TEST BANK for Microbiology with Diseases by Body System 4th Edition Robert W. Bauman by ACADEMIAMILL

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System 4th Edition Bauman Test Bank Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 4e (Bauman) Chapter 1 A Brief History of Microbiology 1.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Antoni van Leeuwenhoek was the first person in history to A) use a magnifying glass. B) develop a taxonomic system. C) view microorganisms and record these observations. D) disprove spontaneous generation. E) use the germ theory of disease. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Early Years of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.1 2) Which of the following microbes are likely to be the swiftly moving "animalcules" observed by Leeuwenhoek in pond water? A) fungi B) protozoa C) algae D) viruses E) fungi and algae Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Early Years of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.2 3) Which of the following statements about fungi is INCORRECT? A) Fungi are eukaryotes. B) Molds are multicellular. C) Fungi have a cell wall. D) Fungi are photosynthetic. E) Yeasts are unicellular. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.3

4) Which of the following is an accurate description of viruses? A) They are visible with a light microscope. B) They are the smallest known cells. C) They are composed of protein only. D) They are typically about the size of prokaryotic cells. E) They are acellular obligatory parasites. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Early Years of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.3 5) Which of the following is an INCORRECT pairing? A) protozoa; multicellular B) fungi; cell walls C) algae; aquatic and marine habitats D) prokaryotes; no nuclei E) viruses; acellular parasites Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Early Years of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.3 6) A tiny (less than 2 micrometers) new organism is discovered living in a boiling hot "mud pot" (a type of mud spring). It is most likely a member of the A) algae. B) archaea. C) fungi. D) protozoa. E) viruses. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: The Early Years of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.4 7) Parasitic worms, even meters-long tapeworms, are studied in microbiology because A) they are parasites. B) diagnosis usually involves microscopic examination of patient samples. C) the Gram stain can be used to identify them. D) Leeuwenhoek first discovered them. E) no one else wants to study them. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Early Years of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.4

8) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of protozoa? A) Most exhibit asexual reproduction. B) They are single-celled organisms. C) They are eukaryotic organisms. D) They are all photosynthetic. E) They frequently possess cilia or flagella. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Early Years of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.4 9) The microbes commonly known as motile. A) archaea B) bacteria C) fungi D) protozoa E) viruses Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Early Years of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.5

are single-celled eukaryotes that are generally

10) Microorganisms characterized by the absence of a nucleus are called A) fungi. B) pathogens. C) eukaryotes. D) prokaryotes. E) viruses. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Early Years of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.5 11) Louis Pasteur demonstrated that fermentation to produce alcohol is caused by A) aerobes. B) facultative anaerobes. C) obligate parasites. D) archaea. E) prokaryotes. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.6

12) Which of the following questions largely stimulated the research of microbes during what is known as the Golden Age of Microbiology? A) How should living organisms be classified? B) How do genes work? C) How can microorganisms be seen? D) How are microbes related? E) What causes disease, and is spontaneous generation of microbes possible? Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.6 13) Aristotle was an early natural philosopher who formulated the A) theory of natural selection. B) germ theory of disease. C) theory of spontaneous generation (abiogenesis). D) theory of "magic bullets." E) scientific method. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.7 14) Which of the following scientists provided evidence in favor of the concept of spontaneous generation? A) Pasteur B) Needham C) Redi D) Buchner E) Spallanzani Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.7 15) Which of the following was NOT an aspect of Pasteur's experiments to disprove spontaneous generation? A) The necks of the flasks he used were bent into an S-shape. B) He boiled the infusions to kill any microbes present. C) The flasks were incubated for very long periods of time. D) The flasks were free of microbes until they were opened. E) The flasks he used were sealed with corks. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.8 4

16) What is the correct order for the steps in the scientific method? I. Conduct experiment. II. Develop a hypothesis. III. Analyze results. IV. Accept or reject hypothesis. A) I, II, III, IV B) IV, III, II, I C) I, III, II, IV D) II, I, III, IV E) There is no specific order required. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.9 17) What must one have before designing and conducting experiments? A) a theory B) a hypothesis C) scientific law D) popular opinion E) a complete set of data Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.9 18) Pasteur's experiments on fermentation laid the foundation for A) industrial microbiology. B) epidemiology. C) immunology. D) abiogenesis. E) antisepsis. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.10

19) Which of the following is NOT an observation Pasteur made concerning the fermentation of grape juice? A) Yeast can grow with or without oxygen. B) Some bacteria may produce acid in grape juice. C) Pasteurization kills yeast to prevent spoilage of grape juice. D) Yeast cells can grow and reproduce in grape juice. E) Yeast can grow in sealed or open flasks of grape juice. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.10 20) Who among the following may be considered the Father of Microbiology in part because of his careful application of the scientific method to many problems in microbiology? A) Robert Koch B) Edward Jenner C) Eduard Buchner D) Louis Pasteur E) Lazzaro Spallanzani Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.11 21) Who demonstrated that fermentation could occur in the absence of intact cells? A) Lister B) Koch C) Pasteur D) Buchner E) Woese Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.12 22) Which of the following statements concerning Koch's postulates is FALSE? A) Koch's postulates cannot be used to demonstrate the cause of all diseases. B) A suspected pathogen must be able to be grown in the laboratory. C) All of Koch's postulates must be satisfied before an organism can be shown to cause a particular disease. D) Koch's postulates involve the experimental infection of susceptible hosts. E) The suspected pathogen may not be present in all cases of the disease being studied. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.13 6

23) Robert Koch's contributions to the foundations of modern microbiology include A) demonstrating the role of microbes in fermentation. B) developing methods for isolation and identification of bacteria. C) demonstrating that hand washing can reduce the spread of disease. D) providing evidence for rejecting the theory of spontaneous generation. E) demonstrating certain chemicals are toxic to bacteria but not humans. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.13 24) What was the first disease shown to be bacterial in origin? A) yellow fever B) cholera C) anthrax D) malaria E) tuberculosis Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.13 25) What is the correct order for the application of Koch's postulates? I. Inoculate suspect agent into test subject and observe that subject develops disease of interest. II. Isolate and culture suspect agent in the laboratory. III. Find suspect agent is every case of disease of interest but not in healthy hosts. IV. Recover and isolate suspect agent from test subject. A) III, I, IV, II B) IV, I, III, II C) I, II, III, IV D) III, II, I, IV E) IV, I, II, III Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.14

26) Identification of bacteria in the laboratory usually begins with the one of two large groups of bacteria. A) Koch's stain B) Gram stain C) Pasteur fermentation test D) Petri stain E) Ehrlich magic test Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.15

for placement in

27) Which of the following individuals pioneered the use of chemicals to reduce the incidence of infections during surgery? A) Nightingale B) Snow C) Ehrlich D) Lister E) Semmelweis Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.16 28) Semmelweis advocated hand washing as a method of preventing which of the following diseases? A) cholera B) puerperal fever C) smallpox D) anthrax E) syphilis Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.16 29) John Snow's research during a cholera outbreak in London laid the foundation for which of the following branches of microbiology? A) infection control only B) epidemiology only C) immunology only D) both infection control and epidemiology E) infection control, epidemiology, and immunology Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.16 8

30) The work of Lister, Nightingale, and Semmelweis all contributed to controlling infectious disease by A) developing techniques for isolating pathogens. B) developing methods for reducing health care associated infections (HAI). C) identifying the sources of infectious agents. D) determining the taxonomic relationships among microbes. E) developing vaccines. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.16 31) All of the following were involved in developing the germ theory of disease EXCEPT A) Koch. B) Pauling. C) Fracastoro. D) Snow. E) Pasteur. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Modern Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.16 32) The term that literally means "against putrefaction" is A) antisepsis. B) prokaryote. C) chemotherapy. D) recombinant technology. E) abiogenesis. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.16 33) The study of the occurrence, distribution, and spread of disease is known as A) biotechnology. B) epidemiology. C) immunology. D) serology. E) biochemistry. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.16

34) Edward Jenner's efforts to prevent smallpox provided the foundation for the field of A) etiology. B) immunology. C) chemotherapy. D) molecular biology. E) epidemiology. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.17 35) The first true vaccine protected against disease caused by a(n) A) bacterial B) protozoal C) fungal D) viral E) archaeal Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.17

pathogen.

36) Paul Ehrlich used chemotherapy to treat A) cholera. B) cancer. C) anthrax. D) smallpox. E) syphilis. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.18 37) Whose search for chemicals that would kill microbes without harming humans was the foundation for chemotherapy? A) Ehrlich B) Koch C) Gram D) Lister E) Pasteur Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.18

38) Who discovered penicillin? A) Fleming B) Ehrlich C) Kitasato D) Pasteur E) Domagk Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.18 39) What scientist first hypothesized that gene sequences could provide new insights into evolutionary relationships among all organisms (including microbes)? A) Woese B) Avery C) Ehrlich D) Kluyver E) Pauling Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Modern Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.19 40) According to Kluyver and van Niel, which of the following are TRUE of basic biochemical reactions? A) They are shared by all living things. B) There are an unlimited number of them. C) They primarily involve the transfer of electrons and ions. D) Basic biochemical reactions shared by all living things primarily involve transfer of electrons and hydrogen ions. E) They primarily involve transfers of chemical groups. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: The Modern Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.19 41) Inserting a gene from the hepatitis B virus into yeast so that the yeast produces a viral protein is an example of A) etiology. B) genetic engineering. C) immunology. D) microbial genetics. E) gene therapy. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: The Modern Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.19 11

42) Work by laid the foundations of the field of environmental microbiology. A) Redi and Spallanzani B) Koch and Pasteur C) Beijerinck and Winogradsky D) Lister and Semmelweis E) Pauling and Woese Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Modern Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.20 43) The term for the use of microorganisms to restore damaged environments is A) epidemiology. B) bioremediation. C) chemotherapy. D) serology. E) ecology. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Modern Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.20 44) The term involves the study of the blood components that fight infection. A) antisepsis B) chemotherapy C) etiology D) serology E) bioremediation Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: The Modern Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.20

45) Recent estimates of the number of microbes on the planet have expanded almost exponentially, but the number of microorganisms isolated in the lab has not increased at the same rate. How can microbiologists justify the higher estimates if they cannot isolate and grow the microbes in the lab? A) New technologies make it possible to detect the nucleic acid sequences of previously unknown organisms. B) Detection of novel enzymes indicates the existence of unidentified microbes. C) Much more powerful microscopes have made it possible to observe and identify huge numbers of microbes that cannot be isolated. D) The huge numbers of diseases without apparent causative agents indicate there are large numbers of unidentified pathogens. E) Previous estimates of the abundance of microbes cannot account for the detectable biomass in most environments. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: The Modern Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.21 46) The control of infectious disease remains challenging a century after the understanding of infectious disease began. What contributes to the continuing challenge? A) developing resistance to antimicrobial agents B) emerging diseases C) creating microbes using recombinant DNA technology D) both drug-resistant pathogens and emerging diseases E) rapidly growing estimates of the diversity of microbes Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Modern Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.21 1.2 True/False Questions 1) Microbiologists study only single-celled organisms. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Early Years of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.4 2) A microbe with a cell wall and no internal membrane enclosing the DNA is a prokaryote. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Early Years of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.5

3) Lazzaro Spallanzani was the first scientist to provide evidence disproving the spontaneous generation of microorganisms. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.8 4) Louis Pasteur is considered the Father of Microbiology because of the many carefully conducted experiments and observations he made with microbes. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.11 5) Fermentation requires the presence of living cells. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.12 6) Koch's postulates can be used only to determine the causes of infectious diseases. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.14 7) Christian Gram devised a staining technique that divides all bacteria into two groups. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.15 8) Joseph Lister reduced the incidence of wound infections in health care settings by using chlorinated lime water. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.16 9) Chemotherapy is the application of weakened pathogens to prevent disease. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.18

10) Gene therapy is a modern approach to preventing infectious disease. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Modern Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.21 1.3 Short Answer Questions 1) The amateur scientist (Koch/Leeuwenhoek/Pasteur) made his own microscopes and first reported the existence of microbes. Answer: Leeuwenhoek Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Early Years of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.1 2) The (alga/fungi/protozoa) are non-motile eukaryotes with cell walls that are not photosynthetic and may be multicellular. Answer: fungi Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Early Years of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.3 3) A cell that contains a nucleus is called a(n) (prokaryotic/archaeal/eukaryotic) cell. Answer: eukaryotic Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Early Years of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.5 4) The production of wine from grape juice is the result of (metabolism/fermentation/abiogenesis). Answer: fermentation Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Golden Years of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.6 5) Spallanzani's experiments contradicted the experiments of (Needham/Redi/Pasteur) on spontaneous generation. Answer: Needham Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.8 6) A scientist conducts experiments to test a(n) (observation/hypothesis/theory). Answer: hypothesis Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.9 15

7) The work of (Buchner/Ehrlich/Pasteur/Winogradsky) is considered the foundation of the field of biochemistry. Answer: Buchner Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.12 8) Microbes that cause infectious disease are called (pathogens/germs/viruses). Answer: pathogens Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.13 9) Ignaz Semmelweis demonstrated the importance of (antisepsis/vaccination/washing) as a means of preventing disease transmission. Answer: washing Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.16 10) The use of chemicals to treat diseases such as bacterial infections is called (gene therapy/chemotherapy/serology). Answer: chemotherapy Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.16 11) Research done in Robert Koch's laboratory laid the foundation for (epidemiology/immunology/etiology), the study of the body's defenses against disease. Answer: immunology Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Modern Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.19 12) Organisms such as bacteria that can convert atmospheric nitrogen into nitrate are often studied in (environmental/bioremediation/ecologic) microbiology. Answer: environmental Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Modern Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.20

13) The development of molecular biology has made possible the application of (genome sequencing/gene sequences/gene sequencing) to provide a better understanding of the relationships between organisms. Answer: gene sequencing Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Modern Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.21 14) A (colony/habitat/biofilm) is a community of microbes growing on surfaces. Answer: biofilm Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Modern Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.21 1.4 Essay Questions 1) You are a young scientist who has just learned about one of the hot topics in microbiology, biofilms. One aspect of the interest in biofilms is that the microbes living within biofilms appear to behave and function differently from their counterparts not living in a biofilm. Devise a way to explore the idea. (Do not focus on the technical details of how this might be accomplished.) Answer: Many answers are possible. A good answer should have a clear statement of hypothesis and an experimental design that reflects the hypothesis and will provide interpretable quantitative results. An excellent answer may include projections of possible outcomes and/or alternative hypotheses. Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis Section: The Modern Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.9, 1.19 2) Use the basic steps of the scientific method to describe Pasteur's experiments to investigate spontaneous generation. Answer: The observation that life seemed to appear from non-life led some scientists to believe in the theory of spontaneous generation. However, Pasteur among others believed in biogenesis: that life must come from life. The question Pasteur hoped to answer was "Where do microbes come from?" (step 1). Pasteur's hypothesis (step 2) was that the "parents" of microbes were present in the air on dust particles. In his experiments (step 3) he used swan-necked flasks, which were designed to prevent microbes from entering the sterile broth inside them. He observed that the broth remained sterile in the control flask even though air could move into and out of the flask. The experimental flasks were also swan-necked, but they were tilted to allow the dust that had settled to enter the flask. The control flasks stayed sterile, and the experimental flasks became cloudy. These observations led Pasteur to accept his hypothesis (step 4). He concluded that the microbes came from the dust and that spontaneous generation was therefore not a valid theory. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.9

3) Biotechnology can be said to have ancient roots. Explain. Answer: Biotechnology is the use of microbes to yield beneficial products. Humans have used microbes to their benefit for millennia in producing beer and wine, which were often safer to drink than the available water, and in preserving foods. Examples of the latter include the production of wine, which essentially preserved fruit juices, and of cheese and yogurt, which extended the storage life of milk products. Soy sauce and other fermented sauces were also preserved by fermentation and were later shown to enhance the flavors of certain foods. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.10 4) Explain how the discipline of biochemistry grew out of the science of microbiology. Answer: Some of the first experiments in biochemistry are attributed to Louis Pasteur in his research on the causes of fermentation. His research was extended by Eduard Buchner, who showed that enzymes produced by microbial cells are responsible for the phenomenon of fermentation. Later, in the early 20th century, Kluyver and van Niel advocated the use of microbes in research on basic biochemical reactions, which they maintained are common to all living things. Further advances in biochemistry were made as microbiologists such as Beadle and Tatum and Avery and his colleagues explored the nature of the genetic material and its function using microorganisms as model systems. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: The Modern Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.12, 1.19 5) Recent news stories have reported on the "microbiome" of the human body. The reports include statements about the abundance of the microbes in and on the human body ("They outnumber our cells 10 to 1") and that most of these microbes are unknown to science. Discuss how microbiologists can have confidence in these apparently conflicting statements. Answer: Molecular techniques have advanced to the point that it is possible to detect and visualize microorganisms without having to isolate them in the lab. DNA sequence detection techniques in particular are useful for identifying the presence of microbes that cannot be isolated in the lab (are "unculturable"). This in turn has made it possible to detect the presence of many previously unsuspected microbes. Some of the techniques also provide a means of roughly quantifying the numbers of each type of microbe. Thus it is possible for scientists to confidently discuss the huge numbers of microbes resident in and on the human body without having to isolate and grow each type. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: The Modern Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.21

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 4e (Bauman) Chapter 2 The Chemistry of Microbiology 2.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following is a particle found in the nucleus of an atom and that has no electrical charge? A) electron B) neutron C) element D) proton E) isotope Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Atoms Learning Outcome: 2.2 2) Matter composed of a single type of atom is known as a(n) A) element. B) mineral. C) molecule. D) compound. E) electron. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Atoms Learning Outcome: 2.1 3) A stable atom has in its valence shell. A) 4 electrons B) 2 neutrons C) 8 electrons D) 8 protons E) 10 electrons Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Chemical Bonds Learning Outcome: 2.4

4) Which parts of the atoms interact in a chemical reaction? A) protons B) neutrons C) ions D) electrons E) isotopes Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Chemical Bonds Learning Outcome: 2.4 5)

The outer ring in Figure 2-1 represents A) an electron. B) the nucleus. C) an isotope. D) an electron shell. E) a neutron. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Atoms Learning Outcome: 2.2 6) The valence of an atom represents its A) ability to interact with other atoms. B) electronegativity. C) radioactivity. D) ability to attract electrons. E) ability to interact with water. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Chemical Bonds Learning Outcome: 2.4

7) The type(s) of bonds produced when atoms share electrons equally is/are A) a nonpolar covalent bond. B) a hydrogen bond. C) an ionic bond. D) a polar covalent bond. E) both polar covalent and ionic bonds. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Chemical Bonds Learning Outcome: 2.6 8) The type(s) of bond produced when atoms with somewhat different electronegativities share electrons is/are A) a nonpolar covalent bond. B) a polar covalent bond. C) an ionic bond. D) a hydrogen bond. E) both nonpolar covalent and ionic bonds. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Chemical Bonds Learning Outcome: 2.7 9) A research microbiologist wants to determine whether a microbe can metabolize a new synthetic organic molecule composed of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. Which of the following would be useful in tracing the fate of the compound? A) the 14C isotope B) the 2H isotope C) the 13C isotope D) the 12C isotope E) a 13C+ ion. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Atoms Learning Outcome: 2.3 10) Unstable isotopes can be useful A) catalysts. B) in medical diagnosis. C) in vitamins. D) in the formation of hydrogen bonds. E) as buffers. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Atoms Learning Outcome: 2.3 3

11) Which of the following is a CORRECT pairing of metabolic terms? A) dehydration: decomposition B) catabolism: endothermic C) hydrolysis: decomposition D) synthesis: catabolism E) synthesis: exothermic Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Chemical Reactions Learning Outcome: 2.10 12) Compounds that readily dissociate in water are A) nonpolar. B) ionic. C) polar. D) either polar or ionic. E) never polar or ionic. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Chemical Bonds Learning Outcome: 2.8 13) Which of the following is a property of water? A) It has a high capacity for heat. B) It is not a common reactant in metabolic reactions. C) It is not a good solvent. D) It is liquid in a very narrow temperature range. E) It is a nonpolar molecule. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Water, Acids, Bases, and Salts Learning Outcome: 2.15 14) An acid dissociates in water to release A) hydrogen ions. B) cations. C) hydroxyl groups. D) anions. E) both anions and hydrogen ions. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Water, Acids, Bases, and Salts Learning Outcome: 2.16

15) The reverse of a dehydration synthesis reaction is a(n) A) anabolic B) exchange C) hydrolysis D) endothermic E) metabolic Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Chemical Reactions Learning Outcome: 2.13

reaction.

16) A hydroxyl acts as a base. A) group B) anion C) atom D) cation E) salt Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Water, Acids, Bases, and Salts Learning Outcome: 2.16 17) The chemical formula of a solid indicates it contains two groups with different electronegativities. This substance is most likely A) a mixture. B) a salt. C) a nonpolar molecule. D) radioactive. E) non-ionic. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Chemical Bonds Learning Outcome: 2.8 18) You are performing an experiment in your chemistry lab class. The directions advise caution because the reaction is exothermic. Which of the following is the hazard the directions warn about? A) The reaction will generate radiation. B) The reaction will produce a noxious vapor. C) The reaction may cause the container to become dangerously hot. D) The reaction may cause the container to freeze and break. E) The reaction will generate enough light to require eye protection. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Chemical Reactions Learning Outcome: 2.12 5

19) The reaction described below is consistent with A) a synthesis reaction. B) a catabolic reaction. C) a decomposition reaction. D) an exchange reaction. E) both synthesis and decomposition. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Chemical Reactions Learning Outcome: 2.14 20) Nucleic acid polymers, proteins, and complex carbohydrates are all produced by A) hydrolytic reactions. B) dehydration synthesis. C) exchange reactions. D) hydrogen bonding. E) catabolic reactions. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.11 21) Which of the following is an example of a polysaccharide? A) glycogen B) glucose C) fructose D) deoxyribose E) sucrose Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.20 22) Research suggests taking antacids may make people more susceptible to infection with Vibrio vulnificus by making the stomach environment more tolerable to the bacteria. Based on this information and the name "antacid," which of the following are antacids likely to be? A) acids B) bases C) non-polar compounds D) buffers E) either base or buffer Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Water, Acids, Bases, and Salts Learning Outcome: 2.16 6

23) All of the following are components of an amino acid EXCEPT a(n) A) carboxyl group. B) pentose group. C) amino group. D) α-carbon. E) R group. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.17 24) Which of the following is found in nucleic acids? A) amino groups B) carboxylic acid C) purines D) glycerol E) R group Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.23 25) Hydrogen bonds are found in all of the following EXCEPT A) between phosphates in ATP. B) in the structure of complex polysaccharides. C) between water molecules. D) in the DNA double helix between nucleotides. E) between the R groups of amino acids in proteins. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Chemical Bonds Learning Outcome: 2.9 26) Tertiary and quaternary structure of proteins involves A) hydrogen B) ionic C) polar covalent D) nonpolar covalent E) hydrogen, ionic, polar, and nonpolar covalent Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.22

bonds.

27) Which of the following are examples of pyrimidines? A) uracil and adenine B) cytosine and guanine C) thymine and adenine D) thymine and guanine E) cytosine and thymine Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.23 28) A macromolecule containing two fatty acids and a phosphate group is a A) wax. B) phospholipid. C) steroid. D) saturated fatty acid. E) glycerol. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.18 29) The "backbone" of the DNA molecule is composed of A) amino acids. B) pentoses. C) phosphates. D) nitrogenous bases. E) alternating phosphates and pentoses. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.24 30) Which of the following would NOT normally be found as a component of a cell's nucleic acids? A) adenine deoxyribonucleotides B) thymine deoxyribonucleotides C) uracil deoxyribonucleotides D) cytosine ribonucleotides E) adenine ribonucleotides Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.24

31) All of the following are associated with ATP molecules EXCEPT A) a long-term energy supply. B) high-energy bonds. C) a recyclable energy supply. D) formation of coenzymes. E) three phosphate groups. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.25 32) Which of the following is TRUE of both DNA and RNA? A) The "backbone" is composed of riboses and phosphates. B) They contain adenine, cytosine, guanine and thymine. C) They are usually double-stranded helices. D) The purines and pyrimidines form hydrogen-bonded pairs. E) They are highly hydrophobic macromolecules. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.24 33) Which of the following is an INCORRECT pairing? A) primary structure; amino acid sequence B) secondary structure; disulfide bridges C) tertiary structure; covalent bonds D) quaternary structure; two or more polypeptides E) secondary structure; β-pleated sheets Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.22 34) Proteins contain both acidic and basic R groups, and can therefore function as A) energy storage macromolecules. B) structural macromolecules. C) buffers. D) catalysts. E) genetic material. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.16, 2.21

35) Which of the following is characteristic of proteins? A) They are composed of carbohydrate. B) They have multiple layers of structural organization. C) They are composed of nucleic acids. D) Their secondary structure is composed of β-helices. E) They are primarily hydrophobic. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Proteins Learning Outcome: 2. 22 36) Plant cell walls are composed of A) polysaccharides; hydrogen bonds B) amino acids; peptide bonds C) disaccharides; hydrophobic interactions D) fatty acids; polar covalent bonds E) peptidoglycan; ionic bonds Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.9, 2.20

held together by

37) A(n) is an arrangement of atoms found in a variety of macromolecules. A) buffer B) isotope C) salt D) stereoisomer E) functional group Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.17 38) Decomposition reactions are commonly A) endothermic B) exchange C) exothermic D) anabolic E) dehydration Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.12

reactions.

39) Lipids found in the membranes of most eukaryotic cells are A) polyunsaturated fats. B) phospholipids. C) steroids. D) waxes. E) triglycerides. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.18 40) Which of the following lipids has the lowest ratio of hydrogens to carbons? A) saturated fats B) polyunsaturated fats C) monounsaturated fats D) both saturated and monounsaturated fats E) Saturated, unsaturated, and polyunsaturated fats have equal ratios of hydrogens to carbons. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.19 41) DNA is composed of repeating units of sugars, phosphates, and nucleic acids. This is an example of a A) polymer. B) monomer. C) salt. D) micelle. E) lipid. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.24 42) Bacterial cell walls are composed of A) peptides. B) polysaccharides. C) waxes. D) carbohydrates and waxes. E) peptides and polysaccharides. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.20

43) Anna is conducting an experiment using a pH indicator that is red at low pH, green at neutral pH, and purple at high pH. She starts with a green solution. When she adds compound X to her solution it turns purple. Then she adds compound Z to the solution and it turns green. She adds more Z and the solution remains green. These observations suggest X is and Z is . A) a base; a buffer B) an acid; a base C) a base; a strong acid D) an acid; a buffer E) a buffer; a base Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Water, Acids, Bases, and Salts Learning Outcome: 2.16 44) A reaction requires water as a reactant and produces heat. What type of reaction is likely to be involved? A) a decomposition reaction B) a hydrolysis reaction C) an exchange reaction D) a synthesis reaction E) The answer cannot be determined with the available information. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Chemical Reactions Learning Outcome: 2.14 45) What functional groups are present in ALL amino acids? A) amino groups B) carboxyl groups C) hydroxyl groups. D) amino and carboxyl groups E) amino and sulfhydryl groups. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.17

46) Amylose is a(n) carbohydrate. A) simple B) monomer C) polymer D) nucleotide E) ionic Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.20 2.2 True/False Questions 1) The smallest chemical units of matter are elements. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Atoms Learning Outcome: 2.1 2) The side groups of amino acids can interact with each other and with other molecules. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Organic Molecules Learning Outcome: 2.17 3) A molecule composed of carbon and hydrogen is a compound. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Chemical Bonds Learning Outcome: 2.5 4) The electron shells of atoms hold eight electrons each. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Atoms Learning Outcome: 2.4 5) Carbon atoms have four valence electrons and typically form polar covalent bonds. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Atoms Learning Outcome: 2.6

6) An organic molecule with the chemical formula C4H5O1N3 is probably a pyrimidine. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.23 7) Denaturation of a protein is always permanent. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.22 8) Glycolipids are an example of a mixture. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.20 9) One of the products of dehydration synthesis reactions is water. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Chemical Reactions Learning Outcome: 2.11 10) Salts are produced from exchange reactions in which acids and bases neutralize each other. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Water, Acids, Bases, and Salts Learning Outcome: 2.16 2.3 Short Answer Questions 1) Radioactive iodine is sometimes used to treat thyroid cancer. This is an example of the use of (isotopes/elements/radiation) in medical treatment. Answer: isotopes Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Atoms Learning Outcome: 2.3 2) The phosphorylation of a protein by ATP is a(n) (exchange/transfer/group) reaction Answer: exchange Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Chemical Reactions Learning Outcome: 2.14

3) Neon generally does not react with other atoms because it has (2/4/6/8) electrons in its outer shell. Answer: 8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Chemical Bonds Learning Outcome: 2.4 4) An atom or molecule becomes a(n) (anion/ion/cation) when it loses an electron to a more electronegative molecule. Answer: cation Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Chemical Bonds Learning Outcome: 2.8 5) A chemical reaction in which a water molecule is a reactant is known as a (dehydration/hydrolysis) reaction. Answer: hydrolysis Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Chemical Reactions Learning Outcome: 2.13 6) A(n) (base/acid) is a molecule that binds with hydrogen ions when it is dissolved in water. Answer: base Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Water, Acids, Bases, and Salts Learning Outcome: 2.16 7) The folding of a polypeptide into a three-dimensional shape is its (secondary/tertiary/quaternary) structure. Answer: tertiary Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.22 8) The "double helix" of DNA is the result of (covalent/ionic/hydrogen) bonds. Answer: hydrogen Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Chemical Bonds Learning Outcome: 2.9

Figure 2-2 depicts the (primary/secondary/tertiary) structure of a protein. Answer: primary Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.22 10) A(n) (catalyst/enzyme/protein) is any molecule that speeds up a chemical reaction. Answer: catalyst Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.21 11) A fatty acid with two double bonds is a (saturated/monounsaturated/polyunsaturated) fat. Answer: polyunsaturated Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.19 12) A chemical reaction that traps energy within newly formed chemical bonds is an (exothermic/endothermic) reaction. Answer: endothermic Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Chemical Reactions Learning Outcome: 2.12 13) A(n) (indicator/base/buffer) is a substance that maintains the pH even when the amounts of acid and/or base are changing. Answer: buffer Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Water, Acids, Bases, and Salts Learning Outcome: 2.16 14) The functional group of a monosaccharide is a(n) (amino/carboxyl/hydroxyl/carbonyl) Answer: hydroxyl Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.17

15) The (atoms/isotopes/stereoisomers) of an element vary in the number of neutrons in the nucleus. Answer: isotopes Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Atoms Learning Outcome: 2.3 2.4 Essay Questions 1) Compare and contrast synthesis reactions with decomposition reactions. Answer: Synthesis and decomposition reactions are often the reverse of each other. Synthesis reactions consume energy (are endothermic), whereas decomposition reactions release energy (are exothermic). Synthesis reactions often release water molecules in a process called dehydration synthesis, whereas decomposition reactions often consume water molecules in a process called hydrolysis. Finally, decomposition reactions break large macromolecules into their component monomers, which can then be used in synthesis reactions to build new macromolecules for use by the cell, whereas synthesis reactions utilize component monomers to build larger molecules. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Chemical Reactions Learning Outcome: 2.10 2) Discuss the importance of hydrogen bonds in the chemistry of the cell. Answer: The chemistry of the cell would basically be impossible without hydrogen bonds. Water, which is required by all cellular reactions, would not have its unique properties of cohesiveness and polarity without hydrogen bonds. Hydrogen bonds hold the double helix of DNA together and contribute to the overall shape of protein molecules. However, unlike covalent bonds, hydrogen bonds are not permanent bonds, so they can easily and temporarily be broken, a characteristic that is important at certain points in the cell's life cycle (such as during DNA replication). Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Chemical Bonds Learning Outcome: 2.9, 2.22, 2.24

3) Max is exploring the properties of various compounds. Some of his explorations involve the use of a pH indicator that is red at low pH, yellow-green at neutral pH, and blue to purple at high pH. He sets up several tubes containing water and the pH indicator and then begins to add some of the compounds he is characterizing in various combinations. His results are shown on the Figure 2.3.

Compound None Color Green

1×L Red

1×M Green

2×M Blue

5×M Purple

1×L+ 1×L+ 1×L+ 1×M+ 1×N 1×M 5×M 1×N Green Red Green Green

What can Max conclude about his compounds based on these results? Describe the likely events in terms of hydrogen and hydroxyl ions. Answer: Max's results are consistent with L being an acid and M being a weak base. Compound N appears to be a buffer. The green color of the indicator is seen when the concentrations of hydroxyl and hydrogen ions are equal. The red color of the solution indicates the concentration of hydrogen ions is greater than the hydroxyl ion concentration. The data does not provide information for calculating the concentrations. Blue and purple indicator colors show the hydroxyl ion concentrations exceed the hydrogen ion concentrations. The results with the mixes of L and M suggest that L dissolves to release 5 times more hydrogen ions than the concentration of hydroxyl ions produced by the ionization of M. Compound N accepts or releases ions with changing hydrogen ion concentrations to maintain equal concentrations of cations and anions. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Water, Acids, Bases, and Salts Learning Outcome: 2.16 4) A student is given a compound to identify in an organic chemistry class. The first thing she notices is that it is not soluble in pure water or saline. Analysis of the ratios of atoms indicates the ratio of carbon to hydrogen to oxygen is 1:1.5:0.05. There is no nitrogen. Based on this information, what class of biological macromolecule is the student working with? Justify your answer. Answer: The macromolecule is a sterol. The lack of nitrogen eliminates amino acids and nucleic acids. The ratio eliminates carbohydrates, which have a C:H:O ration of 1:2:1. Thus the compound is a lipid. Fatty acids and waxes have a C:H ratio of about 1:2 with only one (wax) or two (fatty acid) oxygens per molecule (C:O ranging from 12:1 to 24:1). The low ratio of H to C suggests many carbons are bonded to three other carbons, consistent with steroids. The presence of some oxygen indicates there are hydroxyl groups, found in sterols. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.18, 2.19

5) Nitrogen is an essential element for living things, as demonstrated by the fact that nearly all fertilizers contain nitrogenous compounds. Discuss why nitrogen is essential. Answer: Nitrogen is a component in the structure of two of the four types of organic macromolecules. The amino group of an amino acid is a key reactant in the formation of peptide bonds, or primary structure, of proteins. Nitrogen also participates in hydrogen bonding and thereby contributes to the secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structure of proteins. Nitrogen is a key structural component of the bases in nucleic acids, and its participation in hydrogen bonding results in the formation of the base pairs and therefore the double helix of DNA. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.22, 2.23

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 4e (Bauman) Chapter 3 Cell Structure and Function 3.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Using a microscope, you observe an amoeba moving toward a food source. This is an example of A) reproduction. B) cellular structure. C) metabolism. D) growth. E) responsiveness. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Processes of Life Learning Outcome: 3.1 2) Which of the following is found only in eukaryotic cells? A) cytoplasm B) cytoplasmic membrane C) nuclear envelope D) ribosomes E) DNA Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cells: An Overview Learning Outcome: 3.2 3) Which of the following statements concerning the characteristics of life is FALSE? A) Reproduction is defined as an increase in the size of an organism. B) Viruses have some, but not all, of the characteristics of living things. C) Organisms may not exhibit all of the characteristics of life at all times. D) Reproduction can occur asexually or sexually in living things. E) Living things store metabolic energy in the form of chemicals such as ATP. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Processes of Life Learning Outcome: 3.1

4) Some bacteria have an outer layer composed of and allows them to adhere to surfaces. A) polysaccharides B) waxes C) nucleotides D) polypeptides E) either polypeptides or polysaccharides Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: External Structures of Bacterial Cells Learning Outcome: 3.3

that protects them from desiccation

5) Which of the following bacterial cell structures plays an important role in the creation of biofilms? A) glycocalyces B) flagella C) fimbriae D) pili E) both fimbriae and glycocalyces Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: External Structures of Bacterial Cells Learning Outcome: 3.3, 3.7 6) What anchors the bacterial flagellum to the cell wall and cytoplasmic membrane? A) a pilus B) the filament C) fimbriae D) the hook E) the basal body Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: External Structures of Bacterial Cells Learning Outcome: 3.5 7) A bacterial cell moving toward light would be an example of A) tumbles. B) positive phototaxis. C) negative phototaxis. D) positive chemotaxis. E) negative chemotaxis. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: External Structures of Bacterial Cells Learning Outcome: 3.5

8) Which of the following statements concerning prokaryotic flagella is TRUE? A) Prokaryotic flagella rotate like a drive shaft. B) A "run" results from clockwise movement of the flagellum. C) Prokaryotic flagella are composed of tubulin. D) Treponema is an example of a bacterium that has a tuft of polar flagella. E) Prokaryotic flagella are anchored in the cytoplasm. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: External Structures of Bacterial Cells Learning Outcome: 3.5 9) Which of the following statements concerning fimbriae is TRUE? A) Fimbriae are about as long as flagella. B) Fimbriae facilitate the transfer of DNA among bacterial cells. C) Bacteria use fimbriae to attach to surfaces. D) All bacteria have fimbriae. E) A bacterial cell will usually have only one or two fimbriae. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: External Structures of Bacterial Cells Learning Outcome: 3.7 10) Which of the following may be a component of bacterial cell walls? A) carrageenan B) lipoteichoic acids C) mycolic acid D) tubulin E) both lipoteichoic and mycolic acids Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Cell Walls Learning Outcome: 3.11 11) Bacterial cell walls that are resistant to drying contain A) carbohydrates. B) amino acids. C) lipopolysaccharide. D) tubulin. E) waxes. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Cell Walls Learning Outcome: 3.11

12) Lipid A is a component of A) lipopolysaccharides. B) plant cell walls. C) cytoplasmic membranes. D) mycolic acid. E) bacterial glycocalyces. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Cell Walls Learning Outcome: 3.12 13) Bacteria of the genus Mycoplasma lack cell walls. What sort of environment do they require for survival? A) low temperature B) hypotonic C) isotonic D) hypertonic E) a biofilm Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Bacterial Cell Walls Learning Outcome: 3.17 14) Lipid-soluble molecules would be expected to cross the cytoplasmic membrane by which of the following processes? A) osmosis B) facilitated diffusion C) diffusion D) active transport E) group translocation Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.16 15) ATP is expended in which of the following processes? A) facilitated diffusion B) diffusion C) group translocation D) active transport E) both active transport and group translocation Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.16

16) Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning the fluid mosaic model? A) Small water soluble molecules move freely across the bilayer. B) Membrane proteins are free to move in two dimensions in the bilayer. C) The phospholipids rotate across the bilayer from one face to the other. D) The integrated proteins are firmly cemented in place relative to each other. E) The phospholipids form a rigid structure. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Bacterial Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.14 17) Endospores survive a variety of harsh conditions in part because of the presence of A) mycolic acid. B) lipopolysaccharide. C) hopanoids. D) dipicolinic acid. E) glycoproteins. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Cytoplasm of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 3.20 18) The flagella of archaea are similar to bacterial flagella but differ in that they A) lack a basal body. B) move like a whip. C) are anchored in the cytoplasm. D) are smaller in diameter and are not hollow. E) are driven by the flow of hydrogen ions. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: External Structure of Archaea Learning Outcome: 3.24 19) Which of the following is unique to archaea? A) LPS B) peptidoglycan C) hami D) fimbriae E) pili Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: External Structures of Archaea Learning Outcome: 3.26

20)20)

The cells illustrated in Figure 3-1 are in a(n) A) hypotonic B) hypertonic C) isotonic D) fluid mosaic E) passive Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.17

environment.

21) Which of the following statements concerning endocytosis and exocytosis is TRUE? A) These processes occur in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes. B) Phagocytosis is a type of endocytosis in which liquids are brought into the cell. C) Endocytosis produces a structure called a food vesicle. D) Waste products and secretions are exported from the cell during endocytosis. E) Endocytosis is a form of passive transport, whereas exocytosis is a form of active transport. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Eukaryotic Cell Walls and Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.32

22) The lipids that are NOT generally components of cell membranes are A) hopanoids. B) triglycerides. C) phospholipids. D) fatty acids. E) sterols. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Eukaryotic Cell Walls and Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.31 23) Which of the following cellular components facilitate(s) the process of bacterial binary fission? A) centrioles B) fimbriae C) nucleoid D) cytoskeleton E) inclusions Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Cytoplasm of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 3.21 24) Which of the following is classified as a nonmembranous organelle of eukaryotic cells? A) endoplasmic reticulum B) Golgi body C) mitochondrion D) centriole E) peroxisome Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes Learning Outcome: 3.39 25) Which of the following processes powers the rotation of the flagella of archaea? A) ATP B) a hydrogen ion gradient C) a sodium ion gradient D) assembly and disassembly of microtubules E) contraction of cytoskeletal proteins Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: External Structures of Archaea Learning Outcome: 3.24

26) Which of the following statements about the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) is CORRECT? A) The rough ER is the site of lipid synthesis. B) The smooth ER has ribosomes associated with it. C) The ER is a lipid storage organelle. D) The ER is a transport system within the cytoplasm. E) The smooth ER is a site of ATP synthesis. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes Learning Outcome: 3.42 27) Which of the following is a CORRECT pairing? A) bacterial flagellum: ATP driven B) eukaryotic flagellum: flagellin protein C) eukaryotic flagellum: enclosed in cytoplasmic membrane D) bacterial flagellum: microtubule protein E) eukaryotic flagellum: hydrogen ion gradient driven Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes Learning Outcome: 3.36 28) Chloroplasts differ from mitochondria in that the former have A) DNA. B) two lipid bilayers. C) 70S ribosomes. D) thylakoids. E) cristae. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes Learning Outcome: 3.42 29) Which of the following is paired INCORRECTLY? A) plants; cellulose cell wall B) algae; glycocalyx present C) bacteria; peptidoglycan cell wall D) fungi; chitin, glucomannan and/or cellulose cell wall E) archaea; polysaccharide cell wall Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Eukaryotic Cell Walls and Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.31

30) Which of the following statements concerning the endosymbiotic theory is FALSE? A) Eukaryotes were formed from the union of small anaerobic cells by larger aerobic cells. B) Mitochondria and chloroplasts can divide independently of the cell. C) Mitochondria and chloroplasts have their own DNA and ribosomes. D) The cristae of mitochondria evolved from the cytoplasmic membrane of prokaryotes. E) The endosymbiotic theory is widely accepted. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Endosymbiotic Theory Learning Outcome: 3.44 31) Functions of the eukaryotic cytoskeleton include giving shape to the cell and A) anchoring organelles. B) moving cellular contents. C) separating chromosomes during mitosis. D) anchoring organelles and moving cellular contents. E) anchoring organelles, moving cellular contents, and separating chromosomes during mitosis. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes Learning Outcome: 3.39 32) The accumulation of glucose 6-phosphate inside a bacterial cell via phosphorylation of glucose is an example of A) facilitated diffusion. B) group translocation. C) osmosis. D) plasmolysis. E) diffusion. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.16 33) Which of the following molecules would be expected to cross the cytoplasmic membrane rapidly and without the use of transport proteins? A) large molecules only B) ions only C) small hydrophobic molecules only D) small hydrophilic molecules only E) both ions and hydrophilic molecules Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Bacterial Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.15

34) Which of the following processes requires a carrier protein? A) diffusion only B) facilitated diffusion only C) active transport only D) endocytosis only E) both facilitated diffusion and active transport Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Eukaryotic Cell Walls and Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.16 35) Which of the following chemical substances contributes to the unique characteristics of acidfast bacteria? A) N-acetylglucosamine B) peptidoglycan C) lipoteichoic acid D) endotoxin E) mycolic acid Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Bacterial Cell Walls Learning Outcome: 3.11 36) The cytoplasmic membranes of contain phospholipids and proteins. A) archaeal cells B) bacterial cells C) eukaryotic cells D) both bacterial and eukaryotic cells E) archaeal, bacterial, and eukaryotic cells Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Eukaryotic Cell Walls and Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.31 37) Membrane rafts are found in the cytoplasmic membranes of A) archaea only. B) bacteria only. C) eukaryotes only. D) both archaea and bacteria. E) both archaea and eukaryotes. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Eukaryotic Cell Walls and Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.31

38) Endocytosis and exocytosis are means of transport used by A) bacteria. B) eukaryotes. C) archaea. D) all prokaryotes. E) nothing; no cells use both processes. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Eukaryotic Cell Walls and Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.32 39) Some use group translocation as a means of transport. A) eukaryotes B) bacteria C) archaea D) protozoa E) eukaryotes and prokaryotes Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.16 40) Hopanoids are found in cytoplasmic membranes. A) eukaryotic B) bacterial C) archaeal D) prokaryotic E) no Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.13 41) The cell walls of some are composed of proteins. A) archaea B) bacteria C) eukaryotes D) prokaryotes E) bacteria and eukaryotes Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Archaeal Cell Walls and Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.27

42) Several cellular structures of eukaryotes facilitate movement: flagella, cilia, the cytoskeleton and centrioles. Which of the following is a feature common to all of them? A) composed of flagellar proteins B) composed of tubulin microtubules C) powered by a proton (hydrogen ion) gradient D) enclosed in a lipid bilayer E) composed of glycoproteins Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes Learning Outcome: 3. 41 43) Some members of have hami. A) archaea B) bacteria C) eukaryotes D) archaea and bacteria E) bacteria and eukaryotes Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: External Structures of Archaea Learning Outcome: 3.26 44) A function of the cytoskeleton unique to bacteria is A) providing shape to the cell. B) cellular motility. C) orienting the assembly of the cell wall. D) anchoring cytoplasmic contents. E) both cellular motility and orienting the assembly of the cell wall. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes Learning Outcome: 3.21 45) Cell walls composed of polysaccharide are found in A) archaea only. B) bacteria only. C) eukaryotes only. D) archaea and eukaryotes only. E) archaea, bacteria, and eukaryotes. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Eukaryotic Cell Walls and Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.31

46) Which of the following may have cell walls containing teichoic acids? A) Gram-negative bacteria only B) Gram-positive bacteria only C) archaea D) both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria E) all prokaryotes Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Archaeal Cell Walls and Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.11, 3.27 47)47)

What is the function of the cellular structure indicated by "c" in Figure 3-2? A) provide shape only B) attach to surfaces only C) protect from dehydration only D) attach to surfaces and protect from dehydration E) provide shape, attach to surfaces, and protect from dehydration Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: External Structures of Bacterial Cells Learning Outcome: 3.3 48) Which of the following is a function of the periplasmic space? A) create a hydrogen ion gradient to power ATP synthesis B) external digestion of large biological molecules C) photosynthesis D) production of proteins for secretion E) protection from dehydration Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Cell Walls Learning Outcome: 3.12 13

49) Which of the following prokaryotic cells contain an outer membrane? A) Gram-negative bacteria only B) Gram-positive bacteria only C) both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria D) archaea E) all prokaryotes Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Archaeal Cell Walls and Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.12 50)50)

What is the function of the cellular structure indicated by "n" in Figure 3-3? A) ATP synthesis B) protein synthesis C) synthesis of lipids D) packaging of materials for export E) cell movement Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes Learning Outcome: 3.42, 3.43

3.2 True/False Questions 1) Extensively folded lipid bilayers are sites of photosynthesis in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes Learning Outcome: 3.42 2) A layer of polysaccharides external to the bacterial cell but firmly attached to it is called a slime layer. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: External Structures of Bacterial Cells Learning Outcome: 3.4 3) Bacterial protein synthesis can begin before the reading of the gene is complete. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cells: An Overview Learning Outcome: 3.2 4) All cell membranes contain phospholipids and a wide variety of proteins. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Archaeal Cell Walls and Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.28

The processes illustrated in Figure 3-4 do not require energy input. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.16 6) Eukaryotic ribosomes are composed of 50S and 30S subunits. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes Learning Outcome: 3.39 7) Lysosomes result from the endocytosis of food particles by eukaryotic cells. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes Learning Outcome: 3.42 8) Formation of a biofilm may contribute to bacteria's ability to cause disease. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Cytoplasm of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 3.7 9) Chromatin is composed of DNA and special packaging proteins called hopanoids. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes Learning Outcome: 3.42

10)10)

The short structures on the surface of the cell in Figure 3-5 are cilia. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes Learning Outcome: 3.7 3.3 Short Answer Questions 1) A(n) (hypertonic/isotonic/hypotonic) solution will result in crenation of animal cells. Answer: hypertonic Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.17 2) The presence of a cell (wall/membrane) enables bacterial and plant cells to resist the effects of hypotonic solutions. Answer: wall Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.16 3) Enzymes which degrade toxic materials in eukaryotic cells are stored in (endosomes/lysosomes/peroxisomes). Answer: peroxisomes Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes Learning Outcome: 3.42 4) A(n) (symport/antiport/uniport) is a carrier protein that transports two substances in the same direction across a membrane. Answer: symport Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.16

5) Eukaryotic flagella are anchored by the basal body in the (cytoplasm/wall/membrane). Answer: cytoplasm Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes Learning Outcome: 3.36 6) The reserve deposits of starch or other compounds found in many prokaryotic cells are called (vacuoles/inclusions/nucleoid). Answer: inclusions Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Cytoplasm of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 3.19 7) Eukaryotic cells use a process known as (endocytosis/pinocytosis/phagocytosis) to obtain liquids from their environment. Answer: pinocytosis Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Eukaryotic Cell Walls and Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.32 8) Lipid (LPS/NAM/A/NAG) is a part of the Gram-negative cell outer membrane that can produce fever, inflammation, and shock when it is released into the bloodstream. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Cell Walls Learning Outcome: 3.12 9) The smooth endoplasmic reticulum is the site of (protein/lipid/carbohydrate) synthesis. Answer: lipid Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes Learning Outcome: 3.39 10) Fibrous structures some archaea use for attachment to surfaces are (hami/fimbriae/flagella). Answer: hami Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: External Structures of Archaea Learning Outcome: 3.26 11) A (capsule/slime layer/matrix) is a type of glycocalyx that is firmly attached to the cell. Answer: capsule Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: External Structures of Bacterial Cells Learning Outcome: 3.4

12) Golgi bodies are examples of a (membranous/non-membranous/cellular) organelle. Answer: membranous Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes Learning Outcome: 3.42 13) The semiliquid matrix of the nucleus is called the (cytoplasm/nucleoid/nucleoplasm). Answer: nucleoplasm Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes Learning Outcome: 3.42 14) A structural molecule found in eukaryotic cytoskeletons, flagella, cilia, and centrioles is (flagellin/tubulin/fibrin). Answer: tubulin Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes Learning Outcome: 3.41 15)15)

The process illustrated in Figure 3-6 occurs in (eukaryotic/bacterial/archaeal) cells. Answer: bacterial Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.16

3.4 Essay Questions 1) A new bacterium is discovered that has a unique ability to metabolize a compound toxic to most other organisms. The microbiologists researching this bacterium do not know how the bacterium takes up the compound from the environment. Design an experiment to determine whether uptake is passive or active. Answer: A good experimental design first examines the relationship between concentration of the compound (call it T) in the environment and the concentration of T in the cell. If the concentration of T in the cell increases linearly with increasing extracellular concentration T is entering the cell by passive diffusion. If the concentration within the cell levels off at some point some type of carrier or transport mechanism is involved. Further experimentation could be done to distinguish between facilitated diffusion, a passive process, and active transport mechanisms. If T continues to enter cells when ATP synthesis is blocked the bacterium is accumulating T by facilitated diffusion. If entry of T is halted when ATP synthesis is blocked, an active transport mechanism is involved. Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis Section: Bacterial Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.16 2) Compare and contrast archaea and bacteria, with particular attention to the features that lead to their placement in separate taxa. Answer: Bacterial cell walls are composed of peptidoglycan, whereas archaeal cell walls are composed of a variety of carbohydrate forms but never peptidoglycan. The flagella of the two groups of prokaryotes have several differences, including size, manner of assembly, and function. Although both have fimbriae, archaea have a distinctive attachment structure called a hamus that is somewhat like a barbed grappling hook. Archaeal cytoplasmic membranes lack phospholipid, a membrane lipid found in both bacteria and eukaryotes. The ribosomes of archaea and bacteria are of similar size, but some ribosomal components of archaea are more like those of eukaryotic ribosomes than those of bacteria. RNA metabolism in the two prokaryotic groups differs, and the archaeal genetic code is more like that of eukaryotes than that of bacteria. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Cytoplasm of Archaea Learning Outcome: 3.24, 3.25, 3.26, 3.27, 3.28, 3.29

3) Most antibacterial drugs disrupt or destroy bacterial cellular characteristics that are different from those of eukaryotic cells or that may not even be present in eukaryotic cells, an idea termed "selective toxicity." List and describe at least three cellular features of bacteria that could be targeted to inhibit or kill a bacterial pathogen. Answer: 1) Cell wall: The cell wall of almost all bacteria contains peptidoglycan, a molecule absent in eukaryotic cell walls. Gram-negative cell walls contain unique molecules such as lipopolysaccharide and structures such as porins, which are not present in eukaryotic cells. Additionally, human cells do not have a cell wall at all. 2) Ribosomes: Bacterial ribosomes have a 70S structure, whereas eukaryotic ribosomes have an 80S structure. This difference is enough to allow some drugs to preferentially affect bacterial ribosomes while leaving eukaryotic ribosomes unharmed. 3) Cellular appendages: Although both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells can have flagella, the two types of cells use structurally different types of flagella. Furthermore, many bacteria have fimbriae and pili, which are not found on eukaryotic cells. 4) Cell membrane: Most cells use a phospholipid bilayer with inserted proteins as a cell membrane; however, bacterial cell membranes may contain hopanoids, which are absent in eukaryotic cell membranes. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes Learning Outcome: 3.31, 3.34, 3.36, 3.40 4) Both mitochondria and chloroplasts have inner membranes with much greater surface area than their outer membranes. Discuss the contribution of the extensive inner membranes to the roles of these organelles. Answer: Both organelles use metabolic processes embedded in lipid membranes to produce cellular energy. The cristae of mitochondria produce ATP. The thylakoids of chloroplasts are the site of light energy capture and conversion to cellular energy. The extensive surface area of the folded inner membranes allows both organelles to produce much more energy than would otherwise be possible. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes Learning Outcome: 3.42 5) Describe how the structure of the bacterial cytoplasmic membrane relates to its function of selective permeability. Answer: The structure and function of the cytoplasmic membrane are explained in the fluid mosaic model. The cytoplasmic membranes of bacterial cells are composed of phospholipids, which create a semipermeable barrier to the cell's outer environment. The only molecules that can easily cross the membrane are small, lipid soluble molecules. Other types of molecules must use the wide variety of transport proteins embedded in the phospholipid bilayer to cross the membrane. In this way, the cell can control the concentration of both its nutrients and its waste products. The cytoplasmic membrane can also be used for energy production and for photosynthesis in prokaryotic cells. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Bacterial Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.15 21

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 4e (Bauman) Chapter 4 Microscopy, Staining, and Classification 4.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) A useful unit for measuring the size of most cells is A) nanometers. B) millimeters. C) micrometers. D) centimeters. E) decimeters. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Units of Measurement Learning Outcome: 4.1 2) Which of the following is an INCORRECT pairing? A) magnification; refraction of radiation B) contrast; staining techniques C) numerical aperture; curved glass D) dark field:high contrast E) electron beams; shorter wavelength Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.4, 4.8 3) The ability of a lens to gather light is referred to as its A) resolution. B) numerical aperture. C) refraction. D) contrast. E) magnification. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.6

4) Which of the following are magnifying lenses? A) objectives B) oculars C) condensers D) dark-field stops E) both objectives and the oculars Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.8 5) The light source in a microscope is ultraviolet (UV) light. A) phase-contrast B) dark-field C) fluorescent D) Nomarski E) bright-field Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.10 6) Why does immersion oil improve resolution? A) It allows light to travel at a uniform speed on its way to the lens. B) It decreases the working distance. C) It increases the numerical aperture. D) It increases numerical aperture and maintains a uniform light speed. E) It increases the angle of refraction of the light. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.6 7) You are shown a micrograph from a light microscope in which the specimens appear bright compared to the background. The micrograph is probably from a(n) microscope. A) dark-field B) phase-contrast C) Nomarski D) bright-field E) atomic force Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.9

8) Unstained cells that lack pigment are best observed on the A) bright-field B) phase-contrast C) scanning electron D) scanning tunneling E) transmission electron Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.9

microscope.

9) High resolution images of the internal structures of microbial cells are obtained using microscopes. A) atomic force B) scanning tunneling C) transmission electron D) confocal E) scanning electron Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.11 10) Lasers are used to generate the images produced by A) fluorescent B) confocal C) phase-contrast D) atomic force E) both confocal and atomic force Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.10, 4.11

microscopes.

11) Which of the following microscopes produces the highest resolution images? A) dark-field B) differential interference C) scanning electron D) fluorescent E) atomic force Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.11

12) If a microbiology lab student left the safranin out of the Gram stain procedure, what would be the result? A) All cells would be purple. B) Gram-positive cells would be purple and Gram-negative cells would be colorless. C) All cells would be pink. D) Gram-positive cells would be pink and Gram-negative cells would be purple. E) Gram-positive cells would be colorless and Gram-negative cells would be pink. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.15 13) All of the following are common to both the Gram stain and the acid-fast stain EXCEPT A) primary stain. B) counterstain. C) a decolorizing agent. D) a chemical mordant. E) a decolorizing agent and a counterstain. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.15 14) Safranin dye is used as the counterstain in A) the Gram B) the endospore C) the acid-fast D) the flagellar E) both the Gram and the endospore Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.15

stain(s).

15) Heat is used to drive the stain into cells in the A) endospore stain B) acid-fast stain C) capsule stain D) Gram stain E) both acid-fast and endospore stains Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.13

staining procedure(s).

