TEST BANK for Microbiology with Diseases by Body System 5th Edition by Robert Bauman by ACADEMIAMILL

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 5e (Bauman) Chapter 1 A Brief History of Microbiology 1.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Antoni van Leeuwenhoek was the first person in history to A) use a magnifying glass. B) develop a taxonomic system. C) view microorganisms and record these observations. D) disprove spontaneous generation. E) use the germ theory of disease. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Early Years of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.1 2) The microbes commonly known as ________ are single-celled eukaryotes that are generally motile. A) archaea B) bacteria C) fungi D) protozoa E) viruses Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Early Years of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.3 3) Which of the following are prokaryotes? A) algae B) molds C) protozoa D) archaea E) worms Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Early Years of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.5

4) Louis Pasteur demonstrated that fermentation to produce alcohol is caused by A) aerobes. B) facultative anaerobes. C) obligate parasites. D) archaea. E) prokaryotes. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.6 5) Which of the following scientists provided evidence in favor of the concept of spontaneous generation? A) Pasteur B) Needham C) Redi D) Buchner E) Spallanzani Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.7 6) Pasteur's experiments on fermentation laid the foundation for A) industrial microbiology. B) epidemiology. C) immunology. D) abiogenesis. E) antisepsis. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.10 7) Which of the following statements about fungi is FALSE? A) Fungi are eukaryotes. B) Molds are multicellular. C) Fungi have a cell wall. D) Fungi are photosynthetic. E) Yeasts are unicellular. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Early Years of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.3

8) Which of the following contribute to the successful application of Koch's postulates? A) the development of the compound microscope B) the theory of abiogenesis C) the ability to record the appearance of bacteria photographically D) the development of simple bacterial staining techniques E) the development of techniques for sterile transfer of bacteria Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.13 9) Which of the following individuals pioneered the use of chemicals to reduce the incidence of infections during surgery? A) Nightingale B) Snow C) Ehrlich D) Lister E) Semmelweis Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.16 10) The technique developed by Hans Christian Gram is important for bacterial A) etiology. B) identification. C) classification. D) isolation. E) epidemiology. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.15 11) The use of chemical agents to harm or kill microbes is A) immunology. B) chemotherapy. C) epidemiology. D) serology. E) biotechnology. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.18

12) Parasitic worms, even meters-long tapeworms, are studied in microbiology because A) they are parasites. B) diagnosis usually involves microscopic examination of patient samples. C) the Gram stain can be used to identify them. D) Leeuwenhoek first discovered them. E) no one else wants to study them. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Early Years of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.4 13) Which of the following areas of investigation is considered a major driver of modern microbiology? A) microbial classification B) industrial microbiology C) the etiology of infectious disease D) genetics E) food preparation Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Modern Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.19 14) Work by ________ laid the foundations of immunology with the development of vaccines. A) Redi and Spallanzani B) Koch and Pasteur C) Jenner and Pasteur D) Lister and Semmelweis E) Pauling and Woese Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.17 15) According to Kluyver and van Niel, which of the following are TRUE of basic biochemical reactions? A) They vary widely among living things. B) There are an unlimited number of them. C) They all require energy input. D) Basic biochemical reactions of life primarily involve transfer of electrons and hydrogen ions. E) They primarily involve transfers of chemical groups. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: The Modern Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.19

16) Semmelweis advocated handwashing as a method of preventing which of the following diseases? A) cholera B) puerperal fever C) smallpox D) anthrax E) syphilis Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.16 17) Paul Ehrlich used chemotherapy to treat A) cholera. B) cancer. C) anthrax. D) smallpox. E) syphilis. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.18 18) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of viruses? A) They are visible with a light microscope. B) They are acellular. C) They are composed of genetic material and protein. D) They are typically smaller than prokaryotic cells. E) They are obligatory parasites. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Early Years of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.3 19) The first true vaccine protected against disease caused by a(n) ________ pathogen. A) bacterial B) protozoal C) fungal D) viral E) archaeal Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.17

20) The work of ________ lead to improvements in sewage control and other public hygiene measures. A) John Snow B) Lazzaro Spallanzani C) Florence Nightingale D) Ignaz Semmelweis E) Joseph Lister Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.16 21) Which of the following types of microbe was NOT observed by Leeuwenhoek? A) fungus B) protozoan C) prokaryote D) alga E) virus Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Early Years of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.2 22) Inserting a gene from the hepatitis B virus into yeast so that the yeast produces a viral protein is an example of A) etiology. B) genetic engineering. C) immunology. D) microbial genetics. E) gene therapy. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: The Modern Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.19 23) Louis Pasteur's experiments disproving spontaneous generation were different from John Needham's in which important way? A) The necks of the flasks Pasteur used were bent into an S-shape and left open to the air. B) Pasteur boiled infusions to kill any microbes present. C) The necks of Pasteur's flasks were bent into an S-shape and then melted to seal them. D) Pasteur used meat broths instead of infusions. E) The flasks Pasteur used were sealed with corks. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.8 6 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

24) Identification of bacteria in the laboratory usually begins with the ________ for placement in one of two large groups of bacteria. A) Koch's stain B) Gram stain C) Pasteur fermentation test D) Petri stain E) Ehrlich magic test Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.15 25) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of protozoa? A) Most exhibit asexual reproduction. B) They are single-celled organisms. C) They are eukaryotic organisms. D) They are all photosynthetic. E) They frequently possess cilia or flagella. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Early Years of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.4 26) Whose search for chemicals that would kill microbes without harming humans was the foundation for chemotherapy? A) Ehrlich B) Koch C) Gram D) Lister E) Pasteur Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.18 27) The work of Eduard Buchner and the discovery of enzymes laid the foundations for the field of A) biochemistry. B) epidemiology. C) immunology. D) mycology. E) genetics. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.12 7 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

28) What is the CORRECT order for the application of Koch's postulates? I. Inoculate suspect agent into test subject and observe that subject develops disease of interest. II. Isolate and culture suspect agent in the laboratory. III. Find suspect agent is every case of disease of interest but not in healthy hosts. IV. Recover and isolate suspect agent from test subject. A) III, I, IV, II B) IV, I, III, II C) I, II, III, IV D) III, II, I, IV E) IV, I, II, III Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.14 29) John Snow's research during a cholera outbreak in London laid the foundation for which of the following branches of microbiology? A) infection control only B) epidemiology only C) immunology only D) both infection control and epidemiology E) infection control, epidemiology, and immunology Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.16 30) Robert Koch was involved in research on all of the following topics EXCEPT A) the cause of anthrax. B) the cause of fermentation. C) development of a method to determine the cause of an infectious disease. D) the cause of tuberculosis. E) techniques for isolating microbes in the laboratory. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.13

31) Which of the following is an INCORRECT pairing? A) protozoa; multicellular B) fungi; cell walls C) algae; aquatic and marine habitats D) prokaryotes; no nuclei E) viruses; acellular parasites Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Early Years of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.3 32) What was the first disease shown to be bacterial in origin? A) yellow fever B) cholera C) anthrax D) malaria E) tuberculosis Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.13 33) The taxonomic system is a way to A) demonstrate the relationship between microbes and disease. B) classify organisms based on similarities. C) identify chemicals which may be toxic to microbes. D) demonstrate spontaneous generation. E) study disease in human populations Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Early Years of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.3 34) Who discovered penicillin? A) Fleming B) Ehrlich C) Kitasato D) Pasteur E) Domagk Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.18

35) The principle of disinfection to reduce HAIs (healthcare associated infections) among patients was initially introduced by A) L. Pasteur and R. Koch. B) I. Semmelweis and J. Lister. C) P. Erhlich and A. Fleming. D) J. Snow and R. Koch. E) E. Jenner and L. Pasteur. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.16 36) Microorganisms characterized by the absence of a nucleus are called A) fungi. B) pathogens. C) eukaryotes. D) prokaryotes. E) viruses. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Early Years of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.5 37) The hypothesis that cowpox could provide protection against smallpox was tested by ________ and provided the basis for the first vaccine. A) Robert Koch B) Edward Jenner C) Eduard Buchner D) Louis Pasteur E) Lazzaro Spallanzani Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.17 38) The experiments conducted by John T. Needham using infusions were interpreted as supporting the theory of A) antisepsis. B) bioremediation. C) spontaneous generation. D) etiology. E) chemotherapy. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.7 10 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

39) An explanation of observations and data supported by the experimental results of many scientists for many years is A) a theory. B) a hypothesis. C) scientific method. D) popular opinion. E) a control group. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.9 40) The work of ________ on fermentation led to the discovery that enzymes are responsible for the chemical reactions that occur in cells. A) Lister B) Koch C) Pasteur D) Buchner E) Woese Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.12 41) The term for the use of microorganisms to restore damaged environments is A) epidemiology. B) bioremediation. C) chemotherapy. D) serology. E) ecology. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Modern Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.20 42) The term ________ involves the study of the blood components that fight infection. A) antisepsis B) chemotherapy C) etiology D) serology E) bioremediation Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: The Modern Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.21

43) The field of ________ is a thoroughly modern discipline that has led to new ways to treat infectious disease. A) recombinant DNA technology B) epidemiology C) immunology D) serology E) biochemistry Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Modern Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.21 1.2 True/False Questions 1) Protozoa are also called prokaryotes. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Early Years of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.4 2) Single-celled organisms known as diatoms have glasslike walls and are a type of algae. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Early Years of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.4 3) The use of Saccharomyces as a probiotic is an example of the application of biotechnology. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Modern Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.19 4) Louis Pasteur is considered the Father of Microbiology because of the many carefully conducted experiments and observations he made with microbes. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.11 5) Gene therapy is a modern approach to preventing infectious disease. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Modern Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.21

6) Koch's postulates can be used to determine the causes of infectious diseases. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.14 7) Joseph Lister reduced the incidence of wound infections in health care settings by using chlorinated lime water. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.16 8) Robert Koch sought a "magic bullet" for the treatment of disease caused by bacteria. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.13 9) Enzymes are required for fermentation. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.12 10) Lazzaro Spallanzani was the first scientist to provide evidence disproving the spontaneous generation of microorganisms. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.8 1.3 Short Answer Questions 1) The amateur scientist (Koch/Leeuwenhoek/Pasteur) made his own microscopes and first reported the existence of microbes. Answer: Leeuwenhoek Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Early Years of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.1 2) A cell that contains a nucleus is called a(n) (prokaryotic/archaeal/eukaryotic) cell. Answer: eukaryotic Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Early Years of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.5 13 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

3) A(n) (photosynthetic/algae/plant) organism makes its own food using light energy. Answer: photosynthetic Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Early Years of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.3 4) Microbes that cause infectious disease are called (pathogens/germs/viruses). Answer: pathogens Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.13 5) Single-celled eukaryotes that feed on other organisms and have a cell wall are (algae/fungi/protozoa). Answer: fungi Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Early Years of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.4 6) A scientist conducts experiments to test a(n) (observation/hypothesis/theory). Answer: hypothesis Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.9 7) The work of (Needham/Redi/Spallanzani) using infusions in sealed vials provided strong evidence that spontaneous generation does not occur. Answer: Spallanzani Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.8 8) Pasteur's research on anthrax and rabies contributed to the development of the field of epidemiology/immunology/etiology). Answer: immunology Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.17 9) A (colony/habitat/biofilm) is a mixed population of microbes growing together on surfaces. Answer: biofilm Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Modern Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.21

10) Spallanzani's experiments contradicted the experiments of (Needham/Redi/Pasteur) on spontaneous generation. Answer: Needham Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.8 11) The work of Albert Kluyver and C. B. van Niel contributed to the development of (biochemistry/epidemiology/etiology). Answer: biochemistry Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Modern Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.19 12) A term synonymous with immunization, (vaccination/infection) is derived from the Latin name of the cowpox virus. Answer: vaccination Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1. 17 13) The use of chemicals to treat diseases such as bacterial infections is called (gene/therapy/chemotherapy). Answer: chemotherapy Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.18 14) The work of Oswald Avery, George Beadle, Edward Tatum and many others into the role of DNA laid the foundations of (microbial genetics/microbiology/recombinant DNA technology). Answer: microbial genetics Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Modern Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.19 15) The (physiology/metabolism) of an organism is all the chemical reactions that take place in the organism. Answer: metabolism Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.12

1.4 Essay Questions 1) You are a young scientist who has just learned about one of the hot topics in microbiology, biofilms. One aspect of the interest in biofilms is that the microbes living within biofilms appear to behave and function differently from their counterparts not living in a biofilm. Devise a way to explore the idea. (Do not focus on the technical details of how this might be accomplished.) Answer: Many answers are possible. A good answer should have a clear statement of hypothesis and an experimental design that reflects the hypothesis and will provide interpretable quantitative results. An excellent answer may include projections of possible outcomes and/or alternative hypotheses. Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis Section: The Modern Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.9, 1.19 2) Biotechnology can be said to have ancient roots. Explain. Answer: Biotechnology is the use of microbes to yield beneficial products. Humans have used microbes to their benefit for millennia in producing beer and wine, which were often safer to drink than the available water, and in preserving foods. Examples of the latter include the production of wine, which essentially preserved fruit juices, and of cheese and yogurt, which extended the storage life of milk products. Soy sauce and other fermented sauces were also preserved by fermentation and were later shown to enhance the flavors of certain foods. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.10 3) Use the basic steps of the scientific method to describe Pasteur's experiments to investigate spontaneous generation. Answer: The observation that life seemed to appear from non-life led some scientists to believe in the theory of spontaneous generation. However, Pasteur, among others, believed in biogenesis: that life must come from life. The question Pasteur hoped to answer was "Where do microbes come from?" (step 1). Pasteur's hypothesis (step 2) was that the "parents" of microbes were present in the air on dust particles. In his experiments (step 3), he used swan-necked flasks, which were designed to prevent microbes from entering the sterile broth inside them. He observed that the broth remained sterile in the control flask even though air could move into and out of the flask. The experimental flasks were also swan-necked, but they were tilted to allow the dust that had settled to enter the flask. The control flasks stayed sterile, and the experimental flasks became cloudy. These observations led Pasteur to accept his hypothesis (step 4). He concluded that the microbes came from the dust and that spontaneous generation was therefore not a valid theory. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.9

4) Explain how the discipline of biochemistry grew out of the science of microbiology. Answer: Some of the first experiments in biochemistry are attributed to Louis Pasteur in his research on the causes of fermentation. His research was extended by Eduard Buchner, who showed that enzymes produced by microbial cells are responsible for the phenomenon of fermentation. Later, in the early 20th century, Kluyver and van Niel advocated the use of microbes in research on basic biochemical reactions, which they maintained are common to all living things. Further advances in biochemistry were made as microbiologists such as Beadle and Tatum and Avery and his colleagues explored the nature of the genetic material and its function using microorganisms as model systems. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: The Modern Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.12, 1.19 5) Compare and contrast the three types of eukaryotic microbes. Answer: The three types of eukaryotic microbes are fungi, protozoa, and algae. Because they are all composed of eukaryotic cells, they have basic similarities in cellular structure, including the presence of a nucleus. However, these types of microbes differ in many ways as well. In terms of their nutrition, fungi and protozoa obtain their food from other organisms, whereas algae can make their own food through photosynthesis (a few protozoa also carry out photosynthesis). Algae and fungi can be multicellular organisms, but protozoa are found only as single-celled organisms. Protozoa are unique among the three in that they are animal-like in their characteristics, including movement. Algae are most like plants and are found in primarily waterbased environments. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: The Early Years of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.4

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 5e (Bauman) Chapter 2 The Chemistry of Microbiology 2.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following is an atomic particle that has no electrical charge? A) electron B) neutron C) element D) proton E) isotope Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Atoms Learning Outcome: 2.2 2) Matter composed of a single type of atom is known as a(n) A) element. B) mineral. C) molecule. D) compound. E) electron. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Atoms Learning Outcome: 2.1 3) A stable atom has ________ in its valence shell. A) 4 electrons B) 2 neutrons C) 8 electrons D) 8 protons E) 10 electrons Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Chemical Bonds Learning Outcome: 2.5

4) Which parts of the atoms interact in a chemical reaction? A) protons B) neutrons C) ions D) electrons E) isotopes Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Chemical Bonds Learning Outcome: 2.5 5)

The atomic mass of this stable isotope atom (Figure 2.1) is A) 4. B) 6. C) 10. D) 12. E) cannot be determined from the available information Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Atoms Learning Outcome: 2.3 6) The number of ________ of an element determines its atomic number. A) protons B) neutrons C) electrons D) valence electrons E) isotopes Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Atoms Learning Outcome: 2.3

7) The type(s) of bond(s) produced when atoms share electrons equally is/are A) a nonpolar covalent bond. B) a hydrogen bond. C) an ionic bond. D) a polar covalent bond. E) both polar covalent and ionic bonds. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Chemical Bonds Learning Outcome: 2.7 8) The type(s) of bond(s) produced when atoms with somewhat different electronegativities share electrons is/are A) a nonpolar covalent bond. B) a polar covalent bond. C) an ionic bond. D) a hydrogen bond. E) both nonpolar covalent and ionic bonds. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Chemical Bonds Learning Outcome: 2.7 9) The carbon atoms in organic compounds typically form ________ with other atoms. A) nonpolar covalent bonds B) polar covalent bonds C) ionic bonds D) hydrogen bonds E) either ionic or hydrogen bonds Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Chemical Bonds Learning Outcome: 2.7, 2.8 10) Unstable isotopes can be useful A) catalysts. B) in medical diagnosis. C) in vitamins. D) in the formation of hydrogen bonds. E) as buffers. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Atoms Learning Outcome: 2.4

11) Which of the following is an INCORRECT pairing? A) electrolytes; anions B) synthesis; endothermic C) hydrolysis; hydrogen bonds D) catabolism; exothermic E) dehydration; anabolism Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Chemical Reactions Learning Outcome: 2.16 12) The chemical formula of the oxygen we require is O2. It is A) a compound. B) an isotope. C) an element. D) a molecule. E) both an element and a molecule. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Chemical Bonds Learning Outcome: 2.3, 2.6 13) Which of the following is a property of water? A) It has a high capacity for heat. B) It is not a common reactant in metabolic reactions. C) It is not a good solvent. D) It is liquid in a very narrow temperature range. E) It is a nonpolar molecule. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Water, Acids, Bases, and Salts Learning Outcome: 2.18 14) An acid dissociates in water to release A) hydrogen ion(s). B) cation(s). C) hydroxyl group(s). D) anion(s). E) both anions and hydrogen ions. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Water, Acids, Bases, and Salts Learning Outcome: 2.19

15) The reverse of a dehydration synthesis reaction is a(n) ________ reaction. A) anabolic B) exchange C) hydrolytic D) endothermic E) metabolic Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Chemical Reactions Learning Outcome: 2.16 16) A weak acid may function as a A) transfer group. B) buffer. C) hydroxyl donor. D) cation. E) salt. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Water, Acids, Bases, and Salts Learning Outcome: 2.19 17) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of saturated fats? A) They are usually solid at room temperature. B) They contain at least one double bond. C) They are found in animals. D) Their fatty acids pack tightly together. E) They are a form of stored energy. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.22 18) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of phospholipids? A) They are found in cellular membranes. B) They can form micelles and bilayers. C) They contain fatty acids that associate with water. D) They contain a hydrophilic phosphate "head." E) They contain two fatty acids and a phosphate functional group. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.21

19) Organisms use carbohydrates in all of the following ways EXCEPT A) as a component of cell walls. B) as a long-term energy source. C) as a short-term energy source. D) to keep membranes flexible at low temperatures. E) as a building block of DNA and RNA molecules. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.23 20) Nucleic acids, proteins, and complex carbohydrates are all produced by A) hydrolytic reactions. B) dehydration synthesis. C) exchange reactions. D) hydrogen bonding. E) catabolic reactions. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.14, 2.27 21) Which of the following is an example of a polysaccharide? A) glycogen B) glucose C) fructose D) deoxyribose E) sucrose Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.23 22) Which of the following statements about proteins is FALSE? A) They are composed of amino acids. B) They have multiple levels of structural organization. C) They can be hydrophobic, hydrophilic, or both. D) Their primary function is energy storage. E) They are formed by dehydration synthesis reactions. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.24

23) All of the following are components of an amino acid EXCEPT a(n) A) carboxyl group. B) pentose group. C) amino group. D) α-carbon. E) R group. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.25 24) Which of the following is found in nucleic acids? A) amines B) carboxylic acid C) purines D) glycerol E) R group Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.26 25) Hydrogen bonds are found in all of the following EXCEPT A) between phosphates in ATP. B) in α-helices. C) between water molecules. D) in the DNA double helix between nucleotides. E) between the R groups of amino acids in proteins. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.12, 2.28 26) Tertiary and quaternary structure of proteins involves ________ bonds. A) hydrogen B) ionic C) polar covalent D) nonpolar covalent E) ionic, hydrogen, polar, and nonpolar covalent Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.25

27) All amino acids contain what functional group(s)? A) aldehyde B) amino C) ester D) carboxyl E) both amino and carboxyl Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.25 28) All of the following bases are found in RNA molecules EXCEPT A) adenine. B) thymine. C) uracil. D) cytosine. E) guanine. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.27 29) The double-strands of DNA result from the formation of ________ between the bases. A) covalent bonds B) peptide bonds C) ionic bonds D) hydrogen bonds E) α−1,4 bonds Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.27 30) Which of the following would NOT normally be found as a component of a cell's nucleic acids? A) adenine deoxyribonucleotides B) thymine deoxyribonucleotides C) uracil deoxyribonucleotides D) cytosine ribonucleotides E) adenine ribonucleotides Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.27

31) Which of the following is an accurate description of ATP? A) ATP is a form of long term energy storage. B) ATP is a compound formed of ionic bonds. C) ATP does not readily react with other cellular macromolecules. D) ATP serves as a recyclable energy for cells. E) ATP is a structural component of DNA. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.28 32) Which of the following is NOT characteristic of RNA? A) It is a helical polymer. B) It is usually double-stranded. C) Its "backbone" is composed of pentoses and phosphates. D) It contains both purines and pyrimidines. E) It can function as a catalyst. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.27 33) Which of the following is an INCORRECT pairing? A) primary structure; amino acid sequence B) secondary structure; disulfide bridges C) tertiary structure; covalent bonds D) quaternary structure; two or more polypeptides E) secondary structure; β-pleated sheets Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.25 34) Proteins contain both acidic and basic R groups and can, therefore, function as A) energy storage macromolecules. B) structural macromolecules. C) buffers. D) catalysts. E) genetic material. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.19, 2.24

35) A(n) ________ is a compound that dissolves into anions and cations in water. A) acid B) buffer C) base D) salt E) catalyst Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Water, Acids, Bases, and Salts Learning Outcome: 2.19 36) Cell walls containing ________ provide the best protection from drying. A) polysaccharides B) triglycerides C) waxes D) peptidoglycan E) sterols Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.21 37) A(n) ________ is an arrangement of atoms found in a variety of macromolecules. A) buffer B) isotope C) salt D) stereoisomer E) functional group Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.20 38) Synthesis reactions are commonly ________ reactions. A) endothermic B) exchange C) exothermic D) anabolic E) hydrolytic Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Chemical Reactions Learning Outcome: 2.15

39) Lipids found in the cytoplasmic membranes of all eukaryotic cells are A) polyunsaturated fats. B) phospholipids. C) steroids. D) waxes. E) triglycerides. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.21 40) A protein is a ________ of amino acids. A) monomer B) polymer C) bilayer D) solution E) decomposition product Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.25 41) DNA is composed of repeating units of sugars, phosphates, and nucleic acids. This is an example of a A) polymer. B) monomer. C) salt. D) micelle. E) lipid. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.27 42) An unbranched polymer composed of simple sugars is a(n) A) protein. B) triglyceride. C) starch. D) glycoprotein. E) amino acid. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.23

43) Anna is conducting an experiment using a pH indicator that is red at low pH, green at neutral pH and purple at high pH. She starts with a green solution. When she adds compound X to her solution it turns purple. Then she adds compound Z to the solution and it turns green. She adds more Z, the solution remains green. These observations suggest X is ________ and Z is ________. A) a base; a buffer B) an acid; a base C) a base; a strong acid D) an acid; a buffer E) a buffer; a base Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Water, Acids, Bases, and Salts Learning Outcome: 2.19 44) A reaction requires water as a reactant and produces heat. What type of reaction is likely to be involved? A) an endothermic reaction B) a dehydration reaction C) an exchange reaction D) a synthesis reaction E) The answer cannot be determined from the available information. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Chemical Reactions Learning Outcome: 2.15 45) Which of the following is an organic compound? A) adenine B) carbon dioxide C) molecular oxygen D) sodium chloride E) water Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Chemical Bonds Learning Outcome: 2.8

46) Which of the following is found in RNA but not DNA? A) adenine B) cytosine C) deoxyribose D) guanine E) uracil Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.27 2.2 True/False Questions 1) The smallest chemical units of matter are elements. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Atoms Learning Outcome: 2.1 2) The side groups of amino acids can interact with each other and with other molecules. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Organic Molecules Learning Outcome: 2.25 3) A molecule composed of carbon and hydrogen is a compound. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Chemical Bonds Learning Outcome: 2.6 4) The electron shells of atoms hold eight electrons each. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Atoms Learning Outcome: 2.5 5) Hydrogen bonds are stronger than covalent bonds. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Atoms Learning Outcome: 2.12

6) A nucleotide with a single cyclic ring structure is a pyrimidine. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.27 7) Denaturation of a protein is always permanent. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.25 8) The valence of an atom is determined by the total number of electrons it contains. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Chemical Bonds Learning Outcome: 2.5 9) Dehydration synthesis is a common feature of polymer production in cells. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.14 10) Salts are produced from exchange reactions in which acids and bases neutralize each other. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Water, Acids, Bases, and Salts Learning Outcome: 2.19 2.3 Short Answer Questions 1) Radioactive iodine is sometimes used to treat thyroid cancer. This is an example of the use of (isotopes/elements/ isomers) in medical treatment. Answer: isotopes Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Atoms Learning Outcome: 2.4 2) A(n) (nonpolar/polar/ionic/hydrogen) bond is one in which electrons are shared equally between atoms. Answer: nonpolar Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Chemical Bonds Learning Outcome: 2.7

3) Cell surface markers composed of both carbohydrate and lipid molecules are known as (glycoproteins/glycolipids/LPS). Answer: glycolipids Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.23 4) An atom or molecule becomes a(n) (anion/ion/cation) when it loses an electron to a more electronegative molecule. Answer: cation Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Chemical Bonds Learning Outcome: 2.10 5) A chemical reaction in which a water molecule is a reactant is known as a (dehydration/endothermic/hydrolysis) reaction. Answer: hydrolysis Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Chemical Reactions Learning Outcome: 2.16 6) When a base dissolves in water it releases a(n) (electron/cation/hydrogen ion). Answer: cation Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Water, Acids, Bases, and Salts Learning Outcome: 2.19 7) The folding of a polypeptide into a three-dimensional shape is its (secondary/tertiary/quaternary) structure. Answer: tertiary Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.25 8) The DNA double helix is held together by (covalent/ionic/hydrogen) bonds. Answer: hydrogen Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Chemical Bonds Learning Outcome: 2.12

Figure 2.2 depicts the (primary/secondary/tertiary) structure of a protein. Answer: primary Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.25 10) A(n) (catalyst/enzyme) is any molecule that speeds up a chemical reaction. Answer: catalyst Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.24 11) The monomer of a nucleic acid is called a (nucleoside/nucleotide/base). Answer: nucleotide Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.27 12) A nitrogenous base composed of two rings is a (purine/pyrimidine/ribose). Answer: purine Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.26 13) Jim adds an acid to a solution, but finds the pH has not changed afterward. This suggests the solution contains a(n) (anion/buffer/salt). Answer: buffer Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Water, Acids, Bases, and Salts Learning Outcome: 2.19 14) A saturated fatty acid contains (no/one/multiple) double bonds. Answer: no Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.22 16 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

15) The isotopes of an element vary in the number of (electrons/neutrons/protons) in the atom. Answer: neutrons Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Atoms Learning Outcome: 2.4 2.4 Essay Questions 1) Compare and contrast synthesis reactions with decomposition reactions. Answer: Synthesis and decomposition reactions are often the reverse of each other. Synthesis reactions consume energy (are endothermic), whereas decomposition reactions release energy (are exothermic). Synthesis reactions often release water molecules in a process called dehydration synthesis, whereas decomposition reactions often consume water molecules in a process called hydrolysis. Finally, decomposition reactions break large macromolecules into their component monomers, which can then be used in synthesis reactions to build new macromolecules for use by the cell, whereas synthesis reactions utilize component monomers to build larger molecules. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Chemical Reactions Learning Outcome: 2.16 2) Discuss the importance of hydrogen bonds in the chemistry of the cell. Answer: The chemistry of the cell would basically be impossible without hydrogen bonds. Water, which is required by all cellular reactions, would not have its unique properties of cohesiveness and polarity without hydrogen bonds. Hydrogen bonds hold the double helix of DNA together and contribute to the overall shape of protein molecules. However, unlike covalent bonds, hydrogen bonds are low energy bonds, so they can easily and temporarily be broken, a characteristic that is important at certain points in the cell's life cycle (such as during DNA replication). Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Chemical Bonds Learning Outcome: 2.12

3) Max is exploring the properties of various compounds. Some of his explorations involve the use of a pH indicator that is red at low pH, yellow-green at neutral pH and blue to purple at high pH. He sets up several tubes containing water and the pH indicator and then begins to add some of the compounds (L, M, and N) he is characterizing in various combinations. His results are shown on the following table.

What can Max conclude about his compounds based on these results? Describe the likely events in terms of hydrogen and hydroxyl ions. Answer: Max's results are consistent with L being an acid and M being a weak base. Compound N appears to be a buffer. The green color of the indicator is seen when the concentrations of hydroxyl and hydrogen ions are equal. The red color of the solution indicates the concentration of hydrogen ions is greater than the hydroxyl ion concentration. The data does not provide information for calculating the concentrations. Blue and purple indicator colors show the hydroxyl ion concentrations exceed the hydrogen ion concentrations. The results with the mixes of L and M suggest that L dissolves to release five times more hydrogen ions than the concentration of hydroxyl ions produced by the ionization of M. Compound N accepts or releases ions with changing hydrogen ion concentrations to maintain equal concentrations of cations and anions. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Water, Acids, Bases, and Salts Learning Outcome: 2.19 4) Describe the chemical properties of phospholipids that account for their behavior in water. Answer: Phospholipids have polar phosphate "heads" and nonpolar fatty acid "tails," which interact in different ways with water molecules. The phospholipid heads are attracted to polar water molecules, but the nonpolar tails of the phospholipid are repelled by water. As the tails are driven away from the water molecules, they congregate together, either in the interior of a ball of lipid (called a micelle) or within the interior of a double layer of phospholipids (called a bilayer). This leaves the phosphate heads "outside," where they can easily interact with the water molecules. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.21

Consider the structure of thymine, shown on the left in Figure 2.3 above, and compare to the structure of pyrimidine X on the right. What would be the impact if X is incorporated into the structure of a DNA strand in place of thymine? Answer: Where thymine has a nonpolar group, pyrimidine X has a polar functional group. If incorporated into a DNA strand pyrimidine X would not form the proper hydrogen bonds with either A or G, resulting in mismatches between DNA strands or, more seriously, disruption of the DNA strand. This type of alteration can lead to mutations in the DNA. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.26

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 5e (Bauman) Chapter 3 Cell Structure and Function 3.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Using a microscope, you observe an amoeba moving toward a food source. This is an example of A) reproduction. B) cellular structure. C) metabolism. D) growth. E) responsiveness. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Processes of Life Learning Outcome: 3.1 2) Which of the following is NOT a component of bacterial flagella? A) flagellin B) basal body C) tubulin D) filament E) hook Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: External Structure of Bacterial Cells Learning Outcome: 3.5 3) Which of the following statements concerning the characteristics of life is FALSE? A) Reproduction is defined as an increase in the size of an organism. B) Viruses have some, but not all, of the characteristics of living things. C) Organisms may not exhibit all of the characteristics of life at all times. D) Reproduction can occur asexually or sexually in living things. E) Living things store metabolic energy in the form of chemicals such as ATP. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Processes of Life Learning Outcome: 3.1

4) Some bacteria have an outer layer called a ________ which allows them to adhere to surfaces and contributes to their ability to cause disease. A) cell wall B) LPS C) capsule D) flagellum E) pilus Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: External Structure of Bacterial Cells Learning Outcome: 3.3 5) Which of the following bacterial cell structures plays an important role in the creation of biofilms? A) glycocalyces B) flagella C) fimbriae D) pili E) both fimbriae and glycocalyces Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: External Structure of Bacterial Cells Learning Outcome: 3.3, 3.7 6) Which of the following organisms is a prokaryote? A) algae B) archaea C) fungus D) protozoa E) both archaea and protozoa Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cells: An Overview Learning Outcome: 3.2 7) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of all living things? A) metabolism B) motility C) growth D) reproduction E) responsiveness Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Processes of Life Learning Outcome: 3.1

8) Some bacteria have a water-soluble outer slime layer composed of A) carbohydrate. B) lipid. C) peptidoglycan. D) protein. E) lipoteichoic acid. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: External Structure of Bacterial Cells Learning Outcome: 3.3 9) Which of the following statements concerning conjugation pili is FALSE? A) Pili are longer than fimbriae and flagella. B) Pili facilitate the transfer of DNA among bacterial cells. C) Pili are long, hollow tubules. D) Not all bacteria have pili. E) A bacterial cell will usually have only one or two pili. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: External Structure of Bacterial Cells Learning Outcome: 3.7 10) Which of the following may be a component of bacterial cell walls? A) carrageenan B) lipoteichoic acids C) mycolic acid D) tubulin E) both lipoteichoic and mycolic acids Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Cell Walls Learning Outcome: 3.11 11) Bacterial cell walls that are resistant to drying contain A) carbohydrates. B) amino acids. C) lipopolysaccharide. D) tubulin. E) waxes. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Cell Walls Learning Outcome: 3.11

12) Lipid A is a component of A) the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria. B) plant cell walls. C) cytoplasmic membranes. D) Gram-positive bacterial membranes. E) bacterial glycocalyces. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Cell Walls Learning Outcome: 3.12 13) Bacteria of the genus Mycoplasma lack cell walls. What sort of environment do they require for survival? A) low temperature B) hypotonic C) isotonic D) hypertonic E) a biofilm Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Bacterial Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.17 14) Lipid-soluble molecules would be expected to cross the cytoplasmic membrane by which of the following processes? A) osmosis B) facilitated diffusion C) diffusion D) active transport E) group translocation Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.16 15) ATP is expended in which of the following processes? A) facilitated diffusion B) diffusion C) group translocation D) active transport E) both active transport and group translocation Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.16

16) Which of the following statements concerning osmosis is FALSE? A) Osmosis requires a selectively permeable membrane. B) During osmosis, water crosses to the side of the membrane with a lower solute concentration. C) Cells placed in hypotonic solutions will gain water. D) Crenation results when blood cells are placed in a hypertonic solution. E) Osmosis stops when the system reaches equilibrium. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Bacterial Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.17 17) Endospores survive a variety of harsh conditions in part because of the presence of A) mycolic acid. B) lipopolysaccharide. C) hopanoids. D) dipicolinic acid. E) glycoproteins. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Cytoplasm of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 3.20 18) Bacterial ________ are sites of metabolite storage. A) nucleoids B) vacuoles C) inclusions D) pili E) periplasm Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Cytoplasm of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 3.19 19) The flagella of archaea are similar to bacterial flagella but differ in that they A) lack a basal body. B) move like a whip. C) are anchored in the cytoplasm. D) are hollow. E) are driven by ATP hydrolysis. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: External Structure of Archaea Learning Outcome: 3.24

20)

The cells illustrated in Figure 3.1 are in a(n) ________ environment. A) hypotonic B) hypertonic C) isotonic D) fluid mosaic E) passive Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.17 21) The bacterial ________ maintains the DNA in a specific location and facilitates the process of bacterial cell division. A) nucleoid B) inclusion C) pilus D) cytoskeleton E) fimbriae Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Cytoplasm of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 3.21 6 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

22) Bacterial ribosomes are composed of several polypeptides and A) three RNA molecules in two subunits. B) three RNA molecules in three subunits. C) two RNA molecules in two subunits. D) two RNA molecules in a single complex. E) one large RNA molecule in a single complex. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Cytoplasm of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 3.21 23) The glycocalyx of a eukaryotic cell performs all of the following functions EXCEPT A) protection against dehydration. B) anchoring cells to each other. C) cellular recognition and communication. D) transfer of genetic material between cells. E) strengthening the cell surface. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: External Structure of Eukaryotic Cells Learning Outcome: 3.30 24) Which of the following is a nonmembranous organelle found only in eukaryotic cells? A) cytoskeleton B) flagellum C) ribosome D) centriole E) pilus Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes Learning Outcome: 3.39 25) Which of the following is part of the structure of the mitochondria of a eukaryotic cell? A) cilia B) cristae C) thylakoids D) inclusions E) nucleolus Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes Learning Outcome: 3.43

26) Which of the following statements about the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) is CORRECT? A) The rough ER is the site of lipid synthesis. B) The smooth ER has ribosomes associated with it. C) The ER is a lipid storage organelle. D) The ER is a transport system within the cytoplasm. E) The smooth ER is a site of ATP synthesis. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes Learning Outcome: 3.42 27) Short, hairlike structures used only by eukaryotic cells for movement are called A) pili. B) flagella. C) fimbriae. D) pseudopodia. E) cilia. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes Learning Outcome: 3.37 28) Chloroplasts differ from mitochondria in that the former have A) DNA. B) two lipid bilayers. C) 70S ribosomes. D) thylakoids. E) cristae. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes Learning Outcome: 3.43 29) Which of the following is paired INCORRECTLY? A) plants; cellulose cell wall B) algae; glycocalyx C) bacteria; peptidoglycan cell wall D) fungi; polysaccharide cell wall E) archaea; protein cell wall Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Eukaryotic Cell Walls and Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.30

30) Which of the following statements concerning endocytosis is TRUE? A) This process occurs in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes. B) Phagocytosis is a type of endocytosis in which liquids are brought into the cell. C) Endocytosis produces a structure called a food vesicle. D) Waste products and secretions are exported from the cell during endocytosis. E) Endocytosis is a form of passive transport. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Eukaryotic Cell Walls and Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.32 31) Which of the following is NOT a function of the eukaryotic cytoskeleton? A) anchors organelles B) gives shape to the cell C) packages cellular secretions D) performs endocytosis E) aids in contraction of the cell Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes Learning Outcome: 3.39 32) The accumulation of glucose 6-phosphate inside a bacterial cell via phosphorylation of glucose is an example of A) facilitated diffusion. B) group translocation. C) osmosis. D) plasmolysis. E) diffusion. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.16 33) What types of molecules may NOT need transport proteins to be able to cross cytoplasmic membranes? A) large molecules B) ions C) small hydrophobic molecules D) small hydrophilic molecules E) nothing crosses cytoplasmic membranes without transport proteins Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Bacterial Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.15

34) Which of the following processes requires a channel protein? A) diffusion only B) facilitated diffusion only C) active transport only D) endocytosis only E) both facilitated diffusion and active transport Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Eukaryotic Cell Walls and Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.16 35) Which of the following chemical substances contributes to the unique characteristics of acidfast bacteria? A) N-acetylglucosamine B) peptidoglycan C) lipoteichoic acid D) endotoxin E) mycolic acid Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Bacterial Cell Walls Learning Outcome: 3.11 36) The cytoplasmic membranes of ________ may contain branched hydrocarbons. A) archaeal cells B) bacterial cells C) eukaryotic cells D) both bacterial and eukaryotic cells E) archaeal, bacterial, and eukaryotic cells Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Eukaryotic Cell Walls and Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.28 37) Membrane rafts are found in the cytoplasmic membranes of A) archaea only. B) bacteria only. C) eukaryotes only. D) both archaea and bacteria. E) both archaea and eukaryotes. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Eukaryotic Cell Walls and Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.31

38) Endocytosis and exocytosis are means of transport used by A) bacteria. B) eukaryotes. C) archaea. D) all prokaryotes. E) nothing; no cells use both processes. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Eukaryotic Cell Walls and Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.32 39) Some ________ use group translocation as a means of transport. A) eukaryotes B) bacteria C) archaea D) protozoa E) eukaryotes and prokaryotes Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.16 40) Cholesterols are typically found in ________ cytoplasmic membranes. A) eukaryotic B) bacterial C) archaeal D) prokaryotic E) both eukaryotic and prokaryotic Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Eukaryotic Cell Walls and Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.31 41) The cell walls of some ________ are composed of minerals such as calcium carbonate. A) archaea B) bacteria C) algae D) fungi E) bacteria and fungi Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Eukaryotic Cell Walls and Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.31

42) Cytoplasmic membranes of ________ are composed of unbranched phospholipids. A) bacteria B) eukaryotes C) archaea D) prokaryotes E) bacteria and eukaryotes Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Eukaryotic Cell Walls and Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.31 43) Which of the following contribute to the ability of archaea to survive in extreme environments? A) branched hydrocarbons with ether linkages B) phospholipids with monounsaturated fatty acids C) hopanoids D) glycerols E) both hopanoids and glycerols Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Archaeal Cell Walls and Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.28 44) ________ may have pili. A) Eukaryotes B) Archaea C) Bacteria D) Prokaryotes E) Both eukaryotes and bacteria Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: External Structure of Eukaryotic Cells Learning Outcome: 3.7, 3.30 45) Which of the following never have cell walls? A) algae B) animal cells C) archaea D) bacteria E) fungi Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Eukaryotic Cell Walls and Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.31

46) Which of the following may have cell walls containing teichoic acids? A) Gram-negative bacteria only B) Gram-positive bacteria only C) archaea D) both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria E) all prokaryotes Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Archaeal Cell Walls and Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.11, 3.27 47)

What is the function of the cellular structure indicated by "c" in Figure 3.2? A) provide shape only B) attach to surfaces only C) protect from dehydration only D) attach to surfaces and protect from dehydration E) serve as carbohydrate storage Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: External Structure of Bacterial Cells Learning Outcome: 3.3 48) The endosymbiotic theory does NOT provide an explanation for A) the two membranes of the nuclear envelope. B) the presence of ribosomes in mitochondria. C) the presence of DNA in chloroplasts. D) the cristae in mitochondria. E) the double membrane of chloroplasts. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes Learning Outcome: 3.45 13 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

49) Which of the following prokaryotic cells contain an outer membrane? A) Gram-negative bacteria only B) Gram-positive bacteria only C) both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria D) archaea E) all prokaryotes Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Archaeal Cell Walls and Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.12 50)

What is the function of the cellular structure indicated by "m" in Figure 3.3? A) ATP synthesis B) protein synthesis C) synthesis of lipids D) packaging of materials for export E) cell movement and mitosis Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes Learning Outcome: 3.39

3.2 True/False Questions 1) Chloroplasts use light energy to produce ATP and carbohydrates. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes Learning Outcome: 3.42 2) Peroxisomes contain enzymes used to digest nutrients that have been brought into the cell through phagocytosis. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes Learning Outcome: 3.42 3) Bacterial protein synthesis can begin before the reading of the gene is complete. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cells: An Overview Learning Outcome: 3.2 4) Archaea are similar to bacteria in having cytoplasmic membrane that are composed of phospholipids and hopanoids. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Archaeal Cell Walls and Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.28

The processes illustrated in Figure 3.4 are driven by electrochemical gradients. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.16 6) Eukaryotic ribosomes are composed of 50S and 30S subunits. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes Learning Outcome: 3.39 7) Lysosomes result from the endocytosis of food particles by eukaryotic cells. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes Learning Outcome: 3.42 8) The presence of a glycocalyx contributes to bacteria's ability to cause disease. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: External Structure of Bacterial Cells Learning Outcome: 3.3

9) Chromatin is composed of DNA and special packaging proteins called hopanoids. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes Learning Outcome: 3.42 10)

The short structures on the surface of the cell in Figure 3.5 are pili. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: External Structure of Bacterial Cells Learning Outcome: 3.7 3.3 Short Answer Questions 1) In a(n) (hypertonic/isotonic/hypotonic) solution, an animal cell can gain so much water that it may burst. Answer: hypotonic Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.16 2) The presence of a cell (wall/membrane) enables bacterial and plant cells to resist the effects of hypotonic solutions. Answer: wall Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.16 3) A higher concentration of solutes corresponds to a (higher/lower) concentration of water in a given solution. Answer: lower Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.17

4) A(n) (symport/antiport/uniport) is a carrier protein that transports two substances in the same direction across a membrane. Answer: symport Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.16 5) The "run" in bacterial motility is the result of (clockwise/counterclockwise/whiplike) rotation of the flagella. Answer: counterclockwise Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: External Structure of Bacterial Cells Learning Outcome: 3.5 6) The reserve deposits of starch or other compounds found in many prokaryotic cells are called (vacuoles/inclusions/nucleoid). Answer: inclusions Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Cytoplasm of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 3.19 7) Eukaryotic cells use a process known as (pinocytosis/phagocytosis/exocytosis) to obtain liquids from their environment. Answer: pinocytosis Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Eukaryotic Cell Walls and Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.32 8) Fragments of (LPS/NAM/NAG) released from Gram-negative bacteria into the bloodstream produce fever and shock. Answer: LPS Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Cell Walls Learning Outcome: 3.12 9) The smooth endoplasmic reticulum is the site of (protein/lipid/carbohydrate) synthesis. Answer: lipid Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes Learning Outcome: 3.42 10) Fibrous structures with three "arms" some archaea use for attachment to surfaces are (fimbriae/hami/pili). Answer: hami Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: External Structure of Archaea Learning Outcome: 3.26 18 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

11) A (capsule/slime layer/matrix) is a type of glycocalyx that is firmly attached to the cell. Answer: capsule Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: External Structure of Bacterial Cells Learning Outcome: 3.4 12) The cell walls of eukaryotes are typically composed of (carbohydrates/peptidoglycan/glycoproteins). Answer: carbohydrates Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Eukaryotic Cell Walls and Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.31 13) The semiliquid matrix of the nucleus is called the (cytoplasm/nucleoid/nucleoplasm). Answer: nucleoplasm Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes Learning Outcome: 3.42 14) A structural molecule found in eukaryotic cytoskeletons, flagella, cilia, and centrioles is (flagellin/tubulin/fibrin). Answer: tubulin Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes Learning Outcome: 3.41

15)

The process illustrated in Figure 3.6 occurs in (eukaryotic/bacterial/archaeal) cells. Answer: bacterial Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.16 3.4 Essay Questions 1) Compare and contrast the characteristics of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. Answer: Prokaryotic cells have a nucleoid, a region within the cytoplasm where the DNA is found, but this region is not surrounded by a membrane. Eukaryotic cells, however, have a true nucleus that is surrounded by a nuclear membrane. Additionally, eukaryotic cells have a variety of membranous compartments known as organelles within the cell, whereas prokaryotes do not have membranous organelles. Prokaryotic cells tend to be smaller and less structurally complex in general than eukaryotic cells. Even though the two types of cells may have various structures in common, such as cell walls and flagella, these structures can vary widely in their molecular composition. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cells: An Overview Learning Outcome: 3.2

2) Compare and contrast archaea and bacteria, with particular attention to the features that lead to their placement in separate taxa. Answer: Bacterial cell walls are composed of peptidoglycan, whereas archaeal cell walls are composed of a variety of carbohydrate forms but never peptidoglycan. The flagella of the two groups of prokaryotes have several differences, including size, manner of assembly, and function. Although both have fimbriae, archaea have a distinctive attachment structure called a hamus that is somewhat like a barbed grappling hook. Bacterial cytoplasmic membranes may contain hopanoids, archaeal cytoplasmic membranes do not. The ribosomes of archaea and bacteria are of similar size, but some ribosomal components of archaea are more like those of eukaryotic ribosomes than those of bacteria. RNA metabolism in the two prokaryotic groups differs, and the archaeal genetic code is more like that of eukaryotes than that of bacteria. Archaeal phospholipids are different from bacterial and eukaryotic phospholipids in that the glycerol is a stereoisomer, the linkages are ether instead of ester between hydrocarbon chains and glycerol, the hydrocarbon chains are isoprene chains rather than fatty acids, which are branched rather than linear, as the fatty acids are. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Cytoplasm of Archaea Learning Outcome: 3.24, 3.25, 3.26, 3.27, 3.28, 3.29 3) Most antibacterial drugs disrupt or destroy bacterial cellular characteristics that are different from those of eukaryotic cells or that may not even be present in eukaryotic cells, an idea termed 'selective toxicity'. List and describe at least three cellular features of bacteria that could be targeted to inhibit or kill a bacterial pathogen. Answer: 1. Cell wall: The cell wall of almost all bacteria contains peptidoglycan, a molecule absent in eukaryotic cell walls. Gram-negative cell walls contain unique molecules such as lipopolysaccharide and structures such as porins, which are not present in eukaryotic cells. Additionally, human cells do not have a cell wall at all. 2. Ribosomes: Bacterial ribosomes have a 70S structure, whereas eukaryotic ribosomes have an 80S structure. This difference is enough to allow some drugs to preferentially affect bacterial ribosomes while leaving eukaryotic ribosomes unharmed. 3. Cellular appendages: Although both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells can have flagella, the two types of cells use structurally different types of flagella. Furthermore, many bacteria have fimbriae and pili, which are not found on eukaryotic cells. 4. Cell membrane: Most cells use a phospholipid bilayer with inserted proteins as a cell membrane; however, bacterial cell membranes may contain hopanoids, which are absent in eukaryotic cell membranes. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes Learning Outcome: 3.31, 3.34, 3.36, 3.40

4) Both mitochondria and chloroplasts have inner membranes with much greater surface area than their outer membranes. Discuss the contribution of the extensive inner membranes to the roles of these organelles. Answer: Both organelles use metabolic processes embedded in lipid membranes to produce cellular energy. The cristae of mitochondria produce ATP. The thylakoids of chloroplasts are the site of light energy capture and conversion to cellular energy. The extensive surface area of the folded inner membranes allows both organelles to produce much more energy than would otherwise be possible. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes Learning Outcome: 3.42 5) Describe how the structure of the bacterial cytoplasmic membrane relates to its function of selective permeability. Answer: The structure and function of the cytoplasmic membrane are explained in the fluid mosaic model. The cytoplasmic membranes of bacterial cells are composed of phospholipids, which create a semipermeable barrier to the cell's outer environment. The only molecules that can easily cross the membrane are small, lipid soluble molecules. Other types of molecules must use the wide variety of transport proteins embedded in the phospholipid bilayer to cross the membrane. In this way, the cell can control the concentration of both its nutrients and its waste products. The cytoplasmic membrane can also be used for energy production and for photosynthesis in prokaryotic cells. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Bacterial Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.15

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 5e (Bauman) Chapter 4 Microscopy, Staining, and Classification 4.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Viruses are generally measured in A) nanometers. B) millimeters. C) micrometers. D) centimeters. E) decimeters. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Units of Measurement Learning Outcome: 4.1 2) Which of the following is an INCORRECT pairing? A) magnification; refraction of radiation B) contrast; staining techniques C) numerical aperture; curved glass D) dark field: high contrast E) electron beams; shorter wavelength Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.4, 4.8 3) The ability of a lens to gather light is referred to as its A) resolution. B) numerical aperture. C) refraction. D) contrast. E) magnification. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.6

4) Which of the following are magnifying lenses? A) objectives B) oculars C) condensers D) prisms E) both objectives and the oculars Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.8 5) Fluorescent dyes and lasers are used to visualize specimens on ________ microscopes. A) phase-contrast B) dark-field C) fluorescent D) confocal E) bright-field Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.10 6) Why does immersion oil improve resolution? A) It allows light to travel at a uniform speed on its way to the lens. B) It decreases the working distance. C) It increases the numerical aperture. D) It increases numerical aperture and maintains a uniform light speed. E) It increases the angle of refraction of the light. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.6 7) You are shown a micrograph from a light microscope in which the specimens appear sharply focused and nearly three-dimensional. The micrograph is probably from a(n) ________ microscope. A) dark-field B) phase-contrast C) Nomarski (differential interference contrast) D) bright-field E) atomic force Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.9

8) The microscope preferred for viewing living specimens is the ________ microscope. A) bright-field B) phase-contrast C) scanning electron D) scanning tunneling E) transmission electron Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.9 9) The resolution of a microscope is a function of the ________ of the lenses and the ________ of light. A) curvature, color B) curvature, wavelength C) numerical aperture, wavelength D) numerical aperture, intensity E) convex shape, intensity Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.6 10) All of the following are types of light microscopes EXCEPT A) fluorescent. B) confocal. C) phase-contrast. D) scanning tunneling. E) bright-field. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.9, 4.11 11) One-millionth of a meter is called a A) centimeter. B) decimeter. C) micrometer. D) millimeter. E) nanometer. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Units of Measurement Learning Outcome: 4.2

12) If a microbiology lab student left the safranin out of the Gram stain procedure, what would be the result? A) All cells would be purple. B) Gram-positive cells would be purple and Gram-negative cells would be colorless. C) All cells would be pink. D) Gram-positive cells would be pink and Gram-negative cells would be purple. E) Gram-positive cells would be colorless and Gram-negative cells would be pink. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.15 13) All of the following are common to both the Gram stain and the acid-fast stain EXCEPT A) primary stain. B) counterstain. C) a decolorizing agent. D) a chemical mordant. E) a decolorizing agent and a counterstain. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.15 14) Carbolfuchsin is a dye used in ________ stain(s). A) the Gram B) the endospore C) the acid-fast D) the flagellar E) both the acid fast and flagellar Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.15 15) Histological samples prepared with the ________ stain may reveal the presence of abnormal cells. A) acid-fast B) Gram C) simple safranin D) methylene blue E) hematoxylin and eosin (HE) Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.15

16) Carbolfuchsin is the ________ in the acid-fast stain. A) primary stain B) mordant C) decolorizer D) counterstain E) fixing reagent Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.15 17) Which of the following is the best definition of "empty magnification"? A) An image is magnified so much resolution and contrast are lost. B) A specimen is so lacking in color it cannot be observed on a light microscope. C) A magnified specimen is so small it cannot be resolved on a light microscope. D) The background on the field is almost totally black. E) A magnified image has lots of empty space around a small object. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.5 18) In a transmission electron microscope, the "lenses" are A) made of glass. B) thin films of metal. C) lasers. D) magnets. E) vacuums. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.11 19) You are examining a bacterial smear on a light microscope. You observe pinkish-red bacilli and blue cells of various shapes. You are probably looking at a smear prepared with the ________ stain. A) Gram B) Ziehl-Neelsen acid-fast C) Schaffer-Fulton endospore D) Gomori methenamine E) Hematoxylin and eosin Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.15

20) The placement of an organism into a domain is made on the basis of A) G + C content. B) cell ultrastructure. C) ribosomal RNA analysis. D) serological tests. E) Gram-stain reactions. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 4.22 21) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a genus name? A) It is usually an adjective. B) It is written before the specific epithet. C) It is always capitalized. D) It is either underlined or in italics. E) It is one of two names used to identify an organism. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 4.20 22) Carl Woese proposed the concept of the domain based on differences of which of the following cellular molecules? A) transfer RNA B) membrane lipids C) ribosomal RNA D) DNA E) proteins Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 4.22 23) Which of the following classification methods relies on the morphology of organisms? A) phage typing B) physical characteristics C) biochemical tests D) analysis of nucleic acids E) serological tests Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 4.23

24) Bacteria in the genus Salmonella are frequent causes of serious food contamination. Which of the following methods would provide rapid confirmation that a Salmonella species was a contaminant in food suspected of causing food "poisoning"? A) phage typing B) biochemical tests C) physical characteristics D) analysis of nucleic acids E) serological tests Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 4.23 25) Viruses are not included in the taxonomic scheme proposed by Carl Woese because they lack A) genetic material. B) ribosomal RNA. C) proteins. D) lipid membranes. E) cytoplasm. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 4.22 26) Why have some microbiologists proposed using ribosomal RNA as the basis for defining bacterial species? A) Ribosomal RNAs are highly conserved genetic sequences present in all prokaryotes. B) The "interbreeding population" criterion does not apply to bacteria. C) Ribosomal RNA is the basis for domain assignment. D) Bacteria vary too little in their physical and biochemical traits. E) Bacteria are not interbreeding populations, and ribosomal RNAs are highly conserved genes present in all prokaryotes. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 4.18 27) Which of the following phenomena produces magnification? A) the wavelength of a radiation source B) the refraction of radiation as it passes through a lens C) the thickness of a microscopic specimen D) the numerical aperture of a lens E) the length of an objective lens Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.6 7 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

28) A virologist wants to observe the three-dimensional surface features of virus particles she is studying. Which of the following microscopes would be most useful for her observations? A) differential interference contrast B) atomic force C) scanning electron D) transmission electron E) atomic force or scanning electron Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.9, 4.11 29) A structure that appears in a transmission electron micrograph but is NOT actually present in the specimen is known as a(n) A) antigen. B) biofilm. C) artifact. D) refraction. E) mordant. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.11 30) Which of the following statements about transmission electron microscopy is CORRECT? A) Three-dimensional images are produced. B) Lasers are used for visualization. C) Up to 1,000,000X magnification may be achieved. D) Living specimens may be used. E) Stains can be applied to create a color image. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.11 31) Acidic dyes A) work best in low pH environments. B) are negatively charged. C) are used for staining negatively charged molecular structures. D) are lipid soluble. E) are negatively charged and work best at low pH. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.14 8 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

32) The kingdoms included in the Linnaeus system of classification are A) Animalia and Prokaryotae. B) Protista and Plantae. C) Fungi and Protista. D) Animalia and Plantae. E) Prokaryotae and Protista. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 4.21 33) The Gram stain works because of differences in the ________ of bacteria. A) genetic characteristics B) cell walls C) cell membranes D) antigens E) capsules Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.15 34) The rules of naming organisms are called A) taxonomy. B) nomenclature. C) classification. D) binomials. E) identification. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 4.20 35) Why are modern light microscopes better than the ones Leeuwenhoek used? A) Modern microscopes have a fivefold better resolution. B) Modern microscopes are compound instead of simple. C) Modern microscopes have lenses with smaller numerical apertures. D) Modern lenses are made of prisms. E) Modern microscopes are compound and have fivefold better resolution. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.6, 4.8

