fluid within a cell has a higher concentration of dissolved substances than the fluid surrounding the cell, we say the fluid surrounding the cell is . a) hypertonic b) isotonic c) superhypertonic d) hypotonic Answer: d Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4 Describe ways in which molecules may move across a semipermeable membrane and the phenomena of endocytosis and exocytosis. Section Reference 1: Section 4.5 The Movement of Substances Across Membranes
49) A typical bacterial cell has a salt concentration of about 1%. If the cell is placed in a solution containing 10% salt, the net flow of water will be . a) out of the cell b) into the cell c) equally in and out of the cell d) none of the above since water doesn’t cross bacterial cell membranes Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4 Describe ways in which molecules may move across a semipermeable membrane and the phenomena of endocytosis and exocytosis. Section Reference 1: Section 4.5 The Movement of Substances Across Membranes
50) Which of the following statements about cell walls is false? a) All bacterial cell walls contain teichoic acids. b) Plants and fungi have cell walls. c) Bacteria which have lost their cell wall are known as L-forms. d) Algal protists have cell walls. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.2 Describe the organelles and motility structures commonly found in eukaryotic cells. Section Reference 1: Section 4.3 Eukaryotic Cells
51) Which of the following statements about outer membranes is true? a) It contains an endotoxin (lipopolysaccharide) which is responsible for fever and potentially serious complications in human infections. b) It prevents the cell from lysing when fluids flow into the cell. c) Treatment with antibiotics which kill the bacteria will reduce the concentration of endotoxin. d) It is a space that is very active in cell metabolism Answer: a
Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1 Compare and contrast prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell types, describing typical sizes, shapes, and arrangements of bacterial cells. Section Reference 1: Section 4.2 Prokaryotic Cells
52) Which is the correct ordering of cell wall components starting from outside the cell and going inward? a) In gram positive bacteria: peptidoglycan, cell membrane b) In gram negative bacteria: peptidoglycan, lipopolysaccharide, periplasmic space, outer membrane, cell membrane c) In acid fast bacteria: peptidoglycan, lipid layer, cell membrane d) In gram negative bacteria: peptidoglycan, periplasmic space, lipid membrane Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1 Compare and contrast prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell types, describing typical sizes, shapes, and arrangements of bacterial cells. Section Reference 1: Section 4.2 Prokaryotic Cells
53) Which of the following statements about motility is false? a) Chemotaxis is the movement of bacteria toward or away from a chemical. b) Pseudopodia are associated with fungi. c) Bacteria use helical flagellar movements to orient towards external signals. d) Pseudopodia are temporary projections of cytoplasm. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1 Compare and contrast prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell types, describing typical sizes, shapes, and arrangements of bacterial cells.; LO 4.2 Describe the organelles and motility structures commonly found in eukaryotic cells. Section Reference 1: Section 4.2 Prokaryotic Cells; Section 4.3 Eukaryotic Cells
54) What is the function of gas-filled vacuoles in aquatic photosynthetic bacteria? a) transducers to detect chemicals and signal the cells to respond b) regulate the depth at which they float by changing amount of gas in vacuoles c) change the handedness of the helix in which the bacteria is moving d) allows the bacteria to respond to magnetic fields
Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1 Compare and contrast prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell types, describing typical sizes, shapes, and arrangements of bacterial cells. Section Reference 1: Section 4.2 Prokaryotic Cells
55) Attachment pili do all of the following except, a) help bacteria adhere to surfaces b) allow bacteria to form a pellicle at the air-water interface of a broth culture c) clump blood cells in a process called hemagglutination d) prevent the pathogenicity of certain bacteria Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1 Compare and contrast prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell types, describing typical sizes, shapes, and arrangements of bacterial cells. Section Reference 1: Section 4.2 Prokaryotic Cells
56) Which of the following statements is false? a) All bacteria are capable of forming capsules. b) The chemical composition of each capsule is unique to a particular strain of bacteria. c) Slime layers are usually thinner than capsules. d) A slime layer protects bacteria against drying and helps trap nutrients near a cell. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1 Compare and contrast prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell types, describing typical sizes, shapes, and arrangements of bacterial cells. Section Reference 1: Section 4.2 Prokaryotic Cells
57) Endocytosis: a) releases material in the form of phagosomes. b) is the process of taking materials into the cell. c) directs material to the endoplasmic reticulum. d) uses simple diffusion move material across the plasma membrane. Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4 Describe ways in which molecules may move across a semipermeable membrane and the phenomena of endocytosis and exocytosis. Section Reference 1: Section 4.5 The Movement of Substances Across Membranes
58) This type of cell is a
.
a) prokaryote. b) eukaryote. c) Both A and B are correct d) Neither A nor B are correct Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1 Compare and contrast prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell types, describing typical sizes, shapes, and arrangements of bacterial cells. Section Reference 1: Section 4.2 Prokaryotic Cells Wall and “D” for Cell Membrane; Remove leader lines for all remaining structures] 59) This structure can be Gram positive or Gram negative.
a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1 Compare and contrast prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell types, describing typical sizes, shapes, and arrangements of bacterial cells. Section Reference 1: Section 4.2 Prokaryotic Cells
60) The flagellar arrangement represented in this image is
.
a) monotrichous b) peritrichous c) amphitrichous d) lophotrichous Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1 Compare and contrast prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell types, describing typical sizes, shapes, and arrangements of bacterial cells. Section Reference 1: Section 4.2 Prokaryotic Cells
Question Type: Essay
61) Give examples of microorganisms that are prokaryotes and eukaryotes. What microorganism does not fit in either category? Describe three differences between prokaryotes and eukaryotes. Answer: Prokaryotes include bacteria. Eukaryotes that are microorganisms include protists (e.g., Amoeba, Paramecium and malaria parasites) and fungi. Both viruses and prions do not fit in either category. There are three important differences between eukaryotes and prokaryotes. First, in eukaryotes, DNA is in a nucleus (surrounded by a nuclear envelope), in prokaryotes it is found in a region
but is not in an membrane envelope. Eukaryotes also have organelles (membrane enclosed), which prokaryotes lack. Prokaryotes divide by mitosis, while eukaryotes can divide by both mitosis and meiosis. Other more minor differences include the presence of paired chromosomes, histones, miotic spindle, cytoskeleton and cilia in eukaryotes and the presence of pili in prokayotes. In addition the composition and structure of cell walls, ribosomes, and membranes differ. Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1 Compare and contrast prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell types, describing typical sizes, shapes, and arrangements of bacterial cells. Section Reference 1: Section 4.2 Prokaryotic Cells
62) What supports the idea that prokaryotes were involved in the evolution of eukaryotes by means of endosymbiosis? Answer: Evidence supporting the idea that prokaryotes were involved in the evolution of eukaryotes comes from the similarity of eukaryotic organelles to prokaryotes and the frequency of endosymbiosis between prokaryotes and eukaryotes in the natural world. Eukaryotic organelles such as mitochondria and chloroplasts are: the same size as prokaryotes; have their own DNA (whose sequence shows significant homology to the DNA sequences of certain modern prokaryotes), 70Sribosomes and membranes with the same structure as prokaryotes. Protein synthesis within these organelles is carried out like prokaryotes and is inhibited by antibiotics. Organellar DNA division by binary fission is independent of the eukaryotic cell cycle. In addition, there are many present day examples of bacteria living endosymbiotically in eukaryotes and in many of these examples the bacteria perform metabolic functions (similar to mitochondria) or other functions (motility) in exchange for nutrients. This provides mechanistic evidence for the endocytotic function occurring in ages past. Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.3 Explain the evidence for the endosymbiosis theory. Section Reference 1: Section 4.4 Evolution by Endosymbiosis
63) Three bags, permeable to water but not salt, are placed in beakers containing an isotonic, hypotonic and hypertonic solution. Describe how you could determine which beaker was which. If the bag were a cell what would happen to it if it was placed in each beaker. Answer: The concentration of the dissolved material in the environment compared to the concentration dissolved inside the bag will determine in which direction the water will flow. Water will flow from an area of greater concentration of water to one of lower water concentration (e.g., down a concentration gradient). If there is no water flow, the beaker is isotonic as the bag and environment have the same concentration so there would be equal flow into and out of the bag. If the water flows into the bag, the solution is hypotonic. If the water flows out of the bag the solution is hypertonic.
In the isotonic solution was nothing would happen to the cell. In the hypotonic solution the cell would gain water, swell and may burst. In the hypertonic solution the cell will lose water and shrink. Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4 Describe ways in which molecules may move across a semipermeable membrane and the phenomena of endocytosis and exocytosis. Section Reference 1: Section 4.5 The Movement of Substances Across Membranes
Chapter 6: Essential Concepts of Metabolism
Question Type: Multiple Choice
1) The synthesis of DNA, in which small nucleotides are joined together to make a single large molecule would be most correctly described as being a/n reaction. a) metabolic b) anabolic c) catabolic d) cytobolic Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1 Explain how anabolism and catabolism are interrelated and metabolic processes that occur in cells. Section Reference 1: Section 5.1 Metabolism: An Overview
2) Oxidation is defined as the
while reduction is the
.
a) gain of electrons, loss of protons b) loss of electrons, gain of protons c) loss of electrons, gain of electrons d) loss of protons, gain of protons Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1 Explain how anabolism and catabolism are interrelated and metabolic processes that occur in cells. Section Reference 1: Section 5.1 Metabolism: An Overview
3) Photoautotrophs obtain energy from: a) light and use carbon dioxide as a carbon source b) organic molecules and use carbon dioxide as a carbon source c) inorganic substances and use carbon dioxide as a carbon source d) light and use organic substances as a carbon source Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1 Explain how anabolism and catabolism are interrelated and metabolic processes that occur in cells. Section Reference 1: Section 5.1 Metabolism: An Overview
4) Organisms which get their carbon from other organisms are: a) autotrophs b) chemotrophs c) phototrophs d) heterotrophs Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1 Explain how anabolism and catabolism are interrelated and metabolic processes that occur in cells. Section Reference 1: Section 5.1 Metabolism: An Overview
5) Animals (humans for example) are: a) photoautotrophs b) photheterotrophs c) chemoautotrophs d) chemoheterotrophs Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1 Explain how anabolism and catabolism are interrelated and metabolic processes that occur in cells. Section Reference 1: Section 5.1 Metabolism: An Overview
6) Degradation reactions where large molecules are broken down into smaller molecule is referred to as: a) metabolism b) catabolism c) biosynthesis d) anabolism Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1 Explain how anabolism and catabolism are interrelated and metabolic processes that occur in cells. Section Reference 1: Section 5.1 Metabolism: An Overview
7) Chemoautotrophic bacteria obtain the energy they need from: a) the reactions of photosynthesis b) sunlight c) carbon dioxide in the atmosphere d) chemical reactions in their cytoplasm centered around the use of inorganic substances Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1 Explain how anabolism and catabolism are interrelated and metabolic processes that occur in cells. Section Reference 1: Section 5.1 Metabolism: An Overview
8) Enzymes work by: a) lowering the energy of the reactants. b) raising the energy of the products. c) decreasing the activation energy of the reaction. d) increasing the activation energy of the reaction. Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Describe the structure and properties of enzymes. Section Reference 1: Section 5.2 Enzymes 9) An enzyme-substrate complex forms when substrate binds to an enzyme at the enzyme’s site. a) catalytic b) allosteric c) operative d) active Answer: d Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Describe the structure and properties of enzymes. Section Reference 1: Section 5.2 Enzymes
10) A holoenzyme consists of: a) an apoenzyme plus a cofactor b) an apoenzyme plus a coenzyme c) an protein and non-protein component d) all of the above Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Describe the structure and properties of enzymes. Section Reference 1: Section 5.2 Enzymes
11) Which statement is true about enzymes? a) Enzyme catalyzed reactions would not go forward without their specific enzymes. b) Most enzymes catalyze several different reactions. c) Coenzymes are organic molecules while cofactors are inorganic molecules. d) An apoenzyme is a holoenzyme that is missing its cofactor. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Describe the structure and properties of enzymes. Section Reference 1: Section 5.2 Enzymes
12) Competitive inhibition of enzymes occurs when the inhibitor: a) binds to the active site of the enzyme. b) binds to the allosteric site of the enzyme. c) inhibitor changes the shape of the enzyme. d) inhibitor is acted upon by the enzyme. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3 Describe competitive and noncompetitive enzyme inhibition and as well as other physical factors that can influence reaction rates. Section Reference 1: Section 5.3 Enzyme Inhibition
13) Sulfa drugs bind to the active site of the enzyme which normally converts para-amino benzoic acid (PABA) to folic acid, preventing the production of folic acid and, eventually purine synthesis. In this case, the sulfa drug is acting as a/an: a) allosteric inhibitor b) competitive inhibitor c) noncompetitive inhibitor d) uncompetitive inhibitor Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3 Describe competitive and noncompetitive enzyme inhibition and as well as other physical factors that can influence reaction rates. Section Reference 1: Section 5.3 Enzyme Inhibition
14) Factors that affect the rate of enzyme catalyzed reactions include: a) temperature b) pH c) concentration of enzyme d) all of the above Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3 Describe competitive and noncompetitive enzyme inhibition and as well as other physical factors that can influence reaction rates. Section Reference 1: Section 5.3 Enzyme Inhibition
15) Which of the following statements about enzyme inhibition is true? a) Most noncompetitive inhibitors bind to several different sites on an enzyme. b) Enzymes become less efficient as temperatures drop because they begin to denature. c) Noncompetitive inhibitors bind to a site other than the active site. d) Most human enzymes have an optimum temperature below normal body temperature. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3 Describe competitive and noncompetitive enzyme inhibition and as well as other physical factors that can influence reaction rates. Section Reference 1: Section 5.3 Enzyme Inhibition
16) How does concentration affect enzyme-catalyzed reactions? a) As the concentration of the product goes up the enzyme increases the rate it produces the product. b) Concentration does not affect enzyme-catalyzed reactions because they are irreversible. c) At chemical equilibrium, no net change in the concentration of the product or substrate occurs. d) The quantity of enzyme available usually controls the rate of a metabolic reaction. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3 Describe competitive and noncompetitive enzyme inhibition and as well as other physical factors that can influence reaction rates. Section Reference 1: Section 5.3 Enzyme Inhibition
17) Which one of the following pairs is mismatched? a) Alcohol - Fermentation b) Pyruvate - Glycolysis c) Carbon dioxide - Glycolysis d) Oxaloacetic acid - Krebs cycle Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.4 Examine anaerobic biochemical pathways within the cell in terms of their substrates, products, and energy yields. Section Reference 1: Section 5.4 Anaerobic Metabolism: Glycolysis and Fermentation
18) Which of the following is not a carrier molecule that carries hydrogen atoms or electrons in oxidative reactions? a) Cytochrome b) FAD c) Niacin d) NAD+ Answer: c Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective 1: LO 5.5 Compare the energy yield from aerobic respiration with that of fermentation through a description of the Krebs cycle, the electron transport chain, and chemiosmosis. Section Reference 1: Section 5.5 Aerobic Metabolism: Respiration
19) In glycolysis, each molecule of glucose eventually produces acid.
molecules of pyruvic
a) one b) two c) three d) four Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.4 Examine anaerobic biochemical pathways within the cell in terms of their substrates, products, and energy yields. Section Reference 1: Section 5.4 Anaerobic Metabolism: Glycolysis and Fermentation
20) Substrate level phosphorylation during glycolysis refers to the transfer of phosphate groups from: a) ATP to glucose b) 1,3 diphosphoglyceric acid to ADP c) phosphoenolpyruvic acid to ADP d) ATP to ADP Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.4 Examine anaerobic biochemical pathways within the cell in terms of their substrates, products, and energy yields. Section Reference 1: Section 5.4 Anaerobic Metabolism: Glycolysis and Fermentation
21) Which of the following is true about glycolysis? a) The net yield of ATP is two ATPs for each molecule of glucose. b) It provides cells with a relatively large amount of energy. c) Four molecules of ATP are used in the initial phosphorylation steps. d) The ATP that is used up during glycolysis is not considered in calculating the net yield of ATP.
Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.4 Examine anaerobic biochemical pathways within the cell in terms of their substrates, products, and energy yields. Section Reference 1: Section 5.4 Anaerobic Metabolism: Glycolysis and Fermentation
22) During glycolysis, electrons are initially transferred to: a) NAD+ b) FAD c) NADP d) H2O Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.4 Examine anaerobic biochemical pathways within the cell in terms of their substrates, products, and energy yields. Section Reference 1: Section 5.4 Anaerobic Metabolism: Glycolysis and Fermentation
23) The end product of glycolysis is: a) fructose-1,6-diphosphate b) 1,3 diphosphoglyceric acid c) phosphoenolpyruvic acid d) pyruvic acid Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.4 Examine anaerobic biochemical pathways within the cell in terms of their substrates, products, and energy yields. Section Reference 1: Section 5.4 Anaerobic Metabolism: Glycolysis and Fermentation
24) Pyruvic acid is metabolized in the absence of oxygen during the process of: a) glycolysis b) fermentation c) oxidation d) dark reactions Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.4 Examine anaerobic biochemical pathways within the cell in terms of their substrates, products, and energy yields. Section Reference 1: Section 5.4 Anaerobic Metabolism: Glycolysis and Fermentation
25) Organisms that can use oxygen for metabolic reactions but can also function in an environment devoid of oxygen are termed . a) aerobes b) anaerobes c) aerophiles d) facultative anaerobes Answer: d Difficulty: Medium (this is from Ch. 6, I suggest omitting it)) Learning Objective 1: LO 5.4 Examine anaerobic biochemical pathways within the cell in terms of their substrates, products, and energy yields. Section Reference 1: Section 5.4 Anaerobic Metabolism: Glycolysis and Fermentation
26) In fermentation reactions occurring in yeast to produce wine, two products of the reaction are and . a) acid; hydrogen gas b) hydrogen gas; propionic acid c) ethyl alcohol; methane d) carbon dioxide; ethyl alcohol Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.4 Examine anaerobic biochemical pathways within the cell in terms of their substrates, products, and energy yields. Section Reference 1: Section 5.4 Anaerobic Metabolism: Glycolysis and Fermentation
27) All of the following are electron acceptors for anaerobic respiration, except: a) carbon dioxide b) oxygen c) nitrate ions d) sulfate ions
Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.5 Compare the energy yield from aerobic respiration with that of fermentation through a description of the Krebs cycle, the electron transport chain, and chemiosmosis. Section Reference 1: Section 5.5 Aerobic Metabolism: Respiration
28) Which statement about fermentation is true? a) All fermentation of pyruvic acid always results in the same end product. b) All fermentation of glucose begins with pyruvic acid as a substrate. c) The same fermentation reaction produces both wine and cheese. d) None of the above Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.4 Examine anaerobic biochemical pathways within the cell in terms of their substrates, products, and energy yields. Section Reference 1: Section 5.4 Anaerobic Metabolism: Glycolysis and Fermentation
29) The initial substrate molecule for the Krebs cycle is: a) pyruvic acid b) acetyl-CoA c) acetic acid d) butanediol Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.5 Compare the energy yield from aerobic respiration with that of fermentation through a description of the Krebs cycle, the electron transport chain, and chemiosmosis. Section Reference 1: Section 5.5 Aerobic Metabolism: Respiration
30) The electrons transferred from acetyl groups in the Krebs cycle are transferred to: a) NAD+ only b) FAD only c) neither NAD+ and FAD d) both NAD+ and FAD
Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.5 Compare the energy yield from aerobic respiration with that of fermentation through a description of the Krebs cycle, the electron transport chain, and chemiosmosis. Section Reference 1: Section 5.5 Aerobic Metabolism: Respiration
31) Each acetyl-CoA molecule will eventually produce
in the Krebs cycle.
a) four pairs of electrons b) three molecules of NADH c) one molecule of GTP d) all of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.5 Compare the energy yield from aerobic respiration with that of fermentation through a description of the Krebs cycle, the electron transport chain, and chemiosmosis. Section Reference 1: Section 5.5 Aerobic Metabolism: Respiration
32) In the electron transport chain, the energy to make ATP comes directly from
.
a) FAD b) NADH c) both FAD and NADH d) neither FAD nor NADH Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.5 Compare the energy yield from aerobic respiration with that of fermentation through a description of the Krebs cycle, the electron transport chain, and chemiosmosis. Section Reference 1: Section 5.5 Aerobic Metabolism: Respiration
33) In aerobic respiration, the final electron acceptor is: a) water b) oxygen
c) sulfur d) coenzyme Q Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.5 Compare the energy yield from aerobic respiration with that of fermentation through a description of the Krebs cycle, the electron transport chain, and chemiosmosis. Section Reference 1: Section 5.5 Aerobic Metabolism: Respiration
34) The prokaryotic aerobic metabolism of glucose produces a total (net) of of ATP.
molecules
a) 24 b) 30 c) 34 d) 38 Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.5 Compare the energy yield from aerobic respiration with that of fermentation through a description of the Krebs cycle, the electron transport chain, and chemiosmosis. Section Reference 1: Section 5.5 Aerobic Metabolism: Respiration
35) Which reaction takes place in the mitochondrial membrane? a) Glycolysis b) Fermentation c) Krebs cycle d) Electron transport chain Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.5 Compare the energy yield from aerobic respiration with that of fermentation through a description of the Krebs cycle, the electron transport chain, and chemiosmosis. Section Reference 1: Section 5.5 Aerobic Metabolism: Respiration
36) Electron transport chain:
a) involves transfer of O2 to electrons in the substrate b) results in a net consumption of ATP c) can be thought of as electrons acting as fish increasing in energy as they jump up a waterfall d) none of the above Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.5 Compare the energy yield from aerobic respiration with that of fermentation through a description of the Krebs cycle, the electron transport chain, and chemiosmosis. Section Reference 1: Section 5.5 Aerobic Metabolism: Respiration
37) Chemiosmosis: a) forms ATP b) occurs in the cell membrane of prokaryotes c) uses a proton gradient to activate ATP synthase d) all the above Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.5 Compare the energy yield from aerobic respiration with that of fermentation through a description of the Krebs cycle, the electron transport chain, and chemiosmosis. Section Reference 1: Section 5.5 Aerobic Metabolism: Respiration
38) How is ATP formed by chemiosmosis? a) Charge difference of outer and inner membrane gives motive force to generate ATP b) Nitrates are used as their final electron acceptor c) The last step involves H2O to be split into O2 d) All of the metabolites enter the Krebs cycle Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.5 Compare the energy yield from aerobic respiration with that of fermentation through a description of the Krebs cycle, the electron transport chain, and chemiosmosis. Section Reference 1: Section 5.5 Aerobic Metabolism: Respiration
39) During the metabolism of fats, the product of beta-oxidation enters: a) glycolysis b) Krebs cycle c) oxidative phosphorylation d) electron transport chain Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.6 Describe how the energy of lipid and protein molecules can be extracted using the carbohydrate catabolism pathways described in this chapter. Section Reference 1: Section 5.6 The Metabolism of Fats and Proteins
40) The first step in protein metabolism is the breakdown of proteins into: a) nucleotides b) fatty acids c) amino acids d) coenzymes Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.6 Describe how the energy of lipid and protein molecules can be extracted using the carbohydrate catabolism pathways described in this chapter. Section Reference 1: Section 5.6 The Metabolism of Fats and Proteins
41) Glucose is to photosynthesis as pyruvate is to: a) oxidative phosphorylation b) glycolysis c) fermentation d) Krebs cycle Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.6 Describe how the energy of lipid and protein molecules can be extracted using the carbohydrate catabolism pathways described in this chapter. Section Reference 1: Section 5.6 The Metabolism of Fats and Proteins
42) The green sulfur and purple sulfur bacteria are capable of:
a) carrying out photosynthesis b) only obtaining energy from organic molecules c) bypassing glycolysis for the Krebs cycle d) metabolizing without enzymes Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.7 Discuss the energy capture pathways used by photoautotrophs, chemoautotrophs, and photoheterotrophs. Section Reference 1: Section 5.7 Other Metabolic Processes
43) In photosynthesis, light energy is used to: a) break down proteins b) phosphorylate ADP to form ATP c) synthesize carbohydrates d) two of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.7 Discuss the energy capture pathways used by photoautotrophs, chemoautotrophs, and photoheterotrophs. Section Reference 1: Section 5.7 Other Metabolic Processes
44) In photosynthesis, chemical energy is used to make organic molecules in the: a) light reaction b) dark reaction c) hydrolytic reaction d) photophosphorylation reaction Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.7 Discuss the energy capture pathways used by photoautotrophs, chemoautotrophs, and photoheterotrophs. Section Reference 1: Section 5.7 Other Metabolic Processes
45) In algae, the dark reactions of photosynthesis occur in the:
a) cell membrane b) matrix of the mitochondria c) stroma of the chloroplast d) nucleus Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.7 Discuss the energy capture pathways used by photoautotrophs, chemoautotrophs, and photoheterotrophs. Section Reference 1: Section 5.7 Other Metabolic Processes
46) What is returned to chlorophyll in cyclic photophosphorylation that is not returned in noncyclic photoreduction? a) ATP b) Light c) Energy d) Electrons Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.7 Discuss the energy capture pathways used by photoautotrophs, chemoautotrophs, and photoheterotrophs. Section Reference 1: Section 5.7 Other Metabolic Processes
47) A metabolic pathway that is involved in both breakdown and synthetic reactions is properly termed . a) catabolic b) amphibolic c) metabolic d) anabolic Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.8 Identify some of the important cellular processes that require energy. Section Reference 1: Section 5.8 The Uses of Energy
48) The initial breakdown of glucose in a eukaryotic cell takes place in the
.
a) cytoplasm b) golgi c) nucleus d) cell membranes Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.8 Identify some of the important cellular processes that require energy. Section Reference 1: Section 5.8 The Uses of Energy
49) A surfactant: a) lowers the surface tension at the bacterium’s posterior end allowing Myxococcus to glide b) is metabolized to produce phosphoenolpyruvate c) forms channels thorugh the outer membrane d) emits light as it returns to its unexcited state Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.8 Identify some of the important cellular processes that require energy. Section Reference 1: Section 5.8 The Uses of Energy
50) Bioluminescent microbes: a) may have evolved to remove oxygen from the atmosphere b) are often beneficiaries of symbiotic relationships with a larger host, producing light in exchange for nutrients c) often have the enzyme luciferase which catalyzes the oxidation reaction that emits light d) all of the above Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.8 Identify some of the important cellular processes that require energy. Section Reference 1: Section 5.8 The Uses of Energy
51) At which temperature do enzymes begin to denature?
a) 20 degrees Celsius b) 30 degrees Celsius c) 40 degrees Celsius d) 50 degrees Celsius Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3 Describe competitive and noncompetitive enzyme inhibition and as well as other physical factors that can influence reaction rates. Section Reference 1: Section 5.3 Enzyme Inhibition
52) As electrons are passed from carrier to carrier, their energy changes. At which point in the chain, would you expect the energy of the electrons to be the lowest?
a) A b) G c) C d) F e) E Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.5 Compare the energy yield from aerobic respiration with that of fermentation through a description of the Krebs cycle, the electron transport chain, and chemiosmosis. Section Reference 1: Section 5.5 Aerobic Metabolism: Respiration
53) As electrons are passed from carrier to carrier, their energy changes. At which point in the chain, would you expect the energy of the electrons to be the highest?
a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.5 Compare the energy yield from aerobic respiration with that of fermentation through a description of the Krebs cycle, the electron transport chain, and chemiosmosis. Section Reference 1: Section 5.5 Aerobic Metabolism: Respiration
Question Type: Essay
54) Describe the chemical characteristics of enzymes and indicate why they are important in the metabolism of large molecules and how they determine which metabolic pathways occur in a cell. Answer: Enzymes are proteins that catalyze chemical reactions by lowering the activation energy needed for a reaction to occur. They have an active site, where the binding of the substrate attaches and which shows a high degree of specificity. In addition, enzymes are not consumed in the reactions that they catalyze, allowing enzymes to continually catalyze reactions as long as the substrate is present and the conditions remain favorable. Almost all processes in a cell need enzymes in order to accelerate the rate of the reactions. This is particularly true of the metabolism of large molecules. Other molecules (such as inhibitors, coenzymes, cofactors) along with the temperature and the amount of substrate available, can affect enzyme activity. Because enzymes are extremely selective for their substrates and speed up only a few reactions from among many possibilities, the set of enzymes present in a cell helps determine which metabolic pathways are active at any time within a cell. Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Describe the structure and properties of enzymes. Section Reference 1: Section 5.2 Enzymes
55) Compare anaerobic and anaerobic respiration in terms of energy yields and reactants within the pathways. Anaerobic respiration and fermentation are both pathways that may occur in the absence of oxygen. Which confers a greater advantage to the cell? Why is the less advantageous pathway in existence within cells at all?” Answer:. Aerobic and anaerobic respiration differ in their final electron acceptors. Aerobic respiration uses oxygen while other forms of anaerobic respiration uses inorganic molecules (such as nitrate, nitrite and sulfate). The energy yield of aerobic respiration is somewhat higher than that of aerobic respiration due to differing electron carriers within the electron transport chain. Both these pathways yield large quantities of ATP while fermentation yields none. Fermentation is not a form of respiration since respiration is a pathway characterized by the activities of the Krebs cycle to oxidize carbon skeletons and an electron transport chain to extract the energy from high energy electron carriers such as NADH and FADH2Fermentation is a contingency pathway, allowing cells that lack the genes encoding for respiration enzymes and carriers to reoxidize NADH and make NAD+ available to drive glycolysis.. They will at least allow glycolysis to continue to supply the cell with small amounts of energy.. In addition, a wide range of carbohydrates and proteins can serve as substrates for microbial fermentation, which allows for microorganisms that ferment access to a wide variety of catabolic options. Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 5.4 Examine anaerobic biochemical pathways within the cell in terms of their substrates, products, and energy yields. LO 5.5 Compare the energy yield from aerobic
respiration with that of fermentation through a description of the Krebs cycle, the electron transport chain, and chemiosmosis. Section Reference 1: Section 5.4 Anaerobic Metabolism: Glycolysis and Fermentation; Section 5.5 Aerobic Metabolism: Respiration
56) What are chemoheterotrophs and how do they obtain energy? Name and describe two other ways microorganisms obtain energy. Why do you think so many different ways of obtaining energy evolved? Answer: Chemoheterotrophs derive energy from organic molecules that they ingest, as they are dependent on others to make the molecules. Other ways to obtain energy include photoautotrophy, photoheterotrophy, and chemoautotrophy. Photoautotrophs obtain energy by using light energy to synthesize carbohydrates from inorganic carbon sources. Photoheterotrophy also uses sunlight as a source of energy but in this case the microbes require organic compounds as sources of carbon. Chemoautotrophic bacteria are unable to carry out photosynthesis but instead oxidize inorganic substances (such as nitrogen compounds, sulfur, iron and hydrogen) for energy and also utilize inorganic carbon sources for anabolism. Many different metabolic lifestyles evolved because competition is fiercest between organisms that are dependent on the same nutrients. This can be explained through either competitive exclusion or niche expansion. In competitive exclusion, when any two organisms are dependent on the same nutrient and live in the same environment, eventually the more efficient consumer of that nutrient will drive the other to extinction. Another way to explain why there are so many lifestyles is to consider the lack of competition that an organism encounters when they alone are able to metabolize a particular nutrient. For example if many organisms encounter a location with some glucose and lots of nitrogen, then while all the other organisms are competing to secure the available glucose the organism that can use the nitrogen will be the most fit. Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.7 Discuss the energy capture pathways used by photoautotrophs, chemoautotrophs, and photoheterotrophs. Section Reference 1: Section 5.7 Other Metabolic Processes
Chapter 7: Growth and Culturing of Bacteria
Question Type: Multiple Choice
1) Most bacteria reproduce by: a) sexual reproduction b) binary fission c) budding d) homologous recombination Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1 Discuss what is meant by “growth” when referring to microbes and the ways in which it can be measured. Section Reference 1: Section 6.1 Growth and Cell Division
2) The type of cell reproduction in which a small, new cell develops from the surface of an existing cell and then separates from the parent cell is known as and is the normal mode of replication in . a) binary fission, bacteria b) binary fission, yeast c) budding, bacteria d) budding, yeast Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1 Discuss what is meant by “growth” when referring to microbes and the ways in which it can be measured. Section Reference 1: Section 6.1 Growth and Cell Division
3) When a bacterial cell divides into two new cells, the new cells are called: a) daughter cells b) sister cells c) son cells d) father cells Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1 Discuss what is meant by “growth” when referring to microbes and the ways in which it can be measured. Section Reference 1: Section 6.1 Growth and Cell Division
4) Microbial growth: a) refers to the increase in the size of a microbial cell b) refers to the increase in the frequency of cell division c) in a single generation time leads to double the cell size d) in a single generation time leads to double the number of microbes. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1 Discuss what is meant by “growth” when referring to microbes and the ways in which it can be measured. Section Reference 1: Section 6.1 Growth and Cell Division
5) Which of the following is not one of the phases of bacterial growth? a) Lag phase b) Stationary phase c) Doubling phase d) Log phase Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1 Discuss what is meant by “growth” when referring to microbes and the ways in which it can be measured. Section Reference 1: Section 6.1 Growth and Cell Division
6) A bacterial population grows most rapidly during a) lag b) log c) stationary d) death Answer: b
phase.
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1 Discuss what is meant by “growth” when referring to microbes and the ways in which it can be measured. Section Reference 1: Section 6.1 Growth and Cell Division
7) In the stationary phase of bacterial growth: a) the number of newly generated cells is greater than the number of dying cells b) the number of newly generated cells is less than the number of dying cells c) the number of newly generated cells is the same as the number of dying cells d) none of the above Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1 Discuss what is meant by “growth” when referring to microbes and the ways in which it can be measured. Section Reference 1: Section 6.1 Growth and Cell Division
8) A bacterial culture can be kept in the log phase of growth indefinitely with the help of a/an: a) incubator b) chemostat c) spectrophotometer d) colony counter Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1 Discuss what is meant by “growth” when referring to microbes and the ways in which it can be measured. Section Reference 1: Section 6.1 Growth and Cell Division
9) Serial dilutions are used to: a) slow down the growth of microbes b) speed up the growth of microbes c) obtain bacterial cultures at several different concentrations d) form bacterial colonies Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1 Discuss what is meant by “growth” when referring to microbes and the ways in which it can be measured. Section Reference 1: Section 6.1 Growth and Cell Division
10) Which of the following counting techniques does not differentiate between live and dead bacterial cells in a culture? a) Serial dilution b) Spread plate c) Pour plate d) Direct microscopic count Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1 Discuss what is meant by “growth” when referring to microbes and the ways in which it can be measured. Section Reference 1: Section 6.1 Growth and Cell Division
11) Which of the following bacterial counting techniques relies on a statistical estimate to determine the number of bacteria in a culture? a) Serial dilution b) Standard plate count c) Spread plate d) Most probable number Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1 Discuss what is meant by “growth” when referring to microbes and the ways in which it can be measured. Section Reference 1: Section 6.1 Growth and Cell Division
12) Most bacteria: a) exhibit synchronous growth under natural conditions b) divide when a small new cell develops from the surface of an existing cell c) do not immediately increase in number when placed in a culture d) immediately begin to divide when placed in a culture Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1 Discuss what is meant by “growth” when referring to microbes and the ways in which it can be measured. Section Reference 1: Section 6.1 Growth and Cell Division
13) Bacterial growth in colonies on agar plates
.
a) have all phases of growth occurring simultaneously somewhere in the colony b) most growth occurs at the center of the colony c) involves budding of small new colonies from the surface of an existing colony d) have lag phase cells in the center of the colony, surrounded by a ring of cells in exponential phase Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1 Discuss what is meant by “growth” when referring to microbes and the ways in which it can be measured. Section Reference 1: Section 6.1 Growth and Cell Division
14) Turbidity in a bacterial culture can be measured using a/an: a) incubator b) colony county c) spectrophotometer d) chemostat Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1 Discuss what is meant by “growth” when referring to microbes and the ways in which it can be measured. Section Reference 1: Section 6.1 Growth and Cell Division
15) Acidophiles would be expected to grow best at a pH of a) 3 b) 6 c) 9 d) 12 Answer: a
.
Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2 Review the physical and nutritional factors that can influence microbial growth. Section Reference 1: Section 6.2 Factors Affecting Bacterial Growth
16) An obligate psychrophile would produce a turbid culture at Celsius.
degrees
a) 15 b) 30 c) 45 d) 60 Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2 Review the physical and nutritional factors that can influence microbial growth. Section Reference 1: Section 6.2 Factors Affecting Bacterial Growth
17) Most human pathogens are
.
a) psychrophiles b) mesophiles c) thermophiles d) acidophiles Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2 Review the physical and nutritional factors that can influence microbial growth. Section Reference 1: Section 6.2 Factors Affecting Bacterial Growth
18) Which of the following is most likely to have evolved to live in the deep layers of mud, where there is a complete lack of free oxygen? a) Obligate aerobe b) Obligate anaerobe c) Facultative anaerobe d) Aerotolerant anaerobe
Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2 Review the physical and nutritional factors that can influence microbial growth. Section Reference 1: Section 6.2 Factors Affecting Bacterial Growth
19) Which type of cell will generally shift to aerobic metabolism when oxygen is available but will carry on fermentation otherwise? a) aerotolerant anaerobes b) facultative anaerobes c) obligate anaerobes d) obligate aerobes Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2 Review the physical and nutritional factors that can influence microbial growth. Section Reference 1: Section 6.2 Factors Affecting Bacterial Growth
20) Capnophiles grow best under conditions of
.
a) high carbon dioxide b) low carbon dioxide c) high osmotic pressure d) low osmotic pressure Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2 Review the physical and nutritional factors that can influence microbial growth. Section Reference 1: Section 6.2 Factors Affecting Bacterial Growth
21) The toxic effects of the byproducts of oxygen metabolism are reduced by which of the following? a) Catalase b) Superoxide dismutase c) Lactase d) Two of the above
Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2 Review the physical and nutritional factors that can influence microbial growth. Section Reference 1: Section 6.2 Factors Affecting Bacterial Growth
22) Where would you expect to find a barophile? a) At the bottom of the ocean b) In unpasteurized milk c) In the large intestine d) In sewage Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2 Review the physical and nutritional factors that can influence microbial growth. Section Reference 1: Section 6.2 Factors Affecting Bacterial Growth
23) When cells are placed in a hypertonic environment they will undergo
.
a) lysis b) no change in size c) swelling of the cell which is contained by the cell wall d) plasmolysis Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2 Review the physical and nutritional factors that can influence microbial growth. Section Reference 1: Section 6.2 Factors Affecting Bacterial Growth
24) Halophiles require an environment with a high concentration of growth. a) sugar b) alcohol c) salt d) phosphorous
for optimal
Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2 Review the physical and nutritional factors that can influence microbial growth. Section Reference 1: Section 6.2 Factors Affecting Bacterial Growth
25) Organisms with special nutritional needs are said to be
.
a) barophiles b) fastidious c) aerobes d) none of the above Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2 Review the physical and nutritional factors that can influence microbial growth. Section Reference 1: Section 6.2 Factors Affecting Bacterial Growth
26) Which of the following is considered a trace element? a) carbon b) zinc c) sulphur d) phosphorous Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2 Review the physical and nutritional factors that can influence microbial growth. Section Reference 1: Section 6.2 Factors Affecting Bacterial Growth
27) Starch would be broken down to maltose by which of the following exoenzymes? a) gelatinase b) amylase c) caseinase d) lipase
Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2 Review the physical and nutritional factors that can influence microbial growth. Section Reference 1: Section 6.2 Factors Affecting Bacterial Growth
28) Which of the following statements about bacterial growth is false? a) Agar is used as a solidifying agent in some types of media. b) Bacteria growing in a liquid culture will generate colonies. c) A turbid culture is indicative of bacterial growth. d) Each bacterium plated will represent a colony-forming unit. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2 Review the physical and nutritional factors that can influence microbial growth. Section Reference 1: Section 6.2 Factors Affecting Bacterial Growth
29) Exoenzymes: a) produced by gram positive rods act in the medium around the organism b) are released by the golgi apparatus into the cytoplasm where they act c) produced by gram negative rods act in the periplasmic space d) two of the above Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2 Review the physical and nutritional factors that can influence microbial growth. Section Reference 1: Section 6.2 Factors Affecting Bacterial Growth
30) All of the following are ways microorganisms adapt to limited nutrients except: a) synthesize increased amount of enzymes for uptake and metabolism of limited nutrients b) form metabolically active highly resistant endospores c) synthesize enzymes needed to use a different nutrient source d) adjust the rate at which they metabolize nutrients
Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2 Review the physical and nutritional factors that can influence microbial growth. Section Reference 1: Section 6.2 Factors Affecting Bacterial Growth
31) Sporulation occurs in: a) Clostridium b) Staphylocoocus c) Klebsiella d) Citrobacter Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.3 Examine the process of endospore formation and the advantages it provides to the bacteria capable of undergoing this process. Section Reference 1: Section 6.3 Sporulation
32) Endospores are: a) metabolically active b) reproductive structures c) found mostly in Gram negative organisms d) protective structures Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.3 Examine the process of endospore formation and the advantages it provides to the bacteria capable of undergoing this process. Section Reference 1: Section 6.3 Sporulation
33) Sporulation usually occurs in response to a/an a) decrease in the level of carbon or nitrogen b) increase in temperature c) decrease in the amount of water d) increase in ultraviolet radiation Answer: a
.
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.3 Examine the process of endospore formation and the advantages it provides to the bacteria capable of undergoing this process. Section Reference 1: Section 6.3 Sporulation
34) A decrease in the amount of nitrogen to a culture of Clostridium botulinum would induce . a) activation b) germination c) sporulation d) outgrowth Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.3 Examine the process of endospore formation and the advantages it provides to the bacteria capable of undergoing this process. Section Reference 1: Section 6.3 Sporulation
35) Within a bacterial endospore, the spore is most closely surrounded by the
.
a) spore membrane b) cortex c) cell membrane d) spore coat Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.3 Examine the process of endospore formation and the advantages it provides to the bacteria capable of undergoing this process. Section Reference 1: Section 6.3 Sporulation
36) Which of the following does not contribute to endospore resistance to unfavorable conditions? a) Dipicolinic acid and calcium ions in the core b) Cortex c) Spore coat d) Germination proper Answer: d
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.3 Examine the process of endospore formation and the advantages it provides to the bacteria capable of undergoing this process. Section Reference 1: Section 6.3 Sporulation
37) Which of the following is not a stage in endospores returning to the vegetative state? a) Traumatic agent such as low pH or heat damages the coat. b) Outgrowth occurs in a medium with adequate nutrients. c) Divisions of the endospores early in their development. d) Water and nutrients penetrates damaged coat. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 6.3 Examine the process of endospore formation and the advantages it provides to the bacteria capable of undergoing this process. Section Reference 1: Section 6.3 Sporulation
38) A culture that contains only a single species of organism is known as a
.
a) pure culture b) Koch culture c) mixed culture d) contaminated culture Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.4 Compare the various types and purposes of culture media such as selective, enrichment, and differential media. Section Reference 1: Section 6.4 Culturing Bacteria
39) The streak plate method produces pure cultures by separating individual bacterial cells from one another by . a) dragging them across a solid surface b) dispersing them in liquid media c) killing off those cells that are not able to survive in hot agar d) embedding some cells in the agar so that they are exposed to lower concentrations of oxygen
Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.4 Compare the various types and purposes of culture media such as selective, enrichment, and differential media. Section Reference 1: Section 6.4 Culturing Bacteria
40) The pour plate method of isolating pure cultures
.
a) relies on the fact that liquid agar will solidify as it cools b) is useful for growing microaerophiles c) results in some organisms growing embedded in the agar d) all of the above Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.4 Compare the various types and purposes of culture media such as selective, enrichment, and differential media. Section Reference 1: Section 6.4 Culturing Bacteria
41) A growth medium consisting of only known amounts of water, magnesium, calcium chloride, potassium and glucose would be considered: a) a defined synthetic medium b) a complex medium c) a chemically nondefined medium d) two of the above Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.4 Compare the various types and purposes of culture media such as selective, enrichment, and differential media. Section Reference 1: Section 6.4 Culturing Bacteria
42) A growth medium consisting of only water, glucose and beef extract would be considered . a) a defined synthetic medium b) a complex medium c) a chemically defined medium d) two of the above
Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.4 Compare the various types and purposes of culture media such as selective, enrichment, and differential media. Section Reference 1: Section 6.4 Culturing Bacteria
43) A media on which Gram positive organism turn green and Gram negative organisms turn blue would be . a) selective b) differential c) complex d) enriched Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.4 Compare the various types and purposes of culture media such as selective, enrichment, and differential media. Section Reference 1: Section 6.4 Culturing Bacteria 44) Sabourard’s agar has a low pH which encourages the growth of molds and discourages the growth of bacteria. Sabourard’s agar could best be described as being: a) selective b) differential c) complex d) enriched Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.4 Compare the various types and purposes of culture media such as selective, enrichment, and differential media. Section Reference 1: Section 6.4 Culturing Bacteria 45) Bacteria that ferment lactose grow as red colonies on MacConkey’s agar while those that do not ferment lactose are transparent. MacConkey’s agar can best be described as being: a) selective
b) differential c) complex d) enriched Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.4 Compare the various types and purposes of culture media such as selective, enrichment, and differential media. Section Reference 1: Section 6.4 Culturing Bacteria
46) A candle jar would be used for growing: a) Gram negative organisms b) fastidious organisms c) thermophiles d) microaerophiles Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.4 Compare the various types and purposes of culture media such as selective, enrichment, and differential media. Section Reference 1: Section 6.4 Culturing Bacteria
47) A living, growing culture whose purpose is to maintain a pure culture of an organism indefinitely is a . a) colony b) stock culture c) sporulating culture d) broth culture Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.4 Compare the various types and purposes of culture media such as selective, enrichment, and differential media. Section Reference 1: Section 6.4 Culturing Bacteria
48) Which of the following statements about liquid media and agar is false? a) Both chocolate agar and blood agar contain blood.
b) Stock cultures are never directly used for laboratory studies. c) A differential media will allow some bacteria to grow and stop the growth of others. d) A selective media will suppress the growth of some microbes. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.4 Compare the various types and purposes of culture media such as selective, enrichment, and differential media. Section Reference 1: Section 6.4 Culturing Bacteria
49) Microaerophiles: a) grow best when the environment has a small amount of carbon dioxide. b) grow best when the environment has a small amount of free oxygen. c) need a high concentration of carbon dioxide. d) need a high concentration of oxygen. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.4 Compare the various types and purposes of culture media such as selective, enrichment, and differential media. Section Reference 1: Section 6.4 Culturing Bacteria
50) Chocolate agar: a) contains blood b) is used exclusively for stock cultures c) is nutrient poor d) is a selective agar plate Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.4 Compare the various types and purposes of culture media such as selective, enrichment, and differential media. Section Reference 1: Section 6.4 Culturing Bacteria
51) techniques must be strictly adhered to prevent the accidental contamination of stock cultures. a) Germination
b) Selective c) Differential d) Aseptic Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.4 Compare the various types and purposes of culture media such as selective, enrichment, and differential media. Section Reference 1: Section 6.4 Culturing Bacteria
52) Nonculturable organisms: a) are rare. b) can be identified based on their DNA. c) can only be seen on selective agar plates. d) have defined generation times. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.4 Compare the various types and purposes of culture media such as selective, enrichment, and differential media. Section Reference 1: Section 6.5 Living, But Nonculturable, Organisms
53) During this phase, organisms produce large amounts of ATP.
a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1 Discuss what is meant by “growth” when referring to microbes and the ways in which it can be measured. Section Reference 1: Section 6.1 Growth and Cell Division
54) This phase decreases at a logarithmic rate.
a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1 Discuss what is meant by “growth” when referring to microbes and the ways in which it can be measured. Section Reference 1: Section 6.1 Growth and Cell Division
55) Microbes that live in this environment actively transport
out of their cells.
a) potassium b) oxygen c) sodium d) nitrogen Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2 Review the physical and nutritional factors that can influence microbial growth. Section Reference 1: Section 6.2 Factors Affecting Bacterial Growth
Question Type: Essay
56) Draw and label a standard growth curve. Describe each of the 4 phases. Why do you think bacteria do not continue to double indefinitely? You sample a culture that has reached the fourth phase after 2 days, can you think of one reason why the culture would begin to increase on day 4? Answer: Growth curve should have a flat lag phase, followed by an upward sloping log phase, then a flat stationary phase and lastly a downward sloping decline or death phase. The four phases are : 1) lag phase -the organisms are metabolically active synthesizing DNA and enzymes but not increasing in number; 2) log phase organisms are dividing
exponentially; 3) stationary phase -number of new cells produced equals number of cells dying; 4) decline phase -where many cells have lost their ability to divide and are dying due to toxin buildup and nutrient deprivation. Bacteria cannot increase exponentially forever as the amount of nutrients will always eventually be consumed or limited. Also toxic byproducts of metabolism would eventually build up. One reason for the culture to increase again on day 4 is scavenging; in this case the dying cells release their cell components as nutrients that the remaining cells can use to grow. Another could be the production of spores. Or there could be a mutation that arises that allows the bacteria to grow on a new nutrient. Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1 Discuss what is meant by “growth” when referring to microbes and the ways in which it can be measured. Section Reference 1: Section 6.1 Growth and Cell Division
57) What is sporulation? What triggers sporulation? In bacteria that form endospores generally only a fraction of the total population sporulate and the process takes over eight hours. Explain why it would be harmful for the whole population to sporulate. Is it better to continuously form spores or wait to sporulate when conditions become unfavorable? Answer: Sporulation is the formation of endospores which are not metabolically active and are very resistant to extreme conditions and stress. The endospore cannot divide but can wake up when conditions for growth are restored. Endospores are generally triggered during stationary phase in response to environmental, metabolic and cell cycle signals. It would be harmful for the whole population to sporulate if the conditions changed rapidly or not predictably, if for example within those eight hours the nutrients where restored then the whole population would be unable to respond as they would still be sporulating. Also if there were a false alarm it would also be harmful for the whole population to sporulate. An advantage to continuously forming spores are mainly in rapidly changing or unpredictable conditions as there will always be a safety net (spores) already formed. A disadvantage to continuously forming spores is that spores are not dividing, therefore they do not contribute to increasing the size of the bacteria population (e.g., fitness) and could be seen as diverted resource. Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 6.3 Examine the process of endospore formation and the advantages it provides to the bacteria capable of undergoing this process. Section Reference 1: Section 6.3 Sporulation
58) Imagine NASA sends you a specimen from a planet that they believe contains an extraterrestial bacterial species. You are the microbiologist in charge of determining how
to grow the extraterrestial bacteria. Many factors may affect the growth of extraterrestial bacteria. Choose two and describe how you would test their effects. Answer: Physical factors that could affect the growth of this extraterrestial bacterium (along with how to test them in parenthesizes) include: acidity and alkalinity (grow along range of pH broths), temperature (grow along a temperature range), quantity of oxygen and perhaps other gases in the environment (grow in incubators with different quantities of oxygen or in bell jars or observe where the pattern of growth is in nutrient broth), moisture (try a range of humidities), hydrostatic or osmotic or gravitational pressure (try a range of pressures), radiation (try irradiating the bacteria). Nutritional factors that could affect the growth of this extraterrestial bacterium (to test them one would simply vary the concentration or quality of the nutrients in the broth) include: carbon sources, nitrogen sources, sulfur, phosphorus, trace elements and vitamins. In addition growth could depend on the nutritional complexity (to test would need to vary complexity of broths). Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2 Review the physical and nutritional factors that can influence microbial growth. Section Reference 1: Section 6.2 Factors Affecting Bacterial Growth
Chapter 8: Microbial Genetics
Question Type: Multiple Choice
1) A linear sequence of DNA nucleotides which provides the genetic information for a single characteristic is a . a) chromosome b) plasmid c) gene d) base pair Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.1 Explain the relationship between DNA, genes, and proteins whose structures are created from genetic instructions. Section Reference 1: Section 7.1 An Overview of Genetic Processes
2) Genes with different information at the same locus are called
.
a) chromosomes b) homologs c) plasmids d) alleles Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.1 Explain the relationship between DNA, genes, and proteins whose structures are created from genetic instructions. Section Reference 1: Section 7.1 An Overview of Genetic Processes
3) A plasmid is a/an
.
a) extrachromosomal piece of DNA b) chromosomal site to which genetic activity can be traced c) body found in the cytoplasm that directs protein synthesis d) molecule that carries the genetic message of the chromosomal DNA Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.1 Explain the relationship between DNA, genes, and proteins whose structures are created from genetic instructions. Section Reference 1: Section 7.1 An Overview of Genetic Processes
4) A permanent alteration in the DNA of an organism is called a/n: a) mutation b) hereditary marker c) replicon d) allele Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.1 Explain the relationship between DNA, genes, and proteins whose structures are created from genetic instructions. Section Reference 1: Section 7.1 An Overview of Genetic Processes
5) Which nitrogenous base is not normally found in DNA? a) Guanine b) Thymine c) Uracil d) Adenine Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.2 Describe the way in which an antiparallel, double-stranded DNA molecule undergoes replication and the role of each enzyme involved in this process. Section Reference 1: Section 7.2 DNA Replication
6) In DNA, the base adenine always pairs with what other base? a) guanine b) adenine c) uracil d) thymine Answer: d Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective 1: LO 7.2 Describe the way in which an antiparallel, double-stranded DNA molecule undergoes replication and the role of each enzyme involved in this process. Section Reference 1: Section 7.2 DNA Replication
7) Replication results in the formation of what type of new molecule? a) DNA b) RNA c) Protein d) Lipid Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.2 Describe the way in which an antiparallel, double-stranded DNA molecule undergoes replication and the role of each enzyme involved in this process. Section Reference 1: Section 7.2 DNA Replication
8) Transcription results in the formation of what type of new molecule? a) DNA b) RNA c) Protein d) lipid Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.3 Describe the transcription and translation processes and the roles of the three types of RNA molecules needed for protein synthesis. Section Reference 1: Section 7.3 Protein Synthesis
9) The process of a) replication b) transcription c) translation d) transversion Answer: c Difficulty: Easy
results in the synthesis of a new protein.
Learning Objective 1: LO 7.3 Describe the transcription and translation processes and the roles of the three types of RNA molecules needed for protein synthesis. Section Reference 1: Section 7.3 Protein Synthesis
10) Reverse transcription occurs when: a) RNA is used as a template to produce DNA b) DNA is used as a template to produce RNA c) Protein is used as a template to produce RNA d) RNA is used as a template to produce protein Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.1 Explain the relationship between DNA, genes, and proteins whose structures are created from genetic instructions. Section Reference 1: Section 7.1 An Overview of Genetic Processes
11) Reverse transcription takes place: a) only in fungi b) in some viruses c) in all bacteria d) in some bacteria Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.1 Explain the relationship between DNA, genes, and proteins whose structures are created from genetic instructions. Section Reference 1: Section 7.1 An Overview of Genetic Processes
12) Which statement is true? a) Proofreading that occurs during transcription changes the RNA into DNA. b) Translation is a less accurate process than transcription. c) Reverse transcription is a less accurate process than regular transcription. d) Errors in replication can be proofread during transcription. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective 1: LO 7.1 Explain the relationship between DNA, genes, and proteins whose structures are created from genetic instructions. Section Reference 1: Section 7.1 An Overview of Genetic Processes
13) Mutations: a) when occurring on a particular Okazaki fragment can lead to different loci b) often change a person’s blood from type A to type AB c) are responsible for heritable variations seen in progeny d) occur only when the DNA is transmitted to a daughter cell Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 7.1 Explain the relationship between DNA, genes, and proteins whose structures are created from genetic instructions. Section Reference 1: Section 7.1 An Overview of Genetic Processes
14) Bacterial genomes: a) have rarely been sequenced as it takes a very long time. b) only contain adenine, uracil, cytosine and guanine. c) contain all the information for the structure and functioning of a cell. d) when sequenced 100% of the genes are with known cellular function. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.2 Describe the way in which an antiparallel, double-stranded DNA molecule undergoes replication and the role of each enzyme involved in this process. Section Reference 1: Section7.2 DNA Replication
15) Bacterial chromosomes: a) must be present for a bacteria to stay alive and reproduce b) are small segments of DNA that have the ability to move from one position to another c) contain genetic information that is helpful but not necessary for survival d) are always circular and only one is present in each bacteria Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.1 Explain the relationship between DNA, genes, and proteins whose structures are created from genetic instructions.