16) The acid-fast stain is used to stain A) bacteria with waxy cell walls. B) bacteria lacking cell walls. C) living bacteria. D) endospores. E) bacteria with capsules. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.15 17) A sample is prepared using osmium tetroxide as a stain. This sample has been prepared for a(n) microscope. A) electron B) phase-contrast C) atomic force D) fluorescence E) differential interference contrast Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.16 18) The kingdoms included in the Linnaeus system of classification are A) Animalia and Prokaryotae. B) Protista and Plantae. C) Fungi and Protista. D) Animalia and Plantae. E) Prokaryotae and Protista. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 4.21 19) The rules of naming organisms are called A) taxonomy. B) nomenclature. C) classification. D) binomials. E) identification. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 4.20

20) Species and strains of microbes can be distinguished from one another phenotypically using A) G + C content. B) electron microscopy. C) ribosomal RNA analysis. D) serological tests. E) Gram-stain reactions. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.23 21) Which of the following is the correct order, from largest to smallest, of the modern taxonomic hierarchy? A) Class, Domain, Family, Genus, Kingdom, Order, Phylum, Species B) Kingdom, Family, Class, Phylum, Order, Genus, Species C) Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species D) Kingdom, Domain, Class, Phylum, Family, Order, Species, Genus E) Phylum, Kingdom, Class, Domain, Order, Family, Genus, Species Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 4.19 22) Carl Woese proposed the concept of the domain based on differences of which of the following cellular molecules? A) transfer RNA B) membrane lipids C) ribosomal RNA D) DNA E) proteins Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 4.22 23) Which of the following classification methods relies on the morphology of organisms? A) phage typing B) physical (phenotypic) characteristics C) biochemical tests D) analysis of nucleic acids E) serological tests Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 4.23

24) A new single-celled organism is discovered living in an ant colony. Which of the following classification methods would be appropriate for identifying to which domain it belongs? A) phage typing B) biochemical tests C) physical characteristics D) analysis of nucleic acids E) serological tests Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 4.23 25) Viruses are NOT included in the taxonomic scheme proposed by Carl Woese because they lack A) genetic material. B) ribosomal RNA. C) proteins. D) lipid membranes. E) cytoplasm. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 4.22 26) Why have some microbiologists proposed using ribosomal RNA as the basis for defining bacterial species? A) Ribosomal RNAs are highly conserved genetic sequences present in all prokaryotes. B) The "interbreeding population" criterion does not apply to bacteria. C) Ribosomal RNA is the basis for domain assignment. D) Bacteria vary too little in their physical and biochemical traits. E) Bacteria are not interbreeding populations, and ribosomal RNAs are highly conserved genes present in all prokaryotes. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 4.18 27) Which of the following phenomena produces magnification? A) the wavelength of a radiation source B) the refraction of radiation as it passes through a lens C) the thickness of a microscopic specimen D) the numerical aperture of a lens E) the length of an objective lens Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.6 7

28) A virologist wants to observe the surface features of virus particles she is studying. Which of the following microscopes would NOT be useful for her observations? A) differential interference contrast B) scanning tunneling C) scanning electron D) transmission electron E) atomic force Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.9, 4.11 29) A structure that appears in a transmission electron micrograph but is NOT actually present in the specimen is known as a(n) A) antigen. B) biofilm. C) artifact. D) refraction. E) mordant. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.11 30) Which of the following statements is CORRECT about scanning electron microscopes? A) Thin segments must be used. B) Images of surface structures are produced. C) Glass lenses are used. D) The sample is placed in a vacuum. E) Stains can be applied to improve contrast. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.11 31) Acidic dyes A) work best in low-pH environments. B) are negatively charged. C) are used for staining negatively charged molecular structures. D) are lipid soluble. E) are negatively charged and work best at low pH. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.14 8

32) A thin film of microbes on a slide is A) fixation. B) a smear. C) a Gram reaction. D) a biopsy. E) agglutination. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.13 33) The Gram stain works because of differences in the A) genetic characteristics B) cell walls C) cell membranes D) antigens E) capsules Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.15

of bacteria.

34) Which of the following statements is CORRECT regarding modern taxonomy? A) It is a complete inventory of all living organisms. B) There is consensus about the definition of species. C) Modern taxonomy does not provide a basis for predicting structural relationships. D) Modern classifications reflect evolutionary relationships of organisms. E) The modern taxonomic organization is a finished product. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 4.17 35) Why are modern light microscopes better than the ones Leeuwenhoek used? A) Modern microscopes have a fivefold better resolution. B) Modern microscopes are compound instead of simple. C) Modern microscopes have lenses with smaller numerical apertures. D) Modern lenses are made of prisms. E) Modern microscopes are compound and have fivefold better resolution. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.6, 4.8

36) In the Gram stain procedure, iodine serves as a A) counterstain. B) decolorizing agent. C) mordant. D) primary stain. E) fixative. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.13 37)37)

The light path illustrated in the figure represents a A) bright-field B) dark-field C) phase contrast D) fluorescence E) differential interference contrast Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.9 38) In Gram staining, ethanol-acetone is used as a A) decolorizing agent. B) counterstain. C) mordant. D) drying agent. E) primary stain. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.15

microscope.

39) A sample from a patient is prepared using the Gomori methenamine silver stain. What type of microbe is suspected of being present? A) bacteria B) parasitic worm larva C) fungus D) protozoal parasite E) virus Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Staining Learning Outcome: N/A 40) Tungsten is a reagent used in the A) acid-fast stain. B) electron microscopy stain. C) endospore stain. D) flagellar stain. E) negative stain. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.16 41) The stain is one in which eosin is used. A) acid-fast B) negative C) flagellar D) endospore E) electron microscopy Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.14 42) Tannic acid is a mordant (chemical fixative) used in the A) negative B) flagellar C) endospore D) electron microscopy E) acid-fast Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.13

stain.

43) Methylene blue can be used to stain DNA because it A) forms ionic bonds with DNA. B) changes the pH and therefore the structure of DNA. C) covalently bonds with DNA. D) makes DNA electron dense. E) is an effective fixing agent for nucleic acids. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.14 44)44)

The part(s) of the microscope indicated by the arrows is/are the A) oculars. B) body. C) objectives. D) condenser lens. E) diaphragm. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.8

45) The most appropriate unit of measurement for intact archaea is the A) meter (m). B) millimeter (mm). C) micrometer (μm). D) nanometer (nm). E) centimeter (cm). Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Units of Measurement Learning Outcome: 4.1 46) The limits of resolution of atomic force microscopes is in the range of A) centimeters (cm). B) millimeters (mm). C) micrometers (μm). D) nanometers (nm). E) meters (m). Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Units of Measurement Learning Outcome: 4.1, 4.16

47)47)

This image was most likely produced by a A) scanning electron B) confocal C) bright-field D) transmission electron E) dark-field Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.11

microscope.

48) A measurement of a microbe is reported as 1 × 10-6 m, also known as A) centimeters (cm). B) millimeters (mm). C) micrometers (μm). D) nanometers (nm). E) yards. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Units of Measurement Learning Outcome: 4.1

49) One-thousandth of a meter is a A) yard. B) millimeter (mm). C) micrometer (μm). D) nanometer (nm). E) centimeter (cm). Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Units of Measurement Learning Outcome: 4.1 50) Bacteria and many other microbes do NOT and therefore do NOT fit Linnaeus' definition of species. A) reproduce sexually B) have nuclei C) exchange genetic material D) have cytoplasmic membranes E) reproduce asexually Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 4.18 4.2 True/False Questions 1) A resolution of 1μm would be better than a resolution of 0.5 μm. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.6 2) Scanning tunneling microscopes map the topography of a specimen by detecting the deflection of the probe tip. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.12 3) The three domains proposed by Carl Woese are the Archaea, the Eukarya, and the Protista. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 4.22

4) Gram staining of bacteria provides all the physical characterization necessary to identify bacterial species. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 4.15, 4.18 5) Stains for light microscopy contain chromophores whereas stains for electron microscopy contain heavy metals. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.16 6) The endospore stain reveals internal structures within cells of the genera Bacillus and Clostridium. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.15 7) Acid-fast cells such as Mycobacterium lose the color of the primary stain in the presence of hydrochloric acid. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.15 8) Three-dimensional images of specimens can be obtained using scanning electron microscopes. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.11 9) Light rays that are in phase reinforce each other and produce a brighter image. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.9 10) Light rays that pass through the edge of a curved lens will be refracted more than those that pass through the center. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.6 16

4.3 Short Answer Questions 1) A (bright-field/confocal/phase-contrast) light microscope can be used to generate threedimensional images. Answer: confocal Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.9 2) A(n) (acidic/metallic/fluorescent) molecule is one that absorbs invisible radiation and emits visible light. Answer: fluorescent Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.10 3) The total magnification using a 10 ocular and a 100 objective would be (110/1000/10000) X. Answer: 1000 Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.8 4) Staining procedures called (background/negative/positive/contrasting) provide increased contrast by staining the background. Answer: negative Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.16 5) Coating a specimen with a heavy metal is a step in preparing it for (phase/fluorescent/electron) microscopy. Answer: electron Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.16 6) The agglutination test uses proteins called (antibodies/antigens/chromophores) to detect species-specific features of microbes. Answer: antibodies Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 4.23

7) The system of taxonomy used today was originated by (Linnaeus/Darwin/Woese). Answer: Linnaeus Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 4.21 8) Carl Woese and his colleagues proposed the (phylum/domain/family), a taxon that contains multiple kingdoms. Answer: domain Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 4.22 9)

Figure 4-4 represents a (dichotomous/taxonomic/question) key of the type used to identify a microbe. Answer: dichotomous Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: N/A 10) Bacterial viruses, called (bacteriophages/serotypes/bacteriotypes), can be used to help classify different groups of bacteria. Answer: bacteriophages Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 4.23 11) A primary purpose for the use of stains in microscopy is the increase the (magnification/brightness/contrast) of a specimen. Answer: contrast Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.7 18

12) An integral part of serological testing is the use of a solution called (blood/plasma/antiserum) that contains antibodies. Answer: antiserum Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 4.23 13) In a compound microscope, the lens that directs light through the specimen is the (ocular/condenser/objective) lens. Answer: condenser Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.8 14) The process of immobilizing organisms on a glass slide through the application of either heat or chemicals is (staining/mordant/fixation). Answer: fixation Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.13 15) The technique called (confocal/electron/probe) microscopy uses detection of deflection to map surfaces of molecular structures. Answer: probe Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.12 4.4 Essay Questions 1) Discuss the ways in which light rays can be manipulated to increase resolution and/or contrast. Answer: Light rays can be manipulated to increase the resolution and contrast of a specimen in a variety of ways. In bright-field microscopes, immersion oil is used to capture light rays that would otherwise be refracted and lost; the result is an increase in the resolution of the image. Dark-field microscopes purposely scatter light rays in such a way as to improve the contrast of the specimen. Phase-contrast microscopes alter the wavelengths of light rays by making them in and out of phase with each other, thereby increasing contrast. Finally, fluorescent microscopes use UV light, which produces increased resolution because of its shorter wavelength, and the fluorescent dyes that are used emit a variety of colors, increasing contrast. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.6

2) Compare and contrast the light microscope with the electron microscope. Answer: Both the light microscope and the electron microscope depend on the wavelength of radiation to achieve the resolution necessary to see fine details of specimens. Light microscopes use light rays, which, because of their relatively long wavelengths, limit the magnification of these microscopes to 2000× or less. Electron beams, by contrast, have such a short wavelength that the resolution is greatly increased, to the point that magnification of 100,000× or more is possible. Both microscopes are capable of modulating and focusing their radiation sources in such a way as to increase the quality of the magnification; however, in a light microscope the light rays are focused using glass lenses, whereas in an electron microscope the electron beam is focused with magnetic fields. Because of their higher levels of magnification and extreme resolving power, electron microscopes are capable of revealing the finest details of the cell's ultrastructure, even molecules and atoms; light microscopes are capable of revealing only the larger cellular structures, such as organelles. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.9, 4.11 3) You are a scientist studying the highly specific interactions of bacteriophages with their host cells when they first encounter the cell. Discuss what microscope(s) and preparation procedures you might use for this study. Answer: A scanning electron microscope can produce three-dimensional images of the physical contact between bacteriophage and host, providing information on what portions of the bacteriophage are in contact with what structures of the cell. A mixture of bacterial cells and bacteriophages is dried onto the surface of the sample holder and coated with metal to prepare it for the scanning electron microscope. A transmission electron microscope may provide information about structures and interactions obscured by the intact bacteriophage. Samples are dried, embedded in plastic, sliced into thin (100 nm) sections, and stained with heavy metals (osmium, tungsten, etc.) to increase contrast. Scanning tunneling or atomic force microscopy of separate preparations of bacteriophages and bacterial cells can provide details about the structures on each that interact when the bacteriophage is in contact with the surface of the cell. The preparation of specimens for atomic force microscopy is minimal, as the material does not need to be dried, sectioned, or stained. Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.11, 4.12, 4.16

4) Compare and contrast the three domains identified by Woese: Eukarya, Bacteria, and Archaea. Answer: With respect to cell type, organisms in Eukarya have eukaryotic cells and the characteristics that go with this cell type, such as a nucleus and membranous organelles. Bacteria and Archaea both have prokaryotic cells lacking nuclei and membranous organelles. All three have different rRNA sequences found in the small subunit of their ribosomes that are characteristic for the domain, which is an important tool for categorizing organisms. All three have cell membranes; however, they differ in the lipids found in the cell membrane. Archaea have only three kingdoms, and Bacteria have over fifty. Eukarya include more than the three kingdoms shown in Figure 4.22. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 4.22 5) List and explain five types of techniques that can be used to identify unknown microorganisms. Answer: There are five major types of identification techniques used in the microbiology lab. One method is simply observation and classification of the physical characteristics of an organism, which includes both cellular morphology and colony morphology. A second method is the use of biochemical tests, such as fermentation of carbohydrates or production of metabolic by-products, to place microbes in different groups. A third type of identification technique is serological testing, in which antibodies are used to detect particular antigens on the surfaces of different microbes in an effort to distinguish closely related species or strains of microbes. Phage typing is the fourth technique, which is the use of bacteriophages to infect bacterial cells; because bacteriophages are highly specific in their infection of cells, the patterns of infected and uninfected cells can be used to differentiate bacterial strains and species. A fifth method involves analyzing the genetic material of microbes, such as the percentage of G and C bases in a cell's DNA, to demonstrate possible relationships between species. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 4.23

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 4e (Bauman) Chapter 5 Microbial Metabolism 5.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following statements is MOST accurate concerning metabolism? A) Metabolism is the digestion of nutrients to release energy. B) Metabolism is the assembly of small molecules into macromolecules. C) Metabolism is all the chemical reactions of an organism, both anabolic and catabolic. D) Metabolism is the production and expenditure of chemical energy. E) Metabolism is the assembly of macromolecules into cellular structures. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.1 2) Anabolic reactions may be characterized as A) exergonic. B) breaking large molecules into smaller molecules. C) forming large molecules from smaller molecules. D) producing ATP. E) breaking large molecules into smaller molecules to produce ATP. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.1 3) Which of the following statements concerning reduction reactions is FALSE? A) An electron acceptor gains an electron. B) They are coupled with oxidation reactions. C) They frequently involve electron carrier molecules. D) An electron acceptor becomes more positively charged. E) A molecule gains a hydrogen atom. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.2

4) The molecule that an enzyme acts upon is known as its A) substrate. B) coenzyme. C) apoenzyme. D) holoenzyme. E) catalyst. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.6 5) Which of the following processes utilize inorganic phosphate? A) photophosphorylation B) oxidative phosphorylation C) substrate-level phosphorylation D) both photophosphorylation and substrate-level phosphorylation E) both photophosphorylation and oxidative phosphorylation Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.3 6) Sulfanilamide is an antimicrobial drug that mimics the shape of an important substrate for a particular bacterial enzyme, thereby inhibiting the enzyme. This type of inhibition is known as A) allosteric inhibition. B) competitive inhibition. C) excitatory allosteric control. D) noncompetitive inhibition. E) feedback inhibition. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.7 7) Which of the following produces NADPH? A) the pentose phosphate pathway only B) the Entner-Doudoroff pathway only C) the Embden-Meyerhof pathway only D) both the Embden-Meyerhof and Entner-Doudoroff pathways E) both the pentose phosphate and Entner-Doudoroff pathways Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.13

8) Which of the following statements concerning glycolysis is TRUE? A) Glycolysis produces ATP by oxidative phosphorylation. B) Glycolysis occurs in the cell membranes of bacteria. C) Glycolysis both requires the input of ATP and produces ATP. D) Glycolysis is an alternative to fermentation. E) Ribulose 5-phosphate is an intermediate of glycolysis. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.8 9) Which of the following is required for holoenzyme function? A) a protein cofactor B) a coenzyme C) an allosteric inhibitor D) a substrate E) an activator Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.5 10) The catalytic component of a ribozyme is A) a cofactor. B) an apoenzyme. C) a coenzyme. D) FADH. E) RNA. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.5 11) NAD (nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide) is required for many A) ribozyme B) catabolic C) transfer D) oxidation-reduction E) phosphorylation Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.2, 5.3

reactions.

12) Which of the following can be the final electron acceptor in anaerobic respiration in bacteria? A) nitrate only B) pyruvic acid only C) sulfate only D) both nitrate and sulfate E) nitrate, pyruvic acid, and sulfate Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.10, 5.14 13) Heme complexed with iron is found in A) flavoproteins B) metal-containing proteins C) ribozymes D) cytochromes E) ubiquinones Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.11

of the electron transport chain.

14) A catabolic process which occurs in eukaryotic mitochondria is A) deamination. B) beta-oxidation. C) the Entner-Doudoroff pathway. D) fermentation. E) the Calvin-Benson cycle. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Other Catabolic Pathways Learning Outcome: 5.17 15) Which of the following is a by-product of the catabolism of proteins? A) lactic acid B) acetyl-CoA C) proteases D) ammonia E) carbon dioxide Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Other Catabolic Pathways Learning Outcome: 5.18

16) Changes in can be useful in analyzing microbes' ability to ferment carbohydrates. A) pH B) oxygen use C) osmotic pressure D) smell E) temperature Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.16 17) Which of the following is/are common to chemiosmosis and the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis? A) reduction of NADP+ only B) electron transport only C) a proton gradient only D) both electron transport and a proton gradient E) electron transport, a proton gradient, and reduction of NADP+ Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Photosynthesis Learning Outcome: 5.12, 5.23 18) Which of the following is a fermentation product useful in the manufacture of cheese? A) acetic acid B) ammonia C) ethanol D) lactic acid E) pyruvic acid Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.15 19) How many ATP molecules can theoretically be produced from the NADH generated by the catabolism of a molecule of glucose during aerobic respiration? A) 34 B) 30 C) 38 D) 36 E) 4 Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.12

20) The habitat of a photosynthetic organism is largely determined by the A) amount of available oxygen. B) products of its light-independent reactions. C) carbohydrates it can metabolize. D) amount of available hydrogen. E) chlorophylls it produces. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Photosynthesis Learning Outcome: 5.20 21) Photosystems are assembled in A) thylakoids. B) grana. C) stroma. D) cristae. E) cytoplasm. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Photosynthesis Learning Outcome: 5.20 22) Beta-oxidation produces a substrate of the A) pentose phosphate pathway. B) Entner-Doudoroff pathway. C) Embden-Meyerhof pathway. D) Krebs cycle. E) Calvin-Benson cycle. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Other Catabolic Pathways Learning Outcome: 5.17 23) Oxygenic photosynthesis requires A) the Entner-Doudoroff pathway. B) the pentose phosphate pathway. C) photosystem II. D) substrate-level phosphorylation. E) glycolysis. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Photosynthesis Learning Outcome: 5.22

24) What is the major product of the Calvin-Benson cycle that can then be used to form glucose? A) carbon dioxide (CO2) B) adenosine triphosphate (ATP) C) ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP) D) glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (G3P) E) NADPH Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Photosynthesis Learning Outcome: 5.24 25) Chemical reactions that are reversible, proceeding anabolically or catabolically, are called A) glycolytic. B) light-independent. C) synthetic. D) cyclic. E) amphibolic. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Other Anabolic Pathways Learning Outcome: 5.25 26) If a cell reverses the process of beta-oxidation, which of the following molecules will it make? A) glycerol B) amino acids C) fatty acids D) nucleotides E) starch Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Other Anabolic Pathways Learning Outcome: 5.27 27) The process of produces amino acids from precursor metabolites and ammonia. A) amination B) transamination C) reduction D) polymerization E) deamination Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Other Anabolic Pathways Learning Outcome: 5.28

28) The conversion of amino acids to carbohydrates is an example of A) amination. B) gluconeogenesis. C) substrate-level phosphorylation. D) beta-oxidation. E) electron transport. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Other Anabolic Pathways Learning Outcome: 5.26 29) All of the following are ways in which cells regulate metabolism EXCEPT A) feedback inhibition by end products. B) synthesis or degradation of membrane transport proteins. C) isolation of various enzymes within membranous organelles. D) synthesis of a catabolic enzyme only when its substrate is available. E) use of the same coenzymes for anabolic and catabolic reactions that share substrate molecules. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Integration and Regulation of Metabolic Functions Learning Outcome: 5.31 30) The metabolic processes called fermentation A) produce substrates for the Krebs cycle. B) are alternatives for the pentose phosphate pathway. C) use an organic molecule as a final electron acceptor. D) occur only when oxygen is readily available. E) produce substrates for glycolysis. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.14 31) Which of the following is TRUE concerning the structure and function of enzymes? A) All enzymes bind cofactors necessary for their function. B) An apoenzyme is a combination of a cofactor bound to a holoenzyme. C) Enzymes can function at a wide range of pH. D) Competitive inhibition of an enzyme occurs when an inhibitor binds to an allosteric site on the enzyme. E) After an enzyme has catalyzed a reaction, it resumes its original shape and can interact with a new substrate molecule. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.6 8

32) The assembly of carbon dioxide and water into carbohydrates occurs in the process known as A) fermentation. B) oxidation. C) photosynthesis. D) gluconeogenesis. E) chemiosmosis. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Photosynthesis Learning Outcome: 5.19 33) In aerobic non-photosynthetic organisms, the majority of ATP is generated by A) glycolysis reactions. B) catabolic reactions. C) the Calvin-Benson cycle. D) oxidation-reduction reactions. E) substrate-level phosphorylation. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.12 34) Many metabolites for anabolic pathways are produced by the A) pentose-phosphate B) Entner-Doudoroff C) beta-oxidation D) chemiosmosis E) glycolytic Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.13

pathway.

35) Although glycolysis requires an input of ATP, this pathway results in a net gain of two ATP; therefore, it is pathway. A) an exergonic B) an endergonic C) an oxidative D) a reductive E) neither an exergonic nor an endergonic Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.1

36) Which of the following is the final electron acceptor in aerobic respiration? A) acetic acid B) oxygen C) carbonate D) nitrate E) sulfate Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.10 37) Isomerases catalyze reactions in which A) biomolecules are assembled from smaller molecules. B) biomolecules are broken down into their component parts. C) groups are transferred from one molecule to another. D) atoms in biomolecules are rearranged. E) biomolecules are oxidized or reduced. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.4 38) During the synthesis of acetyl-CoA from pyruvic acid, A) ATP B) NADH C) FADH2 D) H2O E) acetic acid Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.9 39) In reactions catalyzed by oxidoreductases an electron donor is A) oxidized. B) reduced. C) synthesized. D) degraded. E) unaltered. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.4

is produced.

40) Hydrolases are generally involved in reactions. A) anabolic B) catabolic C) both anabolic and catabolic D) neither anabolic nor catabolic E) oxidation-reduction Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.4 41) Changes in temperature or pH can cause enzymes to lose activity. What is a common feature of these two effects? A) Temperature and pH affect the rate of substrate binding. B) Temperature and pH both induce an enzyme to lose its precise three-dimensional shape. C) Temperature and pH change the activation energy of the reaction. D) Temperature and pH change the ionization state of cofactors. E) There is no common mechanism of temperature and pH effects on enzyme activity. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.7 42) Substrate-level phosphorylation occurs during the A) energy-investment B) lysis C) energy-conservation D) energy-investment and energy-conservation E) energy-investment, lysis, and energy-conservation Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.3, 5.8

stage(s) of glycolysis.

43) The production of NADH takes place during the A) energy-conservation B) energy-investment C) lysis D) lysis and energy-investment E) energy-investment and energy-conservation Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.8

stage(s) of glycolysis.

44) Glycolysis begins with a(n) A) energy-conservation B) lysis C) energy-investment D) lysis and energy-conservation E) energy-investment and conservation Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.8

stage(s).

45)45)

Identify the processes of glucose metabolism represented in Figure 5-1. A) A = electron transport chain, B = Krebs cycle, C = glycolysis, D = fermentation B) A = glycolysis, B = fermentation, C = Krebs cycle, D = electron transport chain. C) A = fermentation, B = glycolysis, C = Krebs cycle, D = electron transport chain D) A = glycolysis, B = Krebs cycle, C = fermentation, D = electron transport chain E) A = glycolysis, B = Krebs cycle, C = electron transport chain, D = fermentation. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.8

46) Which of the following products of glucose catabolism is a substrate for fatty acid synthesis? A) acetyl-CoA B) pyruvic acid C) phosphoglyceric acid D) oxaloacetate E) succinyl-CoA Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Other Anabolic Pathways Learning Outcome: 5.27 47)47)

The arrow indicates the only protein component of this complex. This illustration represents a(n) A) apoenzyme. B) coenzyme. C) holoenzyme. D) ribozyme. E) ubiquinone. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.5 5.2 True/False Questions 1) Non-cyclic photophosphorylation requires photosystem II. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Photosynthesis Learning Outcome: 5.22

2) The ability to utilize different metabolites for cellular respiration is one method for identifying bacteria. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.16 3) Gluconeogenesis reactions are generally highly endergonic. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Other Anabolic Pathways Learning Outcome: 5.26 4) As the concentration of substrate increases, the activity of the enzyme decreases. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.7 5) Ribozymes are enzymes that cleave the subunits of the ribosome. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.5 6) During chemiosmosis, electrons are pumped across a membrane to produce ATP. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.12 7) Protein catabolism for prokaryotes starts extracellularly. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Other Catabolic Pathways Learning Outcome: 5.18 8) Synthesis of the precursors of purines and pyrimidines requires transamination of ribose-5phosphate. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Other Anabolic Pathways Learning Outcome: 5.29

9) Essential amino acids are amino acids that cannot be synthesized by an organism and so must be provided as nutrients. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Other Anabolic Pathways Learning Outcome: 5.28 10) The pentose phosphate pathway generates all the necessary precursors for nucleotide biosynthesis. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Other Anabolic Pathways Learning Outcome: 5.29 5.3 Short Answer Questions 1) Beta oxidation of fatty acids produces substrates for the (Calvin-Benson/Entner-Doudoroff/Krebs) cycle. Answer: Krebs Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Other Catabolic Pathways Learning Outcome: 5.17 2) The bonds between glycerol and fatty acids are broken by (ligase/lipase/lyase) enzymes. Answer: lipase Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.4 3) A(n) (oxidation/reduction/transport) reaction is one in which a molecule accepts an electron. Answer: reduction Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.2 4) The (activation/inhibition/saturation) point of an enzyme is reached when all active sites have bound substrate molecules. Answer: saturation Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.6

5) When a noncompetitive inhibitor molecule binds to an (active/allosteric) site on an enzyme, the shape of the active site changes so that the substrate molecules can no longer bind. Answer: allosteric Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.6 6) During glycolysis, glucose is converted to (pyruvic/acetic/lactic) acid, a molecule that can be used in either fermentation or respiration pathways. Answer: pyruvic Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.8, 5.14 7) The majority of the energy captured in the Krebs cycle is in the form of (ATP/FADH2/NADH). Answer: NADH Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.9 8) The purpose of electron transport is to create a proton (concentration/gradient/pump) across a membrane for the process of chemiosmosis. Answer: gradient Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.12 9) Anaerobic respiration involves the use of molecules other than oxygen as the final electron (acceptor/donor) in an electron transport chain. Answer: acceptor Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.10 10) Laboratory fermentation tests often include a pH indicator because many bacteria produce (hydroxyls/bases/acids) as they ferment carbohydrates. Answer: acids Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.15

11) The (transferases/transaminases/deaminases) generate amino acids from carbohydrate precursors and glutamic acid. Answer: transaminases Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Other Anabolic Pathways Learning Outcome: 5.28 12) A (photosystem/thylakoid/chloroplast) is a collection of pigments such as chlorophyll that are used to absorb light in the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis. Answer: photosystem Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Photosynthesis Learning Outcome: 5.21 13) Waste products such as sulfur are produced by (oxygenic/anoxygenic/aerobic) photosynthetic bacteria as they obtain electrons for noncyclic photophosphorylation. Answer: anoxygenic Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Photosynthesis Learning Outcome: 5.22 14) Enzymes increase the rate of reaction by lowering the (activation/reaction/substrate) energy. Answer: activation Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.6 15) Significant amounts of the NADPH required for the Calvin-Benson cycle are produced during the (cyclic/noncyclic) photophosphorylation reactions of photosynthesis. Answer: noncyclic Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Photosynthesis Learning Outcome: 5.22 16) Only Photosystem I is required for (cyclic/noncyclic) photophosphorylation to occur. Answer: cyclic Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Photosynthesis Learning Outcome: 5.21, 5.22

5.4 Essay Questions 1) Describe the mechanism of feedback inhibition and the role this process plays in controlling enzyme activity. Answer: Feedback inhibition is also known as negative feedback and end-product inhibition. In this mechanism, the product of a particular metabolic pathway inhibits an enzyme that catalyzes a reaction earlier in the pathway. For example, the end-product might be an allosteric inhibitor of that enzyme, binding to a location on the enzyme outside the active site. When the allosteric inhibitor binds, it changes the shape of the enzyme and prevents the enzyme from binding to its substrate. This "shuts off" the enzyme, and because the product of one reaction is the substrate for another, it shuts down the pathway. The inhibition is released as the amount of the endproduct decreases. When this occurs, the pathway will be turned on again, because the cell again needs the end-product. Therefore, feedback inhibition controls enzyme activity so that energy is not wasted and the concentration of a metabolite is maintained. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.7

2) The discussion of carbohydrate catabolism includes some of the many metabolic variations microbes are capable of. Using the information in the following table, devise a set of biochemical tests to identify the bacteria in this example Assume you can detect various organic compounds. Prepare a dichotomous key of your identification scheme. Bacterium Enterobacter Escherichia coli Proteus Pseudomonas

Glucose fermentation? Lactose fermentation? Yes, produces Yes 2,3-butandiol Yes, produces mixed Yes acids Yes, produces lactic acid No Yes, produces 6phosphogluconic acid Yes

Answer: The following is one possible answer, based on glucose and lactose fermentation. Test for ability to ferment glucose and lactose. If glucose is fermented, test for the presence of 6phosphogluconic acid and 2,3-butandiol.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.15, 5.16

3) Explain why the ATP yield from processes such as cellular respiration is generally given as a theoretical number. Answer: The maximum yield of ATP from a single molecule of glucose is 38 ATP molecules. However, any given glucose molecule may produce fewer than this number of ATP molecules for a variety of reasons. A eukaryotic cell spends 2 ATP molecules in transporting NADH produced during glycolysis into the mitochondrion; this reduces the theoretical yield to 36 ATP. The yield might be even lower, because in chemiosmosis there is no direct relationship between the number of electrons used to create a proton gradient and the number of ATP molecules produced from that proton gradient. Proton gradients are used to drive other processes and activities in the cell besides ATP production, so some of the energy that is represented by the proton gradient can be "siphoned off" before it is used to make ATP. Some of the intermediates of glycolysis and the Krebs cycle can be used as substrates for other metabolic processes, and when the intermediates are diverted, the theoretical ATP yield is not realized. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.8 4) Compare and contrast cyclic and noncyclic photophosphorylation. Answer: Both cyclic photophosphorylation and noncyclic photophosphorylation are aspects of the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis. They both involve the excitation of electrons by solar energy; these excited electrons then participate in an electron transport pathway to create a proton gradient that can be used to produce ATP through chemiosmosis. However, as its name implies, cyclic photophosphorylation occurs when electrons return to the chlorophyll molecules whence they came. Excited electrons in noncyclic photophosphorylation are also used in the same way to produce ATP; however, these electrons are donated to an NADP+ molecule at the end of their transport chain, producing NADPH as a product of the system. Because electrons are constantly leaving the chlorophyll molecules where they are being excited, and not returning, there must also be a steady source of electrons for the photosystem. These electrons can come from molecules such as water or hydrogen sulfide. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Photosynthesis Learning Outcome: 5.22

5) Discuss the interrelationships between anabolic and catabolic pathways. Provide specific examples in your answer. Answer: Catabolic pathways generate the energy required for anabolic reactions. Catabolic pathways produce intermediates for other pathways, and some intermediates and products of anabolic pathways provide intermediates for catabolic pathways. The Krebs cycle produces energy to drive amino acid synthesis, and several Krebs cycle intermediates are substrates for amino acid biosynthesis. For example, oxaloacetic acid is a precursor for half a dozen amino acids, and α-ketoglutaric acid is a precursor for about four additional amino acids. The pentose phosphate pathway produces the five-carbon sugar required for nucleotide synthesis, and various amino acids are metabolized to produce the nitrogenous bases in nucleotides. The Krebs cycle produces intermediates and substrates for lipid biosynthesis. Catabolism of amino acids produces a variety of molecules that are intermediates of glycolysis and the Krebs cycle, and the same is true of lipid catabolism. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Integration and Regulation of Metabolic Functions Learning Outcome: 5.30

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 4e (Bauman) Chapter 6 Microbial Nutrition and Growth 6.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) A microbe recovered from an environmental sample grows on a medium composed of agar and a mix of salts. The agar is not digested during incubation. The growth rate increases in high CO2 conditions. The organism is likely a(n) A) heterotroph. B) autotroph. C) chemotroph. D) halophile. E) The answer cannot be determined from the information provided. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.1 2) A cell that uses an organic carbon source and obtains energy from light would be called a A) photoheterotroph. B) lithoautotroph. C) photoautotroph. D) chemoheterotroph. E) chemoautotroph. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.2 3) Prokaryotes living in the ocean around volcanic vents use the volcanic gasses carbon dioxide (CO2) and hydrogen sulfide (H2S) to fuel their metabolism. They are therefore A) chemoheterotrophs. B) chemoautotrophs. C) photoautotrophs. D) lithoautotrophs. E) lithoheterotrophs. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.2

4) An aquatic microbe that can grow only near the surface of the water is probably which of the following? A) a phototroph B) a heterotroph C) a chemotroph D) a lithotroph E) an anaerobe Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.2 5) An organism that produces catalase enzyme is protected from the harmful effects of A) singlet oxygen. B) hydroxyl radical. C) peroxide anion. D) superoxide radical. E) molecular oxygen. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.4 6) Which of the following oxidizing agents is sometimes produced during aerobic respiration? A) singlet oxygen B) hydroxyl radical C) peroxide anion D) superoxide radical E) molecular oxygen Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.4 7) A microbe that grows only at the bottom of a tube of thioglycollate medium is probably a(n) A) obligate aerobe. B) facultative anaerobe. C) aerotolerant anaerobe. D) microaerophile. E) obligate anaerobe. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.3

8) A food product is labeled as having antioxidants. It may therefore contain A) amino acids. B) vitamin B2 (riboflavin). C) vitamin C. D) vitamin E. E) vitamin C or E, or both. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.4 9) An organism that requires chemical nutrients which serve as final electron acceptors is a(n) A) chemotroph. B) phototroph. C) lithotroph. D) autotroph. E) aerobe Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.1 10) At temperatures higher than the maximum growth temperature for an organism, A) proteins are permanently denatured. B) membranes become too fluid for proper function. C) hydrogen bonds within molecules are broken. D) hydrogen bonds are broken and proteins are permanently denatured. E) hydrogen bonds are broken, proteins are denatured, and membranes become too fluid. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.6 11) The are an important source of nitrogen compounds that can be metabolized by most other organisms. A) higher plants B) algae C) cyanobacteria D) Lactobacillus E) Helicobacter pylori Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.5

12) You open a jar that has been in the refrigerator for a couple of weeks and find the contents do not look or smell right. What type of microbe has been growing in your refrigerator? A) thermoduric B) thermophile C) mesophile D) hyperthermophile E) psychrophile Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.6 13) Bacteria living in communities of microbes change the genes they are expressing in response to A) decreasing oxygen. B) changes in local temperature. C) quorum-sensing molecules. D) changes in hydrostatic pressure. E) changes in pH. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.7 14) Organisms that can grow with or without oxygen present are A) obligate aerobes. B) facultative anaerobes. C) aerotolerant anaerobes. D) obligate anaerobes. E) either facultative anaerobes or aerotolerant anaerobes. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.3 15) A fastidious organism might be grown on which of the following types of media? A) transport media B) reducing media C) enriched media D) differential media E) selective media Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Culturing Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 6.10

16) Obligate anaerobes may be cultured in the laboratory A) in a reducing medium. B) in a standard incubator. C) in standard Petri plates. D) on blood agar plates. E) in standard complex media. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Culturing Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 6.10 17) Joan wants to discover a microbe capable of degrading an environmental contaminant. Which of the following is the process she should use? A) cell culture B) chemostat C) quorum sensing D) enrichment culture E) nitrogen fixation Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Culturing Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 6.11 18) A microbiologist inoculates a growth medium with 100 bacterial cells/ml. If the generation time of the species is 1 hour, and there is no lag phase, how long will it be before the culture contains more than 10,000 cells/ml? A) 24 hours B) 7 hours C) 2 hours D) 3 hours E) 10 hours Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.15, 6.16, 6.18

19) An epidemiologist is investigating a new disease and observes what appear to be bacteria inside tissue cells in clinical samples from victims. The scientist wants to try to isolate the bacteria in the lab. What culture conditions are most likely to be successful? A) culturing on blood agar plates B) inoculation of EMB plates C) incubation in an anaerobic culture system D) inoculation of cell cultures E) inoculation of a minimal medium broth Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Culturing Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 6.12 20) Microbial growth rates are controlled in a chemostat by A) maintaining a constant temperature. B) controlling the amount of available oxygen. C) allowing waste products to accumulate. D) controlling the amount of a limiting nutrient. E) promoting biofilm formation. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.19 21) MacConkey agar plates represent A) a minimal B) a selective C) a differential D) both a differential and a selective E) both a minimal and a selective Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Culturing Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 6.10

medium.

22) A Petroff-Hauser counting chamber is a(n) A) glass slide containing an etched grid for counting microbes directly using a microscope. B) device that counts cells as they interrupt an electrical current. C) device that measures the amount of light that passes through a culture. D) apparatus that traps bacterial cells on a membrane filter where they can be counted. E) device used to count numbers of bacterial colonies on a Petri plate. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.20

23) The best method for preserving bacterial cells in storage for decades is A) drying under anaerobic conditions. B) refrigeration. C) deep freezing. D) lyophilization. E) storing them in shrink-wrap. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Culturing Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 6.13 24) A device that removes wastes and adds fresh medium to bacterial cultures in order to prolong the log phase of a culture is called a A) Coulter counter. B) cytometer. C) spectrophotometer. D) pellicle. E) chemostat. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.19 25) Bacterial binary fission results in A) binary B) exponential C) linear D) arithmetic E) stationary Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.16

growth.

26) Which of the following is an indirect method for estimating the number of microbes in a sample? A) viable plate counts B) turbidity C) Coulter counter D) MPN E) membrane filtration Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.20

27) During which growth phase do antimicrobial drugs have the greatest inhibitory effect? A) lag phase B) log phase C) stationary phase D) death phase E) The susceptibility is the same for all phases. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.18 28) Which of the following explains why honey can be stored at room temperature for years without spoiling? A) lyophilization B) osmotic pressure C) low pH D) hydrostatic pressure E) anaerobic conditions Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.6 29) All of the following are part of the process of binary fission EXCEPT A) septum formation. B) DNA replication. C) doubling of cell size. D) cytoplasmic membrane production. E) budding. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.14 30) The method of obtaining isolated cultures that utilizes surface area to physically dilute specimens is called A) the pour-plate technique. B) serial dilution. C) the streak-plate technique. D) transport media. E) enrichment culturing. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.9

31) Which of the following is an approach to preventing the formation of biofilms? A) digesting matrix molecules B) stimulating quorum sensing receptors C) triggering the production of streamers D) increasing quorum sensing E) blocking the activity of carbohydrate catabolism Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.7 32) The method provides an estimate of the CFUs (colony-forming units) in a sample. A) Coulter counter B) viable plate-count C) streak-plate D) turbidity E) direct microscopic-count Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.20 33) Students in a microbiology lab are provided plates of medium to use in their bacterial culturing. The growth of organisms that can metabolize mannose sugar will result in the agar turning yellow, while the agar color remains unchanged if the mannose is not metabolized. The plates contain a medium. A) differential B) selective C) reducing D) defined E) transport Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Culturing Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 6.10 34) Sodium thioglycol9 late is found in which of the following types of media? A) transport media B) differential media C) complex media D) reducing media E) selective media Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Culturing Microorganisms 9

Learning Outcome: 6.10 35) Which of the following quantification techniques can distinguish living cells from dead cells in a culture? A) microscopic counts B) dry weight C) metabolic activity D) a Coulter counter E) turbidity Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.20 36)36)

The correct sequence for the phases indicated by the letters A, B, C and D is A) death phase, log phase stationary phase, lag phase. B) log phase, stationary phase, lag phase, death phase. C) stationary phase, lag phase, log phase, death phase. D) lag phase, log phase, stationary phase, death phase. E) death phase, stationary phase, log phase, lag phase. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.17 37) The generation time of bacterial cells is shortest during the A) death B) lag C) log D) stationary E) longitudinal Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth of Microbial Populations 10

phase.

Learning Outcome: 6. 15, 6.18 38) When cells are metabolically active but not dividing, they are in the A) stationary B) log C) lag D) death E) exponential Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.18 39) Metabolic activity is at maximum level in the A) lag B) log C) death D) stationary E) intermediate Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.18

phase.

phase of growth.

40) Creating conditions in the laboratory that promote the growth of some microbes while inhibiting the growth of others is called A) complex culturing. B) reducing conditions. C) selective enrichment culturing. D) transport conditions. E) differential culturing. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.11 41) A laboratory protocol lists the following ingredients: 1 g sucrose, 16.4 g Na2HPO4, 1.5 g (NH4)3PO4, 0.02 g CaCO3, KNO3, water to 1 liter and autoclave. This recipe is for a medium. A) defined agar B) defined broth C) complex broth D) reducing agar E) complex enrichment broth Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth Requirements 11

Learning Outcome: 6.10 42) Halophiles are found living in high A) carbon dioxide B) hydrostatic pressure C) oxygen levels D) pH E) salt concentration Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.6

conditions.

43) A microorganism found living under conditions of high A) pH values B) oxygen concentrations C) hydrostatic pressure D) carbon dioxide levels E) salt concentrations Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.6

is a barophile.

44) Microaerophiles are microbes that grow best at low A) carbon dioxide levels. B) pH values. C) hydrostatic pressure. D) oxygen levels. E) salt concentrations. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.3 45) A 100 μl sample containing 1000 bacterial cells/μl in log phase growth is added to 9.9 ml of fresh culture medium broth. Assuming no nutrients are in limited supply, and a generation time of 30 minutes, how many bacteria will be present in the entire broth culture after six hours? A) 6.0 × 105 B) 1.2 × 106 C) 6.0 × 106 D) 2.56 × 107 E) 4.096 × 108 Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.15, 6.18 12

6.2 True/False Questions 1) Flow cytometry is an indirect method of determining the number of cells in a sample. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.20 2) Nitrogen fixation produces ammonia from amino acids. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.5 3) Thermoduric mesophiles are often responsible for spoilage of improperly canned foods. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.6 4) Serial dilution can be used in combination with pour plates as a method for isolating pure cultures. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.9 5) The only effective way to store bacterial cultures for short periods of time is to arrest their metabolism by freezing. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Culturing Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 6.13 6) Biofilms are the natural state for the majority of bacteria in nature. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.7 7) An obligate anaerobe can be cultured in a candle jar. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Culturing Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 6.12

8) Agar is a useful compound in the microbiology lab because it is an excellent nutrient for bacteria. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Culturing Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 6.10 9) The generation time of a bacterial culture is determined by the culture conditions. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.15 10) In spectrophotometry, 40% light transmission is the same thing as 60% absorbance of light. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.20 6.3 Short Answer Questions 1) The conversion of nitrogen gas to ammonia is called nitrogen (metabolism/fixation). Answer: fixation Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.5 2) Organisms that require organic sources of carbon and energy are called (chemoheterotrophs/chemoautotrophs/auxotrophs). Answer: chemoheterotrophs Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.2 3) Reactions catalyzed by superoxide dismutases can produce the (hydroxyl/peroxide/superoxide) radical. Answer: peroxide Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.4 4) The (optimum/range/minimum) growth temperature is the temperature at which an organism exhibits the highest growth rate. Answer: optimum Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.6 15

5) The preferred method for long term storage of bacteria is (freezing/refrigeration/lyophilization). Answer: lyophilization Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.13 6) Alkalinophiles can survive in water up to pH (11.5/10/7.0). Answer: 11.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.6 7) Many photosynthetic organisms produce (catalase/carotenoids/dismutase) to protect themselves from the damaging effects of singlet oxygen (1O2). Answer: carotenoids Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.4 8) A(n) (culture/specimen/inoculum) is a sample of microorganisms introduced into a growth medium. Answer: inoculum Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Culturing Microorganisms Learning Outcome: N/A 9) A pure culture is composed of cells that arise from a single (cell/inoculum/sample). Answer: cell Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Culturing Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 6.9 10) Growing viruses in the lab requires (cell/enrichment/differential) culturing. Answer: cell Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Culturing Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 6.12 11) A sample placed into fresh medium is initially in the (lag/log/stationary) phase of microbial growth in most instances. Answer: lag Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.18 16

12) A growth curve plots the (number/concentration) of viable organisms in a growing population over time. Answer: number Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.17 13) Flow (spectrophotometry/cytometry) is a method of counting cells that have been stained or tagged with fluorescent dyes. Answer: cytometry Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.20 14) A clinical sample of (urine/sputum/tissue) is called a biopsy. Answer: tissue Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.8 15) A (Coulter counter/cytometer/spectrophotometer) can measure changes in the turbidity of a bacterial culture. Answer: spectrophotometer Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.20 6.4 Essay Questions 1) A new prokaryote is recovered from a remote saline hot spring. Design a set of experiments to determine whether the organism is thermophilic or thermoduric, halophilic or halotolerant. Answer: The experimental design should include a control in which the organism is grown in the salt conditions and at the temperature it was recovered from. One set samples should be cultured at the same salt concentration but varying the temperatures. Another set of samples should be cultured at the temperature of the hot spring but varying the salt concentration. One culture should be grown at the lowest temperature and salt concentration used in the two experimental sets. Bacterial growth is most reliably measured using the viable plate count method (assuming the organism can be grown on plates). Alternatively, bacterial numbers may be determined using a cell counter. An excellent answer will describe the organism which can be expected to grow under the various conditions (thermophilic halophile, thermophilic halotolerant, thermoduric halophile, and so forth). Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.4, 6.6

2) Explain how temperature and pH levels can influence microbial infections in the human body. Answer: All microbes have particular ranges of temperature and pH within which they exist. When the temperature or pH of their environment falls outside this range, their growth is inhibited, and they may even die as a result of the adverse conditions. Therefore, only those microbes whose pH and temperature requirements match those conditions found in the human body will be able to grow and reproduce there. For example, because the temperature of the human body is 37°C, only mesophiles can reproduce there. In addition, the pH of most tissues and fluids in the body is 6.5-7.5, which matches the pH requirements of neutrophiles. Therefore, it is not surprising that most human pathogens are mesophiles and neutrophiles. However, this is not always the case. Some microbes have adapted to environments that would otherwise be extremely hostile to most microbes. A good example is the bacterium Helicobacter pylori, which is able to live in the extremely acidic conditions of the stomach by secreting substances that help to neutralize the acid. The result is an infection that can lead to stomach ulcers. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.4 3) Compare and contrast the streak-plate method of isolation with the pour-plate method of isolation. Answer: The streak-plate and the pour-plate methods of bacterial isolation are both used to produce pure cultures of bacteria from specimens. Both techniques involve the use of agar-based growth media contained in Petri plates. Additionally, both techniques involve the use of dilutions as a means of isolating single cells or groups of cells that then grow into isolated colonies. However, there are several significant differences between the two techniques. The main difference is the way in which the specimen is diluted. In the streak-plate method, the specimen is diluted by use of an inoculating loop that spreads organisms over the surface of the agar. Thus, colonies appear only on the agar surface. In the pour-plate method, however, dilutions of the specimen are made in tubes of broth and then each dilution is added to melted agar, which is then poured into Petri dishes. Thus, microbes are mixed throughout the agar, and colonies will appear both in and on the medium. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Culturing Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 6.9

4) Genetic methods of detecting microorganisms reveal that the number of bacterial species in nature exceeds previous estimates by several orders of magnitude. In the human mouth, for example, it is estimated that 500-700 microbial species are normally present. Explain why previous estimates were low. Answer: Previous estimates of microbial diversity were largely based on the ability to detect microbes in samples handled in a typical laboratory setting. In most cases, laboratory conditions represent a narrow range of growth parameters, including temperature range, oxygen and other gas levels, and spectrum of nutrients. Even in cases where attempts are made to simulate the normal conditions for microbes (e.g., providing a high-pressure environment for organisms collected from hyperbaric environment), microorganisms must frequently tolerate fluctuations in the growth environment or even exposure to extremely adverse conditions for short periods of time. Organisms that are intolerant of significant fluctuation in their environmental requirements do not survive transport to the lab to be measured or cultured. As a consequence, only the relatively few microbes that are versatile in their nutrient requirements and can tolerate fluctuations in their growth environment have been observed or isolated in the laboratory. This, in turn, resulted in misleadingly low estimates of microbial diversity. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.20 5) Explain the similarities and differences between direct and indirect methods of measuring microbial growth, and give examples of each. Answer: Direct methods of measuring microbial growth involve quantifying the number of microbes in a specimen through actual counting of cells in a microscope or cytometer, or counting the numbers of colonies produced from the plating of a specimen. The advantage of these techniques lies in their usefulness for counting very large and very small populations of bacteria. Indirect methods, by contrast, seek to quantify cells by measuring some characteristic related to the number of cells present. For example, spectrophotometry measures the amount of light transmitted through a culture; the less light that is transmitted, the more cells are present. The amount of light transmitted gives an approximation of the number of cells present. Indirect methods are useful for quantifying microbes, such as filamentous microbes, that are hard to count directly. Both direct and indirect methods seek to arrive at an approximation of the actual number of cells present. Because that number is changing even during the measurement process, neither technique can give an exact number of cells. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.20

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 4e (Bauman) Chapter 7 Microbial Genetics 7.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following occurs in DNA but not RNA? A) deoxyribose B) uracil C) ribose D) thymine E) both deoxyribose and thymine Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.2 2) Which of the following is found at the 5' end of a DNA strand? A) a phosphate group B) a hydrogen bond C) a hydroxyl group D) histones E) a methyl group Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.2 3) The bacterial chromosome is A) usually circular. B) found in a nucleoid. C) found in a nucleus. D) both circular and found in a nucleoid. E) both circular and found in a nucleus. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.1

4) Which of the following types of plasmids facilitates the transfer of genetic material among bacteria? A) virulence plasmids B) fertility plasmids C) bacteriocin plasmids D) resistance plasmids E) cryptic plasmids Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.3 5) Which of the following contributes to the packaging of bacterial chromosome? A) histone proteins B) gyrase C) helicase D) Okazaki fragments E) nucleosomes Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.4 6) Which of the following statements is TRUE of bacterial plasmids? A) They are always found in the nucleoid. B) They can replicate autonomously. C) They carry genes for essential metabolic functions. D) They are small circular DNA molecules. E) They are small circular DNA molecules that can replicate autonomously. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.3

The process indicated by the arrow in Figure 7-1 represents A) lagging strand synthesis. B) leading strand synthesis. C) transcription. D) translation. E) homologous recombination. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.6 8) Which of the following statements is CORRECT about bacterial transcription? A) It occurs in the periplasm. B) A single RNA polymerase produces all RNA transcripts. C) Various sigma factors recognize different promoter sequences. D) The mRNA is extensively modified before transcription. E) Rho protein is required for termination of transcription. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.11 9) Which of the following is involved in translation? A) rRNA only B) tRNA only C) mRNA only D) both mRNA and tRNA E) mRNA, rRNA, and tRNA are all involved. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.13

10) Which of the following is a characteristic shared by DNA and RNA polymerases? A) efficiency of proofreading B) type of nucleotides used C) direction of polymerization D) speed E) dependence on helicase Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.6, 7.10 11) Typical eukaryotic genomes are composed of A) multiple linear B) multiple circular C) a single circular D) a single linear E) both linear and circular Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.4

DNA molecule(s).

12) A codon is a particular combination of three nucleotides. Therefore, there are possible combinations of the nucleotides A, C, G, and T. A) 16 B) 4 C) 12 D) 64 E) 32 Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.12 13) The AUG codon functions in coding for the amino acid methionine and as a A) termination signal. B) start signal. C) "wobble" codon. D) marker for introns. E) recognition site for RNA polymerase. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.12

14) Which of the following regulatory RNAs alter translation in response to environmental conditions? A) microRNAs B) miRNA-induced silencing complexes (miRISCs) C) riboswitches D) small interfering RNAs E) transfer RNAs Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.17 15) During elongation a charged tRNA first enters the ribosomal into the site. A) A; E B) P; A C) P; E D) A; P E) E; A Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.13

site and then moves

16) A wild-type organism and a genetic variant both have a gene encoding a receptor producing a chemotactic response to metabolite A. The genetic variant has a mutation in a regulatory gene for expression of the receptor. Which of the following statements with respect to the receptor is CORRECT? A) The genotypes and phenotypes of both organisms are the same. B) The organisms have the same receptor genotype but different phenotypes. C) The organisms have different genetic sequences for the receptor. D) The phenotypes of both organisms are the same, but the genotypes differ. E) The answer cannot be determined from the information provided. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.8

17) Semiconservative DNA replication means that A) each daughter DNA molecule is composed of one original strand and one new strand. B) nucleotides are constantly being recycled as cells make DNA. C) the cell can proofread its newly synthesized DNA only part of the time. D) the sequence of a DNA molecule is preserved as it is being replicated. E) each strand of a double-stranded DNA molecule is replicated differently. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.5 18) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Okazaki fragments? A) They are checked for accuracy by DNA polymerase III. B) They make up the lagging strand of replicated DNA. C) They begin with an RNA primer. D) They are joined together by DNA ligase. E) They are longer in eukaryotic cells. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.7 19) DNA replication and RNA transcription have many features in common. Which of the following does NOT occur in both processes? A) base-pairing of complementary nucleotides B) separation of the DNA strands ("unzipping") C) directionality of synthesis D) energy to drive the process is provided by triphosphate nucleotides E) a requirement for a primer Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.6, 7.10 20) Which of the following processes is involved in the "central dogma" of genetics? A) translation only B) transcription only C) DNA replication only D) transcription and translation E) DNA replication and translation Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.9

21) Inducible operons A) are active in the presence of a repressor. B) are generally anabolic pathways. C) are normally active. D) usually require an activator to be transcribed. E) usually require a repressor to be transcribed. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.16 22) Which of the following are considered to be frameshift mutations? A) insertions only B) inversions only C) deletions only D) both inversion and insertions E) both deletions and insertions Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mutations of Genes Learning Outcome: 7.19 23) Which of the following statements is CORRECT about BOTH bacterial and eukaryotic DNA replication? A) Replication proceeds bidirectionally from the origin of replication. B) Each chromosome has multiple origins of replication. C) A single DNA polymerase is responsible for both leading strand and lagging strand synthesis. D) The lagging strand is synthesized in fragments of about 1000 or so bases. E) An RNA primase is required for initiation of synthesis. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.7 24) Which of the following causes mutations by creating thymine dimers? A) nucleotide analogs B) nitrous acid C) ultraviolet light D) benzopyrene E) gamma rays Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mutations of Genes Learning Outcome: 7.21

25) DNA damage caused by ethidium bromide results in A) insertion B) substitution C) deletion D) both inversion and insertion E) both insertion and deletion Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mutations of Genes Learning Outcome: 7.22

mutations.

