Mosby’s Textbook for Long-Term Care Nursing Assistants 8th Edition Kostelnick Test Bank Chapter 01: The Nursing Assistant Working in Long-Term Care Kostelnick: Mosby’s Textbook for Long-Term Care Nursing Assistants, 8th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Not relying on or requiring care from others is: a. deconditioning. b. independence. c. self-care. d. hospice. ANS: B
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2. An acute illness is a(n): a. sudden illness from which a person should recover. b. ongoing illness for which there is no known cure. c. illness that is slow or gradual in onset. d. illness for which there is no reasonable expectation of recovery. ANS: A
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3. An ongoing illness that is slow or gradual in onset and for which there is no known cure is
a(n)
illness.
a. acute b. chronic c. terminal d. physical ANS: B
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4. A nursing task is: a. a nursing care pattern focusing on jobs. b. a nursing care pattern in which an RN is responsible for the person’s total care. c. care or a function that can be delegated to nursing assistants. d. a service that is moved from departments to the bedside. ANS: C
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5. The duty or obligation to perform some act or function is known as: a. accountability. b. responsibility. c. delegation. d. patient-focused care. ANS: B
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6. Persons living in long-term care centers are called: a. patients. b. tenants. c. residents. d. individuals.
ANS: C
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7. Persons receiving care on assisted living units are called: a. tenants. b. clients or customers. c. patients. d. residents. ANS: A
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8. Who is responsible for the entire nursing staff in a nursing center organization? a. Nurse manager b. Charge nurse c. Staff nurse d. Director of nursing ANS: D
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9. An assisted living facility: a. provides 2 to 3 meals a day and housekeeping and laundry services. b. is for persons with terminal illnesses. c. provides complex ongoing rehabilitation. d. is for persons with chronic mental illness. ANS: A
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10. Which of the following individuals give basic nursing care under the supervision of a licensed
nurse? a. Nurse practitioners b. Social workers c. Nursing assistants d. Clinical laboratory technologists ANS: C
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11. By law, nursing centers must have a medical director, known as which member of the health
care team? a. Doctor b. Director of nursing c. Charge nurse d. Hospital administrator ANS: A
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12. Which health team members assess, make nursing diagnoses, plan, implement, and evaluate
nursing care? Physicians RNs LPNs Nursing assistants
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
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13. You are part of the: a. health team and the nursing team. b. board of trustees. c. case management team. d. prospective payment system. ANS: A
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14. LPNs/LVNs are supervised by licensed: a. physicians, dentists, and RNs b. physical therapists and occupational therapists c. agency administrators d. social workers, pharmacists, and RNs ANS: A
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15. Which health team member is responsible for diagnosing and treating diseases and injuries? a. Physician b. Nurse practitioner c. RN d. Physician’s assistant ANS: A
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16. Which health team member assesses and plans for the nutritional needs of residents? a. RN b. Dietitian c. Pharmacist d. Physician ANS: B
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17. Which health team member helps residents and families with social, emotional, and
environmental issues affecting illness and recovery? Speech-language pathologist Podiatrist Activities director Social worker
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D
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18. A hospice is a: a. skilled nursing facility. b. home health care agency. c. health care program for persons who present dangers to themselves or others. d. health care agency or program for persons who are terminally ill. ANS: D
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19. A federal health insurance program for persons 65 years of age and older, or for younger
people with certain disabilities is: a. private insurance.
b. group insurance. c. an HMO. d. Medicare. ANS: D
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20. Medicaid is a: a. preferred provider organization. b. private insurance plan purchased by individuals. c. federal health insurance program for persons with disabilities. d. health care payment program sponsored by the federal government and operated
by the states. ANS: D
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21. The overall goal of the interdisciplinary team is to: a. provide quality resident care. b. carry out the physician’s orders. c. develop care plans for residents. d. follow center policies and procedures. ANS: A
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22. What must a nursing center have to operate and provide care? a. A certificate b. Accreditation c. Policies and procedures d. A license ANS: D
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23. Accreditation for nursing centers is: a. a voluntary process that signals quality and excellence. b. required to receive Medicare and Medicaid funds. c. a federal requirement for a nursing center to operate. d. a process required by preferred providers. ANS: A
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24. You have an important role in meeting standards and in the survey process. You must do
which of the following? Avoid speaking with the surveyors. Interview residents and families. Defer any questions asked to the charge nurse. Follow center policies and procedures.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D
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25. Surveys are done to see if the center meets set standards. Your role in the survey process
involves which of the following? a. Having good work ethics b. Making sure all staff meet state requirements c. Deciding if the center meets the standards
d. Reviewing the nursing department budget ANS: A
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26. Who of the following could act as the case manager in the long-term care setting? a. Registered nurse b. Nursing assistant c. Occupational therapy assistant d. Medical physician ANS: A
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27. What protects the public from persons practicing nursing without a license? a. OBRA b. The Older Americans Act c. A state’s nurse practice act d. Criminal law ANS: C
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28. How many hours of instruction for nursing assistant training does OBRA require? a. At least 16 b. At least 32 c. At least 48 d. At least 75 ANS: D
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BpAeNteKncSyEeLvL 29. OBRA requires training anTdEaScT om alE uaRti. onCO foM r nursing assistants working in: a. day cares. b. nursing centers. c. hospices. d. doctors’ offices. ANS: B
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30. The competency evaluation required by OBRA involves a: a. written test only. b. skills test only. c. written test and a skills test. d. licensing examination. ANS: C
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31. How many testing attempts does OBRA allow? a. 1 b. At least 2 c. At least 3 d. At least 4 ANS: C
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32. The nursing assistant registry includes information about:
a. b. c. d.
prior elementary education. children. marriages. findings of abuse, neglect, or dishonest use of property.
ANS: D
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33. OBRA requires retraining and/or a new competency evaluation for persons who: a. have not worked as a nursing assistant for 24 months. b. were found guilty of abuse or neglect. c. were convicted of a crime. d. did not have good performance evaluations. ANS: A
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34. As a nursing assistant, you should: a. report changes in the person’s condition to the nurse. b. give drugs and insert tubes into body openings. c. take verbal or telephone orders from doctors. d. discuss the person’s diagnosis with the family. ANS: A
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35. A nurse asks you to perform a task that is beyond the legal limits of your role. You should: a. perform the task so that you do not lose your job. b. politely refuse and explain why. c. ignore the request. d. think about it for a fewTdE aySsT . ANS: B
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36. Which of the following indicates what your employer expects you to do? a. Your job description b. The state nurse practice act c. OBRA d. Code of ethics ANS: A
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37. A nurse can delegate: a. responsibilities. b. accountability. c. the Five Rights of Delegation. d. tasks. ANS: D
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38. Which nursing team members cannot delegate? a. RNs b. LPNs c. LVNs d. Nursing assistants
ANS: D
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39. Before a nurse delegates a task to you, the nurse must know which of the following? a. If the task fits into your schedule for the day. b. If you are willing to perform the task. c. What kind of degree the nurse has? d. What tasks your state allows nursing assistants to perform? ANS: D
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40. Certification of the nursing assistant is maintained at the a. local b. state c. federal d. community ANS: B
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level.
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41. The duty or obligation to perform some act or function is: a. accountability. b. responsibility. c. defamation. d. malpractice. ANS: B 42.
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Does a nurse have to delegate a task to you? Yes, if the task is in your job description. Yes, if the nurse teaches you how to perform the task. No. The nurse makes delegation decisions that are best for the person. No. The nurse performs the task unless he or she is busy.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
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43. The Five Rights of Delegation involve the: a. right task, the right circumstances, the right person, the right directions and
communication, and the right supervision. b. right law, the right job description, the right policies and procedures, and the right
supervision. c. right task, the right job description, the right person, the right training, and the
right supervision. d. right job description, the right task, the right person, the right directions and
communication, and the right supervision. ANS: A
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44. A nurse asks you to do a urinary catheterization. This involves sterile technique and inserting
a tube into the person’s bladder. The nurse gives you very clear instructions. What should you do? a. Perform the task. The nurse’s directions were clear. b. Perform the task if the nurse is available to answer questions. c. Refuse the task. It is beyond the legal limits of your role.
d. Perform the task if another nursing assistant can help you. ANS: C
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45. You can refuse to do a delegated task if: a. you are too busy. b. you do not like the task. c. it is the end of your shift and you are ready to go home. d. the task is not in your job description. ANS: D
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TRUE/FALSE 1. Case managers are allowed to communicate with insurance companies. ANS: T
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Chapter 02: Resident Rights, Ethics, and Laws Kostelnick: Mosby’s Textbook for Long-Term Care Nursing Assistants, 8th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which requires nursing assistant training and competency evaluation? a. Medicare and Medicaid b. Health maintenance organizations c. Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1987 d. The Older Americans Act ANS: C
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2. Courteous and dignified resident care includes which of the following? a. Showering the person with no more than 3 other persons b. Choosing the doctor for the client c. Making sure that the person is neat and clean d. Inspecting the person’s drawers and closets ANS: C
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3. Henry Parks is a nursing center resident. Which is the proper way to address him? a. Mr. Parks b. Henry c. Grandpa d. Sweetie ANS: A
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4. Before entering a person’s room, you should: a. get the person’s attention. b. knock on the door and wait to be asked in. c. check to see if the person has visitors. d. check to see if the person is in the bathroom. ANS: B
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5. You are going to give a resident a bath. Which will protect the person’s privacy? a. Opening window shades so that the person can see outside b. Opening the door to the person’s room so that you can hear if you are needed c. Closing the privacy curtain d. Asking the person to cover their chest with their hands ANS: C
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6. A long-term care ombudsman: a. is an RN. b. promotes the resident’s needs and interests. c. is employed by the nursing center. d. makes care decisions for the resident. ANS: B
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7. An ombudsman does which of the following? a. Provides resident care. b. Protects visitor’s health and safety. c. Protects nursing staff rights. d. Investigates resident complaints. ANS: D
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8. The Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1987 is a: a. state law. b. nurse practice act. c. federal law. d. criminal law. ANS: C
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9. Protecting the right to privacy involves which of the following? a. Keeping information about the person written on the board on the wall b. Allowing visitors to remain in the room when care is given c. Exposing only the body part involved in the treatment procedure d. Asking the roommate to look the other way when providing care ANS: C
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10. An example of a resident’s right is the right to: a. a job. b. information. c. select their roommate. d. elope. ANS: B
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11. The willful infliction or harm of another person is: a. assault. b. defamation. c. battery. d. abuse. ANS: D
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12. Touching a person without that person’s consent is: a. assault. b. battery. c. invasion of privacy. d. libel. ANS: B
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13. Threatening to touch a person’s body without that person’s consent is: a. assault. b. battery. c. invasion of privacy.
d. defamation. ANS: A
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14. Knowledge of right conduct and wrong conduct is: a. ethics. b. torts. c. civil law. d. public law. ANS: A
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15. You give wrong information on a job application. This is: a. libel. b. slander. c. defamation. d. fraud. ANS: D
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16. Negligence by a professional person is: a. malpractice. b. libel. c. defamation. d. slander. ANS: A
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17. While performing a task, aTnE urSsT inB gA asNsiKstSanEtLhL arE mRed.C aO peMrson. Which is correct? a. The nursing assistant will be terminated. b. The nursing assistant is not responsible for the harm. The supervising nurse is
responsible. c. The nursing assistant will be held to the standard of care of other nurses. d. Harm can occur from what a person does or fails to do. ANS: D
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18. Which is considered to be a source for standards of care? a. Newspaper b. Blog or chat room c. The nurse’s directions d. Job descriptions ANS: D
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19. A resident asks you to make out a will. What should you do? a. Do what the person asks. b. Refuse, but explain why. Then tell the nurse about the person’s request. c. Call a lawyer for the person. d. Find out if you will be named in the will. ANS: B
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20. A nursing assistant pinches and pushes a resident. This is: a. negligence. b. malpractice. c. neglect. d. physical abuse. ANS: D
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21. A resident’s signal light goes unanswered. The person’s son finds him lying on sheets soaked
with urine. This is: neglect. emotional abuse. physical abuse. malpractice.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
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22. A resident did not get to the bathroom in time. She urinated and had a bowel movement in her
clothing. To prevent an accident in the dining room, the nurse makes the resident stay in her room. This is: a. malpractice. b. involuntary seclusion. c. neglect. d. physical abuse. ANS: B
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23. You see a nursing assistanT t hEitS tiT ngBaArNesKidSeE ntL. L WEhR at.sC hoOuM ld you do? a. Talk to the resident. b. Call the police. c. Tell the nurse. d. Mind your own business. ANS: C
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24. You are walking by a resident room. You hear a nurse criticizing a resident. This is: a. battery. b. a tort. c. verbal abuse. d. neglect. ANS: C
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25. You suspect that a resident is being abused. What should you do? a. Tell the nurse. b. Call the police. c. Talk to the family. d. Mind your own business. ANS: A
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26. In domestic abuse, the abuser is a: a. caregiver.
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b. family member. c. neighbor. d. partner. ANS: D
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27. Which statement about domestic abuse is correct? a. It only happens in the home by the partner. b. Usually just one type of abuse is present. c. The abuser has power and control over the victim. d. It does not typically become a safety issue. ANS: C
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TRUE/FALSE 1. You are responsible for protecting the resident’s rights. ANS: T
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2. The resident can visit with family and friends in private. ANS: T
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3. A resident wants a bath in the evening, not in the morning. The person has the right to make
this choice. ANS: T
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4. You are straightening a resident’s room. You find scraps of paper and envelopes on the
person’s dresser. You can throw these items in the trash. ANS: F
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5. The resident has the right to decide who can touch his or her body. ANS: T
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Chapter 03: Work Ethics Kostelnick: Mosby’s Textbook for Long-Term Care Nursing Assistants, 8th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. C means: a. trusting others with personal information. b. being polite and considerate. c. behavior in the workplace. d. right and wrong conduct. ANS: C
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2. You say things that offend another person. This is: a. gossip. b. defamation. c. being rude. d. harassment. ANS: D
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3. Which will not promote physical and mental health? a. Good nutrition b. Having your eyes examined c. Taking medications as a doctor prescribes d. Exercising once a week ANS: D
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4. Good personal hygiene involves: a. daily bathing. b. taking a shower. c. taking a tub bath. d. brushing teeth daily. ANS: A
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5. To look professional at work: a. follow the center’s dress code. b. wear your favorite clothes. c. keep your nails polished. d. wear shoes that are in style. ANS: A
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6. Uniforms, stockings, socks, and shoes must be: a. clean. b. in style. c. white. d. provided by the center. ANS: A
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7. You have a tattoo. You should: a. have it removed. b. wear uniforms that allow it to be seen. c. cover it. d. show it to residents. ANS: C
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8. You have multiple ear piercings. You should: a. ask the residents if they mind you wearing them. b. plug the holes. c. wear as many earrings as needed. d. follow the center’s dress code. ANS: D
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9. Large rings and bracelets are dangerous because: a. residents can pull them off. b. they can fall off. c. they can damage care equipment. d. they can scratch residents. ANS: D
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10. Necklaces and earrings are dangerous because: a. residents can pull them off. b. they can scratch residents. TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. they provide a place for microbes to grow and multiply. d. they can damage care equipment. ANS: A
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11. You should wear a wristwatch that: a. is digital. b. has a second hand. c. has a stopwatch. d. has an alarm. ANS: B
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12. Nail polish: a. must be a light shade. b. must be in good repair. c. must be a dark shade. d. is not worn. ANS: D
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13. Perfumes, colognes, and after-shave lotions: a. may offend residents. b. must be a light fragrance. c. must be approved by the center.
d. prevent body odors. ANS: A
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14. Which is not a source for finding a job? a. The state employment service b. Newspaper classified ads c. The state nursing assistant registry d. Phone book yellow pages ANS: C
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15. Being dependable means: a. reporting to work on time the majority of time. b. being eager to learn. c. working when scheduled. d. making promises you can’t keep. ANS: C
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16. Having concern for a person is: a. caring. b. empathy. c. enthusiasm. d. respect. ANS: A
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17. Treating the person with dT igE niS tyTiB s:ANKSELLER.COM a. enthusiasm. b. empathy. c. respectfulness. d. cheerfulness. ANS: C
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18. Understanding your feelings, strengths, and weaknesses is: a. consideration. b. trustworthiness. c. conscientiousness. d. self-awareness. ANS: D
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19. Childcare emergencies are: a. your responsibility. b. the center’s responsibility. c. your coworkers’ responsibility. d. part of your benefits package. ANS: A
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20. You are the carpool driver today. You need to get gas. What should you do?
a. b. c. d.
Leave earlier than usual to get the gas. Get it after you pick everyone up. Get it after work. Ask everyone to help pay for the gas.
ANS: A
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21. You are ill and cannot work as scheduled. What should you do? a. Find someone to work for you. b. Follow the center’s attendance policy. c. Call your supervisor after your shift starts. d. Go to bed. ANS: B
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22. You need to arrive for work: a. before your shift starts. b. when your shift starts. c. within 5 minutes of your shift’s starting time. d. within 10 minutes of your shift’s starting time. ANS: A
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23. You are scheduled to work from 3:00 PM to 11:30 PM. Which statement is correct? a. You must stay the entire time. b. You can leave no later than 11:30 PM. c. You can leave for a childcare emergency. d. You do not have to woT rkEoSvT erB tiA mN e.KSELLER.COM ANS: A
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24. Which nursing team member has a bad attitude? a. The nursing assistant who says “please” and “thank you” a lot. b. The LPN who tells everyone about how hard he works. c. The RN who gives praise and compliments. d. The nursing assistant who offers to help others. ANS: B
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25. You see two health team members talking quietly to each other. You tell your coworkers what
you overhead. This is: eavesdropping. gossip. an invasion of privacy. defamation.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
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26. During lunch, your coworkers are talking about other staff members. What should you do? a. Excuse yourself and leave the table. b. Sit there without saying anything. c. Tell the nurse what happened. d. Share the comments with staff members who were not there.
ANS: A
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27. You can share information about a resident with: a. the family. b. coworkers. c. the nurse. d. visitors. ANS: C
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28. When you eavesdrop, you: a. invade the person’s privacy. b. commit fraud. c. promote confidentiality. d. gossip. ANS: A
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29. The best way to look professional at work is to: a. ask your friends to help you shop for uniforms. b. wear your favorite clothes to work. c. check yourself in the mirror before leaving for work. d. follow the center’s dress code. ANS: D
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30. Professional speech and language includes which of the following? a. Using slang b. Cursing only when necessary c. Speaking clearly d. Shouting only when other residents are fighting ANS: C
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31. Which is considered to be a courtesy? a. Saying “please” and “thank you” b. Requiring residents to open their own doors c. Refusing to help in order to foster independence d. Calling a resident by his or her first name ANS: A
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32. You need to call your children. When should you make the call? a. After you finish assigned tasks. b. When residents are napping. c. During meal or break times. d. When the nurse is talking to the doctor. ANS: C
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33. Which of the following is good work ethics? a. Carrying a personal pager
b. Asking a coworker for lunch money c. Using the center’s computer to update your social network status d. Making a doctor’s appointment for your day off ANS: D
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34. Which of the following is good work ethics? a. Using phones on the nursing unit to make personal calls b. Selling your handmade crafts at work c. Having your son meet you for lunch during your break d. Bringing your child to work with you ANS: C
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35. Your break time is 15 minutes long. How long can you take? a. 10 minutes b. 15 minutes c. 20 minutes d. As long as it takes you to get food ANS: B
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36. Before leaving the unit for a break, you need to: a. use the restroom. b. tell the nurse. c. tell every patient goodbye. d. write your time of departure down at the desk for the nurse to see. ANS: B
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37. A resident’s care is assigned to Sally Jones. The resident needs to use the bathroom. Sally
Jones is on a meal break. Who will help the resident? Sally Jones. She will have to return to the unit. No one. The resident will have to wait until Sally is done eating. Any staff member on the unit can help the resident. The resident’s family can help the resident.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
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38. Which will protect residents and yourself from harm? a. Following your job description and center policies and procedures b. Following your own gut instinct for how a procedure should be done c. Telling your spouse you made a mistake once you have left the facility d. Making excuses or blaming others for your actions ANS: A
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39. Stress is: a. anything that is not pleasant. b. the response or change in the body caused by any emotional, physical, social, or
economic factor. c. anxiety, fear, anger, dread, and depression. d. what causes illness.
ANS: B
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40. A stressor is: a. an event or factor that causes stress. b. anything that is not pleasant. c. what causes illness. d. the response or change in the body caused by any emotional, physical, social, or
economic factor. ANS: A
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41. Which statement about stress is correct? a. Stress is abnormal. b. Stress occurs only when you are sleep deprived. c. Stress affects the whole person. d. Stress only occurs while you are at work. ANS: C
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42. Which statement about harassment is correct? a. Harassment is always sexual. b. Harassment always involves touch. c. Harassment does not involve pictures. d. Victims of sexual harassment can be men or women. ANS: D
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TRUE/FALSE 1. Stress in your personal life can affect your work and the care that you give. ANS: T
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2. Setting priorities can help you reduce or cope with stress. ANS: T
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3. Laughing can help you reduce or cope with stress. ANS: T
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Chapter 04: Communicating With the Health Team Kostelnick: Mosby’s Textbook for Long-Term Care Nursing Assistants, 8th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The health team sends and receives messages. This is: a. gossip. b. communication. c. reporting. d. resolving conflict. ANS: B
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2. Communication is the: a. verbal account of care and observations. b. written account of care and observations. c. medical record. d. exchange of information. ANS: D
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3. Which word has the same meaning for everyone? a. Small b. Little c. Decreased d. Weight of 85 lbs ANS: D
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4. Which promotes communication? a. Giving lengthy detailed information b. Giving information in the reverse order from when the events occurred c. Presenting facts d. Talking about two subjects at once ANS: C
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5. Which statement about medical records is correct? a. The record is kept confidential except when family members request information. b. They are legal documents. c. They are used to communicate information to the media. d. All center staff can access them. ANS: B
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6. Nursing centers have policies about medical records. Policies generally cover which of the
following? Medical terms Guidelines on cursive writing or printing Signing entries Billing and accounts receivable
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
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7. A resident asks to see his chart. What should you do? a. Give it to him. b. Tell the nurse. c. Tell the doctor. d. Make a copy for him. ANS: B
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8. Which form has the person’s identifying information? a. The admission sheet b. The progress notes c. Activities of daily living flow sheet d. Kardex ANS: A
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9. Where would you record information about the person’s hygiene, elimination, and sleep? a. The admission sheet b. The progress notes c. Activities of daily living flow sheet d. Kardex ANS: C
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10. Which of the following is a type of card file? a. The admission sheet b. The progress notes c. Activities of daily living flow sheet d. Kardex ANS: D
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11. Which type of resident care conference is held when one problem affects a person’s care? a. Interdisciplinary care planning conference b. Activities of daily living care conference c. Problem-focused conference d. Resident complaint conference ANS: C
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12. You are reporting to the nurse. You should do which of the following? a. Be prompt, thorough, and accurate. b. State what the person was wearing. c. State who had visited the patient today. d. Report what coworkers did. ANS: A
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13. When should you report changes in the person’s condition? a. At once
b. At the end of your shift c. Before you take your lunch break d. During the end-of-shift report ANS: A
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14. Anyone who reads your charting should know which of the following? a. What you overheard b. What the visitor did c. What your coworkers did d. The person’s response ANS: D
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15. The center allows you to record on charts. Which is correct? a. Pencil is preferred when recording. b. Only center-approved abbreviations are used. c. Errors are erased. d. Abbreviation of name and title is acceptable. ANS: B
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16. When recording, you should do which of the following? a. Write quickly, using your own abbreviations. b. Use correct spelling, grammar, and punctuation. c. Skip lines. d. Record what you did yourself as well as your coworkers. ANS: B
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17. Which statement about charting is correct? a. You can chart a procedure before completing it. b. You should use the person’s exact words whenever possible. c. You need to use terms with more than one meaning. d. You need to record your opinion. ANS: B
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18. You are charting changes in the person’s condition. You also need to chart which of the
following? That you informed the resident’s visitors of the changes What you told the resident about the changes When you reported the changes to the nurse When you called the doctor about the changes
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
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19. When charting, you should record: a. safety measures performed. b. what coworkers observed. c. what coworkers did. d. what the doctor said.
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ANS: A
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20. The clock shows 11:42 AM. In 24-hour clock time, this is: a. 11:42. b. 1142. c. 2342. d. 11:43 AM. ANS: B
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21. The clock shows 7:29 PM. In 24-hour clock time, this is: a. 7:29 PM. b. 729. c. 0729. d. 1929. ANS: D
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22. A suffix is: a. placed at the beginning of a word. b. the main part of the word. c. placed at the end of a word. d. a shortened form of a word or phrase. ANS: C
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23. Which term means “before, forward, or in front of”? a. Ante b. Dist c. Medial d. Post ANS: A
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24. “Dys-” means: a. without, not, lack of. b. slow. c. bad, difficult, abnormal. d. inner, inside. ANS: C
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25. “Olig-” means: a. half. b. under, decreased, less than normal. c. small, scant. d. many, much. ANS: C
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26. “Tachy-” means: a. bad, difficult, abnormal. b. normal, good, well, healthy.
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c. slow. d. fast. ANS: D
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27. “Poly-” means: a. many, much. b. before, in front of. c. around. d. large. ANS: A
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28. “Arthro” means: a. rib. b. joint. c. bone. d. head. ANS: B 29. “Cyano” means: a. heart. b. skin. c. sugar. d. blue. ANS: D
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30. “Angio” means: a. heart. b. artery. c. vein. d. vessel. ANS: D 31. “Derma” means: a. water. b. stone. c. tongue. d. skin. ANS: D 32. “Gastro” means: a. stomach. b. large intestine. c. small intestine. d. intestines. ANS: A
33. “Gluco” means: a. woman. b. water. c. stone. d. sweetness. ANS: D
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34. “Hemo” means: a. artery. b. heart. c. vein. d. blood. ANS: D 35. “Hydro” means: a. bladder. b. water. c. kidney. d. air. ANS: B
36. “Myo” means: a. spinal cord. b. eye. c. muscle. d. straight, normal, correct. ANS: C
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37. “Osteo” means: a. spinal cord. b. joint. c. bone. d. nerve. ANS: C
38. “Pnea” means: a. breathing, respiration. b. lung, air, gas. c. nose. d. lung. ANS: A
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39. “Stomato” means: a. stomach. b. opening. c. narrow, constriction. d. mouth.
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ANS: D
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40. “Toxico” and “toxo” mean: a. poison. b. heat. c. chest. d. clot. ANS: A
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41. “Vaso” means: a. artery. b. vein. c. blood vessel. d. dilate. ANS: C
42. The suffix “-algia” means: a. condition. b. pain. c. enlargement. d. disease. ANS: B
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43. The suffix “-emia” means: a. removal of. b. blood condition. c. inflammation. d. tumor. ANS: B
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44. The suffix “-phagia” means: a. the study of. b. destruction of. c. disease. d. swallowing. ANS: D
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45. The suffix “-phasia” means: a. swallowing. b. speaking. c. paralysis. d. fear. ANS: B
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46. The suffix “-rrhage” means: a. discharge.
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b. stitching. c. excessive flow. d. drooping. ANS: C
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47. The suffix “-stomy” means: a. removal of. b. cutting into. c. stomach. d. creation of an opening. ANS: D
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48. The suffix “-plegia” means: a. paralysis. b. swallowing. c. speaking. d. sagging. ANS: A
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49. The abbreviation “ADL” means: a. abdomen. b. before meals. c. activities of daily living. d. as desired. ANS: C
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50. You have access to the center’s computer system. Which is correct? a. You can use another person’s password to open e-mail. b. You can use the computer to send personal e-mail. c. You can use the computer to send confidential information to the nurse. d. You can change your password according to center policy. ANS: D
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51. Which statement about computer use in the nursing center is true? a. You should use the computer to send information that requires immediate
reporting. b. You should use the computer to send jokes and other entertaining material. c. Authorized staff can retrieve deleted computer files. d. You should use the computer to post your opinions and messages on the Internet. ANS: C
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52. Which statement about computer use in the nursing center is correct? a. You should share your password with coworkers. b. You should use texting lingo and abbreviations that you recognize. c. You should prevent others from seeing what is on the screen. d. You should multi-task by paying your bills online when not caring for a resident.
ANS: C
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53. You should answer a phone by the a. second b. fourth c. sixth d. eighth ANS: B
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ring.
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54. After taking a phone message, you should: a. repeat the message and phone number back to the caller. b. put the caller on hold. c. transfer the caller. d. lay the phone down. ANS: A
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55. Before transferring a call, you should: a. explain that you are going to transfer the call. b. lay the phone down and find out where to transfer the call. c. take a message. d. find out the reason for the call. ANS: A
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56. A phone message should contain which of the following? a. Number of phone rings before answered b. Caller’s Social Security number c. Date and time d. Length of call ANS: C 57.
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Before putting a caller “on hold,” you should: a. find out if the call is about an emergency. b. thank the person for calling. c. take a message. d. ask how long the caller can wait. ANS: A
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58. The first step in problem solving is to: a. define the problem. b. collect information. c. identify possible solutions. d. ask your supervisor for time to talk. ANS: A
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59. You have a conflict with a coworker. In resolving the conflict, you should: a. discuss the problem in front of a witness. b. focus on facts and specific behaviors.
c. ask your supervisor to talk to the person. d. give the problem time to go away. ANS: B
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Chapter 05: Assisting With the Nursing Process Kostelnick: Mosby’s Textbook for Long-Term Care Nursing Assistants, 8th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A written guide about the care a person should receive is the: a. medical diagnosis. b. comprehensive care plan. c. nursing diagnosis. d. nursing process. ANS: B
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2. The method nurses use to plan and deliver nursing care is the nursing: a. process. b. care plan. c. diagnosis. d. intervention. ANS: A
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3. Collecting information about a person is: a. assessment. b. gossip. c. implementation. d. evaluation. ANS: A
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4. A measure is taken by the nursing team. It helps a person reach a goal. The measure is: a. a nursing diagnosis. b. a nursing intervention. c. an implementation. d. the nursing process. ANS: B
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5. You make many observations when giving care. You should use your senses to: a. collect information about the person. b. record. c. report. d. see, feel, hear, or touch symptoms. ANS: A
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6. The nursing process focuses on the: a. person’s nursing needs. b. doctor’s orders. c. center’s policies. d. medical record. ANS: A
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7. Which is the first step of the nursing process? a. Nursing diagnosis b. Planning c. Assessment d. Evaluation ANS: C
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8. If the nursing process is used correctly: a. nursing care is organized and has purpose. b. the doctor’s orders are part of the care plan. c. the care plan does not change. d. assessment information does not change. ANS: A
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9. Information that you can see, hear, feel, or smell is: a. the nursing diagnosis. b. observation. c. objective data. d. subjective data. ANS: C
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10. Which is a sign? a. Dizziness b. Nausea c. Fever d. Headache ANS: C 11.
Which is a sign? a. Yellow urine b. Chest pain c. Stiff joints d. Blurred vision ANS: A
12. Which is a symptom? a. Reddened area b. Bruise c. Itching d. Eye drainage ANS: C 13.
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Which is a symptom? a. Noisy respirations b. Pulse rate of 78 c. Cough
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d. Tingling ANS: D
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14. Symptoms are: a. objective data. b. subjective data. c. seen, felt, touched, or heard by the nurse. d. observed by the nurse. ANS: B
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15. With every resident contact: a. new information is collected. b. the care plan changes. c. nursing diagnoses change. d. implementation changes. ANS: A
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16. Which is required by OBRA? a. The Kardex b. The Minimum Data Set (MDS) c. Computer records d. E-mail and electronic messages ANS: B
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17. The MDS is: a. completed by the doctor. b. used to make a medical diagnosis. c. completed and signed by a nursing assistant. d. an assessment and screening tool. ANS: D
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18. The planning step of the nursing process involves which of the following? a. Making nursing diagnoses b. Ordering medications c. Setting goals and priorities d. Evaluating nursing interventions ANS: C
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19. A nursing intervention: a. requires a doctor’s order. b. is a nursing action or a nursing measure. c. is the same as a nursing diagnosis. d. is the same as the comprehensive care plan. ANS: B
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20. The comprehensive care plan contains which of the following?
a. b. c. d.
The doctor’s orders The person’s financial statement Goals for care List of approved visitors
ANS: C 21.
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The comprehensive care plan: a. tells what care not to give. b. may be part of the Kardex. c. is used only by RNs. d. identifies the person’s weaknesses, not the person’s strengths. ANS: B
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22. Which is not a nursing diagnosis? a. Anxiety b. Constipation c. Pain, acute d. Heart attack ANS: D
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23. Care is given during the a. assessment b. planning c. implementation d. evaluation ANS: C 24.
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step of the nursing process.
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Goals are set during the planning step of the nursing process. Which is correct? a. A goal is that which is desired by the health team as a result of nursing care. b. Goals are aimed at the person’s highest level of well-being and function. c. Goals are chosen by the family members. d. Goals outline which interventions should be carried out. ANS: B
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25. Which step in the nursing process involves measuring if the goals set in the planning step
were met? Assessment Planning Implementation Evaluation
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D
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26. Which statement about the nursing process is correct? a. It changes as the person’s needs change. b. It never changes. c. It requires a doctor’s order. d. You are responsible for it.
ANS: A
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27. The nurse communicates delegated tasks to you by using: a. the nursing process. b. The Minimum Data Set (MDS). c. Resident Assessment Protocols (RAPs). d. an assignment sheet. ANS: D
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28. Which statement is correct? a. Nursing assistants do not have a role in the nursing process. b. Nursing process steps can be done in any order. c. The nursing process is the same as the care planning process. d. The nursing process is ongoing. It never ends. ANS: D
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TRUE/FALSE 1. Nursing diagnoses and medical diagnoses are the same. ANS: F
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2. The resident has the right to take part in his or her care planning. ANS: T
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Chapter 06: Understanding the Resident Kostelnick: Mosby’s Textbook for Long-Term Care Nursing Assistants, 8th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A concept that considers the whole person is called: a. religion. b. culture. c. comatose. d. holism. ANS: D 2.
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Verbal communication uses: a. written or spoken words. b. body language. c. needs. d. culture. ANS: A
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3. Experiencing one’s potential is: a. esteem. b. self-esteem. c. self-actualization. d. holism. ANS: C
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4. Messages sent through facial expressions, gestures, posture, and hand and body movements
are: a. b. c. d.
body language. paraphrasing. focusing. holism.
ANS: A
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5. Which statement about the whole person is correct? a. The whole person has physical, social, psychological, and spiritual parts. b. The parts can be separated. c. Each part is independent of the others. d. There is no connection between the psychological and physical person. ANS: A
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6. A person has physical needs that are needed for life. Which would be considered one of those
needs? a. Rest b. Money c. Clothing
d. Love ANS: A
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7. Which is correct? a. Calling a resident by his or her first name shows respect. b. Calling a resident “sweetheart” promotes the person’s dignity. c. Calling residents by their titles (Mr., Mrs., Ms., or Dr.) promotes dignity and
shows respect. d. Calling a male resident “grandpa” shows respect and caring. ANS: C
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8. According to Maslow, which basic needs must be met first? a. Physical needs b. Safety and security needs c. Love and belonging needs d. Self-esteem and self-actualization needs ANS: A
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9. Which is not a physical need? a. Oxygen b. Food c. Water d. Closeness and affection ANS: D
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10. You are going to help a resident with a shower. To meet the person’s safety and security
needs, you need to do which of the following? Explain that the person must have a shower now or she will lose her turn. Explain in what order the showers are given. Explain what sensations to expect. Explain why the person must have a shower.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
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11. You can help a new resident feel safe and secure by: a. listening to the person’s concerns. b. keeping the person in his or her room. c. asking direct questions. d. asking visitors to leave the room. ANS: A
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12. Family and friends usually help meet the person’s: a. physical needs. b. love and belonging needs. c. self-actualization needs. d. holism needs. ANS: B
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13. A person’s cultural beliefs and practices are: a. included in the person’s care plan. b. ordered by the doctor. c. not allowed in nursing centers. d. determined by the interdisciplinary health team. ANS: A
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14. A resident wants to attend religious services in the center’s chapel. What should you do? a. Assist the person to the chapel. b. Report the request to the nurse. c. Check the person’s care plan. d. Ask why the person wants to attend. ANS: A
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15. A person’s cultural beliefs and practices are different from yours. What should you do? a. Judge the person by your standards. b. Ask to care for other residents. c. Learn about the person’s culture. d. Tell the person what you believe. ANS: C
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16. A person’s religion is different from yours. What should you do? a. Judge the person by your standards. b. Ask to care for other residents. TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. Learn about the person’s religion. d. Tell the person what you believe. ANS: C
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17. A lost, absent, or impaired physical or mental function is a(n): a. illness. b. physical need. c. medical problem. d. disability. ANS: D
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18. Which is a common response to illness and disability? a. Anger b. Demanding behavior c. Self-centered behavior d. Withdrawal ANS: A
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19. Which will improve a person’s quality of life? a. Encouraging the sick role b. Changing the person’s cultural beliefs and practices c. Promoting the person’s optimal level of functioning
d. Focusing on the person’s disabilities ANS: C 20.
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Generally, persons needing complete care in nursing centers. Know who and where they are, the year, and time of day. Can tell you what they want or need. Are very disabled, confused, or disoriented. Need only physical and occupational therapy to function.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
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21. Terminally ill residents: a. have birth defects. b. have childhood injuries or diseases. c. are recovering from fractures, acute illness, or surgery. d. are dying. ANS: D
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22. Residents who have mental health issues: a. are confused and disoriented. b. have limited language and learning abilities. c. are angry and withdrawn. d. have problems coping or adjusting to stress. ANS: D
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23. When caring for terminallyTiE llSpT erB soAnN s,KyS ouEL neLedER to.pC roOmMote: a. optimal level of functioning. b. comfort and peace. c. independent functioning. d. exercise and activity. ANS: B
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24. A resident stays in her room most of the time. She likes being alone and does not attend social
events. How would you describe her behavior? She is demanding. She is self-centered. She is angry. She is withdrawn.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D
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25. A resident tends to pinch and kick the staff. The person is most likely showing
behavior. angry aggressive inappropriate sexual self-centered
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
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26. A resident wants his meals served before anyone else. He also calls for the nursing assistants
when he sees them helping others. This behavior is best described as: demanding. self-centered. aggressive. angry.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
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27. A resident tends to shout and raise her voice when she wants something. She does not answer
your questions and is not cooperative. Her behavior is best described as: angry. aggressive. self-centered. withdrawn.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
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28. A resident pinches and scratches when it is time for her shower. You should do which of the
following? Report her behavior to the nurse. Restrain her using a vest. Pinch her back. Use silence and ignore her behavior.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
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29.2 A person is angry and demanding. It is important to always: 9 a. treat the person with respect and dignity. . b. ignore the person’s behavior. c. keep the person waiting. d. ask the nurse to talk to the person. ANS: A
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30. Effective communication involves which of the following? a. Considering the person’s spouse b. Respecting the person’s rights c. Enforcing your beliefs on religion and culture d. Refraining from asking any questions ANS: B
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31. You ask a resident a question. You should: a. give the person time to process what you asked. b. expect an answer right away. c. ask the question in another way. d. ask the question only once. ANS: A
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32. You want to make sure that a resident understands what you said. You should:
a. b. c. d.
assume that the person understands. assume that the person is confused and disoriented. respect the person’s culture and religion. ask questions to see if the person understands.
ANS: D
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33. A resident asks the same question many times. You should: a. be patient. b. say that you already answered the question. c. tell the person that you are answering again. d. report the person’s behavior to the nurse. ANS: A
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34. Which is a rule for verbal communication? a. Shout so the person can hear you. b. Ask all questions at once. c. Speak clearly and slowly. d. Use slang words. ANS: C
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35. Which is a rule for verbal communication? a. Wait for an answer after asking a question. b. Look out the window while speaking to the person. c. Speak to the person as you are walking out of the room so that you can multi-task. d. Speak in a loud voice tT oE enSsT urBe A thNeKpS erE soLnLcE anRh.eC arOyMou. ANS: A
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36. A resident uses slang when he talks to you. You should: a. ask him not to use such words. b. ask the nurse to speak to him. c. avoid using slang words yourself. d. ignore him when he uses such words. ANS: C
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37. Which conveys comfort, caring, and reassurance? a. Body language b. Gestures c. Posture d. Touch ANS: D
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38. To use touch correctly, you should: a. follow the person’s care plan. b. ask where the person wants to be touched. c. ask how the person wants to be touched. d. use both hands.
ANS: A
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39. Which statement about body language is correct? a. Body language is difficult to interpret. b. Residents send messages through body language. c. Body language is easy to control. d. Body language involves gestures, slang statements, and laughter. ANS: B
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40. Which of the following statements about body language is correct? a. Your appearance sends messages. b. Facial expressions mean the same thing in all cultures. c. Maintaining eye contact is important in all cultures. d. It is important to never use body language. ANS: A
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41. A resident turns her eyes away from you. Her face is flushed. These facial expressions most
likely mean that she is: afraid. angry. surprised. embarrassed.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D
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42. A resident’s eyes are wide open and the eyebrows are raised. The person’s mouth is tense with
the lips turned back. These facial expressions most likely mean: coldness. fear. disgust. tiredness.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
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43. A resident’s bowel movement has a strong odor. You should: a. tell the person that the bowel movement smells. b. ask what the person ate. c. control your body language. d. avoid eye contact with the person. ANS: C
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44. Which shows that you are listening to a person? a. Having good eye contact with the person b. Leaning away from the person c. Sitting with your arms crossed d. Changing the subject ANS: A 45. Listening involves:
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a. b. c. d.
observing the person’s nonverbal communication. using communication boards. leaning back with your arms crossed. using communication barriers.
ANS: A
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46. Paraphrasing does which of the following? a. Shows you are listening. b. Is a short-cut in responding to a resident. c. Gives more detail to what the person said. d. Focuses on specific information. ANS: A
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47. A resident says: “I’m tired of waiting for my lunch. I want it now!” To paraphrase, you say: a. “Why do you want your lunch now?” b. “You want your lunch now.” c. “What do you want for lunch?” d. “Could you tell me that again?” ANS: B
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48. Which communication technique will give “yes” or “no” answers? a. Paraphrasing b. Direct questions c. Focusing d. Clarifying ANS: B
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49. Which is a direct question? a. “What do you want for lunch?” b. “Why don’t you want to eat?” c. “Tell me that again, please.” d. “Tell me about your family.” ANS: A
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50. Which communication technique allows the person to decide what to talk about? a. Paraphrasing b. Direct questions c. Open-ended questions d. Focusing ANS: C
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51. A resident wants his meat loaf prepared a certain way. To clarify what the resident is saying,
you say: “Can you tell me that again?” “Do you want more pepper in it?” “Why do you want it made that way?” “Let’s talk about the meatloaf on your plate.”
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
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52. You want to make sure that you understand a message. You should use: a. paraphrasing. b. direct questions. c. clarifying. d. focusing. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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53. Which is useful when a person is rambling? a. Paraphrasing b. Silence c. Clarifying d. Focusing ANS: D
PTS: 1
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54. A resident is very upset about her lunch. Which communication technique can help the person
gain control? Paraphrasing Silence Clarifying Focusing
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
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EhLeLpEerRso.nCcOoM 55. A resident is complaining T abEoS utTthBeAfN ooKdS .T mments on the taste, amount, and preparation. Which will promote communication with the person? Listening Giving your opinion Telling the person, “It will be okay” Changing the subject
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
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56. When someone changes the subject, it usually means that the person is: a. angry. b. embarrassed. c. uncomfortable with the topic. d. bored. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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57. Which shows a lack of interest and caring? a. Silence and touch b. Open-ended questions c. Clarifying d. Failure to listen ANS: D
PTS: 1
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58. Which is a pat answer? a. “Everything will be just fine.” b. “I understand you must be worried.” c. “Can you tell me what’s wrong?” d. “This must be difficult for you.” ANS: A
PTS: 1
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59. Disabilities are acquired: a. at birth. b. in childhood. c. in old age. d. any time. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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60. Which is important when communicating with persons who are disabled? a. Your attitude b. The type of disability c. When the disability occurred d. How the disability occurred ANS: A
PTS: 1
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61. A person is in a coma. This means that the person: a. is confused and disoriented. b. has lost, absent, or impaired physical or mental function. c. cannot hear. d. cannot respond to others. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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62. You are caring for a person who is comatose. You should do which of the following? a. Knock before entering the person’s room. b. Enter the room at varying times throughout the day. c. Be quiet when performing any treatment so the person does not know you are
there. d. Leave the room quietly without telling the person. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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63. You should always assume that a person who is comatose can: a. hear. b. see. c. touch. d. speak. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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64. A resident’s son is visiting. Which will protect the resident’s privacy? a. Allowing them to visit without interrupting b. Asking the resident’s son to look out the window while you give care c. Exposing the resident’s body in front of her son
d. Allowing the resident’s son to read her mail ANS: A
PTS: 1
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65. You think that a visitor is tiring a resident. What should you do? a. Ask the visitor to leave. b. Report your observations to the nurse. c. Allow them privacy. d. Ask the visitor to help you give care. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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66. Family and visitors: a. affect the person’s quality of life. b. visit in the afternoon and evening. c. use effective communication techniques. d. need a doctor’s order to visit. ANS: A
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67. Family and visitors: a. are treated with respect. b. share the person’s cultural and religious beliefs. c. help with the person’s care. d. are encouraged to stay in the room during care measures. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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TRUE/FALSE 1. Inappropriate sexual behavior is always on purpose. ANS: F
PTS: 1
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Chapter 07: Culture and Religion Kostelnick: Mosby’s Textbook for Long-Term Care Nursing Assistants, 8th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. To prefer something or someone, often without sound judgment, is: a. bias. b. atheist. c. culture. d. prejudice. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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2. A family composed of parents, their children, grandparents, aunts, uncles, and cousins: a. extended family. b. race. c. nuclear family. d. personal space. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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3. A classification of persons based on physical and biological characteristics: a. religion. b. nuclear family. c. race. d. extended family. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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4. A person’s need to find meaning and purpose in life: a. sensitivity. b. religion. c. personal space. d. spirituality. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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5. Believing that everyone in a group is the same: a. bias. b. sensitivity. c. stereotyping. d. prejudice. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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6. If a person is fasting, that means that they are going without: a. bathing. b. television. c. food. d. talking. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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7. Which of the following is a cleric? a. President b. Teacher c. Priest d. Supervisor ANS: C
PTS: 1
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8. A person who believes it is impossible to know if a god exists: a. atheist. b. bias. c. cleric. d. agnostic. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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9. Some cultures may think that direct eye contact is showing: a. depression. b. aggression. c. disrespect. d. admiration. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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10. Some people practicing certain faiths may have a special rug for: a. prayer. b. decoration. c. guests. d. clerics. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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11. The person you are caring for practices a ritual you do not understand. What should you do? a. Tell the nurse. b. Ignore them and walk away. c. Ask questions and try to learn more. d. Tell them they don’t need to do it. ANS: C
PTS: 1
, family may place a coin or rice in the dead person’s mouth.