Section Reference 1: Section 7.1 An Overview of Genetic Processes
16) During replication DNA is synthesized by
.
a) DNA polymerase b) RNA polymerase c) ribosomes d) ribozymes Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.2 Describe the way in which an antiparallel, double-stranded DNA molecule undergoes replication and the role of each enzyme involved in this process. Section Reference 1: Section 7.2 DNA Replication
17) During DNA replication: a) the leading strand is synthesized in the 3’ to 5’ direction b) the leading strand is synthesized discontinuously c) the lagging strand is synthesized in the 5’ to 3’ direction d) both strands are synthesized discontinuously Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.2 Describe the way in which an antiparallel, double-stranded DNA molecule undergoes replication and the role of each enzyme involved in this process. Section Reference 1: Section 7.2 DNA Replication
18) Okazaki fragments make up part of the
.
a) small ribosomal subunit b) tRNA c) lagging strand of newly synthesized DNA d) mRNA Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.2 Describe the way in which an antiparallel, double-stranded DNA molecule undergoes replication and the role of each enzyme involved in this process. Section Reference 1: Section 7.2 DNA Replication
19) After DNA replication of a bacterial chromosome, the new DNA contains: a) 2 newly synthesized strands of DNA copied from the original parent strands b) one strand of parent DNA along with one newly synthesized strand c) small segments of parent DNA interspersed with newly synthesized segments of DNA d) two of the above Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.2 Describe the way in which an antiparallel, double-stranded DNA molecule undergoes replication and the role of each enzyme involved in this process. Section Reference 1: Section 7.2 DNA Replication
20) Which of the following statements is true? a) During DNA replication the leading strand serves as template for replication of lagging strand. b) Fragments on the lagging strand are joined together by DNA ligase. c) A bacterial chromosome is made up of individual units called Okazaki fragments. d) Two strands of double helix combine by base pairing in a parallel fashion. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.2 Describe the way in which an antiparallel, double-stranded DNA molecule undergoes replication and the role of each enzyme involved in this process. Section Reference 1: Section 7.2 DNA Replication
21) Messenger RNA: a) is formed in the 3’ to 5’ direction b) is found only in prokaryotes c) contains uracil instead of thymine d) is synthesized using the enzyme ligase Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.3 Describe the transcription and translation processes and the roles of the three types of RNA molecules needed for protein synthesis. Section Reference 1: Section 7.3 Protein Synthesis
22) RNA polymerase uses
as a template to synthesize
.
a) RNA, proteins b) RNA, DNA c) DNA, RNA d) DNA, proteins Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.3 Describe the transcription and translation processes and the roles of the three types of RNA molecules needed for protein synthesis. Section Reference 1: Section 7.3 Protein Synthesis
23) Segments of eukaryotic DNA that do not code for proteins: a) are called introns b) are found in all bacterial genes c) can be considered by your immune system as enemy DNA d) binds to proteins to form ribosomes Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.3 Describe the transcription and translation processes and the roles of the three types of RNA molecules needed for protein synthesis. Section Reference 1: Section 7.3 Protein Synthesis
24) The information carried by DNA is used to create a ribosome for protein synthesis.
which then moves to the
a) tRNA b) rRNA c) siRNA d) mRNA Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.3 Describe the transcription and translation processes and the roles of the three types of RNA molecules needed for protein synthesis. Section Reference 1: Section 7.3 Protein Synthesis
25) An mRNA molecule contains three nucleotide (triplet) units called
.
a) amino acids b) bases c) codons d) anticodons Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.3 Describe the transcription and translation processes and the roles of the three types of RNA molecules needed for protein synthesis. Section Reference 1: Section 7.3 Protein Synthesis
26) Amino acids move from the cytoplasm to the ribosome with the help of
.
a) mRNAs b) tRNAs c) siRNAs d) rRNAs Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.3 Describe the transcription and translation processes and the roles of the three types of RNA molecules needed for protein synthesis. Section Reference 1: Section 7.3 Protein Synthesis
27) An anticodon would be found in/on a
molecule.
a) mRNA b) tRNA c) the lagging strand d) rRNA Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.3 Describe the transcription and translation processes and the roles of the three types of RNA molecules needed for protein synthesis. Section Reference 1: Section 7.3 Protein Synthesis
28) tRNA anticodons serve as a link between
.
a) DNA and mRNA b) codons and anticodons c) codons and amino acids d) mRNA and rRNA Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.3 Describe the transcription and translation processes and the roles of the three types of RNA molecules needed for protein synthesis. Section Reference 1: Section 7.3 Protein Synthesis
29) Which of the following statements about the genetic code is true? a) The first position of a codon determines the amino acid. b) An amino acid can be specified for by more than one codon. c) Nonsense codons contain no information. d) Because DNA only contains four letters there are very few number of possible genes that can exist. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 7.3 Describe the transcription and translation processes and the roles of the three types of RNA molecules needed for protein synthesis. Section Reference 1: Section 7.3 Protein Synthesis
30) Protein synthesis: a) in bacteria can occur with several ribosomes attached to the same mRNA molecule b) uses very little of a bacterial cell’s energy c) can occur at the same time as an mRNA is being transcribed d) two of the above Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 7.3 Describe the transcription and translation processes and the roles of the three types of RNA molecules needed for protein synthesis. Section Reference 1: Section 7.3 Protein Synthesis
31) In eukaryotes, transcription takes place in the .
while translation takes place in the
a) nucleus, nucleus b) nucleus, cytoplasm c) cytoplasm, nucleus d) cytoplasm, cytoplasm Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.3 Describe the transcription and translation processes and the roles of the three types of RNA molecules needed for protein synthesis. Section Reference 1: Section 7.3 Protein Synthesis
32) Which of the following properties are exclusive to mRNA? a) Combines with specific proteins to form ribosomes b) Carries information from DNA for synthesis of a protein c) Molecules contain an anticodon d) Contains the nucleotide thymine Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.3 Describe the transcription and translation processes and the roles of the three types of RNA molecules needed for protein synthesis. Section Reference 1: Section 7.3 Protein Synthesis
33) Which of the following properties are exclusive to tRNA? a) Combines with specific proteins to form ribosomes b) Carries information from DNA for synthesis of a protein c) Molecules contain an anticodon d) Contains the nucleotide thymine Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.3 Describe the transcription and translation processes and the roles of the three types of RNA molecules needed for protein synthesis. Section Reference 1: Section 7.3 Protein Synthesis
34) Which of the following properties are exclusive to rRNA? a) Combines with specific proteins to form ribosomes b) Carries information from DNA for synthesis of a protein c) Molecules contain an anticodon d) Contains the nucleotide thymine Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.3 Describe the transcription and translation processes and the roles of the three types of RNA molecules needed for protein synthesis. Section Reference 1: Section 7.3 Protein Synthesis
35) In an enzyme catalyzed reaction that displays feedback inhibition, a) excess substrate will inhibit the reaction b) excess product will inhibit the reaction c) the reaction continues at the same pace regardless of conditions in the cell d) excess product is broken down to create new substrate Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.4 Evaluate the roles of feedback inhibition, enzyme induction, and enzyme repression in regulating cellular metabolism. Section Reference 1: Section 7.4 The Regulation of Metabolism
36) Inducible enzymes: a) are synthesized continuously by the cell b) are produced by genes that are always active c) are synthesized by genes that are sometimes active and sometimes inactive d) only exist in prokaryotic organisms Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.4 Evaluate the roles of feedback inhibition, enzyme induction, and enzyme repression in regulating cellular metabolism. Section Reference 1: Section 7.4 The Regulation of Metabolism
37) When an E. coli cell contains high levels of lactose, the lactose will bind with the
.
a) repressor b) operator c) promoter d) RNA polymerase Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.4 Evaluate the roles of feedback inhibition, enzyme induction, and enzyme repression in regulating cellular metabolism. Section Reference 1: Section 7.4 The Regulation of Metabolism
38) In the lactose operon, which of the following is a protein? a) Repressor b) Operator c) Regulator d) Promoter Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.4 Evaluate the roles of feedback inhibition, enzyme induction, and enzyme repression in regulating cellular metabolism. Section Reference 1: Section 7.4 The Regulation of Metabolism
39) With regard to the lac operon, which of the following is false under conditions of low (or no) lactose? a) The RNA polymerase cannot transcribe structural genes b) The repressor is bound to the operator c) Lactose is not bound to the repressor d) RNA polymerase can bind to the promoter Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 7.4 Evaluate the roles of feedback inhibition, enzyme induction, and enzyme repression in regulating cellular metabolism. Section Reference 1: Section 7.4 The Regulation of Metabolism
40) In the lac operon RNA polymerase first binds to the:
a) promoter b) operator c) repressor d) regulator Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.4 Evaluate the roles of feedback inhibition, enzyme induction, and enzyme repression in regulating cellular metabolism. Section Reference 1: Section 7.4 The Regulation of Metabolism
41) The tryptophan (trp) operon is turned on (i.e. gene expression occurs) when: a) there is a great deal of tryptophan in the cell b) there is a lack of tryptophan in the cell c) the trp operon is always turned on d) the trp operon is always turned off Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO Section Reference 1: Section
42)
refers to the specific characteristics displayed by an organism.
a) Genotype b) Mutation c) Phenotype d) Genes Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.5 Identify types of point and frameshift mutations, discussing their impact on cellular processes. Section Reference 1: Section 7.5 Mutations
43) Catabolite repression: a) cells save energy by not making uneeded enzymes
b) doesn’t allow for cells to prioritize consumption of multiple substrates c) allows cell growth to continue even after the preferred nutrient is used up d) two of the above Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 7.5 Identify types of point and frameshift mutations, discussing their impact on cellular processes. Section Reference 1: Section 7.5 Mutations
44) A frameshift mutation occurs when: a) an adenine is inserted into the DNA sequence of an organism b) a thymine replaces a guanine in the DNA sequence of an organism c) three new bases are inserted into the DNA strand d) three bases are deleted from the DNA strand Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.5 Identify types of point and frameshift mutations, discussing their impact on cellular processes. Section Reference 1: Section 7.5 Mutations
45) A DNA mutation that results in no change in protein product produced is termed a: a) missense mutation b) nonsense mutation c) silent mutation d) frameshift mutation Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.5 Identify types of point and frameshift mutations, discussing their impact on cellular processes. Section Reference 1: Section 7.5 Mutations
46) Organisms that have lost the ability to synthesize a particular enzyme and which require certain nutrients to be added to their medium to maintain growth are termed: a) phototrophs
b) auxotrophs c) prototrophs d) autotrophs Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.5 Identify types of point and frameshift mutations, discussing their impact on cellular processes. Section Reference 1: Section 7.5 Mutations
47) Spontaneous mutations are: a) caused by chemicals such as acridine and caffeine. b) caused by physical agents such as ultraviolet light or x-rays. c) the result of errors in the base pairing of nucleotides during replication. d) occur at a rate higher than the rate of induced mutations. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.5 Identify types of point and frameshift mutations, discussing their impact on cellular processes. Section Reference 1: Section 7.5 Mutations
48) Mutagens such as 5-bromouracil cause mutations by: a) substituting for one of the bases normally found in DNA b) adding an alkyl group to a nucleotide c) removing an amino group from a nucleotide d) causing breaks in chromosomes Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.5 Identify types of point and frameshift mutations, discussing their impact on cellular processes. Section Reference 1: Section 7.5 Mutations
49) Pyrimidine dimers are a type of mutation most commonly caused by: a) alkylating agents b) deaminating agents
c) ultraviolet light d) acridine Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 7.5 Identify types of point and frameshift mutations, discussing their impact on cellular processes. Section Reference 1: Section 7.5 Mutations
50) Photoreactivation: a) repairs dimers in DNA using an endonuclease b) uses light to activate repair enzymes c) removes alkylating agents from bases d) occurs when UV light causes mutations in DNA Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.5 Identify types of point and frameshift mutations, discussing their impact on cellular processes. Section Reference 1: Section 7.5 Mutations
51) The fluctuation tests done by Luria and Delbruck showed that: a) antibiotics induce the development of resistance in bacteria b) the growth of bacteria fluctuates based on the concentration of antibiotics in the media c) the concentration of antibiotics fluctuates in response to the number of bacteria in a sample d) resistance to antibiotics occurs spontaneously in bacteria Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 7.5 Identify types of point and frameshift mutations, discussing their impact on cellular processes. Section Reference 1: Section 7.5 Mutations
52) The Ames test is used to determine if a chemical: a) increases the rate at which a bacterial cell divides b) decreases the number of cells in a culture c) induces mutations in a cell’s DNA
d) decreases the ability of a cell to photosynthesize Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.5 Identify types of point and frameshift mutations, discussing their impact on cellular processes. Section Reference 1: Section 7.5 Mutations
53) Which statement about mutations is false? a) A mutation can alter the genotype of an organism without altering the phenotype. b) Frameshift mutations are typically more serious than point mutations. c) Spontaneous mutations are the result of exposure to mutagens. d) Photoreactivation can take place in non-photosynthetic bacteria. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.5 Identify types of point and frameshift mutations, discussing their impact on cellular processes. Section Reference 1: Section 7.5 Mutations
54) Polymerase chain reaction: a) allows for the rapid amplification of a billion copies of DNA without needing a living cell b) can be applied to historic samples and to criminal investigations c) requires oligonucleotides to cut DNA into smaller pieces d) two of the above are true Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.5 Identify types of point and frameshift mutations, discussing their impact on cellular processes. Section Reference 1: Section 7.5 Mutations
55) This molecule is used in the process of
.
a) DNA replication b) mitosis c) meiosis d) protein synthesis Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 7.3 Describe the transcription and translation processes and the roles of the three types of RNA molecules needed for protein synthesis.
Section Reference 1: Section 7.3 Protein Synthesis
56) Which of the following is the anti-codon corresponding to methionine?
a) AUG b) GAC c) CUG d) UAC Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.3 Describe the transcription and translation processes and the roles of the three types of RNA molecules needed for protein synthesis. Section Reference 1: Section 7.3 Protein Synthesis
57) In order for beta-galactosidase, permease and transacetylase to be produced, activate transcription.
can
a) mRNA b) lac operon c) repressor proteins d) RNA polymerase Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.4 Evaluate the roles of feedback inhibition, enzyme induction, and enzyme repression in regulating cellular metabolism. Section Reference 1: Section 7.4 The Regulation of Metabolism
Question Type: Essay
58) RNA plays several important roles in the processes that express genetic information from DNA into protein products. Illustrate the events of transcription in a bacterial cell and indicate where RNA plays a role. Also indicate what role RNA plays in translation in bacterial cells. Answer: The following should be illustrated: Transcription transfers the genetic information from DNA to mRNA. It occurs with RNA polymerase (protein) binding to a DNA strand and base-pairing RNA nucleotides with the DNA template. The binding RNA nucleotides are transcribed into a chain termed mRNA and synthesized in the5’ to 3’ direction as RNA
polymerase moves down the DNA strand. RNA plays a role in transcription as the end product is mRNA whose information will encode protein sequences. Transcription is also the process used to create rRNA and tRNA molecules whose roles are vital in translation. During translation RNA acts as the source of genetic information to construct the proteins in the form of mRNA. In addition rRNA forms vital portions of ribosomes, which are the protein synthesis complexes and tRNA brings the needed amino acids to the ribosomes and matches the codons to amino acids through codon-anticodon recognition and base pairing. Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 7.3 Describe the transcription and translation processes and the roles of the three types of RNA molecules needed for protein synthesis. Section Reference 1: Section 7.3 Protein Synthesis
59) Using the lac and trp operons as examples, describe the two control mechanisms for protein synthesis: one based on enzyme induction and the other based on enzyme repression. Answer: In the case of the lac operon, when the inducer substance (lactose) is absent, a repressor protein binds to the operator preventing transcription of the genes coding for enzymes used to metabolize lactose by blocking RNA polymerase binding to the promoter. When the inducer substance is present, it binds to the repressor and inactivates its binding to repressor protein, allowing for the transcription of the genes responsible for metabolizing lactose (structural genes). Enzyme repression occurs when an adequate supply of the products of enzyme activity leads to repressing the transcription of the operon. In the trp operon, when tryptophan is available it binds to an inactive repressor thereby allowing binding to the operator by repressor which will inhibit transcription by blocking RNA polymerase binding to the promoter. Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 7.4 Evaluate the roles of feedback inhibition, enzyme induction, and enzyme repression in regulating cellular metabolism. Section Reference 1: Section 7.4 The Regulation of Metabolism
60) Microbial evolutionary biologists have provided evidence against Lamarkian evolution by demonstrating that genetic mutations arise in the absence of selection, rather than being a response to selection. Describe one method for distinguishing between spontaneous and induced mutations (be sure to include the expected results) Answer: Spontaneous and induced mutations can be distinguished by either the fluctuation test or replica plating. The fluctuation test involves inoculating a small number of bacteria into separate cultures. If the mutation to acquire antibiotic resistance is spontaneous, than the replicate culture will have a highly variable number of mutants. If however the resistance is induced by the presence of the antibiotic, all of the replicate cultures experiencing the antibiotic should have the same number of mutants induced by the antibiotic. Replica plating occurs when cultures are transferred from a master dish to a selective plate while maintaining the original spatial pattern of colonies. Any colonies observed on a penicillin plate (selective) came from
bacteria that would have had resistance to penicillin without ever having been exposed to it (spontaneous). If penicillin was inducing mutations than a constant fraction of bacteria transferred should grow on the penicillin plate and a constant fraction of the colonies would be present. Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 7.5 Identify types of point and frameshift mutations, discussing their impact on cellular processes. Section Reference 1: Section 7.5 Mutations
Chapter 9: Gene Transfer and Genetic Engineering
Question Type: Multiple Choice
1) When genes are passed on from parent to offspring, which of the following events has taken place? a) horizontal gene transfer b) transduction c) vertical gene transfer d) retrograde gene transfer Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.1 Describe the mechanism and significance of transformation. Section Reference 1: Section 8.1 The Types and Significance of Gene Transfer
2) Bacterial conjugation is an example of
.
a) transduction b) vertical gene transfer c) horizontal gene transfer d) bacterial transformation Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.1 Describe the mechanism and significance of transformation. Section Reference 1: Section 8.1 The Types and Significance of Gene Transfer
3) In horizontal gene transfer: a) genes are passed between bacteria of different generations b) genes are passed from mother cells to daughter cells c) genes are passed between bacteria of the same generation d) none of the above Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.1 Describe the mechanism and significance of transformation.
Section Reference 1: Section 8.1 The Types and Significance of Gene Transfer
4) Which of the following processes increases variation seen in bacteria? a) Transformation b) Conjugation c) Transduction d) all of the above Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.2 Describe the mechanism and significance of transduction. Section Reference 1: Section 8.3 Transduction 5) In Griffith’s transformation experiments, which of the following did not take place? a) Live, capsulated pneumococci killed mice b) Live unencapsulated bacteria were able to retrieve the DNA from dead encapsulated bacteria and become virulent c) DNA was transferred from capsulated to unencapsulated bacteria using a bacteriophage d) Dead, capsulated pneumococci had no effect on mice Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.1 Describe the mechanism and significance of transformation. Section Reference 1: Section 8.2 Transformation 6) In Griffith’s experiments, the “transforming substance” was
.
a) RNA b) Protein c) Polysaccharides d) DNA Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.1 Describe the mechanism and significance of transformation. Section Reference 1: Section 8.2 Transformation
7) In an experiment such as Griffith’s pneumococcal experiment which of the following, when injected into a mouse, would result in its death? a) Heat-killed, smooth pneumoccocci b) Live, rough pneumococci c) A mixture of heat killed smooth pneumococci and live rough pneumococci d) A mixture of heat killed rough pneumococci and live rough pneumococci Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.1 Describe the mechanism and significance of transformation. Section Reference 1: Section 8.2 Transformation
8) A bacterium that is transformed: a) cannot form a conjugation pilus b) has acquired naked DNA from the environment c) will probably die within 48 hours d) if injected, it always will result in the death of a mouse Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.1 Describe the mechanism and significance of transformation. Section Reference 1: Section 8.2 Transformation 9) Competence refers to a bacterium’s ability to
.
a) synthesize a protein from another species gene that has been engineered b) undergo conjunction with an F+ cell c) take up DNA fragments d) be infected by a phage Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.1 Describe the mechanism and significance of transformation. Section Reference 1: Section 8.2 Transformation
10) The transfer of DNA between bacterial cells by a virus is: a) transformation
b) transduction c) transferration d) conjugation Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.2 Describe the mechanism and significance of transduction. Section Reference 1: Section 8.3 Transduction
11) A lytic viral cycle is usually the result of infection by a: a) prophage b) virulent phage c) temperate phage d) antiphage Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.2 Describe the mechanism and significance of transduction. Section Reference 1: Section 8.3 Transduction
12) A virus which incorporates its DNA into the DNA of its host organism is existing as a . a) virulent phage b) prophage c) lytic phage d) none of the above Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.2 Describe the mechanism and significance of transduction. Section Reference 1: Section 8.3 Transduction
13) A phage is: a) a virus which can infect bacteria b) a virus which can infect humans c) a small bacterial cell which needs to live inside another cell d) a virus that shares its DNA with its host cell
Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.2 Describe the mechanism and significance of transduction. Section Reference 1: Section 8.3 Transduction
14) Which of the following happens earliest in a typical bacteriophage lytic cycle? a) Phage inserts its DNA into the host cell b) Phage DNA is inserted into the bacterial chromosome c) Bacterial cell lyses d) Viral DNA and proteins are produced by the host cell Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.2 Describe the mechanism and significance of transduction. Section Reference 1: Section 8.3 Transduction
15) A viral cycle, which ends with the rupture of the cell and release of new viral particles, is the: a) temperate cycle b) lytic cycle c) lysogenic cycle d) prophage cycle Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.2 Describe the mechanism and significance of transduction. Section Reference 1: Section 8.3 Transduction 16) “Specialized” transduction refers to the fact that: a) it only happens at specific times in the cell cycle b) only specific bacteria take part as hosts c) only a few specific genes are transferred d) only specific viruses take part in the process Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.2 Describe the mechanism and significance of transduction. Section Reference 1: Section 8.3 Transduction
17) In specialized transduction the bacterial genes transduced tend to be: a) those genes in greatest use by the bacteria b) those genes that are currently not being transcribed c) those genes that are located close to the site of the prophage insertion d) those genes that are small enough to fit in the viral head Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.2 Describe the mechanism and significance of transduction. Section Reference 1: Section 8.3 Transduction
18) During the process of lysogeny: a) a phage integrates into the chromosome of the bacterium b) a bacterium takes up DNA from the media c) new phage particles are assembled in the host bacterium d) a bacterium is split open to release new phage particles Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.2 Describe the mechanism and significance of transduction. Section Reference 1: Section 8.3 Transduction
19) Which of the following processes requires contact between donor and recipient cells? a) transduction b) transcription c) conjugation d) transformation Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.3 Describe the mechanism and significance of conjugation. Section Reference 1: Section 8.4 Conjugation
20) The genetic information needed for a cell to participate in conjugation resides in the DNA of a cell’s . a) bacterial chromosome b) F plasmid c) F pilus d) mitochondria Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.3 Describe the mechanism and significance of conjugation. Section Reference 1: Section 8.4 Conjugation
21) In a culture containing both F- and F+ cells, which of the following will occur if we wait long enough? a) No conjugation will occur b) The cells will all become genetically identical c) All F- will become F+ cells d) All F+ cells will become Fcells Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.3 Describe the mechanism and significance of conjugation. Section Reference 1: Section 8.4 Conjugation
22) When cells conjugate for longer periods of time, which of the following will occur? a) Fewer genes will be transferred. b) More genes will be transferred. c) The same number of genes will be transferred. d) It is impossible to tell. Conjugation time and number of genes transferred are not related. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.3 Describe the mechanism and significance of conjugation. Section Reference 1: Section 8.4 Conjugation
23) High frequency recombination cells arise when:
a) they have multiple F plasmids b) a portion of the cell’s F plasmid has been incorporated into the bacterial chromosome c) conjugation and transformation happen at the same time d) Bacterial chromosomes do not break during conjugation Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.3 Describe the mechanism and significance of conjugation. Section Reference 1: Section 8.4 Conjugation 24) F’ (prime) plasmids: a) are responsible for high frequency recombination b) carry some chromosomal genes c) are those plasmids that have never been incorporated into a bacterial chromosome d) none of the above Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 8.3 Describe the mechanism and significance of conjugation. Section Reference 1: Section 8.4 Conjugation
25) When conjugation occurs between a Hfr donor and a F- recipient, which of the following describes the outcome? a) F+ cells b) F- cells with some quantity of chromosomal DNA c) F- cells with no chromosomal DNA d) F’ cells with some duplicate gene pairs Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 8.3 Describe the mechanism and significance of conjugation. Section Reference 1: Section 8.4 Conjugation
26) The process of conjugation in bacteria requires that: a) two types of viruses be present b) the bacteria be deprived of nutrients
c) there be naked DNA in the environment d) there be contact between donor and recipient cells Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.3 Describe the mechanism and significance of conjugation. Section Reference 1: Section 8.4 Conjugation
27) Which of the following statements is true? a) High frequency recombination depends on a cell having multiple F plasmids. b) Promiscuous plasmids can only be transferred between the same species. c) Cells containing an F´ plasmid have multiple copies of some genes. d) An F pilus is needed for bacterial transformation. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 8.3 Describe the mechanism and significance of conjugation. Section Reference 1: Section 8.4 Conjugation
28) Plasmids which contain genes for the formation of an F pilus are called: a) transferable b) promiscuous c) competent d) lytic Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.3 Describe the mechanism and significance of conjugation. Section Reference 1: Section 8.4 Conjugation
29) Plasmids do which of the following? a) Direct synthesis of conjugation pili b) Provide resistance to certain antibiotics c) Induce the formation of tumors in plants d) All of the above are functions of plasmids Answer: d
Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.4 Identify the key features of a plasmid and the types that have been discovered. Section Reference 1: Section 8.6 Plasmids
30) The Ti plasmid is known primarily for its ability to: a) direct synthesis of conjugation pili b) provide resistance to certain antibiotics c) induce the formation of tumors in plants d) two of the above Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.4 Identify the key features of a plasmid and the types that have been discovered. Section Reference 1: Section 8.6 Plasmids
31) A another.
is a genetic sequence able to move from one location in a chromosome to
a) plasmid b) F factor c) transposon d) R factor Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.4 Identify the key features of a plasmid and the types that have been discovered. Section Reference 1: Section 8.6 Plasmids
32) A typical transposon is flanked by: a) resistance factors b) inverted repeat terminals c) RTF genes d) repressor sites Answer: b
Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 8.4 Identify the key features of a plasmid and the types that have been discovered. Section Reference 1: Section 8.6 Plasmids
33) Transposons are of particular significance because they
.
a) come in pairs and often are associated with viruses b) regulate gene transcription in bacteria c) can be inserted using a gene gun d) can insert either between genes or in genes in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.4 Identify the key features of a plasmid and the types that have been discovered. Section Reference 1: Section 8.6 Plasmids
34) Natural selection: a) predicts that the addition of antibiotics to an environment does not directly cause organisms to become resistant b) explains how antibiotic resistance can be maintained in a population c) doesn’t consider competition between strains d) two of the above Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 8.4 Identify the key features of a plasmid and the types that have been discovered. Section Reference 1: Section 8.6 Plasmids
35) Bacteriocins: a) are resistance molecules found on plasmids b) are inhibited by UV exposure c) are growth-inhibiting proteins that inhibit strains closely related to the producer d) only exist in eukaryotic organisms Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.4 Identify the key features of a plasmid and the types that have been discovered. Section Reference 1: Section 8.6 Plasmids
36) Removing the cell walls from two different strains of organisms and then allowing the membrane bound cells to combine with one another best describes: a) genetic fusion b) protoplast fusion c) cell fusion d) DNA fusion Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.5 Explain techniques employed in genetic engineering such as genetic fusion, protoplast fusion, gene amplification, recombinant DNA technology, and hybridoma creation. Section Reference 1: Section 8.7 Genetic Engineering
37) A transgenic organism: a) contains DNA from two different species of organism b) contains a plasmid c) is resistant to viral infection d) contains DNA which allows it transfer plasmids from its cells to other cells Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.5 Explain techniques employed in genetic engineering such as genetic fusion, protoplast fusion, gene amplification, recombinant DNA technology, and hybridoma creation. Section Reference 1: Section 8.7 Genetic Engineering
38) DNA can be cut at specific sites by using a) ligases b) restriction enzymes c) antibiotics d) plasmids
.
Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.5 Explain techniques employed in genetic engineering such as genetic fusion, protoplast fusion, gene amplification, recombinant DNA technology, and hybridoma creation. Section Reference 1: Section 8.7 Genetic Engineering
39) DNA from an organism can be incorporated into a vector using the enzyme
.
a) DNA polymerase b) RNA polymerase c) DNA ligase d) restriction endonuclease Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.5 Explain techniques employed in genetic engineering such as genetic fusion, protoplast fusion, gene amplification, recombinant DNA technology, and hybridoma creation. Section Reference 1: Section 8.7 Genetic Engineering
40) Bacteria that contain recombinant plasmids can be easily isolated because: a) they are larger than nonrecombinant bacteria b) they are designed to be resistant to certain antibiotics c) their colonies will be distinguished by a color variation from those colonies containing nonrecombinant plasmids d) they are smaller than non-recombinant bacteria Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 8.5 Explain techniques employed in genetic engineering such as genetic fusion, protoplast fusion, gene amplification, recombinant DNA technology, and hybridoma creation. Section Reference 1: Section 8.7 Genetic Engineering
41) Recombinant bacteria have been used to produce a) human growth hormone
.
b) vaccines c) insulin d) all of the above Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.5 Explain techniques employed in genetic engineering such as genetic fusion, protoplast fusion, gene amplification, recombinant DNA technology, and hybridoma creation. Section Reference 1: Section 8.7 Genetic Engineering
42) Electroporation is a technique that is used to
.
a) kill bacteria b) make bacteria competent c) increase conjugation among bacteria d) decrease the pathogenicity of bacteria Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.5 Explain techniques employed in genetic engineering such as genetic fusion, protoplast fusion, gene amplification, recombinant DNA technology, and hybridoma creation. Section Reference 1: Section 8.7 Genetic Engineering
43) Restriction enzymes come from
.
a) fungal cells b) viruses c) bacterial cells d) animal cells Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.5 Explain techniques employed in genetic engineering such as genetic fusion, protoplast fusion, gene amplification, recombinant DNA technology, and hybridoma creation. Section Reference 1: Section 8.7 Genetic Engineering 44) RFLP’s are the result of
.
a) treating cells with enzymes that remove their cell walls b) fusing two cells together c) genes being transferred by a virus d) cutting DNA with restriction enzymes Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.5 Explain techniques employed in genetic engineering such as genetic fusion, protoplast fusion, gene amplification, recombinant DNA technology, and hybridoma creation. Section Reference 1: Section 8.7 Genetic Engineering
45) Toxin from which of the following bacteria is used as an insecticide? a) E. coli b) B. thuringiensis c) P. fluorescens d) P. mirablis Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.5 Explain techniques employed in genetic engineering such as genetic fusion, protoplast fusion, gene amplification, recombinant DNA technology, and hybridoma creation. Section Reference 1: Section 8.7 Genetic Engineering
46) Gene therapy would describe which of the following scenarios? a) Bacteria which produce human growth hormone b) A DNA comparison in a paternity case c) Yeast which has been genetically engineered to produce yeast from starch d) Replacing a defective gene in human cells Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.5 Explain techniques employed in genetic engineering such as genetic fusion, protoplast fusion, gene amplification, recombinant DNA technology, and hybridoma creation. Section Reference 1: Section 8.7 Genetic Engineering
47) Hybridomas are used to produce large quantities of
.
a) restriction enzymes b) monoclonal antibodies c) antibiotics d) natural insecticides Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.5 Explain techniques employed in genetic engineering such as genetic fusion, protoplast fusion, gene amplification, recombinant DNA technology, and hybridoma creation. Section Reference 1: Section 8.7 Genetic Engineering
48) In 1981 a review of safety concerns concerning recombinant DNA research found that: a) mutants of E. coli require special sanitization practices b) laboratory workers could become easily infected with the strain of E. coli normally used in lab experiments c) no illnesses could be traced to laboratory researchers working with recombinants d) two of the above are true Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.5 Explain techniques employed in genetic engineering such as genetic fusion, protoplast fusion, gene amplification, recombinant DNA technology, and hybridoma creation. Section Reference 1: Section 8.7 Genetic Engineering
49) Gene amplification: a) allows transposition of genes from one location on a chromosome to another b) occurs when recombinant plasmids are induced to reproduce within cells at a rapid rate c) allows material from one strain to recombine with that from another strain d) complicate our ability to increase antibiotic production Answer: b Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective 1: LO 8.5 Explain techniques employed in genetic engineering such as genetic fusion, protoplast fusion, gene amplification, recombinant DNA technology, and hybridoma creation. Section Reference 1: Section 8.7 Genetic Engineering
50) Hybridomas: a) are responsible for tumor formation in plants b) are resistant to monoclonal antibodies c) divide and grow for only a short period of time d) are the fusion of antibody producing plasma cell and a cancer cell Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.5 Explain techniques employed in genetic engineering such as genetic fusion, protoplast fusion, gene amplification, recombinant DNA technology, and hybridoma creation. Section Reference 1: Section 8.7 Genetic Engineering
51) Without restriction endonucleases, it would be impossible to
.
a) insert plasmids into bacteria b) bring about muations in bacteria c) replicate DNA in a recombinant cell d) cut the DNA of plasmids Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 8.1 Describe the mechanism and significance of transformation. Section Reference 1: Section 8.2 Transformation
52) Which of the following may contribute to resistant strains of bacteria?
a) A b) B c) Both A and B are correct d) Neither A nor B are correct Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.4 Identify the key features of a plasmid and the types that have been discovered. Section Reference 1: Section 8.6 Plasmids
53) This illustration represents:
a) conjugation or transformation b) transduction or mutation c) genetic fusion d) protoplast fusion or gene amplification Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 8.5 Explain techniques employed in genetic engineering such as genetic fusion, protoplast fusion, gene amplification, recombinant DNA technology, and hybridoma creation. Section Reference 1: Section 8.7 Genetic Engineering
54) This cell is the result of fusing a:
a) cancer cell and a plasma cell. b) virus and a bacterium c) cancer cell and a virus d) plasma cell and a virus Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.5 Explain techniques employed in genetic engineering such as genetic fusion, protoplast fusion, gene amplification, recombinant DNA technology, and hybridoma creation. Section Reference 1: Section 8.7 Genetic Engineering
Question Type: Essay
55) Describe the experiments of Griffith that led to the discovery of transformation. How could one design an experiment to demonstrate that transformation was due to the transfer of DNA?
Answer: There are three preparations of pneumococci, which each have different effects in experimental mice infections. With an injection of heat-killed smooth pneumococci (with capsules) the mouse lived. When live virulent smooth pneumococci (with capsules) were injected the mouse died. With an injection of live, nonvirulent, rough pneumococci (with no capsule) the mouse lived. When Griffith mixed the heat-killed smooth with the nonvirulent rough pneumococci the mouse died and from the dead mouse live smooth pneumococci (with capsules) were isolated in addition to the original nonvirulent rough pneumococci. Griffith hypothesized that there was some transforming principle that was present in the heat-killed that converted the rough pneumococci into smooth pneumococci. The transforming principle could be identified as DNA, if you separate out all of the classes of compounds from the heat-killed bacteria and tested each class for the ability to convert rough into smooth. Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.1 Describe the mechanism and significance of transformation. Section Reference 1: Section 8.2 Transformation
56) Soil bacteria are incredibly resistant to multiple antibiotics, presumably as a response to competition from bacteria that produce antibiotics. What are three ways that these antibiotic resistant genes could move from soil bacteria species to other species of bacteria? Briefly describe each gene transfer process. Name one or more factors that would affect the likelihood of this transfer occurring. Answer: The three ways that genes can be passed from one species to another are transformation, transduction and conjugation. Transformation is the uptake of naked DNA fragments that may be spliced into the recipient’s DNA. Transduction is when a bacteriophage carries a bacterial gene and through the viruses lifecycle incorporates the gene into the recipient bacteria’s chromosome. Lastly conjugation involves the transfer of DNA in Fplasmids that are then incorporated into the chromosome. Factors that would affect the likelihood of this transfer include but are not limited to: the amount of contact that would occur between (naked DNA, bacteriophages or plasmids from) soil bacteria and the other bacteria; the intensity of selection (presence of antibiotics), and the location of the genes on plasmids or in bacteriophages. Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 8.4 Identify the key features of a plasmid and the types that have been discovered. Section Reference 1: Section 8.5 Gene Transfer Mechanisms Compared
57) A relative is upset about genetically modified organisms being in food that she might eat. How are transgenic organisms different from organisms that undergo recombination events in nature? How do you feel about transgenic organisms? Do you feel the same about organisms used for laboratory research as those that are crops? How about transgenic organisms used to
manufacture medical treatments or pets? Explain all of your opinions with scientific arguments or evidence. Answer: Transgenic organisms have well-characterized genes transferred from one organism to another (by a scientist). The process of transfer is much more precise, cost effective and predictable than is possible simply by observing recombination events in nature. Furthermore recombination in nature can occur with any gene, while transgenic organisms have been engineered to contain and express a specific gene. Personal opinion- answers could include: One could feel afraid or negatively about transgenic organisms. In this case, scientific reasons may include: unknown risks, destruction of ecological balance, unknown phenotypes, possibility that transgenic organisms could transfer genes to other organisms, or lack of safety testing. One could feel positively about transgenic organisms because of their wide range of applications, no illnesses have been reported, failure of transgenic organisms to be virulent, natural incorporation of mammalian genes into bacteria leads to bacteria that are ill adapted for their environment, transgenic organisms are easy to control. Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 8.5 Explain techniques employed in genetic engineering such as genetic fusion, protoplast fusion, gene amplification, recombinant DNA technology, and hybridoma creation. Section Reference 1: Section 8.7 Genetic Engineering
Chapter 10: An Introduction to Taxonomy: The
Bacteria Question Type: Multiple Choice
1) Which one of the following is a prokaryote without a cell wall? a) Virus b) Cyanobacterium c) Mycoplasma d) Rickettsia Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.2 Review the features of the five-kingdom classification system. Section Reference 1: Section 9.3 The Five-Kingdom Classification System
2) Which one of the following microorganisms was once called blue-green algae? a) Mycoplasmas b) Cyanobacteria c) Chlamydiae d) Rickettsia Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.2 Review the features of the five-kingdom classification system. Section Reference 1: Section 9.3 The Five-Kingdom Classification System
3) Which one of the following microorganisms has its own kingdom in the five-kingdom of classification? a) Viruses b) Algae c) Bacteria d) Fungi Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.2 Review the features of the five-kingdom classification system.
Section Reference 1: Section 9.3 The Five-Kingdom Classification System
4) The five kingdom system of classification was developed by
.
a) Charles Darwin b) Robert Hooke c) Louis Pasteur d) Robert Whittaker Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.2 Review the features of the five-kingdom classification system. Section Reference 1: Section 9.3 The Five-Kingdom Classification System
5) All of the following are considered eukaryotes except: a) Archea b) Fungi c) Protozoa d) Humans Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.2 Review the features of the five-kingdom classification system. Section Reference 1: Section 9.3 The Five-Kingdom Classification System
6) The binomial name of a microbe is composed of its
.
a) kingdom and genus names b) genus name and a species modifier c) family and class names d) genus and family names Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.1 Assess the value of the taxonomic hierarchies that have been constructed, explaining how a dichotomous key works. Section Reference 1: Section 9.1 Taxonomy: The Science of Classification
7) The science of classification is generally known as
.
a) nomenclature b) taxonomy c) morphology d) dichotomy Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.1 Assess the value of the taxonomic hierarchies that have been constructed, explaining how a dichotomous key works. Section Reference 1: Section 9.1 Taxonomy: The Science of Classification
8) Classification is necessary to
.
a) establish criteria for identifying organisms b) arrange related organisms into groups c) provide information on how organisms evolved d) All of the above Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.1 Asses the value of the taxonomic hierarchies that have been constructed. Section Reference 1: Section 9.1 Taxonomy: The Science of Classification
9) Binomial nomenclature was originated by
.
a) Louis Pasteur b) Robert Koch c) Hans Delbruck d) Carolus Linnaeus Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.1 Assess the value of the taxonomic hierarchies that have been constructed, explaining how a dichotomous key works. Section Reference 1: Section 9.1 Taxonomy: The Science of Classification
10) In the name Escherichia coli, Escherichia refers to the
of the bacteria.
a) class b) phylum c) species d) genus Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.1 Assess the value of the taxonomic hierarchies that have been constructed, explaining how a dichotomous key works. Section Reference 1: Section 9.1 Taxonomy: The Science of Classification
11) Which of the following organisms shows the proper use of binomial nomenclature? a) escherichia coli b) Escherichia Coli c) Escherichia coli d) escherichia coli Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.1 Assess the value of the taxonomic hierarchies that have been constructed, explaining how a dichotomous key works. Section Reference 1: Section 9.1 Taxonomy: The Science of Classification
12) Which of the following levels of classification would contain the greatest number of organisms? a) Phylum b) Order c) Genus d) Class Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.1 Assess the value of the taxonomic hierarchies that have been constructed, explaining how a dichotomous key works. Section Reference 1: Section 9.1 Taxonomy: The Science of Classification
13) The correct order of taxonomic hierarchies (from most broad to most specific) is
.
a) class, order, family, phylum b) order, family, class, phylum c) phylum, class, order, family d) phylum, class, family, order Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.1 Assess the value of the taxonomic hierarchies that have been constructed, explaining how a dichotomous key works. Section Reference 1: Section 9.1 Taxonomy: The Science of Classification
14) Organisms in the same .
are more closely related than are organisms in the same
a) phylum, genus b) class, order c) family, phylum d) phylum, order Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.1 Assess the value of the taxonomic hierarchies that have been constructed, explaining how a dichotomous key works. Section Reference 1: Section 9.1 Taxonomy: The Science of Classification
15) A strain is a subgroup of a
.
a) phylum b) class c) family d) species Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.1 Assess the value of the taxonomic hierarchies that have been constructed, explaining how a dichotomous key works. Section Reference 1: Section 9.2 Using a Taxonomic Key
16) A tool used by biologist that involves asking a series of “either-or” questions which eventually leads to the identification of an organism is a/an . a) species key b) evolutionary tree c) dichotomous key d) binary chart Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.1 Assess the value of the taxonomic hierarchies that have been constructed, explaining how a dichotomous key works. Section Reference 1: Section 9.2 Using a Taxonomic Key
17) A bacterial strain contains
.
a) several species b) several families c) a subgroup of a species with some of the same characteristics d) a subgroup of a genus which have permanent genetic differences Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.1 Assess the value of the taxonomic hierarchies that have been constructed, explaining how a dichotomous key works. Section Reference 1: Section 9.2 Using a Taxonomic Key
18) Which of the following questions would not be a good choice for a dichotomous key? a) Are the cells rod shaped? b) Are the cells Gram negative? c) Do the cells ferment glucose? d) Where is the cell usually found? Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.1 Assess the value of the taxonomic hierarchies that have been constructed, explaining how a dichotomous key works. Section Reference 1: Section 9.2 Using a Taxonomic Key
19) Organisms are generally classified according to
.
a) cell size b) evolutionary relationships c) colony color d) None of these choices Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.1 Assess the value of the taxonomic hierarchies that have been constructed, explaining how a dichotomous key works. Section Reference 1: Section 9.2 Using a Taxonomic Key
20) Which of the following is a reason that bacteria cannot be classified in the same way as animals? a) Some bacteria are not motile. b) Bacteria do not reproduce sexually. c) Bacteria are single celled organisms. d) Bacteria are prokaryotic organisms. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.2 Review the features of the five-kingdom classification system. Section Reference 1: Section 9.3 The Five-Kingdom Classification System
21) The historic two-kingdom system of classification divided all organisms into either or . a) animals, bacteria b) plants, animals c) eukaryotic, prokaryotic d) motile, nonmotile Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.3 Appraise the need for the three-domain classification system. Section Reference 1: Section 9.4 The Three-Domain Classification System
22) Before bacteria received a kingdom of their own they were generally classified along with:
a) protists b) animals c) fungi d) viruses Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.2 Review the features of the five-kingdom classification system. Section Reference 1: Section 9.3 The Five-Kingdom Classification System
23) Which of the following characteristics is not found in all cellular life forms? a) Cells that are bounded by a membrane b) Genetic information carried in the form of DNA c) Ability to convert light energy to chemical energy d) Ribosomes that produce proteins Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.2 Review the features of the five-kingdom classification system. Section Reference 1: Section 9.3 The Five-Kingdom Classification System
24) All members of the historic Kingdom Monera are: a) cyanobacteria b) prokaryotes c) fungi d) protists Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.2 Review the features of the five-kingdom classification system. Section Reference 1: Section 9.3 The Five-Kingdom Classification System
25) A prokaryotic cell would have been assigned to which of the taxonomic Kingdoms? a) Monera b) Animalia c) Fungi
d) Protista Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.2 Review the features of the five-kingdom classification system. Section Reference 1: Section 9.3 The Five-Kingdom Classification System
26) A eukaryotic, unicellular organism with no cell wall would be classified as
.
a) Monera b) Animal c) Fungi d) Protista Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.2 Review the features of the five-kingdom classification system. Section Reference 1: Section 9.3 The Five-Kingdom Classification System
27) A eukaryotic, multicellular organism that has no cell wall would be classified as a/an: a) moneran b) animal c) fungus d) protist Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.2 Review the features of the five-kingdom classification system. Section Reference 1: Section 9.3 The Five-Kingdom Classification System
28) The Kingdom Monera was also known as the Kingdom a) Bacteria b) Eubacteria c) Prokaryotae d) Archaeobacteria Answer: c
.
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.2 Review the features of the five-kingdom classification system. Section Reference 1: Section 9.3 The Five-Kingdom Classification System
29) Within the Kingdom Monera, the group of most interest to medical microbiologists is the: a) cyanobacteria b) eubacteria c) archaeobacteria d) prokaryotic bacteria Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.2 Review the features of the five-kingdom classification system. Section Reference 1: Section 9.3 The Five-Kingdom Classification System
30) Bacteria found in extreme environments (e.g., high heat, very high salt concentration) would best be described as a member of the . a) eubacteria b) prokaryotae c) cyanobacteria d) archaeobacteria Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.2 Review the features of the five-kingdom classification system. Section Reference 1: Section 9.3 The Five-Kingdom Classification System
31) In the five-kingdom scheme of classification, algae are classified along in the Kingdom: a) Monera b) Protista c) Plant d) Protista and Plant Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.2 Review the features of the five-kingdom classification system. Section Reference 1: Section 9.3 The Five-Kingdom Classification System
32) Which Kingdom includes all animals derived from zygotes? a) Fungi b) Plantae c) Animalia d) Protista Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.2 Review the features of the five-kingdom classification system. Section Reference 1: Section 9.3 The Five-Kingdom Classification System
33) Fungi can be differentiated from plants by the fact that
.
a) fungi are all unicellular, plants are all multicellular b) fungi do not have a cell wall, plants have a cell wall c) fungi cannot photosynthesize, plants can photosynthesize d) fungi are prokaryotic, plants are eukaryotic Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.2 Review the features of the five-kingdom classification system. Section Reference 1: Section 9.3 The Five-Kingdom Classification System
34) Which groups of animals are not usually of concern to the microbiologist? a) ticks b) tapeworms c) fleas d) moths Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.2 Review the features of the five-kingdom classification system. Section Reference 1: Section 9.3 The Five-Kingdom Classification System
35) Fossil studies indicate that life on earth first arose about 4 billion years ago. How many billion years ago did multicellular living organisms appear in the fossil record?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.3 Appraise the need for the three-domain classification system. Section Reference 1: Section 9.4 The Three-Domain Classification System
36) In the five-kingdom system of classification,
.
a) viruses cannot be classified b) all prokaryotic organisms are found in the kingdom eubacteria c) all organisms that can photosynthesize are found in the plant kingdom d) a domain is a division of a kingdom Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.2 Review the features of the five-kingdom classification system. Section Reference 1: Section 9.3 The Five-Kingdom Classification System
37) The three-domain system of classification does not include the
.
a) archaea b) eukarya c) monera d) bacteria Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.3 Appraise the need for the three-domain classification system. Section Reference 1: Section 9.4 The Three-Domain Classification System
38) According to the three-domain classification system an organism with a cell wall made of peptidoglycan would belong to the . a) Bacteria b) Archaea
c) Eukarya d) none of the above Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.3 Appraise the need for the three-domain classification system. Section Reference 1: Section 9.4 The Three-Domain Classification System
39) According to the three-domain classification system an organism with cells measuring more than 10 micrometers across would most likely belong to the . a) eukarya b) bacteria c) archaea d) eukarya, bacteria and archaea would be equally likely Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.3 Appraise the need for the three-domain classification system. Section Reference 1: Section 9.4 The Three-Domain Classification System
40) According to the three-domain classification system, modern plants and animals belong to which Domain? a) bacteria b) eukarya c) archaea d) none of the above Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.3 Appraise the need for the three-domain classification system. Section Reference 1: Section 9.4 The Three-Domain Classification System
41) In the three-domain classification system
.
a) all prokaryotes are grouped into the same domain b) eukaryotes are found in two of the domains c) archea may be more closely related eukaryotes than to bacteria d) two of the above
Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.3 Appraise the need for the three-domain classification system. Section Reference 1: Section 9.4 The Three-Domain Classification System
42) Organisms that degrade organic molecules to methane belong to the domain
.
a) Archaea b) Eukarya c) Bacteria d) Monera Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.3 Appraise the need for the three-domain classification system. Section Reference 1: Section 9.4 The Three-Domain Classification System
43) Viruses are not assigned to any Kingdom because
.
a) there are too few viruses to bother b) viruses are not cellular life forms c) virology is not a recognized branch of microbiology d) none of the above, viruses are grouped with the bacteria Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.4 Explain why viruses are classified independently of other life forms. Section Reference 1: Section 9.5 Classification of Viruses
44) Genetic homology determines evolutionary relationships among organisms based on: a) the similarity of antibody reactions between species b) the similarity of DNA between species c) morphological similarities between species d) the number of traits shared by two organisms Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.5 Describe some of the scientific methods employed by evolutionary biologists such as numerical taxonomy, genetic homology comparisons, and serological studies. Section Reference 1: Section 9.6 The Search for Evolutionary Relationships
45) If an organism contains 13% adenine in its DNA, its GC content is
.
a) 13% b) 26% c) 74% d) 37% Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.5 Describe some of the scientific methods employed by evolutionary biologists such as numerical taxonomy, genetic homology comparisons, and serological studies. Section Reference 1: Section 9.6 The Search for Evolutionary Relationships
46) In DNA hybridization experiments, DNA from two closely related organisms will show . a) very little annealing b) a high percentage of annealing c) 100% annealing d) it is impossible to tell Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.5 Describe some of the scientific methods employed by evolutionary biologists such as numerical taxonomy, genetic homology comparisons, and serological studies. Section Reference 1: Section 9.6 The Search for Evolutionary Relationships
47) Polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis is used to separate a) DNA by GC content b) proteins by size c) DNA by nucleotide sequence d) proteins by amino acid sequence Answer: b
.
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.5 Describe some of the scientific methods employed by evolutionary biologists such as numerical taxonomy, genetic homology comparisons, and serological studies. Section Reference 1: Section 9.6 The Search for Evolutionary Relationships
48) The 16S ribosomal subunit is used to study evolutionary relatedness because
.
a) it is the easiest type of RNA to sequence b) ribosomes have evolved very slowly due to their essential roles in cells c) ribosomes evolve very quickly so differences are easy to spot d) None of the above Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.5 Describe some of the scientific methods employed by evolutionary biologists such as numerical taxonomy, genetic homology comparisons, and serological studies. Section Reference 1: Section 9.6 The Search for Evolutionary Relationships
49) In phage typing, bacteria that are lysed by the same type of bacteriophage are thought to be: a) more closely related to one another b) less closely related to one another c) more closely related to the bacteriophage d) less closely related to the bacteriophage Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.5 Describe some of the scientific methods employed by evolutionary biologists such as numerical taxonomy, genetic homology comparisons, and serological studies. Section Reference 1: Section 9.6 The Search for Evolutionary Relationships
50). Which of the following criteria is not commonly used to classify Bacteria? a) Morphology b) Shape of ribosomes c) Staining characteristics d) Biochemical characteristics Answer: b Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective 1: LO 9.6 Evaluate Bergey’s contributions to bacterial classification and identification. Section Reference 1: Section 9.7 Bacterial Taxonomy and Nomenclature
51) Rickettsiae and Chlamydiae are unusual in that they
.
a) are sometimes gram negative and sometimes gram positive b) have no cell walls c) must live inside other living cells d) are extremely large Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.6 Evaluate Bergey’s contributions to bacterial classification and identification. Section Reference 1: Section 9.7 Bacterial Taxonomy and Nomenclature
52) A useful technique for comparing different bacterial species based on if they are susceptible to infection by the same virus is called . a) protein profile b) virus profile c) phage typing d) serology Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.6 Evaluate Bergey’s contributions to bacterial classification and identification. Section Reference 1: Section 9.7 Bacterial Taxonomy and Nomenclature
53) In a bacterial species with multiple chromosomes,
.
a) having one or two chromosomes has no evolutionary impact b) it is very simple to distinguish between a chromosome and plasmid purely based on size c) scientists postulate the use of a microfilament structure to ensure partition of both chromosomes to each daughter cell d) duplicate genes that differ by mutations classify the organism as diploid Answer: c Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective 1: LO 9.6 Evaluate Bergey’s contributions to bacterial classification and identification. Section Reference 1: Section 9.7 Bacterial Taxonomy and Nomenclature
54) The organisms represented in this illustration are members of the Kingdom
.
a) Protista b) Monera c) Plantae d) Fungi Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 9.2 Review the features of the five-kingdom classification system. Section Reference 1: Section 9.3 The Five-Kingdom Classification System
55) Use the following dichotomous key to determine the identity of an organism with the following characteristics: not Gram (+), not Gram (-), not rod-shaped, not spherical-shaped, and it is comma-shaped.
a) Spirochetes b) Vibrioids c) Corynebacteria d) Mycoplasma Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.1 Assess the value of the taxonomic hierarchies that have been constructed, explaining how a dichotomous key works. Section Reference 1: Section 9.2 Using a Taxonomic Key
Question Type: Essay
56) How do lateral gene transfer and symbiosis complicate both the three-domain or fivekingdom treelike structure? Where do viruses, viroids and prions fit in today’s taxonomy? Are they classified based on phylogeny or morphology? Answer: The branching treelike structure suggests that the domains or kingdoms have remained isolated. However, lateral gene transfer allows for a Bacteria to have ¼ of its genome comprised of Archaean genes. It is clear that lateral gene transfer means there are connecting branches between the domains/kingdoms and that organisms have multiple origins of ancestry. In addition, symbiosis has lead to some components of an organisms genomes coming from other organisms, such as chloroplasts and mitochondria within eukaryotic cells. These symbiotic additions of genes also lead to connecting branches between the domains/kingdoms or a shrublike structure. Viruses are classified by their chemical and physical characteristics. Viroids are a fragment of RNA and a prion is a protein molecule which folds incorrectly. Both viroids and prions are classified based on their molecular characteristics (viroids based on RNA sequence and prions based on amino acid sequence). Viruses, viroids and prions are classified based on their molecular constitution (morphology) not their evolutionary relationships (phylogeny).
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.2 Explain how a dichotomous key works; LO 9.4 Explain why viruses are classified independently of other life forms. Section Reference 1: Section 9.2 Using a Taxonomic Key; Section 9.5 Classification of Viruses
57) What is a species? How are species determined for bacteria and plants/animalsIs the notion of a species still relevant when morphology, ecology/environmental pressures and phylogeny may present such differing ways in which to organize organisms and their relatedness. Answer: Species is the basic unit of biological classification or the narrowest division for a group of organisms with many common characteristics or is the group of organisms that are distinguished from others based on some characteristic and titled with the binomial nomenclature. Species is determined in plants and animals based on whether a male and a female are able to reproduce sexually. Species is determined in bacteria based on the similarities found among its members. Second part is personal opinion. But one could argue that the morphology/sexual reproductive species concept is best as we have already defined a working classification system based on it and it can be easily defined/tested as it is based on observable phenomena. Or argue that an ecological species would allow us to explore the ecological and evolutionary processes controlling how resources are divided up. Or argue that an evolutionary species would allow us to determine clearly how much diversity can be tolerated within the unity of a species. Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 9.5 Describe some of the scientific methods employed by evolutionary biologists such as numerical taxonomy, genetic homology comparisons, and serological studies.
Section Reference 1: Section 9.6 The Search for Evolutionary Relationships
58) To classify new microbes, modern genetic techniques are employed. Why would the evolutionarily relatedness of genes (genetic homology) be more useful than morphology? How are ribosomal RNAs used to study evolutionary relationships among organisms? Answer: Genetic homology allows for one to group closely related organisms and to separate them from less closely related ones. Morphology observed could be due to convergent evolution whereas genetic differences allow us to clearly distinguish whether there was a common ancestor. Ribosomal RNA is useful because mutations are rarely tolerated and so ribosomes have evolved very slowly. This allows for distinguishing between two species based on the fixed changes observed in 16S rRNA. Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 9.5 Describe some of the scientific methods employed by evolutionary biologists such as numerical taxonomy, genetic homology comparisons, and serological studies. Section Reference 1: Section 9.6 The Search for Evolutionary Relationships
Package Title: Testbank Course Title: Viruses Chapter: 10
Question Type: Multiple Choice
1) Viruses have some of the properties of cellular life forms. Which of the following is a characteristic of all organisms except viruses? a) presence of a plasma membrane b) capable of mutation c) ability to reproduce inside a living host d) grow in response to their environment conditions Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.1 Describe the structural components, shapes, and sizes of viruses. Section Reference 1: Section 10.1 General Characteristics of Viruses
2) Viruses are referred to as obligate intracellular parasites because: a) viral DNA inserts itself into host DNA. b) they reproduce and then exit the cell. c) they use the host's energy to live. d) they must use the host’s machinery to synthesize components required for assembly into new virus particles. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.1 Describe the structural components, shapes, and sizes of viruses. Section Reference 1: Section 10.1 General Characteristics of Viruses
3) Which of the following structures do viruses use to attach themselves and enter the host cells? a) viral spikes b) viral tails c) viral particles
d) viral nucleic acid Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.1 Describe the structural components, shapes, and sizes of viruses. Section Reference 1: Section 10.1 General Characteristics of Viruses
4) Some viruses have a lipid bilayer, also known as the viral envelope. The viral envelope is most likely to come from the following source: a) host cell plasma membrane b) host membrane bound organelles c) host nucleus d) another virus Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.1 Describe the structural components, shapes, and sizes of viruses. Section Reference 1: Section 10.1 General Characteristics of Viruses
5) Advantages provided by the viral envelope include: a) helping viruses infect new cells by fusion of the envelope with the host’s plasma membrane. b) helping viruses “hide” from attack by the host’s immune system. c) resistance to extreme pH (below 6 or above 8). d) both helping viruses infect new cells by fusion of the envelope with the host’s plasma membrane and helping hide” from attack by the host’s immune system. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.1 Describe the structural components, shapes, and sizes of viruses. Section Reference 1: Section 10.1 General Characteristics of Viruses
6) A naked virus: a) has no protein coat around its nucleic acid.
b) is unable to attach itself to a host cell. c) has no envelope d) has no infectious piece of DNA Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1:LO 10.1 Describe the structural components, shapes, and sizes of viruses. Section Reference 1: Section 10.1 General Characteristics of Viruses
7) Which structure of the herpesvirus is represented by the arrow?
a) Capsid b) Nucleic acid core c) Spikes d) Envelope Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.1 Describe the structural components, shapes, and sizes of viruses.