26) What repair mechanism is most likely involved in repairing DNA damage caused by ionizing radiation? A) DNA photolyase B) SOS response C) dark repair response D) mismatch repair E) either DNA photolyase or dark repair Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Mutations of Genes Learning Outcome: 7.24 27) The Ames test demonstrates that a chemical is A) carcinogenic. B) carcinogenic in Salmonella. C) mutagenic in Salmonella. D) carcinogenic in humans. E) mutagenic in humans. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Mutations of Genes Learning Outcome: 7.26 28) The horizontal transfer process known as transduction A) involves a virus. B) requires a pilus. C) requires a cell to be "competent." D) requires a plasmid. E) involves a mutagen. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Genetic Recombination and Transfer Learning Outcome: 7.28 7.31

29) Bacteria acquire new DNA from the environment in the process of A) transformation. B) the SOS response. C) recombination. D) conjugation. E) transposition. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Genetic Recombination and Transfer Learning Outcome: 7.31 30) In conjugation, F+ cells A) serve as recipient cells. B) contain an F plasmid. C) do not have conjugation pili. D) can transfer DNA only to other F+ cells. E) contain "jumping genes." Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Genetic Recombination and Transfer Learning Outcome: 7.31 31) DNA sequences known as transposons contain A) promoters. B) F+ plasmids. C) origins. D) palindromes. E) sigma factor sequences. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Genetic Recombination and Transfer Learning Outcome: 7.32 32) Which of the following is characteristic of prokaryotic genomes but NOT eukaryotic genomes? A) histones B) circular chromosomes C) linear chromosomes D) enclosed in a nuclear membrane E) typically consist of a few to several chromosomes Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.1

33) The procedure known as "replica plating" is used in A) positive selection only. B) negative selection only. C) the Ames test. D) both positive and negative selection. E) mutagenesis. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mutations of Genes Learning Outcome: 7.25 34) The DNA sequence of a portion of gene in a wild-type organism is TTACCATATTCACCC, and the corresponding peptide sequence is Leu-Pro-Tyr-Ser-Pro. The corresponding gene fragment in a phenotypic variant of the organism is TTACCATATTCACCC and the peptide sequence is Leu-Pro-Cys-Ser-Pro. This is an example of a(n) mutation (type) resulting in a mutation (effect). A) insertion; nonsense B) base substitution; missense C) base substitution; silent D) deletion; missense E) base substitution; nonsense Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Mutations of Genes Learning Outcome: 7.19, 7.20 35) Which of the following is NOT involved in the regulation of the lac operon? A) an inducer B) a repressor protein C) an iRNA D) glucose E) cyclic AMP Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.16 36) Sigma factors are involved in the regulation of bacterial A) DNA replication. B) transcription. C) translation. D) mutation repair. E) transformation. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.11 10

37) Codons are recognized by A) mRNAs. B) siRNAs. C) rRNAs. D) tRNAs. E) sigma factors. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.12 38) The events of are initiated at sequences called origins. A) DNA replication B) translation C) splicing D) transcription E) transposition Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.6 39) The process of requires the activity of DNA ligase. A) translation B) capping C) transcription D) DNA replication E) transduction Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.6 40) Which of the following occurs in eukaryotes but NOT in prokaryotes? A) DNA replication B) translation C) transcription D) transformation E) polyadenylation Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.11

41) Ribozymes are required for A) translation. B) RNA splicing. C) capping. D) both translation and RNA splicing. E) capping, RNA splicing and translation. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.13 42) The process known as A) translation B) transcription C) capping D) DNA replication E) light repair Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.13

is initiated with the incorporation of fMet.

43) Cells must be naturally or artificially "competent" for which of the following events to occur? A) transformation B) generalized transduction C) conjugation D) transposition E) specialized transduction Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Genetic Recombination and Transfer Learning Outcome: 7.31 44) The process of is described as semiconservative. A) translation B) transcription C) mismatch repair D) transformation E) DNA replication Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.5

45) During , a new peptide bond is formed with the amino acid located in the A site. A) polyadenylation B) DNA replication elongation C) mismatch repair D) transcription elongation E) translation elongation Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.13 7.2 True/False Questions 1) Prokaryotic cells are diploid. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.1 2) A chemical is reported to inhibit bacterial replication. Bacterial cells are placed in medium with all nutrients necessary for replication. The chemical is added to the culture, and after a half hour an extract of the DNA is prepared. A significant percentage of the DNA is in pieces about 1000 to 2000 bases in length. The results are consistent with the chemical blocking the function of DNA ligase. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.7 3) Pyrimidine dimers are severe mutations because cells have few mechanisms for repairing them. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mutations of Genes Learning Outcome: 7.21 4) Most bacteria have a natural ability to take up DNA from their environment. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Genetic Recombination and Transfer Learning Outcome: 7.31

5) The structure of DNA explains both its ability to encode genetic information and the way in which it is copied during cell reproduction. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.2 6) Not all genetic material of eukaryotic cells is contained in the nucleus. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.4 7) Initiation of messenger RNA (mRNA) transcription requires a primer, which is provided by a promoter. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.10 8) The phenotype of an organism reflects only part of its genotype. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.8 9)

When incorporated into a growing DNA strand, these base analogs prevent further elongation of the strand. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.5, 7.22 10) DNA polymerase III participates in the dark repair mechanism of DNA mutation repair. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Mutations of Genes Learning Outcome: 7.24 14

7.3 Short Answer Questions 1) A(n) (operon/codon/gene) is a specific sequence of nucleotides that codes for a protein or an RNA molecule. Answer: gene Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.1 2) Loosely packed, transcriptionally active regions of a eukaryotic chromosome are called (euchromatin/heterochromatin/nucleosomes). Answer: euchromatin Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.4 3) Transfer of DNA between bacterial cells by viruses is called (transformation/transduction/conjugation). Answer: transduction Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Genetic Recombination and Transfer Learning Outcome: 7.31 4) The phenotype of an organism is its set of (genes/traits/chromosomes). Answer: traits Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.8 5) The enzyme responsible for separating the DNA strands during DNA replication is (topoisomerase/gyrase/helicase). Answer: helicase Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.6 6) The chemical 5-bromouracil mimics the chemical structure of thymine, making it a(n) (analog/nucleotide/precursor) of thymine. Answer: analog Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mutations of Genes Learning Outcome: 7.22

7) A protein has altered function as a result of a single amino acid substitution in the polypeptide. This change resulted from a (missense/nonsense/silent) mutation. Answer: missense Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Mutations of Genes Learning Outcome: 7.20 8) Except during initiation of translation, transfer RNA molecules carrying amino acids initially bind to the ribosome at the (P/A/E) site. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.13 9) A mutation in the (acceptor/anticodon/loop) region of a transfer RNA may result in altered amino acid sequences in proteins. Answer: anticodon Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.12 10) Acridine dyes distort the structure of DNA causing (frameshift/missense/nonsense) mutations in gene sequences. (Answer in terms of the effect on gene function.) Answer: frameshift Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Mutations of Genes Learning Outcome: 7.22 11) A(n) (genome/codon/operon) is a set of prokaryotic genes that are regulated and transcribed as a unit. Answer: operon Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.15 12) The (leading/lagging/replicating) strand is the DNA strand that is synthesized continuously during DNA replication. Answer: leading Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.6 13) The (phenotype/genome/genotype) is the set of genes in the genome of an organism. Answer: genotype Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.8 16

14) RNA polymerase initiates transcription by recognizing specific DNA sequences called (promoters/origins/operons). Answer: promoters Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.10 15) While studying a bacterial strain a scientist notes a short DNA sequence between inverted repeats is present in both the chromosome and a plasmid within the cell. This sequence is most likely a (phage/transposon/transformation). Answer: transposon Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Genetic Recombination and Transfer Learning Outcome: 7.30 7.4 Essay Questions 1) Describe the basic similarities and differences between DNA replication and transcription. Answer: DNA replication and transcription are similar processes in that they both involve the production of molecules of nucleic acids using a preexisting template. Therefore, they both involve the polymerization of nucleotides to create long chains, as well as the utilization of complementary base-pairing rules to create the nucleotide sequence of the new molecule based on the sequence of the template. Additionally, these chains of nucleotides are synthesized in the same direction, 5' to 3', regardless of the type of nucleic acid being produced. However, there are a number of differences between these two processes as well. During DNA replication both DNA strands serve as template, while only one DNA strand is the template for transcription. The product of DNA replication is an exact, complete DNA copy of an entire DNA molecule that will be passed on to the offspring of the cell producing it. The product of transcription is an RNA copy of a limited region (a gene) of a DNA molecule. Furthermore, this RNA molecule may not be an exact copy of the gene, because transcription is more prone to errors than DNA replication. The RNA molecules produced during transcription are used within the cell that produces them to provide information for the synthesis of proteins during translation. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.6, 7.10

2) Hepatitis C and other viruses with RNA genomes have higher mutation rates than viruses with DNA genomes. Based on information up to this point in the text suggest some possible explanations for the higher mutation rates. (You may also want to consider information in chapter 2, chemistry.) Answer: There are multiple possible answers. One answer is that DNA polymerases, especially DNA polymerase III, have a proofreading function that detects and removes most misincorporations into newly synthesized strands. RNA polymerases have limited proofreading function and consequently more errors occur in newly synthesized RNA strands. DNA is normally double-stranded, and most of the repair functions in cells involve or require double stranded nucleic acids to detect and direct repair of errors. RNA molecules are normally predominantly single-stranded and thus do not provide the context for repair functions to detect or repair mutations. In addition, the repair enzymes may not be able to bind or repair RNA molecules in the first place. In chapter 2, hydroxyl groups are listed as functional, occasionally reactive groups. RNA molecules have a hydroxyl group DNA molecules lack. RNA is therefore more chemically reactive, which may in turn produce damage that would not normally occur in DNA. A good answer will include one of the above, a very good answer will include two, and excellent answer will include all three, or include another valid mechanism not covered here. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Mutations of Genes Learning Outcome: 7.2, 7.6, 7.10, 7.24 3) Bacterial strain A contains a plasmid. Bacterial strain B does not. After the bacteria are incubated together in a broth culture strain B cells containing the plasmid can be isolated. Devise an experiment to determine what type of gene transfer process is involved. Answer: A variety of answers are possible. For example, bacterial strains A & B could be placed on either side of a filter with a pore size too small to allow bacteria to cross; if no strain B recombinants are produced the results would be consistent with gene transfer by conjugation. Another experiment would be to mix the bacteria in the presence of DNase; if recombinants are not detected the results would suggest transformation of competent cells is involved. If recombinants are detected, genetic transfer by conjugation or transduction are possible. A good experimental design will include appropriate controls. An excellent answer may include multiple experimental approaches and/or discussion of alternatives to the proposed experiment. Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis Section: Genetic Recombination and Transfer Learning Outcome: 7.31

4) Compare and contrast the lactose operon with the tryptophan operon. Answer: Both the lactose and the tryptophan operons have certain features in common. They both contain a set of genes dedicated to a common purpose (such as the catabolism of lactose by the genes of the lactose operon) and regulatory elements such as a promoter and an operator. Each of these operons makes use of a repressor protein, which binds to the operator region and alters the activity of the operon. However, the lactose operon is classified as an inducible operon, which means it requires an inducer (a lactose metabolite) in order to be activated. In the absence of the inducer, the repressor protein shuts down the operon. In contrast, the tryptophan operon is a repressible operon, which requires a corepressor (tryptophan itself) in order to activate the repressor and shut down the operon. In the absence of the corepressor and repressor, the tryptophan operon is fully functional. In both types of operons, the molecule either catabolized (in the case of lactose or synthesized (in the case of tryptophan) is an important component of the regulation of the operon. In this way, the cell maintains precise control over these genetic pathways and does not spend time and energy making enzymes that are not needed. For example, making enzymes to catabolize lactose when no lactose is present would waste energy and metabolites. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.16 5) A point mutation can be completely harmless, or it can result in the death of a cell or organism. Explain why these types of mutations can have such varying effects. Answer: A point mutation is a single base change in the nucleotide sequence of a cell's genome. The effects of a point mutation can depend on its location. Point mutations in noncoding regions of the genome are usually harmless. Even in coding regions, point mutations can be harmless if they result in silent mutations. Silent mutations preserve the sense of the amino acid code because of the concept of "wobble," in which two codons can code for the same amino acid by varying only at the third base of the codon. If the point mutation has occurred at this third base, then the amino acid sequence of the protein will remain unchanged. Point mutations occurring at the first or second base of the codon are almost always much more serious because they change the codon to a completely different amino acid. This type of point mutation is known as a missense mutation. Occasionally changes in the first or second base are still silent, in the case of amino acids specified by several codons (e.g. CGG and AGG both code for Arginine). (Another exception to this occurs when the new amino acid is chemically similar to the previous amino acid, in which case the missense mutation usually causes little or no change in the overall structure or function of the protein.) Finally, one of the most serious types of point mutations is a nonsense mutation in which the codon has been changed to a stop codon. These types of mutations result in the abnormal termination of a protein sequence. In all such cases, if the protein affected by the mutation is an enzyme or some other vital protein required for proper cellular function, then the cell and/or organism may die as a result of these relatively simple mutations. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Mutations of Genes Learning Outcome: 7.18, 7.19

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 4e (Bauman) Chapter 8 Recombinant DNA Technology 8.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Recombinant DNA technology can be most accurately defined as the A) use of microorganisms to produce useful products. B) selective breeding of organisms to create new combinations of traits. C) study of replication and recombination in microbes. D) study of genetic expression in microbes. E) deliberate modification of the genome of an organism for practical purposes. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Role of Recombinant DNA Technology in Biotechnology Learning Outcome: 8.1 2) An ancient application of biotechnology is A) selective breeding of plants. B) production of cheese. C) the practice of medicine. D) traditional agriculture. E) both traditional agriculture and the selective breeding of plants. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Role of Recombinant DNA Technology in Biotechnology Learning Outcome: 8.2 3) Which of the following items is NOT a part of the name of a restriction enzyme? A) the Gram reaction of the source bacterium B) the specific epithet of the source bacterium C) Roman numerals to indicate its order of discovery D) the strain of the source bacterium E) the genus of the source bacterium Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.8

4) What are the "sticky ends" produced by some restriction enzymes? A) Sticky ends are short single-strand ends of a DNA molecule. B) Sticky ends are able to hydrogen bond with complementary strands. C) Sticky ends are DNA strands with an extra hydroxyl group on the end. D) Sticky ends are short single-strand ends of DNA able to hydrogen bond with complementary strands. E) Sticky ends are DNA strands able to form phosphate bonds with free DNA ends. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.9 5) A library of cloned sequences representing the expressed genes of an organism is known as a A) cDNA library. B) FISH library. C) gene library. D) microarray. E) DNA fingerprint. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.11 6) Which of the following restriction enzyme sites would produce blunt-ended fragments? (The arrow represents the cutting site of the enzyme.) A) C↓CGG B) G↓GATCC C) G↓AATTC D) CCC↓GGG E) A↓AGCTT Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.9 7) Which of the following is necessary to produce an "expression" library representing the active genes of an organism? A) synthetic nucleic acids B) reverse transcriptase C) a gene gun D) mutagens E) nucleic acid probes Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: The Role of Recombinant DNA Technology in Biotechnology Learning Outcome: 8.5 2

8) Small circular DNA autonomously replicating molecules with several restriction sites and a "marker" to trace their location are commonly called A) phages. B) clones. C) vectors. D) arrays. E) vehicles. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.10 9) Synthetic nucleic acids are useful as A) DNA probes. B) primers for PCR. C) antisense RNAs. D) DNA probes and antisense RNAs. E) DNA probes, primers, and antisense RNAs. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.7 10) Mutagens are useful in biotechnology research for A) producing organisms with altered phenotypes. B) producing new organisms which have beneficial traits from two or more organisms. C) selecting genetic mutants resistant to radioactivity. D) removing undesirable traits from microbes. E) producing DNA fragments for cloning. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.4 11) Which of the following is essential in PCR? A) DNA polymerase B) antisense RNAs C) reverse transcriptase D) DNA primers E) both DNA primers and DNA polymerase Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.12

12) If a researcher used Escherichia coli DNA polymerase instead of Thermus aquaticus DNA polymerase in the PCR procedure, what would be the result? A) DNA replication would occur more slowly than normal. B) DNA replication would not occur at all. C) Many mistakes would occur. D) DNA replication would occur twice as fast as normal. E) DNA replication would stop after one cycle. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.12 13) Which of the following would be an appropriate sequence of temperatures for PCR? A) 94°C, 55°C, 37°C B) 94°C, 65°C, 72°C C) 65°C, 72°C, 94°C D) 94°C, 37°C, 55°C E) 72°C, 65°C, 94°C Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.12 14) If you started with a single DNA molecule, how many would you have at the end of six PCR cycles? A) 6 B) 16 C) 32 D) 64 E) 100 Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.12 15) In gel electrophoresis, DNA molecules move toward the have an overall charge. A) negative; negative B) positive; positive C) negative; positive D) positive; negative E) negative and positive; neutral Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.14 4

electrode(s) because they

16) Which of the following procedures might be used to detect the presence of genetic sequences of a virus in a sample? A) Southern blotting B) creation of a gene library C) PCR D) genome mapping E) Southern blotting or PCR Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.12, 8.14 17) A northern blot differs from a Southern blot in the A) type of probe used. B) presence or absence of a nitrocellulose membrane. C) size of the genetic sequences involved. D) number of genetic sequences detected. E) type of nucleic acid being isolated. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.14 18)18)

Which method of inserting DNA into cells is illustrated in this figure? A) protoplast fusion B) injection C) electroporation D) a gene gun E) transduction Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.16

19) The DNA double helix can be separated into single strands using A) heat. B) NaOH. C) reverse transcriptase. D) either heat or NaOH. E) heat, NaOH, and reverse transcriptase. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.12, 8.14 20) Synthetic nucleic acids are produced using A) recombinant microbes. B) a thermal cycler. C) computerized assembly using replication enzymes in vitro. D) restriction enzyme digestion of DNA. E) a series of chemical steps carried out on the lab bench. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.6 21) Specific DNA fragments can be isolated from a mixture of fragments using A) an electrophoresis chamber. B) a gene gun. C) a DNA sequencer. D) a thermocycler. E) a nucleic acid synthesis machine. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.14 22) DNA fingerprinting can be used A) to detect unculturable organisms. B) to generate cDNA clones. C) in forensic investigations. D) to generate cDNA clones and libraries. E) for forensics and detection of unculturable organisms. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.19

23) A researcher inserted DNA fragments from an organism into plasmids and introduced the modified plasmids into bacterial cells. Which of the following methods would be the most efficient means of identifying which clones contain a specific gene of interest? A) Sequence the DNA of the plasmids from each isolate. B) Use a microarray to detect a transcript of the gene. C) Use a labeled synthetic probe complementary to the gene sequence. D) Assay for activity of the gene product. E) Use electrophoresis to identify plasmids containing an insert of the expected size. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.13 24) Subunit vaccines are safer than traditional vaccines because they A) are acellular. B) are administered in food. C) do not pose a risk for causing the disease. D) are acellular and do not pose a risk for causing the disease. E) are acellular and can be administered in food. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.18 25) Which of the following recombinant tools is NOT used in DNA fingerprinting? A) PCR B) restriction enzyme digestion C) gel electrophoresis D) reverse transcription E) Neither PCR nor gel electrophoresis is used. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.19 26) Modified corn strains that produce an insect toxin from a bacterial gene are an example of A) gene therapy. B) protoplasts. C) vectors. D) transgenic organisms. E) transgender organisms. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.21

27) Which of the following has been genetically modified to stop the spread of a human disease? A) Pseudomonas B) Haemophilus influenzae C) Bacillus thuringiensis D) Thermus aquaticus E) Aedes aegypti Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8. 18 28) Replacing the defective gene responsible for sickle-cell anemia is an example of A) gene therapy. B) genetic screening. C) DNA fingerprinting. D) producing a transgenic organism. E) recombinant therapy. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.18 29) If all the following DNA fragments were analyzed on an electrophoresis gel, which one would migrate farthest from the negative electrode? A) 5000 base pairs B) 750 base pairs C) 1000 base pairs D) 250 base pairs E) 2500 base pairs Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.14 30) Which of the following procedures would be used to introduce DNA into a single mouse cell? A) Southern blotting B) electroporation C) gene gun D) microinjection E) protoplast fusion Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.16

31) The procedure used to identify individuals by their unique genetic sequences is known as A) DNA sequencing. B) microarray analysis. C) DNA fingerprinting. D) northern analysis. E) xenotransplantation. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.19 32) An effective tool for screening a large number of genetic sequences at once is known as A) restriction analysis. B) FISH. C) cDNA synthesis. D) microarray. E) gel electrophoresis. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.15 33) A researcher finds a mutant mouse with a phenotype that may have applications to human disease. What would be the most efficient means of identifying the mutated gene? A) Sequence the entire genome of the mutant. B) Use a microarray to identify transcribed genes. C) Use DNA fingerprinting to identify a DNA fragment of altered size. D) Search a mouse gene library. E) Use DNA fingerprinting to identify an altered DNA fragment, sequence it and search a gene library. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8. 11, 8.17, 8.19

34)34)

One of two men may be the father of a child. This figure shows the results of a DNA fingerprint analysis to determine paternity. M is the mother, C is the child, A and B are the two men. What is the best interpretation of these results? A) The man identified as A is probably the father. B) The man identified as B is probably the father. C) Neither man is this child's father. D) Either man could be this child's father. E) Paternity cannot be determined from this data. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.19 35) Which of the following microbes has been genetically engineered to contain a protein that helps protect crops from freezing? A) Deinococcus radiodurans B) Bacillus thuringiensis C) Pseudomonas D) Salmonella E) Escherichia coli Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.21

36) Synthesis of cDNA requires the use of A) DNA ligase. B) agarose. C) reverse transcriptase. D) restriction enzymes. E) fluorescent synthetic nucleotides. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.5 37) Probes used for detecting genetic sequences are frequently composed of A) plasmids with a marker sequence. B) synthetic nucleic acids and labeled conjugates, such as fluorescent dyes. C) restriction enzymes. D) silicon chips. E) gold beads coated with DNA. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.7 38) Which of the following could be used to reduce production of harmful proteins in diseased animals? A) antisense RNAs B) modified mRNAs C) gene mapping D) expression vectors E) PCR Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.7 39) A microarray is assembled using A) reverse transcriptase and DNA polymerase. B) restriction enzymes. C) agarose and nitrocellulose. D) gold beads and magnets. E) single-stranded DNA and silicon chips. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.15

40) Examples of recent accomplishments in the use of recombinant DNA technology include A) production of a peach-apple hybrid plant. B) gene therapy to correct an immune system deficiency in humans. C) production of gene modified human embryos. D) production of new emerging disease agents. E) a cure for HIV. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Role of Recombinant DNA Technology in Biotechnology Learning Outcome: 8.2 41) In Southern blotting, DNA molecules are immobilized on A) silicon chips. B) nitrocellulose membranes. C) agarose. D) gold beads. E) paper. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.14 42) The detection of DNA by FISH makes use of A) restriction fragments. B) reverse transcriptase and DNA polymerase. C) synthetic DNAs and fluorescent tags. D) compressed air and gold beads. E) DNA polymerase and DNA ligase. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.17 43) Injecting DNA into cells can be accomplished using A) nitrocellulose membranes. B) silicon chips and nucleic acids. C) compressed air and gold beads. D) micropipettes. E) micropipettes, or compressed air and gold beads. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.16

44) DNA encoding a normal gene is inserted into cells from a patient with a defective form of the gene. Recombinant cells are identified and isolated, and returned to the patient's body. This is an example of A) gene therapy. B) genomics. C) genetic fingerprinting. D) genotyping. E) biotechnology. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.20 45) Some of the strongest opposition to the application of recombinant DNA technology concerns A) DNA fingerprinting. B) modification of food crops. C) correcting gene defects in animals. D) sequencing of the human genome. E) pest control measures. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Ethics and Safety of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.22 8.2 True/False Questions 1) Gene therapy for human genetic diseases has not yet been successful. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.20 2) The name of a restriction enzyme is based on the scientific name of the microbe from which it was isolated. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.8 3) The goals of recombinant DNA technology include production of new organisms with useful combinations of traits. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Role of Recombinant DNA Technology in Biotechnology Learning Outcome: 8.3 13

4) Restriction enzymes are useful only on synthetic DNAs. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.8 5) Under ideal conditions, the number of DNA molecules produced during PCR increases exponentially. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.12 6) Sticky-end fragments generated by EcoRI will hydrogen bond to any other sticky-end sequence. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.9 7) A collection of bacterial clones each of which contains a portion of the gene sequences of an organism is known as a microarray of that organism's genome. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.11 8) Southern blotting is a technique that can be used to identify microbes that cannot be cultured. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.14 9) A DNA microarray may be used to study the complex, changing patterns of mRNA production in an organism. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.15 10) A subunit vaccine is prepared by extensive manipulation of the genome of the pathogen. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.18

8.3 Short Answer Questions 1) The use of microbes to make practical products such as vaccines or hormones is called (genomics/recombination/biotechnology). Answer: biotechnology Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Role of Recombinant DNA Technology in Biotechnology Learning Outcome: 8.1 2) A technique using fluorescent-tagged probes to detect specific DNA sequences in their natural locations is known as (FISH/PCR/cDNA). Answer: FISH Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.17 3) DNA (microarrays/fingerprints/libraries) produce patterns of DNA fragments that can be compared with other DNA samples. Answer: fingerprints Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.19 4) Restriction (enzymes/proteases/fragments), first isolated from bacterial cells, cut DNA molecules at specific sites. Answer: enzymes Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.9 5) Short nucleic acid molecules used to locate complementary sequences in a larger population of molecules are called (probes/primers/vectors). Answer: probes Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.7 6) Investigating the genes and proteins of a microbe is part of the field of (cloning/genomics/genetics). (Select the best answer.) Answer: genomics Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.17

7) The northern blot is a technique used to detect specific RNA molecules in a larger population of molecules that have been separated by gel (electroporation/electrophoresis). Answer: electrophoresis Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.14 8) Small RNAs that bind to an mRNA and alter its expression are known as (antisense/probes/restriction) RNAs. Answer: antisense Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.7 9) Detection of a pathogen by PCR requires the use of unique sequence (probes/primers/fragments). Answer: primers Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.7, 8.12 10) The insertion of foreign DNA directly into a cell's nucleus using a glass micropipet is called (microporation/electroporation/microinjection). Answer: microinjection Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.16 11) Genetic (screening/sequencing/cloning) can be used to detect mutant genes associated with genetic diseases in individuals before any clinical symptoms are noted. Answer: screening Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.18 12) A DNA (library/microarray) may be used to study the complex, changing patterns of mRNA production in an organism. Answer: microarray Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.15

13) Beta-carotene, the biochemical precursor to vitamin A, can be added to rice by using (biotechnology/cloning/recombinant) DNA technology, thereby increasing its nutritional value. Answer: recombinant Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.21 14) Study of the genome of Deinococcus radiodurans may provide insight into preventing or correcting genetic damage resulting from (radiation/mutation/chemicals). Answer: radiation Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.17 15) Competent cells are used to introduce DNA into cells by means of (electroporation/pellets/vectors). Answer: vectors Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.10 8.4 Essay Questions 1) Discuss some of the impacts that tools and techniques of recombinant DNA technology have had on medicine. Answer: Human gene libraries and DNA sequencing have greatly facilitated detecting genes and gene complexes that contribute to disease, both the genetic mutations that cause disease and genetic predispositions to a wide range of diseases. PCR, FISH, and microarrays are all tools that can be used to determine whether a person carries a specific genetic variation linked to disease or to detect the presence of a pathogen causing disease. Recombinant technology has provided tools to prevent or cure disease. Some examples include the ability to produce therapeutic agents such as human insulin for diabetes, clotting factors for people with blood-clotting disorders, and vaccines to prevent infection. The use of gene therapy to correct disorders of abnormal or nonfunctional genes is in its infancy but holds great promise. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.18

2) Discuss one of the pros and cons regarding the application of recombinant DNA technology. Answer: Topics can include: the improvement of crop yield versus the suspected effects of modified foods, or the unintentional spread of resistance genes; the ability to produce livestock with consistent high quality traits versus the hazards of monoculture; correction of genetic defects versus "designer" children; screening for disease predisposition versus privacy; and/or discrimination concerns. [See page 291 for additional details.] A good answer may include additional topics. An excellent answer will reflect clear reasoning and discuss both sides of the issue. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: The Ethics and Safety of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.22 3) What techniques covered in this chapter could a biologist use to study a biofilm community, including what microbes may be present and what activities are taking place in the community? Answer: Answers will vary. The more techniques included, the better the answer. An excellent answer would include discussion of the possible drawbacks of each. A combination of DNA fingerprint analysis, PCR and DNA sequencing may be useful in identifying what microbes are present. Expression of genes may be analyzed by preparing cDNAs and sequencing them. If the community is largely composed of unknown microbes these approaches may be time-consuming and miss some important contributions. Microarrays may be used to (1) identify the microbial species present or (2) track changes in genetic expression using cDNAs. This approach would provide a "group portrait" of the community. To be successful prior knowledge of the probable inhabitants and gene sequences is needed. FISH may be used to (1) determine the distribution of specific species in a biofilm or (2) investigate whether genes are expressed in specific locations in the biofilm. FISH has the same limitation as microarray analysis. Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.12, 8.13, 8.14, 8.15, 8.16, 8.17 4) Outline a procedure for producing a useful new recombinant product. Answer: Many variations are possible. The answer should include (1) what organism is used as the source of DNA and how the desired DNA sequence is obtained (2) the insertion of the DNA sequence into a plasmid (3) the method of introduction of the plasmid into cells and (4) how recombinant cells are identified. Since the question states a goal of a recombinant product, an expression vector should be specified. A variety of tools and techniques will be involved in a full answer. Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.9, 8.10, 8.13, 8.14, 8.16

5) Explain what a transgenic organism is, and give two examples. Answer: A transgenic organism is one that contains genes from other organisms. These genes usually add some special ability or function to the organism. Agriculture offers many examples of transgenic organisms. Soybeans have been engineered to contain glyphosate-resistance genes, and other crops have been engineered to grow well in soil with high salt concentrations. Plants have been modified to be resistant to naturally occurring microbial diseases. Still other plants have been engineered to contain the gene for Bt toxin, a bacterial toxin that kills insect pests that would otherwise feed on and destroy the crop. Not all transgenic organisms represent such extreme genetic modifications, however. Some genetically modified organisms simply represent efforts to improve nutritional content (in the case of plant crops) or to increase food yield (in the case of bovine growth hormone, which is produced by transgenic bacteria and then given to cattle to increase their meat and milk yield). Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.21

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 4e (Bauman) Chapter 9 Controlling Microbial Growth in the Environment 9.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Physical removal of microbes without killing them is A) degerming. B) germistatic. C) germicidal. D) sanitization. E) antisepsis. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Basic Principles of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.2 2) Which of the following statements is TRUE of disinfectants? A) They are effective in destroying endospores. B) They are used on living tissue. C) They are used for sterilization. D) They are used on inanimate surfaces. E) They are only effective for short periods of time (seconds to minutes). Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Basic Principles of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.1 3) A stationary broth culture contains 10 billion (1010) cells. The microbial death rate during autoclaving of this spent culture is 1.5 minutes. How long must it be autoclaved to be considered sterile? A) 10 minutes B) 9 minutes C) 12 minutes D) 20 minutes E) 16.5 minutes Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Basic Principles of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.4

4) Which of the following is an example of sanitization? A) A public toilet is treated with disinfectants. B) A surgeon washes her hands before surgery. C) Heat is used to kill potential pathogens in apple juice. D) An autoclave is used to prepare nutrient agar. E) A nurse prepares an injection site with an alcohol swab. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Basic Principles of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.2 5) An antimicrobial agent that will have the most lasting germicidal effect. A) damages cytoplasmic membranes B) inhibits enzymatic activity C) destroys metabolites D) damages cell walls E) damages DNA Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Basic Principles of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.5 6) Which of the following is bacteriostatic? A) heating in an oven at 171°C for an hour B) freezing below 0°C C) filtration D) autoclaving E) flash pasteurization Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.14 7) Antimicrobial agents that damage nucleic acids also affect A) the cell wall. B) the cell membrane. C) the viral envelope. D) endospores. E) protein synthesis. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Basic Principles of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.5

8) Seventy-percent alcohol is effective against A) enveloped viruses. B) nonenveloped viruses. C) bacterial endospores. D) protozoan cysts. E) prions. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.21 9) An instrument that will come into contact with only the skin of a patient should be disinfected with a(n) A) high-level germicide. B) low-level germicide. C) intermediate-level germicide. D) degerming agent only. E) germistatic agent only. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: The Selection of Microbial Control Methods Learning Outcome: 9.6 10) A germistatic agent would be effective on A) vegetative bacterial cells. B) fungus spores. C) bacterial endospores. D) nonenveloped viruses. E) protozoal cysts. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Basic Principles of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.3 11) Which of the following describes flash pasteurization? A) heating at 63°C for 30 minutes B) heating at 72°C for 15 seconds C) heating at 72°C for 15 minutes D) heating at 134°C for one second E) passing liquid through steam at 140°C Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.13

12) The individual serving of half & half used in restaurants is usually treated by A) filtration. B) ionizing radiation. C) lyophilization. D) ultra-high-temperature sterilization. E) autoclaving. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.13 13) Boiling water for 10 minutes is effective in ridding it of A) actively growing bacteria. B) enveloped viruses. C) bacterial endospores. D) protozoan cysts. E) both growing bacteria and enveloped viruses. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.11 14) Filtration is a(n) method of achieving sterilization. A) germistatic B) germicidal C) degerming D) antiseptic E) viricidal Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.16 15) Which of the following is a target of pasteurization? A) Bacillus stearothermophilus B) Clostridium botulinum C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae D) Chlamydia trachomatis E) Brucella melitensis Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.13

16) Which of the following types of radiation causes the formation of damaging chemical bonds in DNA? A) ultraviolet light B) infrared radiation C) microwaves D) X-rays E) gamma rays Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.18 17) Which of the following is used for microbial control in fresh fruits and vegetables? A) X-rays B) ultraviolet light C) electron beams D) microwaves E) gamma rays Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.18 18) Air can be disinfected using A) HEPA filters. B) ethylene oxide. C) ultraviolet light. D) both HEPA filters and ultraviolet light. E) both ethylene oxide and ultraviolet light. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.16, 9.18 19) Silvadene, a topical treatment for burns, contains 1% silver. What category of chemical control agent is in Silvadene? A) halogens B) heavy metals C) oxidizing agents D) aldehydes E) surfactants Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.25

20) Which of the following is the most appropriate pairing of microbe and biosafety level? A) E. coli, BSL-3 B) anthrax, BSL-1 C) Ebola, BSL-2 D) methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA), BSL-2 E) tuberculosis, BSL-1 Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: The Selection of Microbial Control Methods Learning Outcome: 9.9 21) The use of lysozyme during the preparation of cheeses and wines is effective in reducing the numbers of A) fungi. B) viruses. C) bacteria. D) prions. E) all microbes. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.28 22) Which statement about quaternary ammonium compounds is CORRECT? A) They are a type of halogen. B) They inhibit enzyme function. C) They are not effective against Pseudomonas aeruginosa. D) They function by cross-linking proteins. E) They are carcinogenic. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.24 23) Which of the following is a sterilizing agent? A) ozone B) hydrogen peroxide C) peracetic acid D) dish soap E) ozone and hydrogen peroxide Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.23

24) The heavy metal compound is used as a preservative in some vaccines. A) copper sulfate B) zinc oxide C) thimerosal D) hexachlorophene E) silver nitrate Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.25 25) The phenolic is present in many consumer products labeled "antibacterial." A) ethylene oxide B) formaldehyde C) hydrogen peroxide D) calcium hypochlorite E) triclosan Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.20 26) Formaldehyde must be handled with greater care than gluteraldehyde because it is A) carcinogenic. B) far more reactive. C) a gas. D) an odorless gas. E) a carcinogenic gas. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.26 27) Disinfecting agents naturally produced by microorganisms are A) aldehydes. B) antimicrobials. C) halogens. D) quats. E) triclosans. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.29

28) Honey can be stored at room temperature for long periods of time because it A) is highly acidic. B) is hypertonic. C) is a natural surfactant. D) contains lysozyme. E) contains oxidizing agents. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.17 29) What factors need to be considered when choosing a method of microbial control? A) the site or material to be treated B) the environment of the site or material to be treated C) the susceptibility of the microbes which must be removed D) the site and the environment to be treated E) the site and environment to be treated, and the susceptibility of the microbes Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Selection of Microbial Control Methods Learning Outcome: 9.6 30) The endospores of which of the following microbes are used to measure the effectiveness of autoclave sterilization? A) Clostridium botulinum B) Neisseria gonorrhoeae C) Bacillus stearothermophilus D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa E) Mycobacterium bovis Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.12 31) A researcher has discovered a new metabolic product of a fungus that may have antimicrobial properties. Which method would be best for preparing the material for tests of its effect on bacteria? A) autoclaving B) filtration C) dilution with alcohol D) lyophilization E) ultraviolet irradiation Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.10, 9.16 8

32) Which of the following procedures is currently the standard test used in the United States for evaluating the efficiency of antiseptics and disinfectants? A) use-dilution test B) microbial death rate C) in-use test D) thermal death point E) phenol coefficient Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.30 33) Which of the following would be used to sterilize a mattress? A) autoclaving B) formaldehyde C) ethylene oxide D) heavy metals E) radiation Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.27 34) Disinfectants that damage membranes include A) alcohols. B) phenolics. C) iodine. D) hydrogen peroxide. E) both alcohols and phenolics. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.20, 9.21 35) Which of the following antimicrobial agents is the most toxic to humans? A) 70% alcohol B) ethylene oxide C) quats D) chloramines E) iodophors Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.27

36) Desiccation is primarily effective against A) enveloped viruses. B) vegetative bacteria. C) vegetative fungi. D) bacterial endospores. E) nonenveloped viruses. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.15 37) Hydrogen peroxide is NOT an effective antiseptic because A) it evaporates too quickly. B) exposure to light rapidly degrades it. C) it is only effective on a small number of fungi. D) the catalase present in skin cells degrades it. E) it is mostly water. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.23 38) The process of incineration is used for A) sterilization. B) degerming. C) disinfection. D) sanitization. E) both disinfection and sanitization. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.11 39) Alcohols are used for A) disinfection. B) sterilization. C) antisepsis. D) both sterilization and disinfection. E) both antisepsis and disinfection. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.21

40) The chemical agents known as "quats" are used for A) antisepsis. B) disinfection. C) sterilization. D) quantifying antimicrobial activity. E) neither antisepsis nor disinfection. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.24 41) The compound ethylene oxide is used in A) sanitization. B) sterilization. C) antisepsis. D) degerming. E) disinfection. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.27 42) Glutaraldehyde acts on microbes by A) disrupting cytoplasmic membranes. B) denaturing proteins. C) cross-linking thymidines in DNA. D) forming chemical cross links in DNA and proteins. E) inhibiting enzyme activity. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.26 43) may be achieved using chlorine dioxide. A) Disinfection B) Sterilization C) Degerming D) Antisepsis E) Both antisepsis and degerming Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.22

44) Gamma irradiation is a process for A) sterilization. B) disinfection. C) antisepsis. D) degerming. E) both antisepsis and disinfection. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.18 45) Why is Bacillus stearothermophilus useful as an indicator of sterility? A) It is a very common contaminant. B) It forms cysts which resist a wide range of disinfectant methods. C) It has a cell wall containing a waxy compound which protects it from drying and aqueous disinfectants. D) Only incineration will destroy it. E) It forms endospores, among the most hardy of microbial contaminants. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.12 9.2 True/False Questions 1) Removal of microbes from the skin is antisepsis. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Basic Principles of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.1 2) Some viruses are inactivated by the same chemical or physical agents that damage cytoplasmic membranes. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Basic Principles of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.5 3) Refrigeration is an effective germicidal method. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.14

4) Nothing short of incineration is effective in destroying prions. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.28 5) The phenol coefficient is one of the most widely used measurements of an antimicrobial agent's effectiveness. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.30 6) No chemical or antimicrobial agents inactivate prions. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.28 7) The decimal reduction time is the time required to kill all the microbes in a given sample. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.11 8) Slow freezing is more damaging to microbial cells than quick freezing. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.14 9) The pH conditions under which a chemical disinfectant is used do not alter its efficacy. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Selection of Microbial Control Methods Learning Outcome: 9.8 10) By themselves, soaps have only degerming activity, not antimicrobial activity. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.24

9.3 Short Answer Questions 1) The process of freeze-drying microbes to preserve them is (lyophilization/dessication). Answer: lyophilization Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.15 2) Natural antiseptics such as pine or clove oil are examples of antimicrobial compounds called (alcohols/phenolics/detergents). Answer: phenolics Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.20 3) Alcohols at 70% can effectively inactivate (all/enveloped/nonenveloped) viruses. Answer: enveloped Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.21 4) Disinfectants known as (alcohols/oxidizers/aldehydes) have the chemical group -CHO, which reacts with and damages both proteins and nucleic acids. Answer: aldehydes Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.26 5) The lowest temperature that kills all cells in a broth in 10 minutes is known as the (microbial/thermal) death point. Answer: thermal Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.11 6) The amount of time needed to sterilize materials using moist heat is (more/less) than the time needed to sterilize using dry heat. Answer: less Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.11

7) Microbial growth in jellies is inhibited by the (acidic/hypotonic/hypertonic) condition of the food. Answer: hypertonic Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.17 8) The deadliest, most contagious microbes are studied under conditions of (BSL-4/BSL-3/BSL2/BSL-1) containment. Answer: BSL-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Selection of Microbial Control Methods Learning Outcome: 9.9 9) Ultraviolet light penetrates (more/less) effectively than gamma rays. Answer: less Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.18 10)10)

The antimicrobial chemical in Figure 9-1 is a(n) (phenolic/surfactant/enzyme) compound found in many consumer products. Answer: phenolic Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.20 11) Elements such as iodine, chlorine, and bromine are examples of (oxidizers/halogens/metals) and are the basis for many effective antimicrobial agents. Answer: halogens Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.22 12) Heavy metal and oxidizing agent disinfectants damage (proteins/DNA/membranes), interfering with microbial metabolism. Answer: proteins Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.25 15

13) The (endospores/cysts/prions) are the infectious agents most resistant to antimicrobial agents or processes. Answer: prions Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Selection of Microbial Control Methods Learning Outcome: 9.7 14) The process of heating milk or fruit juice to levels that kill any pathogenic microbes present is known as (pasteurization/sanitization/lyophilization). Answer: pasteurization Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.13 15) The effectiveness of sterilization procedures is evaluated using (prions/cysts/endospores) because of their resilience. Answer: endospores Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.12 9.4 Essay Questions 1) Some scientists are pursuing the use of bacteriophage as an alternative to chemical disinfectants. Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of such an approach. Answer: A good answer will include some of the following, while an excellent answer may include all considerations. A significant advantage of the use of bacteriophage over disinfectants is that they have no toxic effects on people (or pets). When only specific bacteria must be removed (for example in the preparation of cheese) bacteriophage are ideal for highly selective disinfection. Another advantage is that bacteriophage can evolve. Thus if bacteria develop resistance to phage used to reduce their presence, the phage will almost certainly evolve to overcome the resistance. A disadvantage of phage disinfection is that only the bacteria the phage can infect will be destroyed. The greatest disadvantage is that phage will reduce only bacteria, not any other type of microbial agent. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.29

2) Compare and contrast the nine major types of antimicrobial chemicals in terms of their effective on microbes. Answer: Alcohols disrupt lipid membranes and denature proteins, are effective bactericidal, fungicidal agents, and inactivate enveloped viruses. They are effective in the range of 70 - 90% concentration and the effect is temporary due to evaporation. Aldehydes are highly effective germicidals that permanently damage DNA and proteins and gluteraldehyde can sterilize with long exposure. Enzymes can be effective at destroying microbes, but tend to be limited in their effect to specific classes of microbes. For example, lysozyme is effective against bacteria, primarily Gram-positive bacteria. Gases like ethylene oxide are highly effective germicidals that are also highly toxic to humans and are therefore only used under highly controlled conditions. Halogens (iodine, chlorine, fluorine and bromine) are moderate level disinfectants that disrupt the structure of proteins, particularly enzymes, and thereby arrest metabolic activity. Heavy metals are low level bacteriostatic and fungistatic agents that disrupt the activity of proteins, slowing metabolic activity. Oxidizing agents are high level antimicrobials that denature proteins and arrest metabolic activity. Phenolics are effective antimicrobials that damage proteins and disrupt lipid membranes, and are long lasting. Surfactants range in effectiveness from low level microbistatic soaps to more effective synthetic detergents like the quaternary ammonium compounds, which are microbicidal, disrupting cytoplasmic membranes. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.19 3) What is the in-use test, and why is it more useful than other methods of evaluating disinfectants? Answer: The in-use test is a method of evaluating antimicrobial agents such as disinfectants or antiseptics. It involves collecting specimens from objects that need to be disinfected, both before and after the disinfecting agent is applied. Then the specimens are inoculated into growth media, and the presence or absence of growth is an indicator of the effectiveness of the agent. The in-use test is regarded as an informative and useful test because it makes use of microbes that are actually found in the area of concern, and it gives a "real-life" picture of how the antimicrobial agent will work in that situation. Conversely, other tests, such as the disk-diffusion test or the use-dilution test, are not as useful because they rely on standardized conditions in a laboratory environment, and using test microbes that may or may not have any relation to the actual microbes that need to be targeted by the antimicrobial agent. Additionally, in some environments, many microbes form biofilms that can affect the activity of an antimicrobial agent, and these biofilms are not normally present in standardized testing procedures. Therefore, although the in-use test is not as convenient or quick as the other types of tests, it is regarded as more useful. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.30

4) Design an experiment to compare the effectiveness of a physical and a chemical method of disinfection. Answer: Answers will vary. Appropriate controls and methods should be included. An example is comparison of filtration and chlorine bleach. Prepare a culture of bacteria of known cell concentration. Divide into three samples. Sample # 1 is the positive control. Sample # 2 is filtered using a specified pore size filter (0.45 micron maximum pore size) and the filtrate collected into a sterile container. Chlorine bleach is added to Sample #3 following manufacturer's directions for dilution. The three samples are incubate, then the turbidity of each is measured to determine if growth is evident in the two treated samples compared to the untreated sample. Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.10, 9.19 5) A student is shopping for antibacterial hand cleansers and is trying to decide which one to buy. One is a "waterless" hand gel containing 70% isopropanol, the second is an "antibacterial" hand soap containing triclosan (a phenolic), and the third is a wipe that lists benzethonium chloride (a synthetic quaternary ammonium salt) as the active ingredient. Compare and contrast these cleansers in terms of the action of the antimicrobial ingredient and the level of disinfection (degerming, germistatic, germicidal). Answer: All three are germicidal, although not all to the same degree. The alcohol of the waterless hand cleaner is a germicide that disrupts cytoplasmic membranes and denatures proteins. It is not effective against bacterial endospores or fungal spores, and it has limited effect on nonenveloped viruses. The alcohol evaporates quickly, so the germicidal effect is short term. The waterless hand cleaner is an intermediate-level disinfectant and is not an effective degermer. The hand soap contains a phenolic, which also damages cytoplasmic membranes and denatures proteins, and is effective on the same range of microbes as the alcohol. Phenolics are intermediate-level disinfectants that persist on surfaces for long periods of time, providing extended disinfection. If used with running water and the hands are vigorously rubbed, the hand soap can be an effective degermer. Synthetic "quats" (quaternary ammonium compounds) disrupt cell membranes. They are effective against fungi, enveloped viruses, and most bacteria, but not against nonenveloped viruses, nor on endospores. Quats are low-level disinfectants that are germicidal for some microbes. The action of using and discarding the wipe provides some degerming effect. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.19

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 4e (Bauman) Chapter 10 Controlling Microbial Growth in the Body: Antimicrobial Drugs 10.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Broad-spectrum synthetic antimicrobials were discovered by A) Gerhard Domagk. B) Alexander Fleming. C) Paul Ehrlich. D) Selman Waksman. E) Joseph Lister. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The History of Antimicrobial Agents Learning Outcome: 10.1 2) An antimicrobial that inhibits cell wall synthesis will result in which of the following? A) Cells become more susceptible to osmotic pressure. B) Cells cannot attach to their hosts. C) Ribosomes lose their function. D) The sterols in the cell wall become nonfunctional. E) The replication of cells, including cancer cells, slows down. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.4 3) Beta-lactam antibiotics have an effect on which of the following types of cells? A) animal cells B) bacterial cells C) fungal cells D) virus-infected cells E) both animal and fungal cells Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.5

4) Which of the following is a primary advantage of semisynthetic drugs? A) They are less stable and consequently have fewer side effects. B) They work faster. C) They have a broader spectrum of action. D) They must be administered intravenously. E) They are not readily absorbed, so they persist longer. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.2 5) A medication which specifically targets cell walls that contain arabinogalactan-mycolic acid is A) vancomycin. B) penicillin. C) methicillin. D) isoniazid. E) bacitracin. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.5 6) Which of the following antibiotics disrupts cytoplasmic membrane function? A) streptomycin B) erythromycin C) tetracycline D) penicillin E) amphotericin B Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.7 7) A new antibacterial medication prevents the assembly of ribosomes on mRNA. The new medication would be A) an antisense RNA. B) a type of macrolide. C) a type of oxazolidinone. D) either an antisense RNA or a type of macrolide. E) either an antisense RNA or a type of oxazolidinone. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.6

This figure represents a Petri plate. The gray area is where bacteria A is growing. The black area is where bacteria B is growing. The white area is a zone where neither organism is growing. What is the best interpretation of what is observed on the plate? A) Bacteria B is producing an antibiotic that inhibits the growth of bacteria A. B) Bacteria A produces a compound that inhibits the growth of bacteria B. C) Bacteria A grows faster than bacteria B. D) Bacterial colony B has depleted the nutrients in the area around the colony. E) No conclusion can be made from this information. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: The History of Antimicrobial Agents Learning Outcome: 10.2 9) Which of the following types of antimicrobial agent has the narrowest spectrum of action? A) antivirals B) azoles C) sulphonamides D) erythromycins E) Both azoles and erythromycins have equally narrow spectrums of action. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.4 10) The first synthetic antimicrobial widely available for treatment of infections A) was an antimetabolite. B) was a nucleotide analog. C) was an attachment antagonist. D) disrupted cytoplasmic membranes. E) interfered with bacterial cell wall synthesis. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.4

11) In the compound lamivudine an -SH group replaces an -OH group found in cytosine. When used as a medication it will A) disrupt membrane structure. B) interfere with nucleic acid synthesis. C) interfere with protein synthesis. D) disrupt lipid membrane structure. E) interfere with cell wall synthesis. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.9, 10.11 12) Medications which should NOT be prescribed for a pregnant woman include A) penicillins. B) aminoglycosides. C) sulfonamides. D) tetracyclines. E) sulfonamides and tetracyclines. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.16 13) Which of the following can result when antibiotic therapy disrupts the normal microbiota? A) anaphylactic shock B) black hairy tongue C) pseudomembranous colitis D) thrush E) both pseudomembranous colitis and thrush Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.16 14) A compound is extracted from a microbial culture and is modified in the laboratory for use as an oral medication. This product would be a(n) A) antibiotic. B) analog. C) semisynthetic antimicrobial. D) synthetic antimicrobial. E) probiotic. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The History of Antimicrobial Agents Learning Outcome: 10.2

15) The CDC issued alerts about a bacterial strain known as NDM1 (New Delhi metalolactamase 1). What type of antibiotic resistance is indicated by the name? A) alteration of the target of the drug B) inactivation of the drug C) change in the permeability of the drug D) overproduction of an enzyme in a key metabolic pathway E) removal of the drug via a pump Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Resistance to Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.20 16) Bacillus licheniformis secretes a compound that inhibits the growth of other Gram-positive bacteria. This is an example of a(n) A) analog. B) antibiotic. C) chemotherapeutic. D) porin. E) toxin. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The History of Antimicrobial Agents Learning Outcome: 10.2 17) Most drugs that inhibit the synthesis of the cell wall act by A) preventing the cross-linkage of NAM subunits. B) blocking the secretion of cell wall molecules from the cytoplasm. C) preventing the formation of alanine-alanine bridges. D) disrupting the formation of the mycolic acid layer of the cell wall. E) preventing the formation of β-lactamases. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.5 18) Most broad-spectrum antibiotics act by A) inhibiting the synthesis of the cell wall. B) inhibiting protein synthesis. C) inhibiting nucleic acid synthesis. D) inhibiting metabolic pathways. E) disrupting the cytoplasmic membrane. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.6

19) A medication that inhibits synthesis of ergosterol would be effective in treating A) bacterial infections. B) Mycobacterial disease. C) protozoal infections. D) viral disease. E) fungal infections. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.7 20) A compound is structurally similar to PABA and inhibits folic acid synthesis. It is most likely a(n) A) nucleic acid analog. B) penicillin. C) tetracycline. D) azole. E) sulfonamide. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.8 21) Which of the following pathways is specifically inhibited by trimethoprim? A) the conversion of tetrahydrofolic acid to PABA B) the conversion of PABA to dihydrofolic acid C) the conversion of dihydrofolic acid to tetrahydrofolic acid D) the conversion of PABA to tetrahydrofolic acid E) the conversion of dihydrofolic acid to PABA Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.8 22) Inhibiters of DNA synthesis specifically effective on prokaryotes are A) quinolones. B) actinomycin. C) rifampin. D) tetracycline. E) 5-fluorocytosine. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.11

23) The cooperative activity of drugs such as beta-lactam antibiotics and clavulanic acid, a βlactamase inhibitor, is known as A) cross resistance. B) antimetabolism. C) synergism. D) selective toxicity. E) chemotherapy. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Resistance to Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.23 24) Alterations in the structure of which of the following are an important aspect of Gramnegative bacterial resistance to antimicrobial drugs? A) plasmids B) porins C) mitochondria D) cytoplasmic membrane E) ribosomes Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Resistance to Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.20 25) A sulfonamide and trimethoprim may be administered in combination to A) provide broad-spectrum action. B) inhibit multiple metabolic pathways. C) reduce relative toxicity. D) reduce development of antibiotic resistance. E) treat infections with microbes that require folic acid. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Resistance to Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.23 26) Who discovered the first antibiotic widely available to the general public? A) Domagk B) Ehrlich C) Fleming D) Waksman E) Ehrlich and Waksman Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The History of Antimicrobial Agents Learning Outcome: 10.1

27) Bacterial DNA replication requires the enzyme gyrase, but eukaryotic replication does not. Ciprofloxacin ("Cipro") inhibits gyrase activity. This is an example of A) antimicrobial resistance. B) use of an analog. C) synergism. D) an antimetabolite. E) selective toxicity. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.3 28) Synthetic antimicrobials that block protein synthesis by binding to the mRNA are A) aminoglycosides. B) antisense nucleic acids. C) macrolides. D) beta-lactams. E) nucleic acid analogs. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.6 29) The E-test determines which of the following? A) susceptibility B) MBC (minimum bactericidal concentration) C) MIC (minimum inhibitory concentration) D) both susceptibility and MIC (minimum inhibitory concentration) E) both MBC (minimum bactericidal concentration) and MIC (minimum inhibitory concentration) Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.14 30) The therapeutic range of an antimicrobial is the A) ratio of the dose a patient can tolerate to the effective dose. B) range of microorganisms the antimicrobial effects. C) range of concentrations at which the antimicrobial is both effective and non-toxic. D) ratio of the concentration of antimicrobial in the blood to the oral dose. E) length of time the medication persists in the body after a single dose. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.17

31) Which of the following interferes with cell wall synthesis by blocking alanine bridge formation? A) beta-lactams B) cycloserine C) bacitracin D) vancomycin E) both cycloserine and vancomycin Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.5 32) Antimicrobial sugar analogs are effective for A) preventing bacterial protein synthesis. B) preventing cell membrane synthesis. C) preventing virus attachment. D) preventing nucleic acid synthesis. E) blocking a metabolic pathway. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.12 33) Which of the following is measured in the broth dilution test? A) the zone of inhibition B) lack of turbidity C) cell lysis D) lack of turbidity and zone of inhibition E) presence of turbidity and cell lysis Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.14 34) Infection of the would be the hardest to treat with antimicrobial drugs. A) heart B) kidneys C) liver D) brain E) colon Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.15

35) Disruption of the normal microbiota can result in infections caused by which of the following microbes? A) Mycobacterium B) Candida albicans C) Clostridium difficile D) both Mycobacterium and Clostridium difficile E) Candida albicans, Mycobacterium, and Clostridium difficile Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.13 36) The β-lactams are narrow spectrum antibacterials because A) they block a synthetic step unique to the Gram-positive bacteria. B) they are analogs for a compound metabolized only by Gram-negative bacteria. C) the outer membrane prevents their entry into cells. D) they are analogs for a unique cell membrane lipid. E) the thick peptidoglycan walls prevent their entry into cells. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.13 37) How does resistance to drugs spread in bacterial populations? A) Exposure to drugs causes mutations in bacterial genes. B) Horizontal gene transfer between bacteria spreads R (resistance) plasmids. C) The formation of biofilms protects bacteria from the effects of drugs. D) Both horizontal gene transfer and the growth of biofilms spread drug resistance. E) Exposure to drugs alters gene expression in bacteria. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Resistance to Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.21 38) The mechanism of action of the antibiotic vancomycin is A) inhibition of protein synthesis. B) inhibition of cell wall synthesis. C) inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis. D) inhibition of a metabolic pathway. E) disruption of cytoplasmic membranes. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.5

39) Several antiviral medications used to treat HIV interfere with A) nucleic acid synthesis. B) protein synthesis. C) assembly of membranes. D) folic acid synthesis. E) cell wall synthesis. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.9 40) Pentamidine is an example of an antimicrobial that A) disrupts cytoplasmic membranes. B) inhibits cell wall synthesis. C) binds to DNA. D) inhibits metabolic pathways. E) binds to ribosomes. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.11 41) The mechanism of action of erythromycin is A) inhibition of protein synthesis. B) inhibition of cell wall synthesis. C) inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis. D) inhibition of a metabolic pathway. E) disruption of cytoplasmic membranes. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.6 42) Antiviral medications can best be described as A) broad spectrum antimicrobials. B) extremely narrow spectrum antimicrobials. C) antibiotics produced by bacteria. D) synthetic antimicrobials. E) extremely narrow spectrum synthetic antimicrobials. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.13

43) Ribavirin is an antiviral that interferes with A) protein synthesis. B) cell wall synthesis. C) cell membrane component synthesis. D) nucleic acid synthesis. E) viral attachment. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.10 44) The antimicrobial polymyxin is primarily effective for treating superficial infections with A) Staphylococcus bacteria. B) fungi. C) viruses. D) Gram-negative bacteria. E) any bacteria. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.7 45) Drug-resistant populations of microbes arise when A) exposure to drugs selectively kills sensitive cells, allowing overgrowth of resistant cells. B) exposure to drugs causes mutations that produce resistance. C) resistant cells become numerous in a population due to their greater vigor. D) the patient becomes immune to the drug. E) synergy between medications occurs. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Resistance to Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.18 10.2 True/False Questions 1) Paul Ehrlich coined the term antibiotics for the "magic bullet" antimicrobials he pursued. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The History of Antimicrobial Agents Learning Outcome: 10.1 2) Antisense nucleic acids are designed to have no side effects against humans. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.6 12