12. In some areas of a. China b. Vietnam c. India d. Africa ANS: B
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PTS: 1
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do not believe in receiving whole blood but may receive some blood
13.
products. a. Christians b. Catholics
c. Jehovah’s Witness d. Mormon ANS: C
PTS: 1
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14. Many fast on the first Sunday of the month and do not consume alcohol or caffeine. a. Christians b. Catholics c. Jehovah’s Witness d. Mormon ANS: D
PTS: 1
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15. Which is true about the Christian faith? a. It includes the Hindu faith. b. It includes many different Protestant denominations. c. It includes following a kosher diet. d. It includes reading from the Koran. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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16. Which of the following is true about the Islam faith? a. People may wear special undergarments. b. People believe in the Holy Trinity. c. People may fast from sunrise to sunset. d. People believe in reincarnation. ANS: C 17. a. b. c. d.
PTS: 1
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often abstain from meat on Fridays during Lent. Christians Catholics Jehovah’s Witness Mormon
ANS: B
PTS: 1
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18. Following death, family members may wish to bathe the body and to turn the bed toward
Mecca. Hindu Buddhism Jewish Islam
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
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19. They may be reluctant to speak of genital or urinary issues if the spouse is present. a. Hindu b. Buddhism c. Jewish d. Islam ANS: A
PTS: 1
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20. Some a. Hindu b. Buddhism c. Jewish d. Islam ANS: C
persons wear a small cap on their head or a prayer shawl.
PTS: 1
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21. The Torah is their holy book. a. Hindu b. Buddhism c. Jewish d. Islam ANS: C
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believes that suffering is an inevitable part of life.
22. a. b. c. d.
Hindu Buddhism Jewish Islam
ANS: B 23.
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
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believe in “laying on of hands” or blessings by church elders and the use of anointing oils for healing. a. Christians b. Catholics c. Jehovah’s Witness d. Mormon ANS: C
PTS: 1
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24. A dying infant may receive baptism by anyone with proper intent if a priest is unavailable. a. Christians b. Catholics c. Jehovah’s Witness d. Mormon ANS: B
PTS: 1
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TRUE/FALSE 1. Some cultures believe that illness is caused by exposure to hot or cold. ANS: T
PTS: 1
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2. Some cultures require people of the same gender to provide care. ANS: T
PTS: 1
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3. Some Hindu priests tie strings around the neck or wrist. ANS: T
PTS: 1
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4. It is important to share your faith with people you are caring for, so they may practice your
religion instead. ANS: F
PTS: 1
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5. The resident has the right to burn candles in their room as a part of their religious practice. ANS: F
PTS: 1
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6. In some Middle Eastern countries, only men may shake hands with men. ANS: T
PTS: 1
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Chapter 08: Body Structure and Function Kostelnick: Mosby’s Textbook for Long-Term Care Nursing Assistants, 8th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The basic unit of body structure is the: a. cell. b. nucleus. c. organ. d. system. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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2. Each cell has the same: a. basic structure. b. function. c. size. d. shape. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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3. To live and function, cells need: a. carbon dioxide and blood. b. food, water, and oxygen. c. genes and oxygen. d. genes and blood. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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4. Which part of the cell directs the cell’s activities? a. Cell membrane b. Cytoplasm c. Protoplasm d. Nucleus ANS: D
PTS: 1
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5. Where is the nucleus located? a. Outside the cell b. At the center of the cell c. Inside the genes d. Inside the chromosomes ANS: B
PTS: 1
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6. How many chromosomes are in each cell? a. 15 b. 23 c. 46 d. 92 ANS: C
PTS: 1
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7. Which controls inherited traits? a. Protoplasm b. Chromosomes c. Genes d. Sex cells ANS: C
PTS: 1
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8. The process of cell division is called: a. protoplasm. b. chromosomes. c. nucleosis. d. mitosis. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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9. Groups of cells with similar functions are: a. tissues. b. organs. c. chromosomes. d. genes. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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10. Which allows the body to move by stretching and contracting? a. Epithelial tissue b. Connective tissue c. Muscle tissue d. Nerve tissue ANS: C
PTS: 1
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11. Groups of tissues with the same function form: a. systems. b. organs. c. mitosis. d. chromosomes. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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12. Systems are: a. groups of organs that work together to perform special functions. b. tissues that cover internal and external body surfaces. c. tissues that receive and carry impulses to the brain and body parts. d. connective tissue that anchors, connects, and supports the body. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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13. Which statement about the integumentary system is correct? a. It is known as an organ. b. It is considered tissue. c. It is the largest body system.
d. It has three layers. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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14. Which is the outer layer of the skin? a. Dermis b. Epidermis c. Epithelium d. Nerves ANS: B
PTS: 1
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15. What gives skin its color? a. Genes b. Chromosomes c. Pigment d. Epidermis ANS: C
PTS: 1
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16. Where are blood vessels, nerves, sweat and oil glands, and hair roots found? a. The dermis b. The epidermis c. The integument d. The epithelium ANS: A
PTS: 1
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BpAeNraKtuSreE?LLER.COM 17. Which helps the body reguT laEteStT em a. The dermis b. The epidermis c. The sweat glands d. The oil glands ANS: C
PTS: 1
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18. Which helps keep the hair and skin soft and shiny? a. The dermis b. The epidermis c. The sweat glands d. The oil glands ANS: D
PTS: 1
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19. Which is a function of the skin? a. It allows bacteria and other substances to enter the body. b. It prevents excessive amounts of water from leaving the body. c. It connects the ligaments to the bones. d. It supports the bones. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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20. The musculoskeletal system does which of the following?
a. b. c. d.
Protects the organs from injury. Allows the body to move. Prevents microorganisms from entering the body. Helps regulate body temperature.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
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21. Which bones bear the body’s weight? a. Long bones b. Short bones c. Flat bones d. Irregular bones ANS: A
PTS: 1
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22. Which part of the bone contains blood vessels that supply bone cells with oxygen? a. Cartilage b. Tendons c. Bone marrow d. Periosteum ANS: D
PTS: 1
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23. Blood cells are manufactured in the: a. cartilage. b. tendons. c. bone marrow. d. periosteum. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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24. The point at which two or more bones meet is: a. a joint. b. cartilage. c. muscles. d. tendons. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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25. Bones are held together at a joint by: a. cartilage. b. tendons. c. ligaments. d. periosteum. ANS: C
PTS: 1
26. Which allow movement? a. Joints b. Cartilage c. Tendons d. Ligaments
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ANS: A
PTS: 1
27. The hips and shoulders are a. ball-and-socket b. hinge c. pivot d. ligament ANS: A
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joints.
PTS: 1
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28. Which are voluntary muscles? a. Arm and leg muscles b. Uterine muscles c. Cardiac muscle d. Intestinal muscles ANS: A
PTS: 1
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29. Which is a function of muscles? a. Preventing excess water from leaving the body b. Maintaining posture c. Protecting organs from injury d. Regulating body temperature ANS: B
PTS: 1
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30. Muscles are connected to bones by: a. ligaments. b. cartilage. c. tendons. d. joints. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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31. The connective tissue at the end of long bones is called: a. ligaments. b. tendons. c. cartilage. d. joints. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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32. Which is a main part of the brain? a. Temporal lobe b. Frontal lobe c. Spinal cord d. Brainstem ANS: D
PTS: 1
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33. Thought and intelligence are centered in the: a. cerebrum. b. cerebellum.
c. midbrain. d. brainstem. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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34. Damage to the cerebral cortex can affect which of the following? a. Balance b. Reasoning c. Muscle weakness d. Coordination ANS: B
PTS: 1
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35. Which regulates and coordinates body movements? a. The cerebral cortex b. The cerebrum c. The cerebellum d. The brainstem ANS: C
PTS: 1
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36. The brainstem contains which of the following structures? a. Cerebrum b. Pons c. Cerebellum d. Cerebral cortex ANS: B
PTS: 1
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37. Heart rate, breathing, and blood vessel size are controlled by the: a. midbrain. b. pons. c. medulla. d. cerebral cortex. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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38. Swallowing, coughing, and vomiting are controlled by the: a. midbrain. b. pons. c. medulla. d. cerebral cortex. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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39. Pathways that conduct messages to and from the brain are contained in the: a. brainstem. b. pons. c. spinal cord. d. meninges. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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40. The spinal cord is about a. 12 b. 18 c. 24 d. 30 ANS: B
PTS: 1
inches long.
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41. The cerebrospinal fluid: a. protects the brain and spinal cord. b. conducts messages to and from the brain. c. controls thought and intelligence. d. controls movement and balance. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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42. The peripheral nervous system consists of: a. the spinal cord. b. cranial nerves and spinal nerves. c. the cerebrum, cerebellum, and brainstem. d. the right and left hemispheres. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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43. The sympathetic nervous system: a. regulates voluntary muscles. b. controls thought and intelligence. c. speeds up body functioT ns. ESTBANKSELLER.COM d. slows down body functions. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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44. What system is stimulated when you are excited, exercising, or scared? a. The central nervous system b. The autonomic nervous system c. The sympathetic nervous system d. The parasympathetic nervous system ANS: C
PTS: 1
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45. The white of the eye is the: a. sclera. b. pupil. c. cornea. d. iris. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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46. The opening in the middle of the iris is the: a. sclera. b. pupil. c. cornea. d. choroid.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
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47. In bright light, pupil size: a. increases. b. stays the same. c. decreases. d. widens. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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48. Nerve fibers for vision are found in the: a. sclera. b. cornea. c. iris. d. retina. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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49. Light enters the eye through the: a. sclera. b. cornea. c. iris. d. retina. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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50. Besides hearing, another ear function is: a. balance. b. touch. c. hammering. d. sensation. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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51. The waxy substance secreted by glands in the ear is: a. cerumen. b. malleus. c. incus. d. cochlea. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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52. Which separates the external ear and the middle ear? a. The malleus b. The incus c. The stapes d. The tympanic membrane ANS: D
PTS: 1
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53. The tympanic membrane is also called the: a. eardrum.
b. hammer. c. anvil. d. stirrup. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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54. Which carries messages to the brain? a. The acoustic nerve b. The semicircular canals c. The cochlea d. The eustachian tube ANS: A
PTS: 1
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55. The circulatory system does which of the following? a. Carries food and oxygen to the cells. b. Sends messages to the brain. c. Regulates body temperature. d. Brings oxygen into the body. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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56. The circulatory system does which of the following? a. Carries impulses from the skin to the brain. b. Controls involuntary muscles. c. Removes waste from the body. d. Pumps blood. ANS: D
L:LE RE EF 88R.COM PTS: T1ESTBANKS
57. The liquid part of the blood is: a. red blood cells. b. white blood cells. c. hemoglobin. d. plasma. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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58. What substance gives red blood cells their color? a. Oxygen b. Carbon dioxide c. Hemoglobin d. Plasma ANS: C
PTS: 1
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59. Red blood cells are bright red when they are saturated with: a. oxygen. b. carbon dioxide. c. hemoglobin. d. plasma. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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60. Red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets are produced by: a. the heart. b. the bone marrow. c. the valves. d. hemoglobin. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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61. White blood cells: a. are needed for clotting. b. carry oxygen and carbon dioxide. c. protect the body against infection. d. produce heat. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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62. Which is the muscular part of the heart? a. The pericardium b. The myocardium c. The endocardium d. The ventricles ANS: B
PTS: 1
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63. Which heart chamber receives blood from body tissues? a. Right atrium b. Left atrium c. Right ventricle d. Left ventricle ANS: A
PTS: 1
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64. Which heart chamber pumps blood to all parts of the body? a. Right atrium b. Left atrium c. Right ventricle d. Left ventricle ANS: D
PTS: 1
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65. Which is the working phase of the heart? a. Bicuspid valve b. Tricuspid valve c. Systole d. Diastole ANS: C
PTS: 1
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66. Which vessels carry blood away from the heart? a. Arteries b. Capillaries c. Veins
d. Venules ANS: A
PTS: 1
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67. Which is the largest artery? a. Aorta b. Carotid artery c. Radial artery d. Brachial artery ANS: A
PTS: 1
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68. Which vessels are involved in passing food and oxygen to the cells? a. Arteries b. Capillaries c. Veins d. Venules ANS: B
PTS: 1
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69. Which vessels carry blood back to the heart? a. Arteries b. Capillaries c. Veins d. Venules ANS: C
PTS: 1
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70. Which carries blood from T thE eS leT gsBaAnN dK trS unEkLbL acEkRt. oC thO eM heart? a. Inferior vena cava b. Superior vena cava c. Aorta d. Veins ANS: A
PTS: 1
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71. The process of supplying the cells with oxygen and removing carbon dioxide from them is: a. respiration. b. inhalation. c. expiration. d. circulation. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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72. Inspiration involves: a. breathing in. b. breathing out. c. breathing in and out. d. exhalation. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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73. Normally, air enters the body through the:
a. b. c. d.
nose. mouth. windpipe. alveoli.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
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74. Another name for the trachea is the: a. nose. b. mouth. c. windpipe. d. alveoli. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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75. Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged: a. during inspiration and expiration. b. during inhalation and exhalation. c. between the alveoli and capillaries. d. at the pharynx and larynx. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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76. Which separates the lungs from the abdominal cavity? a. The pharynx b. The larynx c. The bronchus d. The diaphragm ANS: D
PTS: 1
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77. After passing through the trachea, air enters the: a. right bronchus and left bronchus. b. bronchioles. c. alveoli. d. pharynx and larynx. ANS: A
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78. Each lung is covered by a sac called the: a. bronchus. b. bronchiole. c. alveoli. d. pleura. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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79. Which of the following is one of the three parts of the bony framework that protects the
lungs? Tendons Ligaments Vertebrae Diaphragm
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
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80. The process of breaking food down physically and chemically for absorption and use by the
body is: peristalsis. digestion. metabolism. mitosis.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
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81. The digestive system: a. removes solid wastes from the body. b. removes water from the body. c. maintains the body’s water balance. d. protects the body against disease. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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82. Which is a part of the digestive system? a. The mouth b. The larynx c. The kidneys d. The lungs ANS: A
PTS: 1
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83. Which is a part of the smalT lE inS teT stB inAe?NKSELLER.COM a. The diaphragm b. The large intestine c. The colon d. The duodenum ANS: D
PTS: 1
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84. Which is a part of the large intestine? a. The colon b. The gallbladder c. The pancreas d. The liver ANS: A
PTS: 1
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85. Digestion begins in the: a. mouth. b. stomach. c. pharynx. d. small intestine. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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86. Saliva is secreted by salivary glands in the:
a. b. c. d.
mouth. taste buds. teeth. tongue.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
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87. What is the function of saliva? a. It allows sweet, sour, bitter, and salty to be sensed. b. It aids in chewing and swallowing. c. It cuts, chops, and grinds food for digestion and swallowing. d. It moistens food particles for easier swallowing. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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88. Which secretion starts digestion? a. Gastric juice b. Bile c. Saliva d. Mucus ANS: C
PTS: 1
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89. During swallowing, the tongue pushes food into the: a. stomach. b. esophagus. c. pharynx. d. pancreas. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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90. Food is moved through the esophagus by: a. peristalsis. b. gravity. c. digestion. d. the blood. ANS: A
PTS: 1
91. The stomach is located in the a. upper left part b. upper right part c. lower right part d. middle ANS: A
PTS: 1
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of the abdominal cavity.
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92. What is the stomach’s function in digestion? a. It cuts, chops, and grinds food. b. It pushes food through the gastrointestinal tract. c. It chemically breaks down food. d. It stirs and churns food to break it up into small particles.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
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93. Chyme is produced in the: a. stomach. b. small intestine. c. pancreas. d. large intestine. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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94. Which is a part of the small intestine? a. Duodenum b. Pancreas c. Liver d. Gallbladder ANS: A
PTS: 1
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95. Bile is a greenish liquid produced by the: a. stomach. b. liver. c. gallbladder. d. pancreas. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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96. Bile is stored in the: a. stomach. b. liver. c. gallbladder. d. pancreas. ANS: C
97. Chyme moves through the small and large intestines by: a. peristalsis. b. gravity. c. digestion. d. the blood. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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98. Most food absorption occurs in the: a. stomach. b. small intestine. c. liver. d. large intestine. ANS: B
PTS: 1
99. The large intestine is also called the: a. colon. b. rectum.
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c. anus. d. villi. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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100. Most of the water is absorbed from chyme in the: a. stomach. b. small intestine. c. liver. d. large intestine. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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101. After water is absorbed from chyme, the remaining semi-solid material is called: a. chyme. b. feces. c. mucus. d. a bowel movement. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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102. The waste products of digestion pass out of the body through the: a. colon. b. large intestine. c. rectum. d. anus. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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103. The urinary system: a. rids the body of solid wastes. b. rids the body of carbon dioxide. c. produces sweat. d. removes waste products from the blood. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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104. The urinary system: a. maintains the body’s water balance. b. brings water into the body. c. produces hormones. d. burns food for energy. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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105. The urinary system involves which of the following? a. Gallbladder b. Small intestine c. Urethra d. Ovaries ANS: C
PTS: 1
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106. Urine is formed in the: a. bladder. b. nephrons. c. penis. d. urethra. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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107. Urine is stored in the: a. ureters. b. bladder. c. penis. d. urethra. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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108. The opening at the end of the urethra is the: a. penis. b. bladder. c. meatus. d. vagina. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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109. The female sex glands are: a. testes. b. ovaries. c. testicles. d. fallopian tubes. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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110. Sperm cells are produced in the: a. testes. b. ovaries. c. scrotum. d. prostate gland. ANS: A
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111. The male hormone is: a. testosterone. b. estrogen. c. progesterone. d. vas deferens. ANS: A
PTS: 1
112. What fluid carries sperm? a. Urine b. Menstrual flow c. Semen d. Chyme
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ANS: C
PTS: 1
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113. Sperm cells leave the body through the: a. testes. b. urethra. c. prostate gland. d. vagina. ANS: B
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114. The penis contains the: a. fallopian tubes. b. prostate gland. c. urethra. d. vagina. ANS: C
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115. Which part of the male reproductive system enters the female vagina? a. The testes b. The penis c. The scrotum d. The prostate gland ANS: B
PTS: 1
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116. Female sex cells are called: a. estrogen. b. progesterone. c. ova. d. labia. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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117. During the reproductive years, a female sex cell is released: a. during intercourse. b. monthly. c. weekly. d. daily. ANS: B
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118. The process of releasing a female sex cell is: a. ovulation. b. menstruation. c. fertilization. d. lactation. ANS: A
PTS: 1
119. The female sex glands secrete: a. estrogen and progesterone.
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b. testosterone. c. menstruation. d. the endometrium. ANS: A
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120. Where does a fertilized sex cell grow during pregnancy? a. The fallopian tube b. The uterus c. The vagina d. The ovary ANS: B
PTS: 1
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121. Which part of the female reproductive system opens to the outside of the body? a. The vagina b. The urethra c. The uterus d. The fallopian tube ANS: A
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122. External genitalia in the female are the: a. breasts. b. mammary glands. c. vulva. d. labia. ANS: C
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123. The labia majora and labia minora: a. are covered with hair. b. become hard when sexually stimulated. c. secrete hormones. d. are folds of tissue on each side of the vagina. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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124. Menstruation normally occurs: a. after intercourse. b. every day. c. every week. d. every 28 days. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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125. During menstruation: a. the endometrium is discharged from the body. b. a sex cell is released. c. erectile tissue becomes hard. d. a male sex cell and a female sex cell unite. ANS: A
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126. Menstrual flow usually lasts: a. a few minutes. b. a few hours. c. 3 to 7 days. d. 28 days. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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127. Menstrual flow is: a. clear. b. bloody. c. yellow. d. white. ANS: B
128. The master gland of the body is the: a. thyroid gland. b. adrenal medulla. c. pituitary gland. d. pancreas. ANS: C
PTS: 1
129. Growth hormone is secreted by the a. thyroid b. adrenal c. parathyroid d. pituitary ANS: D
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gland(s).
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130. Which hormone regulates metabolism? a. Thyroid-stimulating hormone b. Oxytocin c. Thyroid hormone d. Antidiuretic hormone ANS: C
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131. Too little thyroid hormone results in which of the following? a. Weight loss b. Excess energy c. Slowed body processes d. Too much sugar in the blood ANS: C
PTS: 1
132. The adrenal glands are located: a. in the neck. b. behind the eyes. c. next to the thyroid glands.
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d. on top of each kidney. ANS: D
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133. The adrenal glands secrete: a. parathormone. b. epinephrine and norepinephrine. c. insulin. d. adrenocorticotropic hormone. ANS: B
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134. Which increases heart rate, blood pressure, and energy? a. Parathormone b. Epinephrine and norepinephrine c. Insulin d. Adrenocorticotropic hormone ANS: B
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135. The pancreas secretes: a. parathormone. b. epinephrine and norepinephrine. c. insulin. d. adrenocorticotropic hormone. ANS: C
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136. Which hormone controls thTeEaS mToB unAt N ofKsSuE gaLr L inEtR he.bCloOoMd? a. The glucocorticoids b. Estrogen c. Thyroid hormone d. Insulin ANS: D
PTS: 1
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137. The immune system functions to: a. regulate body activities. b. protect the body against disease and infection. c. regulate water balance. d. eliminate waste. ANS: B
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138. A person has protection against a disease or condition. This is: a. an antibody. b. an antigen. c. immunity. d. hormones. ANS: C
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139. An abnormal or unwanted substance is:
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a. b. c. d.
an antibody. an antigen. immunity. hormones.
ANS: B
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140. Which produces antibodies? a. Phagocytes b. Hormones c. Insulin d. Lymphocytes ANS: D
PTS: 1
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Chapter 09: The Older Person Kostelnick: Mosby’s Textbook for Long-Term Care Nursing Assistants, 8th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Development is: a. an involuntary movement. b. a skill that must be completed. c. changes in mental, emotional, and social function. d. the physical changes that are measured and that occur in a steady, orderly manner. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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2. Growth is: a. the development of social and physical skills. b. a skill that must be completed. c. changes in mental, emotional, and social function. d. the physical changes that are measured and that occur in a steady, orderly manner. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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3. Which statement about growth and development is correct? a. Some stages overlap. b. A stage can be skipped. c. They occur in a sequence, order, and pattern. d. Stages share some of the same characteristics and developmental tasks. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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4. Which is a developmental task of infancy? a. Tolerating separation from the primary caregiver b. Using words to communicate c. Asserting independence d. Learning to walk ANS: D
PTS: 1
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5. Which is a developmental task of toddlerhood? a. Learning to walk b. Learning to eat solid foods c. Using words to communicate d. Performing self-care ANS: C
PTS: 1
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6. Developmental tasks of the preschool child include which of the following? a. Performing self-care b. Learning gender-appropriate behaviors and attitudes c. Gaining control of bowel and bladder function d. Using words to communicate ANS: A
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7. Which is a developmental task for school-age children? a. Developing appropriate relationships with males and females of the same age b. Accepting changes in the body and appearance c. Developing a conscience and morals d. Developing and keeping friendships with peers ANS: C
PTS: 1
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8. Which is a developmental task of adolescence? a. Accepting changes in the body and appearance b. Accepting the parents’ attitudes and values c. Getting along with brothers and sisters d. Choosing a career ANS: A
PTS: 1
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9. Which of the following are developmental tasks of young adulthood? a. Adjusting to aging parents b. Having grown children c. Developing a satisfactory sex life d. Adjusting to physical changes ANS: C
PTS: 1
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10. Which of the following are developmental tasks of middle adulthood? a. Developing friendships b. Adjusting to physical changes TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. Learning to live with a partner d. Developing a satisfactory sex life ANS: B
PTS: 1
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11. Which is a developmental task of late adulthood? a. Adjusting to aging parents b. Adjusting to retirement and reduced income c. Adjusting to physical changes d. Becoming a parent and raising children ANS: B
PTS: 1
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12. Geriatrics is: a. the study of the aging process b. age-related farsightedness c. the care of aging people d. the physical changes that occur with aging ANS: C
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13. Gerontology is: a. the study of the aging process. b. age-related farsightedness. c. the care of aging people.
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d. the physical changes that occur with aging. ANS: A
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14. Age-related farsightedness is: a. dysphagia. b. presbyopia. c. cataract. d. glaucoma. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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15. Persons 65 years and older are considered: a. adulthood. b. middle Adulthood. c. late adulthood. d. very old. ANS: C 16.
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Which statement about older persons is correct? Most older people need nursing center care. All old people are the same. Older people lose interest in sex. Most older people have frequent contact with their children.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
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17. Which statement is correctT ? ESTBANKSELLER.COM a. Individuals age at the same rate. b. Most older people need nursing center care. c. Many older people enjoy a sexually satisfying life. d. Aging is a disease. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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18. Which of the following statements about aging is correct? a. Most changes are slow. b. Changes occur all at once c. Changes occur in only appearance. d. Psychological and social changes do not typically occur. ANS: A
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19. Some children care for older parents. Which is correct? a. This helps some older people feel more secure. b. This helps all older people feel wanted and useful. c. It is always a smooth adjustment. d. It is easy for both the parent and the child to begin living with one another again. ANS: A
PTS: 1
20. Which statement about aging is correct?
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a. b. c. d.
Body processes slow down. Energy level increases. Changes are always noted when they occur. People age at the same rate.
ANS: A
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21. Aging: a. is normal. b. means loss of health. c. decreases quality of life. d. occurs at the same rate in all people. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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22. Which statement about changes in the skin is correct? a. The skin becomes thicker. b. Folds, lines, and wrinkles appear. c. The skin is stronger and harder to injure. d. Oil and sweat glands secrete more. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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23. Brown spots on the skin: a. are caused by bruising. b. are common on the wrists and hands. c. usually occur on the face and legs. d. have fewer nerve endinTgE s.STBANKSELLER.COM ANS: B
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24. Why is the ability to sense heat, cold, and pain reduced in older persons? a. Circulation is poor. b. The skin loses its fatty tissue layer. c. The skin has fewer nerve endings. d. The risk of burns is great. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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25. To stay warm, older people may need which of the following? a. Lighter-weight clothing b. Fewer blankets c. Hot water bottles d. Warmer room temperatures ANS: D 26.
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Because older people tend to have dry skin: a. Mild soaps or soap substitutes are used. b. Lotions are not used. c. Tub baths are taken daily. d. Only showers are taken.
ANS: A
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27. Older people usually need a shower or bath: a. every day. b. every other day. c. twice a week. d. once a week. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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28. Which statement about an older person’s feet is correct? a. Nails become thin. b. Feet usually have good circulation. c. Serious infections can result from nicks or cuts. d. Deodorants are needed for foot odors. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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29. Which statement about an older person’s hair is correct? a. White or gray hair is rare. b. Hair thickens on men and women. c. Hair tends to be oily. d. Shampooing frequency depends on personal choice. ANS: D
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30. Skin disorders: a. increase with age. b. decrease with age. c. are the same for all age-groups. d. decrease with sun exposure. ANS: A
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31. In older persons, bones become: a. stronger. b. brittle. c. shorter. d. larger. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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32. Musculoskeletal changes result in which of the following? a. Growth spurt in height b. Increase in strength c. Decreased mobility d. Less joint pain and stiffness ANS: C
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33. Musculoskeletal changes in older persons require which of the following? a. Rest more than usual. b. Refrain from exercise.
c. Have a diet high in protein, calcium, and vitamins. d. Walk on their own without assistance to regain strength. ANS: C
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34. Which helps to prevent bone loss and muscle strength? a. Decreased calcium b. Decreased protein c. A balanced diet d. Bed rest ANS: C
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35. Which is a change in the nervous system caused by aging? a. Nerve conduction and reflexes are faster. b. Blood flow to the brain is increased. c. Nerve cells are lost. d. Sleep periods are longer. ANS: C
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36. Changes in the nervous system: a. increase the risk of falling. b. increase the ability to fall asleep. c. enhance memory. d. increase response time. ANS: A
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37. The older person’s ability to sense pain is: a. increased. b. decreased. c. the same as a younger adult’s. d. the same as a young child’s. ANS: B
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38. Older people often complain about how food tastes. This is because: a. taste buds decrease in number. b. responses are slower. c. the tongue only senses sweet, salty, bitter, and sour tastes. d. the sense of smell is increased. ANS: A
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39. Age-related changes in the eye cause which of the following? a. Better vision at night b. Increased ability to accommodate when changing from a dark to a bright room c. Nearsightedness d. Decreased tear secretion ANS: D
PTS: 1
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40. Older people have difficulty seeing a. red and green b. blue and green c. yellow and orange d. purple and yellow ANS: B
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colors.
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41. Changes in the ear occur with aging. These changes: a. make high-pitched sounds hard to hear. b. make low-pitched sounds hard to hear. c. cause increased risk for ear infections. d. cause increased production of thin earwax. ANS: A
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42. Which is a cause of poor circulation in older persons? a. Strengthened heart muscle b. Narrowed arteries c. Arteries are more elastic d. Decreased amounts of blood ANS: B
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43. Which statement about changes in the respiratory system is correct? a. Respiratory muscles weaken. b. Lung tissue is more elastic. c. Coughing may be easieTr E toSaTcB coAmNpK lisShE . LLER.COM d. Respiratory infections and diseases are easily tolerated due to the maturity of the
systems. ANS: A
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44. An older person has respiratory changes. Which would be helpful? a. Shallow breathing b. Lying flat on their back c. Repositioning d. Resting as much as possible ANS: C
PTS: 1
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45. An older person may have swallowing difficulties because of: a. less saliva. b. dulled taste and smell. c. decreased digestive juices. d. decreased peristalsis. ANS: A
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46. The person with chewing difficulties would want to choose: a. high-fiber foods. b. raw vegetable sticks. c. cooked fruits and vegetables.
d. crunchy foods. ANS: C
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47. Older persons usually have difficulty digesting: a. meat. b. dry, fried, and fatty foods. c. high-fiber foods. d. soft bulk foods. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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48. Constipation is a common problem in older persons because of: a. decreased digestive juices. b. chewing problems. c. swallowing problems. d. decreased peristalsis. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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49. Older persons need: a. fewer calories. b. more calories. c. less water. d. less protein. ANS: A
50. Because of changes in the T urEinSaT ryBsA ysNteKmS, E olLdL erEpRer.soCnOs:M a. have fewer urinary tract infections. b. urinate more often. c. have less urine. d. need less fluids. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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51. Changes in the urinary system with aging include which of the following? a. Kidneys get larger in size. b. Bladder size increases. c. Bladder muscles weaken. d. Blood flow to the kidneys increases. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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52. Men may have difficulty urinating because the: a. kidneys atrophy. b. bladder decreases in size. c. prostate gland enlarges. d. urethra loses tone. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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53. The need to urinate at night is reduced if the person:
a. b. c. d.
drinks only water. drinks most fluids before 1700. urinates before going to bed. chooses what beverages to drink.
ANS: B
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54. In men, which sex hormone decreases with aging? a. Testosterone b. Insulin c. Estrogen d. Progesterone ANS: A
PTS: 1
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55. In men, which of the following occurs with aging? a. An erection takes longer. b. The time between erection and orgasm is shorter. c. Orgasm is longer and more forceful. d. Erections are gained quickly. ANS: A 56.
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In women, which of the following occur with aging? a. The uterus, vagina, and external genitalia shrink. b. Vaginal walls become fatty. c. Vaginal moisture increases. d. Intercourse becomes mT oE reSpT leB asAuN raK blSeE . LLER.COM ANS: A
PTS: 1
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57. Menopause is: a. when menstruation stops. b. erectile dysfunction. c. impotence. d. loss of interest in sexual activity. ANS: A 58.
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Most older people live: a. in their own homes. b. with adult children. c. in nursing centers. d. in assisted living residences. ANS: A
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59. An older woman now lives with her adult son. She has some disabilities and needs some
supervision. Her son works during the day. They might consider: congregate housing. an adult day-care center. foster care. nursing center care.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
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60. When an older parent moves in with an adult child: a. the parent must adjust. b. the adult child must adjust. c. sleeping arrangements are adjusted. d. everyone in the home must adjust. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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61. Adult day-care centers provide: a. supervised activities and meals. b. personal care. c. housekeeping and laundry services. d. skilled nursing care. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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62. Which housing option is for persons who need help with daily living? a. Apartment living b. Elder cottage housing opportunity c. Home sharing d. Assisted living residence ANS: D
PTS: 1
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63. Which housing option provides the most services? a. Congregate housing b. Board and care home c. Assisted living residence d. Continuing care retirement community ANS: D
PTS: 1
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64. Which is a housing option for older persons who cannot care for themselves? a. Adult foster care b. Assisted living residence c. Continuing care retirement community d. Nursing center ANS: D
PTS: 1
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65. You are looking for a quality nursing center. Which should impress you? a. Narrow hallways b. Wheelchair ramps c. Food smells bad d. No windows in resident rooms ANS: B
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66. You are looking for a quality nursing center. Which should impress you? a. Few hand rails in hallways
b. No marking of exits c. Attractive dining rooms d. The smell of scented sprays ANS: C
PTS: 1
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67. A quality nursing center must: a. have large gardens. b. meet OBRA requirements. c. serve only older persons. d. be near shopping and churches. ANS: B 68.
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Which statement about quality nursing centers is correct? a. Residents have no access to toilets without assistance. b. Residents look tired and unclean. c. Staff is friendly and well groomed. d. Heavy odors are present. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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69. Which statement about OBRA requirements is correct? a. The environment has a pleasant, sweet-smelling odor. b. There is little to no lighting. c. Rooms and hallways are painted blue or green. d. The environment is free of hazards. ANS: D
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70. Which helps new nursing center residents adjust to the center? a. Making new friends b. Staying in their rooms c. Music and television d. Food that smells good ANS: A
PTS: 1
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71. Persons needing nursing center care often suffer many losses. Which is a common loss? a. Loss of limb b. Loss of job c. Loss of independence d. Loss of children ANS: C
PTS: 1
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TRUE/FALSE 1. According to U.S. government reports, people are living longer than ever before. ANS: T
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2. When circulatory changes are severe, overexertion is avoided. ANS: T
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Chapter 10: Sexuality Kostelnick: Mosby’s Textbook for Long-Term Care Nursing Assistants, 8th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A person who is bisexual is: a. unable to have an erection. b. attracted to members of the other sex. c. attracted to members of the same sex. d. attracted to both sexes. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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2. Erectile dysfunction means that: a. a woman cannot achieve an erection. b. menstruation stops. c. a man cannot achieve an erection. d. a man needs to dress in woman’s clothing to become aroused. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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3. A person who is heterosexual is: a. unable to have an erection. b. attracted to members of the other sex. c. attracted to members of the same sex. d. attracted to both sexes. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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4. A person who is homosexual is: a. unable to have an erection. b. attracted to members of the other sex. c. attracted to members of the same sex. d. attracted to both sexes. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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5. Another term for impotence is: a. erectile dysfunction. b. menopause. c. transvestite. d. priapism. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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6. Sex is: a. the physical activities involving reproductive organs. b. the physical, emotional, social, cultural, and spiritual factors that affect feelings
and attitudes about sex. c. who a person is attracted to. d. preferred sexual practices.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
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7. Sexuality is: a. the physical activities involving reproductive organs. b. the physical, emotional, social, cultural, and spiritual factors that affect feelings
and attitudes about sex. c. who a person is attracted to. d. preferred sexual practices. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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8. A person becomes sexually aroused by dressing in the clothes of the other sex. The person is
a: a. b. c. d.
homosexual. lesbian or gay man. transsexual. transvestite.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
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9. A person believes that he or she is a member of the other sex. The person is a: a. homosexual. b. lesbian or gay man. c. transsexual. d. transvestite. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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10. A term used to describe persons who are undergoing hormone therapy or surgery for sexual
reassignment is: a. transgender. b. homosexual. c. transsexual. d. transvestite. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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11. Sexuality develops: a. at birth. b. when a baby’s gender is known. c. during adolescence. d. in adulthood. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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12. Children learn male and female roles from: a. television. b. books. c. computers. d. adults. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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13. Sexual behaviors usually begin during: a. early childhood. b. the teenage years. c. young adulthood. d. older adulthood. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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14. Which statement about sex and sexuality is correct? a. Sexual function is not affected by illness, injury, or surgery. b. There is no psychological cause of sexual problems. c. Some sexual problems have physical causes. d. All sexual problems are treated with drugs. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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15. Drugs are available to treat: a. impotence. b. homosexuality. c. heterosexuality. d. bisexuality. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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16. A resident is angry because his sexual function is affected by his heart disease. What should
you do to help him? a. Follow his care plan. b. Be a caring partner. c. Provide support and reassurance. d. Use touch to show that you care. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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17. Which statement about sexuality and older persons is correct? a. Reproductive organs change little with aging. b. Immobility and chronic illness does not affect frequency of sex. c. Older persons need frequent intercourse. d. Older persons need love and affection. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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18. Which statement about sexuality and older persons is correct? a. Sexual activity increases for many older persons. b. Sexual needs and desires are lost. c. Some persons lose sexual partners through death and divorce. d. Chronic illness does not affect sexuality and sexual expression. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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19. A nursing center resident is holding hands with his wife and stroking her leg. What should
you do? a. Tell the nurse.
b. Explain that such behaviors are not allowed. c. Allow them privacy. d. Check his care plan. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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20. Mr. Porter is a resident at Spruce Harbor Nursing Center. His wife now needs nursing center
care. OBRA requires that Mrs. Porter go to a different center. Mr. and Mrs. Porter have separate rooms. Mrs. and Mrs. Porter have separate beds. Mr. and Mrs. Porter share the same room if they wish.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
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21. A female resident wants to wear a dress and apply makeup every day. She also likes to shave
her legs and underarms. What should you do? Check her care plan. Tell her that shaving is unsafe for her. Assist her with grooming activities as needed. Ask her why such measures are important to her.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
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22. Which of the following measures promote sexuality? a. Limiting privacy b. Knocking before you enter a room c. Encouraging the person toSwTeB arAwNhKatSyEoL uL haEvRe . pic keMd out for them TE CO d. Discouraging masturbation ANS: B
PTS: 1
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23. Mr. Fisher’s wife died 3 years ago. Mrs. Polk is divorced. Both are residents at Spruce Harbor
Nursing Center. They dine and attend activities together. Today you find them holding hands under the table. What should you do? a. Do nothing. b. Tell the nurse. c. Check the care plan. d. Remind them that such behavior is not allowed. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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24. A resident tells you that you look pretty and tries to touch your leg. What should you do? a. Do nothing. b. Tell the nurse. c. Check the care plan. d. Ask the person not to touch your body. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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25. A resident asks you for a kiss. What should you do? a. Give the person a kiss. b. Be supportive and understanding.
c. Tell the person that this behavior makes you uncomfortable. d. Check the care plan. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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26. A male resident is rubbing his genital area. Which statement is correct? a. He is just trying to arouse himself. b. He could have a urinary tract infection. c. He is trying to get your attention d. He is being disrespectful ANS: B
PTS: 1
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27. A female resident with Alzheimer’s disease is undressing and fondling her breasts in the
activity room. What should you do? a. Check her care plan. b. Assist her to her room. c. Call for the nurse. d. Restrain her. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 111
28. You hear an alert and oriented male resident make a sexual comment to a female resident. The
female resident appears embarrassed and uncomfortable. What should you do? a. Tell the male resident to behave. b. Nothing; it is none of your business. c. Tell the nurse at once. d. Call the male resident’T s fEaS mT ilyB.ANKSELLER.COM ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 111
29. Which statement is correct? a. Nursing center residents must be protected from unwanted sexual comments and
advances. b. If you suspect sexual abuse, you must not tell anyone. c. Masturbation is a sexually abusive behavior. d. Masturbation is abnormal and should be discouraged. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 111
TRUE/FALSE 1. Sexuality is not important for older persons. ANS: F
PTS: 1
REF: 112
2. Healthy, pleasurable sexual relationships and intimacy enhance the quality of life for people
of all ages. ANS: T
PTS: 1
REF: 112
Chapter 11: Safety Kostelnick: Mosby’s Textbook for Long-Term Care Nursing Assistants, 8th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Coma is: a. a state of being unaware of one’s surroundings. b. being able to respond to people, places, or things. c. losing memory and the ability to think and reason. d. paralysis. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 113
2. The loss of cognitive and social function caused by changes in the brain is: a. hemiplegia. b. dementia. c. stroke. d. confusion. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 113
3. A resident is paralyzed from the neck down. This is: a. hemiplegia. b. paraplegia. c. quadriplegia. d. MSDS. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 113
4. Electrical current passes through the body. This is: a. a disaster. b. a ground. c. suffocation. d. electrical shock. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 113
5. A person with hemiplegia is paralyzed: a. from the neck down. b. from the waist down. c. on one side of the body. d. from the knees down. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 113
6. Paralysis and loss of sensory function in the legs is: a. hemiplegia. b. quadriplegia. c. suffocation. d. paraplegia. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 113
7. Suffocation is: a. the loss of memory and thinking and reasoning abilities. b. a sudden event in which people are killed and injured. c. when breathing stops from the lack of oxygen. d. when electrical current passes through the body. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 113
8. A ground: a. prevents hazards in the workplace. b. is a sudden, catastrophic event. c. carries leaking electricity to the earth. d. is a chemical. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 113
9. Resident safety involves: a. decreasing the risk of accidents and injuries. b. preventing all injuries. c. limiting mobility. d. limiting independence. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 113
10. Safety measures must not: a. result in accidents. b. result in injury. c. interfere with the person’s rights. d. agitate the person. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 113
11. Which statement about a safe setting is correct? a. Accidents and injuries never occur. b. The person has little risk of illness or injury. c. The person is afraid. d. The person feels scared and insecure. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 114
12. To protect the person from harm, you need to: a. follow the person’s care plan. b. check on the person every hour. c. explain all safety rules to the person. d. keep the bed in the low position with bed rails raised. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 114
13. To make sure you give the right care to the right person, you need to: a. follow the person’s care plan. b. identify the person before giving care. c. check the label on the person’s clothing.
d. check the MSDS. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 115
14. To identify a resident: a. call the person by name. b. use the MSDS. c. use the ID bracelet. d. use the person’s clothing. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 115
15. When checking the person’s ID bracelet, you also should: a. call the person by name. b. use the MSDS. c. touch the person. d. shout so that the person can hear you. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 115
16. Which statement about carbon monoxide is correct? a. Carbon monoxide is a colorful, odorous gas. b. It is produced in the kitchen. c. It is a harmless gas. d. It can cause death. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 116
17. Which is a common cause T oE f bSuT rnBsAinNnKuS rsE inLgLcE enRte.rsC?OM a. Charcoal grills b. Spilled hot liquids c. Being outside in the sun d. Disposable razor ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 116
18. Which measure will help prevent burns? a. Leaving smoking materials at the bedside b. Turning on hot water first, then cold water c. Checking bath water temperature before the person gets into the tub d. Allowing the use of space heaters ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 116
19. A resident is receiving oxygen. The person likes to smoke. Before allowing the person to
smoke, you: a. explain the dangers of smoking. b. check the person’s care plan. c. take the person to a nonsmoking area. d. shut off the person’s oxygen. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 116
20.
Which statement about preventing burns is correct? a. Residents can use space heaters in their rooms. b. Residents can smoke in bed. c. Residents can use heating pads and electric blankets. d. Residents cannot smoke where oxygen is used. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 116
21. Major risk factors for accidental poisoning are: a. confusion and poor vision. b. age and impaired hearing. c. coma and dementia. d. medications and impaired mobility. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 116
22. Which can prevent suffocation? a. Using all four bed rails b. Leaving a person unattended in the bathtub c. Encourage the resident to keep their dentures in at night d. Positioning the person in bed properly ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 117
23. To prevent a person from suffocating, you should do which of the following? a. Make sure that the person’s dentures are in place. b. Check for loose teeth or dentures once a week. c. Report swallowing proT blE em s tBoAthNeKnS urEseLaLtEthRe.eC ndOoMf your shift. ST d. Give the person fluids only. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 117
24. You smell a smoke odor. What should you do? a. Use a scented air freshener. b. Pull the fire alarm. c. Move residents away from the area. d. Get a fire extinguisher. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 117
25. A person is choking. If the obstruction is not relieved, a. Stroke b. Shock c. Seizures d. Cardiac arrest ANS: D
PTS: 1
will occur.