36) The function of a mordant in staining procedures is to A) fix the specimen to the slide. B) provide contrasting color. C) decrease the solubility of dye molecules. D) remove dye from certain structures. E) damage cellular structures so they take up dyes better. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.15 37) You are viewing an image from a microscope in which the specimens in the smear have more than one color. You are probably looking at A) a smear stained with a differential stain. B) a specimen stained with various fluorescent molecules. C) a scanning tunneling micrograph. D) a specimen on a dark-field microscope. E) either a specimen stained with a differential stain or fluorescent molecules. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.15 38) In Gram staining, ethanol-acetone is used as a A) decolorizing agent. B) counterstain. C) mordant. D) drying agent. E) primary stain. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.15 39) A sample from a patient is prepared using the Gomori methenamine silver stain. What type of microbe is suspected of being present? A) bacteria B) parasitic worm larva C) fungus D) protozoal parasite E) virus Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.15

40) Tungsten is a reagent used in the A) acid-fast stain. B) electron microscopy stain. C) endospore stain. D) flagellar stain. E) negative stain. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.16 41) Acidic dyes are commonly used for ________ stains. A) acid-fast B) negative C) flagellar D) endospore E) Gram Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.14 42) Low contrast specimens are made easier to see by A) increasing the amount of light passing through the slide. B) using dyes that react with their structures. C) adding color filters to the microscope. D) using smaller aperture lenses. E) drying them in a vacuum. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.7 43) Methylene blue can be used to stain DNA because it A) forms ionic bonds with DNA. B) changes the pH and therefore the structure of DNA. C) covalently bonds with DNA. D) makes DNA electron dense. E) is an effective fixing agent for nucleic acids. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.14

44) The ________ stain makes use of malachite green. A) negative B) flagellar C) endospore D) electron microscopy E) acid-fast Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.15 45) The most appropriate unit of measurement for intact archaea is the A) meter (m). B) millimeter (mm). C) micrometer (μm). D) nanometer (nm). E) centimeter (cm). Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Units of Measurement Learning Outcome: 4.1 46) Specimens are prepared for ________ microscopy using electron-dense stains. A) atomic probe B) bright-field C) confocal D) transmission electron E) scanning tunneling Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.16 47) An important function of nomenclature is to A) facilitate unambiguous communication. B) clarify relationships among organisms. C) provide an understanding of evolutionary relationships. D) define the characteristics used for classification. E) provide a detailed description of an organism. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 4.17

48) A measurement of a microbe is reported as 1 × 10-6 m, also known as A) centimeters (cm). B) millimeters (mm). C) micrometers (μm). D) nanometers (nm). E) yards. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Units of Measurement Learning Outcome: 4.1 49) One-thousandth of a meter is a A) yard. B) millimeter (mm). C) micrometer (μm). D) nanometer (nm). E) centimeter (cm). Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Units of Measurement Learning Outcome: 4.1 50) Bacteria and many other microbes do not ________ and therefore do not fit Linneaus' definition species. A) reproduce sexually B) have nuclei C) exchange genetic material D) have cytoplasmic membranes E) reproduce asexually Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 4.18 4.2 True/False Questions 1) A resolution of 1 μm would be better than a resolution of 0.5 μm. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.6 2) All types of radiation are used for microscopy. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.3 13 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

3) The three domains proposed by Carl Woese and George Fox are the Archaea, the Eukarya, and the Protista. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 4.22 4) Gram staining of bacteria provides all the physical characterization necessary to identify bacterial species. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 4.15, 4.18 5) A single basic dye is used in simple stains. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.15 6) The endospore stain reveals internal structures within cells of the genera Bacillus and Clostridium. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.15 7) Acid-fast cells such as Mycobacterium lose the color of the primary stain in the presence of hydrochloric acid. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.15 8) Three-dimensional images of specimens can be obtained using scanning electron microscopes. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.11 9) Images of living specimens can be produced using atomic force microscopes. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.12 14 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

10) Specimens are visible on a phase contrast microscope because they refract the light that illuminates them. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.9 4.3 Short Answer Questions 1)

The part of the microscope indicated by the arrow in Figure 4.1 is the (ocular/objective/condenser) lens. Answer: condenser Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.8 2) A(n) (acidic/metallic/fluorescent) molecule is one that absorbs invisible radiation and emits visible light. Answer: fluorescent Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.10

3) The total magnification using a 10 ocular and a 100 objective would be (110/1000/10000)×. (Be sure your answer is a numeral.) Answer: 1000 Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.8 4) A (decolorizer/mordant/fixer) is a substance that binds to a dye and makes it less soluble. Answer: mordant Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.15 5) Coating a specimen with a heavy metal is a step in preparing it for (phase/fluorescent/electron) microscopy. Answer: electron Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.16 6) A serological test that involves the clumping of antigen and antibody is the (agglutination/antigen/ELISA) test. Answer: agglutination Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 4.23 7) The system of taxonomy used today was originated by (Linnaeus/Darwin/Woese). (Be sure to capitalize your answer.) Answer: Linnaeus Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 4.21 8) Carl Woese and George Fox proposed the (phylum/domain/family), a taxon that contains multiple kingdoms. Answer: domain Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 4.22

Figure 4.2 represents a (dichotomous/classification/taxonomic) key of the type used to identify a microbe. Answer: dichotomous Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 4.23 10) Phage typing is useful for identifying bacteria because of the specificity of (antibodies/bacteriophages/PCR) for unique bacterial structures. Answer: bacteriophages Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 4.23 11) A primary purpose for the use of stains in microscopy is to increase the (magnification/brightness/contrast) of a specimen. Answer: contrast Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.7 12) PCR is a method for identifying microbes based on their (antigens/genes/morphology). Answer: genes Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 4.23

13) In a compound microscope, the lens that directs light into the eye is the (ocular/condenser/objective) lens. Answer: ocular Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.8 14) In the Schaffer-Fulton endospore stain, heat is a (fixation/mordant/staining) step. Answer: staining Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.13 15) The resolution of a microscope lens is a function of the lens' (aperture/color/contrast). Answer: aperture Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.6 4.4 Essay Questions 1) Discuss the ways in which light rays can be manipulated to increase resolution and/or contrast. Answer: Light rays can be manipulated to increase the resolution and contrast of a specimen in a variety of ways. In bright-field microscopes, immersion oil is used to capture light rays that would otherwise be refracted and lost; the result is an increase in the resolution of the image. Dark-field microscopes purposely scatter light rays in such a way as to improve the contrast of the specimen. Phase-contrast microscopes alter the wavelengths of light rays by splitting them into different paths then rejoining them, thereby increasing contrast. Finally, fluorescent microscopes use UV light, which produces increased resolution because of its shorter wavelength, and the fluorescent dyes that are used emit a variety of colors, increasing contrast. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.6

2) Compare and contrast the light microscope with the electron microscope. Answer: Both the light microscope and the electron microscope depend on the wavelength of radiation to achieve the resolution necessary to see fine details of specimens. Light microscopes use light rays, which, because of their relatively long wavelengths, limit the magnification of these microscopes to 2000× or less. Electron beams, by contrast, have such a short wavelength that the resolution is greatly increased, to the point that magnification of 100,000× or more is possible. Both microscopes are capable of modulating and focusing their radiation sources in such a way as to increase the quality of the magnification; however, in a light microscope the light rays are focused using glass lenses, whereas in an electron microscope the electron beam is focused with magnetic fields. Because of their higher levels of magnification and extreme resolving power, electron microscopes are capable of revealing the finest details of the cell's ultrastructure, even molecules and atoms; light microscopes are capable of revealing only the larger cellular structures, such as organelles. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.9, 4.11 3) You are a scientist studying the highly specific interactions of bacteriophages with their host cells when they first encounter the cell. Discuss what microscope(s) and preparation procedures you might use for this study. Answer: A scanning electron microscope can produce three-dimensional images of the physical contact between bacteriophage and host, providing information on what portions of the bacteriophage are in contact with what structures of the cell. A mixture of bacterial cells and bacteriophages is dried onto the surface of the sample holder and coated with metal to prepare it for the scanning electron microscope. A transmission electron microscope may provide information about structures and interactions obscured by the intact bacteriophage. Samples are dried, embedded in plastic, sliced into thin (100 nm) sections, and stained with heavy metals (osmium, tungsten, etc.) to increase contrast. Scanning tunneling or atomic force microscopy of separate preparations of bacteriophages and bacterial cells can provide details about the structures on each that interact when the bacteriophage is in contact with the surface of the cell. The preparation of specimens for atomic force microscopy is minimal, as the material does not need to be dried, sectioned, or stained. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.11, 4.12, 4.16 4) Compare and contrast the three domains identified by Woese and Fox: Eukarya, Bacteria, and Archaea. Answer: With respect to cell type, organisms in Eukarya have eukaryotic cells and the characteristics that go with this cell type, such as a nucleus and membranous organelles. Bacteria and Archaea both have prokaryotic cells lacking nuclei and membranous organelles. All three have different ribosomal RNA sequences found in the small subunit of their ribosomes that are characteristic for the domain, which is an important tool for categorizing organisms. All three have cell membranes; however, they differ in the lipids found in the cell membrane. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 4.22 19 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

5) List and explain five types of techniques that can be used to identify unknown microorganisms. Answer: There are five major types of identification techniques used in the microbiology lab. One method is simply observation and classification of the physical characteristics of an organism, which includes both cellular morphology and colony morphology. A second method is the use of biochemical tests, such as fermentation of carbohydrates or production of metabolic by-products, to place microbes in different groups. A third type of identification technique is serological testing, in which antibodies are used to detect particular antigens on the surfaces of different microbes in an effort to distinguish closely related species or strains of microbes. Phage typing is the fourth technique, which is the use of bacteriophages to infect bacterial cells; because bacteriophages are highly specific in their infection of cells, the patterns of infected and uninfected cells can be used to differentiate bacterial strains and species. A fifth method involves analyzing the genetic material of microbes, such as the percentage of G and C bases in a cell's DNA, to demonstrate possible relationships between species. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 4.23

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 5e (Bauman) Chapter 5 Microbial Metabolism 5.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following statements concerning cellular metabolism is FALSE? A) Energy obtained from nutrients or light is stored in the bonds of ATP. B) Enzymes are used in both catabolic and anabolic reactions. C) Macromolecules are converted into cell structures via catabolism. D) The goal of metabolism is reproduction of the organism. E) ATP is used in the formation of macromolecules. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.1 2) Anabolic reactions may be characterized as A) exergonic. B) breaking large molecules into smaller molecules. C) forming large molecules from smaller molecules. D) producing ATP. E) breaking large molecules into smaller molecules to produce ATP. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.1 3) An organic compound gains an electron from another molecule. The organic compound A) has been oxidized. B) is an electron donor. C) has been reduced. D) has become more positively charged. E) has lost a hydrogen atom. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.2

4) The molecule that an enzyme acts upon is known as its A) substrate. B) coenzyme. C) apoenzyme. D) product. E) catalyst. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.6 5) Which of the following statements concerning enzymes is FALSE? A) They are usually, but not always, proteins. B) They always function best at 37°C. C) They can be denatured if the pH of their environment is too high or too low. D) They form a temporary intermediate compound with a substrate. E) They can be used to catalyze a chemical reaction over and over again. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.7 6) Sulfanilamide is an antimicrobial drug that mimics the shape of an important substrate for a particular bacterial enzyme, thereby inhibiting the enzyme. This type of inhibition is known as A) allosteric inhibition. B) competitive inhibition. C) allosteric activation. D) noncompetitive inhibition. E) feedback inhibition. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.7 7) Which of the following produces NADPH? A) the pentose phosphate pathway only B) the Calvin-Benson cycle only C) the Embden-Meyerhof pathway only D) both the Embden-Meyerhof and Calvin-Benson cycle pathways E) both the pentose phosphate and Entner-Doudoroff pathways Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.25

8) Which of the following statements concerning glycolysis is TRUE? A) The first step of glycolysis involves oxidative phosphorylation. B) The glycolytic pathway is cyclical. C) Glucose is activated by substrate-level phosphorylation. D) Ribulose 5-phosphate is an intermediate of glycolysis. E) Two NADH molecules are reduced during glycolysis. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.8 9) Many vitamins are important ________ of enzymes. A) protein cofactors B) coenzymes C) allosteric inhibitors D) competitive inhibitors E) activators Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.6 10) Pyruvic acid is a product of A) the Krebs cycle. B) fermentation. C) glycolysis. D) the pentose phosphate pathway. E) both fermentation and the Krebs cycle. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.8 11) All of the following are forms of oxidation EXCEPT A) loss of an electron. B) loss of hydrogen atom. C) a dehydrogenation event. D) substrate-level phosphorylation. E) gain of an oxygen atom and its electrons. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.2, 5.3

12) Anaerobic bacteria may use ________ as the final electron acceptor during anaerobic respiration. A) nitrate only B) carbon dioxide only C) sulfate only D) both nitrate and sulfate E) carbon dioxide, nitrate and sulfate Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.10 13) Which of the following is a non-protein carrier found in some electron transport chains? A) flavoproteins B) metal-containing proteins C) ribozymes D) cytochromes E) ubiquinones Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.11 14) The electron transport chain provides the energy for A) oxidative phosphorylation. B) substrate-level phosphorylation. C) beta-oxidation. D) photophosphorylation. E) anabolic reactions. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Basic Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.8 15) Which of the following is a by-product of the catabolism of proteins? A) lactic acid B) acetyl-CoA C) proteases D) ammonia E) carbon dioxide Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Other Catabolic Pathways Learning Outcome: 5.19

16) Which of the following is an active enzyme? A) apoenzyme B) cofactor C) coenzyme D) holoenzyme E) subtrate Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.5 17) Which of the following is/are common to chemiosmosis and the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis? A) reduction of NADP+ only B) electron transport only C) a proton gradient only D) both electron transport and a proton gradient E) electron transport, a proton gradient, and reduction of NADP+ Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Photosynthesis Learning Outcome: 5.12, 5.24 18) Which of the following is a fermentation product useful in the manufacture of cheese? A) acetic acid B) ammonia C) ethanol D) lactic acid E) pyruvic acid Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.15 19) How many ATP molecules can theoretically be produced from the NADH generated by the catabolism of a molecule of glucose during aerobic respiration? A) 34 B) 30 C) 38 D) 36 E) 4 Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.8

20) The various types of chlorophyll differ in the A) amount of light they can absorb. B) amount of ATP they produce. C) number of electrons they release. D) amount of oxygen they utilize. E) wavelengths of light they absorb. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Photosynthesis Learning Outcome: 5.21 21) Which of the following metabolic processes is commonly used to identify bacteria? A) carbohydrate fermentation B) lipid catabolism C) Krebs cycle products D) lipid synthesis E) pentose phosphate pathway products Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.16 22) Beta-oxidation of fatty acids produces a substrate of the A) pentose phosphate pathway. B) protein synthesis pathways. C) Embden-Meyerhof pathway. D) Krebs cycle. E) Calvin-Benson cycle. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Other Catabolic Pathways Learning Outcome: 5.18 23) Which of the following is associated with the Calvin-Benson cycle? A) acetyl-CoA B) TMAO C) RuBP D) FADH2 E) PABA Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Photosynthesis Learning Outcome: 5.25

24) The energy captured by photophosphorylation is used to produce glucose A) through the Calvin-Benson cycle. B) through the Krebs cycle. C) by cyclic phosphorylation. D) through the pentose-phosphate pathway. E) by beta-oxidation. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Photosynthesis Learning Outcome: 5.25 25) Chemical reactions that can proceed toward either anabolism or catabolism are called A) glycolytic. B) light-independent. C) synthetic. D) cyclic. E) amphibolic. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Other Anabolic Pathways Learning Outcome: 5.26 26) If a cell reverses the process of beta-oxidation, which of the following molecules will it make? A) glycerol B) amino acids C) fatty acids D) nucleotides E) starch Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Other Anabolic Pathways Learning Outcome: 5.28 27) When a cell forms an amino acid by adding an amine group derived from ammonia to a precursor metabolite, this process is called A) amination. B) transamination. C) reduction. D) polymerization. E) deamination. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Other Anabolic Pathways Learning Outcome: 5.29

28) The conversion of amino acids to carbohydrates is an example of A) amination. B) gluconeogenesis. C) substrate-level phosphorylation. D) beta-oxidation. E) electron transport. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Other Anabolic Pathways Learning Outcome: 5.27 29) Noncyclic photophosphorylation produces A) ATP only. B) oxygen. C) NADPH only. D) ATP and NADPH. E) water and ATP. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Photosynthesis Learning Outcome: 5.23 30) The metabolic processes called fermentation A) produce substrates for the Krebs cycle. B) are alternatives for the pentose phosphate pathway. C) use an organic molecule as a final electron acceptor. D) occur only when oxygen is readily available. E) produce substrates for glycolysis. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.15 31) Which of the following is TRUE concerning the structure and function of enzymes? A) All enzymes bind cofactors necessary for their function. B) An apoenzyme is a combination of a cofactor bound to a holoenzyme. C) Enzymes can function at a wide range of pH. D) Competitive inhibition of an enzyme occurs when an inhibitor binds to an allosteric site on the enzyme. E) After an enzyme has catalyzed a reaction, it resumes its original shape and can interact with a new substrate molecule. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.6

32) Bacteriochlorophyll a absorbs ________ light. A) 350 nm, ultraviolet B) 425 nm, violet C) 660 nm, red D) both 425 & 660 nm (violet and red) E) all visible Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Photosynthesis Learning Outcome: 5.21 33) Where is the majority of ATP generated in prokaryotic cells? A) in the cytoplasmic membrane B) in the cytosol C) in the thylakoids D) in the inner mitochondrial membrane E) on ribosomes Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.9 34) The conversion of pyruvic acid to acetyl-CoA can be described as ________, because a molecule of CO2 is produced as a by-product. A) decarboxylation B) amination C) respiration D) oxidation E) phosphorylation Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.9 35) Although glycolysis requires an input of ATP, this pathway results in a net gain of two ATP; therefore it is a(n) ________ pathway. A) exergonic B) endergonic C) oxidative D) reductive E) neither exergonic nor endergonic Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.1, 5.8

36) Enzymes known as lyases participate in ________ reactions. A) anabolic B) catabolic C) both anabolic and catabolic D) neither anabolic nor catabolic E) oxidation-reduction Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.4 37) The reactions of photosynthesis take place in the ________ of prokaryotes. A) thylakoids B) cytoplasm C) nucleoid D) cristae E) outer membrane Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Photosynthesis Learning Outcome: 5.21 38) During the synthesis of acetyl-CoA from pyruvic acid, ________ is produced. A) ATP B) NADH C) FADH2 D) H2O E) acetic acid Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.9 39) During reactions catalyzed by oxidoreductases an electron donor is A) oxidized. B) reduced. C) synthesized. D) degraded. E) unaltered. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.4

40) Hydrolases are generally involved in ________ reactions. A) anabolic B) catabolic C) both anabolic and catabolic D) neither anabolic nor catabolic E) oxidation-reduction Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.4 41) Reactions involving ligases are typically ________ reactions. A) anabolic B) catabolic C) both anabolic and catabolic D) neither anabolic nor catabolic E) exergonic Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.4 42) Substrate-level phosphorylation occurs during which of the following stage(s) of glucose catabolism? A) formation of acetyl-CoA B) lysis stage of glycolysis C) energy-conservation stage of glycolysis D) Krebs cycle E) formation of acetyl-CoA and the Krebs cycle Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.3, 5.8, 5.9 43) The production of NADH takes place during the ________ stage(s) of glycolysis. A) energy-conservation B) energy-investment C) lysis D) lysis and energy-investment E) energy-investment and energy-conservation Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.8

44) Which of the following is the CORRECT sequence of stages in glycolysis? A) energy-conservation, energy-investment, lysis B) lysis, energy-investment, energy-conservation C) energy-investment, lysis, energy-conservation D) lysis,energy-conservation, energy-investment E) energy-investment, energy-conservation, lysis Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.8 45)

Identify the processes of glucose metabolism represented in Figure 5.1. A) A = electron transport chain, B = Krebs cycle, C = glycolysis, D = fermentation B) A = glycolysis, B = fermentation, C = Krebs cycle, D = electron transport chain C) A = fermentation, B = glycolysis, C = Krebs cycle, D = electron transport chain D) A = glycolysis, B = Krebs cycle, C = fermentation, D = electron transport chain E) A = glycolysis, B = Krebs cycle, C = electron transport chain, D = fermentation Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.8

46)

The process illustrated in the figure above is an example of a(n) ________ reaction. A) amination B) reduction C) oxidation D) transamination E) transferase Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Other Anabolic Pathways Learning Outcome: 5.29 5.2 True/False Questions 1) Reactions that are both catabolic and anabolic are amphibolic. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Other Anabolic Pathways Learning Outcome: 5.26 2) The amount of energy required for a reaction to occur is its activation energy. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.6 3) Accumulation of a metabolic pathway product may result in decreased activity of the pathway enzymes. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.7 4) As the concentration of substrate increases, the activity of the enzyme decreases. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.7 13 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

5) All substrates for ribozymes are RNA molecules. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.5 6) During chemiosmosis, electrons are pumped across a membrane to produce ATP. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.12 7) Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate is an intermediate in the Calvin-Benson cycle. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Photosynthesis Learning Outcome: 5.25 8) All the precursors of amino acids are intermediates of glycolytic and fermentation pathways. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Other Anabolic Pathways Learning Outcome: 5.29 9) Essential amino acids are amino acids that cannot be synthesized by an organism and so must be provided as nutrients. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Other Anabolic Pathways Learning Outcome: 5.29 10) The pentose phosphate pathway generates all the necessary precursors for nucleotide biosynthesis. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Other Anabolic Pathways Learning Outcome: 5.30 5.3 Short Answer Questions 1) The conversion of phosphoenol pyruvic acid (PEP) to pyruvic acid results in the production of an ATP. This reaction is an example of (substrate-level/oxidative/reductive) phosphorylation. Answer: substrate-level Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.3, 5.8 14 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

2) Another term for a protein catalyst is a(n) (enzyme/ribozyme). Answer: enzyme Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.5 3) A(n) (oxidation/reduction/transport) reaction is one in which a molecule accepts an electron. Answer: reduction Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.2 4) The (activation /inhibition/saturation) point of an enzyme is reached when all active sites have bound substrate molecules. Answer: saturation Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.6 5) When a noncompetitive inhibitor molecule binds to a(n) (active/allosteric/substrate) site on an enzyme, the shape of the active site changes so that the substrate molecules can no longer bind. Answer: allosteric Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.6 6) Beta-oxidation of fatty acids produces (acetic acid/acetyl-CoA/glycerol). Answer: acetyl-CoA Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Other Catabolic Pathways Learning Outcome: 5.18 7) Electrons are transferred in the Krebs cycle in the form of (oxygen/hydrogen) atoms to NAD+ and FAD. Answer: hydrogen Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.9 8) The purpose of electron transport is to create a proton (concentration/gradient/pump) across a membrane that can then be used to make ATP. Answer: gradient Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.12

9) Anaerobic respiration involves the use of molecules other than oxygen as the final electron (acceptor/donor) in an electron transport chain. Answer: acceptor Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.10 10) Laboratory fermentation tests often include a pH indicator because many bacteria produce (O2/bases/acids) as they ferment carbohydrates. Answer: acids Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.16 11) Amino acids are converted to substrates of the Krebs cycle by (beta-oxidation/deamination/transamination). Answer: deamination Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Other Catabolic Pathways Learning Outcome: 5.19 12) Some bacteria use (acetyl-CoA/DHAP/TMAO) as a final electron receptor, resulting in a detectable odor. Answer: TMAO Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Other Catabolic Pathways Learning Outcome: 5.19 13) Anoxygenic photosynthesis typically results in the production of (oxygen/sulfur/ammonia) as a waste product. Answer: sulfur Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Photosynthesis Learning Outcome: 5.23 14) Cells can use (active/allosteric/substrate) sites to regulate enzyme activity and thereby control their metabolism. Answer: allosteric Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Integration and Regulation of Metabolic Functions Learning Outcome: 5.32

15) Significant amounts of the NADPH required for the Calvin-Benson cycle are produced during the (cyclic/noncyclic) photophosphorylation reactions of photosynthesis. Answer: noncyclic Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Photosynthesis Learning Outcome: 5.23 16) Only Photosystem I is required for (anoxygenic/cyclic/noncyclic) photophosphorylation to occur. Answer: cyclic Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Photosynthesis Learning Outcome: 5.22, 5.23 5.4 Essay Questions 1) Describe the mechanism of feedback inhibition and the role this process plays in controlling enzyme activity. Answer: Feedback inhibition is also known as negative feedback and end-product inhibition. In this mechanism, the product of a particular metabolic pathway inhibits an enzyme that catalyzes a reaction earlier in the pathway. For example, the end-product might be an allosteric inhibitor of that enzyme, binding to a location on the enzyme outside the active site. When the allosteric inhibitor binds, it changes the shape of the enzyme and prevents the enzyme from binding to its substrate. This "shuts off" the enzyme, and because the product of one reaction is the substrate for another, it shuts down the pathway. The inhibition is released as the amount of the endproduct decreases. When this occurs, the pathway will be turned on again, because the cell again needs the end-product. Feedback inhibition controls enzyme activity so that energy and metabolites are not wasted. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.7

2) The discussion of carbohydrate catabolism includes some of the many metabolic variations microbes are capable of. Devise a set of biochemical tests to identify the Gram-negative bacteria mentioned. Assume you can detect various organic compounds. Prepare a dichotomous key of your identification scheme. Answer: Many answers are possible. Figure 5.3 shown below is one example, based on glucose and lactose fermentation. Test for ability to ferment glucose and lactose. If glucose is fermented, test for the presence of 6-phosphogluconic acid and 2,3-butandiol.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.16, 5.17 3) Explain why the ATP yield from processes such as cellular respiration is generally given as a theoretical number. Answer: The maximum yield of ATP from a single molecule of glucose is 38 ATP molecules. However, any given glucose molecule may produce fewer than this number of ATP molecules for a variety of reasons. A eukaryotic cell spends 2 ATP molecules in transporting NADH produced during glycolysis into the mitochondrion; this reduces the theoretical yield to 36 ATP. The yield might be even lower, because in chemiosmosis there is no direct relationship between the number of electrons used to create a proton gradient and the number of ATP molecules produced from that proton gradient. Proton gradients are used to drive other processes and activities in the cell besides ATP production, so some of the energy that is represented by the proton gradient can be "siphoned off" before it is used to make ATP. Some of the intermediates of glycolysis and the Krebs cycle can be used as substrates for other metabolic processes, and when the intermediates are diverted, the theoretical ATP yield is not realized. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.8

4) Compare and contrast cyclic and noncyclic photophosphorylation. Answer: Both cyclic photophosphorylation and noncyclic photophosphorylation are aspects of the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis. They both involve the excitation of electrons by light energy; these excited electrons then participate in an electron transport pathway to create a proton gradient that can be used to produce ATP through chemiosmosis. However, as its name implies, cyclic photophosphorylation occurs when electrons return to the chlorophyll molecules whence they came. Excited electrons in noncyclic photophosphorylation are also used in the same way to produce ATP; however, these electrons are donated to an NADP+ molecule at the end of their transport chain, producing NADPH as a product of the system. Because electrons are constantly leaving the chlorophyll molecules where they are being excited, and not returning, there must also be a steady source of electrons for the photosystem. These electrons can come from molecules such as water or hydrogen sulfide. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Photosynthesis Learning Outcome: 5.23 5) Discuss the interrelationships between anabolic and catabolic pathways. Provide specific examples in your answer. Answer: Catabolic pathways generate the energy required for anabolic reactions. Catabolic pathways produce intermediates for other pathways, and some intermediates and products of anabolic pathways provide intermediates for catabolic pathways. The Krebs cycle produces energy to drive amino acid synthesis, and several Krebs cycle intermediates are substrates for amino acid biosynthesis. For example, oxaloacetic acid is a precursor for half a dozen amino acids, and α-ketoglutaric acid is a precursor for about four additional amino acids. The pentose phosphate pathway produces the five-carbon sugar required for nucleotide synthesis, and various amino acids are metabolized to produce the nitrogenous bases in nucleotides. The Krebs cycle produces intermediates and substrates for lipid biosynthesis. Catabolism of amino acids produces a variety of molecules that are intermediates of glycolysis and the Krebs cycle, and the same is true of lipid catabolism. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Integration and Regulation of Metabolic Functions Learning Outcome: 5.31

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 5e (Bauman) Chapter 6 Microbial Nutrition and Growth 6.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) A microorganism grows in the lab on medium containing mineral salts but no organic compounds. The organism is likely to be a(n) A) heterotroph. B) autotroph. C) chemotroph. D) chemoheterotroph. E) The answer cannot be determined from the information provided. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.1 2) A cell that uses an organic carbon source and obtains energy from light would be called a A) photoheterotroph. B) lithoautotroph. C) photoautotroph. D) chemoheterotroph. E) chemoautotroph. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.2 3) A(n) ________ organism require(s) oxygen for growth. A) anaerobic B) facultative anaerobic C) aerotolerant D) obligate aerobic E) aerotolerant and an anaerobic Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.3

4) An aquatic microbe that can grow only near the surface of the water is probably which of the following? A) a phototroph B) a heterotroph C) a chemotroph D) a lithotroph E) an anaerobe Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.2 5) The carotenoid pigments of some phototrophs interact with ________ to reduce its toxicity. A) singlet oxygen (1O2) B) hydroxyl radical (HO-) C) peroxide anion (O22-) D) superoxide radical (O2-) E) molecular oxygen (O2) Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.4 6) The absence of ________ leaves obligate anaerobes susceptible to killing by oxygen. A) carotenoids B) superoxide dismutase C) peroxidase D) vitamin E E) catalase Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.4 7) A microbe that grows only at the bottom of a tube of thioglycollate medium is probably a(n) A) obligate aerobe. B) facultative anaerobe. C) aerotolerant anaerobe. D) microaerophile. E) obligate anaerobe. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.3

8) Nitrogen is a growth-limiting nutrient for many organisms because A) it is necessary for the biosynthesis of amino acids. B) it is required for synthesis of nucleotides. C) it is required for lipid synthesis. D) only a small number of bacteria are able to extract it from the atmosphere. E) only a few microbes can extract it from the atmosphere, but all organisms require it for amino acid and nucleotide synthesis. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.5 9) An organism that requires chemical nutrients which serve as final electron acceptors is a(n) A) chemotroph. B) phototroph. C) lithotroph. D) autotroph. E) aerobe. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.1 10) At temperatures higher than the maximum growth temperature for an organism A) proteins are permanently denatured. B) membranes become too fluid for proper function. C) hydrogen bonds within molecules are broken. D) hydrogen bonds are broken and proteins are permanently denatured. E) hydrogen bonds are broken, proteins are denatured, and membranes become too fluid. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.6 11) Ted heats some food just to boiling, and stores some of it immediately in a container which he places in the refrigerator. A week later he takes the food out and finds it has spoiled. The microbes responsible are probably A) thermoduric. B) thermophiles. C) mesophiles. D) hyperthermophiles. E) psychrophiles. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.6 3 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

12) In the process of ________, microbes detect the presence and density of other microbes and modify their metabolic activity in response. A) quorum sensing B) antagonism C) mutualism D) symbiosis E) synergy Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.7 13) Which of the following organisms would be most likely to contaminate a jar of pickles? A) a neutrophile B) a thermophile C) an acidophile D) an obligate anaerobe E) a mesophile Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.6 14) Organisms that can grow with or without oxygen present are A) obligate aerobes. B) facultative anaerobes. C) aerotolerant anaerobes. D) obligate anaerobes. E) either facultative anaerobes or aerotolerant anaerobes. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.3 15) A fastidious organism might be grown on which of the following types of media? A) transport media B) reducing media C) enriched media D) differential media E) selective media Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Culturing Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 6.10

16) Obligate anaerobes may be cultured in the laboratory A) in a reducing medium. B) in a standard incubator. C) in standard Petri plates. D) on blood agar plates. E) in standard complex media. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Culturing Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 6.10 17) Joan wants to discover a microbe capable of degrading an environmental contaminant. Which of the following culturing methods would be most effective for isolation of such an organism? A) cell culture B) chemostat C) quorum sensing D) enrichment culture E) differential culture Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Culturing Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 6.11 18) A microbiologist inoculates a flask of broth to a concentration of 100 bacterial cells per ml. The generation time of the species is 1 hour, and there is no lag phase. How long will it be before the culture contains more than 6,000 cells per ml? A) 12 hours B) 6 hours C) 2 hours D) 4 hours E) 10 hours Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.15, 6.16, 6.18

19) An epidemiologist is investigating a new disease and observes what appear to be bacteria inside tissue cells in clinical samples from victims. The scientist wants to try to isolate the bacteria in the lab. What culture conditions are most likely to be successful? A) culturing on blood agar plates B) inoculation of EMB plates C) incubation in an anaerobic culture system D) inoculation of cell cultures E) inoculation of a minimal medium broth Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Culturing Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 6.12 20) The events of binary fission are I. the cell doubles in size II. the DNA is replicated III. the cell forms a septum IV. the cell separates from its offspring The CORRECT order of these events is A) I, III, II, IV. B) II, III, I, IV. C) IV, I, III, II. D) II, I, III, IV. E) I, II, IV, III. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.14 21) MacConkey agar plates represent ________ medium. A) a minimal B) a selective C) a differential D) both a differential and a selective E) both a minimal and a selective Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Culturing Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 6.10

22) Which of the following methods provides information about the number of living cells in a sample of bacterial culture? A) serial dilution and viable plate count B) membrane filtration C) a Petroff-Hauser counting chamber D) flow cytometry E) a Coulter counter Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.20 23) The growth of bacterial cultures is best described as A) arithmetic growth. B) lag growth. C) logarithmic growth. D) cell division. E) replication. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.16 24) A ________ is used in industrial microbiology to produce microbial products that are only synthesized during log phase growth. A) Coulter counter B) broth culture C) spectrophotometer D) pour plate E) chemostat Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.18, 6.19 25) The ________ of a population is the time it takes for the cells to double in number. A) binary fission B) exponential growth C) generation time D) arithmetic growth E) log phase Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.15

26) Which of the following is an indirect method for estimating the number of microbes in a sample? A) viable plate counts B) turbidity C) Coulter counter D) MPN E) membrane filtration Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.20 27) During which growth phase are bacteria more susceptible to antimicrobial drugs? A) lag phase B) log phase C) stationary phase D) death phase E) The susceptibility is the same for all phases. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.18 28) The use of salt and sugar in preserving various types of foods is an application of which of the following concepts? A) nitrogen fixation B) osmotic pressure C) pH D) hydrostatic pressure E) quorum sensing Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.6 29) A clinical sample labeled as "sputum" was collected from A) the skin. B) the blood. C) the central nervous system. D) a piece of tissue. E) the lungs. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Culturing Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 6.8

30) Pure cultures are often obtained by isolating A) streaks. B) broths. C) CFUs (colony forming units). D) inoculums. E) specimens. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Culturing Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 6.9 31) ________ are complex communities of various types of microbes that adhere to surfaces. A) Aggregates B) Colonies C) Isolates D) Biofilms E) Media Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.7 32) The ________ method provides an estimate of the CFUs (colony-forming units) in a sample. A) Coulter-counter B) viable plate-count C) streak-plate D) turbidity E) direct microscopic-count Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.20 33) Blood agar plates are an example of ________ medium. A) differential B) selective C) reducing D) defined E) transport Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Culturing Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 6.10

34) Reducing medium is used to isolate ________ microbes. A) fastidious B) obligate aerobic C) autotrophic D) obligate anaerobic E) intracellular parasitic Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Culturing Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 6.10 35) The Most Probable Number (MPN) method is used A) to estimate numbers of cells in samples with a high density of bacterial cells. B) when samples contain obligate anaerobes. C) to estimate numbers of cells in samples with a low density of bacterial cells. D) to isolate autotrophic bacteria. E) to determine the generation time of bacterial isolates. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.20

36)

Which of the following statements is CORRECT regarding Figure 6.1? A) Cells are actively growing only during the stage represented by B. B) No cells are reproducing during the stage represented by D. C) Cells are most susceptible to antibiotics during the stage represented by A. D) Cells are alive but not reproducing during the stage represented by A. E) No new cells are being produced during the stage represented by C. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.18 37) The generation time of bacterial cells is shortest during the ________ phase. A) death B) lag C) log D) stationary E) longitudinal Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.15, 6.18

38) When cells are metabolically active but not dividing, they are in the ________ phase. A) stationary B) log C) lag D) death E) exponential Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.18 39) Rates of cell production and cell death are approximately equal during the ________ phase of growth. A) lag B) log C) death D) stationary E) intermediate Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.18 40) Creating conditions in the laboratory that promote the growth of some microbes while inhibiting the growth of others is called A) complex culturing. B) reducing conditions. C) enrichment culturing. D) transport conditions. E) differential culturing. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Culturing Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 6.11 41) A laboratory recipe lists sucrose, an ammonia compound, calcium salts and a buffer as the ingredients for a microbiologic medium. These are added to water and autoclaved. What type of medium does this protocol produce? A) defined agar B) defined broth C) complex broth D) reducing agar E) complex enrichment broth Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.10 12 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

42) A capnophile is a microorganism that thrives in conditions of high A) carbon dioxide levels. B) hydrostatic pressure. C) oxygen levels. D) pH. E) salt concentration. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.3 43) A microorganism found living under conditions of high ________ is a barophile. A) pH values B) oxygen concentrations C) hydrostatic pressure D) carbon dioxide levels E) salt concentrations Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.6 44) Microaerophiles are microbes that grow best at low A) carbon dioxide levels. B) pH values. C) hydrostatic pressure. D) oxygen levels. E) salt concentrations. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.3 45) A 0.1 ml sample of a log phase culture contains 10,000 bacterial cells/ml. It is added to 9.9 ml of fresh culture medium broth. Assume a generation time of 30 minutes, and no limiting nutrients. How many bacteria will be present in the entire broth culture after five hours? A) 3.2 × 104 B) 5.0 × 105 C) 1.02 × 106 D) 6.0 × 106 E) 2.56 × 107 Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.15, 6.18 13 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

6.2 True/False Questions 1) Photoheterotrophs use carbon dioxide as their sole carbon source. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.2 2) Atmospheric nitrogen gas (N2) is produced in the process known as nitrogen fixation. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.5 3) Thermoduric mesophiles are often responsible for spoilage of improperly canned foods. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.6 4) Serial dilution can be used in combination with pour plates as a method for isolating pure cultures. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Culturing Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 6.9 5) The only effective way to store bacterial cultures for short periods of time is to arrest their metabolism by freezing. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Culturing Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 6.13 6) Quorum sensing is involved in the development and propagation of a biofilm. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.7 7) Streak plates are a useful way to obtain CFUs. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Culturing Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 6.9 14 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

8) Agar is a useful compound in the microbiology lab because it is an excellent nutrient for bacteria. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Culturing Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 6.10 9) Enrichment culturing may require use of controlled environmental conditions. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Culturing Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 6.10 10) Flow cytometry makes use of fluorescence to count microbes. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.20 6.3 Short Answer Questions 1) A(n) (autotroph/lithotroph/organotroph) uses inorganic molecules as electron donors. Answer: lithotroph Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.1 2) Organisms that require organic sources of carbon and energy are called (chemoheterotrophs/chemoautotrophs/autotrophs). Answer: chemoheterotrophs Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.2 3) The (peroxide/superoxide/hydroxyl) radical is formed during the incomplete reduction of O2 during electron transport in aerobes. Answer: superoxide Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.4 4) The (maximum/optimum/selective) growth temperature is the temperature at which an organism exhibits the highest growth rate. Answer: optimum Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.6 15 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

5) The preferred method for long term storage of bacteria is (freezing/refrigeration/lyophilization). Answer: lyophilization Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Culturing Organisms Learning Outcome: 6.13 6) Alkalinophiles can survive in water up to pH (11.5/10/7.0). Answer: 11.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.6 7) Some organisms use vitamins as (oxidizers/antioxidants/peroxidases) to be able to live as aerobes. Answer: antioxidants Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.4 8) A(n) (culture/specimen/inoculum) is a sample of microorganisms introduced into a growth medium. Answer: inoculum Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Culturing Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 6.9 9) A pure culture is composed of cells that arise from a single (cell/inoculum/sample). Answer: cell Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Culturing Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 6.9 10) Culturing of intracellular parasites generally requires (enrichment/cell culture/low oxygen) conditions. Answer: cell culture Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Culturing Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 6.12 11) A sample placed into fresh medium is initially in the (lag/log/stationary) phase of microbial growth in most instances. Answer: lag Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.18 16 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

12) A growth curve plots the (concentration/number/percentage) of viable organisms in a growing population over time. Answer: number Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.17 13) A (Coulter/Petroff-Hauser chamber/spectrophotometer) counter is used to count cells on a light microscope. Answer: Petroff-Hauser chamber Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.20 14) A clinical sample from a mucus membrane is usually collected as a (biopsy/needle/swab) specimen. Answer: swab Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Culturing Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 6.8 15) A (Coulter counter/cytometer/spectrophotometer) can measure changes in the turbidity of a bacterial culture. Answer: spectrophotometer Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.20 6.4 Essay Questions 1) A new prokaryote is recovered from a remote saline hot spring. Design a set of experiments to determine whether the organism is thermophilic or thermoduric, halophilic or halotolerant. Answer: The experimental design should include a control in which the organism is grown in the salt conditions and at the temperature it was recovered from. One set of samples should be cultured at the same salt concentration but varying the temperatures. Another set of samples should be cultured at the temperature of the hot spring but varying the salt concentration. One culture should be grown at the lowest temperature and salt concentration used in the two experimental sets. Bacterial growth is most reliably measured using the viable plate count method (assuming the organism can be grown on plates). Alternatively, bacterial numbers may be determined using a cell counter. An excellent answer will describe the organism which can be expected to grow under the various conditions (thermophilic halophile, thermophilic halotolerant, thermoduric halophile, and so forth). Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.6 17 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

2) Explain how temperature and pH levels can influence microbial infections in the human body. Answer: All microbes have particular ranges of temperature and pH within which they thrive. When the temperature or pH of their environment falls outside this range, their growth is inhibited, and they may even die as a result of the adverse conditions. Therefore, only those microbes whose pH and temperature requirements match those conditions found in the human body will be able to grow and reproduce there. For example, because the temperature of the human body is 37°C, only mesophiles can reproduce there. In addition, the pH of most tissues and fluids in the body is 6.5-7.5, which matches the pH requirements of neutrophiles. Therefore, it is not surprising that most human pathogens are mesophiles and neutrophiles. However, this is not always the case. Some microbes have adapted to environments that would otherwise be extremely hostile to most microbes. A good example is the bacterium Helicobacter pylori, which is able to live in the extremely acidic conditions of the stomach by secreting substances that help to neutralize the acid. The result is an infection that can lead to stomach ulcers. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.4 3) Compare and contrast the streak-plate method of isolation with the pour-plate method of isolation. Answer: The streak-plate and the pour-plate methods of bacterial isolation are both used to produce pure cultures of bacteria from specimens. Both techniques involve the use of agar-based growth media contained in Petri plates. Additionally, both techniques involve the use of dilutions as a means of isolating single cells or groups of cells that then grow into isolated colonies. However, there are several significant differences between the two techniques. The main difference is the way in which the specimen is diluted. In the streak-plate method, the specimen is diluted by use of an inoculating loop that spreads organisms over the surface of the agar. Thus, colonies appear only on the agar surface. In the pour-plate method, however, dilutions of the specimen are made in tubes of broth and then each dilution is added to melted agar, which is then poured into Petri dishes. Thus, microbes are mixed throughout the agar, and colonies will appear both in and on the medium. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Culturing Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 6.9

4) Genetic methods of detecting microorganisms reveal that the number of bacterial species in nature exceeds previous estimates by several orders of magnitude. In human mouths, for example, it is estimated that 500-700 microbial species are normally present. Explain why previous estimates were low. Answer: Previous estimates of microbial diversity were largely based on the ability to detect microbes in samples handled in a typical laboratory setting. In most cases, laboratory conditions represent a narrow range of growth parameters, including temperature range, oxygen and other gas levels, and spectrum of nutrients. Even in cases where attempts are made to simulate the normal conditions for microbes (e.g., providing a high-pressure environment for organisms collected from a hyperbaric environment), microorganisms must frequently tolerate fluctuations in the growth environment or even exposure to extremely adverse conditions for short periods of time. Organisms that are intolerant of significant fluctuation in their environmental requirements do not survive transport to the lab to be measured or cultured. As a consequence, only the relatively few microbes that are versatile in their nutrient requirements and can tolerate fluctuations in their growth environment have been observed or isolated in the laboratory. This, in turn, resulted in misleadingly low estimates of microbial diversity. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.20 5) Explain the similarities and differences between direct and indirect methods of measuring microbial growth, and give examples of each. Answer: Direct methods of measuring microbial growth involve quantifying the number of microbes in a specimen through actual counting of cells in a microscope or cytometer, or counting the numbers of colonies produced from the plating of a specimen. The advantage of these techniques lies in their usefulness for counting very large and very small populations of bacteria. Indirect methods, by contrast, seek to quantify cells by measuring some characteristic related to the number of cells present. For example, spectrophotometry measures the amount of light transmitted through a culture; the less light that is transmitted, the more cells are present. The amount of light transmitted gives an approximation of the number of cells present. Indirect methods are useful for quantifying microbes, such as filamentous microbes, that are hard to count directly. Both direct and indirect methods seek to arrive at an approximation of the actual number of cells present. Because that number is changing even during the measurement process, neither technique can give an exact number of cells. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.20

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 5e (Bauman) Chapter 7 Microbial Genetics 7.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) A bacterial genome is typically A) a single linear piece of DNA. B) multiple linear pieces of DNA. C) a linear RNA molecule. D) a single circular DNA molecule. E) multiple circular DNA molecules. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.1 2) Which of the following is found at the 5' end of a DNA strand? A) a phosphate group B) a hydrogen bond C) a hydroxyl group D) histones E) a methyl group Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.2 3) The bacterial chromosome is A) usually found in the cytoplasm. B) found in a nucleoid. C) found in a nucleus. D) both circular and found in a nucleoid. E) both circular and found in a nucleus. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.1

4) Which of the following types of plasmids allows a bacterial cell to kill its competitors? A) virulence plasmids B) fertility plasmids C) bacteriocin plasmids D) resistance plasmids E) cryptic plasmids Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.4 5) Which of the following is found in both archaeal and eukaryotic genomes? A) chromatin fibers B) histones C) heterochromatin D) euchromatin E) nuclear envelope Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.5 6) Which of the following statements is TRUE of bacterial plasmids? A) They are always found in the nucleoid. B) They can replicate autonomously. C) They carry genes for essential metabolic functions. D) They are small circular DNA molecules. E) They are small circular DNA molecules that can replicate autonomously. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.4

The process indicated by the arrow in Figure 7.1 represents A) lagging strand synthesis. B) leading strand synthesis. C) transcription. D) translation. E) recombination. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.7 8) Which of the following statements concerning transcription in bacteria is FALSE? A) It occurs in the nucleoid region. B) Sigma factors are parts of RNA polymerase that recognize promoter regions. C) Different RNA polymerases are required for synthesis of mRNA, rRNA, and tRNA. D) Termination is either self-induced or due to the presence of Rho protein. E) There are a variety of sigma factors that affect transcription. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.12 9) Which of the following is involved in translation? A) rRNA only B) tRNA only C) mRNA only D) both mRNA and tRNA E) mRNA, rRNA, and tRNA are all involved. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.14

10) Which of the following is a characteristic shared by DNA and RNA polymerases? A) efficiency of proofreading B) type of nucleotides used C) direction of polymerization D) speed E) dependence on helicase Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.6, 7.11 11) Typical eukaryotic genomes are composed of ________ chromosomes. A) multiple linear B) multiple circular C) a single circular D) a single linear E) both linear and circular Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.5 12) DNA is composed of four nucleotides, A, C, G and T. Each codon is composed of three nucleotides. The number of possible codons is A) 16. B) 4. C) 12. D) 64. E) 32. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.13 13) Which of the following is both a codon for an amino acid and a start signal? A) AAA B) AUG C) UAG D) GAU E) UGA Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.13

14) Amino acids are delivered in their appropriate order by A) mRNAs. B) RNA-induced silencing complexes (RISC). C) ribozymes. D) rRNAs. E) tRNAs. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.14 15) During elongation, a charged tRNA first enters the ribosomal ________ site and then moves into the ________ site. A) A; E B) P; A C) P; E D) A; P E) E; A Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.14 16) Two bacterial strains have the same genes for metabolizing a carbohydrate, but one is wildtype for a regulatory inducer while the other does not produce the inducer. Which of the following statements is CORRECT with regard to the metabolism of the bacteria? A) The two bacterial strains have the same phenotype. B) The two bacterial strains have different phenotypes. C) The genotypes and phenotypes of the two bacterial strains are the same. D) The two bacterial strains have the same phenotype but have different genotypes. E) The answer cannot be determined from the information provided. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.9 17) Semiconservative DNA replication means that A) each daughter DNA molecule is composed of one original strand and one new strand. B) nucleotides are constantly being recycled as cells make DNA. C) the cell can proofread its newly synthesized DNA only part of the time. D) the sequence of a DNA molecule is preserved as it is being replicated. E) each strand of a double-stranded DNA molecule is replicated differently. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.6 5 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

18) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Okazaki fragments? A) They are checked for accuracy by DNA polymerase III. B) They make up the lagging strand of replicated DNA. C) They begin with an RNA primer. D) They are joined together by DNA ligase. E) They are longer in eukaryotic cells. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.8 19) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of both DNA and RNA polymerases? A) directionality of synthesis B) energy is provided by pyrophosphate C) hydrogen bonding of complementary nucleotides D) requirement for an initiation signal E) requirement for a primer Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.7, 7.11 20) Which of the following processes is involved in the "central dogma" of genetics? A) translation only B) transcription only C) DNA replication only D) transcription and translation E) DNA replication and translation Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.10 21) Prokaryotic operons typically include a(n) ________ and a(n) ________ with multiple genes. A) operator; terminator B) operator; promoter C) promoter; repressor D) inducer; repressor E) CAP-binding site; inducer Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.16

22) Which of the following are considered to be frameshift mutations? A) insertions only B) inversions only C) deletions only D) both inversion and insertions E) both deletions and insertions Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mutations of Genes Learning Outcome: 7.20 23) If the codon AAA is changed to AAG, it still codes for the amino acid lysine; this is an example of a A) silent mutation. B) nonsense mutation. C) frameshift mutation. D) dimer formation. E) missense mutation. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Mutations of Genes Learning Outcome: 7.21 24) Which of the following causes mutations by creating thymine dimers? A) nucleotide analogs B) nitrous acid C) ultraviolet light D) benzopyrene E) gamma rays Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mutations of Genes Learning Outcome: 7.22 25) DNA damage caused by nitrous acid results in ________ mutations. A) insertion B) substitution C) deletion D) frameshift E) both insertion and deletion Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mutations of Genes Learning Outcome: 7.23

26) Which of the following DNA repair processes is most likely to introduce mutations into the repaired DNA? A) base-excision repair B) light repair C) single-strand repair D) mismatch repair E) SOS response repair Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mutations of Genes Learning Outcome: 7.25 27) The Ames test demonstrates that a chemical is A) carcinogenic. B) carcinogenic in Salmonella. C) mutagenic in Salmonella. D) carcinogenic in humans. E) mutagenic in humans. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Mutations of Genes Learning Outcome: 7.27 28) The horizontal transfer process known as transduction A) involves a virus. B) requires a pilus. C) requires a cell to be "competent." D) requires a plasmid. E) involves a mutagen. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Genetic Recombination and Transfer Learning Outcome: 7.29, 7.32 29) Frederick Griffith discovered A) transformation. B) transposons. C) the lac operon. D) DNA. E) conjugation. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Genetic Recombination and Transfer Learning Outcome: 7.29, 7.32

30) In conjugation, F+ cells A) serve as recipient cells. B) contain an F plasmid. C) do not have conjugation pili. D) can transfer DNA only to other F+ cells. E) contain "jumping genes." Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Genetic Recombination and Transfer Learning Outcome: 7.30 31) Which of the following is required for transposition? A) F+ plasmid B) bacteriophage C) insertion sequence D) donor cell E) competence Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Genetic Recombination and Transfer Learning Outcome: 7.33 32) Which of the following is characteristic of prokaryotic genomes but NOT eukaryotic genomes? A) histones B) circular chromosomes C) linear chromosomes D) enclosed in a nuclear membrane E) typically consist of a few to several chromosomes Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.1 33) You observe a microbiologist examining two plates and notice the pattern of colonies are nearly identical with the exception of a few colonies that are absent on one of them. The plates likely were produced by A) positive selection culturing. B) replica plating. C) pour plating. D) streak plating. E) the Ames test. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Mutations of Genes Learning Outcome: 7.26 9 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

34) A polypeptide in a wild type microbe contains the sequence Leu-Pro-Tyr-Ser-Pro. A phenotypic variant of the species has the peptide sequence Leu-Pro-Cys-Ser-Pro. This is an example of a(n) ________ mutation. A) nonsense B) missense C) silent D) frameshift E) inversion Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Mutations of Genes Learning Outcome: 7.21 35) Which of the following is NOT involved in the regulation of the lac operon? A) an inducer B) a repressor protein C) an iRNA D) glucose E) cyclic AMP Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.17 36) Genetic elements known as promoters are initiation points in the process of A) DNA replication. B) transcription. C) translation. D) mutation repair. E) transformation. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.11 37) Codons are recognized during A) translation. B) transcription. C) base excision. D) DNA replication. E) transduction. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.13

38) The events of ________ are initiated at sequences called origins. A) DNA replication B) translation C) splicing D) transcription E) transposition Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.7 39) The process of ________ requires the activity of DNA ligase. A) translation B) capping C) transcription D) DNA replication E) transduction Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.7 40) RNA polymerase is primarily responsible for A) DNA replication. B) translation. C) transcription. D) transformation. E) polyadenylation. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.11 41) Which of the following processes occurs in eukaryotes but not prokaryotes? A) DNA replication B) capping C) transcription D) translation E) gene regulation Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.12

42) The modified amino acid fMet is essential for A) bacterial translation. B) bacterial transcription. C) eukaryotic transcription. D) eukaryotic translation. E) eukaryotic mRNA processing. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.15 43) Transfer of random pieces of DNA mediated by phage is known as A) transformation of competent cells. B) generalized transduction. C) conjugation. D) transposition. E) specialized transduction. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Genetic Recombination and Transfer Learning Outcome: 7.32 44) The process of ________ is described as semiconservative. A) translation B) transcription C) mismatch repair D) transformation E) DNA replication Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.6 45) The effects of a transposition event are equivalent to a(n) A) nonsense mutation. B) missense mutation. C) frameshift mutation. D) silent mutation. E) HFR conjugation. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Genetic Recombination and Transfer Learning Outcome: 7.34

7.2 True/False Questions 1) All eukaryotes are diploid. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.5 2) A chemical is reported to inhibit bacterial replication. Bacterial cells are placed in medium with all nutrients necessary for replication. The chemical is added to the culture, and after a half hour an extract of the DNA is prepared. A significant percentage of the DNA is in pieces about 1000 to 2000 bases in length. The results are consistent with the chemical blocking the function of DNA ligase. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.7 3) The term "semiconservative replication" means that both strands of a DNA molecule are a mix of newly replicated and original template DNA. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.6 4) Most bacteria have a natural ability to take up DNA from their environment. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Genetic Recombination and Transfer Learning Outcome: 7.32 5) The structure of DNA explains both its ability to encode genetic information and the way in which it is copied during cell reproduction. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.2 6) DNA, which is negatively charged, wraps around positively charged histones as part of the packaging of eukaryotic chromosomes. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.5

7) In contrast to leading strand synthesis, the lagging strand is synthesized 3' to 5', which is why it is slower. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.7 8) The phenotype of an organism reflects only part of its genotype. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.9 9) In generalized transduction, viruses carry random DNA sequences from one cell to another. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Genetic Recombination and Transfer Learning Outcome: 7.32 10) Nucleotide analogs cause frameshift mutations. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mutations of Genes Learning Outcome: 7.23 7.3 Short Answer Questions 1) A(n) (operon/codon/gene) is a specific sequence of nucleotides that codes for a protein or an RNA molecule. Answer: gene Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.1 2) Loosely packed, transcriptionally active regions of a eukaryotic chromosome are called (euchromatin/heterochromatin/nucleosomes). Answer: euchromatin Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.5 3) Transfer of DNA between bacterial cells by viruses is called (transformation/transduction/conjugation). Answer: transduction Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Genetic Recombination and Transfer Learning Outcome: 7.32 14 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

4) The phenotype of an organism is its set of (genes/traits/chromosomes). Answer: traits Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.9 5) The enzyme responsible for separating the DNA strands during DNA replication is (topoisomerase/primase/helicase). Answer: helicase Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.7 6) The chemical 5-bromouracil mimics the chemical structure of thymine, making it a(n) (analog/nucleotide/precursor) of thymine. Answer: analog Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Mutations of Genes Learning Outcome: 7.23 7) A (missense/nonsense/silent) mutation of a gene usually produces a nonfunctional polypeptide. Answer: nonsense Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mutations of Genes Learning Outcome: 7.21 8) Except during initiation of translation, transfer RNA molecules carrying amino acids initially bind to the ribosome at the (P/A/E) site. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.14 9) The (codon/anticodon/loop) of a transfer RNA molecule is complementary to a codon in a messenger RNA molecule. Answer: anticodon Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.14 10) Nucleotide analog mutagens cause (deletion/frameshift/point) mutations. Answer: point Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mutations of Genes Learning Outcome: 7.23 15 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