3) Nucleic acid analog drugs act by inhibiting ribosome function. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.9 4) A side effect known as "black hairy tongue" may result from antifungal therapy. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.16 5) R-plasmids are extrachromosomal DNAs that contain genes for antimicrobial resistance. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Resistance to Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.19 6) Some bacterial cells are resistant to a variety of antimicrobials because they actively pump the drugs out of the cell. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Resistance to Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.20 7) The outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria enables many antimicrobial drugs to enter the cell more easily. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.20 8) If a subculture of an MIC test grows in an MBC test, the concentration of the drug was bactericidal. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.14 9) Medications administered intravenously can provide much higher effective concentrations than other delivery methods. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.15

10) A compound that slows the activity of efflux pumps, when administered with an antibiotic which requires high concentration to be effective, the combination is highly effective for treating bacterial infections. This is an example of synergy. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Resistance to Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.23 10.3 Short Answer Questions 1) While not the first person to discover antibiotics (Domagk/Fleming/Waksman) discovered the sources of many useful antibiotics. Answer: Waksman Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The History of Antimicrobial Agents Learning Outcome: 10.1 2) Selective (toxicity/action/treatment) means that a given antimicrobial agent is more toxic to a pathogen than to the host being treated. Answer: toxicity Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.3 3) Nucleotide or nucleoside (analogs/antisense/acids) are antimicrobial agents that mimic the chemical structure of DNA building blocks. Answer: analogs Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.9 4) The majority of broad spectrum antibacterial medications inhibit (DNA/protein/RNA) synthesis. Answer: protein Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.13 5) Secondary infections that result from the killing of some of the normal microbiota are called (antagonism/superinfections/resistance). Answer: superinfections Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.13

6) Competition between beneficial microbes and potential pathogens is called microbial (synergy/antagonism). Answer: antagonism Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.13 7) A (bacteriostatic/bacteriocidal/minimum) concentration of a drug is one at which microbes survive but are not able to grow and reproduce. Answer: bacteriostatic Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.14 8) The action of some antivirals prevent (attachment/synthesis/uncoating), an event shortly after entry of the virus into the cell. Answer: uncoating Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.10 9) Some bacteria develop resistance to groups of drugs because the drugs are all structurally similar to each other; this is a phenomenon known as (cross/multiple) resistance. Answer: cross Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Resistance to Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.22 10) Second-generation drugs are semisynthetic drugs developed to combat (immunity/resistance) against an existing drug. Answer: resistance Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Resistance to Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.23 11) Drugs that slow bacterial growth would be (competitive/synergistic/antagonistic) to penicillin. Answer: antagonistic Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Resistance to Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.4, 10.23

12) External infections can be treated by (surface/topical) administration, in which a drug is applied directly to the site of infection. Answer: topical Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.15 13) The abbreviation (MIC/MID/MBC) stands for the smallest amount of a drug that will inhibit the growth and reproduction of a pathogen. Answer: MIC Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.14 14) Antiviral medications frequently block unique (proteins/enzymes/molecules) to prevent production of new virus. Answer: enzymes Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.10 15) Macrolides inhibit protein synthesis by blocking (catalysis/binding/movement) of the ribosome. Answer: movement Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.6

10.4 Essay Questions 1) Why can microbial resistance to antibiotics and other drugs be considered a primarily genetic phenomenon? Answer: Microbial resistance is considered a genetic phenomenon because there are two major ways that bacteria acquire resistance: through mutations of chromosomal genes or through acquisition of new genes carried on R-plasmids. In both cases, the cell gains the ability to resist the activity of a particular drug through the modified structure or activity of proteins that are coded for by the genes in question. For example, some of these altered proteins can be cytoplasmic membrane proteins or porin proteins that no longer allow a drug such as penicillin to enter the cell. Also, some of the proteins coded for by these genes may be enzymes of various sorts that serve to inactivate a particular drug, such as the inactivation of beta-lactam antibiotics by β-lactamases. Furthermore, these altered genes and proteins are then heritable by the offspring of the cell that acquired the resistance, leading quickly to entire populations of bacteria or other microbes that are resistant to a drug. When selective pressure is then brought to bear (through the administration of a particular drug) on a population that contains both susceptible and resistant cells, the result is that the susceptible cells die off, leaving the resistant cells to grow and flourish. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Resistance to Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.19, 10.20 2) Discuss the cellular factors that might make a drug's spectrum of action narrow rather than broad. Answer: When a drug is labeled "narrow-spectrum," meaning that it has activity against only a limited number of microbes, generally the reason is that many microbes possess some form of natural resistance against the drug. For example, many drugs work better against Gram-positive organisms than Gram-negative ones because Gram-negative cells possess an outer membrane that does not allow these drugs to enter the cell as readily as they enter Gram-positive cells. Other cellular factors that can have an effect on the spectrum of action of a particular drug include the presence of R-plasmids in the cell that carries resistance genes, the presence of altered cytoplasmic membrane or cell wall proteins that prevent the passage of some types of drugs, and alterations in a cell's metabolic pathways, which can make the cell more resistant to certain types of drugs. Other antimicrobials have a narrow spectrum of action because they target a metabolic or structural feature unique to a single pathogen or small group of pathogens. One example of this type of narrow-spectrum antimicrobial is antisense RNA, which complements a specific nucleotide sequence that may be present in only one pathogen. Another example is isonizid which blocks the synthesis of a cell wall component unique to the Mycoplasmas. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.13

3) A recent publication from the CDC contained the following statement: "Carbapenem-resistant Enterobacteriaceae (CRE) are pathogens that have emerged in the United States as a serious public health threat. They are resistant to almost all drugs, difficult to treat, and are associated with high death rates (up to 40% in some studies)." The bacteria referred to as CRE are Gram-negative bacteria that are frequently part of the normal microbiota. Discuss some of the reasons for the high level of concern about CREs. Answer: Answers will vary; good answers will address multiple factors that contribute to the serious threat of CREs. To begin with, Gram-negative bacteria have natural resistance to the many antibiotics that do not cross the outer LPS membrane. Treatment of infections with Gramnegative bacteria can result in the release of the endotoxin Lipid A, which can severely exacerbate the infection by causing additional problems. Bacteria that can exist as part of the microbiota may be under frequent selection for antibiotic resistance when people take antibiotics for infections. Survival as part of the microbiota may contribute to people carrying and spreading CREs without signs of disease for a period of time. These bacteria may spread their multidrug resistance to other true and potential pathogens by means of conjugation. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Resistance to Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.21

Examine the diffusion susceptibility plate results shown in this figure. Propose an explanation for the appearance of the zone around the S/10 disk, and discuss the implications for therapeutic use of this antibiotic for the pathogen tested. Answer: The zone of inhibition is smallest around the S/10 disk and less distinct than the other zones. The small zone indicates the antibiotic may only be effective at very high concentrations. Using antibiotics at high concentration is not desirable if alternatives are available. The hazy appearance of the zone suggests the antibiotic is only slowing the growth, not inhibiting it entirely. Both the need for high concentration and the possibility the antibiotic does not fully inhibit the growth mean antibiotic S should not be considered for treatment of this infection. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.14

5) A newly discovered prokaryote produces a compound with promising antimicrobial effects. Devise a set of tests to determine whether the antimicrobial is broad or narrow spectrum and bactericidal or bacteriostatic. Answer: Answers will vary somewhat, but the following includes elements which should be present. The spectrum of action can be determined by testing the antimicrobial against representatives of the various groups of pathogenic bacteria: Gram positives such as Staphylococcus, Streptococcus and Bacillus, members of the Gram-negative Enterobacteriaceae and other Gram-negative bacteria (Neisseria for example), mycobacteria and chlamydias. These tests might be done on broth cultures as MIC tests, or plate cultures as Etests. One or more broad spectrum antibiotics should be included as controls. Once susceptible microbes have been identified, MBC tests can be conducted to determine whether the antimicrobial is bacteriostatic or bactericidal. Appropriate controls should be included. Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.13, 10.14

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 4e (Bauman) Chapter 11 Characterizing and Classifying Prokaryotes 11.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Pleomorphic bacteria A) have a slightly curved rod shape. B) are flexible. C) reproduce by snapping division. D) are roughly spherical. E) vary in size and shape. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: General Characteristics of Prokaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 11.1 2) Cocci which divide along alternating planes may stick together to form A) tetrads. B) palisades. C) streptococci. D) sarcinae. E) staphylococci. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: General Characteristics of Prokaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 11.5 3)

The arrangement represented in the figure is typical of which of the following genera of bacteria? A) Bacillus B) Corynebacterium C) Escherichia D) Actinomyces E) Streptococcus Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: General Characteristics of Prokaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 11.5 1

4) What bacterial structure is responsible for separating the daughter DNA molecules after replication? A) cross wall B) cytoplasmic membrane C) fimbria D) spindle E) cytoskeleton Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: General Characteristics of Prokaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 11.3 5) When conditions become inhospitable, members of the genus Clostridium produce an internal durable, dormant form by the process of A) binary fission. B) sporulation. C) conjugation. D) budding. E) vegetation. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: General Characteristics of Prokaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 11.2 6) Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology contains A) classification schemes for prokaryotes. B) treatments for bacterial diseases. C) recipes for bacterial growth media. D) genetic sequences of prokaryotes. E) rules for naming new bacterial species. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Modern Prokaryotic Classification Learning Outcome: 11.6 7) Which of the following characteristics distinguish(es) the archaea from the bacteria? A) cell wall composition B) 16S ribosomal RNA (rRNA) sequences C) the deoxyribonucleotides in the DNA D) cytoplasmic membrane lipids E) cell wall composition, cytoplasmic membrane lipids, and 16S rRNA sequences Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Archaea Learning Outcome: 11.8

8) The archaea known as halophiles A) require temperatures above 45∘C to survive. B) require salt concentrations of 9% or greater to survive. C) are members of the phylum Euryarchaeota. D) are members of the Euryarchaeota and require temperatures above 45∘C. E) are members of the Euryarchaeota and require salt concentrations above 9%. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Archaea Learning Outcome: 11.9 9) Some obligately anaerobic can be used to produce electricity. A) thermophiles B) halophiles C) cyanobacteria D) methanogens E) hyperthermophiles Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Archaea Learning Outcome: 11.10

are used in sewage treatment, and produce a fuel that

10) Which of the following types of microbes might be found in a boiling hot spring? A) hyperthermophiles B) phototrophic bacteria C) methanogens D) actinomycetes E) halophiles Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Archaea Learning Outcome: 11.9 11) The are autotrophs which live in anaerobic environments thought to be similar to conditions on the early Earth, and may have diverged from other bacteria far back in time. A) deeply branching bacteria B) cyanobacteria C) mycoplasmas D) thermophiles E) proteobacteria Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.11

12) Many cyanobacteria carry out both oxygenic photosynthesis and nitrogen fixation, but oxygen inhibits nitrogen fixation. How do these cyanobacteria manage both processes? A) They produce cells called akinetes for photosynthesis. B) They trap the oxygen in special cells called heterocysts. C) Nitrogen fixation is sequestered in special cells called heterocysts. D) They have special membranous structures like chloroplasts to separate the processes within the cell. E) The processes are seasonal; photosynthesis occurs in summer and nitrogen fixation takes place in winter. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.12 13) Phototrophic bacteria that use chlorophyll a are in the phylum A) Chlorobi. B) Chloroflexi. C) Cyanobacteria. D) Proteobacteria. E) Actinobacteria. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.12 14) Bacteria described as "Low G + C" A) are Gram-negative Cyanobacteria. B) include filamentous Actinomycetes. C) have DNA composed of more than 50% AT pairs. D) have unmethylated GC DNA. E) Gram stain pink and are cocci. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.15 15) The Gram-positive obligate anaerobe A) Bacillus anthracis B) Clostridium botulinum C) Clostridium perfringens D) Clostridium difficile E) Selenomonas Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.14

causes a severe diarrhea.

16) Mycoplasmas are pleomorphic because they A) have no cell walls. B) are low G + C content Gram-positive bacteria. C) exhibit snapping division. D) have sterols in their cytoplasmic membranes. E) produce endospores. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.13 17) The current taxonomy of the bacteria as described in Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology A) is universally agreed upon. B) is based largely on physical and metabolic characteristics. C) is primarily based on genetic sequences. D) can be considered complete. E) includes three domains. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Modern Prokaryotic Classification Learning Outcome: 11.7 18) Low G + C bacilli in the genus A) Staphylococcus B) Listeria C) Lactobacillus D) Mycobacterium E) Corynebacterium Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.14

are beneficial to humans as probiotics.

19) The psychrophilic Gram-positive bacillus white blood cells. A) Clostridium perfringens B) Listeria monocytogenes C) Enterococcus D) Bacillus polymyxa E) Corynebacterium diphtheriae Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.14

can become an intracellular parasite of

20) High G + 6 C Gram-positive filamentous bacteria of the genus diverse range of environmental contaminants. A) Actinomyces B) Streptomyces C) Corynebacterium D) Rhizobium E) Nocardia Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.17

are capable of metabolizing a

21) A soil sample dilution spread on a plate containing carbohydrate-based medium yields a wide variety of colonies. One colony has no other bacterial colonies growing near it. Further investigation reveals the bacteria in the colony are Gram-positive and filamentous. The bacteria in the colony may be a member of the genus A) Acetobacter. B) Bacillus. C) Enterococcus. D) Pseudomonas. E) Streptomyces. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.17 22) What feature of mycobacteria is responsible for the unusually slow growth of these bacteria? A) Their low tolerance for oxygen retards their growth. B) They cannot fully metabolize carbohydrates and must rely on fermentation. C) They have limited numbers of ribosomes so protein production is slow. D) The mycolic acid in their cell walls requires signification metabolic investment. E) They lack a cell wall and are extremely fragile. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.16 23) A large number of Gram-negative human pathogens are members of the A) alphaproteobacteria. B) betaproteobacteria. C) gammaproteobacteria. D) deltaproteobacteria. E) epsilonproteobacteria. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension 6

Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.23 24) A Gram stain of a tissue sample from a patient shows Gram-negative spheres that can barely be resolved on the best light microscope. A transmission electron micrograph reveals the spheres have a double membrane but no cell wall. The intracellular parasites are likely to be a A) Listeria. B) Mycoplasma. C) Chlamydia. D) Coxiella. E) Rickettsia. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.27 25) A microbiologist observes what appears to be a pink-staining long rod within the periplasmic space of a Gram-negative bacillus. What is this structure likely to be? A) Bdellovibrio B) Chlamydia C) Rickettsia D) a heterocyst E) an endospore Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.26 26) Unusual cellular extensions called prosthecae are associated with which of the following groups of proteobacteria? A) alpha B) beta C) gamma D) delta E) epsilon Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.18

27) Which of the following bacterial genera plays an important role in environmental nitrogen cycles? A) Nitrobacter B) Rhizobium C) Azospirillum D) both Nitrobacter and Rhizobium E) Nitrobacter, Rhizobium, and Azospirillum Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.19, 11.20 28) A field biologist finds what might be a new species of prokaryote in sewage sludge. It is an obligate anaerobe that metabolizes organic acids and requires hydrogen gas. It lacks a peptidoglycan cell wall. The new find may be a A) methanogen. B) mycoplasma. C) bacteroides. D) clostridium. E) cyanobacterium. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Survey of Archaea Learning Outcome: 11.10 29) Classification of bacteria into different phyla is based on comparisons involving which of the following? A) DNA sequences B) cell wall composition C) protein sequences D) both DNA and protein sequences E) DNA and protein sequences, as well as cell wall composition Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Modern Prokaryotic Classification Learning Outcome: 11.6 30) Which of the following bacteria oxidize ammonia (NH3) to produce nitrate (NO3)? A) Nitrobacter B) Azospirillum C) Nocardia D) Cyanobacter E) Rhizobium Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.20 8

31) Aerobic free-living Gram-negative bacilli in the phylum Proteobacteria that are capable of metabolizing a wide range of organic compounds are members of the genus A) Cytophagia. B) Salmonella. C) Pseudomonas. D) Rickettsia. E) Vibrio. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.23 32) The production of large masses of bacteria and organic materials (flocs) that settle out of solution make useful in sewage treatment. A) Burkholderia B) Thiobacillus C) Neisseria D) Zoogloea E) Nitrosomonas Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.22 33) A flexible, spiral-shaped bacterium is called a A) spirochete. B) vibrio. C) coccobacillus. D) spirillum. E) sarcina. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: General Characteristics of Prokaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 11.5 34) The "giant" bacterium Epulopiscium reproduces by means of A) binary fission. B) snapping division. C) budding. D) sexual reproduction. E) viviparity. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: General Characteristics of Prokaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 11.3 9

35) Pleomorphic Gram-negative members of the Firmicutes that colonize mammalian respiratory mucous membranes are the A) Actinobacteria. B) mycoplasmas. C) clostridia. D) Rickettsias. E) mycobacteria. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.13 36) The anaerobic Clostridium species are troublesome pathogens in part because of their capacity for A) endospore production. B) rapid reproduction. C) oxygen production. D) biofilm production. E) high salt tolerance. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: General Characteristics of Prokaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 11.14 37) Prokaryotes of the genus Pyrodictium are A) endospore formers. B) intracellular parasites. C) members of the deeply branching bacteria. D) halophiles. E) thermophiles. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Survey of Archaea Learning Outcome: 11.9 38) The Gram-negative diplococci are pathogenic members of the betaproteobacteria that infect mammalian mucous membranes. A) Streptococcus B) Coxiella C) Neisseria D) Listeria E) Haemophilus Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.22 10

39) Gram negative facultative anaerobes that metabolize carbohydrates via glycolysis are members of the A) alphaproteobacteria. B) betaproteobacteria. C) deltaproteobacteria. D) epsilonproteobacteria. E) gammaproteobacteria. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.24 40) The Gram-positive coccus grows in irregular clusters, and is frequently found in the human nasal cavity. When it invades other parts of the body it can cause serious disease. A) Escherichia coli B) Helicobacter pylori C) Clostridium perfringens D) Bacillus thuringiensis E) Staphylococcus aureus Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.14 41) A species of the genus Streptococcus is the leading cause of A) tuberculosis. B) urinary tract infections. C) contaminated milk and meat. D) "flesh-eating" bacterial infections. E) food poisoning from rice. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.14 42) The genus Mycobacterium includes species responsible for A) tuberculosis. B) urinary tract infections. C) food poisoning from contaminated dairy products. D) gastric ulcers. E) food poisoning from rice. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.17

43) Gram-negative nitrogen-fixing bacteria found in association with plant roots are A) alphaproteobacteria. B) betaproteobacteria. C) cyanobacteria. D) gammaproteobacteria. E) deeply branching bacteria. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.25 44) Members of the genus Chlamydia are A) thermophiles. B) intracellular parasites. C) classified with the deeply branching bacteria. D) endospore-formers. E) Gram-positive bacteria. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.27 45) Rocky Mountain spotted fever is caused by Gram-negative tiny bacilli that are intracellular parasites. They are in the genus A) Acetobacter. B) Coxiella. C) Enterococcus. D) Bordetella. E) Rickettsia. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.21 11.2 True/False Questions 1) The majority of archaea are extremophiles. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Survey of Archaea Learning Outcome: 11.8 2) When an endospore germinates, it gives rise to two daughter cells called vegetative cells. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: General Characteristics of Prokaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 11.2 12

3) Members of the Streptomyces are environmentally important because they can degrade a wide range of compounds including lignin from trees, chitin and keratin from animals, and latex. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.17 4) Halophiles grow equally well in the presence or absence of high salt concentrations. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Archaea Learning Outcome: 11.9 5) All taxonomists are in agreement about the taxonomic scheme set forth in Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.7 6) Cocci can be spherical as well as kidney-shaped. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: General Characteristics of Prokaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 11.1 7) Some strains of Staphylococcus aureus can invade the body and cause diseases such as pneumonia and bacteremia. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.14 8) Mycoplasmas are named for the large quantities of mycolic acid in their cell walls. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.13 9) Most of the methane produced by methanogens is oxidized by other types of bacteria before it affects the Earth's climate. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.10 13

10) Myxobacteria exhibit traits, such as cooperation and differentiation, not normally observed in prokaryotes. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.26 11.3 Short Answer Questions 1) The process by which a bacterial cell produces an endospore is called (endosporing/sporulation/vegetation). Answer: sporulation Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: General Characteristics of Prokaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 11.2 2) The most common form of reproduction among prokaryotes is (snapping/budding/binary) fission. Answer: binary Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Survey of Archaea Learning Outcome: 11.3 3) The rod-shaped (rickettsias/chlamydias/brucella) are intracellular parasitic members of the alphaproteobacteria. Answer: rickettsias Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.21 4) Some members of the alphaproteobacteria produce a structure called a (prosthecae/pilus/filament) to produce extra surface area for nutrient absorption. Answer: prosthecae Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.18 5)

This bacterial shape is called (bacillus/vibrio/rod). Answer: vibrio Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: General Characteristics of Prokaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 11.1

6) The G + C content is a(n) (RNA/structural/genetic) determination used in classifying the different taxa of Gram-positive bacteria. Answer: genetic Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.15 7) The (streptobacilli/actinomycetes/mycoplasmas) are a group of Gram-positive bacteria that form branching filaments resembling those of fungi. Answer: actinomycetes Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.17 8) The genus of pathogenic cocci responsible for a wide range of human disease and whose members grow in chains is (Staphylococcus/Streptococcus/Enterococcus). Answer: Streptococcus Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.14 9) The members of the (alphaproteobacteria/gammaproteobacteria/actinomycetes) may alternate between a flagellated motile stage and a nonmotile stage attached by means of a prosthecae. Answer: alphaproteobacteria Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.18 10) The reduction of nitrogen gas to ammonia is called nitrogen (fixation/cycling). Answer: fixation Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.12

11)11)

The arrangement shown in the figure is characteristic of (Actinomycetes/Caulobacter/Myxobacteria/Planctomyces) cells. (Use genus or taxon name.) Answer: Caulobacter Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.26 12) Plant tumors caused by Agrobacterium infections are called (galls/heterocysts). Answer: galls Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.21 13) The (bacilli/Lactobacilli/bacteroids) are a group of Gram-negative bacteria that include obligate anaerobes normally found in the intestinal tracts of animals and humans. Answer: bacteroids Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.28 14) The infective stage of chlamydia is called the (elementary/initial) body. Answer: elementary Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.27 15) Burkholderia is a common (true/opportunistic) pathogen of patients with cystic fibrosis. Answer: opportunistic Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.22 16

11.4 Essay Questions 1) Will is a graduate student working in a microbiology lab. He is given the task of characterizing a newly discovered nitrogen fixing bacterium. What type of tests or observations will help him determine whether it is a member of the Cyanobacteria, alphaproteobacteria or gammaproteobacteria? Answer: If the bacteria are coccus or disc-shaped, and carry out photosynthesis, it is likely a member of the cyanobacteria. Bacteria that are free-living nitrogen fixers are probably gammaproteobacteria. If the bacteria were found on or in the roots of plants they are probably alphaproteobacteria. Determining the sequence of the bacterium's ribosomal RNAs and comparing them to known sequences should verify the assignment. Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.12, 11.25 2) Compare and contrast methanogens and methane oxidizers, including their roles in the environment. Answer: Methanogens are archaea (in the phylum Euryarchaeota), and methane oxidizers are bacteria of the phylum Proteobacteria, so they are fundamentally different in all the ways these two domains differ. The methanogens produce methane gas from organic materials, and the bacterial methane oxidizers metabolize methane gas to produce organic compounds and cellular energy. Both types of prokaryotes live in anaerobic environments and often grow in proximity to each other. Thus their metabolic activities with respect to methane are complementary and contribute to recycling of biomolecules. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.10, 10.20 3) Nitrogen is frequently a limiting nutrient even though the atmosphere of the planet consists mostly of nitrogen. Discuss the prokaryotes described in this chapter which have roles in the availability and cycling of nitrogen in the biosphere. Answer: Some members of the phylum Cyanobacteria are able to fix nitrogen, that is, convert nitrogen gas (N2) to ammonia (NH3) in large enough quantity that other organisms benefit. Three genera of the Alphaproteobacteria also fix nitrogen:Azospirillum, Rhizobium, and Rhodopseudomonas. They grow in association with plant roots and share the ammonia with their plant hosts. Members of the gammaproteobacteria, Azotobacter and Azomonas, also fix nitrogen, but they do not associate with plant roots. Nitrification is the process of oxidizing ammonia to nitrate. Nitrosomonas are members of the betaproteobacteria important in the process of nitrification. These bacteria oxidize ammonia to nitrite (NO2). Nitrobacter and other members of the Alphaproteobacteria complete the process of nitrification by oxidizing nitrite (NO2) to nitrate (NO3). Nitrate moves through soil more easily than ammonia and can be taken up and used by many plants. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.12, 11.19, 11.20, 11.22, 11.25 17

4) Describe the similarities and differences observed among phototrophic bacteria. Answer: All major groups of bacteria contain phototrophic bacteria, which includes the cyanobacteria and the green and purple phototrophic bacteria. All phototrophic bacteria are structurally similar in that they use photosynthetic lamellae that contain the photosynthetic pigments necessary for photosynthesis. However, the type of photosynthetic pigment used differs among these groups. For example, cyanobacteria contain chlorophyll a, whereas the green and purple photosynthetic bacteria use bacteriochlorophyll. The type of photosynthesis differs as well: cyanobacteria engage in oxygenic photosynthesis, whereas the green and purple bacteria are anoxygenic. Finally, most phototrophic bacteria are autotrophic, although they differ in the ways they obtain electrons for the reduction of CO2; most notably, the sulfur bacteria oxidize hydrogen sulfide to obtain electrons for CO2 reduction. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.12, 11.19 5) Explain the significance of endospores. Answer: Because an endospore can regenerate the cell that produced it, these bacterial structures are an important survival mechanism for some bacteria, as well as an important method of transmitting diseases caused by these bacteria. For example, because they are hard to destroy, endospores can be a source of diseases that are caused by anaerobic organisms, such as tetanus and botulism, or that are transmitted over long distances and times, such as anthrax. Endospores can also survive for indefinite periods of time; the minimum documented durability of endospores is 34 years, but there is some evidence to suggest that endospores may be able to survive for millions of years. Endospores are this resistant because they have a special protective coating and go through a process called sporulation, in which a copy of the cell's genome is prepared for long-term "storage" inside the endospore. This makes endospores a special challenge in sterilization applications. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: General Characteristics of Prokaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 11.2

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 4e (Bauman) Chapter 12 Characterizing and Classifying Eukaryotes 12.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Eukaryotic sexual reproduction requires the process known as A) meiosis. B) mitosis. C) schizogony. D) binary fission. E) budding. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 12.1 2) Replication of the DNA occurs during A) metaphase. B) prophase. C) telophase. D) anaphase. E) interphase. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 12.2 3) Sister chromatids separate and move toward the poles of the cell during A) telophase B) anaphase C) metaphase D) interphase E) prophase Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 12.2

of mitosis.

4) An aligned pair of homologous chromosomes is called a A) chromatid. B) spindle. C) tetrad. D) coenocyte. E) gamete. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 12.3 5) Which of the following pairs is MISMATCHED? A) animals; usually diploid B) fungi; usually diploid C) protozoa; usually diploid D) slime mold; usually haploid E) plants; usually diploid Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 12.5 6) Sister chromatids separate during of meiosis. A) anaphase I B) prophase II C) metaphase II D) anaphase II E) telophase I Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 12.3 7) Which of the following statements regarding meiosis is MOST accurate? A) Crossing over occurs during metaphase I. B) A diploid cell produces haploid daughter cells. C) Haploid cells produce diploid cells. D) Homologous (non-sister) chromatids separate during anaphase II. E) Meiosis has the same number of stages as mitosis. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 12.3

8) Recombination of genetic material between homologous chromosomes occurs during A) prophase of mitosis. B) early prophase I of meiosis. C) late prophase II of meiosis. D) metaphase of mitosis. E) metaphase I of meiosis. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 12.3 9) Which of the following pairs is MISMATCHED? A) Paramecium; two nuclei B) Entamoeba; pseudopodia C) Plasmodium; merozoites D) Euglena; flagellum E) Toxoplasma; cilia Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Protozoa Learning Outcome: 12.10 10) In the taxonomic system developed by Linnaeus, A) single-celled Alveolata B) multicellular fungi C) unicellular algae D) both unicellular algae and fungi E) both unicellular Alveolata and fungi. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Protozoa Learning Outcome: 12.5 11) Single-celled eukaryotes lacking a cell wall are A) protozoa. B) fungi. C) algae. D) insects. E) water molds. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Protozoa Learning Outcome: 12.7

were classified as Animalia.

12) The is the entire interwoven mass of one multicellular fungal organism. A) hyphae B) sporangium C) mycelium D) pseudoplasmodium E) conidiophore Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Fungi Learning Outcome: 12.16 13) A single-celled eukaryote with two nuclei and cilia are classified as A) Alveolata. B) Amoebazoa. C) Apicomplexa. D) Diplomonadida. E) Euglenozoa. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Protozoa Learning Outcome: 12.10 14) A single-celled eukaryote that is both photosynthetic and a chemoheterotroph is a(n) A) apicomplexan. B) dinoflagellate. C) euglenid. D) ciliate. E) kinetoplastid. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Protozoa Learning Outcome: 12.9 15) Which of the following is a protozoan with two nuclei and no mitochondria? A) Plasmodium B) Paramecium C) Euglena D) Giardia E) Trichomonas Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Protozoa Learning Outcome: 12.13

16) Protozoa that have a single large mitochondrion and are found living in animals are A) ciliates. B) amoebae. C) dinoflagellates. D) kinetoplastids. E) parabasalids. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Protozoa Learning Outcome: 12.9 17) Which of the following types of protozoa contribute to limestone formation in their fossilized state? A) foraminiferans B) euglenids C) diplomonads D) ciliates E) amoebae Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Protozoa Learning Outcome: 12.11 18) The asexual spores of molds are classified according to their A) size. B) type of metabolism. C) number of chromosomes. D) shapes. E) mode of development. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Fungi Learning Outcome: 12.17 19) Which of the following is a cell type produced during sexual reproduction in fungi? A) sporangiospore B) dikaryon C) haustoria D) pneumocyst E) mycorrhiza Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Fungi Learning Outcome: 12.17

20) Asexual reproduction within a hypha produces A) ascospores. B) basidiospores. C) chlamydospores. D) sporangiospores. E) zygospores. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Fungi Learning Outcome: 12.18 21) Sac-like chambers at the ends of hyphae that fill with asexual spores are characteristic of A) Ascomycota. B) Basidiomycota. C) Deutreromycetes. D) Rhizaria. E) Zygomycota. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Fungi Learning Outcome: 12.18 22) Which of the following is a dinoflagellate whose toxin causes possible estuary-associated syndrome (PEAS)? A) Gymnodinium B) Gonyaulax C) Balantidium D) Toxoplasma E) Pfiesteria Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Protozoa Learning Outcome: 12.10 23) In what way do algae differ from plants? A) They carry out photosynthesis with pigments other than chlorophyll a. B) All cells in their sexual reproductive structures become gametes. C) They have cell walls composed of carbohydrate. D) All algae are unicellular. E) They carry out anoxygenic photosynthesis. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Algae Learning Outcome: 12.23

24) Soil is produced from rock by the action of A) algae. B) fungi. C) lichens. D) mites. E) radiolarians. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Fungi Learning Outcome: 12.22 25) Algae containing carotene and laminarin are classified as A) Chrysophyta. B) Chlorophyta. C) Phaeophyta. D) Rhodophyta. E) Alveolata. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Algae Learning Outcome: 12.25 26) Lichens are composed of a symbiosis of fungi and which of the following? A) green algae B) cyanobacteria C) euglenoids D) cyanobacteria or green algae E) euglenoids or dinoflagellates Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Fungi Learning Outcome: 12.21 27) A plasmodium is a coenocytic structure associated with A) slime molds. B) yeast. C) water molds. D) green algae. E) amoebae. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Protozoa Learning Outcome: 12.12

28) A material useful in microbiological media is derived from A) Chrysophyta. B) Chlorophyta. C) Phaeophyta. D) Rhodophyta. E) Stramenopila. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Fungi Learning Outcome: 12.26 29) Which of the following organisms are directly beneficial to vascular plants? A) euglenids B) kinetoplastids C) mycorrhizae D) lichens E) water molds Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Fungi Learning Outcome: 12.15 30) Termites are dependent on protozoa of the genus A) Trichonympha. B) Nosema. C) Trichomonas. D) Pfiesteria. E) Naegleria. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Protozoa Learning Outcome: 12.13 31) In a cell that has a diploid number of 8 chromosomes, how many chromatids will be present at the beginning of mitosis? A) 8 B) 16 C) 32 D) 4 E) 2 Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 12.2

32) Which of the following is associated with meiosis but NOT with mitosis? A) a chromatid B) a centromere C) a spindle D) a tetrad E) a zygote Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 12.3 33) Protozoa that move by means of lobe-like pseudopods and lack shells are classified as A) Amoebozoa. B) Euglenozoa. C) Foraminifera. D) Rhizaria. E) Radiolarians. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Protozoa Learning Outcome: 12.11 34) When mitosis occurs without cytokinesis, which of the following is produced? A) merozoites B) chromatids C) cysts D) macronuclei E) coenocytes Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 12.4 35) The filamentous water molds are no longer classified with the true fungi because A) their cell walls are composed of cellulose. B) they produce motile spores with two types of flagella. C) they are never diploid. D) they have cell walls composed of cellulose and motile spores with two flagella. E) they have cell walls composed of chitin and are never diploid. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Water Molds Learning Outcome: 12.27

36) Multiple mitoses followed by a single cytokinetic event is known as A) meiosis. B) schizogony. C) coenocytic division. D) encystment. E) interphase. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 12.4 37) The chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell during A) prophase. B) anaphase. C) metaphase. D) telophase. E) prophase II. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 12.2 38) A unique feature of cytokinesis in algae is A) the formation of a cleavage furrow. B) the new cell is pinched off by a ring of cell wall. C) the unequal division of the cytoplasm. D) the formation of a cell plate between daughter cells. E) that cytokinesis is delayed until several rounds of mitosis have occurred. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 12.4

39)39)

Which process is represented by this figure? A) mitosis B) meiosis C) cytokinesis D) schizogony E) budding Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 12.3 40) Single-celled algae that are major producers of oxygen and whose silica cell walls are useful in a variety of products for humans are the A) diatoms. B) ciliates. C) conidia. D) cysts. E) kelps. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Algae Learning Outcome: 12.26 41) Simple eukaryotes that carry out oxygenic photosynthesis and reproduce by means of alternation of generations are known as A) algae. B) fungi. C) slime molds. D) euglenids. E) arachnids. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Algae Learning Outcome: 12.23

42) Non-motile members of the Alveolata are A) the Apicomplexans. B) the Ciliates. C) the Dinoflagellates. D) the Euglenids. E) both the Apicomplexans and the Ciliates. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Protozoa Learning Outcome: 12.10 43) Fungi called Deuteromycetes are not known to reproduce sexually. Nonetheless, most of them are considered members of the on the basis of genetic sequences. A) Zygomycota B) Basidiomycota C) Ascomycota D) Sporozoa E) Rhizaria Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Fungi Learning Outcome: 12.20 44) Multicellular organisms with hard exoskeletons, segmented bodies and four pairs of jointed legs in the adult stage are A) algae. B) arachnids. C) insects. D) helminths. E) lice. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Other Eukaryotes of Microbiological Interest: Parasitic Helminths and Vectors Learning Outcome: 12.30 45) Mites are responsible for the spread of A) malaria. B) Lyme disease. C) diseases caused by Rickettsias. D) diseases caused by Apicomplexans. E) helminth diseases. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Other Eukaryotes of Microbiological Interest: Parasitic Helminths and Vectors Learning Outcome: 12.31

12.2 True/False Questions 1) Haploid genomes contain two sets of chromosomes. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 12.1 2) Fungi reproduce only asexually. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Fungi Learning Outcome: 12.19 3) Protozoa are eukaryotic organisms that lack a cell wall and can be unicellular or multicellular. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Protozoa Learning Outcome: 12.7 4) Ciliates often have two kinds of nuclei that have different functions. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Protozoa Learning Outcome: 12.10 5) In fungi, aseptate hyphae are coenocytic by definition. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Fungi Learning Outcome: 12.16 6) Algae can have different types of photosynthetic pigments that allow them to photosynthesize at various depths in water. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Algae Learning Outcome: 12.25 7) Lyme disease is vectored by ticks. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Other Eukaryotes of Microbiological Interest: Parasitic Helminths and Vectors Learning Outcome: 12.31

8) The classification Protozoa is not an accepted taxon because it includes members of multiple kingdoms. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Protozoa Learning Outcome: 12.6 9) Myxamoebae act like protozoan amoebae only in the absence of water. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Protozoa Learning Outcome: 12.12 10) Current classification of the algae is based on morphologic characteristics. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Algae Learning Outcome: 12.25 12.3 Short Answer Questions 1) The fever and chills associated with malaria are due to the release of uninucleate daughter cells of Plasmodium called (merozoites/schizonts/coencytes). Answer: merozoites Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 12.4 2) The (Diplomonadida/Parabasala/Rhizaria) are protozoa with a single nucleus and no mitochondria. Answer: Parabasala Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Protozoa Learning Outcome: 12.13 3) The (fungi/algae/lichens) are so sensitive to pollutants they are used as indicators of environmental conditions. Answer: lichens Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Fungi Learning Outcome: 12.22

4) Protozoa that move and feed by the use of fine threadlike pseudopodia are called (Rhizaria/Amoebozoa/Apicomplexa). Answer: Rhizaria Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Protozoa Learning Outcome: 12.11 5) Dinoflagellates have cellulose cell walls and are photosynthetic, but they have recently been reclassified as (Apicomplexa/Alveolata/Amoebozoa) on the bases of genetics and cell ultrastructure. Answer: Alveolata Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Protozoa Learning Outcome: 12.10 6)

The reproductive process depicted in the figure is typical of (Ascomycota/Basiomycota/Zygomycota). Answer: Basidiomycota Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Fungi Learning Outcome: 12.19 7) Fungi and insects both use the nitrogenous polysaccharide (cellulose/chitin/silica) as a protective molecule in their outer surfaces. Answer: chitin Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Fungi Learning Outcome: 12.14, 12.32

8) Water molds differ from true fungi in having (diploid/haploid) bodies. Answer: diploid Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Water Molds Learning Outcome: 12.27 9) Modified hyphae that allow fungi to derive nutrients from other living organisms are (septate/pseudohyphae/haustoria). Answer: haustoria Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Fungi Learning Outcome: 12.16 10) The plague is transmitted by (fleas/lice/ticks/mites). Answer: fleas Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Other Eukaryotes of Microbiological Interest: Parasitic Helminths and Vectors Learning Outcome: 12.33 11) Lichens spread to new areas by the use of multicellular fragments called (spores/soredia/thalli). Answer: soredia Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Fungi Learning Outcome: 12.21 12) Multicellular algae often reproduce sexually by means of haploid and diploid individuals in a process called (separation/alternation) of generations. Answer: alternation Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Algae Learning Outcome: 12.24 13) Microbiologists interested in parasitism study multicellular parasitic (insects/fungi/worms) as well as single-celled protozoa. Answer: worms Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Other Eukaryotes of Microbiological Interest: Parasitic Helminths and Vectors Learning Outcome: 12.28 14) Sexual reproduction in unicellular algae is accomplished by the cell acting as a (gamete/spore/zygote). Answer: gamete Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Algae Learning Outcome: 12.24 16

15) Ticks, lice, and mosquitoes often serve as (carriers/vectors) by hosting and transmitting pathogenic microbes. Answer: vectors Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Other Eukaryotes of Microbiological Interest: Parasitic Helminths and Vectors Learning Outcome: 12.29 12.4 Essay Questions 1) Compare and contrast slime molds and water molds. Answer: Both the slime molds and the water molds are saprobes, and neither of them is fungi, as the names would suggest. In spite of the similarity of names, however, these organisms are more different than they are similar. Slime molds are classified among the protozoa (Amoebozoa). They are phagocytic saprobes without cell walls and occur in two forms: plasmodial and cellular. The plasmodial coenocytic slime molds are diploid under normal conditions, but under adverse conditions they produce haploid spores that can germinate to produce a unicellular form (myxamoeba) that uses flagella or pseudopodia for motility, depending on conditions. Two compatible myxamoebae fuse to form a new diploid, which, in turn, becomes a new coenocytic plasmodium. The cellular slime molds are haploid. Under ideal conditions, the cellular slime molds live as single-celled organisms (myxamoebae). When food becomes scarce, the myxamoebae congregate and cooperate to form a sporangium, and some individuals then become spores. No diploidy or meiosis is involved. The water molds are classified with the algae (Stramenophila), but they do not carry out photosynthesis. They are diploid saprobes with cell walls of cellulose. Their spores are motile by means of two flagella, which are structurally different. Some water molds are plant pathogens. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Water Molds Learning Outcome: 12.12, 12.27 2) A field biologist finds an unfamiliar single-celled organism in a sample from the surface of a marshy area. What observations or tests would make it possible to determine whether it is a protozoan, fungus or alga? Assume the PCR machine at the field station is not working, but all other equipment is. Answer: The presence of a cell wall would indicate the organism is either a fungus or an alga. The presence of pigments is an indication it is a photosynthetic organism, and if it has a cell wall it is an alga. The identification would be further confirmed if the organism is diploid (observed during mitosis). An organism with a cell wall but no pigments is probably a fungus. This identification can be verified by observing that the organism is haploid. If the organism is a single-celled eukaryote without a cell wall it is likely a protozoan. Motility (with flagella, cilia or pseudopodia) would help confirm this identification, although the absence of observable motility does not rule out protozoa. Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis Section: Algae Learning Outcome: 12.7, 12.14, 12.23 17

3) Compare and contrast mitosis and meiosis using words, diagrams or both. Answer: Mitosis involves a single round of nuclear division, whereas meiosis involves two rounds. They both include the same four phases: prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase; meiosis involves two rounds of each phase. Both meiosis and mitosis are preceded by interphase, during which DNA replication takes place. In meiosis, the homologous chromosomes line up to form tetrads early in prophase I. This event, which does not occur in mitosis, allows crossing over of homologous chromosomes to take place. Crossing over provides the genetic recombination of meiosis. The sister chromatids separate in anaphase in mitosis. In meiosis, the homologous (non-sister) chromatids separate during anaphase I, and the sister chromatids separate during anaphase II. The end result of mitosis is two diploid nuclei with identical chromosomes, whereas the final result of meiosis is the production of four haploid nuclei that are not genetically identical. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 12.3 4) Describe the ways in which fungi reproduce. Answer: Fungi reproduce both sexually and asexually; the precise mechanism of reproduction depends on the form of the fungus. Yeasts usually bud asexually in a manner similar to that of prokaryotic reproduction. Filamentous fungi can reproduce by the use of a variety of asexual spores, such as sporangiospores, chlamydospores, or conidiospores, based on the type of fungus. Filamentous fungi can also produce sexual spores that are the product of cellular fusion and meiosis and that create genetic variation in a population. Because of the diversity observed among fungi in this area, they are often classified according to the nature and morphology of their reproductive structures and spores. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Fungi Learning Outcome: 12.17, 12.18, 12.19 5) Describe the ways in which algae and fungi are useful microbes. Answer: Algae and fungi are useful both in the biosphere in general and to humans in particular. Because algae are photosynthetic, they are major contributors to the Earth's oxygen supply; in fact, one group of algae (the diatoms) is the Earth's major source of oxygen, simply because of their vast numbers. Algae are also a foundation of the biosphere's food chain in their role as plankton. Algae are a source of chemicals, such as agar and alginic acid, which can be used as thickening agents and emulsifiers in industrial products. Similarly, fungi are useful on two levels. In nature, they serve as recyclers of organic molecules and help plants retrieve water and nutrients from the soil. For humans, fungi play an enormous role in the food industry (in the manufacture of cheeses, bread, alcoholic beverages, and other items) and in medicine (in the production of antibiotics and other drugs). Fungi have also been instrumental tools in genetic research. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Algae Learning Outcome: 12.15, 12.26

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 4e (Bauman) Chapter 13 Characterizing and Classifying Viruses, Viroids, and Prions 13.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following is an accurate description of a virion? A) the nucleic acid of a viral pathogen B) an infectious particle of protein and nucleic acid outside a host cell C) a population of infectious particles D) the protein portion of a viral particle E) the nucleic acid of a viral pathogen inside a host cell Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Characteristics of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.1 2) The outermost layer of a virion fulfills which of the following functions of the virus? A) protection B) recognition C) replication D) both protection and recognition E) both recognition and replication Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Characteristics of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.4, 13.5 3) A is a virus that infects bacterial cells. A) virion B) prion C) bacteriophage D) nucleocapsid E) viroid Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Characteristics of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.3

4) Which of the following is present in cells only during virus infection? A) dsDNA B) ssRNA C) ssDNA D) DNA-RNA heteroduplex E) triplet RNA Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Characteristics of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.1 5) Host specificity of a virus is due to A) particular genes that it shares with the infected cell. B) the presence of an envelope. C) differences in size between the virus and the host cell. D) the presence or absence of a cell wall on the host cell. E) interactions between viral and cellular surface molecules. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Characteristics of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.2 6) The shape of a virion is a function of the A) size of the genome material B) cell type of the host cell C) type of genome material D) capsid E) envelope Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Characteristics of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.4

of the virus.

7) How are fungal viruses different from viruses that infect other organisms? A) They have no extracellular state. B) They have only DNA for genetic material. C) They have no capsid. D) They have no intracellular state. E) They cannot pass through a filter. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Characteristics of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.3

8) The envelope portion of an enveloped virus is composed of A) glycolipids of the host cell. B) virus-encoded glycoproteins. C) phospholipids from host cell membranes. D) host cell membranes containing virus-encoded glycoproteins. E) host glycolipids and virus-encoded glycoproteins. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Characteristics of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.5 9) Which of the following may occur in a lysogenic infection, but NOT a latent one? A) The inserted viral DNA may leave the host DNA. B) The viral DNA integrates (inserts) into the host cell DNA. C) The provirus/prophage directs the synthesis of viral proteins. D) The prophage/provirus alters gene expression in the host cell. E) The prophage/provirus is replicated with the host DNA. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.12 10) Which of the following statements regarding virus taxonomy is TRUE? A) Viruses are classified on the basis of the taxonomy of their host organisms. B) Virus classes are well established. C) Some virus family names are derived from the name of an important member of the family. D) The species epithet is a Latin descriptor of the virion structure. E) Virus classes are based on the domain of the host organism. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Classification of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.6 11) Classification of viruses includes A) classes. B) orders. C) families. D) orders and families. E) classes, orders, and families. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Classification of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.6

12) What is the correct order for the stages of a lytic replication cycle, from earliest to latest stages? I. Synthesis II. Assembly III. Attachment IV. Release V. Entry A) III, V, I, II, IV B) III, II, V, I, IV C) V, III, II, IV, I D) I, III, V, II, IV E) I, II, III, V, IV Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.7 13) Which of the following is involved in the attachment of a bacteriophage to a bacterial cell? A) random collisions B) chemical attractions C) receptor specificity D) both chemical attractions and receptor specificity E) random collisions, chemical attractions, and receptor specificity Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.7 14) The enzyme lysozyme is critical for which of the stages of a bacteriophage T4 infection cycle? A) entry B) assembly C) entry and release D) synthesis E) attachment Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.7

15) Naked capsid animal viruses gain entry to host cells by A) endocytosis. B) direct penetration. C) membrane fusion. D) both endocytosis and direct penetration. E) endocytosis, direct penetration, and membrane fusion. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.9 16) Which of the following events occurs in the lytic cycle of bacteriophage T4 infection but NOT in the lysogenic cycle? A) attachment B) entry C) digestion of host DNA D) viral protein synthesis E) both digestion of host DNA and viral proteins synthesis Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.8 17) Why is lysogeny advantageous to a bacteriophage? A) It speeds up the viral infection cycle. B) The genetic material of the bacteriophage is amplified many times over that seen in a lytic phage. C) It allows the bacteriophage to infect cells it would not normally infect. D) It allows the bacteriophage to destroy the host cell's DNA. E) It enables the bacteriophage to take over the cell. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.8 18) Which of the following agents is capable of inducing conversion of a prophage to the lytic cycle? A) UV light B) X-rays C) presence of +ssRNA D) both UV light and X-rays E) both UV light and the presence of +ssRNA Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.8 5

19) Zones of clearing in cell cultures that are the result of virus infection are called plaques. Sometimes "cloudy plaques" are seen on bacterial cultures infected with bacteriophage. What type of viral infection might cause this appearance? A) lytic B) lysogenic C) prion D) viroid E) transducing Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Culturing Viruses in the Laboratory Learning Outcome: 13.8, 13.17 20) Which virus is CORRECTLY matched with its method of entry? A) adenovirus; direct penetration B) herpesvirus; membrane fusion C) HIV; membrane fusion D) measles virus; direct penetration E) poliovirus; endocytosis Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.9 21) Retroviruses require the activity of A) lysozyme B) RNA-dependent RNA polymerase C) RNA-dependent RNA transcriptase D) reverse transcriptase E) viral RNA polymerase Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.10

to complete their infection cycle.

22) The genome of which of the following types of animal virus can act directly as mRNA? A) dsDNA B) +ssRNA viruses C) -ssRNA viruses D) ssDNA viruses E) dsRNA viruses Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.10

23) Which of the following types of animal virus requires RNA-dependent RNA transcriptase to be replicated? A) +ssRNA viruses B) ssDNA viruses C) -ssRNA viruses D) retroviruses E) dsDNA viruses Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.10 24) In contrast to most dsDNA animal viruses, the poxviruses replicate solely in the cytoplasm of the host cell. This fact implies that the viral genome may encode A) reverse transcriptase. B) a DNA polymerase. C) RNA-dependent RNA transcriptase. D) ribosome components. E) reverse transcriptase and RNA-dependent RNA transcriptase. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.10 25) Which of the following membranes can give rise to a viral envelope? A) the nuclear membrane B) the cytoplasmic membrane C) the endoplasmic reticulum D) the nuclear and cytoplasmic membranes E) the nuclear and cytoplasmic membranes, and the endoplasmic reticulum Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.11 26) A cell is infected with a virus carrying an oncogene sequence in its genome. What process may occur if the oncogene is expressed in the infected cell? A) lysis B) neoplasia C) lysogeny D) latency E) both lysis and neoplasia Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: The Role of Viruses in Cancer Learning Outcome: 13.14 7

27) How is the HIV provirus different from a lambda-phage prophage? A) The HIV provirus is integrated permanently into the host cell's DNA. B) All subsequent generations of HIV-infected cells carry the provirus. C) All the offspring of a cell infected with a prophage will contain the virus. D) The HIV provirus is inactive inside the host cell. E) Lambda phage-infected cells produce virus slowly over time. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.12 28) The process of metastasis results from A) neoplasia. B) benign tumors. C) oncogene expression. D) malignant tumors. E) viral latency. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Role of Viruses in Cancer Learning Outcome: 13.13 29) One mechanism by which viruses may cause cancer is to interrupt the genetic regulatory sequences of repressor proteins. Which of the following types of viruses is most likely to be involved in causing cancer by this mechanism? A) +ssRNA viruses B) dsRNA viruses C) -ssRNA viruses D) retroviruses E) both +ssRNA and -ssRNA viruses Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: The Role of Viruses in Cancer Learning Outcome: 13.14 30) The development of a cancerous cell is said to require "multiple hits." This means A) the cell must be infected with several different types of viruses to be transformed. B) several protoncogenes are activated at the same time. C) multiple cell cycle regulators are inactivated at once. D) a series of separate events over time lead to the loss of cell cycle regulation. E) multiple oncogenic viruses infect the cell at the same time. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Role of Viruses in Cancer Learning Outcome: 13.14

31) Plaque assays are used for A) evaluating the cancer-causing ability of a virus. B) determining the density of phage in a culture. C) the study of prions. D) cultivating viruses that cannot be grown any other way. E) counting the number of latent phages in a cell. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Culturing Viruses in the Laboratory Learning Outcome: 13.17 32) Diploid cell cultures and continuous cell cultures differ in which of the following ways? A) longevity B) source of cells C) convenience of use D) both longevity and convenience of use E) both longevity and source of cells Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Culturing Viruses in the Laboratory Learning Outcome: 13.19 33) What is one of the most difficult aspects of studying animal viruses? A) The viruses are hard to obtain. B) The study requires expensive facilities. C) The use of animals to study the viruses is unethical in the eyes of many. D) The viruses are extremely dangerous to handle. E) The use of animals is expensive, and unethical to many people. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Culturing Viruses in the Laboratory Learning Outcome: 13.18 34) How are prions different from all other known infectious agents? A) They cannot reproduce outside a cell. B) They act as slow viruses. C) They cause neurological problems. D) They can be destroyed by incineration. E) They lack nucleic acid. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Other Parasitic Particles: Viroids and Prions Learning Outcome: 13.24

35) The viruses of fungi have RNA genomes and lack a capsid. They are therefore similar to A) bacteriophages. B) enveloped viruses. C) prions. D) viroids. E) lysogens. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Other Parasitic Particles: Viroids and Prions Learning Outcome: 13.21 36) Infection with is likely to result in destruction of the host cell by lysis. A) enveloped viruses B) naked viruses C) oncogenic viruses D) viroids E) prions Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.11 37) Some human viruses are difficult to study because A) they grow very slowly. B) they establish latent infections and cannot be induced. C) the growth medium for the host cells is complex. D) they only grow in normal human cells. E) very few laboratories have the skills to culture the viruses. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Culturing Viruses in the Laboratory Learning Outcome: 13.15 38) Why are diploid cell cultures preferred over continuous cell cultures? A) Continuous cell cultures are expensive to maintain. B) Diploid cells last far longer than continuous culture cells. C) Diploid cells are more nearly like cells of whole organisms than continuous culture cells. D) Diploid cells have undergone changes in their chromosome structure that make them more stable. E) Results from continuous culture cells do not apply to disease in whole organisms. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Culturing Viruses in the Laboratory Learning Outcome: 13.19

39) Which of the following is a feature shared by viruses and living organisms? A) possession of a genome that directs synthesis of materials necessary for replication B) presence of cytoplasm C) metabolic capability D) responsiveness E) the ability to increase in size Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Are Viruses Alive? Learning Outcome: 13.20 40) Small circular RNA molecules without capsids are characteristic of A) plasmids. B) viruses. C) viroids. D) prions. E) viruses and prions. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Other Parasitic Particles: Viroids and Prions Learning Outcome: 13.22 41) Prions cause disease in A) mammals. B) plants. C) bacteria. D) fungi. E) birds. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Other Parasitic Particles: Viroids and Prions Learning Outcome: 13.25 42) During , viral synthesis is suspended. A) budding B) latency C) lytic replication D) persistent infection E) oncogenesis Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.12

43) Virus replication results in the death of the cell in A) a lytic B) a latent C) a persistent D) a lysogenic E) both latent and persistent Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.8

infection(s).