REF: 117
26. What is the most common cause of obstructed airway in adults? a. Loose dentures b. The tongue falling to the back of the throat c. A poorly chewed piece of meat d. Drinking alcohol
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 117
27. Older persons are at risk for choking for all of the following reasons except: a. poorly fitting dentures. b. dysphagia. c. aphasia. d. chronic illnesses. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 117
28. A resident is choking. The person is conscious and can cough. What action is needed? a. CPR b. Abdominal thrusts c. Encouraging the person to cough forcefully d. The recovery position ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 117
29. A resident is choking. The person is clutching at her throat. The person cannot speak or
breathe. Which action is needed? CPR Abdominal thrusts Encouraging the person to cough forcefully Back blows
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 117
30. Abdominal thrusts can be pTeE rfS orTmBeA dN onKS wE hiL chLoEfRth.eCfoOlM lowing persons? a. Blind individuals b. Very obese individuals c. Pregnant individuals d. Preterm infants ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 117
31. A resident is choking. Abdominal thrusts are not successful. The person becomes
unresponsive. After lowering the person to the floor, you need to: activate the EMS system. give abdominal thrusts. give chest thrusts. do the finger sweep maneuver.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 119
32. Infections are caused by: a. chronic illness. b. disability. c. aging. d. microorganisms. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 117
33. Equipment is unsafe for which of the following reasons? a. It is not used correctly. b. It is more than 1 year old. c. It is working properly. d. The electrical cord has three prongs. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 117
34. A person’s radio has a frayed cord. You should: a. Fix it. b. Remove it from the room and tag it for repair. c. Respect the person’s right to use the radio. d. Use the person’s money to buy a new radio. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 119
35. Which is safe? a. A three-pronged plug b. A frayed cord c. Cracked or chipped items d. An overloaded electrical outlet ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 119
36. When using equipment, always do which of the following? a. Follow the manufacturer’s instructions. b. Use the item for multiple purposes. c. Make sure that it worksTbEeS foTreByAoNuKbS egEinL. LER.COM d. Try to fix a broken item. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 119
37. The safe use of electrical equipment involves which of the following? a. Keeping the item close to water b. Wiping up spills at the end of the shift c. Standing in water d. Keeping work areas clean and dry ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 120
38. The safe use of electrical equipment involves which of the following? a. Leaving equipment on while unplugging it b. Having dry hands c. Using water to put out an electrical fire d. Keeping electrical cords close to heating vents ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 120
39. When the wheelchair is not moving: a. follow the care plan for locking wheels. b. the person can stand on the footplates. c. the armrests can be removed. d. the footplates are moved out of the way.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 120
40. When transferring a person to or from the wheelchair, the: a. wheels must be locked. b. person needs to stand on the footplates. c. hand grips are held. d. person is given needed accessories. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 120
41. Safe stretcher use involves which of the following? a. Leaving the wheels unlocked b. Asking the resident if he or she wants to use safety straps or not c. Raising side rails d. Leaving the person alone to provide for privacy ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 121
42. A stretcher is moved: a. head first. b. feet first. c. by one person. d. only on a ramp. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 121
43. Hazardous substances include which of the following? a. Oxygen b. Toothpaste c. Makeup d. Soaps and shampoos ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 121
44. Always check the MSDS at which of the following times? a. At the beginning of your shift b. Before using a hazardous substance c. After cleaning up a leak or spill d. After disposing of a hazardous substance ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 121
45. A warning label on a hazardous substance container is damaged. What should you do? a. Try to read the label. b. Take the container to the nurse. c. Pour the substance into a different container. d. Apply a new warning label. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 122
46. A hazardous substance container does not have a warning label. What should you do? a. Take the container to the nurse.
b. Pour the substance down the toilet. c. Apply a new warning label. d. Get a new container. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 122
47. You spilled a hazardous substance. Before cleaning up the spill, you should: a. check the material safety data sheet. b. put on a gown, gloves, mask, and boots. c. call the fire department. d. wash your hands. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 122
48. A person is receiving oxygen therapy. Which of the following is allowed? a. Lit candles b. Cotton pajamas c. Nail polish remover d. Smoking materials ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 122
49. You need to empty a person’s ashtray. Which is correct? a. The ashtray is emptied into a wastebasket. b. The ashtray is emptied into a plastic container. c. The ashtray is emptied into a metal container with sand or water. d. The ashtray is emptied when the person is done smoking. ANS: C
L:LE RE EF 12R2.COM PTS: T1ESTBANKS
50. You are warming your lunch in a microwave. While the lunch is warming, you: a. can give needed care. b. can finish a task. c. can do an errand. d. stay by the microwave. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 123
51. You find a fire in a person’s room. What should you do first? a. Move the person to a safe area. b. Sound the nearest fire alarm. c. Close doors and windows. d. Get the nearest fire extinguisher. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 124
52. When there is a fire, you should do which of the following? a. Use the elevator. b. Call home to let them know you will be working late. c. Sound the nearest alarm. d. Open doors and windows to allow the fire to escape. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 124
53. To use a fire extinguisher, you must first: a. remove the safety pin. b. direct the hose at the fire. c. push down on the top handle. d. sound the nearest fire alarm. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 124
54. Natural disasters include which of the following? a. Tornadoes b. Bombings c. Airplane accidents d. Explosions ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 124
55. A flood warning was issued for your area. You are at work. What should you do? a. Get home as soon as possible. b. Follow the center’s disaster plan. c. Discharge residents who can go home. d. Find another center for residents. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 124
56. You can help prevent workplace violence by: a. reporting safety and security concerns. b. carrying a handgun or other weapon. TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. giving drugs to persons with mental illness. d. using touch to calm a person who is angry or agitated. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 126
57. You see a stranger in the center. What should you do? a. Call the police. b. Tell the nurse at once. c. Ask the person to leave. d. Call 911. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 126
58. A person is agitated. You should do which of the following? a. Stand near the person and away from the door. b. Allow the person to hold your hands. c. Talk to the person in a calm manner. d. Stay with the person until the nurse arrives. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 126
59. You are alone at the nurses’ station. A visitor arrives who is angry and agitated. The visitor is
threatening you. You should: a. use the panic button if one is available. b. run as fast as you can.
c. stand near the person. d. use your thumbs to attack the person’s eyes. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 126
60. Family members can assault staff members. To reduce this possibility, you should: a. stay away from family members. b. report questions raised by the family to the nurse as soon as possible. c. restrain family members if they threaten you. d. lock the family in the person’s room. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 128
61. How you dress can reduce your risk for workplace violence. You should do which of the
following? a. Wear jewelry that can serve as a weapon. b. Wear long hair down your back. c. Wear uniforms that fit large. d. Wear shoes with good soles. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 128
62. When using a parking garage, you should park: a. as close as possible to your destination. b. as close as possible to the attendant. c. at the street corner. d. on the upper level. ANS: B
L:LE RE EF 12R7.COM PTS: T1ESTBANKS
63. You have to walk to work. You should do which of the following? a. Wear headphones. b. Use the back roads. c. Walk near vacant lots, wooded areas, or construction sites. d. Carry a cellular phone or know where to find phone booths. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 128
64. You are going to take the train to work. You should do which of the following? a. Have your money ready. b. Stand alone near the ticket booth. c. Sit near the back of the train where it’s quiet. d. Put your purse or backpack on the seat next to you. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 129
65. Someone tries to attack you. You should do which of the following? a. Use your car keys as a weapon. b. Attack the person’s arms and legs. c. Use your purse as a weapon. d. Try not to scream. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 129
66. Which is a role of risk management? a. Identifying adequate staffing on each unit b. Identifying and controlling safety hazards c. Dealing with employee absences d. Studying the schedule for trends of late arrivals ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 129
67. You are injured while transferring a resident to a wheelchair. Which is correct? a. This is workplace violence. b. You need to complete an incident report. c. This is malpractice. d. This is resident abuse. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 129
68. A resident got a new shirt for his birthday. Which is incorrect? a. This valuable item is sent home with his family. b. The item is labeled with his name. c. The item is added to his personal belongings list. d. The item is described for his personal belongings list. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 129
69. A resident got a new bracelet for her birthday. It needs to go into her valuables envelope.
What should you do? a. State that it is a bracelet. TESTBANKSELLER.COM b. Describe it as a gold bracelet. c. Describe it as a yellow, 7-inch long and 1/2-inch wide bracelet with no stones. d. Just put it in the envelope. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 130
70. Dentures and eyeglasses kept at the bedside are: a. not protected from loss or damage. b. listed in the person’s record. c. the family’s responsibility. d. the person’s responsibility. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 130
71. You break a person’s eyeglasses. Which is correct? a. They should have been in the valuables envelope. b. You need to complete an incident report. c. The person needs to be more careful. d. You can buy new ones with the person’s money. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 130
72. A red wristband is on a resident’s arm. You note this to mean: a. the person is at risk for falling. b. the person has an allergy of some type.
c. the person has a “do not resuscitate” order. d. there is a limb alert for this person. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 130
TRUE/FALSE 1. You should never self-administer abdominal thrusts. ANS: F
PTS: 1
REF: 130
2. Abdominal thrusts are used to relieve severe airway obstruction. ANS: T
PTS: 1
REF: 130
Chapter 12: Preventing Falls Kostelnick: Mosby’s Textbook for Long-Term Care Nursing Assistants, 8th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which statement about falls is correct? a. Falls are the most common accidents in nursing centers. b. The risk of falling decreases with age. c. A history of falls decreases the risk of falling again. d. Most falls occur in the halls of the nursing center. ANS: A 2.
PTS: 1
REF: 136
Falls are likely to occur: during shift changes. during meal times. when visitors are present. when care is given.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 136
3. Which of the following increase a person’s risk for falls? a. Strength b. Awareness of surroundings c. Elimination needs d. Shoes that fit well ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 137
4. The person who has dizziness on standing: a. is at risk for falls. b. is taking medications. c. will have memory problems. d. needs to use handrails. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 137
5. The person who has balance problems: a. is at risk for falls. b. is taking medications. c. will have memory problems. d. has impaired hearing. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 137
6. Which of the following helps prevent falls? a. Using night-lights b. Using area rugs c. Wiping up spills at the end of the shift d. Allowing the person to use the bathroom once per shift ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 138
7. To prevent a person from falling, the person: a. uses long shoelaces. b. wears nonskid footwear. c. wears bedroom slippers. d. wears loose clothing. ANS: B 8.
PTS: 1
REF: 138
Call lights can help prevent falls. Which is correct? The call light must be within the nurse’s reach. The person is asked to not use the call light too often. Call lights are answered promptly. Call lights are taken away from those who use them too often.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 138
9. A person has a chair alarm. Which is correct? a. It serves the same purpose as a signal light. b. You need to respond to the alarm at once. c. Alarms are used only at night. d. Bed rails must be up. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 138
10. Which statement about falls is correct? a. You can borrow a resident’s wheelchair for another person. b. Meeting elimination needs can help prevent falls. TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. Bed, wheelchair, and stretcher wheels remain unlocked for transfers. d. Safety checks are made of resident rooms while visitors are there. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 138
11. Bed rails are used: a. for all residents. b. according to the person’s care plan. c. at night. d. whenever the person is in bed. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 139
12. Bed rails can be used: a. for persons who try to get out of bed without help. b. when a person is at high risk for falling. c. if they are needed to treat a person’s medical condition. d. if the person’s family requests them. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 139
13. You raise the bed to give care. Bed rails are a. removed b. lowered c. raised
according to the care plan.
d. put on ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 139
14. A resident does not use bed rails. To prevent the person from falling when making an
occupied bed: ask a coworker to help you. tell the person to be very careful when the bed is raised. keep the bed in the low position. get the person up in the chair.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 139
15. Residents who have bed rails: a. must be checked often. b. can be left alone. c. need restraints. d. need handrails and grab bars. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 140
16. What is the purpose of handrails? a. They prevent a person from falling out of bed. b. They provide support when walking. c. They provide support when sitting down or getting up from the toilet. d. They are used to propel a wheelchair. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 140
17. Bed wheels are locked: a. whenever the resident requests them to be. b. when moving the bed. c. only when the bed is in the high position. d. at all times except when moving the bed. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 140
18. To use a transfer belt correctly, you need to follow the: a. care plan. b. manufacturer’s instructions. c. doctor’s orders. d. person’s preferences. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 140
19. Which is correct about needing to transfer a resident using a transfer belt? a. The excess strap is left dangling. b. The belt is applied over clothing. c. The belt is applied over the breasts. d. The buckle is positioned over the person’s spine. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 141
20. A transfer belt is snug but not too tight if: a. the person tells you so. b. you can slide 4 fingers (an open, flat hand) between it and the person. c. the person can take shallow breaths but not deep breaths. d. the belt buckle is off center. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 142
21. You are assisting a resident to the bathroom when the person starts to fall. What should you
do? a. b. c. d.
Call for the nurse. Try to prevent the fall. Ease the person to the floor. Have the person use the commode instead.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 142
22. After a person falls, you need to: a. provide a walking aid. b. call for the nurse. c. call the family. d. call the doctor. ANS: B 23.
PTS: 1
REF: 142
After a person falls, you need to: complete an incident report. check the person for inT juE riS esT. BANKSELLER.COM call the doctor. keep the person in bed.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 142
24. A confused resident tries to move about after a fall. You should do which of the following? a. Use force to hold the person down. b. Stay calm and protect the person from injury. c. Talk to the person in a strong, directive voice. d. Call the family member to let them know the person has fallen. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 142
TRUE/FALSE 1. Bed rails are considered restraints by OBRA. ANS: T
PTS: 1
REF: 142
2. The health team must help prevent falls. If necessary, the health team can interfere with a
person’s right to personal choice. ANS: F
PTS: 1
REF: 143
3. Bed rails can be considered restraints according to the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of
1987 (OBRA) and the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services. ANS: T
PTS: 1
REF: 139
4. If a person starts to fall, it is preferred that you hold them up by reaching under their arms. ANS: F
PTS: 1
REF: 142
5. A person may refuse to wear nonskid shoes or socks. ANS: T
PTS: 1
REF: 143
6. If you find a person on the floor, you need to get them up as quickly as possible. ANS: F
PTS: 1
REF: 142
Chapter 13: Restraint Alternatives and Safe Restraint Use Kostelnick: Mosby’s Textbook for Long-Term Care Nursing Assistants, 8th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. An example of a chemical restraint is a: a. jacket restraint. b. second caregiver sitting at the bedside. c. pair of cloth mitts applied to the hands only. d. drug that is used for discipline. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 145
2. A physical restraint: a. allows a person access to all their body parts. b. restricts a person’s freedom of movement. c. includes the addition of a sitter at the bedside. d. includes any drug that is used for discipline. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 145
3. Restraints are used: a. to discipline a person. b. for staff convenience. c. to control or prevent a behavior. d. to protect persons from harming themselves or others. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 145
4. Restraints are used: a. when the nurse thinks that they are needed. b. when the health team thinks that they are needed. c. when other measures fail to protect the person. d. to prevent falls. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 145
5. Which statement about restraints is correct? a. Restraints can cause death. b. Restraints can be used if the patient prefers them. c. Use of restraints depends on the insurance coverage the person has. d. Restraints are used for staff convenience. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 149
6. A resident scratches and picks at his skin. You would expect the nurse to: a. find out the reason for the behavior. b. order mitt restraints for him. c. order wrist restraints for him. d. ask the doctor to order an ointment. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 146
7. Which statement about restraint alternatives is correct? a. They are part of the person’s care plan. b. They require a doctor’s order. c. The least restrictive method is required. d. They prevent or control a behavior. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 146
8. Restraints are used to: a. punish a person. b. control a behavior. c. treat medical symptoms. d. help the staff. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 146
9. Which statement about physical restraints is correct? a. They are not allowed in nursing centers. b. The person should decide whether they need them or not. c. The person can easily remove them. d. They limit movement or access to one’s body. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 146
10. A resident’s sheets are tucked in very tight. The person cannot get out of bed and it is hard for
the person to move in bed. Which is correct? a. The tight sheets are restraint alternatives. TESTBANKSELLER.COM b. The tight sheets are restraints. c. The person needs to have the bed rails up. d. The tight sheets prevent agitation and restlessness. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 146
11. A drug that makes a person sleepy and unable to function is: a. used to treat medical symptoms. b. a chemical restraint. c. a restraint alternative. d. part of the person’s care plan. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 155
12. A restraint is ordered. Which is the least likely to cause injuries? a. Following the manufacturer’s instructions b. Trying to get free from the restraint c. Keeping the restraint on the entire shift d. Using whatever restraint is available ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 154
13. Which statement about restraints is correct? a. Restraints are warranted if the person is misbehaving. b. A report is made to the nursing assistant board if a restraint causes illness, injury,
or death. c. Restraints affect a person’s dignity and self-esteem. d. Restraints decrease confusion and agitation. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 147
14. Restraints are ordered by the: a. nurse. b. interdisciplinary health team. c. doctor. d. the person’s legal representative. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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15. Restraints can be ordered: a. after all other measures fail to protect the person. b. when the family requests them. c. to control or prevent a behavior. d. when the least restrictive method is available. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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16. Unnecessary restraint is considered: a. false imprisonment. b. malpractice. c. negligence. d. involuntary seclusion. ANS: A
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17. A resident has wrist restraints. You need to check the person at least every a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20 ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 146
18. Restraints are removed and basic needs are met at least every: a. 15 minutes. b. 30 minutes. c. hour. d. 2 hours. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 146
19. Restraints are applied so that they are: a. loose enough for the person to get free of them. b. snug. c. tight. d. the least restrictive. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 149
minutes.
20. Which is a restraint alternative? a. Loud music, television, or radio b. Answering call lights when you have time c. Restricting fluids and foods d. Giving back massages ANS: D
PTS: 1
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21. Which is a restraint alternative? a. Providing a fast-paced and exciting setting b. Practicing measures to prevent falls c. Suggesting the person take a nap d. Asking a family member to come and take care of the person ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 150
22. Which is a restraint alternative? a. Staff assignments are changed daily. b. Floor cushions are placed next to beds. c. Lights are always bright in rooms and hallways. d. The person is kept in his or her room as much as possible. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 149
23. Certain residents tend to wander. Who needs to know who they are? a. The nursing team involved in their care b. The health team c. The nursing assistants d. All center staff ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 147
24. Which is a restraint? a. A chair with an attached tray table b. A rocking chair c. A reclining chair d. A low bed ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 146
25. Which is a restraint alternative? a. Keeping the call light on the back of the bed b. Making the person take an afternoon nap c. Request the person remain in their room d. Padding walls and the corners of furniture ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 147
26. Which statement about restraints is correct? a. Any member of the health team can order a restraint to protect the resident. b. Unnecessary restraint is discouraged. c. Verbal approval is required before a restraint is applied.
d. The manufacturer’s instructions are followed. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 147
27. A restraint is ordered for a resident. What restraint should you use? a. The least restrictive device b. The one identified on the person’s care plan c. Mitt or wrist restraints d. A vest or jacket restraint ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 147
28. Restraints that are too big or too loose could cause: a. anger and mistrust. b. strangulation. c. skin injuries. d. nerve injuries. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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29. A nurse tells you to use towels and tape to restrain a person. You should: a. refuse and explain why. b. use towels and tape with the manufacturer’s instructions. c. ignore the nurse’s instructions. d. follow the nurse’s instructions. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 149
30. Before applying a restraintT , tEhS eT peBrsAoN nK mS uE st LbL e:ER.COM a. sitting. b. lying down. c. in good alignment. d. resting quietly. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 149
31. Restraint straps are secured: a. to the bed rails. b. within the person’s reach. c. to the movable part of the bed frame. d. to the footboard or headboard. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 149
32. A resident has a wrist restraint. Which of the following is especially important to report to the
nurse? a. Why the restraint was applied b. The person’s temperature c. The person’s respiratory rate d. If you felt a pulse in the restrained extremity ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 149
33. Vest restraints: a. open in the back. b. cross in front. c. cross in back. d. open at the side. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 149
34. Jacket restraints: a. are applied with the opening in back. b. can be worn backward. c. cross in back. d. open at the side. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 149
35. Restraints are secured: a. according to the center’s policy and the manufacturer’s instructions. b. using the least restrictive method. c. with tape or rope. d. within the person’s reach. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 150
36. Bed rail covers and gap protectors: a. are restraints. b. protect the person from entrapment. c. are never used with resT trE aiS ntT s.BANKSELLER.COM d. protect the person from wandering. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 149
37. Which statement about restraints is correct? a. A back cushion is used if the person is restrained in a chair. b. A person restrained in the semi-Fowler’s position is at great risk for aspiration. c. Bed rails left down when using vest, jacket, or belt restraints. d. The call light is kept within the person’s reach. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 154
38. A resident keeps trying to pull out her feeding tube. Which restraint is the least restrictive? a. Wrist restraints b. Jacket restraint c. Vest restraint d. Belt restraint ANS: A
PTS: 1
39. Mitt restraints prevent: a. finger use. b. hand movements. c. wrist movements. d. arm movements.
REF: 156
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 149
40. Vest and jacket restraints are applied to the: a. chest. b. waist. c. limbs. d. hands. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 150
41. Which allows the person to turn from side to side or sit up in bed? a. Vest restraint b. Jacket restraint c. Belt restraint d. Full-body restraint ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 153
42. Before applying a restraint, you should do which of the following? a. Get the person’s written consent. b. Ask the person how the nurse applied the restraint last time. c. Look at the person’s size to determine what type and size to use. d. Find out when to apply and release the restraint. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 153
43. A person has a vest restraint. You need to check the person’s: a. pulse. b. skin color. c. skin temperature. d. breathing. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 154
44. A person with a restraint is given skin care at least every: a. 15 minutes. b. 30 minutes. c. hour. d. 2 hours. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 154
45. A person with a restraint is repositioned at least every: a. 15 minutes. b. 30 minutes. c. hour. d. 2 hours. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 155
46. CMS requires the reporting of any death that occurs: a. prior to the initiation of a restraint.
b. within 24 hours after a restraint was removed. c. within 1 month after a restraint was removed. d. while a person was in a long-term care facility. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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TRUE/FALSE 1. Informed consent is needed for restraint use. ANS: T
PTS: 1
REF: 156
2. The Joint Commission forbids the use of restraints. ANS: F
PTS: 1
REF: 156
3. It is appropriate to use a small amount of force to apply a restraint. ANS: F
PTS: 1
REF: 148
Chapter 14: Preventing Infection Kostelnick: Mosby’s Textbook for Long-Term Care Nursing Assistants, 8th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Asepsis means: a. clean technique. b. the process of destroying pathogens. c. an infection acquired after admission to a nursing center. d. being free of disease-producing microbes. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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2. Items are sterilized in: a. an autoclave. b. a reservoir. c. a germicide. d. normal flora. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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3. Clean technique is the same as: a. sterile technique. b. surgical asepsis. c. medical asepsis. d. normal flora. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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4. The process of becoming unclean is: a. asepsis. b. contamination. c. sterilization. d. disinfection. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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5. A disease caused by pathogens that spread easily is: a. a communicable disease. b. an infection. c. a nosocomial infection. d. immunity. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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6. A person who has protection against a certain disease has: a. immunity. b. personal protective equipment. c. a vaccine. d. a germicide. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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7. Certain practices remove or destroy pathogens. They also prevent them from spreading from
one person or place to another person or place. These practices are: Standard Precautions. Transmission-Based Precautions. medical asepsis. sterile technique.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 159
8. The microbe that usually does not cause an infection is: a. a nonpathogen. b. a pathogen. c. normal flora. d. a spore. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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9. A person develops an infection after being admitted to a nursing center. The person has: a. a health care–associated infection. b. normal flora. c. immunity. d. a contagious disease. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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10. A microbe that can cause an infection is: a. a nonpathogen. b. a pathogen. c. normal flora. d. a spore. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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11. Microbes that live and grow in a certain location are: a. nonpathogens. b. pathogens. c. normal flora. d. spores. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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12. A sterile field is: a. a work area free of all pathogens and nonpathogens. b. the same as sterile technique. c. the same as surgical asepsis. d. the process of destroying all microbes. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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13. A carrier is: a. the environment in which microbes live and grow. b. someone who is a reservoir for microbes but who does not have the signs and
symptoms of infection. c. the location where microbes usually live and grow. d. a preparation given to produce immunity against an infectious disease. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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14. Sterile means: a. the absence of all microbes. b. a work area free of all pathogens and nonpathogens. c. the process of destroying all microbes. d. the practices that keep equipment and supplies free of all microbes. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 159
15. A vaccine is: a. given to produce immunity. b. used to disinfect supplies and equipment. c. a microbe that causes infection. d. normal flora. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 159
16. Who is responsible for preventing infections from spreading? a. Nurses b. Doctors c. The nursing team d. The health team ANS: D
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17. Microbes are found: a. in blood, body fluids, excretions, and secretions. b. in the air and in water. c. in the respiratory system and digestive system. d. everywhere. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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18. Bacteria are often called: a. germs. b. fungi. c. viruses. d. spores. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 160
19. Which statement about microbes is correct? a. They grow best without oxygen. b. They need light. c. They grow best in a warm and dark environment. d. They need a carrier to live and grow. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 160
20. A microbe normally lives and grows in the respiratory system. Which statement is correct? a. The microbe will cause a respiratory infection. b. The microbe is a pathogen in the respiratory system. c. The microbe can cause an infection in another part of the body. d. The same microbe is found on the skin. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 160
21. Microbes that can resist the effects of antibiotics are a. multidrug-resistant b. Staphylococcus aureus c. methicillin d. infection-resistant ANS: A
PTS: 1
organisms.
REF: 160
22. A local infection occurs in: a. the person’s neighborhood. b. a body part. c. the whole body. d. normal flora. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 160
23. An infection involving the whole body is: a. a local infection. b. a systemic infection. c. a contagious disease. d. normal flora. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 160
24. Signs and symptoms of infection include which of the following? a. Stiff and painful joints b. Fever c. Paleness of a body part d. Decreased pulse and respiratory rates ANS: B
PTS: 1
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25. Signs and symptoms of infection include which of the following? a. Constipation b. Diarrhea c. Hunger d. Sleepiness ANS: B 26.
PTS: 1
Infection starts with a: a. source or pathogen. b. reservoir or host. c. portal of exit or portal of entry.
REF: 161
d. susceptible host. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 161
27. A carrier: a. can transmit pathogens to others. b. is not a reservoir for pathogens. c. has the signs and symptoms of an infection. d. is a susceptible host. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 161
28. A susceptible host is a(n): a. person at risk for infection. b. animal or insect. c. reservoir where a pathogen lives and grows. d. carrier. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 162
29. Portals of exit are: a. the same as portals of entry. b. personal care items. c. eating and drinking utensils. d. blood, body fluids, secretions, and excretions. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 161
30. Health care–associated infT ecE tiS onTsBcA anNbKeSsE prL eaLdEbR y .wChO icM h of the following? a. Practicing asepsis b. Good hand hygiene c. Coughing, sneezing, talking, laughing, and singing d. Sterile technique ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 162
31. Who can develop health care–associated infections? a. Residents b. The nursing team c. Doctors d. The health team ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 162
32. In medical asepsis, an item is contaminated if a. pathogens b. nonpathogens c. pathogens and nonpathogens d. bacteria and viruses ANS: A
PTS: 1
are present.
REF: 162
33. Which is the easiest and most important way to prevent infections from spreading?
a. b. c. d.
Standard Precautions Practicing hand hygiene Transmission-Based Precautions The Bloodborne Pathogen Standard
ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 163
34. Hand hygiene is practiced in which of the following situations? a. When gloves are on b. After elimination c. Before contact with blood, body fluids, secretions, or excretions d. Before pushing the wheelchair into the dining room ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 163
35. Aseptic practices include which of the following? a. Having persons in the same room share their personal care items b. Bathing, washing hair, and brushing teeth regularly c. Washing fruits and raw vegetables after serving them d. Washing your hands after putting gloves on ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 162
36. When washing your hands, you should stand so that: a. your uniform touches the sink. b. your hands touch the sink. c. your body touches the sink. d. soap and faucets are eaT syEtS oTreBaA chN. KSELLER.COM ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 162
37. When washing your hands, your hands and forearms are kept: a. above your elbows. b. lower than your elbows. c. even with your elbows. d. close to your body. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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38. Which is correct about decontaminating your hands with an alcohol-based rub? a. Wash your hands before applying the hand rub. b. Apply lotion to your hands before the alcohol-based rub. c. Use a paper towel to dry your hands. d. Rub your hands together until they are dry. ANS: D
PTS: 1
39. Hands are washed for at least a. 10 b. 15 c. 20 d. 30
REF: 163
seconds.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 163
40. When drying your hands, start at the: a. fingertips and work up to your forearms. b. elbows and work down to your fingers. c. forearms and work down to your fingers. d. wrists and work down to the fingers. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 163
41. To turn off the faucets, use: a. your clean hands. b. a clean paper towel for each faucet. c. the paper towel used for drying your hands. d. the same paper towel for each faucet. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 163
42. Single-use items are: a. reused. b. discarded after use. c. cleaned for reuse. d. used for more than one person. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 163
43. Disposable items are used to: a. lower health care costs. b. prevent the spread of infection. c. save time. d. save soap and cleaning solutions. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 163
44. The purpose of cleaning is to: a. destroy all pathogens and nonpathogens. b. reduce the number of microbes present. c. make disposable items reusable. d. produce a sterile field. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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45. Which statement is correct about cleaning a bedpan? a. You dispose of the bedpan after each use. b. Follow guidelines on the use of PPE when cleaning the bedpan. c. You wash the bedpan with soap and hot water. d. You use a brush if necessary. ANS: B
PTS: 1
46. Disinfection destroys: a. spores. b. pathogens.
REF: 166
c. all microbes. d. bacteria. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 166
47. Germicides are: a. disinfectants. b. sterilizing agents. c. cleaning agents. d. aseptic measures. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 166
48. When using chemical disinfectants, you need to wear: a. personal protective equipment. b. a gown, mask, and disposable gloves. c. utility gloves. d. sterile gloves. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 166
49. Before handling a disinfectant, you need to check the: a. person’s care plan. b. material safety data sheet. c. assignment sheet. d. amount remaining. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 166
50. A person has a drainage container for urine. To empty and dispose of the urine, you need to: a. check the material safety data sheet. b. follow the care plan. c. wear gloves. d. use a leak-proof plastic bag. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 163
51. Which of the following controls portals of exit? a. Wearing personal protective equipment as needed b. Using tissues when sneezing but not when coughing c. Coughing or sneezing into the air d. Holding equipment and linens away from your uniform ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 167
52. To control the spread of microbes, you should do which of the following? a. Practice hand hygiene. b. Shake linens and equipment to remove dust. c. Clean tubs, showers, and shower chairs once per week. d. Clean from the dirtiest area to the cleanest. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 167
53. Which statement about controlling the transmission of microbes is correct? a. You can borrow a resident’s equipment to use for another person. b. You need to assist residents with handwashing before and after eating. c. You need to assist residents with handwashing before elimination. d. Items on the floor are considered clean for 5 seconds. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 167
54. When cleaning a body part such as your hands, you need to clean: a. toward your body. b. away from your body. c. from the dirtiest area to the cleanest. d. as fast as possible. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 167
55. Which of the following will not control portals of entry? a. Providing skin care b. Providing good oral hygiene c. Keeping linens dry and wrinkle-free d. Wiping from the rectum to the urethra ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 167
56. When clean gloves have contact with clean sheets, which statement is correct? a. The gloves and the sheets are still clean. b. The gloves are contaminated, but the sheets are clean. c. The gloves and the sheT etE sS arT eB coAnN taKmSinEaL teL d.ER.COM d. The gloves are clean, but the sheets are contaminated. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 166
57. Standard Precautions apply to: a. all persons whenever care is given. b. only those residents on isolation precautions. c. the health team. d. persons with infections. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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58. Standard Precautions require hand hygiene: a. when you have gloves on. b. before touching blood, body fluids, secretions, or excretions. c. between tasks and procedures on the same person. d. every 5 minutes you are with the resident. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 169
59. The nurse asks you to perform three tasks for a resident. Assume that contact with blood,
body fluids, secretions, or excretions is likely. How many pairs of gloves do you need? a. 1 pair b. At least 2 pairs c. At least 3 pairs
d. No gloves ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 169
60. Your gloves are contaminated and you need to touch a clean surface. What should you do? a. Remove the gloves and decontaminate your hands. b. Wash your gloved hands. c. Complete necessary care and remove the gloves. d. Ask the nurse what to do. ANS: A 61.
PTS: 1
REF: 169
Goggles and face shields: a. are worn for all tasks. b. protect the mucous membranes of your mouth, eyes, and nose. c. are worn only when blood is present. d. are cleaned for reuse. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 169
62. Which statement about gowns is correct? a. They are worn anytime gloves are worn. b. The gown must cover at minimum your chest and abdomen. c. A wet gown is contaminated. d. The gown front and sleeves are considered to be clean. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 169
63. Soiled linen is: a. handled according to the center’s policies. b. discarded. c. sent home with the family. d. washed in the person’s room. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 169
64. The nurse hands you a used disposable syringe with the needle attached. What should you do? a. Recap the needle. b. Break the needle off of the syringe. c. Bend the needle. d. Place the needle and syringe in a puncture-resistant container. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 169
65. A resident has a communicable disease. The nurse tells you that droplet precautions are
needed. You know that droplets are produced by a. Splashes and sprays of blood, body fluids, secretions, or excretions b. Coughing, sneezing, or talking c. Chicken pox or the measles d. Touching surfaces or care items in the person’s room ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 177
66. When following droplet precautions, you need to wear: a. a tuberculosis respirator. b. a mask when working within 3 feet of the person. c. a gown. d. eye protection. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 170
67. Contact precautions always require the use of: a. gloves. b. a mask. c. a gown. d. goggles. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 170
68. A gown used for isolation precautions is removed: a. before leaving the room. b. after leaving the room. c. after care is completed. d. in the dirty utility room. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 170
69. You are delegated tasks that involve Transmission-Based Precautions. The nurse needs to tell
you: when to wash your hands? how to respect the persT onE’S sT rigBhAtsN?KSELLER.COM what personal protective equipment to use? to keep the signal light within reach.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 170
70. A resident is on contact precautions. Before entering the resident’s room, you should: a. collect all needed equipment. b. put on a mask, gown, and gloves. c. double-bag items in leak-proof plastic bags. d. wet a mop with disinfectant solution. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 168
71. Disposable gloves are worn for which of the following? a. Surgical asepsis b. When giving the resident a hug as you leave for the day c. When contact with nonintact skin is likely d. When contact with clean surfaces is likely ANS: C 72.
PTS: 1
Gloves are easier to put on: a. at the start of your shift. b. when your hands are wet. c. when your hands are dry.
REF: 170
d. if you have lotion on your hands. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 168
73. You tear a glove while performing a task. What should you do? a. Complete the task before removing the gloves. b. Ask the nurse what to do. c. Remove the gloves, practice hand hygiene, and then put on a new pair. d. Remove the glove and put on a new one. ANS: C 74.
PTS: 1
REF: 171
Which statement about gloves is correct? a. Only one pair is needed for each task. b. Gloves are discarded after two uses. c. Gloves must cover your wrists. d. The insides of gloves are sterile. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 172
75. Which is correct about a wet mask? a. The mask is contaminated. b. You must complete the task as quickly as possible. c. You must control your breathing. d. You must take the mask off and let it dry. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 172
EhSicThBpAarNt K 76. You are removing a mask.TW isScE onLtaLmEiR na.teCdO ?M a. The upper ties b. The lower ties c. The front part d. The entire mask ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 173
77. Before removing a mask, you must: a. decontaminate your hands. b. remove your gloves. c. put on new gloves. d. put on goggles. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 173
78. Which parts of a gown are contaminated? a. The neck ties and cuffs b. The gown front and sleeves c. The inside and the waist strings d. The inside and the neck ties ANS: B
PTS: 1
79. A wet gown is considered to be:
REF: 174
a. b. c. d.
clean. contaminated. sterile. safe.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 173
80. You need to wear gloves, a gown, and a mask. Which do you put on first? a. Gloves b. The gown c. The mask d. It does not matter ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 173
81. Before removing a mask, you must: a. decontaminate your hands. b. remove your gloves. c. put on the gown. d. get the person’s consent. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 173
82. Disposable goggles and face shields are: a. cleaned for reuse. b. discarded after use. c. labeled with the person’s name and room number. d. sterilized. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 174
83. Contaminated items are placed in: a. melt-away bags. b. leak-proof plastic bags with the BIOHAZARD symbol. c. trash containers. d. the toilet. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 173
84. Double-bagging is needed when: a. droplet or contact precautions are used. b. the outside of the bag is soiled. c. the inside of the bag is soiled. d. transmission-Based Precautions are ordered. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 174
85. When collecting a specimen, you always need to wear: a. gloves. b. a mask. c. eyewear. d. a gown.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 175
86. You use a stretcher to transport a person who is on isolation precautions. Which is incorrect? a. An extra layer of sheets is put on the stretcher. b. The person wears a mask if airborne or droplet precautions are used. c. The stretcher is disinfected after use. d. No special precautions are needed. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 175
87. Persons needing isolation precautions often experience: a. loss of self-esteem. b. self-actualization. c. love and belonging. d. safety. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 175
88. A resident needs isolation precautions. Which will meet the person’s basic needs? a. Visiting the person as little as possible to prevent transmission b. Saying hello from the doorway c. Letting them know the scheduled for the activity room that day d. Getting out of the person’s room as quickly as possible ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 175
89. You need to put on a face mask. Which action is correct? a. Let the person see your face first. b. Enter the room with the mask on. c. Put the mask on, and then tell the person your name. d. Wash your face first. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 168
90. The Bloodborne Pathogen Standard is a regulation of: a. OBRA. b. OSHA. c. The CDC. d. The MSDS. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 175
91. Bloodborne pathogens exit the body through the: a. blood. b. respiratory system. c. urinary tract. d. reproductive system. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 176
92. According to the Bloodborne Pathogen Standard, potentially infectious materials are: a. contaminated with a body fluid that may contain blood. b. spread by airborne droplets.
c. spread by coughing, sneezing, and talking. d. contaminated food and water. ANS: A
PTS: 1
93. The hepatitis B vaccination involves a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 176
injection(s).
REF: 176
94. The hepatitis B vaccination is given: a. every year. b. before exposure to HBV. c. after exposure to HBV. d. before or after exposure to HBV. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 177
95. You were just hired at a nursing center. Which statement is correct? a. The nursing center must make the hepatitis B vaccination available to you before
you are hired. b. You can refuse to have the hepatitis B vaccination. c. If you refuse the hepatitis B vaccination, you can be denied employment. d. You pay for the hepatitis B vaccination. ANS: B
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96. Your lips are chapped. You can apply lip balm in the: a. person’s room. b. residents’ dining room. c. dirty utility room. d. employee restroom. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 177
97. When you drop a water glass, which action is correct? a. Pick up the broken glass with gloved hands. b. Discard the broken glass into a puncture-resistant container. c. Discard the broken glass into a leak-proof plastic bag with the BIOHAZARD
symbol. d. Call the maintenance department. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 177
98. What should you use to pick up broken glass after you drop a water glass? a. Gloved hands b. A brush and dustpan c. A puncture-resistant container d. A leak-proof plastic bag
ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 177
99. You need to clean the counter in the dirty utility room. You need to wear: a. gloves. b. a mask and gown. c. gloves, a mask, and a gown. d. protective eyewear. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 177
100. Your work surface becomes contaminated. When should you decontaminate the area? a. When you complete the task b. At once c. When you have time d. At the end of your shift ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 177
101. A person’s linens are soiled with urine and feces. What should you do with the linens? a. Take them to the dirty utility room. b. Put them with the other laundry. c. Place them in a leak-proof plastic bag. d. Wash the laundry. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 177
102. You nick your finger on a chipped water glass. This is: a. negligence. b. an exposure incident. c. a source individual. d. carelessness. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 178
103. Which statement about surgical asepsis is correct? a. A sterile item cannot touch another sterile item. b. Sterile items are always kept within your vision. c. Sterile items are always kept below your waist. d. Airborne microbes cannot contaminate a sterile field. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 178
104. Which statement about surgical asepsis is correct? a. A sterile package is torn. The package is contaminated only if the contents get wet. b. The date on a sterile package has expired. The package is contaminated 30 days
after the expiration date. c. Sterile items are handled with sterile gloves or sterile forceps. d. Sterile gloved hands are kept below your waist. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 178
105. Which statement about surgical asepsis is correct? a. You can turn your back on a sterile field.
b. You can leave a sterile field unattended. c. You can reach over a sterile field. d. Wet items are held down. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 178
106. A 1-inch margin around a sterile field is contaminated. Which statement is correct? a. All sterile items must be placed inside the 1-inch margin. b. Items outside the 1-inch margin are clean but not sterile. c. You can change the margin to inch if you need a bigger sterile field. d. You must tell the resident if you contaminate the sterile field. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 179
107. The nurse asks you to assist with a sterile procedure. You will need to put on sterile gloves.
When do you put them on? When the procedure is explained to the person. Before the sterile field is set up. After the sterile field is set up. When you contaminate your disposable gloves.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 179
108. Your sterile gloves tear after putting them on. You need to: a. keep them on, so the nurse can finish the procedure. b. remove them. c. remove them, decontaminate your hands, and put on a new pair. d. put a new pair on over T thEeStoTrnBA paNirK . SELLER.COM ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 179
109. You are putting on sterile gloves and you contaminate the inner package. What should you
do? a. b. c. d.
Continue; you have not touched the gloves. Discard the gloves and get a new package. Put on the gloves and then put another pair on over them. Whatever is easiest at the time.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 180
110. You are putting on the first sterile glove when some fingers get caught in the glove. What
should you do? Ask the nurse to straighten the glove. Straighten the glove with your ungloved hand. Get a new pair of gloves. Put on the other glove.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 180
111. You have on sterile gloves. You can touch anything: a. above your waist. b. below your waist.
c. in the sterile field. d. on your work surface. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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TRUE/FALSE 1. All body fluids are capable of spreading infection. ANS: T
PTS: 1
REF: 180
Chapter 15: Body Mechanics and Safe Resident Handling, Moving, and Transfers Kostelnick: Mosby’s Textbook for Long-Term Care Nursing Assistants, 8th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The base of support is: a. the way the head, trunk, arms, and legs are aligned with one another. b. posture. c. the area on which an object rests. d. ergonomics. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 182
2. Body alignment is: a. the way the head, trunk, arms, and legs are aligned with one another. b. the same as body mechanics. c. the base of support. d. ergonomics. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 182
3. Using the body in an efficient and careful way is: a. body mechanics. b. base of support. c. ergonomics. d. posture. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 182
4. The science of designing the job to fit the worker is: a. body mechanics. b. ergonomics. c. job science. d. posture science. ANS: B
PTS: 1
5. The back-lying position is a. the supine b. Fowler’s c. Sims’ d. the prone ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 182
position.
REF: 182
6. A resident has the head of her bed elevated 60 degrees. This position is a. the supine b. Fowler’s c. Sims’ d. the prone ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 182
position.
7. The side-lying position is a. the supine b. Fowler’s c. Sims’ d. the lateral ANS: D
position.
PTS: 1
REF: 182
8. A resident is lying on her left side. Her upper leg is sharply flexed. Her lower arm is behind
her. This position is the supine Fowler’s Sims’ the prone
position.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 182
9. The dorsal recumbent position also is called a. the supine b. Fowler’s c. Sims’ d. the prone ANS: A
PTS: 1
position.
REF: 182
10. Good body mechanics involve which of the following? a. Good posture and balance TESTBANKSELLER.COM b. Using muscles in your chest and back c. Using the muscles in your back and lower arms d. A narrow base of support ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 182
11. You need a wide base of support: a. for lifting and moving. b. for balance. c. to prevent friction and shearing. d. when bending from the waist. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 182
12. When you need to lift a heavy object, which action is correct? a. Bend your knees and squat. b. Bend from your waist. c. Hold the item away from you. d. Lift the object above your chest. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 182
13. When giving bedside care, the bed should be: a. at its highest horizontal level. b. at its lowest horizontal level.
c. raised so it is close to your waist. d. in Fowler’s position. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 184
14. You can push, pull, slide, or lift an object. Which movement is easiest? a. Pushing b. Pulling c. Sliding d. Lifting ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 184
15. To use good body mechanics, you should do which of the following? a. Have a narrow base of support. b. Twist your body at the waist. c. Bend at the waist. d. Face the direction of your work. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 184
16. The amount of physical effort needed to perform a task is: a. ergonomics. b. force. c. embolism. d. posture. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 184
17. Which is a risk factor for work-related musculoskeletal disorders (WMSDs)? a. Force b. Performing the same motion infrequently c. Awkward positions d. A wide base of support ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 184
18. A resident has slid down in the wheelchair. The person cannot assist with repositioning. To
safely reposition the person: a mechanical lift is used. one worker is needed. two workers and an assist device are needed. at least three workers are needed.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 212
19. Which is a cause of back disorders? a. Good body mechanics b. Good physical condition c. Bending or twisting while lifting d. Facing the direction of your work ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 185
20. According to OSHA, which of the following activities are related to back injuries? a. Moving a person who is independent b. Asking a person to step on the scales c. Bending to bathe a person or to change linens d. Using a mechanical lift and following the manufacturer’s instructions ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 185
21. After making a bed, you feel pain in your lower back. When should you report this? a. As soon as possible b. Before you take your break c. Only if the pain gets worse d. When you report off duty ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 184
22. To protect yourself from injury, it is best to: a. work alone. b. lift with forceful movements. c. bend while lifting. d. avoid lifting whenever possible. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 185
23. Which action is correct when you are positioning a person in bed? a. Work with sudden, forceful movements. b. Keep the bed in the lowest horizontal position. TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. Bend from the waist. d. Use pillows as directed for support and alignment. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 185
24. Frequent position changes: a. help prevent pressure ulcers and contractures. b. protect you from injury and falls. c. cause discomfort and restlessness. d. are not done unless ordered by the doctor. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 185
25. When a resident is in bed, the person is repositioned at least every: a. hour. b. 2 hours. c. 4 hours. d. shift. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 185
26. Before repositioning a person, you need which of the following information from the nurse
and the care plan? a. What their code status is? b. What diet the person is on?
c. When to wash your hands? d. What skin care measures and exercises to perform? ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 185
27. Before repositioning a person, you need which of the following information from the nurse
and the care plan? When to complete hand hygiene? What positioning devices to use? When to change or straighten linens? What room the resident belongs in?