11) A(n) (genome/codon/operon) is a set of prokaryotic genes that are regulated and transcribed as a unit. Answer: operon Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.16 12) The (leading/lagging/replicating) strand is the DNA strand that is synthesized continuously during DNA replication. Answer: leading Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.7 13) The full set of genetic instructions of an organism is its (phenotype/genome/genotype). Answer: genotype Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.9 14) Errors made during replication are primarily corrected by (base-excision/mismatch/nucleotide-excision) repair. Answer: mismatch Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mutations of Genes Learning Outcome: 7.25 15) While studying a bacterial strain, a scientist notes a short DNA sequence between inverted repeats is present in both the chromosome and a plasmid within the cell. This sequence is most likely a(n) (phage/transposon/F plasmid). Answer: transposon Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Genetic Recombination and Transfer Learning Outcome: 7.31

7.4 Essay Questions 1) Describe the basic similarities and differences between DNA replication and transcription. Answer: DNA replication and transcription are similar processes in that they both involve the production of molecules of nucleic acids using a preexisting template. Therefore, they both involve the polymerization of nucleotides to create long chains, as well as the utilization of complementary base-pairing rules to create the nucleotide sequence of the new molecule based on the sequence of the template. Additionally, these chains of nucleotides are synthesized in the same direction, 5' to 3', regardless of the type of nucleic acid being produced. However, there are a number of differences between these two processes as well. During DNA replication, both DNA strands serve as templates, while only one DNA strand is the template for transcription. The product of DNA replication is an exact, complete DNA copy of an entire DNA molecule that will be passed on to the offspring of the cell producing it. The product of transcription is an RNA copy of a limited region (a gene) of a DNA molecule. Furthermore, this RNA molecule may not be an exact copy of the gene, because transcription is more prone to errors than DNA replication. The RNA molecules produced during transcription are used within the cell that produces them to provide information for the synthesis of proteins during translation. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.7, 7.10 2) Describe the various types of nucleic acids that are typically found in cells. Answer: All cells possess one or more DNA molecules that serve as the genetic blueprint of the cell; these molecules are generally referred to as chromosomes. Prokaryotic chromosomes differ from eukaryotic chromosomes in their number and physical shape. Eukaryotic chromosomes tend to be more complex in their organization, involving specialized packaging proteins called histones. Eukaryotic cells also tend to contain more chromosomes than prokaryotes, which have no more than two chromosomes. In addition, all cells contain additional nucleic acid in the form of various types of RNA (mRNA, tRNA, primer RNA, siRNA, miRNA, and rRNA), which are used to assist in the cell's genetic processes. Most cells contain other types of nucleic acid, such as plasmids or the DNA found in organelles such as mitochondria and chloroplasts. Plasmids are a common form of prokaryotic DNA and confer a variety of special abilities to the cell, depending on the specific genes carried by the plasmid. Some eukaryotic cells may also contain plasmids. The DNA of eukaryotic mitochondria and chloroplasts is used to partially control the activities of these organelles in conjunction with genes found in the cell's nucleus. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.2, 7.11, 7.18

3) Bacterial strain A contains a plasmid. Bacterial strain B does not. When the bacteria are incubated together in a broth culture strain B cells containing the plasmid can be isolated. Devise an experiment to determine what type of gene transfer process is involved. Answer: A variety of answers are possible. For example, bacterial strains A & B could be placed on either side of a filter with a pore size too small to allow bacteria to cross; if no strain B recombinants are produced the results would be consistent with gene transfer by conjugation. Another experiment would be to mix the bacteria in the presence of DNase; if recombinants are not detected the results would suggest transformation of competent cells is involved. If recombinants are detected, genetic transfer by conjugation or transduction are possible. A good experimental design will include appropriate controls. An excellent answer may include multiple experimental approaches and/or discussion of alternatives to the proposed experiment. Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis Section: Genetic Recombination and Transfer Learning Outcome: 7.28 4) Compare and contrast the lactose operon with the tryptophan operon. Answer: Both the lactose and the tryptophan operons have certain features in common. They both contain a set of genes dedicated to a common purpose (such as the catabolism of lactose by the genes of the lactose operon) and regulatory elements such as a promoter and an operator. Each of these operons makes use of a repressor protein, which binds to the operator region and alters the activity of the operon. However, the lactose operon is classified as an inducible operon, which means it requires an inducer (a lactose metabolite) in order to be activated. In the absence of the inducer, the repressor protein shuts down the operon. In contrast, the tryptophan operon is a repressible operon, which requires a corepressor (tryptophan itself) in order to activate the repressor and shut down the operon. In the absence of the corepressor and repressor, the operon is fully functional. In both types of operons, the molecule either catabolized (in the case of lactose) or synthesized (in the case of tryptophan) is an important component of the regulation of the operon. In this way, the cell maintains precise control over these genetic pathways and does not spend time and energy making enzymes that are not needed. For example, making enzymes to catabolize lactose when no lactose is present would waste energy and metabolites. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.17

5) A point mutation can be completely harmless, or it can result in the death of a cell or organism. Explain why these types of mutations can have such varying effects. Answer: A point mutation is a single base change in the nucleotide sequence of a cell's genome. The effects of a point mutation can depend on its location. Point mutations in noncoding regions of the genome are usually harmless. Even in coding regions, point mutations can be harmless if they result in silent mutations. Silent mutations preserve the sense of the amino acid code because of the concept of "wobble," in which two codons can code for the same amino acid by varying only at the third base of the codon. If the point mutation has occurred at this third base, then the amino acid sequence of the protein will remain unchanged. Point mutations occurring at the first or second base of the codon are almost always much more serious because they change the codon to a completely different amino acid. This type of point mutation is known as a missense mutation. Occasionally, changes in the first or second base are still silent, in the case of amino acids specified by several codons (e.g. CGG and AGG both code for Arginine). (Another exception to this occurs when the new amino acid is chemically similar to the previous amino acid, in which case the missense mutation usually causes little or no change in the overall structure or function of the protein.) Finally, one of the most serious types of point mutations is a nonsense mutation in which the codon has been changed to a stop codon. These types of mutations result in the abnormal termination of a protein sequence. In all such cases, if the protein affected by the mutation is an enzyme or some other vital protein required for proper cellular function, then the cell and/or organism may die as a result of these relatively simple mutations. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Mutations of Genes Learning Outcome: 7.20, 7.21

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 5e (Bauman) Chapter 8 Recombinant DNA Technology 8.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The use of microorganisms to produce useful products is known as A) biotechnology. B) gene modification. C) genomics. D) recombinant DNA technology. E) cloning. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Role of Recombinant DNA Technology in Biotechnology Learning Outcome: 8.1 2) In the 20th century, scientists harnessed the natural metabolic reactions of bacteria to make ________ for the first time in an industrial setting. A) soy sauce B) acetone C) wine D) cheese E) alcohol Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Role of Recombinant DNA Technology in Biotechnology Learning Outcome: 8.2 3) Which of the following items is NOT a part of the name of a restriction enzyme? A) the Gram reaction of the source bacterium B) the specific epithet of the source bacterium C) Roman numerals to indicate its order of discovery D) the strain of the source bacterium E) the genus of the source bacterium Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.8

4) The natural role of restriction enzymes in bacteria is to A) make conjugation more efficient. B) allow transposons to move to another place in the chromosome. C) protect the cell from invading phages. D) allow cells to accept foreign DNA. E) provide the cell with new phenotypes, such as antibiotic resistance. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.9 5) Which of the following is a product of recombinant DNA technology? A) rice that produces vitamin C B) bacteria that produce insulin C) yeast that produces alcohol D) bacteria that produce acetone E) microbes that digest cellulose Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.20 6) Which of the following restriction enzyme sites would produce blunt-ended fragments? (The arrow represents the cutting site of the enzyme.) A) C↓CGG B) G↓GATCC C) G↓AATTC D) CCC↓GGG E) A↓AGCTT Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.9 7) The enzyme reverse transcriptase A) synthesizes DNA to repair gaps in a DNA strand. B) synthesizes DNA from an RNA template. C) synthesizes RNA from an RNA template. D) synthesizes RNA from a DNA template. E) can synthesize DNA or RNA from an RNA template. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Role of Recombinant DNA Technology in Biotechnology Learning Outcome: 8.5

8) Which of the following statements regarding vectors is FALSE? A) Vectors are usually autonomously replicating DNA molecules. B) A useful vector contains multiple restriction sites for insertion of DNA. C) Vectors are generally over 100,000 base pairs in size. D) Cloning vectors frequently contain sequences necessary for expression of inserted sequences. E) Cloning vectors include a "marker" to facilitate identification of cells containing them. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.10 9) Synthetic nucleic acids are useful as A) DNA probes. B) primers for PCR. C) antisense RNAs. D) DNA probes and antisense RNAs. E) DNA probes, primers, and antisense RNAs. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.7 10) Mutagens are useful in biotechnology research for A) producing organisms with altered phenotypes. B) producing new organisms which have beneficial traits from two or more organisms. C) selecting genetic mutants resistant to radioactivity. D) removing undesirable traits from microbes. E) producing DNA fragments for cloning. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.4 11) Which of the following is essential in PCR? A) DNA polymerase B) antisense RNAs C) reverse transcriptase D) DNA primers E) both DNA primers and DNA polymerase Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.12

12) If a researcher used Escherichia coli DNA polymerase instead of Thermus aquaticus DNA polymerase in the PCR procedure, what would be the result? A) DNA replication would occur more slowly than normal. B) DNA replication would not occur at all. C) Many mistakes would occur. D) DNA replication would occur twice as fast as normal. E) DNA replication would stop after one cycle. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.12 13) What is the function of the high temperature step in PCR (polymerase chain reaction)? A) activation of the DNA polymerase B) allowing primers to bind complementary sequences C) facilitate DNA synthesis D) deactivate DNA polymerase to pause synthesis E) break hydrogen bonds for strand separation Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.12 14) A procedure using both reverse transcriptase and real time PCR can be used to A) determine the number of copies of a DNA sequence in a sample. B) determine the number of copies of an RNA sequence in a sample. C) produce DNA fragments for cDNA cloning. D) both determine the number of copies of an RNA sequence in a sample and produce fragments for cDNA cloning. E) produce RNA fragments for cloning. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.12 15) In gel electrophoresis, DNA molecules move toward the ________ electrode because they have an overall ________ charge. A) negative; negative B) positive; positive C) negative; positive D) positive; negative E) negative and positive; neutral Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.14 4 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

16) Single-strand DNA molecules are fixed to a glass slide or nylon membrane for the production of A) microarrays. B) DNA clones. C) real time PCR probes. D) FISH assays. E) templates for Sanger sequencing. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.15 17) A northern blot differs from a Southern blot in the A) type of probe used. B) presence or absence of a nitrocellulose membrane. C) size of the genetic sequences involved. D) number of genetic sequences detected. E) type of nucleic acid being isolated. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.14 18)

Which method of inserting DNA into cells is illustrated in Figure 8.1? A) protoplast fusion B) injection C) electroporation D) a gene gun E) transduction Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.16

19) Small single strand DNA molecules with a fluorescent molecule attached that are used to identify a clone containing a specific gene fragment is called a A) primer. B) probe. C) plasmid. D) promoter. E) peptide. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.13 20) The sequencing and analysis of an organism's genetic information is called A) protein synthesis. B) gene therapy. C) genomics. D) northern blotting. E) PCR. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.18 21) Which of the following devices is used for PCR? A) an electrophoresis chamber B) a gene gun C) a DNA sequencer D) a thermocycler E) a nucleic acid synthesis machine Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.12 22) The removal of a gene from an organism's genome to study its function is a technique known as A) gene therapy. B) gene knockout. C) probe analysis. D) expression vector cloning. E) FISH. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.18

23) A researcher inserted DNA fragments from an organism into expression vector plasmids and introduced the modified plasmids into bacterial cells. Which of the following methods would be an effective means of identifying which clones contain a specific gene of interest? A) Sequence the DNA of the plasmids from each isolate. B) Prepare and analyze restriction fragments of the plasmids. C) Isolate clones that still have the vector's genetic marker. D) Assay for activity of the gene product. E) Use reverse transcriptase to prepare cDNA copies. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.17 24) Subunit vaccines are safer than traditional vaccines because they A) are acellular. B) are administered in food. C) do not pose a risk for causing the disease. D) are acellular and do not pose a risk for causing the disease. E) are acellular and can be administered in food. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.20 25) Which of the following is common to both Sanger sequencing and next-generation sequencing? A) radioactive labels B) gel electrophoresis C) tethered DNA fragments D) chain terminating nucleotides E) lasers Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.19 26) Transgenic organisms A) contain cells from other organisms. B) contain genetically engineered microbes. C) are the same as clones. D) contain genes from other organisms. E) have genomes that have been sequenced completely. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.23 7 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

27) Which of the following microbes produces a protein that kills a variety of insect pests? A) Pseudomonas B) Haemophilus influenzae C) Bacillus thuringiensis D) Thermus aquaticus E) Plasmodium falciparum Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.23 28) Replacing a patient's defective gene with a fragment containing a functional gene is A) gene therapy. B) genomics. C) gene cloning. D) gene mapping. E) gene selection. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.22 29) If all the following DNA fragments were analyzed on an electrophoresis gel, which one would migrate farthest from the negative electrode? A) 5000 base pairs B) 750 base pairs C) 1000 base pairs D) 250 base pairs E) 2500 base pairs Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.14 30) Which of the following procedures would be used to introduce DNA into a single mouse cell? A) Southern blotting B) electroporation C) gene gun D) microinjection E) protoplast fusion Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.16

31) The procedure used to determine whether a person has a heritable disease is known as A) DNA sequencing. B) microarray analysis. C) genetic screening. D) northern analysis. E) xenotransplantation. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.21 32) Double strand DNA fragments are separated by size using A) restriction analysis. B) FISH. C) PCR. D) northern blotting. E) gel electrophoresis. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.14 33) Which of the following is generally NOT considered an ethical issue regarding recombinant DNA technology? A) the modification of crop plants B) screening of humans for genes that predispose them to disease C) unforeseen impact on the environment D) the modification of animals to produce pharmaceuticals for humans E) answering basic research questions Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Ethics and Safety of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.24

34)

Two men may be the father of a child. Figure 8.2 shows the results of a DNA fingerprint analysis to determine paternity. M is the mother, C is the child, A and B are the two men. What is the best interpretation of these results? A) The man identified as A is probably the father. B) The man identified as B is probably the father. C) Neither man is this child's father. D) Either man could be this child's father. E) Paternity cannot be determined from this data. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.21 35) Which of the following microbes has been genetically engineered to contain a protein that helps protect crops from freezing? A) Deinococcus radiodurans B) Bacillus thuringiensis C) Pseudomonas D) Salmonella E) Escherichia coli Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.23

36) Synthesis of cDNA requires the use of A) DNA ligase. B) agarose. C) reverse transcriptase. D) restriction enzymes. E) fluorescent synthetic nucleotides. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.5 37) Probes used for detecting genetic sequences are frequently composed of A) agarose. B) synthetic nucleic acids and labeled conjugates, such as fluorescent dyes. C) restriction enzymes. D) silicon chips. E) nitrocellulose. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.7 38) ________ are used for cutting DNA molecules into fragments. A) Antisense RNAs B) Mutagens C) DNA polymerase and DNA ligase D) Restriction enzymes E) RNA polymerases Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.9 39) The templates for next-generation sequencing are A) double-strand restriction fragments. B) double-strand DNA on silicon chips. C) double-strand PCR products. D) single-strand DNA on silicon chips. E) single-strand DNA on slides. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.19

40) Which of the following is NOT a goal of recombinant DNA technology? A) combining genetic material from more than one organism to produce new useful organisms B) making it possible to clone humans C) eliminating undesirable traits from livestock or crops D) being able to remove or correct damaging traits in humans E) creating organisms capable of producing useful products Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Role of Recombinant DNA Technology in Biotechnology Learning Outcome: 8.3 41) In Southern blotting, DNA molecules are immobilized on A) silicon chips. B) nitrocellulose membranes. C) agarose. D) gold beads. E) paper. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.14 42) Michelle wants to know which cells in a particular organ produce a specific gene product. She has a cDNA clone of the gene available. What method would be the most useful to answer this question? A) Sanger sequencing of the clone B) real time PCR C) FISH (fluorescent in situ hybridization) D) restriction fragment analysis E) microinjection of the gene fragment Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.17 43) Injecting DNA into cells can be accomplished using A) nitrocellulose membranes. B) silicon chips and nucleic acids. C) compressed air and gold beads. D) micropipettes. E) micropipettes, or compressed air and gold beads. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.16

44) DNA encoding a normal gene is inserted into cells from a patient with a defective form of the gene. Recombinant cells are identified and isolated, and returned to the patient's body. This is an example of A) gene therapy. B) genomics. C) genetic mapping. D) genotyping. E) biotechnology. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.22 45) Some of the strongest opposition to the application of recombinant DNA technology concerns A) DNA fingerprinting. B) modification of food crops. C) correcting gene defects in animals. D) sequencing of the human genome. E) pest control measures. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Ethics and Safety of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.24 8.2 True/False Questions 1) Gene therapy for human genetic diseases has not been successful yet. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.22 2) Reverse transcriptase synthesizes a DNA molecule from an RNA template. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.5 3) The goals of recombinant DNA technology include production of new organisms with useful combinations of traits. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Role of Recombinant DNA Technology in Biotechnology Learning Outcome: 8.3

4) Restriction enzymes are useful only on synthetic DNAs. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.8 5) Under ideal conditions, the number of DNA molecules produced during PCR increases exponentially. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.12 6) Sticky-end fragments generated by EcoRI will hydrogen bond to any other sticky-end sequence. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.9 7) The human microbiome is very uniform across the entire species Homo sapiens in all geographic locations. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.20 8) Southern blotting is a technique that can be used to identify microbes that cannot be cultured. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.14 9) The microbes residing on human skin are part of the human microbiome. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.18 10) Scientists were able to increase the production of naturally occurring vitamin A in rice plants. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.23

8.3 Short Answer Questions 1) The use of microbes to make practical products such as vaccines or hormones is called (genomics/recombination/biotechnology). Answer: biotechnology Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Role of Recombinant DNA Technology in Biotechnology Learning Outcome: 8.1 2) A technique using fluorescent-tagged probes to detect specific DNA sequences in their natural locations is known as (FISH/PCR/BLOTTING). Answer: FISH Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.17 3) Nucleic acid molecules used to deliver new genes to cells are called (plasmids/vectors/clones). Answer: vectors Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.10 4) Restriction (enzymes/proteases/polymerases), first isolated from bacterial cells, cut DNA molecules at specific sites. Answer: enzymes Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.8, 8.9 5) Short nucleic acid molecules used to locate complementary sequences in a larger population of molecules are called (probes/primers/vectors). Answer: probes Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.7, 8.13 6) A set of clones representing the entire genome of an organism is known as a gene (recombinant/map/library). Answer: library Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.11

7) The technique called (northern/Southern/western) blotting is useful for using probes to identify specific DNA fragments that have been separated by electrophoresis. Answer: Southern Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.14 8) Small RNAs that bind to an mRNA and alter its expression are known as (antisense/probes/restriction) RNAs. Answer: antisense Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.7 9) The process of locating genes within the nucleic acid of an organism is called (genetic/library/clone) mapping. Answer: genetic Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.17 10) The insertion of foreign DNA directly into a cell's nucleus using a glass micropipet is called (electrophoresis/electroporation/microinjection). Answer: microinjection Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.16 11) Genetic (screening/sequencing/cloning) can be used to detect mutant genes associated with genetic diseases in individuals before any clinical symptoms are noted. Answer: screening Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.20 12) A DNA (library/microarray/screen) may be used to study the complex, changing patterns of mRNA production in an organism. Answer: microarray Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.15

13) Beta-carotene, the biochemical precursor to vitamin A, can be added to rice by using (biotechnology/cloning/recombinant) DNA technology, thereby increasing its nutritional value. Answer: recombinant Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.23 14) Crop plants modified to be resistant to insect damage produce Bt toxin from a (bacterial/fungal/synthetic) gene. Answer: bacterial Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.23 15) Vectors usually contain genetic (markers/sequences/probes) such as antibiotic genes or fluorescent tags. Answer: markers Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.10 8.4 Essay Questions 1) Discuss some of the impacts that tools and techniques of recombinant DNA technology have had on medicine. Answer: Human gene libraries and DNA sequencing have greatly facilitated detecting genes and gene complexes that contribute to disease, both the genetic mutations that cause disease and genetic predispositions to a wide range of diseases. PCR, FISH, and microarrays are all tools that can be used to determine whether a person carries a specific genetic variation linked to disease or to detect the presence of a pathogen causing disease. Recombinant technology has provided tools to prevent or cure disease. Some examples include the ability to produce therapeutic agents such as human insulin for diabetes, clotting factors for people with blood-clotting disorders, and vaccines to prevent infection. The use of gene therapy to correct disorders of abnormal or nonfunctional genes is in its infancy and has been successfully applied to a couple of diseases. Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.20 2) Discuss one of the pros and cons regarding the application of recombinant DNA technology. Answer: A wide range of answers are possible. See page 253 in the textbook for examples of possible topics. A good answer may include additional topics. An excellent answer will reflect clear reasoning. Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluation Section: The Ethics and Safety of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.24

3) Compare and contrast the two major categories of restriction enzymes. Answer: All restriction enzymes recognize specific sequences in DNA molecules and cut at those sequences, making them powerful tools for generating and manipulating DNA fragments. However, these enzymes differ in the type of cut they make. One type of cut is a staggered cut, which produces complementary overhangs known as "sticky ends." These ends can base pair with each other (if they have the same sequence), and they allow DNA fragments to be joined relatively easily. The other type of cut occurs at the same place on each strand of DNA and produces "blunt ends." Fragments with this type of end do not base pair with each other at all, making the joining of these fragments more difficult than sticky-ended fragments. However, blunt ends are more "generic" than sticky ends; they allow two fragments to be joined no matter which restriction enzyme generated them (as long as they were generated by blunt-end cutters). Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.9 4) Outline a procedure for producing a useful new recombinant product. Answer: Many variations are possible. The answer should include (1) what organism is used as the source of DNA and how the desired DNA sequence is obtained, (2) the insertion of the DNA sequence into a plasmid, (3) the method of introduction of the plasmid into cells, and (4) how recombinant cells are identified. Since the question states a goal of a recombinant product, an expression vector should be specified. A variety of tools and techniques will be involved in a full answer. Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.9, 8.10, 8.13, 8.14, 8.16 5) Explain what a transgenic organism is, and give two examples. Answer: A transgenic organism is one that contains genes from other organisms. These genes usually add some special ability or function to the organism. Agriculture offers many examples of transgenic organisms. Soybeans have been engineered to contain glyphosate-resistance genes, and other crops have been engineered to grow well in soil with high salt concentrations. Plants have been modified to be resistant to naturally occurring microbial diseases. Still other plants have been engineered to contain the gene for Bt toxin, a bacterial toxin that kills insect pests that would otherwise feed on and destroy the crop. Not all transgenic organisms represent such extreme genetic modifications, however. Some genetically modified organisms simply represent efforts to improve nutritional content (in the case of plant crops) or to increase food yield (in the case of bovine growth hormone, which is produced by transgenic bacteria and then given to cattle to increase their meat and milk yield). Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.23

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 5e (Bauman) Chapter 9 Controlling Microbial Growth in the Environment 9.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Washing dishes in the dishwasher with detergent and hot water is a ________ process. A) antiseptic B) disinfecting C) sterilizing D) sanitizing E) degerming Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Basic Principles of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.1 2) Which of the following statements is TRUE of disinfectants? A) They are effective in destroying endospores. B) They are used on living tissue. C) They are used for sterilization. D) They are used on inanimate surfaces. E) They are only effective for short periods of time (seconds to minutes). Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Basic Principles of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.1 3) You notice a sign in a public restroom that states "Sanitized for your safety." This means A) sterilizing chemicals have been used in cleaning. B) antiseptics have been used to clean the area. C) degerming methods only have been used to clean the restroom. D) methods of disinfection that meet minimum standards of microbial removal have been used. E) only "organic" chemicals were used in the cleaning process to reduce microbial numbers. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Basic Principles of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.2

4) Which of the following is an example of pasteurization? A) A public toilet is treated with disinfectants. B) A surgeon washes her hands before surgery. C) Heat is used to kill potential pathogens in apple juice. D) An autoclave is used to prepare nutrient agar. E) A nurse prepares an injection site with an alcohol swab. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Basic Principles of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.2 5) Aseptic means A) sterile. B) free of all microbes. C) clean. D) sanitized. E) free of pathogens. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Basic Principles of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.1 6) Methods of microbial control called ________ arrest the growth of microbes. A) microbicial B) microbistatic C) sanitizing D) degerming E) antiseptic Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Basic Principles of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.3 7) Antimicrobial agents that damage nucleic acids also affect A) the cell wall. B) the cell membrane. C) the viral envelope. D) endospores. E) protein synthesis. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Basic Principles of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.5

8) A chemical agent that dissolves lipids can damage A) cells. B) bacterial endospores. C) enveloped viruses. D) nonenveloped and enveloped viruses. E) cells and enveloped viruses. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Basic Principles of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.5 9) An instrument that will come into contact with only the skin of a patient should be disinfected with a(n) A) high-level germicide. B) low-level germicide. C) intermediate-level germicide. D) degerming agent only. E) germistatic agent only. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: The Selection of Microbial Control Methods Learning Outcome: 9.6 10) Which of the following is the most difficult to inactivate? A) enveloped viruses B) fungus spores C) bacterial endospores D) nonenveloped viruses E) protozoan cysts Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Selection of Microbial Control Methods Learning Outcome: 9.7 11) Which of the following describes flash pasteurization? A) heating at 63°C for 30 minutes B) heating at 72°C for 15 seconds C) heating at 72°C for 15 minutes D) heating at 134°C for one second E) passing liquid through steam at 140°C Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.13

12) Which of the following is bacteriostatic? A) heating in an oven at 171°C for an hour B) freezing below 0°C C) filtration D) autoclaving E) flash pasteurization Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.14 13) Boiling water for 10 minutes is effective in ridding it of A) actively growing bacteria. B) enveloped viruses. C) bacterial endospores. D) protozoan cysts. E) both growing bacteria and enveloped viruses. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.10 14) Which of the following is NOT a feature associated with filtration? A) nitrocellulose or plastic membrane filters B) sterilization of heat-sensitive materials C) varying thicknesses of membrane filters used D) use of HEPA filters to filter air E) ability of some filters to trap viruses and proteins Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.16 15) Ultra-high-temperature sterilization effectively A) reduces microbes that cause spoilage. B) removes only mesophilic microbes. C) reduces microbes that cause disease. D) removes all microbes that cause diseases or spoilage. E) reduces microbes that cause disease or spoilage. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.13

16) Which of the following types of radiation is nonionizing and has the shortest wavelength? A) ultraviolet light B) infrared radiation C) microwaves D) X rays E) gamma rays Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.18 17) Which of the following is used for microbial control in fresh fruits and vegetables? A) X rays B) ultraviolet light C) electron beams D) microwaves E) gamma rays Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.18 18) Which of the following can be used to reduce microbes in the air of a patient's room? A) HEPA filters B) ethylene oxide C) ultraviolet light D) both HEPA filters and ultraviolet light E) both ethylene oxide and ultraviolet light Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.16, 9.18 19) Silvadene, a topical treatment for burns, contains 1% silver. What category of chemical control agent is in Silvadene? A) halogens B) heavy metals C) oxidizing agents D) aldehydes E) surfactants Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.25

20) Which of the following is the most appropriate pairing of microbe and biosafety level? A) E. coli, BSL-3 B) anthrax, BSL-1 C) Ebola, BSL-2 D) methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA), BSL-2 E) tuberculosis, BSL-1 Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: The Selection of Microbial Control Methods Learning Outcome: 9.9 21) The use of lysozyme during the preparation of cheeses and wines is effective in reducing the numbers of A) fungi. B) viruses. C) bacteria. D) prions. E) all microbes. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.28 22) Seventy percent alcohol is effective against A) enveloped viruses. B) nonenveloped viruses. C) bacterial endospores. D) protozoan cysts. E) prions. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.21 23) Which of the following is a sterilizing agent? A) ozone B) hydrogen peroxide C) peracetic acid D) dish soap E) ozone and hydrogen peroxide Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.23

24) Quaternary ammonium compounds are disinfectants effective against A) endospores. B) mycobacteria. C) nonenveloped viruses. D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa. E) enveloped viruses. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.24 25) Which of the following is used to sterilize items that should not, or cannot, be exposed to heat or water? A) ethylene oxide B) formaldehyde C) hydrogen peroxide D) calcium hypochlorite E) triclosan Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.27 26) What effect do aldehydes have on microbial organisms? A) They disrupt cytoplasmic membranes. B) They inhibit enzymes. C) They damage nucleic acids. D) They disrupt membranes and enzyme function. E) They damage proteins and DNA. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.26 27) Disinfecting agents naturally produced by microorganisms are A) aldehydes. B) antibiotics. C) halogens. D) quaternary ammonium compounds. E) triclosans. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.29

28) A chemical agent that kills pathogenic microbes in general is a(n) A) sanitizer. B) germicide. C) disinfectant. D) fungicide. E) antiseptic. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Basic Principles of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.3 29) Which of the following is NOT a desirable characteristic of an ideal antimicrobial agent? A) It is inexpensive. B) It is stable during storage. C) It is harmless to humans. D) It only arrests growth of vegetative cells. E) It acts quickly. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Selection of Microbial Control Methods Learning Outcome: 9.6 30) Why are endospores used to measure the effectiveness of autoclave sterilization? A) Endospores are easy to store in the lab until needed. B) Endospores are very simple structures and easy to detect. C) Endospores are very hard to kill. D) Endospores are composed of all the molecules found in living cells. E) Endospores of different bacteria are destroyed at different temperatures and can be used to calibrate autoclave temperatures. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.7, 9.12 31) A scientist develops a new medication that is a protein compound and that must be administered by injection. Which of the following would be the most effective and safest means of preparing a sterile solution of the new medication? A) autoclaving B) filtration C) dilution with alcohol D) lyophilization E) ultraviolet irradiation Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.10, 9.16 8 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

32) Which of the following procedures is currently the standard test used in the United States for evaluating the efficiency of antiseptics and disinfectants? A) use-dilution test B) microbial death rate C) in-use test D) Kelsey-Sykes capacity test E) phenol coefficient Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.30 33) Which of the following would be used to sterilize a mattress? A) autoclaving B) formaldehyde C) ethylene oxide D) heavy metals E) non-ionizing radiation Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.27 34) Disinfectants that damage membranes include A) alcohol. B) phenolics. C) iodine. D) hydrogen peroxide. E) both alcohol and phenolics. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.20, 9.21 35) Which of the following antimicrobial agents is the most toxic to humans? A) 70% alcohol B) ethylene oxide C) quaternary ammonium compounds D) chloramines E) iodophors Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.27

36) The process of filtration is a(n) A) disinfectant method. B) sterilizing method. C) sanitization method. D) antiseptic procedure. E) ineffective method for removing microbes. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.16 37) Hydrogen peroxide is an effective A) sterilizing agent. B) disinfectant. C) antiseptic. D) disinfecting and sterilizing agent. E) antiseptic and disinfectant. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.23 38) The process of incineration is used for A) sterilization. B) degerming. C) disinfection. D) sanitization. E) both disinfection and sanitization. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.11 39) Alcohols are used for A) disinfection. B) sterilization. C) antisepsis. D) both sterilization and disinfection. E) both antisepsis and disinfection. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.21

40) Quaternary ammonium compounds ("quats") are used for A) antisepsis. B) disinfection. C) sterilization. D) quantifying antimicrobial activity. E) both antisepsis and disinfection. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.24 41) The compound ethylene oxide is used in A) sanitization. B) sterilization. C) antisepsis. D) degerming. E) disinfection. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.27 42) Formalin (37% formaldehyde) is used for A) antisepsis. B) disinfection. C) sterilization. D) sanitization. E) both disinfection and sterilization. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.26 43) Betadine contains what type of chemical agent? A) alcohol B) aldehyde C) halogen D) heavy metal E) phenolic Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.22

44) Gamma irradiation is effective for sterilization because it A) damages molecules irreversibly. B) is non-ionizing. C) penetrates well. D) destroys protein function, although DNA is undamaged. E) is penetrating and causes extensive molecular damage. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.18 45) Desiccation, a time-honored method of preserving food, is effective because the A) heat of the process kills microbes. B) freezing step of the process kills microbes. C) salt concentration is too low to support metabolic function. D) UV light used in the process of sun drying penetrates effectively. E) water content is too low to support metabolic function. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.15 9.2 True/False Questions 1) Using an alcohol pad before taking a blood sample is an example of antisepsis. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Basic Principles of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.1 2) Protozoan cysts are resistant to many disinfection methods. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Selection of Microbial Control Methods Learning Outcome: 9.7 3) Refrigeration is an effective germicidal method. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.14 4) Antimicrobial agents usually work best at high temperatures and high pH levels. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Selection of Microbial Control Methods Learning Outcome: 9.8 12 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

5) The phenol coefficient is one of the most widely used measurements of an antimicrobial agent's effectiveness. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.30 6) Lysozyme is effective against nearly all disease causing agents. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.28 7) The decimal reduction time is the time required to kill all the microbes in a given sample. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Selection of Microbial Control Methods Learning Outcome: 9.11 8) Slow freezing is more damaging to microbial cells than quick freezing. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.14 9) The cell walls of mycobacteria make them vulnerable to water soluble chemical agents. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Selection of Microbial Control Methods Learning Outcome: 9.7 10) By themselves, soaps have only degerming activity, not antimicrobial activity. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.24 9.3 Short Answer Questions 1) The process of freeze-drying microbes to preserve them is (denaturation/desiccation/lyophilization). Answer: lyophilization Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.15 13 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

2) Natural antiseptics such as pine or clove oil are examples of antimicrobial compounds called (alcohols/phenolics/detergents). Answer: phenolics Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.20 3) The microbial death rate is (constant/nonlinear/variable) over time. Answer: constant Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Basic Principles of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.4 4) Disinfectants known as (alcohols/oxidizers/aldehydes) have the chemical group -CHO, which reacts with and damages both proteins and nucleic acids. Answer: aldehydes Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.26 5) The lowest temperature that kills all cells in a broth in 10 minutes is known as the (microbial/terminal/thermal) death point. Answer: thermal Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.11 6) The amount of time needed to sterilize materials using moist heat is (more/less) than the time needed to sterilize using dry heat. Answer: less Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.11 7) Microbial growth in jellies is inhibited by the (acidic/hypotonic/hypertonic) condition of the food. Answer: hypertonic Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.17 8) The deadliest, most contagious microbes are studied under conditions of (BSL-4/BSL-3/BSL2/BSL-1) containment. Answer: BSL-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Selection of Microbial Control Methods Learning Outcome: 9.9 14 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

9) Ultraviolet light penetrates (more/less) effectively than gamma rays. Answer: less Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.18 10)

The antimicrobial chemical pictured above in Figure 9.1 is a(n) (phenolic/surfactant/enzyme) compound found in many consumer products. Answer: phenolic Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.20 11) Elements such as iodine, chlorine, and bromine are examples of (oxidizers/halogens/metals), which are the basis for many effective antimicrobial agents. Answer: halogens Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.22 12) Heavy metal and oxidizing agent disinfectants damage (DNA/enzymes/membranes), interfering with microbial metabolism. Answer: enzymes Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.25 13) The (endospores/cysts/prions) are the infectious agents most resistant to antimicrobial agents or processes. Answer: prions Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Selection of Microbial Control Methods Learning Outcome: 9.7

14) Long-term storage of milk is made possible by ultra-high-temperature (pasteurization/sanitization/sterilization). Answer: sterilization Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.13 15) The physical removal of microbes is called (antisepsis/degerming/disinfection). Answer: degerming Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Basic Principles of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.2 9.4 Essay Questions 1) Some sterilization procedures do not kill all the microbes that may be present. Explain how these procedures may, for practical purposes, still be considered sterilization. Answer: Theoretically, sterilization is the complete removal or destruction of all microbes in a particular environment. These include dormant forms of microbes, such as bacterial endospores. However, from a practical standpoint, one must take other factors into account when deciding what is or is not sterile. For example, the particular application of the sterilized material must be considered. Although there may be hyperthermophilic microbes present in canned foods after sterilization, they cannot grow and divide at normal shelf temperatures; thus, their presence does not cause problems. In practice, only those microbes that would cause problems either by their presence or by their continued growth and reproduction are generally the targets of sterilization methods. When these microbes have been eliminated, the goal of sterilization can be said to have been reached. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Basic Principles of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.1

2) Compare and contrast the different uses of heat to reduce microbial contamination, including their relative efficacy. Answer: Autoclaving, the use of super-heated steam, is a rapid, effective means of sterilization, both because the temperature achieved (121°C) inactivates every infectious agent except prions, and the steam is penetrating. Dry heat sterilization is equally effective but requires higher temperatures for longer periods of time (up to 170°C and/or 2 hours). Boiling is effective in killing vegetative cells of all microbes but is not effective on bacterial endospores and some cysts. Ultra-high-temperature sterilization is a highly effective process for sterilizing liquids. Standard pasteurization procedures effectively kill the mesophilic microbes responsible for disease and most spoilage, but does not remove endospores, nor thermoduric and hyperthermophilic microbes. This lower level of microbial reduction is sufficient in the short term since it is the mesophiles that are most troublesome in terms of disease and spoilage. The primary effect of these methods is denaturation proteins, thus inhibiting metabolism. Higher temperature methods cause additional damage, including to cell membranes, cell walls, and DNA. Low temperature heating that produces desiccation is effective in inhibiting the metabolism of most microbes by reducing the water content of the materials. It is not effective against some fungi, and does not destroy endospores. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.11, 9.13, 9.15 3) What is the in-use test, and why is it more useful than other methods of evaluating disinfectants? Answer: The in-use test is a method of evaluating antimicrobial agents such as disinfectants or antiseptics. It involves collecting specimens from objects that need to be disinfected, both before and after the disinfecting agent is applied. Then the specimens are inoculated into growth media, and the presence or absence of growth is an indicator of the effectiveness of the agent. The in-use test is regarded as an informative and useful test because it makes use of microbes that are actually found in the area of concern, and it gives a "real-life" picture of how the antimicrobial agent will work in that situation. Conversely, other tests, such as the disk-diffusion test or the use-dilution test, are not as useful because they rely on standardized conditions in a laboratory environment, and using test microbes that may or may not have any relation to the actual microbes that need to be targeted by the antimicrobial agent. Additionally, in some environments, many microbes form biofilms that can affect the activity of an antimicrobial agent, and these biofilms are not normally present in standardized testing procedures. Therefore, although the in-use test is not as convenient or quick as the other types of tests, it is regarded as more useful. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.30

4) Design an experiment to compare the effectiveness of a physical and a chemical method of disinfection. Answer: Answers will vary. Appropriate controls and methods should be included. An example is comparison of filtration and chlorine bleach. Prepare a culture of bacteria of known cell concentration. Divide into three samples. Sample #1 is the positive control. Sample #2 is filtered using a specified pore size filter (0.45 micron maximum pore size) and the filtrate collected into a sterile container. Chlorine bleach is added to Sample #3 following manufacturer's directions for dilution. The three samples are incubated, then the turbidity of each is measured to determine if growth is evident in the two treated samples compared to the untreated sample. Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.10, 9.19 5) A student is shopping for antibacterial hand cleansers and is trying to decide which one to buy. One is a "waterless" hand gel containing 70% isopropanol, the second is an "antibacterial" hand soap containing triclosan (a phenolic), and the third is a wipe that lists benzethonium chloride (a synthetic quaternary ammonium salt) as the active ingredient. Compare and contrast these cleansers in terms of the action of the antimicrobial ingredient and the level of disinfection (degerming, germistatic, germicidal). Answer: All three are germicidal, although not all to the same degree. The alcohol of the waterless hand cleaner is a germicide that disrupts cytoplasmic membranes and denatures proteins. It is not effective against bacterial endospores or fungal spores, and it has limited effect on nonenveloped viruses. The alcohol evaporates quickly, so the germicidal effect is short term. The waterless hand cleaner is an intermediate-level disinfectant and is not an effective degermer. The hand soap contains a phenolic, which also damages cytoplasmic membranes and denatures proteins, and is effective on the same range of microbes as the alcohol. Phenolics are intermediate-level disinfectants that persist on surfaces for long periods of time, providing extended disinfection. If used with running water and the hands are vigorously rubbed, the hand soap can be an effective degermer. Synthetic "quats" (quaternary ammonium compounds) disrupt cell membranes. They are effective against fungi, enveloped viruses, and most bacteria, but not against nonenveloped viruses, nor on endospores. Quats are low-level disinfectants that are germicidal for some microbes. The action of using and discarding the wipe provides some degerming effect. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.19

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 5e (Bauman) Chapter 10 Controlling Microbial Growth in the Body: Antimicrobial Drugs 10.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Who proposed the concept of chemotherapy, that compounds might selectively kill pathogens without harming people? A) Gerhard Domagk B) Alexander Fleming C) Paul Ehrlich D) Selman Waksman E) Joseph Lister Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The History of Antimicrobial Agents Learning Outcome: 10.1 2) An antimicrobial that inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis will result in which of the following? A) Bacterial cells become more susceptible to osmotic pressure. B) Bacteria cannot attach to their hosts. C) Cytoplasmic membrane proteins lose their function. D) The sterols in the bacterial cell wall become nonfunctional. E) No change in bacterial cell activity. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.4 3) Beta-lactam antibiotics such as penicillins, have an effect on which of the following types of cells? A) animal cells B) bacterial cells C) fungal cells D) virus-infected cells E) both animal and fungal cells Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.5

4) Which of the following is a primary advantage of semisynthetic drugs? A) They are less stable and consequently have fewer side effects. B) They work faster. C) They are more effective than the unmodified natural antibiotics. D) They must be administered intravenously. E) They are not readily absorbed. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The History of Antimicrobial Agents Learning Outcome: 10.2 5) Which of the following drugs specifically targets cell walls that contain mycolic acid? A) vancomycin B) penicillin C) methicillin D) isoniazid E) bacitracin Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.5 6) The topical drug ________ inhibits protein synthesis in Gram positive bacteria by preventing loading of isoleucine onto tRNA. A) Amphotericin B B) Bacitracin C) Ciprofloxacin D) Mupirocin E) Tetracycline Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.7 7) Which of the following is NOT a target of drugs that inhibit protein synthesis? A) the shape of the 30S ribosomal subunit B) interference with alanine-alanine bridges C) the enzymatic site of the 50S ribosomal subunit D) movement of the ribosome from one codon to the next E) the tRNA docking site Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.6

Figure 10.1 represents a Petri plate. The gray area is where bacteria A is growing, the black area is where bacteria B is growing. The white area is a zone where neither organism is growing. What is the best interpretation of what is observed on the plate? A) Bacteria B is producing an antibiotic that inhibits the growth of bacteria A. B) Bacteria A produces a compound that inhibits the growth of bacteria B. C) Bacteria A grows faster than bacteria B. D) Bacterial colony B has depleted the nutrients in the area around the colony. E) No conclusion can be made from this information. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: The History of Antimicrobial Agents Learning Outcome: 10.2 9) Amoxicillin is very effective for treating infections with Gram-positive bacteria but rarely causes side effects in humans. This is an example of A) selective toxicity. B) narrow spectrum of action. C) a broad-spectrum antimicrobial. D) antibiotic resistance. E) altruism. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.3 10) The first antimicrobial widely available for treatment of bacterial infections was a synthetic compound which A) was an antimetabolic analog. B) was a nucleotide analog. C) was an attachment antagonist. D) disrupted cytoplasmic membranes. E) interfered with bacterial cell wall synthesis. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.9 3 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

11) The drug metronidazole is effective on both bacteria and some protozoa. It can therefore be described as a ________ drug. A) narrow spectrum B) broad spectrum C) full spectrum D) general spectrum E) specific spectrum Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.14 12) Which of the following groups of drugs can become incorporated into the bones and teeth of a fetus? A) beta-lactams B) aminoglycosides C) quinolones D) tetracyclines E) sulfonamides Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.17 13) Which of the following can result when antibiotic therapy disrupts the normal microbiota? A) anaphylactic shock B) black hairy tongue C) pseudomembranous colitis D) thrush E) both pseudomembranous colitis and thrush Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.17 14) A compound is extracted from a microbial culture and is modified in the laboratory for use as an oral medication. This product would be a(n) A) antibiotic. B) analog. C) semisynthetic antimicrobial. D) synthetic antimicrobial. E) probiotic. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The History of Antimicrobial Agents Learning Outcome: 10.2 4 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

15) Some bacteria are resistant to erythromycin as a result of mutation of their ribosomal RNA. What type of resistance does this represent? A) alteration of the target of the drug B) inactivation of the drug C) change in the permeability of the drug D) overproduction of an enzyme in a key metabolic pathway E) removal of the drug via a pump Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Resistance to Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.21 16) Bacillus licheniformis secretes a compound that inhibits the growth of other Gram-positive bacteria. This is an example of a(n) A) analog. B) antibiotic. C) chemotherapeutic. D) porin. E) toxin. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The History of Antimicrobial Agents Learning Outcome: 10.2 17) Most drugs that inhibit the synthesis of the cell wall act by A) preventing the cross-linkage of NAM subunits. B) blocking the secretion of cell wall molecules from the cytoplasm. C) preventing the formation of alanine-alanine bridges. D) disrupting the formation of the mycolic acid layer of the cell wall. E) preventing the formation of β-lactamases. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.5 18) Most broad-spectrum antibiotics act by A) inhibiting the synthesis of the cell wall. B) inhibiting protein synthesis. C) inhibiting nucleic acid synthesis. D) inhibiting metabolic pathways. E) disrupting the cytoplasmic membrane. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.14

19) Which of the following antifungals works by binding to ergosterol in membranes? A) fluconazole B) turbinafine C) amphotericin B D) nystatin E) both amphotericin B and nystatin Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.8 20) A drug is structurally similar to PABA and inhibits folic acid synthesis. It is most likely a(n) A) nucleic acid analog. B) penicillin. C) tetracycline. D) azole. E) sulfonamide. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.9 21) Which of the following steps in the folic acid synthesis pathway is specifically inhibited by sulfonamides? A) the conversion of tetrahydrofolic acid to PABA B) the conversion of PABA to dihydrofolic acid C) the conversion of dihydrofolic acid to tetrahydrofolic acid D) the conversion of PABA to tetrahydrofolic acid E) the conversion of dihydrofolic acid to PABA Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.9 22) Which of the following drugs inhibits nucleic acid synthesis specifically in most bacteria? A) fluoroquinolones B) actinomycin C) rifampin D) tetracycline E) 5-fluorocytosine Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.12

23) The cooperative activity of drugs such as beta-lactam antibiotics and clavulanic acid, a βlactamase inhibitor, is known as A) cross resistance. B) antimetabolism. C) synergism. D) selective toxicity. E) chemotherapy. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Resistance to Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.24 24) Some bacteria are resistant to antimicrobials due to the activity of ________, which removes many of them. A) plasmids B) porins C) efflux pumps D) lipopolysaccharides E) ribosomes Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Resistance to Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.21 25) It is inappropriate to prescribe antibacterial agents to treat colds or flu because A) the microbes involved can develop resistance rapidly. B) these diseases are transmitted by endospores, which are difficult to kill. C) these diseases exhibit cross resistance. D) these diseases are caused by viruses. E) these diseases can act synergistically with each other. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Resistance to Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.24 26) Who discovered the first antimicrobial widely available to the general public? A) Domagk B) Ehrlich C) Fleming D) Waksman E) Ehrlich and Waksman Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The History of Antimicrobial Agents Learning Outcome: 10.1

27) Which of the following statements is TRUE of selective toxicity? A) Selective toxicity takes advantage of structural similarities between host and pathogen. B) To be effective, an antimicrobial agent must be more toxic to the patient than the pathogen. C) Selective toxicity takes advantage of differences in metabolic rates of the host and pathogen. D) Selective toxicity damages only pathogenic bacteria and not beneficial bacteria. E) Selective toxicity takes advantage of structural and/or metabolic differences between host and pathogen. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.3 28) Antimicrobials that block protein synthesis by binding to the mRNA are A) aminoglycosides. B) antisense nucleic acids. C) macrolides. D) beta-lactams. E) nucleic acid analogs. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.6 29) Which of the following tests does NOT provide information on the lowest concentration of drug effective on a pathogen? A) Etest B) diffusion susceptibility test C) broth dilution test D) both the Etest and diffusion susceptibility test E) MBC test Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.15 30) The therapeutic range of an antimicrobial is the A) ratio of the dose a patient can tolerate to the effective dose. B) range of microorganisms the antimicrobial effects. C) range of concentrations at which the antimicrobial is both effective and non-toxic. D) ratio of the concentration of antimicrobial in the blood to the oral dose. E) length of time the medication persists in the body after a single dose. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.18

31) Which of the following interferes with cell wall synthesis by blocking alanine bridge formation? A) beta-lactams B) cycloserine C) bacitracin D) vancomycin E) both cycloserine and vancomycin Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.5 32) Antimicrobials known as "attachment antagonists" are particularly useful for preventing A) bacterial protein synthesis. B) cell membrane synthesis. C) virus infection. D) nucleic acid synthesis. E) biofilm formation. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.13 33) The broth dilution test can provide information for determining A) the molecular target of an antibiotic. B) the MIC (minimum inhibitor concentration). C) the rate of diffusion of an antibiotic. D) the MBC (minimum bactericidal concentration), with an additional step. E) both the MIC and the MBC (with an additional step). Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.15 34) Infection of the ________ would be the hardest to treat with antimicrobial drugs. A) heart B) kidneys C) liver D) brain E) colon Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.16

35) Disruption of the normal microbiota can result in infections caused by which of the following microbes? A) Mycobacterium B) Candida albicans C) Clostridium difficile D) Streptococcus E) both Candida albicans and Clostridium difficile Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.14, 10.17 36) The antifungals known as polyenes interact with ________, a lipid unique to fungus membranes. A) cholesterol B) ergosterol C) mycolic acid D) phospholipid E) glycolic acid Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.8 37) How does resistance to drugs spread in bacterial populations? A) Exposure to drugs causes mutations in bacterial genes. B) Horizontal gene transfer between bacteria spreads R (resistance) plasmids. C) Genetic recombination during sexual reproduction. D) Exposure to drugs induces immunity. E) Exposure to drugs alters gene expression in bacteria. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Resistance to Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.22 38) The mechanism of action of the antibiotic vancomycin is A) inhibition of protein synthesis. B) inhibition of cell wall synthesis. C) inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis. D) inhibition of a metabolic pathway. E) disruption of cytoplasmic membranes. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.5

39) The tetracyclines interfere with A) protein synthesis. B) cell wall synthesis. C) cell membrane component synthesis. D) nucleic acid synthesis. E) folic acid synthesis. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.6 40) Pentamidine is an example of an antimicrobial A) used to treat bacterial infections. B) effective against helminths. C) used to treat viral infections. D) effective against eukaryotes, especially protozoa. E) used to treat both bacterial and fungal infections. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.12 41) The mechanism of action of ciprofloxacin is A) inhibition of protein synthesis. B) inhibition of cell wall synthesis. C) inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis. D) inhibition of a metabolic pathway. E) disruption of cytoplasmic membranes. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.12 42) Methicillin is an example of the beta-lactam class of drugs that A) disrupts cytoplasmic membranes. B) inhibits cell wall synthesis. C) inhibits nucleic acid synthesis. D) inhibits metabolic pathways. E) inhibits protein synthesis. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.5

43) AZT and Valaciclovir are antiviral nucleoside analogs that interfere with A) protein synthesis. B) cell wall synthesis. C) cell membrane component synthesis. D) nucleic acid synthesis. E) viral attachment. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.11 44) The antimicrobial polymyxin A) inhibits protein synthesis. B) inhibits nucleic acid synthesis. C) blocks a metabolic pathway. D) disrupts cytoplasmic membranes. E) inhibits cell wall synthesis. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.8 45) Drug-resistant populations of microbes arise when A) exposure to drugs selectively kills sensitive cells, allowing overgrowth of resistant cells. B) exposure to drugs causes mutations that produce resistance. C) resistant cells become numerous in a population due to their greater vigor. D) the patient becomes immune to the drug. E) synergy between medications occurs. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Resistance to Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.19 10.2 True/False Questions 1) Paul Erhlich discovered the first antibiotic. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The History of Antimicrobial Agents Learning Outcome: 10.1 2) Antisense nucleic acids interfere with protein synthesis. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.6 12 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

3) Nucleic acid analog drugs have no effect on human cell replication function. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.10 4) Because all cells engage in protein synthesis, there are few antimicrobial drugs that selectively inhibit this process. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.6 5) Biofilms contribute to the spread of resistance to antimicrobials. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Resistance to Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.21 6) Some bacterial cells are resistant to a variety of antimicrobials because they actively pump the drugs out of the cell. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Resistance to Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.21 7) The outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria enables many antimicrobial drugs to enter the cell more easily. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.21 8) If a subculture of an MIC test grows in an MBC test, the concentration of the drug was bactericidal. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.15 9) There are relatively few antifungal medications available compared to antibacterial drugs. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.3

10) Organs that are commonly affected by drug toxicity include the kidneys and the liver. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.17 10.3 Short Answer Questions 1) Any drug that acts against a disease is called a(n) (analog/antibiotic/chemotherapeutic) agent. Answer: chemotherapeutic Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The History of Antimicrobial Agents Learning Outcome: 10.1 2) Selective (action/toxicity/treatment) means that a given antimicrobial agent is more toxic to a pathogen than to the host being treated. Answer: toxicity Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.3 3) Nucleotide or nucleoside (acids/analogs/antisense) are antimicrobial agents that mimic the chemical structure of DNA building blocks. Answer: analogs Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.12 4) A microbe resistant to a variety of different antimicrobials is said to have (cross/drug/multiple) resistance. Answer: multiple Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Resistance to Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.23 5) Secondary infections that result from the killing of some of the normal microbiota are called (antagonism/superinfections/resistance). Answer: superinfections Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.14

6) Competition between beneficial microbes and potential pathogens is called microbial (antagonisms/synergy/toxicity). Answer: antagonism Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.14 7) A (bacteriocidial/bacteriostatic/minimum) concentration of a drug is one at which microbes survive but are not able to grow and reproduce. Answer: bacteriostatic Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.15 8) The ratio of a medication's dose that can be tolerated to its effective dose is the therapeutic (MIC/index/range) of the medication. Answer: index Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.18 9) Some bacteria develop resistance to groups of drugs because the drugs are all structurally similar to each other; this is a phenomenon known as (cross/multiple/synergistic) resistance. Answer: cross Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Resistance to Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.23 10) Semisynthetic drugs developed to combat resistance are often called (analog/second generation/synergist) drugs. Answer: second generation Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Resistance to Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.24 11) Drugs known as beta-lactams interfere with bacterial (DNA/folic acid/cell wall) synthesis. Answer: cell wall Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Resistance to Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.5 12) External infections can be treated by (intramuscular/surface/topical) administration, in which a drug is applied directly to the site of infection. Answer: topical Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.16 15 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

13) The abbreviation (MBC/MIC/MID) stands for the smallest amount of a drug that will inhibit the growth and reproduction of a pathogen. (Be sure to use all capital letters.) Answer: MIC Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.15 14) Antiviral medications frequently block unique (proteins/enzymes/molecules) to prevent production of a new virus. Answer: enzymes Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.11 15) Medications which block viral entry into cells include (adhesin/analog/attachment) antagonists. Answer: attachment Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.13 10.4 Essay Questions 1) Why can microbial resistance to antibiotics and other drugs be considered a primarily genetic phenomenon? Answer: Microbial resistance is considered a genetic phenomenon because there are two major ways that bacteria acquire resistance: through mutations of chromosomal genes or through acquisition of new genes carried on R-plasmids. In both cases, the cell gains the ability to resist the activity of a particular drug through the modified structure or activity of proteins that are coded for by the genes in question. For example, some of these altered proteins can be cytoplasmic membrane proteins or porin proteins that no longer allow a drug such as penicillin to enter the cell. Also, some of the proteins coded for by these genes may be enzymes of various sorts that serve to inactivate a particular drug, such as the inactivation of beta-lactam antibiotics by β-lactamases. Furthermore, these altered genes and proteins are then heritable by the offspring of the cell that acquired the resistance, leading quickly to entire populations of bacteria or other microbes that are resistant to a drug. When selective pressure is then brought to bear (through the administration of a particular drug) on a population that contains both susceptible and resistant cells, the result is that the susceptible cells die off, leaving the resistant cells to grow and flourish. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Resistance to Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.20, 10.21

2) Discuss the cellular factors that might make a drug's spectrum of action narrow rather than broad. Answer: When a drug is labeled "narrow-spectrum," meaning that it has activity against only a limited number of microbes, generally the reason is that many microbes possess some form of natural resistance against the drug. For example, many drugs work better against Gram-positive organisms than Gram-negative ones because Gram-negative cells possess an outer membrane that does not allow these drugs to enter the cell as readily as they enter Gram-positive cells. Other cellular factors that can have an effect on the spectrum of action of a particular drug include the presence of R-plasmids in the cell that carries resistance genes, the presence of altered cytoplasmic membrane or cell wall proteins that prevent the passage of some types of drugs, and alterations in a cell's metabolic pathways, which can make the cell more resistant to certain types of drugs. Other antimicrobials have a narrow spectrum of action because they target a metabolic or structural feature unique to a single pathogen or small group of pathogens. One example of this type of narrow-spectrum antimicrobial is antisense RNA, which complements a specific nucleotide sequence that may be present in only one pathogen. Another example is isonizid which blocks the synthesis of a cell wall component unique to the Mycoplasmas. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.14 3) Explain the concept of selective toxicity. Answer: Selective toxicity is the underlying principle supporting Ehrlich's idea of the "magic bullet." This simply means that the most effective antimicrobial drugs are those that target some difference in a cellular structure or metabolic process between the host/patient cell and the target microbe. Conversely, the more similar the host cell and the microbe are, the harder it is to selectively attack just the microbe. Drugs that do not differentiate very well between types of cells are generally more toxic to the host than those that are more selective. This is most striking in the case of antiviral drugs, which are generally poor magic bullets because the virus is dependent on the host cell for all aspects of its growth. Those drugs that successfully inactivate the virus sometimes also end up damaging or even killing the cell. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.3