44) A is a mass of neoplastic cells. A) diploid culture B) metastasis C) tumor D) gall E) plaque Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Role of Viruses in Cancer Learning Outcome: 13.13 45) The process known as is a mechanism of release for enveloped viruses. A) lytic replication B) persistent infection C) metastasis D) latency E) budding Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.11 13.2 True/False Questions 1) Viruses cause most human cancers. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Role of Viruses in Cancer Learning Outcome: 13.14 2) Virus entry requires the presence of specific cell structures. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Characteristics of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.2 12

3) Protozoa are susceptible to viral attack. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Characteristics of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.3 4) Many diseases of plants are caused by infectious RNA molecules lacking capsids. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Other Parasitic Particles: Viroids and Prions Learning Outcome: 13.21 5) All members of a virus family have the same type of genome structure. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Classification of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.6 6) Assembly of new viruses is a process that usually requires the direction of a variety of viral and cellular enzymes. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.7 7) Bacteriophage release is a gradual process in which small numbers are released at a time. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.7 8) Bovine spongiform encephalopathy is an example of a prion disease. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Other Parasitic Particles: Viroids and Prions Learning Outcome: 13.25 9) All viruses use the host cell's nucleic acid polymerases for replication. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.10

10) Fertilized chicken eggs are used to culture some vaccine strains. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Culturing Viruses in the Laboratory Learning Outcome: 13.18 13.3 Short Answer Questions 1) The combination of a virus's protein coat and nucleic acid core is called the (capsid/virion/nucleocapsid). Answer: nucleocapsid Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Characteristics of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.4 2) Assembly of enveloped viruses requires (membrane/matrix/receptor) to bring together the nucleocapsid and the envelope. Answer: matrix Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Characteristics of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.5 3) The first virus isolated, Tobacco mosaic virus, has a (complex/helical/polyhedral) capsid morphology, which facilitated its isolation. Answer: helical Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Characteristics of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.4 4) Some viruses can be cultured on (continuous/diploid/animal) cells which are descended from neoplastic cells. Answer: continuous Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Culturing Viruses in the Laboratory Learning Outcome: 13.16

The virions shown in the figure have a (polyhedral/helical/complex) capsid. Answer: complex Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Characteristics of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.4 6) Another term for a lysogenic phage is a (temperate/latent/prophage) phage. Answer: temperate Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.8 7) The process in which viral capsids are removed within the infected cell is called (entry/disassembly/uncoating). Answer: uncoating Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.9 8) Uncontrolled cell division in animals is known as (metastasis/neoplasia/cancer). Answer: neoplasia Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Role of Viruses in Cancer Learning Outcome: 13.13

The graph in the figure shows a pattern of virion abundance consistent with a (lytic/latent/persistent) virus infection cycle. Answer: persistent Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.1 10) Viruses are responsible for (all/most/some) human cancers. (Use relative terms not numbers.) Answer: some Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Role of Viruses in Cancer Learning Outcome: 13.14 11) Genes that play a role in proper cell division but may also play a role in some types of cancer are called (oncogenes/protooncogenes/promoters). Answer: protooncogenes Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Role of Viruses in Cancer Learning Outcome: 13.14 12) A (colony/plaque) is a clear zone on a bacterial lawn where cells have been killed by the activity of a bacteriophage. Answer: plaque Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Culturing Viruses in the Laboratory Learning Outcome: 13.17

13) Three (orders/families/classes) represent the highest level of taxonomic rank used in classifying viruses. Answer: orders Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Classification of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.6 14) RNA dependent RNA polymerase is required for successful infection by (+ssRNA/-ssRNA/dsRNA) viruses. Answer: -ssRNA Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.10 15) An animal virus that does not have an envelope is described as a(n) (naked/unenveloped/capsid) virion. Answer: naked Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Characteristics of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.5 13.4 Essay Questions 1) Compare and contrast the ways in which animal, plant, and bacterial viruses gain entry into their host cells. Answer: Because cells have different types of barriers against the outside world, viruses have evolved different ways of breaching these barriers. For example, viruses cannot easily invade cells that have rigid, protective cell walls (such as plant and bacterial cells). Viruses that infect these cells gain entry by direct injection (as observed in bacteriophage T4), by taking advantage of damage to the cell wall (as with some plant viruses), or by enlisting the aid of insects that are themselves parasites (as with some other plant viruses). In contrast, animal cells have no cell wall; therefore, animal viruses employ three basic strategies to enter through the flexible cytoplasmic membrane. Some animal viruses directly penetrate this membrane (either the entire virus or just its genome), whereas other viruses take advantage of natural cellular processes such as phagocytosis to gain entry into the cell. Enveloped animal viruses also can use the process of membrane fusion to get inside an animal cell. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.9, 13.22

2) Why is the synthesis of mRNA a central issue for all viruses? How do different types of viruses achieve this goal? Answer: One way in which a virus gains control of a cell is to direct the synthesis of new viral proteins, which include such molecules as enzymes. To do this, however, the virus must provide the cell with mRNA for the production of such proteins. Viruses can achieve this goal in one of three basic ways: (1) they can import mRNA into the cell in the form of the viral genome; (2) they can allow the cell to make viral mRNA through normal cellular genetic processes by providing the cell with viral DNA; or (3) they can use unique mechanisms to convert their genomes into a form suitable for protein production. An example of the first type of virus is the +ssRNA virus; this type of genome essentially mimics the mRNA found in the cell. An example of the second type is the DNA virus, either ds or ss, which can take advantage of normal cellular processes to produce mRNA. An example of the third type is the -ssRNA virus, which uses a novel enzyme called RNA-dependent RNA transcriptase to convert its genome into +ssRNA, which can then be used for protein synthesis as in the first example. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.10 3) Describe the difference between lysogeny and latency. Answer: Lysogeny is associated with certain bacteriophages such as lambda phage, and it is characterized by the formation of a prophage, which is a viral genome that is inserted into the genome of the host cell. At this point, the virus becomes quiescent, although it can now be replicated along with the host cell genome and is inherited by all the daughter cells of the host cell. As long as the prophage is contained within the cell's genome, no intact virus will be produced, although one or more viral proteins may be produced. Latency, in contrast, is associated with animal viruses. Some animal viruses incorporate viral genetic material into the genome of the host cell, and others do not. (For example, during the HIV infection cycle, a provirus version of the viral genome is inserted into the cell's genome.) However, the overall features of latency are the same as lysogeny, in that during the period of latency the virus is quiet inside the cell and does not actively produce copies of itself. A significant difference is that lysogeny can terminate with the prophage excising from the host DNA and resuming a lytic infection, whereas reactivation of latent infection does not involve excision of provirus. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.12

4) A scientist discovers a new virus associated with a cancer. She is able to culture it in the laboratory and begins to analyze it. What features will help her determine the virus' classification? How does this help her understand the virus' mechanism for causing cancer? Answer: Characterization of the nucleic acid present in the virion is a first step in determining the classification of the virus. If it is a large DNA virus with envelope it may be one of the Herpesviridae. DNA viruses with smaller genome sizes known to cause cancer are the Papillomaviruses and Polyomaviruses. The Hepadnavirdae have a circular DNA molecule which is partially double strand and partially single strand. Very small DNA viruses which occasionally cause cancer are the Adenoviridae. The presence or absence of an envelope is also useful in eliminating possibilities. The presence of a segmented genome comprised of + singlestrand RNA and the enzyme reverse transcriptase is consistent with the virus being a member of the Retroviridae. Establishing the classification of the virus can provide clues as to the possible mechanism of causing cancer, as different virus families are involved in different processes. For example, retroviruses integrate into the host DNA and may thereby disrupt the function of a tumor repressor. Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis Section: The Role of Viruses in Cancer Learning Outcome: 13.6, 13.14 5) Describe the mechanism by which PrP is infectious. Answer: The clue to why PrP acts as an infectious agent was found when it was discovered that all mammals contain the gene for PrP. However, under normal conditions, the protein produced from this gene, cellular PrP, is not a pathogenic agent. It is when PrP folds into an abnormal form called prion PrP that it is infectious. As prion PrP, the protein is capable of inducing copies of cellular PrP to refold into prion PrP, thereby causing the disease form of the protein to accumulate. Because the genetic information to create this protein is found in the host organism, prions are the only known example of a totally protein-based infectious agent. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Other Parasitic Particles: Viroids and Prions Learning Outcome: 13.23

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 4e (Bauman) Chapter 14 Infection, Infectious Diseases, and Epidemiology 14.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following is NOT an example of symbiosis? A) bacteria in the human colon B) tapeworm in the human intestine C) tuberculosis in the human lung D) protozoa in termites E) microbes passing across the placenta to the fetus Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts Learning Outcome: 14.1 2) A bacterium inhabits the human nasal cavity where it obtains nutrients from secretions. It neither harms nor benefits the host. The relationship is therefore a(n) one. A) commensal B) mutualisitic C) parasitic D) neutral E) antagonistic Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts Learning Outcome: 14.1 3) A protozoan and its resident bacteria invade the body of a worm. The bacteria release toxins and exoenzymes that immobilize and digest the worm, and the protozoan and bacteria absorb the nutrients produced. The relationship between the protozoan and the bacteria would best be described as A) commensalism. B) mutualism. C) parasitism. D) both commensalism and parasitism. E) a nonsymbiotic relationship. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts Learning Outcome: 14.1

4) The fungus Pneumocystis jiroveci is found in the lungs of most people in low numbers, but in immunocompromised people it overgrows, resulting in severe respiratory problems. The fungus is best described as A) a parasite. B) resident microbiota. C) a mutualist symbiotic partner. D) transient microbiota. E) both resident microbiota and opportunistic pathogen. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts Learning Outcome: 14.2, 14.3 5) Chagas' disease is transmitted by a bug with mouthparts that penetrate blood vessels. Which type of exposure does this represent? A) mucous membrane portal B) parenteral route C) skin portal D) contact E) fomite Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: The Invasion and Establishment of Microbes in Hosts: Infection Learning Outcome: 14.7 6) Symptoms are A) subjective characteristics of a disease that only the patient can feel. B) objective manifestations of a disease that can be measured. C) objective manifestations of a disease that can be observed by others. D) characteristics of a disease, such as sweating. E) laboratory tests used to diagnose a disease. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.11 7) The close contact between newborns and family members allows them to become with microbes that become established as their microbiota. (Choose the most accurate term.) A) infected B) parasitized C) colonized D) contaminated E) infiltrated Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Invasion and Establishment of Microbes in Hosts: Infection Learning Outcome: 14.6 2

8) A person licks a needle before injecting a drug into a vein. The person later develops a bacterial infection of the blood. This is an example of A) a disruption of the normal microbial population of the blood. B) a member of the microbiota gaining access to an unusual location in the body. C) immune suppression leading to disease. D) microbial antagonism. E) microbial synergism. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts Learning Outcome: 14.4 9) Which of the following statements regarding the demonstration of the etiology of disease is FALSE? A) The suspect agent must be present in all cases of disease. B) The suspect agent must cause the disease under investigation when introduced into a susceptible host organism. C) The suspect agent must be isolated and cultured in the laboratory. D) It must be possible to reisolate the suspect agent from the infected experimental host. E) The suspect agent must be the only potential pathogen present in disease cases. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.13 10) Which of the following situations is NOT a way in which a baby acquires normal microbiota? A) The baby acquires the residential microbiota in the colon after the first meal. B) Staphylococcus epidermidis is transferred from the hospital staff to the newborn after delivery. C) Microbes cross the placenta during pregnancy. D) Microorganisms grow in the respiratory tract after the baby's first breath. E) Microbes enter the nose and mouth when the baby is in the birth canal. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts Learning Outcome: 14.3

11) Which of the following situations might cause normal microbiota to become opportunistic pathogens? A) growth of microbes on the surface of intact skin B) growth of microorganisms on the excreted cellular wastes and dead cells in the large intestine C) treatment of a cancer patient with radiation D) growth of Lactobacillus on the surface of teeth E) presence of Entamoeba in the lumen of the colon Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts Learning Outcome: 14.4 12) Which of the following is considered part of the resident microbiota of the female reproductive system? A) Candida B) Lactobacillus C) E. coli D) Bacteroides E) both Candida and Lactobacillus Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts Learning Outcome: 14.3 13) Bacterial contaminants grow in food in a closed container. The food is heated after the container is opened, but a person develops food poisoning after eating it. The bacteria were producing A) an exotoxin. B) endotoxin. C) an exoenzyme. D) antiphagocytic factors. E) capsules. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.14

14) Among the virulence factors produced by Staphylococcus aureus are hemolysin, coagulase, hyaluronidase, and enterotoxin. Which of these factors contribute(s) to the ability of S. aureus to invade the body? A) coagulase B) enterotoxin C) hemolysin D) hyaluronidase E) coagulase and hemolysin Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.14 15) During which stage of disease should an infected person be considered contagious? A) the incubation period B) all stages C) the illness stage D) the decline stage E) the convalescence period Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.15 16) Which of the following is transmitted by the parenteral route? A) ringworm B) warts C) gonorrhea D) yellow fever E) pertussis Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: The Invasion and Establishment of Microbes in Hosts: Infection Learning Outcome: 14.7 17) Which of the following is considered a mechanical vector transmission? A) cockroach transmission of Shigella B) mosquito transmission of Plasmodium C) flea transmission of Yersinia D) tsetse fly transmission of Trypanosoma E) louse transmission of Rickettsia Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Modes of Infectious Disease Transmission Learning Outcome: 14.18

18) Vomiting is a common sign of food poisoning. The corresponding symptom would be A) fever. B) cramps. C) nausea. D) pain. E) diarrhea. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.11 19) Which of the following might result in a nosocomial infection (HAI)? A) being bitten by an infected insect B) eating contaminated food C) using a contaminated needle D) a hospital aide forgetting to wash his or her hands before tending a patient E) having unprotected sexual intercourse Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Epidemiology of Infectious Diseases Learning Outcome: 14.28 20) Diseases that are induced by modern medical procedures are referred to as infections. A) iatrogenic B) exogenous C) opportunistic D) endogenous E) subacute Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Epidemiology of Infectious Diseases Learning Outcome: 14.26 21) The bacterium that causes tuberculosis can be expelled from the lungs by a cough and remain viable in the air for an hour or more. If a person inhales the bacteria from the air, what type of transmission has occurred? A) indirect contact B) airborne C) waterborne D) foodborne E) bodily fluid Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Modes of Infectious Disease Transmission Learning Outcome: 14.17 6

22) A person is exposed to desert air containing fungus spores and develops valley fever as a result. Valley fever is an example of a disease. A) contagious B) subacute C) chronic D) noncommunicable E) latent Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Classification of Infectious Diseases Learning Outcome: 14.21 23) In early spring 2009, the CDC reported several dozen cases of novel H1N1 influenza ("swine flu") in the United States. By the summer, the number of confirmed cases was reported as over 40,000. The pattern of novel H1N1 cases in the United States represents a(n) disease. A) epidemic B) endemic C) sporadic D) pandemic E) opportunistic Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Epidemiology of Infectious Diseases Learning Outcome: 14.24 24) The incidence of tuberculosis in the year 2000 in the United States was 12.43/100,000 cases. This means A) 12.43 in every 100,000 people in the United States had tuberculosis in the year 2000. B) 12.43 of every 100,000 people died of tuberculosis in the U.S. in the year 2000. C) there were 12.43 new cases of tuberculosis for every 100,000 people in the United States in the year 2000. D) there were 12.43 tubercle bacilli per 100,000 microbes in the United States in the year 2000. E) 12.43 of every 100,000 cases of tuberculosis were treated in the United States in the year 2000. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Epidemiology of Infectious Diseases Learning Outcome: 14.23

25) A strain of Neisseria gonorrhea has a mutation which has caused it to lose the ability to produce fimbriae and become less virulent as a consequence. What function has this pathogen lost? A) the ability to adhere to cells of the body B) the ability to move from one location in the body to another C) the ability to produce an endotoxin D) the ability to establish a latent infection E) the ability to prevent phagocytes killing it Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Invasion and Establishment of Microbes in Hosts: Infection Learning Outcome: 14.8 26) Ten months after the 2010 earthquake in Haiti, there was a sharp increase in the number of cases of cholera. What was the most likely source of disease? A) direct contact with infected individuals B) indirect contact with contaminated equipment C) airborne D) waterborne E) foodborne Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Modes of Infectious Disease Transmission Learning Outcome: 14.16 27) Which of the following types of epidemiology applies Koch's postulates to study a disease? A) experimental B) descriptive C) analytical D) systemic E) retrospective Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Epidemiology of Infectious Diseases Learning Outcome: 14.25 28) What is the relationship between prevalence and incidence for an acute disease like influenza? A) The incidence and prevalence are essentially equal. B) The incidence is always greater than the prevalence. C) The prevalence is always greater than the incidence. D) The incidence rises while prevalence declines. E) There is no predictable relationship. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Epidemiology of Infectious Diseases Learning Outcome: 14.23 8

29) An example of direct contact transmission is A) the bite of a kissing bug. B) a door knob contaminated with respiratory secretions. C) saliva exchanged during a kiss. D) fecal contaminates on the hands of a restaurant worker. E) inhalation of respiratory aerosols. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Modes of Infectious Disease Transmission Learning Outcome: 14.16 30) Which of the following pairings of microbe and disease was disproven using Koch's postulates? A) HIV and AIDS B) Mycobacterium leprae and leprosy C) hepatitis B and D and liver cancer D) varicella-zoster virus and chickenpox E) Haemophilus influenzae and the flu Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.13

31)31)

The pattern of new cases reported in North America represented in this graph is consistent with transmission. A) airborne B) fecal-oral C) mosquito vector D) direct contact E) housefly Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Modes of Infectious Disease Transmission Learning Outcome: 14.16, 14.18 32) Which of the following is the correct sequence of a disease process? A) convalescence, incubation, prodromal period, illness, decline B) prodromal period, convalescence, incubation, illness, decline C) incubation, convalescence, prodromal period, illness, decline D) incubation, prodromal period, illness, decline, convalescence E) illness, convalescence, incubation, prodromal period, decline Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.15

33) Two children attend the same daycare, but one child is at the facility in the morning and the other child attends the facility in the afternoon. Both children become ill with fifth disease within one day of each other. How might the pathogen have infected both children? A) fomite transmission B) droplet transmission C) vector transmission D) direct contact transmission E) vertical transmission Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Modes of Infectious Disease Transmission Learning Outcome: 14.16 34) Treatment with high doses of antibiotics may lead to which type of health care associated infection? A) iatrogenic disease B) exogenous infection C) latent infection D) endogenous infection E) zoonosis Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Epidemiology of Infectious Diseases Learning Outcome: 14.28 35) Which of the following combinations of pathogen and virulence factor is CORRECT? A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae and endotoxin B) Streptococcus pyogenes and protein M C) Staphylococcus aureus and neurotoxin D) Gram-positive bacteria and lipid A E) Escherichia coli and cytotoxin Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.14 36) A true pathogen may also be described as A) a component of the microbiota. B) highly virulent. C) opportunistic. D) very common. E) easily transmitted. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.10 11

37) Microbes known as transient microbiota are A) microorganisms that remain with the person throughout life. B) microorganisms that may cause a disease under certain circumstances. C) organisms that remain in the body for a short time. D) unsuccessful microbial invaders because of the presence of preexisting microbes. E) sources of microbial contamination. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts Learning Outcome: 14.3 38) The taxonomic approach to classifying disease is based on the A) type of host for the microbe. B) means of transmission. C) organs or organ systems affected by the disease. D) type of microbe that causes the disease. E) severity and duration of the disease. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Classification of Infectious Diseases Learning Outcome: 14.19 39) Organisms that are resident microbiota are best described as A) microorganisms that remain with the person throughout life. B) any microorganisms that cause disease. C) organisms that remain in the body for a short time. D) microorganisms that may cause a disease under certain circumstances. E) microorganisms that never cause disease. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts Learning Outcome: 14.3 40) A new influenza strain appears and is spreading rapidly. What measures might be taken by public health agencies to stop the spread? A) Facilitate access to vaccines. B) Identify and treat people who are infected. C) Educate members of the public about ways to protect themselves. D) Educate the public, promote vaccination, and treat those who are infected. E) Shut down public transportation. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Epidemiology of Infectious Diseases Learning Outcome: 14.29

41) Several days after a walk in the woods, Cheryl develops a localized rash. It is not painful and soon fades so she thinks nothing of it. Several months later she experiences increasing fatigue, low-grade fever, and pain in the joints. These symptoms persist for months before she seeks medical attention. This description is most consistent with a(n) infection. A) acute B) chronic C) subclinical D) asymptomatic E) latent Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Classification of Infectious Diseases Learning Outcome: 14.20 42) The condition called parasitism is characterized as a(n) A) relationship between two organisms where only one member benefits and the other is unharmed. B) relationship between two organisms where both members benefit. C) nonsymbiotic relationship. D) unsuccessful microbial invasion due to the presence of preexisting microbes. E) relationship between two organisms where one member harms the other. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts Learning Outcome: 14.2 43) An axenic environment is one A) in which microorganisms remain with the person throughout life. B) that is free of microbes. C) that is a source of contamination. D) in which microorganisms remain present only for a short time. E) contaminated by microbial toxins. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts Learning Outcome: 14.3 44) The condition known as microbial antagonism may be defined as A) microorganisms that remain with a person throughout life. B) a relationship between two organisms where one member harms the other. C) a relationship between two organisms where only one member benefits. D) an unsuccessful microbial invasion due to the presence of preexisting microbes. E) a relationship between two organisms where both members benefit. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts Learning Outcome: 14.4 13

45)45)

The dots on the map represent reported cases of a disease. This distribution is a(n) pattern. A) endemic B) epidemic C) pandemic D) sporadic E) emerging Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Epidemiology of Infectious Diseases Learning Outcome: 14.24 14.2 True/False Questions 1) Both members of a symbiotic relationship benefit from each other. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts Learning Outcome: 14.1 2) Normal microbiota may cause disease if they are introduced into an unusual site in the body. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts Learning Outcome: 14.4

3) A syndrome is a group of symptoms and signs that collectively characterize a particular disease. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.11 4) All infections go through the stages known as incubation period, prodromal period, and illness. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.15 5) Botulism is transmissible by direct contact. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Modes of Infectious Disease Transmission Learning Outcome: 14.16 6) A common cold is an example of a chronic disease. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Classification of Infectious Diseases Learning Outcome: 14.20 7) Biofilms provide an alternative means for bacteria to attach to surfaces within the body. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Invasion and Establishment of Microbes in Hosts: Infection Learning Outcome: 14.9 8) Bacterial cells with capsules are resistant to killing by phagocytes. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.14 9) Koch's postulates can be applied to every infectious disease to identify its causative pathogen. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.13

10) An infection always leads to disease. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Invasion and Establishment of Microbes in Hosts: Infection Learning Outcome: 14.10 14.3 Short Answer Questions 1) Toxins that affect the lining of the gastrointestinal tract are (endotoxins/enterotoxins/exotoxins). Answer: enterotoxins Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.14 2) The degree to which a microbe is able to cause disease is known as its (morbidity/virulence/toxicity). Answer: virulence Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.10 3) Rubella, or three-day measles, passes through the (parenteral/placenta/mucous/skin) route to establish congenital infection of a fetus. Answer: placenta Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Invasion and Establishment of Microbes in Hosts: Infection Learning Outcome: 14.7 4) Nervous system function may be impaired by the action of (endotoxins/neurotoxins/cytotoxins). Answer: neurotoxins Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.14 5) The (incubation/morbidity/prodromal) period is the time between infection and the occurrence of the first symptoms or signs of the disease. Answer: incubation Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.15

6) Some of the bacteria in the human gut do not survive well outside of that environment, and produce vitamin K among other nutrients. This situation is an example of (commensalism/mutualism/parasitism). Answer: mutualism Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts Learning Outcome: 14.1 7) Lipid A is a(n) (cytotoxin/endotoxin/exotoxin) that stimulates the body to release chemicals that cause fever, inflammation, diarrhea, hemorrhaging, shock, and blood coagulation. Answer: endotoxin Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.14 8) Persons with asymptomatic infections may be (contaminants/reservoirs/zoonoses) of disease. Answer: reservoirs Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Reservoirs of Infectious Diseases of Humans Learning Outcome: 14.5 9) Spread of pathogens from one host to another by fomites is an example of (vehicle/direct/indirect) contact transmission. Answer: indirect Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Modes of Infectious Disease Transmission Learning Outcome: 14.16 10) Biological (sources/vectors/carriers) not only transmit pathogens, but also serve as hosts for the manipulation of the pathogen during some phase of the pathogen's life cycle. Answer: vectors Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Modes of Infectious Disease Transmission Learning Outcome: 14.18 11) The bacterium that causes cholera is capable of living independently in freshwater. As a consequence, cholera epidemics primarily involve (nonliving/animal/zoonotic) reservoirs. Answer: nonliving Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Reservoirs of Infectious Diseases of Humans Learning Outcome: 14.5 12) The study of the cause of disease is known as (epidemiology/etiology). Answer: etiology Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.12 17

13) The hepatitis C virus normally establishes a (latent/chronic/subclinical) infection and may be asymptomatic for a decade. Answer: latent Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Classification of Infectious Diseases Learning Outcome: 14.20 14) The study of when and where diseases occur is known as (analytical/descriptive/experimental) epidemiology. Answer: descriptive Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Epidemiology of Infectious Diseases Learning Outcome: 14.25 15) Virions attach to target host cell by means of (capsules/receptors/ligands). Answer: ligands Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Invasion and Establishment of Microbes in Hosts: Infection Learning Outcome: 14.8 16) Lyme disease is (communicable/contagious/noncommunicable) among humans. Answer: noncommunicable Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Classification of Infectious Diseases Learning Outcome: 14.21 14.4 Essay Questions 1) What are the different types of symbiosis? List and give a short definition and an example for each. Answer: There are three types of symbiosis: (1) mutualism, which is the relationship between two organisms in which both benefit; (2) commensalism, in which one organism benefits and the other is not significantly affected; and (3) parasitism, in which one organism, the parasite, derives benefit while harming the other, the host. An example of mutualism is the relationship between intestinal bacteria and humans. Lichens, which are a symbiosis between fungus and a photosynthetic microbe, also represent a mutualistic relationship. The presence of Staphylococcus bacteria on skin and in nasal cavities is likely a commensal relationship, as well as Malassezia fungus infection of the epidermis. Tapeworms, the fungi that cause ringworm, and the protozoan that causes malaria are all examples of parasites. Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts Learning Outcome: 14.1

2) Researchers have proposed that the herpesvirus responsible for the childhood illness roseola may cause a type of T cell leukemia. Ninety percent of the population has been infected by the virus by two years of age, but the T cell leukemia is relatively rare. The virus can be cultured in the laboratory in tissue culture, but not in mature organisms. Discuss the obstacles to applying Koch's postulates to the etiology of this disease. Answer: Koch's first postulate, that the suspect agent must be present in every case of disease, is met, but far more people have the virus than have the disease. This suggests that more than the presence of the virus is necessary for the leukemia to develop, and the additional factors may be difficult to identify. The third postulate states that the isolated suspect agent must cause disease when introduced into a host. This situation presents two difficulties in satisfying the third postulate. The first is that it is unethical to deliberately expose humans to an agent that may produce life-threatening disease (the leukemia). Additionally, ethical concerns aside, because such a large percentage of the population has been exposed to the virus, a large pool of potential uninfected subjects does not exist. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.13 3) Describe three types of reservoirs of infection in humans. Give an example disease for each type of reservoir. Answer: For a pathogen to enter a new host, it must survive in some site from which it can infect the new host. These sites are considered reservoirs, which include the following: 1. Animal reservoirs, such as domestic or wild animals. Examples: rabies, West Nile fever 2. Human carriers, which are individuals who are infectious and may be either asymptomatic or symptomatic. Examples: AIDS, tuberculosis 3. Nonliving reservoirs, such as soil, water, and food. Examples: cholera, tetanus Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Reservoirs of Infectious Diseases of Humans Learning Outcome: 14.5 4) In 2012 a new kind of fungal meningitis (infection of the nervous system) was discovered. Disease occurred among patients who had received steroid injections into spinal joints. Discuss whether these were HA (nosocomial) infections. Defend your answer. Discuss the route of transmission and what measures public health agencies could take to reduce disease. Answer: The fungal meningitis of 2012 was an HAI (nosocomial infection), of the iatrogenic type. It was introduced by the parenteral route. Public health agencies can educate health care providers about the source of the infections and how patients should be accessed and treated. They can stop the distribution of the suspect steroids and determine what production standards may need to be enforced. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Epidemiology of Infectious Diseases Learning Outcome: 14.7, 14.28, 14.29

5) Compare and contrast endotoxins and exotoxins. Answer: Both endotoxins and exotoxins are produced by Gram-negative bacteria. Exotoxins are also produced by Gram-positive bacteria. Endotoxins and exotoxins differ in their mechanism of release and composition: exotoxins are proteins or peptides that are secreted, leaving the cell intact, whereas endotoxins are lipids released only when the cell dies because they are a part of the outer membrane. The toxicity of exotoxins is higher than that of endotoxins, but both can be fatal. Both are heat stable, but endotoxins can survive an hour of autoclaving at 121°C, whereas exotoxins are not stable above 60°C. Exotoxins produce a strong immune response, and therefore toxoid immunization is possible. Endotoxins produce fever, but only a weak immune response, so toxoid immunization is not an option. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.14

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 4e (Bauman) Chapter 15 Innate Immunity 15.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The first and second lines of defense against microbial invasion are part of A) innate immunity. B) adaptive immunity. C) species resistance. D) microbial antagonism. E) both species resistance and adaptive immunity. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: An Overview of the Body's Defenses Learning Outcome: 15.1 2) Phagocytic cells in the epidermis known as microbial invasion. A) neutrophils B) natural killer lymphocytes C) microglia D) dendritic cells E) wandering macrophages Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's First Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.3

contribute to its ability to prevent

3) Response to specific pathogens that can improve with subsequent exposure is A) the first line of defense. B) the second line of defense. C) the third line of defense. D) microbial antagonism. E) innate immunity. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.1

4) Which of the following cells increase in number during a helminth infection? A) basophils B) macrophages C) neutrophils D) eosinophils E) lymphocytes Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.10 5) What do the nasal cavity, mouth, and urinary system have in common? A) They have roles in excretion of waste products. B) They are lined with tightly packed dead cells. C) They are poorly vascularized. D) The outer layers remain intact for many days. E) They are lined with mucous membranes. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's First Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.4 6) Protection from infection known as species resistance is a result of A) the lack of suitable environment in the body. B) the absence of receptors required for microbial attachment. C) the presence of phagocytes in the tissues. D) the salty, acidic condition of normal skin. E) both the absence of necessary receptors and lack of suitable environment in the body. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: An Overview of the Body's Defenses Learning Outcome: 15.2 7) The surface of the skin serves as a barrier to microbial invasion in part because it is A) moisturized by mucus secretions. B) constantly patrolled by neutrophils. C) acidic. D) a high-salt environment. E) an acidic, high-salt environment. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's First Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.3

8) Which of the following contributes to protecting the eyes from microbial invasion? A) Tears contain lysozyme and salt. B) A mucus layer traps and removes microbes. C) Tears mechanically flush particles from the eyes. D) Tears contain lysozyme and salt and mechanically flush particles from the eyes. E) Tears and mucus combine to trap microbes and remove them. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's First Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.6 9) Which of the following is the BEST definition of "microbial antagonism"? A) the presence of pathogens on the surface of the skin, which will invade the body through abrasions B) the presence of normal microbiota that protect the body by competing with pathogens in a variety of ways to prevent pathogens from invading the body C) the presence of normal microbiota that can become pathogens under certain conditions D) the ability of microbiota to mutate into pathogens E) the presence of resident bacteria on the surface of the body and in cavities that connect to the surface Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's First Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.7 10) Mucous membranes are quite thin and fragile. How can such delicate tissue provide defense against microbial invaders? A) The mucus secreted by the mucous membrane physically traps microbes. B) The mucus contains a variety of antimicrobial chemicals and molecules. C) Both the mucus and the outer layer of cells are shed frequently. D) The mucus is a physical trap that contains a variety of antimicrobial chemicals. E) The mucus physically traps microbes, contains a variety of antimicrobial chemicals, and is shed constantly, along with the outermost layer of cells. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: The Body's First Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.5

11) Which of the following are chemotactic factors for phagocytes? A) peptide fragments from complement B) chemokines C) interferons D) interferons and chemokines E) chemokines and peptide fragments from complement Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.12 12) What is the function of NK cells? A) They phagocytose virus particles. B) They release interferons in response to detecting virus particles. C) They release toxins to damage helminth parasites. D) They identify and poison virus-infected cells. E) They release defensins to damage bacteria. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.13 13) Mucus and sweat contain which damage and kill bacteria. A) antibodies B) antimicrobial peptides C) salts D) complement fragments E) NOD proteins Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's First Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.8 14) The complement cascade and its by-products contribute to A) attracting phagocytes to sites of infection. B) triggering inflammation. C) triggering release of interferons. D) triggering inflammation and release of interferons. E) both triggering inflammation and attracting phagocytes to sites of infection. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.17

15) Which of the following statements concerning the alternative complement system is TRUE? A) It is more efficient than the classical pathway. B) It works best on Gram-positive bacteria. C) Its activation is independent of antibodies. D) It is not useful in the early stages of fungal infection. E) It plays a very significant role in the elimination of parasitic helminths. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.17 16) Which of the following is the key difference in the roles of the classical and alternative pathways of the complement system? A) the formation of MACs B) the range of microbe types that can be targeted C) triggering inflammation D) production of chemotactic factors E) the effectiveness in killing Gram-negative bacteria Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.17 17) Which of the following cells can use nonphagocytic means to kill bacteria? A) eosinophils B) macrophages C) neutrophils D) natural killer cells E) both eosinophils and neutrophils Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.13 18) A monocyte leaves a capillary in the lungs and enters the lung tissue. It then matures to become a(n) A) dendritic cell. B) goblet cell. C) alveolar macrophage. D) microglial cell. E) mast cell. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.11

19) Receptors known as NOD proteins detect molecules associated with microbes A) in the extracellular fluid. B) on the surface of cells. C) in the cytoplasmic membrane. D) in the cytoplasm. E) in the phagolysosome. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.15 20) Which of the following leukocytes have granules in their cytoplasm that stain blue with methylene blue? A) eosinophils B) monocytes C) lymphocytes D) neutrophils E) basophils Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.10 21)21)

What type of white blood cell is shown in Figure 15-1? A) monocyte B) lymphocyte C) basophil D) eosinophil E) neutrophil Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.10

22) The components of the second line of defense against microbes may be characterized as A) responders to invasion. B) passive barriers. C) mechanisms to strengthen the first line of defense. D) detecting the unique features of specific pathogens. E) both passive barriers and detecting specific pathogen features. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.9 23) Neutrophils produce , which can be triggered by sugar molecules on the surface of microbes to damage the microbes. A) antimicrobial peptides B) TLRs C) NOD proteins D) C3 and C5 E) interferons Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.8 24) In addition to phagocytosis, neutrophils can kill bacteria by producing A) histamines. B) interferons. C) nitric oxide. D) hypochlorite. E) both hypochlorite and nitric oxide. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.13 25) Which of the following iron-binding proteins is NOT part of the body's iron storage and transport system? A) gastroferritin B) lactoferrin C) ferritin D) transferrin E) siderophores Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.8

26) Which of the following statements regarding phagocyte recognition of pathogens is TRUE? A) TLRs in the phagocyte cytoplasmic membrane bind surface structures of microbes. B) TLRs on the surface of microbes trigger the accumulation of opsonins. C) Lectins on the surface of microbes are bound by chemokine receptors. D) NOD proteins on the surface of microbes are detected by TLRs. E) MACs on the surface of microbes are detected by NOD proteins. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.14 27) Healthy cells produce in response to interferons. A) TLRs B) antimicrobial peptides C) antiviral proteins D) NOD E) MACs Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.16 28) Which of the following substances stimulates the phagocytic activity of phagocytes? A) gamma interferons B) alpha interferons C) beta interferons D) antiviral proteins E) leukotrienes Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.16 29) Which complement protein is the key to activating the alternative pathway of complement activation? A) C1 B) C2 C) C3 D) C4 E) C5 Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.17

30) Fever is beneficial during viral infection because the higher temperature A) denatures viral proteins. B) increases vasodilation, bringing more leukocytes to the site of infection. C) results in virus being shed in sweat. D) prevents viral infection of fibroblasts. E) increases the effectiveness of interferons. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.19 31) Which of the following substances is/are responsible for the edema associated with inflammation? A) leukotrienes B) histamine C) interferon D) defensin E) both leukotrienes and histamine Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.18

32)32)

The process shown in the figure will lead to A) formation of MACs. B) formation of NETS. C) capillary constriction. D) chemotaxis and opsonization. E) vasodilation. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.18

33) What feature of the skin creates a physical barrier to microbial invasion? A) The outer layers are dead cells, tightly linked together, and are frequently shed. B) The oil secreted onto the surface of the skin traps microbes, preventing penetration. C) The fine hairs move microbes to mucous membranes for phagocytosis. D) The surface is constantly patrolled by phagocytic cells. E) The outer layers are composed of cells full of protein which forms NETs to trap microbes until they are shed. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's First Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.3 34) Which of the following leukocyte functions do macrophages carry out? A) phagocytosis of pathogens and debris B) release of alpha interferon C) secretion of leukotrienes D) phagocytosis of pathogens and production of NETs E) phagocytosis of pathogens and secretion of alpha interferons and leukotrienes Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.10 35) Which of the following characteristics is shared by the skin and mucous membranes? A) They are both constantly shedding and replacing cells. B) They both have cilia. C) The outer layers are composed of dead cells. D) Sebum may be present. E) Lysozymes are always present. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's First Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.3, 15.5 36) Phagocytes are brought to a site of infection by A) fluid flow out of capillaries. B) detection of NOD proteins. C) detection of chemokines and complement factor gradients. D) gradients of interferons. E) bradykinin gradients. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.12

37) The phenomenon of facilitates the binding of phagocyte pseudopodia to pathogens. A) opsonization B) chemotaxis C) MAC formation D) diapedesis E) margination Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.12 38) Wandering macrophages recognize microorganisms by means of A) lectins. B) TLRs. C) NOD proteins. D) lectins and C3 protein. E) both TLRs and NOD proteins. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.10, 15.14, 15.15 39) The play a role in preventing neoplastic cells from progressing to cancer. A) eosinophils B) NK cells C) neutrophils D) basophils E) mast cells Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.13 40) Which of the following statements is TRUE of eosinophils? A) They are in intact skin, sebum, tears, etc. B) They produce the coating of a pathogen by complement. C) They secrete toxins onto the surface of helminth parasites. D) They decline during allergic reaction. E) They release prostaglandins and leukotrienes in response to microbes. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.13

41) Structures and products of pathogens that immune cells detect and respond to are called A) TLRs. B) NODs. C) PAMPs. D) leukotrienes. E) prostaglandins. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.14 42) Phagocytes can directly detect microbial molecules like LPS and peptidoglycan by means of A) toll-like receptors. B) the complement cascade. C) PAMPs. D) bradykinin binding. E) interferon receptors. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.14 43) The leukocytes called natural killer lymphocytes A) release prostaglandins and leukotrienes in response to microbes. B) increase in allergies and helminth infection. C) respond to the coating of a pathogen by complement. D) are nonspecific leukocytes that secrete toxins onto the surface of virally infected cells. E) are specialists in killing bacteria. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.13 44) First line of defense may be described as A) the release of prostaglandins and leukotrienes in response to microbes. B) intact skin, mucous membranes, sebum, tears, and so forth. C) damage resulting in cell lysis. D) the coating of a pathogen by complement. E) nonspecific leukocytes that secrete toxins onto the surface of virally infected cells. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Body's First Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.3, 15.5, 15.6

45) Lectins specific for mannose can lead to attack on fungi by A) NK cells. B) macrophages. C) complement. D) neutrophils. E) basophils. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.17 15.2 True/False Questions 1) Cells of the second line of defense that poison virus-infected cells are lymphocytes known as NK (natural killer) cells. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.16 2) The resident microbiota have no role in defense against pathogen invasion. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Body's First Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.7 3) Sweat can cause damage to bacteria because it contains salt and lysozyme. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's First Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.3 4) The various phagocytic cells of the second line of defense target specific microbes by their unique structures. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: An Overview of the Body's Defenses Learning Outcome: 15.1 5) Some toll-like receptors (TLRs) are found on the surface of host cells and recognize specific microbial molecules. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.14

6) The alternative pathway for complement activation is more effective than the classical pathway. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.17 7) Histamine and prostaglandins are involved in inflammatory reactions. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.18 8) The growth of some microbes is inhibited by elevated body temperature. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.19 9) Neutrophils can kill bacteria by nonphagocytic mechanisms. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.13 10) Inflammation is an important part of the body's first line of defense, and it involves migration of phagocytes to the area. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's First Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.18 15.3 Short Answer Questions 1) The third line of defense against infecting microbes is called (adaptive/innate/natural) immunity. Answer: adaptive Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: An Overview of the Body's Defenses Learning Outcome: 15.1 2) The absence of necessary receptors is the basis of the defense against microbial invasion known as (natural/innate/species) resistance. Answer: species Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: An Overview of the Body's Defenses Learning Outcome: 15.2 15

3) Sweat glands produce (lysozyme/dermcidin/acid), which destroys the cell wall of bacteria by cleaving the bonds between the sugar subunits present in the wall. Answer: lysozyme Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's First Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.3 4) The (epithelial/goblet/mucous) cells in the tracheal mucous membrane produce mucus. Answer: goblet Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Body's First Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.5 5) The oily substance that lowers the pH of the skin's surface to about pH 5 and is inhibitory to many bacteria is (sebum/sweat/serum). Answer: sebum Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's First Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.3 6) The normal microbiota compete with pathogens in a variety of ways to protect the body, creating a situation known as microbial (antagonism/competition/resistance). Answer: antagonism Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's First Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.7 7) In a process called (cytokinesis/hematopoiesis/hematocrit), blood stem cells located in the bone marrow produce the three types of formed elements found in the blood. Answer: hematopoiesis Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: N/A 8) The process known as (complement/inflammation/phagocytosis) brings a variety of physical, chemical, and cellular factors together to fight invading microorganisms. Answer: inflammation Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.18 9) Neutrophils use their own (DNA/RNA/TLR) in the formation of NETs to trap bacteria. Answer: DNA Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.13 16

10) The proportion of (plasma/leukocytes/RBCs), as determined by a differential white blood cell count, can serve as a sign of disease. Answer: leukocytes Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.10 11) The TLRs of phagocytic cells bind (MAC/NOD/PAMP) molecules. (Be sure to use capital letters in your answer.) Answer: PAMP Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.14 12) The redness and heat of acute inflammation are caused in part by the production of (bradykinin/platelets/fibrinogen) during the formation of blood clots. Answer: bradykinin Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.18 13) Neutrophils primarily kill (bacterial/helminth/fungus/viral) pathogens. Answer: bacterial Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.13 14) Intact skin layers are part of the body's (first/second/third) line of defense against pathogens. Answer: first Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's First Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.3 15) Some pathogens produce toxins, which function as (histamines/prostaglandins/pyrogens) to cause fever. Answer: pyrogens Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.19

15.4 Essay Questions 1) Describe the events of the acute inflammatory response and their effect on a site of infection. Include the cells and chemicals involved. Answer: The events of the acute inflammatory response are vasodilation and increased permeability of the capillaries. Vasodilation is triggered when damaged cells release histamines and brandykin is produced during blood clot formation. The vasodilation permits increased blood flow into the area of infection, which brings more blood components (molecular and cellular) to the area and also causes the area to become red and warmer. The increased permeability allows the blood components to enter the tissue more readily. Increased plasma flow results in swelling (edema) and also increases the content of complement factors in the tissue. The increased fluid flow into the tissue creates a pressure barrier that can slow the spread of microbes. The complement cascade triggered by the presence of bacteria releases chemotactic factors. Leukocytes entering the area of inflammation marginate and diapedese in response to chemotactic factors (produced by the complement cascade and by damaged cells). These events result in a concentration of defensive factors at a site of infection and some containment of microbes in an effort to defeat the invading microbes. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.18 2) Some toll-like receptors (TLRs) are found in phagosome membranes and bind forms of nucleic acids. Discuss how these TLRs and their location can play a role in the response to viral infection. (You may have to recall information from one or more previous chapters.) Answer: When viral particles are bound and engulfed by phagocytes the phagocytic process will likely result in the release of viral nucleic acids from digested virions into the interior of the phagosome. This will make them available for detection by the TLRs. Some viruses make use of the cellular response to endocytose material attached to the cytoplasmic membrane as a means of entry into the cell. Uncoating of the viral nucleic acid within the endosome may provide an opportunity for detection of the viral nucleic acid by TLRs. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.14

3) Describe at least three physical mechanisms that are part of the first line of defense. Answer: Physical mechanisms include the skin, the mucous membranes, and the variety of fluids that are produced by the body. The skin acts as a key element in the first line of defense for several reasons. First, the skin has many layers of protection that few microbes can penetrate. Second, these layers are shed, removing potential pathogens. Third, the epidermis has epidermal dendritic cells that are phagocytic. The mucous membranes also play a role for a variety of reasons. They contain tightly packed cells that are continually shed and replaced. In addition, the production of mucus acts to trap pathogens, and the cilia, which are often present, beat synchronously to remove microbes. Bodily fluids serve to dilute and wash away microbes. These fluids include tears, saliva, urine, vaginal secretions, blood, and menstrual flow. Other physical processes include defecation and vomiting. Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's First Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.3, 15.5, 15.6 4)

Examine the WBC count and differential data in the table. What type of disease is indicated by this set of data? Answer: The overall elevation of WBC indicates an infection. The elevated lymphocyte proportion along with the slightly low neutrophil count is consistent with viral infections. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: An Overview of the Body's Defenses Learning Outcome: 15.10

5) What is phagocytosis? What does it involve? Answer: Phagocytosis is a process by which a cell can engulf substances and internalize them into the cytoplasm. Cells that are capable of phagocytosis are collectively known as phagocytes and include neutrophils, eosinophils, and macrophages. Phagocytosis is part of the body's second line of defense, and it is nonspecific. It includes the following steps: Chemotaxis: A cell moves either toward or away from a chemical stimulus. Adherence: The phagocyte attaches to the pathogen, through binding of complementary chemicals on the membranes of the pathogen. Ingestion: After the pseudopodia adhere to the pathogen, the encompassed microbe is internalized as the pseudopodia fuse to form a sac called a phagosome. Digestion: Lysosomes with over 30 digestive enzymes attach to the phagosome and break down the microbe. At the end of this process, the remains of the phagosome are known as the residual body. Elimination: The phagocyte rids itself of undigested material by exocytosis, which is the opposite of ingestion. Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.12

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 4e (Bauman) Chapter 16 Adaptive Immunity 16.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) One of the advantages of adaptive immunity over innate immunity is A) the response is targeted against a single pathogen. B) the response is far faster. C) the ability to recognize antigens common to many microbes. D) the response targets classes of pathogen instead of specific pathogens. E) a huge variety of cells are produced in response to an infection. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Overview of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.1 2) Adaptive immunity is sometimes also called acquired immunity. Which of the following statements provides a basis for the alternative name? A) Lymphocytes of the adaptive immune system are highly specific for a single antigenic determinant. B) Activated lymphocytes produce daughter cells that are identical in specificity and function. C) To become activated, lymphocytes require exposure to the antigenic determinant for which they are specific. D) Activated lymphocytes may persist for years in the body. E) Lymphocytes reactive to normal body components are removed. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Overview of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.1 3) Which of the following is an exogenous antigen? A) a bacterium inside a cell B) a virus inside a cell C) a bacterium outside a cell D) a noninfected human cell E) the malaria parasite inside a red blood cell Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.8

4) Which of the following statements about lymphocytes is FALSE? A) Once they are mature, they migrate to secondary lymphoid organs. B) B and T lymphocytes can be differentiated under the microscope. C) Lymphocytes have integral surface proteins by which they can be recognized. D) The glycoproteins on the surface of a lymphocyte are designated with the prefix CD, for "cluster of differentiation." E) Lymphocytes have different types of CD molecules in their cytoplasmic membranes. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Overview of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.2 5) Large accumulations of unactivated self-tolerant lymphocytes conducting surveillance for specific antigenic determinants are found in A) the MALT. B) lymph nodes. C) the thymus. D) the MALT and lymph nodes. E) the MALT, lymph nodes, and thymus. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.6 6) In what way is the lymphatic system similar to the circulatory system? A) The lymph nodes can contract to push fluid through the system. B) The composition of lymphatic fluid is similar to that of blood plasma. C) The lymphatic system is also a circulatory system. D) Fluid flows from larger vessels to capillaries. E) The same types of cells flow through both systems. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.4 7) The white blood cells primarily responsible for adaptive immunity are A) NK lymphocytes and neutrophils. B) B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes. C) macrophages and eosinophils. D) macrophages and neutrophils. E) neutrophils and dendritic cells. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Overview of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.2

8) You step on something in the yard resulting in a puncture wound that does not bleed freely. Antigens from any microbes that entered the wound will most likely end up in the A) appendix. B) lymph nodes of the groin (inguinal). C) lymph nodes of the neck (cervical). D) lymph nodes of the armpit (axilla). E) spleen. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.4 9)

The type of immunoglobulin illustrated here is A) IgE. B) IgG. C) IgA. D) IgM. E) IgD. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.18 10) The structural features common to all antibody classes are A) an antigen binding site formed by a single heavy chain. B) an antigen binding site formed by two light chains. C) a stem formed of a light chain and a heavy chain. D) a heavy chain paired with a light chain. E) two pairs of a heavy chain and a light chain which form an antigen binding site. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.17

11) The Fc portion of an antibody is formed by A) portions of both of the heavy chains only. B) the variable regions of the heavy chains. C) the light chains only. D) the variable regions of the light chains. E) one heavy chain. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.10 12) The antibody immune response is attributed to the action of A) monocytes. B) T lymphocytes. C) B lymphocytes. D) neutrophils. E) macrophages. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Overview of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.3 13) Which of the following statements regarding antibody function is FALSE? A) They can prevent virus attachment to host cells. B) They can facilitate phagocyte attack on bacteria with a capsule (glycocalyx). C) They can penetrate host cells to bind intracellular antigens. D) They can facilitate cytotoxic attack by natural killer lymphocytes. E) They can bind more than one pathogen at a time, forming complexes. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.18 14) Secretory IgA antibodies are unique because they A) have unique light chains. B) are Y-shaped molecules. C) are present in the plasma. D) are connected with J chains and short polypeptides to form dimers. E) are present in lymph nodes. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.18

15) NK cells can interact with antibodies in the process of antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity. A) IgD B) IgM C) IgA D) IgG E) IgE Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.18 16) Which of the following function(s) in agglutination? A) IgA antibodies B) IgG antibodies C) IgE antibodies D) IgD antibodies E) IgA and IgG antibodies Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.18 17) Which of the following statements concerning B cell receptors (BCRs) is FALSE? A) They are formed in response to an encounter with an antigen. B) They are complementary in shape to a specific antigenic determinant that they may or may not encounter. C) They are bound to the surface of B lymphocytes and have two antigen-binding sites. D) Each B lymphocyte is randomly generated with antibody variable regions that determine its BCR. E) Scientists estimate that each person forms at least 1011 different types of B lymphocytes with distinct BCRs. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.14 18) Which of the following pairs of lymphocyte and glycoprotein is MISMATCHED? A) Th1: CD8 B) Th2: CD4 C) CTL: CD8 D) Tr: CD4 E) Tr: CD25 Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.14 5

19) Which of the following cytokines act as a signal between leukocytes? A) growth factors B) interferons C) interleukins D) tumor necrosis factors E) chemokines Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.17 20) Clonal deletion of developing T lymphocytes takes place in which location(s) in the body? A) the bone marrow B) the spleen C) the liver D) both the bone marrow and the spleen E) the thymus Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.12, 16.16 21)21)

What will be the direct result of the interaction shown in this figure? (This interaction is occurring in a lymph node.) A) activation of a cytotoxic T lymphocyte B) activation of a helper T lymphocyte C) clonal deletion of a T lymphocyte D) activation of a B lymphocyte E) clonal deletion of a B lymphocyte Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Antibody Immune Responses Learning Outcome: 16.28

22) Major histocompatibility antigens are A) antigens that provoke allergic reactions. B) antigens that must be processed by cells called histiocytes in order to be recognized by the immune system. C) antigens attached to foreign invaders. D) glycoproteins found in the cytoplasmic membranes of most vertebrate animal cells. E) not really antigens, but rather antibodies produced to mask foreign antigens. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.18 23) Which of the following components of antigen processing is MISMATCHED? A) endoplasmic reticulum: endogenous antigen B) exogenous antigen: MHC II C) endogenous antigen: MHC II D) phagosome: exogenous antigen E) endogengous antigen: MHC I Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.13 24) What types of antigens are bound to Class I MHC (major histocompatibility complex) proteins? A) autoantigens B) exogenous antigens C) endogenous antigens D) both autoantigens and endogenous antigens E) autoantigens, endogenous, and exogenous antigens Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.13 25) The role of dendrites in the adaptive immune response is to A) attack and destroy invading pathogens. B) distinguish between endogenous and exogenous antigens. C) detect autoreactive lymphocytes and trigger apoptosis. D) process endogenous antigens for presentation on MHC I molecules. E) degrade exogenous antigens for presentation on MHC II molecules. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.12

26) Which of the following molecules would contain T-independent antigens? A) phospholipids B) lipoproteins C) polysaccharides D) glycoproteins E) steroids Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Antibody Immune Responses Learning Outcome: 16.26 27) Which of the following recognizes and binds to MHC II antigens and helps stabilize the binding of epitopes to T cell receptors? A) CCR3 B) MHC I C) CD26 D) CD4 E) CCR5 Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Cell-Mediated Immune Responses Learning Outcome: 16.22 28) Which of the following statements concerning plasma cells is TRUE? A) They live for many years and function as memory cells. B) They are descended from activated T cells. C) They can produce large quantities of antibodies on a daily basis. D) They secrete a variety of antibody molecules specific for multiple epitopes. E) The antibodies they produce can remain in circulation for years. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Antibody Immune Responses Learning Outcome: 16.28 29) After an initial exposure to a pathogen, the phenomenon of more effective response to subsequent exposures. A) clonal selection B) clonal deletion C) self-tolerance D) immunological memory E) immunological synapse Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Antibody Immune Responses Learning Outcome: 16.29

produces a faster,

30) Which of the following statements regarding the cell-mediated immune response is TRUE? A) Cytotoxic T lymphocytes do not require antigen presentation to become activated. B) Cytotoxic T lymphocytes interact with antibodies that have bound antigen to identify their target. C) Helper T lymphocytes have no role in the activation of cytotoxic T lymphocytes. D) Cytotoxic T lymphocytes kill by producing hydrogen peroxide. E) A single cytotoxic T lymphocyte can kill many target cells. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Cell-Mediated Immune Responses Learning Outcome: 16.23 31) The protozoan that causes malaria is an intracellular parasite of red blood cells (RBCs). An adaptive immune response to this parasite is problematic because A) red blood cells do not produce MHC and therefore do not display the fact that they have been infected by presenting antigen. B) the parasite damages leukocytes along with RBCs. C) RBCs normally produce cytokines necessary for adaptive immune response, which this infection prevents. D) complement cannot effectively destroy RBCs. E) RBCs never enter lymphoid tissue. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Cell-Mediated Immune Responses Learning Outcome: 16.18 32) The perforin-granzyme pathway involves A) the production of fever, which kills the pathogen. B) the production of antibodies toward the invading pathogen. C) the synthesis of special cell-killing proteins that act on infected or abnormal cells. D) presenting the foreign antigen to B cells. E) binding CD95L to infected cells, which eventually leads to cell apoptosis. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Cell-Mediated Immune Responses Learning Outcome: 16.23 33) The appendix and the Peyer's patches of the intestines are components of the A) MALT (mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue). B) clonal deletion process. C) thymus-associated organs. D) lymphatic vessel system. E) innate immune response. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.6 9

34) What type of immunity is produced by the body when a person contracts a disease? A) innate immunity B) naturally acquired passive immunity C) artificially acquired active immunity D) artificially acquired passive immunity E) naturally acquired active immunity Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Types of Acquired Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.30 35) A sick child may have influenza or RSV. These virus infections have different treatment options, so the physician requests antibody titer tests. The results are as follows: anti-influenza antibodies are primarily IgM, and anti-RSV antibodies are all IgA and IgG. Which of the following is the most appropriate interpretation? A) The child has a current RSV infection and was previously exposed to influenza. B) The child currently has influenza and has previously been exposed to RSV. C) The child has concurrent influenza and RSV infections. D) The child has neither influenza nor RSV. E) The results do not provide sufficient data to draw a conclusion. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Antibody Immune Responses Learning Outcome: 16.18 36) Type 1 helper T (Th1) cells produce A) alpha interferon (INF-α) B) gamma interferon (INF-γ) C) growth factors D) chemokines E) tumor necrosis factors (TNFs) Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.20

to stimulate increased phagocytosis,

37) What is the role of interleukins? A) chemotaxis of leukocytes B) production of virally infected cells C) ensuring production of enough leukocytes D) signaling between leukocytes E) complement activation Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.17 10

38) Which of the following cytokines helps regulate inflammation? A) alpha interferon B) chemokines C) tumor necrosis factor (TNF) D) IL-4 (interleukin-4) E) IL-12 Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.20 39) What is the result when a dendritic cell phagocytizes a microbe and processes it? A) activation of the dendritic cell to become a plasma cell B) display of epitope-MHC I complexes on the surface of the cell C) suppression of the immune response to the microbe D) display of microbial fragments with CD8 glycoproteins E) display of microbial epitope-MHC II complexes on the cell surface Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.21 40) Leukocytes migrate to a site of infection in response to A) bradykinins. B) interferon alpha. C) chemokines. D) interleukin 10 (IL-10). E) tumor necrosis factor (TNF). Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.20 41) Vaccination triggers an immune response which produces A) artificial passive B) natural passive C) natural active D) artificial active E) both active and passive Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Types of Acquired Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.30

immunity.