Section Reference 1: Section 10.1 General Characteristics of Viruses
8) A minus (antisense) strand virus might synthesize proteins within a host cell through the following synthesis pathway: a) minus strand RNA protein b) minus strand RNA plus strand RNA c) RNA DNA protein d) RNA RNA DNA protein
protein
Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 10.4 Describe the five key steps of viral replication as they occur in bacteriophages and animal viruses. Section Reference 1: Section 10.4 Viral Replication
9) DNA viruses are grouped into families based on the following characteristics except: a) presence of an envelope b) presence of a capsid c) whether DNA is single stranded or double stranded d) whether DNA is linear or circular Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2 Identify the main characteristics used to classify viruses. Section Reference 1: Section 10.2 Classification of Viruses
10) The families of RNA viruses are distinguished from one another by all of the following except: a) presence of an envelope b) shape of the capsid c) sense or antisense RNA d) whether RNA is linear or circular Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2 Identify the main characteristics used to classify viruses. Section Reference 1: Section 10.2 Classification of Viruses
11) Viruses that have plus strand RNA chromosomes that acts as a template for DNA synthesis are known as: a) retroviruses. b) proviruses. c) viroids. d) bacteriophages. e) lytic phages. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2 Identify the main characteristics used to classify viruses. Section Reference 1: Section 10.2 Classification of Viruses
12) You have isolated an unknown virus. It is a double-stranded DNA virus and does not have an envelope. To which virus family does it mostly likely belong? a) Paramyxoviridae b) Retroviridae c) Adenoviridae d) Parvoviridae Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2 Identify the main characteristics used to classify viruses. Section Reference 1: Section 10.2 Classification of Viruses
13) Common colds and influenza are caused by which of the following pair of virus families? a) Adenoviridae & Orthomyxoviridae b) Enterovirus &Retrovirus c) Flavivirus & Rhinovirus d) Poxvirus & Papillomavirus Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2 Identify the main characteristics used to classify viruses. Section Reference 1: Section 10.2 Classification of Viruses
14) All of the following viruses may stay inside of a cell for many years and remain inactive except: a) herpes simplex b) chickenpox c) HIV d) enterovirus Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2 Identify the main characteristics used to classify viruses. Section Reference 1: Section 10.2 Classification of Viruses
15) Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS) is caused by a retrovirus. Which of the following best represents the genetic information flow used by retroviruses? a) DNA mRNA protein b) DNA protein c) RNA DNA mRNA d) RNA protein
protein
Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2 Identify the main characteristics used to classify viruses. Section Reference 1: Section 10.2 Classification of Viruses
16. The reason that retroviruses can direct the formation of DNA from RNA is because most retroviruses contain the following enzyme a) RNA polymerase b) DNA polymerase c) DNA ligase d) reverse transcriptase Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2 Identify the main characteristics used to classify viruses. Section Reference 1: Section 10.2 Classification of Viruses
17) A viral infection is treated with a drug designed to inhibit reverse transcriptase. Which of the following viruses would not be affected? a) Human Immunodeficiency virus b) Murine leukemia virus c) Hepatitis B virus d) none of these choices Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2 Identify the main characteristics used to classify viruses. Section Reference 1: Section 10.2 Classification of Viruses
18) A latent viral infection is an infection in which: a) viral replication is slow b) viruses remains within host cells without causing a disease c) a viral infection causes a disease progression gradually over a long period d) viral replication has stopped but may resume years or decades later upon reactivation Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2 Identify the main characteristics used to classify viruses. Section Reference 1: Section 10.2 Classification of Viruses
19) Which of the following viruses are known for causing latent infections? a) adenoviruses b) herpesviruses c) poxviruses d) parvoviruses Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2 Identify the main characteristics used to classify viruses. Section Reference 1: Section 10.2 Classification of Viruses
20) Which of the following diseases is NOT caused by a poxvirus? a) smallpox
b) chickenpox c) cowpox d) monkeypox Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2 Identify the main characteristics used to classify viruses. Section Reference 1: Section 10.2 Classification of Viruses
21) Reactivation of chickenpox long after the initial infection leads to: a) cancer b) influenza c) shingles d) varicella Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2 Identify the main characteristics used to classify viruses. Section Reference 1: Section 10.2 Classification of Viruses
22) Viral host range refers to the: a) tissue types able to be infected by a virus b) number of species that are infected by a virus c) number of eukaryotic kingdoms able to be infected by a virus d) none of these choices Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2 Identify the main characteristics used to classify viruses. Section Reference 1: Section 10.2 Classification of Viruses
23) A virus that is specific for a bacterial host is called a: a) phage b) prion c) viroid d) virion
Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.4 Describe the five key steps of viral replication as they occur in bacteriophages and animal viruses. Section Reference 1: Section 10.4 Viral Replication
24) Which is the best scientific explanation for the increasing concern over the recent outbreaks of avian influenza in Hong Kong and other Asian locations? a) avian influenza may infect humans. b) human influenza viruses may exchange genetic material with avian influenza viruses and infect humans more efficiently. c) avian influenza may spread to other countries. d) avian influenza may change to another virus that could infect humans. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 10.3 Explain what is meant by the term “emerging viruses,” providing an example of such a virus. Section Reference 1: Section 10.3 Emerging Viruses
25) Select the true statement regarding yellow fever. a) Yellow fever is endemic to the United States. b) Yellow fever is only transmitted by one mosquito species c) Yellow fever is transmitted by ticks and mosquitoes d) Yellow fever is caused by a flavivirus. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.3 Explain what is meant by the term “emerging viruses,” providing an example of such a virus. Section Reference 1: Section 10.3 Emerging Viruses
26) In the early 1990s, this emerging virus was of concern to the United States. It is transmitted from rodent feces and urine to human beings. This emerging virus is the: a) influenza virus b) rhinovirus c) hantavirus
d) poliovirus Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.3 Explain what is meant by the term “emerging viruses” and provide an example of such a virus Section Reference 1: Section 10.3 Emerging Viruses
27) Which of the following represents the correct order of steps in a typical virus replication cycle? a) maturation b) adsorption c) adsorption d) adsorption
adsorption penetration penetration penetration
penetration release synthesis release maturation synthesis synthesis maturation release maturation synthesis release
Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.4 Describe the five key steps of viral replication as they occur in bacteriophages and animal viruses. Section Reference 1: Section 10.4 Viral Replication
28) Assembly of new viral components into a complete virion takes place during viral . a) maturation b) adsorption c) penetration d) synthesis Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.4 Describe the five key steps of viral replication as they occur in bacteriophages and animal viruses. Section Reference 1: Section 10.4 Viral Replication
29) Which of the following is used by negative strand RNA viruses such as measles and influenza during their replication cycle? a) synthesize DNA via reverse transcriptase
b) synthesize a double stranded RNA intermediate c) synthesize an RNA:DNA hybrid whose RNA is a (+) strand d) synthesize an RNA:DNA hybrid whose DNA is a (–) strand Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.4 Describe the five key steps of viral replication as they occur in bacteriophages and animal viruses. Section Reference 1: Section 10.4 Viral Replication
30) Identify the portion of the growth curve that represents the time after penetration through the release of mature phages.
a) A b) B c) C Answer: b Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective 1: LO 10.4 Describe the five key steps of viral replication as they occur in bacteriophages and animal viruses. Section Reference 1: Section 10.4 Viral Replication
31) Much of the information about how viruses work has been gleaned from studying Teven phages that infect: a) bacteria b) human cells c) mammalian cells d) plant cells Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.4 Describe the five key steps of viral replication as they occur in bacteriophages and animal viruses. Section Reference 1: Section 10.4 Viral Replication
32) Bacteriophages contain the enzyme lysozyme, which is used to: a) replicate viral DNA. b) shut down bacterial cell metabolism. c) weaken bacterial cell walls. d) help recognize the proper bacterial host. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.4 Describe the five key steps of viral replication as they occur in bacteriophages and animal viruses. Section Reference 1: Section 10.4 Viral Replication
33) Bacteriophage DNA is transcribed to mRNA during the replication. a) penetration b) synthesis c) maturation d) release Answer: b
phase of viral
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.4 Describe the five key steps of viral replication as they occur in bacteriophages and animal viruses. Section Reference 1: Section 10.4 Viral Replication
34) What would be a reasonable number of new phages to expect from one round of viral replication in one cell? a) 2 b) 100 c) 1000 d) 10000 Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.4 Describe the five key steps of viral replication as they occur in bacteriophages and animal viruses. Section Reference 1: Section 10.4 Viral Replication
35) Because viruses such as bacteriophages lead to bursting of the bacterial host cell they are known as viruses. a) lytic b) lysogenic c) recurring d) lethal Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.4 Describe the five key steps of viral replication as they occur in bacteriophages and animal viruses. Section Reference 1: Section 10.4 Viral Replication
36) Plaques are: a) bacterial colonies b) another name for single viruses c) areas where bacterial cells have been lysed d) bacterial film Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.4 Describe the five key steps of viral replication as they occur in bacteriophages and animal viruses. Section Reference 1: Section 10.4 Viral Replication
37) Temperate phages: a) do not always undergo a lytic cycle b) only replicate at certain temperatures c) are those that cause disease d) form plaques on bacterial lawns Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.4 Describe the five key steps of viral replication as they occur in bacteriophages and animal viruses. Section Reference 1: Section 10.4 Viral Replication
38) Viral DNA lying within a bacterial chromosome is called a combination of a bacterial cell and its temperate phage is called a
while the .
a) prophage, lysogen b) plaque, lysogen c) lysogen, prophage d) prophage, retrovirus Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.4 Describe the five key steps of viral replication as they occur in bacteriophages and animal viruses. Section Reference 1: Section 10.4 Viral Replication
39) Prophages are responsible for production of the toxins found in: a) Staphylococcus aureus b) Micrococcus luteus c) Clostridium botulinum d) Streptococcus lactis Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.4 Describe the five key steps of viral replication as they occur in bacteriophages and animal viruses. Section Reference 1: Section 10.4 Viral Replication
40) Growth of a bacterium which contains a prophage represents a: a) lytic cycle b) temperate cycle c) lysogenic cycle d) induction Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.4 Describe the five key steps of viral replication as they occur in bacteriophages and animal viruses. Section Reference 1: Section 10.4 Viral Replication
41) A lysogenic phage which enters a lytic cycle is said to have undergone: a) transformation b) induction c) transcription d) lysogenic conversion Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.4 Describe the five key steps of viral replication as they occur in bacteriophages and animal viruses Section Reference 1: Section 10.4 Viral Replication
42) Recognition of the proper host cell by an animal virus may be aided by the of the virus. a) spikes b) tail fibers c) DNA d) cell membrane Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.5 Evaluate the use of eggs, living animals, and cell cultures for harvesting animal viruses. Section Reference 1: Section 10.5 Culturing of Animal Viruses
43) Which of the following would be the best host system to study influenza A viruses? a) Primary cell culture b) Diploid fibroblast strain c) Continuous cell line d) Embryonated chicken egg Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 10.5 Evaluate the use of eggs, living animals, and cell cultures for harvesting animal viruses. Section Reference 1: Section 10.5 Culturing of Animal Viruses
44) Cells taken directly from an animal and cultured in vitro represent: a) primary cell cultures b) diploid fibroblast strains c) continuous cell lines from human embryos d) continuous cell lines that have been re-isolated from animal tissues Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.5 Evaluate the use of eggs, living animals, and cell cultures for harvesting animal viruses. Section Reference 1: Section 10.5 Culturing of Animal Viruses
45) Enveloped animal viruses typically leave the host cell by: a) host cell lysis b) host cell rupture c) budding d) animal viruses never leave the host cell Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.4 Describe the five key steps of viral replication as they occur in bacteriophages and animal viruses. Section Reference 1: Section 10.4 Viral Replication
46) A drug or other agent that induces defects during embryonic development is known as a: a) syncytia b) capsomere c) teratogen d) carcinogen Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.6 Identify viruses that may cause developmental defects. Section Reference 1: Section 10.6 Viruses and Teratogenesis
47) What type of effect is occurring with these cells infected by RSV?
a) Cytopathic effect b) CPE c) Nuclear effect d) Cytoplasmic effect e) Both Cytopathic effect and CPE are correct Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.6 Identify viruses that may cause developmental defects.
Section Reference 1: Section 10.6 Viruses and Teratogenesis
48) A prion is composed of: a) RNA b) DNA c) proteins d) both DNA and RNA Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.7 Review the characteristics of satellites, viroids, and prions. Section Reference 1: Section 10.7 Viruslike Agents: Satellites, Viroids and Prions
49) Diseases such as Creutzfeld-Jacob disease (variant), kuru, and mad cow disease are caused by: a) RNA viruses b) DNA viruses c) bacteria d) prions Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.7 Review the characteristics of satellites, viroids, and prions. Section Reference 1: Section 10.7 Viruslike Agents: Satellites, Viroids and Prions
50) Viroids are composed of
.
a) single infectious proteins b) double stranded RNA c) single-stranded linear DNA d) single-stranded circular RNA Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.7 Review the characteristics of satellites, viroids, and prions.
Section Reference 1: Section 10.7 Viruslike Agents: Satellites, Viroids and Prions
51) Which of the following viruses plays an important role in the development of cervical cancer? a) adenoviruses b) herpes viruses c) human papilloma viruses d) slow viruses Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: LO 10.8 Describe proto-oncogenes and oncogenes and explain their relevance to cancer. Section Reference 1: Section 10.8 Viruses and Cancer and Human Cancer Viruses
52). A rare form of cancer that has become common among men with AIDS is: a) Kaposi’s sarcoma b) Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia c) tuberculosis d) Burkitt’s lymphoma Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.8 Describe proto-oncogenes and oncogenes and explain their relevance to cancer. Section Reference 1: Section 10.8 Viruses and Cancer and Human Cancer Viruses
53) The most conclusive evidence that viruses cause cancers is provided by: a) the presence of oncogenes in humans b) the presence of antibodies against viruses in cancer patients c) treating cancer patients with antibiotics d) development of a cancer following an injection of viruses Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 10.8 Describe proto-oncogenes and oncogenes and explain their relevance to cancer.
Section Reference 1: Section 10.8 Viruses and Cancer and Human Cancer Viruses
54) Malignant tumors and their cells can
to other locations and organs in the body.
a) metastasize b) begin c) stagnate d) end Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.8 Describe proto-oncogenes and oncogenes and explain their relevance to cancer. Section Reference 1: Section 10.8 Viruses and Cancer and Human Cancer Viruses
55) Which of the following explains how DNA tumor viruses may cause human cancers? a) viral proteins infect other uninfected host cells b) viral proteins block the effect of tumor-suppressor genes which prevent uncontrolled cell division b) viral particles infect sex cells and transmit the virions to offspring. c) use viral reverse transcriptase to integrate the DNA tumor viruses into the host chromosome Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 10.8 Describe proto-oncogenes and oncogenes and explain their relevance to cancer. Section Reference 1: Section 10.8 Viruses and Cancer and Human Cancer Viruses
56) An uncontrolled, invasive growth of abnormal cells is referred to as a) transduction b) cancer c) induction d) transformation e) None of these choices Answer: b Difficulty: Medium
.
Learning Objective 1: LO 10.8 Describe proto-oncogenes and oncogenes and explain their relevance to cancer. Section Reference 1: Section 10.8 Viruses and Cancer and Human Cancer Viruses
57) The scientist who discovered that some viruses may cause cancer is: a) Diener b) Rous c) Prusiner d) Prioux Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 10.8 Describe proto-oncogenes and oncogenes and explain their relevance to cancer. Section Reference 1: Section 10.8 Viruses and Cancer and Human Cancer Viruses
Question Type: Essay
58) Why was it previously believed that only DNA viruses can cause cancer? How can RNA viruses cause cancer? Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 10.8 Describe proto-oncogenes and oncogenes and explain their relevance to cancer. Section Reference 1: Section 10.8 Viruses and Cancer and Human Cancer Viruses
59) Why did scientists initially resist the idea of an infectious, self-replicating protein? Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 10.7 Review the characteristics of satellites, viroids, and prions. Section Reference 1: Section 10.7 Viruslike Agents: Satellites, Viroids and Prions
Chapter 12: Eukaryotic Microorganisms and Parasites
Multiple Choice
1) An organism that lives at the expense of another organism is a
.
a) mutualistic b) commensal c) parasite d) symbiont Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.1 Describe the kinds of parasitism, the key characteristics of plantlike, funguslike, and animal-like protozoa, naming several representative phyla within each group. Section Reference 1: Section 11.1 Principles of Parasitology
2) Parasites which live within the bodies of other organisms are classified as
.
a) accidental parasite b) endoparasites c) facultative parasites d) ectoparasites Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.1 Describe the kinds of parasitism, the key characteristics of plantlike, funguslike, and animal-like protozoa, naming several representative phyla within each group. Section Reference 1: Section 11.1 Principles of Parasitology
3) A leech that feeds on a person swimming in a pond then releases itself from the skin to return to the water is an example of a/an: a) endoparasite b) permanent parasite c) temporary parasite d) reservoir host
Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.1 Describe the kinds of parasitism, the key characteristics of plantlike, funguslike, and animal-like protozoa, naming several representative phyla within each group. Section Reference 1: Section 11.1 Principles of Parasitology
4) A mosquito that lives on a host and is itself infected with the protozoa responsible for malaria is an example of: a) temporary parasitism b) permanent parasitism c) hyperparasitism d) facultative parasitism Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.1 Describe the kinds of parasitism, the key characteristics of plantlike, funguslike, and animal-like protozoa, naming several representative phyla within each group. Section Reference 1: Section 11.1 Principles of Parasitology
5) Organisms that are normally free living but can also obtain nutrients from a host are called . a) facultative parasites b) obligate parasite c) biological vectors d) accidental parasites Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.1 Describe the kinds of parasitism, the key characteristics of plantlike, funguslike, and animal-like protozoa, naming several representative phyla within each group. Section Reference 1: Section 11.1 Principles of Parasitology
6) The Anopheles mosquito carries the disease malaria, as the parasite must carry out part of its life cycle within the mosquito. In this case, the mosquito is a/an:
a) permanent parasite b) biological vector c) mechanical vector d) accidental host Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.1 Describe the kinds of parasitism, the key characteristics of plantlike, funguslike, and animal-like protozoa, naming several representative phyla within each group. Section Reference 1: Section 11.1 Principles of Parasitology
7) A host in which a parasite reproduces sexually is a
.
a) primary host b) definitive host c) intermediate host d) reservoir host Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.1 Describe the kinds of parasitism, the key characteristics of plantlike, funguslike, and animal-like protozoa, naming several representative phyla within each group. Section Reference 1: Section 11.1 Principles of Parasitology
8) Parasites having both male and female reproductive organs are known as
.
a) obligate parasites b) schizonts c) hermaphrodites d) accidental parasites Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.1 Describe the kinds of parasitism, the key characteristics of plantlike, funguslike, and animal-like protozoa, naming several representative phyla within each group. Section Reference 1: Section 11.1 Principles of Parasitology
9) All protists: a) are photosynthetic b) have a true nucleus c) have cell walls d) are parasites Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.1 Describe the kinds of parasitism, the key characteristics of plantlike, funguslike, and animal-like protozoa, naming several representative phyla within each group. Section Reference 1: Section 11.2 Protists
10) Many protists have shells of calcium carbonate called
.
a) exoskeletons b) carapaces c) tests d) plastrons Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.1 Describe the kinds of parasitism, the key characteristics of plantlike, funguslike, and animal-like protozoa, naming several representative phyla within each group. Section Reference 1: Section 11.2 Protists
11) Protists may be described according to whether they resemble organisms in each of the following kingdoms except: a) Bacteria b) Fungi c) Animals d) Plants Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.1 Describe the kinds of parasitism, the key characteristics of plantlike, funguslike, and animal-like protozoa, naming several representative phyla within each group.
Section Reference 1: Section 11.2 Protists
12) Diatoms possess: a) photosynthetic pigments other than chlorophyll b) an outer layer containing silicates c) abrasive qualities d) all of the above Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.1 Describe the kinds of parasitism, the key characteristics of plantlike, funguslike, and animal-like protozoa, naming several representative phyla within each group. Section Reference 1: Section 11.2 Protists
13) Euglenoids contain a stigma, the purpose of which is to: a) control the passage of molecules in and out of the cell b) communicate with other cells c) allow the protist to move toward light for photosynthesis d) digest nutrients Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.1 Describe the kinds of parasitism, the key characteristics of plantlike, funguslike, and animal-like protozoa, naming several representative phyla within each group. Section Reference 1: Section 11.2 Protists
14) Which of the following is not an example of a plantlike protist? a) Euglenoids b) Diatoms c) amebozoans d) Dinoflagellates Answer: c Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective 1: LO 11.1 Describe the kinds of parasitism, the key characteristics of plantlike, funguslike, and animal-like protozoa, naming several representative phyla within each group. Section Reference 1: Section 11.2 Protists
15) Animal-like protists include
.
a) Water molds b) Apicomplexans c) Diatoms d) Dinoflagellates Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.1 Describe the kinds of parasitism, the key characteristics of plantlike, funguslike, and animal-like protozoa, naming several representative phyla within each group. Section Reference 1: Section 11.2 Protists
16) Water molds and slime molds have characteristics typical of
.
a) fungi and plants b) fungi and animals c) animals and plants d) None of these Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.1 Describe the kinds of parasitism, the key characteristics of plantlike, funguslike, and animal-like protozoa, naming several representative phyla within each group. Section Reference 1: Section 11.2 Protists
17) Organisms that obtain nutrients from decaying matter are called a) autotrophs b) heterotrophs c) saprophytes d) lithophytes Answer: c
.
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.1 Describe the kinds of parasitism, the key characteristics of plantlike, funguslike, and animal-like protozoa, naming several representative phyla within each group. Section Reference 1: Section 11.2 Protists
18) Which of the following organisms is a saprophyte? a) Euglenoids b) Amebozoans c) Slime molds d) Diatoms Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.1 Describe the kinds of parasitism, the key characteristics of plantlike, funguslike, and animal-like protozoa, naming several representative phyla within each group. Section Reference 1: Section 11.2 Protists
19) Protozoa are always: a) multicellular b) parasitic c) heterotrophic d) photosynthetic Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.1 Describe the kinds of parasitism, the key characteristics of plantlike, funguslike, and animal-like protozoa, naming several representative phyla within each group. Section Reference 1: Section 11.2 Protists
20) Protozoa that move using flagella are members of the a) Mastigophorans b) Amebozoans c) Apicomplexans d) ciliatesCiliophorans
.
Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.1 Describe the kinds of parasitism, the key characteristics of plantlike, funguslike, and animal-like protozoa, naming several representative phyla within each group. Section Reference 1: Section 11.2 Protists
21) The major characteristic used to divide protozoans into four major groups is
.
a) type of feeding behavior b) habitat c) reproduction strategies d) type of motility Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.1 Describe the kinds of parasitism, the key characteristics of plantlike, funguslike, and animal-like protozoa, naming several representative phyla within each group. Section Reference 1: Section 11.2 Protists
22) Protozoans found in the human intestinal tract would most likely be
.
a) Mastigophorans b) Amebozoans c) Apicomplexans d) Ciliophorans Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 11.1 Describe the kinds of parasitism, the key characteristics of plantlike, funguslike, and animal-like protozoa, naming several representative phyla within each group. Section Reference 1: Section 11.2 Protists
23) The only non-motile group of protozoans is the a) Mastigophorans b) Amebozoans
.
c) Apicomplexans d) Ciliophorans Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.1 Describe the kinds of parasitism, the key characteristics of plantlike, funguslike, and animal-like protozoa, naming several representative phyla within each group. Section Reference 1: Section 11.2 Protists
24) Malaria is a result of infection by a/an a) Mastigophoran b) Amebozoan c) Apicomplexan d) Ciliophoran
.
Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.1 Describe the kinds of parasitism, the key characteristics of plantlike, funguslike, and animal-like protozoa, naming several representative phyla within each group. Section Reference 1: Section 11.2 Protists
25) The proper order of development of Plasmodium from the time of infection to the parasitization of red blood cells is: a) trophozoite merozoite sporozoite b) sporozoite merozoite trophozoite c) trophozoite sporozoite merozoite d) sporozoite trophozoite merozoite Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 11.1 Describe the kinds of parasitism, the key characteristics of plantlike, funguslike, and animal-like protozoa, naming several representative phyla within each group. Section Reference 1: Section 11.2 Protists
26) The largest group of protozoa is the
.
a) Mastigophorans b) Amebozoa c) Apicomplexans d) Ciliophora Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.1 Describe the kinds of parasitism, the key characteristics of plantlike, funguslike, and animal-like protozoa, naming several representative phyla within each group. Section Reference 1: Section 11.2 Protists
27) Which of the following statements about protists is true? a) The protozoan responsible for malaria is classified as a ciliate. b) Eutrophication occurs when protists stop growing in a body of water. c) Amoeba move by means of cilia. d) All protists are eukaryotic. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 11.1 Describe the kinds of parasitism, the key characteristics of plantlike, funguslike, and animal-like protozoa, naming several representative phyla within each group. Section Reference 1: Section 11.2 Protists
28) Mycology is defined as the study of
.
a) microbes b) protists c) fungi d) plants Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.2 Describe the anatomy and metabolism of typical fungi and their beneficial and detrimental impacts to society. Section Reference 1: Section 11.3 Fungi
29) A typical fungus consists of a mass called a structures called .
made up of many threadlike
a) thallus, mycelium b) mycelium, hyphae c) hyphae, mycelium d) mycelium, thallus Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.2 Describe the anatomy and metabolism of typical fungi and their beneficial and detrimental impacts to society. Section Reference 1: Section 11.3 Fungi
30) Cells walls in fungi are often made of
.
a) cellulose b) peptidoglycan c) chitin d) calcium carbonate Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.2 Describe the anatomy and metabolism of typical fungi and their beneficial and detrimental impacts to society. Section Reference 1: Section 11.3 Fungi
31) Fungal hyphae are sometimes separated into smaller compartments by cross walls called . a) mycelium b) thalli c) sporangia d) septa Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.2 Describe the anatomy and metabolism of typical fungi and their beneficial and detrimental impacts to society. Section Reference 1: Section 11.3 Fungi
32) Fungi are never a) saprophytes b) obligate parasites c) facultative parasites d) heterotrophs
.
Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.2 Describe the anatomy and metabolism of typical fungi and their beneficial and detrimental impacts to society. Section Reference 1: Section 11.3 Fungi
33) Fungi are classified according to the
.
a) type of cell wall they posses b) type of photosynthetic pigments they posses c) the nature of their sexual cycle d) the nature of their asexual cycle Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.2 Describe the anatomy and metabolism of typical fungi and their beneficial and detrimental impacts to society. Section Reference 1: Section 11.3 Fungi
34) Fungi can be differentiated from plants by the fact that: a) fungi are all unicellular, plants are all multicellular b) fungi do not have a cell wall, plants have a cell wall c) fungi cannot photosynthesize, plants can photosynthesize d) fungi are prokaryotic, plants are eukaryotic Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.2 Describe the anatomy and metabolism of typical fungi and their beneficial and detrimental impacts to society. Section Reference 1: Section 11.3 Fungi
35) Bread molds are members of the phylum
.
a) Zygomycota b) Ascomycota c) Basidiomycota d) Deuteromycota Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.2 Describe the anatomy and metabolism of typical fungi and their beneficial and detrimental impacts to society. Section Reference 1: Section 11.3 Fungi
36) Mushrooms, as well as the human pathogen Cryptococcus are classified in the phylum . a) Zygomycota b) Ascomycota c) Basidiomycota d) Deuteromycota Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.2 Describe the anatomy and metabolism of typical fungi and their beneficial and detrimental impacts to society. Section Reference 1: Section 11.3 Fungi
37) Fungi with no known sexual stage (in their life cycle) are assigned to the phylum . a) Zygomycota b) Ascomycota c) Basidiomycota d) Deuteromycota Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.2 Describe the anatomy and metabolism of typical fungi and their beneficial and detrimental impacts to society. Section Reference 1: Section 11.3 Fungi
38) Members of the phylum Ascomycota produce asexual spores called
.
a) antheridia b) archegonia c) ascogonia d) conidia Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 11.2 Describe the anatomy and metabolism of typical fungi and their beneficial and detrimental impacts to society. Section Reference 1: Section 11.3 Fungi
39) Flatworms are known scientifically as
.
a) platyhelminths b) cestodes c) nematodes d) arachnids Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 11.3 Review the life cycles of common parasitic flatworms and roundworms. Section Reference 1: Section 11.4 Helminths
40) One major difference between flatworms and roundworms is that
.
a) roundworms are never parasites b) flatworms are never parasites c) roundworms have a pseudocoelom d) flatworms don’t infect humans Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.3 Review the life cycles of common parasitic flatworms and roundworms. Section Reference 1: Section 11.4 Helminths
41) Tapeworms consist of a head end and a long chain of hermaphroditic segments, each of which is called a . a) scolex b) proglottid c) sporocyst d) cysticercus Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.3 Review the life cycles of common parasitic flatworms and roundworms. Section Reference 1: Section 11.4 Helminths
42) Undercooked pork is most likely to pass along
.
a) Schistosoma b) Echinococcus c) Wuchereria d) Trichinella Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.3 Review the life cycles of common parasitic flatworms and roundworms. Section Reference 1: Section 11.4 Helminths
43) Wuchereria bancrofti is the causative agent of
.
a) trichinosis b) malaria c) sleeping sickness d) elephantitis Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 11.3 Review the life cycles of common parasitic flatworms and roundworms. Section Reference 1: Section 11.4 Helminths
44) Helminths: a) are all obligate parasites b) have left and right halves that are mirror images c) are a type of protozoa d) are all hermaphroditic Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 11.3 Review the life cycles of common parasitic flatworms and roundworms. Section Reference 1: Section 11.4 Helminths
45) Arthropods are responsible for transmitting
pathogens.
a) viral b) bacterial c) protozoan d) viral, bacterial and protozoan Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.4 List examples of parasitic arachnids, insects, and crustaceans. Section Reference 1: 11.5 Arthropods
46) Arachnids have
legs and include
.
a) six, lice, fleas and flies b) six, ticks and mites c) eight, lice, fleas and flies d) eight, ticks and mites Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 11.4 List examples of parasitic arachnids, insects, and crustaceans. Section Reference 1: 11.5 Arthropods
47) A mechanical vector:
a) lives on or in another organism at the expense of the host b) simply carries microbes on the outside of its body c) reproduces as an asexual form in this host d) infects by mechanical insertion of a syringe Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.4 List examples of parasitic arachnids, insects, and crustaceans. Section Reference 1: 11.5 Arthropods
48) The Guinea worm is carried by: a) ticks b) insects c) arachnids d) crustaceans Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.4 List examples of parasitic arachnids, insects, and crustaceans. Section Reference 1: 11.5 Arthropods
49) Human fungal diseases are known by the general name
.
a) canadiasis b) mycoses c) mylcelium d) none of the above Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.2 Describe the anatomy and metabolism of typical fungi and their beneficial and detrimental impacts to society. Section Reference 1: Section 11.3 Fungi 50) Which factor(s) has/have contributed to malaria’s recent comeback?
a) Failure to vaccinate people living in susceptible areas b) Emergence of DDT resistant mosquitoes c) Environmental changes in developing countries d) Two of the above factors Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.1 Describe the kinds of parasitism, the key characteristics of plantlike, funguslike, and animal-like protozoa, naming several representative phyla within each group. Section Reference 1: Section 11.2 Protists
51) Which of the following statements about Fungi is true? a) sexual stages have all been observed b) are the biggest organisms on earth c) live in the intestine or circulatory system of hosts d) are all multicellular Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.2 Describe the anatomy and metabolism of typical fungi and their beneficial and detrimental impacts to society. Section Reference 1: Section 11.3 Fungi 52) A tapeworm’s hydatid cyst: a) contains only one cysticercus or bladder worm b) migrates to the host’s digestive gland c) can enlarge and develop many tapeworm heads d) develops into mature flukes Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.3 Review the life cycles of common parasitic flatworms and roundworms. Section Reference 1: Section 11.4 Helminths
53) This organism moves by:
a) flagella b) cilia c) pseudopodia d) cannot move Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.1 Describe the kinds of parasitism, the key characteristics of plantlike, funguslike, and animal-like protozoa, naming several representative phyla within each group. Section Reference 1: Section 11.2 Protists
54) This organism moves by:
a) pseudopodia b) cilia c) flagella d) microtubules Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 11.1 Describe the kinds of parasitism, the key characteristics of plantlike, funguslike, and animal-like protozoa, naming several representative phyla within each group. Section Reference 1: Section 11.2 Protists
55) This organism belongs to the:
a) protists b) arthropods c) helminths d) fungi Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.2 Describe the anatomy and metabolism of typical fungi and their beneficial and detrimental impacts to society. Section Reference 1: Section 11.3 Fungi
Essay Questions
56) What are the four groups of parasitic helminthes? Name one parasitic helminth in each group that causes human disease and describe its hosts and transmission. Answer: The four groups of parasitic helminthes are: flukes, tapeworms, adult roundworms, and roundworm larvae. Flukes can either be tissue (Paragonimus westernai/lung or Clonorchis sinensis or Fasciola hepatica/liver) or blood flukes (Schistosoma sp.). All of them pass through the water to snails or molluskan host and then migrate to human hosts’ digestive organs where they mature as adult egg laying worms. Tapeworms include beef and pork tapeworm (Taneia), dwarf and rat (Hymenolepsis), the hydatid worm (Echinococcus), dog (Dipylidium) and broad fish tapeworm (Diphyllobothrium). Proglottids and eggs leave the human host’s body with the feces, are ingested by another animal. Hatched larvae migrate to the other animal’s tissue where they form a cyst. If an animal/human eats the tissue containing a cyst the cycle continues since the scolex survives digestion in the stomach and attaches to the definitive host’s intestinal wall.. Adult roundworms include Trichinella spiralis(pork roundworm), Ascaris lumbricoides, Enterobius vermicularis(pinworm) and Necator americanus ( hookworm). Many intestinal roundworms enter humans as encysted larvae in meat, are released into intestines, carried into the blood and tissue and encyst, they are transmitted through the digestive tract and the same processes occur in pigs and other animals. Roundworm larvae include Wuchereria bancrofti (causingelephantiasis), Loa Loa, Onchocerca volvulus, Dracunculus medinensis(guinea worm). The lifecycles of roundworms that parasitize humans as larvae usually require a mosquito where the worms enter from a mosquito bite and are transmitted through mosquitoes. In the case of the guinea worm infective juveniles are present in copepods in drinking water and migrate from the digestive tract to the skin where they blister and re-enter the water supply. Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.3 Review the life cycles of common parasitic flatworms and roundworms. Section Reference 1: Section 11.4 Helminths
57) Outline or illustrate in detailed form the life cycle of the malaria parasite, naming the stages and the various host organisms involved. Describe another protozoan that causes human diseases. Answer: Plasmodium species life cycles begin with sporozoites found in the salivary gland of an infected mosquito. These enter human blood through a mosquito bite. They migrate to the liver and become merozoites. After 10 days they emerge into the blood and within red blood cells become trophozoites, they reproduce asexually forming more merozoites. Some merozoites become gametocytes. These gametocytes are taken up by female mosquitos during a blood meal and unite to form zygotes and reproduce sexually. The zygotes produce sporozoites which migrate to the salivary gland.
Other protozoa that cause disease include: Balantidium coli(causing rare, severedysentery), Toxoplasma gondii (toxoplasmosis, a cat-transmitted disease that can cause still births and fetal birth defects), Entamoeba(dysentery), Trypanosoma (African sleeping sickness and Chagas’ disease), Leishmania (systemic or skin disease), Giardia (dysentery), Trichomonas(sexually transmitted disease). Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.1 Describe the kinds of parasitism, the key characteristics of plantlike, funguslike, and animal-like protozoa, naming several representative phyla within each group. Section Reference 1: Section 11.2 Protists
58) Parasites are dependent on their hosts for survival. Which organism do you think is better adapted to a parasitic lifestyle, one that is virulent and often kills its host, or one that only causes mild chronic illness in its host? For vector-transmitted parasites there are two hosts involved in the lifecycle, how does that complicate adaptation to the human host? Answer: The fitness of a parasite is dependent on their ability to continue getting nutrients from the host, evading the immune system and finding opportunities to transmit to another host. Organisms that are dependent on their hosts would be fitter if the host was still around, so the one that causes mild chronic illness may be considered better adapted, (only if the avirulence in the organism is not connected to invasion effectiveness or immune evasion). For vector-transmitted parasites, there may be a tradeoff between adaptation to one host and virulence in another. Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 11.1 Describe the kinds of parasitism that may occur and explain the difference between an intermediate and a definitive host. Section Reference 1: Section 11.1 Principles of Parasitology
Chapter 13: Sterilization and Disinfection
Question Type: Multiple Choice
1) Sterilization is the: a) killing or removal of all microorganisms in a material or an object. b) reduction of the number of pathogenic microorganisms in a material or object. c) killing or removal of some but not all microorganisms. d) disinfection of living tissue. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.1 Explain the differences between disinfection, antisepsis, and sterilization, listing three important principles of disinfection. Section Reference 1: Section 12.1 Principles of Sterilization and Disinfection
2) Disinfection is the
.
a) killing of certain microorganisms while only inhibiting others. b) killing or removal of all microorganisms in a material or an object. c) same as sterilization. d) reduction of the number of pathogenic vegetative microorganisms to pose no threat of disease. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.1 Explain the differences between disinfection, antisepsis, and sterilization, listing three important principles of disinfection. Section Reference 1: Section 12.1 Principles of Sterilization and Disinfection
3) An agent that inhibits the growth of bacteria is called a/an: a) antiseptic b) bactericide c) bacteriostatic agent d) sanitizer Answer: c Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective 1: LO 12.1 Explain the differences between disinfection, antisepsis, and sterilization, listing three important principles of disinfection. Section Reference 1: Section 12.1 Principles of Sterilization and Disinfection
4) A viricide is an agent that
.
a) inactivates viruses. b) propagates viruses. c) inhibits viruses and bacterial endospores. d) allows viral multiplication. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.1 Explain the differences between disinfection, antisepsis, and sterilization, listing three important principles of disinfection. Section Reference 1: Section 12.1 Principles of Sterilization and Disinfection
5) What is a chemical agent that can safely be used externally on living tissue to destroy microorganisms or to inhibit their growth? a) Antiseptic b) Disinfectant c) Sanitizer d) Germicide Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.1 Explain the differences between disinfection, antisepsis, and sterilization, listing three important principles of disinfection. Section Reference 1: Section 12.1 Principles of Sterilization and Disinfection
6) An agent capable of killing microbes rapidly, perhaps killing certain microorganisms but only inhibiting the growth of others is called a/an: a) antiseptic b) disinfectant c) sanitizer d) all of these Answer: d
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.1 Explain the differences between disinfection, antisepsis, and sterilization, listing three important principles of disinfection. Section Reference 1: Section 12.1 Principles of Sterilization and Disinfection
7) What is the most susceptible phase of growth for most microorganisms by an antimicrobial agent? a) lag phase b) log phase c) stationary phase d) death phase Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.1 Explain the differences between disinfection, antisepsis, and sterilization, listing three important principles of disinfection. Section Reference 1: Section 12.1 Principles of Sterilization and Disinfection
8) All of the following apply to the control of microbial growth except: a) a definite proportion of organisms die within a given time interval. b) the fewer organisms present, the shorter the time needed for sterility. c) microorganisms differ in their susceptibility to antimicrobial agents. d) heat is not considered an antimicrobial agent. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.1 Explain the differences between disinfection, antisepsis, and sterilization, listing three important principles of disinfection. Section Reference 1: Section 12.1 Principles of Sterilization and Disinfection
9) All of the following pertain to the effectiveness of a chemical antimicrobial agent except: a) time b) temperature c) pH d) combustibility Answer: d
Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2 Describe methods used to evaluate the effectiveness of disinfectants and possible mechanisms of action for disinfectants. Section Reference 1: Section 12.2 Chemical Antimicrobial Agents
10) The use of phenol as a standard with which to compare the effectiveness of other chemical disinfectants is referred to as the . a) phenol coefficient b) phenol concentration c) phenol effectiveness d) phenol conditions Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2 Describe methods used to evaluate the effectiveness of disinfectants and possible mechanisms of action for disinfectants. Section Reference 1: Section 12.2 Chemical Antimicrobial Agents
11) Which is not used to measure the effectiveness of an antimicrobial agent? a) Filter paper method b) Phenol coefficient method c) Use-dilution method d) Plate count method Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2 Describe methods used to evaluate the effectiveness of disinfectants and possible mechanisms of action for disinfectants. Section Reference 1: Section 12.2 Chemical Antimicrobial Agents
12) All of the following qualities apply to the selection of an ideal antiseptic except: a) fast acting b) effective against all infective agents without harming host tissue c) no offensive odor d) expensive and difficult to obtain and use Answer: d
Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2 Describe methods used to evaluate the effectiveness of disinfectants and possible mechanisms of action for disinfectants. Section Reference 1: Section 12.2 Chemical Antimicrobial Agents
13) When an antimicrobial agent permanently denatures proteins thus preventing renaturation to their native states it is considered: a) bacteriostatic b) bactericidal c) bacterial lysis d) an inhibitor of growth Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2 Describe methods used to evaluate the effectiveness of disinfectants and possible mechanisms of action for disinfectants. Section Reference 1: Section 12.2 Chemical Antimicrobial Agents
14) Soluble compounds that reduce surface tension thus dissolving lipids are known as: a) alkylating agents b) halogens c) oxidizing agents d) surfactants Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2 Describe methods used to evaluate the effectiveness of disinfectants and possible mechanisms of action for disinfectants. Section Reference 1: Section 12.2 Chemical Antimicrobial Agents
15) Agents that denature proteins include all of the following except: a) acids b) alkalis c) detergents d) cold treatment Answer: d
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2 Describe methods used to evaluate the effectiveness of disinfectants and possible mechanisms of action for disinfectants. Section Reference 1: Section 12.2 Chemical Antimicrobial Agents
16) Surfactants include all of the following except: a) alcohols b) detergents c) wetting agents d) oxidizing agents Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2 Describe methods used to evaluate the effectiveness of disinfectants and possible mechanisms of action for disinfectants. Section Reference 1: Section 12.2 Chemical Antimicrobial Agents
17) Agents that adversely affect cell wall formation include: a) detergents b) alcohols c) crystal violet d) lactic acid Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2 Describe methods used to evaluate the effectiveness of disinfectants and possible mechanisms of action for disinfectants. Section Reference 1: Section 12.2 Chemical Antimicrobial Agents
18) Which of the following do not affect viruses? a) Alkylating agents b) Detergents c) Alcohols d) Heavy Metals Answer: d Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2 Describe methods used to evaluate the effectiveness of disinfectants and possible mechanisms of action for disinfectants. Section Reference 1: Section 12.2 Chemical Antimicrobial Agents
19) Which is a cationic detergent having four organic groups attached to a nitrogen atom and used to sanitize utensils? a) Quaternary ammonium compound b) Propionic acid c) Methylene blue d) Ethylene oxide Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2 Describe methods used to evaluate the effectiveness of disinfectants and possible mechanisms of action for disinfectants. Section Reference 1: Section 12.2 Chemical Antimicrobial Agents
20) All of the following are examples of heavy metals used as antimicrobial agents except: a) iodine b) merthiolate c) selenium sulfate d) copper sulfate Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2 Describe methods used to evaluate the effectiveness of disinfectants and possible mechanisms of action for disinfectants. Section Reference 1: Section 12.2 Chemical Antimicrobial Agents
21) Which of the following antimicrobial agents is not considered a halogen? a) Hypochlorous acid b) Copper sulfate c) Bromine d) Betadine Answer: b Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2 Describe methods used to evaluate the effectiveness of disinfectants and possible mechanisms of action for disinfectants. Section Reference 1: Section 12.2 Chemical Antimicrobial Agents
22) Alcohols: a) oxidize disulfide bonds b) dissolve lipids and denature proteins c) alter nucleic acids d) lower the pH Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2 Describe methods used to evaluate the effectiveness of disinfectants and possible mechanisms of action for disinfectants. Section Reference 1: Section 12.2 Chemical Antimicrobial Agents
23) Which of the following is not an example of an alkylating agent that disrupts proteins and nucleic acids? a) Glutaraldahyde b) -propiolactone c) Ethylene oxide d) Methylene oxide Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2 Describe methods used to evaluate the effectiveness of disinfectants and possible mechanisms of action for disinfectants. Section Reference 1: Section 12.2 Chemical Antimicrobial Agents
24) Dyes that are used as antimicrobial agents function by: a) disrupting disulfide bonds. b) interfering with replication or blocking cell wall synthesis. c) denaturing proteins by mixing with water. d) oxidizing cellular components. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2 Describe methods used to evaluate the effectiveness of disinfectants and possible mechanisms of action for disinfectants. Section Reference 1: Section 12.2 Chemical Antimicrobial Agents
25) Formaldehyde, as an antimicrobial agent, is used for: a) food preservation b) to disinfect skin and inanimate objects c) to treat protozoan and fungal infections d) to inactivate viruses without destroying antigenic properties Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2 Describe methods used to evaluate the effectiveness of disinfectants and possible mechanisms of action for disinfectants. Section Reference 1: Section 12.2 Chemical Antimicrobial Agents
26) Which of the following statements about evaluating the effectiveness of chemical agents is false? a) Phenol coefficient can be used to evaluate the efficacy of phenol derivatives. b) Materials present can complex with or inactivate a chemical agent during the phenol coefficient test. c) In the filter paper test, a clear area around the disk indicates a prevention of microorganism growth but not killing of microbes. d) The use-dilution test is considered to be more meaningful than the phenol coefficient. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2 Describe methods used to evaluate the effectiveness of disinfectants and possible mechanisms of action for disinfectants. Section Reference 1: Section 12.2 Chemical Antimicrobial Agents
27) Denaturation of proteins by antimicrobial agents a) prevents viruses from infecting host cells b) disrupts hydrogen and disulfide bonds c) aids in preserving the shape and function of proteins d) two of the above Answer: b
.
Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2 Describe methods used to evaluate the effectiveness of disinfectants and possible mechanisms of action for disinfectants. Section Reference 1: Section 12.2 Chemical Antimicrobial Agents
28) Which of the following statements about detergents are true? a) Detergents act as chemical mutagens of DNA or RNA b) Germicidal soaps are just as effective disinfectants as surgical scrubs c) Cationic detergents are effective in killing endospores d) Anionic detergents used for laundering clothes are less effective than cationic detergents Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2 Describe methods used to evaluate the effectiveness of disinfectants and possible mechanisms of action for disinfectants. Section Reference 1: Section 12.2 Chemical Antimicrobial Agents
29) Which of the following chemical antimicrobial agents is matched correctly with its mechanism? a) Phenols disrupt cell membranes b) Alkyating agents block cell wall synthesis c) Acids lower surface tension d) Surfactants raise pH and denature proteins Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2 Describe methods used to evaluate the effectiveness of disinfectants and possible mechanisms of action for disinfectants. Section Reference 1: Section 12.2 Chemical Antimicrobial Agents
30) Dry heat does most of its damage against microorganisms by a) disrupting membrane lipids b) disrupting hydrogen bonds c) oxidizing molecules d) denaturing proteins Answer: c
.
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.3 Discuss the use of physical agents such as heat, cold, radiation, and filtration in achieving sterilization or disinfection. Section Reference 1: Section 12.3 Physical Antimicrobial Agents
31) Which is not used when trying to ensure that autoclaving has achieved sterility? a) internal devices to maintain proper temperature and pressure b) tapes impregnated with the word “sterile” when proper temperature has been reached c) pasteurization by heating to 62.9 C for 30 minutes d) autoclaving heat-resistant endospores such as Bacillus stearothermophilus Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.3 Discuss the use of physical agents such as heat, cold, radiation, and filtration in achieving sterilization or disinfection. Section Reference 1: Section 12.3 Physical Antimicrobial Agents
32) Which of the following involves sterilization by heating steam in a jacket and subsequent entrance of the steam into a sterilization chamber, where materials and substances to be sterilized are placed in a/an: a) autoclave b) pasteurization chamber c) dry heat oven d) open flame Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.3 Discuss the use of physical agents such as heat, cold, radiation, and filtration in achieving sterilization or disinfection. Section Reference 1: Section 12.3 Physical Antimicrobial Agents
33) Which does not pertain to pasteurization? a) Can be done with ultrahigh temperatures b) Invented by Louis Pasteur c) Achieves sterility d) Destroys organisms that caused wine to sour
Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.3 Discuss the use of physical agents such as heat, cold, radiation, and filtration in achieving sterilization or disinfection. Section Reference 1: Section 12.3 Physical Antimicrobial Agents
34) Ultrahigh temperature (UHT) processing does not involve: a) treating small containers of coffee creamer b) using a complex cooling procedure c) raising temperature from 74 C to 140 C and dropping it back to 74 C within 5 seconds d) presence of a “cooked” flavor in milk flavored with vanilla, strawberry or chocolate Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.3 Discuss the use of physical agents such as heat, cold, radiation, and filtration in achieving sterilization or disinfection. Section Reference 1: Section 12.3 Physical Antimicrobial Agents
35) Lyophilization is: a) freeze-drying b) refrigeration c) freezing d) heat-drying Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.3 Discuss the use of physical agents such as heat, cold, radiation, and filtration in achieving sterilization or disinfection. Section Reference 1: Section 12.3 Physical Antimicrobial Agents
36) All of the following are examples of general types of electromagnetic radiation except: a) ultraviolet light b) ionization c) microwaves d) ultrasonic waves Answer: d
Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 12.3 Discuss the use of physical agents such as heat, cold, radiation, and filtration in achieving sterilization or disinfection. Section Reference 1: Section 12.3 Physical Antimicrobial Agents
37) Microwave radiation: a) damages DNA by ionizing radiation. b) destroys bacterial endospores. c) produces peroxides, which oxidize molecules. d) when tuned to energy levels of water releases the energy as heat. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.3 Discuss the use of physical agents such as heat, cold, radiation, and filtration in achieving sterilization or disinfection. Section Reference 1: Section 12.3 Physical Antimicrobial Agents
38) Ultraviolet radiation: a) is the same as X rays b) is the same as gamma rays c) penetrates glass, cloth, paper and most other materials d) kills microorganisms by damaging DNA and proteins Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.3 Discuss the use of physical agents such as heat, cold, radiation, and filtration in achieving sterilization or disinfection. Section Reference 1: Section 12.3 Physical Antimicrobial Agents
39) Ionizing radiation: a) consists of wavelengths between 400 and 390 nm b) oxidizes molecules such as riboflavin and porphyrins c) may be tuned to match the energy levels of water molecules d) dislodges electrons from atoms, creating ions Answer: d
Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 12.3 Discuss the use of physical agents such as heat, cold, radiation, and filtration in achieving sterilization or disinfection. Section Reference 1: Section 12.3 Physical Antimicrobial Agents
40) All of the following pertain to either sonic or ultrasonic waves and their properties, except: a) are sound waves in the audible range b) may cause cavitation - partial vacuum in a liquid c) are a practical means of sterilization d) are a useful means of fragmenting cells to study membranes, ribosomes or enzymes Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 12.3 Discuss the use of physical agents such as heat, cold, radiation, and filtration in achieving sterilization or disinfection. Section Reference 1: Section 12.3 Physical Antimicrobial Agents
41) Membrane filters are used for sterilization because
.
a) filters with smallest pore size do not clog easily. b) many materials are destroyed by heat sterilization c) they are used to sterilize only very small amounts of liquid d) they are impractical for the filtration of beer, sera, media, vitamins and drugs. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.3 Discuss the use of physical agents such as heat, cold, radiation, and filtration in achieving sterilization or disinfection. Section Reference 1: Section 12.3 Physical Antimicrobial Agents
42) High concentrations of solutes such as sugar or salt results in plasmolysis of cells due to the onset of which phenomenon. a) Cavitation b) Ultrahigh temperature c) Low lyophilization d) High osmotic pressure Answer: d
Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.3 Discuss the use of physical agents such as heat, cold, radiation, and filtration in achieving sterilization or disinfection. Section Reference 1: Section 12.3 Physical Antimicrobial Agents
43) Which of the following statements about heat is true? a) Thermal death point is the time required to kill all bacteria in a culture. b) Moist heat penetrates substances more slowly than dry heat. c) Dry heat leads to the oxidation of molecules. d) Moist heat disrupts covalent bonds. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 12.3 Discuss the use of physical agents such as heat, cold, radiation, and filtration in achieving sterilization or disinfection. Section Reference 1: Section 12.3 Physical Antimicrobial Agents
44) Dry heat changes the structure of
through the process of
.
a) lipids; dehydration b) lipids; denaturation c) proteins; oxidation d) proteins; dehydration Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 12.3 Discuss the use of physical agents such as heat, cold, radiation, and filtration in achieving sterilization or disinfection. Section Reference 1: Section 12.3 Physical Antimicrobial Agents
45) When food is salted, water diffuses a) into; shrink b) into; explode c) out of; shrink d) out of; explode Answer: c Difficulty: Medium
microorganisms, causing them to
and die.
Learning Objective 1: LO 12.3 Discuss the use of physical agents such as heat, cold, radiation, and filtration in achieving sterilization or disinfection. Section Reference 1: Section 12.3 Physical Antimicrobial Agents
46) Which sterilization technique would you use on pharmaceutical products? a) Autoclaving b) Ionizing radiation c) Ultrasonic waves d) Detergent Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.3 Discuss the use of physical agents such as heat, cold, radiation, and filtration in achieving sterilization or disinfection. Section Reference 1: Section 12.3 Physical Antimicrobial Agents
47) Moist heat kills microorganisms by denaturing their
.
a) lipids b) proteins c) carbohydrates d) nucleic acids Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 12.3 Discuss the use of physical agents such as heat, cold, radiation, and filtration in achieving sterilization or disinfection. Section Reference 1: Section 12.3 Physical Antimicrobial Agents
48) What sterilization technique should be used for sterilizing instruments? a) Filtration b) Disinfection c) Pasteurization d) Autoclaving Answer: d Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective 1: LO 12.3 Discuss the use of physical agents such as heat, cold, radiation, and filtration in achieving sterilization or disinfection. Section Reference 1: Section 12.3 Physical Antimicrobial Agents
49) Which is not a practical means of killing microorganisms? a) Pasteurization b) Freeze-drying c) Ultrasonic waves d) Ultraviolet light Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.3 Discuss the use of physical agents such as heat, cold, radiation, and filtration in achieving sterilization or disinfection. Section Reference 1: Section 12.3 Physical Antimicrobial Agents
50) Foods should not be refrozen because a) they will taste different b) cellular damage changes texture, allowing nutrient loss and increased spoilage potential c) it prevents the spoilage of foods d) all of the above Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 12.3 Discuss the use of physical agents such as heat, cold, radiation, and filtration in achieving sterilization or disinfection. Section Reference 1: Section 12.3 Physical Antimicrobial Agents
51) What sterilization technique should be used on beer and milk? a) Pasteurization b) Ultraviolet light c) Filtration d) Visible light Answer: a Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective 1: LO 12.3 Discuss the use of physical agents such as heat, cold, radiation, and filtration in achieving sterilization or disinfection. Section Reference 1: Section 12.3 Physical Antimicrobial Agents
52) Which is a good method to sterilize food? a) Freezing b) Lyophilization c) Ethylene oxide d) Two of the above Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 12.3 Discuss the use of physical agents such as heat, cold, radiation, and filtration in achieving sterilization or disinfection. Section Reference 1: Section 12.3 Physical Antimicrobial Agents
53) Which is a good method to sterilize bandages and glassware? a) Autoclaving b) Lyophilization c) Microwave radiation d) Two of the above Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.3 Discuss the use of physical agents such as heat, cold, radiation, and filtration in achieving sterilization or disinfection. Section Reference 1: Section 12.3 Physical Antimicrobial Agents
54) What is the cheapest and easiest means to prevent the spread of disease? a) Vigorous hand washing b) Pasteurizing milk c) Filtering air in tuberculosis rooms d) Exposing operating rooms to ultraviolet light Answer: a Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective 1: LO 12.3 Discuss the use of physical agents such as heat, cold, radiation, and filtration in achieving sterilization or disinfection. Section Reference 1: Section 12.3 Physical Antimicrobial Agents
55) How could the performance of this equipment be checked?
a) Using a culture of endospores from Bacillus stearothermophilus b) Using a culture of endospores from Escherichia coli c) Using a culture of endospores from Staphylococcus aureus d) It does not need to be checked Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.3 Discuss the use of physical agents such as heat, cold, radiation, and filtration in achieving sterilization or disinfection. Section Reference 1: Section 12.3 Physical Antimicrobial Agents
56) What are the benefits of drying fruit, as depicted in this image?
a) Drying is a method that can be used to preserve foods such as fruits. b) Drying minimizes the spread of infectious agents. c) Endospores that survive drying fruit, do not produce harmful toxins. d) All of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.3 Discuss the use of physical agents such as heat, cold, radiation, and filtration in achieving sterilization or disinfection. Section Reference 1: Section 12.3 Physical Antimicrobial Agents
57) What chemical group is used to treat spinach before it is packaged for the consumer?
a) Heavy metals b) Halogens c) Alcohols d) Phenols Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2 Describe methods used to evaluate the effectiveness of disinfectants and possible mechanisms of action for disinfectants. Section Reference 1: Section 12.2 Chemical Antimicrobial Agents
Question Type: Essay
58) Compare the meanings of the following paired terms: a) disinfectant and antiseptic; b) bactericidal agent and bacteriostatic agent; and c) sterilization and disinfection. When is it worthwhile to pay extra for a sanitized item?
Answer: a) Disinfectants are typically applied to inanimate objects, while antiseptics may be safely applied to living tissue. b) Bacteriostatic agents prevent bacteria from replicating (ie inhibit growth of bacteria) while bacteriocidal agents kill bacteria. c) Sterilization is the killing or removal of all microorganisms from an object; while disinfection means reducing the number of vegetative pathogens on objects so that they pose no threat of disease. When it is worthwhile to pay extra for a sanitized item is a personal opinion but certainly it is worthwhile when the item will be used to protect immunocompromised individuals who are more likely to become ill from improperly cleaned food preparation and consumption items. Bandages must be sterilized, not sanitized for all individuals since woulds represent an unnatural route for pathogens to enter the body and cause disease.. Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.1 Explain the differences between disinfection, antisepsis, and sterilization, listing three important principles of disinfection. Section Reference 1: Section 12.1 Principles of Sterilization and Disinfection
59) What makes a disinfectant desirable? Describe one method for determining the effectiveness of a chemical agent. Answer: A disinfectant is desirable if it is: fast acting, effective against all types of infectious agents without causing harm, easily penetrates but does not damage material, is easy to prepare, stable, inexpensive and easy to obtain and use. There are three methods to determine the effectiveness of chemical agents. The phenol coefficient test is the ratio of the dilution of the agent to the dilution of phenol that will kill all organisms in 10 minutes but not in 5 minutes. The in-use test sees at what dilution an agent can kill a cylinder coated with bacteria. The filter paper method measures the area of clearing around a filter paper soaked in the agent when placed on a plate with a lawn of bacteria. Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2 Describe methods used to evaluate the effectiveness of disinfectants and possible mechanisms of action for disinfectants. Section Reference 1: Section 12.2 Chemical Antimicrobial Agents
60) Most milk, cheese and juices in the United States are pasteurized. Describe the process of pasteurization and the microorganisms at which it is directed. Do you consider pasteurized milk a sterile product? Why? Answer: Pastuerization is the process of heating liquids for the purpose of destroying microbes. Liquids are pasteurized either by heating it to 63 C for 30 minutes or over 70 C for at least 15 seconds or for ultrahigh temperature processing for at least 5 seconds at 140 C. Pasteurization is designed to kill pathogens in milk such as Salmonella, Mycobacterium, and Listeria (in addition to Coxiella burnetii, Campylobacter, Escherichia, Yersinia and Brucella). Pasteurized milk is not sterile as pasteurization is not intended to kill all vegetative bacteria or any endospores. Pasteurization attempts to achieve a reduction in the number of pathogenic microorganisms present so that they are unlikely to cause disease.
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 12.3 Discuss the use of physical agents such as heat, cold, radiation, and filtration in achieving sterilization or disinfection. Section Reference 1: Section 12.3 Physical Antimicrobial Agents
Chapter 14: Antimicrobial Therapy
Question Type: Multiple Choice
1) Paul Ehrlich: a) coined the term chemotherapy b) discovered salvarsan in 1910 c) discovered the antibiotic streptomycin d) accomplished two of the above. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.1 Review the contributions to chemotherapy made by Ehrlich, Domagk, Fleming, and Florey. Section Reference 1: Section 13.1 Antimicrobial Chemotherapy
2) Penicillin was discovered by
and was isolated by
.
a) Gerhard Domagk; Alexander Fleming b) Selman Walksman; Ernest Fourneau and Paul Ehrlich c) Ernst Chain and Howard Florey; Paul Ehrlich d) Alexander Fleming; Ernst Chain and Howard Florey Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.1 Review the contributions to chemotherapy made by Ehrlich, Domagk, Fleming, and Florey. Section Reference 1: Section 13.2 The History of Chemotherapy
3) Any chemical substance used in medical practice is known as a/an: a) antibiotic b) antimicrobial agent c) semi-synthetic drug d) chemotherapeutic agent Answer: d Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective 1: LO 13.1 Review the contributions to chemotherapy made by Ehrlich, Domagk, Fleming, and Florey. Section Reference 1: Section 13.1 Antimicrobial Chemotherapy
4) A special group of chemical substances that are used to treat diseases caused by microbes are called . a) antibiotics b) synthetic drugs c) semi-synthetic drugs d) antimicrobial agents Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.1 Review the contributions to chemotherapy made by Ehrlich, Domagk, Fleming, and Florey. Section Reference 1: Section 13.1 Antimicrobial Chemotherapy
5) Selective toxicity: a) harms the microbes without significantly harming the host. b) causes host damage without causing significant damage to the microbe. c) is the maximum tolerable dose of a drug per kilogram of body weight. d) is the same as the spectrum of activity for any given drug. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.2 Report mechanisms of action by which antimicrobial agents may work, possible ways in which they may exert toxic side effects, and ways in which drug resistance may develop. Section Reference 1: Section 13.3 General Properties of Antimicrobial Agents
6) The mode of action of an antimicrobial agent refers to a) killing of all microorganisms. b) inhibition of growth of bacteria. c) how it exerts its effects upon microorganisms. d) the broad spectrum of activity of the antimicrobial agent. Answer: c
.