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 185
28. The nurse asks you to position a resident in the lateral position. This position is the: a. side-lying position. b. sitting position. c. back-lying position. d. dorsal recumbent position. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 186
29. A person in the prone position lies on his or her: a. back. b. abdomen. c. right side. d. left side. ANS: B
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30. Which is a semi-sitting position? a. Fowler’s position b. The supine position c. The dorsal recumbent position d. Sims’ position ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 185
31. Which position requires one to lie face down, and therefore may be difficult to tolerate by
older persons? Fowler’s position The supine position The dorsal recumbent position The prone position
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 186
32. Which position is more comfortable for most older persons? a. Fowler’s position b. The supine position c. The squatting position d. Sims’ position
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 185
33. To sit in a chair, a person must be able to: a. stay awake. b. hold the upper body and head erect. c. support the feet. d. sit without pillows. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 187
34. A resident is positioned in a chair. Which will provide good alignment? a. The person slouches. b. The person’s back and buttocks are not able to touch the back of the chair. c. The person’s feet are flat on the floor. d. The backs of the person’s knees are against the edge of the seat. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 187
35. A resident needs a postural support when sitting in a chair. The postural support: a. is a restraint. b. is used under paralyzed arms. c. keeps the person in good alignment. d. is used for wheelchair and bed transfers. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 187
36. Moving the person from one place to another is: a. a transfer. b. logrolling. c. lifting. d. handling. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 187
37. What is it called when two surfaces rub together? a. Friction b. Shearing c. Ergonomics d. Pressure ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 192
38. A resident is turned as a unit, in alignment, with one motion. This is: a. body mechanics. b. logrolling. c. ergonomics. d. safety. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 198
39. A resident has slid down in bed. Her skin sticks to the bed while her muscles move down.
This is: a. shearing.
b. friction. c. ergonomics. d. logrolling. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 192
40. When you have to turn, reposition, or transfer a person, you must use: a. a transfer belt. b. a lift sheet. c. a mechanical lift. d. your body correctly. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 187
41. Older persons have fragile bones and joints. To prevent injury when moving these persons, do
which of the following? Move the person as quickly as possible. Only ask for help if you feel you need it. Move the person carefully. Keep the person in a curved alignment.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 188
42. Friction and shearing can lead to: a. back injuries. b. infection and pressure ulcers. c. poor posture and body mechanics. d. difficulty breathing. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 192
43. You can reduce friction and shearing by: a. rolling the person. b. using a transfer belt. c. positioning the person in Fowler’s position. d. sliding the person. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 192
44. To prevent work-related injuries, OSHA recommends that: a. you work alone when possible. b. you hold the person under the arms during transfers. c. manual lifting be eliminated whenever possible. d. you schedule harder tasks late in your shift. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 189
45. For safe resident handling, moving, and transfers, the nurse and health team determine which
of the following? The resident’s preference How long it will take The equipment needed If family is available to help
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 191
46. You need to move a resident up in bed. To prevent a work-related injury, you: a. raise the side rail. b. use a transfer belt. c. raise the bed for body mechanics. d. lower the bed to the floor. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 193
47. Before moving a person up in bed, you need to: a. put nonskid footwear on the person. b. lock the bed wheels. c. apply a transfer belt. d. raise the head of the bed. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 193
48. Before moving, positioning, or transferring a person, you need to: a. explain to the person what you are going to do. b. apply a transfer belt. c. ask a coworker to help you. d. move the person to the middle of the bed. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 193
49. Some underpads are used as assist devices. For a safe lift, the underpad must: LeEigRh.t. COM a. be strong enough to suT ppEoS rtTthBeApN erKsoSnE’sLw b. extend from the person’s shoulders to above the knees. c. be 2 feet wide. d. be a disposable, single-use underpad. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 195
50. A resident is recovering from spinal surgery. You need to move the person to the side of the
bed. What procedure is the best to use? Moving the person in segments Using an assist device Logrolling Moving the person with the assistance of two staff members
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 198
51. When moving a person in segments, you first move the: a. legs and feet. b. middle of the body. c. upper part of the body. d. head. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 196
52. A resident is recovering from spinal surgery. You need to reposition the person onto her right
side. Which procedure is preferred? Moving the person in segments Using a trapeze Logrolling Using a mechanical lift
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 198
53. A resident is 90 years old and has arthritis. You need to move the resident to the side of the
bed. Which method is best? Having the resident assist you Moving the person in segments The method the person wants to use The method you are most comfortable with
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 196
54. How many workers are needed to logroll a person safely? a. At least 1 b. 2 or 3 c. 3 or 4 d. At least 4 ANS: B
PTS: 1
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55. When a person is logrolled, the person is: a. moved in segments. b. moved with the spine straight. c. turned toward you. d. turned away from you. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 198
56. To dangle means to: a. hang in the air. b. sit on the side of the bed. c. use a mechanical lift. d. be transferred to a stretcher. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 200
57. The nurse asks you to dangle a resident. Before you do so, you need all of the following
information except: a. Which side is strong and which side is weak? b. How long the person needs to dangle? c. How to use good body mechanics? d. What observations to report and record? ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 200
58. You assist a resident to dangle. When the person complains of dizziness, you should: a. call for help.
b. tell the person to take deep breaths. c. help the person lie down. d. have the person move the legs back and forth and in circles. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 201
59. The nurse asks you to transfer a resident to a wheelchair. Before transferring the person, the
nurse and care plan should tell you which of the following? Whether the person is awake or asleep What are the resident’s areas of weakness When to wash your hands How to protect the person’s privacy
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 200
60. For a bed to wheelchair transfer, the person needs to wear: a. slippers. b. socks. c. panty hose. d. nonskid footwear. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 202
61. To prevent falls during transfers, the wheelchair, bed, shower chair, and stretcher wheels
must: be fully inflated. be locked. not squeak. be clean.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 203
62. A resident has weakness on her left side. You are transferring her from the bed to the
wheelchair. Where should you position the wheelchair? Next to the bed on her left side Next to the bed on her right side At the foot of the bed At the head of the bed
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 203
63. When are stand and pivot transfers used? a. If the person requests it b. If the person is not able to assist c. If a mechanical lift is not available d. As directed by the person’s care plan ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 202-203
64. When transferring a person, first move the: a. person’s strong side. b. person’s weak side. c. side closest to you.
d. person’s right side. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 203
65. A transfer belt is not needed to transfer a resident from the bed to a chair. For the transfer,
how should you hold onto the person? Have the person put her arms around your waist. Have the person put her arms around your neck. Place your hands under the person’s arms and around her shoulder blades. Hold the person’s weak arm while she supports herself with her strong arm.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 202-203
66. You are going to transfer a resident from the wheelchair back to bed. Where should you
position the wheelchair? a. On the person’s strong side b. On the person’s weak side c. Where it was when the person was transferred from the bed to the wheelchair d. Wherever the person prefers ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 204
67. A mechanical lift is used to transfer a resident to the wheelchair. What must you do before
using the lift? a. Clean it. b. Read the manufacturer’s instructions. c. Apply a transfer belt. d. Apply an assist device. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 204
68. Which type of lift sling is used for a person with extra large thighs? a. A standard full sling b. An extended length sling c. A bathing sling d. An amputee sling ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 207
69. How many workers are needed to safely transfer a person using a mechanical lift? a. Just 1 b. At least 2 c. At least 3 d. At least 4 ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 206
70. The nursing center has a new mechanical lift. Which statement is correct? a. If you used the old model, you know how to use the new one. b. All mechanical lifts are the same. c. You need to be trained in its use. d. The new one is safer to use.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 207
71. You are going to transfer a resident from the wheelchair to the toilet. Which statement is
correct? The person needs elevated lowered toilet seat. The person uses the grab bars by the toilet for support. The wheelchair is positioned in front of the toilet. The wheelchair brakes are unlocked.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 207
72. After transferring a person to the toilet, you should: a. close the bathroom door and stay in the person’s room near the bathroom. b. close the bathroom door and leave the room. c. stay in the bathroom with the person. d. leave the room. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 209
73. After the resident finishes eliminating, before transferring back to the wheelchair, you need to: a. assist with wiping, perineal care, flushing, and handwashing. b. apply a transfer belt and position the wheelchair for a safe transfer. c. ask what the person observed about the urine and/or bowel movement. d. practice hand hygiene. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 210
74. Stretchers are used to transfer which of the following persons? TESTBANKSELLER.COM a. Are incontinent b. Are tired c. Must stay in a seated position d. Are seriously ill ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 210
75. How many workers are needed for safe stretcher transfers? a. Just 1 b. 2 or 3 c. 3 or 4 d. At least 4 ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 210
76. When are the safety straps applied during a stretcher transfer? a. When the stretcher is positioned next to the bed. b. After the person’s ID bracelet is checked. c. Before the person is transferred to the stretcher. d. After the person is transferred to the stretcher. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 210
77. When can you leave a person on a stretcher unattended? a. After the safety straps are on.
b. After the side rails are raised. c. After the person is transported. d. Never. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 210
78. Which is used to transfer a person from the bed to a stretcher? a. An assist device b. Transfer belt c. Mechanical lift d. Pillows ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 210
79. A resident has slid down in the wheelchair. The person can follow directions and assist with
repositioning. Which action is safe? You unlock the wheelchair wheels. You position the person’s feet on a footstool. You apply a transfer belt. You stand behind the wheelchair.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 210
TRUE/FALSE 1. Problems with sitting and balance often occur after illness, injury, surgery, and bedrest. ANS: T
PTS: T1ESTBANKS RE EF 21R2.COM L:LE
Chapter 16: The Resident’s Unit Kostelnick: Mosby’s Textbook for Long-Term Care Nursing Assistants, 8th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What does full visual privacy mean? a. The privacy curtain is drawn. b. Windows and shades are adjusted. c. The person is completely free from public view while in bed. d. The room door is closed. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 214
2. Semi-Fowler’s position is when the: a. bed is flat. b. head of the bed is raised 30 degrees. c. head of the bed is raised, and the foot of the bed is lowered. d. head of the bed is lowered, and the foot of the bed is raised. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 214
3. The person’s area of the room is considered: a. public space. b. working space. c. private. d. home-like. ANS: C 4.
PTS: 1
REF: 214
Nursing center residents are allowed to: a. bring one personal item from home. b. choose where to place personal items, as space allows. c. put personal items in another person’s unit. d. use any part of the room. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 214
5. Which room temperature is required in nursing centers by OBRA? a. 60° to 66° F b. 68° to 74° F c. 71° to 81° F d. 82° to 86° F ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 214
6. Which statement about room temperatures is correct? a. Older and chronically ill persons may need higher room temperatures. b. You can change the person’s room temperature to meet your needs. c. Less active persons are usually comfortable in cooler areas. d. You can decide how warm a person’s room should be. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 214
7.
A resident does not like drafts. Which is correct? a. Make sure that the person wears just a gown. b. Offer the person a lap robe when he or she is in a chair. c. Always keep the person covered with a bath blanket. d. Keep the person close to drafty areas. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 215
8. A resident cannot control his bladder. To prevent odors, you need to: a. check him often. b. change his clothing every 2 hours. c. dispose of wet clothing and linens at the end of your shift. d. remind him to use the bathroom. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 215
9. Which prevents odors? a. Changing soiled linen and clothing at the end of your shift b. Cleaning urinals and bedpans promptly c. Disposing of incontinence and ostomy products every 2 hours d. Providing hygiene once per day ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 215
10. You have just finished smoking. Before going to a resident, you must: a. extinguish the cigarette. b. put your smoking materials away. TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. practice handwashing. d. put on clean gloves. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 215
11. Several staff members are talking and laughing at the nurses’ station. Besides causing a lot of
noise, what other problem does their behavior create? Their behavior is negligent. Their behavior is abuse. Residents cannot hear what their visitors are saying. Residents often think the staff is talking and laughing about them.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 215
12. Which statement is correct? a. Many ill people are not sensitive to noises and sounds. b. Residents may find sounds dangerous, frightening, and irritating. c. New sounds may cause the person to become relaxed and comfortable. d. There is little that you can do to control noise in nursing centers. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 215
13. You can reduce nursing center noise by doing which of the following? a. Turning the volume up on monitors so it can be heard at the nursing station b. Answering phones and signal lights by the fourth ring
c. Controlling your voice d. Providing drapes and carpets that absorb noise ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 215
14. A resident has dementia. The person becomes very upset whenever a chair alarm sounds. Why
might the person react this way? The alarm is too loud. The person thinks that the chair alarm is cruel. The person wants more attention from staff. The person does not understand what the sound means.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 215
15. Which is an OBRA requirement for resident rooms? a. Bed rails on all beds b. Clean, dry floor c. Remote access to an exit corridor d. A mattress ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 224
16. What kind of lighting is cheerful to most people? a. Bright lighting b. Dim lighting c. Soft lighting d. Lighting that causes glares and shadows ANS: A
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17. Lighting in a resident’s room is adjusted to meet: a. your needs. b. the person’s needs. c. the nurse’s needs. d. the needs of the health team. ANS: B
PTS: 1
18. Persons with poor vision need a. dull b. natural c. bright d. soft ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 216
light.
REF: 216
19. Which is an OBRA requirement for resident rooms? a. A telephone in each room b. A recliner for the person’s visitors c. A bed of proper height and size d. A hair dryer ANS: C
PTS: 1
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20. Electric bed controls do which of the following? a. Lock and unlock the bed wheels. b. Move the bed from one room to the next. c. Rotate the bed from left to right. d. Raise and lower the bed. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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21. Which bed position requires a doctor’s order? a. The flat position b. Fowler’s position c. Semi-Fowler’s position d. Trendelenburg’s position ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 218
22. Which bed position requires a doctor’s order? a. Reverse Trendelenburg’s position b. Semi-Fowler’s position c. Fowler’s position d. The flat position ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 218
23. In Trendelenburg’s position, the head of the bed is: a. raised 30 degrees. b. lowered and the foot of the bed is raised. TESTBANKSEL LER.COM c. raised and the foot of the bed is lowered. d. elevated 45 to 90 degrees. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 218
24. Persons at risk for entrapment within the hospital bed system include which of the following? a. Persons who are younger b. Persons with good muscle control c. Ambulatory persons who are alert and oriented d. Persons who are restrained ANS: D
PTS: 1
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25. Which statement about bed wheels is correct? a. Bed wheels are unlocked at all times except when moving the bed. b. Bed wheels must be unlocked when giving bedside care. c. Lock bed wheels when transferring a person to and from the bed. d. Bed wheels are unlocked when the bed is in the lowest horizontal position. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 218
26. Which statement about over-bed tables is correct? a. They should be kept away from the person’s bed. b. They can be used as a place for soiled linen. c. You can place urinals and bedpans on them.
d. They are used for meals. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 217
27. Where are bedpans and urinals stored? a. In bedside stands b. In over-bed tables c. In closets d. Under the bed ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 220
28. A resident brought a chair from home. The chair is unsafe if: a. it has armrests. b. it tips during transfers. c. it is comfortable for the person. d. the person can get in and out of it easily. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 220
29. You are going to help a resident get dressed. Which action helps provide full visual privacy
from her roommate? Closing window shades Pulling the privacy curtain around the person’s bed Closing the person’s room door Holding a bath blanket around the person
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 220
30. Privacy curtains block: a. conversations from being heard. b. embarrassing odors. c. irritating noises. d. others from seeing the person. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 220
31. A resident does not like the soap and shampoo provided by the center. She has her son buy
what she likes. Which statement is correct? She has to use the soap and shampoo provided by the center. She has the right to personal choice. You can pretend to use what she likes. Her items are kept in the closet. The center’s items are kept in the bedside stand.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
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32. Which statement about the call system is correct? a. The call light must always be within the person’s room. b. When the person signals for help, a signal is sent to the nurses’ station. c. When the person signals for help, a light goes on in the bathroom. d. Bathrooms do not have call lights. Therefore, you need to stay with the person. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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33.
Which statement about call lights is correct? a. Keep the person’s call light within reach. b. Place the call light on the person’s weak side. c. Remind the person to use the call light only for emergencies. d. Answer call lights when you have time. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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34. The nursing center has an intercom system between resident rooms and the nurses’ station.
When using the intercom system, you must be very careful to protect the person’s right to: personal choice. confidentiality. refuse treatment. informed consent.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
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35. A resident had a stroke. The person’s left side is paralyzed. Where should you place the call
light? a. On the person’s left side b. On the person’s right side c. Wherever you can attach it d. Attached to the person’s pillow ANS: B
PTS: 1
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36. A resident has his call lighT t oEnS. T WBhA enNsKhS ouEldLyLoEuRre.sC poOnM d? a. As soon as you know that the call light is on. b. When the nurse tells you to. c. When you are near the room. d. After you finish other care. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 222
37. Which is a safety feature of resident bathrooms? a. Towel racks b. Grab bars c. Lowered toilet seats d. Toothbrush holder ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 222
38. Which statement about resident closets is correct? a. The center must provide each person with shared closet space. b. The person must have access to the closet and its contents at least once per day. c. Two residents can share the same closet space. d. Closet space includes shelves and a clothes rack. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 222
39. Which statement about resident closet and drawer space is correct? a. You can search the person’s closet and drawers whenever you want to.
b. Items in the closet and drawers are the person’s property. c. The person’s consent is only needed to search closets and drawers when no one is
in the room. d. The person does not need to be present when closets and drawers are inspected. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 223
40. A resident wants her chair near the window. The window is on the side of the room occupied
by her roommate. Which statement is correct? Her choice is allowed if it is safe. Her choice is allowed if it will not cause falls. Her choice is allowed if it will not cause accidents. Her choice interferes with the personal space of her roommate.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
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41. Part of your job is to maintain resident units. Which of the following means that you are doing
your job? a. You keep the call light, over-bed table, and bedside stand within your reach. b. You make sure that you can reach the phone and light controls for the person while
you are giving care. c. You make sure that each person has enough tissues and toilet paper. d. You adjust the room temperature for your comfort. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 223
42. You are straightening a person’s unit. What should you do? a. Rearrange the room. b. Discard papers, flowers, food, and other clutter. c. Empty the wastebasket daily. d. Adjust lighting for the person’s comfort. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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TRUE/FALSE 1. Entrapment within the hospital bed system is a risk. Serious injury and death have occurred
from head, neck, and chest entrapment. ANS: T
PTS: 1
REF: 223
Chapter 17: Bedmaking Kostelnick: Mosby’s Textbook for Long-Term Care Nursing Assistants, 8th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A clean, neat, wrinkle-free bed does which of the following? a. Increases the person’s comfort. b. Increases the chance for skin breakdown. c. Can cause pressure ulcers to develop. d. Prevent incontinence. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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2. Which will keep beds neat and clean? a. Refuse to allow residents to eat in bed. b. Straighten loose or wrinkled linens at bedtime. c. Check for and remove food and crumbs at the end of the day. d. Change linens once per week. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 226
3. In nursing centers, a complete linen change is usually done: a. in the morning. b. before visitors arrive. c. when the person is up for the day. d. on the person’s bath day. ANS: D 4.
PTS: 1
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Linens are always changed: a. when loose or wrinkled. b. if there are crumbs. c. at bedtime. d. when wet, soiled, or damp. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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5. To keep beds neat and clean, you must follow: a. the material safety data sheet. b. Standard Precautions and the Bloodborne Pathogen Standard. c. Standard Precautions and Transmission-Based Precautions. d. OBRA and OSHA standards. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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6. A resident is up all day. What kind of bed should you make? a. Closed bed b. Open bed c. Occupied bed d. Surgical bed ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 226
7. A resident is not feeling well. The person will spend most of the day in bed. What kind of bed
should you make after the person’s bath? Closed bed Open bed Occupied bed Surgical bed
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
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8. A resident needed hospital care. The person will return to the nursing center by ambulance.
What kind of bed should you make? Closed bed Open bed Occupied bed Surgical bed
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
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9. When handling clean linens, you must practice: a. medical asepsis. b. Medicare guidelines. c. The Bloodborne Pathogen Standard. d. OBRA. ANS: A 10.
PTS: 1
REF: 226
Linens are held: with forceps. close to your body and uniform. away from your body and uniform. with gloves on.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 227
11. Clean linens are placed: a. on the floor. b. on top of dirty linens. c. under dirty linens. d. on a clean surface. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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12. Which action spreads microorganisms? a. Shaking linens b. Placing dirty linen in a laundry bag c. Rolling dirty linens away from you d. Practicing hand hygiene before handling clean linen ANS: A
PTS: 1
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13. You brought extra linen into a resident’s room. The extra linen is: a. stored in the person’s closet.
b. placed in the bedside stand. c. used for the person’s roommate. d. considered contaminated. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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14. Which goes on the bed first? a. Bedspread b. Blanket c. Bottom sheet d. Drawsheet ANS: C
PTS: 1
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15. Which is always part of a linen change? a. Bottom sheet b. Mattress pad c. Blanket d. Bedspread ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 226
16. When removing dirty linens, you must wear: a. gloves. b. a gown. c. a face mask. d. goggles. ANS: A
L:LE RE EF 22R8.COM PTS: T1ESTBANKS
17. You are removing dirty linens from a person’s bed. Which is correct? a. Remove all dirty linens at once. b. Roll each piece away from you. c. Keep the side that touched the person outside the roll. d. Place dirty linen on the floor. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 227
18. Which piece of linen is waterproof? a. Mattress pad b. Bottom sheet c. Plastic drawsheet d. Pillowcase ANS: C
PTS: 1
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19. A waterproof drawsheet is used. It must: a. completely cover the bottom sheet. b. completely cover the cotton drawsheet. c. be completely covered by the cotton drawsheet. d. be completely covered by the bottom sheet. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 228
20. Waterproof drawsheets can cause: a. incontinence. b. discomfort and skin breakdown. c. a health care–associated infection. d. friction and shearing. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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21. Which can be used as a lifting or turning sheet? a. Mattress pad b. Bottom sheet c. Plastic drawsheet d. Cotton drawsheet ANS: D
PTS: 1
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22. Which is a safety measure for making beds? a. Lower the bed for body mechanics. b. Only wear gloves when removing linen from the person’s bed when it is wet. c. After making a bed, lower the bed to its lowest position. d. After making an occupied bed, always raise the bed rails. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 231
23. You are going to make a bed. For good body mechanics, the bed is: a. in Fowler’s position. b. raised. c. locked into position. d. moved so you can reach it with ease. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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24. You brought two pillowcases into a resident’s room. The person uses one pillow. What should
you do with the other pillowcase? Return it to the linen supply. Leave it in the person’s room for another time. Take it to another resident’s room. Put it with the dirty laundry.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
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25. Which linens must be tight and wrinkle-free? a. Bottom linens b. The blanket c. The bedspread d. The pillowcase ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 229
26. A plastic drawsheet must never touch the: a. bottom sheet. b. cotton drawsheet.
c. top linens. d. person’s body. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 229
27. Linens are straightened and tightened: a. daily. b. after the bath or shower. c. at bedtime. d. whenever needed. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 229
28. Wet, damp, or soiled linens are changed: a. right away. b. after meals. c. after the shower or bath. d. each shift. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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29. You are going to make a resident’s bed. The nurse and care plan will give you which of the
following information? If the person uses bed rails. How to use good body mechanics? What size linens you need? How often to change the linens?
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
L:LE RE EF 22R8.COM PTS: T1ESTBANKS
30. A resident has a closed bed. How can you make an open bed for the person? a. Remove the linens. b. Make a cuff with the top sheet, blanket, and bedspread. c. Fold top linens to the foot of the bed. d. Fold top linens to the side of the bed. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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31. The bottom sheet is placed on the bed correctly if: a. the hem-stitching is down. b. the hem-stitching is up. c. the top edge is even with the top of the mattress. d. it completely covers the plastic drawsheet. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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32. The top sheet is placed on the bed correctly if: a. The hem-stitching is down. b. The hem-stitching faces outward. c. The top edge is even with the bottom of the mattress. d. It completely covers the plastic drawsheet. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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33. You have finished making an occupied bed. Which will promote the resident’s safety? a. Place the call light within the person’s reach. b. Raise the bed. c. Ask the nurse to check your work. d. Fold back top linens. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 235
34. A resident does not use bed rails. You need to make an occupied bed. Which is correct? a. Raise the bed rails. b. Keep the bed in the low position. c. Ask a coworker to help you. d. Make an open bed instead. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 233
35. A resident brought a pillow from home. Which statement is correct? a. The person needs to bring a pillowcase too. b. The person must use a pillow provided by the nursing center. c. The person has the right to use the pillow. d. The pillow must have a safety check by the maintenance department. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 236
36. You are making a surgical bed for a resident returning to the center from the hospital. Which
is correct? a. A complete linen change is needed. SELLER.COM TESTBANK b. Leave the bed in the lowest position. c. Leave both bed rails up. d. Attach the call light to the bed. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 235
Chapter 18: Hygiene Kostelnick: Mosby’s Textbook for Long-Term Care Nursing Assistants, 8th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Morning care is: a. AM care. b. given before breakfast. c. given after breakfast. d. given before lunch. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 238
2. PM care is given: a. at bedtime. b. after the evening meal. c. at hour seven. d. in a hot shower. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 238
3. Cleansing the genital and anal areas is: a. incontinent care. b. perineal care. c. personal hygiene. d. genital and anal care. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 238
4. Hygiene measures promote which of the following? a. Aging b. Skin breakdown c. Bone strength d. Health ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 238
5. Which will influence hygiene choices? a. The person’s care plan b. The person’s culture c. The person’s family d. The skin care products available ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 238
6. A resident can have a shower: a. as often as the person chooses. b. once a week. c. twice a week. d. daily. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 238
7. To meet a resident’s hygiene needs, you need to: a. follow the person’s care plan. b. review the person’s medical record. c. ask the person what to do. d. check the person’s ID bracelet. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 238
8. You assist a resident with hygiene needs: a. during morning care. b. during evening care. c. during afternoon care. d. whenever necessary. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 238
9. AM care usually involves which of the following? a. Giving the resident a shower b. Assisting with oral hygiene and face and handwashing c. Assisting with grooming d. Giving back massages ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 239
10. AM care usually involves which of the following a. Assisting with dressing and hair care b. Positioning residents for breakfast TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. Assisting with exercise d. Allowing the person to remain in their sleepwear. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 239
11. Afternoon care generally involves which of the following? a. Giving the medications b. Putting the person in their sleepwear for an afternoon nap c. Giving back massages d. Straightening beds and resident units ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 239
12. Evening care generally involves which of the following? a. Giving the resident a bath b. Getting dressed for the day c. Giving back massages d. Assisting with activity ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 240
13. Oral hygiene does which of the following? a. Increases sleep. b. Makes food taste worse. c. Prevents cavities and periodontal disease.
d. Promotes the buildup of plaque and tartar. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 240
14. Inflammation of the tissues around the teeth is: a. periodontal disease. b. plaque. c. oral hygiene. d. tartar. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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15. A resident is receiving oxygen therapy. You know that the person needs frequent oral hygiene
because of: dry mouth. a bad taste in the mouth. plaque. tartar.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
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16. Flossing is usually done: a. before breakfast. b. after each meal. c. after brushing teeth. d. before bathing. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 240
17. A resident wants to brush his teeth before lunch. What should you do? a. Help him as needed. b. Tell him that oral hygiene is done after meals. c. Ask the nurse if he can have oral hygiene at this time. d. Check his care plan. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 240
18. Which of the following is recommended to use for best oral hygiene? a. A dry toothbrush b. Water rather than toothpaste c. Hard-bristled toothbrush d. Mouthwash ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 240
19. A resident has a lower denture. The person needs which of the following to clean the denture? a. Sponge swabs b. Floss c. Mouthwash d. A denture brush ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 240
20. You are giving mouth care to an unconscious person. What should you do before using a
sponge swab? Check the care plan. Make sure that the sponge pad is tight on the stick. Make sure that it has soft bristles. Read the manufacturer’s instructions.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
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21. When giving oral hygiene, you need to wear: a. gloves. b. a gown. c. a mask. d. a face shield. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 240
22. A resident needs oral hygiene. The nurse and care plan tell you which of the following? a. What flavor toothpaste to use b. When to brush the teeth c. How much help the person needs d. How to give oral hygiene ANS: C
PTS: 1
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23. You need to check a resident’s dentures for: a. rough, sharp, or chipped areas. b. bleeding. c. dryness, cracks, and swelling. d. irritation or white patches. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 240
24. You finish brushing a resident’s teeth. What should you do next? a. Let the person rinse his mouth with water. b. Floss his teeth. c. Let him use mouthwash. d. Brush his tongue. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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25. Flossing removes which of the following? a. Cavities b. Stains on the tooth c. Food from between the teeth d. Food from between dentures ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 240
26. A resident flosses once a day. When is the best time to floss? a. In the morning b. After meals c. Whenever the person feels like it
d. At bedtime ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 240
27. To floss teeth, the floss is moved: a. left to right. b. right to left. c. up and down. d. side to side. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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28. A resident is unconscious. To give the person mouth care, you need to use: a. a toothbrush. b. mouthwash. c. sponge swabs. d. a denture brush. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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29. You need to give a resident oral hygiene. Because the person is unconscious, she is at risk for: a. periodontal disease. b. plaque. c. tartar. d. aspiration. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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30. A resident is unconscious. T HEoS wTshBoAuN ldKySoE uL poLsE itiR on.C thO eM person for oral hygiene? a. In Fowler’s position b. In the supine position c. In a side-lying position d. In the prone position ANS: C
PTS: 1
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31. A resident is unconscious. To keep the person’s mouth open during oral hygiene, you need to
use: sponge swabs. a padded tongue blade. your fingers. an orange stick.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
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32. A resident is unconscious. You need to assume that the person can: a. hear you. b. see you. c. respond to you. d. smell. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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33. A resident is unconscious. The person needs mouth care: a. at least every 2 hours. b. during AM and PM care. c. before and after meals. d. daily. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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34. You are cleaning a resident’s lower denture. Which is correct? a. Line a basin of water with a towel. b. Clean it over the kidney basin. c. Use very hot water. d. Use toothpaste and a toothbrush. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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35. A resident does not wear her lower denture for sleep. What should you do with the lower
denture? Store it in the denture cup filled with hot water. Store it in the denture cup filled with cool water. Put it in the top drawer of her bedside stand. Wrap it in a napkin and set it on the over-bed table within her reach.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
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36. A resident’s denture cup must be labeled with the person’s name and: a. room and bed number. b. doctor’s name. c. diagnosis. d. the center’s name and address. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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37. You need to remove a resident’s lower denture. You should use a(n): a. gauze square. b. washcloth. c. orange stick. d. padded tongue blade. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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38. A resident uses a cleaning agent for his denture. When using the cleaning agent, you should: a. use hot water. b. use cool water. c. follow the manufacturer’s instructions. d. ask the person what to do. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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39. Which statement about dentures is correct? a. They are slippery when wet. b. They do not easily break or chip if dropped onto a hard surface. c. They warp in cool water.
d. They are the nursing center’s property. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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40. Bathing does which of the following? a. Decreases circulation. b. Causes skin breakdown. c. Tenses the person. d. Refreshes the person. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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41. Bathing method, time, and frequency are: a. decided by the nurse. b. matters of personal choice. c. ordered by the doctor. d. decided by the health team. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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42. Which skin care product tends to dry the skin? a. Soap b. Bath oil c. Lotion d. Cream ANS: A
PTS: 1
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43. Older persons usually needTaEcSoT mB plAetNeKbS atE h:LLER.COM a. daily. b. twice a week. c. three times a week. d. every other day. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 246
44. Which skin care products help keep the skin soft? a. Soaps b. Bath oils c. Powders d. Deodorants and antiperspirants ANS: B
PTS: 1
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45. A resident is unconscious. You are going to give the person a complete bed bath. Before you
start the bath, you do which of the following? a. Open the room door. b. Remove the resident’s clothes. c. Open the person’s window. d. Pull down the shades. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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46. Bath water temperature is measured to: a. see how much water is in the tub or basin. b. protect the person from burns. c. record it in the person’s medical record. d. prevent skin breakdown. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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47. You need to bathe a person with dementia. Which is correct? a. Decrease the room temperature before starting the bath. b. Avoid telling the person what you are going to do. c. Avoid letting the person help. d. Handle the person gently. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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48. Bar soap is used for a resident’s bath. Between latherings, soap is: a. placed in a soap dish. b. left in the basin. c. placed on a paper towel. d. kept in your hand. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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49. Which skin care product removes dirt, dead skin, skin oil, and some microbes? a. Soap b. Bath oil c. Lotion d. Powder ANS: A
PTS: 1
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50. Why is plain water often used to bathe older persons? a. They do not get dirty. b. They have dry skin. c. It is their personal choice. d. It is a doctor’s order. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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51. A resident likes to use bath oil. For the person’s safety, you need to practice measures to: a. prevent falls. b. prevent burns. c. promote comfort. d. prevent infection. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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52. After a resident’s bath, the nurse wants you to apply lotion to the person’s elbows, knees, and
heels. Lotion does which of the following? a. Prevents burns. b. Promotes comfort. c. Prevents skin breakdown.
d. Prevents infection. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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53. After a resident’s bath, the nurse wants you to apply powder under the person’s breasts. The
powder may be used to: protect the skin from drying. absorb moisture and prevent friction. keep the skin soft and prevent drying. mask and control body odors.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
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54. Powder is applied: a. in a thin, even layer. b. in a thick layer. c. under the arms. d. by sprinkling it on. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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55. Water temperature for a complete bed bath is usually: a. 110 to 115 F. b. 110 to 120 F. c. 105 F. d. 105 to 109 F. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 247
TESTBANKSELLER.COM
56. You are going to assist a resident with his bath. Before doing so, you need all of the following
information except: a. the type of bath to give. b. what skin care products to use. c. his activity and position limits. d. how to apply lotion and powder. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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57. You are bathing a resident. You note a reddened area on the person’s left shoulder. What
should you do? Massage the area during the back massage. Report the observation to the nurse. Apply powder to the site. Rub the area.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
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58. You note the following while bathing a resident. You need to report which of the following? a. A rash on the person’s lower back b. Various skin tags c. A mole on the person’s back d. Areas of intact skin
ANS: A
PTS: 1
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59. When giving a complete bed bath, you start with the person’s: a. face. b. arms. c. chest. d. perineum. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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60. When giving a complete bed bath, you need to use: a. a mitted washcloth. b. towelettes. c. swabs. d. a sponge. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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61. You will use soap for a resident’s bath. Soap is not used to wash: a. around the eyes. b. the underarms. c. the chest, abdomen, and back. d. the perineal area. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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62. When drying a person, which is correct? a. Pat dry. b. Rub vigorously. c. Use long, firm strokes. d. Use circular motions. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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63. You are bathing a resident. You are ready to wash the person’s arms, chest, and abdomen.
Which do you wash first? The far arm The near arm The chest The abdomen
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
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64. You are bathing a resident. Bath water is changed: a. whenever cool or soapy. b. after washing the person’s face. c. before and after perineal care. d. before washing the person’s chest. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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65. You are bathing a resident. Gloves are always worn to wash the person’s: a. face.
b. arms, chest, and abdomen. c. legs and back. d. perineal area. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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66. Which bath can be given without the need to rinse the skin? a. Complete bed bath b. Partial bed bath c. Towel bath d. Shower ANS: C
PTS: 1
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67. Which bath does not require the use of additional water to rinse the skin? a. Complete bed bath b. Partial bed bath c. Bag bath d. Shower ANS: C
PTS: 1
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68. The partial bath involves washing the face, hands, underarms, a. feet, and perineal area. b. back, buttocks, and perineal area. c. feet, buttocks, and perineal area. d. and feet. ANS: B
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69. A resident wants a partial bath today. What should you do? a. Explain that the person needs a shower. b. Assist as needed. c. Let the person provide self-care. d. Check with the nurse. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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70. Water temperature for a partial bath is usually: a. 110 to 115 F. b. 110 to 120 F. c. 105 F. d. 105 to 109 F. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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71. A resident wants a partial bath. How should you position the person? a. In the supine position b. In Fowler’s position or sitting c. In a side-lying position d. In Sims’ position or prone ANS: B
PTS: 1
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72. A resident is set up to give herself a partial bath. Before leaving the room, you must make
sure that: her wheelchair wheels are locked. her call light is within reach. she can reach all body parts. she is wearing her eyeglasses and hearing aid.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
73. A tub bath lasts no longer than a. 10 b. 15 c. 20 d. 30 ANS: C
PTS: 1
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minutes.
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74. When using a portable tub, whirlpool equipment, or shower chair, which is correct? a. Follow the manufacturer’s instructions. b. Lock the wheels. c. Use a transfer belt. d. Wear gloves. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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75. Residents who take tub baths and showers are at risk for: a. infection. b. burns and falls. c. fainting. d. chills and skin breakdown. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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76. A shower room has two stations. To protect the person’s privacy, which is correct? a. Close doors and the privacy curtain. b. Cover the person with a bath blanket. c. Wait until the person can shower next to his or her roommate. d. Wait until both stalls are free. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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77. Water temperature for a tub bath is usually a. 110 to 115 F b. 110 to 120 F c. 105 F d. 109 F ANS: C
PTS: 1
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78. A resident is done taking a tub bath. When should you assist the person out of the tub? a. Before draining the tub
b. While the tub drains c. After the tub drains d. Whenever the person is ready to get out ANS: C
PTS: 1
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79. To prevent the spread of infection when the person takes a shower, you should: a. have the person wear nonskid footwear. b. clean and disinfect the shower before and after use. c. wear gloves. d. wear a gown, mask, and gloves. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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80. A resident is going to have a shower. Which will not protect the person from falling? a. Have the person use grab bars for support. b. Have the person use the towel bars for support. c. Place a bath mat on the shower floor. d. Make sure that the shower room floor is dry. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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81. You are adjusting the water for a resident’s shower. Which is correct? a. Cold water is turned on first. b. Hot water is turned on first. c. Water pressure is turned on first. d. Water pressure is turned on last. ANS: A
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82. When adjusting water temperature, water is directed: a. toward the person. b. away from the person. c. toward you. d. away from you. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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83. Which statement about showers and tub baths is correct? a. The person is uncovered for easy access. b. Bath oils should be used liberally. c. You must stay within hearing distance if the person can be left alone. d. You can leave weak or unsteady persons alone as long as you stay within hearing
distance. ANS: C
PTS: 1
84. A back massage should last a. 3 to 5 b. 5 to 10 c. 10 to 15 d. no longer than 20
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minutes.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
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85. Which is used to give a back massage? a. Bath oil b. Lotion c. Powder d. Lubricant ANS: B
PTS: 1
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86. When giving a back massage, you do which of the following? a. Use light stokes. b. Keep your hands in contact with the person’s skin. c. Rub reddened areas. d. Tickle the person’s skin. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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87. An 85-year-old resident has arthritis. You are going to give the person a back massage. Which
position will probably be most comfortable for the person? The supine position Fowler’s position A side-lying position Sims’ position
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
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88. A resident has heart disease. Before giving the person a back massage, you need to: a. check the person’s pulse. b. check the person’s care plan. c. warm some lotion. d. ask what position the person prefers. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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89. When giving a back massage, you start at the: a. lower back. b. mid-back. c. shoulders. d. upper arms. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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90. When applying lotion to bony areas, you use: a. circular motions. b. rubbing motions. c. long, firm strokes. d. short, firm strokes. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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91. Perineal care does which of the following? a. Increases risk of infection.
b. Prevent odors. c. Decreases comfort. d. Can cause burns. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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92. When giving perineal care, you start at the: a. urethra. b. anus. c. penis. d. labia. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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93. Water temperature for perineal care is usually: a. 110 to 115 F. b. 110 to 120 F. c. 105 F. d. 105 to 109 F. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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94. Perineal care is given: a. whenever the area is soiled with urine or feces. b. only during the bath. c. if the person can perform self-care. d. according to the care plan. ANS: A
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PTS: 1
95. When giving perineal care: a. upward strokes are used (rectal area to urethra). b. a clean part of the washcloth is used for each stroke. c. the rectal area is washed first. d. bath oil is used. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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96. A male resident is not circumcised. When giving perineal care, which is correct? a. Retract the foreskin. b. Start at the rectum. c. Separate the labia. d. Use firm, upward strokes. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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97. To clean the tip of the penis, you use: a. circular motions. b. firm, upward strokes. c. firm, downward strokes. d. short strokes. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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98. You are giving male perineal care. Which do you clean first? a. The foreskin b. The tip of the penis c. The scrotum d. The rectum ANS: B
PTS: 1
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99. A male resident is uncircumcised. After cleaning his penis, you must: a. release the labia. b. return the foreskin to its natural position. c. lower his legs. d. clean the rectal area. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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TRUE/FALSE 1. Bathing procedures can threaten persons with dementia. ANS: T
PTS: 1
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2. You were assigned to give a resident a shower. You gave the person a shower. You did not
record the shower. It is assumed that you gave the shower. ANS: F
PTS: 1
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Chapter 19: Grooming Kostelnick: Mosby’s Textbook for Long-Term Care Nursing Assistants, 8th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Excessive body hair is: a. alopecia. b. dandruff. c. pediculosis. d. hirsutism. ANS: D 2.
PTS: 1
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PTS: 1
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Hair loss is: a. alopecia. b. dandruff. c. pediculosis. d. hirsutism. ANS: A
3. Pediculosis capitis is an infestation of lice on the: a. scalp. b. body. c. pubic hair. d. buttocks. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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4. Which is not a sign or symptom of lice? a. Itching b. Complaints of something moving in the hair c. Oily hair d. Irritability ANS: C
PTS: 1
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5. An excessive amount of dry, white flakes from the scalp is: a. alopecia. b. dandruff. c. pediculosis. d. hirsutism. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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6. Grooming measures do which of the following? a. Prevent infection. b. Decrease comfort. c. Decrease self-esteem needs. d. Promote safety. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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7. Who chooses how a person’s hair is styled? a. The nurse b. The health team c. The family d. The person ANS: D
PTS: 1
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8. Brushing and combing hair are done: a. during early morning care. b. during morning care. c. during afternoon care. d. whenever needed. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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9. Brushing keeps hair soft and shiny because: a. circulation to the scalp increases. b. scalp oils are spread along the hair shaft. c. mats and tangles are prevented. d. lice are removed. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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10. When brushing hair that is not matted or tangled, you start at the: a. scalp. b. forehead. c. back of the head. d. hair ends. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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11. Which type of hair tends to mat and tangle? a. Long b. Curly c. Short d. Coarse ANS: A
PTS: 1
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12. Which prevents matting and tangling? a. Brushing and combing daily b. Shampooing daily c. Using hair conditioner d. Cutting hair ANS: A
PTS: 1
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13. A resident’s hair is matted and tangled. Which is correct? a. Braid the person’s hair. b. Cut the person’s hair. c. Brush or comb the person’s hair starting near the hair ends.
d. Shampoo the person’s hair. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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14. A resident has curly hair. What should you use for hair care? a. A hand-held nozzle b. A brush with sharp bristles c. A comb with sharp teeth d. A wide-toothed comb ANS: D
PTS: 1
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15. A resident has small braids. Which is correct? a. The family’s consent is needed to undo the braids. b. The braids are removed for shampooing. c. Small braids are a common practice in some cultural groups. d. The nursing assistant decides how the resident’s hair is styled. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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16. When combing curly hair, you start at the: a. neckline. b. hair ends. c. scalp. d. forehead. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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AoNuKjS 17. A resident needs her hair bT ruEsS heTdB .Y usEt L chLaE ngRe. dC heOrMpillowcase. What should you do? a. Ask her to wait until she is in the bathroom. b. Place a towel across her pillow. c. Change the pillowcase again. d. Comb her hair instead of brushing it. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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18. You assist a person with hair care. You need to report which of the following? a. Coarse or curly hair b. Scalp sores c. Length of hair d. Oily hair ANS: B
PTS: 1
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19. To give hair care, you begin by parting the hair into a. two b. three c. four d. five ANS: A
PTS: 1
sections.
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20. A male resident is 86 years old. How often is his hair washed?
a. b. c. d.