42) Which of the following best describes IgM antibodies? A) They cause basophils and eosinophils to degranulate. B) They are the most common type of antibody in the blood during the initial phases of an immune response. C) They are the antibody class found in body secretions. D) They interact with phagocytes and NK cells. E) They can cross the placenta to provide passive immunity. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.18 43) IgE antibodies are best described as A) a cause of basophil and eosinophil degranulation. B) the antibodies found in body secretions. C) those involved in complement activation. D) the trigger for antibody-dependent cellular toxicity (ADCC). E) the most common type of antibody in the blood during the initial phases of an immune response. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.18 44) How is the development of autoimmunity normally prevented? A) T lymphocytes that respond to autoantigens in the thymus undergo clonal deletion. B) T lymphocytes require a specific set of cytokine signals to become activated. C) Regulatory T cells suppress autoimmune responses. D) Clonal deletion of T cells and regulatory T cell suppression prevent autoreactive T cell activation. E) Clonal deletion of T cells, lack of necessary cytokine signals, and regulatory T cell suppression prevent activation of autoreactive T cells. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Cell-Mediated Immune Responses Learning Outcome: 16.25

45) A CD4+ T cell detects its epitope presented by an APC and receives IL-4 signals. It will differentiate to become a(n) A) CTL. B) Th1 cell. C) Th2 cell. D) Tr lymphocyte. E) APC. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Antibody Immune Responses Learning Outcome: 16.20, 16.28 16.2 True/False Questions 1) Large molecules such as polymers make good antigens. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.7 2) Molecules with a molecular mass less than 5000 daltons can become antigens when they bind to carrier molecules. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.7 3) IgG antibodies have a variety of mechanisms for acting on antigens. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.18 4) The MALT lacks the tough outer capsule of a lymph node but functions in the same way. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.6 5) A single B lymphocyte can recognize multiple antigenic determinants. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.9

6) Each B lymphocyte develops a unique BCR variable region by random assembly of immunoglobulin gene fragments. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.16 7) Some plasma cells persist long after an infection and contribute to secondary immune responses. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Antibody Immune Responses Learning Outcome: 16.28 8) Cytokines are soluble regulatory proteins that act as intercellular signals and include substances such as interleukins, interferon, and growth factors. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.17 9) During an infection with Listeria, an intracellular bacterium, APCs will present antigen on MHC II molecules. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Preparation for an Adaptive Immune Response Learning Outcome: 16.20 10) When a T cell's CD95L binds to the CD95 on a target cell, antibodies are formed. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Cell-Mediated Immune Responses Learning Outcome: 16.23 16.3 Short Answer Questions 1) The ability of the body to respond faster and more effectively to a second exposure to pathogens is called immunologic (memory/synapse/tolerance). Answer: memory Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Overview of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.1

2) An antigen-presenting cell (APC) processes and displays (auto-/endogenous/exogenous) antigen. Answer: exogenous Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.8 3) The degree to which a molecule is antigenic is largely a function of the (shape/complexity/simplicity/repetition) of the molecule. Answer: complexity Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.7 4) The (constant/end/variable) regions from the light and heavy chains of an antibody combine to form antigen-binding sites. Answer: variable Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.10 5) The process of (apoptosis/autolysis/differentiation) is a critical event in the development of self-tolerance. Answer: apoptosis Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.15 6) The cytokine (IL-4/INF-γ/TNF) causes abnormal cells to undergo apoptosis. Answer: TNF Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.20 7) Antibody molecules are produced by (B/plasma/T) cells. Answer: plasma Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Antibody Immune Responses Learning Outcome: 16.28 8) TCRs only recognize antigens presented by APC; therefore, (BCR/MHC/Th1) molecules ultimately determine which epitopes elicit an immune response. Answer: MHC Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Preparation for an Adaptive Immune Response Learning Outcome: 16.20 15

9) The surface of each B lymphocyte is covered with about 250,000 to 500,000 identical copies of (BCR/MHC/TCR). Answer: BCR Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.9 10)10)

The antibody function known as (agglutination/neutralization/opsonization) is illustrated here. Answer: opsonization Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.11 11) Professional antigen-presenting cells (APCs) include B cells, macrophages, and (dendritic/plasma/T) cells. Answer: dendritic Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Preparation for an Adaptive Immune Response Learning Outcome: 16.20 12) An APC presents antigen to an unactivated T lymphocyte on an MHC I molecule and secretes IL-12 at the same time. As a result the T lymphocyte differentiates into a (Th1/Th2/Tr) lymphocyte. Answer: Th1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Cell-Mediated Immune Responses Learning Outcome: 16.20 13) B lymphocytes can bind directly to large antigens with repeating polysaccharide subunits, such as a bacterial capsule that has antigenic determinants known as T-independent (receptors/antigens). Answer: antigens Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Antibody Immune Responses Learning Outcome: 16.26

14) The epitope specificity of a T lymphocyte is determined by its (MHC/BCR/TCR). Answer: TCR Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.10 15) When a T cell and an antigen-presenting cell interact, a specialized contact called an immunological (connection/bond/synapse) forms between them. Answer: synapse Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Cell-Mediated Immune Responses Learning Outcome: 16.22 16.4 Essay Questions 1) Discuss the importance of there being two types of adaptive immune responses (antibody and cell-mediated). Answer: Pathogens (and other hazards to the body) vary in type and form. Many pathogens are extracellular parasites while others are intracellular parasites. Large numbers of pathogens are bacteria, and others are eukaryotes. The two different immune responses are effective at targeting different types of antigens. Cell-mediated immunity is directed against endogenous antigens, and therefore intracellular parasites. The antibody immune response primarily targets exogenous antigens and is therefore largely effective against extracellular pathogens. Antibody functions are particularly effective against bacteria. Antibodies can also neutralize non-living hazards like toxins. Consequently the adaptive immune response against a specific pathogen will primarily involve one or the other type. The immune response is unlikely to be completely onesided in all infections. For example, an intracellular parasite may produce a toxin, so while a cell-mediated immune response will kill infected cells and slow the spread of the pathogen, neutralizing antibodies directed against the toxin will limit the damage done by the toxin. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Cell-Mediated Immune Responses Learning Outcome: 16.10, 16.11, 16.22

2) A variety of molecular components of the adaptive immune system bind epitopes (antigenic determinants). Compare and contrast the binding of epitopes by antibody molecules, T cell receptors (TCRs), and MHC molecules, and describe the consequences of the different interactions. Answer: Antibody molecules produced by B lymphocytes are weapons that either directly damage the antigen they bind or facilitate leukocyte attack on their attached antigen. An antibody molecule epitope binding site is formed by the "variable" regions of two peptides, the heavy chain and the light chain. Antibody molecules are secreted by the plasma cells into the fluid compartments of the body. The sole exception is IgM, which functions as an antigen receptor on unactivated B lymphocytes. T cell receptors (TCRs) are produced by T lymphocytes for detecting processed antigen. The TCR is composed of two peptides. When T lymphocytes encounter presented antigen for which they are specific, they become activated and participate in the adaptive immune response. Helper T lymphocytes produce the interleukins needed to regulate the immune response, and cytotoxic T lymphocytes become killers. Thereafter, cytotoxic T lymphocytes use their TCR to identify target cells to attack. Both MHC and TCR are embedded in the cytoplasmic membrane of the cell expressing them. MHC molecules bind processed antigen for presentation to lymphocytes. The MHC molecules are also composed of two peptides, analogous to the TCR. MHC I molecules bind endogenous antigenic determinants, that is, portions of molecules synthesized by the cell. MHC I-epitope complexes on the surface of cells are detected by T lymphocytes, leading to the activation of Th1 lymphocytes, or cytotoxic attack on the presenting cell by cytotoxic T lymphocytes. MHC II molecules bind antigen fragments produced by digestion of antigens in phagolysosomes (exogenous antigens) and display them to T lymphocytes, which become activated Th2 lymphocytes. Only antigens that MHC molecules can bind will elicit a T-cell mediated immune response. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.11, 16.13, 16.18 3) Virus infections result in activation of B cells as well as activation of Tc cells. Explain how a B cell response to virus may be useful in fighting virus infections. Answer: The virions (virus particles) produced during virus infection are released into the extracellular environment where antibodies can interact with them. Some antibodies can "neutralize" virions by binding to their ligands and thus preventing virus attachment to target cells. Antibodies bound to virus particles act as opsonins, allowing phagocytes to phagocytose these pathogens which they would not otherwise be able to bind. If the virion has an envelope, complement activation leading to MAC formation may damage the envelope sufficiently that the envelope is stripped from the capsid, inactivating the virus particle. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.18

4) Compare and contrast clonal deletion and clonal selection of B lymphocytes. Answer: Both clonal deletion and clonal selection are screening processes in which the antigen specificity of the B cell receptors are scanned. These screening processes have very different end results. Immature B lymphocytes produce their B cell receptor (BCR), which is a membrane-bound version of IgM, while still in the bone marrow. Cells in the bone marrow present "self" antigen to the immature B lymphocytes, and those that respond are "deleted" (undergo apoptosis). Thus, clonal deletion prevents autoreactive B lymphocytes from completing their development. Mature, unactivated B lymphocytes in lymphoid tissue undergo clonal selection. New antigen appearing in the body is bound by BCR specific for it, internalized, and processed for presentation with MHC II. If a Th2 lymphocyte specific for the same antigen detects the presented antigen, the B lymphocyte attached to it is "selected" for activation and clonal expansion (production of many daughter cells). Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Antibody Immune Responses Learning Outcome: 16.19, 16.28 5) Describe the mechanisms of action of antibodies. Answer: Antibodies act against foreign antigens in many ways. In agglutination, several immunoglobulin (antibody) molecules bind two or more microbial cells together, causing them to clump. This process hinders the activity of pathogenic organisms and increases the chances that they will be phagocytized. Antibodies may neutralize toxins produced by pathogens by binding to critical portions of the toxins and preventing them from functioning against the body. Antibodies may bind to virus ligands or bacterial adhesins and prevent the pathogen from attaching to cells of the body. Antibodies also act as opsonins, which are molecules that stimulate phagocytosis. Binding of the antibody to foreign antigens on the surface of cells facilitates the action of natural killer lymphocytes. IgG antibody bound to antigen can become enzymatically active and produce hydrogen peroxide to damage and kill the microbe to which it is bound. IgG and IgM antibodies that have bound antigen can trigger the complement cascade. IgE antibodies trigger the release of chemicals which damage cells and inflammatory chemicals from eosinophils and basophils. Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.18

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 4e (Bauman) Chapter 17 Immunization and Immune Testing 17.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Immunization has been a highly successful public health strategy but has not been applied to all pathogens. Which of the following diseases are NOT vaccine-preventable? A) AIDS B) colds C) malaria D) colds and malaria E) AIDS, colds, and malaria Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.1 2) When immunization levels in a population are high, infection for at-risk persons who cannot be immunized. A) contact immunity B) active immunization C) herd immunity D) adjuvant therapy E) variolation Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.4

provides protection from

3) Variolation was first used A) to immunize the Chinese against smallpox. B) to protect individuals against the plague during the Middle Ages. C) to spread smallpox throughout the Native American populations. D) to treat individuals exposed to hepatitis. E) for research purposes in the twentieth century. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.1

4) Which of the following vaccines is an infection? A) inactivated B) toxoid C) attenuated D) recombinant E) both inactivated and recombinant Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.2 5) Almost a century after Edward Jenner introduced successful vaccination, Louis Pasteur developed vaccine(s) against A) anthrax. B) human cholera. C) rabies. D) influenza. E) both anthrax and rabies. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.1 6) The discovery of antibodies and the understanding of their actions lead to treatments for disease. A) active immunotherapy B) neutralization C) recombinant D) passive immunotherapy E) serologic Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.1 7) Pathogens may be attenuated for use in vaccines by A) raising the pathogen for several generations in tissue culture cells. B) genetic manipulation. C) treatment with formaldehyde. D) genetic manipulation coupled with treatment with formaldehyde. E) genetic manipulation and/or raising the pathogen for several generations in tissue culture cells. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.2, 17.4 2

8) The vaccine against smallpox developed by Edward Jenner is an example of a(n) vaccine. A) attenuated B) whole inactivated C) subunit D) toxoid E) combination Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.2 9) Which of the following statements regarding inactivated vaccine is CORRECT? A) It may cause the disease it is intended to prevent. B) It results in effective cell-mediated immunity. C) It usually requires only a single immunization. D) It is safer than attenuated vaccines. E) There is no risk of side effects. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.2 10) Genetic manipulation of a microbe to remove one or more virulence factors is a method for producing a(n) vaccine. A) attenuated B) inactivated C) toxoid D) combination E) DNA Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.3 11) Which of the following statements regarding attenuated vaccines is FALSE? A) They are poorly immunogenic and require multiple immunizations (boosters). B) They can be safely administered to pregnant women. C) They result, primarily, in antibody-mediated immunity. D) They are produced by genetic engineering. E) They can easily be developed for any pathogen which can be cultured. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.2

12) Which of the following substances is commonly used to inactivate microbes? A) formaldehyde B) aluminum C) mineral oil D) saponin E) aluminum phosphate Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.2 13) What type of vaccine is the hepatitis B vaccine? A) inactivated whole pathogen B) attenuated vaccine C) toxoid vaccine D) a recombinant vaccine composed of a single antigen of the hepatitis virus E) a vaccine produced by treating the virus with formaldehyde Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.3 14) Toxoid vaccines are commonly used when A) the microbe cannot be cultured in the laboratory. B) immunity to the toxins produced by a pathogen is sufficient to prevent disease. C) life-long immunity is desirable. D) a cell-mediated response is desirable. E) herd immunity is not important. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.2 15) An infectious disease researcher isolates the pathogen responsible for an emerging disease. The microbe is grown in the lab for many generations. A preparation of the laboratory-grown microbe is treated with ionizing radiation and then tested for its potential as a vaccine. What type of vaccine is this? A) attenuated B) subunit C) combination D) toxoid E) inactivated whole Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.2 4

16) OPV, the attenuated oral poliovirus vaccine, is no longer administered in the U.S.A. because it A) is very toxic. B) does not provide good immunity. C) can revert to wild-type virulence. D) can be spread to contacts. E) can be spread to contacts and can revert to wild-type virulence. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.4 17) A person who has been exposed to rabies receives both HRIG (human rabies immunoglobulin) injected near the bite site and the rabies vaccine. What does this strategy represent? A) active immunization B) passive immunotherapy C) viral hemagglutination inhibition D) passive immunotherapy combined with viral hemagglutination inhibition E) active immunization combined with passive immunotherapy Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.6 18) Passive immunotherapy is used when A) the attenuated live vaccine is too difficult to produce. B) the pathogen does not produce a toxin. C) the microorganism can be genetically manipulated. D) protection against a recent infection or disease is needed immediately. E) a representative antigen for the microbe cannot be isolated. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.6

19) The saliva of a highly venomous reptile is found to contain multiple toxic compounds. What is a practical approach to providing people with protection from the deadly effects of a bite from this reptile? A) Prepare extracts of the toxins, inactivate them, and use them one at a time in a series of immunizations. B) Prepare antitoxins by immunizing a large animal with the toxins, and use extracted antibodies for treating exposed persons. C) Use recombinant techniques to prepare modified versions of the toxins. D) Prepare antibodies from the blood of people who survived bites to prepare antisera. E) Prepare hybridomas specific for each toxin and use the resulting monoclonal antibodies for passive immunotherapy. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.5 20) Monoclonal antibodies can be used for A) passive immunization. B) active immunization. C) labeled antibodies in immunoassays. D) passive immunization and labeled antibodies in immunoassays. E) active immunization and agglutination assay reagents. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.5, 17.17 21) Diagnostic testing to detect antigens or antibodies in the blood is known as A) immunology. B) hematology. C) serology. D) cytology. E) histology. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.7

22) Which of the following diagnostic procedures depends on precipitation of antigen-antibody complexes? A) blood typing B) immunodiffusion C) viral hemagglutination inhibition tests used to diagnose viral infections D) ELISA E) fluorescent antibody tests Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.10 23)23)

The diagnostic assay represented in the figure is useful when A) an immune response may result in production of a mix of antibodies against complex antigens. B) verifying the presence of a pathogen. C) determining the concentration of antibodies in sera. D) determining blood type. E) an immune response is too weak to be detected by other means. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.19

24) Which of the following tests is most effective in determining whether someone has been infected with the H1N1 influenza virus? A) a viral neutralization test B) an immunodiffusion test C) a viral hemagglutination test D) an antibody titer test E) an immunoblot Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.15 25) During a visit to a hospital, a child receives the oral polio vaccine. He then returns to his distant village. Sometime later a polio outbreak occurs in the village, but the child and his siblings, who had not had the vaccine, are spared. What is the explanation for this event? A) contact immunity B) herd immunity C) passive immunity D) active immunity E) natural immunity Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.6 26)26)

Which type of antibody assay is represented in this figure? A) an indirect ELISA B) a direct ELISA C) an indirect immunofluorescence assay D) a western blot E) an immunodiffusion assay Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.19

27) Titration is a serological procedure that A) identifies the causative microbe of an infectious disease. B) determines the amount of an antibody in the blood. C) must be done before the western blot test to diagnose HIV. D) is used for blood grouping. E) has been replaced by genetic engineering in isolating the antigen of a pathogen. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.13 28) Viral neutralization testing is based on the fact that A) antibodies can be produced against the toxin of a pathogen. B) antibodies have different molecular weights. C) viruses introduced into appropriate cell cultures have a cytopathic effect. D) the gene for a pathogen's antigen can be isolated and introduced into a host cell by way of a plasmid. E) antibodies to certain microbes can be given a fluorescent label. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.14 29) Infection with Neisseria gonorrhoeae can be detected in specimens by the A) direct fluorescent antibody B) indirect fluorescent antibody C) hemagglutination D) complement fixation E) ELISA Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.18 30) Which of the following statements regarding ELISAs is TRUE? A) They are not quantitative. B) They require large amounts of serum. C) The antibody label is a fluorescent molecule. D) They can be used to detect antibody or antigen. E) They involve the use of membrane filters. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.19

test.

31) Which of the following assays is dependent on the ability of antibodies to bind to and crosslink two antigens? A) immunoblot tests B) ELISAs C) neutralization tests D) direct fluorescent antibody tests E) precipitation tests Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.10 32) Agglutination tests can be used to A) detect a complex mix of antigens. B) diagnose HIV. C) estimate the amount (titer) of antibodies in a person's serum. D) determine the effectiveness of passive immunotherapy. E) determine the concentration of complement proteins in serum. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.13 33) In precipitation tests, maximum precipitation takes place when A) the amount of the antibody exceeds the amount of the antigen. B) the amount of the antigen exceeds the amount of the antibody. C) the amount of the antibody and the amount of the antigen are at optimal proportions. D) a toxin is present. E) a complex solution of many antibodies is used. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.10 34) A woman uses a home pregnancy test kit that tests for hCG hormone in urine. She knows this is a type of antibody assay from the kit brochure. Antibodies reacting with the hormone produce two lines on the test strip. What specific type of antibody assay does this represent? A) a direct immunofluorescence test B) a complement fixation test C) an immunochromatographic assay D) an ELISA E) a neutralization assay Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.21 10

35) The complement fixation test uses red blood cells as the target for complement activation. Test serum containing antibodies is combined with a known amount of antigen in a tube, and then the RBCs and antibodies against the RBCs are added. A positive result for the complement fixation test would be A) a line of precipitate near the bottom of the tube. B) a cloudy solution in the tube. C) loss of color in the tube. D) a fluorescent precipitate. E) a solution that is clear due to precipitation of RBCs. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.9 36) Which property of antibodies is the basis for complement fixation tests? A) Antibodies can bind two antigens simultaneously. B) The Fc portion of the molecule can be modified without interfering with antigen binding. C) Antibodies can neutralize the ability of viruses to infect cells. D) The Fc portion of IgG becomes enzymatically active upon antigen binding. E) The Fc portion can trigger the classical complement system upon antigen binding. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.16 37) A new virus is discovered that causes cells to clump together. Which of the following types of assay would be useful for diagnosing infection with this virus? A) agglutination B) complement fixation test C) hemagglutination D) both agglutination and complement fixation tests E) viral hemagglutination Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.15 38) Serologic tests for diagnosis of disease may detect A) microbial antigens. B) the concentration of serum proteins. C) the level of complement factors in the serum. D) antibodies specific for antigens. E) either antigens or antibodies specific for certain antigens. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.8 11

39) Anti-human antibodies (specific for human IgG antibodies) with fluorescent molecules covalently attached are used for A) direct fluorescent antibody tests. B) indirect fluorescent antibody tests. C) direct ELISAs. D) indirect ELISAs. E) both indirect ELISA and indirect fluorescent antibody tests. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.18 40) A(n) vaccine to prevent cervical cancer was recently developed. A) attenuated B) subunit C) inactivated whole D) recombinant E) toxoid Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.2 41) Exposure to HIV can be verified using a(n) assay. A) direct fluorescent antibody B) immunodiffusion precipitation C) viral neutralization D) viral hemagglutination inhibition E) western blot Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.19 42) A positive result in a(n) assay results in a line of immune precipitate on an agar plate. A) immunodiffusion B) immunoblot C) direct fluorescent antibody D) viral hemagglutination inhibition E) viral neutralization Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.11 12

43) Precipitation assays involve the formation of immune complexes with agglutination tests involve agglutination of . A) insoluble antigens; soluble antigens B) soluble antibodies; insoluble complexes C) soluble antigens; complement factors D) soluble antigens; insoluble antigens E) soluble antigens; large particles Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.12

while

44) Tissue samples can be tested for pathogen using assays. A) viral neutralization B) direct fluorescent antibody C) immunodiffusion precipitation D) viral hemagglutination inhibition E) immunoblot Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.18 45) A(n) can be used to detect cytopathic virus particles. A) western blot B) viral hemagglutination inhibition C) viral neutralization D) immunodiffusion precipitation E) direct fluorescent antibody Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.14 17.2 True/False Questions 1) The use of cowpox as a vaccine against smallpox was the first successful application of an immunization procedure to protect people from an infectious disease. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.1

2) Passive immunotherapy does not result in immunological memory. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.6 3) For some bacterial diseases such as tetanus, it is more effective to produce an immune response against the bacterial toxin than against the bacteria. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.2 4) Because attenuated live vaccines contain viruses that are less virulent, many booster vaccines must be given to produce an effective immune response. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.2 5) Agglutination tests can be used with serial dilution to determine antibody titers. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.13 6) Anti-antibodies are used in indirect antibody assays. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.12 7) Complement fixation is a more sensitive test for the presence of specific antibodies than are agglutination tests. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.17 8) The "sandwich" ELISA is used to quantify the amount of antibody in a serum sample. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.20

9) The virulence of the rabies virus is increased by prolonged culture in rabbit spinal cells. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.2 10) ELISAs require less reaction time than do immunofiltration assays. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.21 17.3 Short Answer Questions 1) Deliberate infection of young children with particles of ground smallpox scabs from children who had survived mild cases of smallpox was known as (vaccination/variolation/immunization). Answer: variolation Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.1 2) Raising viruses for numerous generations can produce an (attenuated/inactivated) form of the virus. Answer: attenuated Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.2 3)

This device is used in a(n) (immunodiffusion/immunochromatographic/precipitation) test. Answer: immunochromatographic Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.21 4) When vaccines do not provide lifelong immunity, (adjuvants/boosters/repeats) must be given to maintain protection. Answer: boosters Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.2 15

5) Immunization with (attenuated/recombinant/inactivated) vaccines results in primarily an antibody-mediated immune response. Answer: inactivated Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.2 6) Materials that are added to a vaccine to increase the effective antigenicity are known as (antigens/adjuvants/antibodies). Answer: adjuvants Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.2 7) A microbe antigenically similar to human pathogen but incapable of causing disease in humans is a good candidate for use as a(n) (attenuated/inactivated/recombinant) vaccine. Answer: attenuated Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.2 8) Chemically or thermally modified toxins that are used for vaccination are called (adjuvants/antigens/toxoids). Answer: toxoids Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.2 9) Modern vaccine technology can involve inserting the DNA encoding the pathogen's antigen(s) into a (plasmid/virus) and injecting it into an individual. Answer: plasmid Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.3 10) A(n) (ELISA/immunofiltration/western) assay uses antibodies bound on the surface of a membrane filter to detect antigens. Answer: immunofiltration Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.20

11) The fusion of antibody-producing plasma cells with cancerous cells produces (hybridomas/lymphocytes/cancers) that divide continuously. Answer: hybridomas Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.5 12) Neutralizing antibodies specific for toxic molecules are known as (antisera/antitoxins/antivenins). Answer: antitoxins Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.5 13) Snakebites are treated with (antisera/antitoxins/antivenins). Answer: antivenins Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.5 14) Fluorescent antibody, ELISA, and immunoblotting tests involve the use of (labeled/unlabeled) antibodies. Answer: labeled Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.17 15) Complement fixation tests make use of antibodies' natural ability to (activate/agglutinate/neutralize) complement factors. Answer: activate Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.16

17.4 Essay Questions 1) Discuss the similarities and differences between immunodiffusion and immunochromatographic assays. Answer: Both assays rely on the diffusion of antibody molecules, and both involve the formation of antibody-antigen complexes. The immunodiffusion assay is a type of precipitation assay in which the presence of antigenantibody complexes results in the development of a visible line of precipitate where the complexes come out of solution. It can be used to verify the presence of antibodies reactive to specific antigens. The variation known as radial immunodiffusion can be used to measure antibody concentrations. The procedure requires a high degree of skill and is time-consuming. The immunochromatographic assay detects the presence of antigens rather than antigen-specific antibodies. Antibodies labeled with colored metals form complexes with the antigen, but the complexes do not precipitate out of solution. The soluble, diffusing complexes are trapped and concentrated by anti-antibodies, producing a visible line of color. These antibody assays are very rapid and can be performed by persons with basic clinical skills. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.21 2) Compare and contrast viral neutralization and viral hemagglutination tests. Answer: Viral neutralization tests detect the presence of neutralizing antibodies in patient serum specific for a suspect virus. Patient serum is mixed with a solution of test virus and the mixture is added to a culture of susceptible cells. If the serum contains anti-viral neutralizing antibodies the virus will infect few or none of the susceptible cells (positive result). If the serum does not contain neutralizing antibodies, the virus will infect and kill cells, and the damage and destruction of the cells (cytopathic effect) will be visible (negative result). Viral hemagglutination tests can be used to detect antibodies against viruses that do not produce cytopathic effects. Many viruses can clump red blood cells–hemagglutination–and infections with hemagglutinating viruses can be diagnosed with this alternative test. Patient serum is mixed with test virus then mixed with red blood cells. If the RBCs clump the serum did not contain antibodies against the test virus (negative result). No RBC agglutination indicates the serum contained antibodies against the virus (positive result). Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.15

3) Two types of vaccines for polio have been developed, an inactivated whole (Salk) and a live attenuated (Sabin) vaccine. Compare and contrast the advantages and disadvantages of the two polio vaccines. Answer: The inactivated whole vaccine does not replicate and therefore does not cause an infection, which has both advantages and disadvantages: The Salk vaccine does not cause polio, but it requires boosters and elicits primarily a humoral response, which is less effective in fighting viral pathogens than are cell-mediated immune responses. The Salk vaccine also must be administered by injection. The attenuated live vaccine replicates and therefore establishes an infection. The advantages to this vaccine are that it requires only a single dose and produces a cell-mediated immune response. The vaccine is easily administered orally. The oral dose mimics the normal route of infection (polio is an enteric virus) and potentially produces a more appropriate immune response. The vaccine can produce contact immunity. The disadvantages of the Sabin vaccine are that it can cause polio in a small number of vaccinees (about 1 in every 2 million vaccinees) and their contacts and that it can revert to wild-type virulence and spread throughout the population. Consequently, the live attenuated vaccine is no longer used in the United States. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.6 4) Discuss the concept of herd immunity and its importance in creating and maintaining a healthy population. Answer: Herd immunity results when a large enough percentage of a population has immunity to a pathogen that the pathogen can no longer spread and be maintained in a population. Herd immunity can protect those members of the population who cannot be immunized (neonates, pregnant women, immunosuppressed, and so forth) from infection. Highly successful application of the principle of herd immunity may result in the eradication of a pathogen when that pathogen infects only one species. Smallpox is the first pathogen to be successfully eradicated. Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.4 5) How has modern technology helped to produce new types of vaccines? Answer: Scientists have used a variety of recombinant DNA techniques to produce improved vaccines. They have used these methods to produce large amounts of very pure viral or bacterial antigens. Genetic engineering has been used to alter microbial or viral cells to use as live recombinant vaccines, such as the rotavirus vaccine. Other methods include injecting the DNA (by way of a plasmid) that codes for the pathogen's antigen rather than injecting the antigen itself. The cell then transcribes and translates this DNA to produce the antigen, which triggers a cell-mediated immune response. Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.3

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 4e (Bauman) Chapter 18 AIDS and Other Immune Disorders 18.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following is NOT considered a hypersensitivity reaction? A) a rash caused by poison ivy B) immune system attack on the thyroid gland C) itchy eyes and a runny nose in a dusty environment D) dermatitis at the site of a metal watchband E) breaking into hives after eating strawberries Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.1 2) Which of the following immunoglobulins is produced by plasma cells in response to an allergen? A) IgA B) IgD C) IgE D) IgG E) IgM Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.2 3) Which of the following reactions is the result of type IV (delayed) hypersensitivity? A) runny nose triggered by pollen B) dermatitis in response to latex gloves C) sensitivity to pet dander D) skin irritation after wearing wool E) breathing difficulties after exposure to mold spores Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.12

4) Immediate hypersensitivity reactions result when a first exposure to antigen results in A) the activation of CTL. B) activation of IgG-producing B cells. C) an elevation of eosinophils. D) activation of IgA-producing B cells. E) activation of IgE-producing B cells. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.2 5) Which of the following is an example of a type I hypersensitivity reaction? A) watery eyes after exposure to animal dander B) destruction of red blood cells after an incompatible blood transfusion C) farmer's lung D) deposition of immune complexes in the glomeruli of the kidneys E) the tuberculin response Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.4 6) When mast cells degranulate and release histamine, which of the following events may occur? A) constriction of small blood vessels B) bronchial spasms C) increased mucus production D) both constriction of small blood vessels and bronchial spasms E) both bronchial spasms and increased mucus production Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.3 7) The redness, swelling and itching of urticaria is due to A) kinin B) histamine C) protease D) kinin and protease E) leukotriene Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.4

release.

The events illustrated in the figure are part of a(n) A) type I hypersensitivity B) type II hypersensitivity C) type III hypersensitivity D) autoimmune E) immunodeficiency Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.2

disorder.

9) The destruction of tissue cells resulting from severe allergic reaction is due to the release of A) proteases. B) histamines. C) kinins. D) prostaglandins. E) leukotrienes. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.3

10) Jess has A- blood type, has never received a blood transfusion, and has never been pregnant. Antibodies against what blood antigens will be present in Jess' blood? A) O and Rh antigens B) B antigens C) A antigens D) B and Rh antigens E) O antigens Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.6 11) How is hemolytic disease of the newborn prevented? A) immunizing a woman against Rh factor prior to pregnancy B) administering anti-IgG antibodies during pregnancy C) treating with cytokines to prevent B cell activation late in pregnancy D) administering anti-Rh IgG late in pregnancy and after pregnancy ends E) treating with glucocorticoids throughout pregnancy Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.7 12) The glycoprotein and glycolipid molecules on the surface of red blood cells A) stimulate the production of antibodies that contribute to a transfusion reaction. B) act to transport glucose and ions across the cytoplasmic membrane. C) cause degranulation of the cell when it is exposed to allergens. D) function as a binding site for IgD. E) act as receptors for foreign antigens and trigger an early immune response. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.5 13) An accident victim receives a blood transfusion. Shortly thereafter, he begins to have difficulty breathing, develops a fever, and experiences nausea and vomiting. Which of the following is the most likely interpretation of these events? A) The blood transfusion was mismatched. B) The blood transfusion contained pyrogens. C) The recipient had previously been exposed to foreign blood group antigens. D) The blood transfusion was mismatched and contained pyrogens. E) The blood transfusion was mismatched and the recipient had previously been exposed to the foreign blood group antigens. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.5 4

14) The constriction of the airways and mucus production of asthma is the result of a(n) response. A) delayed hypersensitivity B) autoimmune C) type III hypersensitivity D) type II hypersensitivity E) type I hypersensitivity Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.4 15) Which of the following could result in hemolytic disease of the newborn? A) Rh-negative mother and Rh-negative father B) Rh-positive mother and Rh-positive father C) Rh-positive mother and Rh-negative father D) Rh-negative mother and Rh-positive father E) either Rh-positive mother and Rh-negative father or Rh-negative mother and Rh-positive father Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.7 16) An agricultural worker experiences difficulty breathing, which becomes progressively worse. Tests show inflammation and damage of the lung tissue, but IgE antibodies and granulocytes are in the normal ranges. With which disorder of the immune system are these signs and symptoms consistent? A) allergic reaction B) type III (immune complex-mediated) hypersensitivity C) type IV (delayed) hypersensitivity D) autoimmunity E) acquired immunodeficiency Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.9

17) If circulating immune complexes are deposited in the glomeruli, the ensuing type III hypersensitivity reaction can result in A) allergic contact dermatitis. B) pneumonitis. C) kidney damage. D) multiple sclerosis. E) rheumatoid arthritis. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.9 18) A person with no siblings or children receives a kidney transplant. The kidney is an example of a(n) A) xenograft. B) allograft. C) isograft. D) dermograft. E) autograft. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.14 19) A small amount of antigen is injected under the skin of a patient. After 30 minutes there is no apparent change at the injection site, but 36 hours later the patient reports that the area is red and swollen. This type of response is due to A) type I hypersensitivity. B) type II hypersensitivity. C) type III hypersensitivity. D) type IV hypersensitivity. E) immunodeficiency. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.12

20) Which of the following blood types can be safely transfused into someone with O blood type? A) A B) B C) O D) A and O E) A, B, and O Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.6 21) A young woman comes into the clinic complaining of itchy, red skin and swelling on her arms and legs. She had not been in any parks or wooded areas recently, but she had been shopping. A blood sample reveals elevated levels of granulocytes. What treatment is the physician likely to prescribe at this point? A) corticosteroids B) cyclophosphamide C) interferon D) methotrexate E) antihistamines Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.3 22) If a T cell is exposed to a "hidden" antigen, what kind of immune reaction will result? A) an autoimmune disease B) a delayed hypersensitivity reaction C) a cytotoxic hypersensitivity reaction D) allergic contact dermatitis E) an allergy Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Autoimmune Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.16

23) A person comes to the clinic complaining of aching joints and muscles, swelling, and a decrease in urine output. The clinician also notes a rash on the skin of the face. A probable diagnosis is A) pneumonitis. B) immunodeficiency. C) systemic lupus erythematosus. D) dermatitis. E) Graves' disease. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.11 24) Which of the following statements concerning rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is TRUE? A) It occurs in humans and animals. B) The symptoms are due to damage caused by cytotoxic T cells. C) There is no genetic influence on the likelihood of developing RA. D) Accumulations of antibody complexes lead to inflammation in and destruction of the joints. E) The onset of disease is clearly correlated with having been infected with a specific microbe. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.10 25) Primary immunodeficiency diseases A) develop later in life. B) are detectable close to birth. C) may be caused by malnutrition. D) are never associated with genetic defects. E) are sometimes caused by severe stress. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.18 26) Which of the following would test positive for the tuberculin response? A) someone who has previously had tuberculosis B) someone who has been immunized with the tuberculosis vaccine C) someone who has previously been injected subcutaneously with tuberculin D) someone who has been immunized with the tuberculosis vaccine or has previously had tuberculosis E) someone who has been immunized with the tuberculosis vaccine or previously been injected subcutaneously with tuberculin Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.13 8

27) What is the underlying problem in most acquired immunodeficiencies? A) declining cell-mediated immunity B) declining humoral immunity C) production of autoantibodies D) eosinophilia E) anemia Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.18 28) Monoclonal antibodies that bind the IL-2 receptor have been successfully used to reverse graft rejection. Why is this approach effective? A) B cells are suppressed by exposure to IL-2. B) IL-2 stimulates the activity of CTL. C) IL-2 contributes to type VI hypersensitivity responses. D) IL-2 suppresses Th 2 cells. E) IL-2 is an immunosuppressive cytokine. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.15 29) A child has a history of repeated severe infections and frequently has recurring infections with the same bacterial pathogen. A blood sample shows some lymphopenia and serological tests are negative. Based on this information, which of the following is the likeliest diagnosis for this child? A) Bruton-type agammaglobulinemia B) DiGeorge syndrome C) severe combined immune deficiency (SCID) D) systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) E) hemolytic disease of the newborn Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.18

30) The name systemic lupus erythematosus refers in part to the distinctive rash resulting from A) antibody-antigen complexes accumulating in the skin. B) the release of histamines and kinins in response to sunburn. C) CTL attack on skin cells altered by sun damage. D) autoantibodies causing mast cell degranulation. E) CTL attack on connective tissue fibroblasts. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.11 31) Hypotheses explaining the development of autoimmune disease include A) molecular mimicry. B) genetic factors. C) hormonal stimulation of cytotoxic T cells. D) anaphylactic shock triggered by molecular mimicry. E) molecular mimicry, genetic factors, and hormonal stimulation of cytotoxic T cells. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Autoimmune Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.16 32) The production of cytotoxic T cells specific for the myelin sheath of neurons leads to the disorder known as A) multiple sclerosis. B) systemic lupus erythematosus. C) Grave's disease. D) type 1 diabetes mellitus. E) autoimmune neuralgia. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Autoimmune Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.17 33) Which condition occurs when antibodies bind to and stimulate receptors that elicit production of thyroid hormone and growth of the thyroid gland? A) multiple sclerosis B) Graves' disease C) DiGeorge syndrome D) type I diabetes E) farmer's lung Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Autoimmune Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.17

34) The tuberculin response is mediated by A) memory T cells. B) mast cells. C) B lymphocytes. D) plasma cells. E) eosinophils. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.13 35) Which of the following statements concerning allografts is TRUE? A) They are the best type of transplants because they are not associated with rejection. B) They induce strong type IV hypersensitivity reactions and must be treated with immunosuppressive drugs. C) They always require complete destruction of the recipient's bone marrow cells. D) They are impossible to perform because the antigens between donor and recipient are so different. E) They are the rarest type of transplants. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.14 36) The disease known as is a disorder in which phagocytes are inefficient at killing bacteria. A) autoimmune hemolytic anemia B) immune thrombocytopenic purpura C) hemolytic disease of the newborn D) chronic granulomatous disease E) severe combined immunodeficiency disease Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.18 37) A combination of genetic predisposition and viral infection is suspected in the development of A) type 1 diabetes mellitus. B) rheumatoid arthritis. C) Bruton-type agammaglobulinemia. D) glomerulonephritis. E) autoimmune hemolytic anemia. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Autoimmune Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.17 11

38) An acquired immunodeficiency may result from treatment with A) corticosteroids. B) interferon. C) azathioprine. D) antihistamine. E) RhoGAM. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.19 39) Antigen-antibody complexes trapped in tissues and triggering complement activation or mast cell degranulation are characteristic of A) type I hypersensitivity. B) type II hypersensitivity. C) type III hypersensitivity. D) autoimmunity. E) graft rejection. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.8 40) The responses observed in type IV hypersensitivities result from the action of A) IgE antibodies and mast cells. B) T cells and phagocytes. C) IgG and complement. D) autoantibodies. E) inflammatory chemicals. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.12 41) Graft rejection can be reduced by A) preventing B cell activation. B) antiphagocytic factors. C) antihistamines. D) preventing T cell proliferation. E) epinephrine. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.15

42) Opportunistic infections typical of AIDS but rare otherwise include A) tuberculosis. B) Pneumocystis pneumonia. C) Kaposi's sarcoma. D) tuberculosis and shingles. E) Pneumocystis pneumonia and Kaposi's sarcoma. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.20 43) The syndrome known as AIDS is characterized by A) the presence of HIV. B) an opportunistic disease resulting from herpesvirus reactivation. C) CTL attack on CD4 T cells. D) one or more opportunistic diseases and the presence of HIV. E) the presence of anti-HIV antibodies. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.20 44) Severe malnutrition may lead to immunodeficiency by A) triggering an inflammatory response. B) preventing to proliferation of B cells. C) triggering the proliferation of T cells. D) promoting the development of food allergies. E) decreasing the ability of the body to produce phagocytes. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.19

45)45)

The figure represents the HIV infection cycle. What virus-specified proteins are required for the events indicated by 1 and 2? (Be sure they are in the correct sequence.) A) gp41, protease B) integrase, gp120 C) reverse transcriptase, protease D) integrase, protease E) RNA polymerase, gp120 Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.21

18.2 True/False Questions 1) Normally, complement-activating immune complexes are eliminated from the body by phagocytosis. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.8 2) In most cases, production of antibodies against foreign ABO antigens is stimulated by exposure to foreign blood cells. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.5 3) MHC genes are significant genetic factors in predisposition to develop autoimmune disease. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Autoimmune Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.16 4) Anaphylactic shock is a type III hypersensitivity disorder. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.4 5) Children with Bruton-type agammaglobulinemia are highly susceptible to recurrent bacterial infections. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.18 6) Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a disease resulting from accumulation of immune complexes in various organs and tissues. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.11

7) If an Rh-positive woman marries an Rh-negative man, their children are at risk for hemolytic disease of the newborn. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.7 8) Infection with certain viruses may lead to the development of type I diabetes. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Autoimmune Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.17 9) Xenografts are tissue transplants from one individual to another within the same species. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.14 10) All autoimmune diseases have a genetic cause. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Autoimmune Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.16 18.3 Short Answer Questions 1) Contact dermatitis is a type (I/II/III/IV) hypersensitivity disorder. (Be sure to use Roman numerals in your answer.) Answer: IV Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.12 2) Rheumatoid arthritis is a type (I/II/III/IV) hypersensitivity reaction that results when B cells produce autoantibodies that damage the cartilage in the joints. (Be sure to use Roman numerals in your answer.) Answer: III Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.10

3) Although autoantibodies to nucleic acids are characteristic of (HIV/GVH/SLE), many other autoantibodies are produced. Answer: SLE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.17 4) Critically low levels of CD4 lymphocytes are a key diagnostic indicator of (AIDS/SCID/SLE). Answer: AIDS Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.23 5) Type I hypersensitivity reactions are also commonly known as (allergies/autoimmunities/inflammation). Answer: allergies Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.1 6) Binding of IgE to the surface of sensitized cells leads to (activation/degranulation/lysis) of the cell, releasing many inflammatory chemicals. Answer: degranulation Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.2 7) The (histamines/leukotrienes/prostaglandins/proteases) released in an immediate hypersensitivity reaction leads to the destruction of nearby cells and the activation of the complement system. Answer: proteases Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.2 8) A positive response on a tuberculin test is an example of a type (I/II/III/IV) hypersensitivity response. (Be sure to use Roman numerals in your answer.) Answer: IV Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.13

9) Stress may result in the production of (corticosteroids/leukotrienes/interleukins), which maylead to acquired immunodeficiency disease. Answer: corticosteroids Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.19 10) The damage caused by mismatched blood transfusions results from the activation of (antibody/complement/histamine) proteins. Answer: complement Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.5 11) One feature of hemolytic disease of the newborn is excessive (erythrocytes/bilirubin/hemoglobin), which leads to jaundice in the newborn. Answer: bilirubin Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.7 12) A graft that is from one identical twin to another is an (allograft/autograft/isograft). Answer: isograft Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.14 13) A person with (A/B/AB/O) blood type can safely receive any blood type for transfusion. Answer: AB Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.6 14) Type 1 diabetes mellitus is the result of CTL attack on the (kidney/pancreas/thyroid). Answer: pancreas Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Autoimmune Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.17 15) Failure of the (spleen/thymus/thyroid) to develop results in DiGeorge syndrome. Answer: thymus Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.18

18.4 Essay Questions 1) Compare and contrast type I hypersensitivity with type IV hypersensitivity with respect to reaction time, mediators, and cells involved. Answer: Type I (immediate) hypersensitivity is very quick. The reaction time can be seconds to minutes after exposure to the allergen. This type of hypersensitivity starts with a prior sensitization to the allergen during which IgE specific for the allergen is produced. The IgE that is made binds to mast cells, basophils, and eosinophils. The response can be either local or systemic and is due to a subsequent exposure to the allergen. Upon subsequent exposure, the allergen binds to the IgE on mast cells, basophils, and eosinophils, causing them to degranulate and release a variety of inflammatory molecules, including histamines, kinins, proteases, leukotrienes, and prostaglandins. Type IV (delayed or cell-mediated) hypersensitivity has a much slower reaction time. It takes 1224 hours to start developing. Antigen does not bind to antibody; it binds to antigen-presenting cells and T cells. As with type I, a type IV response is due to a prior exposure, but in the case of the type IV hypersensitivity, memory T cells are produced. In both type I and type IV hypersensitivities, inflammation is a common result. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Autoimmune Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.17 2) Hashimoto's thyroiditis and Graves' disease are autoimmune diseases involving the thyroid, but Hashimoto's results in hypothyroidism (low thyroid function), whereas Graves' results in hyperthyroidism (overactive thyroid). Both diseases are characterized by antithyroid antibodies. Discuss ways in which the autoimmune responses may produce the different outcomes. Answer: In Graves' disease, the antithyroid antibodies react with receptors on the cells and stimulate their activity, leading to hyperthyroidism. In Hashimoto's disease, the antibodies targeting the thyroid cells either damage the ability of the cells to function or trigger cytotoxic attack on the cells of the thyroid, which is eventually damaged to the point of loss of function. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.1 3) A patient arrives at a hospital suffering from serious difficulty breathing and shortness of breath. Initial tests indicate none of the standard respiratory infectious agents are present. The physician suspects an immune disorder. What clinical indicators would distinguish between asthma, pneumonitis and Pneumocystic pneumonia? Answer: Asthma would produce high levels of histamines and leukotrienes, resulting in production of excess mucus in the trachea and bronchi and constriction of the bronchi. High antibody titers and low levels of complement proteins along with generalized inflammation of the lung tissue would indicate pneumonitis. CD4 T cell counts of less than 200/microliter of blood is consistent with Pneumocystic pneumonia. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.9, 18.20

4) One of the important inherited defects in the second line of immune defense is a condition called chronic granulomatous disease. What is this disease, and how is it caused? Answer: Chronic granulomatous disease is a type of primary immunodeficiency. It is an inherited condition seen in children who have recurrent infections associated with the development of large masses of inflammatory cells in the lymph nodes, lungs, bones, and skin. It is due to the inability of neutrophils to produce reactive forms of oxygen and therefore fail to kill ingested bacteria. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.18 5) A recent news story claimed a man was cured of AIDS by a bone marrow transplant he had received three years previously for treatment of leukemia. The donor bone marrow cells lacked the fusin (CCR) protein. Discuss basis for this claim and whether or not it is reasonable. Answer: The HIV virus attaches to CD4 lymphocytes, but must interact with the fusin protein to enter cells. The virus cannot gain entry to cells lacking the fusin protein, so all the donated bone marrow stem cells are naturally resistant to HIV infection. In the course of treatment for leukemia the recipient's blood cells are eliminated and replaced by the donor blood cells. The patient's successful treatment for leukemia supplied him with blood cells naturally resistant to HIV infection, so even if residual virus is present in latently infected cells, the virus could not spread to his new cells. This constitutes a reasonable definition of "cured," but is not a practical treatment for all HIV infected persons. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.22, 18.23

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 4e (Bauman) Chapter 19 Microbial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds 19.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The skin is an effective barrier against invading microbes because A) the outer layers of cells are dead. B) the surface is covered in salt. C) it is well supplied with blood vessels to flush microbes from the surface. D) no microbes are able to survive on the surface. E) the outer layers are dead and covered in salt. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Structure of the Skin Learning Outcome: 19.1 2) Normal skin microbiota are able to grow on the skin because they can thrive in the presence of A) sebum. B) salt. C) keratin. D) sebum and salt. E) sebum, salt, and keratin. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Normal Microbiota of the Skin Learning Outcome: 19.2 3) An infection of a hair follicle at the base of an eyelid is called a A) pimple. B) sty. C) furuncle. D) carbuncle. E) macule. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.4

4) The are Gram-positive pleomorphic bacteria commonly found on the skin. A) Clostridia B) diphtheroids C) Staphylococci D) Streptococci E) Pseudomonads Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Normal Microbiota of the Skin Learning Outcome: 19.2 5) Virulent strains of Staphylococcus aureus can resist penicillin because they produce A) a slime layer. B) coagulase. C) beta-lactamase. D) staphylokinase. E) lipase. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.5 6) Which of the following is a complication that may result from a Streptococcus pyogenes skin infection? A) a carbuncle B) a sty C) shingles D) scalded skin syndrome E) erysipelas Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.9 7) Impetigo can be caused by A) Staphylococcus aureus. B) Staphylococcus epidermidis. C) Streptococcus pyogenes. D) both Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes. E) both Staphylococcus epidermidis and Streptococcus pyogenes. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.8

8) The signs and symptoms of staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome are caused by A) coagulase. B) lipase. C) beta-lactamase. D) exfoliative toxins. E) staphylokinase. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.7 9) A(n) is a large mass of inflammation and accumulated pus under the surface of an area of thick skin. A) carbuncle B) furuncle C) erysipelas D) mycetoma E) pox Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.4 10) Necrotizing fasciitis is caused by A) Staphylococcus aureus. B) Streptococcus pyogenes. C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa. D) Rickettsia rickettsii. E) both Streptococcus pyogenes and Staphylococcus aureus. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.11 11) A specific wavelength of UVA can be used to treat A) swimmer's ear. B) RMSF. C) acne. D) cat scratch disease. E) bacteremia. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.14

12) Localized swelling of a scratch accompanied by fever, malaise, and swollen lymph nodes may result from infection with A) Rickettsia rickettsii. B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa. C) Propionibacterium acnes. D) Bartonella henselae. E) Mycrosporum canis. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.15 13) Anthrax derives its name from which of the following aspects of the disease? A) the appearance of eschars on the skin B) the shape of its endospores C) the microscopic appearance of its cells D) the shape of B. anthracis colonies on agar E) the necessity of burning animals killed by the disease Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.22 14) The resistance of Pseudomonas to a wide variety of antimicrobial drugs is due, in part, to its A) production of exoenzymes. B) production of pyocyanin. C) ability to utilize a wide range of carbon and nitrogen sources. D) ability to grow in almost any moist environment. E) ability to pump drugs out of the cell. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.17 15) A petechial rash starting on the hands and feet and spreading to the torso is characteristic of A) RMSF. B) anthrax. C) smallpox. D) necrotizing fasciitis. E) herpes gladiatorum. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.19

16) Rickettsias are obligate intracellular parasites because they A) lack a cell wall. B) lack ribosomes. C) lack the glycolytic pathway. D) cannot synthesize amino acids. E) cannot metabolize lipids. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.20 17) What is the pathogenic process underlying Rocky Mountain spotted fever? A) cellular damage via potent exotoxins B) damage to blood vessels C) stimulation of a strong immune response D) interference with host cell metabolism E) formation of biofilms in host tissues Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.21 18) Infection known as frequently begins as an injury that rapidly becomes red, swollen, hot to the touch, and intensely painful. A) staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome B) anthrax C) Rocky Mountain spotted fever D) necrotizing fasciitis E) gas gangrene Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.11 19) Smallpox was the first human disease to be A) analyzed and studied on the genetic level. B) treated with antiviral drugs. C) globally eradicated. D) identified as a viral disease. E) recreated in an experimental animal. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.26

20) Spreading black necrosis, swelling, pain and froth or bubbles are characteristic of A) anthrax. B) gas gangrene. C) necrotizing fasciitis. D) chromoblastomycosis. E) Pseudomonas infection. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.23 21) A herpetic lesion on the finger or hand is known as a A) fever blister. B) pox. C) macule. D) whitlow. E) furuncle. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.27 22) Shingles, or herpes zoster, is a reactivation of the virus that causes A) smallpox. B) German measles. C) measles. D) whitlows. E) chickenpox. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.32 23) Common skin warts are the result of infection with A) poxviruses. B) herpesviruses. C) papillomaviruses. D) rubeola virus. E) parvoviruses. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.30

24) Some strains of Papillomavirus are oncogenic due to their ability to A) lie dormant in cells for years. B) integrate into the host cell DNA. C) escape the phagosome before lysosome fusion. D) produce deoxyribonucleases. E) cause extensive damage to blood vessels. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.30 25) A reddening of the skin of the face that intensifies when exposed to the sun is characteristic of A) herpes. B) chickenpox. C) rubeola. D) rubella. E) erythema infectiosum. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.37 26) Which of the following can cause birth defects? A) chickenpox B) measles C) roseola D) smallpox E) rubella Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.34 27) A rash characterized by macules which swell, fill with fluid and then pus, then rupture and become crusty lesions, is characteristic of A) human herpes virus 2 primary infection. B) poxvirus infection. C) chickenpox virus reactivation. D) roseola virus. E) papillomavirus infection. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.24

28) Which of the following is becoming rarer as a result of childhood vaccinations? A) subacute sclerosing panencephalitis B) roseola C) warts D) neonatal herpes E) impetigo Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.35 29) "Ringworm" is caused by A) dermatophytes growing in the upper dead tissue layers of the skin. B) dermatophytes that have invaded deep layers of the skin. C) parasitic worms that infect the skin. D) a hypersensitivity reaction caused by superficial contact with dermatophytes. E) immunosuppression due to HIV infection. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mycoses of the Hair, Nails, and Skin Learning Outcome: 19.41 30) Ultraviolet illumination is the quickest way to diagnose infections of which of the following? A) Malassezia furfur B) Piedraia hortae C) Pseudallescheria D) Sarcoptes scabiei E) Leishmania sp. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Mycoses of the Hair, Nails, and Skin Learning Outcome: 19.40 31) A series of nodular lesions on an arm that fill with pus and ulcerate through the skin is characteristic of infection with the fungus A) Microsporum. B) Trichophyton. C) Epidermophyton. D) Micrococcus. E) Sporothrix schenckii. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Mycoses of the Hair, Nails, and Skin Learning Outcome: 19.45

32) A man is suffering severe foot pain in the area of what looks like a large wart. He reports he has had the wart for some time, and the pain and swelling have developed slowly. A sample from the lesion shows that the pus contains large cells that stain a golden brown color. The man is likely suffering from A) sporotrichosis. B) necrotizing fasciitis. C) chromoblasomycosis. D) mycetoma. E) phaeohyphomycosis. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Mycoses of the Hair, Nails, and Skin Learning Outcome: 19.43 33) A child complains of intensely itchy "pimples" on the hands and wrists. The lesions are small inflamed streaks, but do not appear to contain pus. The child's condition may be the result of infection with A) Staphylococcus epidermidis. B) Sporothrix schenkii. C) Sarcoptes scabiei. D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa. E) Clostridium perfringens. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Parasitic Infestations of the Skin Learning Outcome: 19.47 34) Which of the following forms of leishmaniasis is typically fatal? A) visceral B) mucocutaneous C) cutaneous D) Both cutaneous and mucocutaneous are frequently fatal. E) Visceral, mucocutaneous, and cutaneous are all potentially fatal. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Parasitic Infestations of the Skin Learning Outcome: 19.46

35) A small puncture wound on a woman's arm has become swollen, hot to the touch, and intensely painful. There is tissue necrosis but it is not "gassy," and under the microscope Grampositive cocci in chains are present. Which of the following microbes is likely to be responsible? A) Streptococcus pyogenes B) Staphylococcus aureus C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa D) Clostridium perfringens E) Sporothrix schenckii Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.11 36) A pigment produced by an opportunistic pathogen that contributes to tissue damage is A) pyocyanin. B) streptokinase. C) M protein. D) lipase. E) hyaluronidase. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.17 37) Which of the following is/are antiphagocytic? A) protein A B) M protein C) leukocidin D) both protein A and M protein E) protein A, M protein, and leukocidin Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.5, 19.10 38) Under some circumstances, is beneficial, but under other conditions the bacteria become overabundant leading to inflammation of hair follicles. A) Propionibacterium acnes B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa C) Streptococcus pyogenes D) Microsporum E) Bacillus anthracis Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.13 10

39) The rash described as "teardrops on rose petals" is characteristic of A) anthrax. B) chickenpox. C) herpes. D) smallpox. E) warts. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.31 40) A child has a rash on the face, arms, upper legs, and torso. It is splotchy and intensifies after being in the sun. The child does not complain of fever or itchiness. The signs and symptoms are consistent with A) chickenpox. B) roseola. C) fifth disease. D) cat scratch disease. E) scabies. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.37 41) A sample from an abscess is stained and examined under the microscope. A Gram stain appears uniformly pink, but a GMS (Gomori methenamine silver) stain reveals brownish filaments in the sample. These findings suggest A) necrotizing fasciitis. B) sporotrichosis. C) leishmaniasis. D) phaeohyphomycosis. E) dermatophytosis. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Mycoses of the Hair, Nails, and Skin Learning Outcome: 19.43

42) The is a layer of tough fibers and fat cells that anchors the skin to the deeper tissues. A) epidermis B) dermis C) hypodermis D) fascia E) follicles Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Structure of the Skin Learning Outcome: 19.1 19.2 True/False Questions 1) Clostridium perfringens causes necrotizing fasciitis. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.11 2) M protein is a virulence factor associated with group A streptococci. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.10 3) Humans are the only hosts of Rickettsia rickettsii. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.19 4) Because they are common soil saprobes, dermatophytes are fungi that are not contagious in humans. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mycoses of the Hair, Nails, and Skin Learning Outcome: 19.41 5) Chromoblastomycosis is rarely a severe disease and can be treated easily with appropriate drugs. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mycoses of the Hair, Nails, and Skin Learning Outcome: 19.43

6) Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis, also known as kala-azar, is fatal in 100% of untreated cases. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Parasitic Infestations of the Skin Learning Outcome: 19.46 7) Smallpox vaccination was originally discontinued in the 1980s because of adverse effects of the vaccine. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.26 8) Herpesvirus infections can be controlled with chemotherapeutic agents. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.27 9) In pregnant women, roseola infection can result in teratogenic birth defects. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.37 10) Pityriasis' characteristic appearance is the result of a fungal infection causing changes in the production of melanin. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Mycoses of the Hair, Nails, and Skin Learning Outcome: 19.40 19.3 Short Answer Questions 1) The production of (exotoxin/coagulase/hyaluronidase) enzyme breaks down connections between cells, allowing Streptococcus pyogenes to invade tissue and cause necrotizing fasciitis. Answer: hyaluronidase Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.10 2) Immunization with (chickenpox/cowpox/HPV) provides protection against smallpox. Answer: cowpox Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.25 13

3) Chickenpox and (herpes/shingles/warts) are caused by the same virus. Answer: shingles Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.32 4) Aspirin should never be given to children or adolescents with symptoms of (chickenpox/herpes/smallpox) because of the risk of developing Reye's syndrome. Answer: chickenpox Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.31 5) An arachnid parasite causes the skin disease known as (leishmaniasis/ringworm/scabies). Answer: scabies Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Parasitic Infestations of the Skin Learning Outcome: 19.47 6) "Three-day measles" is caused by the (roseola/rubella/rubeola) virus. Answer: rubella Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.33 7) Fungus infection of the nail is known as tinea (capitus/pedis/unguium). Answer: unguium Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Mycoses of the Hair, Nails, and Skin Learning Outcome: 19.41 8) Contact with soil may result in infection with (anthropophilic/geophilic/zoophilic) dermatophytosis. Answer: geophilic Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Mycoses of the Hair, Nails, and Skin Learning Outcome: 19.41 9) The peeling epidermis characteristic of scalded skin syndrome is due to the production of (exfoliative/pyrogenic/streptolysin) toxins. Answer: exfoliative Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.7

10) A (furuncle/pimple/sty) is a type of folliculitis characterized by a large, painful, pus-filled nodule. Answer: furuncle Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.4 11) Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) results when defective (chickenpox/measles/rubella) virus particles trigger the fusion of brain cells. Answer: measles Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.36 12) The presence of Koplik's spots is sufficient for a diagnosis of (chickenpox/measles/rubella). Answer: measles Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.35 13) Localization of lesions within a band of skin on one side of the body is a characteristic of the disease (measles/shingles/sporotrichosis). Answer: shingles Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.31 14) Warts on the sole of the foot are known as (seed/flat/plantar) warts. Answer: plantar Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.29 15) Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the most common microbe associated with infections of (burn/immunocompromised/elderly) patients. Answer: burn Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.16

19.4 Essay Questions 1) Explain the relationship between chickenpox and shingles, paying special attention to the pathogenic processes and transmission of each of these diseases. Answer: Chickenpox and shingles are different manifestations of infection with varicella-zoster virus, a type of herpesvirus. Chickenpox is most commonly a childhood disease beginning as a respiratory infection and then spreading throughout various tissues of the body. The infection eventually manifests in cells of the dermis, developing into a characteristic rash and "teardrops on rose petals" lesions. After the infection subsides, the virus can become latent in nerve ganglia and remain there for decades. Upon reactivation, which happens in about 20% of adults who had chickenpox as children, the virus travels back down the nerves and causes the characteristic lesions of shingles. These lesions involve a painful rash that is limited to particular bands of skin innervated by the infected nerve. Individuals who have never had chickenpox therefore cannot contract shingles, although they can contract chickenpox from a shingles patient. Chickenpox is typically much more severe in adults than in children because of the more highly developed immune response in adults. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.32 2) Describe the natural defenses of the skin that prevent many infections of this area. Answer: In general, the skin is an inhospitable environment for the growth of most microbes. It is salty (salt is left behind as sweat evaporates from the skin) and covered with sebum, a lipid produced by sebaceous glands of the skin that contains a variety of antimicrobial chemicals. The outer layer of skin is also composed primarily of dead, dry skin cells that provide little nourishment or protection for microbes. These skin cells are continually being sloughed off, making it difficult for microbes to attach to invade the skin. Dendritic cells are present in the outer layers of the skin, where these phagocytic cells can attack invaders of the epidermis. Finally, a wide variety of normal skin microbiota have adapted to the adverse conditions of the skin and compete with potential invaders for nutrients and space. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Structure of the Skin Learning Outcome: 19.1

3) Both necrotizing fasciitis and gas gangrene are diseases characterized by rapid, spreading tissue necrosis. Compare and contrast the infectious agents, the pathology and treatment. Answer: Both diseases are caused by bacterial pathogens that are introduced under the surface of the epidermis by injuries. The pathogens produce a variety of toxins responsible for the necrosis and the rapid spread of the infection. Treatment is surgical removal of the infected necrotic tissue followed by an antibiotic cocktail delivered IV. Necrotizing fasciitis is primarily caused by the Gram-positive cocci Streptococcus pyogenes and Staphylococcus aureus, which are capable of infecting living subcutaneous tissue when injury provides access. Both are aerobic bacteria commonly present in and on the surface of the body, and both produce a variety of anti-phagocytic factors that interfere with a major line of defense. In addition, these organisms produce several toxins and exoenzymes that damage tissue, leading to cell death. The infection is initially difficult to detect beneath relatively intact skin. When S. aureus is the infecting agent, treatment may be difficult due to antibiotic resistance. Gas gangrene is the result of infection with the strictly anaerobic, endospores-forming Grampositive bacillus Clostridium perfringens. Disease results when endospores are introduced into a wound, and the injury results in tissue necrosis. The endospores can germinate in the oxygendepleted environment of the necrotic tissue, and the vegetative cells produce a variety of toxins which cause further cell death. The bacteria grow rapidly, and their metabolic activities result in the production of gasses which accumulate in the necrotic tissue. The injury and necrosis are evident early in the course of infection. Treatment includes antitoxins and pressurized oxygen therapy in addition to the surgery and antibiotics. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.11, 19.23 4) Explain why Pseudomonas aeruginosa is described as a "medical puzzle." Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa is described as a medical puzzle because it rarely causes disease, although it has almost unlimited pathogenic potential. P. aeruginosa possesses a wide variety of virulence factors that alone could make it an effective pathogen. These factors include various attachment mechanisms such as fimbriae and a capsule, and a variety of toxins and enzymes that kill host cells and defeat body defenses such as IgA and IgG antibodies. A second aspect of P. aeruginosa's potential for pathogenesis is its ubiquity. Due to its ability to utilize a wide variety of carbon and nitrogen sources, P. aeruginosa is found in habitats as diverse as soil, hot tubs, and humidifiers. It has even been found growing in distilled water. A third aspect of the organism's virulence is its extreme resistance to all kinds of antimicrobial drugs, which makes treatment of Pseudomonas infections especially challenging. The only reason Pseudomonas infections are as rare as they are is due to the organism's inability to breach the skin or its natural defenses; therefore, it is limited to a role as an opportunistic pathogen that causes only 10% of nosocomial infections, and then only when the skin is already damaged or compromised in some way. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.17

5) Explain why smallpox vaccination is still being considered and debated, even though smallpox has been eradicated. Answer: When smallpox was eradicated in 1980, smallpox vaccination was phased out primarily because of adverse effects experienced by some vaccinated individuals. However, in recent years there have been calls for the resumption of smallpox vaccination for two primary reasons. First, stocks of smallpox virus still exist in laboratories in the United States and Russia, and may also be held by or available to unauthorized organizations around the world. The accidental or purposeful release of this virus would be devastating to much of the population, which is no longer, or never was, immune to smallpox. Second, in recent years there has been an increase in the number of monkeypox cases around the world. Due to similarities between the two viruses, vaccination against smallpox also protects against monkeypox, and it is thought that resumption of smallpox vaccination might be a good way to eliminate the current monkeypox epidemics. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Viral Diseases of the Skin and Wounds Learning Outcome: 19.26

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 4e (Bauman) Chapter 20 Microbial Diseases of the Nervous System and Eyes 20.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Functions of the include regulation of heart rate and respiration. A) cerebellum B) cerebrum C) spinal cord D) brain stem E) meninges Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Structure of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.1 2) Functions of the meninges include A) support for the brain and spinal cord. B) transmission of signals from the peripheral nervous system. C) protection from external shock. D) production of neurotransmitters. E) support for the brain and spinal cord and protection from external shock. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Structure of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.1 3) The optic nerves are an example of which of the following? A) motor nerves B) spinal nerves C) mixed nerves D) synaptic nerves E) sensory nerves Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Structure of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.1

4) Cerebrospinal fluid circulates in the A) dura mater B) arachnoid villi C) cranial sinuses D) subarachnoid space E) pia mater Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Structure of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.2

to deliver nutrients to the brain and spinal cord.