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.2 Report mechanisms of action by which antimicrobial agents may work, possible ways in which they may exert toxic side effects, and ways in which drug resistance may develop. Section Reference 1: Section 13.3 General Properties of Antimicrobial Agents
7) Which of the following is not considered a mode of action by antimicrobial agents? a) Inhibition of protein synthesis. b) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis. c) Inhibition of membrane permeability. d) Disruption of selective toxicity. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.2 Report mechanisms of action by which antimicrobial agents may work, possible ways in which they may exert toxic side effects, and ways in which drug resistance may develop. Section Reference 1: Section 13.3 General Properties of Antimicrobial Agents
8) Which of the following directly pertain to inhibition of cellular protein synthesis by antimicrobial agents? a) cellular cytoplasm is lost b) binding and inhibition of RNA polymerase c) imitation or molecular mimicry of normal molecules d) interferes with accurate translation of mRNA message Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.2 Report mechanisms of action by which antimicrobial agents may work, possible ways in which they may exert toxic side effects, and ways in which drug resistance may develop. Section Reference 1: Section 13.3 General Properties of Antimicrobial Agents
9) Polypeptide antibiotics that act as detergents and distort bacterial cellular membranes do so by: a) acting as antimetabolites b) inhibition of cell wall synthesis c) disruption of cell membrane integrity
d) inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.2 Report mechanisms of action by which antimicrobial agents may work, possible ways in which they may exert toxic side effects, and ways in which drug resistance may develop. Section Reference 1: Section 13.3 General Properties of Antimicrobial Agents
10) Antibiotics that bind to RNA polymerase
.
a) act as base analogs b) inhibit of cell wall synthesis c) disrupt of cell membrane function d) inhibit transcription Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.2 Report mechanisms of action by which antimicrobial agents may work, possible ways in which they may exert toxic side effects, and ways in which drug resistance may develop. Section Reference 1: Section 13.3 General Properties of Antimicrobial Agents
11)Purine or pyrimidine analogs: a) act as antimetabolites b) inhibit ribosome function c) disrupt cell membrane function d) inhibit nucleic acid synthesis Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.2 Report mechanisms of action by which antimicrobial agents may work, possible ways in which they may exert toxic side effects, and ways in which drug resistance may develop. Section Reference 1: Section 13.3 General Properties of Antimicrobial Agents
12) Side effects due to antimicrobial agents may involve all of the following except: a) allergic reactions
b) anaphylactic shock c) disruption of microbial flora d) increased antibiotic susceptibility of replacement microflora Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.2 Report mechanisms of action by which antimicrobial agents may work, possible ways in which they may exert toxic side effects, and ways in which drug resistance may develop. Section Reference 1: Section 13.3 General Properties of Antimicrobial Agents
13) Mechanisms of bacterial resistance to antimicrobial agents include all of the following except: a) alteration of ribosomes b) alteration of an enzyme c) development of enzymes d) alteration of normal microflora Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.2 Report mechanisms of action by which antimicrobial agents may work, possible ways in which they may exert toxic side effects, and ways in which drug resistance may develop. Section Reference 1: Section 13.3 General Properties of Antimicrobial Agents
14) Destruction or inactivation of antimicrobial agents is an example of what kind of bacterial resistance mechanism? a) target alteration b) membrane permeability alteration c) enzyme development d) enzyme alteration Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 13.2 Report mechanisms of action by which antimicrobial agents may work, possible ways in which they may exert toxic side effects, and ways in which drug resistance may develop. Section Reference 1: Section 13.3 General Properties of Antimicrobial Agents
15) Mutation of DNA that produces an altered ribosome is an example of what type of bacterial resistance mechanism? a) Alteration of a metabolic pathway b) Alteration of an enzyme c) Development of enzymes d) Alteration of target Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 13.2 Report mechanisms of action by which antimicrobial agents may work, possible ways in which they may exert toxic side effects, and ways in which drug resistance may develop. Section Reference 1: Section 13.3 General Properties of Antimicrobial Agents
16) A microorganism that can use ready-made folic acid from its environment and no longer needs to synthesize it from the PABA precursor demonstrates an example of what type of antimicrobial resistance mechanism? a) Alteration of an enzyme b) Alteration of targets c) Development of enzymes d) Alteration of a metabolic pathway Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 13.2 Report mechanisms of action by which antimicrobial agents may work, possible ways in which they may exert toxic side effects, and ways in which drug resistance may develop. Section Reference 1: Section 13.3 General Properties of Antimicrobial Agents
17) Which of following is not a way to limit the ability of microorganisms to acquire drug resistance? a) High levels of antimicrobial agent in the patient b) Inhibiting growth of invading microbes so immune defenses can kill them c) Taking antibiotics until the patient feels better d) Taking two antibiotics synergistically Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.2 Report mechanisms of action by which antimicrobial agents may work, possible ways in which they may exert toxic side effects, and ways in which drug resistance may develop. Section Reference 1: Section 13.3 General Properties of Antimicrobial Agents
18) Because the tetracyclines are effective against a large variety of different organisms, they are considered to: a) be narrow-spectrum drugs b) have a therapeutic dosage level c) be bacteriocidal d) be broad-spectrum drugs Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.5 Review the commonly used antibacterial agents in terms of their mechanisms of action, treatment uses, and side effects. Section Reference 1: Section 13.6 Antibacterial Agents
19) Antibiotics inhibit bacterial protein synthesis: a) by disrupting cell membrane integrity b) by binding to 80S ribosomal subunits c) by interfering with the accurate reading of the mRNA message d) by binding to a 60S ribosomal subunit Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.2 Report mechanisms of action by which antimicrobial agents may work, possible ways in which they may exert toxic side effects, and ways in which drug resistance may develop. Section Reference 1: Section 13.3 General Properties of Antimicrobial Agents
20) Rifampin: a) inhibits RNA synthesis b) inhibits all nucleic acid synthesis c) disrupts of cell membrane function d) acts as an antimetabolite
Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.5 Review the commonly used antibacterial agents in terms of their mechanisms of action, treatment uses, and side effects. Section Reference 1: Section 13.6 Antibacterial Agents
21) Antibiotics that contain a beta-lactam ring: a) interfere with peptidoglycan synthesis b) act as an antimetabolite c) bind to a bacterial RNA polymerase d) are erroneously incorporated as nucleic acids Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 13.5 Review the commonly used antibacterial agents in terms of their mechanisms of action, treatment uses, and side effects. Section Reference 1: Section 13.6 Antibacterial Agents
22) Resistance of a microorganism to an antibiotic: a) means that the microorganism is susceptible to the antibiotic b) can be acquired by genetic changes c) leads to a disruption of cell membrane function d) leads to a disruption of normal microflora Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.2 Report mechanisms of action by which antimicrobial agents may work, possible ways in which they may exert toxic side effects, and ways in which drug resistance may develop. Section Reference 1: Section 13.3 General Properties of Antimicrobial Agents
23) The development of second-line and third-line antimicrobial agents demonstrates: a) cross-resistance b) the effectiveness of first-line drugs c) an effective method to limit drug resistance d) the increasingly difficultly of treating drug resistant bacteria
Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.2 Report mechanisms of action by which antimicrobial agents may work, possible ways in which they may exert toxic side effects, and ways in which drug resistance may develop. Section Reference 1: Section 13.3 General Properties of Antimicrobial Agents
24) Which does not involve testing microbial sensitivity to antimicrobials? a) Disk diffusion method b) Dilution method c) Minimum inhibitory concentration d) Toxic dosage level Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.3 Explain how methods such as the disk diffusion method and the use-dilution test allow determination of microbial sensitivity to antimicrobial drugs. Section Reference 1: Section 13.4 Determining Microbial Sensitivities to Antimicrobial Agents
25) Determining microbial sensitivity to an antimicrobial agent by using a filter paper soaked with the drug on a bacterial lawn on an agar plate is called: a) the dilution method b) the disk diffusion method c) automated testing d) phage typing Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.3 Explain how methods such as the disk diffusion method and the use-dilution test allow determination of microbial sensitivity to antimicrobial drugs. Section Reference 1: Section 13.4 Determining Microbial Sensitivities to Antimicrobial Agents
26) Clear area on agar that surrounds a filter paper disk on the disk diffusion tests and represents inhibited growth of a test microorganism is called: a) minimum inhibitory concentration b) minimum bactericidal concentration c) zone of inhibition
d) serum killing power Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.3 Explain how methods such as the disk diffusion method and the use-dilution test allow determination of microbial sensitivity to antimicrobial drugs. Section Reference 1: Section 13.4 Determining Microbial Sensitivities to Antimicrobial Agents
27) A test to determine the effectiveness of an antimicrobial agent that uses growth of a test microorganism in patients’ blood serum is the: a) disk dilution method b) dilution method c) disk diffusion method d) serum killing power method Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.3 Explain how methods such as the disk diffusion method and the use-dilution test allow determination of microbial sensitivity to antimicrobial drugs. Section Reference 1: Section 13.4 Determining Microbial Sensitivities to Antimicrobial Agents
28) Characteristics of an ideal antimicrobial agent include all of the following except: a) resistance by microorganisms b) reasonable cost c) long shelf life d) toxicity not easily altered Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.4 Describe eight attributes of an ideal antimicrobial agent. Section Reference 1: Section 13.5 Attributes of an Ideal Antimicrobial Agent
29) Which of the characteristics apply to an ideal antimicrobial agent? a) Allergenic b) Instability c) Short shelf life d) Selective toxicity
Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.4 Describe eight attributes of an ideal antimicrobial agent. Section Reference 1: Section 13.5 Attributes of an Ideal Antimicrobial Agent
30) A decreased efficacy of an antimicrobial agent during combination therapy is called: a) antagonism b) cross-resistance c) synergism d) second-line Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.3 Explain how methods such as the disk diffusion method and the use-dilution test allow determination of microbial sensitivity to antimicrobial drugs. Section Reference 1: Section 13.4 Determining Microbial Sensitivities to Antimicrobial Agents
31) The lowest concentration of drug that yields no growth during a second inoculation into fresh medium is called: a) minimum bactericidal concentration b) minimum inhibitory concentration c) mutant prevention concentration d) serum killing power Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 13.3 Explain how methods such as the disk diffusion method and the use-dilution test allow determination of microbial sensitivity to antimicrobial drugs. Section Reference 1: Section 13.4 Determining Microbial Sensitivities to Antimicrobial Agents
32) The ideal antimicrobial agent: a) should be soluble in body fluids b) have an unpredictable toxicity c) should have interactions with other drugs or foods d) criteria are met by most antimicrobial agents
Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.4 Describe eight attributes of an ideal antimicrobial agent. Section Reference 1: Section 13.5 Attributes of an Ideal Antimicrobial Agent
33) The mode of action of the penicillin is: a) inhibition of cell wall synthesis b) disruption of cell membranes c) inhibition of protein synthesis d) inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.5 Review the commonly used antibacterial agents in terms of their mechanisms of action, treatment uses, and side effects. Section Reference 1: Section 13.6 Antibacterial Agents
34) Which one of the following antimicrobial agents is an inhibitor of cell wall synthesis? a) Tetracycline b) Carbapenems c) Chloramphenicol d) Erythromycin Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.5 Review the commonly used antibacterial agents in terms of their mechanisms of action, treatment uses, and side effects. Section Reference 1: Section 13.6 Antibacterial Agents
35) Which of the antibiotics inhibit protein synthesis in susceptible bacteria? a) Amikacin b) Tyrothricin c) Vancomycin d) Cephalexin Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.5 Review the commonly used antibacterial agents in terms of their mechanisms of action, treatment uses, and side effects. Section Reference 1: Section 13.6 Antibacterial Agents
36) What antibiotic kills bacteria by disrupting their cell membranes? a) Erythromycin b) Rifampin c) Tetracycline d) Polymyxin B Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 13.5 Review the commonly used antibacterial agents in terms of their mechanisms of action, treatment uses, and side effects. Section Reference 1: Section 13.6 Antibacterial Agents
37) Which of the following antibiotics is an inhibitor of DNA gyrase? a) Ethambutol b) Ciprofloxacin c) Tobramycin d) Neomycin Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 13.5 Review the commonly used antibacterial agents in terms of their mechanisms of action, treatment uses, and side effects. Section Reference 1: Section 13.6 Antibacterial Agents
38) Chloramphenicol, a bacteriostatic antimicrobial agent, is an inhibitor of: a) nucleic acid synthesis b) cell wall synthesis c) cell membrane function d) protein synthesis Answer: d Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective 1: LO 13.5 Review the commonly used antibacterial agents in terms of their mechanisms of action, treatment uses, and side effects. Section Reference 1: Section 13.6 Antibacterial Agents
39) Antimetabolites include all of the following except: a) trimethoprin b) isoniazid c) nitrofurantoin d) sulfanilamide Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 13.5 Review the commonly used antibacterial agents in terms of their mechanisms of action, treatment uses, and side effects. Section Reference 1: Section 13.6 Antibacterial Agents
40) Imidazoles and triazoles are antimicrobial agents that are effective: a) bacteriostatic agents b) bactericidal agents c) antifungal agents d) antiviral agents Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 13.6 Review the commonly used antifungal and antiviral agents in terms of their mechanisms of action, treatment uses, and side effects. Section Reference 1: Section 13.7 Antifungal Agents
41) Cephalosporins are not
.
a) wide spectrum antibiotics b) antibiotics with few side effects c) disruptors of cell membrane function d) used prophylactically in patients undergoing surgery Answer: c Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective 1: LO 13.5 Review the commonly used antibacterial agents in terms of their mechanisms of action, treatment uses, and side effects. Section Reference 1: Section 13.6 Antibacterial Agents
42) Tetracyclines interfere with
.
a) the effectiveness of birth control pills b) transcription c) patients with heart defects d) metabolic reactions Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 13.5 Review the commonly used antibacterial agents in terms of their mechanisms of action, treatment uses, and side effects. Section Reference 1: Section 13.6 Antibacterial Agents
43) Which one of the following pairs is incorrectly matched with antibiotic and its target? a) penicillin; gram positive bacteria b) nystatin; fungi c) tetracycline; viruses d) griseofulvin; fungi Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.5 Review the commonly used antibacterial agents in terms of their mechanisms of action, treatment uses, and side effects. Section Reference 1: Section 13.6 Antibacterial Agents
44) The sulfonamide antibiotics kill bacteria by a) interfering with cell wall synthesis b) disrupting folic acid metabolism c) reacting with bacterial cell membranes d) inhibiting bacterial motility Answer: b Difficulty: Hard
.
Learning Objective 1: LO 13.5 Review the commonly used antibacterial agents in terms of their mechanisms of action, treatment uses, and side effects. Section Reference 1: Section 13.6 Antibacterial Agents
45) A Candida albicans infection of the intestine, vagina or oral cavity is commonly treated with . a) cefotaxime b) rifampin c) streptomycin d) nystatin Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 13.6 Review the commonly used antifungal and antiviral agents in terms of their mechanisms of action, treatment uses, and side effects. Section Reference 1: Section 13.7 Antifungal Agents
46) Examples of antiviral agents include all of the following agents except: a) acyclovir b) ribavirin c) quinine d) zidovudine (AZT) Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.6 Review the commonly used antifungal and antiviral agents in terms of their mechanisms of action, treatment uses, and side effects. Section Reference 1: Section 13.8 Antiviral Agents
47) Rimantadine is an effective antimicrobial agent against: a) viruses b) protozoa c) bacteria d) fungi Answer: a Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective 1: LO 13.6 Review the commonly used antifungal and antiviral agents in terms of their mechanisms of action, treatment uses, and side effects. Section Reference 1: Section 13.8 Antiviral Agents
48) Interferons and immunoenhancers: a) are widely used to treat viruses b) cause no side effects c) include levamisole and inosiplex d) have been thoroughly researched Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 13.6 Review the commonly used antifungal and antiviral agents in terms of their mechanisms of action, treatment uses, and side effects. Section Reference 1: Section 13.8 Antiviral Agents
49) Metronidazole: a) is effective against viruses b) has no side effects c) prevents overgrowth of Candida yeast infections d) is useful in the treatment of amoebas and Giardia Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.7 Review the commonly used antiprotozoan and antihelminthic agents in terms of their mechanisms of action, treatment uses, and side effects, addressing challenges in the treatment of drug-resistant hospital infections. Section Reference 1: Section 13.9 Antiprotozoan Agents
50) Why are resistant organisms found often in hospitalized patients? a) Stringent efforts maintain sanitary conditions. b) Many infections in patients are being treated with different antibiotics. c) Doctors are treating outpatients with multiple antibiotics. d) Two of the above Answer: b Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective 1: LO 13.7 Review the commonly used antiprotozoan and antihelminthic agents in terms of their mechanisms of action, treatment uses, and side effects, addressing challenges in the treatment of drug-resistant hospital infections. Section Reference 1: Section 13.11 Special Problems with Drug-Resistant Hospital Infections
51) How many zones of inhibition are depicted in this image?
a) None b) Five c) Ten d) Twelve Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.3 Explain how methods such as the disk diffusion method and the use-dilution test allow determination of microbial sensitivity to antimicrobial drugs. Section Reference 1: Section 13.4 Determining Microbial Sensitivities to Antimicrobial Agents
52) Select the incorrect statement.
a) Chloramphenicol is responsible for the staining of these teeth. b) One can expect the baby teeth and adult teeth to be affected by the antibiotic taken by this individual if consumed by their pregnant mother during the last trimester. c) Tetracycline leads to abnormal bone formation as observed in this image. d) All of these statements are correct. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.5 Review the commonly used antibacterial agents in terms of their mechanisms of action, treatment uses, and side effects. Section Reference 1: Section 13.6 Antibacterial Agents
53) What is happening in this image?
a) The individual is experiencing a side effect from taking an antifungal agent. b) The individual is experiencing a side effect from taking an antibiotic. c) The individual is experiencing a side effect from taking an antiviral agent. d) The individual is experiencing a side effect from taking an antiprotozoan agent. e) The individual is experiencing a side effect from taking an antihelminthic agent. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.7 Review the commonly used antiprotozoan and antihelminthic agents in terms of their mechanisms of action, treatment uses, and side effects, addressing challenges in the treatment of drug-resistant hospital infections. Section Reference 1: Section 13.9 Antiprotozoan Agents
Question Type: Essay
54) Describe the targets or action for three of the following: antifungal agents, antiviral agents, antiprotozoan agents and antihelminthic agents.
Answer: (i) Antifungal agents either increase plasma membrane permeability or interfere with nucleic acid synthesis. (ii) Antiviral agents include analogs of purines/pyrimidines, inhibitors of protein processing, interferons which interfere with viral gene expression and stimulants of the immune system. (iii) Some antiprotozoan agents interfere with protein synthesis or folic acid synthesis. (iv) Antihelminthic agents interfere with carbohydrate metabolism or act as neurotoxins. Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.6 Review the commonly used antifungal and antiviral agents in terms of their mechanisms of action, treatment uses, and side effects. Learning Obejctive 2: LO 13.7 Review the commonly used antiprotozoan and antihelminthic agents in terms of their mechanisms of action, treatment uses, and side effects, addressing challenges in the treatment of drug-resistant hospital infections. Section Reference 1: Section 13.7 Antifungal Agents Section Reference 2: Section 13.8 Antiviral Agents Section Reference 3: Section 13.9 Antiprotozoan Agents Section Reference 4: Section 13.10 Antihelminthic Agents 55) Describe three mechanisms for antibiotic resistance. If exposure to antibiotics does not induce drug-resistant mutations to occur, why do we see so many more drug-resistant strains today? Answer: There are 5 mechanisms for antibiotic resistance: (i) alteration of antibiotic targets, (ii)alteration of antibiotics ability to cross the membrane (membrane permeability), (iii)development of enzymes to destroy/inactivate antibiotic, (iv)alteration of a metabolic pathway to bypass antibiotic target, and (v) alteration of enzyme active site affinities to override antibiotics actions. There are more drug-resistant strains today because selection for drug resistant strains is more intense. Many antibiotics are not only prescribed to human patients but also used in agriculture, antibacterial soaps, etc. In addition inappropriate use by patients and overprescription for conditions which do not require antibiotics contribute to the problem. Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 13.2 Report mechanisms of action by which antimicrobial agents may work, possible ways in which they may exert toxic side effects, and ways in which drug resistance may develop. Section Reference 1: Section 13.3 General Properties of Antimicrobial Agents
56) A patient comes to you from a nursing home with a high fever. Is it better to start the patient on a broad spectrum drug or a narrow spectrum drug? Is it better to start the patient on one antibiotic or multiple antibiotics defend your decision? Defend your decision. Answer: Personal opinion, possible answers include: Broad spectrum drugs would increase the chance that the organism will be susceptible to it and might be considered desirable since the patient appears critically ill. Narrow spectrum drugs minimize the destruction of the host’s
normal flora and decreases the likelihood that organisms will develop drug resistance but sensitivity testing will take time. Multiple antibiotics decrease the likelihood that organisms will develop drug resistance and increase the chance that the organism will be susceptible to the treatment. Single antibiotic treatment minimizes side effects and the destruction of the host’s normal flora but there is more chance for the development of drug resistance. Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 13.2 Report mechanisms of action by which antimicrobial agents may work, possible ways in which they may exert toxic side effects, and ways in which drug resistance may develop. Section Reference 1: Section 13.3 General Properties of Antimicrobial Agents
Chapter 15: Host-Microbe Relationships and Disease Processes
Question Type: Multiple Choice
1) Symbiosis is an association between: a) two or more species b) one or two species c) two or more hosts d) no species but all hosts Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.1 Relate the three main types of symbiotic relationships between host and microbe and identify factors which may cause such relationships to change. Section Reference 1: Section 14.1 Host-Microbe Relationships
2) A symbiotic relationship in which one species benefits from the association while the other species is not harmed but does not benefit from the relationship. a) Parasitism b) Mutualism c) Commensalism d) Contamination Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.1 Relate the three main types of symbiotic relationships between host and microbe and identify factors which may cause such relationships to change. Section Reference 1: Section 14.1 Host-Microbe Relationships
3) Which of the following does not pertain to the mutualistic organism E. coli? a) Found in large numbers on human host b) Found in the human intestinal tract c) Synthesizes vitamin K d) Synthesizes blood clotting factors Answer: d
Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.1 Relate the three main types of symbiotic relationships between host and microbe and identify factors which may cause such relationships to change. Section Reference 1: Section 14.1 Host-Microbe Relationships
4) A healthcare worker fails to follow aseptic procedures while cleaning a wound, washes his hands properly afterwards and suffers no ill effects—this is an example of: a) commensalism b) infection c) infestation d) contamination Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.1 Relate the three main types of symbiotic relationships between host and microbe and identify factors which may cause such relationships to change. Section Reference 1: Section 14.1 Host-Microbe Relationships
5) All of the following pertain to microbial virulence except
.
a) varies among different microbial species b) varies within the same species of a pathogen c) increases with animal passage d) increases by attenuation Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.1 Relate the three main types of symbiotic relationships between host and microbe and identify factors which may cause such relationships to change. Section Reference 1: Section 14.1 Host-Microbe Relationships
6) All of the following refer to the normal microflora except a) no microflora is found in the fetus b) resident microorganisms normally do not cause disease c) some microorganisms are resident while others are transient d) resident microorganisms are found in nervous system and blood Answer: d
.
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.1 Relate the three main types of symbiotic relationships between host and microbe and identify factors which may cause such relationships to change. Section Reference 1: Section 14.1 Host-Microbe Relationships
7) Which of the following statements about host-microbes is true? a) A host is any organism that harbors no other organism. b) Infestation refers to the presence of larger parasites. c) In mutualism neither of the two species benefits from the relationship. d) Virulence is defined as the capacity to produce disease. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 14.1 Relate the three main types of symbiotic relationships between host and microbe and identify factors which may cause such relationships to change. Section Reference 1: Section 14.1 Host-Microbe Relationships 8) The rapid transfer of a microbial pathogen through animals of a susceptible species
.
a) does not change the pathogenicity b) increases its fitness in broth culture c) can increase the intensity of the disease produced by that pathogen d) can decrease the intensity of the disease produced by that pathogen Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.1 Relate the three main types of symbiotic relationships between host and microbe and identify factors which may cause such relationships to change. Section Reference 1: Section 14.1 Host-Microbe Relationships
9) Resident microflora: a) can be found in the stomach and are adapted to acidic conditions b) may be permanent or transient c) may be responsible for opportunistic infections in immunocompromised individuals d) two of the above Answer: c Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective 1: LO 14.1 Relate the three main types of symbiotic relationships between host and microbe and identify factors which may cause such relationships to change. Section Reference 1: Section 14.1 Host-Microbe Relationships 10) Which of the following must be true in order to satisfy some of Koch’s postulates? a) causative agent must be observed in a small percentage of cases of disease b) must be isolated from hosts that are not inoculated with the pure culture c) when pure cultures inoculated in healthy hosts, they do not show disease d) causative agent must be isolated from diseased host and grown in pure culture Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.2 Discuss Koch’s postulates and exceptions to them which are recognized today. Section Reference 1: Section 14.2 Koch’s Postulates 11) Which of the following microbes easily satisfies Koch’s postulates? a) Fastidious bacteria b) Sepsis for which many microbes are regularly isolated c) Hepatitis C for which there is no suitable animal model d) Yersinia, the causative agent of plague as it can be isolated from sick patients Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.2 Discuss Koch’s postulates and exceptions to them which are recognized today. Section Reference 1: Section 14.2 Koch’s Postulates
12) All of the following are true of the relationship between microorganisms and diseases except: a) sickle cell anemia patients are resistant to malaria b) bacterial infections can lead to endocarditis c) viral infections invariably lead to nutritional deficiency d) infections in the brain can result in mental disease Answer: c Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective 1: LO 14.3 Describe the known types of disease and methods of transmission. Section Reference 1: Section 14.3 Kinds of Diseases
13) Which of the following statements about the relationship between hosts and microbes is true? a) An opportunistic pathogen has a relatively low infectious dose. b) Infection always leads to symptoms. c) Some organisms can be pathogens and commensals. d) Endogenous infections are caused by microbes that are endemic to environment. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 14.1 Relate the three main types of symbiotic relationships between host and microbe and identify factors which may cause such relationships to change. Section Reference 1: Section 14.1 Host-Microbe Relationships 14) Factors that improve the chances of a pathogen’s ability to invade a host and cause infection are known as: a) contagious factors b) non-communicable factors c) viral factors d) virulence factors Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.4 List the stages of disease progression and ways in which bacteria and viruses may cause disease. Section Reference 1: Section 14.4 The Disease Process
15) Which of the factors below is not considered to be an example of a virulence factor? a) Prodrome b) Leukostatin c) Streptokinase d) Adhesions Answer: a Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective 1: LO 14.4 List the stages of disease progression and ways in which bacteria and viruses may cause disease. Section Reference 1: Section 14.4 The Disease Process
16) The spreading of exotoxins from the site of infection via the blood is called: a) septicemia b) toxemia c) colonization d) adherence Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.4 List the stages of disease progression and ways in which bacteria and viruses may cause disease. Section Reference 1: Section 14.4 The Disease Process
17) What causes the cytopathic effect (CPE)? a) Bacteria b) Fungi c) Protozoa d) Viruses Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.4 List the stages of disease progression and ways in which bacteria and viruses may cause disease. Section Reference 1: Section 14.4 The Disease Process
18) The microorganism Staphylococcus aureus causes which condition? a) Gas gangrene b) Botulism c) Scalded skin syndrome d) Scarlet fever Answer: c Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective 1: LO 14.4 List the stages of disease progression and ways in which bacteria and viruses may cause disease. Section Reference 1: Section 14.4 The Disease Process
19) Streptococcus pyogenes is a causative agent of: a) scarlet fever b) bacillary dysentery c) anthrax d) diphtheria Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 14.4 List the stages of disease progression and ways in which bacteria and viruses may cause disease. Section Reference 1: Section 14.4 The Disease Process
20) A viral infection that involves continued and prolonged production of viruses in a host is referred to as a/an: a) abortive infection b) productive infection c) latent infection d) persistent infection Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.4 List the stages of disease progression and ways in which bacteria and viruses may cause disease. Section Reference 1: Section 14.4 The Disease Process
21) All of the following are true of most diseases caused by a fungus except: a) fungal spores enter the body through a cut or a wound b) fungi could release enzymes that attack host cells c) fungi can digest and invade neighboring host cells d) fungi can use its flagellum to expel tissue fluids Answer: d Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective 1: LO 14.4 List the stages of disease progression and ways in which bacteria and viruses may cause disease. Section Reference 1: Section 14.4 The Disease Process
22) Giardia intestinalis, a protozoan, possesses the following virulence factor. a) Adhesive disc b) Aflatoxin c) Beta-hemolysin d) Coagulase Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.4 List the stages of disease progression and ways in which bacteria and viruses may cause disease. Section Reference 1: Section 14.4 The Disease Process
23) Infection that does not produce a full set of signs and symptoms is called a/an: a) mixed infection b) secondary infection c) superinfection d) inapparent infection Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.3 Describe the known types of disease and methods of transmission. Section Reference 1: Section 14.3 Kinds of Diseases
24) What is a disease referred to when symptoms develop rapidly and it runs its course quickly? a) primary infection b) acute infection c) subacute infection d) chronic infection Answer: b Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective 1: LO 14.3 Describe the known types of disease and methods of transmission. Section Reference 1: Section 14.3 Kinds of Diseases
25) Diseases in which permanent damage occurs produce: a) toxemia b) septicemia c) sequelae d) syndromes Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.3 Describe the known types of disease and methods of transmission. Section Reference 1: Section 14.3 Kinds of Diseases
26) An infection that is confined to a specific area of the body is a: a) local infection b) focal infection c) systemic infection d) latent infection Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.3 Describe the known types of disease and methods of transmission. Section Reference 1: Section 14.3 Kinds of Diseases
27) Which of the following is the correct pairing of a disease with its classification? a) sickle cell anemia – degenerative disease b) anemia – mental disease c) Creutzfeldt-Jakob – mental disease d) emphysema – idiopathic Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 14.3 Describe the known types of disease and methods of transmission
Section Reference 1: Section 14.3 Kinds of Diseases
28) An idiopathic disease
.
a) has unknown causes b) has no infectious basis c) involves abnormal cell growth d) two of the above Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.3 Describe the known types of disease and methods of transmission Section Reference 1: Section 14.3 Kinds of Diseases
29) Noncommunicable infectious diseases: a) are especially common among young children b) includes Klebsiella pneumonia which is only slightly contagious c) are not spread form one host to another d) two of the above Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 14.3 Describe the known types of disease and methods of transmission. Section Reference 1: Section 14.3 Kinds of Diseases
30) Which of the following do not affect the incubation period of an infectious disease? a) Nature of the microorganism b) Virulence factors c) The numbers of invading microorganism d) Time between symptoms arising and microbe being transmitted Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.4 List the stages of disease progression and ways in which bacteria and viruses may cause disease. Section Reference 1: Section 14.4 The Disease Process
31) Sudden or severe onset of signs and symptoms during acme is referred to as: a) incubation b) fulminating c) prodrome d) decline Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.4 List the stages of disease progression and ways in which bacteria and viruses may cause disease. Section Reference 1: Section 14.4 The Disease Process
32) Which of the following is not a stage of an infectious disease? a) Invasive b) Incubation c) Syndrome d) Prodromal Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.4 List the stages of disease progression and ways in which bacteria and viruses may cause disease. Section Reference 1: Section 14.4 The Disease Process
33) Iatrogenic diseases: a) include nosocomial infections b) have no known causes c) can be caused by chemicals, physical agents or viruses d) are present at birth Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.3 Describe the known types of disease and methods of transmission Section Reference 1: Section 14.3 Kinds of Diseases
34) Alpha-hemolysins:
a) are neurotoxins b) are exotoxins c) are enzymes that synthesize hemoglobin d) two of the above Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 14.4 List the stages of disease progression and ways in which bacteria and viruses may cause disease. Section Reference 1: Section 14.4 The Disease Process
35) The virus that causes chicken pox in childhood: a) is noncommunicable infectious disease b) has no convalescence stage c) produces hemolysins that release iron d) is the causative agent of shingles Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.4 List the stages of disease progression and ways in which bacteria and viruses may cause disease. Section Reference 1: Section 14.4 The Disease Process
36) A symptom: a) is present during the convalescent stage b) can be observed or felt only by the patient c) can be observed by examination of the patient d) only occurs during invasive infections Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.4 List the stages of disease progression and ways in which bacteria and viruses may cause disease. Section Reference 1: Section 14.4 The Disease Process
37) Eradication of a given infectious disease:
a) has never been achieved b) only occurs with infectious agents that are adaptable c) is made easier when there is a lack of medical care d) is difficult due to political, economic and scientific barriers Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.5 Evaluate the key factors that limit global disease eradication. Section Reference 1: Section 14.5 Infectious Diseases — Past, Present and Future
38) Attenuation: a) is the increase in the pathogenicity of a microbe b) is the process that weakens the disease-producing ability of a pathogen c) does not affect the capacity to produce disease d) is the process that decreases the number of organisms that enter the body Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.1 Relate the three main types of symbiotic relationships between host and microbe and identify factors which may cause such relationships to change. Section Reference 1: Section 14.1 Host-Microbe Relationships
39) Hyaluronidase: a) dissolves blood clots b) allows the pathogens to wall themselves off c) or spreading factor is important for streptococci colonization d) or adhesion is important for staphylococci to adhere to tissue Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 14.4 List the stages of disease progression and ways in which bacteria and viruses may cause disease. Section Reference 1: Section 14.4 The Disease Process
40) A productive infection: a) has continued and prolonged production of viruses in a host b) is controlled by the host immune system and later causes disease
c) occurs when the virus enters the cell and produces offspring d) often leads to a viral syndrome Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.3 Describe the known types of disease and methods of transmission. Section Reference 1: Section 14.3 Kinds of Diseases
41) An infection that occurs after the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics and the subsequent destruction of the normal microbiota would be considered a/an: a) chronic infection b) opportunistic infection c) superinfection d) mixed infection Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 14.3 Describe the known types of disease and methods of transmission. Section Reference 1: Section 14.3 Kinds of Diseases
42) Leukocidin: a) is an altered toxin that retains its antigenicity b) is an endotoxin c) is insoluble in host tissues d) destroys or damages neutrophils Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 14.4 List the stages of disease progression and ways in which bacteria and viruses may cause disease. Section Reference 1: Section 14.4 The Disease Process
43) Toxoid: a) is an altered toxin that retains its antigenicity b) is an endotoxin
c) is insoluble in host tissues d) destroys or damages neutrophils Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.4 List the stages of disease progression and ways in which bacteria and viruses may cause disease. Section Reference 1: Section 14.4 The Disease Process
44) In the United States, infectious diseases are currently: a) responsible for more deaths than cardiovascular diseases b) the number one cause of mortality c) ranked after cancer, accidents, diabetes and cardiovascular disease in mortality d) two of the above Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 14.5 Evaluate the key factors that limit global disease eradication. Section Reference 1: Section 14.5 Infectious Diseases — Past, Present and Future
45) Microbial competition: a) explains diseases from microbes that occur after antibiotic treatment b) encompasses both direct and indirect harm to the host c) explains why some bacteria are harmless in one site but turn pathogenic in another d) is beneficial when commensal bacteria prevent pathogens from colonizing Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.1 Relate the three main types of symbiotic relationships between host and microbe and identify factors which may cause such relationships to change. Section Reference 1: Section 14.1 Host-Microbe Relationships
46) Transposal of virulence is all of the following except: a) a laboratory technique in which a pathogen is passed from its normal host to a new host b) involves animal passaging experiments to adapt a pathogen to its normal host c) was used by Pasteur to prepare rabies virus d) increases the virulence for the new host but may reduce the virulence in the normal host
Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 14.1 Relate the three main types of symbiotic relationships between host and microbe and identify factors which may cause such relationships to change. Section Reference 1: Section 14.1 Host-Microbe Relationships
47) Exotoxins: a) are soluble substances secreted into the host bloodstream b) buildup after antibiotic treatment c) require the bacteria to die or divide d) consist of lipopolysaccharide (LPS) Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.4 List the stages of disease progression and ways in which bacteria and viruses may cause disease. Section Reference 1: Section 14.4 The Disease Process
48) Endotoxins: a) are more potent than exotoxins b) are unstable c) have nonspecific effects such as fever d) are actively excreted into medium Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.4 List the stages of disease progression and ways in which bacteria and viruses may cause disease. Section Reference 1: Section 14.4 The Disease Process
49) Botulinum toxin: a) when used for cosmetic purposes is called Botox b) relieves muscle spasms in dystonia c) is produced by Clostridium botulinum d) all of the above
Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.4 List the stages of disease progression and ways in which bacteria and viruses may cause disease. Section Reference 1: Section 14.4 The Disease Process
50) An acute disease becomes when the body cannot get rid of it; while a local disease becomes when it disseminates into deeper organs and tissues. a) contagious; systemic b) contagious; secondary c) chronic; systemic d) chronic; secondary Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.3 Describe the known types of disease and methods of transmission. Section Reference 1: Section 14.3 Kinds of Diseases
51) An disease in which the agent is acquired directly from the environment and is not transmissable is a/an: a) local disease b) secondary disease c) noncommunicable disease d) acute disease Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.3 Describe the known types of disease and methods of transmission. Section Reference 1: Section 14.3 Kinds of Diseases
52) Candida is part of the normal flora in all of these regions except:
a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: a Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective 1: LO 14.1 Relate the three main types of symbiotic relationships between host and microbe and identify factors which may cause such relationships to change. Section Reference 1: Section 14.1 Host-Microbe Relationships
53) What type of toxin is illustrated in this image?
a) Endotoxin b) Exotoxin c) Enterotoxin d) Neurotoxin Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.4 List the stages of disease progression and ways in which bacteria and viruses may cause disease. Section Reference 1: Section 14.4 The Disease Process
54) What type of organism has caused the abnormal changes in these cells in Figure (b)? The cells in Figure (a) are normal.
a) Fungus b) Protozoa c) Virus d) Bacteria Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 14.4 List the stages of disease progression and ways in which bacteria and viruses may cause disease. Section Reference 1: Section 14.4 The Disease Process
Question Type: Essay
55) The 1918 Influenza Epidemic was the worst one on record. People infected early in the epidemic had a mild flu, while those later infected had a much more severe form of the disease. What is the explanation for this observation and what laboratory studies mimic these results? Why do you think this doesn’t occur for all infectious diseases? Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.4 List the stages of disease progression and ways in which bacteria and viruses may cause disease. Section Reference 1: Section 14.4 The Disease Process Solution: While pathogens are passaged from one host to another, virulence is being selected for and maintained. Laboratory studies can increase the virulence of a pathogen by animal passage, which refers to the rapid transfer of a pathogen through the same host. Possible reasons that this doesn’t occur for all infectious diseases are: (i) differences in mutation and recombination rates may not allow all microbes to change with rapid passage through
animal/human hosts; (ii) strains that are highly virulent run out of hosts because they have killed all the susceptibles; (iii) strains that are highly virulent may induce a stronger immune response and have been cleared or be less fit in other parts of their lifecycle; (iv) for some diseases there is rarely a continuous chain of transmission events or hosts vary in their immune responses and physiology so that adaptation to one host and increased virulence may not occur. 56) What are the difficulties in demonstrating Koch’s postulates for human infections? Why was it not possible to demonstrate that Leprosy or HIV satisfied Koch’s Postulates? Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 14.2 Discuss Koch’s postulates and exceptions to them which are recognized today. Section Reference 1: Section 14.2 Koch’s Postulates Solution: It is difficult to demonstrate Koch’s postulates when: (i) the organism is difficult to isolate or grow; (ii) many organisms cause the same disease; (iii) the organism is a commensal and found in healthy people but causes disease in immunocompromised individuals; (iv) the organism requires other conditions (coinfections, immune deficiencies) in order to cause disease or when there is no animal model for the disease. It was hard to demonstrate that Mycobacterium, the agent of leprosy satisfied Koch’s Postulate because there was no way to test whether an injection into susceptible animals resulted in the disease due to its difficulty to culture.. However with the advent of the armadillo model it became possible. Koch’s postulates would still not be entirely satisfied since the bacterium cannot be isolated in pure culture. It was hard to demonstrate that HIV satisfied Koch’s Postulates because testing could not be done on susceptible humans and the virus cannot be grown in pure culture.
Chapter 16: Epidemiology and Nosocomial Infections
Question Type: Multiple Choice
1) The study of factors and mechanisms of disease frequency and spread within a population is known as: a) Immunology b) Pathology c) Epidemiology d) Etiology Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1 Define key terms used in epidemiology – such as incidence, prevalence, epidemic, and pandemic – and identify the three modes of disease transmission. Section Reference 1: Section 15.1 Epidemiology
2) The relative number of individuals affected adversely by a particular disease during a set period of time within a given population. a) Epidemic b) Mortality c) Surveillance d) Morbidity Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1 Define key terms used in epidemiology – such as incidence, prevalence, epidemic, and pandemic – and identify the three modes of disease transmission. Section Reference 1: Section 15.1 Epidemiology
3) The worldwide spread of an infectious disease is called a/an: a) epidemic b) endemic c) sporadic d) pandemic Answer: d
Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1 Define key terms used in epidemiology – such as incidence, prevalence, epidemic, and pandemic – and identify the three modes of disease transmission. Section Reference 1: Section 15.1 Epidemiology
4) An infectious disease that occurs in a random and unpredictable manner is called: a) sporadic b) pandemic c) epidemic d) propagated epidemic Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1 Define key terms used in epidemiology – such as incidence, prevalence, epidemic, and pandemic – and identify the three modes of disease transmission. Section Reference 1: Section 15.1 Epidemiology
5) An epidemic that arises from horizontal transmission and where the number of cases slowly rises and then falls is said to be of what type? a) Common-source outbreak b) Sporadic c) Pandemic d) Propagated epidemic Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1 Define key terms used in epidemiology – such as incidence, prevalence, epidemic, and pandemic – and identify the three modes of disease transmission. Section Reference 1: Section 15.1 Epidemiology
6) An epidemiologist that studies the number of cases of a disease, those segments of the population affected by a disease and the locations and time periods of a disease while the outbreak occurs deals with what type of epidemiology? a) Analytical b) Descriptive c) Experimental d) None of these choices
Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1 Define key terms used in epidemiology – such as incidence, prevalence, epidemic, and pandemic – and identify the three modes of disease transmission. Section Reference 1: Section 15.1 Epidemiology
7) All of the following are important when considering a descriptive epidemiological study except the: a) locations of disease cases b) number of cases of a disease c) time periods of disease development d) cause-and-effect relationships of disease cases Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1 Define key terms used in epidemiology – such as incidence, prevalence, epidemic, and pandemic – and identify the three modes of disease transmission. Section Reference 1: Section 15.1 Epidemiology
8) The total number of people infected within a population at a given time is the: a) incidence b) mortality c) prevalence d) morbidity Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1 Define key terms used in epidemiology – such as incidence, prevalence, epidemic, and pandemic – and identify the three modes of disease transmission. Section Reference 1: Section 15.1 Epidemiology
9) All of the following pertain to analytical studies except: a) control groups b) retrospective studies c) cause-and-effect relationships of disease occurrences d) data on microbe pathogenicity
Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1 Define key terms used in epidemiology – such as incidence, prevalence, epidemic, and pandemic – and identify the three modes of disease transmission. Section Reference 1: Section 15.1 Epidemiology
10) An epidemiological study that tests a hypothesis is referred to as what type of study? a) Analytical b) Experimental c) Prospective d) Descriptive Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1 Define key terms used in epidemiology – such as incidence, prevalence, epidemic, and pandemic – and identify the three modes of disease transmission. Section Reference 1: Section 15.1 Epidemiology
11) Mortality rate is typically expressed as the . a) number of illnesses from a disease per 100,000 people in the population per year b) fraction of susceptible population that dies c) speed at which a disease spreads through a population d) number of deaths from a disease per 100,000 people in the population per year Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1 Define key terms used in epidemiology – such as incidence, prevalence, epidemic, and pandemic – and identify the three modes of disease transmission. Section Reference 1: Section 15.1 Epidemiology
12) A non-medicinal substance that has no effect on an individual, but the individual believes is a real treatment is known as a/an: a) index case b) human reservoir c) zoonosis d) placebo
Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1 Define key terms used in epidemiology – such as incidence, prevalence, epidemic, and pandemic – and identify the three modes of disease transmission. Section Reference 1: Section 15.1 Epidemiology
13) The incidence rate of chicken pox in the United States: a) includes both old and newly diagnosed cases of disease b) shows a pattern of pandemics c) has been increasing for the last ten years d) is difficult to assess since the disease is no longer “notifiable” Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1 Define key terms used in epidemiology – such as incidence, prevalence, epidemic, and pandemic – and identify the three modes of disease transmission. Section Reference 1: Section 15.1 Epidemiology
14) Factors that increase the likelihood of an epidemic include all of the following except: a) overcrowding b) migration c) lack of vaccination d) access to medical care Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1 Define key terms used in epidemiology – such as incidence, prevalence, epidemic, and pandemic – and identify the three modes of disease transmission. Section Reference 1: Section 15.1 Epidemiology
15) Which of following is a true statement about outbreaks? a) An outbreak is considered vastly more serious than an epidemic. b) A propagated outbreak arises from contact with contaminated substances. c) In common-source outbreaks new cases are continually seen during time. d) Outbreaks can be classified by the rate of increase of new cases.
Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1 Define key terms used in epidemiology – such as incidence, prevalence, epidemic, and pandemic – and identify the three modes of disease transmission. Section Reference 1: Section 15.1 Epidemiology
16) An index case: a) refers to the first case where an infectious disease kills a susceptible host b) is necessary for a common source outbreak c) defines a propagated epidemic d) refers to the first case of an infectious disease outbreak to be identified Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1 Define key terms used in epidemiology – such as incidence, prevalence, epidemic, and pandemic – and identify the three modes of disease transmission. Section Reference 1: Section 15.1 Epidemiology
17) A disease that breaks out in explosive proportions within a population is called: a) systemic b) endemic c) epidemic d) pandemic Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1 Define key terms used in epidemiology – such as incidence, prevalence, epidemic, and pandemic – and identify the three modes of disease transmission. Section Reference 1: Section 15.1 Epidemiology
18) A site where microorganisms can persist and thus maintain the ability to cause infection: a) Control group b) Portal of exit c) Reservoir d) Portal of entry Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1 Define key terms used in epidemiology – such as incidence, prevalence, epidemic, and pandemic – and identify the three modes of disease transmission. Section Reference 1: Section 15.1 Epidemiology
19) An infection in which the signs and symptoms are not recognized readily because they are too mild is called a/an: a) carrier b) chronic infection c) acute disease d) subclinical infection Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1 Define key terms used in epidemiology – such as incidence, prevalence, epidemic, and pandemic – and identify the three modes of disease transmission. Section Reference 1: Section 15.1 Epidemiology
20) An infectious disease in which transmission can occur during the incubation period of disease is considered to be: a) chronic b) acute c) carrier d) communicable Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1 Define key terms used in epidemiology – such as incidence, prevalence, epidemic, and pandemic – and identify the three modes of disease transmission. Section Reference 1: Section 15.1 Epidemiology
21) Which of the following microorganisms is found in soil, a nonliving reservoir, and in animal fecal matter used as a fertilizer? a) Yersinia pestis b) Pseudomonas aeruginosa c) Klebsiella pneumoniae d) Clostridium tetani
Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1 Define key terms used in epidemiology – such as incidence, prevalence, epidemic, and pandemic – and identify the three modes of disease transmission. Section Reference 1: Section 15.1 Epidemiology
22) A common portal of entry for microorganisms is/are: a) milk b) blood vessels c) saliva ducts d) mucous membranes Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1 Define key terms used in epidemiology – such as incidence, prevalence, epidemic, and pandemic – and identify the three modes of disease transmission. Section Reference 1: Section 15.1 Epidemiology
23) All of the following infectious diseases can occur in the fetus when the causative agents cross the placenta except: a) AIDS b) syphilis c) rubella d) pneumonia Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1 Define key terms used in epidemiology – such as incidence, prevalence, epidemic, and pandemic – and identify the three modes of disease transmission. Section Reference 1: Section 15.1 Epidemiology
24) Pathogenic microorganisms that are spread from person to person by unwashed hands contaminated by fecal matter, is an example of what mode of transmission? a) Fomite transmission b) Indirect contact c) Droplet transmission d) Direct transmission
Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1 Define key terms used in epidemiology – such as incidence, prevalence, epidemic, and pandemic – and identify the three modes of disease transmission. Section Reference 1: Section 15.1 Epidemiology
25) Transmission of pathogens from person to person via sneezing, coughing or by the affected individual speaking near (less than 1 meter) a susceptible individual are examples of what mode of transmission? a) Vertical transmission b) Indirect contact transmission c) Direct fecal-oral transmission d) Contact transmission Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1 Define key terms used in epidemiology – such as incidence, prevalence, epidemic, and pandemic – and identify the three modes of disease transmission. Section Reference 1: Section 15.1 Epidemiology
26) Waterborne transmission of pathogens involving water contaminated by raw sewage is an example of what mode of transmission? a) Indirect fecal-oral b) Direct fecal-oral c) Vertical d) Droplet nuclei Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1 Define key terms used in epidemiology – such as incidence, prevalence, epidemic, and pandemic – and identify the three modes of disease transmission. Section Reference 1: Section 15.1 Epidemiology
27) Pathogens that are delivered by insects follow what mode of disease transmission? a) Airborne b) Foodborne
c) Vehicleborne d) Vectorborne Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1 Define key terms used in epidemiology – such as incidence, prevalence, epidemic, and pandemic – and identify the three modes of disease transmission. Section Reference 1: Section 15.1 Epidemiology
28) Which of the following pertain to foodborne transmission of infectious agents? a) Poorly treated drinking water b) Microorganisms in dry air c) Properly refrigerated foods d) Unsanitary food preparation Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1 Define key terms used in epidemiology – such as incidence, prevalence, epidemic, and pandemic – and identify the three modes of disease transmission. Section Reference 1: Section 15.1 Epidemiology
29) Sexually transmitted diseases are most often spread by what mode of transmission? a) Direct contact b) Indirect contact c) Mechanical vectors d) Waterborne Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1 Define key terms used in epidemiology – such as incidence, prevalence, epidemic, and pandemic – and identify the three modes of disease transmission. Section Reference 1: Section 15.1 Epidemiology
30) In herd immunity, typically 90% of the population is infectious disease. a) susceptible, immune b) immune, infected
while 10 % is
to an
c) infected, susceptible d) immune, susceptibleAnswer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1 Define key terms used in epidemiology – such as incidence, prevalence, epidemic, and pandemic – and identify the three modes of disease transmission. Section Reference 1: Section 15.1 Epidemiology
31) Which of the following is not helpful in achieving control of disease transmission? a) Isolation of patient from general population b) Propagation of vectors c) Quarantine d) Immunization programs Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1 Define key terms used in epidemiology – such as incidence, prevalence, epidemic, and pandemic – and identify the three modes of disease transmission. Section Reference 1: Section 15.1 Epidemiology
32) Which of the following organizations sets the standards for international disease control? a) NIH b) CDC c) WHO d) PHS Answer:
c
Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1 Define key terms used in epidemiology – such as incidence, prevalence, epidemic, and pandemic – and identify the three modes of disease transmission. Section Reference 1: Section 15.1 Epidemiology
33) A retrospective analytical study: a) enrolls study participants before an epidemic occurs b) considers factors that occur as an epidemic spread c) compares study participants that receive a drug with those that received an infection
d) may determine which factors are causal after the epidemic occurs Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1 Define key terms used in epidemiology – such as incidence, prevalence, epidemic, and pandemic – and identify the three modes of disease transmission. Section Reference 1: Section 15.1 Epidemiology
34) A zoonosis refers to an infectious disease that is transmitted: a) to a vertebrate animal from a human b) from a water reservoir to a human c) from a human to their pets d) to a human from vertebrate animal Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1 Define key terms used in epidemiology – such as incidence, prevalence, epidemic, and pandemic – and identify the three modes of disease transmission. Section Reference 1: Section 15.1 Epidemiology
35) Reservoirs of infections include: a) humans b) non-human vertebrate animals c) water and soil d) all of the above Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1 Define key terms used in epidemiology – such as incidence, prevalence, epidemic, and pandemic – and identify the three modes of disease transmission. Section Reference 1: Section 15.1 Epidemiology
36) Pathogenic microorganisms that enter the body via contaminated food or water typically infect: a) the respiratory system b) the skin c) only vertebrate animals
d) the digestive system Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1 Define key terms used in epidemiology – such as incidence, prevalence, epidemic, and pandemic – and identify the three modes of disease transmission. Section Reference 1: Section 15.1 Epidemiology
37) Congenital diseases: a) cause infection when present on poorly cooked meat b) cross the placenta from infected mother to fetus c) enter the body via contaminated water d) affect only the mother and not the fetus Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1 Define key terms used in epidemiology – such as incidence, prevalence, epidemic, and pandemic – and identify the three modes of disease transmission. Section Reference 1: Section 15.1 Epidemiology
38) All of the following are associated with Yersinia pestis except: a) causes plague b) has a 100% mortality when acquired through respiratory route c) when acquired through the respiratory route causes bubonic plague d) has a 50% mortality when acquired through a flea bite Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1 Define key terms used in epidemiology – such as incidence, prevalence, epidemic, and pandemic – and identify the three modes of disease transmission. Section Reference 1: Section 15.1 Epidemiology
39) Which of the following are not examples of portals of exit? a) Urine and semen in males b) Droplets from sneezing or coughing c) Pus in a liver abscess d) Breast milk
Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1 Define key terms used in epidemiology – such as incidence, prevalence, epidemic, and pandemic – and identify the three modes of disease transmission. Section Reference 1: Section 15.1 Epidemiology
40) Fomites are: a) involved in direct contact transmission b) a cloud of tiny water droplets suspended in air c) nonliving objects d) living objects Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1 Define key terms used in epidemiology – such as incidence, prevalence, epidemic, and pandemic – and identify the three modes of disease transmission. Section Reference 1: Section 15.1 Epidemiology
41) Herd immunity: a) allows epidemiologist to predict when an epidemic will occur b) should be low in order to achieve maximum protection c) only applies to zoonoses that involve cattle d) is greatly increased with large-scale immunization program Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1 Define key terms used in epidemiology – such as incidence, prevalence, epidemic, and pandemic – and identify the three modes of disease transmission. Section Reference 1: Section 15.1 Epidemiology
42) Notifiable diseases: a) are rare b) include diseases that are potentially harmful c) do not include animal infections d) are all bacterial infections
Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1 Define key terms used in epidemiology – such as incidence, prevalence, epidemic, and pandemic – and identify the three modes of disease transmission. Section Reference 1: Section 15.1 Epidemiology
43) An infection acquired in the hospital or other medical facility is: a) zoonotic b) notifiable c) exogenous d) nosocomial Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.2 Identify the three most significant factors contributing to nosocomial infection and ways in which this type of infection may be minimized. Section Reference 1: Section 15.2 Nosocomial Infections 44) An opportunistic infection acquired from the individual’s own microbiota is: a) nosocomial b) reservoir c) exogenous d) endogenous Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.2 Identify the three most significant factors contributing to nosocomial infection and ways in which this type of infection may be minimized. Section Reference 1: Section 15.2 Nosocomial Infections
45) Patients in a hospital setting are typically more susceptible to infections than individuals in the general population and are considered to be . a) compromised b) vertical c) horizontal d) nosocomial
Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.2 Identify the three most significant factors contributing to nosocomial infection and ways in which this type of infection may be minimized. Section Reference 1: Section 15.2 Nosocomial Infections
46) These guidelines are published by the CDC in order to reduce the transmission of disease. a) Morbidity and Mortality Weekly Report b) Weekly Epidemiological Record c) Notifiable Diseases List d) Universal Precautions Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.2 Identify the three most significant factors contributing to nosocomial infection and ways in which this type of infection may be minimized. Section Reference 1: Section 15.2 Nosocomial Infections
47) Which of the following does not contribute to the acquisition of nosocomial infections? a) Catheters b) Surgical procedures c) Home hygiene d) Proper sanitation Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 15.2 Identify the three most significant factors contributing to nosocomial infection and ways in which this type of infection may be minimized. Section Reference 1: Section 15.2 Nosocomial Infections
48) All of the following prevent and control nosocomial infections except: a) infection control programs in hospitals b) patient isolation procedures c) proper education of staff d) uncontrolled contamination in hemodialysis equipment Answer: d
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.2 Identify the three most significant factors contributing to nosocomial infection and ways in which this type of infection may be minimized. Section Reference 1: Section 15.2 Nosocomial Infections
49) Droplet nuclei: a) are non-living carriers that transmit infectious pathogens b) define the first case in an outbreak c) consists of dried endospores d) are filtered out of hemodialysis equipment Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1 Define key terms used in epidemiology – such as incidence, prevalence, epidemic, and pandemic – and identify the three modes of disease transmission. Section Reference 1: Section 15.1 Epidemiology
50) Bioterrorism: a) is a new phenomenon b) agents all transmit from one human to other humans c) agents are all transmitted through mechanical vectors d) none of the above Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.3 Assess the risk of bioterrorism today and the methods that might be used in its implementation. Section Reference 1: Section 15.3 Bioterrorism
51) Which of the following curves represents ongoing spread of new cases of a disease?
a) A b) B c) Both A and B are correct d) Neither A nor B are correct Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1 Define key terms used in epidemiology – such as incidence, prevalence, epidemic, and pandemic – and identify the three modes of disease transmission. Section Reference 1: Section 15.1 Epidemiology 52) What type of transmission is involved with curve “B”?
a) Vertical transmission b) Horizontal transmission c) Fecal-oral d) Viral Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1 Define key terms used in epidemiology – such as incidence, prevalence, epidemic, and pandemic – and identify the three modes of disease transmission. Section Reference 1: Section 15.1 Epidemiology
Question Type: Essay
53) Suppose that you are the State Epidemiologist and you are notified about 10 cases of hemolytic uremic syndrome where the stool samples suggest the agent is either E. coli or Salmonella. Describe the epidemiology of these diseases (E. coli and Salmonella, are associated
with gastrointestinal diseases) including sources of the bacteria, mode of transmission, portals of entry and exit. If during your investigation the laboratory analyses find all of the isolates to be E. coli but only two of the isolates to be genetically identical, would you consider this an outbreak? Explain your reasoning. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 15.1 Define key terms used in epidemiology – such as incidence, prevalence, epidemic, and pandemic – and identify the three modes of disease transmission. Section Reference 1: Section 15.1 Epidemiology Solution: E. coli and Salmonella are endemic. Most humans who harbor pathogenic E. coli are carriers (asymptomatic) and act as reservoirs. In addition many farm and domestic animals can serve as reservoirs. Furthermore water contaminated by human or animal feces contains these microbes. Improperly prepared or stored food also can serve as a temporary nonliving reservoir. These bacteria enter the body through food and other contact with the mucous membranes of the digestive system. These bacteria exit with feces. These bacteria are most commonly transmitted by direct fecal-oral transmission. One could either not consider this an outbreak as the source of all of these infections was clearly different as the strains were different; or one could consider this an outbreak as the original source may have had multiple strains of E. coli.