Examine the diffusion susceptibility plate results shown in Figure 10.2. Propose an explanation for the appearance of the zone around the S/10 disk, and discuss the implications for therapeutic use of this antibiotic for the pathogen tested. Answer: The ring of colonies within the outermost limit of the zone of inhibition indicates that there are some cells in the population that are less susceptible to the antibiotic than the rest. If this antibiotic were used to treat an infection with this population, the growth of bacteria with some resistance would be promoted at the expense of the more susceptible cells, potentially giving rise to a new variant that is fully resistant. If this were to occur in a patient being treated, the antibiotic therapy would fail, putting the patient's health at risk. Therefore, drug AM would be a poor choice, perhaps the poorest choice, for chemotherapy against this bacterial species. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.15

5) A newly discovered prokaryote produces a compound with promising antimicrobial effects. Devise a set of tests to determine whether the antimicrobial is broad or narrow spectrum and bactericidal or bacteriostatic. Answer: Answers will vary somewhat, but the following includes elements which should be present. The spectrum of action can be determined by testing the antimicrobial against representatives of the various groups of pathogenic bacteria: Gram positives such as Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, and Bacillus, members of the Gram-negative Enterobacteriaceae and other Gram-negative bacteria (Neisseria, for example), mycobacteria, and chlamydias. These tests might be done on broth cultures as MIC tests, or plate cultures as Etests. One or more broad spectrum antibiotics should be included as controls. Once susceptible microbes have been identified, MBC tests can be conducted to determine whether the antimicrobial is bacteriostatic or bactericidal. Appropriate controls should be included. Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.14, 10.15

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 5e (Bauman) Chapter 11 Characterizing and Classifying Prokaryotes 11.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Pleomorphic bacteria A) have a slightly curved rod shape. B) are flexible spirals. C) are both bacillus and coccobacillus in shape. D) are roughly spherical. E) vary in size and shape. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: General Characteristics of Prokaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 11.1 2) Which of the following bacterial arrangements is the result of snapping division? A) tetrads B) palisades C) streptoD) sarcinae E) staphyloAnswer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: General Characteristics of Prokaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 11.4, 11.5 3)

The arrangement represented in Figure 11.1 is typical of which of the following genera of bacteria? A) Bacillus B) Corynebacterium C) Escherichia D) Actinomyces E) Streptococcus Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.5 1 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

4) Contamination with ________ is a concern because they are highly resistant to killing. A) archaea B) endospores C) pleomorphs D) vegetative cells E) vibrios Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: General Characteristics of Prokaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 11.2 5) Endospores A) are bacterial reproductive structures. B) may be produced when nutrients are scarce. C) are produced by bacteria, algae, and fungi. D) are resistant to everything except radiation. E) can last for only about 10 years. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: General Characteristics of Prokaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 11.2 6) Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology contains A) classification schemes for prokaryotes. B) treatments for bacterial diseases. C) a complete list of all bacterial species. D) genetic sequences of all known prokaryotes. E) rules for naming new bacterial species. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Modern Prokaryotic Classification Learning Outcome: 11.6 7) Which of the following characteristics distinguish the archaea from the bacteria? A) cell wall composition B) ribosomal RNA (rRNA) sequences C) the deoxyribonucleotides in the DNA D) cytoplasmic membrane lipids E) cell wall composition, cytoplasmic membrane lipids, and rRNA sequences Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Archaea Learning Outcome: 11.8

8) The archaea known as halophiles A) require temperatures above 45∘C to survive. B) require salt concentrations of 9% or greater to survive. C) are members of the phylum Euryarchaeota. D) are members of the Euryarchaeota and require temperatures above 45∘C. E) are members of the Euryarchaeota and require salt concentrations above 9%. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Survey of Archaea Learning Outcome: 11.9 9) The ________ are the largest known group of archaea. A) thermophiles B) halophiles C) cyanobacteria D) methanogens E) hyperthermophiles Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Survey of Archaea Learning Outcome: 11.10 10) Which of the following types of microbes might be found in a boiling hot spring? A) hyperthermophiles B) phototrophic bacteria C) methanogens D) non-thermophiles E) halophiles Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Archaea Learning Outcome: 11.9 11) What does the term "deeply branching bacteria" mean? A) The bacteria likely branched from other Bacteria very early. B) The bacteria grow in long filaments with frequent branches. C) The bacteria grow in environments far below the surface of the Earth. D) The bacterial cells have a Y or "branched" shape. E) This group of bacteria have ribosomal RNAs very divergent from the rest of the members of the domain Bacteria. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.11

12) Aerobic cyanobacteria carry out the reactions of nitrogen fixation in A) akinetes. B) endospores. C) heterocysts. D) chloroplasts. E) lamellae. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.12 13) Spores known as akinetes are reproductive structures of A) members of the Bacillus genus. B) members of the genus Mycoplasma. C) members of the proteobacteria. D) members of the Archaea. E) members of the cyanobacteria. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.12 14) Bacteria in the phylum Firmicutes are distinguished from the phylum Actinobacteria on the basis of A) their Gram stain reaction. B) the high G + C content of their DNA. C) their spiral shapes. D) the low G + C content of their DNA. E) the presence of LPS in their membranes. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.15 15) Which of the following diseases is NOT associated with bacteria that form endospores? A) tetanus B) anthrax C) gangrene D) botulism E) toxic shock syndrome Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.2, 11.14

16) Mycoplasmas are pleomorphic because they A) have no cell walls. B) are low G + C content Gram-positive bacteria. C) exhibit snapping division. D) have sterols in their cytoplasmic membranes. E) produce endospores. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.13 17) Which of the following bacterial genera produce(s) endospores? A) Bacillus B) Clostridium C) Lactobacillus D) both Bacillus and Lactobacillus E) both Bacillus and Clostridium Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: General Characteristics of Prokaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 11.2 18) Which of the following bacterial genera includes species that protect areas of the body such as the intestinal tract and the vagina from invasion by pathogens? A) Staphylococcus B) Listeria C) Lactobacillus D) Mycobacterium E) Corynebacterium Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.14 19) Which of the following groups of bacteria is named for its resemblance to fungi? A) Corynebacterium B) Actinomyces C) Clostridium D) Lactobacillus E) Staphylococcus Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.17

20) Which of the following bacterial genera is useful for the degradation of environmental pollutants? A) Actinomyces B) Streptomyces C) Corynebacterium D) Rhizobium E) Nocardia Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.17 21) Which of the following is NOT associated with bacteria in the genus Streptomyces? A) the "musty" smell of soil B) nutrient recycling in soil C) antibiotic production D) microbial antagonism E) protection of plants against caterpillars Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.17 22) What feature of mycobacteria is responsible for the unusually slow growth of these bacteria? A) Their low tolerance for oxygen retards their growth. B) They cannot fully metabolize carbohydrates and must rely on fermentation. C) They have limited numbers of ribosomes so protein production is slow. D) The mycolic acid in their cell walls requires signification metabolic investment. E) They lack a cell wall and are extremely fragile. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.16 23) Members of the ________ are Gram-positive bacteria that have a distinctive process for cell separation known as "snapping division." A) Actinomycetes B) Clostridium C) Corynebacterium D) Mycoplasma E) Rhizobium Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.17

24) Members of which of the following genera are the most common sexually transmitted bacteria in the United States? A) Bacteroides B) Rickettsia C) Chlamydia D) Helicobacter E) Treponema Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.29 25) Gram-negative bacteria in the genus ________ prey on other Gram-negative bacteria. A) Bdellovibrio B) Chlamydia C) Rickettsia D) Mycoplasma E) Caulobacter Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.26 26) Unusual cellular extensions called prosthecae are associated with which of the following groups of proteobacteria? A) alphaproteobacteria B) betaproteobacteria C) gammaproteobacteria D) deltaproteobacteria E) epsilonproteobacteria Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.18 27) Which of the following bacterial genera plays an important role in environmental nitrogen cycles? A) Nitrobacter B) Rhizobium C) Azospirillum D) both Nitrobacter and Rhizobium E) Nitrobacter, Rhizobium, and Azospirillum Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.19, 11.20 7 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

28) The ________ are obligately anaerobic bacilli found in human intestines that aid in digestion of plant material. A) methanogen B) mycoplasma C) bacteroides D) clostridium E) cyanobacterium Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.30 29) The classification of prokaryotes in Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology is largely based on A) Gram stain reaction. B) habitat. C) type of electron receptor used in cellular respiration. D) rRNA sequences. E) cellular morphology. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Modern Prokaryotic Classification Learning Outcome: 11.6 30) Which of the following bacteria oxidize nitrite (NO2-) to produce nitrate (NO3-)? A) Nitrobacter B) Azospirillum C) Nocardia D) Cyanobacter E) Rhizobium Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.20 31) The plant pathogen ________ is a member of the alphaproteobacteria that alters plant cells by introducing DNA into them. A) Azotobacter B) Agrobacterium C) Rhizobium D) Pseudomonas E) Bdellovibrio Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.21 8 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

32) Which of the following bacterial genera is useful for sewage treatment? A) Burkholderia B) Thiobacillus C) Neisseria D) Zoogloea E) Nitrosomonas Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.22 33) A flexible, spiral-shaped bacterium is called a A) spirochete. B) vibrio. C) coccobacillus. D) spirillum. E) sarcina. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: General Characteristics of Prokaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 11.5 34) Some members of the spirochetes move by means of A) gliding. B) hami. C) peritrichous flagella. D) axial filaments. E) nothing, they are non-motile. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.29 35) Which of the following statements regarding mycoplasmas is FALSE? A) They are low G + C content bacteria. B) They stain Gram positive. C) They are pleomorphic. D) They exhibit a "fried egg" appearance on solid media. E) They are the smallest free-living cells. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.13

36) The anaerobic Clostridium species are troublesome pathogens largely because of their capacity for A) endospore production. B) rapid reproduction. C) oxygen production. D) biofilm production. E) high salt tolerance. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: General Characteristics of Prokaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 11.14 37) The domain Archaea includes prokaryotes that are A) endospore formers. B) intracellular parasites. C) members of the deeply branching bacteria. D) human pathogens. E) hyperthermophiles. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Survey of Archaea Learning Outcome: 11.9 38) Which of the following is CORRECT about the prokaryotes known as deeply branching bacteria? A) They are chemoheterotrophs. B) They lack peptidoglycan walls. C) They are commonly found in acidic, anaerobic conditions. D) They grow in long branching filaments. E) They are photosynthetic. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.11 39) Bacteria of the Proteobacteria that are intracellular parasites are members of the A) alphaproteobacteria. B) betaproteobacteria. C) gammaproteobacteria. D) alphaproteobacteria and betaproteobactria. E) alphaproteobacteria and gammaproteobacteria. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.21, 11.23

40) A Gram-positive psychrotrophic rod ________ is a frequent contaminant of dairy products and meat and survives phagocytosis. A) Escherichia coli B) Mycobacterium leprae C) Clostridium perfringens D) Bacillus thuringiensis E) Listeria monocytogenes Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.14 41) A species of the genus Streptococcus is the leading cause of A) tuberculosis. B) urinary tract infections. C) contaminated milk and meat. D) "flesh-eating" bacterial infections. E) food poisoning from rice. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.14 42) The genus Mycobacterium includes species responsible for A) tuberculosis. B) urinary tract infections. C) food poisoning from contaminated dairy products. D) gastric ulcers. E) food poisoning from contaminated meat. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.17 43) Gram-negative nitrogen-fixing bacteria found in association with plant roots are A) alphaproteobacteria. B) betaproteobacteria. C) cyanobacteria. D) gammaproteobacteria. E) deeply branching bacteria. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.19, 11.25

44) Members of the genus Chlamydia are A) thermophiles. B) intracellular parasites. C) classified with the deeply branching bacteria. D) endospore-formers. E) Gram-positive bacteria. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.29 45) Pseudomonas species are occasional causes of A) diarrheal disease. B) food poisoning from meat. C) food poisoning from dairy products. D) "flesh-eating" bacterial infections. E) urinary tract infections. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.23 11.2 True/False Questions 1) The majority of prokaryotes are capable of forming endospores. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: General Characteristics of Prokaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 11.2 2) When an endospore germinates, it gives rise to two daughter cells called vegetative cells. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: General Characteristics of Prokaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 11.2 3) Various species of Streptomyces are important sources of antibiotics. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.17 4) Halophiles grow equally well in the presence or absence of high salt concentrations. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Archaea Learning Outcome: 11.9 12 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

5) The purple sulfur bacteria carry out oxygenic photosynthesis. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.23 6) Cocci can be spherical as well as kidney-shaped. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: General Characteristics of Prokaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 11.1 7) Some strains of Staphylococcus aureus can invade the body and cause diseases such as pneumonia and bacteremia. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.14 8) Mycoplasmas are named for the large quantities of mycolic acid in their cell walls. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.13 9) Most of the methane produced by methanogens is oxidized by other types of bacteria before it affects Earth's climate. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.10 10) Bacteria in the genus Cytophaga are capable of digesting a wide range of complex carbohydrates and are important for degrading raw sewage. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.30

11.3 Short Answer Questions 1) Random planes of division in cocci result in an arrangement known as (sarcinae/staphylo/strepto). Answer: staphylo Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: General Characteristics of Prokaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 11.5 2) The most common form of reproduction among prokaryotes is (budding/binary/snapping) fission. Answer: binary Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Survey of Archaea Learning Outcome: 11.3 3) The rod-shaped (chlamydias/brucella/rickettsias) are intracellular parasitic members of the alphaproteobacteria. Answer: rickettsias Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.21 4) Some members of the alphaproteobacteria produce a structure called a (filament/prostheca/pilus) to produce extra surface area for nutrient absorption. Answer: prostheca Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.18 5)

The bacterial shape in Figure 11.2 is called (bacillus/vibrio/rod). Answer: vibrio Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: General Characteristics of Prokaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 11.1

6) The G + C content is a(n) (RNA/structural/genetic) determination used in classifying the different taxa of Gram-positive bacteria. Answer: genetic Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.15 7) The (streptobacilli/actinomycetes/mycoplasmas) are a group of Gram-positive bacteria that form branching filaments resembling those of fungi. Answer: actinomycetes Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.17 8) The genus of pathogenic cocci responsible for a wide range of human disease and whose members grow in chains is (Staphylococcus/Streptococcus/Enterococcus). Answer: Streptococcus Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.14 9) Gammaproteobacteria of the genus (Escherichia/Pseudomonas/Vibrio) catabolize carbohydrates using pathways other than the standard glycolytic (Embden-Meyerhof) pathway. Answer: Pseudomonas Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.23 10) The reduction of nitrogen gas to ammonia is called nitrogen (fixation/cycling/oxidation). Answer: fixation Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.12 11) Slow-growing bacteria in the genus (Mycoplasma/Mycobacterium/Pseudomonas) are able to withstand long exposure to air because of the presence of mycolic acid in their cell wall structure. Answer: Mycobacterium Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.16

12) The bacterium (Agrobacterium/Cyanobacteria/Rhizobium) is a member of the alphaproteobacteria that forms beneficial relationships with higher plants. Answer: Rhizobium Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.19 13) The (bacilli/Lactobacilli/bacteroids) are a group of Gram-negative bacteria that include obligate anaerobes normally found in the intestinal tracts of animals and humans. Answer: bacteroids Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.30 14) The infective stage of chlamydia is called the (elementary/endospore/initial) body. Answer: elementary Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.29 15) Burkholderia is a common (true/opportunistic) pathogen of patients with cystic fibrosis. Answer: opportunistic Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.22 11.4 Essay Questions 1) Will is a graduate student working in a microbiology lab. He is given the task of characterizing a newly discovered nitrogen fixing bacterium. What type of tests or observations will help him determine whether it is a member of the Cyanobacteria, alphaproteobacteria, or gammaproteobacteria? Answer: If the bacteria are coccus or disc-shaped, and carry out photosynthesis, it is likely a member of the cyanobacteria. Bacteria that are free-living nitrogen fixers are probably gammaproteobacteria. If the bacteria were found on or in the roots of plants they are probably alphaproteobacteria. Determining the sequence of the bacterium's ribosomal RNAs and comparing them to known sequences can be used to verify the assignment. Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.12, 11.25

2) Compare and contrast methanogens and methane oxidizers, including their roles in the environment. Answer: Methanogens are archaea (in the phylum Euryarchaeota), and methane oxidizers are bacteria of the phylum Proteobacteria, so they are fundamentally different in all the ways these two domains differ. The methanogens produce methane gas from organic materials, and the bacterial methane oxidizers metabolize methane gas to produce organic compounds and cellular energy. Both types of prokaryotes live in anaerobic environments and often grow in proximity to each other. Thus, their metabolic activities with respect to methane are complementary and contribute to recycling of biomolecules. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.10, 10.20 3) Describe the major taxonomic divisions of prokaryotic organisms. Answer: Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology divides prokaryotes into two domains, the Archaea and the Bacteria, based on differences in their rRNA sequences, cell wall structures, cytoplasmic membrane proteins, and features of mRNA translation. The Archaea are divided into two major phyla (Crenarchaeota and Eukaryarchaeota) and three minor phyla. The Bacteria are divided into 24 phyla. Among these 24 phyla of Bacteria are the phylum Firmicutes (which includes low G + C Gram-positive bacteria) and the phylum Actinobacteria (which includes high G + C Gram-positive bacteria). The majority of Gram-negative bacteria are placed in the phylum Proteobacteria, which itself is divided into five classes: alpha, beta, gamma, delta, and epsilon. These groups include a variety of pathogenic as well as environmentally important genera. Other Gram-negative bacteria, such as chlamydia and spirochetes, are not genetically related; however, they are grouped together in Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology for the sake of convenience. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Modern Prokaryotic Classification Learning Outcome: 11.6, 11.8 4) Describe the similarities and differences observed among phototrophic bacteria. Answer: All major groups of bacteria contain phototrophic bacteria, which includes the cyanobacteria and the green and purple phototrophic bacteria. All phototrophic bacteria are structurally similar in that they use photosynthetic lamellae that contain the photosynthetic pigments necessary for photosynthesis. However, the type of photosynthetic pigment used differs among these groups. For example, cyanobacteria contain chlorophyll a, whereas the green and purple photosynthetic bacteria use bacteriochlorophyll. The type of photosynthesis differs as well: cyanobacteria engage in oxygenic photosynthesis, whereas the green and purple bacteria are anoxygenic. Finally, most phototrophic bacteria are autotrophic, although they differ in the ways they obtain electrons for the reduction of CO2; most notably, the sulfur bacteria oxidize hydrogen sulfide to obtain electrons for CO2 reduction. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.12

5) Explain the significance of endospores. Answer: Because an endospore can regenerate the cell that produced it, these bacterial structures are an important survival mechanism for some bacteria, as well as an important method of transmitting diseases caused by these bacteria. For example, because they are hard to destroy, endospores can be a source of diseases that are caused by anaerobic organisms, such as tetanus and botulism, or that are transmitted over long distances and times, such as anthrax. Endospores can also survive for indefinite periods of time; the minimum documented durability of endospores is 34 years, but there is some evidence to suggest that endospores may be able to survive for millions of years. Endospores are this resistant because they have a special protective coating and go through a process called sporulation, in which a copy of the cell's genome is prepared for long-term "storage" inside the endospore. This makes endospores a special challenge in sterilization applications. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: General Characteristics of Prokaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 11.2

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 5e (Bauman) Chapter 12 Characterizing and Classifying Eukaryotes 12.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The fusion of two gametes produces a A) zygote. B) schizont. C) chromatid. D) centromere. E) merozoite. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 12.1 2) Replication of the DNA occurs during A) metaphase. B) prophase. C) telophase. D) anaphase. E) interphase. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 12.2 3) Sister chromatids separate and move toward the poles of the cell during ________ of mitosis. A) telophase B) anaphase C) metaphase D) interphase E) prophase Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 12.2

4) An aligned pair of homologous chromosomes is called a A) chromatid. B) spindle. C) tetrad. D) coenocyte. E) gamete. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 12.3 5) Which of the following pairs is MISMATCHED? A) animals; usually diploid B) fungi; usually diploid C) protozoa; usually diploid D) slime mold; usually haploid E) plants; usually diploid Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 12.1 6) Crossing over between chromosomes occurs during which stage of meiosis? A) prophase I B) prophase II C) metaphase I D) anaphase I E) metaphase II Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 12.3 7) Which of the following statements regarding meiosis is most accurate? A) Crossing over occurs during metaphase I. B) A diploid cell produces haploid daughter cells. C) Haploid cells produce diploid cells. D) Homologous (non-sister) chromatids separate during anaphase II. E) Meiosis has the same number of stages as mitosis. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 12.3

8) Merozoites are a result of A) meiosis. B) schizogony. C) mitosis. D) crossing over. E) conjugation. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 12.4 9) Which of the following pairs is MISMATCHED? A) Diplomonadida; two nuclei B) Rhizaria; pseudopodia C) Parabasala; two mitochondria D) Euglenids; flagellum E) Ciliophora; cilia Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Protozoa Learning Outcome: 12.10 10) Some fungi postpone cytokinesis, producing A) coenocytes. B) cysts. C) merozoites. D) schizonts. E) trophozoites. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Protozoa Learning Outcome: 12.4 11) Single-celled eukaryotes lacking a cell wall are A) protozoa. B) fungi. C) algae. D) insects. E) water molds. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Protozoa Learning Outcome: 12.7

12) The Apicomplexa are named for their apical complexes which allow them to A) be motile by means of multiple flagella. B) penetrate the cytoplasmic membranes of host cells. C) undergo schizogony. D) carry out photosynthesis. E) attach to surfaces. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Protozoa Learning Outcome: 12.10 13) The ________ have shells composed of calcium carbonate and thin pseudopods. A) Amebozoa B) Euglenids C) Ciliates D) Dinoflagellates E) Foraminifera Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Protozoa Learning Outcome: 12.12 14) A single-celled eukaryote that is both photosynthetic and a chemoheterotroph is a(n) A) apicomplexan. B) dinoflagellate. C) euglenid. D) ciliate. E) kinetoplastid. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Protozoa Learning Outcome: 12.9 15) Which of the following is a protozoan with two nuclei and no mitochondria? A) Plasmodium B) Paramecium C) Euglena D) Giardia E) Trichomonas Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Protozoa Learning Outcome: 12.12

16) Which of the following has NOT been a basis for classification of the protozoa? A) means of locomotion B) genetic sequences C) photosynthetic ability D) habitat E) ability to form a dormant stage Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Protozoa Learning Outcome: 12.8 17) The ________ is the entire interwoven mass of one multicellular fungal organism. A) hyphae B) sporangium C) mycelium D) pseudoplasmodium E) conidiophore Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Fungi Learning Outcome: 12.15 18) The asexual spores of molds are classified according to their A) size. B) type of metabolism. C) number of chromosomes. D) shapes. E) mode of development. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Fungi Learning Outcome: 12.17 19) Which of the following is a cell type associated with sexual reproduction in fungi? A) sporangiospore B) dikaryon C) haustoria D) pneumocyst E) mycorrhiza Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Fungi Learning Outcome: 12.16

20) Fungal spores produced asexually within a sac-like chamber at the tip of a hypha are called A) ascospores. B) basidiospores. C) sporangiospores. D) conidia. E) zygospores. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Fungi Learning Outcome: 12.17 21) Sexual reproduction in Basidiomycota results in the production of A) ascospores. B) basidiospores. C) conidiospores. D) endospores. E) zygospores. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Fungi Learning Outcome: 12.18 22) Sexual reproduction in multicellular Ascomycota leads to the production of A) asci. B) basidia. C) conidia. D) sporangia E) zygotes. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Fungi Learning Outcome: 12.18 23) The large seaweed known as kelp is classified as a member of the A) Chlorophyta. B) Phaeophyta. C) Chrysophyta. D) Rhodophyta. E) Deuteromycete. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Algae Learning Outcome: 12.24

24) Hyphae are associated with which of the following? A) yeasts B) algae C) molds D) protozoa E) helminths Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Fungi Learning Outcome: 12.15 25) Which of the following fungal divisions lack septa? A) Basidiomycota B) Deuteromycetes C) Zygomycota D) Ascomycota E) both Basidiomycota and Deuteromycetes Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Fungi Learning Outcome: 12.15 26) Lichens are composed of a symbiosis of fungi and which of the following? A) green algae B) cyanobacteria C) euglenoids D) cyanobacteria or green algae E) euglenoids or dinoflagellates Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Fungi Learning Outcome: 12.20 27) Slime molds are classified as A) amoebozoa. B) dinoflagellates. C) fungi. D) lichens. E) rhizaria. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Protozoa Learning Outcome: 12.12

28) The division Basidiomycota includes which of the following types of fungi? A) truffles B) mushrooms C) baker's yeast D) bread mold E) ringworm Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Fungi Learning Outcome: 12.18 29) Which of the following organisms grow on higher plants to produce truffles? A) euglenids B) kinetoplastids C) mycorrhizae D) lichens E) water molds Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Fungi Learning Outcome: 12.18 30) Which of the following protozoa genera helps termites digest wood? A) Trichonympha B) Nosema C) Trichomonas D) Spirogyra E) Naegleria Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Protozoa Learning Outcome: 12.12 31) In a cell that has a diploid number of 8 chromosomes, how many chromatids will be present at the beginning of mitosis? A) 8 B) 16 C) 32 D) 4 E) 2 Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 12.2

32) Which of the following is present during meiosis but not mitosis? A) a chromatid B) a centromere C) a spindle D) a tetrad E) sister chromatids Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 12.3 33) When mitosis occurs without cytokinesis, which of the following is produced? A) merozoites B) chromatids C) cysts D) macronuclei E) coenocytes Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 12.4 34) The chromatids move toward opposite poles during ________ of mitosis. A) anaphase B) telophase C) metaphase D) prophase E) interphase Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 12.2 35) Multiple mitoses followed by a single cytokinetic event is known as A) meiosis. B) schizogony. C) coenocytic division. D) encystment. E) interphase. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 12.4

36) The chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell during A) prophase. B) anaphase. C) metaphase. D) telophase. E) prophase II. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 12.2 37) The process in which the cytoplasm is divided between daughter cells is known as A) coenocytosis. B) budding. C) meiosis. D) cytokinesis. E) nuclear division. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 12.4 38)

Which process is represented by Figure 12.1? A) mitosis B) meiosis C) cytokinesis D) schizogony E) budding Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 12.3

39) The distinguishing characteristic used to classify the algae into four kingdoms is A) whether they are single celled or multicellular. B) their cell wall components. C) their storage products. D) their habitat. E) presence or absence of chlorophyll a. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Algae Learning Outcome: 12.24 40) Algae that are important sources of thickening agents like agar are known as A) Rhodophyta. B) Phaeophyta. C) Chrysophyta. D) Rhizobium. E) Chlorophyta. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Algae Learning Outcome: 12.25 41) Simple eukaryotes that carry out oxygenic photosynthesis and reproduce by means of alternation of generations are known as A) algae. B) fungi. C) slime molds. D) euglenids. E) arachnids. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Algae Learning Outcome: 12.23 42) Water molds are currently classified as a type of A) fungus. B) protozoan. C) insect. D) algae. E) slime mold. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Algae Learning Outcome: 12.26

43) Fungi called Deuteromycetes are not known to reproduce sexually. Nonetheless, most of them are considered members of the ________ on the basis of genetic sequences. A) Zygomycota B) Basidiomycota C) Ascomycota D) Sporozoa E) Rhizaria Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Fungi Learning Outcome: 12.19 44) Multicellular organisms with hard exoskeletons, segmented bodies and four pairs of jointed legs in the adult stage are A) algae. B) arachnids. C) insects. D) helminths. E) lice. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Other Eukaryotes of Microbiological Interest: Parasitic Helminths and Vectors Learning Outcome: 12.29 45) Which of the following is transmitted by mosquitoes? A) African sleeping sickness B) malaria C) toxoplasmosis D) tapeworms E) typhus Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Other Eukaryotes of Microbiological Interest: Parasitic Helminths and Vectors Learning Outcome: 12.32 12.2 True/False Questions 1) Haploid genomes contain two sets of chromosomes. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 12.1

2) Fungi reproduce only asexually. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Fungi Learning Outcome: 12.16 3) Protozoa are eukaryotic organisms that lack a cell wall and can be unicellular or multicellular. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Protozoa Learning Outcome: 12.7 4) Ciliates often have two kinds of nuclei that have different functions. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Protozoa Learning Outcome: 12.10 5) In fungi, aseptate hyphae are coenocytic by definition. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Fungi Learning Outcome: 12.15 6) Algae can have different types of photosynthetic pigments that allow them to photosynthesize at various depths in water. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Algae Learning Outcome: 12.22 7) Lyme disease is vectored by ticks. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Other Eukaryotes of Microbiological Interest: Parasitic Helminths and Vectors Learning Outcome: 12.32 8) In spite of their name, water molds are not true fungi. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Water Molds Learning Outcome: 12.26

9) Conidiospores are the products of mitosis. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Fungi Learning Outcome: 12.17 10) Diatomaceous earth is composed of "skeletons" of the cell walls of protozoa. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Algae Learning Outcome: 12.25 12.3 Short Answer Questions 1) Plasmodium, the cause of malaria, undergoes multiple mitoses before the release of uninucleate daughter cells called (gametocytes/schizonts/coencytes). Answer: schizonts Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 12.4 2) Protozoa can survive changes in pH, nutrient availability or temperature as (conidospores /cysts/trophozoites). Answer: cysts Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Protozoa Learning Outcome: 12.7 3) The (fungi/algae/lichens) are so sensitive to pollutants that they are used as indicators of environmental conditions. Answer: lichens Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Fungi Learning Outcome: 12.21 4) Protozoa that move and feed by the use of broad pseudopods are called (amoebozoa/apicomplexa/rhizaria). Answer: amoebozoa Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Protozoa Learning Outcome: 12.11 5) Limestone is made up of the shells of (foraminifera/parabasala/radiolarians). Answer: foraminifera Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Protozoa Learning Outcome: 12.11 14 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

6) The asexual reproductive spores produced at the tips of hyphae and not enclosed in a sac are (conidiospores/ascospores/sporangiospores). Answer: conidiospores Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Fungi Learning Outcome: 12.16 7) True fungi differ from slime molds because they have (cell walls/motility/tubular mitochondria). Answer: cell walls Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Fungi Learning Outcome: 12.13 8) Slime molds are classified with protozoa in part because they have (flagella/pseudopods/shells). Answer: pseudopods Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Protozoa Learning Outcome: 12.11 9) Haustoria are a feature of some pathogenic (algae/fungi/protozoa). Answer: fungi Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Fungi Learning Outcome: 12.15 10) The plague is transmitted by (fleas/lice/ticks/mites). Answer: fleas Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Other Eukaryotes of Microbiological Interest: Parasitic Helminths and Vectors Learning Outcome: 12.32 11) Edible true mushrooms are typically members of the (Ascomycota/Basidiomycota/Deuteromycetes/Zygomycota). Answer: Basidiomycota Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Fungi Learning Outcome: 12.14 12) Diatoms are single celled marine algae with walls composed of (chiton/cellulose/carbonate/silica). Answer: silica Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Algae Learning Outcome: 12.24 15 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

13) Microbiologists interested in parasites study multicellular (insects/fungi/worms) as well as single-celled protozoa. Answer: worms Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Other Eukaryotes of Microbiological Interest: Parasitic Helminths and Vectors Learning Outcome: 12.27 14) Sexual reproduction in unicellular algae is accomplished by the cell acting as a (gamete/spore/zygote). Answer: gamete Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Algae Learning Outcome: 12.23 15) Ticks, lice, and mosquitoes often serve as (carriers/transporters/vectors) by hosting and transmitting pathogenic microbes. Answer: vectors Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Other Eukaryotes of Microbiological Interest: Parasitic Helminths and Vectors Learning Outcome: 12.28

12.4 Essay Questions 1) Compare and contrast slime molds and water molds. Answer: Both the slime molds and the water molds are saprobes, and neither of them is fungi, as the names would suggest. In spite of the similarity of names, however, these organisms are more different than they are similar. Slime molds are classified among the protozoa (Amoebozoa). They are phagocytic organisms without cell walls and occur in two forms: plasmodial and cellular. The plasmodial coenocytic slime molds are diploid under normal conditions, but under adverse conditions they produce haploid spores that can germinate to produce a unicellular form (myxamoeba) that uses flagella or pseudopodia for motility, depending on conditions. Two compatible myxamoebae fuse to form a new diploid, which, in turn, becomes a new coenocytic plasmodium. The cellular slime molds are haploid. Under ideal conditions, the cellular slime molds live as single-celled organisms (myxamoebae). When food becomes scarce, the myxamoebae congregate and cooperate to form a sporangium, and some individuals then become spores. No diploidy or meiosis is involved. The water molds are classified with the algae (Stramenophila), but they do not carry out photosynthesis. They are diploid saprobes with cell walls of cellulose. Their spores are motile by means of two flagella, which are structurally different. Some water molds are plant pathogens. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Water Molds Learning Outcome: 12.11, 12.26 2) A field biologist finds an unfamiliar single-celled organism in a sample from the surface of a marshy area. What observations or tests would make it possible to determine whether it is a protozoan, fungus, or alga? Assume the PCR machine at the field station is not working, but all other equipment is. Answer: The presence of a cell wall would indicate the organism is either a fungus, or an alga. The presence of pigments is an indication it is a photosynthetic organism, and if it has a cell wall, it is an alga. The identification would be further confirmed if the organism is diploid (observed during mitosis). An organism with a cell wall but no pigments is probably a fungus. This identification can be verified by observing that the organism is haploid. If the organism is a single-celled eukaryote without a cell wall, it is likely a protozoan. Motility (with flagella, cilia or pseudopodia) would help confirm this identification, although the absence of observable motility does not rule out protozoa. Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis Section: Algae Learning Outcome: 12.7, 12.13, 12.22 17 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

3) Compare and contrast mitosis and meiosis using words, diagrams or both. Answer: Mitosis involves a single round of nuclear division, whereas meiosis involves two rounds. They both include the same four phases: prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase; meiosis involves two rounds of each phase. Both meiosis and mitosis are preceded by interphase, during which DNA replication takes place. In meiosis, the homologous chromosomes line up to form tetrads early in prophase I. This event, which does not occur in mitosis, allows crossing over of homologous chromosomes to take place. Crossing over provides the genetic recombination of meiosis. The sister chromatids separate in anaphase in mitosis. In meiosis, the homologous (non-sister) chromatids separate during anaphase I, and the sister chromatids separate during anaphase II. The end result of mitosis is two diploid nuclei with identical chromosomes, whereas the final result of meiosis is the production of four haploid nuclei that are not genetically identical. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 12.3 4) Describe the ways in which fungi reproduce. Answer: Fungi reproduce both sexually and asexually; the precise mechanism of reproduction depends on the form of the fungus. Yeasts usually bud asexually in a manner similar to that of prokaryotic reproduction, although the cytoplasm is not typically equally shared between parent and daughter cell. Filamentous fungi can reproduce by the use of a variety of asexual spores, such as sporangiospores, chlamydospores, or conidiospores, based on the type of fungus. Filamentous fungi can also produce sexual spores that are the product of cellular fusion and meiosis and that create genetic variation in a population. Because of the diversity observed among fungi in this area, they are often classified according to the nature and morphology of their sexual reproductive structures and spores. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Fungi Learning Outcome: 12.16, 12.17, 12.18 5) Describe the ways in which algae and fungi are useful microbes. Answer: Algae and fungi are useful both in the biosphere in general and to humans in particular. Because algae are photosynthetic, they are major contributors to Earth's oxygen supply; in fact, one group of algae (the diatoms) is Earth's major source of oxygen, simply because of their vast numbers. Algae are also a foundation of the biosphere's food chain in their role as plankton. Algae are a source of chemicals, such as agar and alginic acid, which can be used as thickening agents and emulsifiers in industrial products. Similarly, fungi are useful on two levels. In nature, they serve as recyclers of organic molecules and help plants retrieve water and nutrients from the soil. For humans, fungi play an enormous role in the food industry (in the manufacture of cheeses, bread, alcoholic beverages, and other items) and in medicine (in the production of antibiotics and other drugs). Fungi have also been instrumental tools in genetic research. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Algae Learning Outcome: 12.14, 12.25 18 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 5e (Bauman) Chapter 13 Characterizing and Classifying Viruses, Viroids, and Prions 13.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) In what ways do viruses differ from other pathogens? A) Viruses lack genetic material. B) Viruses lack cytoplasm and organelles. C) Viruses have no protein structure. D) Viruses are composed of protein only. E) Viruses are composed of both protein and lipid. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Characteristics of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.1 2) The outermost layer of a virion fulfills which of the following functions of the virus? A) protection B) recognition C) replication D) both protection and recognition E) both recognition and replication Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Characteristics of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.1 3) A(n) ________ is a virus that infects bacterial cells. A) virion B) prion C) bacteriophage D) nucleocapsid E) envelope Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Characteristics of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.4

4) Which of the following is a characteristic by which viruses are classified? A) type of nucleic acid B) type of life cycle C) number of chromosomes D) type of host E) size Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Classification of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.2 5) Host specificity of a virus is due to A) particular genes that it shares with the infected cell. B) the presence of an envelope. C) differences in size between the virus and the host cell. D) the presence or absence of a cell wall on the host cell. E) interactions between viral and cellular surface molecules. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Characteristics of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.3 6) Which of the following is primarily responsible for the shape of a virion? A) the type of nucleic acid B) the number of segments of the viral genome C) the source of the envelope D) the capsid E) the specific host protein the virus targets Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Characteristics of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.5 7) How are fungal viruses transmitted? A) by insect vectors B) as a result of abrasion C) as a result of fusion of cells or hyphae D) in the air like spores E) by contact Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Characteristics of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.4

8) The genome of influenzavirus is A) multiple pieces of linear dsDNA. B) a single circular ssRNA. C) a single linear dsRNA. D) a single circular ssDNA. E) multiple pieces of linear ssRNA. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Characteristics of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.2 9) Which of the following is CORRECT regarding the viral envelope? A) It contains only viral proteins. B) It contains only host cell proteins. C) It is composed of sterols. D) It is composed of cellular phospholipid membrane, cellular and viral proteins. E) It is composed of sterols of viral proteins only. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Characteristics of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.6 10) Which of the following statements regarding virus taxonomy is true? A) Viruses are classified on the basis of the taxonomy of their host organisms. B) Virus classes are well established. C) Some virus family names are derived from the name of an important member of the family. D) The species epithet is a Latin descriptor of the virion structure. E) Virus classes are based on the domain of the host organism. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Classification of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.7 11) Which of the following is NOT used for the classification of viruses? A) genus B) class C) specific epithet D) family E) order Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Classification of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.7

12) Which of the following lists stages of a lytic replication cycle in order, from earliest to latest stages? I. Synthesis II. Assembly III. Attachment IV. Release V. Entry A) III, V, I, II, IV B) III, II, V, I, IV C) V, III, II, IV, I D) I, III, V, II, IV E) I, II, III, V, IV Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.8 13) Which of the following is associated with the attachment of a bacteriophage to a bacterial cell? A) random collisions B) chemical attractions C) receptor specificity D) both chemical attractions and receptor specificity E) random collisions, chemical attractions, and receptor specificity Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.8 14) The enzyme lysozyme is critical for which of the stages of a bacteriophage T4 infection cycle? A) entry B) assembly C) entry and release D) synthesis E) attachment Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.8

15) A(n) ________ is a bacterial virus which is integrated into the host cell DNA. A) lytic phage B) prophage C) plasmid D) transposon E) insertion phage Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.9 16) Which of the following events occurs in the lytic cycle of bacteriophage T4 infection but NOT in the lysogenic cycle? A) attachment B) entry C) digestion of host DNA D) viral protein synthesis E) both digestion of host DNA and viral proteins synthesis Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.9 17) Why is lysogeny advantageous to a bacteriophage? A) It speeds up the viral infection cycle. B) The genetic material of the bacteriophage is amplified many times over that seen in a lytic phage. C) It allows the bacteriophage to infect cells it would not normally infect. D) It allows the bacteriophage to destroy the host cell's DNA. E) It enables the bacteriophage to take over the cell. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.9 18) Which of the following agents is capable of inducing conversion of a prophage to the lytic cycle? A) UV light B) X rays C) presence of +ssRNA D) both UV light and X rays E) both UV light and the presence of +ssRNA Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.9 5 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

19) Replication of most ________ viruses is similar to normal cellular processes. A) dsDNA B) ssDNA C) +ssRNA D) -ssRNA E) dsRNA Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.11 20) Attachment of herpesviruses results in ________, a process in which the host cell facilitates viral entry. A) direct penetration B) membrane fusion C) endocytosis D) exocytosis E) lysogeny Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.10 21) Reverse transcriptase is associated with which of the following? A) dsDNA viruses B) +ssRNA viruses C) -ssRNA viruses D) retroviruses E) dsRNA viruses Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.11 22) The genome of which of the following types of animal virus can act directly as mRNA? A) retroviruses B) +ssRNA viruses C) -ssRNA viruses D) ssDNA viruses E) dsRNA viruses Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.11

23) Which of the following types of animal virus requires RNA-dependent RNA transcriptase to be replicated? A) +ssRNA viruses B) ssDNA viruses C) -ssRNA viruses D) retroviruses E) dsDNA viruses Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.11 24) Naked capsid animal viruses are commonly released from the infected cell by ________, a process the host cell does not survive. A) budding B) lysis C) endocytosis D) membrane fusion E) exocytosis Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.12 25) Which of the following membranes can give rise to a viral envelope? A) the nuclear membrane B) the cytoplasmic membrane C) the endoplasmic reticulum D) the nuclear and cytoplasmic membranes E) the nuclear and cytoplasmic membranes and the endoplasmic reticulum Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.12 26) A cell is infected with a virus carrying an oncogene sequence in its genome. What process may occur if the oncogene is expressed in the infected cell? A) lysis B) neoplasia C) lysogeny D) latency E) both lysis and neoplasia Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: The Role of Viruses in Cancer Learning Outcome: 13.15 7 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

27) How is the HIV provirus different from a lambda-phage prophage? A) The HIV provirus is integrated permanently into the host cell's DNA. B) All subsequent generations of HIV-infected cells carry the provirus. C) All the offspring of a cell infected with a prophage will contain the virus. D) The HIV provirus is inactive inside the host cell. E) Lambda phage-infected cells produce virus slowly over time. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.13 28) Which of the following laboratory procedures is used for culturing animal viruses in the laboratory? A) cell cultures B) broth cultures C) embryonated eggs D) both cell cultures and embryonated eggs E) synthetic cytoplasm Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Culturing Viruses in the Laboratory Learning Outcome: 13.17 29) One mechanism by which viruses may cause cancer is to interrupt the genetic regulatory sequences of repressor proteins. Which of the following types of viruses is most likely to be involved in causing cancer by this mechanism? A) +ssRNA viruses B) dsRNA viruses C) -ssRNA viruses D) retroviruses E) both +ssRNA and -ssRNA viruses Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: The Role of Viruses in Cancer Learning Outcome: 13.15 30) Tumors invade other organs and tissues in a process called A) neoplasia. B) uncoating. C) latency. D) budding. E) metastasis. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Role of Viruses in Cancer Learning Outcome: 13.14 8 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

31) Plaque assays are used for A) evaluating the cancer-causing ability of a virus. B) determining the density of phage in a culture. C) the study of prions. D) cultivating viruses that cannot be grown any other way. E) counting the number of latent phages in a cell. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Culturing Viruses in the Laboratory Learning Outcome: 13.18 32) Disadvantages of continuous cell cultures include A) they only grow for a limited number of generations. B) the expense of preparation. C) they may be significantly different genetically from the original source animal. D) viruses do not reliably infect them. E) they are both expensive and have a limited number of division. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Culturing Viruses in the Laboratory Learning Outcome: 13.20 33) Viroids infect A) bacteria. B) plants. C) fungi. D) plants and animals. E) all organisms. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Other Parasitic Particles: Viroids and Prions Learning Outcome: 13.22 34) How are prions different from all other known infectious agents? A) They cannot reproduce outside a cell. B) They act as slow viruses. C) They cause neurological problems. D) They can be destroyed by incineration. E) They lack nucleic acid. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Other Parasitic Particles: Viroids and Prions Learning Outcome: 13.24

35) Which of the following infectious particles do NOT have protein in their structure? A) bacteriophages B) prions C) animal viruses D) viroids E) both prions and viroids Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Other Parasitic Particles: Viroids and Prions Learning Outcome: 13.22 36) A lipid membrane is present in which of the following? A) naked viruses B) enveloped viruses C) prions D) viroids E) both prions and viroids Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Characteristics of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.6 37) What is a virion? A) a virus genome inside a cell B) an empty capsid C) a single virus particle outside a cell D) an extracellular virus genome E) a virus genome integrated into a host cell genome Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Characteristics of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.1 38) Which of the following virus families has a double-stranded RNA genome? A) Retroviridae B) Reoviridae C) Rhadoviridae D) Orthomyxoviridae E) Filoviridae Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Classification of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.7

39) Which of the following is a feature shared by viruses and living organisms? A) possession of a genome that directs synthesis of materials necessary for replication B) presence of cytoplasm C) metabolic capability D) responsiveness E) the ability to increase in size Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Are Viruses Alive? Learning Outcome: 13.21 40) Small circular RNAs called ________ are plant pathogens. A) plasmids B) viruses C) viroids D) prions E) phages Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Other Parasitic Particles: Viroids and Prions Learning Outcome: 13.22 41) The ________ of a virion determines the type of cell it enters. A) nucleic acid B) matrix proteins C) glycoproteins D) lipid molecules E) shape Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Characteristics of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.3 42) Which of the following infectious particles is most susceptible to damage? A) naked capsid virus B) enveloped virus C) prions D) bacteriophage E) both naked capsid viruses and prions Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.6

43) A viral infection which does not result in the production of new virions is ________ infection(s). A) a lytic B) a latent C) a persistent D) a lysogenic E) either latent or lysogenic Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.13 44) A ________ is a mass of neoplastic cells. A) diploid culture B) metastasis C) tumor D) gall E) plaque Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Role of Viruses in Cancer Learning Outcome: 13.14 45) The process known as ________ is a mechanism of release for enveloped viruses. A) lytic replication B) persistent infection C) metastasis D) latency E) budding Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.12 13.2 True/False Questions 1) Viruses cause most human cancers. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Role of Viruses in Cancer Learning Outcome: 13.15 2) Most viruses cannot be seen by light microscopy. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Characteristics of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.4 12 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

3) Protozoa are susceptible to viral attack. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Characteristics of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.4 4) Budding release of virus may result in long lasting or persistent infection. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.12 5) Members of a virus family have the same type of nucleic acid. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Classification of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.7 6) The genome of all DNA animal viruses is replicated in the nucleus of the cell. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.11 7) Bacteriophage release is a gradual process in which small numbers are released at a time. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.8 8) Bovine spongiform encephalopathy is an example of a prion disease. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Other Parasitic Particles: Viroids and Prions Learning Outcome: 13.26 9) All viruses use the host cell's nucleic acid polymerases for replication. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.11

10) Fertilized chicken eggs are used to culture some vaccine strains. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Culturing Viruses in the Laboratory Learning Outcome: 13.19 13.3 Short Answer Questions 1) The combination of a virus's protein coat and nucleic acid core is called the (capsid/virion/nucleocapsid). Answer: nucleocapsid Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Characteristics of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.1 2) Viral capsids are composed of subunits called (capsomeres/nucleocapsids/prions). Answer: capsomeres Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Characteristics of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.5 3) Viruses with -ssRNA require the activity of (DNA polymerase/reverse transcriptase/RNAdependent RNA polymerase) for their replication. Answer: RNA-dependent RNA polymerase Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.11 4) Continuous cell cultures are developed from (embryonic/haploid/neoplastic) cells. Answer: neoplastic Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Culturing Viruses in the Laboratory Learning Outcome: 13.20

The virions shown in Figure 13.1 have a (complex/helical/polyhedral) capsid. Answer: complex Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Characteristics of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.5 6) Another term for a lysogenic phage is a (temperate/latent/prophage) phage. Answer: temperate Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.9 7) The process during viral infection known as "uncoating" involves the removal of the (capsid/envelope/matrix). Answer: capsid Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.10 8) Uncontrolled cell division in animals is known as (metastasis/neoplasia/cancer). Answer: neoplasia Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Role of Viruses in Cancer Learning Outcome: 13.14 9) RNA viruses such as HIV require the activity of reverse (polymerase/transcriptase/transposase) to become proviruses. Answer: transcriptase Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.11

10) The stage of virus infection called (assembly/entry/synthesis) is the stage most dependent on host cell proteins. Answer: synthesis Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.8, 13.10 11) Genes that play a role in proper cell division but may also play a role in some types of cancer are called (oncogenes/protooncogenes/promoters). Answer: protooncogenes Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Role of Viruses in Cancer Learning Outcome: 13.15 12) A (colony/plaque/prophage) is a clear zone on a bacterial lawn where cells have been killed by the activity of a bacteriophage. Answer: plaque Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Culturing Viruses in the Laboratory Learning Outcome: 13.18 13) Seven (orders/families/classes) represent the highest level of taxonomic rank used in classifying viruses. Answer: orders Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Classification of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.7 14) Prions are composed of a single protein called (plaque/BSE/PrP). Answer: PrP Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Other Parasitic Particles: Viroids and Prions Learning Outcome: 13.24 15) A "naked" virus lacks (lipid/nucleic acid/protein). Answer: lipid Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Characteristics of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.6

13.4 Essay Questions 1) Compare and contrast the ways in which animal, plant, and bacterial viruses gain entry into their host cells. Answer: Because cells have different types of barriers against the outside world, viruses have evolved different ways of breaching these barriers. For example, viruses cannot easily invade cells that have rigid, protective cell walls (such as plant and bacterial cells). Viruses that infect these cells gain entry by direct injection (as observed in bacteriophage T4), by taking advantage of damage to the cell wall (as with some plant viruses), or by enlisting the aid of insects that are themselves parasites (as with some other plant viruses). In contrast, animal cells have no cell wall; therefore, animal viruses employ three basic strategies to enter through the flexible cytoplasmic membrane. Some animal viruses directly penetrate this membrane (either the entire virus or just its genome), whereas other viruses take advantage of natural cellular processes such as phagocytosis to gain entry into the cell. Enveloped animal viruses also can use the process of membrane fusion to get inside an animal cell. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.10, 13.23 2) Why is the synthesis of mRNA a central issue for all viruses? How do different types of viruses achieve this goal? Answer: One way in which a virus gains control of a cell is to direct the synthesis of new viral proteins, which include such molecules as enzymes. To do this, however, the virus must provide the cell with mRNA for the production of such proteins. Viruses can achieve this goal in one of three basic ways: (1) they can import mRNA into the cell in the form of the viral genome; (2) they can allow the cell to make viral mRNA through normal cellular genetic processes by providing the cell with viral DNA; or (3) they can use unique mechanisms to convert their genomes into a form suitable for protein production. An example of the first type of virus is the +ssRNA virus; this type of genome essentially mimics the mRNA found in the cell. An example of the second type is the DNA virus, either ds or ss, which can take advantage of normal cellular processes to produce mRNA. An example of the third type is the -ssRNA virus, which uses a novel enzyme called RNA-dependent RNA transcriptase to convert its genome into +ssRNA, which can then be used for protein synthesis as in the first example. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.11

3) In contrast to most dsDNA animal viruses, the poxviruses replicate solely in the cytoplasm of the host cell. What does this suggest about the virus? Answer: All cellular DNA replication occurs in the nucleus. DNA polymerases are synthesized in the cytoplasm and are transported into the nucleus where they are active. Replication of viral DNA in the cytoplasm would require DNA polymerase activity take place in the cytoplasm. One possibility is that the viral genome includes a gene for a DNA polymerase and that a DNA polymerase enzyme is packaged in the virion. Otherwise, the virus has some mechanism for diverting cellular DNA polymerase to the cytoplasm. The first possibility is the simpler explanation. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.11 4) A scientist discovers a new virus associated with a cancer. She is able to culture it in the laboratory and begins to analyze it. What features will help her determine the virus' classification? How does this help her understand the virus' mechanism for causing cancer? Answer: Characterization of the nucleic acid present in the virion is a first step in determining the classification of the virus. If it is a large DNA virus with envelope, it may be one of the Herpesviridae. DNA viruses with smaller genome sizes known to cause cancer are the Papillomaviruses and Polyomaviruses. The Hepadnavirdae have a circular DNA molecule which is partially double strand and partially single strand. Very small DNA viruses which occasionally cause cancer are the Adenoviridae. The presence or absence of an envelope is also useful in eliminating possibilities. The presence of a segmented genome comprised of + singlestrand RNA and the enzyme reverse transcriptase is consistent with the virus being a member of the Retroviridae. DNA sequence determination is useful for verifying the classification to a family or genus. Establishing the classification of the virus can provide clues as to the possible mechanism of causing cancer, as different virus families are involved in different processes. For example, retroviruses integrate into the host DNA and may thereby disrupt the function of a tumor repressor. Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis Section: The Role of Viruses in Cancer Learning Outcome: 13.7, 13.15 5) Describe the mechanism by which PrP is infectious. Answer: The clue to why PrP acts as an infectious agent was found when it was discovered that all mammals contain the gene for PrP. However, under normal conditions, the protein produced from this gene, cellular PrP, is not a pathogenic agent. It is when PrP folds into an abnormal form called prion PrP that it is infectious. As prion PrP, the protein is capable of inducing copies of cellular PrP to refold into prion PrP, thereby causing the disease form of the protein to accumulate. Because the genetic information to create this protein is found in the host organism, prions are the only known example of a totally protein-based infectious agent. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Other Parasitic Particles: Viroids and Prions Learning Outcome: 13.24 18 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 5e (Bauman) Chapter 14 Infection, Infectious Diseases, and Epidemiology 14.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following is NOT an example of symbiosis? A) bacteria in the human colon B) tapeworm in the human intestine C) tuberculosis in the human lung D) protozoa in termites E) microbes crossing the placenta to the fetus Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts Learning Outcome: 14.1 2) Mutualism is a relationship A) that provides benefits for both members, sometimes to the point that one cannot live without the other. B) where only one member derives benefit from the other. C) where one member of the relationship may kill the other. D) where one member of the relationship benefits without hurting the other. E) where it is difficult to prove the benefits or disadvantages one member of the relationship may provide for the other. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts Learning Outcome: 14.1

Figure 14.1 represents a Petri dish with a fungus (F), shown in darker gray, growing in the midst of bacterial lawn (B), shown in light gray. The relationship between the fungus and the bacteria would best be described as A) synergistic. B) amensal. C) commensal. D) parasitic. E) None, there is no relationship between the microbes. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts Learning Outcome: 14.1 4) The bacterium Staphylococcus aureus is commonly found in the nasal cavity of healthy people. If inhaled into the lungs, however, it may cause pneumonia. Staphylococcus aureus is best described as A) a parasite. B) resident microbiota. C) a mutualist symbiotic partner. D) transient microbiota. E) both resident microbiota and opportunistic pathogen. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts Learning Outcome: 14.2, 14.3, 14.4

5) Chagas' disease is transmitted by a bug with mouthparts that penetrate blood vessels. Which type of exposure does this represent? A) mucous membrane portal B) parenteral route C) skin portal D) contact E) fomite Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Invasion and Establishment of Microbes in Hosts: Infection Learning Outcome: 14.7 6) Symptoms are A) subjective characteristics of a disease that only the patient can feel. B) objective manifestations of a disease that can be measured. C) objective manifestations of a disease that can be observed by others. D) characteristics of a disease, such as sweating. E) laboratory tests used to diagnose a disease. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.11 7) The close contact between newborns and family members allow them to become ________ with microbes that become established as their microbiota. (Choose the most accurate term.) A) infected B) parasitized C) colonized D) contaminated E) infiltrated Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts Learning Outcome: 14.3 8) In which of the following do the mucous membranes serve as a portal of entry for disease? A) A pathogen crosses from the mother to the fetus by way of the placenta. B) A person rubs the eye with contaminated fingers and the pathogen is washed into the nasal cavity by way of tears. C) A person is bitten by a mosquito that carries the malaria parasite. D) Fungi digest the outer layer of the skin. E) A person receives an injection with a contaminated needle. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Invasion and Establishment of Microbes in Hosts: Infection Learning Outcome: 14.7 3 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

9) Which of the following statements regarding the demonstration of the etiology of disease is FALSE? A) The suspect agent must be present in all cases of the disease. B) The suspect agent must cause the disease under investigation when introduced into a susceptible host organism. C) The suspect agent must be isolated and cultured in the laboratory. D) It must be possible to reisolate the suspect agent from the infected experimental host. E) The suspect agent must be the only potential pathogen present in disease cases. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.13 10) Which of the following situations is NOT a way in which a baby acquires normal microbiota? A) The baby acquires the residential microbiota in the colon after the first meal. B) Staphylococcus epidermidis is transferred from the hospital staff to the newborn after delivery. C) Microbes cross the placenta during pregnancy. D) Microorganisms grow in the respiratory tract after the baby's first breath. E) Microbes enter the nose and mouth when the baby is in the birth canal. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts Learning Outcome: 14.3 11) Which of the following situations might cause normal microbiota to become opportunistic pathogens? A) growth of microbes on the surface of intact skin B) growth of microorganisms on the excreted cellular wastes and dead cells in the large intestine C) treatment of a cancer patient with radiation D) growth of Lactobacillus on the surface of teeth E) presence of Entamoeba in the lumen of the colon Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts Learning Outcome: 14.4

12) Which of the following is NOT considered a member of the normal human microbiota? A) Candida B) Lactobacillus C) E. coli D) Bacteroides E) Microsporum Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts Learning Outcome: 14.3 13) A toxin common to all Gram-negative bacteria is A) neurotoxin. B) coagulase. C) lipid A. D) hemolysin. E) collagenase. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.14 14) Among the virulence factors produced by Staphylococcus aureus are hemolysin, coagulase, hyaluronidase, and enterotoxin. Which of these factors contribute to the ability of S. aureus to invade the body? A) coagulase B) enterotoxin C) hemolysin D) hyaluronidase E) coagulase and hemolysin Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.14 15) Which of the following stages of an infectious disease is the most severe? A) the incubation period B) the prodromal period C) the illness period D) the decline period E) the convalescence period Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.15