Once a week Daily Three times a week As often as he chooses
ANS: D
PTS: 1
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21. A resident gets her hair done in the beauty salon. During her shower, her hair is protected with
a: a. b. c. d.
towel. bath blanket. shower cap. hand-held nozzle.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
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22. A resident has limited range of motion in his neck. What shampooing method is best for him? a. Shampooing during his shower b. Shampooing at the sink c. Shampooing on a stretcher d. Shampooing at the over-bed table ANS: A
PTS: 1
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23. When shampooing a person in bed, you need a: a. shampoo tray and basin. b. hand-held nozzle. c. stretcher. d. hair dryer. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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24. The shampoo method used depends on which of the following? a. Your experience level b. How long the person’s hair is c. How much time you have d. Personal choice ANS: D
PTS: 1
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25. A person uses a medicated shampoo. What should you do with the shampoo after washing the
person’s hair? Place it in the bedside stand. Place it on the over-bed table. Leave it in the bathroom. Give it to the nurse.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
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26. To prevent shampoo from getting into the eyes, which is correct? a. The person is shampooed at the sink or on a stretcher. b. A hand-held nozzle is used. c. The hair is rinsed thoroughly.
d. The person holds a washcloth over the eyes. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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27. The nurse asks you to use a hair conditioner on a person’s hair. To use the hair conditioner
correctly, you must: follow the nurse’s directions. follow the directions on the container. ask the person what to do. rinse thoroughly.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
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28. A resident has scalp sores. When shampooing the person’s hair, you need to: a. use a hand-held nozzle. b. wear gloves. c. shampoo the person at the sink. d. use a medicated shampoo and conditioner. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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29. A resident has dementia. To shave the person’s face, you need to use a(n): a. razor blade. b. safety razor. c. electric shaver. d. blade shaver. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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30. When shaving legs with a safety razor, you start at the: a. knee. b. thigh. c. ankle. d. calf. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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31. When shaving the face and underarms with a safety razor, which is correct? a. Shave in the direction of hair growth. b. Shave in the direction opposite hair growth. c. Shave from left to right. d. Shave from right to left. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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32. A center’s electric shaver is used to shave several men. The shaver is cleaned: a. daily. b. every shift. c. between each use. d. after all the men are shaved. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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33. A resident receives anticoagulant drugs. To shave the person’s face, you need to use a(n): a. razor blade. b. safety razor. c. electric shaver. d. blade shaver. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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34. Shaving is done: a. when the skin is soft. b. after the skin dries completely. c. at bedtime. d. before the bath. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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35. Disposable shavers are discarded: a. into the wastebasket. b. into a sharps container. c. with dirty linen. d. after three uses. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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36. Which are risks when using a blade razor? a. Nicks and cuts b. Irritated skin and rashes c. Sores d. Pediculosis corporis ANS: A
PTS: 1
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37. When shaving a person, you must follow: a. Standard Precautions and the Bloodborne Pathogen Standard. b. surgical asepsis. c. OBRA regulations. d. accrediting agency standards. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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38. Before shaving a man’s face with a safety razor, you need to do which of the following? a. Put on gloves. b. Apply a cool washcloth to his face. c. Apply lotion. d. Dry the face thoroughly. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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39. You are shaving a resident’s face with a safety razor. What kind of strokes do you use around
his chin and lips? a. Short strokes b. Long strokes c. Left to right strokes
d. Right to left strokes ANS: A
PTS: 1
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40. You nick a resident’s face. What should you do? a. Apply direct pressure to the bleeding site. b. Call for the nurse. c. Apply a Band-Aid. d. Wait for the bleeding to stop. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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41. Beards and mustaches need: a. daily washing and combing. b. care after meals. c. care at bedtime. d. weekly shampooing. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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42. A resident has a beard. His beard is trimmed: a. daily. b. weekly. c. when the nurse thinks it is too long. d. only with his consent. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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43. Foot care is important becaTuE seS: TBANKSELLER.COM a. of poor circulation to the feet and legs. b. of diabetes and vascular disease. c. it helps prevent infection, injury, and odors. d. gangrene and amputation can occur. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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44. Long or broken nails are dangerous because they: a. can scratch the skin. b. cause infection. c. cause blisters. d. lead to gangrene. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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45. Nail care helps prevent which of the following? a. Rough spots of skin b. Certain fungus c. Nails torn away from the skin d. Blisters ANS: C
PTS: 1
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46. Dirty feet, socks, or stockings can harbor microbes and cause:
a. b. c. d.
foot odors. blisters. foot injuries. gangrene.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
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47. When giving nail care, you use which of the following? a. Scissors b. Nail clippers c. Vaseline d. Shave lotion ANS: B
PTS: 1
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48. Fingernails are: a. cut with a scissors. b. clipped in a rounded shape. c. clipped straight across. d. always clipped by an RN. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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49. Nursing assistants are able to do which component of nail care? a. Clip fingernails. b. Shave the dead skin off of the bottoms of feet. c. Cut toenails if a person has diabetes. d. Remove corns from theTtE oes ST. BANKSELLER.COM ANS: A
PTS: 1
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50. When giving nail and foot care, the feet usually soak for a. 5 to 10 b. 10 to 15 c. 15 to 20 d. 20 to 25 ANS: C
PTS: 1
minutes.
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51. When giving nail and foot care, the nurse and care plan tell you which of the following? a. What color of polish to use? b. What type of basin to use to soak the feet in? c. What observations to report and record? d. How to assist the podiatrist? ANS: C
PTS: 1
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52. What do you use to clean under fingernails? a. Scissors b. Nail clippers c. An emery board d. An orange stick
ANS: D
PTS: 1
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53. Nails are shaped with: a. scissors. b. nail clippers. c. an emery board. d. an orange stick. ANS: C 54.
PTS: 1
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When giving foot care, which is correct? a. Support the person’s foot and ankle. b. Soak the feet for 30 minutes. c. Use a scissors. d. Position the person in the supine position. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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55. When giving foot care, which is correct? a. Thoroughly wash and dry between the toes. b. Clip toenails straight across. c. Shape nails. d. Apply powder between the toes. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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56. You are assisting a resident to dress. Which is correct? a. The person chooses what to wear. b. You decide what the person should wear. c. The nurse tells you what the person should wear. d. The family decides what the person should wear. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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57. You are assisting a resident to dress. Which is correct? a. Provide for privacy. b. Choose what the person should wear. c. Encourage the person to let you help them as much as possible. d. Have the person lie down when getting dressed. ANS: A 58.
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Which is correct when removing clothing? a. It is removed from the strong side first. b. It is removed from the weak side first. c. Pullover garments are removed first. d. Garments that open in the front are removed first. ANS: A
PTS: 1
59. Clothing is put on: a. the strong side first. b. the weak side first.
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c. in the order that the person prefers. d. in the order directed by the nurse. ANS: B
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60. A resident with dementia is having problems dressing. Which measure will help? a. Assist the person with dressing at different times of the day to increase flexibility. b. Select clothes which have zippers and buttons so that they stay on. c. Stack clothes in the order that they will be put on. d. Complete the process as quickly as possible. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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61. A person has an IV. When changing the person’s gown, you first: a. remove the gown from the arm with no IV. b. remove the gown from the arm with the IV. c. remove the IV. d. ask the person what he or she wants to wear. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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62. When changing the gown of a person with an IV, you keep the IV bag: a. hanging on the IV pole. b. below the person. c. above the person. d. on the bed. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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63. A person has an IV. When putting on the clean gown, you first put it: a. on the arm with the IV. b. on the arm without the IV. c. over the person’s head. d. so that the ties are in the front. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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64. A resident has an IV in his right arm. He wears a standard gown and has an IV pump. Which
is correct? Put his gown on the right arm first and then on the left arm. Put his gown on the left arm first and then on the right arm. His right arm is not put through the sleeve of the gown. The gown is put on so that the ties are in the front.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
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TRUE/FALSE 1. Women in nursing centers do not shave their legs or underarms. ANS: F
PTS: 1
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Chapter 20: Nutrition and Fluids Kostelnick: Mosby’s Textbook for Long-Term Care Nursing Assistants, 8th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Anorexia is the: a. loss of appetite. b. breathing of fluid or an object into the lungs. c. backward flow of food from the stomach to the mouth. d. swelling of body tissues with water. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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2. Aspiration is: a. loss of appetite. b. breathing of fluid, food, vomitus, or an object into the lungs. c. backward flow of food from the stomach to the mouth. d. swelling of body tissues with water. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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3. A calorie is: a. how a serving fits into the daily diet. b. the maximum daily intake values for total fat, saturated fat, cholesterol, sodium,
carbohydrate, and dietary fiber. c. a container used to measure fluid. d. the fuel or energy valuT eE ofSfT ooBdA . NKSELLER.COM ANS: D
PTS: 1
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4. Daily value is: a. how a serving fits into the daily diet. b. the maximum daily intake values for total fat, saturated fat, cholesterol, sodium,
carbohydrate, and dietary fiber. c. the amount of intake and output in 24 hours. d. the amount of energy produced from the burning of food by the body. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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5. Dehydration is: a. difficulty swallowing. b. a decrease in the amount of water in body tissues. c. the swelling of body tissues with water. d. the backward flow of food from the stomach into the mouth. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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6. Dysphagia is: a. difficulty swallowing. b. a decrease in the amount of water in body tissues. c. the swelling of body tissues with water.
d. the backward flow of food from the stomach into the mouth. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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7. Edema is: a. difficulty swallowing. b. a decrease in the amount of water in body tissues. c. the swelling of body tissues with water. d. the backward flow of food from the stomach into the mouth. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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8. A graduate is: a. a tube feeding. b. a measuring container for fluid. c. a tube inserted through the nose and into the stomach. d. giving nutrients through the gastrointestinal system. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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9. A nutrient is: a. the amount of energy produced from the burning of food by the body. b. how a serving fits into the daily diet. c. a substance that is ingested, digested, absorbed, and used by the body. d. the processes involved in the ingestion, digestion, absorption, and use of food and
fluids by the body. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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10. Nutrition is: a. the amount of energy produced from the burning of food by the body. b. how a serving fits into the daily diet. c. a substance that is ingested, digested, absorbed, and used by the body. d. the processes involved in the ingestion, digestion, absorption, and use of foods and
fluids by the body. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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11. The MyPlate guidelines recommend which types of oils should be used in the diet? a. Vegetable oils b. Fish oils c. Oils from nuts d. Canola oil ANS: B
PTS: 1
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12. One gram of protein provides how many calories? a. 1 b. 4 c. 9 d. 15 ANS: B
PTS: 1
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13. One gram of carbohydrate provides how many calories? a. 1 b. 4 c. 9 d. 15 ANS: B
PTS: 1
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14. The MyPlate food guidance system encourages: a. smart and healthy food choices and daily activity. b. the same amount and kinds of food for all persons over 2 years of age. c. 1 hour of vigorous physical activity at least 4 days each week. d. a diet high in fat, sodium, and sugar. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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15. A resident is on a 2000 calorie diet. How much whole grain does the person need each day? a. At least 2 ounces b. At least 1 ounce c. 4 to 5 ounces d. At least 3 to 4 ounces ANS: D
PTS: 1
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16. Which of the following is important when selecting foods from the meat and beans group? a. Choose lean or low-fat meat and poultry. b. Processed meats are low in sodium. TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. Liver and other organ meats are low in cholesterol. d. Eggs are low in cholesterol and fat. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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17. Which nutrient is needed for tissue growth and repair? a. Protein b. Carbohydrate c. Fat d. Vitamins ANS: A
PTS: 1
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18. Which nutrient provides energy and fiber? a. Protein b. Carbohydrate c. Fat d. Vitamins ANS: B
PTS: 1
19. Which nutrient adds flavor to food? a. Protein b. Carbohydrate c. Fat
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d. Vitamins ANS: C
PTS: 1
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20. Which vitamin is needed for vision? a. A b. B1 c. B3 d. D ANS: A
PTS: 1
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21. Which vitamin is needed for nerve function? a. A b. B1 c. B2 d. D ANS: B
PTS: 1
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22. Which vitamin is needed for resistance to infection? a. K b. C c. D d. Folic acid ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 287
23. Which vitamin is needed fT orEhS eaTltBhA yN boKnS esE?LLER.COM a. A b. C c. D d. Folic acid ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 287
24. Which vitamin is needed for blood clotting? a. A b. D c. E d. K ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 287
25. Which mineral is needed for the formation of teeth and bones? a. Sodium b. Iron c. Calcium d. Potassium ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 287
26. Which mineral allows red blood cells to carry oxygen?
a. b. c. d.
Sodium Iron Calcium Potassium
ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 287
27. Which mineral is needed for growth and metabolism? a. Sodium b. Iron c. Iodine d. Potassium ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 287
28. Which mineral is needed for fluid balance? a. Sodium b. Iron c. Iodine d. Potassium ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 287
29. Which mineral is needed for heart function? a. Sodium b. Iron c. Iodine d. Potassium ANS: D
PTS: 1
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30. Food labels contain which of the following information? a. Serving size b. Price per serving c. Recommended servings d. Number of calories to consume ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 287
31. Which statement about eating and nutrition is correct? a. Food practices are the same across all cultures and religions. b. Finances have no effect on what food is in the diet. c. It is hard for hospitals and nursing centers to allow personal choice. d. Changes from aging affect appetite and the foods eaten. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 286
32. With aging, changes occur in the gastrointestinal system. Which is correct? a. Taste dulls b. The sense of smell is enhanced c. Appetite increases d. The secretion of digestive juices increases
ANS: A
PTS: 1
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33. OBRA requires which of the following for foods served in long-term care centers? a. Food be served at the correct temperature. b. Food includes seafood and steak. c. Residents be served two meals and offered a bedtime snack. d. Food be prepared and seasoned in a certain way. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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34. Food must be served: a. promptly. b. after preparing all residents for meals. c. within 1 hour of arriving on the nursing unit. d. after cutting meat and opening cartons. ANS: A 35.
PTS: 1
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A resident gets the house diet. Which is correct? a. The person has no dietary limits or changes. b. The person eats whatever is served. c. The person has no choice in the food served. d. The person takes part in a social dining program. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 290
36. Persons with difficulty swallowing usually require: a. diabetic meal planning. TESTBANKSELLER.COM b. a dysphagia diet. c. a sodium-controlled diet. d. a house diet. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 290
37. Which foods are allowed on a clear-liquid diet? a. Custard, eggnog, and plain ice cream b. Water, tea, and milk c. Grapefruit juices and fat-free beef broth d. Ginger ale and jello ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 290
38. A person is on a full-liquid diet. Foods on this diet are: a. semi-solid. b. easily chewed. c. liquid at room temperature or melt at body temperature. d. low in roughage. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 292
39. A person is on a mechanical soft diet. The person can have which of the following? a. Mild cheeses b. Yogurt with granola
c. Fresh vegetables d. Chips and cookies ANS: A
PTS: 1
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40. A person is on a fiber- and residue-restricted diet. The person can have which of the
following? Raw fruits and vegetables Granola and whole grain toast Fried potatoes Refined bread and crackers
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 290
41. A high-fiber diet is ordered for: a. constipation and GI disorders. b. diarrhea. c. anemia. d. liver and kidney disorders. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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42. A person is on a bland diet. Which is correct? a. Foods are high in roughage. b. Foods are served at cool temperatures. c. Foods contain strong spices for taste. d. Fried foods are not allowed. ANS: D
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43. A person is on a high-calorie diet. Which is correct? a. This is a high-protein diet. b. There are dietary increases in all foods. c. The person eats only snacks. d. Calorie intake is increased to 2500 calories a day. ANS: B 44.
PTS: 1
REF: 290
High-iron diets are ordered: a. when there is blood loss. b. for tissue healing. c. for weight reduction. d. for heart disease. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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45. A person is on a low-cholesterol diet. Which food is allowed? a. Skim milk b. Cheddar cheese c. Creamed soup d. Fried chicken ANS: A
PTS: 1
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46. A person is on a high-protein diet. Which foods are high in protein? a. Meat, fish, and poultry b. Sugar and Flour c. Fruits d. Vegetables ANS: A
PTS: 1
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47. A person on a sodium-controlled diet can: a. have fruits and vegetables. b. add salt at the table. c. have bacon, ham, and sausage. d. have tomato juice and cheese. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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48. Diabetes meal planning involves: a. consistency in what is eaten and when. b. a low-salt diet. c. changes in food thickness. d. a high-iron diet. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 291
49. A person has diabetes. All food served is not eaten. What should you do? a. Provide a between-meal nourishment. b. Tell the nurse. c. Leave the tray; perhaps the person will eat later. d. Give insulin. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 291
50. Diabetes meal planning involves having the person: a. eat only carbohydrates. b. eat only protein. c. avoid fats. d. eat the same amount of carbohydrates, proteins, and fat each day. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 291
51. A resident has dysphagia. The person is at risk for: a. aspiration. b. regurgitation. c. edema. d. dehydration. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 292
52. The doctor ordered a dysphagia diet for a resident. The person’s food is pureed. Which is
correct? a. The person drinks his or her food from a cup. b. The person’s food is thick like mashed potatoes.
c. The person needs to eat with a spoon. d. The person’s food is served in a bowl. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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53. Which is a sign or symptom of dysphagia? a. Frequent swallowing b. Belching c. Difficulty breathing during or after eating d. Constipation ANS: C
PTS: 1
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54. Which is a sign or symptom of dysphagia? a. Dry mouth b. Frequent swallowing c. Increased appetite d. Hoarseness after eating ANS: D
PTS: 1
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55. A resident is on aspiration precautions. The person eats in bed. To provide for safety during
meals, you should position the person in Fowler’s Sims’ a lateral a prone
position.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
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56. A resident is on aspiration precautions. You position the person in semi-Fowler’s position
after eating. How long should the person remain in this position? 15 minutes 30 minutes 45 minutes At least 1 hour
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
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57. A resident is on aspiration precautions. When the person is done eating, you need to check his
mouth for: pocketing. the need for oral hygiene. food stains. gum disease.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
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58. A resident is on aspiration precautions. Where will you find instructions about special feeding
needs? a. The person’s care plan b. The Kardex c. The person’s chart
d. On the person’s meal tray ANS: A
PTS: 1
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59. A resident’s 24-hour fluid intake was 1500 mL. You know that this amount: a. meets normal requirements. b. is below normal requirements. c. is above normal requirements. d. was ordered by the doctor. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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60. To maintain normal fluid balance, an adult needs to ingest a. 1000 to 1500 b. 1500 to 2000 c. 2000 to 2500 d. 2500 to 3000 ANS: C
PTS: 1
mL of fluid a day.
REF: 294
61. Older persons are at risk for dehydration because: a. they have kidney disease. b. the amount of body water decreases with age. c. they produce more urine than younger persons. d. they depend on others for drinking water. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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OhMich action is correct? 62. The doctor ordered “encouT raEgS eT fluBiA dsN”KfoSrEaLreLsE idR en.t.CW a. Limit the person’s intake. b. Place an NPO sign above the person’s bed. c. Offer a variety of fluids. d. Keep fluids outside of the resident’s room. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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63. The doctor ordered “restrict fluids” for a resident. Which action is correct? a. Record the person’s intake. b. Provide hygiene variety of fluids in the person’s room. c. Keep the water pitcher within the person’s reach. d. Offer water in a small glass. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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64. A resident is NPO. This means that the person: a. cannot eat or drink anything. b. has dysphagia. c. needs a feeding tube. d. can have fluids every 6 to 8 hours. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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65. A resident has the following items on her meal tray. Which is counted as fluid intake?
a. b. c. d.
Oatmeal Gravy Soup Applesauce
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 293
66. A resident has the following items on his meal tray. Which is counted as fluid intake? a. Coffee b. Salsa c. Yogurt d. Cheese sauce ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 293
67. Intake and output are totaled: a. every 2 hours. b. every 4 hours. c. at the end of the shift. d. at least once during an 8-hour shift. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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68. A male resident is on I&O. When urinating, he needs to use: a. the toilet. b. a graduate. c. a specimen pan. d. the urinal. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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69. A resident’s coffee cup holds 250 mL. The person did not drink all the coffee. You measure
that 75 mL of coffee remain. How much did the person drink? a. 100 mL b. 200 mL c. 175 mL d. 125 mL ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 293
70. When preparing the person for meals, you need to do which of the following? a. Make sure that the person stays in their room. b. Use a reprimand system for accidents that occur. c. Assist with oral hygiene. d. Restrict the person’s fluids. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 296
71. A resident will sit in the bedside chair for lunch. After preparing the person for lunch, what
should you do? a. Lock the bed wheels. b. Place the call light within the person’s reach. c. Lock the chair wheels.
d. Offer the person the bedpan. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 296
72. You did not serve a resident’s tray promptly. What should you do? a. Check the food temperature. b. Serve the tray as soon as possible. c. Order another tray. d. Reheat the food in a microwave oven. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 296
73. You are feeding a resident. You need to serve: a. foods as directed on the dietary card. b. foods in the order that you would eat them. c. foods in the order that the person prefers. d. hot foods first and cold foods last. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 296
74. You are feeding a resident. You need to serve foods with a: a. fork. b. spoon. c. knife. d. straw. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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75. A resident is visually impaT irE edS. T YB ouAN neKedSE toLdL o EwRh. icC hO ofMthe following? a. Feed the person. b. Place the person’s hand on the food. c. Use the numbers on a clock to identify the location of food. d. Ask the person to raise their hand if they need help. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 299
76. You are going to feed a resident. You need to do which of the following? a. Say your prayer with the person. b. Sit beside the person. c. Watch television while you feed the person. d. Alternate between solid and liquid foods. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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77. A resident has three fluids on his tray. How many straws will you need? a. One b. Two c. Three d. Zero ANS: C
PTS: 1
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78. Which will not prevent the spread of infection when providing drinking water?
a. Make sure that the water pitcher is labeled with the person’s name and room and
bed number. b. Do not touch the rim or inside of the water glass or pitcher. c. Do not let the ice scoop touch the rim or inside of the water glass or pitcher. d. Store the ice scoop in the ice dispenser. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 299
79. When do residents need fresh drinking water? a. Every day b. Every 8 hours c. Every shift and whenever the pitcher is empty d. With each meal and at bedtime ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 300
80. Between-meal nourishments are served: a. 2 hours after main meals. b. when they arrive on the nursing unit. c. when residents request a snack. d. at bedtime. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 301
81. Calorie counts are ordered for a resident. What should you do? a. Record the number of calories ingested. b. Note what the person ate and how much. c. Measure and record theTnEuS mTbB erAoNf K caSloEriLeL s iEnR ge.stCedO.M d. Keep I&O records. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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TRUE/FALSE 1. The MyPlate guidelines describe your plate as being half-filled with fruits and vegetables. ANS: T
PTS: 1
REF: 301
2. Older persons need fewer calories than younger people. ANS: T
PTS: 1
REF: 301
3. The amount of fluid taken in (intake) and the amount of fluid lost (output) must be equal. ANS: T
PTS: 1
REF: 301
Chapter 21: Nutritional Support and IV Therapy Kostelnick: Mosby’s Textbook for Long-Term Care Nursing Assistants, 8th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Enteral nutrition is: a. an opening in the stomach. b. fluid administered through a needle inserted into a vein. c. giving nutrients into the gastrointestinal tract through a feeding tube. d. a tube inserted through the nose into the stomach. ANS: C 2.
PTS: 1
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A gastrostomy tube is a(n): opening in the stomach. opening into the middle part of the small intestine. tube inserted through a surgically created opening in the stomach. tube inserted through the nose and into the stomach.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
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3. Gavage is: a. the process of giving a tube feeding. b. a container used to measure fluid. c. a tube inserted through the nose and into the stomach. d. giving nutrients through the gastrointestinal system. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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4. Intravenous therapy is: a. giving nutrients through the gastrointestinal system. b. a tube feeding. c. giving fluids through a needle or catheter inserted into a vein. d. the many processes involved in the ingestion, digestion, absorption, and use of
food and fluids by the body. ANS: C 5.
PTS: 1
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A jejunostomy tube is a(n): a. opening in the stomach. b. feeding tube inserted into a surgically created opening in the jejunum of the small intestine. c. tube inserted into the stomach through a stab wound. d. tube inserted through the nose and into the stomach. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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6. A nasogastric tube is a(n): a. opening in the stomach. b. opening into the middle part of the small intestine. c. feeding tube inserted through the nose and into the small intestine.
d. feeding tube inserted through the nose and into the stomach. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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7. A feeding tube inserted through the nose into the small bowel is a: a. nasogastric tube. b. PEG tube. c. nasoenteral tube. d. TPN tube. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 305
8. Giving nutrients through a catheter inserted into a vein is: a. IV therapy. b. enteral nutrition. c. duodenal therapy. d. parenteral nutrition. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 305
9. Backflow of stomach contents into the mouth is: a. dysphagia. b. regurgitation. c. gavage. d. emesis. ANS: B 10.
PTS: 1
REF: 305
Regurgitation is the: a. loss of appetite. b. breathing of fluid or an object into the lungs. c. backward flow of stomach contents into the mouth. d. swelling of body tissues with water. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 305
11. A doctor inserts which type of feeding tube with an endoscope? a. PEG tube b. NG tube c. Jejunostomy tube d. Nasoduodenal tube ANS: A 12.
PTS: 1
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Which statement about enteral nutrition is correct? The person is usually on a reduced calorie diet. The doctor orders the type and amount of formula. You can insert the feeding tube. You determine when the feeding schedule should be.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
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13. Persons receiving tube feedings are at risk for aspiration. You need to report which of the
following to the nurse at once? Complaints of a strange taste Coughing Feeling of fullness Pulse rate of 72
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
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14. Who checks tube placement before a tube feeding is given? a. RN b. Doctor c. Dietitian d. Nursing assistant ANS: A
PTS: 1
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15. The risk of regurgitation is greatest with a. nasoenteral b. PEG c. jejunostomy d. gastrostomy ANS: D
PTS: 1
tubes.
REF: 308
16. After a tube feeding, the person is positioned in semi-Fowler’s position for: a. 15 minutes. b. about 30 minutes. c. 45 minutes. d. 1 to 2 hours. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 308
17. Persons with feeding tubes need frequent: a. perineal care. b. catheter care. c. oral hygiene. d. oral fluids. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 308
18. A person has a nasogastric tube. To prevent the tube from irritating the nose, the tube is
secured to the: nose. face. mouth. ear.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 308
19. A person is receiving hyperalimentation through an IV. The alarm sounds on the pump. What
should you do? a. Shut off the alarm.
b. Check the system to find out what is causing the problem. c. Shut off the pump. d. Call for the nurse. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 308
20. A person has an IV. Which statement is correct? a. You can start the IV. b. You can regulate the flow rate. c. You decide what amount to give. d. You are never responsible for IV therapy. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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21. A person is receiving hyperalimentation. Which is correct? a. You can start the IV. b. You can regulate the flow rate. c. You decide what amount to give. d. You are never responsible for hyperalimentation. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 307
22. A resident is receiving TPN. The person has an elevated temperature and complains of chills.
What should you do? a. Give the person a bath. b. Call the nurse at once. c. Stop the TPN. d. Offer the person anotheTrEbS laT nkBeA t.NKSELLER.COM ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 308
23. Which is a peripheral IV site? a. The jugular vein b. The basilic vein c. The subclavian vein d. A vein on the back of the hand ANS: D 24.
PTS: 1
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When assisting with IV therapy, you can do all of the following except: a. follow Standard Precautions and the Bloodborne Pathogen Standard. b. adjust the flow rate as directed by the nurse. c. protect the IV bag, tubing, and needle or catheter when walking the person. d. tell the nurse at once if bleeding occurs from the insertion site. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 310
25. To check the IV flow rate, which is correct? a. Count the number of drops in 30 seconds and multiply by 2. b. Count the number of drops in 1 minute. c. Check how much fluid remains in the IV bag. d. Note if the rate seems too fast or too slow.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
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26. You note bleeding from an IV insertion site. Which action is correct? a. Tell the nurse at once. b. Apply a dressing over the needle or catheter. c. Clamp the IV tubing. d. Discontinue the IV. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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27. The alarm is sounding on an IV infusion pump. Which action is correct? a. Tell the nurse at once. b. Turn off the pump. c. Change the controls on the pump. d. Unplug the pump. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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28. The nurse asks you to discontinue a peripheral IV. This task is not in your job description.
What should you do? Politely refuse. Report the nurse to the director of nursing. Change the dressing only if a nurse can supervise you. Ask another nursing assistant to help you.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
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TRUE/FALSE 1. Tube feeding formula is given cold to prevent microbes from growing in the formula. ANS: F
PTS: 1
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2. A feeding pump is used for a continuous tube feeding. ANS: T
PTS: 1
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3. You are never responsible for inserting feeding tubes or checking their placement. ANS: T
PTS: 1
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4. The nurse asks you to check an IV flow rate. You need to tell the nurse at once if no fluid is
dripping or if the rate is too fast or too slow. ANS: T
PTS: 1
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5. All states and nursing centers allow nursing assistants to change peripheral IV dressings. ANS: F
PTS: 1
REF: 312
Chapter 22: Urinary Elimination Kostelnick: Mosby’s Textbook for Long-Term Care Nursing Assistants, 8th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A catheter is: a. a tube used to drain or inject fluid through a body opening. b. an artificial way to remove waste and excess fluid from the body. c. sugar in the urine. d. ketone bodies that appear in the urine because of the rapid breakdown of fat for
energy. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 316
2. Dysuria means: a. sugar in the urine. b. blood in the urine. c. a scant amount of urine. d. painful or difficult urination. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 316
3. Nocturia means: a. painful or difficult urination. b. frequent urination at night. c. the production of abnormally large amounts of urine. d. voiding or micturition. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 316
4. Hematuria means: a. sugar in the urine. b. blood in the urine. c. a scant amount of urine. d. difficult or painful urination. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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5. A resident has control of her bladder. She cannot get to the bathroom in time because her call
light was not answered promptly. She is incontinent of urine. This is functional mixed over-flow stress
incontinence.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 316
6. A small amount of urine leaks from a bladder that is always full. This is a. functional b. mixed c. over-flow
incontinence.
d. stress ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 316
7. The loss of urine at predictable intervals when the bladder is full is a. over-flow b. stress c. reflex d. urinary ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 316
8. The loss of urine with exercise and certain movements is a. over-flow b. reflex c. urge d. stress ANS: D
PTS: 1
incontinence.
REF: 316
9. The loss of urine in response to a sudden, urgent need to void is a. over-flow b. reflex c. urge d. stress ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 316
10. The involuntary loss or leaT kaEgSeToB f uArN inK eS isE : LLER.COM a. urinary urgency. b. urinary frequency. c. urinary incontinence. d. urge incontinence. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 316
11. Oliguria is: a. a scant amount of urine. b. the production of abnormally large amounts of urine. c. the need to void at once. d. voiding at frequent intervals. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 316
12. The urinary system removes: a. solid wastes. b. carbon dioxide. c. sweat. d. waste products from the blood. ANS: D
PTS: 1
incontinence.
REF: 316
13. Which of the following cause the body to increase urine production?
incontinence.
a. b. c. d.
Salt Milk Tea Juice
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 316
14. The healthy adult produces: a. 1500 mL of urine each shift. b. 1500 mL of urine a day. c. 1000 mL of urine each shift. d. 1000 mL of urine a day. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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15. Which of the following terms mean “the process of emptying the bladder”? a. Urination b. Defecation c. Nocturia d. Aspirating ANS: A
PTS: 1
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16. You are assisting with urinary elimination needs. Which is a rule for normal elimination? a. Provide for privacy. b. Take the person to the bathroom when it best fits your schedule. c. Leave the resident’s door to the room open so you can hear them. d. Stay with the person inTcE asSeTthBeApN erKsoSnEnLeL edEs Ryou .C. OM ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 317
17. After urinating, the person is: a. assisted with handwashing. b. transferred back to bed. c. given fluids. d. screened with the privacy curtain. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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18. A resident asks for help to the bathroom. What should you do? a. Assist the person to the bathroom as requested. b. Offer the person the bedpan. c. Ask the person to wait a few minutes until you finish a task. d. Assist the person to the commode. ANS: A
PTS: 1
19. Normal urine has a(n) a. faint b. strong c. sweet d. ammonia
REF: 317
odor.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 317
20. Which of the following should you report to the nurse? a. Pale-yellow urine b. Straw-colored urine c. Red-colored urine d. Amber-colored urine ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 317
21. Which do men use for urinating? a. Bedpans b. Fracture pans c. Urinals d. Commodes ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 317
22. You assist a resident onto the bedpan. How should you position the person? a. In a sitting position b. On the person’s left side c. On the person’s right side d. Supine ANS: A
PTS: 1
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23. A resident finished urinating. The person cannot clean her genital area. You need to do all of
the following except: wipe her from back to front. use fresh tissue for each wipe. provide perineal care if necessary. wear gloves.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 320
24. Why does a filled urinal present a safety hazard? a. It is easily spilled. b. It is a source of odors. c. It is an unpleasant site. d. It needs to be emptied. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 320
25. A resident is going to use his urinal. What should he do with the urinal when done? a. Place it on the bedside stand. b. Place it on the over-bed table. c. Hang it on the bed rail. d. Lay it on the bed. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 321
26. A fracture pan is used for which of the following reasons? a. The person is in traction.
b. The person does not want to lift. c. The person chooses to not get out of bed. d. The person is incontinent. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 320
27. After a person uses the commode, the container is: a. thoroughly cleaned and disinfected. b. discarded and replaced with a new one. c. hung on the bed rail. d. placed in the bedside stand. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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28. Which statement about using commodes is correct? a. Wheels are unlocked after the commode is positioned over the toilet. b. Commodes are always used in the bathroom. c. The person needs to wear socks. d. The person is assisted with handwashing after using the commode. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 322
29. Which statement about incontinence is correct? a. It is a cause of falls. b. It is always due to the aging process. c. It can easily be corrected. d. It is a matter of personal choice. ANS: A
L:LE RE EF 32R3.COM PTS: T1ESTBANKS
30. Which statement about incontinence is correct? a. It affects the person psychologically and emotionally. b. A catheter is needed. c. It is never able to be corrected. d. It is costly to the facility. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 324
31. A resident has incontinence. The nurse asks you to do the following. Which one should you
do? a. b. c. d.
Record all voidings. Develop the person’s bladder training program. Have the person wear garments that have buttons and zippers. Increase the person’s fluid intake before bedtime.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 324
32. A resident has incontinence. The person uses incontinence products. To properly use the
products, you need to: follow the care plan. follow the manufacturer’s instructions. ask the person what to do. provide perineal care.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 324
33. A resident has incontinence. Dry garments and linens are provided: a. every shift. b. every day. c. in the morning and at bedtime. d. whenever necessary. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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34. A resident has incontinence. Which is correct? a. Answer the person’s call light promptly. b. Place toilet tissue within the person’s reach. c. Teach the person pelvic muscle exercises. d. Choose incontinence products for the person. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 324
35. A resident had four incontinent episodes this morning. You are becoming short-tempered and
impatient. What should you do? Remind the person to use the bedpan. Ask the person to use the bathroom every hour. Tell the person that other residents need your help. Talk to the nurse.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 324
36. Complications from incontT inEeS ncTeBinAcN luK deSE wL hiL chEoRf.thCeOfoMllowing? a. Dementia b. Broken bones c. Pressure ulcers d. Constipation ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 324
37. A resident with dementia urinates in plants and the trash can. You can do which of the
following? Follow the person’s bathroom routine as closely as possible. Reprimand the person for that behavior. Insert an indwelling catheter. Keep a chart on the person’s wall to remind them to use the bathroom.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 324
38. A catheter is kept in the bladder by: a. taping it to the inner thigh. b. an inflated balloon near the catheter tip. c. a rubber band and safety pin. d. a clamp or clip. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 325
39. Catheters are used for which of the following purposes? a. Promoting comfort for persons who are dying b. Decreasing the person’s embarrassment from incontinence c. As a convenience to the staff d. Treating the cause of incontinence ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 327
40. A resident has a catheter. The drainage bag must be kept: a. above the level of the bladder. b. below the level of the bladder. c. at bladder level. d. at the person’s right side. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 327
41. A resident has a catheter. When the person is in bed, you attach the drainage bag to: a. an IV pole. b. the bed frame. c. the bed rail. d. the back of a chair. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 327
42. A resident has a catheter. Which prevents urine from flowing freely? a. Coiling tubing on the bed b. Making sure that the person does not lay on the tubing c. Keeping the tubing freeTo s NKSELLER.COM EfSkTinBkA d. Raising the drainage bag above the bladder ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 327
43. A female resident has a catheter. To prevent excess catheter movement, you need to secure it
to: a. b. c. d.
her inner thigh. the bed. her abdomen. an IV pole.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 327
44. A resident has a catheter. Catheter care is given: a. according to the care plan. b. daily. c. twice a day. d. every shift. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 327
45. You are assigned to two residents with catheters. When emptying their drainage bags, you
use: a. the same measuring container for both residents b. a different measuring container for each person
c. the measuring container in the dirty utility room d. whatever is handy ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 328
46. You are using a safety pin and rubber band to secure drainage tubing to bottom linens. Which
is incorrect? The safety pin must work properly. The rubber must not be frayed or over-stretched. The pin is not inserted through the catheter. The pin points toward the person.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 328
47. Unless directed otherwise, urinary drainage bags are emptied: a. every morning. b. at bedtime. c. at the end of every shift. d. at the start of every shift. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 329
48. Persons with catheters need perineal care: a. daily. b. daily and after bowel movements. c. at bedtime. d. when their drainage bags are emptied. ANS: B
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49. When giving care to a person with a catheter, you need to do which of the following? a. Use sterile technique. b. Practice surgical asepsis. c. Wear sterile gloves. d. Follow the Bloodborne Pathogen Standard. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 329
50. A resident has a catheter. Before cleaning the person’s catheter, which action is correct? a. Provide perineal care. b. Empty the drainage bag. c. Change the standard drainage bag to a leg bag. d. Disconnect the catheter from the drainage bag. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 329
51. When giving catheter care, you need to hold the catheter at the: a. meatus. b. vagina. c. genitals. d. perineum. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 330
52. When giving catheter care, you need to clean: a. downward from the insertion site. b. toward the insertion site. c. left to right. d. right to left. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 330
53. You are giving catheter care. Which action is correct? a. Pulling on the catheter b. Using betadine and a clean washcloth c. Using a clean area of the washcloth for each stroke d. Wiping from back to front when cleaning the perineal area ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 330
54. A resident has a catheter. Which action is correct? a. The drainage bag touches the floor. b. The person wears a leg bag during the night. c. When the person walks, the drainage bag is held higher than the bladder. d. Drainage tubing is attached to the catheter. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 330
55. A person’s catheter is accidentally disconnected from the drainage tubing. What should you
do? a. b. c. d.
Reconnect the ends aftT erEwSipTiB ngAtN heKmSE wL ithLaEnRti. seC pO ticMwipes. Put the ends down and call for the nurse. Get a new drainage bag. Change the drainage system.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 330
56. A resident has a catheter. You are going to change the person’s leg bag to a regular drainage
bag. The procedure involves the following steps. Which do you do first? a. Disconnect the catheter from the drainage tubing. b. Clamp the catheter. c. Insert a sterile plug into the catheter end. d. Remove the cap from the new drainage bag. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 331
57. A resident has a catheter. The person has a regular drainage bag. Drainage tubing is secured to
the: a. b. c. d.
inner thigh. bed frame. mattress. bottom linens.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 332
58. Drainage bags are emptied and measured at which of the following times?
a. b. c. d.
At the beginning of every shift When you have a chance to do it When the resident wants to go outside When the bag is becoming full
ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 332
59. You are emptying a urinary drainage bag. The drain: a. can touch the measuring container. b. is cleaned with antiseptic wipes. c. must not touch any surface. d. is kept clamped. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 331
60. You are going to apply a condom catheter. Which action is correct? a. Follow the manufacturer’s instructions. b. Wash the penis with betadine. c. Apply surgical tape in a spiral around the penis. d. Leave a 2-inch space between the penis and the end of the catheter. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 333
61. You are going to apply a condom catheter. The catheter is: a. rolled onto the penis. b. applied in a spiral fashion around the penis. c. inserted into the urethra. d. secured with adhesive T taE peS. TBANKSELLER.COM ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 333
62. The goal of bladder training is to: a. remove the catheter. b. treat incontinence. c. gain voluntary control of urination. d. prevent infection. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 335
63. A resident has a catheter. A bladder training program is part of the person’s care plan. The
training program involves: a. having the person use the toilet at scheduled times. b. giving the person 15 to 20 minutes to start voiding. c. clamping the catheter for a certain period of time, then unclamping it to let urine
drain. d. removing the catheter every 3 to 4 hours. ANS: C TRUE/FALSE
PTS: 1
REF: 335
1. You are assisting with urinary elimination needs. You follow the Bloodborne Pathogen
Standard. ANS: T
PTS: 1
REF: 335
Chapter 23: Bowel Elimination Kostelnick: Mosby’s Textbook for Long-Term Care Nursing Assistants, 8th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Fecal incontinence is the: a. passage of a hard, dry stool. b. frequent passage of liquid stools. c. prolonged retention and accumulation of feces in the rectum. d. inability to control the passage of feces and gas through the anus. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 338
2. Constipation is the: a. passage of a hard, dry stool. b. frequent passage of liquid stools. c. prolonged retention and accumulation of feces in the rectum. d. inability to control the passage of feces and gas through the anus. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 338
3. Defecation is the: a. passage of a hard, dry stool. b. frequent passage of liquid stools. c. prolonged retention and accumulation of feces in the rectum. d. the process of excreting feces from the rectum through the anus. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 338
4. Fecal impaction is the: a. passage of a hard, dry stool. b. frequent passage of liquid stools. c. prolonged retention and buildup of feces in the rectum. d. inability to control the passage of feces and gas through the anus. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 338
5. An enema is: a. the excessive loss of water from tissues. b. the introduction of fluid into the rectum and lower colon. c. gas or air in the stomach or intestines. d. a cone-shaped solid medication inserted into a body opening. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 338
6. Flatulence is: a. the excessive formation of gas or air in the stomach and intestines. b. gas or air passed through the anus. c. a black, tarry stool. d. excreted feces. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 338
7. Flatus is: a. the excessive formation of gas in the stomach and intestines. b. gas or air passed through the anus. c. a black, tarry stool. d. excreted feces. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 338
8. A colostomy is a surgically created opening between the a. small intestine b. colon c. ileum d. rectum ANS: B
PTS: 1
and abdominal wall.
REF: 338
9. Feces move through the intestines by: a. chyme. b. peristalsis. c. defecation. d. flatulence. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 338
10. Which statement about normal elimination is correct? a. A bowel movement is needed every day. b. Stools are normally brown. TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. Stools are normally hard, formed, dry, and shaped like the rectum. d. Stools normally are odorless. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 339
11. Why does privacy affect elimination? a. Bowel movements and sounds are embarrassing. b. Some people usually have a bowel movement after breakfast. c. Reading is relaxing. d. The passage of feces slows down. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 339
12. What is a common time for bowel elimination? a. Before breakfast b. After breakfast c. Before the evening meal d. After the evening meal ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 339
13. Which foods are needed for bowel elimination? a. Milk b. Chocolate c. Fruits and vegetables
d. Fried foods ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 339
14. Gas-forming foods aid defecation because they: a. form chyme. b. stimulate peristalsis. c. absorb fluid. d. are easy to chew and digest. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 339
15. How many glasses of water does a person need daily to promote normal bowel elimination? a. 2 to 4 b. 4 to 6 c. 6 to 8 d. 8 to 10 ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 339
16. Which fluids increase peristalsis? a. Cold fluids b. Warm fluids c. Alcoholic beverages d. Carbonated beverages ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 339
17. Which slows the passage oT fE feS ceTsBthArN ouKgS hE thLeLinEteRs. tinCeO s?M a. Exercise and activity b. Some medications c. Enemas d. Increase fluid intake ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 339
18. You are assisting a resident with elimination. Which will promote comfort and safety? a. Open the doors, the privacy curtain, and window curtains, blinds, or shades. b. Follow Standard Precautions and the Bloodborne Pathogen Standard. c. Place the call light and toilet tissue within your reach. d. Stand next to the person until the person is finished. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 340
19. What is the usual position for defecation? a. Sitting or squatting b. Sims’ c. Semi-Fowler’s d. Left side-lying ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 340
20. A resident has finished defecating. Which will promote the person’s comfort?
a. b. c. d.
Assist with perineal care as necessary. Dispose of feces at the end of the shift. Give the person a cold washcloth to clean with. Give the person a suppository.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 340
21. A resident complains of constipation. If the person is constipated, you would expect her stools
to be: hard and dry. liquid. soft and formed. putty-like.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 340
22. A resident complains of constipation. If the person is constipated, you would expect her stools
to be: large or marble-sized. liquid. soft and shaped like the rectum. black and tarry.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 340
23. You report to the nurse that a resident is complaining of constipation. The nurse holds a care
conference to discuss the person’s care plan. The following measures are discussed. Which could relieve constipation? a. Decreasing the person’s fluid intake b. Discouraging the person to walk more c. Offering the person tea and prune juice at breakfast d. Doing a digital rectal examination ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 339
24. Which can occur if constipation is not relieved? a. Fecal impaction b. Enema c. Diarrhea d. Suppository ANS: A
PTS: 1
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25. Which is a sign of fecal impaction? a. The frequent passage of liquid stools b. Marble-sized stools c. Liquid feces seeping from the anus d. Passage of large stools ANS: C
PTS: 1
26. Which is a symptom of fecal impaction? a. Abdominal discomfort
REF: 340
b. Watery stools c. Heartburn d. Indigestion ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 340
27. The nurse did a digital removal of an impaction. This means that the nurse: a. gave an enema. b. gave a suppository. c. used a lubricated, gloved finger to remove the impaction. d. applied an ostomy pouch. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 340
28. A resident complains of diarrhea. The person needs assistance with ambulation. When the
person’s call light is on, you need to: answer promptly. go to the person as soon as you finish assisting another resident. ask a co-worker to help you. tell the nurse.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 340
29. A resident has diarrhea. Which will not prevent odors and the spread of microbes? a. Practice Standard Precautions. b. Follow the Bloodborne Pathogen Standard. c. Dispose of stools promptly. d. Have the person use thT eE coSmTmBoAdN e.KSELLER.COM ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 340
30. A resident has diarrhea. You know that the person is at risk for: a. dehydration. b. enema. c. fecal incontinence. d. an ostomy. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 341
31. A resident has diarrhea. You know that liquid feces and frequent wiping can lead to: a. skin breakdown. b. dehydration. c. oliguria. d. death. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 340
32. A person has fecal incontinence. The following measures are part of the care plan. Which
should you do? Assist with elimination during meals. Assist with elimination every 6 to 8 hours. Give good skin care. Empty ostomy pouch only when feces are present.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 341
33. Which is a cause of fecal incontinence? a. Chronic illness b. A high-fiber diet c. Constipation d. Heartburn ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 341
34. A resident complains of flatulence. The person has the following food choices. Which is a
good choice to prevent excess flatulence? a. Onions b. Beans c. Cauliflower d. Potatoes ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 341
35. A resident complains of flatulence. Which position often produces flatus? a. Fowler’s b. Semi-Fowler’s c. Right side-lying d. Left side-lying ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 341
.eCaOsuMres are part of the person’s care plan. 36. A resident complains of flaTtuEleSnT ceB. ATN heKfSoE lloLwLiE ngRm Which should you do? Offer carbonated beverages. Have the person move about when in bed. Discourage walking. Discourage exercise.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 341
37. A bowel training program was developed for a resident. The person usually has a bowel
movement after breakfast. When should you assist the person with elimination? Before breakfast After breakfast Before lunch After lunch
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 341
38. The nurse gave a resident a suppository. When should you expect the person to have a bowel
movement? Right away In 10 minutes In 20 minutes In 30 minutes
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 342
39. Enemas are given for all of the following reasons except: a. diarrhea. b. constipation. c. fecal impaction. d. flatulence. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 342
40. You know that enemas are: a. given before certain surgeries and diagnostic procedures. b. not given before surgery. c. given after surgery. d. only given for constipation. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 342
41. The doctor ordered a saline enema. What is added to the enema solution? a. Mineral oil b. A drug c. Castile soap d. Salt ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 342
42. Giving an enema is delegated to you. Because of the end-of-shift report, the nurse will not be
available to supervise you. What should you do? Ask a co-worker to help you. Give the enema if it is in your job description. Give the enema because it was part of your education and training. Refuse to give the enema because the nurse is not available to supervise you.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 342
43. What is the preferred position for giving an enema? a. Fowler’s or semi-Fowler’s position b. Sims’ or left side-lying position c. Prone or supine position d. Supine or right side-lying position ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 342
44. How much enema solution is usually given to an adult? a. 100 to 120 mL b. 200 to 300 mL c. 500 to 750 mL d. 500 to 1000 mL ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 342
45. Water temperature for an enema solution for adults usually is: a. 100° F.
b. 105° F. c. 110° F. d. body temperature. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 342
46. How far is the enema tube usually inserted into the adult rectum? a. 1 to 3 inches b. 2 to 4 inches c. 4 to 5 inches d. 5 to 6 inches ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 342
47. How long can you anticipate it taking for a person to have results from a cleansing enema? a. 10 to 20 minutes b. 20 to 30 minutes c. 30 to 40 minutes d. 60 minutes ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 342
48. A saline enema takes effect: a. right away. b. in 5 to 15 minutes. c. in 10 to 20 minutes. d. in 30 minutes. ANS: C
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49. Which enema is irritating to the bowel’s mucous lining? a. Saline enema b. Soapsuds enema c. Tap water enema d. Oil-retention enema ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 343
50. You are preparing to give a saline enema. To remove air from the enema tube, you need to: a. close the clamp. b. lubricate the tip. c. let solution flow through the tube. d. keep the enema bag level with the anus. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 343
51. You are giving a saline enema. During the procedure, the person complains of cramping.
What should you do? Call for the nurse. Clamp the tubing. Remove the tubing. Insert the tubing farther.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 344
52. Before disposing of the enema results, what should you do? a. Ask the resident to observe the results. b. Ask the nurse to observe the results. c. Provide perineal care. d. Disinfect the bedpan or commode. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 344
53. Which statement about small-volume enemas is incorrect? a. The solution is usually given at room temperature. b. It usually takes 5 to 10 minutes for the enema to take effect. c. Pressure is released on the bottle during administration. d. Staying in the Sims’ position helps to retain the enema. ANS: C 54.