54) What makes a microbe a potential bioterrorism weapon? Do you believe that bioterroism that targets humans or agriculture is more worrisome? Explain your answer. Answer: Any biological agent with a high potential for dissemination and having a large adverse public health impact may be a potential bioterrorism weapon. Other considerations are the ease of producing and handling the microbe as the terrorist will clearly not want to be infected. Whether bioterrorism that targets humans or agriculture is more worrisome is a personal opinion where the suffering of human individuals needs to weighed against animal suffering, economic impacts and famine possibilities. Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 15.3 Assess the risk of bioterrorism today and the methods that might be used in its implementation. Section Reference 1: Section 15.3 Bioterrorism
55). Why might it be worse to get an infection from someone in the hospital than from someone on a bus? Can you think of a reason why sometimes it might be better to be exposed to a microbe from a hospitalized patient than from someone on the bus? Answer: Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective 1: LO 15.2 Identify the three most significant factors contributing to nosocomial infection and ways in which this type of infection may be minimized. Section Reference 1: Section 15.2 Nosocomial Infections Solution: A pathogenfrom hospitals may be antibiotic resistant because of the extensive use of antibiotics and the high concentration of susceptible patients. Therefore one possibility is that an infection you get from a patient in a hospital is less likely to respond to antibiotic treatment than one you get from the community. On the other hand, many of the infections that occur in the hospital are due to the patient’s susceptibility or weakened immune defenses. Therefore, you could argue that as long as you have a good immune system you will be relatively safe and treatment may be well documented since hospitals have experience with such strains.
Chapter 17: Innate Host Defenses
Question Type: Multiple Choice
1) All of the following are components of the nonspecific host defenses except: a) fever b) mucus c) antibodies d) interferon Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.1 Distinguish innate and adaptive host defenses. Section Reference 1: Section 16.1 Innate and Adaptive Host Defenses
2) Which of the following is not a chemical barrier? a) Mucous membrane b) Saliva c) Gastric juice d) Complement Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.1 Distinguish innate and adaptive host defenses. Section Reference 1: Section 16.1 Innate and Adaptive Host Defenses
3) Specific defenses: a) function against any infectious agent b) include phagocytes and interferon c) includes only noncellular defenses d) respond to a particular infectious agent Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 16.1 Distinguish innate and adaptive host defenses. Section Reference 1: Section 16.1 Innate and Adaptive Host Defenses
4) Physical barriers of nonspecific defenses: a) include both the cells that line the body surfaces and the chemicals they secrete b) include phagocytes and interferon c) respond to antigens by making thousands of different antibodies d) are part of the host immune defenses Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 16.2 Describe ways in which our epithelial coverings protect us physically from invading microbes. Section Reference 1: Section 16.2 Physical Barriers
5) Which statement about chemical barriers is false? a) high salt content of sweat inhibits the growth of bacteria b) chemical barriers include mechanisms to limit free iron c) secreted defensins form pores in microbes membranes d) chemical barriers include eosinophils and macrophages Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 16.3 Recall the chemical protective factors present in exocrine secretions and sebum. Section Reference 1: Section 16.3 Chemical Barriers
6) Blood contains cells including all of the following except: a) red blood cells b) plasma c) platelets d) lymphocytes Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.4 Explain how defensive and phagocytic white blood cells assist in the destruction of pathogenic microbes. Section Reference 1: Section 16.4 Cellular Defenses
7) The granulocyte that releases the inflammatory agent histamine is a: a) neutrophil b) monocyte c) lymphocyte d) basophil Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.4 Explain how defense and phagocytic white blood cells assist in the destruction of pathogenic microbes. Section Reference 1: Section 16.4 Cellular Defenses
8) Which of the following does NOT occur in the process of phagocytosis? a) chemotaxis b) granulation c) adherence d) ingestion Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 16.4 Explain how defense and phagocytic white blood cells assist in the destruction of pathogenic microbes. Section Reference 1: Section 16.4 Cellular Defenses
9) What area of the body is drained by the right lymphatic duct? a) Upper right torso b) Right leg c) Left leg d) Upper left torso Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 16.4 Explain how defense and phagocytic white blood cells assist in the destruction of pathogenic microbes. Section Reference 1: Section 16.4 Cellular Defenses
10) A multilobed lymphatic organ that functions to process lymphocytes known as T cells and release them into the blood is the: a) tonsil b) trachea c) thymus gland d) salivary gland Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.4 Explain how defense and phagocytic white blood cells assist in the destruction of pathogenic microbes. Section Reference 1: Section 16.4 Cellular Defenses
11) The largest lymphatic organ that engulfs worn-out blood cells and microorganisms is: a) the heart b) a lymph node c) the spleen d) the thymus gland Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.4 Explain how defense and phagocytic white blood cells assist in the destruction of pathogenic microbes. Section Reference 1: Section 16.4 Cellular Defenses
12) Macrophages include all of the following except: a) wandering macrophages b) cells that phagocytize large debris c) the fastest phagocytes to reach an infection site d) histiocytes, kupffer cells and osteoclasts Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 16.4 Explain how defense and phagocytic white blood cells assist in the destruction of pathogenic microbes. Section Reference 1: Section 16.4 Cellular Defenses
13) Toll-like receptors: a) come from outside the body and stimulate a cytokine b) act nonspecifically to cause cell killing c) are a set of receptors that when activated produce a membrane attack complex d) recognize molecular patterns unique to pathogens Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 16.4 Explain how defense and phagocytic white blood cells assist in the destruction of pathogenic microbes. Section Reference 1: Section 16.4 Cellular Defenses
14) Toll-like receptors can distinguish between: a) nonspecific and specific immune responses b) gram-negative and gram-positive bacteria c) bacteria versus viruses d) two of the above Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 16.4 Explain how defense and phagocytic white blood cells assist in the destruction of pathogenic microbes. Section Reference 1: Section 16.4 Cellular Defenses
15) Phagocytic leukocytes that contain oxidative chemicals to kill internalized microorgansisms are called . a) lymphocytes b) platelets c) mast cells d) neutrophils Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 16.4 Explain how defense and phagocytic white blood cells assist in the destruction of pathogenic microbes. Section Reference 1: Section 16.4 Cellular Defenses
16) Granulocytes include all of the following except: a) basophils b) neutrophils c) lymphocytes d) eosinophils Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 16.4 Explain how defense and phagocytic white blood cells assist in the destruction of pathogenic microbes. Section Reference 1: Section 16.4 Cellular Defenses
17) A phagocytic cell: a) contains phagolysosomes that fuses with a phagosome to produce a lysosome b) must first adhere to an infectious agent before it can find it c) in the blood would include monocytes and neutrophils d) refers to the oxidative chemicals that kill internalized microorganisms Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 16.4 Explain how defense and phagocytic white blood cells assist in the destruction of pathogenic microbes. Section Reference 1: Section 16.4 Cellular Defenses
18) Sequential steps taken by a phagocytic cell destroying an invading microorganism include: a) chemotaxis adherence ingestion digestion b) finding filtering secreting enzymes streptolysin c) chemotaxis granuloma adherence histamine d) finding invading clotting regulating temperature Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.4 Explain how defense and phagocytic white blood cells assist in the destruction of pathogenic microbes. Section Reference 1: Section 16.4 Cellular Defenses
19) Defensins:
a) are located within the lysosomal vesicles of phagocytes b) are enzymes secreted by natural killer cells c) defend against parasitic worms d) are receptors for distinguishing between microorganisms Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 16.4 Explain how defense and phagocytic white blood cells assist in the destruction of pathogenic microbes. Section Reference 1: Section 16.4 Cellular Defenses
20) Bacteria that resist digestion by phagocytes use all of the following mechanisms except: a) produce capsule that can resist lysosomal digestion b) block chemokines from reaching phagocytes c) form parasitophorous vacuoles d) produce streptolysin and leukocidin Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 16.4 Explain how defense and phagocytic white blood cells assist in the destruction of pathogenic microbes. Section Reference 1: Section 16.4 Cellular Defenses
21) Leukocytes responsible for killing intracellular viruses are
.
a) fixed macrophages b) basophils c) granulocytes d) natural killer cells Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 16.4 Explain how defense and phagocytic white blood cells assist in the destruction of pathogenic microbes. Section Reference 1: Section 16.4 Cellular Defenses
22) The lymphatic system does all of the following except: a) carry plasma to tissue
b) transport digested fats to the cardiovascular system c) drain excess fluid from space between cells d) allow for the circulation of cellular defenses Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 16.4 Explain how defense and phagocytic white blood cells assist in the destruction of pathogenic microbes. Section Reference 1: Section 16.4 Cellular Defenses
23) What occurs in a lymph node? a) Lymph moves in two directions. b) Lymph enters sinuses lined by aggregations of B cells. c) Bacteria are removed by phagocytes and the adaptive immune response is initiated. d) Only lymphocytes flow through the lymph nodes therefore they are not a site of infection. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 16.4 Explain how defense and phagocytic white blood cells assist in the destruction of pathogenic microbes. Section Reference 1: Section 16.4 Cellular Defenses
24) What collection of lymphoid tissue, found in the ileum of the small intestine, is comprised of unencapsulated regions filled with lymphocytes, called lymphoid nodules? a) Gut-associated lymphatic tissues (GALT) b) Mucosa-associated lymphatic tissues (MALT) c) Phagosomes d) Tonsils Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 16.4 Explain how defense and phagocytic white blood cells assist in the destruction of pathogenic microbes. Section Reference 1: Section 16.4 Cellular Defenses
25) Heat, pain, redness and swelling are symptoms of: a) phagocytosis
b) immune cytolysis c) inflammation d) leukocytosis Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.5 Discuss the cardinal signs of inflammation and both the benefits and adverse conditions if may cause. Section Reference 1: Section 16.5 Inflammation
26) What chemical substance diffuses into venules and capillaries causing their vasodilation during inflammation? a) Bradykinin b) Antibradykinin c) Histamine d) Antihistamine Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 16.5 Discuss the cardinal signs of inflammation and both the benefits and adverse conditions if may cause. Section Reference 1: Section 16.5 Inflammation
27) During inflammation, permeable capillary walls allow accumulation of fluids near injured cells causing which of the following? a) calor b) redness c) edema d) blood clotting Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 16.5 Discuss the cardinal signs of inflammation and both the benefits and adverse conditions if may cause. Section Reference 1: Section 16.5 Inflammation
28) Tissue debris, remains of digested microorganisms, injured cells and dead phagocytes is the content of:
a) pus b) plasma c) opsonin d) tonsils Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.5 Discuss the cardinal signs of inflammation and both the benefits and adverse conditions if may cause. Section Reference 1: Section 16.5 Inflammation
29) The process whereby immune cells leave the blood by passing between the endothelial cells that line blood vessels is known as: a) leukocytosis b) phagocytosis c) specific defenses d) diapedesis Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 16.5 Discuss the cardinal signs of inflammation and both the benefits and adverse conditions if may cause. Section Reference 1: Section 16.5 Inflammation
30) What is the fragile, reddish, grainy tissue that is typically observed in cut tissue and consists of capillaries and fibroblasts? a) Gut-associated lymphoid tissue b) Granulation tissue c) Granuloma d) Granulocytes Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 16.5 Discuss the cardinal signs of inflammation and both the benefits and adverse conditions if may cause. Section Reference 1: Section 16.5 Inflammation
31) The inflammatory condition resulting from an infectious agent continuously producing tissue damage is: a) granulated inflammation b) acute inflammation c) chronic inflammation d) edema Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 16.5 Discuss the cardinal signs of inflammation and both the benefits and adverse conditions if may cause. Section Reference 1: Section 16.5 Inflammation
32) The condition that is caused by exogenous and endogenous pyrogens is called
.
a) edema b) pain c) swelling d) fever Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.6 Identify ways in which microbes may cause a fever response and explain the benefits of this response to the body. Section Reference 1: Section 16.6 Fever
33) A protein that interferes with the ability of a virus to replicate inside a host cell is a) streptolysin b) leukocidin c) interferon d) histamine Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.7 Explain the roles of the complement system and defense molecules such as interferon. Section Reference 1: Section 16.7 Molecular Defenses
.
34) A pocket of tissue that surrounds and walls off the inflammatory agent is called a
.
a) granuloma b) edema c) fibroblast d) pyrogen Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.6 Identify ways in which microbes may cause a fever response and explain the benefits of this response to the body. Section Reference 1: Section 16.6 Fever
35) Leukocyte endogenous mediator: a) elevates body temperature b) lowers the plasma iron concentration c) decreases the hosts metabolic rate d) two of the above Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 16.6 Identify ways in which microbes may cause a fever response and explain the benefits of this response to the body. Section Reference 1: Section 16.6 Fever
36) Antiviral proteins (AVPs) interfere with the replication of which of the following molecules? a) DNA b) protein c) mRNA d) all of the above Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 16.7 Explain the roles of the complement system and defense molecules such as interferon. Section Reference 1: Section 16.7 Molecular Defenses
37) Interferons are stimulated by viruses and
.
a) are produced only by macrophages b) stimulate the production of antiviral proteins in neighboring cells c) form membrane attack complexes d) none of these choices Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 16.7 Explain the roles of the complement system and defense molecules such as interferon. Section Reference 1: Section 16.7 Molecular Defenses
38) The classical pathway of complement activation involves which of the following proteins? a) C1, C4 and C2 b) C3 only c) factor B d) factor D and factor P Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 16.7 Explain the roles of the complement system and defense molecules such as interferon. Section Reference 1: Section 16.7 Molecular Defenses
39) Complement activation results all of the following physiological processes except: a) opsonization b) formation of membrane attack complexes c) inflammation d) fever Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.7 Explain the roles of the complement system and defense molecules such as interferon. Section Reference 1: Section 16.7 Molecular Defenses
40) What non-specific defense component is directly responsible for the lysis of invading microorganisms?
a) Chemotaxis b) Membrane attack complex c) Opsonin d) Chronic inflammation Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 16.7 Explain the roles of the complement system and defense molecules such as interferon. Section Reference 1: Section 16.7 Molecular Defenses
41) Which of the following proteins activate complement, enhance inflammation and stimulate macrophages to undergo chemotaxis? a) Antiviral proteins b) Exogenous pyrogens c) Leukocidins d) Acute phase proteins Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 16.7 Explain the roles of the complement system and defense molecules such as interferon. Section Reference 1: Section 16.7 Molecular Defenses
42) The spleen: a) along with the thymus gland and the tonsils are all lymphoid organs b) contains lymph nodes that filter microbes from the lymph c) filters material but does not contain phagocytes d) two of the above Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 16.4 Explain how defense and phagocytic white blood cells assist in the destruction of pathogenic microbes. Section Reference 1: Section 16.4 Cellular Defenses
43) Exogenous and endogenous
are fever causing substances.
a) prostraglandins b) pyrogens c) cytokines d) bradykines Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.6 Identify ways in which microbes may cause a fever response and explain the benefits of this response to the body. Section Reference 1: Section 16.6 Fever
44) Recombinant interferon: a) is of a different molecular form than that produced by infected cells b) blocks virus replication but does not stimulate the adaptive immune system c) unequivocally is the best available treatment for viruses and cancer d) can be produced cheaply and abundantly Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 16.7 Explain the roles of the complement system and defense molecules such as interferon. Section Reference 1: Section 16.7 Molecular Defenses
45) Complement: a) is a system that consists of over 20 proteins that function in a cascade-like manner b) activation results in the onset of inflammation c) pathway involves factors B, D and P d) all of the above Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.7 Explain the roles of the complement system and defense molecules such as interferon. Section Reference 1: Section 16.7 Molecular Defenses
46) Acute phase response proteins:
a) include C-reactive protein (CRP) and mannose-binding protein (MBP) b) all bind to and coat the surface of the infectious agent c) directly destroy abnormal cells d) increase resistance of cells to viral infection Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 16.7 Explain the roles of the complement system and defense molecules such as interferon. Section Reference 1: Section 16.7 Molecular Defenses
47) The binding and coating of the surfaces of invading microbes by either antibodies or C3b is: a) aided by the release of cytokines by phagocytes b) necessary for phagocytosis of all microbes c) called opsonization d) responsible for the direct lysis of invading microrganisms Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 16.7 Explain the roles of the complement system and defense molecules such as interferon. Section Reference 1: Section 16.7 Molecular Defenses
48) An accumulation of pus in a cavity formed by damaged tissue: a) only occurs during chronic inflammatory process b) represents unencapsulated areas of lymphocytes c) accounts for redness and increased tissue temperature d) is known as an abscess Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.5 Discuss the cardinal signs of inflammation and both the benefits and adverse conditions if may cause. Section Reference 1: Section 16.5 Inflammation
49) A residual body: a) is the remains of parasitic worms killed extracellularly
b) consists of a thin layer of cells that secrete mucus c) prevents adherence of a phagocyte and a bacterium d) is a material that remains in a phagolysosome after digestion of a microbe Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 16.4 Explain how defense and phagocytic white blood cells assist in the destruction of pathogenic microbes. Section Reference 1: Section 16.4 Cellular Defenses
50) Cytokines: a) are soluble proteins b) function in host defenses such as macrophage chemotaxis c) include interferons d) all of the above Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 16.4 Explain how defense and phagocytic white blood cells assist in the destruction of pathogenic microbes. Section Reference 1: Section 16.4 Cellular Defenses
51). Which of the following structures represents the residual body?
a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.4 Explain how defense and phagocytic white blood cells assist in the destruction of pathogenic microbes. Section Reference 1: Section 16.4 Cellular Defenses 52) Region “A” in this image drains lymph into the:
a) right carotid artery b) right subclavian vein c) superior vena cava d) inferior vena cava Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 16.4 Explain how defense and phagocytic white blood cells assist in the destruction of pathogenic microbes. Section Reference 1: Section 16.4 Cellular Defenses
53) Region “B” in this image drains lymph into the:
a) left subclavian vein b) left subclavian artery c) brachiocephalic vein d) coronary veins Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 16.4 Explain how defense and phagocytic white blood cells assist in the destruction of pathogenic microbes.
Section Reference 1: Section 16.4 Cellular Defenses
Question Type: Essay 54) What is the body’s first line of defense against microbial danger? Why are these considered non-specific? Why are these considered innate? Is non-specific a better description than innate? Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 16.1 Distinguish innate and adaptive host defenses. Section Reference 1: Section 16.1 Innate and Adaptive Host Defenses Solution: The body’s first line of defense includes: physical barriers covering the skin and internal body surfaces and chemicals that may be secreted by these tissies. These prevent many diseases by reducing the exposure of internal tissues to pathogenic microbes from the external environment. Such defenses are considered non-specific because they do not respond to particular agents (antigens). Innate refers to the fact that they do not require a previous exposure to be active. Innate is a better term because these defenses involve very specific interactions (signals such as those recognized by toll-like receptors) which suggest that they are more directed than previously believed.
55) You receive a cut on your foot. What are the four characteristic signs of inflammation you would expect to see? How would an inflammatory response develop against bacteria that enter the cut? Answer: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 16.5 Discuss the cardinal signs of inflammation and both the benefits and adverse conditions it may cause. Section Reference 1: Section 16.5 Inflammation Solution: An inflammatory response is characterized by localized increased temperature (calor), redness (rubor), swelling (edema) and pain. The acute inflammation is initiated by histamine released by damaged tissues, which causes vasodilation (redness and increased heat) and increases permeability of blood vessels (swelling and pain due to fluid compression of nerve receptors). At the same time cytokines are released; fibrin will be formed and release of bradykinin/prostaglandins may occur in tissues. . Neutrophils and macrophages migrate from the blood through leaky capillaries to the site of injury and phagocytize microbes at the site. Destruction of the pathogenic microbes and removal of cellular debris as pus forms and drains paves the way for tissue repair.
56) Is fever useful? A patient comes to you with a fever and a respiratory infection, would you be more worried about aggressively treating the fever or too little fever control? Explain your answers. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 16.6 Identify ways in which microbes may cause a fever response and explain the benefits of this response to the body. Section Reference 1: Section 16.6 Fever Solution: There are arguments for and against the usefulness of fever. Fevers may be useful because they allow the body to reach high temperature, which increases the rate of chemical reactions and raises the temperature above the optimum growth rate for some pathogens. Microbial toxins may be denatures and an increase in interferon, transferring and other protective molecular defenses is stimulated.The fever also makes the patient feel ill and thereby lowers the activity of the patient, additionally promoting a chance for recovery and healing.. Should a fever get too high, particularly in children, there is a risk of convulsions, brain damage and even death. Careful monitoring of the severity and duration of the fever response is necessary, often requiring advice from a medically trained care worker.
Chapter 18: Immunology I: Basic Principles of Adaptive Immunity and Immunization
Question Type: Multiple Choice
1) Which refers to the ability of a host organism to recognize and defend itself against the onslaught of pathogenic microorganisms? a) Immunity b) Passive immunity c) Susceptibility d) Innate immunology Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 17.1 Explain what is meant by immunity and how this relates to the field of immunology. Section Reference 1: Section 17.1 Immunology and Immunity
2) Adaptive immunity is
.
a) the ability of a host to mount a defense against a specific inherited agent b) only acquired artificially c) only acquired naturally d) immunity obtained in some manner other than by heredity Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.2 Distinguish active and passive immunity and discuss how each type may be naturally or artificially acquired. Section Reference 1: Section 17.2 Types of Immunity
3) Injection of a patient with ready-made antibodies produced in a different host is an example of what type of immunity? a) Artificially acquired active immunity b) Naturally acquired active immunity c) Naturally acquired passive immunity d) Artificially acquired passive immunity Answer: d
Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 17.2 Distinguish active and passive immunity and discuss how each type may be naturally or artificially acquired. Section Reference 1: Section 17.2 Types of Immunity
4) Injection of a person with a vaccine that induces protective immunity in that individual is an example of what type of immunity? a) Active, natural b) Innate, natural c) Active, artificial d) Passive, natural Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 17.2 Distinguish active and passive immunity and discuss how each type may be naturally or artificially acquired. Section Reference 1: Section 17.2 Types of Immunity
5) Colostrum, which contains high concentrations of antibodies passed onto an infant from a mother during breast-feeding, is an example of what type of immunity? a) Artifically acquired active immunity b) Naturally acquired active immunity c) Naturally acquired passive immunity d) Artifically acquired passive immunity Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 17.2 Distinguish active and passive immunity and discuss how each type may be naturally or artificially acquired. Section Reference 1: Section 17.2 Types of Immunity
6) What is a substance that is recognized by the body as foreign and normally induces an immune response? a) Antibody b) Antigen c) Agglutinin d) Antitoxin
Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 17.3 Describe the dual nature of the immune system and the properties of antigens. Section Reference 1: Section 17.3 Characteristics of the Immune System
7) An area on an antigen molecule to which an antibody molecule binds. a) Fc fragment b) Fab fragment c) Fab and Fc fragment d) Epitope or antigenic determinant Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.3 Describe the dual nature of the immune system and the properties of antigens. Section Reference 1: Section 17.3 Characteristics of the Immune System
8) Antigens are found on: a) human cells b) bacteria and viruses c) antibodies d) two of the above Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 17.3 Describe the dual nature of the immune system and the properties of antigens. Section Reference 1: Section 17.3 Characteristics of the Immune System
9) A protein molecule produced in a host in response to an antigen which is capable of binding specifically to that antigen is a/an: a) perforin b) antigen c) antibody d) cytokine
Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.3 Describe the dual nature of the immune system and the properties of antigens. Section Reference 1: Section 17.3 Characteristics of the Immune System
10) Most antigens are
.
a) large and complex molecules b) polysaccharides c) are proteins with molecular weights less than 10,000 Da d) internal components of microbial cells Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.3 Describe the dual nature of the immune system and the properties of antigens. Section Reference 1: Section 17.3 Characteristics of the Immune System
11) The concentration of antibody needed to bind to and neutralize an antigen is called the: a) tolerance b) toxicity c) titer d) antitoxin Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 17.3 Describe the dual nature of the immune system and the properties of antigens. Section Reference 1: Section 17.3 Characteristics of the Immune System
12) Which of the following is false about haptens? a) A hapten alone cannot act as an antigen. b) A large protein (to which a hapten can bind) alone cannot act as an antigen. c) Only the combination of a hapten and a large protein can act as an antigen. d) Haptens bind to antibodies preventing them from binding to a large protein.
Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.3 Describe the dual nature of the immune system and the properties of antigens. Section Reference 1: Section 17.3 Characteristics of the Immune System
13) All of the following cells are types of T lymphocytes except: a) cytotoxic b) delayed hypersensitivity c) helper d) plasma Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.6 Identify the types of T lymphocytes and describe their effects and the ways in which they may be activated. Section Reference 1: Section 17.6 Cell-Mediated Immunity
14) Cells that synthesize and release antibody molecules are: a) plasma cells b) stem cells c) cytotoxic T lymphocytes d) helper T lymphocytes Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 17.4 Describe the structure of a typical antibody, discuss the functions of the five antibody classes, and explain ways in which antibodies help eliminate foreign microbes. Section Reference 1: Section 17.4 Humoral Immunity
15) What is the site where stem cells develop into B lymphocyte in humans? a) bursa of Fabricius b) thymus gland c) blood d) bone marrow
Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.3 Describe the dual nature of the immune system and the properties of antigens. Section Reference 1: Section 17.3 Characteristics of the Immune System
16) Cells that are neither T nor B cells, but function to non-specifically kill cells infected by viruses are called: a) natural killer cells b) phagocytic cells c) memory cells d) blood cells Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.3 Describe the dual nature of the immune system and the properties of antigens. Section Reference 1: Section 17.3 Characteristics of the Immune System
17) Immunity that is mediated by antibodies is called
.
a) innate b) humoral c) cell-mediated d) non-specific Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 17.4 Describe the structure of a typical antibody, discuss the functions of the five antibody classes, and explain ways in which antibodies help eliminate foreign microbes. Section Reference 1: Section 17.4 Humoral Immunity
18) Immunity that is mediated by T lymphocytes is called a) cell-mediated b) antibody-mediated c) innate acquired
.
d) innate natural Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 17.6 Identify the types of T lymphocytes and describe their effects and the ways in which they may be activated. Section Reference 1: Section 17.6 Cell-Mediated Immunity
19) Programmed cell death is also known as
.
a) necrosis b) mitosis c) meiosis d) apoptosis Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.3 Describe the dual nature of the immune system and the properties of antigens. Section Reference 1: Section 17.3 Characteristics of the Immune System
20) Both humoral and cellular immunity share the following attributes except: a) distinguishes self from non-self b) specificity c) memory d) first-line of defense Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 17.3 Describe the dual nature of the immune system and the properties of antigens. Section Reference 1: Section 17.3 Characteristics of the Immune System
21) After differentiation how do B cells migrate? a) bone marrow blood cirulation lymph nodes b) bone marrow thymus blood circulation c) bone marrow bursa of Fabricius lymph nodes d) lymph node bone marrow blood circulation
Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.3 Describe the dual nature of the immune system and the properties of antigens. Section Reference 1: Section 17.3 Characteristics of the Immune System
22) The ability of the specific immune system to distinguish a huge number of different molecules is mediated by: a) cross reaction b) clonal selection c) gamma globulin d) species immunity Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.3 Describe the dual nature of the immune system and the properties of antigens. Section Reference 1: Section 17.3 Characteristics of the Immune System
23) The process whereby lymphocytes which recognize self antigens are removed, thus producing tolerance in the host is: a) heterogeneity b) memory c) primary response d) clonal deletion Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.3 Describe the dual nature of the immune system and the properties of antigens. Section Reference 1: Section 17.3 Characteristics of the Immune System
24) The ability of the humoral response to produce a vast array of antibodies, each with uniqueness to a given antigen is responsible for the immune system, is called: a) memory b) hyperimmune serum
c) heterogeneity d) homogeneity Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.3 Describe the dual nature of the immune system and the properties of antigens. Section Reference 1: Section 17.3 Characteristics of the Immune System
25) Cross reactions occur in all of the following cases except: a) when an antibody reacts with structurally similar antigens b) when syphilis has the same antigens as human cells c) between a hapten and a carrier molecule d) recognition of two strains of bacteria Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 17.3 Describe the dual nature of the immune system and the properties of antigens. Section Reference 1: Section 17.3 Characteristics of the Immune System
26) All of the following correctly describe the structure of an antibody molecule except: a) two identical light chains b) heavy and light chains held together by disulfide bonds c) binds 2 antigens per molecule d) two Fc fragments and one Fab fragment Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.4 Describe the structure of a typical antibody, discuss the functions of the five antibody classes, and explain ways in which antibodies help eliminate foreign microbes. Section Reference 1: Section 17.4 Humoral Immunity
27) Which class of immunoglobulin consists of five units connected by J chains? a) IgG b) IgA
c) IgM d) IgE Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 17.4 Describe the structure of a typical antibody, discuss the functions of the five antibody classes, and explain ways in which antibodies help eliminate foreign microbes. Section Reference 1: Section 17.4 Humoral Immunity
28) Antibodies produced by the humoral response help eliminate foreign antigens by all of the following ways except: a) neutralization b) opsonization c) complement activation d) natural killer cell activation Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.4 Describe the structure of a typical antibody, discuss the functions of the five antibody classes, and explain ways in which antibodies help eliminate foreign microbes. Section Reference 1: Section 17.4 Humoral Immunity
29) All of the following have correctly matched antibody class with their function except: a) IgD – function largely unknown b) IgE – binds to mast cells and basophils c) IgM – plays a role in mediating allergies and asthma d) IgG – crosses placenta Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 17.4 Describe the structure of a typical antibody, discuss the functions of the five antibody classes, and explain ways in which antibodies help eliminate foreign microbes. Section Reference 1: Section 17.4 Humoral Immunity
30) Monoclonal antibodies are all of the following except:
a) antibodies that are produced at greatest frequency in the body b) made by hydridomas which make only one specific antibody c) produced by a clone of cultured cells d) used for diagnostic tests and to treat rheumatoid arthritis Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 17.5 Explain how monoclonal antibodies are produced and discuss some of their uses. Section Reference 1: Section 17.5 Monoclonal Antibodies
31) Activated delayed hypersensitivity T (TD) cells: a) release macrophage chemotactic factor b) play a role in humoral immunity c) suppress T cells d) release perforin molecules Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 17.6 Identify the types of T lymphocytes and describe their effects and the ways in which they may be activated. Section Reference 1: Section 17.6 Cell-Mediated Immunity
32) All of the following pertain to the role of activated helper T cells in cellular mediated immunity except: a) differentiation into memory TC cells b) recognizes MHC with antigenic peptide on macrophages c) differentiation into TH1 cells d) differentiation into TH2 cells Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.6 Identify the types of T lymphocytes and describe their effects and the ways in which they may be activated. Section Reference 1: Section 17.6 Cell-Mediated Immunity
33) Which of the following immune cells kills infected cells by releasing the lethal protein perforin? a) NK cells b) B cells c) macrophages d) TH2 cells Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.6 Identify the types of T lymphocytes and describe their effects and the ways in which they may be activated. Section Reference 1: Section 17.6 Cell-Mediated Immunity
34) Antigens that have the capacity to activate huge numbers of immune T cells nonspecifically resulting in a large immune response that results in diseases are . a) self antigens b) non-self antigens c) superantigens d) antitoxins Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.7 Evaluate the protective role of mucosal immune tissues. Section Reference 1: Section 17.7 Mucosal Immune System
35) The role of activated macrophages is to: a) produce polyclonal antibodies b) produce toxic hydrogen peroxide and accelerate the inflammatory response c) bind to the MHC II molecule and T cell receptor molecule not in the receptor site d) none of the above Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.6 Identify the types of T lymphocytes and describe their effects and the ways in which they may be activated. Section Reference 1: Section 17.6 Cell-Mediated Immunity
36) Which region of an antibody determines the class of that particular antibody? a) Constant b) Variable c) Light chain d) Fab Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.4 Describe the structure of a typical antibody, discuss the functions of the five antibody classes, and explain ways in which antibodies help eliminate foreign microbes. Section Reference 1: Section 17.4 Humoral Immunity
37) Agglutination: a) is inactivation of bacterial toxins due to the binding of an antibody b) leads to the ingestion of the particle by macrophages due to opsonization c) requires complement d) occurs when antibody-antigen complexes form large clumped particles Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 17.4 Describe the structure of a typical antibody, discuss the functions of the five antibody classes, and explain ways in which antibodies help eliminate foreign microbes. Section Reference 1: Section 17.4 Humoral Immunity
38) Hybridomas are used to produce
.
a) opsonization b) membrane attack complex c) monoclonal antibodies d) polyclonal antibodies Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 17.5 Explain how monoclonal antibodies are produced and discuss some of their uses. Section Reference 1: Section 17.5 Monoclonal Antibodies
39) Which of the following T cells is activated by interleukin-1 and in turn activates B cells to differentiate into plasma cells? a) NK cells b) TC cells c) TD cells d) TH cells Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.6 Identify the types of T lymphocytes and describe their effects and the ways in which they may be activated. Section Reference 1: Section 17.6 Cell-Mediated Immunity
40) Which of the following T cells has CD8 receptors on its surface and recognizes virusinfected cells by viral antigens presented on macrophages? a) NK cells b) TC cells c) TDcells d) TH cells Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.6 Identify the types of T lymphocytes and describe their effects and the ways in which they may be activated. Section Reference 1: Section 17.6 Cell-Mediated Immunity
41) Privileged sites: a) have M cells interspersed between epithelial cells b) include the uterus, anterior chamber of the eye and testes c) have especially strong immune responses against viruses d) are not accessible to most pathogens Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.7 Evaluate the protective role of mucosal immune tissues. Section Reference 1: Section 17.7 Mucosal Immune System
42) Mucosal immune system: a) carries out immune responses in exactly the same manner as in the blood b) blocks bacterial replication but does not stimulate the adaptive immune system c) has IgE as its primary immunoglobulin on mucosal surfaces d) is the largest component of the immune system Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.7 Evaluate the protective role of mucosal immune tissues. Section Reference 1: Section 17.7 Mucosal Immune System
43) All of the following are environmental factors that modify the immune response in a host except: a) genetics and age b) pollution and radiation c) tobacco smoke d) excessive exposure to radiation Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 17.8 Discuss the acquisition of immunity in terms of the primary and secondary responses produced by antigen administration. Section Reference 1: Section 17.8 Immunization
44) A compromised host
.
a) may have a poor diet b) may have an impairment in cell mediated immunity but not humoral immunity c) usually has increased resistance to infectious diseases d) two of the above Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 17.8 Discuss the acquisition of immunity in terms of the primary and secondary responses produced by antigen administration. Section Reference 1: Section 17.8 Immunization
45) All of the following are types of vaccines except: a) killed whole bacteria b) purified active toxin c) toxoid d) live virus Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.8 Discuss the acquisition of immunity in terms of the primary and secondary responses produced by antigen administration. Section Reference 1: Section 17.8 Immunization
46) All are hallmarks of an effective vaccine except: a) safe and stable b) no adverse side effects c) sustained protection d) should generate antibodies but not T cells Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 17.8 Discuss the acquisition of immunity in terms of the primary and secondary responses produced by antigen administration. Section Reference 1: Section 17.8 Immunization
47) Which of the following statements about immunization is false? a) Inadequate refrigeration decreases effectiveness of measles vaccine b) Recommended age for immunization in children varies for each vaccine c) Injection of gamma globulin can establish passive immunization d) Route of administration does not affect the vaccines’s efficacy Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.8 Discuss the acquisition of immunity in terms of the primary and secondary responses produced by antigen administration. Section Reference 1: Section 17.8 Immunization
48) All of the following statements about immunization are true except:
a) live vaccines are potentially hazardous to pregnant females b) passive immunization can provide immediate immunity to an exposed person c) vaccines need to be practical in terms of stability and use d) recombinant DNA vaccines inject the entire genomes of nonvirulent pathogens Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.8 Discuss the acquisition of immunity in terms of the primary and secondary responses produced by antigen administration. Section Reference 1: Section 17.8 Immunization
49) Which of the following is not a mechanism by which protozoa evade the immune response? a) Cellular invasion b) Cyst formation c) Antigenic variation d) IgM activating enzymes Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.9 Compare the types of immune responses generated against bacteria, viruses, and eukaryotic pathogens. Section Reference 1: Section 17.9 Immunity to Various Kinds of Pathogens
50) Which of the following pathogens is matched incorrectly with the immune response it illicits? a) Bacteria – antibodies b) Viruses – NK cells and Tc cells c) Fungi – IgA antibodies and cell mediated responses d) Protozoa – humoral responses including opsonization and phagocytosis Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.8 Discuss the acquisition of immunity in terms of the primary and secondary responses produced by antigen administration. Section Reference 1: Section 17.8 Immunization
51) This image represents a/an:
a) antigen b) toxin c) antibody d) protein Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 17.4 Describe the structure of a typical antibody, discuss the functions of the five antibody classes, and explain ways in which antibodies help eliminate foreign microbes. Section Reference 1: Section 17.4 Humoral Immunity
52) Which of the following antibody classes is not represented by this image?
a) IgG b) IgM c) IgE d) IgD Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.4 Describe the structure of a typical antibody, discuss the functions of the five antibody classes, and explain ways in which antibodies help eliminate foreign microbes. Section Reference 1: Section 17.4 Humoral Immunity
53) Describe the shape of this antibody molecule in the image.
a) T b) L c) Y d) E Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 17.4 Describe the structure of a typical antibody, discuss the functions of the five antibody classes, and explain ways in which antibodies help eliminate foreign microbes. Section Reference 1: Section 17.4 Humoral Immunity
Question Type: Essay Questions
54) What are 4 attributes of adaptive immunity? Describe how both humoral and cellmediated responses achieve these properties.
Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.4 Describe the structure of a typical antibody, discuss the functions of the five antibody classes, and explain ways in which antibodies help eliminate foreign microbes.; LO 17.6 Identify the types of T lymphocytes and describe their effects and the ways in which they may be activated. Section Reference 1: Section 17.4 Humoral Immunity; Section 17.6 Cell-Mediated Immunity Solution: The 4 attributes of adaptive immunity are: recognition of self versus nonself; specificity; diversity (heterogeneity) and memory. Recognition of self versus nonself allows the immune system to tolerate host tissue while recognizing and destroying foreign substances. This occurs in both cellular and humoral immunity due to the destruction of self-recognizing clones of lymphocytes during development (ie clonal deletion hypothesis). If B cells in the bone marrow or T cells in the thuymus encounter and react to a self-antigen they are destroyed or inactivated. Tolerance can also be acquired peripherally or during irradiation or due to immunodepressant drugs. Specificity is the ability of the immune system to react in a particular way to each antigen. Antibodies and T cells will be stimulated in response to a variety of foreign cells and molecules and each immune response will target a particular and individual foreign invader.Diversity refers to the ability of the immune system to produce many different kinds of antibodies (humoral) and T cell receptors (cell mediated) each of which reacts with a different epitope. Diversity of T and B cells is determined by random gene rearrangements (in genes for T cell receptors/antibody molecules) that occur during maturation in the bone marrow. Memory is achieved by the immune system encountering a particular antigen and making memory cells, which can be B cells (humoral) or T cells (cell mediated) that remain within lymph nodes until the antigen that activated them is encountered again. A faster , larger B or T cell response will then occur.
55) You are vaccinated against chickenpox as an infant and then when you are six you encounter the virus as one of your friends is suffering from chickenpox. How does your response to the vaccine (e.g., your first exposure to the antigen) differ from the response to the virus when you are six (e.g., your second exposure to the antigen)? What antibodies would be in your serum during the first and second response? If you don’t get chickenpox when you were six even though you were exposed, is the vaccine a T- independent antigen or a T-dependent antigen? Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 17.8 Discuss the acquisition of immunity in terms of the primary and secondary responses produced by antigen administration.
Section Reference 1: Section 17.8 Immunization Solution: The primary response to the antigens in the vaccine would lead to the production of antibodies by B cells, first primarily IgM and then IgG. The peak of antibody production in a primary response is around two weeks after exposure. During a secondary response memory B cells will respond more rapidly and produce small quantities of IgM and much larger quantities of IgG (which will appear sooner). Because you have a memory response the vaccine is a T-dependent antigen.
56) How do vaccines work? Can you describe 2 potential hazards of vaccines? In your opinion why aren’t there vaccines for every disease? Answer: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 17.8 Discuss the acquisition of immunity in terms of the primary and secondary responses produced by antigen administration. Section Reference 1: Section 17.8 Immunization Solution: Vaccines work by inducing an immune response against a pathogen and this immune response leads to formation of memory cells which will protect against future infection with that pathogen. Potential hazards of vaccines include minor side effects (fever, malaise, soreness at the site), allergic reactions to chemicals other than the antigen which may be present in the preparations, and active disease in immunocompromised or pregnantindividuals who receive live-virus vaccines. Reasons why there are not vaccines for every disease include (i) difficulty in determining immune response that would be productive or produce memory, (ii) pathogen populations’ ability to mutate rapidly and change surface antigens defeats the effectiveness of the vaccine, (iii) lack of knowledge about pathogens and immune response, (iv) difficulty in making vaccines that are practical in terms of stability and use, (v) severity of the illness may be low and the cost of creating a vaccine is not justified.
Chapter 19: Immunolgy II: Immunological Disorders and Tests
Question Type: Multiple Choice
1) Hypersensitivity or allergy refers to the immune system responding
.
a) in an exaggerated way to a foreign substance b) too little too late c) inadequately to an antigen d) to its own tissues as if they were foreign Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 18.1 Explain the meaning of the terms hypersensitivity and immunodeficiency. Section Reference 1: Section 18.1 Overview of Immunological Disorders
2) Immunodeficiency refers to the immune system responding
.
a) in an exaggerated way to a foreign substance b) so that there is too much of a good thing c) inadequately to an antigen d) to its own tissues as if they were foreign Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 18.1 Explain the meaning of the terms hypersensitivity and immunodeficiency. Section Reference 1: Section 18.1 Overview of Immunological Disorders
3) Which matches the correct hypersensitivity reaction with their type? a) Immediate (type I) – immune complexes b) Cytotoxic (type II) -- anaphylaxis c) Immune complex (type III) – precipitation of antigen-antibody complexes d) Cell-mediated (type IX) – blood transfusion Answer: c Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective 1: LO 18.1 Explain the meaning of the terms hypersensitivity and immunodeficiency. Section Reference 1: Section 18.1 Overview of Immunological Disorders
4) Which of the following statements about immunological disorder is correct? a) Bottle-fed infants are less likely to develop food allergies than are breast-fed infants. b) Primary immunodeficiences include malnutrition and AIDS. c) Autoimmune disorders are hypersensitivity reactions against self-antigens. d) Secondary immunodeficiences are genetic or developmental defects. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 18.1 Explain the meaning of the terms hypersensitivity and immunodeficiency. Section Reference 1: Section 18.1 Overview of Immunological Disorders
5) Anaphylaxis is associated with which type of hypersensitivity? a) Immune Complex b) Immediate c) Cell-mediated d) Delayed Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 18.2 Discuss the role of IgE antibodies in causing an anaphylactic response. Section Reference 1: Section 18.2 Immediate (Type I) Hypersensitivity
6) Allergens bind to sensitized mast cells carrying surface degranulation. a) IgG b) IgB c) IgM d) IgE Answer: d Difficulty: Easy
molecules, causing
Learning Objective 1: LO 18.2 Discuss the role of IgE antibodies in causing an anaphylactic response. Section Reference 1: Section 18.2 Immediate (Type I) Hypersensitivity
7) Which is the main cellular mediator released during degranulation of mast cells is associated with capillary dilation (capillaries become more permeable)? a) Interleukins b) Histamine c) Antihistamine d) IgG Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 18.2 Discuss the role of IgE antibodies in causing an anaphylactic response. Section Reference 1: Section 18.2 Immediate (Type I) Hypersensitivity
8) A wheal and flare reaction is best described as a: a) raised white area with a reddened area b) raised red area c) blister d) flat red area Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 18.2 Discuss the role of IgE antibodies in causing an anaphylactic response. Section Reference 1: Section 18.2 Immediate (Type I) Hypersensitivity
9) Which of the following statements about localized anaphylaxis is incorrect? a) “atopy” means “out of place” b) demonstrates a wheal and flare c) if the allergen enters the skin, may result in itching d) is most likely life threatening Answer: d Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective 1: LO 18.2 Discuss the role of IgE antibodies in causing an anaphylactic response. Section Reference 1: Section 18.2 Immediate (Type I) Hypersensitivity
10) Which of the following is an example of lower respiratory anaphylaxis? a) Tuberculosis b) Legionnaire’s disease c) Hay fever d) Asthma Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 18.2 Discuss the role of IgE antibodies in causing an anaphylactic response. Section Reference 1: Section 18.2 Immediate (Type I) Hypersensitivity
11) To treat generalized anaphylaxis,
must be administered immediately.
a) histamine b) epinephrine c) prostaglandins d) antibiotics Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 18.2 Discuss the role of IgE antibodies in causing an anaphylactic response. Section Reference 1: Section 18.2 Immediate (Type I) Hypersensitivity
12) Propensity to allergies seems
.
a) only to run in the family for contact allergens (type IV hypersensitivity) b) to be determined by prior sensitization to insect venom c) to be linked to cold air injuring cell membranes of mast cells d) at least in part have a genetic basis Answer: d Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective 1: LO 18.2 Discuss the role of IgE antibodies in causing an anaphylactic response. Section Reference 1: Section 18.2 Immediate (Type I) Hypersensitivity
13) The only treatment used to cure allergies is
.
a) epinephrine b) antibiotics c) desensitization d) sensitization Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 18.2 Discuss the role of IgE antibodies in causing an anaphylactic response. Section Reference 1: Section 18.2 Immediate (Type I) Hypersensitivity
14) The blocking antibodies formed in response to desensitization are composed of which class of antibody? a) IgG b) IgD c) IgA d) IgM Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 18.2 Discuss the role of IgE antibodies in causing an anaphylactic response. Section Reference 1: Section 18.2 Immediate (Type I) Hypersensitivity
15) Type II hypersensitivities appear to be responsible for the tissue damage in all of the following except: a) rheumatic fever following strep throat infections b) transfusion reactions c) hemolytic disease of the newborn d) lupus erythematosus Answer: d
Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 18.3 Explain the way in which antigens provoke cytotoxic damage in Type II hypersensitivities such as incompatible blood transfusion reaction and hemolytic disease of the newborn. Section Reference 1: Section 18.3 Cytotoxic (Type II) Hypersensitivity
16) Which of the following could result in a Type II hypersensitivity? a) a patient with A blood given B blood by mistake b) an Rh-negative mother carrying an Rh-positive fetus c) an Rh-positive mother carrying an Rh-negative fetus d) two of the above Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 18.3 Explain the way in which antigens provoke cytotoxic damage in Type II hypersensitivities such as incompatible blood transfusion reaction and hemolytic disease of the newborn. Section Reference 1: Section 18.3 Cytotoxic (Type II) Hypersensitivity
17) Rhogam, which is administered to women during pregnancy to prevent the occurrence of hemolytic disease of the newborn, contains: a) Rh positive antigen b) Rh negative antigen c) Anti-Rh antibodies (IgG) d) two of the above Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 18.3 Explain the way in which antigens provoke cytotoxic damage in Type II hypersensitivities such as incompatible blood transfusion reaction and hemolytic disease of the newborn. Section Reference 1: Section 18.3 Cytotoxic (Type II) Hypersensitivity
18) Which of the following statements about cytotoxic hypersensitivity is correct? a) Normally a person’s serum has IgM against the antigens on their own red blood cells. b) Adverse transfusion reactions are no longer a problem because transfusions rarely occur. c) Hemolytic disease of the newborn cannot be prevented.
d) Sensitization to Rh antigens can occur during delivery, miscarriage or abortion. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 18.3 Explain the way in which antigens provoke cytotoxic damage in Type II hypersensitivities such as incompatible blood transfusion reaction and hemolytic disease of the newborn. Section Reference 1: Section 18.3 Cytotoxic (Type II) Hypersensitivity
19) All of the following are Type III hypersensitivity except: a) granulomatous reactions b) serum sickness c) rheumatoid arthritis d) lupus erythematosus Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 18.4 Discuss the role of IgG antibodies in causing immune complex disorders such as serum sickness and the Arthus reaction. Section Reference 1: Section 18.4 Immune Complex (Type III) Hypersensitivity
20) Which of the following statements related to serum sickness is false? a) Serum sickness was initially associated with injections of anti-toxin for diphtheria. b) The patient’s immune system makes antibody against horse proteins. c) Glomerulus function is impaired due to immune complexes. d) Most patients die rather quickly from the condition. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 18.4 Discuss the role of IgG antibodies in causing immune complex disorders such as serum sickness and the Arthus reaction. Section Reference 1: Section 18.4 Immune Complex (Type III) Hypersensitivity
21) An Arthus reaction is a
.
a) local reaction at the site of injection with edema and hemorrhage b) systemic reaction in which immune complexes increase activating complement c) deposition of antibody and interleukin on the membrane of epithelial tissues
d) local reaction in a large mass of cells which leads to granuloma formation Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 18.4 Discuss the role of IgG antibodies in causing immune complex disorders such as serum sickness and the Arthus reaction. Section Reference 1: Section 18.4 Immune Complex (Type III) Hypersensitivity
22) Type IV hypersensitivity involves
.
a) B cells b) complement c) immune complexes d) TH1 cells Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 18.5 Evaluate the role of T cells and cytokines in producing cell-mediated hypersensitivities such as contact dermatitis and tuberculin hypersensitivity. Section Reference 1: Section 18.5 Cell-Mediated (Type IV) Hypersensitivity
23) All of the following are associated with Type IV hypersensitivity except: a) antigen presenting cells b) plasma cells c) sensitized TH1 cells d) granulomatous lesions Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 18.5 Evaluate the role of T cells and cytokines in producing cell-mediated hypersensitivities such as contact dermatitis and tuberculin hypersensitivity. Section Reference 1: Section 18.5 Cell-Mediated (Type IV) Hypersensitivity
24) Type IV hypersensitivity includes: a) contact dermatitis b) granulomatous hypersensitivity
c) allergy to metals d) all of the above Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 18.5 Evaluate the role of T cells and cytokines in producing cell-mediated hypersensitivities such as contact dermatitis and tuberculin hypersensitivity. Section Reference 1: Section 18.5 Cell-Mediated (Type IV) Hypersensitivity
25) Granulomatous hypersensitivity, the most serious Type IV hypersensitivity, might occur during all the following infections except: a) Staphylococcus aureus b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis c) Mycobacterium leprae d) Leishmania tropica Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 18.5 Evaluate the role of T cells and cytokines in producing cell-mediated hypersensitivities such as contact dermatitis and tuberculin hypersensitivity. Section Reference 1: Section 18.5 Cell-Mediated (Type IV) Hypersensitivity
26) Hypersensitivity to poison ivy
.
a) is due to the formation of granulomas b) is a type I hypersensitivity reaction c) leads to contact dermatitis due to immune reaction to urushiol d) occurs immediately after contact with the oil from the plant Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 18.5 Evaluate the role of T cells and cytokines in producing cell-mediated hypersensitivities such as contact dermatitis and tuberculin hypersensitivity. Section Reference 1: Section 18.5 Cell-Mediated (Type IV) Hypersensitivity
27) A tuberculin skin test
.
a) is read by the diameter and the elevation of the induration b) is negative if a person has received the BCG vaccine c) is read by the redness of the induration d) two of the above Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 18.5 Evaluate the role of T cells and cytokines in producing cell-mediated hypersensitivities such as contact dermatitis and tuberculin hypersensitivity. Section Reference 1: Section 18.5 Cell-Mediated (Type IV) Hypersensitivity
28) Immediate type hypersensitivity is mediated by
.
a) IgG b) T cells c) IgM d) IgE Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 18.2 Discuss the role of IgE antibodies in causing an anaphylactic response. Section Reference 1: Section 18.2 Immediate (Type I) Hypersensitivity
29) Cytotoxic hypersensitivity is mediated by
.
a) IgG, IgM b) IgE c) complement d) two of the above Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 18.3 Explain the way in which antigens provoke cytotoxic damage in Type II hypersensitivities such as incompatible blood transfusion reaction and hemolytic disease of the newborn. Section Reference 1: Section 18.3 Cytotoxic (Type II) Hypersensitivity
30) Cell-mediated hypersensitivity is mediated by
.
a) IgG, IgM b) T cells c) mast cells d) two of the above Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 18.5 Evaluate the role of T cells and cytokines in producing cell-mediated hypersensitivities such as contact dermatitis and tuberculin hypersensitivity. Section Reference 1: Section 18.5 Cell-Mediated (Type IV) Hypersensitivity
31) Antihistamines and/or desensitization may be effective in relieving the symptoms of: a) Cytotoxic hypersensitivity b) Immune complex hypersensitivity c) Immediate hypersensitivity d) Cell-mediated hypersensitivity Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 18.2 Discuss the role of IgE antibodies in causing an anaphylactic response. Section Reference 1: Section 18.2 Immediate (Type I) Hypersensitivity
32) Local wheal and flare, airway restriction, and anaphylactic shock are all associated with . a) Cytotoxic hypersensitivity b) Immune complex hypersensitivity c) Immediate hypersensitivity d) Cell-mediated hypersensitivity Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 18.2 Discuss the role of IgE antibodies in causing an anaphylactic response. Section Reference 1: Section 18.2 Immediate (Type I) Hypersensitivity
33) Steroids can be useful drugs to lessen the effects of
.
a) Cytotoxic hypersensitivity b) Immune complex hypersensitivity c) Immediate hypersensitivity d) all of the above Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 18.6 Describe factors that may lead to autoimmune diseases and give examples of such diseases. Section Reference 1: Section 18.6 Autoimmune Disorders
34) Examples of autoimmune diseases include which of the following? a) Systemic lupus erythematosus b) Myasthenia gravis c) Rheumatoid arthritis d) All of the above Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 18.6 Describe factors that may lead to autoimmune diseases and give examples of such diseases. Section Reference 1: Section 18.6 Autoimmune Disorders 35) DiGeorge’s Syndrome is due to a lack of
.
a) B-cells b) T-cells c) complement d) TH cell deficiency Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 18.6 Describe factors that may lead to autoimmune diseases and give examples of such diseases. Section Reference 1: Section 18.6 Autoimmune Disorders
36) Autoimmunization: a) is an acquired process not linked to any genetic factors b) involves vaccinations that are administered by the patient not a doctor c) is the process by which hypersensitivity to self develops d) two of the above Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 18.6 Describe factors that may lead to autoimmune diseases and give examples of such diseases. Section Reference 1: Section 18.6 Autoimmune Disorders
37) Antigenic or molecular mimicry
.
a) occurs when T cells attack tissue antigens similar to bacterial antigens b) involves self reactive T cells hiding in the thymus c) leads to an increase in the number of regulatory T cells d) none of the above Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 18.6 Describe factors that may lead to autoimmune diseases and give examples of such diseases. Section Reference 1: Section 18.6 Autoimmune Disorders
38) Myasthenia gravis: a) involves autoantibodies that are against the acetylcholine receptors b) form IgM:IgG immune complexes and TH1 cells which initiate inflammation in joints c) mainly affects the joints of the hands and the joints d) two of the above Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 18.6 Describe factors that may lead to autoimmune diseases and give examples of such diseases. Section Reference 1: Section 18.6 Autoimmune Disorders
39) Rheumatoid arthritis:
a) involves autoantibodies that are against the acetylcholine receptors b) form IgM:IgG immune complexes and TH1 cells which initiate inflammation in joints c) mainly affects the joints of the hands and the joints d) two of the above Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 18.6 Describe factors that may lead to autoimmune diseases and give examples of such diseases. Section Reference 1: Section 18.6 Autoimmune Disorders
40) Which of the following definitions of tissue transplants is incorrect? a) Autograft -- tissue is moved from one part of the body to another b) Allograft -- tissue is grafted between two individuals who are not genetically identical c) Xenograft -- tissue is grafted from one animal species to another d) Isograft -- tissue is grafted from parent to child Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 18.7 Identify factors that will influence the success or failure of organ transplant attempts Section Reference 1: Section 18.7 Transplantation
41) The match between HLAs determines the suitability of transplants, which HLA is known to generate the strongest transplant rejection reaction? a) HLA-A and HLA-B b) HLA B27 c) HLA Dw3 d) HLA-DR Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 18.7 Identify factors that will influence the success or failure of organ transplant attempts Section Reference 1: Section 18.7 Transplantation
42) The immunologically privileged site that protects the fetus from mother’s immune system is most likely due to the fact that . a) mother’s IgG do not cross the placenta b) fetal portion of placenta does not exhibit MHC molecules c) alpha-fetoprotein inhibits immune responses d) two of the above Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 18.7 Identify factors that will influence the success or failure of organ transplant attempts Section Reference 1: Section 18.7 Transplantation
43) In an effort to have a successful tissue transplant, the donor are matched.
of the recipient and the
a) IgD antibodies b) Seroantigens c) Human leukocyte antigens d) two of the above Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 18.7 Identify factors that will influence the success or failure of organ transplant attempts Section Reference 1: Section 18.7 Transplantation
44) Immunosuppression is important in transplant success; which of the following are immunosuppressive agents? a) Radiation b) Methotrexate c) Cyclosporine d) all of the above
Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 18.7 Identify factors that will influence the success or failure of organ transplant attempts
Section Reference 1: Section 18.7 Transplantation
45) All of the following can occur after tissue transplantation except: a) tissue transplants may be rejected and destroyed by the host’s immune system b) the host immune system can become tolerant to the transplanted tissue c) tissue transplants can launch a cell-mediated response against the recipient’s tissue d) all immune rejection occurs either at the time of the graft or within days after Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 18.7 Identify factors that will influence the success or failure of organ transplant attempts Section Reference 1: Section 18.7 Transplantation
46) Drug reactions: a) are associated with only 3 of the 4 types of hypersensitivities b) are common because most drug molecules are large enough to act as allergens c) can occur with antibiotics d) two of the above Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 18.8 Explain how drugs may sometimes cause hypersensitivity reactions. Section Reference 1: Section 18.8 Drug Reactions
47) Secondary immunodeficiency diseases can be caused by all of the following except: a) Hodgkin’s disease b) radiation c) genetic defects d) tuberculosis Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 18.9 Compare primary and secondary immunodeficiency disorders and discuss the global impact of HIV/AIDS. Section Reference 1: Section 18.9 Immunodeficiency Diseases
48) Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) is a life threatening condition. Its treatment includes . a) bone marrow transplants b) immunosuppressive drugs c) steroids d) two of the above Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 18.9 Compare primary and secondary immunodeficiency disorders and discuss the global impact of HIV/AIDS. Section Reference 1: Section 18.9 Immunodeficiency Diseases
49) HIV has an affinity for cells that bear the
antigen(s) on their surface.
a) CD4 b) HLA-B27 c) CD8 d) two of the above Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 18.9 Compare primary and secondary immunodeficiency disorders and discuss the global impact of HIV/AIDS. Section Reference 1: Section 18.9 Immunodeficiency Diseases
50) People with HIV are susceptible to many infections. Which sets of cells are destroyed? a) white blood cells and red blood cells b) TC cells and B cells c) TH cells and macrophages d) macrophages and polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNLs) Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 18.9 Compare primary and secondary immunodeficiency disorders and discuss the global impact of HIV/AIDS.
Section Reference 1: Section 18.9 Immunodeficiency Diseases
51) Which of the following is an immunological test based on precipitins (antibodies) which form a visible precipitate with antigens? a) agglutination b) radial immunodiffusion c) immunoelectrophoresis d) two of the above Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 18.10 Compare the precipitin, tube agglutination, and tagged antibody tests in terms of the ways in which antigen-antibody complexes are visualized. Section Reference 1: Section 18.10 Immunological Tests
52) Which of the following agglutination reaction term is matched incorrectly? a) Seroconversion—antibodies found in serum after exposure to infectious agent b) Hemmagglutination inhibition test—used to diagnose measles and influenza c) Coomb’s antiglobulin test—used to detect ABO blood group antibodies d) Complement fixation test—used to diagnose syphilis, pertussis, and gonorrhea Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 18.10 Compare the precipitin, tube agglutination, and tagged antibody tests in terms of the ways in which antigen-antibody complexes are visualized. Section Reference 1: Section 18.10 Immunological Tests
53) In HIV testing ELISA detects
while Western blot detects
.
a) HIV antibodies, HIV antigen proteins b) HIV proteins, HIV reverse transcriptase c) HIV capsid proteins, HIV carbohydrates d) HIV antibodies, HIV antibody complexes Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 18.10 Compare the precipitin, tube agglutination, and tagged antibody tests in terms of the ways in which antigen-antibody complexes are visualized.