16) Which of the following is transmitted by the parenteral route? A) ringworm B) warts C) gonorrhea D) yellow fever E) pertussis Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Invasion and Establishment of Microbes in Hosts: Infection Learning Outcome: 14.7 17) Which of the following is considered a mechanical vector transmission? A) cockroach transmission of Shigella B) mosquito transmission of Plasmodium C) flea transmission of Yersinia D) tsetse fly transmission of Trypanosoma E) louse transmission of Rickettsia Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Modes of Infectious Disease Transmission Learning Outcome: 14.18 18) Which of the following is a sign of disease? A) headache B) dizziness C) fever D) nausea E) cramps Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.11 19) Which of the following is a symptom of disease? A) temperature B) swelling C) diarrhea D) fatigue E) rash Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.11

20) Diseases that are induced by modern medical procedures are referred to as ________ infections. A) iatrogenic B) exogenous C) opportunistic D) endogenous E) subacute Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Epidemiology of Infectious Diseases Learning Outcome: 14.27 21) The bacterium that causes tuberculosis can be expelled from the lungs by a cough and remain viable in the air for an hour or more. If a person inhales the bacteria from the air, what type of transmission has occurred? A) indirect contact B) airborne C) waterborne D) foodborne E) bodily fluid Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Modes of Infectious Disease Transmission Learning Outcome: 14.17 22) A person is exposed to rotten wood with fungal growth and develops blastomycosis. No one taking care of him/her becomes ill. Blastomycosis is an example of a ________ disease. A) contagious B) subacute C) chronic D) noncommunicable E) latent Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Classification of Infectious Diseases Learning Outcome: 14.21

23) In early spring 2009, the CDC reported several dozen cases of novel H1N1 influenza ("swine flu") in the United States. By the summer, the number of confirmed cases was reported as over 40,000. The pattern of novel H1N1 cases in the United States represents a(n) ________ disease. A) epidemic B) endemic C) sporadic D) pandemic E) opportunistic Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Epidemiology of Infectious Diseases Learning Outcome: 14.24 24) The incidence of tuberculosis in the year 2000 in the United States was 12.43/100,000 cases. This means A) 12.43 of every 100,000 people in the United States had tuberculosis in the year 2000. B) 12.43 of every 100,000 people died of tuberculosis in the United States in the year 2000. C) there were 12.43 new cases of tuberculosis for every 100,000 people in the United States in the year 2000. D) there were 12.43 tubercle bacilli per 100,000 microbes in the United States in the year 2000. E) 12.43 of every 100,000 cases of tuberculosis were treated in the United States in the year 2000. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Epidemiology of Infectious Diseases Learning Outcome: 14.23 25) A strain of Neisseria gonorrhea has a mutation which has caused it to lose the ability to produce fimbriae and become less virulent as a consequence. What function has this pathogen lost? A) the ability to adhere to cells of the body B) the ability to move from one location in the body to another C) the ability to produce an endotoxin D) the ability to establish a latent infection E) the ability to prevent phagocytes killing it Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Invasion and Establishment of Microbes in Hosts: Infection Learning Outcome: 14.8

26) Over 470,000 cases of cholera were reported in Haiti in the two years following the 2010 earthquake. Which of the following was the most likely mode of transmission? A) mosquitoes B) aerosols C) contact D) contaminated water E) contaminated milk Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Modes of Infectious Disease Transmission Learning Outcome: 14.16 27) The person known to history as "Typhoid Mary" never had typhoid fever but was identified by public health officials as a source of Salmonella enterica Typhi. Which of the following is the most accurate description of her in this scenario? A) contact carrier B) human carrier C) reservoir D) both a human carrier and a reservoir E) a reservoir but not a carrier Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Reservoirs of Infectious Diseases in Humans Learning Outcome: 14.5 28) Aerosols may be involved in ________ transmission of pathogens. A) droplet B) direct C) vector D) fecal-oral E) waterborne Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Modes of Infectious Disease Transmission Learning Outcome: 14.17 29) Fomites are A) insects that transmit pathogens from an infected host to a noninfected host. B) inanimate objects involved in the indirect contact transmission of pathogens. C) fecal material from infected hosts. D) animal sources for human pathogens. E) silent carriers of infectious diseases. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Modes of Infectious Disease Transmission Learning Outcome: 14.16 9 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

30) Koch's postulates were used to demonstrate the relationship between A) HIV and AIDS. B) Mycobacterium leprae and leprosy. C) liver parasites and liver cancer. D) Haemophilus influenzae and meningitis. E) Haemophilus influenzae and the flu. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.13 31) Which of the following diseases may be reduced by improved public sanitation measures? A) malaria B) HIV C) cholera D) chickenpox E) rabies Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Epidemiology and Public Health Learning Outcome: 14.16, 14.29 32) Which of the following is the CORRECT sequence of a disease process? A) convalescence, incubation, prodromal period, illness, decline B) prodromal period, convalescence, incubation, illness, decline C) incubation, convalescence, prodromal period, illness, decline D) incubation, prodromal period, illness, decline, convalescence E) illness, convalescence, incubation, prodromal period, decline Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.15 33) People who wash their hands frequently during cold season typically have fewer colds than those who do not. This observation suggests cold viruses can be transmitted by A) fomites. B) mechanical vectors. C) biological vectors. D) direct contact. E) both direct contact and fomites. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Modes of Infectious Disease Transmission Learning Outcome: 14.16

34) Treatment with high doses of antibiotics may lead to which type of healthcare-associated infection (HAI)? A) subclinical disease B) exogenous infection C) latent infection D) superinfection E) zoonotic Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Epidemiology of Infectious Diseases Learning Outcome: 14.28 35) Which of the following virulence factors directly contributes to severe inflammation? A) coagulase B) lipid A C) hyaluronidase D) kinase E) collagenase Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.14 36) A pathogen is best described as A) a microorganism that remains with the person throughout life. B) any microorganism that causes disease. C) an organism that remains in the body for a short time. D) a microorganism that may cause a disease under certain circumstances. E) a source of microbial contamination. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts Learning Outcome: 14.2 37) Microbes known as transient microbiota are A) microorganisms that remain with the person throughout life. B) microorganisms that may cause a disease under certain circumstances. C) organisms that remain in the body for a short time. D) unsuccessful microbial invaders because of the presence of preexisting microbes. E) sources of microbial contamination. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts Learning Outcome: 14.3

38) Infectious diseases can be classified on the basis of A) severity and duration of the disease. B) means of transmission. C) organs or organ systems affected by the disease. D) type of microbe that causes the disease. E) disease severity and duration, organ system affected or type of microbe. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Classification of Infectious Diseases Learning Outcome: 14.19 39) Organisms that are resident microbiota are best described as A) microorganisms that remain with the person throughout life. B) any microorganisms that cause disease. C) organisms that are present in or on the body for a short time without causing harm. D) microorganisms that may cause a disease under certain circumstances. E) microorganisms that never cause disease. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts Learning Outcome: 14.3 40) A new influenza strain appears and is spreading rapidly. What measures might be taken by public health agencies to stop the spread? A) Facilitate access to vaccines. B) Identify and treat people who are infected. C) Educate members of the public about ways to protect themselves. D) Educate the public, promote vaccination, and treat those who are infected. E) Shut down public transportation. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Epidemiology and Public Health Learning Outcome: 14.29 41) Commensalism is best described as a(n) A) unsuccessful microbial invasion due to the presence of preexisting microbes. B) relationship between two organisms where only one member benefits and the other is unharmed. C) relationship between two organisms where both members benefit. D) relationship in which a microorganism causes disease. E) source of contamination. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts Learning Outcome: 14.1

42) The condition called parasitism is characterized as a(n) A) relationship between two organisms where only one member benefits and the other is unharmed. B) relationship between two organisms where both members benefit. C) nonsymbiotic relationship. D) unsuccessful microbial invasion due to the presence of preexisting microbes. E) relationship between two organisms where one member harms the other. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts Learning Outcome: 14.2 43) An axenic environment is one A) in which microorganisms remain with the person throughout life. B) that is free of microbes. C) that is a source of contamination. D) in which microorganisms remain present only for a short time. E) contaminated by microbial toxins. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts Learning Outcome: 14.3 44) The condition known as microbial antagonism may be defined as A) microorganisms that remain with a person throughout life. B) a relationship between two organisms where one member harms the other. C) a relationship between two organisms where only one member benefits. D) an unsuccessful microbial invasion due to the presence of preexisting microbes. E) a relationship between two organisms where both members benefit. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts Learning Outcome: 14.4 45) A reservoir is A) a source of microbial contamination. B) an environment that is free of microbes. C) any microorganism that causes disease. D) a condition in which organisms remain in the body for a short time. E) a source of microbes for laboratory testing. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Reservoirs of Infectious Diseases in Humans Learning Outcome: 14.5

14.2 True/False Questions 1) In commensalism, one member of the relationship harms the other. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts Learning Outcome: 14.1 2) Normal microbiota may cause disease if conditions change in the body. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts Learning Outcome: 14.4 3) A syndrome is a group of symptoms and signs that collectively characterize a particular disease. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.11 4) All diseases go through the stages known as incubation period, prodromal period, and illness. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.15 5) Microbial contamination always results in infection. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Invasion and Establishment of Microbes in Hosts: Infection Learning Outcome: 14.6 6) Influenza is an example of a chronic disease. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Classification of Infectious Diseases Learning Outcome: 14.20 7) Biofilms provide an alternative means for bacteria to attach to surfaces within the body. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Invasion and Establishment of Microbes in Hosts: Infection Learning Outcome: 14.9

8) People in the asymptomatic incubation stage of a disease may be a reservoir of the agent. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Reservoirs of Infectious Diseases in Humans Learning Outcome: 14.5 9) Koch's postulates can be applied to every infectious disease to identify its causative pathogen. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.13 10) All infections result in disease. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Invasion and Establishment of Microbes in Hosts: Infection Learning Outcome: 14.10 14.3 Short Answer Questions 1) Toxins that affect the lining of the digestive tract are (endotoxins/enterotoxins/exotoxins). Answer: enterotoxins Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.14 2) The degree to which a microbe is able to cause disease is known as its (morbidity/virulence/toxicity). Answer: virulence Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.10 3) The (intestines/nasal cavities/lungs) are normally axenic. Answer: lungs Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts Learning Outcome: 14.3 4) Bacterial capsules are (antiphagocytic/cytotoxic/exotoxic) virulence factors. Answer: antiphagocytic Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.14

5) The (incubation/morbidity/prodromal) period is the time between infection and the occurrence of the first symptoms or signs of the disease. Answer: incubation Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.15 6) Staphylococcus bacteria are commonly present in the human nasal cavity but rarely cause disease of the upper respiratory system. This situation is an example of (commensalism/mutualism/parasitism). Answer: commensalism Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts Learning Outcome: 14.1 7) Lipid A is a(n) (cytotoxin/endotoxin/exotoxin) that stimulates the body to release chemicals that cause fever, inflammation, diarrhea, hemorrhaging, shock, and blood coagulation. Answer: endotoxin Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.14 8) Persons with asymptomatic infections may be (contaminants/reservoirs/zoonoses) of disease. Answer: reservoirs Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Reservoirs of Infectious Diseases in Humans Learning Outcome: 14.5 9) Pathogens in droplets of body fluids are spread by (contact/indirect/vehicle) transmission. Answer: contact Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Modes of Infectious Disease Transmission Learning Outcome: 14.16 10) Nausea is an example of a (sign/symptom/syndrome) of disease. Answer: symptom Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.11 11) The bacterium that causes cholera is capable of living independently in freshwater. As a consequence, cholera epidemics primarily involve (animal/nonliving/zoonotic) reservoirs. Answer: nonliving Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Reservoirs of Infectious Diseases in Humans Learning Outcome: 14.5 16 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

12) The study of the cause of disease is known as (epidemiology/etiology/pathology). Answer: etiology Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.12 13) A (chronic/latent/subclinical) infection is one in which the microbe is actively reproducing but not causing symptoms. Answer: subclinical Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Classification of Infectious Diseases Learning Outcome: 14.20 14) In early 2014, West African countries began diagnosing and reporting cases of Ebola for the first time in their history. This is an example of a(n) (endemic/epidemic/sporadic) disease. Answer: epidemic Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Epidemiology of Infectious Diseases Learning Outcome: 14.24 15) Virions attach to a target host cell by means of (capsules/capsids/ligands). Answer: ligands Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Invasion and Establishment of Microbes in Hosts: Infection Learning Outcome: 14.8 16) A patient has an upper GI endoscopic procedure and later develops a severe (endogenous/iatrogenic/secondary) infection with the Gram-negative pathogen known as CRE. Answer: iatrogenic Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Epidemiology of Infectious Diseases Learning Outcome: 14.28

14.4 Essay Questions 1) Compare and contrast analytical, descriptive and experimental epidemiology. Answer: A goal shared by all three is determining the source of disease. Descriptive epidemiology is often the first step, and is primarily records of observations. The observations may be highly detailed. Infection control clinicians and public health officials observe and record cases of disease with similar features. They will also record other observations, such as similar environments visited or materials ingested by all patients. John Snow's investigation of the London cholera outbreak is an example. Early reports of Ebola in West Africa in 2014 is another. Experimental epidemiology tests hypotheses about the relationship between microbes and disease. Koch's identification of Bacillus anthracis as the cause of anthrax in animals is an example. Clinical testing of medications or vaccines are other examples. Analytical epidemiology is analysis of data produced by either descriptive epidemiology or experimental epidemiology. This type of analysis is sometimes used in situations in which the application is not possible or ethical. Analytical and experimental epidemiology are often interconnected: a hypothesis developed with analytical epidemiology may then be tested using experimental epidemiologic methods. Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Epidemiology of Infectious Diseases Learning Outcome: 14.25 2) Researchers have proposed that the herpes virus responsible for the childhood illness roseola may cause a type of T cell leukemia. Ninety percent of the population has been infected by the virus by two years of age, but the T cell leukemia is relatively rare. The virus can be cultured in the laboratory in tissue culture, but not in mature organisms. Discuss the obstacles to applying Koch's postulates to the etiology of this disease. Answer: Koch's first postulate, that the suspect agent must be present in every case of disease, is met, but far more people have the virus than have the disease. This suggests that more than the presence of the virus is necessary for the leukemia to develop, and the additional factors may be difficult to identify. The third postulate states that the isolated suspect agent must cause disease when introduced into a host. This situation presents two difficulties in satisfying the third postulate. The first is that it is unethical to deliberately expose humans to an agent that may produce life-threatening disease (the leukemia). Additionally, ethical concerns aside, because such a large percentage of the population has been exposed to the virus, a large pool of potential uninfected subjects does not exist. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.13

3) Describe three types of reservoirs of infectious disease in humans. Give an example disease for each type of reservoir. Answer: For a pathogen to enter a new host, it must survive in some site from which it can infect the new host. These sites are considered reservoirs, which include the following: 1. Animal reservoirs, such as domestic or wild animals. Examples: Lyme disease, rabies, West Nile fever 2. Human carriers, which are individuals who are infectious and may be either asymptomatic or symptomatic. Examples: AIDS, tuberculosis, typhoid fever 3. Nonliving reservoirs, such as soil, water, and food. Examples: botulism, cholera, tetanus Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Reservoirs of Infectious Diseases in Humans Learning Outcome: 14.5 4) In 2012, a new kind of fungal meningitis (infection of the nervous system) was discovered. Disease occurred among patients who had received steroid injections in the spine. Discuss whether these were healthcare-associated infections (HAIs): defend your answer. Discuss the route of transmission and what measures public health agencies could take to reduce disease. Answer: The fungal meningitis of 2012 was an HAI, of the iatrogenic type. It was introduced by the parenteral route. Public health agencies can educate health care providers about the source of the infections and how patients should be accessed and treated. They can stop the distribution of the suspect medication and determine what production standards may need to be enforced. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Epidemiology and Public Health Learning Outcome: 14.7, 14.28, 14.29 5) Compare and contrast endotoxins and exotoxins. Answer: Both endotoxins and exotoxins are produced by Gram-negative bacteria. Exotoxins are also produced by Gram-positive bacteria. Endotoxins and exotoxins differ in their mechanism of release and composition: exotoxins are proteins or peptides that are secreted, leaving the cell intact, whereas endotoxins are lipids released only when the cell dies because they are a part of the outer membrane. The toxicity of exotoxins is higher than that of endotoxins, but both can be fatal. Both are heat stable, but endotoxins can survive an hour of autoclaving at 121°C, whereas exotoxins are not stable above 60°C. Exotoxins produce a strong immune response, and therefore toxoid immunization is possible. Endotoxins produce fever, but only a weak immune response, so toxoid immunization is not an option. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.14

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 5e (Bauman) Chapter 15 Innate Immunity 15.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The first and second lines of defense against microbial invasion are part of A) innate immunity. B) adaptive immunity. C) species resistance. D) microbial antagonism. E) both species resistance and adaptive immunity. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: An Overview of the Body's Defenses Learning Outcome: 15.1 2) The second line of defense against invading microbes includes A) the skin. B) mucous membranes. C) antibodies. D) phagocytic white blood cells. E) microbiota. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: An Overview of the Body's Defenses Learning Outcome: 15.1 3) Response to specific pathogens that can improve with subsequent exposure is A) the first line of defense. B) the second line of defense. C) the third line of defense. D) microbial antagonism. E) innate immunity. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.1

4) Which of the following cells increase in number during an infection with parasitic worms? A) basophils B) macrophages C) neutrophils D) eosinophils E) lymphocytes Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.10 5) Which of the following areas of the body have mucous membranes? A) mouth B) nasal cavity C) urinary system D) mouth and nasal cavity E) mouth, nasal cavity, and urinary system Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Body's First Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.4 6) Protection from infection known as species resistance is a result of A) the lack of suitable environment in the body. B) the absence of receptors required for microbial attachment. C) the presence of phagocytes in the tissues. D) the salty, acidic condition of normal skin. E) both the absence of necessary receptors and lack of suitable environment in the body. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: An Overview of the Body's Defenses Learning Outcome: 15.2 7) Which of the following statements regarding the surface of the skin is FALSE? A) It has sebum as a coating. B) It has normal microbiota. C) It has goblet cells. D) It is salty. E) It is acidic. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's First Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.3

8) Which of the following contributes to protecting the eyes from microbial invasion? A) Tears contain lysozyme and salt. B) A mucus layer traps and removes microbes. C) Tears mechanically flush particles from the eyes. D) Tears contain lysozyme and salt and mechanically flush particles from the eyes. E) Tears and mucus combine to trap microbes and remove them. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's First Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.6 9) Which of the following is the best definition of "microbial antagonism"? A) the presence of pathogens on the surface of the skin, which will invade the body through abrasions B) the presence of normal microbiota that protect the body by competing with pathogens in a variety of ways to prevent pathogens from invading the body C) the presence of normal microbiota that can become pathogens under certain conditions D) the ability of microbiota to mutate into pathogens E) the presence of resident bacteria on the surface of the body and in cavities that connect to the surface Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's First Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.7 10) Mucous membranes are quite thin and fragile. How can such delicate tissue provide defense against microbial invaders? A) The mucus secreted by the mucous membrane physically traps microbes. B) The mucus contains a variety of antimicrobial chemicals and molecules. C) Both the mucus and the outer layer of cells are shed frequently. D) The mucus is a physical trap that contains a variety of antimicrobial chemicals. E) The mucus physically traps microbes, contains a variety of antimicrobial chemicals, and is shed constantly, along with the outermost layer of cells. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: The Body's First Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.5

11) What antibacterial chemical is present in tear fluid? A) antibodies B) complement C) defensins D) lysozyme E) interferon Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Body's First Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.6 12) Which of the following statements about eosinophil function is CORRECT? A) They produce defensins. B) They secrete toxins onto virally infected cells. C) They are involved in the removal of neoplastic cells. D) They attach to the surface of parasitic helminths and produce toxins that kill the parasite. E) They identify and spare normal cells. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.13 13) Antimicrobial peptides called ________ are secreted in sweat and damage bacteria and fungi. A) antibodies B) dermcidins C) TLRs D) complement factors E) cytokines Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's First Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.3 14) The complement cascade and its by-products contribute to A) attracting phagocytes to sites of infection. B) triggering inflammation. C) triggering release of interferons. D) triggering inflammation and release of interferons. E) both triggering inflammation and attracting phagocytes to sites of infection. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.17

15) Cells of the second line of defense called ________ recognize and kill virus-infected cells. A) basophils B) eosinophils C) macrophages D) NK cells E) dendritic cells Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.13 16) The process of phagocytosis involve all of the following EXCEPT A) chemotaxis. B) secretion of cytotoxins. C) adhesion. D) elimination. E) vesicle fusion. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.12 17) Mannose sugar occurs on the surface of some bacteria and fungi and can trigger the A) release of cytotoxins by NK cells. B) release of histamines by basophils. C) classical pathway of complement activation. D) lectin pathway of complement activation. E) release of NETs by neutrophils. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.17 18) Which of the following are phagocytic cells descended from monocytes? A) alveolar macrophages B) dendritic cells C) microglial cells D) alveolar macrophages and dendritic cells E) alveolar macrophages and microglial cells Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.11

19) Which of the following cells is a component of the body's first line defense? A) monocyte B) goblet cell C) NK cell D) neutrophil E) microglial cells Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's First Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.3 20) Which of the following leukocytes are called "agranulocytes" because of the absence of granules in their cytoplasm revealed by basic or acidic dyes? A) eosinophils B) basophils C) lymphocytes D) neutrophils E) both basophils and eosinophils Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.10 21) Which cell becomes a macrophage when leaving the bloodstream? A) monocyte B) lymphocyte C) basophil D) eosinophil E) neutrophil Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.10 22) The components of the second line of defense against microbes may be characterized as A) responders to invasion. B) passive barriers. C) mechanisms to strengthen the first line of defense. D) detecting the unique features of specific pathogens. E) both passive barriers and detecting specific pathogen features. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.9

23) Which of the following proteins are part of the first line of defense against microbial invasion? A) dermcidins B) TLRs C) NOD proteins D) C3 and C5 E) interferons Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Body's First Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.8 24) Which of the following are among the activities of neutrophils? A) formation of neutrophil extracellular traps B) release of histamines C) enzyme production that leads to the formation of nitric oxide D) formation of neutrophil extracellular traps and release of histamines E) formation of neutrophil extracellular traps and production of nitric oxide Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.13 25) Which of the following is an iron-binding protein produced by pathogens to access the body's store of iron? A) gastroferritin B) hemolysin C) ferritin D) transferrin E) siderophores Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.10 26) Which of the following statements regarding phagocyte recognition of pathogens is TRUE? A) TLRs in the phagocyte cytoplasmic membrane bind surface structures of microbes. B) TLRs on the surface of microbes trigger the accumulation of opsonins. C) Lectins on the surface of microbes are bound by chemokine receptors. D) NOD proteins on the surface of microbes are detected by TLRs. E) MACs on the surface of microbes are detected by NOD proteins. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.14

27) Alpha and beta interferons A) help protect virus-infected cells from the effects of the pathogen. B) protect the cells that secrete them from being invaded by a virus. C) are produced by infected fibroblasts and macrophages. D) produce active antiviral proteins (AVPs) that coat the surface of healthy cells and prevent the attachment of pathogenic viruses. E) produce no adverse effects in the body. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.16 28) What are NOD proteins? A) cytoplasmic receptors of microbial molecules B) cellular signals triggering inflammation C) receptors of microbial molecules in phagocyte cell membranes D) activators of complement E) chemotactic factors Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.15 29) The alternative pathway of complement cascade activation begins with ________ binding to the surface of a microbe. A) C1 B) factor B C) C3b D) C5a E) C5b Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.17 30) Fever is beneficial during viral infection because the higher temperature A) inactivates interferons. B) increases vasodilation, contributing to inflammation. C) increases sweating and consequently the barrier effect. D) prevents viral infection of fibroblasts. E) increases the effectiveness of interferons. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.19

31) Which of the following substances contributes to the edema associated with inflammation? A) leukotrienes B) histamine C) interferon D) defensin E) both leukotrienes and histamine Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.18 32) Which of the following is NOT an example of a walled-off site of infection that contains a fluid made of dead and dying tissue cells, leukocytes, and pathogens? A) a boil B) an abscess C) a pimple D) a pustule E) a tumor Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.18 33) How does aspirin act to decrease the symptoms of inflammation? A) It acts as an antiprostaglandin. B) It is an antitoxoid for most microbial toxins. C) It prevents complement activation. D) It interferes with the action of interferons. E) It blocks the release of histamine. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.18 34) Which of the following are macrophage functions? A) phagocytosis of pathogens and debris B) release of alpha interferon C) production of NETs D) phagocytosis of pathogens and production of NETs E) phagocytosis of pathogens and secretion of alpha interferons and leukotrienes Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.18

35) Which of the following acts as a chemotactic factor? A) C5a B) interferon β C) leukotriene D) MAC E) factor P Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.17 36) The phenomenon known as chemotaxis is defined as A) the squeezing of cells through the lining of capillaries. B) the release of prostaglandins and leukotrienes in response to microbes. C) the movement of a cell toward or away from a chemical stimulus. D) the coating of a pathogen by complement. E) an increase in allergies and helminth infection. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.12 37) Opsonization is A) the coating of a pathogen by complement to facilitate phagocytosis. B) the sticking of monocytes to the wall of the blood vessels at the site of infection. C) damage resulting in cell lysis. D) nonspecific leukocyte secretion of toxins onto the surface of virally infected cells. E) phagocyte receptors detecting PAMPs. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.12 38) Proteins on the surface of phagocytes called ________ aid in the detection of pathogen molecules. A) lectins B) TLRs C) NOD proteins D) lectins and C3 protein E) both TLRs and NOD proteins Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.14

39) A type of lymphocyte called a(n) ________ detects cells with abnormal surface proteins and kills them. A) eosinophil B) NK cell C) neutrophil D) basophil E) mast cell Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.13 40) Which of the following statements is TRUE of eosinophils? A) They are in intact skin, sebum, tears, etc. B) They produce the coating of a pathogen by complement. C) They secrete toxins onto the surface of helminth parasites. D) They decline during allergic reaction. E) They release prostaglandins and leukotrienes in response to microbes. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.13 41) Microbial molecules detected by phagocytes are called A) TLRs. B) NODs. C) PAMPs. D) leukotrienes. E) prostaglandins. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.14 42) TLRs are A) phagocyte receptors that detect PAMPs. B) the coatings of pathogens by complement. C) molecules that damage cells, resulting in cell lysis. D) present in intact skin, sebum, tears, etc. E) nonspecific leukocytes that secrete toxins onto the surface of virally infected cells. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.14

43) The leukocytes called natural killer lymphocytes A) release prostaglandins and leukotrienes in response to microbes. B) increase in allergies and helminth infection. C) respond to the coating of a pathogen by complement. D) are nonspecific leukocytes that secrete toxins onto the surface of virus-infected cells. E) are specialists in killing bacteria. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.13 44) First line of defense may be described as A) the release of prostaglandins and leukotrienes in response to microbes. B) intact skin, mucous membranes, sebum, tears, and so forth. C) damage resulting in cell lysis. D) the coating of a pathogen by complement. E) nonspecific leukocytes that secrete toxins onto the surface of virally infected cells. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Body's First Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.3, 15.5, 15.6 45) Sebum contains ________ which contributes to creating an inhospitable environment on the surface of the body. A) lysozyme B) collagens C) acids D) salts E) bile Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's First Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.3 15.2 True/False Questions 1) Interferons alpha and beta are effective against viruses. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.16 2) The resident microbiota have no role in defense against pathogen invasion. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's First Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.7 12 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

3) Sweat can cause damage to bacteria because it contains salt and lysozyme. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's First Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.3 4) The phenomenon known as species resistance is a highly specific defense against infectious agents. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: An Overview of the Body's Defenses Learning Outcome: 15.2 5) Some toll-like receptors (TLRs) are found on the surface of host cells and recognize specific microbial molecules. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.14 6) Innate immunity is not effective against fungus infections. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.3, 15.17 7) Acute inflammation is normally beneficial. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.18 8) The growth of some microbes is inhibited by elevated body temperature. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.19 9) Neutrophils can kill bacteria by nonphagocytic mechanisms. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.13

10) Inflammation is an important part of the body's first line of defense, and it involves migration of phagocytes to the area. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.18 15.3 Short Answer Questions 1) White blood cells known as (basophils/lymphocytes/neutrophils) are the main cells involved in the third line of defense. Answer: lymphocytes Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: An Overview of the Body's Defenses Learning Outcome: 15.1 2) The absence of necessary receptors is the basis of the defense against microbial invasion known as (natural/innate/species) resistance. Answer: species Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: An Overview of the Body's Defenses Learning Outcome: 15.2 3) Sweat glands produce (lysozyme/dermcidin/acid), which destroys the cell wall of bacteria by cleaving the bonds between the sugar subunits. Answer: lysozyme Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's First Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.3 4) The (epithelial/goblet/mucous) cells in the tracheal mucous membrane produce mucus. Answer: goblet Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Body's First Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.5 5) The oily substance that lowers the pH of the skin's surface to about pH 5 and is inhibitory to many bacteria is (sebum/sweat/serum). Answer: sebum Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's First Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.3

6) The normal microbiota interact with potential pathogens in a variety of ways to protect the body, creating a situation known as microbial (antagonism/competition/resistance). Answer: antagonism Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Body's First Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.7 7) In a process called (cytokinesis/hematopoiesis/hematocrit), blood stem cells located in the bone marrow produce the three types of formed elements found in the blood. Answer: hematopoiesis Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.10 8) Nonphagocytic (eosinophils/monocytes/NK cells) are a type of lymphocyte which produce toxins to kill abnormal cells. Answer: NK cells Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.13 9) Neutrophils use their own (DNA/RNA/TLR) in the formation of NETs to trap bacteria. Answer: DNA Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.13 10) Proteins produced by the innate immune response to fight virus infection are (complement/interferons/opsonins). Answer: interferons Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.16 11) Eosinophils respond to (complement/lipopolysaccharide/histamines) and kill bacteria in a nonphagocytic process. Answer: lipopolysaccharide Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.13 12) Macrophages release (bradykinin/histamine/prostaglandin) in response to microbes and thereby contribute to acute inflammation. Answer: prostaglandin Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.18 15 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

13) Intracellular PAMPs are detected by (C1/NOD/TLR) proteins. (Be sure to use capital letters in your answer.) Answer: NOD Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.15 14) Intact skin layers are part of the body's (first/second/third) line of defense against pathogens. Answer: first Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's First Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.3 15) Some pathogens produce toxins which function as (histamines/prostaglandins/pyrogens) to cause fever. Answer: pyrogens Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.19 15.4 Essay Questions 1) Describe the events of the acute inflammatory response and their effect on a site of infection. Include the cells and chemicals involved. Answer: The events of the acute inflammatory response are vasodilation and increased permeability of the capillaries. Vasodilation is triggered when damaged cells release histamines and bradykinin is produced during blood clot formation. The vasodilation permits increased blood flow into the area of infection, which brings more blood components (molecular and cellular) to the area and also causes the area to become red and warmer. The increased permeability allows the blood components to enter the tissue more readily. Increased plasma flow results in swelling (edema) and also increases the content of complement factors in the tissue. The increased fluid flow into the tissue creates a pressure barrier that can slow the spread of microbes. The complement cascade triggered by the presence of bacteria releases chemotactic factors. Leukocytes entering the area of inflammation marginate and diapedese in response to chemotactic factors (produced by the complement cascade and by damaged cells). These events result in a concentration of defensive factors at a site of infection and some containment of microbes in an effort to defeat the invading microbes. Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.18

2) What are macrophages, and what are their functions? Answer: Macrophages are one of the principal phagocytic cells in the second line of defense. They are monocytes that have left the bloodstream and entered tissues. They are named according to their location in the body: wandering macrophages, alveolar macrophages (in the lungs), microglia (in the nervous system), and others. These phagocytes provide some protection against infection by phagocytizing microbes and are scavengers that clean the tissues of dead cells, debris, and inert foreign material (dust, etc). Macrophages also play a role in triggering acute inflammation by releasing various inflammatory chemicals when microbes are detected by means of TLRs (extracellular molecules) and NODs (intracellular molecules resulting from phagocytosis). Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.10, 15.11, 15.14, 15.15 3) Describe at least three physical mechanisms that are part of the first line of defense. Answer: Physical mechanisms include the skin, the mucous membranes, and the variety of fluids that are produced by the body. The skin acts as a key element in the first line of defense for several reasons. First, the skin has many layers of protection that few microbes can penetrate. Second, these layers are shed, removing potential pathogens. Third, the epidermis has epidermal dendritic cells that are phagocytic. The mucous membranes also play a role for a variety of reasons. They contain tightly packed cells that are continually shed and replaced. In addition, the production of mucus acts to trap pathogens, and the cilia, which are often present, beat synchronously to remove microbes. Bodily fluids serve to dilute and wash away microbes. These fluids include tears, saliva, urine, vaginal secretions, blood, and menstrual flow. Other physical processes include defecation and vomiting. Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's First Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.3, 15.5, 15.6

Examine the WBC count and differential data in Table 15.1. What type of disease is indicated by this set of data? Answer: The overall elevation of WBC indicates an infection. The elevated lymphocyte proportion along with the slightly low neutrophil count is consistent with viral infections. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.10 5) What is phagocytosis? What does it involve? Answer: Phagocytosis is a process by which a cell can engulf substances and internalize them into the cytoplasm. Cells that are capable of phagocytosis are collectively known as phagocytes and include neutrophils, eosinophils, dendritic cells, and macrophages. Phagocytosis is part of the body's second line of defense, and it is nonspecific. It includes the following steps: Chemotaxis: A cell moves either toward or away from a chemical stimulus. Adherence: The phagocyte attaches to the pathogen, through binding of complementary chemicals on the membranes of the pathogen. Ingestion: After the pseudopodia adhere to the pathogen, the encompassed microbe is internalized as the pseudopodia fuse to form a sac called a phagosome. Digestion: Lysosomes with over 30 digestive enzymes attach to the phagosome and break down the microbe. At the end of this process, the remains of the phagosome are known as the residual body. Elimination: The phagocyte rids itself of undigested material by exocytosis, which is the opposite of ingestion. Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.12 18 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 5e (Bauman) Chapter 16 Adaptive Immunity 16.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following is a characteristic of the third line of defense that makes it significantly different from the second line? A) The response is specific to a single antigen. B) The initial response is very rapid, beginning in minutes to a couple of hours. C) The response is effective on a broad range of antigens. D) The response to a second exposure is similar to the response to a first exposure. E) The responding cells are a variety of cell types. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Overview of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.1 2) Adaptive immunity is sometimes also called acquired immunity. Which of the following statements provides a basis for the alternative name? A) Lymphocytes of the adaptive immune system are highly specific for a single epitope. B) Activated lymphocytes produce daughter cells that are identical in specificity and function. C) To become activated, lymphocytes require exposure to the epitope for which they are specific. D) Activated lymphocytes may persist for years in the body. E) Lymphocytes reactive to normal body components are removed. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Overview of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.1 3) Which of the following is an exogenous antigen? A) a bacterium inside a cell B) a virus inside a cell C) a bacterium outside a cell D) a noninfected human cell E) the malaria parasite inside a red blood cell Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.8

4) Which of the following statements about lymphocytes is FALSE? A) Once they are mature, they migrate to secondary lymphoid organs. B) B and T lymphocytes can be differentiated using a bright-field light microscope. C) Lymphocytes have integral surface proteins by which they can be recognized. D) The glycoproteins on the surface of a lymphocyte are designated with the prefix CD, for "cluster of differentiation." E) Lymphocytes have different types of CD molecules in their cytoplasmic membranes. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Overview of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.2 5) The majority of mature, self-tolerant lymphocytes are found in A) the MALT. B) lymph nodes. C) the thymus. D) the spleen. E) the tonsils. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.6 6) Which of the following is NOT included in the MALT? A) the appendix B) the spleen C) Peyer's patches D) lymphoid tissue in the respiratory tract E) lymphoid tissue in the small intestine Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.5 7) The white blood cells primarily responsible for adaptive immunity are A) NK lymphocytes and neutrophils. B) B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes. C) macrophages and eosinophils. D) macrophages and neutrophils. E) neutrophils and dendritic cells. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Overview of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.2

8) You step on something in the yard resulting in a puncture wound that does not bleed freely. Antigens from any microbes that entered the wound will most likely end up in the A) appendix. B) lymph nodes of the groin. C) lymph nodes of the neck (cervical). D) lymph nodes of the armpit (axilla). E) spleen. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.4 9)

The type of immunoglobulin illustrated in Figure 16.1 is A) IgE. B) IgG. C) IgA. D) IgM. E) IgD. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.18 10) Which of the following statements concerning the chemical structure of an antibody is FALSE? A) Antibodies are formed of four polypeptide chains. B) Antibodies have two long peptide chains known as heavy chains. C) Antibodies have two short peptide chains known as light chains. D) The stem and arm are connected by a hinge. E) The heavy and light chains are connected by hydrogen bonds. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.17 3 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

11) The antibody-binding site of an antibody is made up of A) portions of both of the heavy chains only. B) the variable regions of the heavy chains. C) the light chains only. D) the variable regions of both light and heavy chains. E) one heavy chain. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.17 12) Cell-mediated immunity is a function of A) NK cells. B) T lymphocytes. C) B lymphocytes. D) dendritic cells. E) macrophages. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Overview of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.3 13) Which of the following statements regarding antibody function is FALSE? A) They can prevent virus attachment to host cells. B) They can facilitate phagocyte attack on bacteria with a capsule (glycocalyx). C) They can penetrate host cells to bind intracellular antigens. D) They can facilitate cytotoxic attack by natural killer lymphocytes. E) They can bind more than one pathogen at a time, forming complexes. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.18 14) Secretory IgA antibodies are unique because they A) have unique light chains. B) are Y-shaped molecules. C) are present in the plasma. D) are connected with J chains and short polypeptides to form dimers. E) are present in lymph nodes. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.18

15) The most prevalent antibody class in the blood is A) IgD. B) IgM. C) IgA. D) IgG. E) IgE. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.18 16) Which of the following function in agglutination? A) IgA antibodies B) IgG antibodies C) IgE antibodies D) IgD antibodies E) IgA and IgG antibodies Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.18 17) Which of the following statements concerning B cell receptors (BCRs) is FALSE? A) They are formed in response to an encounter with an antigen. B) They are complementary in shape to a specific antigenic determinant that they may or may not encounter. C) They are bound to the surface of B lymphocytes and have two antigen-binding sites. D) Each B lymphocyte is randomly generated with antibody variable regions that determine its BCR. E) Scientists estimate that each person forms at least 1011 different types of B lymphocytes with distinct BCRs. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.16 18) Which of the following statements about T lymphocytes is FALSE? A) T lymphocytes produce antibody molecules. B) T lymphocytes directly attack cells and produce the cell-mediated immune response. C) T lymphocytes are called such because they mature in the thymus. D) T lymphocytes have TCRs that recognize antigen only if it is bound to MHC. E) There are three types of T lymphocytes. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.13 5 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

19) Which of the following cytokines act as a signal between leukocytes? A) growth factors B) interferons C) interleukins D) tumor necrosis factors E) chemokines Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.20 20) Clonal deletion of developing T lymphocytes takes place in which location(s) in the body? A) the bone marrow B) the spleen C) the liver D) both the bone marrow and the spleen E) the thymus Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.15 21)

Figure 16.2 illustrates an interaction between a(n) A) antigen presenting cell and a B lymphocyte. B) antigen presenting cell and a T lymphocyte. C) NK cell and its target cell. D) CTL and its target cell. E) antigen presenting cell and a plasma cell. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Antibody Immune Responses Learning Outcome: 16.26 6 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

22) Major histocompatibility antigens are A) antigens that provoke allergic reactions. B) antigens that must be processed to be recognized by the immune system. C) antigens attached to foreign invaders. D) autoantigens involved in epitope recognition. E) not really antigens, but rather antibodies produced to mask foreign antigens. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.9 23) The lymphocytes of adaptive immunity called ________ mature in the red bone marrow. A) T cells B) B cells C) NK cells D) dendritic cells E) macrophages Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Overview of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.2 24) Class I MHC molecules are essential for A) presentation of endogenous antigens. B) recognition of chemokines. C) detection of IL-2. D) recognition of class II MHC. E) presentation of exogenous antigens. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.10 25) Class II MHC are found on A) the skin. B) red blood cells. C) cytoplasmic membranes of nucleated cells. D) muscle cells. E) professional antigen-presenting cells. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.10

26) Exogenous antigens are processed for immune recognition by ________ cells. A) dendritic B) all nucleated C) macrophage D) helper T E) dendritic and macrophage Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.11 27) Which of the following recognizes and binds to MHC I proteins and helps stabilize the binding of epitopes to T cell receptors? A) CD8 B) MHC I C) CD26 D) CD4 E) CD95 Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Cell-Mediated Immune Responses Learning Outcome: 16.21 28) Which of the following statements concerning plasma cells is FALSE? A) They live for many years and function as memory cells. B) They are descended from activated B cells. C) They can produce large quantities of antibodies on a daily basis. D) They secrete a single type of antibody molecule specific for a single epitope. E) The antibodies they produce can remain in circulation for weeks. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Antibody Immune Responses Learning Outcome: 16.25 29) Enhanced immune responses to subsequent exposures to an antigen to which the body has already been exposed are known as ________ responses. A) third-degree immune B) allergic C) primary immune D) memory E) autoimmune Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Antibody Immune Responses Learning Outcome: 16.27

30) Which of the following statements regarding the cell-mediated immune response is TRUE? A) Cytotoxic T lymphocytes do not require antigen presentation to become activated. B) Cytotoxic T lymphocytes interact with antibodies that have bound antigen to identify their target. C) Helper T lymphocytes have no role in the activation of cytotoxic T lymphocytes. D) Cytotoxic T lymphocytes kill by producing hydrogen peroxide. E) A single cytotoxic T lymphocyte can kill many target cells. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Cell-Mediated Immune Responses Learning Outcome: 16.22 31) The protozoan that causes malaria is an intracellular parasite of red blood cells (RBCs). An adaptive immune response to this parasite is problematic because A) red blood cells do not produce MHC and, therefore, do not display the fact that they have been infected by presenting antigen. B) the parasite damages leukocytes along with RBCs. C) RBCs normally produce cytokines necessary for adaptive immune response, which this infection prevents. D) complement cannot effectively destroy RBCs. E) RBCs never enter lymphoid tissue. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.9 32) The perforin-granzyme pathway involves A) the production of fever, which kills the pathogen. B) the production of antibodies toward the invading pathogen. C) the production of special cell-killing proteins that act on infected or abnormal cells. D) presenting the foreign antigen to B cells. E) binding CD95L to infected cells, which eventually leads to cell apoptosis. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Cell-Mediated Immune Responses Learning Outcome: 16.22

33) The immunological synapse refers to the A) interaction between a T cell and an antigen-presenting cell to produce a specialized cell-tocell contact area. B) activation of a B cell to become a plasma cell. C) interaction between lymphocytes and foreign antigens to produce memory cells. D) binding of a monocyte or macrophage to antigen so that it can act as an antigen-presenting cell. E) interaction of the many cytokines produced by different immunological cells. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Cell-Mediated Immune Responses Learning Outcome: 16.21 34) What type of immunity is produced by the body when a person contracts a disease? A) innate immunity B) naturally acquired passive immunity C) artificially acquired active immunity D) artificially acquired passive immunity E) naturally acquired active immunity Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Types of Acquired Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.28 35) A sick child may have influenza or RSV. These virus infections have different treatment options, so the physician requests antibody titer tests. The results are as follows: anti-influenza antibodies are primarily IgM, and anti-RSV antibodies are all IgA and IgG. Which of the following is the most appropriate interpretation? A) The child has a current RSV infection and was previously exposed to influenza. B) The child currently has influenza and has previously been exposed to RSV. C) The child has concurrent influenza and RSV infections. D) The child has neither influenza nor RSV. E) The results do not provide sufficient data to draw a conclusion. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.18

36) Which of the following statements regarding the lymphatic system is FALSE? A) Lymph fluid is similar to blood plasma. B) The lymphatic vessels contract to move lymphatic fluid. C) The lymphatic vessels have valves to control the direction of fluid flow. D) The lymphatic system begins with highly permeable capillaries. E) Fluid flows through lymph nodes on its way to the bloodstream. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.4 37) What is the role of interleukins? A) chemotaxis of leukocytes B) production of virally infected cells C) ensuring production of enough leukocytes D) signaling between leukocytes E) complement activation Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.20 38) Which of the following cytokines promotes the development of a cell-mediated immune response? A) alpha interferon B) chemokines C) tumor necrosis factor (TNF) D) IL-4 (interleukin-4) E) IL-12 Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Cell-Mediated Immune Responses Learning Outcome: 16.21 39) What is the result when a dendritic cell phagocytizes a microbe and processes it? A) activation of the dendritic cell to become a plasma cell B) display of epitope-MHC I complexes on the surface of the cell C) suppression of the immune response to the microbe D) display of microbial fragments with CD8 glycoproteins E) display of microbial epitope-MHC II complexes on the cell surface Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.11

40) Which of the following is TRUE of chemokines? A) They ensure production of enough leukocytes. B) They are involved in B lymphocyte activation and differentiation. C) They are chemotactic factors for leukocytes. D) They cause basophils and eosinophils to degranulate. E) They are substances used to signal between leukocytes. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.20 41) Vaccination triggers an immune response which produces ________ immunity. A) artificial passive B) natural passive C) natural active D) artificial active E) both active and passive Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Types of Acquired Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.28 42) Which of the following best describes IgM antibodies? A) They cause basophils and eosinophils to degranulate. B) They are the most common type of antibody in the blood during the initial stages of an immune response. C) They are the antibody class found in body secretions. D) They interact with phagocytes and NK cells. E) They can cross the placenta to provide passive immunity. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.18 43) IgE antibodies are best described as A) a cause of basophil and eosinophil degranulation. B) the antibodies found in body secretions. C) those involved in complement activation. D) the trigger for antibody-dependent cellular toxicity (ADCC). E) the most common type of antibody in the blood during the initial phases of an immune response. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.18

44) How is the development of autoimmunity normally prevented? A) T lymphocytes that respond to autoantigens in the thymus undergo clonal deletion. B) T lymphocytes require a specific set of cytokine signals to become activated. C) Regulatory T cells suppress autoimmune responses. D) Clonal deletion of T cells and regulatory T cell suppression prevent autoreactive T cell activation. E) Clonal deletion of T cells, lack of necessary cytokine signals, and regulatory T cell suppression prevent activation of autoreactive T cells. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.15 45) Which of the following is the result when a CTL interacts with a virally infected cell? A) The cell releases interferon-gamma (INF-γ). B) The cell undergoes apoptosis. C) The CTL produces oxidizing chemicals. D) The CTL produces IL-12. E) The cell produces MHC II with epitope attached. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Cell-Mediated Immune Responses Learning Outcome: 16.22 16.2 True/False Questions 1) Blood plasma enters the lymphatic capillaries directly from circulatory capillaries. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.4 2) The adaptive immune response requires exposure to specific epitopes for activation. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Overview of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.1 3) IgG antibodies can carry out all five antibody functions. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.18

4) The MALT lacks the tough outer capsule of a lymph node but functions in the same way. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.6 5) A single B lymphocyte can recognize multiple antigenic determinants. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.16 6) Immature B lymphocytes undergo clonal deletion in the bone marrow. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.19 7) CTLs use the CD95 molecule to recognize their epitope. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Cell-Mediated Immune Responses Learning Outcome: 16.22 8) Cytokines are soluble regulatory proteins that act as intercellular signals and include substances such as interleukins, interferon, and growth factors. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.20 9) During an infection with Listeria, an intracellular bacterium, APCs will present antigen on MHC II molecules. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.11 10) When a T cell's CD95L binds to the CD95 on a target cell, antibodies are formed. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Cell-Mediated Immune Responses Learning Outcome: 16.22

16.3 Short Answer Questions 1) The third line of defense is called (adaptive/clonal/self-tolerant) because it does not normally respond to autoantigens. Answer: self-tolerant Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Overview of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.1 2) Activation of B lymphocytes produces (antibody-mediation/cell-mediated/innate) immune responses. Answer: antibody-mediated Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Overview of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.3 3) The immunologic (agglutination/complex/synapse) forms when MHC molecules and TCR molecules connect. Answer: synapse Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Cell-Mediated Immune Responses Learning Outcome: 16.21 4) The (constant/ hinge/variable) regions from the light and heavy chains of an antibody combine to form antigen-binding sites. Answer: variable Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.17 5) The delay in the initial adaptive immune response to pathogen is largely due to the (inducibility/memory/specificity) of adaptive immunity. Answer: inducibility Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Overview of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.1 6) T lymphocytes mature in the (bone marrow/lymph node/thymus). Answer: thymus Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.12

7) Plasma cells produce (antibody/chemokine/cytotoxic) molecules. Answer: antibody Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.25 8) TCRs only recognize antigens presented by APC; therefore, (BCR/MHC/Th1) molecules ultimately determine which epitopes elicit an immune response. Answer: MHC Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.10 9) The surface of each B lymphocyte is covered with about 250,000 to 500,000 identical copies of (BCR/MHC/TCR). Answer: BCR Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.16 10)

The antibody function known as (agglutination/neutralization/opsonization) is illustrated in Figure 16.3. Answer: opsonization Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.18 11) Professional antigen-presenting cells (APCs) include B cells, macrophages, and (dendritic/plasma/T) cells. Answer: dendritic Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.10

12) T lymphocytes that have both CD4 and CD25 are (cytotoxic/helper/regulatory) T cells. Answer: regulatory Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.14 13) Cytotoxic T lymphocytes insert (CD95/lectin/perforin) into the membranes of the cells they target as a first step in killing. Answer: perforin Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Cell-Mediated Immune Responses Learning Outcome: 16.22 14) B cells are activated when they interact with (antigen-presenting/Th1/Th2) cells. Answer: Th2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Antibody Immune Responses Learning Outcome: 16.25 15) The IgG molecules which cross the placenta and circulate in a baby's bloodstream provide the baby with natural (active/innate/passive) immunity. Answer: passive Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Types of Acquired Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.28 16.4 Essay Questions 1) Discuss the importance of there being two types of adaptive immune responses (antibody and cell-mediated). Answer: Pathogens (and other hazards to the body) vary in type and form. Many pathogens are extracellular parasites while others are intracellular parasites. Large numbers of pathogens are bacteria, and others are eukaryotes. The two different immune responses are effective at targeting different types of antigens. Cell-mediated immunity is directed against endogenous antigens, and therefore intracellular parasites. The antibody immune response primarily targets exogenous antigens and is therefore largely effective against extracellular pathogens. Antibody functions are particularly effective against bacteria. Antibodies can also neutralize non-living hazards like toxins. Consequently, the adaptive immune response against a specific pathogen will primarily involve one or the other type. The immune response is unlikely to be completely onesided in all infections. For example, an intracellular parasite may produce a toxin, so while a cell-mediated immune response will kill infected cells and slow the spread of the pathogen, neutralizing antibodies directed against the toxin will limit the damage done by the toxin. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity, Cell-Mediated Immune Responses, Antibody Immune Responses Learning Outcome: 16.8, 16.11, 16.21, 16.25 17 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

2) A variety of molecular components of the adaptive immune system bind epitopes (antigenic determinants). Compare and contrast the binding of epitopes by antibody molecules, T cell receptors (TCRs), and MHC molecules, and describe the consequences of the different interactions. Answer: MHC molecules bind processed antigen for presentation to lymphocytes. The MHC molecules are also composed of two peptides, analogous to the TCR. MHC I molecules bind endogenous antigenic determinants, that is, portions of molecules synthesized by the cell. MHC I-epitope complexes on the surface of cells are detected by T lymphocytes, leading to cytotoxic attack on the presenting cell by cytotoxic T lymphocytes. MHC II molecules bind antigen fragments produced by digestion of antigens in phagolysosomes (exogenous antigens) and display them to T lymphocytes, which become activated Th1 or Th2 lymphocytes. Only antigens that MHC molecules can bind will elicit a T-cell mediated immune response. T cell receptors (TCRs) are produced by T lymphocytes for detecting processed antigen. The TCR is composed of two peptides. When T lymphocytes encounter presented antigen for which they are specific, they become activated and participate in the adaptive immune response. Helper T lymphocytes produce the interleukins needed to regulate the immune response, and cytotoxic T lymphocytes become killers. Thereafter, cytotoxic T lymphocytes use their TCR to identify target cells to attack. Both MHC and TCR are embedded in the cytoplasmic membrane of the cell expressing them. Antibody molecules produced by B lymphocytes are weapons that either directly damage the antigen they bind or facilitate leukocyte attack on their attached antigen. An antibody molecule epitope binding site is formed by the "variable" regions of two peptides, the heavy chain, and the light chain. Antibody molecules are secreted by the plasma cells into the fluid compartments of the body. The sole exception is a membrane bound IgM or IgD, which functions as an antigen receptor on unactivated B lymphocytes. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.9, 16.13, 16.18 3) What are the steps involved in B cell activation? Answer: B cell activation involves many steps. First, antigen-presenting cells present antigenic determinants to Th cells that have complementary binding sites to the presented antigen. Next, Th cells differentiate into Th2 cells. Then, clonal selection takes place, where only the B cells with BCRs complementary to the antigenic determinants will be recognized. When a BCR on the surface of an unactivated B cell binds its epitope, the BCR-antigen complex is endocytosed, and the B cell then displays the epitope on MHC, behaving as an antigen presenting cell. A complementary Th2 cell binds to the B cell by recognizing its antigenic determinant-MHC II complex and then secretes IL-4, which activates the B cell to proliferate rapidly and produce memory cells and plasma cells. Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Antibody Immune Responses Learning Outcome: 16.25

4) Compare and contrast clonal deletion and clonal selection of B lymphocytes. Answer: Both clonal deletion and clonal selection are screening processes in which the antigen specificity of the B cell receptors are scanned. These screening processes have very different end results. Unactivated B lymphocytes produce their B cell receptor (BCR), which is a membrane-bound version of IgM or an IgD, while still in the bone marrow. Cells in the bone marrow present "self" antigen to the B lymphocytes, and those that respond are "deleted" (undergo apoptosis). Thus, clonal deletion prevents autoreactive B lymphocytes from completing their development. Mature, unactivated B lymphocytes in lymphoid tissue undergo clonal selection. New antigen appearing in the body is bound by BCR specific for it, internalized, and processed for presentation with MHC II. If a Th2 lymphocyte specific for the same antigen detects the presented antigen, the B lymphocyte attached to it is "selected" for activation and clonal expansion (production of many daughter cells). Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Antibody Immune Responses Learning Outcome: 16.19, 16.26 5) Describe the mechanisms of action of antibodies. Answer: Antibodies act against foreign antigens in many ways. In agglutination, several immunoglobulin (antibody) molecules bind two or more microbial cells together, causing them to clump. This process hinders the activity of pathogenic organisms and increases the chances that they will be phagocytized. Antibodies may neutralize toxins produced by pathogens by binding to critical portions of the toxins and preventing them from functioning against the body. Antibodies may bind to virus ligands or bacterial adhesions and prevent the pathogen from attaching to cells of the body. Antibodies also act as opsonins, which are molecules that stimulate phagocytosis. Binding of the antibody to foreign antigens on the surface of cells facilitates the action of natural killer lymphocytes. IgG antibody bound to antigen can become enzymatically active and produce hydrogen peroxide to damage and kill the microbe to which it is bound. IgG and IgM antibodies that have bound antigen can trigger the complement cascade. IgE antibodies trigger the release of chemicals which damage cells and inflammatory chemicals from eosinophils and basophils. Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.18

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 5e (Bauman) Chapter 17 Immunization and Immune Testing 17.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) What is the most efficient and cost-effective way to control infectious diseases? A) variolation B) active immunization by vaccination C) passive immunotherapy using immunoglobulins D) immune testing E) autoimmunization Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension 2) Contact immunity within a population can be produced by ________ vaccines. A) attenuated B) DNA C) inactivated D) subunit E) toxoid Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.4 3) The first true vaccine provided immunity to A) anthrax. B) cholera. C) pertussis. D) rabies. E) smallpox. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.1 4) Development of new vaccines has slowed in recent decades. This is due to A) the ineffectiveness of vaccines against disease. B) the availability of vaccines against nearly all serious diseases. C) the high cost of development. D) the high level of risk with immunization. E) a lack of need with modern medical treatments. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.1 1 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

5) Almost a century after Edward Jenner introduced successful vaccination, Louis Pasteur developed vaccine(s) against A) anthrax. B) human cholera. C) rabies. D) influenza. E) both anthrax and rabies. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.1 6) The discovery of antibodies and the understanding of their actions lead to A) improved vaccine design. B) the development of genetically engineered vaccines. C) improved methods of immunization. D) the development of passive immunotherapy. E) the use of the technique known as variolation. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.1 7) Pathogens may be attenuated for use in vaccines by A) raising the pathogen for several generations in tissue culture cells. B) genetic manipulation. C) treatment with formaldehyde. D) genetic manipulation coupled with treatment with formaldehyde. E) genetic manipulation and/or raising the pathogen for several generations in tissue culture cells. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.2, 17.3 8) The polio vaccine currently administered in the U.S., known as IPV, is an example of a(n) ________ vaccine. A) attenuated B) whole inactivated C) subunit D) toxoid E) recombinant Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.2 2 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

9) Which of the following statements regarding an inactivated vaccine is FALSE? A) It can be produced with deactivated whole microorganisms. B) It can be produced from antigenic fragments of a pathogen. C) It is safer than an attenuated vaccine. D) It is made from mutated forms of the pathogen. E) It is made from pathogens that cannot replicate. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.2 10) Large quantities of pure antigen produced using recombinant DNA technology can be used to prepare ________ vaccines. A) attenuated B) inactived whole C) toxoid D) subunit E) DNA Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.3 11) Killed vaccines work by stimulating A) an antibody response. B) phagocytic activity. C) the cell-mediated immune response. D) cytotoxic T cells. E) lymphocyte proliferation. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.2 12) Which of the following substances is commonly used to inactivate microbes? A) formaldehyde B) alcohol C) synthetic detergents D) fluorescent dyes E) alum Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.2