5) Some microbes gain access to the normally axenic central nervous system by A) damaging the blood-brain barrier. B) axonal transport from infected peripheral neurons. C) infecting macrophages which subsequently enter the CNS. D) infecting lymph nodes in the cranium. E) either damaging the blood-brain barrier or by axonal transport from infected peripheral neurons. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Structure of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.3 6) Encephalitis is an infection of A) the brain. B) the meninges. C) neurons of the peripheral nervous system. D) the eye. E) the cauda equina. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.4 7) The Gram-negative diplococcus is resistant to phagocytosis and releases Lipid A to cause inflammation. A) Clostridium botulinum B) Haemophilus influenza C) Streptococcus agalactiae D) Neisseria meningitidis E) Listeria monocytogenes Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.5

8) The Gram-positive diplococcus is commonly found in the pharynx but may invade the central nervous system inside cells where it survives after endocytosis. A) Streptococcus agalactiae B) Listeria monocytogenes C) Haemophilus influenzae D) Neisseria meningitidis E) Streptococcus pneumoniae Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.5 9) The pleomorphic bacterium is an obligate parasite due to its requirement for NAD+ and heme. A) Neisseria meningitidis B) Streptococcus pneumoniae C) Listeria monocytogenes D) Haemophilus influenzae E) Streptococcus agalactiae Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.4 10) Newborns exposed to the Gram-positive bacterium of developing neonatal meningitis. A) Streptococcus agalactiae B) Listeria monocytogenes C) Haemophilus influenzae D) Neisseria meningitidis E) Streptococcus pneumoniae Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.5

during vaginal birth are at risk

11) Contaminated food is the source of , which causes meningitis in the elderly and susceptible persons. A) Neisseria meningitidis B) Streptococcus agalactiae C) Haemophilus influenzae D) Listeria monocytogenes E) Streptococcus pneumoniae Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.4 3

12) Bacterial agents of meningitis which can survive phagocytosis include A) Neisseria meningitidis. B) Streptococcus pneumoniae. C) Mycobacterium leprae. D) both Neisseria meningitidis and Streptococcus pneumoniae. E) Neisseria meningitidis, Streptococcus pneumoniae and Mycobacterium leprae. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.5 13) The type of bacterial meningitis that becomes epidemic among young adults is caused by A) Streptococcus agalactiae. B) Streptococcus pneumoniae. C) Haemophilus influenzae. D) Neisseria meningitidis. E) Listeria monocytogenes. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.5 14) Which of the following is TRUE of foodborne botulism? A) It is an intoxication disorder. B) It is not a life-threatening infection even when left untreated. C) Large amounts of bacteria must be consumed to produce disease. D) Normal food preparation methods can prevent it. E) An effective vaccine is available. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.8 15) Botulism toxin disrupts motor control by A) blocking the release of acetylcholine by motor neurons. B) causing demyelination of motor neurons. C) blocking inhibitory signals to motor neurons. D) killing motor neurons. E) blocking acetylcholine receptors on muscle cells. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.9

16) How does tetanospasmin affect motor control? A) It blocks the secretion of acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft. B) It blocks the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters in the CNS. C) It triggers the endocytosis of skeletal muscle cells. D) It induces nervous system proteins to fold into abnormal shapes. E) It is a pyrogenic toxin. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.10 17) A baby arrives at an emergency room suffering from violent muscles spasms and difficulty breathing. The baby's body is so rigid a proper exam is difficult, but the staff note the baby is only a few weeks old and the umbilicus has not healed properly. The signs are consistent with which of the following diseases? A) infant botulism B) acute bacterial meningitis C) tetanus D) rabies E) listeriosis Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.11 18) Tetanus vaccine contains A) antibodies against Clostridium tetani. B) inactivated Clostridium tetani endospores. C) antibodies against Clostridium tetani endospores. D) fragments of Clostridium tetani cell walls. E) inactivated tetanospasmin. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.11 19) The highly destructive form of Hansen's disease is the result of A) poor immune response to Mycobacterium leprae. B) autoimmune disease triggered by Mycobacteriu leprae. C) intracellular infection with Clostridium botulinum. D) poor immune response to Streptococcus agalactiae. E) infection with rabies virus. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.6 5

20) Which of the following diseases is the result of a bacterial infection of peripheral nerves? A) botulism B) acute bacterial meningitis C) Hansen's disease D) tetanus E) rabies Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.6 21) Listeria monocytogenes pathogenesis is directly related to its ability to A) produce a powerful toxin. B) form endospores. C) produce a polysaccharide capsule. D) live and reproduce inside its host's cells. E) resist most antimicrobial agents. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.5 22) Which of the following causes of viral meningitis is transmitted by the fecal-oral route? A) equine encephalitis virus B) California encephalitis virus C) West Nile virus D) echovirus E) rabies Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Disease of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.12 23) Viral meningitis is also called "aseptic meningitis" A) to indicate no bacteria are involved. B) because it is frequently a nosocomial infection. C) since it is treatable with antiviral medications. D) because it is vaccine-preventable. E) to distinguish it from encephalitis. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.12

24) The least common type of polio is A) nonparalytic polio. B) an asymptomatic infection. C) minor polio. D) paralytic polio. E) postpolio syndrome. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.13 25) Slow deterioration of muscle function occurring over many years occurs in A) West Nile encephalitis. B) postpolio syndrome. C) African sleeping sickness. D) minor polio. E) leprosy. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.13 26) Poliovirus is most often transmitted via A) contaminated water. B) household pets. C) mosquitoes. D) droplets. E) endospores. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.13 27) Which of the following statements concerning rabies is FALSE? A) It is caused by an ssRNA virus. B) Transmission is usually via a bite from a rabid animal. C) Treatment includes vaccination. D) Bats are the source of most cases of rabies in humans. E) All mammals can serve as a reservoir for the disease. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.16

28) Which of the following nervous system diseases is treated with both passive and active immunization? A) arboviral encephalitis B) botulism C) primary amebic meningoencephalopathy D) rabies E) West Nile encephalitis Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.16 29) Rodents are the natural hosts for the virus that causes A) Eastern equine encephalitis. B) Western equine encephalitis. C) Venezuelan equine encephalitis. D) St. Louis encephalitis. E) West Nile encephalitis. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.17 30) The disease known as cryptococcal meningitis A) begins as a lung infection. B) is caused by a Gram-negative coccus. C) results from exposure to bird droppings. D) is transmitted in respiratory aerosols. E) results from exposure to bird droppings and begins as a lung infection. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mycoses of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.18 31) African sleeping sickness is fatal if not treated because the parasite A) evades destruction by the immune system by changing surface antigens. B) produces a toxin which binds irreversibly to neurons. C) is an intracellular parasite in RBC's, where they are not detected by the immune system. D) reproduces so fast there is no time for an immune response to develop. E) produces a non-immunogenic toxin the immune system cannot neutralize. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Protozoan Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.19

32) An intracellular parasite primarily transmitted as an STD is the agent of may cause enough damage to result in blindness. A) primary amebic meningoencephalopathy B) trachoma C) rabies D) tetanus E) cryptococcal meningitis Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Microbial Diseases of the Eyes Learning Outcome: 20.23

, which

33) Variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease can be prevented by avoiding A) contact with mosquitoes. B) contaminated waterways. C) consumption of contaminated meat. D) contact with bird droppings. E) consumption of undercooked meat. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Prion Disease Learning Outcome: 20.22 34) Nasal or ocular contact with water containing meningoencephalitis. A) Acanthamoeba B) Naegleria C) Trypanosoma brucei D) both Acanthomoeba and Naegleria E) Acanthamoeba, Naegleria and Trypanosoma brucei Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Protozoan Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.20

may result in primary amebic

35) Which of the following is classified as a spongiform encephalopathy? A) botulism B) variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease C) Hansen's disease D) arboviral encephalitis E) African sleeping sickness Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Prion Disease Learning Outcome: 20.22

36) Which of the following causes of meningitis can be spread by the fecal-oral route? A) Haemophilus influenzae B) Streptococcus pneumoniae C) Streptococcus agalactiae D) coxsackie A virus E) West Nile virus Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.12 37) The condition known as "pinkeye" may be the result of infection with A) Haemophilus influenzae. B) Trypanosoma brucei. C) Acanthamoeba. D) Clostridium botulinum. E) Chlamydia trachomatis. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Microbial Diseases of the Eyes Learning Outcome: 20.24 38) A child is brought to the hospital with a high fever, nausea, and vomiting, and complaining of headache. The cerebrospinal fluid collected by spinal tap is cloudy and contains spherical cells which stain Gram-positive. These signs and symptoms are consistent with A) primary amebic encephalitis caused by Naegleria. B) cryptococcal meningitis due to infection with Cryptococcus neoformans. C) bacterial meningitis probably due to Streptococcus. D) tetanus resulting from infection with Clostridium botulinum. E) aseptic meningitis from infection with Neisseria meningitidis. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.5

39) A young man is experiencing fever and severe headaches, and is having difficulty staying awake. He reports having spent time in Africa on a missionary trip several months ago. Recently he spent time in a park where he went swimming in the lake and was bitten by a bat he attempted to catch. His cerebrospinal fluid is nearly clear, and contains long, slender, mobile cells. This description indicates infection with A) Acanthamoeba. B) an enterovirus. C) rabies virus. D) Neisseria meningitidis. E) Trypanosoma brucei. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Protozoan Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.19 40) One summer, bird watchers and zookeepers in a major city notice that more birds than usual are dying. At the same time reports of human encephalitis cases increase sharply. The cerebrospinal fluid of human patients is clear. Similar enveloped RNA virus particles are detected in samples from both birds and humans. Which of the following might be responsible for this outbreak? A) an arbovirus B) coxsackie A virus C) Cryptococcus neoformans D) Neisseria meningitidis E) rabies virus Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Viral Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.17

41)41)

The illustration is of a Gram-negative bacterium frequently responsible for meningitis. What virulence factor(s) of the bacterium is/are illustrated? A) a capsule B) fimbriae C) a membrane containing LOS D) a capsule and fimbriae E) a capsule, fimbriae, and a membrane containing LOS Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.5 20.2 True/False Questions 1) Cryptococcal meningitis can affect both healthy and immunocompromised individuals. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Mycoses of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.18 2) Trypanosoma brucei infections are characterized by cyclic waves of parasitemia that occur roughly every 7 to 10 days. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Protozoan Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.19 12

3) Rabies is a rare zoonosis in humans but common in many other species of mammal. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.15 4) Fungi rarely infect the central nervous system. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Mycoses of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.18 5) Human diploid cell vaccine is used to prevent polio. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.16 6) Horses and humans are considered "dead-end" hosts for arboviruses. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.17 7) Naturally-occurring poliomyelitis has occurred as recently as 2007 in the Americas. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.13 8) Viral meningitis is usually more serious than bacterial meningitis. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.12 9) Tetanospasmin blocks the release of stimulatory neurtransmitters. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.10

10) Clostridium botulinum can grow in the intestinal tracts of both infants and adults. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.8 20.3 Short Answer Questions 1) The only natural hosts for infection with the microbe Mycobacterium leprae are humans and (armadillos/birds/pigs). Answer: armadillos Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.6 2) Infant botulism is the result of (inhalation/ingestion/inoculation) of bacterial endospores. Answer: ingestion Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.8 3) The neurotoxins of Clostridium botulinum produce (paralysis/spasms/weakness) by interfering with acetylcholine secretion. Answer: paralysis Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.9 4) The form of botulism known as (foodborne/infant/wound) is an intoxication disorder. Answer: foodborne Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.8 5) When a strong T cell immune response against Mycobacterium leprae fails to develop, (lepromatous/tuberculoid) leprosy results. Answer: lepromatous Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.7 6) Children in the United States are vaccinated with the (IPV/OPV) to prevent polio. (Use all uppercase in your answer.) Answer: IPV Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.13 14

7) A diagnostic indicator of bacterial meningitis is (clear/milky/dark) cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Answer: milky Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.4 8) The presence of (cocci/diplococci/coccobacilli/streptococci) in the CSF is consistent with infection with Listeria monocytogenes. (Describe the appearance of the cells.) Answer: bacilli Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.5 9) Small subcutaneous hemorrhages called (macules/petechiae) are sometimes present in cases of meningitis. Answer: petechiae Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.4 10) Contact lens solution, swimming pools, and dialysis units can be a source of a fatal nervous system disease caused by (amoeba/fungi/trypanosomes). Answer: amoeba Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Protozoan Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.20 11) Negri bodies are a characteristic microscopic finding in the diagnosis of (encephalitis/leprosy/rabies). Answer: rabies Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.16 12) Cryptococcus appears to inhibit phagocytic killing mechanisms by the production of (leukocidin/listeriolysin/melanin). Answer: melanin Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Mycoses of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.18 13) The presence of the pathogen in the blood called (bacteremia/parasitemia/viremia) is a defining feature of African sleeping sickness. Answer: parasitemia Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Protozoan Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.19 15

14) Spongiform encephalopathy diseases develop as a result of infection with (parasites/prions/rabies). Answer: prions Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Prion Disease Learning Outcome: 20.22 15) The condition called (conjunctivitis/keratitis/trachoma) is the result of infection of the cornea. Answer: keratitis Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Microbial Diseases of the Eyes Learning Outcome: 20.24 20.4 Essay Questions 1) Compare and contrast the pathogenicity of Clostridium botulinum and Clostridium tetani, including mechanisms of action of their toxins and disease manifestations. Answer: Both bacteria are anaerobic endospores-formers that produce neurotoxins. Disease results when the endospores are introduced deep into the tissues. Both neurotoxins interfere with motor control. Botulism toxin, produced by C. botulinum, binds the cytoplasmic membranes of motor neurons at the synapse and prevents the release of acetylcholine neurotransmitter, and consequently prevents signaling to muscle cells. When muscle cells do not receive signals from motor neurons, they remain relaxed, which result in a flaccid paralysis. A long list of symptoms is produced by the lack of motor control, the most serious of which is respiratory failure, since respiratory muscles can be affected by botulism toxin. Tetanus toxin, produced by C. tetani, targets inhibitory neurons, which release inhibitory neurotransmitter that prevents muscle cells from responding to acetylcholine stimulation to contract. Under normal circumstances, when one muscle of an antagonistic pair is stimulated to contract, the other muscle is inhibited from contracting, allowing for normal movement by alternate flexion and extension. When tetanus toxin blocks the release of inhibitory neurotransmitter, both muscles of the antagonistic pair contract spasmodically, and sometimes lock in continuous contraction, resulting in non-flaccid paralysis. Loss of control of the respiratory muscles can lead to respiratory failure. Tetanus toxin can also interfere with autonomic (non-voluntary) muscle control, which may result in irregular heartbeat and possibly heart failure. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.11

2) Discuss the two types of poliovirus vaccines available, including the advantages and disadvantages of each. Answer: The two types of poliovirus vaccine are the inactivated poliovirus vaccine (IPV) developed by Jonas Salk and the oral poliovirus vaccine (OPV) developed by Albert Sabin. Both vaccines effectively stimulate immunity against poliovirus. However, there are a number of differences between the two vaccines. In general, IPV is cheaper and easier to transport and store than OPV, which is less stable. On the other hand, OPV is easier to administer, provides good immunity without the need for boosters, and mimics a natural infection more closely than IPV. Probably one of the biggest differences between the two has to do with the risk of vaccinerelated polio. Because IPV is inactivated virus, it cannot cause the disease itself; however, because OPV is a live virus vaccine, there have been documented cases of its mutation into a virulent form, which then can cause polio in the person supposedly immunized by the vaccine. For this reason, IPV is now often used to vaccinate babies initially so that they will have an opportunity to develop good immunity before being exposed to live poliovirus. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Viral Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.14 3) Compare and contrast African sleeping sickness and primary amebic meningoencephalopathy. Answer: Both diseases are caused by protozoan parasites and have very high risk of fatality. Trypanosoma brucei, which causes African sleeping sickness, is a true pathogen. It is a kinetoplastid transmitted by an insect vector, and initially establishes an infection of the blood. The parasite makes its way into the central nervous system and causes severe headache and progressively declining neurologic function leading to death. The disease progresses slowly, taking months or years to kill those infected. There is no vaccine, but there are medications effective against the parasite while it is still in the blood. Both Acanthamoeba and Naegleria cause primary amebic meningoencephalopathy. Both are free-living, fresh water amoebae that can become accidental parasites when they get into the eyes, nose, or breaks in the skin. The amoebae rapidly make their way to the brain following cranial nerves. The disease progresses rapidly, sometimes killing only days after infection. There is no vaccine, and there are no reliable effective treatments. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Protozoan Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.21

4) Describe the pathogenesis associated with Trypanosoma brucei that makes it impossible for infected individuals to become immune to the pathogen. Answer: Trypanosoma brucei is a protozoan that causes African sleeping sickness. As it replicates, it is released into the bloodstream, causing parasitemia. An effective immune response is generated against the pathogen; however, as the pathogen continues to replicate, it changes its surface glycoproteins and in the process presents new antigens to the immune system, which then must make new antibodies against the trypanosome. Repeated changes in the microbe's surface antigens result in waves of parasitemia every 7 to 10 days, and because of this ability to change antigens frequently, the infected individual never becomes sufficiently immune to the trypanosome to be able to clear the infection. Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Protozoan Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.19 5) A one-year-old child is brought to the hospital with high fever and limited range of motion of the head. The child frequently rubs her head. A recent history is not immediately available due to a language barrier on the part of the parent. The attending physician suspects meningitis and orders a sample of CFS be collected. Describe the various diagnoses possible based on the results with the CSF. Answer: A cloudy or milky appearance of the CSF is consistent with bacterial meningitis. A Gram stain of the bacteria present can facilitate identification of the causative agent. Gram-negative diplococcus: Neisseria meningitidis Gram-positive diplococcus: Streptococcus pneumoniae Gram-positive streptococcus: Streptococcus agalactiae Gram-positive coccobacilli: Listeria monocytogenes Gram-negative pleomorphic bacteria: Haemophilus influenzae CSF that is clear and colorless indicates the cause is not bacterial. Microscopic examination of the fluid may reveal round encapsulated yeast cells (Cryptococcus neoformans), long motile cells tapering at each end (Trypanosoma brucei) or motile amoeba (Acanthamoeba or Naegleria). If no cells are evident in the clear CSF, a viral pathogen is indicated. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Protozoan Diseases of the Nervous System Learning Outcome: 20.21

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 4e (Bauman) Chapter 21 Microbial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases 21.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following vessels carries blood from the heart to the rest of the body? A) the aorta B) the superior vena cava C) the inferior vena cava D) the pulmonary arteries E) capillaries Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Structure of the Cardiovascular System Learning Outcome: 21.2 2) The chambers and valves of the heart are lined by the A) pericardium. B) myocardium. C) endocardium. D) erythrocytes. E) vena cava. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Structure of the Cardiovascular System Learning Outcome: 21.3 3) Blood is found in the of the heart just before it is pumped into the lungs. A) left ventricle B) right atrium C) right ventricle D) superior vena cava E) left atrium Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Structure of the Cardiovascular System Learning Outcome: 21.4

4) A blood sample from a patient is examined on a microscope. Bacterial cells are detected in the sample. The patient has A) bacteremia. B) lymphangitis. C) toxemia. D) lipidemia. E) viremia. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.5 5) Infection of the lymphatic vessels is known as A) disseminated intravascular coagulation. B) bacteremia. C) lymphangitis. D) petechiae. E) recurrent fever. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.6 6) Toxic shock-like syndrome is associated with A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa. B) Staphylococcus pyogenes. C) Streptococcus aureus. D) Neisseria meningitidis. E) both Staphylococcus pyogenes and Streptococcus aureus. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.6 7) A person is brought to the emergency room with constant high fever, extensive edema, low blood pressure, and petechiae. From which of the following may the person be suffering? A) septicemia B) plague C) Lyme disease D) brucellosis E) infectious mononucleosis Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.6

8) Disseminated intravascular coagulation is a complication resulting from the A) release of cytotoxins. B) triggering of the complement system. C) attachment of bacterial cells to the endocardium. D) release of heme from damaged RBCs. E) release of lipid A from dying Gram-negative bacteria. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.7 9) Vegetations are associated with which of the following disease processes? A) septicemia B) endocarditis C) tularemia D) plague E) toxoplasmosis Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.8 10) Unprotected contact with the bodily fluids of an infected animal may result in A) African sleeping sickness. B) brucellosis. C) blackwater fever. D) Lyme disease. E) toxoplasmosis. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.10 11) The chief diagnostic sign of brucellosis is A) petechiae. B) jaundice. C) "bull's eye" rash. D) fever which recurs at 24 hour intervals. E) fever which cycles every 72 hours. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.9

12) Which of the following statements is CORRECT concerning tularemia? A) Infection occurs by inhalation only. B) The causative agent is an intracellular bacterial parasite. C) The disease is easily treated. D) The disease is transmitted from person to person. E) The signs include a distinctive pattern of mild but recurring fever. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.11 13) Fever, difficulty breathing, extreme fatigue, and elevated heart rate are characteristic of A) Bang's disease. B) ehrlichiosis. C) infectious mononucleosis. D) plague. E) endocarditis. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.8 14) The normal habitat of is rodents, but humans bitten by fleas carrying the pathogen have fever, severely inflamed lymph nodes, and headache. Later, areas of black, necrotic tissue may develop. A) Clostridium perfringens B) Yersinia pestis C) Francisella tularensis D) Borrelia burgdorferi E) Toxoplasma gondii Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.13 15) Which of the following is characteristic of Yersinia pestis infections? A) petechiae B) a "bull's-eye" rash C) jaundice D) arthritis E) buboes Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.13

16) How does Borrelia burgdorferi evade the body's defenses? A) It has a polysaccharide capsule. B) It has manganese-containing enzymes. C) It is capable of antigenic variation. D) It has a polysaccharide capsule and antiphagocytic proteins. E) It is capable of antigenic variation and has manganese-containing enzymes. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.16 17)17)

The appearance of this rash is characteristic of infections with which of the following? A) Francisella tularensis B) dengue virus C) Borrelia burgdorferi D) Epstein-Barr virus E) Yersinia pestis Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.14

18) Primary infection with Epstein-Barr virus is known as A) infectious mononucleosis. B) Burkitt's lymphoma. C) Hodgkin's lymphoma. D) chronic fatigue syndrome. E) oral hairy leukoplakia. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.21 19) Epstein-Barr virus infections are typically asymptomatic in development of adaptive immunity. A) the elderly B) AIDS patients C) adolescents D) adults E) young children Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.21

because of incomplete

20) A few days of fever with vomiting followed by high fever, jaundice, and "black vomit" are characteristic of A) malaria. B) dengue fever. C) Chagas' disease. D) yellow fever. E) schistosomiasis. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.25 21) Cycles of fever, chills, anemia and headache along with passage of dark colored urine are the symptoms of infection with A) yellow fever virus. B) P. vivax. C) P. ovale. D) P. falciparum. E) dengue virus. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Protozoan and Helminthic Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.29 6

22) Schizogony is an important aspect of which of the following pathogens? A) Yersinia pestis B) Plasmodium species C) Toxoplasma gondii D) Trypanosoma cruzi E) Schistosoma mansoni Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Protozoan and Helminthic Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.29 23) Dengue hemorrhagic fever is the result of A) an immediate immune reaction to the initial infection with dengue virus. B) an antibody-antigen complex reaction. C) a hyperimmune response to reinfection with dengue virus. D) an autoimmune disease. E) the chronic carrier state associated with dengue virus infection. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.27 24) A young woman develops a fever after a recent trip to a Caribbean island. She also experiences severe headache and pain "in the bones." After a few days, she also develops a rash. Which of the following did she most likely contract? A) yellow fever virus B) dengue virus C) malaria D) Toxoplasma E) Chagas' disease Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Viral Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.26 25) Which of the following is/are transmitted by Aedes mosquitoes? A) dengue fever B) yellow fever C) malaria D) both dengue fever and yellow fever E) dengue fever, yellow fever, and malaria Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Protozoan and Helminthic Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.29

26) A large number of people experience a high fever with a rash during the summer months in a small country. Epidemiologists suspect an emerging disease. Both Aedes and Anopheles mosquitoes are endemic to the country. Researchers are able to detect +ssRNA in the blood of fever victims and in some mosquitoes. What type of pathogen might be responsible for the epidemic? A) a herpesvirus B) a flavivirus C) Plasmodium D) plague bacteria E) a filovirus Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Viral Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.29 27) Which of the following is known to be teratogenic? A) Epstein-Barr virus B) cytomegalovirus C) Plasmodium D) Borrelia E) dengue virus Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.23 28) Depletion of clotting proteins from the serum leads to the uncontrollable hemorrhaging seen in infections. A) yellow fever virus B) malaria C) dengue virus D) Ebola virus E) Epstein-Barr virus Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.28

29) Plasmodium species reproduce sexually in A) birds. B) Aedes mosquitoes. C) Ixodes ticks. D) humans. E) Anopheles mosquitoes. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Protozoan and Helminthic Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.29 30) Which of the following is the infective form of Trypanosoma cruzi? A) epimastigotes B) trypomastigotes C) pseudocysts D) amastigotes E) miricidia Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Protozoan and Helminthic Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.34 31) Plasmodium falciparum produces proteins that cause in addition to the anemia due to erythrocyte destruction. A) DIC B) toxemia C) black vomit D) capillary damage E) damage to the heart muscle Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Protozoan and Helminthic Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.31 32) Which of the following diseases is a major problem for AIDS patients? A) Chagas' disease B) toxoplasmosis C) hemorrhagic fevers D) Lyme disease E) brucellosis Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Protozoan and Helminthic Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.33

33) Which of the following statements concerning Toxoplasma infection is CORRECT? A) It is a rare infection. B) It is transmitted by biting insects. C) It is typically contracted by eating undercooked meat. D) Freshwater snails are intermediate hosts. E) In most individuals, the infection results in lasting damage to the heart. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Protozoan and Helminthic Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.33 34) Lyme disease becomes chronic because A) Borrelia changes its surface antigens frequently. B) Borrelia can lie dormant in liver cells. C) the bacterium resists phagocytosis. D) Borrelia is an intracellular parasite of erythrocytes. E) the bacterium resists phagocytosis and "hides" erythrocytes. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.16 35) "Swimmer's itch" is an initial symptom of which of the following? A) malaria B) Lyme disease C) Chagas' disease D) tularemia E) schistosomiasis Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Protozoan and Helminthic Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.35 36) Another name for brucellosis is fever. A) blackwater B) yellow C) snail D) rabbit E) undulant Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.9

37) The normal hosts for Ebola viruses are probably A) birds. B) cats. C) rodents. D) bats. E) humans. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.28 38) An indication of infection with Human herpesvirus 4 is A) "swimmer's itch." B) "bull's eye" rash. C) a bubo. D) high fever and sore throat. E) an ulcerating sore. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.21 39) Which of the following diseases is currently vaccine-preventable in humans? A) schistosomiasis B) malaria C) Lyme disease D) plague E) yellow fever Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.25 40) A young man who is an avid outdoorsman goes to see his doctor complaining of fever with chills, headache, nausea, and diarrhea. Blood tests show that he has low levels of leukocytes and platelets. He may have contracted A) brucellosis. B) tularemia. C) Lyme disease. D) ehrlichiosis. E) Chagas' disease. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.19

41)41)

A person reports to a clinic complaining of fever and abdominal pain. The abdomen is swollen, and blood tests indicate kidney damage. A stool sample is examined under a microscope and found to contain the egg shown in the figure. The indications are consistent with infection with A) Plasmodium falciparum. B) Anaplasma phagocytophilium. C) Schistosoma mansoni. D) Toxoplasma gondii. E) Trypanosoma cruzi. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Protozoan and Helminthic Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.35 21.2 True/False Questions 1) Lipid A can cause septic shock. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.7 2) Only adult ticks of the genus Ixodes feed on humans. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.15 3) Small doses of antimicrobial drugs are effective in treatment of the late stages of Borrelia infection because the microbe is extremely susceptible. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.17

4) The terms "bacteremia" and "septicemia" are synonymous. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.5 5) Patients with occult septicemia are asymptomatic. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.6 6) The three developmental stages of Ehrlichia are the elementary body, the initial body, and the morula. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.19 7) Human herpesvirus 4 is better known as cytomegalovirus. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.21 8) Both bubonic and pneumonic plague cause the formation of buboes and tissue necrosis of the extremities. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.13 9) Vertical transmission of cytomegalovirus may occur in utero or at the time of vaginal birth. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.24 10) People with genes for a form of hemoglobin known as hemoglobin C are at risk of fatal malaria disease. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Protozoan and Helminthic Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.32

21.3 Short Answer Questions 1) The release of bacterial toxins into the blood leads to (bacteremia/septicemia/toxemia). Answer: toxemia Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.5 2) Blood returns to the heart from the lungs through the pulmonary (arteries/veins/valves). Answer: veins Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Structures of the Cardiovascular System Learning Outcome: 21.2 3) When bacteria in the bloodstream invade the bones, this leads to a painful condition called (endocarditis/osteomyelitis/septicemia). Answer: osteomyelitis Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.6 4) Undulant fever is also known as (brucellosis/malaria/tularemia). Answer: brucellosis Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.9 5) The zoonosis known as (ehrlichiosis/plague/tularemia) is transmitted to humans by fleas. Answer: plague Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.12 6) One of the factors leading to the initial characterization of Lyme disease in 1975 was the greater-than-expected incidence of (arthritis/osteomyelitis/mononucleosis) among children. Answer: arthritis Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.14 7) Because of their small size, (larvae/nymphs/adults) of the tick genus Ixodes most often transmit Lyme disease to humans. Answer: nymphs Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.15 14

8) Epstein-Barr virus causes the cells it infects to become immortal because it suppresses (apoptosis/cytolysis/oncogenesis). Answer: apoptosis Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.22 9) Cytomegalovirus infection of the retina is now treated with (interferon/fomivirsin/ganciclovir), the first antisense RNA drug. Answer: fomivirsin Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.24 10) Yellow fever is named for the (anemia/jaundice/vomiting) it typically causes. Answer: jaundice Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.25 11) The intermediate host for Schistosoma mansoni is a (mosquito/tick/snail). Answer: snail Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Protozoan and Helminthic Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.35 12) The Ebola and Marburg viruses are the sole members of the (Flaviviridae/Filoviridae/Herpesviridae) family, named for their unusual filamentous form. (Be sure to use proper form.) Answer: Filoviridae Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.28 13) The sporogonic cycle of (malaria/toxoplasma/schistosoma) takes place entirely within a mosquito. Answer: malaria Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Protozoan and Helminthic Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.29 14) The final stage of Chagas' disease is typically fatal because the parasite infects cells of the (blood/heart/liver). Answer: heart Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Protozoan and Helminthic Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.34 15

15) True bugs in the genus (Aedes/Ixodes/Triatoma) transmit Chagas' disease. (Be sure to use proper nomenclature form.) Answer: Triatoma Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Protozoan and Helminthic Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.34 21.4 Essay Questions 1) Explain the difference between bacteremia and septicemia, and describe some of the factors that can lead to septicemia. Answer: Septicemia is a microbial infection of the blood that causes disease. Although the terms bacteremia and septicemia are sometimes used interchangeably, bacteremia technically refers to septicemia caused by bacteria in the bloodstream. The signs and symptoms of bacteremia and septicemia are essentially the same, and both can lead to adverse consequences such as toxemia, lymphangitis, or septic shock. To be able to cause these problems, the bacteria involved in septicemia may possess capsules, have the ability to capture iron from the host's tissues, and/or release a variety of endotoxins that ultimately damage host cells and tissues. Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.5 2) Compare and contrast bubonic and pneumonic plague. Answer: Both bubonic and pneumonic plague are caused by Yersinia pestis and are transmitted by fleas that migrate between animal hosts and humans. However, pneumonic plague is generally much more serious than bubonic plague, develops more rapidly, and is more often fatal than bubonic plague. In addition, pneumonic plague can occur when Yersinia pestis is inhaled, so it can be transmitted from person to person. Bubonic plague is transmitted only by infected fleas. Treatment and prevention of both diseases are similar: plague is easily treated by common antibiotics such as tetracycline, and prevention involves rodent and flea control, as well as good personal hygiene. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Bacterial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.13

3) List and describe the three stages of malaria, paying attention to the various forms of the protozoan parasite present in each stage of the disease. Answer: Two of the three stages of malaria occur in a human, and the third stage occurs in mosquitoes. The human stages begin with the exoerythrocytic cycle, when mosquitoes inject sporozoites into the bloodstream. These sporozoites reproduce in the liver to form merozoites, which are released into the blood. Merozoites then penetrate red blood cells and launch the second human stage, which is the erythrocytic cycle. The merozoites become trophozoites inside red blood cells, and these trophozoites can, in turn, reproduce to become more merozoites, which spontaneously lyse the erythrocytes, causing the characteristic cycles of fever and chills associated with malaria. Other merozoites develop into gametocytes, which can be ingested by the female Anopheles mosquito to launch the third cycle, the sporogonic cycle. These gametocytes go through a process of sexual reproduction inside the mosquito, eventually resulting in the formation of sporozoites once again. These sporozoites migrate to the mosquito's salivary glands, and the malaria cycle begins all over again. Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Protozoan and Helminthic Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.29 4) Compare and contrast dengue hemorrhagic fever and Ebola hemorrhagic fever. Discuss both the pathogens and the pathology. Answer: Both diseases are caused by RNA viruses. Both start with fever, headache and muscle pain, then a rash develops, followed by bleeding. There is no specific treatment for either disease and no vaccines are available to prevent them. Dengue hemorrhagic fever is caused by a member of the Flaviviridae, a +ssRNA virus with an icosahedral capsid. It is transmitted by Aedes mosquitoes. A first infection with dengue virus does not lead to the hemorrhagic disease, but it is subsequent infection that produces the hemorrhagic disease. Memory T cells produced in response to the first infection are activated upon subsequent infection and release inflammatory cytokines that trigger a hyperimmune response that results in damage to blood vessels, internal bleeding, and may progress to shock from excessive blood loss. Ebola viruses are filamentous–ssRNA Filoviridae whose natural hosts are thought to be bats. Humans become infected when handling an infected animal, after which the virus can be transmitted from person to person by unprotected contact with blood and other bodily fluids. Ebola virus infection initially triggers excessive clotting which results in depletion of clotting factors, which in turn leads to extensive internal hemorrhaging. Death results from massive shock and kidney failure. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Viral Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.27, 21.28

5) How does the age of the infected individual play a role in the development of Epstein-Barr virus (HHV-4) infections such as infectious mononucleosis? Answer: The symptoms of most Epstein-Barr infections result from a "war" between the cellular and humoral divisions of the immune system. B cells are infected by Epstein-Barr virus, and then cytotoxic T cells try to kill the infected B cells. The younger an infected individual is, the less mature his or her cellular immune system is, and the less effective it will be in causing symptoms during the "war." In fact, in young children, Epstein-Barr virus infections are usually asymptomatic. The later in life an individual is infected with Epstein-Barr virus, the more vigorous the cellular immune system is, and the more problematic and symptomatic the infection becomes. On the other hand, however, a vigorous cellular immune response also means that the infected B cells may be completely eradicated from the body, resulting in no discernible disease in many individuals. Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases Learning Outcome: 21.22

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 4e (Bauman) Chapter 22 Microbial Diseases of the Respiratory System 22.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1)

The structure indicated by the arrow connects the middle ear to what part of the respiratory system? A) nasal cavity B) larynx C) pharynx D) sinuses E) trachea Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Structures of the Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.2 2) Which of the following is part of the upper respiratory system? A) larynx B) trachea C) bronchi D) pharynx E) alveoli Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Structures of the Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.1 1

3) Which of the following is an opportunistic pathogen commonly present in the nasal cavity as a member of the microbiota? A) Staphylococcus aureus B) Bordetella pertussis C) Legionella pneumophilia D) Pneumocystis jiroveci E) Veillonella species Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Structures of the Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.3 4) Inflammation of the pharynx with pus-filled abscesses and swollen tonsils is known as A) diphtheria. B) otitis media. C) croup. D) RSV. E) streptococcal pharyngitis ("strep throat"). Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Upper Respiratory System, Sinuses, and Ears Learning Outcome: 22.4 5) The designation "group A," used to help classify Streptococcus pyogenes, refers to this bacterium's A) Lancefield antigen. B) hemolysis pattern. C) M protein. D) type of streptokinase produced. E) disease associations. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Upper Respiratory System, Sinuses, and Ears Learning Outcome: 22.5 6) Which of the following allows group A streptococci to spread through tissues by breaking down blood clots? A) M proteins B) a hyaluronic acid capsule C) streptolysin D) streptokinase E) pyrogenic toxins Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Upper Respiratory System, Sinuses, and Ears Learning Outcome: 22.5 2

7) Which of the following Streptococcus pyogenes virulence factors kills leukocytes and erythrocytes? A) streptolysins B) pyrogenic toxins C) streptokinases D) the hyaluronic acid capsule E) C5a peptidase Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Upper Respiratory System, Sinuses, and Ears Learning Outcome: 22.5 8) Pathogenic streptococci of the upper respiratory tract (such as Streptococcus pyogenes) are distinguished from non-pathogenic streptococci by A) alpha hemolytic activity. B) beta hemolytic activity. C) no hemolytic activity. D) the absence of a capsule. E) the presence of a lysogenic phage. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Upper Respiratory System, Sinuses, and Ears Learning Outcome: 22.5 9) Diphtheria toxin kills cells by interfering with which of the following processes? A) complement function B) nucleic acid synthesis C) cytoplasmic membrane function D) protein synthesis E) adenylate cyclase activity Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Upper Respiratory System, Sinuses, and Ears Learning Outcome: 22.6 10) Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning diphtheria? A) No effective vaccine is available to prevent infection. B) A diffuse rash is the major sign of diphtheria. C) The signs and symptoms of the disease are directly caused by a bacterial toxin. D) The pseudomembrane is easily removed by surgery. E) A microscopic exam of bacterial samples is sufficient for conclusive diagnosis. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Upper Respiratory System, Sinuses, and Ears Learning Outcome: 22.7

11) Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the common cold? A) Only coronaviruses cause the common cold. B) The viruses can infect both the upper and lower respiratory tracts. C) Cold viruses reproduce most effectively at 37°C. D) Cold viruses are frequently spread by contaminated fomites. E) The immune system cannot develop an effective response to cold viruses. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Diseases of the Upper Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.9 12) What is the primary determinant of virulence in Streptococcus pneumoniae? A) the presence of a particular Lancefield antigen B) the production of pneumolysin C) the presence of a polysaccharide capsule D) the ability to lyse red blood cells E) strain-specific teichoic acids in its cell wall Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.11 13) The majority of cases of pneumonia are caused by A) Mycoplasma pneumoniae. B) Klebsiella pneumoniae. C) Haemophilus influenzae. D) Streptococcus pneumoniae. E) Chlamydophila pneumoniae. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.11 14) A pneumonia caused by Gram-positive diplococci is known as A) primary atypical pneumonia. B) pleurisy. C) pneumocystic pneumonia. D) pneumonic plague. E) pneumococcal pneumonia. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.11

15) Ornithosis, a disease of birds that can be transmitted to humans, is caused by A) Yersinia pestis. B) Klebsiella pneumoniae. C) Chlamydophila psittaci. D) Mycoplasma pneumoniae. E) Chlamydophila pneumoniae. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.12 16) Which of the following is an opportunistic infection? A) inhalation anthrax B) primary tuberculosis C) whooping cough D) legionellosis E) SARS Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.15 17) Neutrophils are inhibited from gathering at the site of infection by Mycobacterium tuberculosis by what virulence factor of the pathogen? A) mycolic acid B) cord factor C) kinase D) the capsule E) hemolysin Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.16 18) Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding tuberculosis? A) It occurs only in the lungs. B) Several hundred cells are required for infection. C) It remains viable in dried aerosol droplets for up to eight months. D) Only virulent strains of Mycobacterium tuberculosis produce mycolic acid. E) The immune system is not affected by the infection. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.17

19) Bordetella pertussis causes whooping cough by A) interfering with the activity of ciliated epithelial cells in the trachea. B) the development of pneumonia. C) suppressing mucus production. D) forming a pseudomembrane that obstructs the respiratory passages. E) irritating the diaphragm, which leads to severe coughing attacks. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.20 20) Bordetella pertussis produces A) dermonecrotic toxin. B) adenylate cyclase toxin. C) pyrogenic toxin. D) dermonecrotic and adenylate cyclase toxins. E) dermonecrotic, adenylate cyclase, and pyrogenic toxins. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.20 21) The DTaP vaccine protects against which of the following respiratory diseases? A) pneumonia B) pertussis C) anthrax D) the common cold E) tuberculosis Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.20 22) Inhalation anthrax is frequently fatal even with antibiotic therapy because A) Bacillus anthracis is resistant to a wide range of antibiotics. B) it is transmitted by endospores. C) the anthrax toxin triggers severe edema of the lungs. D) the bacteria are enclosed within a biofilm that antibiotics cannot penetrate. E) the dying cells release lipid A, triggering a severe inflammatory response. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.21

23) The typical signs and symptoms of flu are largely a result of A) cytokines released as part of the immune response. B) the release of viral toxins. C) syncytium formation. D) secondary bacterial infections. E) the death of cells outside the lungs. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.22 24) A recently retired man appears at his doctor's office complaining of difficulty breathing, body aches and fatigue. He is also running a high fever and has a dry cough. He reports having just returned from a trip to the Middle East where he visited several historical sites. Test results are negative for a rapid test for influenza A. No bacteria are visible in a microscopic exam of his sputum. Which of the following is a likely explanation? A) inhalation anthrax B) pertussis C) valley fever D) coronavirus respiratory syndrome E) primary atypical pneumonia Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Viral Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.24 25) Even though mycoplasmas pass through filters that normally trap bacteria, they are known to be bacteria, not viruses, because they A) contain both DNA and RNA. B) synthesize peptidoglycan. C) divide by binary fission. D) contain both DNA and RNA and divide by binary fission. E) synthesize peptidoglycan and divide by snapping division. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.11

26) Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding infection with Mycoplasma pneumoniae? A) It is extremely difficult to treat. B) The causative agent attaches to ciliated cells in the respiratory tract. C) The causative agent is a fast-growing Gram-positive bacillus. D) It causes disease which is usually severe enough to require hospitalization. E) It is diagnosed by the appearance of typical "fried-egg" colonies on agar. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.11 27) Croup is often a result of infection with which of the following? A) hantavirus B) influenzavirus C) Bordetella pertussis D) Mycoplasma pneumoniae E) respiratory syncytial virus Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.26 28) Which of the following factors is primarily responsible for the ability of Mycobacterium tuberculosis to survive long periods of time in dried droplets of respiratory aerosols? A) production of cord factor B) pyrogenic toxin C) formation of tubercles D) the presence of LPS in the outer membrane E) the presence of mycolic acid in the cell wall Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.17 29) Limiting exposure to rodents and their waste materials is an important means of preventing A) coccidioidomycosis. B) Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome. C) histoplasmosis. D) bronchiolitis. E) inhalational anthrax. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.27

30) Blastomycosis results from A) inhalation of spherules. B) inhalation of respiratory droplets. C) inhalation of fungal spores. D) contact with fomites. E) contact with infected sputum. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Mycoses of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.31 31) Dust storms in arid regions of the Southwestern U.S. may lead to outbreaks of A) blastomycosis. B) histoplasmosis. C) Pneumocystis pneumonia. D) Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome. E) valley fever. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mycoses of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.30 32) Exposure to large accumulations of bird dropping may result in which of the following mycoses? A) Pneumocystis pneumonia B) blastomycosis C) coccidioidomycosis D) histoplasmosis E) valley fever Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mycoses of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.32 33) Which of the following diseases is almost diagnostic for AIDS? A) blastomycosis B) coccidioidomycosis C) Pneumocystis pneumonia D) histoplasmosis E) Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Mycoses of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.33

34) Why are nearly all AIDS patients at risk of developing Pneumocystis pneumonia? A) Pneumocystis jiroveci is becoming a wide-spread contaminant in health care environments. B) Pneumocystis jiroveci is commonly found in a wide variety of soils. C) The pathogen is easily transmitted from infected persons to others. D) Pneumocystis jiroveci is a common member of the respiratory microbiota in humans and opportunistic pathogen. E) Pneumocystis jiroveci is zoonotic in a wide range of vertebrates and exposure is unavoidable. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mycoses of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.33 35) A new vaccine for the upcoming flu season is developed from an influenza isolate designated A/Shanghai/2/2013(H7N9). This nomenclature means the isolate is A) a type A with antigens HA 7 and NA 9 isolated in Shanghai in February 2013. B) a type A with 7 HA antigens and 9 NA antigens isolated in Shanghai in February 2013. C) the second type A strain with HA 7 and NA 9 antigens isolated in Shanghai in 2013. D) a type B strain with antigens HA 7 and NA 9, first isolated in February 2013. E) a hybrid of 2 type As combining 7 HA and 9 NA antigens, created in February 2013. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Viral Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.23 36) A nursing student develops a positive reaction to the tuberculin skin test. A history reveals possible exposure to patients with tuberculosis. A sputum sample is acid-fast negative. When asked for vaccination records, the student reports that childhood vaccination records were lost when the family emigrated from a Southeast Asian country. What is the best explanation for the test results? A) The student has been infected with Mycobacterium tuberculosis. B) The student has been exposed to Mycobacterium tuberculosis. C) The student is not infected. D) The student has been exposed to Mycobacterium tuberculosis or was vaccinated with BCG vaccine. E) No conclusion is possible with the information provided. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.18

37) Which of the following is a common cause of otitis media? A) Chlamydophila pneumoniae B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis C) Blastomyces dermatitidis D) Streptococcus pneumoniae E) Pneumocystis jiroveci Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Upper Respiratory System, Sinuses, and Ears Learning Outcome: 22.8 38) Legionella pneumophila is an opportunistic pathogen that A) is part of the microbiota of the lower respiratory system. B) is part of the microbiota of the nasal cavity which occasionally invades the lungs. C) survives in the environment as an intracellular parasite of a protozoan. D) is capable of forming endospores. E) is a disease of birds transmissible to humans. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.15 39) A young man who works on a ranch and lives in the log bunkhouse experiences sudden fever with muscle aches. A few days later he begins to cough and have difficulty breathing, and goes to an urgent care clinic. A blood sample reveals a high leukocyte count and low platelets. A Gram stain of a sputum sample shows only a few small bacteria present. Which of the following is the most likely infecting agent? A) Bacillus anthracis B) Hantavirus C) Histoplasma capsulatum D) influenza E) Mycoplasma pneumonia Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Viral Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.27

40) A woman who breeds parrots develops a fever and cough, and begins to have difficulty breathing. Small Gram-negative bacteria are detected inside cells of a sputum sample. Which of the following diseases is she likely to have contracted? A) histoplasmosis B) influenza C) primary atypical pneumonia D) ornithosis E) inhalation anthrax Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.12 22.2 True/False Questions 1) The seriousness of Coccidioides infections can be attributed to the cycle of formation and rupture of spherules. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Mycoses of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.30 2) Haemophilus influenzae is a common cause of sinus infections. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Upper Respiratory System, Sinuses, and Ears Learning Outcome: 22.8 3) Pneumocystis jiroveci infects only immunocompromised patients. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Mycoses of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.33 4) Microscopic evaluation of suitable specimens is a useful way of diagnosing histoplasmosis. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Mycoses of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.32 5) Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome can be transmitted from person-to-person and from rodents to humans. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.27 12

6) "Syncytium" is a term used to describe a mass of necrotic tissue. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.25 7) Specimens suspected to contain Bordetella pertussis must be inoculated onto appropriate media at the patient's bedside. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.20 8) Macrophages effectively phagocytize and kill Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.18 9) Cold viruses are prevented from infecting most areas of the body because these areas are either too warm or too acidic. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Upper Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.9 10) Otitis media is more common in adults than children because of differences in the anatomy of the head. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Upper Respiratory System, Sinuses, and Ears Learning Outcome: 22.8 22.3 Short Answer Questions 1) A key diagnostic sign of diphtheria is the presence of the (pseudomembrane/pharyngitis/rash/tubercle). Answer: pseudomembrane Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Upper Respiratory System, Sinuses, and Ears Learning Outcome: 22.7

2) Cell death and tissue destruction result from the action of (erythrogenic/dermonecrotic/diphtheria) toxin produced by Bordetella pertussis. Answer: dermonecrotic Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.20 3) The smallest free-living microbes are (mycobacteria/mycoplasmas/Chlamydophila). Answer: mycoplasmas Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.13 4) Recent outbreaks of multidrug-resistant HAP are primarily caused by members of the genus (Bordetella/ Klebsiella/Mycobacteria), Gram-negative opportunists. Answer: Klebsiella Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.11 5) The presence of distinctive spiny spores is diagnostic for the causative agent of (coccidioidomycosis/blastomycosis/histoplasmosis). Answer: histoplasmosis Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Mycoses of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.32

The structure indicated by the letter "A" is the (pharynx/larynx/epiglottis). Answer: epiglottis Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Structures of the Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.1? 7) Group A Streptococcus produces a class of molecules called (hemolytic/dermonecrotic/pyrogenic) toxins that stimulate leukocytes to release fever-inducing cytokines. Answer: pyrogenic Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Upper Respiratory System, Sinuses, and Ears Learning Outcome: 22.5 8) Elongation factor, a protein required for eukaryotic (transcription/translation/expression), is the cellular target of the toxin produced by Corynebacterium diphtheriae. Answer: translation Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Upper Respiratory System, Sinuses, and Ears Learning Outcome: 22.6 9) The attachment protein for almost all rhinoviruses is (BCG/ICAM-1/IgA). (Be sure your answer is in uppercase letters.) Answer: ICAM-1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Upper Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.9

10) A type of pneumonia in which the alveoli and bronchioles become filled with pus is (emphysema/empyema/pleurisy). Answer: empyema Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.10 11) The mycoplasmas have been successively classified as viruses, Gram-negative bacteria, and Gram-positive bacteria largely due to the lack of cell (membranes/walls/RNA) in their structure. Answer: walls Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.13 12) When macrophages carry Mycobacterium tuberculosis to sites such as the bone marrow and spleen it results in (disseminated/secondary/reactivated) tuberculosis. Answer: disseminated Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.17 13) Strains of Mycobacterium tuberculosis designated as (BCG/MDR/XDR) strains are resistant in vitro to three or more antitubercular drugs in addition to isoniazid and rifampin. (Be sure to use uppercase letters in your answer.) Answer: XDR Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.19 14) A major change in the surface glycoproteins of influenza A, which occurs every 10 years on average, is called (antigenic/genetic/protein) shift. Answer: antigenic Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.23 15) Inflammation of the trachea and bronchi, commonly called (croup/pertussis/pneumonia), is frequently caused by paramyxoviruses. Answer: croup Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.26