PTS: 1
REF: 344
Oil-retention enemas are given for: a. constipation or fecal impaction. b. flatulence. c. certain surgeries and diagnostic procedures. d. ostomies. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 345
55. Oil-retention enemas are retained for at least: a. 15 minutes. b. 30 to 60 minutes. c. 2 hours. d. 3 hours. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 346
56. After giving an oil-retention enema, the person is left in the a. Fowler’s or semi-Fowler’s b. Sims’ or left side-lying c. prone or supine d. supine or right side-lying ANS: B
PTS: 1
position.
REF: 346
57. Which statement about colostomies is correct? a. The nursing assistant inserts a tube into the rectum to collect feces and flatus. b. Stool consistency depends on what the resident eats. c. The more colon remaining, the more liquid the stool. d. Good skin care is necessary because feces irritate the skin. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 347
58. A person has an ileostomy. Which statement is correct? a. The entire colon was removed. b. Feces are solid in consistency.
c. Feces drain intermittently from the ileostomy. d. Water is absorbed before feces are expelled into the pouch. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 348
59. You are emptying an ostomy pouch. Which is correct? a. The belt is removed. b. The pouch is removed. c. The drain at the top is opened. d. The drain at the bottom is opened. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 348
60. A person has an ostomy pouch. The pouch is bulging from flatus. What should you do? a. Call for the nurse. b. Make a hole in the pouch for the escape of gas. c. Open the pouch. d. Change the pouch. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 348
61. Ostomy pouches are usually changed every: a. day. b. time feces are present. c. 3 to 7 days. d. month. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 348
62. Which will prevent ostomy pouch odors? a. Good hygiene b. Emptying the pouch every 10 days c. Spraying perfume in the room d. Eating cucumbers and radishes ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 348
63. A person with an ostomy pouch wears: a. tight clothes. b. regular clothes. c. a hospital gown. d. clothes selected by the nurse. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 348
64. When is the best time to change an ostomy pouch? a. Before breakfast b. After breakfast c. After the evening meal d. Before bedtime ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 348
65. You just applied a new ostomy pouch. When can the person shower or bathe? a. Right away b. In 1 to 2 hours c. In 8 hours d. The next day ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 348
TRUE/FALSE 1. As a nursing assistant, it is within your scope to administer an enema that contains a
medication. ANS: F
PTS: 1
REF: 348
2. Ostomy pouches are disposed of by flushing them down the toilet. ANS: F
PTS: 1
REF: 348
3. Touching an ostomy stoma causes pain and discomfort. ANS: F
PTS: 1
REF: 348
4. Persons with ostomies manage their own care if able. ANS: T
PTS: 1
REF: 348
Chapter 24: Exercise and Activity Kostelnick: Mosby’s Textbook for Long-Term Care Nursing Assistants, 8th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Abduction is: a. moving a body part away from the midline of the body. b. moving a body part toward the midline of the body. c. straightening a body part. d. bending a body part. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 351
2. Adduction is: a. moving a body part away from the midline of the body. b. moving a body part toward the midline of the body. c. straightening a body part. d. bending a body part. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 351
3. Atrophy is: a. a decrease in size or wasting away of tissue. b. the lack of joint mobility caused by abnormal shortening of a muscle. c. the loss of muscle strength from inactivity. d. a drop in blood pressure when the person stands. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 351
4. A contracture is: a. a decrease in size or wasting away of tissue. b. the lack of joint mobility caused by abnormal shortening of a muscle. c. the loss of muscle strength from inactivity. d. a drop in blood pressure when the person stands. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 351
5. Deconditioning is: a. a decrease in size or wasting away of tissue. b. the lack of joint mobility caused by abnormal shortening of a muscle. c. the loss of muscle strength from inactivity. d. a drop in blood pressure when the person stands. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 351
6. Dorsiflexion is: a. bending a body part. b. straightening a body part. c. bending the toes and foot up at the ankle. d. when the foot falls down at the ankle. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 351
7. Extension is: a. bending a body part. b. straightening a body part. c. a toe-up motion of the foot at the ankle. d. when the foot falls down at the ankle. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 351
8. External rotation is turning a joint: a. outward. b. inward. c. downward. d. upward. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 351
9. Flexion is: a. moving a body part away from the midline of the body. b. moving a body part toward the midline of the body. c. straightening a body part. d. bending a body part. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 351
10. Turning the foot down at the ankle is: a. pronation. b. plantar flexion. c. supination. d. dorsiflexion. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 351
11. Foot drop is: a. bending a body part. b. straightening a body part. c. a toe-up motion of the foot at the ankle. d. when the foot falls down at the ankle. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 351
12. Hyperextension is: a. bending a body part. b. straightening a body part. c. the excessive straightening of a body part. d. a brief loss of consciousness. ANS: C
PTS: 1
13. Internal rotation is turning a joint: a. outward. b. inward. c. downward.
REF: 351
d. upward. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 351
14. Orthostatic hypotension is: a. a decrease in size or wasting away of tissue. b. the lack of joint mobility caused by abnormal shortening of a muscle. c. the loss of muscle strength as a result of inactivity. d. a drop in blood pressure when the person suddenly stands. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 351
15. Another name for permanent plantar flexion is: a. foot drop. b. postural hypotension. c. fainting. d. orthosis. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 351
16. Pronation is turning a joint: a. outward. b. inward. c. downward. d. upward. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 351
17. Rotation is turning a: a. joint outward. b. joint inward. c. joint downward. d. joint. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 351
18. Supination is turning a joint: a. outward. b. inward. c. downward. d. upward. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 351
19. Syncope is: a. foot drop. b. postural hypotension. c. fainting. d. orthosis. ANS: C
PTS: 1
20. The act of walking is:
REF: 351
a. b. c. d.
trochanter. ambulation. orthosis. range of motion.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 351
21. Bed rest is ordered for which of the following reasons? a. To promote deconditioning b. To increase physical activity c. To delay healing d. To reduce pain ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 352
22. The doctor ordered strict bed rest for a resident. Which is correct? a. The person can perform some activities of daily living. b. Everything is done for the person. c. The person can use the bedside commode. d. The person can use the bathroom. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 352
23. The doctor ordered bed rest for a resident. Which is correct? a. The person can perform some activities of daily living. b. Everything is done for the person. c. The person can use the bedside commode. d. The person can use theTbE atS hrToB om . KSELLER.COM AN ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 352
24. Bed rest places the person at risk for which of the following? a. Increased energy b. Atrophy c. Blood thinning d. Pronation ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 352
25. Which will prevent complications of bed rest? a. Deconditioning b. Frequent position changes c. Relaxed alignment d. Limited movement ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 352
26. A resident is on bed rest with bathroom privileges. When the person moves from a lying to a
sitting or standing position, he or she is at risk for which of the following? Deconditioning Blood clots Hypertension Syncope
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 352
27. Orthostatic hypotension is prevented by: a. measuring blood pressure. b. counting the pulse and respirations. c. slowly changing positions. d. preventing deconditioning. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 352
28. Which of the following are signs and symptoms of orthostatic hypotension? a. Dizziness and weakness b. An increase in awareness c. A rise in blood pressure d. A burst of energy ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 352
29. 29. A resident is on bed rest. Before the person gets out of bed, you need to position her in a. b. c. d.
position. Sims’ The lateral The prone Fowler’s
ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 353
30. A resident is on bed rest. BTeE foS reTtB heApNeK rsS onEL geLtsEoRu. t oCfObM ed, you need to measure which of the
following? Temperature Urine output Dietary Intake Blood pressure
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 353
31. The doctor ordered bed boards for a resident. Bed boards prevent: a. plantar flexion. b. the hips and legs from external rotation. c. contractures of the thumb, fingers, and wrist. d. the mattress from sagging. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 352
32. The doctor ordered a footboard for a resident. The footboard prevents: a. plantar flexion. b. the hips and legs from external rotation. c. contractures of the thumb, fingers, and wrist. d. the mattress from sagging. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 353
33. The doctor ordered trochanter rolls for a resident. Trochanter rolls prevent: a. plantar flexion. b. the hips and legs from external rotation. c. contractures of the thumb, fingers, and wrist. d. the mattress from sagging. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 353
34. A hip abduction wedge is positioned: a. under the person from the hip to the knee. b. under the mattress. c. between the person’s legs. d. at the foot of the mattress. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 353
35. The doctor ordered a bed cradle for a resident. The bed cradle: a. keeps top linens off the feet. b. keeps the mattress from sagging. c. is a more comfortable bed. d. keeps the hips abducted. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 353
36. Hand grips prevent contractures of the: a. thumb, fingers, and wrist. b. hands and forearm. c. elbow. d. fingers and elbow ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 353
37. The doctor ordered a trapeze for a resident. The person can use the trapeze: a. for ambulation. b. for exercises to prevent hip contractures. c. for exercises to strengthen arm muscles. d. to prevent contractures of the thumb, wrist, and fingers. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 354
38. The doctor ordered passive range-of-motion exercises for a resident. These exercises are done: a. by the person. b. by a health team member. c. by the person with your help d. with a trapeze. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 355
39. The doctor ordered active-assistive range-of-motion exercises for a resident. These exercises
are done: a. by the person. b. by a health team member. c. by the person with your help.
d. with a trapeze. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 355
40. Active range-of-motion exercises are done: a. by the person. b. by a health team member. c. by the person with your help. d. with a trapeze. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 355
41. You are delegated range-of-motion exercises. Which is correct? a. Exercise the joints the person tells you to. b. Allow the person to hold on to the joint. c. Move the joint slowly, smoothly, and gently. d. Force each joint through its full range of motion. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 356
42. You can perform range-of-motion exercises to the neck only if: a. there is a doctor’s order. b. the resident asks you to. c. you are supervised by a physical therapist. d. allowed by your center and the nurse instructs you to do so. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 356
43. Which exercise is done to T thE eS shToB ulA deNrK ? SELLER.COM a. Lateral flexion b. Extension c. Supination d. Pronation ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 356
44. Which exercises are done to the elbow? a. Pronation and supination b. Flexion and extension c. Abduction and adduction d. Internal and external rotation ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 356
45. Which exercises are done to the forearm? a. Pronation and supination b. Flexion and extension c. Abduction and adduction d. Internal and external rotation ANS: A
PTS: 1
46. Which exercises are done to the wrist?
REF: 357
a. b. c. d.
Supination Radial flexion and ulnar flexion Pronation Abduction and adduction
ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 357
47. Which exercises are done to the thumb? a. Pronation b. Supination c. Flexion and extension d. Hyperextension ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 357
48. Which exercises are done to the hip? a. Flexion and extension b. Hyperextension and opposition c. Pronation d. Supination ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 357
49. Which exercises are done to the knee? a. Flexion and extension b. Abduction and adduction c. Internal and external rotation d. Radial and ulnar flexioT n ESTBANKSELLER.COM ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 358
50. Which exercises are done to the ankle? a. Dorsiflexion and plantar flexion b. Abduction and adduction c. Internal and external rotation d. Radial and ulnar flexion ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 358
51. Which exercises are done to the foot? a. Dorsiflexion and plantar flexion b. Pronation and supination c. Internal and external rotation d. Radial and ulnar flexion ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 358
52. Which action will promote comfort while performing range-of-motion exercises? a. Have the person undress. b. Support the part being exercised. c. Invite the family members to watch you perform the exercises d. Move the joint quickly and forcefully.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 356
53. A resident is unsteady. When assisting the person with ambulation, you need to apply: a. a transfer belt. b. a walking aid. c. a supportive device. d. braces. ANS: A 54.
PTS: 1
REF: 359
How far should you walk a person? a. As far as the person can tolerate b. As far as directed by the nurse and the care plan c. Down the hall and back to the room d. As far as the person chooses ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 359
55. When ambulating, a person needs to wear: a. slippers. b. nonskid footwear. c. whatever he or she chooses. d. athletic shoes. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 360
56. When ambulating a person, you stand: a. in front of the person. b. in back of the person. c. to the side and slightly behind the person. d. where the person chooses. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 360
57. A resident has crutches. You need to do which of the following? a. Teach the person how to use them. b. Check the crutch tips to see if they are worn down or wet. c. Make sure that the bolts are tight. d. Have the person wear street shoes with nonskid soles. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 361
58. Which statement about canes is correct? a. The cane is held on the weak side. b. The grip is level with the hip. c. The person moves forward before the cane. d. The cane tip is about 2 to 3 inches to the side of the foot. ANS: B 59.
PTS: 1
REF: 362
A person uses a walker. Which is correct? a. The walker is held on the strong side. b. The person moves the feet first.
c. The walker is moved first. d. The walker is moved about 8 to 12 inches in front of the person. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 363
60. Which walking aids allow attachments? a. Canes b. Crutches c. Walkers d. Braces ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 364
61. Which provides support for weak body parts? a. Canes b. Crutches c. Walkers d. Braces ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 364
62. A person wears a brace. You must: a. check the brace tips to make sure they are not wet or torn. b. keep the skin under the brace clean and dry. c. make sure the person wears loose clothing. d. make sure the brace is held on the strong side. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 364
63. Which statement about recreational activities is correct? a. The person must attend the activities. b. They are not required by OBRA but are considered optional. c. They must meet the resident director’s needs. d. The person may need help getting to and taking part in activities. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 364
64. OBRA requires activity programs for residents. Which is correct? a. You are not responsible for assisting residents to activity programs. b. You do not assist with activities. c. The activities director decides which activities each person attends. d. Participating in activities of personal choice promotes the person’s well-being. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 364
Chapter 25: Comfort, Rest, and Sleep Kostelnick: Mosby’s Textbook for Long-Term Care Nursing Assistants, 8th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Acute pain is: a. felt suddenly. b. felt in a body part that is no longer there. c. felt at the site of tissue damage and in nearby areas. d. constant or occurs on and off. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 367
2. The day-night cycle is: a. REM sleep. b. NREM sleep. c. the sleep-wake cycle. d. circadian rhythm. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 367
3. Changing a person’s center of attention is: a. guided imagery. b. distraction. c. circadian rhythm. d. relaxation. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 367
4. A person has no physical or emotional pain. The person is calm and at peace. This is: a. insomnia. b. comfort. c. rest. d. sleep. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 367
5. Urinary incontinence in bed at night is: a. enuresis. b. NREM sleep. c. REM sleep. d. sleep wetting. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 367
6. Creating and focusing on an image is: a. distraction. b. guided imagery. c. relaxation. d. rest. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 367
7. Insomnia is: a. the day-night cycle. b. a state of unconsciousness. c. a chronic condition in which the person cannot sleep or stay asleep all night. d. to ache, hurt, be sore, or have pain. ANS: C 8.
REF: 367
Phantom pain is: a. felt suddenly. b. felt in a body part that is no longer there. c. felt at the site of tissue damage and in nearby areas. d. discomfort. ANS: B
9.
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
REF: 367
Radiating pain is: a. felt suddenly. b. felt in a body part that is no longer there. c. felt at the site of tissue damage and in nearby areas. d. constant or occurs on and off. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 367
10. To be free from mental or physical stress is: a. comfort. b. rest. c. relaxation. d. sleep. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 367
11. A state of unconsciousness, reduced voluntary muscle activity, and lowered metabolism is: a. comfort. b. rest. c. relaxation. d. sleep. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 367
12. Which of the following promotes comfort? a. Linens that are changed monthly b. A cluttered room c. An odor-free room d. A room temperature below 70° F ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 368
13. Mr. Jones is a nursing center resident. Which room temperature promotes his comfort? a. 65° F b. 68° F c. 75° F
d. 85° F ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 368
14. How many residents can share a room? a. No more than 2 b. No more than 3 c. No more than 4 d. No more than 5 ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 368
15. A resident complains of severe pain. Which statement is correct? a. Wait until the person complains of pain rather than encouraging it by asking if he
or she has it. b. Pain means that there is no tissue damage. c. Response to pain is influenced by the person’s culture. d. Sore, hurt, and aching mean the same thing. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 368
16. Which statement about pain is correct? a. The meaning of pain is the same for everyone. b. You can see and feel another person’s pain. c. Sore and aching mean the same thing to everyone. d. Pain is a warning from the body. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 368
17. Anxiety tends to: a. relieve pain. b. increase pain. c. promote sleep. d. lessen fear and worry. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 368
18. Why is pain usually worse at night? a. It is dark outside. b. There are fewer distractions and the person has more time to think. c. Fewer people are around to explain treatments and therapies. d. Nighttime influences a person’s cultural responses to pain. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 369
19. Which statement about pain is correct? a. Some people ignore pain to meet personal and family duties. b. Family and friends are the best persons to help the person actually deal with the
pain. c. Pain is easy to determine by facial expression. d. The ability to feel pain increases with aging. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 369
20. Dealing with pain is often easier when: a. family and friends offer comfort and support. b. the person is alone. c. the person is in the hospital. d. the person has never had pain before. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 369
21. A resident has dementia. The person cannot explain when or where the pain is. How can you
tell when the person has pain? The person’s family will tell you. Behavior changes may signal pain. The person will be stoic. Pain is not a concern. Persons with dementia cannot feel pain.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 369
22. A resident complains of pain. Which will help you collect information about the person’s
pain? a. Determine if the person has pain by how long he or she slept last night. b. Ask to see the pain. c. Use the person’s record of pain medicine to determine if he or she is in pain. d. Ask the person to describe the pain. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 370
23. A resident complains of paT inE. S WThB icA h NwKilS l hEeL lpLyEoR u. coCllOecMt information about the person’s
pain? Ask if the pain is mild, moderate, or severe. Ask the person if he or she is truly in pain or is just lonely. Encourage the person to sleep instead so that the pain will not be present. Give the person drugs to relieve the pain.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 370
24. You are reporting a resident’s complaint of pain to the nurse. Which is correct? a. Use the person’s exact words. b. Report where you saw the pain. c. Tell where you measured the pain. d. Report the information at the end of the shift. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 369
25. A resident complains of severe pain. She is sweating and complains of nausea. The sweating
and nausea are: other signs and symptoms of pain. due to anxiety. drug side effects. related to the person’s illness.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 371
26. A resident has dementia. The person is restless and is grunting and groaning. You know that
the behaviors are: signs and symptoms of pain. related to dementia. cultural responses. related to anxiety.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 371
27. Some persons do not feel pain. These persons are at risk for: a. dementia. b. undetected disease or injury. c. non-REM sleep. d. sleep deprivation and insomnia. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 369
28. A resident complains of severe pain. The following measures are on the person’s care plan.
Which is appropriate for the person? Position the person in good alignment. Keep bed linens loose and rolled up. Provide loud music for distraction. Limit the amount of blankets provided to the person.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 371
29. The nurse assesses that a resident has pain. The following measures are on the person’s care
plan. Which is appropriateT ? ESTBANKSELLER.COM a. Encourage the person to be independent with elimination needs. b. Give a back massage. c. Avoid any touch to the person. d. No visitors are allowed. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 371
30. The nurse gave a resident a pain medication. Which is a safety measure? a. Raise the bed. b. Use bed rails according to the care plan. c. Check on the person every 40 to 60 minutes. d. Encourage the person to be independent when the person is up. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 371
31. A resident has pain. The person is taught how to breathe deeply and slowly and how to
contract and relax muscle groups. What is this called? Distraction Relaxation Guided imagery Rest
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 370
32. The nurse assesses that a resident has pain. The nurse asks you to sit and talk to the person
and play some music. These measures are intended to: distract the person. relax the person. use guided imagery. help the person sleep.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 370
33. A resident was given pain medication. When the person gets out of bed, you must be alert for
signs and symptoms of: orthostatic hypotension. nausea and vomiting. dementia. infection.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 371
34. The nurse wants a resident to rest. Which of the following promote rest? a. Meeting the person’s physical needs b. Encouraging the person to watch television c. Making the person lie down d. Having the person sleep in her or his daytime clothes ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 372
35. Which of the following measures promote rest? a. Discouraging any visitT orE s STBANKSELLER.COM b. Keeping the person’s call light within reach c. Encouraging the person to exercise before bedtime d. Having the person put on a hospital gown ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 372
36. A resident likes to take a nap in the early afternoon. Which statement is correct? a. The person should be allowed to rest at that time. b. It is better if the person rests in the late afternoon. c. Napping is avoided. d. A nap is allowed only if part of the person’s care plan. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 375
37. Sleep is needed for which of the following? a. Increasing blood sugar b. Tissue healing and repair c. Gaining weight d. Promoting muscle activity ANS: B
PTS: 1
38. The person is hard to arouse during: a. stage 1: NREM sleep. b. REM sleep.
REF: 272
c. insomnia. d. sleepwalking. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 273
39. A resident is 84 years old. How many hours of sleep does the person need? a. 5 to 7 hours b. 7 to 8 hours c. 10 to 11 hours d. 11 to 12 hours ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 374
40. Which of the following measures will promote sleep? a. Provide tea and chocolate cake before bedtime. b. Discourage any ambulation after the evening meal. c. Assist with a shower before bedtime. d. Encourage exercising before bedtime. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 375
41. The nurse gives a resident a sleeping pill at bedtime. You know that sleeping pills: a. promote healthy sleep. b. can interfere with REM sleep. c. are given for emotional problems. d. are given to prevent insomnia. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 374
42. A resident has red, puffy eyes in the morning. During the day, the person is sleepy, has
problems finding the right words, and is restless. These are signs and symptoms of: insomnia. sleep deprivation. circadian rhythm. distraction.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 374
43. Insomnia includes which of the following? a. Sleepwalking b. Nightmares c. Talking in one’s sleep d. Waking early and being unable to fall back asleep ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 374
44. The nurse assesses that a resident is suffering from sleep deprivation. Which is correct? a. The person cannot sleep or stay asleep. b. The amount and quality of sleep are decreased. c. The person leaves his bed and walks about during sleep. d. The person is having pain. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 374
45. Which of the following indicates sleep deprivation? a. Sweating, nausea, and vomiting b. Relaxation and a regular pulse c. Increased responses to questions and clear speech d. Agitation, restlessness, and disorientation ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 374
46. Which of the following indicates sleep deprivation? a. Fatigue and mood swings b. Pain and joint inflammation c. Increased reasoning and judgment d. Improved coordination ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 374
47. You find a person sleepwalking. You should do which of the following? a. Turn on the lights. b. Tell the person to get back in his or her room. c. Protect the person from injury. d. Let the person walk until awakening. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 374
48. A resident has difficulty sleeping. The person is up and walking around. What should you do? a. Guide the person back to bed. b. Restrain the person. c. Let the person wander in a safe supervised area. d. Give the person toast and coffee. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 375
Chapter 26: Oxygen Needs and Respiratory Therapies Kostelnick: Mosby’s Textbook for Long-Term Care Nursing Assistants, 8th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A resident is sensitive to a substance. The person’s body reacts with signs and symptoms. This
is: a. b. c. d.
a pollutant. an allergy. hypoxia. hypoxemia.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 378
2. The lack of or absence of breathing is: a. apnea. b. Kussmaul’s respirations. c. bradypnea. d. hypoxia. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 378
3. Rapid and deep respirations followed by 10 to 30 seconds of apnea is: a. Biot’s respirations. b. bradypnea. c. Cheyne-Stokes respirations. d. orthopnea. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 378
4. Respirations are less than 12 breaths/min. This is: a. apnea. b. bradypnea. c. orthopnea. d. tachypnea. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 378
5. Respirations gradually increase in rate and depth and then become shallow and slow.
Breathing may stop for 10 to 20 seconds. This is: Biot’s respirations. Cheyne-Stokes respirations. Kussmaul’s respirations. hypoventilation.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 378
6. Difficult, labored, or painful breathing is: a. apnea. b. bradypnea. c. dyspnea.
d. orthopnea. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 378
PTS: 1
REF: 378
7. Bloody sputum is: a. hemothorax. b. hemoptysis. c. pleural effusion. d. pneumothorax. ANS: B
8. Respirations are slow, shallow, and sometimes irregular. This is: a. bradypnea. b. tachypnea. c. hypoventilation. d. hyperventilation. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 378
9. A reduced amount of oxygen in the blood is: a. hypoxemia. b. hypoxia. c. oxygen concentration. d. respiratory depression. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 378
TpEoS 10. What is the definition of hy xiT a?BANKSELLER.COM a. Air is in the pleural space. b. Cells do not have enough oxygen. c. Breathing stops. d. Respirations are slow and weak. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 378
11. Respirations are very deep and rapid. They are: a. Biot’s respirations. b. Cheyne-Stokes respirations. c. Kussmaul’s respirations. d. hypoventilation. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 378
12. A person can breathe deeply and comfortably only when sitting. This is: a. apnea. b. bradypnea. c. dyspnea. d. orthopnea. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 378
13. Sitting up in bed and leaning over a table to breathe is
position.
a. b. c. d.
Fowler’s Semi-Fowler’s orthopneic hypoxic
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 378
14. The amount of hemoglobin containing oxygen is: a. hypoxia. b. hypoxemia. c. oxygen concentration. d. alveolar-capillary exchange. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 378
15. A harmful chemical or substance in the air or water is a(n): a. allergy. b. irritant. c. pollutant. d. allergen. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 378
16. Respiratory arrest is when: a. breathing stops. b. the heart stops. c. respirations are very rapid. d. breathing and heart actT ioE n SstT opB.ANKSELLER.COM ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 378
17. Respirations are slow and weak. They are not deep enough to bring air into the lungs. This is: a. respiratory arrest. b. respiratory depression. c. bradypnea. d. Biot’s respirations. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 378
18. Respirations are greater than 20 breaths/min. This is: a. apnea. b. bradypnea. c. dyspnea. d. tachypnea. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 378
19. You are not responsible for oxygen therapy because: a. oxygen is a fire hazard. b. nursing assistants do not give oxygen. c. a doctor’s order is needed. d. it is not part of your training.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 386
20. Which statement about the respiratory system and oxygen needs is correct? a. To meet oxygen needs, respiratory structures must be intact. b. To meet oxygen needs, alveoli must exchange O2 and H2O. c. To meet oxygen needs, the airway must remain closed. d. To meet oxygen needs, artificial airways are needed. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 379
21. A resident has cardiovascular disease. The person has narrowed blood vessels. Why are
oxygen needs affected? a. The person does not have enough blood cells. b. The person’s heart cannot pump blood well because of pressure around the heart. c. Blood flow to and from the heart is affected. d. Blood loss occurs with cardiovascular disease. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 379
22. Which part of the blood carries oxygen? a. Red blood cells b. White blood cells c. Platelets d. Plasma ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 379
23. Brain damage can affect: a. respiratory rate, rhythm, and depth. b. bone marrow function. c. allergies and pollutant exposure. d. lung tissue elasticity. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 379
24. Aging affects oxygen needs. Which is correct? a. Respiratory muscles weaken. b. Lung tissue is more elastic. c. Coughing strength increases. d. Body temperature increases. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 379
25. Oxygen needs increase with which of the following? a. Sleep b. Bed rest c. Rest d. Pain ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 379
26. Narcotics affect oxygen needs because they: a. cause brain damage.
b. depress the respiratory center in the brain. c. decrease heart rate and blood flow. d. cause swelling of the mucous membranes in the upper airway. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 379
27. If abused, narcotics and depressant drugs can cause: a. respiratory depression and respiratory arrest. b. dyspnea and orthopnea. c. pain and fever. d. aspiration and pneumonia. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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28. To produce red blood cells, the body needs: a. protein. b. fats. c. carbohydrates. d. iron and vitamins. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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29. Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged: a. in the upper airway. b. in lung tissue. c. at the alveoli. d. in the lower airway. ANS: C
L:LE RE EF 37R9.COM PTS: T1ESTBANKS
30. The earliest signs of hypoxia are: a. cyanosis, dyspnea, and increased pulse rate. b. sitting and leaning forward. c. restlessness, dizziness, and disorientation. d. fatigue and agitation. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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31. Which statement about hypoxia is correct? a. The brain is very used to having brief periods of inadequate oxygen. b. Hypoxia does not typically threaten life. c. Anything affecting respiratory function can cause hypoxia. d. Mechanical ventilation is needed. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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32. Which of the following can cause tachypnea? a. Fever and exercise b. Sleep c. Apnea d. Airway opening ANS: A
PTS: 1
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33. Persons who are in cardiac arrest or respiratory arrest have: a. apnea. b. bradypnea. c. Biot’s respirations. d. hypoventilation. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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34. Which of the following are reported to the nurse? a. Respirations that are effortless, and regular b. Quiet respirations c. The color, odor, and consistency of sputum d. Regular vital signs ANS: C
PTS: 1
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35. Cyanosis can be observed in which of the following? a. Hair b. Ears c. Nail beds d. Eyes ANS: C
PTS: 1
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36. You find a person learning forward over a table. What should you do? a. Tell the nurse. b. Remind the person to sit straight. TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. Give oxygen. d. Provide a postural support. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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37. A productive cough produces: a. sputum. b. cyanosis. c. chest pain. d. shortness of breath. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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38. The doctor ordered the following. You can assist with: a. a lung scan. b. a bronchoscopy. c. thoracentesis. d. collecting a sputum specimen. ANS: D
PTS: 1
39. A radioisotope is given for a: a. chest x-ray. b. lung scan. c. bronchoscopy.
REF: 383
d. thoracentesis. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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40. Which involves inserting a needle into the chest wall? a. Chest x-ray b. Lung scan c. Bronchoscopy d. Thoracentesis ANS: D
PTS: 1
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41. Which test measures the amount of air moving into and out of the lungs? a. Pulse oximetry b. Incentive spirometry c. Pulmonary function tests d. Arterial blood gases ANS: C
PTS: 1
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42. Which SpO2 would you report to the nurse? a. 83% b. 95% c. 97% d. 99% ANS: A
PTS: 1
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43. Pulse oximetry monitors dT isE plS ayT: BANKSELLER.COM a. SpO2 and the respiratory rate. b. the respiratory rate and pulse rate. c. SpO2 and pulse rate. d. vital signs. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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44. Pulse oximetry is ordered. Which is an appropriate sensor site? a. Chest b. Thigh c. Tooth d. Earlobe ANS: D
PTS: 1
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45. A pulse oximeter has an alarm. When does the alarm sound? a. The respiratory rate is too high. b. The respiratory rate is too low. c. O2 concentration is low. d. Cyanosis is present. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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46. Which of the following affect pulse oximetry measurements?
a. b. c. d.
Dark light Nail polish Long fingernails Skin color
ANS: B
PTS: 1
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47. A resident has a pulse oximetry sensor on his left index finger. You need to measure his blood
pressure. Which is correct? Remove the sensor and reapply it after measuring blood pressure. Use the right arm. Use a larger cuff. Change the sensor site.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
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48. A person has continuous pulse oximetry monitoring. Which statement is correct? a. An alarm sounds when the person has hypoxia. Observations are not necessary. b. The person tells you when you need to check the sensor site. c. The person’s family tells you what type of tape to use on the patient. d. The person’s apical or radial pulse rate should equal the pulse rate displayed. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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49. Respiratory secretions do which of the following? a. Promote coughing and deep breathing. b. Encourage air movement. c. Improve O2 and CO2 exTcE haSnTgB e.ANKSELLER.COM d. Provide an environment for microbes. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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50. To prevent respiratory complications, a person is repositioned at least every: a. hour. b. 2 hours. c. 4 hours. d. shift. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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51. A resident is in the orthopneic position. How can you increase the person’s comfort? a. Place a pillow under the person’s head and shoulders. b. Place a pillow on the over-bed table. c. Raise the head of the bed. d. Lower the head of the bed. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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52. Lying on one side for too long: a. prevents lung expansion on that side. b. causes coughing. c. causes pneumothorax. d. prevents a patent airway.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
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53. Lying on one side for too long: a. leads to the need for suctioning. b. leads to the need for mechanical ventilation. c. prevents the use of pulse oximetry. d. allows secretions to pool. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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54. Which removes mucus? a. Coughing b. Deep breathing c. Incentive spirometry d. Endotracheal tube ANS: A
PTS: 1
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55. A resident is on bed rest. The person will require: a. deep-breathing and coughing exercises. b. suctioning. c. mechanical ventilation. d. incentive spirometry and pulse oximetry. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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56. A part of a resident’s lung has collapsed. This is: a. Dehiscence. b. an evisceration. c. a pneumothorax. d. Atelectasis. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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57. Which of the following can cause part of a lung to collapse? a. Deep breathing and coughing b. Mucus collecting in the airway c. Mechanical ventilation d. Suctioning ANS: B
PTS: 1
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58. Deep-breathing and coughing exercises are usually done: a. every hour. b. every 2 hours. c. every 4 hours. d. every shift. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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59. How many deep breaths and coughs does a person need to do? a. 3
b. 5 c. 10 d. As many as directed by the nurse and care plan ANS: D
PTS: 1
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60. You are assisting a resident with deep-breathing and coughing exercises. For these exercises,
the person can be positioned in which of the following ways? Prone position Semi-Fowler’s position Supine position Orthopneic position
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
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61. You are assisting a resident with deep-breathing and coughing exercises. The person needs to
inhale through: pursed lips. the mouth. the nose. a mouthpiece.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
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62. You are assisting a resident with coughing and deep-breathing exercises. She needs to exhale
through: a. pursed lips. b. the mouth. c. the nose. d. a mouthpiece. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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63. A resident had abdominal surgery. You are assisting the person with deep-breathing and
coughing exercises. Which will promote the person’s comfort during coughing? a. Placing a pillow on the table b. Holding a pillow over the person’s incision c. Being suctioned d. Using incentive spirometry ANS: B
PTS: 1
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64. You are assisting with deep-breathing and coughing exercises. The person needs to cough: a. once with the mouth open. b. twice with the mouth open. c. once through pursed lips. d. twice through pursed lips. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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65. The deep breaths taken using incentive spirometry are like: a. bradypnea. b. yawning or sighing.
c. coughing and sneezing. d. inhalation and exhalation. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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66. What is measured during incentive spirometry? a. The amount of oxygen in the blood b. The amount of oxygen in hemoglobin c. The amount of air inhaled d. The amount of air exhaled ANS: C
PTS: 1
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67. You are assisting a resident with incentive spirometry. Which action is correct? a. The person inhales through the nose. b. The person takes a slow, deep breath until the balls rise to the desired height. c. The person holds his or her breath for 5 to 10 seconds. d. The person exhales through the mouthpiece. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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68. Incentive spirometry also is called: a. pulse oximetry. b. arterial blood gases. c. coughing and deep breathing. d. sustained maximal inspiration. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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69. A resident uses incentive spirometry. How many breaths does the person need to take with the
device? 2 4 6 As many as the nurse directs
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
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70. Incentive spirometry improves lung function because it: a. promotes coughing. b. moves air deep into the lungs. c. prevents aspiration. d. prevents the need for oxygen therapy. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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71. Who decides how much oxygen to give? a. The person b. The doctor c. The nurse d. The respiratory therapist ANS: B
PTS: 1
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72. Who decides which oxygen device to use? a. The person b. The doctor c. The nurse d. The respiratory therapist ANS: B
PTS: 1
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73. Who decides when to give oxygen? a. The person b. The doctor c. The nurse d. The respiratory therapist ANS: B
PTS: 1
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74. Who starts and maintains oxygen therapy? a. The doctor and nurse b. The doctor and respiratory therapist c. The nurse and respiratory therapist d. The nurse and nursing assistant ANS: C
PTS: 1
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75. Which oxygen sources are used when the person is ambulatory or uses a wheelchair? a. Wall outlet or oxygen tank b. Oxygen tank or oxygen concentrator TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. Oxygen concentrator or liquid oxygen unit d. Small oxygen tank or portable liquid oxygen unit ANS: D
PTS: 1
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76. What is the danger of liquid oxygen systems? a. Liquid oxygen can freeze the skin. b. Liquid oxygen can burn the skin. c. Liquid oxygen can cause pressure on the skin. d. Liquid oxygen can cause atelectasis. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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77. An oxygen administration device has two prongs that insert into the nostrils. This device is: a. nasal cannula. b. simple face mask. c. partial-rebreather mask. d. venturi mask. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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78. Which oxygen administration device allows the person to talk and eat? a. Nasal cannula b. Simple face mask c. Partial-rebreather mask
d. Venturi mask ANS: A
PTS: 1
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79. Which oxygen administration device does not cover the nose and mouth? a. Nasal cannula b. Simple face mask c. Partial-rebreather mask d. Venturi mask ANS: A
PTS: 1
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80. Who sets and adjusts the oxygen flow rate? a. The doctor or nurse b. The doctor or respiratory therapist c. The nurse or respiratory therapist d. The nurse or nursing assistant ANS: C
PTS: 1
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81. A resident receives oxygen at 2 L/min. You note that the flow rate is at 4 L/min. What should
you do? Nothing. The flow rate is within normal range. Adjust the flow rate. Tell the nurse. Ask how the person feels.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
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82. The nurse asks you to set up for oxygen administration. You can do which of the following? a. Choose which type of oxygen source to use. b. Decide which type of mask to use. c. Attach the administration device and connecting tubing to the humidifier. d. Set the flow rate and apply the administration device. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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83. Oxygen is humidified to: a. prevent irritation from the administration device. b. keep the airway moist. c. keep the airway dry. d. prevent secretions. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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84. You assist the nurse with oxygen therapy. Which of the following tasks can you perform? a. Adjust the flow rate. b. Remove the administration device. c. Shut off oxygen. d. Secure connecting tubing in place. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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85. A resident is receiving oxygen therapy. The nurse reminds you to check for signs of irritation
from the device. You need to check which of the following areas? The person’s toe Under the nose The fingers The person’s chest
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
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86. A resident is receiving oxygen therapy. The humidifier is not bubbling. What should you do? a. Add more water to the humidifier. b. Adjust the flow rate. c. Shut off the oxygen. d. Tell the nurse. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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87. A resident is receiving oxygen therapy. Connecting tubing must be: a. snug. b. free of kinks. c. lubricated. d. out of the person’s reach. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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88. A person is receiving oxygen therapy. The nurse asks you to adjust the flow rate. What should
you do? Refuse the task and expTlE aiS nT wB hyA.NKSELLER.COM Perform the task as directed. Ask the nurse to show you how to complete the task. Refer to the procedure manual for the steps in completing the task.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
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89. Blood in the pleural space is: a. hemothorax. b. hemoptysis. c. pleural effusion. d. pneumothorax. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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90. Respirations are rapid and deeper than normal. This is: a. bradypnea. b. tachypnea. c. hypoventilation. d. hyperventilation. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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91. The process of inserting an artificial airway is: a. mechanical ventilation. b. chest tube insertion.
c. suctioning. d. intubation. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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92. Using a machine to move air into and out of the lungs is: a. mechanical ventilation. b. chest tube insertion. c. suctioning. d. intubation. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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93. The escape and collection of fluid in the pleural space is: a. pleural effusion. b. pneumothorax. c. hemothorax. d. sputum. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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94. Air in the pleural space is: a. pleural effusion. b. pneumothorax. c. hemothorax. d. sputum. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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95. The process of withdrawing or sucking up fluid is: a. hemoptysis. b. sputum. c. suction. d. secretions. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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96. Inserting an artificial airway is called: a. suctioning. b. intubation. c. mechanical ventilation. d. Ambu. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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97. Only doctors can: a. insert oropharyngeal airways. b. insert nasopharyngeal airways. c. insert endotracheal tubes. d. perform tracheostomies. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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98. A person’s artificial airway came out. What should you do? a. Reinsert the airway. b. Call for the nurse at once. c. Ask the person to put it back in. d. Give oxygen. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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99. Persons with artificial airways need: a. fluids offered at frequent intervals. b. frequent oral hygiene. c. frequent suctioning. d. range-of-motion exercises every hour. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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100. What sensations are common with artificial airways? a. Numbness and tingling b. Pain and discomfort c. Dizziness and faintness d. Gagging and choking ANS: D
PTS: 1
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101. Persons with endotracheal tubes are unable to: a. breathe. b. sleep. c. move. d. speak. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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102. A person has a tracheostomy tube. To communicate with the person, which is correct? a. Follow the care plan. b. Provide paper and pencil. c. Establish hand and eye signals. d. Provide a communication board. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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103. Which statement about tracheostomies is correct? a. The nurse removes the inner and outer cannulas for cleaning. b. The outer cannula is held in place with tape. c. For an adult, three fingers should slide under the ties or collar. d. Standard Precautions and the Bloodborne Pathogen Standard are followed during
tracheostomy care. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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104. A resident has a permanent tracheostomy. The person wants to go outside. Which is correct? a. People with tracheostomies cannot go outside. b. The person cannot go outside alone. c. The person needs to wear a scarf or blouse that will cover the stoma.
d. The person needs to take an Ambu bag with her. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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105. A resident has a permanent tracheostomy. The person wants to take a shower. Which is
correct? a. People with tracheostomies cannot shower. They have tub or bed baths. b. A shower guard is used and a hand-held nozzle is used to direct water away from
the stoma. c. The person needs to cover the stoma with plastic or leather. d. Only the person’s lower body is washed. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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106. Suctioning is done when: a. the person cannot cough up secretions. b. a sputum specimen is needed. c. secretions are excessive. d. the person is very ill. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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107. Which statement about suctioning is correct? a. Oxygen is forced into the airway. b. The person inhales air during suctioning. c. Suctioning is harmless to the person. d. A suction cycle involves inserting the catheter, applying suction, and removing the
catheter. ANS: D
PTS: 1
108. A suction cycle lasts a. 5 to 10 b. 10 to 15 c. 15 to 20 d. 20 to 30 ANS: B
REF: 393
seconds.
PTS: 1
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PTS: 1
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109. Suctioning is done: a. every hour. b. every 2 hours. c. every 4 hours. d. as needed. ANS: D
110. The nurse asks you to assist with suctioning. Which is correct? a. Know what the nurse expects of you. b. Clear the catheter with water or saline. c. Apply suction after inserting the catheter. d. Pass the catheter no more than three times.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
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111. Mechanical ventilation requires: a. suctioning. b. an oropharyngeal or a nasopharyngeal airway. c. chest tubes. d. an endotracheal tube or a tracheostomy tube. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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112. An alarm sounds on a mechanical ventilator. What should you do first? a. Shut off the alarm. b. Reset the alarm. c. Tell the nurse. d. Check to see if the tube is attached to the ventilator. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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113. A resident requires mechanical ventilation. The nurse asks you to assist with the person’s
care. Which should you politely refuse to do? Answer the signal light promptly. Explain who you are and what you are going to do every time you enter the room. Check the ventilator settings and reset alarms. Follow the care plan to communicate with the person.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
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114. A resident requires mechanical ventilation. The nurse asks you to assist with the person’s
care. Which should you politely refuse to do? Meet the person’s basic needs according to the care plan. Comfort and reassure the person. Suction the person’s airway. Tell the person when you are leaving the room.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
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115. Chest tubes are attached to: a. suction. b. a mechanical ventilator. c. a drainage system. d. the bed frame. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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116. A resident has chest tubes. Connecting tubes: a. are kept above the person’s chest. b. are kept coiled on the bed. c. should hang in loops. d. should be snug but not tight. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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117. You observe bright red drainage from the chest tubes. What should you do?
a. b. c. d.