13) What type of vaccine is the hepatitis B vaccine? A) inactivated whole pathogen B) attenuated vaccine C) toxoid vaccine D) a recombinant vaccine composed of a single antigen of the hepatitis virus E) a vaccine produced by treating the virus with formaldehyde Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.3 14) Which of the following statements regarding toxoids is FALSE? A) They are produced against the toxin of the microorganism rather than the microorganism itself. B) They provide lifelong immunity. C) They stimulate antibody immune responses. D) They have few antigenic determinants. E) They are chemically or thermally modified. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.2 15) An infectious disease researcher isolates the pathogen responsible for an emerging disease. The microbe is grown in the lab. A preparation of the laboratory-grown microbe is treated with a lethal dose of ionizing radiation and then tested for its potential as a vaccine. What type of vaccine is this? A) attenuated B) subunit C) combination D) toxoid E) inactivated whole Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.2

16) The attenuated oral poliovirus vaccine (OVP) is no longer administered in the U.S.A. because it A) is very toxic. B) does not provide good immunity. C) can revert to wild-type virulence. D) can be spread to contacts. E) can be spread to contacts and can revert to wild-type virulence. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.4 17) A person who has been exposed to rabies receives both HRIG (human rabies immunoglobulin) injected near the bite site and the rabies vaccine. What does this strategy represent? A) active immunization B) passive immunotherapy C) viral hemagglutination inhibition D) passive immunotherapy combined with viral hemagglutination inhibition E) active immunization combined with passive immunotherapy Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.6 18) A person exposed to hepatitis A virus may be treated with an injection of antibody molecules. This type of treatment is A) immunization. B) serology. C) vaccine therapy. D) passive immunotherapy. E) adjuvant therapy. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.6 19) Antivenin is a(n) A) antitoxin used to treat exposure to a venom. B) antigen produced from a virus. C) antiserum produced from hybridomas. D) vaccine made toward the endotoxin of a virus. E) vaccine produced against the endotoxin of a bacterium. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.5 5 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

20) Monoclonal antibodies are obtained from A) human serum. B) animal serum. C) hybridomas. D) human B cells in culture. E) both human and animal serum Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.5 21) Analysis of blood to detect specific antigens or antibodies is known as A) immunology. B) hematology. C) serology. D) cytology. E) histology. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.7 22) Which of the following diagnostic procedures depends on precipitation of antigen-antibody complexes? A) blood typing B) immunodiffusion C) viral hemagglutination inhibition tests used to diagnose viral infections D) ELISA E) fluorescent antibody tests Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.11

23)

The assay shown in Figure 17.1 is used for what? A) detecting antibodies against a complex mix of antigens B) verifying infection with a virus C) determining the concentration of antibodies D) detecting neutralizing antibodies E) blood typing Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.19 24) Which of the following tests does NOT detect an immune response to a virus infection? A) a viral neutralization test B) a direct immunofluorescent antibody test C) a viral hemagglutination test D) a complement fixation test E) a direct ELISA Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.14, 17.18

25) Tuberculosis may be diagnosed using a(n) ________ on sputum (lung fluid) samples. A) direct fluorescent antibody test B) complement fixation test C) neutralization test D) immunochromatographic assay E) viral hemagglutination test Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.18 26)

The assay represented in Figure 17.2 is used to A) detect antigen-specific antibodies in patient serum. B) detect specific antigen in patient serum. C) determine the titer of IgM in patient serum. D) determine the presence of an antibody-modifying enzyme in a patient sample. E) detect cytopathic effects of viral infection. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.19 27) The concentration (or titer) of antibody to a specific antigen can be determined using a ________ test. A) hemagglutination B) precipitation C) complement fixation D) agglutination E) immunochromatographic Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.13

28) Viral neutralization testing is based on the fact that A) antibodies can be produced against the toxin of a pathogen. B) antibodies have different molecular weights. C) viruses introduced into appropriate cell cultures have a cytopathic effect. D) the gene for a pathogen's antigen can be isolated and introduced into a host cell by way of a plasmid. E) antibodies to certain microbes can be given a fluorescent label. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.14 29) The presence of fungus in patient specimens can be detected by the ________ test. A) direct fluorescent antibody B) indirect fluorescent antibody C) hemagglutination D) complement fixation E) ELISA Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.18 30) Which of the following statements regarding ELISAs is TRUE? A) They are not quantitative. B) They require large amounts of serum. C) The antibody label is a fluorescent molecule. D) They can be used to detect antibody or antigen. E) They involve the use of membrane filters. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.19 31) Which of the following assays is a function of the formation of immune complexes? A) immunoblot tests B) ELISAs C) neutralization tests D) direct fluorescent antibody tests E) precipitation tests Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.10

32) A hemagglutination test is useful for A) determining antibody titer. B) blood typing. C) determining effectiveness of immunization. D) detecting presence of a pathogen in patient serum. E) diagnosing viral infection. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.13 33) In precipitation tests, maximum precipitation takes place when A) the amount of the antibody exceeds the amount of the antigen. B) the amount of the antigen exceeds the amount of the antibody. C) the amount of the antibody and the amount of the antigen are at optimal proportions. D) a toxin is present. E) a complex solution of many antibodies is used. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.10 34) A woman uses a home pregnancy test kit that tests for hCG hormone in urine. She knows this is a type of antibody assay from the kit brochure. Antibodies reacting with the hormone produce two lines on the test strip. What specific type of antibody assay does this represent? A) a direct immunofluoresence test B) a complement fixation test C) an immunochromatographic assay D) an ELISA E) a neutralization assay Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.21

35) The complement fixation test uses red blood cells as the target for complement activation. Test serum containing antibodies is combined with a known amount of antigen in a tube, and then the RBCs and antibodies against the RBCs are added. A positive result for the complement fixation test would be A) a line of precipitate near the bottom of the tube. B) a cloudy solution in the tube. C) loss of color in the tube. D) a fluorescent precipitate. E) a solution that is clear due to precipitation of RBCs. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.9, 17.16 36) Which property of antibodies is the basis for complement fixation tests? A) agglutination B) opsonization C) neutralization D) direct killing E) complement activation Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.16 37) A new virus is discovered that causes cells to lyse. Which of the following types of assay would be useful for diagnosing infection with this virus? A) agglutination B) complement fixation test C) viral hemagglutination D) both agglutination and complement fixation tests E) viral neutralization Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.14 38) Serologic tests may be used to detect ________ for diagnosis of disease. A) the concentration of serum proteins B) the ability of the patient's antibodies to activate the complement system C) antigen-specific antibodies D) specific epitopes E) the proportion of plasma in a patient's blood Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.8 11 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

39) Anti-human antibodies (specific for human IgG antibodies) with fluorescent molecules covalently attached are used for A) direct fluorescent antibody tests. B) indirect fluorescent antibody tests. C) direct ELISAs. D) indirect ELISAs. E) immunodiffusion tests. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.18 40) How is an immunofiltration assay different from an ELISA? A) Test antigens are bound to filters rather than plastic plates. B) Positive results are the result of precipitate formation. C) Fluorescent molecules are attached to antigen rather than enzyme. D) Antibodies are bound to filters rather than plastic plates. E) They take longer than ELISAs. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.20 41) Infection with HIV is routinely verified using a(n) ________ assay. A) direct fluorescent antibody B) immunodiffusion precipitation C) viral neutralization D) viral hemagglutination inhibition E) immunoblot Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.19 42) Infection with the fungus Coccidioides immitis is commonly diagnosed using a(n) ________ assay. A) precipitation B) immunoblot C) direct fluorescent antibody D) hemagglutination inhibition E) neutralization Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.10 12 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

43) A(n) ________ assay is used for rapid identification of strep (group A Streptococcus) infections. A) direct fluorescent antibody B) immunodiffusion precipitation C) viral neutralization D) immunochromatographic E) immunoblot Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.21 44) Rabies virus can be directly detected in brain tissue using a(n) ________ assay. A) viral neutralization B) direct fluorescent antibody C) immunodiffusion precipitation D) viral hemagglutination inhibition E) immunoblot Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.18 45) Infection with influenzavirus is commonly diagnosed using A) an immunoblot assay. B) viral neutralization tests. C) immunochromatographic assay. D) viral hemagglutination inhibition test. E) both immunochromatographic assay and viral hemagglutination inhibition test. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17. 15, 17.21 17.2 True/False Questions 1) Edward Jenner was the physician who first used cowpox to vaccinate individuals against smallpox. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.1

2) Passive immunotherapy does not result in immunological memory. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.6 3) For some bacterial diseases such as tetanus, it is more effective to produce an immune response against the bacterial toxin than against the bacteria. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.2 4) Because attenuated live vaccines contain viruses that are less virulent, many booster vaccines must be given to produce an effective immune response. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.2 5) Agglutination tests are used to detect soluble antigens. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.12 6) Anti-antibodies are used in indirect antibody assays. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.18, 17.19 7) Complement fixation is a more sensitive test for the presence of specific antibodies than are agglutination tests. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.16 8) The immunochromatographic assay uses enzyme-linked anti-antibodies. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.21

9) The hepatitis B vaccine is an attenuated vaccine. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.2 10) The MMR (measles, mumps, rubella) vaccine requires multiple immunizations in the first year because it is composed of whole killed viruses. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.2 17.3 Short Answer Questions 1) Deliberate infection of young children with particles of ground smallpox scabs from children who had survived mild cases of smallpox was known as (vaccination/variolation/immunization). Answer: variolation Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.1 2) Raising viruses for numerous generations can produce an (adjuvant/attenuated/inactivated) form of the virus. Answer: attenuated Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.2 3)

The "dipstick" illustrated in Figure 17.3 is used in a(n) (immunodiffusion/immunochromatographic/ immunofluorescent) assay. Answer: immunochromatographic Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.21

4) When vaccines do not provide lifelong immunity, (adjuvants/ boosters/subunits) must be given to maintain protection. Answer: boosters Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.2 5) An advantage of (attenuated/inactivated/subunit) vaccines is that they usually elicit cellmediated immune responses. Answer: attenuated Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.2 6) The vaccine to prevent cervical cancer is a(n) (attenuated/recombinant/toxoid) vaccine. Answer: recombinant Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.2 7) A researcher uses genetic recombination techniques to remove a virulence gene from a pathogen, producing a(n) (attenuated/inactivated/subunit/toxoid) vaccine. Answer: attenuated Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.3 8) Chemically or thermally modified toxins that are used for vaccination are called (adjuvants/antigens/toxoids). Answer: toxoids Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.2 9) Modern vaccine technology can involve inserting the DNA encoding the pathogen's antigen(s) into a (plasmid/hybridoma/cell) and injecting it into an individual. Answer: plasmid Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.3 10) An (ELISA/immunofiltration/immunoblot) assay uses antibodies bound on the surface of a membrane filter to detect antigens. Answer: immunofiltration Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.21 16 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

11) A technician places a serum sample in a well in an agar plate and a solution of antigens in a second well in the plate. The technician has set up a(n) (agglutination/immunodiffusion/immunoblot) assay. Answer: immunodiffusion Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.11 12) Antisera directed against toxins are known as (antibodies/antitoxins/anti-antibodies). Answer: antitoxins Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.5 13) Snakebites are treated with (antisera/antitoxins/antivenins). Answer: antivenins Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.5 14) Fluorescent antibody, ELISA, and immunoblotting tests involve the use of (hybridoma/labeled/unlabeled) antibodies. Answer: labeled Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.18, 17.19 15) One way to measure the antibody levels in the blood is by (neutralization/titration/turbidimetry) using agglutination tests. Answer: titration Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.13

17.4 Essay Questions 1) Discuss the similarities and differences between immunodiffusion and immunochromatographic assays. Answer: Both assays rely on the diffusion of antibody molecules, and both involve the formation of antibody-antigen complexes. The immunodiffusion assay is a type of precipitation assay in which the presence of antigenantibody complexes results in the development of a visible line of precipitate where the complexes come out of solution. It can be used to verify the presence of antibodies reactive to specific antigens. The variation known as radial immunodiffusion can be used to measure antibody concentrations. The procedure requires a high degree of skill and is time-consuming. The immunochromatographic assay detects the presence of antigens rather than antigen-specific antibodies. Antibodies labeled with colored metals form complexes with the antigen, but the complexes do not precipitate out of solution. The soluble, diffusing complexes are trapped and concentrated by anti-antibodies, producing a visible line of color. These antibody assays are very rapid and can be performed by persons with basic clinical skills. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.21 2) Compare and contrast viral neutralization and viral hemagglutination tests. Answer: Viral neutralization tests detect the presence of neutralizing antibodies in patient serum specific for a suspect virus. Patient serum is mixed with a solution of test virus and the mixture is added to a culture of susceptible cells. If the serum contains anti-viral neutralizing antibodies the virus will infect few or none of the susceptible cells (positive result). If the serum does not contain neutralizing antibodies, the virus will infect and kill cells, and the damage and destruction of the cells (cytopathic effect) will be visible (negative result). Viral hemagglutination tests can be used to detect antibodies against viruses that do not produce cytopathic effects. Many viruses can clump red blood cells–hemagglutination–and infections with hemagglutinating viruses can be diagnosed with this alternative test. Patient serum is mixed with the test virus then mixed with red blood cells. If the RBCs clump, the serum did not contain antibodies against the test virus (negative result). No RBC agglutination indicates the serum contained antibodies against the virus (positive result). Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.15

3) Two types of vaccines for polio have been developed, an inactivated whole (IPV ) and a live attenuated (OPV ) vaccine. Compare and contrast the advantages and disadvantages of the two polio vaccines. Answer: The inactivated whole vaccine does not replicate and, therefore, does not cause an infection, which has both advantages and disadvantages: The IPV vaccine does not cause polio, but it requires boosters and elicits primarily an antibody (humoral) response, which is less effective in fighting viral pathogens than are cell-mediated immune responses. The IPV vaccine also must be administered by injection. The attenuated live vaccine replicates and therefore establishes an infection. The advantages to this vaccine are that it requires only a single dose and produces a cell-mediated immune response. The vaccine is easily administered orally. The oral dose mimics the normal route of infection (polio is an enteric virus) and potentially produces a more appropriate immune response. The vaccine can produce contact immunity. The disadvantages of the OPV vaccine are that it can cause polio in a small number of vaccinees (about 1 in every 2 million vaccinees) and their contacts and that it can revert to wild-type virulence and spread throughout the population. Consequently, the live attenuated vaccine is no longer used in the United States. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.2 4) Discuss the concept of herd immunity and its importance in creating and maintaining a healthy population. Answer: Herd immunity results when a large enough percentage of a population has immunity to a pathogen that the pathogen can no longer spread and be maintained in a population. Herd immunity can protect those members of the population who cannot be immunized (newborns, pregnant women, immunosuppressed, and so forth) from infection. Highly successful application of the principle of herd immunity may result in the eradication of a pathogen when that pathogen infects only one species. Smallpox is the first pathogen to be successfully eradicated. Eradication of polio is nearing success. Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.4 5) How has modern technology helped to produce new types of vaccines? Answer: Scientists have used a variety of recombinant DNA techniques to produce improved vaccines. They have used these methods to produce large amounts of very pure viral or bacterial antigens. Genetic engineering has been used to alter microbial or viral virulence to produce live recombinant vaccines, such as the rotavirus vaccine. Other methods include injecting into a patient DNA (by way of a plasmid) that codes for the pathogen's antigen rather than injecting the antigen itself. The patient's cells take up the plasmid, then transcribe and translate this DNA to produce antigens, which causes the body to produce a cell-mediated immune response as well as an antibody response. Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.3 19 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 5e (Bauman) Chapter 18 Immune Disorders 18.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) A reaction to an allergen is a ________ hypersensitivity. A) type I B) type II C) type III D) type IV E) type V Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.1 2) Which of the following immunoglobulins is produced by plasma cells in response to an allergen? A) IgA B) IgD C) IgE D) IgG E) IgM Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.2 3) Which of the following is a type of blood cell that undergoes degranulation in type I hypersensitivity reactions? A) B cell B) basophil C) T cell D) macrophage E) plasma cell Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.2

4) The non-leukocyte tissue cells known as ________ produce leukotrienes and prostaglandins in response to allergen binding. A) neutrophils B) basophils C) monocytes D) lymphocytes E) mast cells Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.3 5) Which of the following is an example of a type I hypersensitivity reaction? A) watery eyes after exposure to animals B) destruction of red blood cells after an incompatible blood transfusion C) farmer's lung D) immune complexes accumulation in the kidneys E) the tuberculin response Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.4 6) When mast cells degranulate and release histamine, which of the following events may occur? A) constriction of small blood vessels B) bronchial spasms C) increased mucus production D) both constriction of small blood vessels and bronchial spasms E) both bronchial spasms and increased mucus production Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.3 7) The release of ________ during a type I hypersensitivity reaction contributes to swelling. A) histamine B) prostaglandins C) leukotrienes D) both histamines and leukotrienes E) both proteases and prostaglandins Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.3

8) Which of the following bind the constant region of IgE? A) eosinophils B) mast cells C) monocytes D) both mast cells and monocytes E) both eosinophils and mast cells Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.2 9) What is the function of the kinins released when mast cells degranulate? A) activation of the complement system B) increased vascular permeability C) smooth muscle contraction D) increased production of tears and saliva E) chemotactic factors Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.3 10) Jess has A- blood type, has never received a blood transfusion, and never been pregnant. Antibodies against what blood antigens could be present in Jess' blood? A) O and Rh antigens B) B antigens C) A antigens D) B and Rh antigens E) O antigens Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.6 11) What is the cause of hemolytic disease of the newborn? A) The mother has eosinophilia during pregnancy. B) An O blood type mother produces anti-A antibodies which cross the placenta and react with the baby's A antigens. C) Antibodies of an A or B blood type mother cross the placenta and react with baby's O antigens. D) The mother produces anti-Rh antibodies which cross the placenta and react with baby's Rh antigens. E) The mother's mast cells degranulate in the placenta, damaging it. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.7 3 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

12) Transfusion reactions are the result of antibody reaction to A) glycolipids and glycoproteins on the surface of red blood cells. B) MHC molecules on red blood cells. C) MHC molecules on white blood cells. D) plasma proteins. E) foreign antibodies. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.5 13) An accident victim receives a blood transfusion. Shortly thereafter, he begins to have difficulty breathing, develops a fever, and experiences nausea and vomiting. Which of the following is the most likely interpretation of these events? A) The blood transfusion was mismatched. B) The blood transfusion contained pyrogens. C) The recipient had previously been exposed to foreign blood group antigens. D) The blood transfusion was mismatched and contained pyrogens. E) The blood transfusion was mismatched and the recipient had previously been exposed to the foreign blood group antigens. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.5 14) Which of the following statements concerning the Rh factor is CORRECT? A) The Rh antigen is on white blood cells. B) Eighty-five percent of humans are Rh positive. C) Preexisting antibodies occur in 85% of the population. D) Rh antibodies are more abundant than the ABO antibodies. E) Eighty-five percent of the human population is Rh negative. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.7

15) Which of the following could result in hemolytic disease of the newborn? A) Rh-negative mother and Rh-negative father B) Rh-positive mother and Rh-positive father C) Rh-positive mother and Rh-negative father D) Rh-negative mother and Rh-positive father E) either Rh-positive mother and Rh-negative father or Rh-negative mother and Rh-positive father Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.7 16) An agricultural worker experiences difficulty breathing which becomes progressively worse. Tests show inflammation and damage of the lung tissue, but IgE antibodies and granulocytes are in the normal ranges. With which disorder of the immune system are these signs and symptoms consistent? A) allergic reaction B) type III (immune complex-mediated) hypersensitivity C) type IV (delayed) hypersensitivity D) autoimmunity E) acquired immunodeficiency Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.9 17) When immune complexes in the blood become trapped in the kidneys the resulting disease is known as A) autoimmunity. B) hemolytic disease. C) glomerulonephritis. D) urticaria. E) anaphylaxis. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.9

18) Which of the following is both a hypersensitivity disorder and an autoimmune disorder? A) anaphylaxis B) glomerulonephritis C) graft rejection D) hemolytic disease of the newborn E) rheumatoid arthritis Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.10 19) A small amount of antigen is injected under the skin of a patient. After 30 minutes there is no apparent change at the injection site, but 36 hours later the patient reports that the area is red and swollen. This type of response is due to A) type I hypersensitivity. B) type II hypersensitivity. C) type III hypersensitivity. D) type IV hypersensitivity. E) immunodeficiency. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.12 20) A person identified as a universal recipient has ________ blood type. A) A B) B C) AB D) O E) Rh-negative Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.6

21) A young woman comes into the clinic complaining of itchy, red skin and swelling on her arms and legs. She had not been in any parks or wooded areas recently, but she had been shopping. A blood sample reveals elevated levels of granulocytes. What treatment is the physician likely to prescribe at this point? A) corticosteroids B) cyclophosphamide C) azathioprine D) methylprednisolone E) antihistamines Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.3 22) If a T cell is exposed to a "hidden" antigen, what kind of immune reaction will result? A) an autoimmune disease B) a delayed hypersensitivity reaction C) a cytotoxic hypersensitivity reaction D) allergic contact dermatitis E) an allergy Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Autoimmune Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.16 23) Which hypersensitivity disorder is the result of cell-mediated response? A) type I B) type II C) type III D) type IV E) both type I and II Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.12 24) Which of the following statements concerning rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is TRUE? A) It occurs in humans and animals. B) The symptoms are due to damage caused by cytotoxic T cells. C) There is no genetic influence on the likelihood of developing RA. D) Accumulations of antibody complexes lead to inflammation in and destruction of the joints. E) The onset of disease is clearly correlated with having been infected with a specific microbe. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.10 7 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

25) Primary immunodeficiency diseases A) develop later in life. B) are detectable close to birth. C) may be caused by malnutrition. D) are never associated with genetic defects. E) are sometimes caused by severe stress. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.18 26) The HIV virion attaches to ________ on the surface of lymphocytes. A) IgG B) MHC II C) IL-2R D) CD4 E) CD3 Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.21 27) What is the underlying problem in most acquired immunodeficiencies? A) declining cell-mediated immunity B) declining humoral immunity C) production of autoantibodies D) eosinophilia E) anemia Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.18 28) Which of the following is the mechanism of action of cyclosporine? A) It blocks the complement cascade. B) It blocks the activity of activated Th1 T cells. C) It directly blocks CTL activity. D) It interferes with activation of Th2 T cells. E) It is an anti-inflammatory interfering with leukotriene function. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.15

29) A child has a history of recurring serious bacterial infections. A blood sample shows lymphocyte levels are a little below normal, and no antibodies to the pathogens are detected in serologic tests. Based on this information, which of the following is the likeliest diagnosis for this child? A) Bruton-type agammaglobulinemia B) Grave's disease C) severe combined immune deficiency (SCID) D) systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) E) hemolytic disease of the newborn Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.18 30) The condition known as graft-versus-host disease may result after A) a bone marrow allograft. B) a mismatched blood transfusion. C) a bone allograft. D) a plasmapheresis procedure. E) any type of allograft procedure. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.14 31) Hypotheses explaining the development of autoimmune disease include A) molecular mimicry. B) genetic factors. C) overuse of vaccines. D) molecular mimicry and vaccines. E) molecular mimicry and genetic factors. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Autoimmune Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.16 32) Multiple sclerosis is A) a type IV hypersensitivity disease in which cytotoxic T cells attack the myelin sheath of neurons. B) a genetic birth defect of the nervous system. C) a type II hypersensitivity to the myelin of neurons. D) the formation of antibodies against transplanted tissue. E) a neurological disease due to the accumulation of immune complexes in nerves. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Autoimmune Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.17 9 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

33) Antibody binding to receptors on the thyroid may result in A) multiple sclerosis. B) Graves' disease. C) DiGeorge syndrome. D) type I diabetes. E) autoimmune hemolytic anemia. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Autoimmune Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.17 34) The tuberculin response is mediated by A) memory T cells. B) mast cells. C) B lymphocytes. D) plasma cells. E) eosinophils. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.13 35) Which of the following statements concerning allografts is TRUE? A) They are the best type of transplants because they are not associated with rejection. B) They induce strong type IV hypersensitivity reactions and must be treated with immunosuppressive drugs. C) They always require complete destruction of the recipient's bone marrow cells. D) They are impossible to perform because the antigens between donor and recipient are so different. E) They are the rarest type of transplants. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.14 36) Failure of thymus development may result in A) type I diabetes. B) Grave's disease. C) Bruton-type agammaglobulinemia. D) DiGeorge syndrome. E) chronic granulomatous disease. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.18

37) Type I diabetes is a(n) A) autoimmune disease. B) immunodeficiency disease. C) immune complex-mediated hypersensitivity disorder. D) delayed hypersensitivity disorder. E) immediate hypersensitivity disorder. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Autoimmune Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.17 38) Treatment with glucocorticoids to suppress type IV hypersensitivity may result in A) acquired immunodeficiency. B) anaphylaxis. C) autoimmune disease. D) DiGeorge syndrome. E) primary immunodeficiency. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.19 39) Antigen-antibody complexes trapped in tissues and triggering complement activation or mast cell degranulation are characteristic of A) type I hypersensitivity. B) type II hypersensitivity. C) type III hypersensitivity. D) autoimmunity. E) graft rejection. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.8 40) The responses observed in type IV hypersensitivities result from the action of A) IgE antibodies and mast cells. B) T cells and phagocytes. C) IgG and complement. D) autoantibodies. E) inflammatory chemicals. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.12

41) Graft rejection can be reduced by A) preventing B cell activation. B) antiphagocytic factors. C) antihistimines. D) preventing T cell proliferation. E) epinephrine. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.15 42) Opportunistic infections typical of AIDS but rare otherwise include A) tuberculosis. B) Pneumocystis pneumonia. C) Kaposi's sarcoma. D) tuberculosis and shingles. E) Pneumocystis pneumonia and Kaposi's sarcoma. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.20 43) The syndrome known as AIDS is characterized A) by the presence of HIV. B) as an opportunistic disease resulting from herpesvirus reactivation. C) by CTL attack on CD4 T cells. D) by one or more opportunistic diseases and the presence of HIV. E) by the presence of anti-HIV antibodies. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.20 44) Which of the following types of cells is NOT infected by HIV? A) T cells B) B cells C) macrophages D) monocytes E) microglia Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.21

45) Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE or lupus) is distinct from other autoimmune disorders because A) it is also a hypersensitivity disorder. B) it involves an antibody response. C) multiple organs and tissues are affected. D) it may be triggered by an infection. E) there is a genetic predisposition. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Autoimmune Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.11, 18.17 18.2 True/False Questions 1) Normally, complement-activating immune complexes are eliminated from the body by phagocytosis. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.8 2) Individuals with AB blood type are called "universal donors" because they do not have antibodies against blood group antigens. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.6 3) MHC genes are significant genetic factors in predisposition to develop autoimmune disease. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Autoimmune Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.16 4) The tuberculin response is an example of allergic contact dermatitis. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.13 5) Children with Bruton-type agammaglobulinemia are highly susceptible to recurrent bacterial infections. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.18 13 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

6) Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a disease resulting from accumulation of immune complexes in various organs and tissues. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.11 7) If an Rh-positive woman marries an Rh-negative man, their children are at risk for hemolytic disease of the newborn. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.7 8) Infection with certain viruses may lead to the development of type I diabetes. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Autoimmune Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.17 9) Depletion of the helper T cell population by HIV results in the development of AIDS. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.22 10) All autoimmune diseases have a genetic cause. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Autoimmune Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.16 18.3 Short Answer Questions 1) Contact dermatitis is a type (I/II/III/IV) hypersensitivity disorder. Answer: IV Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.12 2) Rheumatoid arthritis is a type (I/II/III/IV) hypersensitivity reaction that results when B cells produce autoantibodies that damage the joints. Answer: III Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.10 14 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

3) Although autoantibodies to nucleic acids are characteristics of (HIV/RA/SLE), many other autoantibodies are produced. Answer: SLE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.17 4) Critically low levels of CD4 lymphocytes are a key diagnostic indicator of (AIDS/MS/SLE). Answer: AIDS Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.20 5) Type I hypersensitivity reactions are also commonly known as (allergies/autoimmunities/inflammation). Answer: allergies Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.1 6) Binding of IgE to the surface of sensitized cells leads to (activation/degranulation/lysis) of the cell, releasing many inflammatory chemicals. Answer: degranulation Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.2 7) Many of the signs and symptoms of inflammation, including redness and itching, are due to the release of (histamines/leukotrienes/proteases) by degranulation of mast cells. Answer: histamines Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.2 8) When the release of chemicals in an allergic reaction exceeds the body's ability to adjust, a life-threatening condition called (anaphylaxis/autoimmunity/inflammation) may occur. Answer: anaphylaxis Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.4 9) Stress may result in the production of (corticosteroids/leukotrienes/interleukins), which may lead to acquired immunodeficiency disease. Answer: corticosteroids Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.19 15 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

10) The effectiveness of ART is determined by (ELISA/IFA/PCR) testing. Answer: PCR Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.23 11) The mechanism of action of RhoGAM is to (activate/neutralize/prevent) an anti-Rh immune response. Answer: prevent Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.7 12) The most common type of transplant involves an (allograft/autograft/isograft). Answer: allograft Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.14 13) Graves' disease is an autoimmune disease that affects the (lymph/thyroid/adrenal) gland. Answer: thyroid Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Autoimmune Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.17 14) Immunological attack on the islets of Langerhans resulting in the inability to produce insulin leads to type (I/II/IV) diabetes Mellitus. Answer: I Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Autoimmune Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.17 15) Chronic granulomatous disease is a disorder of the (first/second/third) line of immune defense. Answer: second Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.18

18.4 Essay Questions 1) Compare and contrast type I hypersensitivity with type IV hypersensitivity with respect to reaction time, mediators, and cells involved. Answer: Type I (immediate) hypersensitivity is very quick. The reaction time can be seconds to minutes after exposure to the allergen. This type of hypersensitivity starts with a prior sensitization to the allergen during which IgE specific for the allergen is produced. The IgE that is made binds to mast cells, basophils, and eosinophils. The response can be either local or systemic and is due to a subsequent exposure to the allergen. Upon subsequent exposure, the allergen binds to the IgE on mast cells, basophils, and eosinophils, causing them to degranulate and release a variety of inflammatory molecules, including histamines, kinins, proteases, leukotrienes, and prostaglandins. Type IV (delayed or cell-mediated) hypersensitivity has a much slower reaction time. It takes 1224 hours to start developing. Antigen does not bind to antibody; it binds to antigen-presenting cells and T cells. As with type I, a type IV response is due to a prior exposure, but in the case of the type IV hypersensitivity, memory T cells are produced. In both type I and type IV hypersensitivities, inflammation is a common result. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.1 2) In the wake of the recent Ebola outbreak in West Africa, researchers have observed infectious Ebola virus is present in the eyes and semen of infected individuals months after apparent recovery from the acute stage of the disease. Based on information in this chapter, propose an explanation for this observation. Answer: The eyes and testes are "hidden" sites which T cells do not normally enter. Virus infections are most effectively cleared by cell-mediated responses. CTL against Ebola virus cannot enter these areas under normal circumstances to attack infected cells, so the virus is not cleared from these organs. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Autoimmune Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.16 3) A patient arrives at a hospital suffering from serious difficulty breathing and shortness of breath. Initial tests indicate none of the standard respiratory infectious agents are present. The physician suspects an immune disorder. What clinical indicators would distinguish between asthma, pneumonitis and Pneumocystic pneumonia? Answer: Asthma would produce high levels of histamines and leukotrienes, resulting in production of excess mucus in the trachea and bronchi and constriction of the bronchi. High antibody titers and low levels of complement proteins along with generalized inflammation of the lung tissue would indicate pneumonitis. CD4 T cell counts of less than 200/microliter of blood is consistent with Pneumocystic pneumonia. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.9, 18.20 17 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

4) One of the important inherited defects in the second line of immune defense is a condition called chronic granulomatous disease. What is this disease, and how is it caused? Answer: Chronic granulomatous disease is a type of primary immunodeficiency. It is an inherited condition seen in children who have recurrent infections, especially with bacteria. It is due to the inability of phagocytes to produce reactive forms of oxygen and therefore fail to kill ingested bacteria. A CBC would have normal levels of lymphocytes. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.18 5) Describe the tuberculin response and identify the type of response involved. Answer: The tuberculin response is a type of delayed hypersensitivity reaction. It is used to diagnose contact with antigens from Mycobacterium tuberculosis. When tuberculin is injected into the skin of an individual who has never contracted tuberculosis and has never received the tuberculosis vaccine, no response occurs. If the patient has been exposed to tuberculin antigen by infection or prior vaccination, a red swelling develops at the site of injection. This reaction is considered a positive tuberculin response. Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.13

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 5e (Bauman) Chapter 19 Microbial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds 19.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The skin is an effective barrier against invading microbes because A) the outer layers of cells are dead. B) the surface is covered in salt. C) it is well supplied with blood vessels to flush microbes from the surface. D) no microbes are able to survive on the surface. E) the outer layers are dead and covered in salt. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Structure of the Skin Learning Outcome: 19.1 2) Normal skin microbiota are able to grow on the skin because they can thrive in the presence of A) sebum. B) salt. C) keratin. D) sebum and salt. E) sebum, salt, and keratin. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Microbiome of the Skin Learning Outcome: 19.2 3) An infection of a hair follicle at the base of an eyelid is called a A) pimple. B) sty. C) furuncle. D) carbuncle. E) macule. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.4

4) The ________ are Gram-positive pleomorphic bacteria commonly found on the skin. A) Clostridia B) diphtheroids C) Staphylococci D) Streptococci E) Pseudomonads Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Microbiome of the Skin Learning Outcome: 19.2 5) Virulent strains of Staphylococcus aureus can resist penicillin because they produce A) a slime layer. B) coagulase. C) beta-lactamase. D) staphylokinase. E) lipase. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.5 6) Which of the following is a complication that may result from a Streptococcus pyogenes skin infection? A) a carbuncle B) a sty C) shingles D) scalded skin syndrome E) erysipelas Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.9 7) Impetigo can be caused by A) Staphylococcus aureus. B) Staphylococcus epidermidis. C) Streptococcus pyogenes. D) both Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes. E) both Staphylococcus epidermidis and Streptococcus pyogenes. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.8

8) The signs and symptoms of staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome are caused by A) coagulase. B) lipase. C) beta-lactamase. D) exfoliative toxins. E) staphylokinase. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.7 9) A(n) ________ is a large mass of inflammation and accumulated pus under the surface of an area of thick skin. A) carbuncle B) furuncle C) erysipelas D) mycetoma E) pox Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.4 10) Necrotizing fasciitis is caused by A) Staphylococcus aureus. B) Streptococcus pyogenes. C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa. D) Rickettsia rickettsii. E) both Streptococcus pyogenes and Staphylococcus aureus. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.11 11) A specific wavelength of UVA can be used to treat A) swimmer's ear. B) RMSF. C) acne. D) cat scratch disease. E) bacteremia. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.14

12) Localized swelling of a scratch accompanied by fever, malaise, and swollen lymph nodes may result from infection with A) Rickettsia rickettsii. B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa. C) Propionibacterium acnes. D) Bartonella henselae. E) Microsporum canis. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.15 13) Anthrax derives its name from which of the following aspects of the disease? A) the appearance of eschars on the skin B) the shape of its endospores C) the microscopic appearance of its cells D) the shape of B. anthracis colonies on agar E) the necessity of burning animals killed by the disease Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.22 14) The resistance of Pseudomonas to a wide variety of antimicrobial drugs is due, in part, to its A) production of exoenzymes. B) production of pyocyanin. C) ability to utilize a wide range of carbon and nitrogen sources. D) ability to grow in almost any moist environment. E) ability to pump drugs out of the cell. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.17 15) A petechial rash starting on the hands and feet and spreading to the torso is characteristic of A) RMSF. B) anthrax. C) smallpox. D) necrotizing fasciitis. E) herpes gladiatorum. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.19

16) Rickettsias require ________, readily available inside cells, for energy production. A) amino acids B) glucose C) lipids D) complex carbohydrates E) vitamins Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.20 17) What is the pathogenic process underlying Rocky Mountain spotted fever? A) cellular damage via potent exotoxins B) damage to blood vessels C) stimulation of a strong immune response D) interference with host cell metabolism E) formation of biofilms in host tissues Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.21 18) Infection known as ________ frequently begins as an injury that rapidly becomes red, swollen, hot to the touch, and intensely painful. A) staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome B) anthrax C) Rocky Mountain spotted fever D) necrotizing fasciitis E) gas gangrene Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.11 19) Smallpox was the first human disease to be A) analyzed and studied on the genetic level. B) treated with antiviral drugs. C) globally eradicated. D) identified as a viral disease. E) recreated in an experimental animal. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.26

20) Spreading black necrosis, swelling, pain and froth or bubbles are characteristic of A) anthrax. B) gas gangrene. C) necrotizing fasciitis. D) chromoblastomycosis. E) Pseudomonas infection. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.23 21) A herpetic lesion on the finger or hand is known as a A) fever blister. B) pox. C) macule. D) whitlow. E) furuncle. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.27 22) Shingles, or herpes zoster, is a reactivation of the virus that causes A) smallpox. B) German measles. C) measles. D) whitlows. E) chickenpox. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.32 23) Common skin warts are the result of infection with A) poxviruses. B) herpesviruses. C) papillomaviruses. D) rubeola virus. E) parvoviruses. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.30

24) Some strains of Papillomavirus are oncogenic due to their ability to A) lie dormant in cells for years. B) integrate into the host cell DNA. C) escape the phagosome before lysosome fusion. D) produce deoxyribonucleases. E) cause extensive damage to blood vessels. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.30 25) A reddening of the skin of the face that intensifies when exposed to the sun is characteristic of A) herpes. B) chickenpox. C) rubeola. D) rubella. E) erythema infectiosum. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.37 26) Which of the following can cause birth defects? A) chickenpox B) measles C) roseola D) smallpox E) rubella Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.34 27) A rash characterized by macules which swell, fill with fluid and then pus, then rupture and become crusty lesions, is characteristic of A) human herpes virus 2 primary infection. B) poxvirus infection. C) chickenpox virus reactivation. D) roseola virus. E) papillomavirus infection. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.24

28) Which of the following is becoming rarer as a result of childhood vaccinations? A) subacute sclerosing panencephalitis B) roseola C) warts D) neonatal herpes E) impetigo Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.35 29) "Ringworm" is caused by A) dermatophytes growing in the upper dead tissue layers of the skin. B) dermatophytes that have invaded deep layers of the skin. C) parasitic worms that infect the skin. D) a hypersensitivity reaction caused by superficial contact with dermatophytes. E) immunosuppression due to HIV infection. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mycoses of the Hair, Skin, and Nails Learning Outcome: 19.41 30) Which of the following is a basidiomycete responsible for superficial infections? A) Malassezia furfur B) Microsporum species C) Pseudallescheria D) Sarcoptes scabiei E) Epidermophyton floccosum. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Mycoses of the Hair, Skin, and Nails Learning Outcome: 19.40 31) A series of nodular lesions on an arm that fill with pus and ulcerate through the skin is characteristic of infection with the fungus A) Microsporum. B) Trichophyton. C) Epidermophyton. D) Micrococcus. E) Sporothrix schenckii. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Mycoses of the Hair, Skin, and Nails Learning Outcome: 19.45

32) A man is suffering severe foot pain in the area of what looks like a large wart. He reports he has had the wart for some time, and the pain and swelling have developed slowly. A sample from the lesion shows that the pus contains large cells that stain a golden brown color. The man is likely suffering from A) sporotrichosis. B) necrotizing fasciitis. C) chromoblasomycosis. D) mycetoma. E) phaeohyphomycosis. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Mycoses of the Hair, Skin, and Nails Learning Outcome: 19.43 33) A child complains of intensely itchy "pimples" on the hands and wrists. The lesions are small inflamed streaks, but do not appear to contain pus. The child's condition may be the result of infection with A) Staphylococcus epidermidis. B) Sporothrix schenkii. C) Sarcoptes scabiei. D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa. E) Clostridium perfringens. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Parasitic Infestations of the Skin Learning Outcome: 19.47 34) Which of the following forms of leishmaniasis is typically fatal? A) visceral B) mucocutaneous C) cutaneous D) Both cutaneous and mucocutaneous are frequently fatal. E) Visceral, mucocutaneous, and cutaneous are all potentially fatal. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Parasitic Infestations of the Skin Learning Outcome: 19.46

35) A small puncture wound on a woman's arm has become swollen, hot to the touch, and intensely painful. There is tissue necrosis but it is not "gassy," and under the microscope Grampositive cocci in chains are present. Which of the following microbes is likely to be responsible? A) Streptococcus pyogenes B) Staphylococcus aureus C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa D) Clostridium perfringens E) Sporothrix schenckii Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.11 36) A pigment produced by an opportunistic pathogen that contributes to tissue damage is A) pyocyanin. B) streptokinase. C) M protein. D) lipase. E) hyaluronidase. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.17 37) Which of the following is an enzyme which results in Staphylococcus aureus being more invasive than Staphylococcus epidermidis? A) lipase B) M protein C) hyaluronidase D) pyrogens E) neuraminidase Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.5 38) Under some circumstances, ________ is beneficial, but under other conditions the bacteria become overabundant leading to inflammation of hair follicles. A) Propionibacterium acnes B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa C) Streptococcus pyogenes D) Microsporum E) Bacillus anthracis Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.13 10 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

39) The rash described as "teardrops on rose petals" is characteristic of A) anthrax. B) chickenpox. C) herpes. D) smallpox. E) warts. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.31 40) A child has a rash on the face, arms, upper legs, and torso. It is splotchy and intensifies after being in the sun. The child does not complain of fever or itchiness. The signs and symptoms are consistent with A) chickenpox. B) roseola. C) fifth disease. D) cat scratch disease. E) scabies. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.37 41) A sample from an abscess is stained and examined under the microscope. A Gram stain appears uniformly pink, but a GMS (Gomori methenamine silver) stain reveals brownish filaments in the sample. These findings suggest A) necrotizing fasciitis. B) sporotrichosis. C) leishmaniasis. D) phaeohyphomycosis. E) dermatophytosis. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Mycoses of the Hair, Skin, and Nails Learning Outcome: 19.43

42) The ________ is a layer of tough fibers and fat cells that anchors the skin to the deeper tissues. A) epidermis B) dermis C) hypodermis D) fascia E) follicles Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Structure of the Skin Learning Outcome: 19.1 19.2 True/False Questions 1) Clostridium perfringens may cause necrotizing fasciitis. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.11 2) M protein is an antiphagocytic factor produced by Streptococcus pyogenes. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.10 3) Humans are the only hosts of Rickettsia rickettsii. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.19 4) Because they are common soil saprobes, dermatophytes are fungi that are not contagious in humans. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mycoses of the Hair, Skin, and Nails Learning Outcome: 19.41 5) Chromoblastomycosis is rarely a severe disease and can be treated easily with appropriate drugs. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mycoses of the Hair, Skin, and Nails Learning Outcome: 19.43

6) Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis, also known as kala-azar, is fatal in 100% of untreated cases. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Parasitic Infestations of the Skin Learning Outcome: 19.46 7) Smallpox vaccination was originally discontinued in the 1970s in the U.S. because of adverse effects of the vaccine. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.26 8) Herpesvirus infections can be controlled with chemotherapeutic agents. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.27 9) Roseola is a rare but very dangerous childhood viral infection. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.37 10) Pityriasis' characteristic appearance is the result of a fungal infection causing changes in the production of melanin. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Mycoses of the Hair, Skin, and Nails Learning Outcome: 19.40 19.3 Short Answer Questions 1) The production of (exotoxin/coagulase/hyaluronidase) enzyme breaks down connections between cells, allowing Streptococcus pyogenes to invade tissue and cause necrotizing fasciitis. Answer: hyaluronidase Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.10 2) Immunization with (chickenpox/cowpox/HPV) provides protection against smallpox. Answer: cowpox Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.25 13 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

3) Chickenpox and (herpes/shingles/warts) are caused by the same virus. Answer: shingles Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.32 4) Ringworm is the result of skin infection with (Madurella/Microsporum/Mycobacterium). Answer: Microsporum Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Mycoses of the Hair, Skin, and Nails Learning Outcome: 19.41 5) An arachnid parasite causes the skin disease known as (leishmaniasis/ringworm/scabies). Answer: scabies Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Parasitic Infestations of the Skin Learning Outcome: 19.47 6) "Three-day measles" is caused by the (roseola/rubella/rubeola) virus. Answer: rubella Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.33 7) Fungus infection of the nail is known as tinea (capitus/pedis/unguium). Answer: unguium Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Mycoses of the Hair, Skin, and Nails Learning Outcome: 19.41 8) Contact with soil may result in infection with (anthropophilic/geophilic/zoophilic) dermatophytosis. Answer: geophilic Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Mycoses of the Hair, Skin, and Nails Learning Outcome: 19.41 9) Infection with (Sporothrix/Staphylococcus/Streptococcus) may result in disease known as scalded skin syndrome. Answer: Staphylococcus Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.7

10) A (furuncle/pimple/sty) is a type of folliculitis characterized by a large, painful, pus-filled nodule. Answer: furuncle Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.4 11) The syndrome known as cat scratch disease results when (Bartonella/Pseudomonas/Rickettsia) is introduced into a wound. Answer: Bartonella Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.15 12) The presence of Koplik's spots is sufficient for a diagnosis of (chickenpox/measles/rubella). Answer: measles Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.35 13) Localization of lesions within a band of skin on one side of the body is a characteristic of the disease (measles/shingles/sporotrichosis). Answer: shingles Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.31 14) Warts on the sole of the foot are known as (seed/flat/plantar) warts. Answer: plantar Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.29 15) Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the most common microbe associated with infections of (burn/immunocompromised/elderly) patients. Answer: burn Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.16

19.4 Essay Questions 1) Explain the relationship between chickenpox and shingles, paying special attention to the pathogenic processes and transmission of each of these diseases. Answer: Chickenpox and shingles are different manifestations of infection with varicella-zoster virus, a type of herpesvirus. Chickenpox is most commonly a childhood disease beginning as a respiratory infection and then spreading throughout various tissues of the body. The infection eventually manifests in cells of the dermis, developing into a characteristic rash and "teardrops on rose petals" lesions. After the infection subsides, the virus can become latent in nerve ganglia and remain there for decades. Upon reactivation, which happens in about 20% of adults who had chickenpox as children, the virus travels back down the nerves and causes the characteristic lesions of shingles. These lesions involve a painful rash that is limited to particular bands of skin innervated by the infected nerve. Individuals who have never had chickenpox therefore cannot contract shingles, although they can contract chickenpox from a shingles patient. Chickenpox is typically much more severe in adults than in children because of the more highly developed immune response in adults. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.32 2) Describe the natural defenses of the skin that prevent many infections of this area. Answer: In general, the skin is an inhospitable environment for the growth of most microbes. It is salty (salt is left behind as sweat evaporates from the skin) and covered with sebum, a lipid produced by sebaceous glands of the skin that contains a variety of antimicrobial chemicals. The outer layer of skin is also composed primarily of dead, dry skin cells that provide little nourishment or protection for microbes. These skin cells are continually being sloughed off, making it difficult for microbes to attach to invade the skin. Dendritic cells are present in the outer layers of the skin, where these phagocytic cells can attack invaders of the epidermis. Finally, a wide variety of normal skin microbiota have adapted to the adverse conditions of the skin and compete with potential invaders for nutrients and space. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Structure of the Skin Learning Outcome: 19.1

3) Both necrotizing fasciitis and gas gangrene are diseases characterized by rapid, spreading tissue necrosis. Compare and contrast the infectious agents, the pathology and treatment. Answer: Both diseases are caused by bacterial pathogens that are introduced under the surface of the epidermis by injuries. The pathogens produce a variety of toxins responsible for the necrosis and the rapid spread of the infection. Treatment is surgical removal of the infected necrotic tissue followed by an antibiotic cocktail delivered IV. Necrotizing fasciitis is primarily caused by the Gram-positive cocci Streptococcus pyogenes and Staphylococcus aureus, which are capable of infecting living subcutaneous tissue when injury provides access. Both are aerobic bacteria commonly present in and on the surface of the body, and both produce a variety of anti-phagocytic factors that interfere with a major line of defense. In addition, these organisms produce several toxins and exoenzymes that damage tissue, leading to cell death. The infection is initially difficult to detect beneath relatively intact skin. When S. aureus is the infecting agent, treatment may be difficult due to antibiotic resistance. Gas gangrene is the result of infection with the strictly anaerobic, endospores-forming Grampositive bacillus Clostridium perfringens. Disease results when endospores are introduced into a wound, and the injury results in tissue necrosis. The endospores can germinate in the oxygendepleted environment of the necrotic tissue, and the vegetative cells produce a variety of toxins which cause further cell death. The bacteria grow rapidly, and their metabolic activities result in the production of gasses which accumulate in the necrotic tissue. The injury and necrosis are evident early in the course of infection. Treatment includes antitoxins and pressurized oxygen therapy in addition to the surgery and antibiotics. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.11, 19.23 4) Explain why Pseudomonas aeruginosa is described as a "medical puzzle." Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa is described as a medical puzzle because it rarely causes disease, although it has almost unlimited pathogenic potential. P. aeruginosa possesses a wide variety of virulence factors that alone could make it an effective pathogen. These factors include various attachment mechanisms such as fimbriae and a capsule, and a variety of toxins and enzymes that kill host cells and defeat body defenses such as IgA and IgG antibodies. A second aspect of P. aeruginosa's potential for pathogenesis is its ubiquity. Due to its ability to utilize a wide variety of carbon and nitrogen sources, P. aeruginosa is found in habitats as diverse as soil, hot tubs, and humidifiers. It has even been found growing in distilled water. A third aspect of the organism's virulence is its extreme resistance to all kinds of antimicrobial drugs, which makes treatment of Pseudomonas infections especially challenging. The only reason Pseudomonas infections are as rare as they are is due to the organism's inability to breach the skin or its natural defenses; therefore, it is limited to a role as an opportunistic pathogen that causes only 10% of nosocomial infections, and then only when the skin is already damaged or compromised in some way. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.17

5) Explain why smallpox vaccination is still being considered and debated, even though smallpox has been eradicated. Answer: When smallpox was eradicated in 1980, smallpox vaccination was globally phased out primarily because of adverse effects experienced by some vaccinated individuals. However, in recent years there have been calls for the resumption of smallpox vaccination for two primary reasons. First, stocks of smallpox virus still exist in laboratories in the United States and Russia, and may also be held by or available to unauthorized organizations around the world. The accidental or purposeful release of this virus would be devastating to much of the population, which is no longer, or never was, immune to smallpox. Second, in recent years there has been an increase in the number of monkeypox cases around the world. Due to similarities between the two viruses, vaccination against smallpox also protects against monkeypox, and it is thought that resumption of smallpox vaccination might be a good way to eliminate the current monkeypox epidemics. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.26

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 5e (Bauman) Chapter 20 Microbial Diseases of the Nervous System and Eyes 20.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Voluntary muscle control is one of functions of the A) cerebellum. B) cerebrum. C) spinal cord. D) brain stem. E) meninges. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Structure of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.1 2) Functions of the meninges include A) support for the brain and spinal cord. B) transmission of signals from the peripheral nervous system. C) protection from external shock. D) production of neurotransmitters. E) support for the brain and spinal cord and protection from external shock. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Structure of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.1 3) The optic nerves are an example of which of the following? A) motor nerves B) spinal nerves C) mixed nerves D) synaptic nerves E) sensory nerves Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Structure of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.1

4) Cerebrospinal fluid circulates in the ________ to deliver nutrients to the brain and spinal cord. A) dura mater B) arachnoid villi C) cranial sinuses D) subarachnoid space E) pia mater Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Structure of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.2 5) Some microbes gain access to the normally axenic central nervous system by A) damaging the blood-brain barrier. B) axonal transport from infected peripheral neurons. C) infecting macrophages which subsequently enter the CNS. D) infecting lymph nodes in the cranium. E) either damaging the blood-brain barrier or by axonal transport from infected peripheral neurons. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Structure of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.3 6) Encephalitis is an infection of A) the brain. B) the meninges. C) neurons of the peripheral nervous system. D) the eye. E) the cauda equina. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.4 7) The Gram-negative diplococcus ________ is resistant to phagocytosis and releases Lipid A to cause inflammation. A) Clostridium botulinum B) Haemophilus influenza C) Streptococcus agalactiae D) Neisseria meningitidis E) Listeria monocytogenes Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.5

8) The Gram-positive diplococcus ________ is commonly found in the pharynx but may invade the central nervous system inside cells where it survives after endocytosis. A) Streptococcus agalactiae B) Listeria monocytogenes C) Haemophilus influenzae D) Neisseria meningitidis E) Streptococcus pneumoniae Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.5 9) The pleomorphic bacterium ________ is an obligate parasite due to its requirement for NAD+ and heme. A) Neisseria meningitidis B) Streptococcus pneumoniae C) Listeria monocytogenes D) Haemophilus influenzae E) Streptococcus agalactiae Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.5 10) Newborns exposed to the Gram-positive bacterium ________ during vaginal birth are at risk of developing neonatal meningitis. A) Streptococcus agalactiae B) Listeria monocytogenes C) Haemophilus influenzae D) Neisseria meningitidis E) Streptococcus pneumoniae Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.5 11) Contaminated food is the source of ________, which causes meningitis in the elderly and susceptible persons. A) Neisseria meningitidis B) Streptococcus agalactiae C) Haemophilus influenzae D) Listeria monocytogenes E) Streptococcus pneumoniae Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.5 3 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

12) Bacterial agents of meningitis which can survive phagocytosis include A) Neisseria meningitidis. B) Streptococcus pneumoniae. C) Mycobacterium leprae. D) both Neisseria meningitidis and Streptococcus pneumoniae. E) Neisseria meningitidis, Streptococcus pneumoniae and Mycobacterium leprae. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.5 13) The type of bacterial meningitis that becomes epidemic among young adults is caused by A) Streptococcus agalactiae. B) Streptococcus pneumoniae. C) Haemophilus influenzae. D) Neisseria meningitidis. E) Listeria monocytogenes. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.5 14) Which of the following is TRUE of foodborne botulism? A) It is an intoxication disorder. B) It is not a life-threatening infection even when left untreated. C) Large amounts of bacteria must be consumed to produce disease. D) Normal food preparation methods can prevent it. E) An effective vaccine is available. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.8 15) Botulism toxin disrupts motor control by A) blocking the release of acetylcholine by motor neurons. B) causing demyelination of motor neurons. C) blocking inhibitory signals to motor neurons. D) killing motor neurons. E) blocking acetylcholine receptors on muscle cells. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.9

16) How does tetanospasmin affect motor control? A) It blocks the secretion of acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft. B) It blocks the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters in the CNS. C) It triggers the endocytosis of skeletal muscle cells. D) It induces nervous system proteins to fold into abnormal shapes. E) It is a pyrogenic toxin. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.10 17) A baby arrives at an emergency room suffering from violent muscles spasms and difficulty breathing. The baby's body is so rigid a proper exam is difficult, but the staff note the baby is only a few weeks old and the umbilicus has not healed properly. The signs are consistent with which of the following diseases? A) infant botulism B) acute bacterial meningitis C) tetanus D) rabies E) listeriosis Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.11 18) Tetanus vaccine contains A) antibodies against Clostridium tetani. B) inactivated Clostridium tetani endospores. C) antibodies against Clostridium tetani endospores. D) fragments of Clostridium tetani cell walls. E) inactivated tetanospasmin. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.11 19) The highly destructive form of Hansen's disease is the result of A) poor immune response to Mycobacterium leprae. B) autoimmune disease triggered by Mycobacteriu leprae. C) intracellular infection with Clostridium botulinum. D) poor immune response to Streptococcus agalactiae. E) infection with rabies virus. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.6 5 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

20) Which of the following diseases is the result of a bacterial infection of peripheral nerves? A) botulism B) acute bacterial meningitis C) Hansen's disease D) tetanus E) rabies Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.6 21) Listeria monocytogenes pathogenesis is directly related to its ability to A) produce a powerful toxin. B) form endospores. C) produce a polysaccharide capsule. D) live and reproduce inside its host's cells. E) resist most antimicrobial agents. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.5 22) Which of the following causes of viral meningitis is transmitted by the fecal-oral route? A) Eastern equine encephalitis virus B) California encephalitis virus C) West Nile virus D) echovirus E) rabies Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.12 23) Viral meningitis is also called "aseptic meningitis" A) to indicate no bacteria are involved. B) because it is frequently a nosocomial infection. C) since it is treatable with antiviral medications. D) because it is vaccine-preventable. E) to distinguish it from encephalitis. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.12

24) The least common type of polio is A) nonparalytic polio. B) an asymptomatic infection. C) minor polio. D) paralytic polio. E) postpolio syndrome. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.13 25) Slow deterioration of muscle function occurring over many years occurs in A) West Nile encephalitis. B) postpolio syndrome. C) African sleeping sickness. D) minor polio. E) leprosy. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.13 26) Poliovirus is most often transmitted via A) contaminated water. B) household pets. C) mosquitoes. D) droplets. E) endospores. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.13 27) Which of the following statements concerning rabies is FALSE? A) It is caused by an ssRNA virus. B) Transmission is usually via a bite from a rabid animal. C) Treatment includes vaccination. D) Bats are the source of most cases of rabies in humans. E) All mammals can serve as a reservoir for the disease. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.16

28) Which of the following nervous system diseases is treated with both passive and active immunization? A) arboviral encephalitis B) botulism C) primary amebic meningoencephalopathy D) rabies E) West Nile encephalitis Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.16 29) The normal hosts for St. Louis encephalitis virus are A) birds. B) small mammals. C) horses. D) humans. E) horses and humans. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.17 30) The disease known as cryptococcal meningitis A) begins as a lung infection. B) is caused by a Gram-negative coccus. C) results from exposure to bird droppings. D) is transmitted in respiratory aerosols. E) results from exposure to bird droppings and begins as a lung infection. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mycoses of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.18 31) African sleeping sickness is fatal if not treated because the parasite A) evades destruction by the immune system by changing surface antigens. B) produces a toxin which binds irreversibly to neurons. C) is an intracellular parasite in RBC's, where they are not detected by the immune system. D) reproduces so fast there is no time for an immune response to develop. E) produces a non-immunogenic toxin the immune system cannot neutralize. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Protozoan Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.19