22.4 Essay Questions 1) Why is immunity to the common cold so difficult to develop, either naturally or through vaccines? Answer: The primary reason that immunity generally does not develop against the common cold is that there is not a single cause of the disease. A variety of viruses, including rhinoviruses, coronaviruses, and adenoviruses, can cause the symptoms of the common cold. Therefore, any vaccine designed to protect against the common cold would have to include antigens from all the different viruses that can cause the disease, which is simply not practical or even feasible. The exception to this is the vaccine against adenovirus infections, although it is currently used only for military recruits. Because of the vast number of viruses that can cause the common cold, even natural immunity is difficult to obtain because a person may not encounter the exact same virus serotype twice in a lifetime. In addition, the receptor for ICAM-1on the virus particle is not accessible by antibodies, preventing antibody neutralization of the virus. However, the frequency of colds does decrease as a person ages, so some immunity undoubtedly occurs, including some herd immunity. Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Diseases of the Upper Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.9 2) Explain the necessity of producing a new vaccine for each year's flu season. Answer: Because the genome of influenzavirus is capable of extraordinary reassortment and genetic variation, new strains of the virus constantly arise. Various strains of influenzavirus pass through a variety of animal hosts (most notably pigs, birds, and humans), resulting in the production of new combinations of genome segments. The outcome of all the genetic rearrangement is either antigenic drift, a phenomenon in which the HA and NA glycoproteins of the virus undergo minor genetic changes, or antigenic shift, in which major antigenic changes occur in the glycoproteins, resulting in virtually brand-new strains of the virus. Therefore, because the virus is undergoing constant antigenic change, U.S. health officials monitor the worldwide incidence of flu, making note of which strains seem likely to occur in the next flu season, and making adjustments to the flu vaccine accordingly. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Viral Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.23

3) Compare and contrast pneumococcal and mycoplasmal pneumonia. Answer: Pneumonia describes a general pathogenic process in which a bacterial or viral infection of the lungs results in their being filled with fluid, and the subsequent complications arising from such a process. Among bacterial pneumonias, both pneumococcal and mycoplasmal pneumonias are common types. Pneumococcal pneumonia is caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae, while mycoplasmal pneumonia is caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae. In general, pneumococcal pneumonia is a more serious disease than mycoplasmal pneumonia, which is often called "walking pneumonia" because of its milder symptoms. Pneumococcal pneumonia has a more seasonal occurrence than mycoplasmal pneumonia, which is seen throughout the year. Furthermore, mycoplasmal pneumonia is seen most commonly in adolescents and young adults, whereas pneumococcal pneumonia is more common in children, the elderly, and immunocompromised patients. S. pneumoniae produce a variety of virulence factors that result in serious damage to lung tissue, even producing blood in the sputum being coughed up. The bacteria can further migrate into the bloodstream from the damaged lung tissue, sometimes even causing more serious bacteremia and meningitis. On the other hand, mycoplasmas have more limited virulence factors, and their main mode of pathogenesis is the elimination of the function of the ciliary escalator, resulting in mucus buildup that causes a persistent, unproductive cough as the patient tries to clear the lungs. Other bacteria may enter the lungs as a result of the failure of this defense mechanism, but in general, mycoplasmal pneumonia is never severe enough to require hospitalization. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.11 4) Numerous bacteria can cause pneumoniae in the elderly or immunocompromised. The most common ones were covered in the section "Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System." Devise a set of laboratory tests that could be used to distinguish between these bacteria in a clinical laboratory. Have as your goal the minimum number of tests necessary. (Hints: Try to make a dichotomous key to start. You may also need to recall material from previous chapters.) Answer: A number of answers are possible, but all should start with a Gram stain and microscopic examination of a sputum or lavage sample. Gram-positive bacterial possibilities include Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus species. A catalase test can distinguish Staphylococcus (positive) from Streptococcus (negative). A hemolysin test can be used to identify the most likely Streptococcus species: S. pyogenes is betahemolytic and S. pneumoniae is alpha-hemolytic. Gram-negative bacteria that may cause pneumonia include Klebsiella pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenza, Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Chlamydophila species and Yersinia pestis. Close observation of the cell morphology may be sufficient. Klebsiella and Yersinia are bacilli and rather large compared to the others. Klebsiella is a non-motile coliform and Yersinia is a motile non-coliform, so observation of a bacterial wet mount may be used to distinguish them (or a lactose fermentation test). Haemophilus and Mycoplasma are pleomorphic, with Haemophilus tending to a coccobacillus shape while Mycoplasma does not. Chlamydophila are tiny intracellular parasites and thus will be observed inside host cells. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.11, 22.12 18

5) Describe the pathogenesis of tuberculosis, paying special attention to the characteristics of Mycobacterium tuberculosis that make it so pathogenic. Answer: Mycobacterium tuberculosis is an extremely effective pathogen. It has a very low infectious dose (about 10 cells). Once inside the body, it is hard to clear because of its slow growth, high levels of waxy, protective lipids such as mycolic acid in its cell wall, and its ability to survive inside phagocytic cells. Another cell wall component, cord factor, is toxic to the body's cells, and inhibits the activity of neutrophils. The immune system does its best to isolate the infection, producing tubercles, which contain M. tuberculosis cells that have been walled off from the rest of the body by inflammatory cells and processes. At best, this process results in a stalemate between the pathogen and the body, and no further disease may ever occur. However, in immunocompromised individuals, the immune system is often not able to keep the pathogen in check; M. tuberculosis therefore breaks the stalemate and begins to spread throughout the lungs, causing secondary or reactivated tuberculosis, with its attendant symptoms of weight loss, chest pain, and breathing difficulty with bloody sputum. From the lungs, the reactivated mycobacterial infection may even spread to the bloodstream and all over the body in the phenomenon of disseminated tuberculosis. Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Lower Respiratory System Learning Outcome: 22.17

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 4e (Bauman) Chapter 23 Microbial Diseases of the Digestive System 23.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The is an accessory organ of the digestive system. A) esophagus B) stomach C) tongue D) duodenum E) anus Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Structures of the Digestive Tract Learning Outcome: 23.2 2) Where in the digestive tract does most of the absorption of nutrients take place? A) the large intestine B) the small intestine C) the rectum D) the stomach E) the esophagus Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Structures of the Digestive Tract Learning Outcome: 23.1 3) Which of the following is a fungus that commonly lives in the large intestine? A) Bacteroides B) Escherichia C) Campylobacter D) Candida E) Lactobacillus Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Normal Microbiota of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.3

4) The bacterium adheres to and grows on teeth, contributing to dental plaque formation. A) Streptococcus mutans B) Streptococcus agalactiae C) viridians streptococci D) Porphyromonas gingivalis E) Enterobacter Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.4 5) Porphyromonas gingivalis contributes to the development of A) gastroenteritis. B) typhoid fever. C) periodontitis. D) food poisoning. E) hepatitis. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.5 6) Most peptic ulcers are the result of colonization of the stomach by A) Vibrio cholerae. B) Escherichia coli O157:H7. C) Shigella dysenteriae. D) Salmonella enterica. E) Helicobacter pylori. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.7 7) Urease is an important virulence factor of which of the following? A) Porphyromonas gingivalis B) Vibrio cholerae C) Escherichia coli O157:H7 D) Helicobacter pylori E) Shigella dysenteriae Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.8

8) The virulence factor of Vibrio cholera, which is primarily responsible for the signs and symptoms of cholera, is A) the presence of polar flagella. B) its ability to survive in freshwater. C) its ability to form biofilms in saltwater. D) its activation of certain genes within the human body. E) its ability to produce a potent exotoxin. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.10 9) The major symptoms of cholera are attributable to which of the following? A) production of urease B) activity of a type III secretion system C) cessation of protein synthesis in host cells D) death of cells lining the intestinal tract E) activation of adenylate cyclase Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.10 10) Infection with some Salmonella enterica serotypes can progress to typhoid fever when the bacteria A) attach to cells of the small intestine. B) induce endocytosis by intestinal cells. C) reproduce within cells of the small intestine. D) produce type III secretion system proteins. E) enter the blood and are engulfed by phagocytes. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.10 11) Which of the following is zoonotic? A) E. coli O157:H7 B) Shigella C) Salmonella D) both E. coli O157:H7 and Salmonella E) E. coli O157:H7, Shigella and Salmonella Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.10

12) Escherichia coli O157:H7 is primarily associated with which of the following foods? A) ground beef B) dairy products C) eggs D) fomites E) pork Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.10 13) The most common cause of traveler's diarrhea is A) Salmonella enterica. B) Giardia intestinalis. C) Cryptosporidium parvum. D) Escherichia coli. E) Shigella flexneri. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.10 14) Shigellosis can be differentiated from salmonellosis by the fact that Shigella A) stimulates intestinal epithelial cells to phagocytize it. B) multiplies in phagocytic vesicles. C) kills host cells. D) multiplies in the host cell's cytosol. E) causes severe diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and fever. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.10 15) The most common bacterial cause of diarrhea that sends people to doctors in the United States is A) Salmonella. B) Staphylococcus. C) Vibrio. D) Escherichia. E) Campylobacter. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.10

16) A young woman being treated for serious burns develops severe diarrhea accompanied by intense abdominal pain. She passes several watery, foul-smelling, bloody stools a day. A colonoscopy reveals patches of yellowish lesions in the large intestine. The probable causative agent is A) Giardia intestinalis. B) Clostridium difficile. C) Campylobacter. D) Salmonella enterica serotype Typhi. E) Vibrio cholerae. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.10 17) Staphylococcal food poisoning is called an intoxication disorder because A) toxic bacteria are ingested in the food. B) the bacteria produce type III secretion system toxins. C) affected people appear drunk. D) toxins produced by the bacteria growing in the food are ingested along with the food. E) the bacteria release toxins when they are digested. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.12 18) Which of the following statements is TRUE with regard to oral herpes? A) Lesions become more severe with each recurrence. B) Ninety percent of all cases are caused by human herpesvirus 2 (HHV-2). C) Lesions can be triggered by emotional stress or physiologic changes. D) Primary infections are usually characterized by severe lesions. E) There is an effective cure for oral herpes. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.16 19) Which of the following is the major sign or symptom of mumps? A) diarrhea B) nausea and vomiting C) deafness D) parotitis E) difficulty in breathing Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.17 5

20) The viruses responsible for the majority of infant deaths resulting from diarrhea in the world are the A) noroviruses. B) rotaviruses. C) caliciviruses. D) astroviruses. E) hepaciviruses. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.18 21) Chronic infection with may progress to hepatic cancer. A) HAV B) HBV C) HCV D) HEV E) both HBV and HCV Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.20 22) The intracellular parasite usually acquired in contaminated drinking water that causes a persistent watery diarrhea is A) hepatitis A virus. B) Cryptosporidium parvum. C) Entamoeba histolytica. D) Vibrio cholerae. E) norovirus. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Protozoan Diseases of the Intestinal Tract Learning Outcome: 23.24 23) Which of the following conditions usually results in severe acute liver damage? A) co-infection with hepatitis A and hepatitis B viruses B) superinfection with hepatitis B and hepatitis delta viruses C) co-infection with hepatitis B and hepatitis delta viruses D) superinfection with hepatitis A and hepatitis E viruses E) co-infection with hepatitis B and hepatitis C viruses Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.20

24) The primary treatment for viral gastroenteritis is A) fever reducers. B) antiviral medications. C) antitoxins. D) rehydration therapy. E) antidiarrheal medication. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.19 25) Of the following, who is most likely to develop a chronic infection with hepatitis B virus? A) children between the ages of 2 and 12 B) newborns C) females at puberty D) young adults E) the elderly Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.20 26) A man reports to his doctor that he is tired all the time and his urine has become darker in color. He has not experienced fever or vomiting recently. The physician notes that his eyes are yellowish and his abdomen is swollen. The man has a history of kidney transplant and recently returned from an overseas trip. The man may be infected with A) hepatitis C virus. B) hepatitis E virus. C) norovirus. D) Shigella. E) Entamoeba histolytica. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Viral Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.20 27) Diagnosis of hepatitis B infection is made by the observation of which of the following in the patient's body fluids? A) O antigens B) enterotoxins C) endospores D) oocysts E) Dane particles Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.20 7

28) Which of the following is a notable symptom of giardiasis? A) "rice-water" stools B) irritability and sleep disturbance C) jaundice D) foul-smelling "rotten egg" stools E) dysentery Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Protozoan Diseases of the Intestinal Tract Learning Outcome: 23.22 29) Eating sashimi (uncooked fish) is a risk factor for infection with A) Entamoeba histolytica. B) Taenia saginata. C) Giardia intestinalis. D) Enterobius vermicularis. E) Anisakis simplex. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Helminthic Infestations of the Intestinal Tract Learning Outcome: 23.33 30) Which of the following statements is TRUE with regard to Entamoeba histolytica? A) It reproduces by schizogony. B) It may invade the peritoneal cavity, causing serious disease. C) It causes a form of hepatitis. D) It is an intracellular parasite. E) An effective vaccine against infection is available. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Protozoan Diseases of the Intestinal Tract Learning Outcome: 23.26 31) Where in a tapeworm would you expect to find fertilized eggs? A) the neck region of the strobila B) at the end of the strobila C) inside the scolex D) outside the cuticle E) in all proglottids Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Helminthic Infestations of the Intestinal Tract Learning Outcome: 23.28

32) Tapeworms are usually transmitted to humans through ingestion of A) cysticerci. B) gravid proglottids. C) tapeworm eggs. D) mature tapeworms. E) tapeworm larvae. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Helminthic Infestations of the Intestinal Tract Learning Outcome: 23.29 33) Human infestation with Taenia saginata results from ingesting intermediate host. A) scolex B) cysticerci C) proglottids D) eggs E) cysts Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Helminthic Infestations of the Intestinal Tract Learning Outcome: 23.29

in undercooked

34) Which of the following is a common childhood parasite in the United States? A) Taenia solium B) Enterobius vermicularis C) Entamoeba histolytica D) Cryptosporidium parvum E) Giardia intestinalis Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Helminthic Infestations of the Intestinal Tract Learning Outcome: 23.31

35)35)

Observation of the specimens in the figure is diagnostic for A) Anisakis simplex. B) Cryptosporidium parvum. C) Enterobius vermicularis. D) Giardia intestinalis. E) Taenia solium. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Helminthic Infestations of the Intestinal Tract Learning Outcome: 23.31 36) A large number of people in a community experience diarrhea with fever. Public health authorities investigate and find that the people are passing dark urine, and some have yellowish skin. Furthermore, all of the affected individuals recently ate at a new restaurant in town known for its wide variety of fresh imported vegetables. Which of the following is the most likely causative agent? A) Escherichia coli O157:H7 B) Salmonella enterica C) hepatitis A virus D) hepatitis E virus E) norovirus Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Viral Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.20

37) Care in the handling and disposal of diapers in day care centers may prevent the spread of which of the following? A) hepatitis A virus B) Giardia intestinalis C) Salmonella enterica D) Cryptosporidium parvum E) norovirus Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Protozoan Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.23 38) Peritonitis may develop in severe cases of A) giardiasis. B) hepatitis. C) pinworm infestation. D) typhoid. E) peptic ulcer disease. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.10 39) What member of the human intestinal microbiota occasionally causes life-threatening disease? A) Escherichia coli O157:H7 B) Clostridium difficile C) Salmonella enterica D) Giardia intestinalis E) Lactobacillus Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.10 40) Accessory organ infections are caused by A) human herpesvirus 1. B) norovirus. C) mumps virus. D) rotavirus. E) enterovirus. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.17

23.2 True/False Questions 1) Salmonella is part of the normal microbiota of virtually all vertebrates except humans. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.10 2) Cholera toxin is composed of five A subunits and one B subunit. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.10 3) All tapeworms are intestinal parasites that completely lack digestive systems. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Helminthic Infestations of the Intestinal Tract Learning Outcome: 23.28 4) Complete recovery from hepatitis A infection occurs 99% of the time. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.20 5) Vomiting is a common sign of viral gastroenteritis. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.18 6) Peptic ulcers are erosions of the lining of the small or large intestines. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.7 7) Dysentery is a severe type of gastroenteritis in which stools contain mucus and blood. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.10

8) Supportive care is the only treatment for staphylococcal food poisoning. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.12 9) Contamination of meat with tapeworm cysts can be detected by visual inspection. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Helminthic Infestations of the Intestinal Tract Learning Outcome: 23.29 10) Invasive extraintestinal amebiasis is the most severe type of Entamoeba histolytica infection. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Protozoan Diseases of the Intestinal Tract Learning Outcome: 23.26

23.3 Short Answer Questions 1)

The portion of the gastrointestinal tract indicated by the arrow is the (ascending/descending/sigmoid/transverse) colon. Answer: ascending Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Structures of the Digestive Tract Learning Outcome: 23.1 2) The (liver/pancreas/villus) is the accessory organ responsible for producing digestive enzymes active in the small intestine. Answer: pancreas Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Normal Microbiota of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.2 3) Production of (acid/dextran/glycocalyces) allows Streptococcus mutans to colonize the mouth. Answer: dextran Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.4

4) Helicobacter pylori produces (bicarbonate/carbohydrates/urease) to reduce the acidity of the stomach fluids. Answer: urease Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.8 5) A bacterial strain known as O1 El Tor is responsible for pandemics of (cholera/shigellosis/typhoid) seen worldwide since 1817. Answer: cholera Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.10 6) Jaundice is a frequent sign of inflammation of the (colon/liver/pancreas). Answer: liver Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.20 7) Isolation of Gram-positive (bacilli/cocci/vibrios) from food suspected of being the source of an outbreak of diarrhea indicates the disease is the result of bacterial intoxication. Answer: cocci Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.13 8) The form of infection with Entamoeba histolytica that is frequently asymptomatic is known as (extraintestinal/dysentery/luminal) amebiasis. Answer: luminal Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Protozoan Diseases of the Intestinal Tract Learning Outcome: 23.26 9) The normal intermediate host for Taenia solium is (cows/humans/pigs). Answer: pigs Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Helminthic Infestations of the Intestinal Tract Learning Outcome: 23.28 10) The causative agent of pinworm infections is an example of a long, cylindrical, unsegmented helminth called a (cestode/nematode/trematode). Answer: nematode Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Helminthic Infestations of the Intestinal Tract Learning Outcome: 23.30 15

11) The accumulation of plaque can lead to the development of (abscesses/caries/ulcers) in the mouth. Answer: caries Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.4 12) Helicobacter pylori colonizes the (mouth/liver/stomach/intestine) and can cause severe inflammation and tissue erosion. Answer: stomach Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.7 13) Escherichia coli O157:H7 produces (cholera/Shiga/Staphylococcal)-like toxin, which inhibits protein synthesis, kills cells, and can result in death of the infected individual. Answer: Shiga Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.10 14) AIDS patients sometimes suffer from pain and difficulty swallowing as a result of developing herpes (esophagitis/gingivostomatitis/pharyngitis) along with fever and chills. Answer: esophagitis Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.15 15) Infection with (hepatitis/norovirus/rotavirus) is a common cause of viral gastroenteritis in adults. Answer: norovirus Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.18

23.4 Essay Questions 1) There are vaccines to prevent infectious hepatitis and serum hepatitis, but none to prevent chronic hepatitis. Discuss why this is so. Answer: Chronic hepatitis is caused by the hepatitis C virus. Hepatitis C virus is an RNA virus, and the RNA polymerase which replicates the RNA genome lacks proofreading ability. As a consequence, new genetic variations with new antigenic structures are produced at high frequency. A vaccine against a single hepatitic C antigen would not provide protection from infection for all the variations, and a vaccine containing a large number of different antigens is not practical. Hepatitis A virus is not as variable, and hepatitis B virus is a DNA virus, DNA polymerases have proofreading functions. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Viral Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.20 2) Explain how Helicobacter pylori is able to resist the unfavorable environment of the stomach in order to cause disease. Answer: Helicobacter pylori is able to resist the acidic environment of the stomach using a variety of virulence factors. H. pylori produces a protein which inhibits acid production in the stomach, and produces urease that converts urea to ammonia, which neutralizes stomach acid. H. pylori has flagella that allow it to burrow beneath the mucous layer of the stomach lining, further sheltering the pathogen. It also produces enzymes such as catalase that inhibit phagocytic cell activity. Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.8 3) List and describe three virulence factors associated with bacteria that cause gastroenteritis. Answer: Bacteria capable of causing gastroenteritis have a variety of virulence factors that allow them to cause disease: (1) Several types of exotoxins can cause many of the major symptoms of bacterial gastroenteritis. These include cholera toxin, which produces "rice-water" stools, enterotoxins of Escherichia coli that act in a manner similar to cholera toxin, and the more destructive Shiga toxin of Shigella and the Shiga-like toxin of Escherichia coli O157:H7. (2) Both Salmonella and Shigella have the ability to grow inside host cells, thereby evading the immune system. (3) Salmonella possesses a type III secretion system that enables it to introduce toxins directly into host cells. (4) Many pathogens such as Campylobacter possess adhesins that allow them to adhere to cells lining the gastrointestinal tract. (5) Most of the bacteria producing gastroenteritis are Gram-negative; therefore, they have endotoxin molecules in their cell walls that can serve as virulence factors. Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.10

4) List and compare the three types of amebiasis. Answer: The three types of amebiasis differ in the virulence factors of the infecting strain of Entamoeba histolytica and the state of health of the host. The least severe form of amebiasis is luminal amebiasis in which the parasite remains in the open space of the intestine. Luminal amebiasis is asymptomatic in healthy individuals. When the strain of E. histolytica produces adhesion proteins, proteases, or other important virulence factors, they can invade the bloodstream and peritoneal cavity, producing the more serious forms of amebiasis. Amebic dysentery is characterized by severe diarrhea, bloody, mucus-containing stools, and colitis. Invasive extraintestinal amebiasis occurs when E. histolytica spreads to other areas of the body and forms necrotic lesions in the liver, lungs, kidneys, and other vital organs. It is the most severe form of the disease and can even be fatal. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Protozoan Diseases of the Intestinal Tract Learning Outcome: 23.26 5) Explain the role of the intestinal microbiota in the maintenance of health. Answer: The intestinal microbiota help maintain health in a variety of ways: (1) The billions of microbes in the gastrointestinal tract outcompete pathogens in a process called microbial antagonism. (2) The normal microbiota can feed on the partially digested or indigestible contents of the colon, and even though this produces some undesirable by-products such as flatus, this is overall a beneficial process for the host. (3) Many intestinal microbes produce important vitamins for the host, such as vitamin K, B12, folic acid, and biotin. Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Normal Microbiota of the Digestive System Learning Outcome: 23.3

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 4e (Bauman) Chapter 24 Microbial Diseases of the Urinary and Reproductive Systems 24.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The process of producing urine begins in the of the kidney. A) renal capsule B) efferent arterioles C) collecting duct D) nephron E) renal pyramids Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Structures of the Urinary and Reproductive Systems Learning Outcome: 24.1 2) Which of the following structures allows the exchange of nutrients and wastes between the fetal blood and the mother's blood? A) the uterus B) the uterine tubes C) the placenta D) the cervix E) the clitoris Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Structures of the Urinary and Reproductive Systems Learning Outcome: 24.2 3) Mature sperm cells are stored in a male's A) testes. B) vas deferens. C) prostate gland. D) prepuce. E) epididymis. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Structures of the Urinary System Learning Outcome: 24.2

4) The disorder is a complication of systemic infections with Streptococcus in which antigen-antibody complexes form in the blood and get trapped in the kidneys. A) cystitis B) glomerulonephritis C) pyelonephritis D) leptospirosis E) urethritis Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Urinary System Learning Outcome: 24.9 5) When bacteria invade the kidney, the result can be A) cystitis. B) ectopic. C) prostatitis. D) pyelonephritis. E) bacteriosis. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Urinary System Learning Outcome: 24.5 6) Which of the following transmits leptospirosis? A) infected animal urine B) infected animal bites C) humans infected with leptospirosis D) infected animal feces E) infected human urine Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Urinary System Learning Outcome: 24.8 7) During the spring calving season, a ranch hand begins to run a fever and feel nauseous and achy. After he develops a headache and vomiting, he goes to a clinic. A microscopic exam of a urine sample reveals long thin microbes which move very rapidly in a corkscrewing pattern. The man may have contracted A) chancroid. B) glomerulonephritis. C) leptospirosis. D) staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome. E) trichomoniasis. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Urinary System Learning Outcome: 24.8 2

8) The majority of cases of staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome occur in A) newly delivered mothers. B) uncircumcised males. C) anyone with a Staphylococcus aureus infection. D) nasal surgery patients. E) menstruating women. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Nonvenereal Diseases of the Reproductive Systems Learning Outcome: 24.10 9) Which of the following is a characteristic of bacterial vaginosis frequently used to confirm diagnosis? A) an abnormal vaginal discharge B) an acidic vaginal pH C) fever and rash D) the presence of buboes E) the presence of clue cells Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Nonvenereal Diseases of the Reproductive Systems Learning Outcome: 24.11

10)10)

The presence of the specimen shown in the figure in a vaginal discharge is evidence of infection with A) Candida albicans. B) Neisseria gonorrhoeae. C) Treponema palladium. D) Chlamydia trachomatis. E) Trichomonas vaginalis. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Nonvenereal Diseases of the Reproductive Systems Learning Outcome: 24.13 11) Why does taking antibacterial medications put women at risk for candidiasis? A) Antibacterials can alter metabolism, creating conditions that favor the growth of Candida albicans. B) Antibacterials deplete the normal bacterial microbiota, resulting in a change of pH. C) Antibacterials serve as growth stimulants for Candida albicans. D) Bacteria killed by antibacterials provide nutrients for Candida albicans. E) Depletion of the bacterial microbiota results in higher carbon dioxide levels, (which favor the growth of Candida albicans). Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Nonvenereal Diseases of the Reproductive Systems Learning Outcome: 24.14

12) Untreated infection of males with Neisseria gonorrhoeae may result in A) gummas. B) sterility. C) orchitis. D) glomerulonephritis. E) penile cancer. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial STDs Learning Outcome: 24.20 13) Neisseria gonorrhoeae of the reproductive tract in women A) is usually initially asymptomatic. B) produces severe inflammation of the vagina and cervix. C) results in the formation of curd-like discharge. D) results in the production of a yellow-greenish frothy discharge. E) produces painful ulcerations. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial STDs Learning Outcome: 24.20 14) Which of the following contributes to the invasiveness of Treponema pallidum? A) hyaluronidase B) fimbriae C) lipooligosaccharide in the cell wall D) TSST E) IgA protease Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial STDs Learning Outcome: 24.23 15) Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding gonorrhea? A) It is easily confused with chancroid. B) The causative agent can grow on most mucous membranes of the body. C) Women usually experience severe symptoms early in infection. D) Asymptomatic infections have no long-term consequences. E) Gonorrhea produces good long-term specific immunity. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial STDs Learning Outcome: 24.20

16) Neisseria gonorrhoeae most commonly infects which of the following in females? A) the uterus B) the vagina C) the cervix D) the fallopian tubes E) the ovaries Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial STDs Learning Outcome: 24.20 17) The presence of Gram-negative diplococci in pus from an inflamed penis is diagnostic for infection by A) human herpesvirus 2. B) Treponema pallidum. C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae. D) Chlamydia trachomatis. E) Mycoplasma hominis. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial STDs Learning Outcome: 24.20 18) The typical sign of primary syphilis is A) a chancre at the site of infection. B) a widespread rash. C) lymphadenopathy. D) gummas in various organs. E) paralysis. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial STDs Learning Outcome: 24.22 19) Diagnosis of syphilis is usually made by A) the MHA-TP test. B) culturing specimens on laboratory media. C) microscopic evaluation of stained specimens. D) DNA probes. E) a Pap smear. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial STDs Learning Outcome: 24.23

20) A distinctive feature of secondary syphilis is A) a widespread rash that can include the palms and soles. B) hard, red, painless bumps. C) rubbery, painful lesions. D) soft, painful ulcers. E) blister-like lesions which ulcerate. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial STDs Learning Outcome: 24.22 21) Syphilis can be transmitted A) by sexual contact. B) from mother to fetus. C) by fomites. D) both by sexual contact and from mother to fetus. E) by sexual contact, by fomites, and from mother to fetus. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial STDs Learning Outcome: 24.23 22) The noninfective, obligately intracellular forms of chlamydia are called A) elementary bodies. B) phagosomes. C) pseudohyphae. D) trachomas. E) initial bodies. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial STDs Learning Outcome: 24.24 23) Which of the following statements is CORRECT regarding the incidence of STDs? A) Bacterial STDs are declining worldwide as a result of the ready availability of antibiotics. B) The incidence of STDs is known with a high degree of accuracy. C) Viruses transmitted by sexual contact are not widespread. D) Viral STDs in the U.S. are considered epidemic. E) The incidence of most STDs could be reduced by vaccination. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Sexually Transmitted Infections (STIs) and Diseases (STDs) Learning Outcome: 24.15

24) In addition to the genital tract, various strains of Chlamydia trachomatis can infect which of the following? A) lymph nodes B) the lungs C) the conjunctiva D) lymph nodes and conjunctiva E) lymph nodes, lungs, and conjunctiva Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial STDs Learning Outcome: 24.24 25) A young adult shows up at a free clinic complaining of painful swellings in the groin. The young woman has a history of occasional casual sex, but denies noticing any genital sores or experiencing painful urination. The young woman is most likely infected with A) Chlamydia trachomatis. B) Neisseria gonorrhoeae. C) Haemophilus ducreyi. D) Treponema pallidum. E) Trichomonas vaginalis. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Bacterial STDs Learning Outcome: 24.24 26) Which of the following can mimic gonorrhea infections? A) syphilis B) chancroid C) trichomoniasis D) chlamydia E) candidiasis Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial STDs Learning Outcome: 24.24 27) Chancroid is caused by A) human herpesvirus 2. B) Trichomonas vaginalis. C) Haemophilus ducreyi. D) Treponema pallidum. E) Mycoplasma hominis. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial STDs Learning Outcome: 24.26 8

28) The major sign of Haemophilus ducreyi infection is similar to the initial sign of infection by A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae. B) Treponema pallidum. C) Staphylococcus aureus. D) Candida albicans. E) Chlamydia trachomatis. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial STDs Learning Outcome: 24.26 29) A diagnosis of genital herpes is confirmed by the A) detection of herpesvirus DNA by PCR. B) location of herpetic lesions. C) appearance and size of herpetic lesions. D) appearance of stained tissue specimens. E) binding of fluorescent antibodies. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral STDs Learning Outcome: 24.28 30) Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding genital herpes? A) Re-appearance of lesions is the result of new infections. B) It can only be transmitted when lesions are evident. C) There is an effective vaccine to prevent infection. D) Acyclovir is effective in reducing the occurrence of lesions, but is not a cure. E) Herpes can be prevented using vaginal spermicidal creams. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral STDs Learning Outcome: 24.28 31) Some strains of the virus responsible for genital warts can cause the development of A) tertiary syphilis. B) cervical cancer. C) trichomoniasis. D) genital herpes. E) chancroid. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral STDs Learning Outcome: 24.31

32) Condylomata acuminata are associated with infections of which of the following? A) Trichomonas vaginalis B) human herpesvirus 1 C) papillomaviruses D) human herpesvirus 2 E) Neisseria gonorrhoeae Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral STDs Learning Outcome: 24.30 33)33)

Observation of the microbes shown in the figure from a vaginal discharge specimen is diagnostic for A) Chlamydia infection. B) gonorrhea. C) trichomoniasis. D) trachoma. E) syphilis. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Protozoan STDs Learning Outcome: 24.32

34) A woman goes to her gynecologist and reports that she is experiencing pain during intercourse and frequently has an unusual vaginal discharge that is increased in quantity and sort of foamy. A vaginal smear shows normal appearing epithelial cells along with small leaf-shaped cells with prominent oval nuclei. What disease is the woman experiencing? A) cervical cancer B) herpes C) chancroid D) syphilis E) trichomoniasis Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Protozoan STDs Learning Outcome: 24.32 35) Trichomonas vaginalis is usually transmitted during sexual intercourse because it A) requires a growth factor found only in the vagina. B) penetrates cells lining the genitourinary tract. C) participates with HIV in coinfections. D) produces cysts that germinate in the vagina. E) cannot live long outside the body. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Protozoan STDs Learning Outcome: 24.32 24.2 True/False Questions 1) The risk of developing toxic shock syndrome is increased by the use of super-absorbent tampons. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Nonvenereal Diseases of the Reproductive Systems Learning Outcome: 24.10 2) Gonorrhea in women is not a risk factor for sterility. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial STDs Learning Outcome: 24.20 3) Genital herpes and genital warts are both caused by human herpesviruses. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral STDs Learning Outcome: 24.30

4) The normal microbiota of the vagina help maintain a vaginal pH of around 7.5. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Structures of the Urinary and Reproductive Systems Learning Outcome: 24.3 5) The urethra is the only part of the urinary system in which one would expect to find normal microbiota. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Structures of the Urinary and Reproductive Systems Learning Outcome: 24.3 6) Mental confusion is often the only sign of a urinary tract infection in elderly patients. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Urinary System Learning Outcome: 24.5 7) Clinical manifestations of Chlamydia infections arise primarily from an inflammatory response to the destruction of infected cells. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial STDs Learning Outcome: 24.24 8) The most common symptom of chancroid in women is a vaginal discharge. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial STDs Learning Outcome: 24.27 9) A whitlow is the result of human papillomavirus infection of the skin of the hand. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral STDs Learning Outcome: 24.28 10) Trichomoniasis increases patients' susceptibility to infection by HIV. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Protozoan STDs Learning Outcome: 24.32

24.3 Short Answer Questions 1) Because the (ductus/urethra/ureter) is shorter in females than in males, it can be a portal of entry for pathogens. Answer: urethra Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Structures of the Urinary and Reproductive Systems Learning Outcome: 24.1 2) Babies exposed to an intracellular parasite normally transmitted by sexual contact are at risk for (conjunctivitis/trachoma/warts). Answer: trachoma Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial STDs Learning Outcome: 24.25 3) Glycogen is converted to acid in the vagina by (Lactobacilli/Streptococci/yeast), thereby contributing to an acidic pH in that area. Answer: Lactobacilli Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Structures of the Urinary and Reproductive Systems Learning Outcome: 24.3 4) When bacteria infect the bladder, the condition is known as (cystitis/pyelonephritis/urethritis). Answer: cystitis Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Urinary System Learning Outcome: 24.5 5) The frequent, urgent, and painful urination that often results from urinary tract infections is called (dysuria/cystitis/glomerulonephritis). Answer: dysuria Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Urinary System Learning Outcome: 24.5 6) The bacterial infection (leptospirosis/trichomoniasis/vaginosis) is a zoonosis. Answer: leptospirosis Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Urinary System Learning Outcome: 24.8

7) A patient with systemic bacterial infection develops high blood pressure, and the urine output declines, but what urine is passed contains blood. The patient does not experience pain with urination. These signs are consistent with (cystitis/glomerulonephritis/urethritis). Answer: glomerulonephritis Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Nonvenereal Diseases of the Reproductive Systems Learning Outcome: 24.9 8) The presence of (bacillus/clue/streptococcal) cells is an important aspect of the diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis. Answer: clue Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Nonvenereal Diseases of the Reproductive Systems Learning Outcome: 24.11 9) The yeast infection (candidiasis/trichomoniasis/vaginosis) can become systemic in AIDS patients. Answer: candidiasis Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Nonvenereal Diseases of the Reproductive Systems Learning Outcome: 24.13 10) A small, red, hard but painless lesion is a sign of infection with (chancroid/herpes/syphilis). Answer: syphilis Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial STDs Learning Outcome: 24.27 11) Infection with virulent strains of human (herpes/HIV/papilloma) virus may result in large painful condylomata acuminata on the genitalia. Answer: papilloma Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Viral STDs Learning Outcome: 24.30 12) A vaccine is available to prevent infection with (herpes/HIV/HPV). Answer: HPV Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Viral STDs Learning Outcome: 24.30 13) The drug of choice for treating primary and secondary syphilis is (amoxicillin/penicillin/streptomycin) G. Answer: penicillin Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial STDs Learning Outcome: 24.22 14

14) When chlamydias spread from the genitalia to the rectum, they can cause an inflammatory process called (PID/proctitis/pyelonephritis). Answer: proctitis Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial STDs Learning Outcome: 24.24 15) Buboes are a major sign that appears in half of all patients with (chancroid/chancre/chlamydia), a disease caused by Haemophilus ducreyi. Answer: chancroid Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Bacterial STDs Learning Outcome: 24.27 24.4 Essay Questions 1) Explain why a female who has a history of gonorrhea infections is more likely to have an ectopic pregnancy. Answer: Most females infected with gonorrhea are asymptomatic and do not receive treatment. The bacterium, Neisseria gonorrhoeae, invades the cervix and the uterus, and then can hitchhike on sperm to infect the fallopian tubes. In the uterine tubes, the bacteria trigger inflammation, fever, and abdominal pain, a condition known as pelvic inflammatory disease. Chronic infections lead to scarring of the fallopian tubes, resulting in an increased chance of ectopic pregnancy and sterility. Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial STDs Learning Outcome: 24.20 2) Some areas of the genitourinary tract are normally sterile, whereas other areas have a variety of microbiota. Describe the defense mechanisms of the genitourinary tract that contribute to this dichotomy. Answer: A variety of defense mechanisms are associated with the genitourinary tract, but the primary one is the flow of urine through the urethra. This flow keeps many pathogens out, and therefore, the only microbes that can colonize this area tend to colonize the end of the urethra closest to the surface of the body. Often, pathogenic microbes can resist this flow and migrate toward the bladder and kidneys. Overall, however, the urinary organs of both sexes and the male reproductive tract above the prostate should be sterile under normal conditions. In females, microbes enter the vagina and colonize the nutrient-rich mucous membrane in this area; however, most vaginal pathogens are inhibited by the acidic pH generated by normal microbiota such as Lactobacillus. Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Structures of the Urinary and Reproductive Systems Learning Outcome: 24.3

3) A patient complains of fever, pain on one side of the body, and fatigue. The clinician notes the patient's blood pressure is somewhat elevated. The patient reports experiencing some painful urination for a few days during the previous week. Tests on a urine sample reveal the presence of motile Gram-negative bacilli. What is the patient most likely suffering from? Answer: The flank pain and the increase in blood pressure are indicative of pyelonephritis, infection of a kidney. The Gram stain of the urine sample is consistent with that of enteric bacteria. The patient probably contracted a urinary tract infection caused by fecal contamination of the urethra. When left untreated, this infection then spreads to the kidneys. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Bacterial Diseases of the Urinary System Learning Outcome: 24.5 4) Explain why some syphilis patients may only experience the symptoms of primary syphilis, while other patients may progress all the way to tertiary syphilis. Answer: There are four stages of syphilis: primary, secondary, latent, and tertiary syphilis. At the end of the primary stage, or during the latent stage, the patient may cease to progress through the later stages of the disease for reasons that are still largely unknown. During latent syphilis, the progression of the disease may also stop due to antimicrobial drug use in developed countries. Additionally, if the disease is detected during the primary stage and treated, then no further progression will occur. However, many people do not know they are infected with Treponema pallidum because they do not notice the chancre that is the major sign of the primary stage; therefore, progression of the disease is usually assured in these cases. Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Bacterial STDs Learning Outcome: 24.23 5) Some sexually transmitted diseases mimic other STDs with regard to their symptoms. Give an example of two of these types of diseases, describing how the symptoms of each disease resemble those of another STD. Answer: Chlamydial infections in men often mimic the symptoms of gonorrhea even though the two diseases are caused by completely different pathogens with different life cycles and different pathogenic properties. In both cases, the male experiences urethritis, painful urination, and a pus discharge from the urethra. By the same token, most gonorrhea and chlamydia infections in females are asymptomatic. Occasionally, some of the signs and symptoms of trichomoniasis in men can also mimic some of the signs and symptoms of gonorrhea. Another pair of STDs that can be confused with each other is syphilis and chancroid. These diseases are caused by two completely unrelated bacteria; however, each of them is initially characterized by the appearance of a sore called a chancre. In syphilis, the chancre is painless and hard, whereas in chancroid the chancre is soft and painful (it is usually called a "soft chancre" to help distinguish it from the primary syphilis lesion). Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Bacterial STDs and Protozoan STDs Learning Outcome: 24.32

Microbiology with Diseases by Body System, 4e (Bauman) Chapter 25 Applied and Environmental Microbiology 25.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Control of the fermentation of foods to produce the desired product commonly involves A) careful choice of foodstuffs. B) pretreating the food by boiling. C) adding required nutrients for microbial growth. D) use of a starter culture. E) both pretreating the food by boiling and adding required nutrients for microbial growth. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.1 2) A researcher studying the impact of agricultural pesticides on native plants discovers a bacterium capable of degrading small amounts of a specific pesticide. The researcher then modifies the bacterial species in the lab to increase the rate of pesticide degradation. This research represents A) applied microbiology. B) environmental microbiology. C) food microbiology. D) both food microbiology and environmental microbiology. E) both applied microbiology and environmental microbiology. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.5 3) Which of the following food products is prepared by the fermentation of cabbage? A) kimchi B) tea C) refined sugar D) pasteurized milk E) sorbet Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.1

4) Why are "fortified" foods more likely to spoil than are unfortified foods? A) The addition of vitamins or minerals makes the food more nutritious for microbes as well as humans. B) Vitamins are added to "fortified" foods by adding the microbes that produce the vitamins to the food item. C) Every step of modification or manipulation of food increases the chance for contamination. D) The addition of nutrients creates an osmotic environment suitable for a wide range of microbes. E) The vitamins require a neutral pH environment, which is suitable for many microbes. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.2 5) Which of the following is a lactic acid bacterium used in the production of food? A) Aspergillus oryzae B) Gluconobacter C) Leuconostoc D) Penicillium E) Saccharomyces cerevisiae Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.1 6) The fermentation product known as silage is A) a step in the production of brandy. B) a means of food preservation. C) a means of making plant materials more appealing to livestock. D) a meat product. E) made from milk. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.1 7) Sulfur dioxide is added to "must" in the production of wine to A) improve the flavor. B) allow more control over the fermentation process. C) provide a necessary nutrient for the fermentation process. D) prevent tannins from leaching out of wood into the fermenting wine. E) both enhance flavor and promote fermentation. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.3 2

8) Why is the pasta you buy from the grocery store shelf considered a nonperishable food? A) It has a low nutritional content. B) It was sterilized during preparation. C) The low moisture content prevents microbial growth. D) Various preservative chemicals are added. E) Microbes present in the pasta inhibit the growth of harmful microbes. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.2 9) Which of the following pairs is MISMATCHED? A) vodka; potatoes B) white wine; hops C) whiskey; cereal grains D) beer; malt E) brandy; fruit juice Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.1 10) Which of the following results when ethanol is allowed to oxidize to acetic acid following the fermentation of fruit, grain, or vegetables? A) beer B) wine C) champagne D) vinegar E) malt Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.1 11) Which of the following items that are commonly added during food preparation can be considered a preservative? A) apple juice B) meat broth C) garlic D) yeast E) whey Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.3

12) An intrinsic factor of food that can determine whether spoilage occurs is A) the degree of processing. B) the amount of preservatives added. C) the storage temperature. D) the water content. E) storage packaging. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.2 13) Pickling is an effective means of food preservation involving A) increasing oxygen content. B) increasing salt concentration. C) reducing pH. D) reducing oxygen content. E) increasing salt concentration or reducing pH or both. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.3 14) Which of the following is used in both food production and industrial fermentation? A) Bacillus thuringiensis B) Escherichia coli C) Listeria monocytogenes D) Pseudomonas syringae E) Saccharomyces cerevisiae Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.5 15) Sugar and salt act as preservatives by A) inhibiting bacterial enzymes. B) producing oils that inhibit bacterial growth. C) inhibiting DNA replication. D) drawing water out of food. E) killing endospores. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.3

16) Which of the following methods of preserving food sterilizes it? A) canning B) pasteurization C) drying D) gamma radiation E) lyophilization Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.3 17) What is the significance of the industrial practice of waiting for cultures to enter the stationary phase of growth before harvest? A) The cells are at peak metabolic activity. B) Secondary metabolites are often the desired product, and are only produced in stationary phase. C) The desired primary metabolites are produced in stationary phase. D) Potential toxins from log phase growth have been depleted. E) An optimal combination of primary and secondary metabolites is being produced. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.5 18) The eukaryote is a common food contaminant that can lead to foodborne illness. A) Toxoplasma gondii B) Campylobacter jejuni C) Listeria monocytogenes D) Yersinia enterocolitica E) Vibrio vulnificus Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.4 19) Food contaminated with A) Salmonella spp. B) Shigella spp. C) Clostridium botulinum D) Escherichia coli E) Listeria monocytogenes Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.4

may contain a potent neurotoxin.

20) Which of the following pairs of industrial microbial products and their uses is MISMATCHED? A) streptokinase; dissolving blood clots B) indigo; blue jeans C) citric acid; antioxidant in food D) gluconic acid; release of cellulose from flax to make linen E) phenylalanine; the sweetener aspartame Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.6 21) Which of these microbial products is needed to produce "gasohol"? A) citric acid B) methanol C) ethanol D) hyaluronidase E) aspartame Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.6 22) What was the first substance produced by microorganisms to be used pharmaceutically? A) penicillin B) streptokinase C) taxol D) human insulin E) interferons Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.6 23) Industrial fermentation and fermentation in food production A) are both processes in which sugars are oxidized to alcohols or acids. B) are processes in which sugar or protein is oxidized to produce alcohols or acids. C) use entirely different microorganisms. D) use entirely different starting material. E) make use of the same microorganisms. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.5

24) During treatment of water to make it potable, about 90% of the microbes are removed A) by preliminary fermentation. B) in the sedimentation step. C) by treatment with biosensors. D) by treatment with chlorine or ozone. E) in the filtration step. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.9 25) Potable water is water that A) is considered safe to drink because it is completely sterile. B) contains biosensors. C) contains a dangerous number of microorganisms. D) is transferred from one place to another. E) contains low amounts of microorganisms and is considered safe to drink. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.9 26) Chlorinated water contains A) no viruses. B) no bacteria at all. C) no endospores. D) no cysts. E) a decreased microbial load. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.9 27) Which of the following microorganisms is the most commonly used indicator organism for water quality testing? A) Escherichia coli B) Salmonella spp. C) Shigella spp. D) Streptococcus thermophilus E) Hepatitis A virus Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.9

28) Which of the following statements concerning the biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) is correct? A) It is a measure of the amount of oxygen in water. B) It is proportional to how potable water is. C) It is used as a bioreceptor index. D) It is a measurement of the amount of oxygen that aerobic bacteria require to fully metabolize organic wastes in water. E) It is a filter system to purify drinking water. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.9 29) A specific example of bioremediation is A) the purification of water for drinking. B) the treatment of wastewater. C) the treatment of sludge. D) the degradation of crude oil spilled into the Gulf of Mexico. E) acid mine drainage. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.12 30) Which of the following is the correct sequence of microbial associations from smallest to largest? A) populations, guilds, communities, microhabitats, ecosystem B) populations, communities, microhabitats, ecosystem, guilds C) communities, microhabitats, ecosystem, guilds, populations D) populations, communities, ecosystem, guilds, microhabitats E) ecosystem, populations, communities, microhabitats, guilds Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.10

31) A new industrial park in your community dumps its wastewater into a large aerated pond, to which nutrients are added. The water from this pond makes its way into a nearby marsh, which eventually drains into a slow-moving stream. This is an example of A) artificial bioremediation. B) natural bioremediation. C) bioreporter use. D) natural fermentation. E) a method to make potable water. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.9, 25.12 32) Which of the following statements concerning the phosphorus cycle in bacteria is TRUE? A) The molecule cycles between different organic molecules. B) It is the most important process for synthesizing proteins and nucleic acids. C) The molecule alternates among several oxidative states. D) The molecule changes from insoluble to soluble forms. E) The molecule is converted to a gaseous state and is lost to the environment. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.14

33)33)

Green and purple sulfur bacteria will carry out anaerobic photosynthesis primarily in A) zone 1. B) zone 2. C) zone 3. D) zone 4. E) both zones 1 and 2. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.21 34) Which of the following sets of characteristics describes the highest level of threat potential from biological weapons? A) a waterborne toxin that is easily introduced into public water supplies and does not replicate in humans B) a pathogen of livestock transmitted by contact with infected animals but not infected people C) a human pathogen easily produced as an aerosol and transmissible by respiratory aerosols D) a pathogen of wheat that could be delivered using crop dusters E) a microbe that can be introduced into food during packaging and withstands refrigerator temperatures but not typical cooking temperatures Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Biological Warfare and Bioterrorism Learning Outcome: 25.23

35) Which of the following infectious diseases is currently of greatest concern as a biological weapon? A) anthrax B) the plague C) smallpox D) botulism E) cholera Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Biological Warfare and Bioterrorism Learning Outcome: 25.22 36)36)

What type of reactions take place in the portion of the sulfur cycle indicated in the figure? A) oxidation-reduction B) fermentation C) dissimilation D) denitrification E) carbon fixation Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.17 37) Which of the following may result from eating shellfish? A) botulism B) norovirus infection C) polio D) salmonellosis E) paralysis Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.8

38) Which of the following bacteria is a common soil bacterium that may cause disease in humans? A) Aspergillus oryzae B) Bacillus anthracis C) Cyanobacteria D) Lactoccocus cremoris E) Streptomyces scabies Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.20 39) Which of the following is an application of proteases? A) cheese B) indigo C) meat tenderizer D) vodka E) wine Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.6 40) Streptokinase is useful for which of the following? A) producing antibiotics B) cheese production C) biosensors D) dissolving blood clots E) insecticide Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.6 41) A common source of antibiotics is A) Acetobacter. B) Aspergillus oryzae and Lactobacillus. C) Lactoccocus cremoris. D) Streptococcus thermophilus. E) Streptomyces. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.6

42) Which of the following would be most effective in reducing the amount of CO2 in the atmosphere? A) cyanobacteria B) anaerobic microbes C) heterotrophic organisms D) fungi E) nitrogen fixers Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.15 43) Soy sauce is made using A) Acetobacter. B) Aspergillus oryzae and Saccharomyces. C) Aspergillus oryzae and Lactobacillus. D) Saccharomyces. E) Lactoccocus cremoris. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.1 44) Which of the following oxidize H2S to SO4-2, the form of sulfur animals use for their metabolism? A) Beggiatoa B) Desulfovibrio C) purple sulfur bacteria D) both Beggiatoa and purple sulfur bacteria E) both Beggiatoa and Desulfovibrio Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.17 25.2 True/False Questions 1) Most microbes need an environment that has a water activity of at least 0.90. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.2

2) The starter culture used to make cheese determines the type of cheese produced. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.1 3) Amino acid and vitamin supplements are prepared from extracts of microbial cultures. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.6 4) Pasteurization is a more rigorous process than canning. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.3 5) Cold is preferred for storing food because it retards microbial growth by slowing down metabolic processes. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.3 6) Algae and protozoa in the soil are quite hardy, and therefore, their abundance is not a useful indicator of environmental pollution. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.19 7) Through recombinant DNA technology, many plants now can manufacture their own Bt toxin, which improves fermentation. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.5 8) Bioremediation is the process of using organisms to clean up toxic, hazardous compounds by degrading them to less harmful substances. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.12

9) Without the activities of microorganisms, the functioning of the Earth's ecosystems would cease. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.15 10) Most of the nitrogen in the environment is in the form of nitrogen gas, which is the form used by most organisms. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.16 25.3 Short Answer Questions 1) The definition of (fermentation/cultivation/processing) used by food microbiologists is a desirable change in food due to microbial activity. Answer: fermentation Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.1 2) Because the same microbes are not always present on food from harvest to harvest, (fresh/natural/starter) cultures are used in the production of alcoholic beverages. Answer: starter Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.1 3) The sour flavor in some fermented foods is usually the result of (acetic/benzoid/lactic) acid production. Answer: lactic Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.1 4) The process of preserving foods in brine is called (canning/pickling/salting). Answer: pickling Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.3

5) Garlic contains an antimicrobial substance called (allicin/penicillin/streptomycin). Answer: allicin Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.3 6) A few hours after a dinner party, most of the people who attended begin to suffer nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. The food at the meal is suspected as the source, although no unusual microbes are cultured from samples of the food or from stool samples. These observations suggest they may be suffering from food (infection/intoxication). Answer: intoxication Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.4 7) Brandy is made by the same process as wine, but the alcohol is then concentrated by (fermentation/distillation/filtration). Answer: distillation Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.1 8) Freezing food and then using a vacuum to draw off the ice crystals is called (dehydration/lyophilization/sublimation). Answer: lyophilization Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.3 9) Benzoic acid is largely a(n) (antifungal/antiprotozoal/pickling) agent and does not affect the growth of many bacteria. Answer: antifungal Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.3 10) Cyanobacteria produce a cell type known as a(n) (akinete/heterocyst/nodule) that protects nitrogenase from the exposure to oxygen. Answer: heterocyst Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.16

11) With the (batch/continuous/static) production technique, organisms are allowed to ferment their substrate until it is exhausted. Answer: batch Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.5 12) Botryococcus braunii is an alga that produces hydrocarbons at (10/20/30) percent of its dry weight and could be harvested in the future as an alternative fuel. Answer: 30 Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.6 13) The anthrax attack of fall 2001 was accomplished by mailing the agent in ordinary envelopes. This method of delivery took advantage of the ability of Bacillus anthracis to produce (aerosols/endospores/toxins). Answer: endospores Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Biological Warfare and Bioterrorism Learning Outcome: 25.22 14) When one microbe's metabolic activities create favorable conditions for another microorganism, this is referred to as (competition/cooperation/facilitation). Answer: cooperation Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.11 15) The organic material found in topsoil is called (humus/peat/compost). Answer: humus Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.19

25.4 Essay Questions 1) What are the levels of microbial associations in the environment? How do they relate to an ecosystem? Answer: Microorganisms are associated with each other at many levels in the environment. Individual growing and reproducing organisms that are all of one species are referred to as a population. Populations of microorganisms performing metabolically related processes are known as guilds. Guilds constitute communities. Guilds and populations within a community typically reside in their own habitat. Together, the organisms, the environment, and the relationship between the two constitute the ecosystem. Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.10 2) Compare the use of biosensors with traditional methods of determining microbial contamination. Answer: Traditional methods of detecting microbial contaminants rely on collecting samples containing living microbes and being able to culture them in the laboratory. The need to provide the right growth conditions reduces the sensitivity of such tests. Waiting for the organisms to grow makes traditional methods time consuming. Biosensors use bacteria or bacterial enzymes to detect small amounts of contaminants in samples. The results are available in minutes rather than hours or days. Detection does not rely on properly anticipating an organism's growth requirements. Biosensors can also be designed to distinguish between closely related organisms, for example, by detecting whether a toxin is present in the sample. Biosensors are faster and more sensitive than traditional methods, and they are potentially more effective in distinguishing truly harmful microbes from their harmless close relatives. Bloom's Taxonomy: Application Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.6 3) How does water quality testing make use of environmental microbiology? Answer: Information gained through the study of environmental microbiology has been utilized to identify many of the fecal coliforms and their biological traits and to develop methods to identify whether they are contaminating our water supplies. A simple method is to filter water through a fine membrane and then place the filter on EMB agar. Growth of fecal coliforms will produce a metallic green sheen. The colonies are counted, and the number is used to calculate the degree of contamination. Another method is to add a water sample to small bottles containing MUG and ONPG and look for evidence of fecal coliform growth indicated by the resulting color changes. This latter method is more rapid; however, it indicates only that these microorganisms are present, but does not provide information regarding the actual number of bacteria present. Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 25.9

4) Smallpox is considered a serious potential biological weapon, whereas anthrax has been successfully used as one. Compare and contrast their potential with regard to the criteria for assessing biological threats. Answer: The smallpox virus causes serious illness with moderate to high fatality rates. The virus is highly contagious by contact and aerosols, and it is contagious before clear signs appear. The virus can persist on fomites and infect persons who come in contact with them. Although a vaccine exists, the majority of the world's population is currently unvaccinated. Consequently, once released, the virus will spread rapidly. However, there is no natural source for the virus, so a person or persons intent on using it as a weapon would have to have special access and facilities to be able to produce much virus. Additionally, post-exposure vaccination is effective in producing immunity, so the resulting epidemic could be controlled once recognized. The agent of anthrax, Bacillus anthracis, is an animal pathogen and a common soil contaminant. The organism can be easily isolated from contaminated soil and is not difficult to culture. The disease is not transmissible from person to person, so only the people exposed to the initial release would be at risk. However, the bacterium produces endospores that can be stored for long periods of time and released as a dust contaminant in airways or contact contaminant on fomites. Public perception of anthrax is that it is a very dangerous weapon. Initial respiratory symptoms are similar to other bacterial pneumonias, so proper diagnosis may not be made until the fatal toxemia develops. The current vaccine is expensive and does not produce immunity until after several boosters have been administered; therefore, it is not useful for controlling disease after a release. Natural B. anthracis is susceptible to most antibiotics, so treatment in cases of early detection is effective. Authorities are concerned about the potential for the development of antibiotic-resistant strains. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Biological Warfare and Bioterrorism Learning Outcome: 25.22, 25.23 5) Compare and contrast the two types of foodborne disease. Answer: Foodborne diseases are also known as food poisoning. Food poisoning may be due to food infections, caused by consuming living microorganisms, or to food intoxication, caused by consuming microbial toxins in food. Many cases of foodborne diseases are common-source epidemics, where one food source is responsible for many individual cases of the disease. Food infections primarily result from improper food handling or storage, whereas food intoxication may result from improper preparation, especially canning. Heating food is usually effective in killing living microbes in food, but most toxins are not inactivated by heating. Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: N/A