Suction the person. Tell the nurse. Call the doctor. Ask the person to deep breathe and cough.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
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118. A resident has chest tubes. You are assisting the nurse with the person’s care. You can do
which of the following? Turn and reposition the person according to the care plan. Change the suction settings. Change the dressing covering the chest tube. Empty the bottles at the end of your shift.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
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119. What is kept at the bedside in case a chest tube comes out? a. An artificial airway b. A suction catheter c. An Ambu bag d. Sterile petrolatum gauze ANS: D
PTS: 1
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120. A person needs suctioning. The nurse is very busy with a family member. You are told to
suction the person. What should you do? a. Refuse the task and explain why. b. Perform the task as direc . BANKSELLER.COM TEteSdT c. Ask the nurse to show you how to complete the task. d. Ask someone else to do it. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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121. Artificial airways are used: a. to keep the airway moist. b. to keep the airway open. c. when suctioning is needed. d. when chest tubes are needed. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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TRUE/FALSE 1. The nurse asks you to assist with suctioning. Before assisting, you need to review the
procedure with the nurse. ANS: T
PTS: 1
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2. If not done correctly, suctioning can cause serious harm. ANS: T
PTS: 1
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Chapter 27: Measuring Vital Signs Kostelnick: Mosby’s Textbook for Long-Term Care Nursing Assistants, 8th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The nurse asks you to take an apical-radial pulse. Which is correct? a. The apical pulse is taken first. b. The radial pulse is taken after the apical pulse. c. The apical and radial pulses are taken at the same time. d. You can take the apical pulse or the radial pulse. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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2. The amount of force exerted against the walls of an artery by the blood is the: a. blood pressure. b. pulse deficit. c. diastolic pressure. d. systolic pressure. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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3. The amount of heat in the body that is a balance between the amount of heat produced and the
amount lost by the body is: fahrenheit. centigrade. celsius. body temperature.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
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4. A heart rate less than 60 beats/min is: a. bradycardia. b. tachycardia. c. hypotension. d. hypertension. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 397
5. The heart muscle relaxes during: a. bradycardia. b. tachycardia. c. systole. d. diastole. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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6. The pressure in the arteries when the heart is at rest is: a. blood pressure. b. pulse deficit. c. diastolic pressure. d. systolic pressure.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
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7. A systolic blood pressure that remains above 140 mm Hg and a diastolic pressure that remains
above 90 mm Hg is: hypertension. hypotension. bradycardia. tachycardia.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
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8. A systolic blood pressure below 90 mm Hg or a diastolic pressure below 60 mm Hg is: a. hypertension. b. hypotension. c. bradycardia. d. tachycardia. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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9. The beat of the heart felt at an artery as a wave of blood passes through the artery is the: a. pulse. b. pulse deficit. c. pulse rate. d. heartbeat. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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10. The difference between theTaEpS icT alBaA ndNK raS diE alLpLuE lsR es.isCtOhM e: a. apical-radial pulse. b. pulse deficit. c. bradycardia. d. tachycardia. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 397
11. The number of pulses felt in 1 minute is the: a. pulse. b. pulse deficit. c. pulse rate. d. heartbeat. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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12. The act of inhalation and exhalation is: a. respiration. b. respiratory rate. c. breathing. d. basic need. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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13. Which of the following is used to measure blood pressure?
a. b. c. d.
Thermometer Sphygmomanometer Stethoscope Cuff
ANS: B
PTS: 1
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14. Which instrument is used to listen to sounds produced by the body? a. Thermometer b. Sphygmomanometer c. Stethoscope d. Cuff ANS: C
PTS: 1
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15. The period of heart muscle contraction is: a. bradycardia. b. tachycardia. c. systole. d. diastole. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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16. The pressure in the arteries when the heart contracts is known as: a. blood pressure. b. pulse deficit. c. diastolic pressure. d. systolic pressure. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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17. A heart rate over 100 beats/min is: a. bradycardia. b. tachycardia. c. hypotension. d. hypertension. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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18. Temperature, pulse, respirations, and blood pressure are: a. basic needs. b. vital signs. c. measurements. d. observations. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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19. Vital signs do which of the following? a. Detect changes in body function. b. Measure how much urine the kidneys have made. c. Diagnose illness. d. Tell certain lab values.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
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20. A resident is 83 years old. You measure the person’s vital signs: a. several times a day. b. before and after surgery. c. after giving care. d. according to the person’s care plan. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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21. Vital signs are normally taken with the person: a. sitting or standing. b. sitting or lying down. c. lying down only. d. sitting only. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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22. Vital signs are immediately reported to the nurse at which of the following times? a. Whenever they are taken. b. If there is a change from a previous measurement. c. If they are in the normal range. d. If the doctor is present. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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23. Body temperature is usually the lowest: a. in the morning. b. in the afternoon. c. in the evening. d. at bedtime. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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24. A female resident is 83 years old. Which of the following will affect her body temperature? a. Weather and exercise b. Her menstrual cycle c. The food she ate that morning d. The elasticity of her skin ANS: A
PTS: 1
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25. Body temperature is measured at which of the following sites? a. The toe b. The nose c. The rectum d. Behind the knee ANS: C
PTS: 1
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26. Body temperature is measured at which of the following sites? a. The earlobe b. The tympanic membrane
c. Under the breasts d. The neck ANS: B
PTS: 1
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27. A resident is 55 years old. The person needs rehabilitation after hip replacement surgery. You
take the person’s temperature orally. Which measurement is abnormal? a. 98.1° F b. 99.8° F c. 98.2° F d. 98.0° F ANS: B
PTS: 1
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28. A resident is 55 years old. The person needs rehabilitation after hip replacement surgery. You
take the person’s tympanic membrane temperature. Which measurement is normal? a. 98.6° F b. 99.0° F c. 98.0° F d. 97.6° F ANS: A
PTS: 1
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29. Taking temperatures is delegated to you. The nurse and care plan tell you which of the
following? The normal range for the site used What site to use How to use the thermoT mE etS erTBANKSELLER.COM Whether the thermometer needs charging
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
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30. A rectal thermometer is color-coded in: a. blue. b. red. c. green. d. yellow. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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31. You are taking an oral temperature. How long do you request the person have nothing to eat
or drink prior to you taking his or her temperature? a. 15 to 20 minutes b. 10 minutes c. 2 to 3 minutes d. 5 to 10 minutes ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 399
32. You are taking a temperature with a tympanic thermometer. How long do you leave the
thermometer in place? a. 1 to 3 seconds b. 5 to 10 seconds
c. 1 to 3 minutes d. 5 to 10 minutes ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 400
33. You are taking temperature using a temporal artery thermometer. How long would you
anticipate this thermometer taking to obtain a temperature? 1 minute 3 to 4 seconds 2 to 3 minutes 3 to 4 minutes
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 399
34. A person has a nasogastric tube. When measuring temperature, you cannot use the a. oral b. rectal c. axillary d. tympanic membrane ANS: A
PTS: 1
site.
REF: 400
35. A person is receiving oxygen. When measuring temperature, you cannot use the a. oral b. rectal c. axillary d. tympanic membrane ANS: A
L:LE RE EF 39R8.COM PTS: T1ESTBANKS
36. A person is unconscious. When measuring temperature, you cannot use the a. oral b. rectal c. axillary d. tympanic membrane ANS: A
site.
PTS: 1
site.
REF: 398
37. A person is paralyzed on the right side. When measuring temperature, you cannot use the a. b. c. d.
site. oral rectal temporal artery tympanic membrane
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 398
38. A person has a convulsive disorder. When measuring temperature, you cannot use the
site. oral temporal artery axillary tympanic membrane
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 398
39. A person has diarrhea. When measuring temperature, you will need to avoid the a. oral b. rectal c. temporal artery d. tympanic membrane ANS: B
PTS: 1
site.
REF: 398
40. A person has heart disease. When measuring temperature, you should avoid using the
site. a. oral b. rectal c. axillary d. tympanic membrane ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 398
41. For an accurate measurement, the axillary site needs to be: a. wet. b. dry. c. lubricated. d. cleaned. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 398
42. To measure a temporal arteTrE yS teT mB peArN atK urSe,EwLhLicEhRis.cCoO rrM ect? a. Insert the device gently into the ear. b. Gently stroke the device across the forehead. c. Place the device behind the knee. d. Gently insert the device between the toes. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 400
43. A resident smokes. The person just had a cigarette. How long do you need to wait before
taking the person’s temperature orally? 5 to 10 minutes 10 to 15 minutes 15 to 20 minutes You do not need to wait
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 399-400
44. To take a rectal temperature, the person needs to be: a. lying down. b. in Sims’ position. c. in the right side-lying position. d. in the prone position. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 400
45. Before inserting a rectal thermometer, you need to: a. clean it with hot water. b. lubricate it. c. place it in a probe cover. d. clean it with a disinfectant. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 401
46. The tympanic membrane thermometer is inserted: a. into the mouth. b. into the rectum. c. under the arm. d. into the ear. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 400
47. A person has dementia. Which site should you use to measure temperature? a. Oral b. Rectal c. Axillary d. Tympanic membrane ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 399
48. Temperature-sensitive tape is usually applied to the: a. forehead. b. axilla. c. mouth. d. buttocks. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 400
49. Which is the most common site for taking a pulse? a. The radial site b. The apical site c. The carotid site d. The brachial site ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 402
50. The apical pulse is found: a. on the thumb side of the wrist. b. just below the left nipple. c. just below the right nipple. d. at the inner aspect of the elbow. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 403
51. Which pulse site requires the use of a stethoscope? a. The radial site b. The apical site c. The carotid site d. The brachial site
ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 403
52. What should you use to clean a stethoscope? a. Antiseptic wipes b. Disinfectant solution c. Cold water d. Hot water ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 403
53. Before placing the stethoscope on the person, you need to warm the diaphragm: a. in warm water. b. in hot water. c. in your hand. d. under the person’s arm. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 403
54. For an adult, which pulse rate is reported to the nurse at once? a. 50 b. 62 c. 75 d. 98 ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 404
55. For an adult, which pulse rate is reported to the nurse at once? a. 66 b. 74 c. 88 d. 110 ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 404
56. You are taking a resident’s pulse. The beats are not spaced evenly. How would you describe
the person’s pulse when reporting to the nurse? Irregular Weak and feeble Strong and full Thready and bounding
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 404
57. Your center uses electronic blood pressure equipment. Why do you still need to feel pulses? a. The equipment may not be accurate. b. The rate is given but not the rhythm or force. c. To measure the pulse deficit. d. To measure systole and diastole. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 404
58. A radial pulse is counted for how many seconds?
a. b. c. d.
15 seconds 30 seconds 45 seconds 30 or 60 seconds, depending on the facility policy
ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 404
59. When taking a radial pulse, you need to use: a. your thumb. b. your first 2 or 3 fingers. c. your ring and little fingers. d. a stethoscope. ANS: B
PTS: 1
60. An apical pulse is usually counted for a. 15 b. 30 c. 45 d. 60 ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 405
seconds.
REF: 405
61. When taking an apical pulse, you need to use: a. your thumb. b. the middle three fingers. c. your ring and little fingers. d. a stethoscope. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 405
62. You are taking an apical pulse. Which statement is correct? a. The lub sound is counted as one beat. b. The dub sound is counted as one beat. c. The lub-dub is counted as one beat. d. The pulse deficit is counted. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 405
63. Which statement about apical-radial pulses is correct? a. The rates should be equal. b. The apical rate should be greater than the radial rate. c. The radial rate should be greater than the apical rate. d. The radial rate can be higher than the apical rate. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 405
64. How many staff members are needed to take an apical-radial pulse? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 406
65. To obtain the pulse deficit, which is correct? a. Add the apical and radial pulse rates. b. Subtract the apical pulse rate from the radial pulse rate. c. Subtract the radial pulse rate from the apical pulse rate. d. Multiply the pulse rates by two. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 406
66. When taking an apical-radial pulse, the pulses are counted for a. 15 b. 30 c. 45 d. 60 ANS: D 67.
PTS: 1
seconds.
REF: 406
Respirations usually are counted a. After taking the temperature b. After taking the pulse c. Before measuring blood pressure d. After measuring blood pressure ANS: B
PTS: 1
68. The healthy adult has a. 10 to 14 b. 12 to 18 c. 12 to 20 d. 15 to 30 ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 406
respirations per minute.
REF: 407
69. You are counting a resident’s respirations. Which statement is correct? a. You need to tell the person what you are doing. b. Each rise and fall of the chest is counted as two respirations. c. Both sides of the person’s chest should rise and fall equally. d. Respirations are usually counted for 30 seconds. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 407
70. You measured a resident’s blood pressure. His diastolic pressure was 78 mm Hg. His systolic
pressure was 144 mm Hg. How do you record these measurements? 78 mm Hg/144 mm Hg 78/144 mm Hg 144 mm Hg/78 mm Hg 144/78 mm Hg
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 407
71. Which of the following factors tend to increase blood pressure? a. Being a female
b. Age c. Pain d. Race ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 408
72. Which of the following factors tend to increase blood pressure? a. Blood loss b. Being male c. High-fiber diet d. Sleeping ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 408
73. Which of the following factors tend to increase blood pressure? a. Alcohol b. Sudden position changes c. Weight loss d. Low sodium diet ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 408
74. Which systolic pressure should you report at once? a. 98 b. 138 c. 108 d. 118 ANS: B
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75. Which systolic pressure should you report at once? a. 120 b. 110 c. 90 d. 80 ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 408
76. Which diastolic pressure should you report at once? a. 50 b. 60 c. 70 d. 80 ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 408
77. Which diastolic pressure should you report at once? a. 100 b. 84 c. 80 d. 76 ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 408
78. To measure blood pressure, you need a: a. thermometer. b. sphygmomanometer. c. digital display. d. stethoscope. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 408
79. The blood pressure cuff is applied over the: a. brachial artery. b. radial artery. c. carotid artery. d. apical pulse. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 408
80. A resident has a cast on his left wrist. Which statement is correct? a. Blood pressure is measured on the injured arm. b. Blood pressure is measured on the right arm. c. He decides what arm to use. d. You use the arm that is easiest to reach. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 409
81. Ten years ago a resident had breast surgery on her right side. Which statement is correct? a. Blood pressure is measured on the right arm. b. Blood pressure is measured on the left arm. TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. She decides what arm to use. d. You use the arm that is easiest to reach. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 409
82. A resident has an IV in her left arm. Which statement is correct? a. Blood pressure is measured on the right arm. b. Blood pressure is measured on the left arm. c. She decides what arm to use. d. You use the arm that is easiest to reach. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 409
83. A resident just finished his daily exercise program. You need to measure his blood pressure.
How long does he need to rest before the measurement? 5 minutes 5 to 10 minutes 10 to 20 minutes 20 to 30 minutes
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
84. The blood pressure cuff is applied: a. over clothing. b. to the bare arm.
REF: 409
c. over the radial artery. d. under the brachial artery. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 409
85. The diastolic pressure is the a. first b. second c. third d. last
sound you hear.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 409
86. You cannot hear a person’s blood pressure. What should you do? a. Take it again. b. Get a different stethoscope. c. Tell the nurse at once. d. Record the previous measurement. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 409
87. You are measuring blood pressure. How fast should you deflate the cuff? a. 2 to 4 millimeters per second b. 4 to 6 millimeters per second c. 5 millimeters per second d. 10 millimeters per second ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 409
88. The systolic pressure is the a. first b. second c. third d. last
sound you hear.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 410
89. You are measuring blood pressure. How far should you inflate the cuff beyond the point
where you last felt the person’s pulse? 10 mm Hg 20 mm Hg 30 mm Hg 40 mm Hg
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 409
TRUE/FALSE 1. A glass thermometer is appropriate to use to obtain an oral temperature. ANS: F
PTS: 1
REF: 410
Chapter 28: Assisting With the Physical Examination Kostelnick: Mosby’s Textbook for Long-Term Care Nursing Assistants, 8th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A resident is in the supine position with his legs together. This is the a. lithotomy b. dorsal recumbent c. knee-chest d. side-lying ANS: B
PTS: 1
position.
REF: 417
2. A resident is in the lithotomy position. This means that she is: a. kneeling with her body resting on her knees and chest. b. lying on her back with her legs together. c. lying on her back with her knees flexed, her hips externally rotated, and her feet in
stirrups. d. lying on her left side. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 413
3. When in the knee-chest position, the person’s arms are: a. at the sides. b. above the head. c. under the chest. d. out to the sides. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 413
4. A laryngeal mirror is used to examine the: a. vagina. b. rectum. c. mouth, teeth, and throat. d. ears. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 413
5. A nasal speculum is used to examine the: a. inside of the nose. b. vagina. c. rectum. d. mouth, teeth, and throat. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 413
6. An ophthalmoscope is used to examine the internal structures of the: a. nose. b. ears. c. eyes. d. vagina.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 413
7. An otoscope is used to examine the: a. nose. b. external ear and eardrum. c. eyes. d. mouth, teeth, and throat. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 413
8. A percussion hammer is used to: a. examine the eardrum. b. test reflexes. c. examine the tympanic membrane. d. test hearing. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 413
9. A tuning fork is used to: a. examine the eardrum. b. test reflexes. c. examine the tympanic membrane. d. test hearing. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 413
10. A vaginal speculum is used to examine the: a. cervix. b. ears. c. nose. d. eyes. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 413
11. Who can perform physical examinations? a. The nursing team b. The health team c. Doctors and many RNs d. All RNs and LPNs ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 413
12. To prepare a person for an exam, you need all of the following information from the nurse and
the care plan except: When to prepare the person? How to position the person? Why the person needs the exam? If a urine specimen is needed?
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 413
13. The nurse asks you to weigh a resident before an examination. Which is correct?
a. b. c. d.
The person wears undergarments under the gown. The person is undressed for the exam after being weighed. The person urinates before being weighed. The person chooses what to wear.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 417
14. You are going to assist with a physical exam using a vaginal speculum. You can do which of
the following? Insert the speculum. Obtain the vaginal secretions using a speculum. Measure vital signs. Feel abdominal organs.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 414
15. You are going to assist with a physical exam. You can do which of the following? a. Collect supplies and equipment. b. Explain the risks and benefits of the exam. c. Explain to the person’s roommate what will be done to the person. d. Obtain the person’s informed consent. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 414
16. You are preparing a resident for a physical exam. Which statement is correct? a. You need to be sensitive to the person’s fears and anxieties. b. You must respect personal choice by letting the person choose what to wear. c. You explain why the exa neAeN deKdSaE ndLw toCeO xpMect. TEmSiTs B LhEaRt . d. You obtain the person’s informed consent. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 414
17. You need to protect the person’s privacy during the exam. Which is correct? a. Open the curtains so the person can see outside. b. Open the door to the room so that staff will know where you are. c. Drape the person properly. d. Let the person wear pajamas and a robe. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 417
18. What is usually worn for a physical exam? a. Pajamas b. A hospital gown with drape c. No clothes and covered with a towel d. Regular clothes ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 417
19. You ask the person to urinate before a physical exam. Why is this necessary? a. So the examiner can feel abdominal organs b. So the exam is not interrupted with the need to urinate c. To obtain a urine specimen d. To measure output
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 417
20. A resident complains of being cold during the exam. What can you do? a. Provide a bath blanket. b. Turn up the heat. c. Tell the examiner. d. Tell the person that the exam will be over shortly. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 417
21. What examination position is used for a female resident? a. The dorsal recumbent position b. The Sims’ position c. The position she chooses d. The position the examiner chooses ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 418
22. The dorsal recumbent position is used to examine which of the following areas? a. Rectum b. Abdomen c. Back d. Buttocks ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 418
23. The lithotomy position is used to examine the: a. male reproductive orgaT nE s. STBANKSELLER.COM b. abdomen. c. vagina. d. breasts. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 418
24. The knee-chest position is used to examine the: a. rectum. b. abdomen. c. chest. d. breasts. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 419
25. The Sims’ position is used to examine the: a. rectum or vagina. b. chest and abdomen. c. breasts and abdomen. d. chest and breasts. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 419
26. Before helping a person assumes an examination position, which is correct? a. Tell the person not to worry.
b. Explain how to assume the position. c. Drape the person. d. Raise the bed rails near you. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 419
27. A female resident is ready for a male doctor to do the exam. You are a female. What should
you do? Leave the room. Stay in the room. Open the door. Remove the drape.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 418
28. Which action protects the person’s privacy during the exam? a. The drape is removed. b. The gown is removed. c. Only the part being examined is exposed. d. You leave the room. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 419
29. After the exam, you need to do which of the following? a. Explain to the person’s roommate what was done. b. Explain the results to the person. c. Help the person dress. d. Explain the results to th am TeEfS TiBlyA. NKSELLER.COM ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 419
30. The doctor completed the exam. You can do which of the following? a. Explain the results to the family. b. Replace supplies on the exam tray. c. Sterilize the instruments for the next person. d. Explain the results in terms the person can understand. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 420
31. The following were used during the exam. Which can you discard? a. Paper drapes b. Otoscope c. Speculum d. Ophthalmoscope tips ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 420
32. When assisting with a physical exam, you are responsible for which of the following? a. Protecting the person’s roommate from hearing the exam b. Obtaining informed consent c. Meeting the person’s nutritional desires d. Providing a safe setting
ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 420
33. A resident has dementia. The person is agitated and does not want the exam. What should you
do? a. b. c. d.
Call the person’s daughter to assist you. Tell the nurse the exam may need to be tried later. Explain the reason for the exam to the person. Tell the person not to worry.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 420
34. You are going to measure a resident’s height. What information do you need from the nurse
first? How to measure height What the person’s height should be What scale to use If the person should wear shoes
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 419
35. To balance a scale, you must move the weights to: a. 0. b. 10. c. 50. d. 100. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 414
TESTBANKSELLER.COM
36. Before you weigh a person, you need to have the person: a. drink a glass of water. b. void. c. have a bowel movement. d. put on a robe and footwear. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 414
37. You are measuring height with the person in bed. Which is correct? a. Keep the bed in the low position. b. Position the person prone. c. Get a coworker to help you. d. Raise both bed rails. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 414
TRUE/FALSE 1. An exam is done only with the person’s consent. ANS: T
PTS: 1
REF: 417
Chapter 29: Collecting and Testing Specimens Kostelnick: Mosby’s Textbook for Long-Term Care Nursing Assistants, 8th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Acetone is: a. a tube used to drain or inject fluid through a body opening. b. an artificial way to remove waste and excess fluid from the body. c. sugar in the urine. d. a substance that appears in the urine from the rapid breakdown of fat for energy. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 422
2. Glucosuria means: a. sugar in the urine. b. blood in the urine. c. a scant amount of urine. d. difficult or painful urination. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 422
3. Glycosuria means: a. sugar in the urine. b. blood in the urine. c. a scant amount of urine. d. difficult or painful urination. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 422
4. Hematuria means: a. sugar in the urine. b. blood in the urine. c. a scant amount of urine. d. difficult or painful urination. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 422
5. Melena is: a. the excessive formation of gas in the stomach and intestines. b. gas or air in the stomach or intestines. c. a black, tarry stool. d. excreted feces. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 422
6. Mucus from the respiratory system that is expelled through the mouth is: a. phlegm. b. saliva. c. sputum. d. ketone. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 422
7. Bloody sputum is: a. ketone. b. hemoptysis. c. saliva. d. postural drainage. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 422
8. Which statement about collecting a urine specimen is correct? a. Label the container with the requested information. b. Touch the inside of the container or lid. c. Collect the specimen at the time it works best with your schedule for the day. d. Ask the person to label the specimen container. ANS: A 9.
PTS: 1
REF: 422
Which is a rule for collecting specimens? a. Follow the rules for surgical asepsis. b. Follow Sterile Procedures when obtaining a sputum specimen. c. Always use a sterile container. d. Label the container accurately. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 423
10. Which health team member orders the specimens to collect and the tests needed? a. The RN b. The LPN/LVN c. The physical therapist d. The doctor ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 422
11. The nurse asks you to collect a midstream specimen. Which is correct? a. No special measures are needed. b. The perineal area is cleaned before collecting the specimen. c. The first voiding is discarded. d. The person voids twice. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 424
12. The nurse asks you to collect a 24-hour urine specimen. Which statement is correct? a. No special measures are needed. b. The perineal area is cleaned before collecting the specimen. c. The first voiding is discarded. d. The person voids twice. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 425
13. Preservative from a 24-hour urine collection container splashed onto your hand. Which action
is correct? a. Flush your hand with a large amount of water. b. Soak your hand in warm, soapy water for 20 minutes.
c. Notify the physician. d. Document the incident on the person’s chart. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 425
14. You need to collect a midstream urine specimen from a female resident. Which action is
correct? Clean gloves are used. The urethral area is cleaned from back to front. The labia are kept separated until she finishes voiding. The labia are kept separated until you collect 30 to 60 mL.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 425
15. The doctor orders testing for glucosuria and ketones. What specimen is best? a. A random urine specimen b. A midstream urine specimen c. A 24-hour urine specimen d. A double-voided specimen ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 426
16. The doctor orders testing for glucosuria and ketones. When are these tests usually done? a. During AM and bedtime care b. After meals c. 30 minutes before each meal and at bedtime d. Every time the person urinates ANS: C
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17. Which measures if urine is acidic or alkaline? a. Testing pH b. Testing for glucose c. Testing for ketones d. Straining urine ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 426
18. You are using reagent strips to test urine. Which is correct? a. Ask the person to test his or her own urine. b. Follow Sterile Procedure for testing the urine. c. Compare the tested strip to the color chart on the bottle. d. Dip the strip into the specimen for 60 seconds. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 427
19. Urine is strained to check for: a. acetone. b. blood. c. stones. d. urine pH. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 428
20. The nurse asks you to strain a person’s urine. To do this, you need: a. a midstream urine specimen. b. a 24-hour urine specimen. c. a strainer or gauze. d. elastic tape. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 428
21. After straining a person’s urine, you find some particles. What should you do? a. Report your findings to the nurse. b. Discard the specimen after observing the results. c. Test the particles for blood. d. Measure the particles. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 429
22. You are collecting a stool specimen. Which is correct? a. Transfer the expelled stool to the specimen container. b. Have the person defecate into the specimen container. c. Use a tongue blade to transfer two tablespoons of feces to the specimen container. d. Ask the person to have a bowel movement at the time specified. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 429
23. The nurse asks you to collect a stool specimen from a resident. Which is correct? a. Explain to the person’s roommate what needs to occur in order for the specimen to
be obtained. b. Explain to the person that they may not get up until they have defecated. c. Ask if the person understands what to do. d. Stay with the person until the person has a bowel movement. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 429
24. The nurse asks you to test a stool specimen for occult blood. You know that occult blood: a. can be seen. b. means a black, tarry stool. c. is hidden or unseen. d. is dark red. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 429
25. You are going to test a stool specimen for blood. Which action is correct? a. Use sterile gloves. b. Follow Sterile Precautions. c. Follow the Bloodborne Pathogen Standard. d. Report test results at the end of your shift. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 431
26. When collecting a sputum specimen, the person coughs up sputum from the: a. mouth. b. throat.
c. upper airway. d. bronchi and trachea. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 431
27. Sputum specimen collection is easier: a. upon awakening in the morning. b. after a meal. c. after activity. d. before a meal. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 432
28. Oral care before collecting a sputum specimen involves: a. brushing the teeth. b. using mouthwash. c. flossing. d. rinsing with clear water. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 432
29. How much sputum is needed for a specimen? a. 1 to 2 teaspoons b. 1 to 2 tablespoons c. 1/4 cup d. 1/2 cup ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 433
30. What part of the specimen container can you touch? a. Any part b. The outside of the container and lid c. The inside of the container and lid d. Only the outside of the container ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 432, 433
31. After collecting a sputum specimen, the container is: a. washed and dried. b. placed in a bag. c. labeled. d. weighed. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 433
TRUE/FALSE 1. A stool specimen must not be contaminated with urine. ANS: T
PTS: 1
REF: 433
Chapter 30: Admissions, Transfers, and Discharges Kostelnick: Mosby’s Textbook for Long-Term Care Nursing Assistants, 8th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The admission process is started by: a. the social worker. b. the director of nursing. c. an admission coordinator. d. the medical director. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 439
2. The nurse asks you to assist with the admission of a new resident. What can the nurse delegate
to you? Transporting the person to his or her room Having the person sign admitting papers Having the person sign a general consent for treatment Explaining resident rights to the person
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 439
3. A new resident has dementia. Which statement is correct? a. The person’s confusion will decrease in the new setting. b. The person may show signs of fear and agitation. c. The person may feel guilty about the need for nursing center care. d. The person will have nT oE diSffTicBuA ltyNaKdS juEstLinLgEtoRt.hC eO neMw environment. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 439
4. You are going to prepare a room for a new resident. How do you know what equipment is
needed? You check the care plan. The nurse tells you. You follow center policy. Every resident needs the same equipment. The person’s family tells you.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 439
5. A new resident is going to arrive by car and is ambulatory. What type of bed should you
make? An open bed A closed bed A surgical bed An occupied bed
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 441
6. A new resident is going to arrive by stretcher. What type of bed should you make? a. An open bed b. A closed bed
c. A surgical bed d. An occupied bed ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 441
7. A new resident is ambulatory. Which is correct? a. Leave the bed open. b. Raise the bed to its highest horizontal position. c. Raise the bed rails. d. Attach the call light to the bed linens. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 441
8. You are admitting a new resident. Which will promote the person’s mental comfort? a. Hand the person a list of admission procedures. b. Complete the admission process quickly. c. Remind the person that you must complete the process within an hour. d. Be sensitive to the person’s feelings. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 439
9. The nurse asks you to assist in admitting a new resident. Your role involves which of the
following? Greeting the person by his or her first name Making roommate decisions as to the separation of space Discussing the person’s medical diagnosis Treating the person with dignity
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D
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10. You are admitting a new resident. How will you find out the person’s name? a. Ask the person. b. Ask the family. c. Check the admission record. d. Check the care plan. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 442
11. You introduce yourself to a new resident. You also say that you are a: a. nurse. b. nursing assistant. c. member of the health team. d. member of the nursing team. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 442
12. How can you help a new resident remember the names of other residents? a. Introduce the person to other residents. b. Have the others wear name tags. c. Write down their names. d. Give the person his or her photos. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 442
13. You are admitting a new resident. Which is correct? a. Measure the person’s vital signs. b. Measure the person’s blood oxygen level. c. Explain to the person that she or he will not get a bath when she or he wants it; it
has to be scheduled. d. Tell the person about treatments and the care plan. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 442
14. You are admitting a new resident. Which is correct? a. Discuss the person’s diagnoses and medical history. b. Complete a bill for the services performed and present to the person. c. Orient the person to the room. d. Ask the person who he or she wants for a roommate. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 442
15. You have finished admitting a new resident. Before leaving the person’s room, you need to do
which of the following? a. Place the call light within reach. b. Raise the bed to the highest position. c. Raise the bed rails. d. Point to the direction of the water fountain for the person to fill her or his water pitcher. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 443
16.1 You are helping a new resident unpack. Which is correct? 6 a. You need to complete a personal belongings list. . b. You decide where to put things. c. The family decides where to put things. d. The nurse decides where to put things. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 442
17. You are admitting a new resident. The person’s niece is in the room. You ask the niece to
leave the room. Which is correct? a. The niece must leave the room. b. You have no right to ask the niece to leave. c. The resident can ask the niece to stay. d. The niece needs to stay. She needs to give identifying information. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 442
18. You are admitting a new resident. The person’s niece is in the room. You ask the niece to
leave the room. Why did you ask her to leave? To provide for privacy To see how the new resident reacts So you can ask if the niece is abusive To provide for personal choice
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 442
19. A resident is transferring to a different room. The nurse asks you to transfer the person. You
can do which of the following? a. Help the person pack. b. Ask the roommate to transport the person to the new room while you carry the
person’s belongings. c. Disconnect the person from his or her oxygen long enough to transfer to the new
room. d. Bring the person’s chart, care plan, and drugs. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 443
20. Which statement about transfers is correct? a. Only a doctor can request a transfer. b. A transfer may be needed if the person’s condition changes. c. The person must be able to ambulate to the new room. d. Transfers can be requested if the nurse does not like the way the roommate dresses. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 443
21. A resident is being transferred to another unit. Which will help reassure the person? a. Telling the person that everything will be OK b. Using a restraint to keep the person calm during the transfer c. Medicating the person with a sleeping pill prior to the transfer d. Introducing the person to the new roommate and other residents ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 444
22.2 A resident is going to be discharged. You can do which of the following? 2 a. Help the person dress as needed. . b. Teach the person about diet and drugs. c. Tell the roommate to pack the person’s belongings. d. Ask the person to check off the clothing list as he or she packs. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 444
23. A resident is going to be discharged. Which task can the nurse delegate to you? a. Give the person prescriptions written by the doctor. b. Provide discharge instructions. c. Get the person’s valuables from the safe. d. Help the person into the car. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 443
24. A resident is going to be discharged. What must occur before the person can leave? a. The doctor must write a discharge order. b. The person must be transported to the exit area by wheelchair or stretcher. c. The person must pay the bill. d. The person must sign a consent form. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 444
25. A resident wants to leave the nursing center. The doctor has not written a discharge order.
What should you do? Let the person leave. The person has the right to make personal choices. Call the doctor. Call the person’s family. Tell the nurse.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 444
TRUE/FALSE 1. Reasons for a transfer or discharge are part of the person’s medical record. ANS: T
PTS: 1
REF: 444
2. A resident objects to a transfer or a discharge. An ombudsman makes sure that the person’s
best interests are considered. ANS: T
PTS: 1
REF: 444
3. Residents are not allowed to hang photos on the walls. ANS: F
PTS: 1
REF: 442
4. New residents may have fears about being abused. ANS: T
PTS: 1
REF: 438
5. Residents forfeit their privacy when they move to the center. ANS: F
PTS: 1
REF: 442
Chapter 31: Wound Care Kostelnick: Mosby’s Textbook for Long-Term Care Nursing Assistants, 8th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A partial-thickness wound caused by the scraping away or rubbing of the skin is a(n): a. pressure ulcer. b. laceration. c. abrasion. d. penetrating wound. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 446
2. A resident has an open wound on the lower left leg. It is caused by poor arterial blood flow.
This wound is a(n) pressure stasis venous arterial
_ ulcer.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
3. A wound does not heal easily. It is a a. chronic b. contaminated c. full-thickness d. dirty ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 446
wound.
REF: 446
4. A resident has an open wound on her left foot. She has poor circulation in her veins. Her
wound is a(n) arterial venous stasis circulatory
ulcer.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
a. b. c. d.
REF: 446
5. A wound is not infected. It is a(n): a. clean wound. b. abrasion. c. contusion. d. surgical incision. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 446
6. A resident had lung surgery. The person’s incision is best described as a(n): a. clean wound. b. contaminated wound. c. incision.
d. clean-contaminated wound. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 446
7. Tissues are injured, but the skin is not broken. This is a(n): a. contusion. b. abrasion. c. laceration. d. closed wound. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 446
8. A wound has a high risk for infection. This is a(n) a. contaminated b. chronic c. full-thickness d. infected ANS: A
PTS: 1
wound.
REF: 446
9. A closed wound caused by a blow to the body is a(n): a. contusion. b. abrasion. c. laceration. d. clean wound. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 446
10. Wound layers have separatTeE d.STThB isAisN : KSELLER.COM a. evisceration. b. a skin tear. c. trauma. d. dehiscence. ANS: D
PTS: 1
11. An infected wound is a(n) a. contaminated b. open c. dirty d. full-thickness ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 446
wound.
REF: 446
12. A wound has separated. Abdominal organs are protruding through the wound. This is: a. evisceration. b. a skin tear. c. trauma. d. dehiscence. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 446
13. A wound involves the skin, muscle, and bone. This is:
a. b. c. d.
trauma. gangrene. a partial-thickness wound. a full-thickness wound.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 446
14. A condition in which there is death of tissue is: a. trauma. b. gangrene. c. a partial-thickness wound. d. a full-thickness wound. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 446
15. A cut has clean, straight edges. It was produced with a sharp instrument. The wound is a(n): a. penetrating wound. b. laceration. c. incision. d. intentional wound. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 446
16. A wound has large amounts of microbes. It shows signs of infection. It is a(n) a. contaminated b. infected c. open d. purulent ANS: B
PTS: 1
17. A wound created for therapy is a(n) a. open b. clean c. closed d. intentional ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 446
wound.
REF: 446
18. A wound has torn tissues and jagged edges. This is a(n): a. penetrating wound. b. laceration. c. incision. d. intentional wound. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 446
19. The skin or mucous membrane is broken. This is a(n) a. open b. clean c. closed d. intentional
wound.
wound.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 446
20. The dermis and epidermis of the skin are broken. This is: a. trauma. b. gangrene. c. a partial-thickness wound. d. a full-thickness wound. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 446
21. The skin and underlying tissues are pierced. This is a(n): a. incision. b. penetrating wound. c. contusion. d. puncture wound. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 446
22. Phlebitis is: a. inflammation of a vein. b. trauma. c. a thrombus. d. a closed wound. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 446
23. An open wound made by a sharp object is a(n): a. incision. b. penetrating wound. c. contusion. d. puncture wound. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 446
24. Drainage that is thick green, yellow, or brown is _ a. purulent b. serosanguineous c. serous d. sanguineous ANS: A
PTS: 1
25. Thin, watery, blood-tinged drainage is a. purulent b. serosanguineous c. serous d. sanguineous ANS: B
PTS: 1
26. Clear, watery fluid from a wound is a. purulent b. serosanguineous
REF: 446
drainage.
REF: 446
drainage.
drainage.
c. serous d. sanguineous ANS: C
PTS: 1
27. Bloody drainage is a. purulent b. serosanguineous c. serous d. sanguineous ANS: D
REF: 446
drainage.
PTS: 1
REF: 446
28. A resident has a rip in the skin. The epidermis is separated from underlying tissue. This is
a(n): a. pressure ulcer. b. abrasion. c. skin tear. d. decubitus ulcer. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 446
29. A resident has an open wound on the right lower leg. The person has poor blood return
through her veins. Her wound is a(n): a. arterial ulcer. b. stasis ulcer. c. pressure ulcer. d. skin tear. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 446
30. An accident or violent act that causes injury is: a. shock. b. wound. c. trauma. d. inflammation. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 446
31. A thrombus is a: a. rip in the skin. b. blood clot. c. vascular ulcer. d. penetrating wound. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 446
32. The skin is injured. Which is a major threat? a. Incontinence b. Infection c. Gangrene d. Evisceration
ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 447
33. Which of the following are common sites for skin tears? a. Hands b. Shoulder c. Ears d. Sacrum ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 448
34. Skin tears are caused by which of the following? a. Friction and shearing b. Lifting a body part c. Light pressure on the skin d. Incontinence and moisture on the skin ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 448
35. Which statement about skin tears is correct? a. Skin tears typically occur when the person is sleeping. b. Skin tears can cause an infection. c. A skin tear is not painful to the person. d. Skin tears usually occur over a bony area. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 449
36. To prevent skin tears, you need to: a. follow the person’s care plan. TESTBANKSELLER.COM b. wear gloves. c. position the person supine. d. follow Standard Precautions and the Bloodborne Pathogen Standard. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 449
37. You are helping a resident dress. Which clothing will help prevent skin tears? a. Garments with zippers b. Shorts and a sleeveless blouse c. A hospital gown d. A soft fleece sweatshirt and sweatpants ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 449
38. A resident is in bed. The person needs repositioning. Which of the following will help prevent
skin tears? Raising bed rails Encourage the person to drag his or her hips across the bed instead of lifting them Using an assist device to move the person Using pillows only if absolutely necessary
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 449
39. Which will help prevent skin tears? a. Keep your fingernails short and smoothly filed.
b. Wear simple earrings. c. Wear gloves. d. Practice hand hygiene before and after giving care. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 449
40. Vascular ulcers occur: a. on the arms and hands. b. on the buttocks. c. on the legs and feet. d. where skin is in contact with skin. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 449
41. Which of the following are common with venous ulcers? a. Blisters b. Decreased body weight c. Skin that is moist, soft, and smooth d. Itching ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 449
42. Which statement about venous ulcers is correct? a. They commonly occur on the arms and shoulders. b. They are painful but heal quickly. c. You need to cut the person’s toenails to prevent skin tears and scratching. d. The person has difficulty walking. ANS: D
L:LE RE EF 44R9.COM PTS: T1ESTBANKS
43. Which will help prevent circulatory ulcers? a. Providing skin care once per week b. Keeping linens clean and dry c. Scrubbing the skin during bathing d. Making sure shoes are one size larger than measured ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 450
44. A resident has a venous ulcer. The person needs repositioning at least every: a. hour. b. 2 hours. c. 4 hours. d. shift. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 450
45. A resident has a venous ulcer. You are helping the person dress. The person can wear which
of the following? Tight fitting pants Garters to hold socks in place Tight fitting shoes A sweatshirt
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 450
46. A resident has a venous ulcer. Your care should include: a. keeping the person’s linens dry and wrinkle-free. b. massaging pressure points and reddened areas. c. rubbing the person’s skin after bathing. d. keeping the person’s heels on the bed. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 450
47. A resident has a venous ulcer. The doctor ordered elastic stockings. What size should you
use? a. Large thigh-high b. Large knee-high c. Medium thigh-high d. The size directed by the nurse ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 451
48. Elastic bandages and elastic stockings do which of the following? a. Cause swelling. b. Decrease circulation. c. Prevent injury. d. Prevent infection. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 450
49. Elastic stockings also are called: a. anti-embolism stockings. b. support hose. c. elastic bandages. d. montgomery bandages. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 450
50. Which statement about elastic stockings is correct? a. They are applied once the person gets out of bed. b. They are removed every 8 hours for 30 minutes. c. The person sits in the chair while the stockings are off. d. The stocking should be folded over at the top. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 451
51. Elastic bandages are applied to the: a. hands. b. pelvis. c. arms and legs. d. abdomen. ANS: C
PTS: 1
52. An elastic bandage is applied from the: a. lower part to the top part.
REF: 452
b. top part to the lower part. c. back to front. d. front to back. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 452
53. A resident has an elastic bandage on the right leg. The bandage is loose and wrinkled. What
should you do? Apply a new bandage. Reapply the bandage. Remove the bandage for a few hours. Secure the bandage with tape.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 452
54. The nurse asks you to apply an elastic bandage to a resident’s left arm. You should apply the
bandage: so it is loose. with firm, even pressure. so you can slide three fingers under it. so you can slide your hand under it.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 452
55. A resident has an elastic bandage. How often should you check the color and temperature in
the bandaged part? a. Every 15 minutes b. Every 30 minutes c. Every 45 minutes d. Every 60 minutes ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 452
56. You are applying an elastic bandage to a person’s left leg. Which is correct? a. Have the person stand while you apply the bandage. b. Face the person during the procedure. c. Start at the top (proximal) part of the extremity. d. Try not to expose the toes if possible. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 452
57. A resident has an arterial ulcer. The person’s care includes which of the following? a. Reminding the person not to sit with crossed legs b. Making sure that the person is in a cool setting c. Keeping the person’s feet moist d. Cutting the person’s toenails ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 450
58. A resident has an arterial ulcer. Which will promote healing? a. The person smoking b. Massaging pressure points c. Having the person prop her or his heels on the mattress of the bed
d. Having a bed cradle on the bed ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 450
59. Bleeding stops and a scab forms during the a. inflammatory b. proliferative c. maturation d. scarring ANS: A
PTS: 1
phase of wound healing.
REF: 454
60. A wound was closed with staples. Wound healing will occur through a. primary b. secondary c. third d. tertiary ANS: A
PTS: 1
_ intention.
REF: 454
61. Which type of wound healing involves leaving the wound open and closing it later? a. Primary intention b. Primary closure c. Secondary intention d. Tertiary intention ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 455
SE 62. A wound is contaminated aTnE dSinTfeBcA teN d.KW ouLnL dE edRg.esCaOreMnot brought together and the wound gaps. Healing will occur through primary secondary third tertiary
intention.
ANS: B
REF: 454
a. b. c. d.
PTS: 1
63. Which nutrient is needed for wound healing? a. Fat b. Carbohydrate c. Protein d. Sodium ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 456
64. When observing a wound, you can do which of the following? a. Scrub the wound with a gauze pad to remove debris. b. Apply heat to the wound. c. Observe the surrounding skin. d. Measure the wound’s depth. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 457
65. A drain is inserted into a wound. What is its purpose? a. The nurse administers drugs through the drain. b. Drainage leaves the wound through the drain. c. It is used to measure wound depth. d. It is used to measure wound size. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 457
66. The nurse weighs dressings before and after applying them. Why are they weighed? a. To measure the amount of drainage b. To determine the phase of wound healing c. To get an accurate measurement of the person’s weight d. To measure output ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 457
67. Which is a purpose of wound dressings? a. Protect the wound. b. Prevent absorption of drainage. c. Moisten any dead tissue. d. Prevent moisture. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 457
68. Which is a purpose of wound dressings? a. Provide a dry environment for the wound. b. Promote the removal of skin. c. Promote arterial and veTnE ouSsTcB irA cuNlaKtiS onE.LLER.COM d. Cover wounds. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 458
69. Gauze dressings: a. have a nonstick surface. b. absorb drainage. c. allow observations of the wound. d. keep the wound moist. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 458
70. Which dressing will most likely stick to a wound? a. Nonadherent gauze b. Dry dressing c. Transparent adhesive film d. Wet-to-wet dressing ANS: B
PTS: 1
71. A dressing is loose. What can happen? a. Microbes can enter the wound. b. Wound edges can separate. c. Dehiscence can occur. d. The wound can become larger.