32) An intracellular parasite primarily transmitted as an STD is the agent of ________, which may cause enough damage to result in blindness. A) primary amebic meningoencephalopathy B) trachoma C) rabies D) tetanus E) cryptococcal meningitis Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Microbial Diseases of the Eyes Learning Outcome: 20.23 33) Variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease can be prevented by avoiding A) contact with mosquitoes. B) contaminated waterways. C) consumption of contaminated meat. D) contact with bird droppings. E) consumption of undercooked meat. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Prion Disease Learning Outcome: 20.22 34) Nasal or ocular contact with water containing ________ may result in primary amebic meningoencephalitis. A) Acanthamoeba B) Naegleria C) Trypanosoma brucei D) both Acanthomoeba and Naegleria E) Acanthamoeba, Naegleria and Trypanosoma brucei Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Protozoan Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.20 35) Which of the following is classified as a spongiform encephalopathy? A) botulism B) variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease C) Hansen's disease D) arboviral encephalitis E) African sleeping sickness Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Prion Disease Learning Outcome: 20.22

36) A child is brought to the hospital with high fever and headache. During examination a stiff neck is noted. What sign indicates the child has viral meningitis instead of bacterial meningitis? A) blood in the CSF. B) cloudy CSF. C) paralysis. D) clear CSF. E) peripheral nerve pain. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.12 37) The condition known as "pinkeye" may be the result of infection with A) Haemophilus influenzae. B) Trypanosoma brucei. C) Acanthamoeba. D) Clostridium botulinum. E) Chlamydia trachomatis. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Microbial Diseases of the Eyes Learning Outcome: 20.24 38) A child is brought to the hospital with a high fever, nausea, and vomiting, and complaining of headache. The cerebrospinal fluid collected by spinal tap is cloudy and contains spherical cells which stain Gram-positive. These signs and symptoms are consistent with A) primary amebic encephalitis caused by Naegleria. B) cryptococcal meningitis due to infection with Cryptococcus neoformans. C) bacterial meningitis probably due to Streptococcus. D) tetanus resulting from infection with Clostridium botulinum. E) aseptic meningitis from infection with Neisseria meningitidis. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.5

39) A young man is experiencing fever and severe headaches, and is having difficulty staying awake. He reports having spent time in Africa on a missionary trip several months ago. Recently he spent time in a park where he went swimming in the lake and was bitten by a bat he attempted to catch. His cerebrospinal fluid is nearly clear, and contains long, slender, mobile cells. This description indicates infection with A) Acanthamoeba. B) an enterovirus. C) rabies virus. D) Neisseria meningitidis. E) Trypanosoma brucei. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Protozoan Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.19 40) One summer, bird watchers and zookeepers in a major city notice that more birds than usual are dying. At the same time reports of human encephalitis cases increase sharply. The cerebrospinal fluid of human patients is clear. Similar enveloped RNA virus particles are detected in samples from both birds and humans. Which of the following might be responsible for this outbreak? A) an arbovirus B) coxsackie A virus C) Cryptococcus neoformans D) Neisseria meningitidis E) rabies virus Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Viral Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.17

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The illustration is of a Gram-negative bacterium frequently responsible for meningitis. What virulence factor(s) of the bacterium is/are illustrated? A) a capsule B) fimbriae C) a membrane containing LOS D) a capsule and fimbriae E) a capsule, fimbriae, and a membrane containing LOS Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.5 20.2 True/False Questions 1) Cryptococcal meningitis can affect both healthy and immunocompromised individuals. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Mycoses of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.18 2) Trypanosoma brucei is transmitted to animals and people by a bloodsucking fly. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Protozoan Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.19 12 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

3) Rabies is a rare zoonosis in humans but common in many other species of mammal. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.15 4) Fungi rarely infect the central nervous system. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Mycoses of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.18 5) All arboviruses are members of the same virus family. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.17 6) Horses and humans are considered "dead-end" hosts for arboviruses. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.17 7) Rodents are a major reservoir for rabies. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.16 8) Viral meningitis is usually more serious than bacterial meningitis. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.12 9) Tetanospasmin blocks the release of stimulatory neurotransmitters. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.10 10) Clostridium botulinum can grow in the intestinal tracts of both infants and adults. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.8 13 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

20.3 Short Answer Questions 1) The only natural hosts for infection with the microbe Mycobacterium leprae are humans and (armadillos/birds/pigs). Answer: armadillos Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.6 2) Infant botulism is the result of (inhalation/ingestion/inoculation) of bacterial endospores. Answer: ingestion Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.8 3) The neurotoxins of Clostridium botulinum produce (paralysis/spasms/weakness) by interfering with acetylcholine secretion. Answer: paralysis Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.9 4) The form of botulism known as (foodborne/infant/wound) is an intoxication disorder. Answer: foodborne Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.8 5) West Nile virus is transmitted by (food/mosquitoes/water). Answer: mosquitoes Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.17 6) Children in the United States are vaccinated with the (IPV/OPV/PEP) to prevent polio. (Use all uppercase in your answer.) Answer: IPV Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.13 7) A diagnostic indicator of bacterial meningitis is (clear/milky/dark) cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Answer: milky Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.4 14 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

8) The presence of (cocci/diplococci/coccobacilli/streptococci) in the CSF is consistent with infection with Listeria monocytogenes. (Describe the appearance of the cells.) Answer: coccobacilli Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.5 9) Small subcutaneous hemorrhages called (granulations/macules/petechiae) are sometimes present in cases of meningitis. Answer: petechiae Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.4 10) The normal habitat for Naegleria is (birds/mammals/water). Answer: water Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Protozoan Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.20 11) Negri bodies are a characteristic microscopic finding in the diagnosis of (encephalitis/leprosy/rabies). Answer: rabies Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.16 12) The (eyes/intestines/lungs) are the initial site of infection with Cryptococcus neoformans. Answer: lungs Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Mycoses of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.18 13) The presence of the pathogen in the blood called (bacteremia/parasitemia/viremia) is a defining feature of African sleeping sickness. Answer: parasitemia Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Protozoan Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.19 14) Spongiform encephalopathy diseases develop as a result of infection with (parasites/prions/rabies). Answer: prions Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Prion Disease Learning Outcome: 20.22 15 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

15) The condition called (conjunctivitis/keratitis/trachoma) is the result of infection of the cornea. Answer: keratitis Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Microbial Diseases of the Eyes Learning Outcome: 20.24 20.4 Essay Questions 1) Compare and contrast the pathogenicity of Clostridium botulinum and Clostridium tetani, including mechanisms of action of their toxins and disease manifestations. Answer: Both bacteria are anaerobic endospores-formers that produce neurotoxins. Disease results when the endospores are introduced deep into the tissues. Both neurotoxins interfere with motor control. Botulism toxin, produced by C. botulinum, binds the cytoplasmic membranes of motor neurons at the synapse and prevents the release of acetylcholine neurotransmitter, and consequently prevents signaling to muscle cells. When muscle cells do not receive signals from motor neurons, they remain relaxed, which result in a flaccid paralysis. A long list of symptoms is produced by the lack of motor control, the most serious of which is respiratory failure, since respiratory muscles can be affected by botulism toxin. Tetanus toxin, produced by C. tetani, targets inhibitory neurons, which release inhibitory neurotransmitter that prevents muscle cells from responding to acetylcholine stimulation to contract. Under normal circumstances, when one muscle of an antagonistic pair is stimulated to contract, the other muscle is inhibited from contracting, allowing for normal movement by alternate flexion and extension. When tetanus toxin blocks the release of inhibitory neurotransmitter, both muscles of the antagonistic pair contract spasmodically, and sometimes lock in continuous contraction, resulting in non-flaccid paralysis. Loss of control of the respiratory muscles can lead to respiratory failure. Tetanus toxin can also interfere with autonomic (non-voluntary) muscle control, which may result in irregular heartbeat and possibly heart failure. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.11

2) Discuss the two types of poliovirus vaccines available, including the advantages and disadvantages of each. Answer: The two types of poliovirus vaccine are the inactivated poliovirus vaccine (IPV) developed by Jonas Salk and the oral poliovirus vaccine (OPV) developed by Albert Sabin. Both vaccines effectively stimulate immunity against poliovirus. However, there are a number of differences between the two vaccines. In general, IPV is cheaper and easier to transport and store than OPV, which is less stable. On the other hand, OPV is easier to administer, provides good immunity without the need for boosters, and mimics a natural infection more closely than IPV. Probably one of the biggest differences between the two has to do with the risk of vaccinerelated polio. Because IPV is inactivated virus, it cannot cause the disease itself; however, because OPV is a live virus vaccine, there have been documented cases of its mutation into a virulent form, which then can cause polio in the person supposedly immunized by the vaccine. For this reason, IPV is now often used to vaccinate babies initially so that they will have an opportunity to develop good immunity before being exposed to live poliovirus. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Viral Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.14 3) Compare and contrast African sleeping sickness and primary amebic meningoencephalopathy. Answer: Both diseases are caused by protozoan parasites and have very high risk of fatality. Trypanosoma brucei, which causes African sleeping sickness, is a true pathogen. It is a kinetoplastid transmitted by an insect vector, and initially establishes an infection of the blood. The parasite makes its way into the central nervous system and causes severe headache and progressively declining neurologic function leading to death. The disease progresses slowly, taking months or years to kill those infected. There is no vaccine, but there are medications effective against the parasite while it is still in the blood. Both Acanthamoeba and Naegleria cause primary amebic meningoencephalopathy. Both are free-living, fresh water amoebae that can become accidental parasites when they get into the eyes, nose, or breaks in the skin. The amoebae rapidly make their way to the brain following cranial nerves. The disease progresses rapidly, sometimes killing only days after infection. There is no vaccine, and there are no reliable effective treatments. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Protozoan Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.19, 20.21

4) Describe the pathogenesis associated with Trypanosoma brucei that makes it nearly impossible for infected individuals to become immune to the pathogen. Answer: Trypanosoma brucei is a protozoan that causes African sleeping sickness. As it replicates, it is released into the bloodstream, causing parasitemia. An effective immune response is generated against the pathogen; however, as the pathogen continues to replicate, it changes its surface glycoproteins and in the process presents new antigens to the immune system, which then must make new antibodies against the trypanosome. Repeated changes in the microbe's surface antigens result in waves of parasitemia every 7 to 10 days, and because of this ability to change antigens frequently, the infected individual never becomes sufficiently immune to the trypanosome to be able to clear the infection. Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Protozoan Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.19 5) A one-year-old child is brought to the hospital with high fever and limited range of motion of the head. The child frequently rubs her head. A recent history is not immediately available due to a language barrier on the part of the parent. The attending physician suspects meningitis and orders a sample of CFS be collected. Describe the various diagnoses possible based on the results with the CSF. Answer: A cloudy or milky appearance of the CSF is consistent with bacterial meningitis. A Gram stain of the bacteria present can facilitate identification of the causative agent. Gram-negative diplococcus: Neisseria meningitidis Gram-positive diplococcus: Streptococcus pneumoniae Gram-positive streptococcus: Streptococcus agalactiae Gram-positive coccobacilli: Listeria monocytogenes Gram-negative pleomorphic bacteria: Haemophilus influenzae CSF that is clear and colorless indicates the cause is not bacterial. Microscopic examination of the fluid may reveal round encapsulated yeast cells (Cryptococcus neoformans), long motile cells tapering at each end (Trypanosoma brucei) or motile amoeba (Acanthamoeba or Naegleria). If no cells are evident in the clear CSF, a viral pathogen is indicated. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Protozoan Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.4, 20.12, 20.18, 20.19, 20.21

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 5e (Bauman) Chapter 21 Microbial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases 21.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following vessels carries blood from the heart to the rest of the body? A) the aorta B) the superior vena cava C) the inferior vena cava D) the pulmonary arteries E) capillaries Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Structures of the Cardiovascular System Learning Outcome: 21.2 2) The chambers and valves of the heart are lined by the A) pericardium. B) myocardium. C) endocardium. D) erythrocytes. E) vena cava. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Structures of the Cardiovascular System Learning Outcome: 21.3 3) Blood returning from circulation through the body first enters the A) left ventricle. B) right atrium. C) right ventricle. D) pulmonary vein. E) left atrium. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Structures of the Cardiovascular System Learning Outcome: 21.4

4) A blood sample from a patient is examined on a microscope. Bacterial cells are detected in the sample. The patient has A) bacteremia. B) lymphangitis. C) toxemia. D) lipidemia. E) viremia. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.5 5) Infection of the lymphatic vessels is known as A) disseminated intravascular coagulation. B) bacteremia. C) lymphangitis. D) petechiae. E) recurrent fever. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.6 6) Toxic shock syndrome (TSS) is associated with A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa. B) Staphylococcus aureus. C) Streptococcus pyogenes. D) Neisseria meningitidis. E) both Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.6 7) A person is brought to the emergency room with constant high fever, extensive edema, low blood pressure, and petechiae. From which of the following may the person be suffering? A) septicemia B) plague C) Lyme disease D) brucellosis E) infectious mononucleosis Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.6

8) Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a complication resulting from the A) release of cytotoxins. B) triggering of the complement system. C) attachment of bacterial cells to the endocardium. D) release of heme from damaged RBCs. E) release of lipid A from dying Gram-negative bacteria. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.7 9) Vegetations are associated with which of the following disease processes? A) septicemia B) endocarditis C) tularemia D) plague E) toxoplasmosis Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.8 10) Unprotected contact with the bodily fluids of an infected animal may result in A) African sleeping sickness. B) brucellosis. C) blackwater fever. D) Lyme disease. E) toxoplasmosis. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.10 11) The chief diagnostic sign of brucellosis is A) petechiae. B) jaundice. C) "bull's eye" rash. D) fever which recurs at 24 hour intervals. E) fever which cycles every 72 hours. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.9

12) Which of the following is/are a reservoir for Francisella tularensis? A) rabbits B) ticks C) humans D) rabbits and ticks E) humans, rabbits and ticks Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.11 13) Fever, difficulty breathing, extreme fatigue, and elevated heart rate are characteristic of A) Bang's disease. B) ehrlichiosis. C) infectious mononucleosis. D) plague. E) endocarditis. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.8 14) The normal habitat of ________ is rodents, but humans bitten by fleas carrying the pathogen have fever, severely inflamed lymph nodes, and headache. Later, areas of black, necrotic tissue may develop. A) Clostridium perfringens B) Yersinia pestis C) Francisella tularensis D) Borrelia burgdorferi E) Toxoplasma gondii Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.13 15) Which of the following is characteristic of Yersinia pestis infections? A) petechiae B) a "bull's-eye" rash C) jaundice D) arthritis E) buboes Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.13

16) How does Borrelia burgdorferi evade the body's defenses? A) It has a polysaccharide capsule. B) It has manganese-containing enzymes. C) It is capable of antigenic variation. D) It has a polysaccharide capsule and antiphagocytic proteins. E) It is capable of antigenic variation and has manganese-containing enzymes. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.16 17)

The appearance of this rash is characteristic of infections with which of the following? A) Francisella tularensis B) dengue virus C) Borrelia burgdorferi D) Epstein-Barr virus E) Yersinia pestis Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.14 18) Primary infection with Epstein-Barr virus is known as A) infectious mononucleosis. B) Burkitt's lymphoma. C) Hodgkin's lymphoma. D) chronic fatigue syndrome. E) oral hairy leukoplakia. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.22

19) Epstein-Barr virus infections are typically asymptomatic in ________ because of incomplete development of adaptive immunity. A) the elderly B) AIDS patients C) adolescents D) adults E) young children Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.23 20) A few days of fever with vomiting followed by high fever, jaundice, and "black vomit" are characteristic of A) malaria. B) dengue fever. C) Chagas' disease. D) yellow fever. E) schistosomiasis. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.21 21) Cycles of fever, chills, anemia and headache along with passage of dark colored urine are the symptoms of infection with A) yellow fever virus. B) P. vivax. C) P. ovale. D) P. falciparum. E) dengue virus. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Protozoan and Helminthic Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.29 22) Schizogony is an important aspect of which of the following pathogens? A) Yersinia pestis B) Plasmodium species C) Toxoplasma gondii D) Trypanosoma cruzi E) Schistosoma mansoni Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Protozoan and Helminthic Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.29 6 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

23) Dengue hemorrhagic fever is the result of A) an immediate immune reaction to the initial infection with dengue virus. B) an antibody-antigen complex reaction. C) a hyperimmune response to reinfection with dengue virus. D) an autoimmune disease. E) the chronic carrier state associated with dengue virus infection. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.27 24) A young woman develops a fever after a recent trip to a Caribbean island. She also experiences severe headache and pain "in the bones." After a few days, she also develops a rash. Which of the following did she most likely contract? A) yellow fever virus B) dengue virus C) malaria D) Toxoplasma E) Chagas' disease Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Viral Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.26 25) Which of the following is/are transmitted by Aedes mosquitoes? A) dengue fever B) yellow fever C) malaria D) both dengue fever and yellow fever E) dengue fever, yellow fever, and malaria Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Protozoan and Helminthic Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.21, 21.26,

26) A large number of people in an African village become ill a couple of weeks after sharing a feast of stew made from the meat of jungle animals. They initially have fever, headache and fatigue, and develop petechiae. Most then experience bloody diarrhea and vomiting, and a few days later begin bleeding from the mouth and eyes. What is the most likely preliminary diagnosis? A) dengue hemorrhagic fever B) ebola hemorrhagic fever C) yellow fever D) malaria E) African trypanosomiasis Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Viral Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.28 27) Which of the following is known to be teratogenic? A) Epstein-Barr virus B) cytomegalovirus C) Plasmodium D) Borrelia E) dengue virus Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.24 28) Depletion of clotting proteins from the serum leads to the uncontrollable hemorrhaging seen in ________ infections. A) yellow fever virus B) malaria C) dengue virus D) Ebola virus E) Epstein-Barr virus Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.28

29) Plasmodium species reproduce sexually in A) birds. B) Aedes mosquitoes. C) Ixodes ticks. D) humans. E) Anopheles mosquitoes. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Protozoan and Helminthic Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.29 30) Which of the following is the infective form of Trypanosoma cruzi? A) epimastigotes B) trypomastigotes C) pseudocysts D) amastigotes E) miricidia Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Protozoan and Helminthic Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.34 31) Plasmodium falciparum produces proteins that cause ________ in addition to the anemia due to erythrocyte destruction. A) DIC B) toxemia C) black vomit D) capillary damage E) damage to the heart muscle Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Protozoan and Helminthic Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.31 32) Which of the following diseases is a major problem for AIDS patients? A) Chagas' disease B) toxoplasmosis C) hemorrhagic fevers D) Lyme disease E) brucellosis Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Protozoan and Helminthic Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.33

33) Which of the following statements concerning Toxoplasma infection is CORRECT? A) It is a rare infection. B) It is transmitted by biting insects. C) It is typically contracted by eating undercooked meat. D) Freshwater snails are intermediate hosts. E) In most individuals, the infection results in lasting damage to the heart. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Protozoan and Helminthic Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.33 34) Lyme disease becomes chronic because A) Borrelia changes its surface antigens frequently. B) Borrelia can lie dormant in liver cells. C) the bacterium resists phagocytosis. D) Borrelia is an intracellular parasite of erythrocytes. E) the bacterium resists phagocytosis and "hides" erythrocytes. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.16 35) Infection with Schistosoma species is acquired by A) mosquito bite. B) tick bite. C) eating undercooked meat. D) eating undercooked fish. E) wading or swimming in fresh water. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Protozoan and Helminthic Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.35 36) Another name for brucellosis is ________ fever. A) blackwater B) yellow C) snail D) rabbit E) undulant Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.9

37) The normal hosts for Ebola viruses are probably A) birds. B) cats. C) rodents. D) bats. E) humans. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.28 38) An indication of infection with Human herpesvirus 4 is A) "swimmer's itch." B) "bull's eye" rash. C) a bubo. D) high fever and sore throat. E) an ulcerating sore. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.22 39) Which of the following diseases is currently vaccine-preventable in humans? A) schistosomiasis B) malaria C) Lyme disease D) plague E) yellow fever Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.21 40) A young man living in the Southeastern U.S. is an avid outdoorsman and has a history of tick bites. Blood tests show that he has leukopenia.. He may have contracted A) brucellosis. B) tularemia. C) Lyme disease. D) ehrlichiosis. E) Chagas' disease. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.18

41)

A person reports to a clinic complaining of fever and abdominal pain. The abdomen is swollen, and blood tests indicate kidney damage. A stool sample is examined under a microscope and found to contain the egg shown in the figure. The indications are consistent with infection with A) Plasmodium falciparum. B) Anaplasma phagocytophilium. C) Schistosoma mansoni. D) Toxoplasma gondii. E) Trypanosoma cruzi. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Protozoan and Helminthic Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.35 21.2 True/False Questions 1) Lipid A can cause septic shock. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.7 2) Lymph is produced in the lymph nodes. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Structures of the Cardiovascular System Learning Outcome: 21.4 3) Small doses of antimicrobial drugs are effective in treatment of the late stages of Borrelia infection because the microbe is extremely susceptible. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.17

4) The terms "bacteremia" and "septicemia" are synonymous. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.5 5) Patients with occult septicemia are asymptomatic. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.6 6) The three developmental stages of Ehrlichia are the elementary body, the initial body, and the morula. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.19 7) Human herpesvirus 4 is better known as cytomegalovirus. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.22 8) Both bubonic and pneumonic plague cause the formation of buboes and tissue necrosis of the extremities. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.13 9) Cytomegalovirus may be latent for years and reactivate when immunosuppression occurs. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.24 10) People with genes for a form of hemoglobin known as hemoglobin C are at risk of fatal malaria disease. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Protozoan and Helminthic Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.32

21.3 Short Answer Questions 1) The release of bacterial toxins into the blood leads to (bacteremia/septicemia/toxemia). Answer: toxemia Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.5 2) Blood returns to the heart from the lungs through the pulmonary (arteries/veins/valves). Answer: veins Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Structures of the Cardiovascular System Learning Outcome: 21.2 3) When bacteria in the bloodstream invade the bones, this leads to a painful condition called (endocarditis/osteomyelitis/lymphangitis). Answer: osteomyelitis Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.6 4) Anaplasma primarily infects (erythrocytes/monocytes/neutrophils). Answer: neutrophils Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.18 5) The zoonosis known as (ehrlichiosis/plague/tularemia) is transmitted to humans by fleas. Answer: plague Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.12 6) One of the factors leading to the initial characterization of Lyme disease in 1975 was the greater-than-expected incidence of (arthritis/osteomyelitis/mononucleosis) among children. Answer: arthritis Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.14 7) It is the (larvae/nymph/adult) stage of the tick genus Ixodes that most often transmits Lyme disease to humans. Answer: nymphs Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.15 14 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

8) Epstein-Barr virus causes the cells it infects to become immortal because it suppresses (apoptosis/cytolysis/oncogenesis). Answer: apoptosis Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.22 9) Cytomegalovirus infection of the retina is now treated with (interferon/fomivirsen/ganciclovir), the first antisense RNA drug. Answer: fomivirsen Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.25 10) Yellow fever is named for the (anemia/jaundice/vomiting) it typically causes. Answer: jaundice Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.21 11) The intermediate host for Schistosoma mansoni is a (mosquito/tick/snail). Answer: snail Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Protozoan and Helminthic Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.35 12) The Ebola and Marburg viruses are the sole members of the (Flaviviridae/Filoviridae/Herpesviridae) family, named for their unusual filamentous form. (Be sure to use proper form.) Answer: Filoviridae Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.28 13) Plasmodium (gametocytes/merozoites/sporozoites) reproduce by schizogony in humans. Answer: merozoites Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Protozoan and Helminthic Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.29 14) The final stage of Chagas' disease is typically fatal because the parasite infects cells of the (blood/heart/liver). Answer: heart Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Protozoan and Helminthic Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.34 15 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

15) True bugs in the genus (Aedes/Ixodes/Triatoma) transmit Chagas' disease. (Be sure to use proper nomenclature form.) Answer: Triatoma Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Protozoan and Helminthic Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.34 21.4 Essay Questions 1) Explain the difference between bacteremia and septicemia, and describe some of the factors that can lead to septicemia. Answer: Septicemia is a microbial infection of the blood that causes disease. Although the terms bacteremia and septicemia are sometimes used interchangeably, bacteremia technically refers to septicemia caused by bacteria in the bloodstream. The signs and symptoms of bacteremia and septicemia are essentially the same, and both can lead to adverse consequences such as toxemia, lymphangitis, or septic shock. To be able to cause these problems, the bacteria involved in septicemia may possess capsules, have the ability to capture iron from the host's tissues, and/or release a variety of endotoxins that ultimately damage host cells and tissues. Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.5 2) Compare and contrast bubonic and pneumonic plague. Answer: Both bubonic and pneumonic plague are caused by Yersinia pestis and are transmitted by fleas that migrate between animal hosts and humans. However, pneumonic plague is generally much more serious than bubonic plague, develops more rapidly, and is more often fatal than bubonic plague. In addition, pneumonic plague can occur when Yersinia pestis is inhaled, so it can be transmitted from person to person. Bubonic plague is transmitted only by infected fleas. Treatment and prevention of both diseases are similar: plague is easily treated by common antibiotics such as tetracycline, and prevention involves rodent and flea control, as well as good personal hygiene. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.13

3) List and describe the three stages of malaria, paying attention to the various forms of the protozoan parasite present in each stage of the disease. Answer: Two of the three stages of malaria occur in a human, and the third stage occurs in mosquitoes. The human stages begin with the exoerythrocytic cycle, when mosquitoes inject sporozoites into the bloodstream. These sporozoites reproduce in the liver to form merozoites, which are released into the blood. Merozoites then penetrate red blood cells and launch the second human stage, which is the erythrocytic cycle. The merozoites become trophozoites inside red blood cells, and these trophozoites can, in turn, reproduce to become more merozoites, which spontaneously lyse the erythrocytes, causing the characteristic cycles of fever and chills associated with malaria. Other merozoites develop into gametocytes, which can be ingested by the female Anopheles mosquito to launch the third cycle, the sporogonic cycle. These gametocytes go through a process of sexual reproduction inside the mosquito, eventually resulting in the formation of sporozoites once again. These sporozoites migrate to the mosquito's salivary glands, and the malaria cycle begins all over again. Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Protozoan and Helminthic Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.29 4) Compare and contrast dengue hemorrhagic fever and Ebola hemorrhagic fever. Discuss both the pathogens and the pathology. Answer: Both diseases are caused by RNA viruses. Both start with fever, headache and muscle pain, then a rash develops, followed by bleeding. There is no specific treatment for either disease and no vaccines are available to prevent them. Dengue hemorrhagic fever is caused by a member of the Flaviviridae, a +ssRNA virus with an icosahedral capsid. It is transmitted by Aedes mosquitoes. A first infection with dengue virus does not lead to the hemorrhagic disease, but it is subsequent infection that produces the hemorrhagic disease. Memory T cells produced in response to the first infection are activated upon subsequent infection and release inflammatory cytokines that trigger a hyperimmune response that results in damage to blood vessels, internal bleeding, and may progress to shock from excessive blood loss. Ebola viruses are filamentous—ssRNA Filoviridae whose natural hosts are thought to be bats. Humans become infected when handling an infected animal, after which the virus can be transmitted from person to person by unprotected contact with blood and other bodily fluids. Ebola virus infection initially triggers excessive clotting which results in depletion of clotting factors, which in turn leads to extensive internal hemorrhaging. Death results from massive shock and kidney failure. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Viral Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.27, 21.28

5) How does the age of the infected individual play a role in the development of Epstein-Barr virus (HHV-4) infections such as infectious mononucleosis? Answer: The symptoms of most Epstein-Barr infections result from a "war" between the cellular and humoral divisions of the immune system. B cells are infected by Epstein-Barr virus, and then cytotoxic T cells try to kill the infected B cells. The younger an infected individual is, the less mature his or her cellular immune system is, and the less effective it will be in causing symptoms during the "war." In fact, in young children, Epstein-Barr virus infections are usually asymptomatic. The later in life an individual is infected with Epstein-Barr virus, the more vigorous the cellular immune system is, and the more problematic and symptomatic the infection becomes. On the other hand, however, a vigorous cellular immune response also means that the infected B cells may be completely eradicated from the body, resulting in no discernible disease in many individuals. Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.23

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 5e (Bauman) Chapter 22 Microbial Diseases of the Respiratory System 22.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1)

The structure indicated by the arrow connects the middle ear to what part of the respiratory system? A) nasal cavity B) larynx C) pharynx D) sinuses E) trachea Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Structures of the Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.2 2) Which of the following is part of the upper respiratory system? A) larynx B) trachea C) bronchi D) pharynx E) alveoli Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Structures of the Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.1 1 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

3) Which of the following is an opportunistic pathogen commonly present in the nasal cavity as a member of the microbiota? A) Staphylococcus aureus B) Bordetella pertussis C) Legionella pneumophilia D) Pneumocystis jiroveci E) Veillonella species Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Structures of the Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.3 4) Inflammation of the pharynx with pus-filled abscesses and swollen tonsils is known as A) diphtheria. B) otitis media. C) croup. D) RSV. E) streptococcal pharyngitis ("strep throat"). Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Upper Respiratory System, Sinuses, and Ears Learning Outcome: 22.4 5) The designation "group A," used to help classify Streptococcus pyogenes, refers to this bacterium's A) Lancefield antigen. B) hemolysis pattern. C) M protein. D) type of streptokinase produced. E) disease associations. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Upper Respiratory System, Sinuses, and Ears Learning Outcome: 22.5 6) Group A streptococci produce ________ which breaks down blood clots, allowing the bacteria to spread. A) M proteins B) a hyaluronic acid capsule C) C5a peptidase D) streptokinase E) pyrogenic toxins Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Upper Respiratory System, Sinuses, and Ears Learning Outcome: 22.5 2 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

7) Which of the following Streptococcus pyogenes virulence factors kills leukocytes and erythrocytes? A) streptolysins B) pyrogenic toxins C) streptokinases D) the hyaluronic acid capsule E) C5a peptidase Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Upper Respiratory System, Sinuses, and Ears Learning Outcome: 22.5 8) Pathogenic streptococci of the upper respiratory tract (such as Streptococcus pyogenes) are distinguished from non-pathogenic streptococci by A) alpha hemolytic activity. B) beta hemolytic activity. C) no hemolytic activity. D) the absence of a capsule. E) the presence of a lysogenic phage. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Upper Respiratory System, Sinuses, and Ears Learning Outcome: 22.5 9) Diphtheria toxin kills cells by interfering with which of the following processes? A) complement function B) nucleic acid synthesis C) cytoplasmic membrane function D) protein synthesis E) adenylate cyclase activity Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Upper Respiratory System, Sinuses, and Ears Learning Outcome: 22.6 10) Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning diphtheria? A) No effective vaccine is available to prevent infection. B) A diffuse rash is the major sign of diphtheria. C) The signs and symptoms of the disease are directly caused by a bacterial toxin. D) The pseudomembrane is easily removed by surgery. E) A microscopic exam of bacterial samples is sufficient for conclusive diagnosis. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Upper Respiratory System, Sinuses, and Ears Learning Outcome: 22.7

11) Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the common cold? A) Only coronaviruses cause the common cold. B) The viruses can infect both the upper and lower respiratory tracts. C) Cold viruses reproduce most effectively at 37°C. D) Cold viruses are frequently spread by contaminated fomites. E) The immune system cannot develop an effective response to cold viruses. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Diseases of the Upper Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.9 12) What is the primary determinant of virulence in Streptococcus pneumoniae? A) the presence of a particular Lancefield antigen B) the production of pneumolysin C) the presence of a polysaccharide capsule D) the ability to lyse red blood cells E) strain-specific teichoic acids in its cell wall Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.11 13) The majority of cases of pneumonia are caused by A) Mycoplasma pneumoniae. B) Klebsiella pneumoniae. C) Haemophilus influenzae. D) Streptococcus pneumoniae. E) Chlamydophila pneumoniae. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.11 14) A pneumonia caused by Gram-positive diplococci is known as A) primary atypical pneumonia. B) pleurisy. C) pneumocystic pneumonia. D) pneumonic plague. E) pneumococcal pneumonia. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.11

15) Ornithosis, a disease of birds that can be transmitted to humans, is caused by A) Yersinia pestis. B) Klebsiella pneumoniae. C) Chlamydophila psittaci. D) Mycoplasma pneumoniae. E) Chlamydophila pneumoniae. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.12 16) The microbe which causes primary atypical pneumonia is A) Bordetella pertussis. B) MERS. C) Chlamydophila pneumoniae. D) Mycoplasma pneumoniae. E) SARS. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.12 17) Neutrophils are inhibited from gathering at the site of infection by Mycobacterium tuberculosis by what virulence factor of the pathogen? A) mycolic acid B) cord factor C) kinase D) the capsule E) hemolysin Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.16 18) Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding tuberculosis? A) It occurs only in the lungs. B) Several hundred cells are required for infection. C) It remains viable in dried aerosol droplets for up to eight months. D) Only virulent strains of Mycobacterium tuberculosis produce mycolic acid. E) The immune system is not affected by the infection. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.17

19) Strains of Mycobacterium tuberculosis called MDR are resistant to A) levofloxacin. B) isoniazid. C) rifampin. D) isoniazid and rifampin. E) levofloxacin, isoniazid and rifampin. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.19 20) Bordetella pertussis produces A) dermonecrotic toxin. B) adenylate cyclase toxin. C) pyrogenic toxin. D) dermonecrotic and adenylate cyclase toxins. E) dermonecrotic, adenylate cyclase, and pyrogenic toxins. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.20 21) The DTaP vaccine protects against which of the following respiratory diseases? A) pneumonia B) pertussis C) anthrax D) the common cold E) tuberculosis Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.20 22) Inhalation anthrax is frequently fatal even with antibiotic therapy because A) Bacillus anthracis is resistant to a wide range of antibiotics. B) it is transmitted as endospores. C) the anthrax toxin triggers necrosis and severe edema of the lungs. D) the bacteria are enclosed within a biofilm that antibiotics cannot penetrate. E) the dying cells release lipid A, triggering a severe inflammatory response. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.21

23) What distinguishes influenza from the common cold? A) Fever B) Pharyngitis C) Cough D) Malaise E) Nasal congestion Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.22 24) A recently retired man appears at his doctor's office complaining of difficulty breathing, body aches and fatigue. He is also running a high fever and has a dry cough. He reports having just returned from a trip to the Middle East where he visited several historical sites. Test results are negative for a rapid test for influenza A. No bacteria are visible in a microscopic exam of his sputum. Which of the following is a likely explanation? A) inhalation anthrax B) pertussis C) valley fever D) coronavirus respiratory syndrome E) primary atypical pneumonia Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Viral Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.24 25) Even though mycoplasmas pass through filters that normally trap bacteria, they are known to be bacteria, not viruses, because they A) contain both DNA and RNA. B) synthesize peptidoglycan. C) divide by binary fission. D) contain both DNA and RNA and divide by binary fission. E) synthesize peptidoglycan and divide by snapping division. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.11

26) Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding infection with Mycoplasma pneumoniae? A) It is extremely difficult to treat. B) The causative agent attaches to ciliated cells in the respiratory tract. C) The causative agent is a fast-growing Gram-positive bacillus. D) It causes disease which is usually severe enough to require hospitalization. E) It is diagnosed by the appearance of typical "fried-egg" colonies on agar. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.11 27) The disease known as "Croup" is often a result of infection with which of the following? A) hantavirus B) influenzavirus C) Bordetella pertussis D) Mycoplasma pneumoniae E) respiratory syncytial virus Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.26 28) Which of the following factors is primarily responsible for the ability of Mycobacterium tuberculosis to survive long periods of time in dried droplets of respiratory aerosols? A) production of cord factor B) pyrogenic toxin C) formation of tubercles D) the presence of LPS in the outer membrane E) the presence of mycolic acid in the cell wall Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.17 29) Limiting exposure to rodents and their waste is an important means of preventing A) coccidioidomycosis. B) Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome. C) histoplasmosis. D) bronchiolitis. E) inhalational anthrax. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.27

30) Blastomycosis results from A) inhalation of spherules. B) inhalation of respiratory droplets. C) inhalation of fungal spores. D) contact with fomites. E) contact with infected sputum. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Mycoses of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.31 31) Dust storms in arid regions of the Southwestern U.S. may lead to outbreaks of A) blastomycosis. B) histoplasmosis. C) Pneumocystis pneumonia. D) Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome. E) coccidioidomycosis. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mycoses of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.30 32) Exposure to large accumulations of bird dropping may result in which of the following mycoses? A) Pneumocystis pneumonia B) blastomycosis C) coccidioidomycosis D) histoplasmosis E) valley fever Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mycoses of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.32 33) Which of the following diseases is almost diagnostic for AIDS? A) blastomycosis B) coccidioidomycosis C) Pneumocystis pneumonia D) histoplasmosis E) Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Mycoses of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.33

34) Why are nearly all AIDS patients at risk of developing Pneumocystis pneumonia? A) Pneumocystis jiroveci is becoming a wide-spread contaminant in health care environments. B) Pneumocystis jiroveci is commonly found in a wide variety of soils. C) The pathogen is easily transmitted from infected persons to others. D) Pneumocystis jiroveci is a common member of the respiratory microbiome in humans and opportunistic pathogen. E) Pneumocystis jiroveci is zoonotic in a wide range of vertebrates and exposure is unavoidable. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mycoses of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.33 35) A new vaccine for the upcoming flu season is developed from an influenza isolate designated A/Shanghai/2/2013(H7N9). This nomenclature means the isolate is A) a type A with antigens HA 7 and NA 9 isolated in Shanghai in February 2013. B) a type A with 7 HA antigens and 9 NA antigens isolated in Shanghai in February 2013. C) the second type A strain with HA 7 and NA 9 antigens isolated in Shanghai in 2013. D) a type B strain with antigens HA 7 and NA 9, first isolated in February 2013. E) a hybrid of 2 type As combining 7 HA and 9 NA antigens, created in February 2013. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Viral Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.23 36) A nursing student develops a positive reaction to the tuberculin skin test. A history reveals possible exposure to patients with tuberculosis. A sputum sample is acid-fast negative. When asked for vaccination records, the student reports that childhood vaccination records were lost when the family emigrated from a Southeast Asian country. What is the best explanation for the test results? A) The student has been infected with Mycobacterium tuberculosis. B) The student has been exposed to Mycobacterium tuberculosis. C) The student is not infected. D) The student has been exposed to Mycobacterium tuberculosis or was vaccinated with BCG vaccine. E) No conclusion is possible with the information provided. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.18

37) Which of the following is a common cause of otitis media? A) Chlamydophila pneumoniae B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis C) Blastomyces dermatitidis D) Streptococcus pneumoniae E) Pneumocystis jiroveci Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Upper Respiratory System, Sinuses, and Ears Learning Outcome: 22.8 38) Legionella pneumophila is an opportunistic pathogen that A) is part of the microbiome of the lower respiratory system. B) is part of the microbiota of the nasal cavity which occasionally invades the lungs. C) survives in the environment as an intracellular parasite of a protozoan. D) is capable of forming endospores. E) is a disease of birds transmissible to humans. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.15 39) A young man who works on a ranch and lives in the log bunkhouse experiences sudden fever with muscle aches. A few days later he begins to cough and have difficulty breathing, and goes to an urgent care clinic. His blood pressure is low. A blood sample reveals a low platelet count. A Gram stain of a sputum sample shows only a few small bacteria present. Which of the following is the most likely infecting agent? A) Bacillus anthracis B) Hantavirus C) Histoplasma capsulatum D) influenza E) Mycoplasma pneumonia Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Viral Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.27

40) A woman who breeds parrots develops a fever and cough, and begins to have difficulty breathing. Small Gram-negative bacteria are detected inside cells of a sputum sample. Which of the following diseases is she likely to have contracted? A) histoplasmosis B) influenza C) primary atypical pneumonia D) ornithosis E) inhalation anthrax Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.12 22.2 True/False Questions 1) Staphylococcus aureus is part of the upper respiratory microbiome. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Structures of the Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.3 2) Haemophilus influenzae is a common cause of sinus infections. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Upper Respiratory System, Sinuses, and Ears Learning Outcome: 22.8 3) Pneumocystis jiroveci infects only immunocompromised patients. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mycoses of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.33 4) The "common cold" is so common because there of the large number of viruses that cause it. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Upper Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.9 5) Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome can be transmitted from person-to-person and from rodents to humans. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.27

6) Pleurisy is the accumulation of pus in the lungs. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.10 7) Klebsiella pneumoniae is a leading cause of HAP infections. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.11 8) Macrophages effectively phagocytize and kill Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.18 9) Cold viruses are prevented from infecting most areas of the body because these areas are either too warm or too acidic. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Upper Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.9 10) Otitis media is more common in adults than children because of differences in the anatomy of the head. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Upper Respiratory System, Sinuses, and Ears Learning Outcome: 22.8 22.3 Short Answer Questions 1) A key diagnostic sign of diphtheria is the presence of the (pseudomembrane/pharyngitis/rash/tubercle). Answer: pseudomembrane Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Upper Respiratory System, Sinuses, and Ears Learning Outcome: 22.7 2) Otitis media is a bacterial infection of the (ear/pharynx/sinuses). Answer: ear Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Upper Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.8 13 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

3) The smallest free-living microbes are (mycobacteria/mycoplasmas/Chlamydophila). Answer: mycoplasmas Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.13 4) Recent outbreaks of multidrug-resistant HAP are primarily caused by members of the genus (Bordetella/ Klebsiella/Mycobacteria), Gram-negative opportunists. Answer: Klebsiella Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.11 5) Exposure to soil with decaying plant material may result in pus-filled lesions characteristic of (coccidioidomycosis/blastomycosis/histoplasmosis). Answer: blastomycosis Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Mycoses of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.31 6)

The structure indicated by the letter "A" is the (pharynx/larynx/epiglottis). Answer: epiglottis Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Structures of the Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.1 7) Some of the signs of scarlet fever (scarlatina) are due to the production of (pertussis/pneumolysin/pyrogenic) toxin. Answer: pyrogenic Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Upper Respiratory System, Sinuses, and Ears Learning Outcome: 22.5 14 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

8) Elongation factor, a protein required for eukaryotic (transcription/translation/expression), is the cellular target of the toxin produced by Corynebacterium diphtheriae. Answer: translation Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Upper Respiratory System, Sinuses, and Ears Learning Outcome: 22.6 9) The attachment protein for almost all rhinoviruses is (BCG/ICAM-1/IgA). (Be sure your answer is in uppercase letters.) Answer: ICAM-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Upper Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.9 10) A type of pneumonia in which the alveoli and bronchioles become filled with pus is (emphysema/empyema/pleurisy). Answer: empyema Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.10 11) The mycoplasmas have been successively classified as viruses, Gram-negative bacteria, and Gram-positive bacteria largely due to the lack of cell (membranes/walls/RNA) in their structure. Answer: walls Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.13 12) When Mycobacterium tuberculosis spreads to sites such as the bone marrow and spleen it results in (disseminated/secondary/reactivated) tuberculosis. Answer: disseminated Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.17 13) Strains of Mycobacterium tuberculosis designated as (BCG/MDR/XDR) strains are resistant in vitro to three or more antitubercular drugs in addition to isoniazid and rifampin. (Be sure to use uppercase letters in your answer.) Answer: XDR Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.19

14) A major change in the surface glycoproteins of influenza A, which occurs every 10 years on average, is called (antigenic/genetic/protein) shift. Answer: antigenic Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.23 15) Inflammation of the trachea and bronchi, commonly called (croup/pertussis/pneumonia), is frequently caused by paramyxoviruses. Answer: croup Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.26 22.4 Essay Questions 1) Why is immunity to the common cold so difficult to develop, either naturally or through vaccines? Answer: The primary reason that immunity generally does not develop against the common cold is that there is not a single cause of the disease. Over 200 serotypes of viruses, including enteroviruses (previously called rhinoviruses), coronaviruses, and adenoviruses, can cause the symptoms of the common cold. Therefore, any vaccine designed to protect against the common cold would have to include antigens from all the different viruses that can cause the disease, which is simply not practical or even feasible. The exception to this is the vaccine against adenovirus infections, although it is currently used only for military recruits. Because of the vast number of viruses that can cause the common cold, even natural immunity is difficult to obtain because a person may not encounter the exact same virus serotype twice in a lifetime. In addition, the receptor for ICAM-1 on the virus particle is not accessible by antibodies, preventing antibody neutralization of the virus. However, the frequency of colds does decrease as a person ages, so some immunity undoubtedly occurs, including some herd immunity. Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Diseases of the Upper Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.9

2) Explain the necessity of producing a new vaccine for each year's flu season. Answer: Because the genome of influenzavirus is capable of extraordinary reassortment and genetic variation, new strains of the virus constantly arise. Various strains of influenzavirus pass through a variety of animal hosts (most notably pigs, birds, and humans), resulting in the production of new combinations of genome segments. The outcome of all the genetic rearrangement is either antigenic drift, a phenomenon in which the HA and NA glycoproteins of the virus undergo minor genetic changes, or antigenic shift, in which major antigenic changes occur in the glycoproteins, resulting in virtually brand-new strains of the virus. Therefore, because the virus is undergoing constant antigenic change, U.S. health officials monitor the worldwide incidence of flu, making note of which strains seem likely to occur in the next flu season, and making adjustments to the flu vaccine accordingly. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Viral Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.23 3) Compare and contrast pneumococcal and mycoplasmal pneumonia. Answer: Pneumonia describes a general pathogenic process in which an infection of the lungs results in their being filled with fluid, and the subsequent complications arising from such a process. Among bacterial pneumonias, both pneumococcal and mycoplasmal pneumonias are common types. Pneumococcal pneumonia is caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae, while mycoplasmal pneumonia is caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae. In general, pneumococcal pneumonia is a more serious disease than mycoplasmal pneumonia, which is often called "walking pneumonia" because of its milder symptoms. Pneumococcal pneumonia has a more seasonal occurrence than mycoplasmal pneumonia, which is seen throughout the year. Furthermore, mycoplasmal pneumonia, also known as primary atypical pneumonia, is seen most commonly in adolescents and young adults, whereas pneumococcal pneumonia is more common in children, the elderly, and immunocompromised patients. S. pneumoniae produces a variety of virulence factors that result in serious damage to lung tissue, sometimes resulting in blood in the sputum being coughed up. The bacteria can further migrate into the bloodstream from the damaged lung tissue, sometimes even causing more serious bacteremia and meningitis. On the other hand, mycoplasmas have more limited virulence factors, and their main mode of pathogenesis is the elimination of the function of the ciliary escalator, resulting in mucus buildup that causes a persistent, unproductive cough as the patient tries to clear the lungs. Other bacteria may enter the lungs as a result of the failure of this defense mechanism, but in general, mycoplasmal pneumonia is never severe enough to require hospitalization. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.11

4) Numerous bacteria can cause pneumoniae in the elderly or immunocompromised. The most common ones were covered in the section "Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System." Devise a set of laboratory tests that could be used to distinguish between these bacteria in a clinical laboratory. Have as your goal the minimum number of tests necessary. (Hints: Try to make a dichotomous key to start. You may also need to recall material from previous chapters.) Answer: A number of answers are possible, but all should start with a Gram stain and microscopic examination of a sputum or lavage sample. Gram-positive bacterial possibilities include Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus species. A catalase test can distinguish Staphylococcus (positive) from Streptococcus (negative). A hemolysin test can be used to identify the most likely Streptococcus species: S. pyogenes is betahemolytic and S. pneumoniae is alpha-hemolytic. Gram-negative bacteria that may cause pneumonia include Klebsiella pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenza, Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Chlamydophila species and Yersinia pestis. Close observation of the cell morphology may be sufficient. Klebsiella and Yersinia are bacilli and rather large compared to the others. Klebsiella is a non-motile coliform and Yersinia is a motile non-coliform, so observation of a bacterial wet mount may be used to distinguish them (or a lactose fermentation test). Haemophilus and Mycoplasma are pleomorphic, with Haemophilus tending to a coccobacillus shape while Mycoplasma does not. Chlamydophila are tiny intracellular parasites and thus will be observed inside host cells. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.11, 22.12 5) Describe the pathogenesis of tuberculosis, paying special attention to the characteristics of Mycobacterium tuberculosis that make it so pathogenic. Answer: Mycobacterium tuberculosis is an extremely effective pathogen. It has a very low infectious dose (about 10 cells). Once inside the body, it is hard to clear because of its slow growth, high levels of waxy, protective lipids such as mycolic acid in its cell wall, and its ability to survive inside phagocytic cells. Another cell wall component, cord factor, is toxic to the body's cells, and inhibits the activity of neutrophils. The immune system does its best to isolate the infection, producing tubercles, which contain M. tuberculosis cells that have been walled off from the rest of the body by inflammatory cells and processes. At best, this process results in a stalemate between the pathogen and the body, and no further disease may ever occur. However, in immunocompromised individuals, the immune system is often not able to keep the pathogen in check; M. tuberculosis therefore breaks the stalemate and begins to spread throughout the lungs, causing secondary or reactivated tuberculosis, with its attendant symptoms of weight loss, chest pain, and breathing difficulty with bloody sputum. From the lungs, the reactivated mycobacterial infection may even spread to the bloodstream and all over the body in the phenomenon of disseminated tuberculosis. Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.16, 22.17

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 5e (Bauman) Chapter 23 Microbial Diseases of the Digestive System 23.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The ________ is an accessory organ of the digestive system. A) esophagus B) stomach C) tongue D) duodenum E) anus Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Structures of the Digestive Tract Learning Outcome: 23.2 2) Where in the digestive tract does most of the absorption of nutrients take place? A) the large intestine B) the small intestine C) the rectum D) the stomach E) the esophagus Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Structures of the Digestive Tract Learning Outcome: 23.1 3) Which of the following is a fungus that commonly lives in the large intestine? A) Bacteroides B) Escherichia C) Campylobacter D) Candida E) Lactobacillus Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Microbiome of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.3

4) The bacterium ________ adheres to and grows on teeth, contributing to dental plaque formation. A) Streptococcus mutans B) Streptococcus agalactiae C) viridians streptococci D) Porphyromonas gingivalis E) Enterobacter Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.4 5) Porphyromonas gingivalis contributes to the development of A) gastroenteritis. B) typhoid fever. C) periodontitis. D) food poisoning. E) hepatitis. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.5 6) Most peptic ulcers are the result of colonization of the stomach by A) Vibrio cholerae. B) Escherichia coli O157:H7. C) Shigella dysenteriae. D) Salmonella enterica. E) Helicobacter pylori. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.7 7) Urease is an important virulence factor of which of the following? A) Porphyromonas gingivalis B) Vibrio cholerae C) Escherichia coli O157:H7 D) Helicobacter pylori E) Shigella dysenteriae Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.8

8) The virulence factor of Vibrio cholera, which is primarily responsible for the signs and symptoms of cholera, is A) the presence of polar flagella. B) its ability to survive in freshwater. C) its ability to form biofilms in saltwater. D) its activation of certain genes within the human body. E) its ability to produce a potent exotoxin. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.10 9) The major symptoms of cholera are attributable to which of the following? A) production of urease B) activity of a type III secretion system C) cessation of protein synthesis in host cells D) death of cells lining the intestinal tract E) activation of adenylate cyclase Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.10 10) Infection with some Salmonella enterica serotypes can progress to typhoid fever when the bacteria A) attach to cells of the small intestine. B) induce endocytosis by intestinal cells. C) reproduce within cells of the small intestine. D) produce type III secretion system proteins. E) enter the blood and are engulfed by phagocytes. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.10 11) Which of the following produce the type III secretion system virulence factor? A) E. coli O157:H7 B) Shigella C) Salmonella D) both E. coli O157:H7 and Salmonella E) E. coli O157:H7, Shigella and Salmonella Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.10

12) Escherichia coli O157:H7 is primarily associated with which of the following foods? A) ground beef B) dairy products C) eggs D) fomites E) pork Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.10 13) The most common cause of traveler's diarrhea is A) Salmonella enterica. B) Giardia intestinalis. C) Cryptosporidium parvum. D) Escherichia coli. E) Shigella flexneri. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.10 14) Shigellosis can be differentiated from salmonellosis by the fact that Shigella A) stimulates intestinal epithelial cells to phagocytize it. B) multiplies in phagocytic vesicles. C) kills host cells. D) multiplies in the host cell's cytosol. E) causes severe diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and fever. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.10 15) The most common bacterial cause of diarrhea that sends people to doctors in the United States is A) Salmonella. B) Staphylococcus. C) Vibrio. D) Escherichia. E) Campylobacter. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.10

16) A young woman being treated for serious burns develops severe diarrhea accompanied by intense abdominal pain. She passes several watery, foul-smelling, bloody stools a day. A colonoscopy reveals patches of yellowish lesions in the large intestine. The probable causative agent is A) Giardia intestinalis. B) Clostridium difficile. C) Campylobacter. D) Salmonella enterica serotype Typhi. E) Vibrio cholerae. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.10 17) Staphylococcal food poisoning is called an intoxication disorder because A) toxic bacteria are ingested in the food. B) the bacteria produce type III secretion system toxins. C) affected people appear drunk. D) toxins produced by the bacteria growing in the food are ingested along with the food. E) the bacteria release toxins when they are digested. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.12 18) Which of the following statements is TRUE with regard to oral herpes? A) Lesions become more severe with each recurrence. B) Ninety percent of all cases are caused by human herpesvirus 2 (HHV-2). C) Lesions can be triggered by emotional stress or physiologic changes. D) Primary infections are usually characterized by severe lesions. E) There is an effective cure for oral herpes. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.16 19) Which of the following is the major sign or symptom of mumps? A) diarrhea B) nausea and vomiting C) deafness D) parotitis E) difficulty in breathing Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.17 5 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

20) The viruses responsible for the majority of infant deaths resulting from diarrhea in the world are the A) noroviruses. B) rotaviruses. C) caliciviruses. D) astroviruses. E) hepaciviruses. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.18 21) Chronic infection with ________ may progress to hepatic cancer. A) HAV B) HBV C) HCV D) HEV E) both HBV and HCV Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.20 22) The intracellular parasite usually acquired in contaminated drinking water that causes a persistent watery diarrhea is A) hepatitis A virus. B) Cryptosporidium parvum. C) Entamoeba histolytica. D) Vibrio cholerae. E) norovirus. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Protozoan Diseases of the Intestinal Tract Learning Outcome: 23.24 23) Which of the following conditions usually results in severe acute liver damage? A) co-infection with hepatitis A and hepatitis B viruses B) superinfection with hepatitis B and hepatitis delta viruses C) co-infection with hepatitis B and hepatitis delta viruses D) superinfection with hepatitis A and hepatitis E viruses E) co-infection with hepatitis B and hepatitis C viruses Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.20

24) The primary treatment for viral gastroenteritis is A) fever reducers. B) antiviral medications. C) antitoxins. D) rehydration therapy. E) antidiarrheal medication. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.19 25) Of the following, who is most likely to develop a chronic infection with hepatitis B virus? A) children between the ages of 2 and 12 B) newborns C) females at puberty D) young adults E) the elderly Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.20 26) A man reports to his doctor that he is tired all the time and his urine has become darker in color. He has not experienced fever or vomiting recently. The physician notes that his eyes are yellowish and his abdomen is swollen and tender. The man has a history of kidney transplant. The man may be infected with A) hepatitis A virus. B) hepatitis C virus. C) norovirus. D) Shigella. E) Entamoeba histolytica. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Viral Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.20 27) Diagnosis of hepatitis B infection is made by the observation of which of the following in the patient's body fluids? A) O antigens B) enterotoxins C) endospores D) oocysts E) Dane particles Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.20 7 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

28) Which of the following is a notable symptom of giardiasis? A) "rice-water" stools B) irritability and sleep disturbance C) jaundice D) foul-smelling "rotten egg" stools E) dysentery Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Protozoan Diseases of the Intestinal Tract Learning Outcome: 23.22 29) Eating sashimi (uncooked fish) is a risk factor for infection with A) Entamoeba histolytica. B) Taenia saginata. C) Giardia intestinalis. D) Enterobius vermicularis. E) Anisakis simplex. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Helminthic Infestations of the Intestinal Tract Learning Outcome: 23.33 30) Which of the following statements is TRUE with regard to Entamoeba histolytica? A) It reproduces by schizogony. B) It may invade the peritoneal cavity, causing serious disease. C) It causes a form of hepatitis. D) It is an intracellular parasite. E) An effective vaccine against infection is available. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Protozoan Diseases of the Intestinal Tract Learning Outcome: 23.26 31) Where in a tapeworm would you expect to find fertilized eggs? A) the neck region of the strobila B) at the end of the strobila C) inside the scolex D) outside the cuticle E) in all proglottids Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Helminthic Infestations of the Intestinal Tract Learning Outcome: 23.28

32) Intermediate hosts become infested with tapeworms through ingestion of A) cysticerci. B) gravid proglottids. C) tapeworm eggs. D) mature tapeworms. E) tapeworm larvae. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Helminthic Infestations of the Intestinal Tract Learning Outcome: 23.29 33) Human infestation with Taenia saginata results from ingesting ________ in undercooked intermediate host. A) scolex B) cysticerci C) proglottids D) eggs E) cysts Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Helminthic Infestations of the Intestinal Tract Learning Outcome: 23.29 34) Which of the following is a common childhood parasite in the United States? A) Taenia solium B) Enterobius vermicularis C) Entamoeba histolytica D) Cryptosporidium parvum E) Giardia intestinalis Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Helminthic Infestations of the Intestinal Tract Learning Outcome: 23.31

35)

Observation of the specimens in the figure is diagnostic for A) anisakiasis. B) amebiasis. C) pinworms. D) giardiasis. E) tapeworms. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Helminthic Infestations of the Intestinal Tract Learning Outcome: 23.31 36) A large number of people in a community experience diarrhea with fever. Public health authorities investigate and find that the people are passing dark urine, and some have yellowish skin. Furthermore, all of the affected individuals recently ate at a new restaurant in town known for its wide variety of fresh imported vegetables. Which of the following is the most likely causative agent? A) Escherichia coli O157:H7 B) Salmonella enterica C) hepatitis A virus D) hepatitis E virus E) norovirus Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Viral Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.20