Section Reference 1: Section 18.10 Immunological Tests
54) Which of the following statements about immunological tests is incorrect? a) Neutralization tests can detect bacterial toxins, but not anti-viral antibodies. b) Three tagged antibody tests include RIA, FACS, and ELISA. c) Agglutination reactions can be used to determine the antibody titer. d) Home pregnancy tests are modified agglutination assays. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 18.10 Compare the precipitin, tube agglutination, and tagged antibody tests in terms of the ways in which antigen-antibody complexes are visualized. Section Reference 1: Section 18.10 Immunological Tests
55) What type of hypersensitivity reaction is illustrated in this figure?
a) I b) II
c) III d) IV Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 18.2 Discuss the role of IgE antibodies in causing an anaphylactic response. Section Reference 1: Section 18.2 Immediate (Type I) Hypersensitivity
56) What type of testing is demonstrated in this figure?
a) Immunodeficiency b) Allergy c) Transplant d) Serological Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 18.2 Discuss the role of IgE antibodies in causing an anaphylactic response. Section Reference 1: Section 18.2 Immediate (Type I) Hypersensitivity
57) What type of reaction is illustrated in this image?
a) Type IV b) Type III c) Type II d) Type I Answer: c Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective 1: LO 18.3 Explain the way in which antigens provoke cytotoxic damage in Type II hypersensitivities such as incompatible blood transfusion reaction and hemolytic disease of the newborn. Section Reference 1: Section 18.3 Cytotoxic (Type II) Hypersensitivity
Question Type: Essay
58) One explanation for the increased incidence of allergies is the hygiene hypothesis. It suggests that a lack of early childhood exposure to infectious agents and later a lack of exposure to helminths as adults increase susceptibility to allergic diseases. How would you explain why people living in modern hygienic conditions have more allergies? Do you believe they are exposed to more allergens or that having less infectious agents makes one more likely to react to allergens? Explain your decision and describe what experiments or observations would be necessary to support your explanation. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 18.2 Discuss the role of IgE antibodies in causing an anaphylactic response. Section Reference 1: Section 18.2 Immediate (Type I) Hypersensitivity Solution: Possible explanations may include that modern living involves exposure to lots of dust mites, pollen and mold spores due to increased sealing of homes for evergy conservation, keeping molds and other allergens within rooms and the increased use of toxic materials like solvents in carpeting, plastics and vinyls. Experiments to test this explanation include epidemiological studies testing whether atopic individuals have been exposed to more allergens or lived in conditions with more allergens or experiments that demonstrate more allergies with higher doses of exposure to allergens. An alternative explanation is that by having fewer infectious diseases the immune system over-reacts to allergens present since certain pathogens may suppress the natural intensity of the immune system to enhance their chances of survival within the host. This would require that there be a negative association between exposure to infectious diseases and allergies. This could be investigated by looking at the epidemiology of infectious diseases and allergies in communities that have different incidences for allergies or testing whether exposure to infectious disease is protective against allergy induction. It would better be analysed by biochemical studies of molecules released by parasites and their effects on immune system reactivity.
59) Imagine you have a sibling that needs a kidney transplant. You offer to give your kidney. What reaction against the red blood cells in the donor kidney would occur if you had different blood groups? Even if you had the same blood groups why might you not be able to give her one of your kidneys? Answer:
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 18.3 Explain the way in which antigens provoke cytotoxic damage in Type II hypersensitivities such as incompatible blood transfusion reaction and hemolytic disease of the newborn. Section Reference 1: Section 18.3 Cytotoxic (Type II) Hypersensitivity Solution: A kidney transplant when the blood type is different may cause a transfusionlike reaction (e.g., a cytotoxic (type II) hypersensitivity); as antibodies are preformed against foreign antigens. These antibodies would cause the red blood cells to clump, complement to be activated and the hemolysis. Even if you had the same blood groups, you may have different human leukocyte antigens which would determine whether your sibling’s T cells would recognize the transplant as foreign and destroy the donor kidney tissue. Therefore transplant rejection might occur if the HLA types are incompatible. 60) Choose one immunological test – either a precipitin test, agglutination reaction or a tagged antibody test -- diagram how it is used to detect antibodies or antigens. In your diagram be sure to show what allows for the visualization of either the precipitin ring, the agglutination or the antigen on a cells surface. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 18.10 Compare the precipitin, tube agglutination, and tagged antibody tests in terms of the ways in which antigen-antibody complexes are visualized. Section Reference 1: Section 18.10 Immunological Tests Solution: In all diagrams the key element should be the antibody bound to the antigen and a description of how this leads to visualization. Precipitin test diagrams should include a zone of excess soluble antigen, a precipitin ring (or band in immunodiffusion and immunoelectrophoresis) and a zone of soluble antibody. Agglutination reaction diagrams should show agglutination as cells being separated by cell-antibody complexes being formed which leads to visible clumping. In the case they drew a complement fixation test they should show complement being fixed by cellantibody complexes and red blood cells lysing. For tagged antibody test they should show a cell surface with antigens and an antibody with fluorescent dye molecule binding to the antigen. In the case that the diagram is of FACS the bound antibody-cellular antigen would be detected and given electric charge to allow for sorting. In the case of ELISA or RIA the antigen would be attached to a well and bound to a primary antibody and then either a radiolabeled or enzyme labeled antiprimary antibody.
Chapter 20: Diseases of the Skin and Eyes; Wounds and Bites
Question Type: Multiple Choice
1) The majority of organisms normal to the skin are: a) Gram-negative b) Gram-positive c) fungi d) viruses Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 19.1 Review the anatomy of the skin and mucus membranes with regards to microbial defenses. Section Reference 1: Section 19.1 The Skin, Mucus Membranes, and Eyes
2) Which of the following is not considered resident microflora of the skin? a) Staphylococcus b) Corynebacterium c) E. coli d) Streptococcus Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 19.1 Review the anatomy of the skin and mucus membranes with regards to microbial defenses. Section Reference 1: Section 19.1 The Skin, Mucus Membranes, and Eyes
3) Which statement about skin is incorrect? a) largest single organ of the body b) dead epithelial cells function as a barrier for infections c) normal microflora are very sensitive to the skin’s antimicrobial substance d) consists of a thin epidermis and a thicker underlying dermis layer Answer: c Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective 1: LO 19.1 Review the anatomy of the skin and mucus membranes with regards to microbial defenses. Section Reference 1: Section 19.1 The Skin, Mucus Membranes, and Eyes
4) Mucus membranes: a) produce an oily secretion called sebum b) contain keratin, a waterproofing protein c) trap pathogens in a thick watery secretion of glycoproteins and electrolytes d) are distributed with sweat glands that lower the pH of the membranes Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 19.1 Review the anatomy of the skin and mucus membranes with regards to microbial defenses. Section Reference 1: Section 19.1 The Skin, Mucus Membranes, and Eyes
5) All of the following are reasons why the eyes have no normal microflora except: a) eyelids present a physical barrier to colonization b) viruses are unable to penetrate the conjunctiva c) lacrimal gland secretes fluid that continuously flushes the cornea d) teasrs contain an enzyme that breaks down bacterial cell wall Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 19.1 Review the anatomy of the skin and mucus membranes with regards to microbial defenses. Section Reference 1: Section 19.1 The Skin, Mucus Membranes, and Eyes
6) Staphylococcus aureus causes all of the following except: a) scalded skin syndrome b) carbuncles c) impetigo d) erysipelas Answer: d Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2 Relate the names and manifestations of diseases commonly caused by Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Pseudomonas, and viral or fungal pathogens whose systemic infections may be accompanied by skin or membrane rashes. Section Reference 1: Section 19.2 Diseases of the Skin
7) The most common bacteria to cause infections from soaking in a hot tub is . a) Escherichia coli b) Pseudomonas aeruginosa c) Staphylococcus epidermidis d) Staphylococcus aureus Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2 Relate the names and manifestations of diseases commonly caused by Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Pseudomonas, and viral or fungal pathogens whose systemic infections may be accompanied by skin or membrane rashes. Section Reference 1: Section 19.2 Diseases of the Skin
8. Scarlet fever can lead to serious complications including: a) glomerulonephritis b) meningitis c) rheumatic fever d) two of the above Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2 Relate the names and manifestations of diseases commonly caused by Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Pseudomonas, and viral or fungal pathogens whose systemic infections may be accompanied by skin or membrane rashes. Section Reference 1: Section 19.2 Diseases of the Skin
9) The most common flesh-eating bacterial species is: a) Staphylococcus b) Streptococcus c) Pseudomonas d) Propionibacterium
Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2 Relate the names and manifestations of diseases commonly caused by Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Pseudomonas, and viral or fungal pathogens whose systemic infections may be accompanied by skin or membrane rashes. Section Reference 1: Section 19.2 Diseases of the Skin
10) Which of the following Staphylococcal infections are matched correctly with infection sites? a) folliculitis – deep internal pus-filled infection b) furuncle – massive lesion on neck and upper back c) boil – an exterior pus-filled infection d) abscess – base of an eyelash Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2 Relate the names and manifestations of diseases commonly caused by Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Pseudomonas, and viral or fungal pathogens whose systemic infections may be accompanied by skin or membrane rashes. Section Reference 1: Section 19.2 Diseases of the Skin
11) Which of the following statements about scalded skin syndrome is incorrect? a) caused by Staphylococcus aureus b) rarely leads to bacteremia c) most commonly occurs in infants d) exotoxins cause the upper skin layers to separate and peel off Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2 Relate the names and manifestations of diseases commonly caused by Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Pseudomonas, and viral or fungal pathogens whose systemic infections may be accompanied by skin or membrane rashes. Section Reference 1: Section 19.2 Diseases of the Skin
12) Which of the following conditions is associated with the erythrogenic toxin of Streptococcus pyogenes? a) rheumatic fever
b) toxic shock syndrome c) scarlet fever d) roseola Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2 Relate the names and manifestations of diseases commonly caused by Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Pseudomonas, and viral or fungal pathogens whose systemic infections may be accompanied by skin or membrane rashes. Section Reference 1: Section 19.2 Diseases of the Skin
13) What are the means by which asymptomatic Staphylococcus carriers (like hospital personnel) spread this bacterium a) via the skin b) by nasal dropets c) fomites d) all of the above Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2 Relate the names and manifestations of diseases commonly caused by Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Pseudomonas, and viral or fungal pathogens whose systemic infections may be accompanied by skin or membrane rashes. Section Reference 1: Section 19.2 Diseases of the Skin
14) Acne: a) is due to bacteria most commonly Propionibacterium acnes b) forms a thick crust or scab called eschar c) can be treated with antibiotics or accutane d) two of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2 Relate the names and manifestations of diseases commonly caused by Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Pseudomonas, and viral or fungal pathogens whose systemic infections may be accompanied by skin or membrane rashes. Section Reference 1: Section 19.2 Diseases of the Skin
15) Debridement: a) destroys much of the body’s protective covering b) is a surgical scraping technique that improves antibiotic efficacy c) prevents nosicomal infections from occurring in severe burns d) two of the above Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2 Relate the names and manifestations of diseases commonly caused by Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Pseudomonas, and viral or fungal pathogens whose systemic infections may be accompanied by skin or membrane rashes. Section Reference 1: Section 19.2 Diseases of the Skin
16) All of the following statements refer to German measles except: a) they may cause rubella syndrome b) a vaccine has reduced the incidence of rubella birth defects c) mild virus infection with exanthema d) only girls are immunized with the rubella vaccine Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2 Relate the names and manifestations of diseases commonly caused by Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Pseudomonas, and viral or fungal pathogens whose systemic infections may be accompanied by skin or membrane rashes. Section Reference 1: Section 19.2 Diseases of the Skin
17) Measles (also known as rubeola) could be described by each of the following statements except: a) not very contagious b) Koplik’s spots seen on cheek mucosa c) two serious complications are encephalitis and sub-acute sclerosing panencephalitis d) most common complications are upper respiratory & middle ear infections Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2 Relate the names and manifestations of diseases commonly caused by Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Pseudomonas, and viral or fungal pathogens whose systemic infections may be accompanied by skin or membrane rashes.
Section Reference 1: Section 19.2 Diseases of the Skin
18) Varicella-Zoster virus is associated with all statements below except: a) causes chicken pox b) latent virus is reactivated when cell-mediated immunity drops below a critical level c) causes shingles d) acyclovir has been shown to be an excellent treatment for shingles Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2 Relate the names and manifestations of diseases commonly caused by Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Pseudomonas, and viral or fungal pathogens whose systemic infections may be accompanied by skin or membrane rashes. Section Reference 1: Section 19.2 Diseases of the Skin
19) Smallpox: a) was eradicated worldwide except for scientific repositories b) could be used in biological warfare c) vaccine is a live non-virulent smallpox virus d) two of the above Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2 Relate the names and manifestations of diseases commonly caused by Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Pseudomonas, and viral or fungal pathogens whose systemic infections may be accompanied by skin or membrane rashes. Section Reference 1: Section 19.2 Diseases of the Skin
20) Genital warts are caused by: a) molluscum contagiosum b) human papilloma virus c) cowpox d) herpes zoster virus Answer: b Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2 Relate the names and manifestations of diseases commonly caused by Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Pseudomonas, and viral or fungal pathogens whose systemic infections may be accompanied by skin or membrane rashes. Section Reference 1: Section 19.2 Diseases of the Skin
21) Which viral disease is seasonal with an incidence highest in March and April? a) molluscum contagiosum b) smallpox c) chickenpox d) human papillomavirus Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2 Relate the names and manifestations of diseases commonly caused by Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Pseudomonas, and viral or fungal pathogens whose systemic infections may be accompanied by skin or membrane rashes. Section Reference 1: Section 19.2 Diseases of the Skin
22) What is the difference between rubella and rubeola? a) Only rubeola causes exanthema (skin rash). b) Rubella causes skin rash and rubeola crosses the placenta. c) Both cause skin rashes but only rubella can cross the placenta. d) No difference they are simply different names for same viral skin disease Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2 Relate the names and manifestations of diseases commonly caused by Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Pseudomonas, and viral or fungal pathogens whose systemic infections may be accompanied by skin or membrane rashes. Section Reference 1: Section 19.2 Diseases of the Skin
23) All of the following are symptoms of measles or rubeola except: a) Koplik’s spots b) upper respiratory and middle ear infections c) stillborn, heart abnormalities or low birth weight d) red raised rash caused by T cells interacting with virus-infected cells in small blood vessels
Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2 Relate the names and manifestations of diseases commonly caused by Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Pseudomonas, and viral or fungal pathogens whose systemic infections may be accompanied by skin or membrane rashes. Section Reference 1: Section 19.2 Diseases of the Skin
24) Roseola: a) causes a sudden rash and brief high fever b) is also known as german measles c) causes a lifelong latent infection of T cells d) two of the above Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2 Relate the names and manifestations of diseases commonly caused by Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Pseudomonas, and viral or fungal pathogens whose systemic infections may be accompanied by skin or membrane rashes. Section Reference 1: Section 19.2 Diseases of the Skin
25) Burn infections: a) are difficult to diagnose as early signs are often decreased appetite and fatigue b) are difficult to treat as antibiotics are ineffective against the viruses that cause them c) with a grapelike odor and greenish discoloration are often due to viruses d) two of the above Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2 Relate the names and manifestations of diseases commonly caused by Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Pseudomonas, and viral or fungal pathogens whose systemic infections may be accompanied by skin or membrane rashes. Section Reference 1: Section 19.2 Diseases of the Skin
26) Which correctly matches the disease caused by Varicella Zoster virus? a) shingles – virus is carried in blood to various tissues b) chickenpox – confined to a single region supplied by a particular nerve c) chickenpox – is due to latent virus that is reactivated
d) shingles – occurs when cell-mediated immunity drops below a critical level Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2 Relate the names and manifestations of diseases commonly caused by Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Pseudomonas, and viral or fungal pathogens whose systemic infections may be accompanied by skin or membrane rashes. Section Reference 1: Section 19.2 Diseases of the Skin
27) Which of the following statements about pox diseases is incorrect? a) molluscum contagiosum only elicits a slight immune response b) monkey pox outbreaks have increased with the discontinuation of smallpox vaccination c) vaccinia virus can be used as a smallpox vaccine d) cowpox only causes disease in cows, humans cannot be infected Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2 Relate the names and manifestations of diseases commonly caused by Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Pseudomonas, and viral or fungal pathogens whose systemic infections may be accompanied by skin or membrane rashes. Section Reference 1: Section 19.2 Diseases of the Skin
28) Which pair of fungal skin infections is matched incorrectly? a) Tinea cruris—jock itch b) Tinea unguium—ringworm of the nails c) Tinea capitis—scalp ringworm d) Tinea corporis—ringworm of the face Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2 Relate the names and manifestations of diseases commonly caused by Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Pseudomonas, and viral or fungal pathogens whose systemic infections may be accompanied by skin or membrane rashes. Section Reference 1: Section 19.2 Diseases of the Skin
29) Dermatomycoses are caused by:
a) Epidermophyton b) Candida c) Microsporum d) two of the above Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2 Relate the names and manifestations of diseases commonly caused by Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Pseudomonas, and viral or fungal pathogens whose systemic infections may be accompanied by skin or membrane rashes. Section Reference 1: Section 19.2 Diseases of the Skin
30) Subcutaneous fungal infections are caused by: a) Sporothrix schenckii b) Candida c) Microsporum d) two of the above Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2 Relate the names and manifestations of diseases commonly caused by Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Pseudomonas, and viral or fungal pathogens whose systemic infections may be accompanied by skin or membrane rashes. Section Reference 1: Section 19.2 Diseases of the Skin 31) Athlete’s foot is a type of: a) ringworm b) subcutaneous fungal infection c) opportunistic fungal infection d) tiny worm-like parasite Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2 Relate the names and manifestations of diseases commonly caused by Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Pseudomonas, and viral or fungal pathogens whose systemic infections may be accompanied by skin or membrane rashes. Section Reference 1: Section 19.2 Diseases of the Skin
32) What is the relationship between genital warts and cervical cancer? a) Cervical cancer is caused by genital warts b) Genital warts causes cervical cancer c) Different strains of the same virus cause genital warts and cervical cancer d) two of the above Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2 Relate the names and manifestations of diseases commonly caused by Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Pseudomonas, and viral or fungal pathogens whose systemic infections may be accompanied by skin or membrane rashes. Section Reference 1: Section 19.2 Diseases of the Skin
33) Dermal warts: a) are more common in older people than children b) never go away on their own c) are often treated by freezing the tissue and then excising the wart d) two of the above Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: Section Reference 1:
34) Which of the following fungal infections may first appear as a nodular mass at the site of the wound and then spread to the lymphatics? a) Blastomycosis b) Cryptococcosis c) Sporotrichosis d) Tinea Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2 Relate the names and manifestations of diseases commonly caused by Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Pseudomonas, and viral or fungal pathogens whose systemic infections may be accompanied by skin or membrane rashes. Section Reference 1: Section 19.2 Diseases of the Skin
35) Blastomycosis: a) is common in the San Joaquin Valley b) causes disfiguring granulomatous pus producing skin lesions c) occurs mostly in young female children d) two of the above Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2 Relate the names and manifestations of diseases commonly caused by Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Pseudomonas, and viral or fungal pathogens whose systemic infections may be accompanied by skin or membrane rashes. Section Reference 1: Section 19.2 Diseases of the Skin
36) Aspergillosis: a) in immunodeficient patients causes wound infections b) causes dry scaly lesions on various parts of skin c) is responsible for thrush and vaginitis d) can require amputation Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2 Relate the names and manifestations of diseases commonly caused by Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Pseudomonas, and viral or fungal pathogens whose systemic infections may be accompanied by skin or membrane rashes. Section Reference 1: Section 19.2 Diseases of the Skin
37) Which is the correct matching of disease with its characteristics? a) madura foot – itching due to schistosomes burrowing into skin b) dracunculiasis – sudden fever followed by rose-colored rash c) dermatomycoses – difficult to treat dry scaly lesions d) swimmer’s itch – due to guinea worm, a parasitic helminth Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2 Relate the names and manifestations of diseases commonly caused by Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Pseudomonas, and viral or fungal pathogens whose systemic infections may be accompanied by skin or membrane rashes.
Section Reference 1: Section 19.2 Diseases of the Skin
38) Candida albicans is characterized by all of the following except: a) an oval budding yeast b) etiology of thrush c) vaginitis d) not found normally in intestines or urogenital tract Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2 Relate the names and manifestations of diseases commonly caused by Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Pseudomonas, and viral or fungal pathogens whose systemic infections may be accompanied by skin or membrane rashes. Section Reference 1: Section 19.2 Diseases of the Skin
39) Neisseria gonorrhoeae is implicated in eye infections such as: a) trachoma b) ophthalmia neonatorum c) conjunctivitis d) two of the above Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 19.3 Identify diseases of bacterial and viral origin known to affect the eye. Section Reference 1: Section 19.3 Diseases of the Eyes
40) Onchocerciasis and loaiasis, both parasitic eye infections, are very difficult to control because: a) it is difficult to control the vector populations b) clean water is available c) antibiotics are not available d) newborns are infected at birth Answer: a Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective 1: LO 19.3 Identify diseases of bacterial and viral origin known to affect the eye. Section Reference 1: Section 19.3 Diseases of the Eyes
41) Epidemic keratoconjunctivitis is characterized by: a) bacterial infection b) inflammation that spreads to cornea c) dust transmission d) two of the above Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 19.3 Identify diseases of bacterial and viral origin known to affect the eye. Section Reference 1: Section 19.3 Diseases of the Eyes
42) Viral infections of the eye include: a) trachoma b) epidemic keratoconjunctivitis c) acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis d) two of the above Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 19.3 Identify diseases of bacterial and viral origin known to affect the eye. Section Reference 1: Section 19.3 Diseases of the Eyes
43) Bacterial infections of the eye include all of the following except: a) onchocerciasis b) ophthalmia neonatorum c) conjunctivitis d) trachoma Answer: a Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective 1: LO 19.3 Identify diseases of bacterial and viral origin known to affect the eye. Section Reference 1: Section 19.3 Diseases of the Eyes
44) The reason why newborns in developed countries receive antibiotic or silver nitrate drops at birth is: a) to prevent opthalmia neonatorum b) because pinkeye is extremely contagious c) gnats can transmit organisms from the eyes of newborns d) two of the above Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 19.3 Identify diseases of bacterial and viral origin known to affect the eye. Section Reference 1: Section 19.3 Diseases of the Eyes
45) When individuals live in an area of endemic 40 years of age.
, they are usually blind by
a) Onchocerca volvulus b) Loa loa c) Adenovirus d) Enterovirus Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 19.3 Identify diseases of bacterial and viral origin known to affect the eye. Section Reference 1: Section 19.3 Diseases of the Eyes
46) Gas gangrene, with gas production leading to tissue necrosis, is due to: a) Staphylococcus aureus b) Pseudomonas aeruginosa c) Clostridium perfringens d) Spirillum minor Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 19.4 Describe bacterial and arthropod-borne diseases associated with wounds and bites. Section Reference 1: Section 19.4 Wounds and Bites
47) Pediculosis is an infestation of: a) lice b) ticks c) chiggers d) mites Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 19.4 Describe bacterial and arthropod-borne diseases associated with wounds and bites. Section Reference 1: Section 19.4 Wounds and Bites
48) Cat scratch fever is caused by: a) Spirillum minor b) Pasteurella multocida c) Bartonella hensalae d) two of the above Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 19.4 Describe bacterial and arthropod-borne diseases associated with wounds and bites. Section Reference 1: Section 19.4 Wounds and Bites
49) Human bites can cause an opportunistic infection with: a) Pasteurella multocida b) Eikenella corrodens c) Eubacterium yurii d) Streptobacillus moniliformis Answer: b Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective 1: LO 19.4 Describe bacterial and arthropod-borne diseases associated with wounds and bites. Section Reference 1: Section 19.4 Wounds and Bites
50) Which of the following does not refer to gas gangrene? a) caused by Clostridium species b) contains crepitant tissue c) necrosis appears d) vaccine is available, but not widely used Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 19.4 Describe bacterial and arthropod-borne diseases associated with wounds and bites. Section Reference 1: Section 19.4 Wounds and Bites
51) How are juvenile onset laryngeal warts acquired? a) during passage through an infected birth canal b) by contact with fomites c) by contact with moist lesions d) none of these choices Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2 Relate the names and manifestations of diseases commonly caused by Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Pseudomonas, and viral or fungal pathogens whose systemic infections may be accompanied by skin or membrane rashes. Section Reference 1: Section 19.2 Diseases of the Skin
52) Which of the following insect diseases are correctly matched with their characteristics? a) Myiasis – screwworms injure cattle b) Blackfly fever – toxins introduced cause fever and ascending motor paralysis c) Chigger dermatitis – inflammation in pubic areas at louse bite sites d) Scabies – congo floor maggot sucks human blood Answer: a
Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 19.4 Describe bacterial and arthropod-borne diseases associated with wounds and bites. Section Reference 1: Section 19.4 Wounds and Bites
53) Cells of this layer block the penetration of microbes and secrete mucus.
a) A b) B c) C d) None of these choices
Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 19.1 Review the anatomy of the skin and mucus membranes with regards to microbial defenses. Section Reference 1: Section 19.1 The Skin, Mucus Membranes, and Eyes
54) This structure secretes lacrimal fluid and carries away microbes.
a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 19.1 Review the anatomy of the skin and mucus membranes with regards to microbial defenses. Section Reference 1: Section 19.1 The Skin, Mucus Membranes, and Eyes
55) This skin infection is most likely caused by:
a) Staphylococcus aureus b) Streptococcus pyogenes c) Staphylococcus epidermidis d) Escherichia coli Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2 Relate the names and manifestations of diseases commonly caused by Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Pseudomonas, and viral or fungal pathogens whose systemic infections may be accompanied by skin or membrane rashes. Section Reference 1: Section 19.2 Diseases of the Skin
Question Type: Essay
56) A 4-year-old girl in day care was brought to the doctor because of several reddish and round scaling lesions on her arms. The girl had no other lesions except the ones on the arm and had no other symptoms and no signs of pus in the lesions. Why is this not likely to be scarlet fever? Why is this not likely to be measles? Given that the girl is diagnosed with ringworm, should the girl be prescribed antibiotics, antivirals or topical antifungal ointments? How do you think the girl got ringworm? Answer:
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2 Relate the names and manifestations of diseases commonly caused by Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Pseudomonas, and viral or fungal pathogens whose systemic infections may be accompanied by skin or membrane rashes. Section Reference 1: Section 19.2 Diseases of the Skin Solution: Not likely to be scarlet fever because there was no strep throat and the scaly rash is not consistent with Streptococcus. Not likely to be measles as there were no Koplik’s spots or other symptoms (fever, conjunctivitis and cough). Ringworm is treated with topical antifungal ointments. Ringworm can be transmitted through contaminated objects and spores. It is likely that the girl got ringworm either from another child in daycare or perhaps from a pet she had been playing with, given the location of the lesions.
57) What is the difference between trachoma and bacterial conjunctivitis? How are they transmitted? Are they both common in the United States? Which one would you rather have? Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 19.3 Identify diseases of bacterial and viral origin known to affect the eye. Section Reference 1: Section 19.3 Diseases of the Eyes Solution: Trachoma is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis; bacterial conjunctivitis may be caused by many different bacterial species including Chlamydia trachomatis but the condition is far less severe. Bacterial conjunctivitis is extremely contagious; children rub itchy eyes and transfer organisms to their playmates. Trachoma is transferred through close human contact (such as between mother-child) and also by flies as mechanical vectors. Bacterial conjunctivitis is common in the United States, while trachoma is widespread in parts of Asia, Africa and South America. Because trachoma can cause eye scarring and blindness, I would rather have the annoyance of pinkeye (Staphylococcal conjunctivitis).
58) Gas gangrene was historically thought of as a battlefield injury and thought to have played a role in determining the outcome of armed conflicts. Describe gas gangrene. What causes gas gangrene? Why is amputation so common? And what civilians are susceptible to the disease? Answer: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 19.4 Describe bacterial and arthropod-borne diseases associated with wounds and bites.
Section Reference 1: Section 19.4 Wounds and Bites Solution: Gas gangrene is caused by the invasion of already necrotic (gangrenous) tissue by anaerobic bacteria. Toxins produced by Clostridium perfringens may lead to further live tissue death, spreading of the disease and patient death if not treated promptly. Characteristics include crepitant tissue, foul odor, black tissue, high fever, shock and massive tissue destruction. Gas gangrene is caused by Clostridium perfringens, which grows and ferments muscle carbohydrates. It spreads rapidly making amputation necessary to prevent death. Diabetics with high blood sugar are especially at risk as the high blood sugar provide resources for the bacteria to ferment and there is frequently poor circulation in patients with uncontrolled diabetes, allowing gangrenous tissue to be commonly found in the extremities.
Chapter 21: Urogenital and Sexually Transmitted Diseases
Question Type: Multiple Choice
1) All of the following defense mechanisms are present in the urogenital system except: a) normal flora competing with opportunists b) sphincter muscles c) flushing action of fluids d) high pH Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 20.1 Review the anatomy of the urinary and reproductive tracts as it pertains to microbial defenses. Section Reference 1: Section 20.1 Components of the Urogenital System
2) If cleansing beneath the foreskin is inadequate, a voided urine specimen may contain . a) Escherichia coli b) Staphylococcus aureus c) Mycobacterium smegmatis d) Micrococcus luteus Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 20.1 Review the anatomy of the urinary and reproductive tracts as it pertains to microbial defenses. Section Reference 1: Section 20.1 Components of the Urogenital System
3) The acid pH in the vagina is predominantly due to present in vaginal cells. a) Staphylococcus, glycogen b) Escherichia, glucose c) Staphylococcus, starch d) Lactobacillus, glycogen Answer: d
fermenting the
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 20.1 Review the anatomy of the urinary and reproductive tracts as it pertains to microbial defenses. Section Reference 1: Section 20.1 Components of the Urogenital System
4) Cystitis is inflammation of the
.
a) urinary bladder b) urethra c) nephron d) kidney Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 20.2 Describe bacterial and parasitic diseases of the urogenital system that are not sexually transmitted. Section Reference 1: Section 20.2 Urogenital Diseases Usually Not Transmitted Sexually
5) Pyelonephritis is inflammation of the
.
a) bladder b) rectum c) kidney d) urethra Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 20.2 Describe bacterial and parasitic diseases of the urogenital system that are not sexually transmitted. Section Reference 1: Section 20.2 Urogenital Diseases Usually Not Transmitted Sexually
6) Dysuria means: a) an increase in the volume of urine produced b) blood in the urine c) discolored urine d) pain on urination Answer: d
Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 20.2 Describe bacterial and parasitic diseases of the urogenital system that are not sexually transmitted. Section Reference 1: Section 20.2 Urogenital Diseases Usually Not Transmitted Sexually
7) A major cause of UTIs is
.
a) eating something that doesn’t agree with you. b) incomplete emptying of the bladder. c) immunosuppression. d) two of the above Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 20.2 Describe bacterial and parasitic diseases of the urogenital system that are not sexually transmitted. Section Reference 1: Section 20.2 Urogenital Diseases Usually Not Transmitted Sexually
8) Which of the following groups has the most problem with UTIs? a) females, infants b) males, infants c) females, over 60 years d) males, adults Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 20.2 Describe bacterial and parasitic diseases of the urogenital system that are not sexually transmitted. Section Reference 1: Section 20.2 Urogenital Diseases Usually Not Transmitted Sexually
9) Which is the causative agent in 80% of UTIs? a) Escherichia coli b) Chlamydia trachomatis c) Staphylococcus d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa Answer: a Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective 1: LO 20.2 Describe bacterial and parasitic diseases of the urogenital system that are not sexually transmitted. Section Reference 1: Section 20.2 Urogenital Diseases Usually Not Transmitted Sexually
10) Nosocomial UTIs are a significant problem for patients who have indwelling catheters; the etiology /(ies) most likely would be: a) Staphylococcus epidermidis b) Proteus vulgaris c) Escherichia coli d) all of the above Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 20.2 Describe bacterial and parasitic diseases of the urogenital system that are not sexually transmitted. Section Reference 1: Section 20.2 Urogenital Diseases Usually Not Transmitted Sexually 11) A patient has a UTI with a low number of bacteria in the patient’s urine sample and only one pathogen was detected. What condition(s) could have led to the infection? a) Pyelonephritis b) Cystitis c) Acute prostatitis d) Two of the above Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 20.2 Describe bacterial and parasitic diseases of the urogenital system that are not sexually transmitted. Section Reference 1: Section 20.2 Urogenital Diseases Usually Not Transmitted Sexually
12) Prostatitis is characterized by all of the following except: a) urgent and frequent urination b) blood in urine c) low fever d) back pain Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 20.2 Describe bacterial and parasitic diseases of the urogenital system that are not sexually transmitted. Section Reference 1: Section 20.2 Urogenital Diseases Usually Not Transmitted Sexually
13) The etiology of pyelonephritis is most often bacterial, the yeast, .
, and less commonly
a) Escherichia coli, Candida albicans b) Streptococcus mutans, Pityrosporum ovale c) Escherichia coli, Saccharomyces cerevisiae d) Streptococcus mutans, Saccharomyces cerevisiae Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 20.2 Describe bacterial and parasitic diseases of the urogenital system that are not sexually transmitted. Section Reference 1: Section 20.2 Urogenital Diseases Usually Not Transmitted Sexually
14) Which is an immune complex disease? a) Cystitis b) Glomerulonephritis c) Prostatitis d) Pyelonephritis Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 20.2 Describe bacterial and parasitic diseases of the urogenital system that are not sexually transmitted. Section Reference 1: Section 20.2 Urogenital Diseases Usually Not Transmitted Sexually
15) Leptospirosis is characterized by all of the following except: a) it is a zoonosis b) humans are infected by contact with contaminated water c) Weil’s syndrome might develop d) an abscess develops at the site of entry Answer: d
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 20.2 Describe bacterial and parasitic diseases of the urogenital system that are not sexually transmitted. Section Reference 1: Section 20.2 Urogenital Diseases Usually Not Transmitted Sexually
16) Glomerulonephritis is caused by cross-reacting antibodies produced in response to the bacterial pathogen . a) Escherichia coli b) Staphylococcus aureus c) Streptococcus mutans d) Streptococcus pyogenes Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 20.2 Describe bacterial and parasitic diseases of the urogenital system that are not sexually transmitted. Section Reference 1: Section 20.2 Urogenital Diseases Usually Not Transmitted Sexually
17) Non-specific vaginitis is characterized by
.
a) Gardnerella b) Bacteroides and Peptostreptococcus c) Staphylococcus aureus d) two of the above Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 20.2 Describe bacterial and parasitic diseases of the urogenital system that are not sexually transmitted. Section Reference 1: Section 20.2 Urogenital Diseases Usually Not Transmitted Sexually
18) Diagnosis of Gardnerella vaginitis is made by the appearance of a) anaerobes in a microscope slide b) clue cells c) epithelial cells d) endotoxin Answer: b
.
Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 20.2 Describe bacterial and parasitic diseases of the urogenital system that are not sexually transmitted. Section Reference 1: Section 20.2 Urogenital Diseases Usually Not Transmitted Sexually
19) Toxic shock syndrome is associated with all of the following except: a) Staphylococcus aureus b) super-absorbent tampons c) exotoxin C d) elderly men Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 20.2 Describe bacterial and parasitic diseases of the urogenital system that are not sexually transmitted. Section Reference 1: Section 20.2 Urogenital Diseases Usually Not Transmitted Sexually
20) In healthy individuals all of the following parts of the urinary tract are sterile except: a) lower folds of the urinary bladder b) the portion of the urethra closest to the urethral opening c) the ureter of the kidney d) nephrons Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 20.2 Describe bacterial and parasitic diseases of the urogenital system that are not sexually transmitted. Section Reference 1: Section 20.2 Urogenital Diseases Usually Not Transmitted Sexually
21) Which of the following statements is false? a) Leptospirosis can be controlled in your pets by vaccination. b) Low numbers of bacteria in a urinalysis rule out infection. c) Douching too much can lead to bacterial vaginitis. d) Urine specimens with a variety of organisms are usually contaminated. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective 1: LO 20.2 Describe bacterial and parasitic diseases of the urogenital system that are not sexually transmitted. Section Reference 1: Section 20.2 Urogenital Diseases Usually Not Transmitted Sexually
22) Which of the following is the correct match of the disease and organism? a) Trichomonas vaginalis – bacterial vaginitis b) Gardnerella vaginitis – toxic shock syndrome c) Trichomonas vaginalis – itching and white discharge d) Escherichia coli -- glomerulonephritis Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 20.3 Name and describe the common bacterial and viral sexually transmitted diseases. Section Reference 1: Section 20.3 Sexually Transmitted Diseases
23) The routes of infection in prostatitis include all of the following except: a) by ascent through the urethra b) from bloodborne organisms c) by back-flow of contaminated urine d) by descent from the seminal vesicles Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 20.2 Describe bacterial and parasitic diseases of the urogenital system that are not sexually transmitted. Section Reference 1: Section 20.2 Urogenital Diseases Usually Not Transmitted Sexually
24) Neisseria gonorrhoeae is characterized by all of the following except: a) Gram-negative diplococci b) has a latent stage c) replicates inside polymorphonuclear leukocytes d) cleaves IgA Answer: b Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective 1: LO 20.3 Name and describe the common bacterial and viral sexually transmitted diseases. Section Reference 1: Section 20.3 Sexually Transmitted Diseases
25) Pelvic Inflammatory Disease is a complication in 50% of the cases of
.
a) syphilis b) gonorrhea c) chancroid d) vaginitis Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 20.3 Name and describe the common bacterial and viral sexually transmitted diseases. Section Reference 1: Section 20.3 Sexually Transmitted Diseases
26) Gonorrhea: a) can be treated with ciprofloxacin or other quinolones b) is easy to treat as antibiotic resistance is rare c) should only be treated with a cephlasporin (e.g., ceftriaxone) and another antibiotic d) two of the above Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 20.3 Name and describe the common bacterial and viral sexually transmitted diseases. Section Reference 1: Section 20.3 Sexually Transmitted Diseases
27) The U.S. incidence of gonorrhea by states indicates that most cases are found in: a) mid-western states b) Pacific southwest c) Atlantic northeast d) southeast Answer: d Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective 1: LO 20.3 Name and describe the common bacterial and viral sexually transmitted diseases. Section Reference 1: Section 20.3 Sexually Transmitted Diseases
28) Syphilis is caused by
.
a) immunodeficiencies b) Neisseria gonorrhea c) Treponema pallidum d) Haemophilus ducreyi Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 20.3 Name and describe the common bacterial and viral sexually transmitted diseases. Section Reference 1: Section 20.3 Sexually Transmitted Diseases
29) Secondary syphilis is characterized by the appearance of
.
a) gummas b) a pustular rash c) a chancre d) a chancroid Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 20.3 Name and describe the common bacterial and viral sexually transmitted diseases. Section Reference 1: Section 20.3 Sexually Transmitted Diseases
30) Syphilis: a) is often detected in the primary stage as the symptoms don’t go away b) is easiest to treat in the tertiary stage as that is when there are the fewest organisms c) can be spread by kissing in the secondary stage d) two of the above Answer: c Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective 1: LO 20.3 Name and describe the common bacterial and viral sexually transmitted diseases. Section Reference 1: Section 20.3 Sexually Transmitted Diseases
31) What are the signs associated with congenital syphilis? a) Huchinson’s teeth b) Saber shin c) Saddle-nose d) all of the above Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 20.3 Name and describe the common bacterial and viral sexually transmitted diseases. Section Reference 1: Section 20.3 Sexually Transmitted Diseases
32) Diagnosis of syphilis is confirmed by
.
a) immobilization tests b) using molecular probes c) culturing the organism d) PCR Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 20.3 Name and describe the common bacterial and viral sexually transmitted diseases. Section Reference 1: Section 20.3 Sexually Transmitted Diseases
33) Gonorrhea and syphilis share which of the following properties? a) Both may be diagnosed by direct culture of the pathogen b) Both pathogens are spirochetes c) Both may be passed to a newborn (either during gestation or at birth) d) two of the above Answer: c Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective 1: LO 20.3 Name and describe the common bacterial and viral sexually transmitted diseases. Section Reference 1: Section 20.3 Sexually Transmitted Diseases
34) Chancroid is caused by
.
a) Escherichia coli b) Haemophilus ducreyi c) Treponema pallidum d) Neisseria gonorrhoeae Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 20.3 Name and describe the common bacterial and viral sexually transmitted diseases. Section Reference 1: Section 20.3 Sexually Transmitted Diseases
35) In the United States, the most prevalent STD is caused by
.
a) Chlamydia trachomatis b) Haemophilus ducreyi c) Treponema pallidum d) Neisseria gonorrhoeae Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 20.3 Name and describe the common bacterial and viral sexually transmitted diseases. Section Reference 1: Section 20.3 Sexually Transmitted Diseases
36) Chancroid is characterized by a a) rash b) gumma c) painless chancre lesion d) painful chancre lesion Answer: d Difficulty: Hard
.
Learning Objective 1: LO 20.3 Name and describe the common bacterial and viral sexually transmitted diseases. Section Reference 1: Section 20.3 Sexually Transmitted Diseases
37) Chlamydia trachomatis is the causative agent of
.
a) non-gonococcal urethritis b) lymphogranuloma venereum c) inclusion blennorrhea d) all of the above Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 20.3 Name and describe the common bacterial and viral sexually transmitted diseases. Section Reference 1: Section 20.3 Sexually Transmitted Diseases
38) Donovan bodies are diagnostic mononuclear cells from lesions associated with: a) non-gonococcal urethritis b) lymphogranuloma c) granuloma inguinale d) Chlamydia infections Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 20.3 Name and describe the common bacterial and viral sexually transmitted diseases. Section Reference 1: Section 20.3 Sexually Transmitted Diseases
39) Herpes infection symptoms are most successfully managed with daily doses of . a) penicillin b) interferon c) AZT d) acyclovir Answer: d Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective 1: LO 20.3 Name and describe the common bacterial and viral sexually transmitted diseases. Section Reference 1: Section 20.3 Sexually Transmitted Diseases
40) Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched? a) Herpes Whitlow -- fingers b) HSV 2 -- genital herpes c) HSV 1 -- labial fever blisters d) Herpes gladiatorium -- pneumonia Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 20.3 Name and describe the common bacterial and viral sexually transmitted diseases. Section Reference 1: Section 20.3 Sexually Transmitted Diseases
41) Which of the following viruses can lead to fever blisters (cold sores) on the mouth and lips? a) HSV-1 b) Herpes simplex virus c) HSV-2 d) all of the above Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 20.3 Name and describe the common bacterial and viral sexually transmitted diseases. Section Reference 1: Section 20.3 Sexually Transmitted Diseases
42) Human papilloma virus causes: a) condylomas b) laryngeal papilloma c) genital warts d) all of the above Answer: d Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective 1: LO 20.3 Name and describe the common bacterial and viral sexually transmitted diseases. Section Reference 1: Section 20.3 Sexually Transmitted Diseases
43) The strains of HPV that cause cervical cancer
.
a) are the same strains that cause external genital warts b) also cause cold sores c) are different from the strains that cause external gential warts d) two of the above Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 20.3 Name and describe the common bacterial and viral sexually transmitted diseases. Section Reference 1: Section 20.3 Sexually Transmitted Diseases
44) Which statement about the detection of cervical cancer is true? a) Pap smears is far more accurate than an HPV DNA test. b) HPV DNA test can determine if there are abnormal cells present. c) Vaccination against HPV will give false positives on the HPV DNA test. d) 60% of women with a positive HPV DNA test will show some abnormality in 5 years. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 20.3 Name and describe the common bacterial and viral sexually transmitted diseases. Section Reference 1: Section 20.3 Sexually Transmitted Diseases
45) Cytomegalovirus causes
.
a) severe disease in fetuses, neonates and immunocompromised people b) frothy, fishy-smelling discharge c) painful bleeding lesions on genitals d) warts on genitals and intense itching Answer: a Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective 1: LO 20.3 Name and describe the common bacterial and viral sexually transmitted diseases. Section Reference 1: Section 20.3 Sexually Transmitted Diseases
46) Which of the following statements about STDs is false? a) Gonococcal arthritis is the most common joint infection in people younger than 50. b) Latency is a hallmark of herpes infections. c) Approximately 80% of the population carries CMV asymptomatically. d) CMV symptoms are less severe in patients with AIDS and other immunodeficiencies. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 20.3 Name and describe the common bacterial and viral sexually transmitted diseases. Section Reference 1: Section 20.3 Sexually Transmitted Diseases
47) Which is a true statement about fetal and infant CMV infections? a) CMV can only be contracted during birth as it doesn’t cross the placenta. b) Maternal antibodies can cross the placenta to inactivate CMV virus. c) Infections contracted after birth, have more permanent defects than those before birth. d) Two of the above Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 20.3 Name and describe the common bacterial and viral sexually transmitted diseases. Section Reference 1: Section 20.3 Sexually Transmitted Diseases
48) Disseminated CMV: a) always involves the brain and in adults leads to neural damage b) can occur 1 to 4 months after an organ transplant c) can lead to severe and often lethal pneumonia in bone marrow transplant patients d) two of the above Answer: d Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective 1: LO 20.3 Name and describe the common bacterial and viral sexually transmitted diseases. Section Reference 1: Section 20.3 Sexually Transmitted Diseases
49) A person with fever blisters from HSV 1
.
a) is still susceptible to herpes simplex virus type 2 which causes genital herpes b) will always have herpes virus in the ganglia of their sensory nerves c) cannot shed the virus when asymptomatic d) two of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 20.3 Name and describe the common bacterial and viral sexually transmitted diseases. Section Reference 1: Section 20.3 Sexually Transmitted Diseases
50) Genital herpes can be acquired: a) by kissing gingivostomatitis lesions of the mouth b) during sexual contact with a partner infected with HSV-2 c) by oral sex – often with HSV-1 d) two of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 20.3 Name and describe the common bacterial and viral sexually transmitted diseases. Section Reference 1: Section 20.3 Sexually Transmitted Diseases
51) The correct progression of a typical case of syphilis is: a) incubation copper colored rash chancre latent period gummas b) chancre latent period rash latent period neurological damage c) gummas chancre rash neurological damage d) incubation heart valve damage latent period chancre Answer: b Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective 1: LO 20.3 Name and describe the common bacterial and viral sexually transmitted diseases. Section Reference 1: Section 20.3 Sexually Transmitted Diseases
52) Where does cystitis occur?
a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 20.1 Review the anatomy of the urinary and reproductive tracts as it pertains to microbial defenses. Section Reference 1: Section 20.1 Components of the Urogenital System
53) Where are the normal microflora that protect the urogenital organs located?
a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 20.1 Review the anatomy of the urinary and reproductive tracts as it pertains to microbial defenses. Section Reference 1: Section 20.1 Components of the Urogenital System
54) The largest percentage of UTIs occurs in this organ.
a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 20.2 Describe bacterial and parasitic diseases of the urogenital system that are not sexually transmitted. Section Reference 1: Section 20.2 Urogenital Diseases Usually Not Transmitted Sexually
Question Type: Essay Questions
55) Are the organisms that cause vaginitis part of the normal microflora or does their presence always lead to disease? Why would a physician prescribe a douche of liveculture yogurt after a course of antibiotics? Are the organisms that cause toxic shock syndrome (TSS) part of the normal vaginal flora? If toxic shock syndrome is supposed to come from tampons why do men, children and postmenopausal women now account for most cases of TSS? Answer:
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 20.2 Describe bacterial and parasitic diseases of the urogenital system that are not sexually transmitted. Section Reference 1: Section 20.2 Urogenital Diseases Usually Not Transmitted Sexually Solution: The most common causes of vaginitis (Gardneraella vaginalis, Mobiluncus and Candida albicans) are all part of the normal natural microflora and only occasionally cause disease if their relative abundance is increased by disruptions to the balance of microflora present through the use of broad spectrum antibiotics, excessive douching etc.. A douche of live-culture yogurt would restore the lactobacilli of normal microflora, which is essential to preventing opportunistic infections with vaginitis causing organisms and maintaining the normal vaginal environment. Staphylococcus aureus which is responsible for TSS is also part of the normal vaginal microflora and only very rarely does it cause TSS. Men, children and postmenopausal women can get TSS from focal infections of S. aureus ,including contamination of other dressings used in oral or nasal surgeries, as a nosocomial infection or self-contamination of a wound.
56) While incidence of gonorrhea and syphilis are at an all time low in the United States there are still over 300,000 cases of gonorrhea and 6,000 cases of syphilis annually. Explain at least one potential reason for the high incidence of gonorrhea as compared with syphilis. Describe treatment methods for both gonorrhea and syphilis. Why do you think doctors prescribe treatment for Chlamydia when a patient has gonorrhea? Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 20.3 Name and describe the common bacterial and viral sexually transmitted diseases. Section Reference 1: Section 20.3 Sexually Transmitted Diseases Solution: Reasons for the higher incidence of gonorrhea include: (i) gonorrhea has rapidly become antibiotic resistant, (ii) gonorrhea has a higher proportion of asymptomatic carriers who don’t seek treatment (as they are often unaware they have the bacteria), (iii) gonorrhea is much more hardy, surviving in laundry and towels and (iv) syphilis treatment, if done early, is curative and all patients with syphilis have symptoms (will eventually seek treatment). Treatment for syphilis is usually penicillin G. Treatment for gonorrhea is not penicillin nor ciprofloxacin (quinolone) as most strains are resistant but usually ceftriaxone (a cephalosporin) or azithromicin or spectinomicin often with another antibiotic to reduce the likelihood of resistance emerging. Gonorrhea patients are usually concurrently treated for Chlamydia as they often have other STDS, most commonly Chlamydia (45%).
57) In the Tuskegee Syphilis Study (1932-1972), 399 poor and mostly illiterate AfricanAmerican sharecroppers were denied treatment for syphilis and not even told they had syphilis. What is the treatment for syphilis? Why was it unethical for the Tuskegee scientists to withhold treatment? Do you think researchers of HIV in developing countries should be required to give anti-retroviral treatment to their test subjects? Do
you think HIV studies in developing countries that don’t provide antiretroviral treatment to all their test subjects is comparable to the Tuskegee Syphilis study? Answer: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 20.3 Name and describe the common bacterial and viral sexually transmitted diseases. Section Reference 1: Section 20.3 Sexually Transmitted Diseases Solution: The treatment for syphilis is Penicillin. It was unethical for the Tuskegee scientists to withhold treatment as it meant that their test subjects had unnecessary morbidity and mortality. By withholding available lifesaving treatment, the scientist in charge of the Tuskegee was behaving unethically and experimenting upon human beings. While it is a personal opinion whether HIV researchers should be required to offer antiretroviral treatment to their test subjects, it is certainly comparable to Tuskegee in that researchers withholding treatment that is known to be curative allows for them to indirectly (or directly) harm their test subjects. One interpretation of the situation is that in developing countries where no one has access to antiretroviral treatment then research test subjects aren’t really being denied access to treatment- as they wouldn’t be receiving it if they weren’t in the study. However with increased access to antiretroviral treatment in developing countries it is increasingly difficult to deny that it is unethical to restrict test subjects access to the treatment.
Chapter 22: Diseases of the Respiratory System
Question Type: Multiple Choice
1) The upper respiratory tract consists of the: a) pharynx b) nasal cavity c) primary bronchi d) two of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 21.1 Review the anatomy of the upper and lower respiratory tract as it pertains to microbial defenses. Section Reference 1: Section 21.1 Components of the Respiratory System
2) Middle ear infections are common in children because
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a) they do not secrete cerumen b) their tympanic membranes are thinner than in adults c) their Eustachian tubes are shorter and wider d) two of these choices Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 21.1 Review the anatomy of the upper and lower respiratory tract as it pertains to microbial defenses. Section Reference 1: Section 21.1 Components of the Respiratory System
3) If pathogens evade the non-defenses of the upper respiratory tract and enter the alveoli, can protect the body from infection. a) histiocytes b) macrophages c) NK cells d) Goblet cells Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 21.1 Review the anatomy of the upper and lower respiratory tract as it pertains to microbial defenses. Section Reference 1: Section 21.1 Components of the Respiratory System
4) Which of the following can evade the killing power of macrophages and replicate in them? a) Mycobacterium b) Streptococcus c) Coccidioides immitis d) two of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 21.1 Review the anatomy of the upper and lower respiratory tract as it pertains to microbial defenses. Section Reference 1: Section 21.1 Components of the Respiratory System
5) Which of the following statements about normal microflora of the respiratory system is incorrect? a) The presence of Haemophilus in the pharynx does not indicate disease. b) About 1/3 of the population carries Staphylococcus aureus in their nasal cavity. c) Coccidioides immitis is a harmless part of the microflora. d) Nasal carriers of Staphylococcus aureus can easily spread it to other individuals. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 21.1 Review the anatomy of the upper and lower respiratory tract as it pertains to microbial defenses. Section Reference 1: Section 21.1 Components of the Respiratory System
6) Pharyngitis is described as a a) sore throat b) strep throat c) viral infection d) fungal infection Answer: a
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Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2 Describe common bacterial and viral upper respiratory tract disorders and the microbes that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 21.2 Diseases of the Upper Respiratory Tract
7) Pharyngitis is most often caused by: a) a virus b) Streptococcus pyogenes Group A c) Staphylococcus aureus d) Corynebacterium Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2 Describe common bacterial and viral upper respiratory tract disorders and the microbes that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 21.2 Diseases of the Upper Respiratory Tract
8) Which of the following statements about streptococcal pharyngitis is incorrect? a) Dogs and other family pets can be carriers of Streptococcus pyogenes. b) Diagnosis takes at least 24 hours for the culture results to be reported. c) Clinically the throat is inflamed and the adenoids and lymph nodes in the neck swell. d) If treatment is delayed, rheumatic fever may develop. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2 Describe common bacterial and viral upper respiratory tract disorders and the microbes that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 21.2 Diseases of the Upper Respiratory Tract
9) Acute epiglottitis is invariably caused by: a) a virus b) Streptococcus pyogenes c) Corynebacterium pseudoinfluenzae d) Haemophilus influenzae type B Answer: d
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2 Describe common bacterial and viral upper respiratory tract disorders and the microbes that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 21.2 Diseases of the Upper Respiratory Tract
10) Sinusitis can be caused by: a) Staphylococcus aureus b) Streptococcus pneumoniae c) Haemophilus influenzae d) all of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2 Describe common bacterial and viral upper respiratory tract disorders and the microbes that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 21.2 Diseases of the Upper Respiratory Tract
11) Which of the following conditions is most likely to lead to pneumonia? a) Sinusitis b) Bronchitis c) Pharyngitis d) Epiglottitis Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2 Describe common bacterial and viral upper respiratory tract disorders and the microbes that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 21.2 Diseases of the Upper Respiratory Tract
12) Which of the following statements about diphtheria is incorrect? a) A prophage carries the exotoxin producing gene. b) An epidemic of diphtheria killed numerous people in the former Soviet Union. c) The bacteria are Gram-negative rods. d) The bacteria are in a palisade arrangement and have metachromatic granules. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2 Describe common bacterial and viral upper respiratory tract disorders and the microbes that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 21.2 Diseases of the Upper Respiratory Tract
13) Which is characterized by a pseudomembrane forming in the throat? a) Diphtheria b) Pertussis c) Pharyngitis d) Laryngitis Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2 Describe common bacterial and viral upper respiratory tract disorders and the microbes that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 21.2 Diseases of the Upper Respiratory Tract
14) Which of the following are used in the treatment or prevention of diphtheria? a) Antibiotics b) Vaccination c) Antitoxin d) All of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2 Describe common bacterial and viral upper respiratory tract disorders and the microbes that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 21.2 Diseases of the Upper Respiratory Tract
15) Otitis externa is caused most often by a) Streptococcus pyogenes b) Staphylococcus aureus c) Haemophilus influenzae d) two of these choices Answer: b Difficulty: Easy
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Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2 Describe common bacterial and viral upper respiratory tract disorders and the microbes that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 21.2 Diseases of the Upper Respiratory Tract
16) Which of the following statements related to Rhinoviruses is incorrect? a) Rhinoviruses grow best at 33 – 34oC. b) Antibiotics are not useful in treating the common cold. c) There are at least 113 different Rhinoviruses. d) Rhinoviruses are very resistant to acid. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2 Describe common bacterial and viral upper respiratory tract disorders and the microbes that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 21.2 Diseases of the Upper Respiratory Tract
17) The etiology of the common cold is
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a) Parainfluenza virus b) Rhinoviruses c) Adenoviruses d) all of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2 Describe common bacterial and viral upper respiratory tract disorders and the microbes that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 21.2 Diseases of the Upper Respiratory Tract
18) The mucociliary escalator: a) leads to aspirations of secretions that can cause pneumonia b) allows materials in the bronchi to be lifted to the pharynx c) is a ring of lymphoid tissue that surround the pharynx d) two of these choices Answer: b Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective 1: LO 21.1 Review the anatomy of the upper and lower respiratory tract as it pertains to microbial defenses. Section Reference 1: Section 21.1 Components of the Respiratory System
19) Which of the following statements about pneumonia is incorrect? a) Helminths can cause pneumonia. b) Walking pneumonia is caused by Legionella pneumophilia. c) Chemicals and radiation can cause pneumonia. d) Walking pneumonia cannot be prevented by vaccination. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 21.3 Describe common bacterial, viral, fungal, and parasitic lower respiratory tract disorders and the microbes that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 21.3 Diseases of the Lower Respiratory Tract
20) Otitis media is caused most often by: a) Streptococcus pneumoniae b) Staphylococcus aureus c) Haemophilus influenzae d) two of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2 Describe common bacterial and viral upper respiratory tract disorders and the microbes that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 21.2 Diseases of the Upper Respiratory Tract
21) The etiology of whooping cough is a) Rhinovirus b) Bordetella pertussis c) Corynebacterium d) Haemophilus Answer: b Difficulty: Medium
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Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2 Describe common bacterial and viral upper respiratory tract disorders and the microbes that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 21.2 Diseases of the Upper Respiratory Tract
22) The paroxysmal stage of whooping cough is characterized by
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a) mild, dry, persistent cough b) a migraine headache c) violent coughing d) pseudomembrane forming in throat Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2 Describe common bacterial and viral upper respiratory tract disorders and the microbes that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 21.2 Diseases of the Upper Respiratory Tract
23) Cyanosis, which may occur during whooping cough, is: a) a fainting spell b) a vomiting incident c) a bluing of the skin d) formation of a red rash Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2 Describe common bacterial and viral upper respiratory tract disorders and the microbes that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 21.2 Diseases of the Upper Respiratory Tract
24) The presence of Bordetella pertussis is confirmed by a) beta colonies on a blood agar plate b) sensitivity to penicillin c) a reddish pigmented colony d) a fluorescent antibody stain Answer: d Difficulty: Hard
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Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2 Describe common bacterial and viral upper respiratory tract disorders and the microbes that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 21.2 Diseases of the Upper Respiratory Tract
25) Whooping cough treatment includes: a) administration of antitoxin b) erythromycin c) supportive treatment for symptoms d) all of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2 Describe common bacterial and viral upper respiratory tract disorders and the microbes that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 21.2 Diseases of the Upper Respiratory Tract
26) Which of the following statements about prevention of whooping cough is false? a) DTP contains the acellular Pertussis vaccine (Recombinant DNA vaccine). b) The whole cell vaccine caused a number of children to die or have brain damage. c) The acellular vaccine is safer. d) Babies are immunized early because they have no passive immunity from their moms. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2 Describe common bacterial and viral upper respiratory tract disorders and the microbes that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 21.2 Diseases of the Upper Respiratory Tract
27) Pneumonia can be caused by a) bacteria b) viruses c) fungi d) all of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Easy
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Learning Objective 1: LO 21.3 Describe common bacterial, viral, fungal, and parasitic lower respiratory tract disorders and the microbes that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 21.3 Diseases of the Lower Respiratory Tract
28) The major etiology of lobar pneumonia is: a) Staphylococcus aureus b) Streptococcus pneumoniae c) Klebsiella pneumoniae d) two of these choices Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 21.3 Describe common bacterial, viral, fungal, and parasitic lower respiratory tract disorders and the microbes that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 21.3 Diseases of the Lower Respiratory Tract
29) Bronchial pneumonia differs from lobar pneumonia in that
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a) it only affects old people b) it starts as a secondary infection c) it lacks the fibrin deposits d) two of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 21.3 Describe common bacterial, viral, fungal, and parasitic lower respiratory tract disorders and the microbes that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 21.3 Diseases of the Lower Respiratory Tract
30) Prevention of pneumococcal pneumonia is difficult because: a) the vaccine only protects against 23 strains b) the vaccine covers all the strains, but boosters must be administered c) there is no vaccine d) the vaccine is only given to adults Answer: a Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective 1: LO 21.3 Describe common bacterial, viral, fungal, and parasitic lower respiratory tract disorders and the microbes that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 21.3 Diseases of the Lower Respiratory Tract
31) Primary atypical pneumonia is caused by: a) Streptococcus pneumoniae b) Mycobacterium pneumoniae c) Mycoplasma pneumoniae d) Klebsiella pneumoniae Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 21.3 Describe common bacterial, viral, fungal, and parasitic lower respiratory tract disorders and the microbes that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 21.3 Diseases of the Lower Respiratory Tract
32) Treatment for Mycoplasma pneumonia includes
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a) azithromycin b) fluroquinolone c) penicillin d) two of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 21.3 Describe common bacterial, viral, fungal, and parasitic lower respiratory tract disorders and the microbes that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 21.3 Diseases of the Lower Respiratory Tract
33) Pontiac fever is a mild form of a) tuberculosis b) pneumonia c) legionellosis d) diphtheria Answer: c Difficulty: Medium
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Learning Objective 1: LO 21.3 Describe common bacterial, viral, fungal, and parasitic lower respiratory tract disorders and the microbes that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 21.3 Diseases of the Lower Respiratory Tract
34) Legionellosis is controlled by: a) vaccine administration b) limited exposure to infected patients c) regular disinfection of aerosolized water sources d) prophylactic antibiotic treatment Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 21.3 Describe common bacterial, viral, fungal, and parasitic lower respiratory tract disorders and the microbes that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 21.3 Diseases of the Lower Respiratory Tract
35) Legionellosis is a form of pneumonia that differs from classical pneumonia in that: a) patients have an abnormal chest X-ray b) there is major organ (liver, kidney) involvement c) the causative agent is a virus d) patients have fever with chills Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 21.3 Describe common bacterial, viral, fungal, and parasitic lower respiratory tract disorders and the microbes that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 21.3 Diseases of the Lower Respiratory Tract
36) Consumption is another name for a) over-eating b) diphtheria c) tuberculosis d) pneumonia Answer: c Difficulty: Easy
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Learning Objective 1: LO 21.3 Describe common bacterial, viral, fungal, and parasitic lower respiratory tract disorders and the microbes that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 21.3 Diseases of the Lower Respiratory Tract
37) The following statements about tuberculosis are all true except: a) Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare causes TB in AIDS patients b) the pathogens have long generation time (12-18 hours) c) Mycobacterium tuberculosis is the most common causative agent d) the pathogens are very sensitive to drying and die quickly in the environment Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 21.3 Describe common bacterial, viral, fungal, and parasitic lower respiratory tract disorders and the microbes that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 21.3 Diseases of the Lower Respiratory Tract
38) Tubercles: a) are white patches when seen on chest x-rays of TB patients b) undergo destruction giving a cheesy, caseous appearance c) contain live Mycobacterium d) all of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 21.3 Describe common bacterial, viral, fungal, and parasitic lower respiratory tract disorders and the microbes that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 21.3 Diseases of the Lower Respiratory Tract
39) Treatment of choice for TB is a) erythromycin and penicillin b) isoniazid and rifampin c) purified protein derivative d) cold fresh air Answer: b Difficulty: Medium
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Learning Objective 1: LO 21.3 Describe common bacterial, viral, fungal, and parasitic lower respiratory tract disorders and the microbes that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 21.3 Diseases of the Lower Respiratory Tract
40) Influenza exhibits antigenic drift which involves
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a) mutations in genes for hemagglutinin and neuraminidase b) gene reassortment due to multiple viral infections c) mutations in envelope phospholipids d) mutations in capsid proteins Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 21.3 Describe common bacterial, viral, fungal, and parasitic lower respiratory tract disorders and the microbes that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 21.3 Diseases of the Lower Respiratory Tract
41) Amphotericin B is used to treat serious systemic fungal infections for all of the following except a) Coccidioidomycosis b) Cryptococcosis c) Pneumocystis pneumoniae d) Aspergillosis Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 21.3 Describe common bacterial, viral, fungal, and parasitic lower respiratory tract disorders and the microbes that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 21.3 Diseases of the Lower Respiratory Tract
42) Parasitic lung fluke disease can be prevented by a) treatment with amphotericin B b) cooking shellfish before eating c) vaccination when in endemic parts of the world d) cooking meat products before eating Answer: b Difficulty: Medium
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Learning Objective 1: LO 21.3 Describe common bacterial, viral, fungal, and parasitic lower respiratory tract disorders and the microbes that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 21.3 Diseases of the Lower Respiratory Tract
43) Spelunkers are cave-exploring enthusiasts, to which fungal pathogen might they become exposed? a) Coccidioides immitis b) Cryptococcus neoformans c) Histoplasma capsulatum d) Aspergillus fumigatus Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 21.3 Describe common bacterial, viral, fungal, and parasitic lower respiratory tract disorders and the microbes that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 21.3 Diseases of the Lower Respiratory Tract
44) Which bacterial species is responsible for Q fever? a) Coxiella burnetii b) Streptococcus pyogenes c) Corynebacterium pseudoinfluenzae d) Haemophilus influenzae type B Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 21.3 Describe common bacterial, viral, fungal, and parasitic lower respiratory tract disorders and the microbes that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 21.3 Diseases of the Lower Respiratory Tract
45) Ornithosis: a) is transmitted to humans from birds b) survives for long periods outside of cells c) can be transmitted aerially as well as by ticks d) is especially common in cattle- and sheep-raising areas Answer: a Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective 1: LO 21.3 Describe common bacterial, viral, fungal, and parasitic lower respiratory tract disorders and the microbes that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 21.3 Diseases of the Lower Respiratory Tract
46) Hantaviruses: a) is transmitted in urine of infected mice b) causes foamy sputum and rupture of alveolar septa c) causes granulomatous lesions in lungs and spleen d) two of these choices Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 21.3 Describe common bacterial, viral, fungal, and parasitic lower respiratory tract disorders and the microbes that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 21.3 Diseases of the Lower Respiratory Tract
47) Coccidioides immitis a) causes San Joaquin Valley Fever b) is part of the normal microflora c) causes influenza-like illness but can disseminate to meninges and bones d) two of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 21.3 Describe common bacterial, viral, fungal, and parasitic lower respiratory tract disorders and the microbes that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 21.3 Diseases of the Lower Respiratory Tract
48) Which fungal infection leads to an allergic asthmatic response? a) Aspergillosis b) Blastomycosis c) Cryptococcosis d) Histoplasmosis Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 21.3 Describe common bacterial, viral, fungal, and parasitic lower respiratory tract disorders and the microbes that cause them.
Section Reference 1: Section 21.3 Diseases of the Lower Respiratory Tract
49) Respiratory syncytial virus: a) is most common cause of lower respiratory tract infections in infants under 1 yr of age b) is a pneumonia-like disease transmitted to humans by birds c) usually a skin disease but sometimes disseminated to the lungs d) two of these choices Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 21.3 Describe common bacterial, viral, fungal, and parasitic lower respiratory tract disorders and the microbes that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 21.3 Diseases of the Lower Respiratory Tract
50) Lung fluke infection is associated with
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a) Paragonimus westermani b) larvae maturing in bronchioles c) chronic cough, bloody sputum and difficulty breathing d) all of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 21.3 Describe common bacterial, viral, fungal, and parasitic lower respiratory tract disorders and the microbes that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 21.3 Diseases of the Lower Respiratory Tract
51) Pleurisy is: a) an inflammation of the pleural membranes that cause painful breathing b) characterized by fever, sneezing, vomiting and a mild dry persistent cough c) another name for the common cold d) an opportunistic fungal infections Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 21.3 Describe common bacterial, viral, fungal, and parasitic lower respiratory tract disorders and the microbes that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 21.3 Diseases of the Lower Respiratory Tract
52) Which statement about the normal microflora of the respiratory system is incorrect? a) Below the larynx the microflora is resident while above it the microflora is transient. b) Healthy lungs are usually sterile. c) The pharynx has the same microflora as the mouth. d) The upper respiratory tract has a normal microflora similar to that of skin. Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 21.3 Describe common bacterial, viral, fungal, and parasitic lower respiratory tract disorders and the microbes that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 21.3 Diseases of the Lower Respiratory Tract
53) Where does laryngitis occur?
a) D b) C c) B d) A Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2 Describe common bacterial and viral upper respiratory tract disorders and the microbes that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 21.2 Diseases of the Upper Respiratory Tract
54) Select the organism responsible for this respiratory tract disorder.
a) Streptococcus b) Haemophilus c)Bordetella d) Neisseria Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2 Describe common bacterial and viral upper respiratory tract disorders and the microbes that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 21.2 Diseases of the Upper Respiratory Tract
55) How is this respiratory tract disorder diagnosed?
a) Urine culture b) Negative strep test c) Positive throat culture or agglutination test d) Blood culture Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2 Describe common bacterial and viral upper respiratory tract disorders and the microbes that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 21.2 Diseases of the Upper Respiratory Tract
Question Type: Essay
56) Tuberculosis is one of the most prevalent and dangerous disease in the world and its incidence is on the increase. Why is Mycobacterium tuberculosis such a widespread respiratory pathogen? Describe factors that contribute to the increase in its incidence. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 21.3 Describe common bacterial, viral, fungal, and parasitic lower respiratory tract disorders and the microbes that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 21.3 Diseases of the Lower Respiratory Tract
Solution: Mycobacterium tuberculosis is such a widespread respiratory pathogen for many reasons including organisms are hardy in the environment (highly resistant to drying) and last for decades in the host. The factors that contribute to the increase in its incidence include the emergence of drug-resistance and the AIDS epidemic. Drug resistance occurs rapidly with tuberculosis (which is why multiple drugs are necessary to treat it). The pathology of tuberculosis is influenced by the cellular immune response so people with HIV are more susceptible to it.
57) A friend calls and says he thinks he has the flu, because he has a runny, stuffy nose and has been sneezing quite a bit. You tell him it sounds like a cold, not the flu. Compare and contrast four of the symptoms of the common cold and influenza for him. Answer: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2 Describe common bacterial and viral upper respiratory tract disorders and the microbes that cause them.; LO 21.3 Describe common bacterial, viral, fungal, and parasitic lower respiratory tract disorders and the microbes that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 21.2 Diseases of the Upper Respiratory Tract; Section 21.3 Diseases of the Lower Respiratory Tract Solution: Influenza has a characteristic high, sudden onset fever that lasts 3 to 4 days; with prominent headaches; quite severe general aches and pains; extreme fatigue and weakness; early and prominent exhaustion. Chest discomfort and coughing can become severe; and complications can include bronchitis and life threatening pneumonia. The common cold has occasional headache, slight aches, mild fatigue, runny snuffy nose, sore throat, mild to moderate chest discomfort and cough; and complications include sinus and ear infections.
58) How was the great flu pandemic of 1918 different from other influenza epidemics? What is the difference between antigenic drift and antigenic shift? What virus do you believe the next deadly pandemic flu strain will come from? Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 21.3 Describe common bacterial, viral, fungal, and parasitic lower respiratory tract disorders and the microbes that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 21.3 Diseases of the Lower Respiratory Tract Solution: The great flu pandemic of 1918 was the most deadly flu pandemic and took its heaviest toll on young healthy individuals (not children and the elderly who are the normal victims of influenza epidemics). It was due to a mutated swine flu virus. Antigenic drift is the process of random accumulation of mutations in viral genes recognized by the immune system. Antigenic shift is the process whereby two different
strains of influenza combine to form a new subtype having a mixture of the surface antigens of the two original strains (reassortment). The next pandemic flu strain could come from strains that infect other animals, such as avian influenza, or a mutated version of the current circulating strains due to antigenic drift, or a reassorted strain due to antigenic shift or one of the previous strains for which the population has lost immunity (such as the 1918 swine flu virus).
Chapter 23: Oral and Gastrointestinal Diseases
Question Type: Multiple Choice
1) Feces are composed about 50% by weight and volume of bacteria. Most of these are species of . a) Salmonella b) Escherichia c) Bacteroides d) Streptococcus Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 22.1 Review the anatomy of the digestive tract as it pertains to microbial defenses. Section Reference 1: Section 22.1 Components of the Digestive system
2) Streptococcus form tooth surface.
, polysaccharides that enable bacteria to adhere to the
a) glucose b) fructose c) maltose d) dextrans Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 22.2 Identify the microbes most likely to cause dental decay and periodontal disease and explain how the tissue damage occurs in such diseases. Section Reference 1: Section 22.2 Diseases of the Oral Cavity
3) Dental caries are most effectively controlled by: a) fluoride treatment b) chloride treatment c) sealant application. d) two of these choices Answer: d
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 22.2 Identify the microbes most likely to cause dental decay and periodontal disease and explain how the tissue damage occurs in such diseases. Section Reference 1: Section 22.2 Diseases of the Oral Cavity
4) Which pair is matched incorrectly? a) acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis—trench mouth b) periodontitis—bone and tissue damage c) gingivitis—due to plaque deposits d) calculus—due to gum lesions Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 22.2 Identify the microbes most likely to cause dental decay and periodontal disease and explain how the tissue damage occurs in such diseases. Section Reference 1: Section 22.2 Diseases of the Oral Cavity
5) All of the statements about Mumps are true except: a) Domestic pets can be carriers of the virus. b) Caused by a paramyxovirus. c) Incidence of disease is significantly less since the vaccine was licensed. d) Parotid glands swell 14 to 21 days after exposure. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.4 Relate the details of diseases of the stomach and intestines that are caused by viruses, protozoa, fungi, and worms. Section Reference 1: Section 22.4 Gastrointestinal Diseases Caused by Other Pathogens
6) Which of the following correctly matches the oral cavity disease with the organism responsible? a) gingivitis -- Porphyromonas b) periodontal disease -- Helicobacter pylori c) orchitis -- paramyxovirus d) dental caries -- Streptococcus mutans Answer: d
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 22.2 Identify the microbes most likely to cause dental decay and periodontal disease and explain how the tissue damage occurs in such diseases. Section Reference 1: Section 22.2 Diseases of the Oral Cavity
7) Which of the following intoxications is incorrectly matched with the causative microbe? a) Clostridium botulinum -- endotoxin which is heat labile b) Staphylococcus aureus -- enterotoxin which is heat stable c) Pseudomonas cocovenenans -- bongkrek disease d) Bacillus cereus -- toxin is an emetic Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 22.3 Name common bacterial pathogens of the stomach and intestines and describe the disease they may cause. Section Reference 1: Section 22.3 Gastrointestinal Diseases Caused by Bacteria
8) Taxonomically, Salmonella has been broken down into 2000 different depending on the antigens on their surface.
,
a) species b) serovars c) subspecies d) genera Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.3 Name common bacterial pathogens of the stomach and intestines and describe the disease they may cause. Section Reference 1: Section 22.3 Gastrointestinal Diseases Caused by Bacteria
9) Staphylococcus food poisoning is caused by: a) enterotoxins b) exotoxins c) toxins that cause neural stimulation of the vomiting center of the brain d) all of these choices
Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 22.3 Name common bacterial pathogens of the stomach and intestines and describe the disease they may cause. Section Reference 1: Section 22.3 Gastrointestinal Diseases Caused by Bacteria
10) Salmonella , a common cause of food poisoning, is found in many animals including poultry. a) typhimurium b) enteritidis c) typhi d) typhus Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.3 Name common bacterial pathogens of the stomach and intestines and describe the disease they may cause. Section Reference 1: Section 22.3 Gastrointestinal Diseases Caused by Bacteria
11) Which microbe is responsible for a self-limiting disease whose symptoms include abdominal pain, fever (probably due to endotoxins), diarrhea with blood and mucus, within 8-48 hours of ingestion? a) Staphylococcus aureus b) Clostridium botulinum c) Salmonella enteritidis d) Pseudomonas cocovenenans Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 22.3 Name common bacterial pathogens of the stomach and intestines and describe the disease they may cause. Section Reference 1: Section 22.3 Gastrointestinal Diseases Caused by Bacteria
12) Which disease is not always treated with antibiotics because the drugs seem to induce carrier state in the gallbladder? a) Staphylococcus food poisoning b) Salmonellosis
c) Shigellosis d) Asiatic cholera Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 22.3 Name common bacterial pathogens of the stomach and intestines and describe the disease they may cause. Section Reference 1: Section 22.3 Gastrointestinal Diseases Caused by Bacteria
13) Which gastrointestinal bacterial disease causes systemic symptoms without diarrhea? a) Asiatic cholera b) Vibriosis c) Typhoid fever d) Staphylococcus food poisoning Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 22.3 Name common bacterial pathogens of the stomach and intestines and describe the disease they may cause. Section Reference 1: Section 22.3 Gastrointestinal Diseases Caused by Bacteria
14) Typhoid fever can be prevented by: a) good hygiene b) proper sewage disposal c) vaccination d) all of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.3 Name common bacterial pathogens of the stomach and intestines and describe the disease they may cause. Section Reference 1: Section 22.3 Gastrointestinal Diseases Caused by Bacteria
15) In areas of good sanitation, shigellosis is usually spread by a) poor handwashing b) contaminated water c) domestic animals
.
d) all of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 22.3 Name common bacterial pathogens of the stomach and intestines and describe the disease they may cause. Section Reference 1: Section 22.3 Gastrointestinal Diseases Caused by Bacteria
16) resists the acid in the stomach and attaches in the large intestines. It creates special filaments to infect other cells. Within 1-4 days the patient has diffuse diarrhea, with blood and mucus, which could lead to kwashiorkor and vitamin B12 deficiencies. a) Salmonella typhi b) Vibrio cholerae c) Shigella dysenteriae d) Staphylococcus aureus Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 22.3 Name common bacterial pathogens of the stomach and intestines and describe the disease they may cause. Section Reference 1: Section 22.3 Gastrointestinal Diseases Caused by Bacteria
17) Which of the following infections is due to protozoa? a) Giardiasis b) Fluke infections c) Ascariasis d) Trichinosis Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.4 Relate the details of diseases of the stomach and intestines that are caused by viruses, protozoa, fungi, and worms. Section Reference 1: Section 22.4 Gastrointestinal Diseases Caused by Other Pathogens
18) Which of the following infections is due to prokaryotic organisms? a) stomach ulcers b) hepatitis
c) duodenal ulcers d) two of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 22.3 Name common bacterial pathogens of the stomach and intestines and describe the disease they may cause. Section Reference 1: Section 22.3 Gastrointestinal Diseases Caused by Bacteria
19) Hookworms include: a) Necator americanus b) Ancylostoma duodenale c) Ascaris lumibricoide d) two of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 22.4 Relate the details of diseases of the stomach and intestines that are caused by viruses, protozoa, fungi, and worms. Section Reference 1: Section 22.4 Gastrointestinal Diseases Caused by Other Pathogens
20) Which helminth burrows through the skin, reach the lungs where they are coughed up and swallowed and then burrow into villi of the intestines and mature to adult worms? a) Ascariasis b) Trichinosis c) Hookworms d) Strongyloidiasis Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 22.4 Relate the details of diseases of the stomach and intestines that are caused by viruses, protozoa, fungi, and worms. Section Reference 1: Section 22.4 Gastrointestinal Diseases Caused by Other Pathogens
21) Which of the following parasitic infections results from ingestion of encysted larvae in poorly cooked pork, venison, and other game animals? a) Trichinosis
b) Hookworms c) Pinworm d) Trichinosis and Pinworm Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 22.4 Relate the details of diseases of the stomach and intestines that are caused by viruses, protozoa, fungi, and worms. Section Reference 1: Section 22.4 Gastrointestinal Diseases Caused by Other Pathogens 22) Rachael’s mother won’t let her children play outside their South Carolina home without shoes on to protect her children from: a) Ascaris b) Necator c) Trichinella d) Taenia saginata Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 22.4 Relate the details of diseases of the stomach and intestines that are caused by viruses, protozoa, fungi, and worms. Section Reference 1: Section 22.4 Gastrointestinal Diseases Caused by Other Pathogens
23) All of the following are diagnosed by proglottids in the feces of infected patients except: a) Diphyllobothrium latum b) Hymenolepis nana c) Balantidium coli d) Taenia solium Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 22.4 Relate the details of diseases of the stomach and intestines that are caused by viruses, protozoa, fungi, and worms. Section Reference 1: Section 22.4 Gastrointestinal Diseases Caused by Other Pathogens
24) Viral enteritis is caused by:
a) Rotavirus b) Norwalk virus c) Hepatitis viruses d) two of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.4 Relate the details of diseases of the stomach and intestines that are caused by viruses, protozoa, fungi, and worms. Section Reference 1: Section 22.4 Gastrointestinal Diseases Caused by Other Pathogens
25) Helicobacter pylori survives in the stomach due to: a) a thick capsular layer b) endospore formation c) a teichoic acid receptor d) the production of urease Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 22.3 Name common bacterial pathogens of the stomach and intestines and describe the disease they may cause. Section Reference 1: Section 22.3 Gastrointestinal Diseases Caused by Bacteria
26) Which bacteria can grow in the gall bladder and be asymptomatically shed from the feces? a) Giardia b) Escherichia c) Salmonella d) Staphylococcus Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 22.3 Name common bacterial pathogens of the stomach and intestines and describe the disease they may cause. Section Reference 1: Section 22.3 Gastrointestinal Diseases Caused by Bacteria
27) Which Escherichia coli strain can cause serious and fatal infections and is found in small numbers in healthy cattle’s intestines?
a) enteropathogenic b) pathogenic c) enterotoxigenic d) enterohemorrhagic O157:H7 Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 22.3 Name common bacterial pathogens of the stomach and intestines and describe the disease they may cause. Section Reference 1: Section 22.3 Gastrointestinal Diseases Caused by Bacteria
28) Escherichia coli O157:H7 is characterized by all of the following except: a) causes outbreaks of bloody diarrhea b) produces Shiga toxins 1 and 2 c) leads to kidney failure called hemorrhagic uremic syndrome (HUS) d) produces aflatoxin Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.3 Name common bacterial pathogens of the stomach and intestines and describe the disease they may cause. Section Reference 1: Section 22.3 Gastrointestinal Diseases Caused by Bacteria 29) Traveler’s diarrhea is caused by: a) Rotavirus b) Salmonella c) Entamoeba d) all of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.3 Name common bacterial pathogens of the stomach and intestines and describe the disease they may cause.; LO 22.4 Relate the details of diseases of the stomach and intestines that are caused by viruses, protozoa, fungi, and worms. Section Reference 1: Section 22.3 Gastrointestinal Diseases Caused by Bacteria; Section 22.4 Gastrointestinal Diseases Caused by Other Pathogens
30) Which of the following microbes causes an enteritis that is sometimes is misdiagnosed as appendicitis because the symptoms are very similar? a) Yersinia enterocolitica b) Salmonella enteritidis c) Yersinia pestis d) Campylobacter jejuni Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 22.3 Name common bacterial pathogens of the stomach and intestines and describe the disease they may cause. Section Reference 1: Section 22.3 Gastrointestinal Diseases Caused by Bacteria
31) Which of the following is not an RNA virus? a) Hepatitis A b) Hepatitis B c) Hepatitis C d) Hepatitis D Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 22.4 Relate the details of diseases of the stomach and intestines that are caused by viruses, protozoa, fungi, and worms. Section Reference 1: Section 22.4 Gastrointestinal Diseases Caused by Other Pathogens
32) Which of the following protozoal infections is self-limiting in healthy individuals and has no effective treatment? a) Balantidiasis b) Cyclosporoiasis c) Cryptosporidiosis d) Amoebic dysentery Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 22.4 Relate the details of diseases of the stomach and intestines that are caused by viruses, protozoa, fungi, and worms. Section Reference 1: Section 22.4 Gastrointestinal Diseases Caused by Other Pathogens
33) Echinococcus granulosus is characterized by all of the following except: a) it is a tapeworm b) children are infected when their faces are licked by infected dogs c) may form cysticercus in bladder d) may form hydatid cysts in vital tissues, like the brain Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 22.4 Relate the details of diseases of the stomach and intestines that are caused by viruses, protozoa, fungi, and worms. Section Reference 1: Section 22.4 Gastrointestinal Diseases Caused by Other Pathogens
34) Which of the following helminths is not diagnosed by finding eggs in the feces? a) Trichinosis b) Whipworm c) Ascariasis d) Hookworm Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 22.4 Relate the details of diseases of the stomach and intestines that are caused by viruses, protozoa, fungi, and worms. Section Reference 1: Section 22.4 Gastrointestinal Diseases Caused by Other Pathogens
35) Which microbe is incorrectly matched with the disease it causes? a) Shigella – typhoid fever b) Helicoacter pylori – peptic ulcer and chronic gastritis c) enteropathogenic Escherichia coli – traveler’s diarrhea d) Staphylococcus aureus – food poisoning due to enterotoxins A and D Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 22.3 Name common bacterial pathogens of the stomach and intestines and describe the disease they may cause. Section Reference 1: Section 22.3 Gastrointestinal Diseases Caused by Bacteria
36) Which bacteria commonly causes non-Salmonella enteritis from unpasteurized milk or undercooked poultry? a) Yersinia enterocolitica b) Salmonella enteritidis c) Yersinia pestis d) Campylobacter jejuni Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 22.3 Name common bacterial pathogens of the stomach and intestines and describe the disease they may cause. Section Reference 1: Section 22.3 Gastrointestinal Diseases Caused by Bacteria
37) Which pathogen is correctly matched with the symptoms it causes? a) Crytosoporidium – amoebic dysentery b) Entamoeba histolytica – copious and frothy diarrhea c) Cyclospora cayentanenisis – extreme fatigue, flu-like symptoms, watery diarrhea d) Giardia intestinalis – watery diarrhea seen in 400,000+ Milwaukee residents in 1993 Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 22.4 Relate the details of diseases of the stomach and intestines that are caused by viruses, protozoa, fungi, and worms. Section Reference 1: Section 22.4 Gastrointestinal Diseases Caused by Other Pathogens
38) Which is the only ciliated protozoan that causes a human disease similar to amoebic dysentery? a) Diphyllobothrium latum b) Hymenolepis nana c) Balantidium coli d) Taenia solium Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 22.4 Relate the details of diseases of the stomach and intestines that are caused by viruses, protozoa, fungi, and worms. Section Reference 1: Section 22.4 Gastrointestinal Diseases Caused by Other Pathogens
39) Which term refers to severe diarrhea that often contains large quantities of mucus and sometimes blood? a) Enteritis b) Hepatitis c) Dysentery d) Enterotoxicosis Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.3 Name common bacterial pathogens of the stomach and intestines and describe the disease they may cause. Section Reference 1: Section 22.3 Gastrointestinal Diseases Caused by Bacteria
40) All of the following refers to typhoid fever except: a) Widal test is used to confirm the diagnosis b) chloroamphenicol, cephalosporine and fluoroquinolones are used in the treatment c) requires a surrogate virus infection in order to cause disease d) internal hemorrhage and perforation of the bowel are serious complications Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 22.3 Name common bacterial pathogens of the stomach and intestines and describe the disease they may cause. Section Reference 1: Section 22.3 Gastrointestinal Diseases Caused by Bacteria
41) Which can be found in a peanut butter and jelly sandwich, if moldy peanuts were used to make the peanut butter? a) Aflatoxin b) Ergot c) Amanita d) two of these choices Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.4 Relate the details of diseases of the stomach and intestines that are caused by viruses, protozoa, fungi, and worms. Section Reference 1: Section 22.4 Gastrointestinal Diseases Caused by Other Pathogens
42) Which Hepatitis virus only causes severe disease when there is a coinfection with Hepatitis B? a) Hepatitis A b) Hepatitis D c) Hepatitis C d) Hepatitis G Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 22.4 Relate the details of diseases of the stomach and intestines that are caused by viruses, protozoa, fungi, and worms. Section Reference 1: Section 22.4 Gastrointestinal Diseases Caused by Other Pathogens
43) Which of the following hepatitis virus would be most likely to be transmitted due to contaminated water? a) Hepatitis A b) Hepatitis D c) Hepatitis C d) Hepatitis B Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 22.4 Relate the details of diseases of the stomach and intestines that are caused by viruses, protozoa, fungi, and worms. Section Reference 1: Section 22.4 Gastrointestinal Diseases Caused by Other Pathogens
44) Which hepatitis decrease in reported cases in the United States since 1990 is not due to the introduction of a vaccine? a) Hepatitis B b) Hepatitis A c) Hepatitis C d) Hepatitis A and B Answer: c Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective 1: LO 22.4 Relate the details of diseases of the stomach and intestines that are caused by viruses, protozoa, fungi, and worms. Section Reference 1: Section 22.4 Gastrointestinal Diseases Caused by Other Pathogens
45) Which of the following could be prevented by cooking fish and shellfish? a) Clonorchis sinensis b) Taenia saginata c) Fasciolopsis buski d) Trichinella spiralis Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 22.4 Relate the details of diseases of the stomach and intestines that are caused by viruses, protozoa, fungi, and worms. Section Reference 1: Section 22.4 Gastrointestinal Diseases Caused by Other Pathogens
46) All of the following refer to the cholera strain in Central and South America except: a) has a plasmid that codes for the K antigen b) caused by Vibrio cholerae strain El Tor c) causes a slow and insidious onset of disease d) is a contagious agent spread by polluted water Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 22.3 Name common bacterial pathogens of the stomach and intestines and describe the disease they may cause. Section Reference 1: Section 22.3 Gastrointestinal Diseases Caused by Bacteria
47) Consuming which of the following would not put you at risk for gastrointestinal diseases? a) fresh fruits and vegetables that were thoroughly washed b) improperly cooked pork chops or venison c) sushi d) chlorinated and filtered water Answer: d Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective 1: LO 22.3 Name common bacterial pathogens of the stomach and intestines and describe the disease they may cause. Section Reference 1: Section 22.3 Gastrointestinal Diseases Caused by Bacteria
48) Which of the following infections can be self-limiting and will cease without treatment? a) Strongyloides b) Pinworm c) Trichinosis d) Whipworm Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 22.4 Relate the details of diseases of the stomach and intestines that are caused by viruses, protozoa, fungi, and worms. Section Reference 1: Section 22.4 Gastrointestinal Diseases Caused by Other Pathogens
49) Which statement about host susceptibility is incorrect? a) Hepatitis E has an exceptionally high mortality rate in pregnant women. b) Only people who eat shellfish in the endemic regions ingest Fasciola hepatica. c) Breast fed babies are less susceptible to Rotavirus infections. d) Cryptosporidiosis causes disease only in immunocompromised individuals. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 22.4 Relate the details of diseases of the stomach and intestines that are caused by viruses, protozoa, fungi, and worms. Section Reference 1: Section 22.4 Gastrointestinal Diseases Caused by Other Pathogens
50) How does fluoride help reduce dental decay? a) absorbs the acid that seeps down between rods of enamel b) mineralization of fluoride fills in the spaces between enamel rods c) kills the bacteria that are responsible for dental decay d) two of these choices Answer: b Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective 1: LO 22.2 Identify the microbes most likely to cause dental decay and periodontal disease and explain how the tissue damage occurs in such diseases. Section Reference 1: Section 22.2 Diseases of the Oral Cavity
51) What is the relationship between plaque and tartar? a) neither plaque nor tartar contribute to tooth decay b) plaque is due to mineralization and tartar to microbes c) plaque is the first step and tartar the second step in the formation of dental caries d) plaque is a coating of microbe dextrans while tartar is the mineralization of plaque Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.2 Identify the microbes most likely to cause dental decay and periodontal disease and explain how the tissue damage occurs in such diseases. Section Reference 1: Section 22.2 Diseases of the Oral Cavity
52) This organism is the cause of
a) shigellosis b) staphylococcal food poisoning
.
c) dental caries d) typhoid fever Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.3 Name common bacterial pathogens of the stomach and intestines and describe the disease they may cause. Section Reference 1: Section 22.3 Gastrointestinal Diseases Caused by Bacteria
53) This organism is a/an:
a) fungus b) protozoan c) virus d) bacterium e) worm Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.3 Name common bacterial pathogens of the stomach and intestines and describe the disease they may cause. Section Reference 1: Section 22.3 Gastrointestinal Diseases Caused by Bacteria
54) This organism can survive in:
a) warm, acidic water if urine is present b) cool, acidic water if blood is present c) neutral water d) cool, alkaline water if organic matter is present Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.3 Name common bacterial pathogens of the stomach and intestines and describe the disease they may cause. Section Reference 1: Section 22.3 Gastrointestinal Diseases Caused by Bacteria
Question Type: Essay
55) Describe peptic ulcers and chronic gastritis. What infectious agent causes peptic ulcers and chronic gastritis? What is known about its mode of transmission?
Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 22.3 Name common bacterial pathogens of the stomach and intestines and describe the disease they may cause. Section Reference 1: Section 22.3 Gastrointestinal Diseases Caused by Bacteria Solution: Peptic/duodenal ulcers are lesions of the mucous membranes lining the esophagus, stomach or duodenum. The lesions are caused by the sloughing away of dead inflammatory tissue and exposure to acid. Chronic gastritis is stomach inflammation that can produce pain and indigestion due to the ongoing inflammatory response mounted by neutrophils to the presence of bacteria in the stomach lining. Helicobacter pylori is a bacteria whose presence leads to peptic ulcers and chronic gastritis. The mode of transmission is not known, although saliva transmission is suspected. No one is certain of the route or infection or the portal of exit and no animal reservoir has been found.
56) While the overall prevalence of hepatitis has decreased significantly in the last 20 years in the United States, hepatitis due to viruses is still a major public health problem because of the high infectivity of the viruses. What is the mode of transmission for hepatitis viruses? What are potential prevention and treatment methods? Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 22.4 Relate the details of diseases of the stomach and intestines that are caused by viruses, protozoa, fungi, and worms. Section Reference 1: Section 22.4 Gastrointestinal Diseases Caused by Other Pathogens Solution: Both hepatitis A and E are transmitted by the fecal-oral route. Hepatitis B, C and D are transmitted by contact with blood and other body fluids (injection drug abusers, sexual partners of virally infected or healthcare workers are at risk). Hepatitis B and D crosses the placenta with high frequency, while hepatitis C only occasionally crosses the placenta. There are vaccines for both Hepatitis A and B. All the others the only way to prevent is to protect against high risk activities (e.g., sharing needles, preventing needle sticks, precautions during surgeries and when assisting trauma victims).
57) Your 14-month old daughter is fussy when you bring her home from daycare. When you change her diaper you are shocked to find diarrhea with blood and mucus. Which pathogen might she have and why did you reach that diagnosis? Answer: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 22.3 Name common bacterial pathogens of the stomach and intestines and describe the disease they may cause.
Section Reference 1: Section 22.3 Gastrointestinal Diseases Caused by Bacteria Solution: The answers could include shigellosis, entero-hemorrhagic Escherichia coli, salmonellosis, or amoebic dysentery. The clue here is blood and mucus. The suspect pathogen would need to be one that invades the tissues and damages them enough to cause bleeding. In youngsters in day care, shigellosis is common, but one could make a case for any of the others.
Chapter 24: Cardiovascular, Lymphatic and Systemic Disease
Question Type: Multiple Choice
1) Which term refers to the presence of bacteria in the blood stream? a) bacteremia b) septic shock c) septicemia d) lymphangitis Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.1 Review the anatomy of the cardiovascular system as it pertains to microbial defenses. Section Reference 1: Section 23.1 The Cardiovascular System
2) Which of the following terms refers to red streaks beneath the skin of legs and arms? a) bacteremia b) septic shock c) septicemia d) lymphangitis Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.2 Describe common cardiovascular diseases and the bacterial and parasitic pathogens that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 23.2 Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Diseases
3) Which of the following terms refers to a bacteria-fibrin mass that forms on damaged valvular surfaces? a) vegetation b) lymphangitis c) ischemia d) petechiae Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.2 Describe common cardiovascular diseases and the bacterial and parasitic pathogens that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 23.2 Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Diseases
4) Which of the following terms refers to a pin-point hemorrhage most common in skin folds? a) septicemia b) lymphangitis c) ischemia d) petechiae Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3 Describe common systemic diseases and the bacterial, viral, and parasitic pathogens that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 23.3 Systemic Diseases
5) Normal microflora of the cardiovascular system include
.
a) Staphylococcus aureus b) parvovirus c) Escherichia coli d) none of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.1 Review the anatomy of the cardiovascular system as it pertains to microbial defenses. Section Reference 1: Section 23.1 The Cardiovascular System
6) What role do antibiotics play in septic shock? a) reduce the fever and lymphangitis symptoms b) kills gram positive bacteria but are ineffective with gram negative bacteria c) worsen the situation by releasing large quantities of endotoxin d) none of these choices Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3 Describe common systemic diseases and the bacterial, viral, and parasitic pathogens that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 23.3 Systemic Diseases
7) Puerperal fever is caused by: a) Streptococcus pyogenes b) Staphylococcus aureus c) Pseudomonas aeruginosa d) Streptococcus agalactiae Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.2 Describe common cardiovascular diseases and the bacterial and parasitic pathogens that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 23.2 Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Diseases
8) Which infection refers to inflammation of the lining and valves of the heart? a) septicemia b) rheumatic fever c) endocardiatis d) puerperal fever Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.2 Describe common cardiovascular diseases and the bacterial and parasitic pathogens that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 23.2 Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Diseases
9) All of the following occur in shistosomiasis except: a) allergic reactions to eggs and cirrhosis of liver from eggs b) flukes lodge in heart and brain causing disease c) cercariae penetrate skin when humans wade in snail-infested waters d) dermatitis from cercarcia Answer: b Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective 1: LO 23.2 Describe common cardiovascular diseases and the bacterial and parasitic pathogens that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 23.2 Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Diseases
10) Inflammation and blockage of lymph ducts leading to elephantiasis is due to which organism? a) Schistosoma haematobium b) Streptococus pyogenes c) Wuchereria bancrofti d) Staphylococcus aureus Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.2 Describe common cardiovascular diseases and the bacterial and parasitic pathogens that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 23.2 Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Diseases
11) Parvovirus infections are severe in: a) cats b) children c) dogs d) two of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3 Describe common systemic diseases and the bacterial, viral, and parasitic pathogens that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 23.3 Systemic Diseases
12) Aplastic crisis caused by an Erythrovirus is characterized by the destruction of: a) platelets b) RBCs c) plasma d) WBCs Answer: b Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3 Describe common systemic diseases and the bacterial, viral, and parasitic pathogens that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 23.3 Systemic Diseases
13) Arenavirus fevers include: a) Colorado fever b) Fifth disease c) Toxoplasmosis d) Lassa fever Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3 Describe common systemic diseases and the bacterial, viral, and parasitic pathogens that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 23.3 Systemic Diseases
14) Which of the following statement does not refer to leishmaniasis? a) Transmitted by sandflies. b) Has an affinity for the pericardium and myocardium. c) Is limited to tropical and subtropical countries where the vector is available. d) Symptoms include high irregular fever, progressive wasting and protrusion of abdomen. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3 Describe common systemic diseases and the bacterial, viral, and parasitic pathogens that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 23.3 Systemic Diseases
15) Chronic fatigue syndrome: a) is due to Burkitt’s Lymphoma b) is transmitted by organ transplantation c) may be associated with EBV, HHV6 or other viral illnesses d) is a fictitious disease made up by psychiatry patients Answer: b Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3 Describe common systemic diseases and the bacterial, viral, and parasitic pathogens that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 23.3 Systemic Diseases
16) Epstein Barr Virus is associated with: a) Burkitt’s lymphoma b) cervical cancer c) nasopharyngeal carcinoma d) two of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3 Describe common systemic diseases and the bacterial, viral, and parasitic pathogens that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 23.3 Systemic Diseases
17) Infectious mononucleosis is characterized by all of the following except: a) caused by Epstein Barr virus b) an acute disease that affects many systems c) most patients have a sore throat d) a vaccine is available Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3 Describe common systemic diseases and the bacterial, viral, and parasitic pathogens that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 23.3 Systemic Diseases
18) Yellow fever is characterized by all of the following except: a) carrier is the sand fly b) reservoir in monkey populations c) vaccine is available d) limited to tropical areas of Central & South America and Africa Answer: a Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3 Describe common systemic diseases and the bacterial, viral, and parasitic pathogens that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 23.3 Systemic Diseases
19) Dengue fever is transmitted via: a) mosquitoes b) sand flies c) mites d) ticks Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3 Describe common systemic diseases and the bacterial, viral, and parasitic pathogens that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 23.3 Systemic Diseases
20) Which fever causes a severe bone and joint pain along with other symptoms (headache, nausea, weakness, rash), its main vector is Aedes aegypti and vaccines are only available for two strains? a) Yellow fever b) Colorado Tick fever c) Dengue fever d) Ehrlichiosis Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3 Describe common systemic diseases and the bacterial, viral, and parasitic pathogens that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 23.3 Systemic Diseases
21) Bartonellosis is seen mainly in: a) western slopes of the Andes b) Amazon jungle areas c) sub-Saharan Africa d) Central America Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3 Describe common systemic diseases and the bacterial, viral, and parasitic pathogens that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 23.3 Systemic Diseases
22) The Rickettsial disease that is found in Japan and Southwest Asia is: a) Trench fever b) Bartonellosis c) endemic typhus d) scrub typhus Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3 Describe common systemic diseases and the bacterial, viral, and parasitic pathogens that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 23.3 Systemic Diseases
23) The flea is the arthropod vector for: a) Epidemic typhus b) Endemic typhus c) Trench fever d) Scrub typhus Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3 Describe common systemic diseases and the bacterial, viral, and parasitic pathogens that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 23.3 Systemic Diseases
24) The body louse is the arthropod vector for: a) Endemic typhus b) Epidemic typhus c) Trench fever d) two of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3 Describe common systemic diseases and the bacterial, viral, and parasitic pathogens that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 23.3 Systemic Diseases
25) The mite is the vector for: a) Rickettsialpox b) Ehrlichiosis c) Trench fever d) Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3 Describe common systemic diseases and the bacterial, viral, and parasitic pathogens that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 23.3 Systemic Diseases
26) Which of the following diseases was first seen in New York City about 60 years ago, associated with the mites of house mice and often misdiagnosed as chickenpox? a) Ehrlichiosis b) Turkeypox c) Rickettsialpox d) Shingles Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3 Describe common systemic diseases and the bacterial, viral, and parasitic pathogens that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 23.3 Systemic Diseases
27) Which infection is seen in individuals with extreme stress, poor sanitation, and nutritional deficiencies, transmitted by body lice and had an impact on both World War I and II? a) Rickettsialpox b) Dengue fever c) Smallpox d) Shinbone fever Answer: d
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3 Describe common systemic diseases and the bacterial, viral, and parasitic pathogens that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 23.3 Systemic Diseases
28)
disease is actually the reoccurrence of a rickettsial infection.
a) Zoster b) Brill-Zinsser c) Tsutsugamushi d) Burkitt’s lymphoma Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3 Describe common systemic diseases and the bacterial, viral, and parasitic pathogens that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 23.3 Systemic Diseases
29) Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever is characterized by all of the following except: a) vector is the dog tick, Dermacentor variabilis b) etiology is Rickettsia rickettsii c) most cases reported are in the northwest U.S. d) prominent rash on palms and soles Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3 Describe common systemic diseases and the bacterial, viral, and parasitic pathogens that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 23.3 Systemic Diseases
30) Epidemic typhus is characterized by all of the following except: a) etiology is Rickettsia prowazekii b) in WWI, killed 3 million Russians c) there is no immunity after recovery d) rash from trunk to extremities, but rarely on palms and soles Answer: c
Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3 Describe common systemic diseases and the bacterial, viral, and parasitic pathogens that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 23.3 Systemic Diseases
31) Erhlichiosis is characterized by all of the following except: a) symptoms include fever, headache, hepatitis, and muscle pain b) reduction in white blood cells c) a rash similar to Rocky Mountain Spotted fever d) ehrlichial intracytoplasmic inclusions in WBCs suggest presence of Ehrlichia Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3 Describe common systemic diseases and the bacterial, viral, and parasitic pathogens that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 23.3 Systemic Diseases
32) Which of the following diseases was a problem during the Vietnam War as soldiers crawled on their bellies in low vegetation to avoid snipers? a) Scrub typhus b) Murine typhus c) Epidemic typhus d) Leishmaniasis Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3 Describe common systemic diseases and the bacterial, viral, and parasitic pathogens that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 23.3 Systemic Diseases
33) Rickettsia are characterized by all of the following except: a) Gram-negative coccobacilli b) obligate intracellular parasites c) embryonated eggs are often used for cultivation d) treatment with amoxicillin is usually effective Answer: d
Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3 Describe common systemic diseases and the bacterial, viral, and parasitic pathogens that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 23.3 Systemic Diseases
34) Lyme disease is characterized by all of the following except: a) etiology is Borrelia burgdorferi b) bull’s eye rash c) genetic predisposition with HLA-DR4 or RLA-DR2 d) debilitating hepatitis is a common complication Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3 Describe common systemic diseases and the bacterial, viral, and parasitic pathogens that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 23.3 Systemic Diseases
35) Spirochetes are responsible for: a) Lyme disease b) Syphilis c) Relapsing fever d) all of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3 Describe common systemic diseases and the bacterial, viral, and parasitic pathogens that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 23.3 Systemic Diseases
36) Relapsing fever is characterized by all of the following except: a) etiology is Borellia b) vaccine is available c) vectors are lice or ticks d) infection was initiated to treat syphilis before antibiotics Answer: d Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3 Describe common systemic diseases and the bacterial, viral, and parasitic pathogens that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 23.3 Systemic Diseases
37) Brucellosis can be controlled by all of the following except: a) protective clothing for workers with occupational exposure b) human vaccine c) pasteurization of diary products d) immunizing animal herds Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3 Describe common systemic diseases and the bacterial, viral, and parasitic pathogens that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 23.3 Systemic Diseases
38) Endemic relapsing fever is transmitted by: a) ticks b) lice c) sandflies d) fleas Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3 Describe common systemic diseases and the bacterial, viral, and parasitic pathogens that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 23.3 Systemic Diseases
39) Plague is characterized by all of the following except: a) sylvanic plague infects city rats b) etiology is Yersinia pestis c) antibiotic treatment is effective d) immense lymph node enlargements called buboes Answer: a Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3 Describe common systemic diseases and the bacterial, viral, and parasitic pathogens that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 23.3 Systemic Diseases
40) Anthrax is characterized by all of the following except: a) cutaneous is the most common form b) intestinal anthrax has the highest mortality rate c) etiology is Bacillus anthracis d) diagnosed by cultured blood or smears from cutaneous lesions Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3 Describe common systemic diseases and the bacterial, viral, and parasitic pathogens that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 23.3 Systemic Diseases
41) Group B Streptococcal disease is characterized by: a) early onset neonatal sepsis and meningitis b) late onset neonatal meningitis c) etiology is Streptococcus agalactiae d) all of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3 Describe common systemic diseases and the bacterial, viral, and parasitic pathogens that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 23.3 Systemic Diseases
42) In which disease(s) does the merozoite infect red blood cells? a) Malaria b) Blackwater fever c) Ehrlichiosis d) two of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3 Describe common systemic diseases and the bacterial, viral, and parasitic pathogens that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 23.3 Systemic Diseases
43) Malaria is not characterized by: a) endemic in South and Central America, Africa, and Asia b) world’s greatest public health problem c) bacterial strains infecting red blood cells d) in a severe form, red blood cells agglutinate causing ischemia Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3 Describe common systemic diseases and the bacterial, viral, and parasitic pathogens that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 23.3 Systemic Diseases
44) Problems in treating malaria arise because: a) the bacteria contain multi-drug resistant plasmids b) many Plasmodium species are resistant to chloroquine c) the antibiotic cannot get to the blood d) patients are allergic to the medications Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3 Describe common systemic diseases and the bacterial, viral, and parasitic pathogens that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 23.3 Systemic Diseases
45) Which of the following is most prevalent during rabbit-hunting season and causes high fever, headache and buboes? a) Francisella tularensis b) Bacillus anthracis c) Yersinia pestis d) Borrelia burgdorferi Answer: a Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3 Describe common systemic diseases and the bacterial, viral, and parasitic pathogens that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 23.3 Systemic Diseases
46) Which infection manifests itself as fever, malaise, bacteremia and regurgitating heart murmur usually lasting two weeks or more? a) Subacute endocarditis b) Puerperal fever c) Neonatal sepsis d) Rheumatic fever Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.2 Describe common cardiovascular diseases and the bacterial and parasitic pathogens that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 23.2 Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Diseases
47) Swelling that results from roundworms blocking lymphatics is called: a) myocarditis b) elephantiasis c) pericarditis d) lymphangitis Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3 Describe common systemic diseases and the bacterial, viral, and parasitic pathogens that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 23.3 Systemic Diseases
48) Brucellosis is: a) a zoonosis highly infective in humans b) characterized by a bull’s eye rash c) characterized by a chronic nonfatal skin disease d) a blood disorder that protects from malaria infections Answer: a Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3 Describe common systemic diseases and the bacterial, viral, and parasitic pathogens that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 23.3 Systemic Diseases
49) Verruga peruana is: a) a zoonosis highly infective for humans b) transmitted by sandflies c) characterized by a chronic nonfatal skin disease d) two of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3 Describe common systemic diseases and the bacterial, viral, and parasitic pathogens that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 23.3 Systemic Diseases
50) All of the following refer to sickle-cell anemia except: a) makes children more susceptible to infection with Erythrovirus b) is caused by Lyme disease c) protects against malaria d) is a blood disorder Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3 Describe common systemic diseases and the bacterial, viral, and parasitic pathogens that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 23.3 Systemic Diseases
51) Which of the following causes hemorrhagic fever? a) Toxoplasma gondii b) Leishmania donovani c) Ebola virus d) Colorado Tick Fever Answer: c Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3 Describe common systemic diseases and the bacterial, viral, and parasitic pathogens that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 23.3 Systemic Diseases
52) Which of the following statements is false? a) Leishmaniasis was confirmed in US military personnel involved in conflicts in Iraq. b) Drug resistant plague bacteria have been reported in the southwestern US. c) Bacillary angiomatosis is a problem for immunocompromised individuals. d) Borrelia is a bacterial spirochete. Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3 Describe common systemic diseases and the bacterial, viral, and parasitic pathogens that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 23.3 Systemic Diseases
53) All of the following have vaccines except: a) Dengue fever b) Lyme disease c) Malaria d) Yellow fever Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3 Describe common systemic diseases and the bacterial, viral, and parasitic pathogens that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 23.3 Systemic Diseases
54) This individual is suffering from
.
a) subacute endocarditis b) dengue fever c) bartonellosis d) lymphangitis Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.2 Describe common cardiovascular diseases and the bacterial and parasitic pathogens that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 23.2 Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Diseases
55) This individual is suffering from a disease caused by a/an:
a) virus b) fungus c) bacterium d) blood fluke e) Two of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.2 Describe common cardiovascular diseases and the bacterial and parasitic pathogens that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 23.2 Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Diseases
56) This individual is suffering from:
a) leishmaniasis b) yellow fever c) cutaneous anthrax d) puerperal fever Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3 Describe common systemic diseases and the bacterial, viral, and parasitic pathogens that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 23.3 Systemic Diseases
Question Type: Essay
57) In 2001, a series of letters containing anthrax endospores were mailed to journalists and senators. Some of those who handled the letters had black and necrotic scabs, while others presented with disorientation, high fever, vomiting and pneumonia. Why is there such a difference in their symptoms? Which group would be more likely to die? What are other ways that people come into contact with anthrax endospores? Why would anthrax be considered a good agent for bioterrorism or biological warfare? Answer:
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3 Describe common systemic diseases and the bacterial, viral, and parasitic pathogens that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 23.3 Systemic Diseases Solution: Cutaneous anthrax, which led to the black and necrotic scabs, is due to the introduction of the endosporesof Bacillus anthracis into a cut. Pulmonary anthrax occurs when endospores are inhaled. Pulmonary anthrax is the most deadly form. A person may come into contact with the endospores through contact with soil containing endospores or by handling hides of infected animals. Bacillus anthracis could be considered a good bio-terrorism agent because anthrax is highly fatal when inhaled, endospores can be distributed via the airborne route and are hardy.
58. A young girl has a small rash that began as a small red bump but has grown in size with expanding borders for the last two weeks. When you examine it you notice it has red expanding borders with a clearing center and that there are several concentric rings of redness. What is the microbe responsible for the rash? What is its lifecycle? Why is early treatment important? What are ways to prevent and control the disease? Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3 Describe common systemic diseases and the bacterial, viral, and parasitic pathogens that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 23.3 Systemic Diseases Solution: The girl has Lyme disease, which is caused by Borrelia burgdorferi. Ticks transmit it from infected deer and other animals such as dogs, horses and cows. It is important to treat early as later on arthritis, nerve and heart damage can occur. The disease can be prevented by avoiding tick bites. Although there is a vaccine, wide spread use in humansis uncommon because of side effects. Another way to control the disease is to reduce the tick and deer populations, although this is very difficult.
59. A family arrived at a rustic cabin in the woods in Texas for summer break and found it full of mice. During the second week most of the members of the family came down with fever, chills and a crushing headache, followed by a rash in 3 to 5 days. They all recovered in about 2 weeks from onset. What disease might they have had and how did they get it? Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 23.3 Describe common systemic diseases and the bacterial, viral, and parasitic pathogens that cause them. Section Reference 1: Section 23.3 Systemic Diseases
Solution: Endemic typhus. Endemic typhus, also called murine typhus, is caused by Rickettsia rickettsii. The rickettsia are transmitted by the fleas of rodents. Since the cabin was full of mice, even though it was cleaned out, it still contained the fleas. The fleas bit the vacationers; hence the infection. The disease is usually self-limiting with only a 2% mortality rate.
Chapter 25: Diseases of the Nervous System
Question Type: Multiple Choice
1) Which term refers to aggregates of neuron cell bodies in the peripheral nervous system? a) ganglia b) microglial cells c) blood-brain barrier d) meninges Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 24.1 Review the anatomy of the nervous system as it pertains to microbial defenses. Section Reference 1: Section 24.1 Components of the Nervous System
2) Which of the following is a cellular component of the immune system that protects the brain? a) ganglia b) microglial cells c) blood-brain barrier d) meninges Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 24.1 Review the anatomy of the nervous system as it pertains to microbial defenses. Section Reference 1: Section 24.1 Components of the Nervous System
3) Which of the following terms refers to special thick-walled capillaries without pores in their walls? a) ganglia b) meninges c) blood-brain barrier d) two of these choices
Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 24.1 Review the anatomy of the nervous system as it pertains to microbial defenses. Section Reference 1: Section 24.1 Components of the Nervous System
4) The central nervous system includes all of the following except: a) brain b) spinal cord c) nerves that reach the tissues in limbs d) microglial cells Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 24.1 Review the anatomy of the nervous system as it pertains to microbial defenses. Section Reference 1: Section 24.1 Components of the Nervous System
5) Acute meningitis is consistent with all of the following except: a) organisms could be endogenous b) organisms can spread from pneumonia c) symptoms are insidious, occurring over a period of weeks d) organisms spread from otitis media Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 24.2 Name the pathogens responsible for most bacterial meningitis, viral meningitis, encephalitis, rabies, and West Nile Fever. Section Reference 1: Section 24.2 Diseases of the Brain and Meninges
6) Treatment for tubercular meningitis includes: a) isoniazid b) penicillin c) tetracycline d) amphotericin B Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 24.2 Name the pathogens responsible for most bacterial meningitis, viral meningitis, encephalitis, rabies, and West Nile Fever. Section Reference 1: Section 24.2 Diseases of the Brain and Meninges
7) Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome is a complication of
.
a) Fungal meningitis b) Streptococcus meningitis c) viral meningitis d) meningococcal meningitis Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 24.2 Name the pathogens responsible for most bacterial meningitis, viral meningitis, encephalitis, rabies, and West Nile Fever. Section Reference 1: Section 24.2 Diseases of the Brain and Meninges
8) While over 90% of populations that live in closed environments (such as military bases, dormitories and day-care centers are carriers) only 1 of 1000 carriers will have meningitis. This statement refers to . a) Neisseria meningitidis b) Haemophilus influenzae type B c) Streptococcus pneumoniae d) Haemophilus influenzae type F Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 24.2 Name the pathogens responsible for most bacterial meningitis, viral meningitis, encephalitis, rabies, and West Nile Fever. Section Reference 1: Section 24.2 Diseases of the Brain and Meninges
9) Hib vaccine is limited to: a) Haemophilus meningitis b) Haemophilus encephalitis c) the number of cases of mental retardation d) two of these choices
Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 24.2 Name the pathogens responsible for most bacterial meningitis, viral meningitis, encephalitis, rabies, and West Nile Fever. Section Reference 1: Section 24.2 Diseases of the Brain and Meninges
10) The most common cause of meningitis in adults is: a) Neisseria meningitidis b) Haemophilus influenzae type B c) Streptococcus pneumoniae d) Listeria monocytogenes Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 24.2 Name the pathogens responsible for most bacterial meningitis, viral meningitis, encephalitis, rabies, and West Nile Fever. Section Reference 1: Section 24.2 Diseases of the Brain and Meninges
11) A foodborne pathogen that can cause meningitis is
.
a) Streptococcus pneumoniae b) Staphylococcus epidermidis c) Listeria monocytogenes d) Neisseria meningitidis Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 24.2 Name the pathogens responsible for most bacterial meningitis, viral meningitis, encephalitis, rabies, and West Nile Fever. Section Reference 1: Section 24.2 Diseases of the Brain and Meninges
12) can be especially dangerous to pregnant women causing abortion, stillbirth, or neonatal death. a) Meningococcal meningitis b) Listeriosis c) Streptococcal meningitis d) Haemophilus meningitis
Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 24.2 Name the pathogens responsible for most bacterial meningitis, viral meningitis, encephalitis, rabies, and West Nile Fever. Section Reference 1: Section 24.2 Diseases of the Brain and Meninges
13) The most sensitive method for detecting rabies is
.
a) finding Negri bodies in brain cells b) finding anti-rabies antibodies in the serum c) finding the symptoms of disease d) immunofluorescent antibody test Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 24.2 Name the pathogens responsible for most bacterial meningitis, viral meningitis, encephalitis, rabies, and West Nile Fever. Section Reference 1: Section 24.2 Diseases of the Brain and Meninges
14) The most common domestic rabid animals in the United States today are
.
a) dogs b) ferrets c) cats d) bats Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 24.2 Name the pathogens responsible for most bacterial meningitis, viral meningitis, encephalitis, rabies, and West Nile Fever. Section Reference 1: Section 24.2 Diseases of the Brain and Meninges
15) All of the following statements about rabies are true except: a) to transmit the virus, the animal must be shedding the virus in the saliva. b) rabies progresses rapidly to the brain by the flow of cytoplasm through axons. c) incubation time is proportional to the distance between the bite wound and the brain. d) symptoms include hydrophobia, aerophobia, confusion, and hallucination. Answer: b
Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 24.2 Name the pathogens responsible for most bacterial meningitis, viral meningitis, encephalitis, rabies, and West Nile Fever. Section Reference 1: Section 24.2 Diseases of the Brain and Meninges
16) Which of the following viral encephalitis infections is not caused by a Togavirus? a) Eastern equine encephalitis b) St. Louis encephalitis c) Western equine encephalitis d) Venezuelan equine encephalitis Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 24.2 Name the pathogens responsible for most bacterial meningitis, viral meningitis, encephalitis, rabies, and West Nile Fever. Section Reference 1: Section 24.2 Diseases of the Brain and Meninges
17) Herpes meningoencephalitis usually follows
.
a) a bacterial infection of the respiratory tract b) a generalized herpes infection c) a fever blister outbreak d) an outbreak of genital herpes Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 24.2 Name the pathogens responsible for most bacterial meningitis, viral meningitis, encephalitis, rabies, and West Nile Fever. Section Reference 1: Section 24.2 Diseases of the Brain and Meninges
18) Polyomavirus particles can be observed in the a) microglial b) oligodendrocyte c) sensory neuron d) association neuron Answer: b
cells of the nervous system.
Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 24.2 Name the pathogens responsible for most bacterial meningitis, viral meningitis, encephalitis, rabies, and West Nile Fever. Section Reference 1: Section 24.2 Diseases of the Brain and Meninges
19) Acanthamoeba polyphaga can accumulate on the surface of water in hot tubs. Upon infection, they cause: a) eye ulcerations b) skin ulcerations c) meningoencephalitis d) all of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 24.2 Name the pathogens responsible for most bacterial meningitis, viral meningitis, encephalitis, rabies, and West Nile Fever. Section Reference 1: Section 24.2 Diseases of the Brain and Meninges
20) Which of the following is not a viral or bacterial cause of meningitis? a) Naegleria fowleri b) Haemophilus influenzae type F c) Treponema pallidum d) Mycobacterium tuberculosis Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 24.2 Name the pathogens responsible for most bacterial meningitis, viral meningitis, encephalitis, rabies, and West Nile Fever. Section Reference 1: Section 24.2 Diseases of the Brain and Meninges
21) Mycobacterium leprae is difficult to cultivate but it can be grown a) on blood agar b) in armadillos c) in tissue culture d) in embryonated eggs Answer: b
.
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3 Discuss the pathogenicity of Hansen’s disease, tetanus, botulism, poliomyelitis, and protozoan nervous system disorders. Section Reference 1: Section 24.3 Other Diseases of the Nervous System
22) Which of the following refers to the clinical form of leprosy that causes a loss of skin pigment and sensation? a) granulomatous b) lepromatous c) tuberculoid d) two of these choices Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3 Discuss the pathogenicity of Hansen’s disease, tetanus, botulism, poliomyelitis, and protozoan nervous system disorders. Section Reference 1: Section 24.3 Other Diseases of the Nervous System 23) Health care workers should watch for undiagnosed Hansen’s disease among a) farmers b) urban dwellers c) veterinarians d) immigrants Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3 Discuss the pathogenicity of Hansen’s disease, tetanus, botulism, poliomyelitis, and protozoan nervous system disorders. Section Reference 1: Section 24.3 Other Diseases of the Nervous System
24)
is the only bacterial species known to destroy peripheral nerve cells.
a) Staphylococcus aureus b) Herpes simplex I c) Clostridium tetani d) Mycobacterium leprae Answer: d
.
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3 Discuss the pathogenicity of Hansen’s disease, tetanus, botulism, poliomyelitis, and protozoan nervous system disorders. Section Reference 1: Section 24.3 Other Diseases of the Nervous System 25) Hansen’s disease is diagnosed by
.
a) PCR b) finding antibodies in the serum c) lepromin skin test d) two of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3 Discuss the pathogenicity of Hansen’s disease, tetanus, botulism, poliomyelitis, and protozoan nervous system disorders. Section Reference 1: Section 24.3 Other Diseases of the Nervous System 26) All of the following statements about the nodular form of Hansen’s disease are true EXCEPT: a) incubation time averages 2 – 5 years b) the bacteria has a predilection for cooler parts of the human body. c) severe lepromatous disease erodes bone d) surgery can restore the use of extremely crippled hands and feet Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3 Discuss the pathogenicity of Hansen’s disease, tetanus, botulism, poliomyelitis, and protozoan nervous system disorders. Section Reference 1: Section 24.3 Other Diseases of the Nervous System 27) One problem with treating Hansen’s disease is
.
a) antibiotics are not effective against the Mycobacterium b) dapsone-resistant strains are beginning to appear c) the organism is growing too rapidly for the antibiotic to work d) the bacteria survive inside the microglial cells Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3 Discuss the pathogenicity of Hansen’s disease, tetanus, botulism, poliomyelitis, and protozoan nervous system disorders. Section Reference 1: Section 24.3 Other Diseases of the Nervous System
28) Clostridium tetani can be characterized by all of the following except: a) Gram-positive spore former b) resistant to drying, disinfection, and heat c) endospores are killed by boiling for 20 minutes d) common to soil and human intestines Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3 Discuss the pathogenicity of Hansen’s disease, tetanus, botulism, poliomyelitis, and protozoan nervous system disorders. Section Reference 1: Section 24.3 Other Diseases of the Nervous System
29) Tetanus neonatum is: a) due to tetanus acquired through the birth canal b) an infection of the umbilical cord c) a muscle spasm that has nothing to do with Clostridium d) an infection from Clostridium in contaminated breast milk Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3 Discuss the pathogenicity of Hansen’s disease, tetanus, botulism, poliomyelitis, and protozoan nervous system disorders. Section Reference 1: Section 24.3 Other Diseases of the Nervous System
30) Tetanus is treated by a) antibiotic therapy b) antiviral therapy c) antitoxin therapy d) two of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Easy
.
Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3 Discuss the pathogenicity of Hansen’s disease, tetanus, botulism, poliomyelitis, and protozoan nervous system disorders. Section Reference 1: Section 24.3 Other Diseases of the Nervous System
31) Botulism includes
.
a) food poisoning b) infant botulism c) wound botulism d) all of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3 Discuss the pathogenicity of Hansen’s disease, tetanus, botulism, poliomyelitis, and protozoan nervous system disorders. Section Reference 1: Section 24.3 Other Diseases of the Nervous System
32) Botulism toxin is characterized by all of the following except: a) most potent toxin known b) released upon autolysis of cells c) boiling will not inactivate the toxin d) activated by proteolytic enzymes Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3 Discuss the pathogenicity of Hansen’s disease, tetanus, botulism, poliomyelitis, and protozoan nervous system disorders. Section Reference 1: Section 24.3 Other Diseases of the Nervous System
33) All of the following are associated with prions except: a) Chagas’ disease b) Kuru c) Scrapie d) Mad cow disease Answer: a Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3 Discuss the pathogenicity of Hansen’s disease, tetanus, botulism, poliomyelitis, and protozoan nervous system disorders. Section Reference 1: Section 24.3 Other Diseases of the Nervous System
34) Humans are naturally protected against nagana, a tsetse-fly-bourne cattle disease. What has been found to serve the protective role? a) Serum b) High-density lipoprotein (HDL) c) Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) d) Iron Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3 Discuss the pathogenicity of Hansen’s disease, tetanus, botulism, poliomyelitis, and protozoan nervous system disorders. Section Reference 1: Section 24.3 Other Diseases of the Nervous System
35) Tetanus is most common in
.
a) newborns b) adolescents c) young adult athletes d) older women Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3 Discuss the pathogenicity of Hansen’s disease, tetanus, botulism, poliomyelitis, and protozoan nervous system disorders. Section Reference 1: Section 24.3 Other Diseases of the Nervous System 36) Which of the following is responsible for Chagas’ disease? a) Mycobacterium leprae b) Clostridium tetani c) Trypanosoma cruzi d) Poliovirus Answer: c Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3 Discuss the pathogenicity of Hansen’s disease, tetanus, botulism, poliomyelitis, and protozoan nervous system disorders. Section Reference 1: Section 24.3 Other Diseases of the Nervous System
37) All of the following are symptoms of poliovirus except: a) muscle spasms b) heart damage c) partial or complete flaccid paralysis d) destruction of motor neurons Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3 Discuss the pathogenicity of Hansen’s disease, tetanus, botulism, poliomyelitis, and protozoan nervous system disorders. Section Reference 1: Section 24.3 Other Diseases of the Nervous System
38) All of the following statements refer to mad cow disease except a) it is caused by an infectious protein b) its transmission to humans can be prevented by banning the addition of beef brain tissue to hamburger c) it only occurs in Britain d) it causes disease in both humans and animals Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3 Discuss the pathogenicity of Hansen’s disease, tetanus, botulism, poliomyelitis, and protozoan nervous system disorders. Section Reference 1: Section 24.3 Other Diseases of the Nervous System
39) African sleeping sickness is caused by a) Trypanosoma brucei gambiense b) Yersinia pestis c) Trypanosoma cruzi d) prions Answer: a Difficulty: Medium
.
Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3 Discuss the pathogenicity of Hansen’s disease, tetanus, botulism, poliomyelitis, and protozoan nervous system disorders. Section Reference 1: Section 24.3 Other Diseases of the Nervous System
40) Clostridium botulinum is characterized by all of the following except: a) preformed toxin in food prevents release of acetylcholine b) progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy c) paralysis and death results if not treated promptly d) in wounds endospores germinate and produce toxin Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3 Discuss the pathogenicity of Hansen’s disease, tetanus, botulism, poliomyelitis, and protozoan nervous system disorders. Section Reference 1: Section 24.3 Other Diseases of the Nervous System
41) Which of the following is an emerging viral encephalitis that has recently spread across the United States? a) JC virus b) rabies c) mad cow disease d) West Nile arbovirus Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3 Discuss the pathogenicity of Hansen’s disease, tetanus, botulism, poliomyelitis, and protozoan nervous system disorders. Section Reference 1: Section 24.3 Other Diseases of the Nervous System
42) All of the following are true about brain abscesses except: a) microbes may reach brain from head wounds or via blood b) they may be treated either with antibiotics or surgical removal c) may occur in Hansen’s disease d) they can be detected by CAT scan Answer: c Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3 Discuss the pathogenicity of Hansen’s disease, tetanus, botulism, poliomyelitis, and protozoan nervous system disorders. Section Reference 1: Section 24.3 Other Diseases of the Nervous System
43) Which is not a form of encephalitis? a) Eastern equine b) St. Louis c) JC d) Venezuelan equine Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 24.2 Name the pathogens responsible for most bacterial meningitis, viral meningitis, encephalitis, rabies, and West Nile Fever. Section Reference 1: Section 24.2 Diseases of the Brain and Meninges
44) How is African sleeping sickness transmitted? a) by the reduvid bugs also known as kissing bugs b) from mosquito species c) via the bite of the tsetse fly d) to cattle from other livestock Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3 Discuss the pathogenicity of Hansen’s disease, tetanus, botulism, poliomyelitis, and protozoan nervous system disorders. Section Reference 1: Section 24.3 Other Diseases of the Nervous System
45) Which of the following statements about brain infections is false? a) Equine encephalitis infects horses more than humans. b) Rabies can be transmitted by infected raccoons. c) Poliovirus often causes no symptoms and goes undetected in small children. d) Viral meningitis is usually self-limiting and nonfatal. Answer: a Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective 1: LO 24.2 Name the pathogens responsible for most bacterial meningitis, viral meningitis, encephalitis, rabies, and West Nile Fever. LO 24.3 Discuss the pathogenicity of Hansen’s disease, tetanus, botulism, poliomyelitis, and protozoan nervous system disorders. Section Reference 1: Section 24.2 Diseases of the Brain and Meninges; Section 24.3 Other Diseases of the Nervous System
46) Which of the following statements is incorrect about JC virus? a) Antibodies are seen by age 14. b) Disease may be a reactivation of a latent viral infection. c) Leads to flaccid paralysis of respiratory muscles. d) JC is responsible for progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3 Discuss the pathogenicity of Hansen’s disease, tetanus, botulism, poliomyelitis, and protozoan nervous system disorders. Section Reference 1: Section 24.3 Other Diseases of the Nervous System
47) Which one of the following is not a neutrotropic viral disease? a) West Nile fever b) Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome c) Polio d) Rabies Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3 Discuss the pathogenicity of Hansen’s disease, tetanus, botulism, poliomyelitis, and protozoan nervous system disorders. Section Reference 1: Section 24.3 Other Diseases of the Nervous System
48) The rabies virus enters the body through a) a skin wound b) a mosquito bite c) the placenta d) the respiratory or gastrointestinal tracts Answer: a
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Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 24.2 Name the pathogens responsible for most bacterial meningitis, viral meningitis, encephalitis, rabies, and West Nile Fever. Section Reference 1: Section 24.2 Diseases of the Brain and Meninges
49) What do kuru, scrapie and Creutzfeldt Jakob disease all have in common? a) all are transmitted by arthropod vectors b) same vaccine protects against all of them c) caused by prions d) two of these choices Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3 Discuss the pathogenicity of Hansen’s disease, tetanus, botulism, poliomyelitis, and protozoan nervous system disorders. Section Reference 1: Section 24.3 Other Diseases of the Nervous System
50) Prions infectivity: a) can be destroyed by autoclaving for 1 hour b) is reduced after formaldehyde treatment c) can be retained in buried brains left for 3 years in soil d) two of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3 Discuss the pathogenicity of Hansen’s disease, tetanus, botulism, poliomyelitis, and protozoan nervous system disorders. Section Reference 1: Section 24.3 Other Diseases of the Nervous System
51) Who is affected by the transmissible spongiform encephalopathy called chronic wasting disease? a) sheep and cattle b) elk and deer c) women in Papua New Guinea d) Alzheimer’s patients Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3 Discuss the pathogenicity of Hansen’s disease, tetanus, botulism, poliomyelitis, and protozoan nervous system disorders. Section Reference 1: Section 24.3 Other Diseases of the Nervous System
52) The organism causing the changes in these cells of the cerebellum is a/an:
a) bacterium b) fungus c) virus d) protist Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 24.2 Name the pathogens responsible for most bacterial meningitis, viral meningitis, encephalitis, rabies, and West Nile Fever. Section Reference 1: Section 24.2 Diseases of the Brain and Meninges
53) These individuals have:
a) rabies b) West Nile Fever c) tetanus d) polio e) Hansen’s disease Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3 Discuss the pathogenicity of Hansen’s disease, tetanus, botulism, poliomyelitis, and protozoan nervous system disorders. Section Reference 1: Section 24.3 Other Diseases of the Nervous System
54) This organism can exist in the spore form and cause tetanus.
a) Mycobacterium leprae b) Clostridium tetani c) Clostridium difficile d) Clostridium botulinum Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3 Discuss the pathogenicity of Hansen’s disease, tetanus, botulism, poliomyelitis, and protozoan nervous system disorders. Section Reference 1: Section 24.3 Other Diseases of the Nervous System
Question Type: Essay
55) A college freshman presents to student health services with a pounding headache, fever, neck rigidity and nausea. The cerebrospinal fluid is purulent with numerous white blood cells and a culture reveals Neisseria meningitidis. What are the possible complications? What makes college students at risk? How can it be prevented? Answer: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 24.2 Name the pathogens responsible for most bacterial meningitis, viral meningitis, encephalitis, rabies, and West Nile Fever. Section Reference 1: Section 24.2 Diseases of the Brain and Meninges Solution: One complication is Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome where the meningicocci cause sepsis and death occurs due to massive hemorrhaging in the adrenal glands. More minor hemorrhaging can lead to the petechial skin rashes or loss of fingers or toes. College students are at risk due to overtiring (lowered immunity) and overcrowding (allows for epidemic transmission). It can be prevented by vaccination.
56) What are the two vaccines developed to prevent polio? Which vaccine would be recommended for an immunocompromised child? How about in an area that is difficult to get to and where vaccine coverage is poor? Why are there still cases of polio in the United States if vaccine coverage is excellent? Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 24.3 Discuss the pathogenicity of Hansen’s disease, tetanus, botulism, poliomyelitis, and protozoan nervous system disorders. Section Reference 1: Section 24.3 Other Diseases of the Nervous System Solution: The Sabin vaccine used in the U.S. is an attenuated-vaccine (AV), whereas the Salk vaccine is an inactivated–virus (IAV) vaccine. The IAV can be given with other pediatric vaccines and can be given to immunodeficient patients. All patients do not develop immunity. The Sabin vaccine is an attenuated strain which may be useful in areas with poor vaccine coverage since the vaccine strain can be transmitted (and therefore vaccinate more children). The oral vaccine is more stable and easier to administer as well. The Sabin vaccine strain, though, has been known to mutate to a virulent strain. Since the 1980’s, 143 out of 145 cases of paralytic polio in the United States have been associated with oral polio vaccine; most likely occurring when the Sabin vaccine strain reverts back to a virulent strain.
57) What are all the animals that can get rabies? Which animals can transmit to humans and what determines human transmission ability? How should one treat an animal bite? Answer:
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 24.2 Name the pathogens responsible for most bacterial meningitis, viral meningitis, encephalitis, rabies, and West Nile Fever. Section Reference 1: Section 24.2 Diseases of the Brain and Meninges Solution: Rabies infects all mammals exposed to it, including cats, dogs, skunks, coyotes, raccoons, squirrels, foxes and bats. Transmission to humans depends on the animal’s likelihood to come into contact with humans and their susceptibility to rabies. Animals that contact humans more frequently and which have rabies in the saliva at the time of bite, such as dogs and cats, are more likely to transmit. Also bats are a particular problem because not only are they susceptible but they are asymptomatic when shedding, unlike foxes that are susceptible but quickly die from the infection. Treatment of an animal bite might include the following: (i) wash the bite with soap and water, flushing it with large amounts of water; since it takes some time for the rabies virus to infect the nerve cells, (ii) getting all of the saliva out of the bite might be the best preventive measure; and (iii) once at the hospital, one might expect hyperimmune rabies serum to be introduced into and around the wound in hopes of neutralizing any viral particles; a series of vaccine injections would be given to induce the production of neutralizing antibodies since the rabies virus replicates very slowly.
Chapter 26: Environmental Microbiology
Question Type: Multiple Choice
1) Which would not be the habitat for terrestrial species of some microorganisms? a) desert b) tundra c) tropical rain forest d) freshwater lake Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 25.1 Explain the concept of ecosystems and how energy flows through them. Section Reference 1: Section 25.1 Fundamentals of Ecology
2. Microbes in the environment can be
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a) producers b) consumers c) decomposers d) all of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 25.1 Explain the concept of ecosystems and how energy flows through them. Section Reference 1: Section 25.1 Fundamentals of Ecology
3) Which of the following microbes is not a producer in the environment? a) photosynthetic bacteria b) heterotrophic bacteria c) cyanobacteria d) protista e) two of these choices Answer: e
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 25.1 Explain the concept of ecosystems and how energy flows through them. Section Reference 1: Section 25.1 Fundamentals of Ecology
4) Which of the following statements about ecology is incorrect? a) The biosphere consists of three layers- the hydrosphere, lithosphere and atmosphere. b) Communities with many populations of organisms are more stable than those with fewer populations. c) Vegetative cells must have water. d) The sun is the ultimate source of energy for all organisms in any ecosystem. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 25.1 Explain the concept of ecosystems and how energy flows through them. Section Reference 1: Section 25.1 Fundamentals of Ecology
5) The loss of water from pores of plant leaves is called: a) transpiration b) respiration c) evaporation d) two of these choices Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 25.1 Explain the concept of ecosystems and how energy flows through them. Section Reference 1: Section 25.1 Fundamentals of Ecology
6) Some microbes can survive drought by forming a) fimbriae b) spores c) cysts d) two of these choices Answer: d
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Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 25.1 Explain the concept of ecosystems and how energy flows through them. Section Reference 1: Section 25.1 Fundamentals of Ecology
7) Producers obtain CO2 from
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a) eating other producers b) the atmosphere c) dead bodies d) coal Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 25.1 Explain the concept of ecosystems and how energy flows through them. Section Reference 1: Section 25.1 Fundamentals of Ecology
8) Nitrogen-fixing bacteria: a) oxidize ammonia to nitrates or nitrites b) oxidize ammonia to nitrous oxide c) reduce nitrates to nitrites d) reduce nitrogen gas to ammonia Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 25.2 Name and describe the biogeochemical cycles of planet Earth. Section Reference 1: Section 25.2 Biogeochemical Cycles
9) Nitrogenase is: a) oxygen sensitive b) only produced by Rhizobium c) a N2 fixing enzyme d) two of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective 1: LO 25.2 Name and describe the biogeochemical cycles of planet Earth. Section Reference 1: Section 25.2 Biogeochemical Cycles
10) Nitrogen-fixing bacteria include: a) cyanobacteria b) Clostridium c) Klebsiella d) all of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 25.2 Name and describe the biogeochemical cycles of planet Earth. Section Reference 1: Section 25.2 Biogeochemical Cycles
11) Which is a primary symbiotic nitrogen fixer? a) Azotobacter b) Rhizobium c) Cyanobacteria d) Clostridium Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 25.2 Name and describe the biogeochemical cycles of planet Earth. Section Reference 1: Section 25.2 Biogeochemical Cycles
12) The mechanism whereby Rhizobium and the legume associate is characterized by all of the following except: a) multiplies in the vicinity of legume roots b) bacteria release proteases to digest cell wall c) change from free-living to swarmer cells d) swarmers invade root hairs to become bacteroids Answer: b Difficulty: Medium
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Learning Objective 1: LO 25.2 Name and describe the biogeochemical cycles of planet Earth. Section Reference 1: Section 25.2 Biogeochemical Cycles
13) Nitrification is characterized by all of the following except: a) carried out by autotrophic bacteria b) supplies plants with a usable nitrogen source c) produces ammonia d) nitrogen is oxidized in both of the two steps Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 25.2 Name and describe the biogeochemical cycles of planet Earth. Section Reference 1: Section 25.2 Biogeochemical Cycles
14) Denitrification is: a) a process by which nitrates are reduced to nitrous oxide or N2 b) a process by which nitrites are reduced to ammonia c) a process by which amino acids are converted to pyruvate d) largely due to aerobic environments Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 25.2 Name and describe the biogeochemical cycles of planet Earth. Section Reference 1: Section 25.2 Biogeochemical Cycles
15) Most denitrification is due to a) Rhizobium b) Azotobacter c) Pseudomonas d) Nitrosomonas Answer: c Difficulty: Medium
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Learning Objective 1: LO 25.2 Name and describe the biogeochemical cycles of planet Earth. Section Reference 1: Section 25.2 Biogeochemical Cycles
16) The sulfur cycle is of special importance to: a) terrestrial life b) Pseudomonas c) proteolytic bacteria d) aquatic life Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 25.2 Name and describe the biogeochemical cycles of planet Earth. Section Reference 1: Section 25.2 Biogeochemical Cycles
17) In the sulfur cycle many microbes convert sulfhydryl (-SH) groups to toxic to living things.
, which is
a) hydrogen sulfate b) hydrogen sulfide c) HSH d) sulfate Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 25.2 Name and describe the biogeochemical cycles of planet Earth. Section Reference 1: Section 25.2 Biogeochemical Cycles
18) Sulfate-reducing bacteria are characteristically a) strict anaerobes b) Desulfovibrio c) utilizing sulfate as a final electron acceptor d) all of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Easy
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Learning Objective 1: LO 25.2 Name and describe the biogeochemical cycles of planet Earth. Section Reference 1: Section 25.2 Biogeochemical Cycles
19) Sulfur oxidation is carried out by
.
a) Thiobacillus b) Desulfovibrio c) Desulfomonas d) Desulfotomaculum Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 25.2 Name and describe the biogeochemical cycles of planet Earth. Section Reference 1: Section 25.2 Biogeochemical Cycles
20) The most usable form of sulfur by microorganisms and plants is: a) sulfide b) sulfate c) hydrogen sulfide d) sulfhydryl Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 25.2 Name and describe the biogeochemical cycles of planet Earth. Section Reference 1: Section 25.2 Biogeochemical Cycles
21) In the phosphorous cycle, inorganic phosphates are converted to soluble nutrient used by both plants and microorganisms. a) phosphorous b) hydrophosphates c) orthophosphate d) betaphosphate Answer: c Difficulty: Hard
, a water-
Learning Objective 1: LO 25.2 Name and describe the biogeochemical cycles of planet Earth. Section Reference 1: Section 25.2 Biogeochemical Cycles
22) The predominant genus of microbe found in ambient air is
.
a) Cladosporium b) Bacillus c) Staphylococcus d) Candida Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 25.3 Discuss how microbes come to be found in air and ways in which we can control their presence. Section Reference 1: Section 25.3 Air
23) Which of the following statements about biogeochemical cycles is true? a) Not all living microbes require carbon. b) Nitrogen fixing bacteria must be in association with legumes. c) Thiobacillus oxidizes hydrogen sulfide to sulfuric acid. d) Cyanobacteria are the primary symbiotic nitrogen fixer. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 25.2 Name and describe the biogeochemical cycles of planet Earth. Section Reference 1: Section 25.2 Biogeochemical Cycles
24) Which of the following symptoms is not part of sick building syndrome? a) headache and burning eyes b) nosebleeds and skin problems c) dizziness and nausea d) feeling like there is too much air Answer: d Difficulty: Medium
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Learning Objective 1: LO 25.3 Discuss how microbes come to be found in air and ways in which we can control their presence. Section Reference 1: Section 25.3 Air
25) Which of the following is used to control the number of microbes in the air? a) UV light b) triethylene glycol c) cellulose acetate filters d) all of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 25.3 Discuss how microbes come to be found in air and ways in which we can control their presence. Section Reference 1: Section 25.3 Air
26) The most predominant microbial group found in soil is: a) fungi b) bacteria c) protozoa d) viruses Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 25.4 Identify the types of microbes found in soil and their significance in environmental and disease processes. Section Reference 1: Section 25.4 Soil
27) Molds in soil serve to: a) aid in decomposition b) aid in nitrogen-fixation c) form a network with mycelia d) two of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective 1: LO 25.4 Identify the types of microbes found in soil and their significance in environmental and disease processes. Section Reference 1: Section 25.4 Soil
28) Cytophaga, found in soil, is characterized by
.
a) being a fungus b) cellulose degradation c) being strictly aerobic d) being a protozoan decomposer Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 25.4 Identify the types of microbes found in soil and their significance in environmental and disease processes. Section Reference 1: Section 25.4 Soil
29) Soil contains human pathogens, for instance
.
a) Clostridium tetani b) Bacillus anthracis c) Clostridium perfringens d) all of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 25.4 Identify the types of microbes found in soil and their significance in environmental and disease processes. Section Reference 1: Section 25.4 Soil
30) Which of the following statements about soil is false? a) anywhere in the soil you can find snottites b) viruses can be used for biocontrol of insect pests in soil c) humus is the nonliving organic matter in soil d) carbon in the soil is continuously recycled Answer: a Difficulty: Easy
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Learning Objective 1: LO 25.4 Identify the types of microbes found in soil and their significance in environmental and disease processes. Section Reference 1: Section 25.4 Soil
31) The primary producers in the ocean are: a) bacteria b) viruses c) phytoplankton d) two of these choices Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 25.6 Describe the characteristics of microbes in marine environments and discuss the different types of water pollutants and water purification processes. Section Reference 1: Section 25.6 Marine Environments
32) Phytoplankton include: a) cyanobacterteria b) diatoms c) dinoflagellates d) all of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 25.6 Describe the characteristics of microbes in marine environments and discuss the different types of water pollutants and water purification processes. Section Reference 1: Section 25.6 Marine Environments
33) What results from the biological oxygen demand (BOD) being high and the water becoming anaerobic? a) a more efficient decomposition of wastes b) increased need for sulfur c) decreased need for carbon d) death of most members of any ecosystem Answer: d
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 25.2 Name and describe the biogeochemical cycles of plant Earth. Section Reference 1: Section 25.2 Biogeochemical Cycles
34) Eutrophication leads to: a) a decrease in oxygen b) plants become very dense c) abundant nutrient enrichment d) all of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 25.6 Describe the characteristics of microbes in marine environments and discuss the different types of water pollutants and water purification processes. Section Reference 1: Section 25.6 Marine Environments
35) The indicator organism for human pathogens in a water supply is: a) Escherichia coli b) Salmonella typhi c) Poliovirus d) Staphylococcus aureus Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 25.5 Explain how the characteristics of freshwater environments determine the types of microbes they may support. Section Reference 1: Section 25.5 Water
36) In testing for water purity, the presumptive test would include: a) Eosin-methylene blue agar b) lactose broth c) nutrient agar d) Gram stain Answer: b
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Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 25.6 Describe the characteristics of microbes in marine environments and discuss the different types of water pollutants and water purification processes. Section Reference 1: Section 25.6 Marine Environments
37) Which is the order of purification procedures for water? a) flocculation chlorination filtration particulate settling b) synthetic organic chemicals particulate settling filtration c) chlorination filtration particulate settling nitrification d) particulate settling flocculation treatment filtration chlorination Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 25.6 Describe the characteristics of microbes in marine environments and discuss the different types of water pollutants and water purification processes. Section Reference 1: Section 25.6 Marine Environments
38) How do the ONPG and MUG test detect microorganisms in water? a) color is changed by enzymes secreted by coliform bacteria b) gas production in cultures of lactose broth c) observing dark colonies of coliform organisms on EMB-lactose agar d) colonies forming on surface of a sterile absorbent pad Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 25.6 Describe the characteristics of microbes in marine environments and discuss the different types of water pollutants and water purification processes. Section Reference 1: Section 25.6 Marine Environments
39) The trickling filtration system employs a bed of rocks that have been coated with: a) Sphaerotilus b) Pseudomonas c) Beggiatoa d) two of these choices
Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 25.6 Describe the characteristics of microbes in marine environments and discuss the different types of water pollutants and water purification processes. Section Reference 1: Section 25.6 Marine Environments
40) Tertiary treatment of sewage could include: a) chlorine b) UV light c) ozone d) all of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 25.7 Review the main steps of primary, secondary, and tertiary sewage treatment. Section Reference 1: Section 25.7 Sewage Treatment
41) The most problematic yet common form of tertiary treatment of water is: a) chlorine b) UV light c) ozone d) X-rays Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 25.7 Review the main steps of primary, secondary, and tertiary sewage treatment. Section Reference 1: Section 25.7 Sewage Treatment
42) How does Sphaerotilus interfere with an activated sludge system? a) by coating rocks with a slimy film and decomposing organic matter b) by removing flocculating substances c) by proliferating and allowing floating matter to carry contaminants into sewage effluent
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d) by converting nitrates to nitrogen gas and blocking the nitrogen stripping tank Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 25.7 Review the main steps of primary, secondary, and tertiary sewage treatment. Section Reference 1: Section 25.7 Sewage Treatment
43) Which statement about septic tanks is correct? a) Pouring poisons and grease down the drain may kill the tank’s beneficial microbes. b) Sludge moves continually into a drainage leaching field. c) Drainage fields last for more than 50 years. d) Two of these choices Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 25.7 Review the main steps of primary, secondary, and tertiary sewage treatment. Section Reference 1: Section 25.7 Sewage Treatment
44) A niche includes all of the following except: a) the taxonomy of an organism b) the role an organism plays in the ecosystem c) an organisms use of abiotic factors in its environment d) the interactions an organism has with other organisms Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 25.1 Explain the concept of ecosystems and how energy flows through them. Section Reference 1: Section 25.1 Fundamentals of Ecology
45) Which term has been incorrectly matched? a) biogeochemical cycles – recycling of life-essential elements and water b) nitrogenase – functional nitrogen-fixing enzyme c) swarmer cells – organisms that can invade waterlogged soils d) nitrate – form of nitrogen most usable in plant metabolism
Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 25.2 Name and describe the biogeochemical cycles of plant Earth. Section Reference 1: Section 25.2 Biogeochemical Cycles
46) Which of the following statements about extreme environments is incorrect? a) Hydrothermal vents can reach temperatures up to 350 C. b) Hydrothermal fluids contain mixed communities of eubacteria and archaea. c) Bacteria that are involved in anaerobic oxidation of methane are rare in samples. d) In different zones of a chimney wall there are different communities of microbes. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 25.6 Describe the characteristics of microbes in marine environments and discuss the different types of water pollutants and water purification processes. Section Reference 1: Section 25.6 Marine Environments
47) What are the consequences of heat acting as a water pollutant? a) causes silting of waterways b) reduces light reaching plants in water c) increases the salinity and acidity of water d) alters habitats and kinds of organisms present Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 25.6 Describe the characteristics of microbes in marine environments and discuss the different types of water pollutants and water purification processes. Section Reference 1: Section 25.6 Marine Environments
48) What role do microbes play in degradation of plastics? a) Microbes could be used to disintegrate plastics, like soda bottles and disposable diapers. b) Bacteria could assist in making biodegradable plastics.
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c) Bacteria could speed up the incineration process. d) Two of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 25.8 Evaluate the process of bioremediation in terms of its cost, efficiency, and benefits. Section Reference 1: Section 25.8 Bioremediation
49) Which bacteria are found in the desert and are oil eating? a) Halobacterium b) Desulfurovibrio c) Thiobacillus d) Arthrobacter Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 25.8 Evaluate the process of bioremediation in terms of its cost, efficiency, and benefits. Section Reference 1: Section 25.8 Bioremediation
50) Which term is correctly matched with its definition? a) biotic factors – interaction of organisms with other organisms b) ecology – all organisms in a given area with abiotic and biotic factors c) ecosystem – organisms that are always found in a given environment d) niche – recycling of life-essential elements and water Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 25.1 Explain the concept of ecosystems and how energy flows through them. Section Reference 1: Section 25.1 Fundamentals of Ecology
51) During which step is an aeration tank used?
a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 25.7 Review the main steps of primary, secondary, and tertiary sewage treatment. Section Reference 1: Section 25.7 Sewage Treatment
52) Which step produces drinkable water?
a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 25.7 Review the main steps of primary, secondary, and tertiary sewage treatment. Section Reference 1: Section 25.7 Sewage Treatment 53) Nitrogen stripping occurs during
.
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a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 25.7 Review the main steps of primary, secondary, and tertiary sewage treatment. Section Reference 1: Section 25.7 Sewage Treatment
Question Type: Essay
54) What is the greenhouse effect? What effect might global warming have on infectious disease? Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 25.2 Name and describe the biogeochemical cycles of plant Earth. Section Reference 1: Section 25.2 Biogeochemical Cycles Solution: Carbon dioxide generated from coal and oil combustion accumulates with water vapor to form a blanket over the Earth’s surface, creating a greenhouse effect. The gases allow the sun’s rays to penetrate the atmosphere. The overall effect is a global warming that reduces temperature variation and raises the temperature near the Earth’s surface. This trend would make some regions too warm to grow crops, create droughts in other areas, and make new deserts. It might even melt polar ice, raising the level of oceans and flooding coastal cities. Global warming may affect human infectious disease by changing the habitat of reservoirs and vectors of human pathogens. For example, the warming could increase the number of malaria cases by increasing the tropical areas around the world. Schistosomiasis, African trypanosomiasis, and dengue and yellow fevers are likely to spread with global warming. By causing droughts and associated malnutrition in human populations general susceptibility to many existing diseases might also be increased.
55) Why are soil microorganisms so important to the nitrogen cycle? Describe the 3 roles bacteria play in the nitrogen cycle. Answer: Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 25.2 Name and describe the biogeochemical cycles of plant Earth. Section Reference 1: Section 25.2 Biogeochemical Cycles Solution: During the nitrogen cycle, nitrogen is broken down by decomposers. Many soil microorganisms produce and release the enzymes that break down proteins in dead organisms and waste. There are three roles that nitrogen bacteria play in the nitrogen cycle: nitrogen-fixing bacteria, nitrifying bacteria and denitrifying bacteria. Nitrogen fixation is the reduction of atmospheric nitrogen to ammonia. It is accomplished by certain free-living aerobes and anaerobes but mostly by Rhizobium. Nitrification is the conversion of ammonia to nitrites and nitrates; nitrites are formed by Nitrosomonas and nitrates by Nitrobacter. Denitrification is the conversion of nitrates to nitrous oxide and nitrogen gas. It is accomplished by a variety of organisms including Pseudomonas,, especially in waterlogged soils.
56) What is the meaning of biological oxygen demand (BOD)? Why is it important in pollution? What do microbes have to do with this? Answer: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 25.6 Describe the characteristics of microbes in marine environments and discuss the different types of water pollutants and water purification processes. Section Reference 1: Section 25.6 Marine Environments Solution: Biological oxygen demand is the oxygen required for the decomposition of organic wastes suspended in water due to the activity of aerobic microbes. When BOD is high, the water can be depleted of oxygen rapidly allowing for anaerobes increase in number while populations of aerobic decomposers reduce, leaving behind large quantities of organic wastes including pathogenic organisms. This also leads to the death of higher order life forms whose metabolism depends on the presence of oxygen in the environment. Fish, insects crustaceans and other amimal life are seriously impacted.
12 8
Chapter 27: Applied Microbiology
Question Type: Multiple Choice
1) Food contamination is due to: a) unsanitary practices by food handlers b) improper storage c) importation d) all of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 26.1 Identify some of the microorganisms found in staples such as grain, produce, animal meats, and dairy products. Section Reference 1: Section 26.1 Microorganisms Found in Food
2) Aflatoxins are produced by
.
a) Claviceps purpurea b) Staphylococcus c) Aspergillus d) Bacillus Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 26.1 Identify some of the microorganisms found in staples such as grain, produce, animal meats, and dairy products. Section Reference 1: Section 26.1 Microorganisms Found in Food
3) Claviceps purpurea contaminates a) raw milk b) raw grains c) processed diary products d) packaged lunch meats Answer: b Difficulty: Medium
.
Learning Objective 1: LO 26.1 Identify some of the microorganisms found in staples such as grain, produce, animal meats, and dairy products. Section Reference 1: Section 26.1 Microorganisms Found in Food
4) Which of the following organisms is the pink bread mold, which bakers especially fear because it is so difficult to eliminate in the bakery once it has been established? a) Rhizopus nigricans b) Aspergillus fumigatus c) Monilia sitophila d) Claviceps purpurea Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 26.1 Identify some of the microorganisms found in staples such as grain, produce, animal meats, and dairy products. Section Reference 1: Section 26.1 Microorganisms Found in Food
5) From the list below, which worm infection can be transmitted via fruits and vegetables? a) Pseudomonas fluorescens b) Entamoeba histolytica c) Salmonella d) Ascaris Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 26.1 Identify some of the microorganisms found in staples such as grain, produce, animal meats, and dairy products. Section Reference 1: Section 26.1 Microorganisms Found in Food
6) All of the following statements are true about bacterial contamination of melons except: a) cantalopes are often contaminated because their netted surfaces allow biofilms to form b) surface pasteurization kills 99.999% of Salmonella but affects the quality of the melon c) melons can be surface pasteurized d) about 5% of melons imported into the United States have biofilm layers of Salmonella Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 26.1 Identify some of the microorganisms found in staples such as grain, produce, animal meats, and dairy products. Section Reference 1: Section 26.1 Microorganisms Found in Food
7) In the second half of the 19th century, there was a mass emigration of Irish citizens to other countries due to which organism? a) Aspergillus fumigatus b) Pseudomonas aeruginosa c) Pseudomonas syringae d) Phytophthora infestans Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 26.1 Identify some of the microorganisms found in staples such as grain, produce, animal meats, and dairy products. Section Reference 1: Section 26.1 Microorganisms Found in Food
8) Which of the following contamination is incorrectly matched with the food it affects? a) Fusarium fungus– tomatoes infected from fruit flies b) Leuconostoc and Lactitrous bacteria – fresh fruit juice acts as a high sugar media c) Monilia fructicola – brown rot in peaches d) Erwinia carotovora – microbial invasion of melons Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 26.1 Identify some of the microorganisms found in staples such as grain, produce, animal meats, and dairy products. Section Reference 1: Section 26.1 Microorganisms Found in Food
9) Which cut of meat would you expect to have the largest number of contaminating microbes per gram? a) a beef streak wrapped at the grocery b) a side of beef aging in the slaughter house c) a package of ground beef d) a pork chop wrapped at the grocery
Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 26.1 Identify some of the microorganisms found in staples such as grain, produce, animal meats, and dairy products. Section Reference 1: Section 26.1 Microorganisms Found in Food
10) Bone stink: a) is caused by Clostridium and leads to putrefaction deep in tissues of large carcasses b) refers to molds that grow on refrigerated and frozen meats c) refers to fluffy white whiskers on the surfaces of hanging carcasses d) causes green discoloration on refrigerated meat under low oxygen conditions Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 26.1 Identify some of the microorganisms found in staples such as grain, produce, animal meats, and dairy products. Section Reference 1: Section 26.1 Microorganisms Found in Food
11) Which statement about contamination of eggs is incorrect? a) Cracked eggs cannot be sold. b) Lysozymes in the whites protect the yolk. c) Trace metals in the whites are tightly bonded with proteins. d) Eggs should be stored small side up Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 26.1 Identify some of the microorganisms found in staples such as grain, produce, animal meats, and dairy products. Section Reference 1: Section 26.1 Microorganisms Found in Food
12) Some strains of can inhibit the growth of other organisms by decreasing the pH and making hydrogen peroxide. a) Lactobacillus b) Staphylococcus c) Vibrio d) Clostridium
Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 26.1 Identify some of the microorganisms found in staples such as grain, produce, animal meats, and dairy products. Section Reference 1: Section 26.1 Microorganisms Found in Food
13) Floppy baby syndrome is caused by
.
a) Bacillus species in milk b) Clostridium botulinum in milk c) Clostridium botulinum in honey d) Bacillus in honey Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 26.1 Identify some of the microorganisms found in staples such as grain, produce, animal meats, and dairy products. Section Reference 1: Section 26.1 Microorganisms Found in Food
14) All of the following statements about spices are true except: a) they have a well deserved reputation as antimicrobials b) most microorganisms found in spices are not pathogens c) often mask odors of putrefaction d) while they teem with bacteria they aren’t harmful as they are used in small amounts Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 26.1 Identify some of the microorganisms found in staples such as grain, produce, animal meats, and dairy products. Section Reference 1: Section 26.1 Microorganisms Found in Food
15) Which organism is not likely to contaminate milk? a) Lactobacillus species b) Acetobacter johnsoni c) Penicillium d) Streptococcus lactis Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 26.1 Identify some of the microorganisms found in staples such as grain, produce, animal meats, and dairy products. Section Reference 1: Section 26.1 Microorganisms Found in Food
16) Which bacteria are responsible for nearly half the infections associated with mishandling of poultry in restaurants? a) Salmonella b) Pseudomonas c) Trichinella spiralis d) Lactobacilli Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 26.1 Identify some of the microorganisms found in staples such as grain, produce, animal meats, and dairy products. Section Reference 1: Section 26.1 Microorganisms Found in Food
17) The coffee rust,
, is a fungus that has devastated some coffee plantations.
a) Phytophthora infestans b) Erwinia carotovora c) Candida species d) Hemileia vastatrix Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 26.1 Identify some of the microorganisms found in staples such as grain, produce, animal meats, and dairy products. Section Reference 1: Section 26.1 Microorganisms Found in Food
18) A bacterial strain used to remove the pectin in the outer layer of the coffee bean in preparation for processing is . a) Phytophthora infestans b) Erwinia carotovora c) Erwinia dissolvens d) Hemileia vastatri
Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 26.1 Identify some of the microorganisms found in staples such as grain, produce, animal meats, and dairy products. Section Reference 1: Section 26.1 Microorganisms Found in Food
19) Tuberculosis can be transmitted by
.
a) unpasteurized milk b) unpasteurized cheeses c) fomites in food d) all of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 26.2 Describe food preservation methods in popular use today. Section Reference 1: Section 26.2 Preventing Disease Transmission and Food Spoilage
20) Which of the following can be transmitted to humans who eat infected meat? a) anthrax b) Q fever c) listeriosis d) all of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 26.2 Describe food preservation methods in popular use today. Section Reference 1: Section 26.2 Preventing Disease Transmission and Food Spoilage
21) What can cause mild to severe gastroenteritis, arthritis, glomerulonephrities, a fatal typhoid like septicemia, and fatal ileitis, an inflammation of the small intestines that can be misdiagnosed as appendicitis? a) Adirondack disease b) Erysipelas c) Yersinia enterocolitica infection d) Two of these choices Answer: d
Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 26.2 Describe food preservation methods in popular use today. Section Reference 1: Section 26.2 Preventing Disease Transmission and Food Spoilage
22) Milk naturally contains some antimicrobial substances which include: a) agglutinins b) leukocytes c) lactenin d) all of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 26.2 Describe food preservation methods in popular use today. Section Reference 1: Section 26.2 Preventing Disease Transmission and Food Spoilage
23) The bacterial growth that produces gases which cause bulging at the ends of cans due to improper storing is known as . a) flat sour spoilage b) bulge sour spoilage c) thermophilic anaerobic spoilage d) thermophilic aerobic spoilage Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 26.2 Describe food preservation methods in popular use today. Section Reference 1: Section 26.2 Preventing Disease Transmission and Food Spoilage
24) Lyophilization involves: a) irradiating foods b) drying foods c) freezing foods d) two of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 26.2 Describe food preservation methods in popular use today.
Section Reference 1: Section 26.2 Preventing Disease Transmission and Food Spoilage
25) Food processing equipment is disinfected with
.
a) ultraviolet radiation b) formaldehyde c) gamma rays d) microwaves Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 26.2 Describe food preservation methods in popular use today. Section Reference 1: Section 26.2 Preventing Disease Transmission and Food Spoilage
26) Ionizing radiation has been used as a food preservative for
.
a) controlling microbial growth on fresh fish b) killing insects in spices c) reducing spoilage of fresh fruits and vegetables d) all of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 26.2 Describe food preservation methods in popular use today. Section Reference 1: Section 26.2 Preventing Disease Transmission and Food Spoilage
27) Antibiotics are not added to foods and milk in the United States because: a) resistant strains of pathogens might arise from the process b) humans might become allergic to antibiotics c) antibiotics might interfere with the activities of microbes essential for fermenting milk and making cheese d) all of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 26.2 Describe food preservation methods in popular use today. Section Reference 1: Section 26.2 Preventing Disease Transmission and Food Spoilage
28) The commonest method of pasteurization that currently is used to sterilize milk is . a) high-temperature short-time pasteurization b) holding method pasteurization c) ultra-high temperature treatment d) all of these choices Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 26.2 Describe food preservation methods in popular use today. Section Reference 1: Section 26.2 Preventing Disease Transmission and Food Spoilage
29) High quality milk is guaranteed to consumers by: a) phosphatase test b) reductase test c) tests for coliforms d) all of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 26.2 Describe food preservation methods in popular use today. Section Reference 1: Section 26.2 Preventing Disease Transmission and Food Spoilage
30) Which of the following microbes have been used as food products for human consumption? a) bacteria b) algae c) yeasts d) all of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 26.3 Discuss the roles of bacteria, fungi, and algae in providing food and drink for human consumption. Section Reference 1: Section 26.3 Microorganisms as Food and in Food Production
31) Spirulina has been grown for centuries in alkaline lakes in Africa, in Mexico and by the ancient Incas in Peru to be used . a) as fertilizer b) as animal feed c) for human consumption d) as preservatives Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 26.3 Discuss the roles of bacteria, fungi, and algae in providing food and drink for human consumption. Section Reference 1: Section 26.3 Microorganisms as Food and in Food Production
32) Which of the following food and microbiology characteristic is incorrectly matched? a) soy sauce—Aspergillus oryzae b) miso—fermented paste of soybeans c) sauerkraut—Acetobacter aceti d) fermenting meats, like salami—Lactobacillus and Pediococcus Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 26.3 Discuss the roles of bacteria, fungi, and algae in providing food and drink for human consumption. Section Reference 1: Section 26.3 Microorganisms as Food and in Food Production
33) Which alkylating agent is used to control microbes in nuts and spices? a) ethylene oxide b) nisin c) propylene oxide d) two of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 26.3 Discuss the roles of bacteria, fungi, and algae in providing food and drink for human consumption. Section Reference 1: Section 26.3 Microorganisms as Food and in Food Production
34) Nisin is: a) an alkylating agent b) has anticlostridial activity c) is produced by Streptococcus lactis d) two of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 26.3 Discuss the roles of bacteria, fungi, and algae in providing food and drink for human consumption. Section Reference 1: Section 26.3 Microorganisms as Food and in Food Production
35) Which microbe lends Swiss cheese its flavor and characteristic holes? a) Propionibacterium b) Streptococcus lactis c) Escherichia coli d) Staphylococcus Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 26.3 Discuss the roles of bacteria, fungi, and algae in providing food and drink for human consumption. Section Reference 1: Section 26.3 Microorganisms as Food and in Food Production
36) Biohydrometallurgy is: a) the production of steroid hormones by microorganisms b) the utilization of microbes to extract metals from ores c) an effective method to prevent canned foods from becoming contaminated d) undertaken by large pharmaceutical companies Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 26.3 Discuss the roles of bacteria, fungi, and algae in providing food and drink for human consumption. Section Reference 1: Section 26.3 Microorganisms as Food and in Food Production
37) Flat sour spoilage in canned goods is caused by
.
a) Clostridium botulinum b) thermophilic bacteria c) psychrophilic bacteria d) Staphylococcus species Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 26.3 Discuss the roles of bacteria, fungi, and algae in providing food and drink for human consumption. Section Reference 1: Section 26.3 Microorganisms as Food and in Food Production
38) Why is the alcohol content of wine around 12%? a) because federal regulation only allows that much b) because higher concentrations will kill the yeast c) it actually is 6%, but alcohol is added later d) bacterial content will die at higher concentrations Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 26.4 Explain the role of fungi in alcoholic beverage production. Section Reference 1: Section 26.4 Beer, Wine, and Spirits
39) The yeast responsible for wine and beer is generally: a) Candida b) Aspergillus c) Saccharomyces d) Mucor Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 26.4 Explain the role of fungi in alcoholic beverage production. Section Reference 1: Section 26.4 Beer, Wine, and Spirits
40) Canned goods will
.
a) not spoil unless they are dented or improperly canned at the factory b) not spoil because of the high salt content c) will remain edible for years if not contaminated d) have been subjected to dry heat under very low pressure but high oxygen treatment Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 26.2 Describe food preservation methods in popular use today. Section Reference 1: Section 26.2 Preventing Disease Transmission and Food Spoil
41) Microorganisms have been found to
.
a) degrade cyanide b) deactivate Arochlor 1260, the most highly toxic PCB compound c) degrade dioxin d) all of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 26.7 Explain how microbial metabolism may be harnassed for mining processes. Section Reference 1: Section 26.7 Microbiological Mining
42) Which term is matched correctly? a) aflatoxin – carcinogenic in lungs b) ergot -- can be hallucinogenic c) lysozyme – found in egg yolks d) flat sours – occurs in cans left at room temperature Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 26.2 Describe food preservation methods in popular use today. Section Reference 1: Section 26.2 Preventing Disease Transmission and Food Spoil
43) To be suitable for industrial use, a microorganism should
.
a) grow rapidly and produce product in a relatively short period of time. b) be capable of growth and product formation in large scale culture. c) be genetically stable.
d) all of these choices. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 26.5 Evaluate the role of microbes in industrial microbiology. Section Reference 1: Section 26.5 Industrial and Pharmaceutical Microbiology
44) Yeast is used to make all of the following food products except: a) buttermilk b) bread c) wine d) spirits Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 26.5 Evaluate the role of microbes in industrial microbiology. Section Reference 1: Section 26.5 Industrial and Pharmaceutical Microbiology
45) All of the following are true about microorganisms in food except: a) freezing kills most microbes that contaminate food b) many microbes find the high osmotic pressure in jam inhospitable c) scallops rarely transmit disease because only muscular portions are eaten d) chicken eggs are porous allowing the entry of bacteria as well as fungi Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 26.5 Evaluate the role of microbes in industrial microbiology. Section Reference 1: Section 26.5 Industrial and Pharmaceutical Microbiology
46) Glutamic acid is probably the amino acid manufactured by fermentation in the greatest quantity. What is its major use? a) as a flavor enhancer b) as a raw material for animals feeds c) a nutritional supplement d) a starting material for aspartame Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 26.6 Identify valuable organic products that may be harvested from cultured microbes. Section Reference 1: Section 26.6 Useful Organic Products
47) The major use for microbially derived proteases is: a) in laundry detergents and drain cleaners b) as animal feed c) chemical modification of food additives d) in the production of high fructose corn syrup Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 26.6 Identify valuable organic products that may be harvested from cultured microbes. Section Reference 1: Section 26.6 Useful Organic Products
48) Wort is a precursor for
.
a) white wine b) red wine c) brandy d) beer Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 26.6 Identify valuable organic products that may be harvested from cultured microbes. Section Reference 1: Section 26.6 Useful Organic Products
49) Which statement about single-cell proteins is incorrect? a) Single-cell proteins are whole organisms rich in protein. b) They are used in the production of steroid hormones. c) They can make protein from cheap sources such as pulp or petroleum waste. d) They are currently used in animal feed. Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 26.6 Identify valuable organic products that may be harvested from cultured microbes. Section Reference 1: Section 26.6 Useful Organic Products
50) What statement about microbial production of enzymes is incorrect? a) All enzymes used in industrial processes are synthesized in living organisms. b) Enzyme specificity minimizes the problems of product purification. c) Invertase is the commercially available enzyme produced in greatest quantity. d) Aspergillus molds produce proteases and amylases. Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 26.6 Identify valuable organic products that may be harvested from cultured microbes. Section Reference 1: Section 26.6 Useful Organic Products
51) Vinegar: a) can be made from microorganisms from ethanol or cellulose b) is rarely made by microorganisms c) is made by adding sodium sulfite to a yeast fermentation d) is used in the manufacture of antifreeze, pesticides, explosives and cosmetics Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 26.6 Identify valuable organic products that may be harvested from cultured microbes. Section Reference 1: Section 26.6 Useful Organic Products
52) Microbes can be used to extract a) iron b) copper c) lead d) zinc e) All of these choices Answer: e
.
Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 26.7 Explain how microbial metabolism may be harnessed for mining processes. Section Reference 1: Section 26.7 Microbiological Mining
53) Sewage treatment plants use microbes for
.
a) waste disposal b) biosynthesis c) endothermic reactions d) exothermic reactions Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 26.8 Explain the role of microbes in bioremediation and the challenges facing the bioremediation industry. Section Reference 1: Section 26.8 Microbiological Waste Disposal
54) What type(s) of ions have been reclaimed as a result of microbial activity in this image?
a) Ferric ions b) Sulfate ions c) Nitrite ions
d) Ferrous ions e) Two of these choices Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 26.7 Explain how microbial metabolism may be harnessed for mining processes. Section Reference 1: Section 26.7 Microbiological Mining
55) Identify the microbe that has been importance in catalyzing the oxidation of copper sulfate in this image.
a) Thiobacillus ferrooxidans b) Leptospirillium ferrooxidans c) Thiobacillus organoparus d) Methylophilus Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 26.7 Explain how microbial metabolism may be harnessed for mining processes. Section Reference 1: Section 26.7 Microbiological Mining
56) What type of organism was used to help create this vaccination for Hepatitis B?
a) Virus b) Fungi c) Protist d) Algae e) None of these choices Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 26.6 Identify valuable organic products that may be harvested from cultured microbes. Section Reference 1: Section 26.6 Useful Organic Products
Question Type: Essay
57) Why is Salmonella so often responsible for foodborne illnesses? Through what routes can it enter eggs? What are the safeguards one can take to protect against Salmonella-contaminated poultry, eggs and meats? Answer: Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 26.2 Describe food preservation methods in popular use today. Section Reference 1: Section 26.2 Preventing Disease Transmission and Food Spoilage
Solution: Salmonella is so often responsible for foodbourne infections because it is extremely hardy (resists most of our attempts to clean food) and is ubiquitous, being part of the normal microflora of birds and found in some animal intestines. Salmonella develops biofilms that are difficult to remove on surfaces of fruits and vegetables. Freezing fails to rid poultry of Salmonella. Our poultry products are heavily contaminated. Salmonella can enter eggs from feces, feathers and contaminated surfaces that come into contact with the porous eggs. And hens infected with S. pullorum lay infected eggs. Safegaurds against Salmonella include: assuming that all eggs are contaminated and not consuming raw eggs or uncoked cake/bread batters, avoiding cracked eggs, storing eggs with big end up, removing shells dropped into batter and handling raw poultry carefully, scrubbing any surfaces thoroughly that come into contact with raw poultry and juices and always washing your hands.
58) Are food spoilage microorganisms also pathogens? Give examples to support your answer. Outline 4 methods of food preservation. How does each method limit growth of microorganisms? Answer: Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 26.2 Describe food preservation methods in popular use today. Section Reference 1: Section 26.2 Preventing Disease Transmission and Food Spoilage Solution: Not all food spoilage microorganisms are pathogens- for example soil organisms can cause food spoilage but are not human pathogens (these include Rhizopus, Penicillium, Erwinia, Phytophthora, Fusarium, Monilia, Cladosporium, Acinetobacter and Lactobacillus species). In fact Lactobacillius species are considered commensals. However some pathogenic organisms can be transmitted in food and milk and a few such as Clostridium botulinum and Listeria lead to food spoilage. Methods of food preservation include canning; refrigeration; freezing; lyophilization and drying; use of chemical food additives; and irradiation. Canning occurs by using moist heat to kill all vegetativemicroorganisms and most endospores. Refrigeration and freezing simply lower the temperature below where most microorganisms can divide (but the majority can survive, just not replicate). Drying and lyophilization remove most of the water in foods, preventing replication of microbes. Chemical food additives make conditions unfavorable for replication (either by being toxic, or altering pH or osmotic pressure). Irradiation kills microorganisms but does not cause the food itself to become radioactive.
59) Microorganisms have been proposed to produce ethanol for biofuel. Do you believe this will be a good alternative to petroleum or coal based energy? Does making energy from five-carbon or six-carbon sugars produce more energy? Justify your answer. Answer:
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 26.6 Identify valuable organic products that may be harvested form cultured microbes. Section Reference 1: Section 26.6 Useful Organic Products Solution: Personal opinion in which crop raising impacts are discussed along with effects on global warming, costs of alternative fuel developments, international competition, and political ramifications. Answers should also address the fact that making biofuels with organisms such as traditionally employed yeasts that use only six-carbon sugars fails to extract a significant amount of energy from the grain. Producing alcohol for fuel is currently almost a break-even activity (the energy obtained from 6 carbon sugars is equal to energy required to produce it). Thus to be a more competitive alternative, microbiologists will have to come up with a way to make ethanol production an energy producing activity perhaps by finding more microbes which use five carbon sugars to produce ethanol.