37) Care in the handling and disposal of diapers in day care centers may prevent the spread of which of the following? A) hepatitis A virus B) Giardia intestinalis C) Salmonella enterica D) Cryptosporidium parvum E) norovirus Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Protozoan Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.23 38) Peritonitis may develop in severe cases of A) giardiasis. B) hepatitis. C) pinworm infestation. D) typhoid. E) peptic ulcer disease. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.10 39) What member of the human intestinal microbiota occasionally causes life-threatening disease? A) Escherichia coli O157:H7 B) Clostridium difficile C) Salmonella enterica D) Giardia intestinalis E) Lactobacillus Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.10 40) Accessory organ infections are caused by A) human herpesvirus 1. B) norovirus. C) mumps virus. D) rotavirus. E) enterovirus. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.17

23.2 True/False Questions 1) Salmonella is part of the normal microbiota of virtually all vertebrates except humans. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.10 2) Cholera toxin is composed of five A subunits and one B subunit. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.10 3) The small intestine is the site of the majority of nutrient digestion and absorption. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Structures of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.1 4) Complete recovery from hepatitis A infection occurs 99% of the time. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.20 5) Vomiting is a common sign of viral gastroenteritis. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.19 6) All regions of the digestive system have extensive microbiota. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Microbiome of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.3 7) Dysentery is a severe type of gastroenteritis in which stools contain mucus and blood. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.10

8) Supportive care is the only treatment for staphylococcal food poisoning. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.12 9) Marine mammals are the normal host for Anisakis simplex adults. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Helminthic Infestations of the Intestinal Tract Learning Outcome: 23.32 10) Invasive extraintestinal amebiasis is the most severe type of Entamoeba histolytica infection. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Protozoan Diseases of the Intestinal Tract Learning Outcome: 23.26

23.3 Short Answer Questions 1)

The portion of the gastrointestinal tract indicated by the arrow is the (ascending/descending/sigmoid/transverse) colon. Answer: ascending Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Structures of the Digestive Tract Learning Outcome: 23.1 2) The (liver/pancreas/villus) is the accessory organ responsible for producing digestive enzymes active in the small intestine. Answer: pancreas Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Structures of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.2 3) Production of (acid/dextran/glycocalyces) allows Streptococcus mutans to colonize the mouth. Answer: dextran Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.4 14 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

4) Plaque and tartar provide an environment for the growth of (Lactobacillus/Porphyromonas/Streptococcus) leading to periodontitis. Answer: Porphyromonas Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.5 5) A diarrhea called "rice-water" stools is diagnostic of (campylobacteriosis/cholera/shigellosis/typhoid). Answer: cholera Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.10 6) Jaundice is a frequent sign of inflammation of the (colon/liver/pancreas). Answer: liver Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.20 7) Isolation of Gram-positive (bacilli/cocci/vibrios) from food suspected of being the source of an outbreak of diarrhea indicates the disease is the result of bacterial intoxication. Answer: cocci Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.12 8) The form of infection with Entamoeba histolytica that is frequently asymptomatic is known as (extraintestinal/dysentery/luminal) amebiasis. Answer: luminal Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Protozoan Diseases of the Intestinal Tract Learning Outcome: 23.26 9) Staphylococcus aureus produces (endotoxin/enterotoxin/toxin B) to cause intoxication. Answer: enterotoxin Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Intestinal Tract Learning Outcome: 23.13 10) The larval stage of pinworms is found in (cows/fish/humans). Answer: humans Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Helminthic Infestations of the Intestinal Tract Learning Outcome: 23.30

11) The accumulation of plaque can lead to the development of (abscesses/caries/ulcers) in the mouth. Answer: caries Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.4 12) Helicobacter pylori colonizes the (mouth/liver/stomach/intestine) and can cause severe inflammation and tissue erosion. Answer: stomach Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.7 13) Escherichia coli O157:H7 produces (cholera/Shiga/Staphylococcal)-like toxin, which inhibits protein synthesis, kills cells, and can result in death of the infected individual. Answer: Shiga Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.10 14) A painful creeping ulcerating lesion on or near the lips is the result of infection with (corona/herpes/mumps) virus. Answer: herpes Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.15 15) Infection with (hepatitis/norovirus/rotavirus) is a common cause of viral gastroenteritis in adults. Answer: norovirus Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.18

23.4 Essay Questions 1) There are vaccines to prevent infectious hepatitis and serum hepatitis, but none to prevent chronic hepatitis. Discuss why this is so. Answer: Chronic hepatitis is caused by the hepatitis C virus. Hepatitis C virus is an RNA virus, and the RNA polymerase which replicates the RNA genome lacks proofreading ability. As a consequence, new genetic variations with new antigenic structures are produced at high frequency. A vaccine against a single hepatitic C antigen would not provide protection from infection for all the variations, and a vaccine containing a large number of different antigens is not practical. Hepatitis A virus is not as variable, and hepatitis B virus is a DNA virus, DNA polymerases have proofreading functions. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Viral Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.20 2) Explain how Helicobacter pylori is able to resist the unfavorable environment of the stomach in order to cause disease. Answer: Helicobacter pylori is able to resist the acidic environment of the stomach using a variety of virulence factors. H. pylori produces a protein which inhibits acid production in the stomach, and produces urease that converts urea to ammonia, which neutralizes stomach acid. H. pylori has flagella that allow it to burrow beneath the mucous layer of the stomach lining, further sheltering the pathogen. It also produces enzymes such as catalase that inhibit phagocytic cell activity. Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.8 3) List and describe three virulence factors associated with bacteria that cause gastroenteritis. Answer: Bacteria capable of causing gastroenteritis have a variety of virulence factors that allow them to cause disease: (1) Several types of exotoxins can cause many of the major symptoms of bacterial gastroenteritis. These include cholera toxin, which produces "rice-water" stools, enterotoxins of Escherichia coli that act in a manner similar to cholera toxin, and the more destructive Shiga toxin of Shigella and the Shiga-like toxin of Escherichia coli O157:H7. (2) Both Salmonella and Shigella have the ability to grow inside host cells, thereby evading the immune system. (3) Salmonella, Shigella, and E.coli O157:H7 possess a type III secretion system that enables it to introduce toxins directly into host cells. (4) Many pathogens such as Campylobacter possess adhesins that allow them to adhere to cells lining the gastrointestinal tract. (5) Most of the bacteria producing gastroenteritis are Gram-negative; therefore, they have endotoxin molecules in their cell walls that can serve as virulence factors. Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.10

4) List and compare the three types of amebiasis. Answer: The three types of amebiasis differ in the virulence factors of the infecting strain of Entamoeba histolytica and the state of health of the host. The least severe form of amebiasis is luminal amebiasis in which the parasite remains in the open space of the intestine. Luminal amebiasis is asymptomatic in healthy individuals. When the strain of E. histolytica produces adhesion proteins, proteases, or other important virulence factors, they can invade the bloodstream and peritoneal cavity, producing the more serious forms of amebiasis. Amebic dysentery is characterized by severe diarrhea, bloody, mucus-containing stools, and colitis. Invasive extraintestinal amebiasis occurs when E. histolytica spreads to other areas of the body and forms necrotic lesions in the liver, lungs, kidneys, and other vital organs. It is the most severe form of the disease and can even be fatal. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Protozoan Diseases of the Intestinal Tract Learning Outcome: 23.26 5) Explain the role of the intestinal microbiota in the maintenance of health. Answer: The intestinal microbiota help maintain health in a variety of ways: (1) The billions of microbes in the gastrointestinal tract outcompete pathogens in a process called microbial antagonism. (2) The normal microbiota can feed on the partially digested or indigestible contents of the colon, and even though this produces some undesirable by-products such as flatus, this is overall a beneficial process for the host. (3) Many intestinal microbes produce important vitamins for the host, such as vitamin K, B12, folic acid, and biotin. Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Microbiome of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.3

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 5e (Bauman) Chapter 24 Microbial Diseases of the Urinary and Reproductive Systems 24.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The ________ connects the kidney to the bladder. A) collecting duct B) renal capsule C) urethra D) ureter E) fallopian tube Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Structures of the Urinary and Reproductive Systems Learning Outcome: 24.1 2) The normal pH of the vagina is A) pH 7. B) pH 8. C) pH 4.5 D) pH 6 E) pH 6.5 Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Structures of the Urinary and Reproductive Systems Learning Outcome: 24.2 3) The prostate produces A) sperm. B) urine. C) hormones. D) antimicrobials. E) semen. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Structures of the Urinary System Learning Outcome: 24.2

4) The disorder ________ is a complication of systemic infections with Streptococcus in which antigen-antibody complexes form in the blood and get trapped in the kidneys. A) cystitis B) glomerulonephritis C) pyelonephritis D) leptospirosis E) urethritis Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Urinary System Learning Outcome: 24.9 5) When bacteria invade the kidney, the result can be A) cystitis. B) ectopic. C) prostatitis. D) pyelonephritis. E) bacteriosis. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Urinary System Learning Outcome: 24.5 6) Which of the following is commonly the source of leptospirosis? A) infected animal urine B) infected animal bites C) humans infected with leptospirosis D) infected animal feces E) infected human urine Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Urinary System Learning Outcome: 24.8 7) During the spring calving season, a ranch hand begins to run a fever and feel nauseous and achy. After he develops a headache and vomiting, he goes to a clinic. A microscopic exam of a urine sample reveals long thin microbes which move very rapidly in a corkscrewing pattern. The man may have contracted A) lymphogranuloma venereum. B) glomerulonephritis. C) leptospirosis. D) staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome. E) trichomoniasis. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Urinary System Learning Outcome: 24.8 2 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

8) The majority of cases of staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome are diagnosed in A) newly delivered mothers. B) uncircumcised males. C) anyone with a Staphylococcus aureus infection. D) nasal surgery patients. E) menstruating women. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Nonvenereal Diseases of the Reproductive Systems Learning Outcome: 24.10 9) Which of the following is a characteristic of bacterial vaginosis frequently used to confirm diagnosis? A) an abnormal vaginal discharge B) an acidic vaginal pH C) fever and rash D) the presence of buboes E) the presence of clue cells Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Nonvenereal Diseases of the Reproductive Systems Learning Outcome: 24.11

10)

The presence of the specimen shown in the figure in a vaginal discharge is evidence of infection with A) Candida albicans. B) Neisseria gonorrhoeae. C) Treponema palladium. D) Chlamydia trachomatis. E) Trichomonas vaginalis. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Nonvenereal Diseases of the Reproductive Systems Learning Outcome: 24.13 11) Why does taking antibacterial medications put women at risk for candidiasis? A) Antibacterials can alter metabolism, creating conditions that favor the growth of Candida albicans. B) Antibacterials deplete the normal bacterial microbiota, resulting in a change of pH. C) Antibacterials serve as growth stimulants for Candida albicans. D) Bacteria killed by antibacterials provide nutrients for Candida albicans. E) Depletion of the bacterial microbiota results in higher carbon dioxide levels, (which favor the growth of Candida albicans). Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Nonvenereal Diseases of the Reproductive Systems Learning Outcome: 24.14

12) Untreated infection of males with Neisseria gonorrhoeae may result in A) gummas. B) sterility. C) trachoma. D) glomerulonephritis. E) penile cancer. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial STDs Learning Outcome: 24.20 13) Neisseria gonorrhoeae of the reproductive tract in women A) is usually initially asymptomatic. B) produces severe inflammation of the vagina and cervix. C) results in the formation of curd-like discharge. D) results in the production of a yellow-greenish frothy discharge. E) produces painful ulcerations. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial STDs Learning Outcome: 24.20 14) Which of the following contributes to the invasiveness of Treponema pallidum? A) hyaluronidase B) fimbriae C) lipooligosaccharide in the cell wall D) TSST E) IgA protease Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial STDs Learning Outcome: 24.23 15) Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding gonorrhea? A) It is easily confused with syphilis. B) The causative agent can grow on most mucous membranes of the body. C) Women usually experience no symptoms early in infection. D) Untreated infections may result in ectopic pregnancy. E) Gonorrhea does not elicit long-term specific immunity. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial STDs Learning Outcome: 24.20

16) Neisseria gonorrhoeae most commonly infects which of the following in females? A) the uterus B) the vagina C) the cervix D) the fallopian tubes E) the ovaries Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial STDs Learning Outcome: 24.20 17) The presence of Gram-negative diplococci in pus from an inflamed penis is diagnostic for infection by A) human herpesvirus 2. B) Treponema pallidum. C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae. D) Chlamydia trachomatis. E) Mycoplasma hominis. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial STDs Learning Outcome: 24.20 18) The typical sign of primary syphilis is A) a chancre at the site of infection. B) a widespread rash. C) lymphadenopathy. D) gummas in various organs. E) paralysis. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial STDs Learning Outcome: 24.22 19) Diagnosis of syphilis is usually made by A) the MHA-TP test. B) culturing specimens on laboratory media. C) microscopic evaluation of stained specimens. D) DNA probes. E) a Pap smear. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial STDs Learning Outcome: 24.23

20) A distinctive feature of secondary syphilis is A) a widespread rash that can include the palms and soles. B) hard, red, painless bumps. C) rubbery, painful lesions. D) soft, painful ulcers. E) blister-like lesions which ulcerate. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial STDs Learning Outcome: 24.22 21) Syphilis can be transmitted A) by sexual contact. B) from mother to fetus. C) by fomites. D) both by sexual contact and from mother to fetus. E) by sexual contact, by fomites, and from mother to fetus. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial STDs Learning Outcome: 24.23 22) The noninfective, obligately intracellular forms of chlamydia are called A) elementary bodies. B) phagosomes. C) pseudohyphae. D) trachomas. E) reticulate bodies. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial STDs Learning Outcome: 24.24 23) Which of the following statements is CORRECT regarding the incidence of STDs? A) Bacterial STDs are declining worldwide as a result of the ready availability of antibiotics. B) The incidence of STDs is known with a high degree of accuracy. C) Viruses transmitted by sexual contact are not widespread. D) Viral STDs in the U.S. are considered epidemic. E) The incidence of most STDs could be reduced by vaccination. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Sexually Transmitted Infections (STIs) and Diseases (STDs) Learning Outcome: 24.15

24) In addition to the genital tract, various strains of Chlamydia trachomatis can infect which of the following? A) lymph nodes B) the lungs C) the conjunctiva D) lymph nodes and conjunctiva E) lymph nodes, lungs, and conjunctiva Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial STDs Learning Outcome: 24.24 25) A young adult shows up at a free clinic complaining of painful swellings in the groin. The young woman has a history of occasional casual sex, but denies noticing any genital sores or experiencing painful urination. The young woman is most likely infected with A) Chlamydia trachomatis. B) Neisseria gonorrhoeae. C) Mycoplasma hominis. D) Treponema pallidum. E) Trichomonas vaginalis. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Bacterial STDs Learning Outcome: 24.24 26) Which of the following can mimic gonorrhea infections? A) syphilis B) genital herpes C) trichomoniasis D) chlamydia E) candidiasis Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial STDs Learning Outcome: 24.24 27) What is the effect of TSST-1 exotoxin on the body? A) It causes red blood cell lysis. B) It damages the endothelial cells of capillaries. C) It binds to receptors on T cells and activates them. D) It is a pyrogen, causing fever. E) It kills epithelial cells of mucous membranes. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Nonvenereal Diseases of the Reproductive Systems Learning Outcome: 24.10 8 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

28) Which of the following can cause pelvic inflammatory disease, characterized by fever and abdominal pain? A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae. B) Treponema pallidum. C) Staphylococcus aureus. D) Chlamydia trachomatis E) both Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial STDs Learning Outcome: 24.18, 24.26 29) A diagnosis of genital herpes is confirmed by the A) detection of herpesvirus DNA by PCR. B) location of herpetic lesions. C) appearance and size of herpetic lesions. D) appearance of stained tissue specimens. E) binding of fluorescent antibodies. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral STDs Learning Outcome: 24.27 30) Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding genital herpes? A) Reappearance of lesions is the result of new infections. B) It can only be transmitted when lesions are evident. C) There is an effective vaccine to prevent infection. D) Acyclovir is effective in reducing the occurrence of lesions, but is not a cure. E) Herpes can be prevented using vaginal spermicidal creams. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral STDs Learning Outcome: 24.27 31) Some strains of the virus responsible for genital warts can cause the development of A) tertiary syphilis. B) cervical cancer. C) trichomoniasis. D) genital herpes. E) vaginosis. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral STDs Learning Outcome: 24.30

32) Condylomata acuminata are associated with infections of which of the following? A) Trichomonas vaginalis B) human herpesvirus 1 C) papillomaviruses D) human herpesvirus 2 E) Neisseria gonorrhoeae Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral STDs Learning Outcome: 24.29 33)

Observation of the microbes shown in the figure from a vaginal discharge specimen is diagnostic for A) Chlamydia infection. B) gonorrhea. C) trichomoniasis. D) trachoma. E) syphilis. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Protozoan STDs Learning Outcome: 24.31

34) A woman goes to her gynecologist and reports that she is experiencing pain during intercourse and frequently has an unusual vaginal discharge that is increased in quantity and sort of foamy. A vaginal smear shows normal appearing epithelial cells along with small leaf-shaped cells with prominent oval nuclei. What disease is the woman experiencing? A) cervical cancer B) herpes C) leptospirosis D) syphilis E) trichomoniasis Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Protozoan STDs Learning Outcome: 24.31 35) Trichomonas vaginalis is usually transmitted during sexual intercourse because it A) requires a growth factor found only in the vagina. B) penetrates cells lining the genitourinary tract. C) participates with HIV in coinfections. D) produces cysts that germinate in the vagina. E) cannot live long outside the body. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Protozoan STDs Learning Outcome: 24.31 24.2 True/False Questions 1) The risk of developing toxic shock syndrome is increased by the use of super-absorbent tampons. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Nonvenereal Diseases of the Reproductive Systems Learning Outcome: 24.10 2) Gonorrhea in women is not a risk factor for sterility. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial STDs Learning Outcome: 24.20 3) Genital herpes and genital warts are both caused by human herpesviruses. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral STDs Learning Outcome: 24.29

4) The normal microbiota of the vagina help maintain a vaginal pH of around 7.5. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Structures of the Urinary and Reproductive Systems Learning Outcome: 24.3 5) The urethra is the only part of the urinary system in which one would expect to find normal microbiota. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Structures of the Urinary and Reproductive Systems Learning Outcome: 24.3 6) Mental confusion is often the only sign of a urinary tract infection in elderly patients. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Urinary System Learning Outcome: 24.5 7) Clinical manifestations of Chlamydia infections arise primarily from an inflammatory response to the destruction of infected cells. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial STDs Learning Outcome: 24.2 8) Severe suppression of immune function is the only condition that results in reactivation of latent herpesvirus infection. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral STDs Learning Outcome: 24.28 9) A whitlow is the result of human papillomavirus infection of the skin of the hand. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral STDs Learning Outcome: 24.27 10) Men infected with Trichomonas vaginalis rarely have symptoms. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Protozoan STDs Learning Outcome: 24.31

24.3 Short Answer Questions 1) Because the (ductus/urethra/ureter) is shorter in females than in males, it can be a portal of entry for pathogens. Answer: urethra Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Structures of the Urinary and Reproductive Systems Learning Outcome: 24.1 2) Babies exposed to an intracellular parasite normally transmitted by sexual contact are at risk for (conjunctivitis/trachoma/warts). Answer: trachoma Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial STDs Learning Outcome: 24.25 3) Glycogen is converted to acid in the vagina by (Lactobacilli/Streptococci/yeast), thereby contributing to an acidic pH in that area. Answer: Lactobacilli Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Structures of the Urinary and Reproductive Systems Learning Outcome: 24.3 4) When bacteria infect the bladder, the condition is known as (cystitis/pyelonephritis/urethritis). Answer: cystitis Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Urinary System Learning Outcome: 24.5 5) The frequent, urgent, and painful urination that often results from urinary tract infections is called (dysuria/cystitis/glomerulonephritis). Answer: dysuria Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Urinary System Learning Outcome: 24.5 6) The zoonosis (leptospirosis/trichomoniasis/vaginosis) is is acquired by skin contact and becomes a systemic infection. Answer: leptospirosis Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Urinary System Learning Outcome: 24.8

7) A patient with systemic bacterial infection develops high blood pressure, and the urine output declines, but what urine is passed contains blood. The patient does not experience pain with urination. These signs are consistent with (cystitis/glomerulonephritis/urethritis). Answer: glomerulonephritis Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Nonvenereal Diseases of the Reproductive Systems Learning Outcome: 24.9 8) The presence of (bacillus/clue/streptococcal) cells is an important aspect of the diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis. Answer: clue Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Nonvenereal Diseases of the Reproductive Systems Learning Outcome: 24.11 9) The yeast infection (candidiasis/trichomoniasis/vaginosis) can become systemic in AIDS patients. Answer: candidiasis Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Nonvenereal Diseases of the Reproductive Systems Learning Outcome: 24.13 10) A small, red, hard but painless lesion is a sign of infection with (gonorrhea/herpes/syphilis). Answer: syphilis Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial STDs Learning Outcome: 24.22 11) The appearance of a wart on the genitalia is a sign of infection with (chlamydia/herpes/papilloma) virus. Answer: papilloma Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral STDs Learning Outcome: 24.29 12) A vaccine is available to prevent infection with (herpes/HIV/HPV). Answer: HPV Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral STDs Learning Outcome: 24.29 13) The drug of choice for treating primary and secondary syphilis is (amoxicillin/penicillin/streptomycin) G. Answer: penicillin Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial STDs Learning Outcome: 24.22 14 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

14) When chlamydias spread from the genitalia to the rectum, they can cause an inflammatory process called (PID/proctitis/pyelonephritis). Answer: proctitis Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial STDs Learning Outcome: 24.24 15) A lesion known as a whitlow is the result of infection with (chlamydia/herpes/syphilis). Answer: herpes Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral STDs Learning Outcome: 24.27 24.4 Essay Questions 1) Explain why a female who has a history of gonorrhea infections is more likely to have an ectopic pregnancy. Answer: Most females infected with gonorrhea are asymptomatic and do not receive treatment. The bacterium, Neisseria gonorrhoeae, invades the cervix and the uterus, and then can hitchhike on sperm to infect the fallopian tubes. In the uterine tubes, the bacteria trigger inflammation, fever, and abdominal pain, a condition known as pelvic inflammatory disease. Chronic infections lead to scarring of the fallopian tubes, resulting in an increased chance of ectopic pregnancy and sterility. Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial STDs Learning Outcome: 24.20 2) Some areas of the genitourinary tract are normally sterile, whereas other areas have a variety of microbiota. Describe the defense mechanisms of the genitourinary tract that contribute to this dichotomy. Answer: A variety of defense mechanisms are associated with the genitourinary tract, but the primary one is the flow of urine through the urethra. This flow keeps many pathogens out, and therefore, the only microbes that can colonize this area tend to colonize the end of the urethra closest to the surface of the body. Often, pathogenic microbes can resist this flow and migrate toward the bladder and kidneys. Overall, however, the urinary organs of both sexes and the male reproductive tract above the prostate should be sterile under normal conditions. In females, microbes enter the vagina and colonize the nutrient-rich mucous membrane in this area; however, most vaginal pathogens are inhibited by the acidic pH generated by normal microbiota such as Lactobacillus. Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Structures of the Urinary and Reproductive Systems Learning Outcome: 24.3

3) A patient complains of fever, pain on one side of the body, and fatigue. The clinician notes the patient's blood pressure is elevated. The patient reports experiencing some painful urination for a few days during the previous week. Tests on a urine sample reveal the presence of motile Gramnegative bacilli. What is the patient most likely suffering from? Answer: The pain on one side of the body and the increase in blood pressure are indicative of pyelonephritis, infection of a kidney. The Gram stain of the urine sample is consistent with that of enteric bacteria. The patient probably contracted a urinary tract infection caused by fecal contamination of the urethra. When left untreated, this infection then spreads to the kidneys. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Urinary System Learning Outcome: 24.5 4) Explain why some syphilis patients may only experience the symptoms of primary syphilis, while other patients may progress all the way to tertiary syphilis. Answer: There are four stages of syphilis: primary, secondary, latent, and tertiary syphilis. At the end of the primary stage, or during the latent stage, the patient may cease to progress through the later stages of the disease for reasons that are still largely unknown. During latent syphilis, the progression of the disease may also stop due to antimicrobial drug use in developed countries. Additionally, if the disease is detected during the primary stage and treated, then no further progression will occur. However, many people do not know they are infected with Treponema pallidum because they do not notice the chancre that is the major sign of the primary stage; therefore, progression of the disease is usually assured in these cases. Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial STDs Learning Outcome: 24.23 5) A young woman is brought to the ER who is running a high fever and is confused about where she is. She also has an extensive red rash. She begins vomiting, and her blood pressure drops. The ER staff determine she is menstruating. What is the likely diagnosis? Answer: The red rash and fever are consistent with staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome. This disease most commonly occurs in menstruating women whose tampons are left in place too long. The signs and symptoms are largely due to the action of toxic shock syndrome toxin (TSST), an exotoxin that enters the bloodstream to cause systemic symptoms. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Nonvenereal Diseases of the Reproductive Systems Learning Outcome: 24.10

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 5e (Bauman) Chapter 25 Applied and Industrial Microbiology 25.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Control of the fermentation of foods to produce the desired product commonly involves A) careful choice of foodstuffs. B) pretreating the food by boiling. C) adding required nutrients for microbial growth. D) use of a starter culture. E) both pretreating the food by boiling and adding required nutrients for microbial growth. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.1 2) A researcher studying the impact of agricultural pesticides on native plants discovers a bacterium capable of degrading small amounts of a specific pesticide. The researcher then modifies the bacterial species in the lab to increase the rate of pesticide degradation. This research represents A) applied microbiology. B) environmental microbiology. C) food microbiology. D) both food microbiology and environmental microbiology. E) both applied microbiology and environmental microbiology. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.5 3) Sourdough bread is produced using A) yeast. B) Aspergillus oryzae. C) lactic acid bacteria. D) both yeast and lactic acid bacteria. E) both Aspergillus oryzae and lactic acid bacteria. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.1

4) Why are "fortified" foods more likely to spoil than are unfortified foods? A) The addition of vitamins or minerals makes the food more nutritious for microbes as well as humans. B) Vitamins are added to "fortified" foods by adding the microbes that produce the vitamins to the food item. C) Every step of modification or manipulation of food increases the chance for contamination. D) The addition of nutrients creates an osmotic environment suitable for a wide range of microbes. E) The vitamins require a neutral pH environment, which is suitable for many microbes. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.2 5) Which of the following is a lactic acid bacterium used in the production of food? A) Aspergillus oryzae B) Gluconobacter C) Leuconostoc D) Penicillium E) Saccharomyces cerevisiae Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.1 6) The fermentation product known as silage is A) a step in the production of brandy. B) a means of food preservation. C) a means of making plant materials more appealing to livestock. D) a meat product. E) made from milk. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.1 7) Sulfur dioxide is added to "must" in the production of wine to A) improve the flavor. B) allow more control over the fermentation process. C) provide a necessary nutrient for the fermentation process. D) prevent tannins from leaching out of wood into the fermenting wine. E) both enhance flavor and promote fermentation. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.3 2 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

8) Why is the pasta you buy from the grocery store shelf considered a nonperishable food? A) It has a low nutritional content. B) It was sterilized during preparation. C) The low moisture content prevents microbial growth. D) Various preservative chemicals are added. E) Microbes present in the pasta inhibit the growth of harmful microbes. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.2 9) Which of the following beverages is made from fermented fruit? A) beer B) brandy C) sake D) vodka E) both beer and vodka Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.1 10) Which of the following results when ethanol is allowed to oxidize to acetic acid following the fermentation of fruit, grain, or vegetables? A) beer B) wine C) champagne D) vinegar E) malt Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.1 11) Which of the following items that are commonly added during food preparation can be considered a preservative? A) apple juice B) meat broth C) garlic D) yeast E) whey Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.3

12) An intrinsic factor of food that can determine whether spoilage occurs is A) the degree of processing. B) the amount of preservatives added. C) the storage temperature. D) the water content. E) storage packaging. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.2 13) Pickling is an effective means of food preservation involving A) increasing oxygen content. B) increasing salt concentration. C) reducing pH. D) reducing oxygen content. E) increasing salt concentration or reducing pH or both. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.3 14) Which of the following is used in both food production and industrial fermentation? A) Bacillus thuringiensis B) Escherichia coli C) Listeria monocytogenes D) Pseudomonas syringae E) Saccharomyces cerevisiae Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.5 15) Sugar and salt act as preservatives by A) inhibiting bacterial enzymes. B) producing oils that inhibit bacterial growth. C) inhibiting DNA replication. D) drawing water out of microbes. E) killing endospores. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.3

16) Which of the following methods of preserving food sterilizes it? A) canning B) pasteurization C) drying D) gamma radiation E) lyophilization Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.3 17) What is the significance of the industrial practice of waiting for cultures to enter the stationary phase of growth before harvest? A) The cells are at peak metabolic activity. B) Secondary metabolites are often the desired product, and are only produced in stationary phase. C) The desired primary metabolites are produced in stationary phase. D) Potential toxins from log phase growth have been depleted. E) An optimal combination of primary and secondary metabolites is being produced. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.5 18) Undercooked shellfish contaminated with ________ can lead to foodborne illness. A) Toxoplasma gondii B) Campylobacter jejuni C) Listeria monocytogenes D) Yersinia enterocolitica E) Vibrio vulnificus Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.4 19) Food contaminated with ________ may contain a potent neurotoxin. A) Salmonella spp. B) Shigella spp. C) Clostridium botulinum D) Escherichia coli E) Listeria monocytogenes Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.4

20) Which of the following pairs of industrial microbial products and their uses is MISMATCHED? A) streptokinase; dissolving blood clots B) indigo; cloth dye C) citric acid; antioxidant in food D) gluconic acid; release of cellulose from flax to make linen E) phenylalanine; the sweetener aspartame Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.6 21) Which of these microbial products is needed to produce "gasohol"? A) citric acid B) methanol C) ethanol D) hyaluronidase E) aspartame Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.6 22) What was the first substance produced by microorganisms to be used pharmaceutically? A) penicillin B) streptokinase C) taxol D) human insulin E) interferons Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.6 23) Industrial fermentation and fermentation in food production A) are both processes in which sugars are oxidized to alcohols or acids. B) are processes in which sugar or protein is oxidized to produce alcohols or acids. C) use entirely different microorganisms. D) use entirely different starting material. E) make use of the same microorganisms. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.5

24) During treatment of water to make it potable, about 90% of the microbes are removed A) by preliminary fermentation. B) in the sedimentation step. C) by treatment with biosensors. D) by treatment with chlorine or ozone. E) in the filtration step. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.9 25) Potable water is water that A) is considered safe to drink because it is completely sterile. B) contains biosensors. C) contains a dangerous number of microorganisms. D) is transferred from one place to another. E) contains low amounts of microorganisms and is considered safe to drink. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.9 26) Municipal chlorinated water contains A) no viruses. B) no bacteria at all. C) no endospores. D) no cysts. E) a decreased microbial load. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.9 27) Which of the following microorganisms is the most commonly used indicator organism for water quality testing? A) Escherichia coli B) Salmonella spp. C) Shigella spp. D) Campylobacter jejuni E) Hepatitis A virus Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.9

28) Which of the following statements concerning the biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) is CORRECT? A) It is a measure of the amount of oxygen in water. B) It is proportional to how potable water is. C) It is used as a bioreceptor index. D) It is a measurement of the amount of oxygen that aerobic bacteria require to decompose organic wastes in water. E) It is a filter system to purify drinking water. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.9 29) Which of the following is produced by fermentation? A) beef jerky B) pasteurized milk C) pepperoni D) mozzarella cheese E) pepperoni and mozzarella cheese Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.1, 25.3 30) Which of the following is the CORRECT sequence of steps for beer preparation? A) mashing, malting, fermentation, clarification, aging B) malting, mashing, adding hops, fermentation, aging C) mashing, malting, fermenting, aging, clarification D) malting, fermenting, adding hops, clarification, aging Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.1 31) Which of the following additives help preserve food as well as enhancing flavor? A) cinnamon B) garlic C) salt D) salt and pepper E) cinnamon, garlic, and salt Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.1

32) Which of the following microorganisms associated with food poisoning thrives in cold storage? A) Salmonella spp. B) Shigella spp. C) Clostridium botulinum D) Escherichia coli E) Listeria monocytogenes Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.4 33) Secondary metabolites are often useful, and are obtained by A) harvesting a culture during log phase. B) allowing a culture to enter stationary phase. C) growing a culture at sub-optimal temperature. D) adding chemicals that alter metabolic pathways. E) using continuous flow culturing. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.5 34) A patient is brought to the emergency room in a comatose state. The family reports he had complained of nausea and a bad headache in the past couple of days. They also report they had engaged in their normal summer activities: picnicking, fishing and swimming at the lake near their home. His fever is high, and while in the ER, he has a seizure. Which of the following is likely to be responsible for his symptoms? A) Entamoeba histolytica B) Giardia intestinalis C) Gonyaulax D) Naegleria fowleri E) Toxoplasma gondii Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.8

35) Which of the following is a waterborne pathogen that causes severe diarrhea? A) Entamoeba histolytica B) Naegleria fowleri C) Campylobacter jejuni D) Toxoplasma gondii E) Gonyaulax species Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.8 36) Which of the following is a microbial product used to reduce crop damage? A) Bt toxin B) saxitoxin C) ice-minus D) both Bt toxin and ice-minus E) both Bt toxin and saxitoxin Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.6 37) Which of the following may result from eating shellfish? A) botulism B) norovirus infection C) polio D) salmonellosis E) paralysis Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.8 38) Microbial proteases are used A) in the production of linen. B) as preservatives. C) in spot removers. D) as a component of fabric dyes. E) to biodegrade plastics. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.6

39) Which of the following is an application of proteases? A) cheese B) indigo C) meat tenderizer D) vodka E) wine Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.6 40) Streptokinase is useful for which of the following? A) producing antibiotics B) cheese production C) biosensors D) dissolving blood clots E) insecticide Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.6 41) A common source of antibiotics is A) Acetobacter. B) Aspergillus oryzae and Lactobacillus. C) Lactoccocus cremoris. D) Streptococcus thermophilus. E) Streptomyces. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.6 42) Which of the following may result from eating tuna sashimi (raw fish)? A) botulism B) norovirus infection C) polio D) salmonellosis E) saxitoxin intoxication Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.8

43) Soy sauce is made using A) Acetobacter. B) Aspergillus oryzae and Saccharomyces. C) Aspergillus oryzae and Lactobacillus. D) Saccharomyces. E) Lactoccocus cremoris. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.1 25.2 True/False Questions 1) Most microbes need an environment that has a water activity of at least 0.90. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.2 2) The starter culture used to make cheese determines the type of cheese produced. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.1 3) Amino acid and vitamin supplements are prepared from extracts of microbial cultures. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.6 4) Pasteurization is a more rigorous process than canning. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.3 5) Cold is preferred for storing food because it retards microbial growth by slowing down metabolic processes. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.3

6) Canned foods are prepared using the same temperature as is used for autoclaving. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.3 7) Through recombinant DNA technology, many plants now can manufacture their own Bt toxin, which improves fermentation. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.5 8) Reducing the water content of food is a highly effective way of reducing food spoilage. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.3 9) Food poisoning is often the result of ingesting microbial toxins, not the microbes themselves. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.4 10) Water contamination refers only to the presence of excess or non-endemic microbes. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.7 25.3 Short Answer Questions 1) The definition of (fermentation/cultivation/processing) used by food microbiologists is a desirable change in food due to microbial activity. Answer: fermentation Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.1 2) Because the same microbes are not always present on food from harvest to harvest, (fresh/natural/starter) cultures are used in the production of alcoholic beverages. Answer: starter Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.1 13 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

3) The sour flavor in some fermented foods is usually the result of (acetic/benzoic/lactic) acid production. Answer: lactic Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.1 4) The process of preserving foods in brine is called (canning/pickling/salting). Answer: pickling Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.3 5) Garlic contains an antimicrobial substance called (allicin/penicillin/streptomycin). Answer: allicin Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.3 6) A few hours after a dinner party, most of the people who attended begin to suffer nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. The food at the meal is suspected as the source, although no unusual microbes are cultured from samples of the food or from stool samples. These observations suggest they may be suffering from food (infection/intoxication). Answer: intoxication Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.4 7) Brandy is made by the same process as wine, but the alcohol is then concentrated by (fermentation/distillation/filtration). Answer: distillation Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.1 8) Freezing food and then using a vacuum to draw off the ice crystals is called (dehydration/lyophilization/sublimation). Answer: lyophilization Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.3

9) Benzoic acid is largely a(n) (antifungal/antiprotozoal/pickling) agent and does not affect the growth of many bacteria. Answer: antifungal Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.3 10) The protozoan parasite (Gonyaulax/Toxoplasma gondii/Vibrio vulnificus) is acquired by eating contaminated meat. Answer: Toxoplasma gondii Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.4 11) With the (batch/continuous/static) production technique, organisms are allowed to ferment their substrate until it is exhausted. Answer: batch Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.5 12) Botryococcus braunii is an alga that produces hydrocarbons at (10/20/30) percent of its dry weight and could be harvested in the future as an alternative fuel. Answer: 30 Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.6 13) The destruction of (cysts/endospores/viruses) is the goal of industrial canning procedures. Answer: endospores Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.3 14) The enzyme (amylase/hyaluronidase/lipase) can be used in injected medications to enhance their rate of absorbance. Answer: hyaluronidase Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.6 15) Water quality can be tested by detection of (E. coli/Cryptosporidium/norovirus) using the chemical known as MUG. Answer: E. coli Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.9 15 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

25.4 Essay Questions 1) Before the discovery of microbes humans had been preserving meat in a variety of ways. Discuss how these methods might have been discovered. Answer: Many answers are possible. The following are some examples. People observed that the flesh of a carcass that had dried out did not rot. This could have occurred during winter in very cold, dry conditions, equivalent to lyophilizing, or in the desert. The observation could lead to the process of making jerky. Similarly, hanging meat did not dry out quickly but instead became fuzzy with fungus, a hungry person took a chance and discovered dry curing. A mixture of meat with other foods was left in a cool dark corner too long and fermented. Someone tried it out and found it edible. This eventually led to developing methods for preparing sausages and other fermented meat products. Fish are trapped in a drying lagoon and die but do not decompose (much) because the drying also left high concentrations of salt. Thus the use of salt to preserve food may have been discovered. In each of these situations people experimented because they were hungry and nothing else was available. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.1, 25.3 2) Compare the use of biosensors with traditional methods of determining microbial contamination. Answer: Traditional methods of detecting microbial contaminants rely on collecting samples containing living microbes and being able to culture them in the laboratory. The need to provide the right growth conditions reduces the sensitivity of such tests. Waiting for the organisms to grow makes traditional methods time consuming. Biosensors use bacteria or bacterial enzymes to detect small amounts of contaminants in samples. The results are available in minutes rather than hours or days. Detection does not rely on properly anticipating an organism's growth requirements. Biosensors can also be designed to distinguish between closely related organisms, for example, by detecting whether a toxin is present in the sample. Biosensors are faster and more sensitive than traditional methods, and they are potentially more effective in distinguishing truly harmful microbes from their harmless close relatives. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.6

3) In modern times beer and wine are considered recreational beverages. In the past they were important staples in the human diet, so much so that their consumption is often remarked upon in historical documents. Why were they so important? Answer: Naturally occurring water that is safe to drink is relatively rare. The microbial activity of fermentation inhibits the growth of potentially harmful microbes. Therefore, wine and beer were much safer to drink than water. Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.1 4) Use of genetically modified crop plants may be crucial to feeding the world's growing population. Discuss this statement with regard to BT toxin production in modified crop plants. Answer: Crop plants producing Bt toxin require the application of far less chemical pesticide than unmodified crops. This in turn reduces the cost of producing the crop, reduces the possibility of pesticide contamination of the food, and reduces contamination of the environment with pesticides. Killing the insects feeding on the plant reduces crop damage and increases the crop yield, making the crop more economical to produce. Further, only the insects actually eating the crop plants are affected by the Bt toxin. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.6 5) Compare and contrast the two types of foodborne disease. Answer: Foodborne diseases are also known as food poisoning. Food poisoning may be due to food infections, caused by consuming living microorganisms, or to food intoxication, caused by consuming microbial toxins in food. Many cases of foodborne diseases are common-source epidemics, where one food source is responsible for many individual cases of the disease. Food infections primarily result from improper food handling or storage, whereas food intoxication may result from improper preparation, especially canning. Heating food is usually effective in killing living microbes in food, but most toxins are not inactivated by heating. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.4

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 5e (Bauman) Chapter 26 Microbial Ecology and Microbiomes 26.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following is the CORRECT sequence of microbial associations from smallest to largest? A) populations, guilds, communities, microhabitats, ecosystem B) populations, communities, microhabitats, ecosystem, guilds C) communities, microhabitats, ecosystem, guilds, populations D) populations, communities, ecosystem, guilds, microhabitats E) ecosystem, populations, communities, microhabitats, guilds Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.1 2) A microbiome is composed of A) biospheres. B) microhabitats. C) ecosystems. D) populations E) sets of guilds. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.1 3) A ________ is a single species in an environment. A) microhabitat B) population C) colony D) biome E) guild Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.1

4) A guild is composed of A) populations with similar metabolic activities. B) microhabitats in a single location. C) a single species. D) microbiomes in a single zone. E) ecosystems. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.1 5) The greatest diversity of the human microbiome is found A) on the skin. B) in the mouth. C) in the intestine. D) in the urinary system. E) in the respiratory system. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.1 6) Which of the following is the best definition of antagonism? A) competition for limited resources B) cooperation in utilization of resources C) microbes living in the same environment without harming each other D) microbes producing products that interfere with the growth of others E) competition and producing products that interfere with growth Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.2 7) What type(s) of microbial interactions take place in a microhabitat? A) antagonism B) cooperation C) competition D) antagonism and competition E) a combination of antagonism, cooperation and competition Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.2

8) The use of microorganisms to clean a polluted environment is A) bioremediation. B) antagonism. C) cooperation. D) genetic engineering. E) waste treatment. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.3 9) In April 2010 an oil rig blowout resulted in a major crude oil spill in the Gulf of Mexico. How was the majority of the crude oil cleaned out of the Gulf? A) Humans collected the oil from the surface of the water and along the coastline. B) Artificial bioremediation, crude-oil eating microbes were poured into the ocean. C) Natural bioremediation by microbes already present in the ocean. D) Both human collection of oil and artificial bioremediation. E) The crude oil still has not been cleaned up. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.3 10) What is the source of the acidic pH of some mine runoff? A) Iron ores are reduced by exposure to the atmosphere. B) Pyrite is oxidized by exposure to the atmosphere and microbes. C) Iron ores contain sulfuric acid (H2SO4). D) Sulfur-containing ores are reduced by exposure to oxygen. E) Hydrogen gas trapped in ore reacts with the atmosphere to produce hydrochloric acid (HCl). Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.4 11) Which of the following statements concerning the phosphorus cycle in bacteria is TRUE? A) The element cycles between different organic molecules. B) It is the most important process for synthesizing proteins and nucleic acids. C) The element alternates among several oxidative states. D) The element changes from insoluble to soluble forms. E) The element is converted to a gaseous state and is lost to the environment. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.5

12)

What type of reactions take place in the portion of the sulfur cycle indicated in the figure? A) oxidation-reduction B) fermentation C) dissimilation D) denitrification E) carbon fixation Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.8 13) Which of the following best describes the roles of microorganisms in the carbon cycle? A) primary producers B) heterotrophs C) decomposers D) heterotrophs and decomposers E) primary producers, heterotrophs and decomposers Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.6 14) What is carbon fixation? A) The conversion of dead organisms into fossil fuel. B) The release of carbon dioxide by cellular respiration. C) The conversion of carbon dioxide into organic molecules. D) The storage of carbon compounds by heterotrophs. E) The release of carbon dioxide by combustion. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.6

15) The "greenhouse gas" methane is produced by A) prokaryotes. B) fungi. C) algae. D) animals. E) both fungi and alga. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.6 16) What is nitrogen fixation? A) the conversion of nitrate (NO3-) into nucleic acids B) the incorporation of ammonia (NH3) into amino acids C) the release of ammonia (NH4-) from decomposing organic material D) the conversion of atmospheric nitrogen (N2) into ammonia (NH3) E) the conversion of ammonia (NH3) into ammonium ion (NH4+) Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.7 17) Which of the following is the conversion of ammonium ion+ into nitrogen gas (N2)? A) assimilation B) anammox C) nitrogen fixation D) nitrification E) denitrification Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.7 18) Which form of sulfur can algae and plants use but not produce? A) hydrogen sulfide (H2S) B) elemental sulfur (S0) C) sulfuric acid (H2SO4) D) sulfate (SO42- ) E) both elemental sulfur and hydrogen sulfide Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.8

19) What nutrient most commonly contributes to eutrophication? A) phosphorus B) nitrite C) sulfide D) methane E) iron oxides Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.9 20) Which of the following oxidize H2S to SO4-2, the form of sulfur animals use for their metabolism? A) Beggiatoa B) Desulfovibrio C) purple sulfur bacteria D) both Beggiatoa and purple sulfur bacteria E) both Beggiatoa and Desulfovibrio Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.8 21) Metal ions are useful to organisms in the ________ form. A) soluble B) reduced C) insoluble D) oxidized E) oxidized and insoluble Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.10 22) Biomining takes advantage of prokaryotes ability to ________ metals. A) reduce B) reduce the solubility of C) oxidize D) directly solubilize E) bioaccumulate Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.10

23) Where does the bulk of biogeochemical cycling occur? A) in the air B) in soil C) in water D) in the benthic zone E) in both air and water Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.10 24) What pH conditions favor the growth of most bacteria? A) pH 2 B) pH 5 C) pH 7 D) pH 9 E) Bacteria can grow at all ranges of pH. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.11 25) Which of the following conditions will support the greatest diversity of microbes? A) waterlogged with little mineral content B) moderately moist soil with lots of organic compounds C) alternating moist and dry with alkaline conditions D) mostly dry soil with lots of organic compounds and acidic conditions E) alternating moist and dry soil with high salt content Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.11 26) What microbes thrive in waterlogged soil? A) anaerobes B) obligate aerobes C) halophiles D) thermophiles E) bacteria capable of forming endospores Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.11

27) Soil contaminated with bird droppings may contain ________ which can cause respiratory disease in humans. A) Agrobacterium tumifaciens B) Clostridium tetani C) Streptomyces scabies D) Histoplasma capsulatum E) Bacillus subtilis Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.12 28) Which of the following is a specific example of bioremediation? A) the purification of water for drinking B) the treatment of wastewater C) the treatment of sludge D) the degradation of crude oil spilled along the Alaska coastline E) acid mine drainage Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.3 29) Anaerobic organisms reside in the ________ zone of a lake. A) limentic B) benthic C) littoral D) profundal E) both the littoral and the profundal Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.13 30) The majority of the microbial carbon cycling activity will typically occur in A) subsoil. B) topsoil. C) deep soil. D) on the surface of the soil. E) all depths of soil. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.6, 26.11

31) Photoautotrophs reside in the ________ zone(s) of marine environments. A) abyssal B) limnetic C) littoral D) both limnetic and littoral E) abyssal, limnetic and littoral Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.13 32) Which aquatic zone in a lake will have the highest nutrient levels and therefore the densest microbial populations? A) the littoral zone B) the limnetic zone C) the profundal zone D) the benthic zone E) the sediment zone Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.13 33) Which of the following sets of characteristics describes the highest level of threat potential from biological weapons? A) a waterborne toxin that is easily introduced into public water supplies and does not replicate in humans B) a pathogen of livestock transmitted by contact with infected animals but not infected people C) a human pathogen easily produced as an aerosol and transmissible by respiratory aerosols D) a pathogen of wheat that could be delivered using crop dusters E) a microbe that can be introduced into food during packaging and withstands refrigerator temperatures but not typical cooking temperatures Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Biological Warfare and Bioterrorism Learning Outcome: 26.14 34) Which of the following infectious diseases currently tops the list of bioterrorist threats? A) anthrax B) the plague C) smallpox D) botulism E) cholera Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Biological Warfare and Bioterrorism Learning Outcome: 26.14 9 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

35) Which of the following human diseases may result from exposure to soil containing the microbe responsible? A) blastomycosis B) giardiasis C) crown gall disease D) cryptosporidiosis E) saxitoxin poisoning Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.12 36)

Green and purple sulfur bacteria will carry out anaerobic photosynthesis primarily in A) zone 1. B) zone 2. C) zone 3. D) zone 4. E) both zones 1 and 2. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.13

37) Which of the following bacteria is a common soil contaminant that may cause disease in humans and is a biological select agent? A) Aspergillus oryzae B) Bacillus anthracis C) Cyanobacteria D) Lactoccocus cremoris E) Streptomyces scabies Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Biological Warfare and Bioterrorism Learning Outcome: 26.12, 26.14 38) Why are Category B select agents considered lower risk biological agents? A) They are less dangerous pathogens than Category A. B) They may be difficult to disperse. C) They cause disease in animals but not humans. D) They are less dangerous pathogens and are more difficult to disperse. E) Their threat potential is unknown. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Biological Warfare and Bioterrorism Learning Outcome: 26.14 39) Which of the following disease agents has potential for both agroterrorism and bioterrorism? A) smallpox B) tularemia C) plague D) brucellosis E) blight Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Biological Warfare and Bioterrorism Learning Outcome: 26.14 40) Which potential biological select agent currently has no natural source? A) anthrax B) arenaviruses C) tularemia D) epidemic typhus E) smallpox Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Biological Warfare and Bioterrorism Learning Outcome: 26.14

41) Which of the following would be most effective in reducing the amount of CO2 in the atmosphere? A) cyanobacteria B) anaerobic microbes C) heterotrophic organisms D) fungi E) nitrogen fixers Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.6 42) Which of the following is a nitrogen-fixing bacterium that forms associations with the roots of plants? A) anaerobic Bacillus species B) Clostridium species C) Rhizobium species D) Azotobacter species E) cyanobacteria Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.7 43) When runoff containing excessive nutrients enters streams and lakes it can result in an overgrowth of cyanobacteria and algae, a process known as A) eutrophication. B) oxidation. C) fixation. D) ammonification. E) both ammonification and fixation. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.9 26.2 True/False Questions 1) The interactions between microbes in a guild are constantly changing. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.1

2) A microbiome typically is a single population of organisms. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.1 3) Members of a guild are metabolically related to each other. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.2 4) Acidic drainage from mine tailings is harmful to all life. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.4 5) Only prokaryotes fix nitrogen. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.7 6) Algae and protozoa in the soil are quite hardy, and therefore their abundance is not a useful indicator of environmental pollution. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.11 7) Bedrock does not contain microorganisms. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.11 8) Bioremediation is the process of using organisms to clean up toxic, hazardous compounds by degrading them to less harmful substances. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.3

9) Without the activities of microorganisms, the functioning of Earth's ecosystems would cease. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.2 10) Most of the nitrogen in the environment is in the form of nitrogen gas, which is the form used by most organisms. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.7 26.3 Short Answer Questions 1) All the microbes in a community in one location constitute a(n) (biosphere/ecosystem/microbiome). Answer: microbiome Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.1 2) A biofilm is an example of (antagonism/competition/cooperation) among microbes. Answer: cooperation Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.2 3) Organic compounds are degraded to produce methane by (Archaea/fungi/Pseudomonas). Answer: Archaea Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.3 4) Metals are cycled in the environment by microbes that (oxidize/reduce/solubilize) them. Answer: solubilize Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.5 5) Anaerobic oxidation of (methane/rubisco/plastics) produces carbon dioxide. Answer: methane Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.6

6) During decomposition of amino acids, the amino groups undergo (ammonification/anammox/denitrification) and are converted to ammonia. Answer: ammonification Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.7 7) Cyanobacteria produce a cell type known as a (cyst/heterocyst/nodule) that protects nitrogenase from the exposure to oxygen. Answer: heterocyst Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.7 8) Some microbes can (dissimilate/oxidize/reduce) hydrogen sulfide to elemental sulfur. Answer: oxidize Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.8 9) Eutrophication is primarily a result of (agricultural/industrial/urban) runoff. Answer: agricultural Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.9 10) Exposure to soil contaminated with rodent excrement may result in respiratory infection with (Coccidioides/Clostridium/Hantavirus). Answer: Hantavirus Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.12 11) Rivers typically lack a(n) (anaerobic/littoral/limnetic) zone. Answer: anaerobic Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.13 12) A biological select agent spread by (aerosols/contact/ingestion) has a high threat level. Answer: aerosols Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Biological Warfare and Bioterrorism Learning Outcome: 26.14

13) The anthrax attack of fall 2001 was accomplished by mailing the agent in ordinary envelopes. This method of delivery took advantage of the ability of Bacillus anthracis to produce (aerosols/endospores/spores). Answer: endospores Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Biological Warfare and Bioterrorism Learning Outcome: 26.14 14) When one microbe's metabolic activities create favorable conditions for another microorganism, this is referred to as (competition/cooperation/facilitation). Answer: cooperation Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.1 15) The organic material found in topsoil is called (humus/peat/compost). Answer: humus Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.11 26.4 Essay Questions 1) What are the levels of microbial associations in the environment? How do they relate to an ecosystem? Answer: Microorganisms are associated with each other at many levels in the environment. Individual growing and reproducing organisms that are all of one species are referred to as a population. Populations of microorganisms performing metabolically related processes are known as guilds. Guilds constitute communities. Guilds and populations within a community typically reside in their own habitat. Together, the organisms, environment, and relationship between the two constitute the ecosystem. Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.1 2) Compare and contrast carbon fixation and nitrogen fixation. Answer: Both processes convert inorganic compounds into organic forms that living things can use. Carbon fixation can take place in the presence or absence of oxygen, and there are both prokaryotes and eukaryotes capable of fixing carbon. Nitrogen fixation can only occur in the absence of oxygen, and only prokaryotes carry out nitrogen fixation. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.5 16 Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.

3) How do soil conditions impact the cycling of nitrogen during decomposition? Answer: Soil moisture content influences cycling of nitrogen. In moist soil, the ammonia generated by decomposition of amino acids is converted to ammonium ion and quickly absorbed by organisms. In dry soil the ammonia is lost to the atmosphere. The pH of the soil also influences whether ammonia is lost to the atmosphere or not: alkaline soil allows ammonia to escape as a gas, while neutral to acidic conditions favor conversion to ammonium ion and retention. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.7, 26.11 4) Smallpox is considered a serious potential biological weapon, whereas anthrax has been successfully used as one. Compare and contrast their potential with regard to the criteria for assessing biological threats. Answer: The smallpox virus causes serious illness with moderate to high fatality rates. The virus is highly contagious by contact and aerosols, and it is contagious before clear signs appear. The virus can persist on fomites and infect persons who come in contact with them. Although a vaccine exists, the majority of the world's population is currently unvaccinated. Consequently, once released, the virus will spread rapidly. However, there is no natural source for the virus, so a person or persons intent on using it as a weapon would have to have special access and facilities to be able to produce much virus. Additionally, post-exposure vaccination is effective in producing immunity, so the resulting epidemic could be controlled once recognized. The agent of anthrax, Bacillus anthracis, is an animal pathogen and a common soil contaminant. The organism can be easily isolated from contaminated soil and is not difficult to culture. The disease is not transmissible from person to person, so only the people exposed to the initial release would be at risk. However, the bacterium produces endospores that can be stored for long periods of time and released as a dust contaminant in airways or contact contaminant on fomites. Public perception of anthrax is that it is a very dangerous weapon. Initial respiratory symptoms are similar to other bacterial pneumonias, so proper diagnosis may not be made until the fatal toxemia develops. The current vaccine is expensive and does not produce immunity until after several boosters have been administered; therefore, it is not useful for controlling disease after a release. Natural B. anthracis is susceptible to most antibiotics, so treatment in cases of early detection is effective. Authorities are concerned about the potential for the development of antibiotic-resistant strains. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Biological Warfare and Bioterrorism Learning Outcome: 26.14

5) The dengue and Ebola viruses cause hemorrhagic fevers. Evaluate their threat levels as select agents using the criteria in the textbook, and decide whether they pose significant risk as biological weapons. Answer: Impact: Dengue virus can cause serious debilitating illness in adults but is only occasionally fatal, while the fatality rate among children is much higher. On the other hand, exposure to a different strain (there are 5) results in more severe disease. The public health impact could be increased by successive release of different strains into a susceptible population. People in areas where dengue viruses are endemic may have natural immunity. Delivery: Dengue viruses are transmitted by mosquitoes. An initial release of infected mosquitoes could result in many illnesses, but if the normal vector is not endemic to the area the disease would not continue to spread. Spread would also be seasonal in most temperate areas. Public perception and preparedness: In temperate zone developed countries there is not much awareness of dengue, so initially people might not perceive that they were under attack. In the 100 or so tropical to subtropical countries where dengue occurs the public would recognize the outbreak more quickly. There are no specific treatments, and vaccines are in development but not yet available. Dengue virus is not an "ideal" biological weapon, but has some potential. Impact: Ebola virus has a high mortality rate, and the manner of death is alarming. Fatality is not age-dependent. Delivery: Transmission from person to person requires direct contact with body fluids. Deliberate release into an unsuspecting population would be very difficult, probably requiring something like suicide "bombers". Public perception and preparedness: Public awareness of Ebola is very high due to the recent major outbreak, and the movie industry portrayal of the disease. This awareness combined with the obvious, alarming cause of death would likely result in terror in the population. There are no proven treatments and vaccines are in the early stages of development. While the "terror" potential of Ebola is high, the delivery obstacles make it an unlikely weapon. Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis Section: Biological Warfare and Bioterrorism Learning Outcome: 26.14