REF: 459
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 459
72. A dressing is loose. What can happen? a. Skin tears can occur. b. Evisceration can occur. c. Drainage can escape. d. Pressure ulcers can develop. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 459
73. A dressing is secured with tape. When the tape is removed, some skin is removed. This causes
a(n): a. skin tear. b. pressure ulcer. c. abrasion. d. contusion. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 459
74. Which type of tape allows movement of a body part? a. Adhesive tape b. Paper tape c. Plastic tape d. Elastic tape ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 459
75. You are securing a dressinT gE wS ithTB taA peN. K WShE erLeLdE oR yo.uCaO ppMly the tape? a. Around the entire body part b. To the top and bottom of the dressing c. To the top, middle, and bottom of the dressing d. To the middle of the dressing ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 459
76. The nurse asks you to apply a dry, non-sterile dressing. Which action is correct? a. Telling the person what the drainage smells like b. Removing tape by pulling it away from the wound c. Removing dressings so the person sees the soiled side d. Removing the old dressing gently ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 459
77. The nurse asks you to apply a dry, non-sterile dressing. The dressing change causes pain and
discomfort. What should you do? a. Ask the person to take slow, deep breaths. b. Distract the person during the dressing change. c. Ask the nurse when a pain-relief drug was given. d. Tell the person that the procedure will not hurt. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 460
78. Which statement about dressing changes is correct? a. Contact with blood, body fluids, secretions, or excretion is unlikely. b. The person tells you what dressing products to use. c. For mental well-being, the person needs to look at the wound. d. You need to control your nonverbal communication and body language during
dressing changes. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 459
79. The nurse asks you to apply a dry, non-sterile dressing. What should you do after removing
the old dressing? Remove your gloves, and decontaminate your hands. Put on clean gloves. Put on sterile gloves. Open the new dressings.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 461
80. Binders are applied to which area? a. Arms and legs b. Abdomen c. Shoulders d. Buttocks ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 461
81. Pins are used to secure a binder. Pins should point: a. Toward the wound. b. Away from the wound. c. Toward the waist. d. Away from the waist. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 461
82. A binder is loose and out of position. What should you do? a. Change the dressing. b. Reapply the binder. c. Apply a new binder. d. Secure it with tape. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 461
83. A binder is wet. What should you do? a. Change the dressing. b. Reapply the binder. c. Apply a new binder. d. Let it dry. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 461
84. A person has a wound. You are concerned with the person’s basic needs. Which statement is
correct? a. It is uncommon for older persons to get skin wounds.
b. A wound can affect breathing and movement. c. Infection is not typically a threat. d. A wound increases the person’s appetite. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 467
85. A compress is: a. wrapping a body part with a wet or dry application. b. immersing the body part in water. c. a dry application. d. a soft pad applied over a body area. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 462
86. Constrict means to: a. expand or open wider. b. narrow. c. reduce blood flow. d. increase blood flow. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 462
87. Dilate means to: a. expand or open wider. b. narrow. c. reduce blood flow. d. increase blood flow. ANS: A
L:LE RE EF 46R2.COM PTS: T1ESTBANKS
88. Cyanosis is: a. a pink color. b. a bluish color. c. swelling of the tissues. d. excessive redness of the skin. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 464
89. Hyperthermia means that the person’s body temperature is: a. much higher than the normal range. b. very low. c. lower than the outdoor temperature. d. higher than the outdoor temperature. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 467
90. Hypothermia means that the person’s body temperature is: a. much higher than the normal range. b. very low. c. lower than the outdoor temperature. d. higher than the outdoor temperature. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 467
91. A pack is a treatment that involves: a. wrapping a body part with a wet or dry application. b. immersing the body part in water. c. a dry application. d. a soft pad applied to a body area. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 462
92. Warm and cold applications do which of the following? a. Decrease wound healing. b. Increase discomfort. c. Prevent infection. d. Reduce tissue swelling. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 461
93. Warm applications do which of the following? a. Relieve pain. b. Constrict muscles. c. Decrease blood flow. d. Increase joint stiffness. ANS: A 94.
PTS: 1
REF: 462
Warm applications: reduce bleeding. decrease blood flow. promote healing. numb the skin.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 462
95. When blood vessels dilate, blood flow: a. increases. b. decreases. c. stops. d. changes direction. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 462
96. When blood vessels constrict, blood flow: a. increases. b. decreases. c. stops. d. changes direction. ANS: B
PTS: 1
97. When heat is applied, the skin is: a. pale and cool. b. bluish in color. c. red and warm.
REF: 462
d. blistered. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 462
98. When heat is applied too long, blood vessels: a. dilate. b. constrict. c. collapse. d. become less elastic. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 462
99. When heat is applied too long, blood flow: a. increases. b. decreases. c. changes direction. d. stops. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 462
100. When heat is applied, older persons are at risk for: a. burns. b. hyperthermia. c. hypothermia. d. cyanosis. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 462
TEhiSchTB 101. Heat is applied to a wrist. W ofAtN heKfS olE loLwLinEgRa. reCrO epMorted to the nurse at once? a. Warm skin b. Pink skin c. Excessive redness d. Smooth skin ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 462
102. A person has a joint replacement. Which statement is correct? a. No heat applications are allowed. b. Heat applications are allowed except over the area of implant. c. Heat applications are allowed over the area of implant. d. No cold applications are allowed. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 462
103. Which is a dry warm application? a. Hot compress b. Hot soak c. Sitz bath d. Aquathermia pad ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 463
104. Which statement about moist heat applications is correct?
a. b. c. d.
Water is in contact with the skin. Dry heat has faster effects than moist heat. Dry heat penetrates deeper than moist heat. Moist heat stays at the desired temperature longer than dry heat.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 462
105. Heat and cold applications are applied for a. 5 to 10 b. 10 to 15 c. 15 to 20 d. 20 to 25 ANS: C
PTS: 1
minutes.
REF: 464
106. Before applying moist heat or cold applications, which is correct? a. Measure water temperature. b. Measure water depth. c. Measure and record the amount of water as intake. d. Show the person how to change the temperature. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 464
107. Before applying dry heat or cold applications, which is correct? a. Measure the water temperature. b. Cover the device. c. Show the person how to change the temperature. d. Set a timer. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 464
108. Which of the following is an electrical device? a. Aquathermia pad b. Sitz bath c. Commercial heat or cold pack d. Ice collar ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 463
109. When applying warm or cold applications, which is correct? a. Ask your peer how to use the equipment. b. Expose as much skin as possible. c. Place the call light within the person’s reach. d. Let the person choose the application site. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 464
110. Which will promote safety when applying a warm or cold application? a. Follow person’s preference for temperature settings. b. Leave dry heat or cold applications open to air without covering them. c. Observe the skin every 15 minutes for signs of complications. d. Place the call light within the person’s reach.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 464
111. Which is a safety measure for applying an aquathermia pad? a. Follow electrical safety precautions. b. Place the heating unit on the person’s bed. c. Secure the pad in place with pins. d. Place the pad under the body part. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 464
112. An aquathermia pad is set at 105° F. It is a a. very hot b. hot c. warm d. tepid ANS: B
PTS: 1
application.
REF: 464
113. The nurse delegates you to apply a warm compress. To maintain its temperature, the nurse
might ask you to: apply an aquathermia pad over the compress. apply a hot pack over the compress. perform a hot soak. assist with a sitz bath.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 465
114. A sitz bath involves: a. a hand and wrist. b. a foot and ankle. c. a knee and hip. d. the perineal and rectal areas. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 462
115. A disposable sitz bath: a. fits on the toilet seat. b. is put in the tub. c. is put on the floor. d. is put on the over-bed table. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 465
116. During a sitz bath, you need to carefully observe the person for: a. nausea and vomiting. b. appetite changes. c. cyanosis at the application site. d. weakness and faintness. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 465
117. The nurse delegates you to give a sitz bath. Which action protects the person from burns? a. Using a flannel cover
b. Measuring water temperature c. Setting the temperature with a key d. Adding cool water every 5 minutes ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 465
118. The nurse delegates you to give a sitz bath. How often should you check the person? a. Every 5 minutes b. Every 10 minutes c. Every 15 minutes d. Every 20 minutes ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 466
119. The nurse asks you to apply a commercial hot pack. How should you warm the pack? a. Put it in boiling water. b. Heat it in a microwave oven. c. Strike, knead, or squeeze the package. d. Follow the manufacturer’s instructions. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 464
120. A hot pack is reusable. Before storing the pack for future use, which is correct? a. Sterilize it. b. Clean it following center policy. c. Wipe it off with a washcloth. d. Rinse it with warm water. ANS: B
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121. You are going to apply an aquathermia pad. Which statement is incorrect? a. The temperature is set with a key. b. The heating unit is set on an even, uncluttered surface. c. Pins are used to secure the pad in place. d. Hoses must be free of kinks and air bubbles. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 465
122. The temperature of an aquathermia pad is usually: a. 100° F. b. 105° F. c. 110° F. d. 115° F. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 465
123. You are going to apply an aquathermia pad. You fill the heating unit with: a. alcohol. b. water. c. distilled water. d. disinfectant. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 465
124. An aquathermia pad is not placed under a body part because: a. heat cannot escape. b. the hoses can cause discomfort. c. it is difficult to observe the application site. d. the body part must be kept in good alignment. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 464
125. Before applying an aquathermia pad, you need to: a. put the pad in a cover. b. put on gloves. c. place the call light within reach. d. measure vital signs. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 465
126. When cold is applied to the skin, blood vessels: a. dilate. b. constrict. c. collapse. d. become less elastic. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 463
127. When cold is applied to the skin, blood flow: a. increases. b. decreases. c. stops. d. changes direction. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 463
128. A person has a sprained ankle. Cold applications are best applied a. immediately b. 1 day c. 2 days d. 1 week ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 463
129. Cold has which of the following effects? a. Increasing blood flow b. Increasing tissue swelling c. Increasing bleeding d. Numbing the skin ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 463
130. Which of the following can occur from applications that are very cold? a. Blisters and burns b. Fever c. Confusion
after the injury.
d. Vomiting ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 463
131. When cold is applied for a long time, blood vessels: a. dilate. b. constrict. c. collapse. d. become less elastic. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 463
132. Which of the following persons are at risk for complications from cold applications? a. Younger person b. Person with arthritis c. Dark-skinned person d. Person with sensory impairment ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 463
133. Which is a moist cold application? a. Ice collar b. Ice glove c. Ice bag d. Cold compress ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 463
EiLthLcEruRs. 134. Which of the following deT viE ceSs TarBeAfiN llK edSw heCdOicMe? a. Ice collar b. Wound-vac c. Bathtub d. Cold compress ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 465
135. Before applying a dry cold application, which is correct? a. Measure the temperature. b. Measure vital signs. c. Put it in a cover. d. Wash it with soap and water. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 465
136. When using a commercial cold pack, which is correct? a. Follow the manufacturer’s instructions. b. Use surgical asepsis. c. Measure water temperature. d. Wear gloves. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 464
137. After applying a dry cold application, you need to check the application site every
minutes. 5 10 15 20
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 464
138. You applied a cold compress. How often should you check the application site? a. Every 5 minutes b. Every 10 minutes c. Every 15 minutes d. Every 20 minutes ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 464
139. A cooling blanket is needed. After placing it on the bed, it is covered with a: a. sheet. b. mattress pad and sheet. c. mattress pad, sheet, and cotton drawsheet. d. mattress pad, sheet, plastic drawsheet, and cotton drawsheet. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 467
140. A warming blanket is needed. After placing it on the bed, it is covered with a: a. sheet. b. mattress pad and sheet. c. mattress pad, sheet, and cotton drawsheet. d. mattress pad, sheet, plastic drawsheet, and cotton drawsheet. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 467
141. What measurements are needed when a cooling blanket or warming blanket is used? a. Body temperature and pulse b. Vital signs c. Pulse and respirations d. Pulse and blood pressure ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 467
142. A safe, comfortable setting is needed when applying heat or cold. Which will promote the
person’s comfort and safety? a. Place the call light within the person’s reach. b. Place the water, phone, and requested items away from the person’s reach so that
they do not get anything wet. c. Check the person at least once per shift. d. Leave the person alone to provide for privacy. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 467
143. Only the body part involved in the procedure is exposed. This action: a. protects the right to privacy.
b. provides for the person’s physical needs. c. protects the right to personal choice. d. provides for self-actualization needs. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 467
Chapter 32: Pressure Ulcers Kostelnick: Mosby’s Textbook for Long-Term Care Nursing Assistants, 8th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A pressure injury is called which of the following? a. Mouth ulcer b. Venous ulcer c. Decubitus ulcer d. Stasis ulcer ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 470
2. Any injury caused by unrelieved pressure is: a. a wound. b. a thrombus. c. phlebitis. d. a pressure injury. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 470
3. Older persons are at risk for skin breakdown for which of the following reasons? a. Thicker skin b. Decreased calcium levels c. Chronic disease d. Stronger and more capillaries ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 472
4. Which of the following can cause skin breakdown? a. Incontinence b. Dry skin under the breasts c. Short fingernails and toenails d. Ambulating with a walker ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 472
5. Pressure injuries usually occur: a. on the arms and legs. b. on the hands and feet. c. on the buttocks. d. over bony areas. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 470
6. Common causes of skin breakdown include which of the following? a. Lifting b. Massage c. Shearing d. Trauma ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 470
7. Which person has the least risk for a pressure injury? a. The person who has urinary incontinence b. The person who has fecal incontinence c. The person who has shortness of breath d. The person who has a fractured hip ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 472
8. Which of the following scrapes the skin? a. Skin tear b. Friction c. Pressure d. Shearing ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 470
9. Early signs of pressure injuries include which of the following? a. Lightly colored, white skin b. Tingling in the area c. Cool sensation in the area d. Cracked and peeling skin ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 473
10. A female resident is obese. She is at risk for friction injuries in which of the following areas? a. On the bottoms of her feet b. Under her breasts c. On her arms d. Her forehead and chin ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 473
11. Persons at risk for pressure injuries are repositioned at least every: a. hour. b. 1 to 2 hours. c. 4 hours. d. shift. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 476
12. The preferred position for preventing and treating pressure injuries is the a. supine b. prone c. Fowler’s d. 30-degree lateral ANS: D
PTS: 1
13. To prevent pressure injuries, you must: a. keep the person’s skin clean and dry. b. massage pressure points. c. use soap to clean the skin.
REF: 476
position.
d. scrub and rub the skin during bathing. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 476
14. To prevent pressure injuries, you must: a. provide clean linens every day. b. change linens whenever they are wet or soiled. c. change linens whenever they are wrinkled. d. provide clean linens every shift. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 476
15. Pressure injuries can occur where skin has contact with skin. What can you use to prevent
such contact? Pillows Bed cradle Eggcrate-like mattress Flotation pad
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 476
16. A resident has dry skin. What should you do? a. Use soap during the person’s bath. b. Apply moisturizer as directed by the nurse. c. Apply cornstarch to dry areas. d. Apply powder to dry areas. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 476
17. To prevent pressure injuries, persons sitting in chairs need to shift their positions every
minutes. 5 10 15 20
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 476
18. Which of the following prevents pressure on the tops of the legs and feet? a. Bed cradle b. Heel elevator c. Eggcrate-like pad d. Flotation pad ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 474
19. A resident has an eggcrate-like pad on the bed. For bottom linens, you need a: a. mattress pad, bottom sheet, plastic drawsheet, and cotton drawsheet. b. bottom sheet, plastic drawsheet, and cotton drawsheet. c. bottom sheet and cotton drawsheet. d. bottom sheet. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 477
20. According to CMS, which is the most common site for a pressure injury? a. Hip b. Shoulder c. Heel d. Sacrum ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 473
TRUE/FALSE 1. Eschar is thick, leathery dead tissue that may be loose or adhered to the skin. ANS: T
PTS: 1
REF: 473
2. Slough is dead tissue that is soft and often moist and appears white, yellow, green, or tan. ANS: T
PTS: 1
REF: 473
3. The back of the head is a bony prominence. ANS: T
PTS: 1
REF: 470
4. The top of the thigh is a bony prominence. ANS: F
PTS: 1
REF: 470
5. An avoidable pressure injuT ryEiS sT onBeAthNaKt S deEvL elL opEsRfr.oC mOtM he improper use of the nursing
process. ANS: T
PTS: 1
REF: 470
6. Shear occurs when the person slides down in the bed or chair. ANS: T
PTS: 1
REF: 472
7. Urine and feces contain substances that irritate the skin and lead to skin breakdown. ANS: T
PTS: 1
REF: 472
8. Obese people are not at risk for pressure injuries. ANS: F
PTS: 1
REF: 472
9. Fluid balance is not necessary for healthy skin. ANS: F
PTS: 1
REF: 472
10. Friction and shear are not the main causes of pressure injuries. ANS: T
PTS: 1
REF: 470
Chapter 33: Hearing, Speech, and Vision Problems Kostelnick: Mosby’s Textbook for Long-Term Care Nursing Assistants, 8th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Braille is a: a. touch reading and writing system that uses raised dots. b. dog guide. c. hearing assistance dog. d. method of writing for persons who have aphasia. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 480
2. Tinnitus is: a. dizziness. b. a ringing, roaring, or hissing in the ears. c. a new growth of abnormal cells. d. a tumor. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 480
3. Vertigo means: a. dizziness. b. ringing in the ears. c. a new growth of cells. d. a tumor. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 480
4. Which is an infection of the middle ear? a. Otitis media b. Ménière’s disease c. Cataract d. Glaucoma ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 480
5. Which of the following are common with otitis media? a. Earwax b. Vertigo c. Tinnitus d. Vomiting ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 480
PTS: 1
REF: 481
6. Earwax is: a. tinnitus. b. cerumen. c. otitis. d. dysarthria. ANS: B
7.
Cerumen is: a. earwax. b. pain in the ear. c. a tumor. d. fluid in the ear. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 480
8. The inability to have normal speech is: a. braille. b. cerumen. c. aphasia. d. tinnitus. ANS: C
PTS: 1
9. Another term for expressive aphasia is a. Broca’s b. mixed c. Wernicke’s d. global ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 480
aphasia.
REF: 480
10. Which statement about otitis media is correct? a. It often begins an inner ear infection. b. Permanent hearing loss does not occur. TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. Fluid builds up in the ear. d. It is always acute. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 480
11. Ménière’s disease involves the: a. middle ear. b. inner ear. c. optic nerve. d. lens of the eye. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 481
12. The major symptoms of Ménière’s disease are: a. tinnitus, hearing loss, vertigo, and pain or pressure in the ear. b. pain, hearing loss, tinnitus, and fever. c. fever, pain, and lightheadedness. d. drainage from the ear, pain, fever, and headache. ANS: A
PTS: 1
13. The person experiencing vertigo must: a. lie down. b. drink plenty of fluids. c. wear a hearing aid.
REF: 481
d. stop smoking. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 481
14. A person has Ménière’s disease. You must protect the person from which of the following? a. Infection b. Sudden movements c. Swimming d. Dim lights ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 481
15. Symptoms of hearing loss include which of the following? a. Wax in the ears b. Speaking softly c. Clear speech with appropriate sound d. Asking for words to be repeated ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 481
16. During conversations, a resident leans forward toward the person speaking. The resident’s
answers seem inappropriate. Sometimes he seems to control conversations. He is showing signs of: a. hearing loss. b. suspicious and paranoid behavior. c. tinnitus and vertigo. d. Ménière’s disease. ANS: A
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17. A resident has severe hearing loss. Which is correct? a. Speech is not affected by hearing loss. b. Awareness of surroundings is not an issue and does not require hearing. c. Responding to others can be done visually and does not require hearing. d. Safety is affected by hearing loss. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 481
18. A resident has severe hearing loss. Which is correct? a. The person may feel lonely and left out. b. Without hearing, the person may develop difficulty with vision. c. A hearing aid will not help the person. d. The person’s hearing loss should not affect their speech. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 481
19. A resident has hearing and speech impairments. When communicating with the person, which
is correct? Ask the person to speak louder. Watch the person’s facial expressions, gestures, and body language for clues. Ask the roommate to tell you what the person is saying. Record the conversation to play back later.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 482
20. A resident has hearing and speech impairments. When communicating with the person, it is
best that both of you: speak clearly, slowly, and distinctly. write down key words. say things in another way. avoid repeating and rephrasing to prevent frustration.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 486
21. A resident has a hearing impairment. To communicate with the person, you need to do which
of the following? Gain the person’s attention by approaching the person from behind. Stand to the person’s side when speaking. Stand or sit in good light. Stand or sit on the side of the affected ear.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 486
22. A resident has a hearing impairment. To communicate with the person, you need to do which
of the following? Ask the resident’s roommate to answer any of the questions. Use detailed words and long sentences. Shout when talking to the person. Keep conversations and discussions short.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D
PTS: T1ESTBANKS RE EF 48R3.COM L:LE
23. A resident has a hearing impairment. To communicate with the person, you need to do which
of the following? Explain to the roommate what you’re trying to say to the person. Use body language instead of speaking. Reduce or eliminate background noises. Write everything on notebook paper.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 483
24. A resident has a hearing assistance dog. You know that the dog is: a. the person’s pet. b. trained to alert the person to certain sounds. c. trained to assist the person with ADL. d. part of the person’s treatment and therapies. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 483
25. A resident has a hearing aid. Which is correct? a. The hearing aid corrects the person’s hearing problem. b. Hearing aids are costly to replace. c. Batteries are left in at all times. d. When not in use, the hearing aid is left on so that it will always be ready to use. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 482
26. A resident has a hearing aid. To properly care for the device, you need to: a. follow the manufacturer’s instructions. b. wash it with soap and water. c. put it in your ear to see if it is working. d. keep the battery in all the time. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 484
27. A resident thinks that her hearing aid is not working. What should you do first? a. Ask her simple questions. If she answers correctly, the hearing aid is working. b. Tell the nurse. c. Check to see if the hearing aid is on. d. Put it in your ear to see if it is working. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 482
28. Which statement about speech disorders is correct? a. Persons with speech impairments cannot communicate. b. Persons with speech impairments are also hearing impaired. c. Persons with speech impairments are developmentally disabled. d. The person’s willingness and ability to learn affect the amount of improvement
possible. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 482
29. Dysarthria means: a. inability to use muscles needed for speech. TESTBANKSELLER.COM b. difficult or poor speech. c. hearing loss. d. speech and hearing impairment. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 486
30. A resident has a speech disorder. The goal of rehabilitation is to: a. allow the person to return to work. b. help the nursing team learn how to communicate with the person. c. improve the person’s ability to communicate. d. teach the person to use a computer for communication. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 486
31. Expressive aphasia relates to: a. difficulty sending out thoughts. b. problems with thinking and reasoning. c. difficulty understanding language. d. difficulty using the muscles needed for speech. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 486
32. Which statement about vision loss is correct? a. Vision loss occurs in the elderly. b. Blindness is the absence of sight.
c. Vision loss is always sudden in onset. d. Both eyes are always affected. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 486
33. A resident has glaucoma. What do you know about the person’s sight? a. Print and colors appear faded. b. The person cannot see to the side. c. The person is blind in the affected eye. d. The person’s vision is cloudy. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 487
34. A resident has glaucoma. Which statement is correct? a. Surgery can correct prior damage. b. The optic nerve is damaged. c. The person cannot develop other eye disorders. d. A lens implant will correct the problem. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 487
35. A resident has a cataract in the left eye. The person’s treatment is likely to be: a. surgery. b. an artificial eye. c. drug therapy. d. corrective lenses. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 487
36. Age-related macular degeneration (AMD) is: a. damage to the optic nerve. b. a disease that blurs central vision. c. a clouding of the lens. d. a painful eye infection. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 487
37. The leading cause of blindness in persons 60 years of age and older is: a. glaucoma. b. cataract. c. eye infections. d. AMD. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 488
38. A resident has AMD. Which is correct? a. The disease is usually sudden in onset. b. The disease is painful. c. The risk of getting AMD increases with age. d. Wet AMD is more common than dry AMD. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 488
39. Which will decrease the risk of AMD? a. Eating a healthy diet b. Smoking c. Avoid wearing sunglasses d. Using eye drops to keep the eyes moist at all times ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 488
40. Which person is at risk for low vision? a. A person with diabetes b. A person who wears eyeglasses c. A person with Broca’s aphasia d. A person with apraxia ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 489
41. Which statement about blindness is correct? a. The legally blind person has no vision. b. Many blind persons learn to read braille. c. A person uses a white cane with a blue tip. The person is blind. d. The person has a dog guide. Automatically, you know the person is blind. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 489
42. A resident is blind. To gain the person’s attention, which is correct? a. Approach the person from behind. b. Lightly touch the person’s arm. c. Pet the person’s dog guTidEeS . TBANKSELLER.COM d. Identify yourself by name and title when you enter the person’s room. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 489
43. A resident is blind. When assisting with the person’s care needs, which is correct? a. Provide lighting as the person prefers. b. Ask the roommate how much the person can see. c. Keep blinds and shades open at all times. d. Keep the room door partly open. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 489
44. A resident is blind. Which measure is considered to be unsafe for the person? a. Rearranging the person’s furniture and equipment b. Keeping hallways and walkways free of equipment and clutter c. Keeping the person’s call light within reach d. Letting the person perform self-care as able ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 489
45. A resident is blind. When speaking to the person, which is correct? a. Speak loudly or shout. b. Use simple words and short sentences. c. Face the person. d. Avoid using “see,” “look,” or “read.”
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 492
46. Mr. Cook is blind. He is moving about in the lounge. What should you do? a. Ask if you can help him. b. Offer him a wheelchair. c. Assist him back to his room. d. Offer an arm, and walk slightly ahead of him. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 491
47. A resident is blind. You are assisting the person with ambulation. Which action is unsafe? a. Telling the person when you are coming to a curb or steps b. Telling the person when to step up or down c. Having the person walk slightly behind you d. Using phrases like “over here” or “over there” ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 490
48. A resident is blind. When serving the person’s meals, which is correct? a. Explain the location of food and beverages using your fingers to point. b. Guide the person’s hand to each item on the tray. c. Encourage the person to open their cartons, cut their own meat as needed. d. Ask the person what the food smells like. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 490
49. A resident wears eyeglasses. You need to clean them: a. daily and when neededT . ESTBANKSELLER.COM b. every shift. c. with water and tissues. d. with a special cleaning solution. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 491
50. A resident is not wearing his eyeglasses. Where should you store them? a. At the nurses’ station b. In the top drawer of the bedside stand c. In the person’s closet d. In the person’s trunk ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 491
51. A resident is not wearing his eyeglasses. Before storing them, you need to: a. put them in a container with cool water. b. put them in their case. c. remove the battery. d. turn the device off. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 491
52. Eyeglasses are costly and therefore are treated like: a. other valuables.
b. a drug. c. a delegated task. d. an artificial eye. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 491
53. A resident you are caring for wears contact lenses. Which is correct? a. Report eye redness to the nurse. b. Remove and clean the lenses daily. c. Use mild soap and water to clean the lenses. d. Remove and clean the lenses on the person’s bath day. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 492
54. A resident has contact lenses. To properly care for them, you need to: a. follow the manufacturer’s instructions. b. clean them with water and tissues. c. label them with the person’s name and room number. d. remove the batteries before storing them. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 493
55. A resident has an ocular prosthetic. Which statement is correct? a. The ocular prosthetic matches the other eye in shape and color. b. The person can see out of both eyes. c. The ocular prosthetic must be surgically inserted. d. All eye prostheses are permanent. They are not removable. ANS: A
L:LE RE EF 49R3.COM PTS: T1ESTBANKS
56. A resident’s ocular prosthetic is removable. Proper care of the prosthetic involves which of
the following? Labeling it with the person’s name and room number Placing it in a lined container filled with milk Closing the container before storing it Placing the labeled container in the bottom drawer of the bedside stand
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 493
57. A resident’s ocular prosthetic is removed. Proper care of the eye socket involves: a. washing it with soap and warm water. b. washing it with warm water or saline. c. washing it with a cleaning solution. d. rinsing it with clear water. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 493
TRUE/FALSE 1. Hearing, speech, and vision are important for safety and security. ANS: T
PTS: 1
REF: 494
2. Glaucoma has no cure. ANS: T
PTS: 1
REF: 494
3. Everyone with diabetes is at risk for diabetic retinopathy. ANS: T
PTS: 1
REF: 494
4. Low vision is eyesight that can be corrected with eyeglasses or surgery. ANS: F
PTS: 1
REF: 494
5. White canes with a red tip and dog guides are used worldwide by persons who are blind. ANS: T
PTS: 1
REF: 494
Chapter 34: Cancer, Immune System, and Skin Disorders Kostelnick: Mosby’s Textbook for Long-Term Care Nursing Assistants, 8th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A tumor that does not spread to other body parts is: a. cancer. b. malignant. c. metastasis. d. benign. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 497
2. A person has a malignant tumor. The person has: a. cancer. b. metastasis. c. a tumor that grows slowly. d. death of tissue. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 497
3. A malignant tumor: a. grows slowly and in a localized area. b. always spreads to other parts of the body. c. invades nearby tissues. d. is not cancer. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 497
4. Metastasis is: a. a benign tumor. b. cancer. c. a malignant tumor. d. the spread of cancer to other body parts. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 497
5. Stomatitis is inflammation of the: a. bladder. b. nose. c. mouth. d. anus. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 497
6. A tumor is: a. dizziness. b. ringing in the ears. c. a new growth of abnormal cells. d. tinnitus. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 497
7.
A person has cancer. Metastasis occurs when: cell growth and division are out of control. cancer cells break off of the tumor and travel to other body parts. the person is exposed to radiation. cancer is treated and controlled.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 497
8. A person has cancer. You know that the person has: a. a benign tumor. b. a malignant tumor. c. metastasis. d. radiation exposure. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 497
9. Cancer occurs in: a. all age-groups. b. children. c. young and middle-aged adults. d. older persons. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 497
10. Which factor increases the likelihood of cancer? a. Vitamin use b. A family history of certain types of cancer TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. A healthy diet d. Exposure to others who have cancer ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 498
11. A person has cancer. Surgery is done to: a. remove the cancer. b. shrink the tumor. c. destroy cancer cells in the area. d. kill cells that break off the tumor. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 499
12. Radiation therapy can be used to treat cancer. Which statement is correct? a. X-ray beams are aimed at the tumor. b. It can only be done after surgery. c. It is used to remove the tumor. d. Only cancer cells are affected. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 499
13. Which is a side effect of radiation therapy? a. Stomatitis b. Bleeding c. Skin breakdown at the radiation site
d. Mole development at the radiation site ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 499
14. Chemotherapy can be used to treat cancer. Which statement is correct? a. It affects only cancer cells. b. It can be only given after surgery. c. The person is at risk for bleeding and infection. d. It prevents cancers from getting or using hormones needed for tumor growth. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 499
15. Persons receiving chemotherapy are at risk for which of the following? a. Stomatitis b. Hot flashes c. Hair growth d. Blood clots ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 499
16. Besides drugs, hormone therapy also involves: a. aiming x-rays at glands that produce certain hormones. b. surgically removing organs or glands that produce certain hormones. c. helping the body’s immune system. d. pain relief or control. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 500
17. A resident has cancer. YouTfE inSdThB imAcNrK yiS ngEiLnLhE isRro.oCmO. M What should you do? a. Close the door after leaving the room. He needs to cry in private. b. Use touch and listening to communicate that you care. c. Tell the nurse at once. d. Tell his spiritual advisor what you observed. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 500
18. A resident is dying of cancer. Which program might be helpful to the person and the person’s
family? Rehabilitation Subacute care Hospice Group therapy
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 500
19. Graves’ disease is a form of: a. hyperthyroidism. b. hypothyroidism. c. sexually transmitted disease. d. inflammation. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 501
20. A person with Graves’ disease may show which of the following signs and symptoms? a. Slow heart rate b. Weight gain c. Bulging of the eyeballs d. Depression ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 501
21. HIV is spread by: a. saliva, tears, and sweat. b. blood, semen, vaginal secretions, and breast milk. c. coughing and sneezing. d. casual contact and insects. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 501
22. HIV can be spread in which of the following ways? a. Sharing the hair brush of someone else with HIV b. Sitting in the car next to someone with HIV c. Breastfeeding d. Sharing swimming pools and hot tubs ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 501
23. HIV causes: a. acquired immunodeficiency syndrome. b. hepatitis A. c. sexually transmitted diT seE asSeT s.BANKSELLER.COM d. hepatitis B. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 501
24. A person infected with HIV may be symptom-free for: a. 6 weeks. b. 6 months to 1 year. c. 3 to 6 years. d. more than 10 years. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 501
25. A person infected with HIV is symptom-free. Which is correct? a. The person is a carrier and can infect others. b. The person cannot infect others until symptoms are present. c. Symptoms appear after others are infected. d. The person does not show symptoms until other diseases develop. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 502
26. Persons with AIDS develop other diseases because: a. their immune systems are damaged. b. they practice unprotected sex. c. they share needles and syringes. d. they have a reduced blood supply.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 501
27. To protect yourself and others from HIV, you must follow Standard Precautions and the
Bloodborne Pathogen Standard: when caring for persons at risk. when caring for persons diagnosed with HIV or AIDS. when caring for persons diagnosed with HIV. at all times.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 502
28. Signs and symptoms of AIDS include which of the following? a. Loss of appetite, weight loss, night sweats, and diarrhea b. Warts and blisters on the genitals, discharge from the vagina or penis, and intense
itching c. Skin rashes, swollen glands, constipation, and brown blotches on the skin d. Extreme fatigue, blue spots on the mouth or tongue, and confusion ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 502
29. Older persons are at risk for HIV/AIDS. Which statement is correct? a. The disease is rarely missed during diagnosis. b. Aging and other diseases can mask the signs and symptoms. c. They are more likely to be tested for HIV. d. They refuse tests and treatment. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 502
30. Care of a person with AIDS involves which of the following? a. Frequent dressing changes b. I&O and daily weight measurements c. Restricting fluids d. Bed rest with bathroom privileges ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 502
TRUE/FALSE 1. Shingles is caused by the same virus that causes chicken pox. ANS: T
PTS: 1
REF: 502
2. Hormone replacement therapy for women in menopause may increase the risk of breast
cancer. ANS: T
PTS: 1
REF: 498
Chapter 35: Nervous System and Musculoskeletal Disorders Kostelnick: Mosby’s Textbook for Long-Term Care Nursing Assistants, 8th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The removal of all or part of an extremity is: a. excision. b. incision. c. ectomy. d. amputation. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 505
2. Arthritis is: a. the surgical replacement of a joint. b. joint inflammation. c. a disease in which bones become porous and brittle. d. the repair of a fracture. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 505
3. Arthroplasty is: a. the surgical replacement of a joint. b. joint inflammation. c. a disease in which bones become porous and brittle. d. the repair of a fracture. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 505
4. A person has a fracture. The bone is broken but the skin is intact. The person has a(n)
fracture. closed compound open spiral
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 505
5. A person has a fracture. The bone has come through the skin. The person has a(n)
fracture. closed simple compound hip
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
6. A compound fracture also is called a(n) a. closed b. simple c. open
REF: 505
fracture.
d. hip ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 505
PTS: 1
REF: 505
7. A fracture is a: a. broken bone. b. broken joint. c. broken hip. d. cast or traction. ANS: A
8. Tissues die and become black, cold, and shriveled. This is: a. cancer. b. gangrene. c. arthritis. d. metastasis. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 505
9. Paralysis on one side of the body is: a. uniplegia. b. biplegia. c. paraplegia. d. hemiplegia. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 505
10. Paraplegia is paralysis andTloEsS sT ofBsA enNsK orS yEfuLnL ctE ioRn. : COM a. in the arms. b. in the legs. c. from the chest down. d. from the neck down. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 505
11. Quadriplegia is paralysis and loss of sensory function: a. in the arms. b. in the legs. c. from the waist down. d. in the arms, legs, and trunk. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 505
12. Another term for quadriplegia is: a. paraplegia. b. tetraplegia. c. biplegia. d. uniplegia. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 505
13. Which statement about arthritis is correct?
a. b. c. d.
It is the most common joint disease. Pain is not commonly experienced. Increased mobility is common. It is cured with arthroplasty.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 510
14. Which statement about osteoarthritis is correct? a. It occurs in the younger population. b. Pain occurs with non-weight-bearing and joint motion. c. Being underweight is a common cause. d. Weight-bearing joints (hips, knees, and spine) are commonly affected. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 510
15. Which is a sign or symptom of osteoarthritis? a. Fractures b. Joint bruising c. Burning and tingling in the joint d. Joint swelling or tenderness ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 510
16. A resident has osteoarthritis. The person is most likely to have joint stiffness with: a. rest and lack of motion. b. exercise. c. weight-bearing. d. joint motion. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 510
17. A resident has osteoarthritis. The person is most likely to have joint pain: a. with rest and lack of motion. b. with weight-bearing and joint motion. c. following a heat application. d. following a cold application. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 510
18. A resident has osteoarthritis. The person is overweight. Why is weight loss important for the
person? It will improve the person’s mental well-being. The person is too old to be overweight. Weight loss reduces stress on weight-bearing joints. It will be easier to lift and move the person.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 510
19. Which statement about rheumatoid arthritis is correct? a. It occurs first during childhood. b. Joints on one side of the body are affected. c. Wrist and finger joints are commonly affected. d. The disease is active all the time.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 511
20. A resident has rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following can relieve pain and
inflammation? Casting Heat or cold applications Traction Increased exercise patterns
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 511
21. A resident has rheumatoid arthritis. The person has consented to joint replacement surgery.
The affected joint will be replaced with a: nail or pin. metal plate. screw. prosthesis.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 511
22. Which statement about osteoporosis is correct? a. Bones become porous. b. Bones are strong and take a lot of force to fracture. c. It is common in younger people. d. It is caused by high calcium in the diet. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 511
23. Which are risk factors for osteoporosis? a. Being thin or having a small frame b. Pregnancy c. Vitamin use d. Exercise and activity ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 512
24. Which of the following are signs and symptoms of osteoporosis? a. Joint pain and stiffness b. Back pain c. Sudden loss of height d. Slouched posture ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 513
25. The greatest risk(s) from osteoporosis: a. are fractures. b. are burns. c. is immobility. d. is pneumonia. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 513
26. A resident has osteoporosis. Which of the following would be included in the person’s care
plan? Discourage any strength training exercises to avoid fractures. Allow the person to assume whatever posture is comfortable. Assist with weight-bearing exercises as directed by PT. Promote bed rest. Turn and reposition gently.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 513
27. A person with an arm fracture may have which of the following? a. Joint pain and stiffness b. Poor posture c. Increased movement of the joint d. Deformity of the body part ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 513
28. A resident has a fractured wrist. The doctor has scheduled open reduction. This means that: a. traction is used to bring the bone ends into alignment. b. a cast is used to bring the bone ends into alignment. c. the doctor will move the bone ends back into alignment. d. the doctor will move the bones back into alignment during surgery. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 513
29. After reduction, the fractured part is: a. immobilized with a cast or traction. b. exercised as directed bT yE PT S.TBANKSELLER.COM c. abducted. d. externally rotated. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 513
30. A resident has a plaster of paris cast. The cast dries in a. 2 to 3 b. 4 to 8 c. 12 to 24 d. 24 to 48 ANS: D
PTS: 1
hours.
REF: 513
31. You are assisting the nurse with cast care. Which action is correct? a. Cover the cast for the person’s warmth. b. Use your palms to lift and turn a casted extremity. c. Turn the person every 4 hours. d. Allow a casted leg to dangle. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 514
32. You are assisting the nurse with cast care. Which action is correct? a. Support the entire cast with pillows. b. Wash and dry the cast when soiling occurs. c. Let the person insert things, such as a comb, into the cast, when itching occurs.
d. Position the person as he or she desires for comfort. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 514
33. A resident has a cast. Which of the following signs and symptoms indicate a problem? a. Warm extremities below the casted part b. Itching beneath the cast c. Odor and drainage from under the cast d. Joint pain and stiffness ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 514
34. A resident has a cast on her right arm. You note that her fingers are pale and that she cannot
move them. What should you do? Remove the cast. Tell the nurse at once. Elevate her arm on pillows. Assist with range-of-motion exercises.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 514
35. Traction is used to immobilize a fracture. This is done by: a. applying a steady pull in two directions. b. inserting wires and pins. c. inserting a prosthesis. d. applying a stockinette. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 514
36. Skeletal traction is applied to the: a. skin. b. bone. c. muscle. d. joint. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 514
37. A resident is in traction. Which action is correct? a. Keep the weights on the floor and do not remove traction devices. b. Remove weights for complaints of pain or numbness. c. Provide a regular bedpan for elimination. d. Make the bed from the head of the bed to the foot of the bed. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 514
38. A resident is in traction. How should you position the person? a. Prone b. Semi-Fowler’s position c. Orthopneic position d. As directed ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 516
39. A resident fell in the shower and fractured his right hip. He is back at the nursing center after
surgery to repair the hip. You know that he is at risk for which of the following postoperative complications? a. Pneumonia, UTI, and thrombi in his leg veins b. MS, CAD, and RA c. Hemothorax, depression, and schizophrenia d. Aspiration, paralysis, and metastasis ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 516
40. A resident fell in the shower and fractured his right hip. He is back at the nursing center after
surgery to repair the hip. You know that he is at risk for which of the following postoperative complications? a. Depression, skin tears, and burns b. Pressure ulcers, constipation, and confusion c. Incontinence, hair loss, and stomatitis d. Diarrhea, bleeding, and infection ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 515
41. A hip fracture requires: a. external fixation. b. internal fixation. c. a cast. d. traction. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 515
42. A resident has a fractured right hip. How is the leg positioned? a. Abducted at all times b. Abducted when in bed c. Adducted at all times d. Adducted when in bed ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 516
43. A resident has a fractured right hip. What position is not allowed? a. Left side-lying position b. Right side-lying position c. Fowler’s position d. Semi-Fowler’s position ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 516
44. A resident has a fractured right hip. You must use devices to prevent: a. abduction. b. external rotation of the hip. c. pneumonia. d. aspiration. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 516
45. A resident has a fractured right hip. The doctor ordered elastic stockings. They are used to:
a. b. c. d.
prevent thrombi. prevent pneumonia. prevent another fracture. hold his dressing in place.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 516
46. A resident’s left leg was amputated. The person complains of pain in the left leg. This is: a. chronic pain. b. radiating pain. c. sympathy pain. d. phantom limb pain. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 516
47. Stroke is a(n): a. disease that affects the arteries that supply blood to the brain. b. slow, progressive disorder in which there is degeneration of part of the brain. c. disease in which the myelin covering the brain and spinal cord is destroyed. d. injury to the scalp, skull, and brain tissue. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 518
48. Two common causes of stroke are: a. bleeding in the brain and blood clots. b. hypertension and diabetes. c. infection and accidental injury. d. aging and poor nutritioT n.ESTBANKSELLER.COM ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 505
49. Warning signs of stroke include which of the following? a. Sudden, severe chest pain and shortness of breath b. Sudden numbness or weakness on one side of the body c. Experiencing the sensation of a strange smell d. A gradual onset, mild headache ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 505
50. Warning signs of stroke include which of the following? a. An altered taste b. Sudden sleepiness c. Sudden dizziness or loss of balance or coordination d. Sudden loss of bowel or bladder control ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 506
51. Warning signs of stroke last a few minutes. This is called a(n): a. early warning. b. transient ischemic attack. c. cerebrovascular accident. d. brain attack.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 506
52. Risk factors for stroke include which of the following? a. Hypertension and family history b. Diabetes, osteoporosis, and obesity c. Malnutrition, regular exercise, vitamin use d. Low calcium levels ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 506
53. Functions lost as a result of stroke depend on the: a. cause of the stroke. b. person’s age. c. area of brain damage. d. person’s attitude. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 506
54. A resident had a stroke. The person’s left side is affected. Which of the following would be
included in the person’s care plan? Encourage ambulation in the halls at least three times daily. Turn and reposition every 4 hours. Assist with range-of-motion exercises. Perform all ADL for the person.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 505
55. Effects from a stroke resulting in hemiplegia paralysis often include which of the following? a. Bilateral loss of body and limb control b. Dysphagia and aphasia c. Urinary retention and constipation d. Tremors and stiff muscles ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 507
56. A resident had a stroke. The person cries easily, sometimes for no reason. Which is true? a. The person suffers from depression. b. Changing emotions are common effects of stroke. c. The person is anxious. d. The person might benefit from a hospice program. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 506
57. Care of a person after a stroke often includes which of the following? a. Ostomy care b. A bowel or bladder training program c. Regular ambulation d. Foley catheterization ANS: B
PTS: 1
58. Which is a common effect of stroke? a. Hemiplegia
REF: 506
b. Quadriplegia c. Mask-like expression d. Sclerosis ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 507
59. A resident had a stroke. When does rehabilitation begin? a. When the person leaves the hospital. b. When the person enters a rehabilitation center. c. A few days after the person returns to the nursing center. d. At once. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 506
60. Which statement about Parkinson’s disease is correct? a. It occurs suddenly and can be reversed. b. It usually develops after age 30. c. Signs and symptoms become worse over time. d. Expressive-receptive aphasia is common. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 506
61. Which of the following are common with Parkinson’s disease? a. Hemiplegia or quadriplegia b. Flaccid and weak muscles c. Slow movement and mask-like expression d. Good posture and coordination ANS: C
L:LE RE EF 50R6.COM PTS: T1ESTBANKS
62. Which of the following are common with Parkinson’s disease? a. Pill-rolling movements b. Scissors gait c. Eye rolling d. Flare-ups or relapses ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 507
63. Persons with Parkinson’s disease often have speech problems. Which is common? a. Aphasia b. Slurred, monotone speech c. Loud speech d. Swearing ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 506
64. The person with Parkinson’s disease needs protection from: a. falls. b. burns. c. poisoning. d. cold, damp weather. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 508
65. Symptoms of multiple sclerosis usually begin: a. between the ages of 20 and 40. b. after age 50. c. after age 65. d. between the ages of 50 and 65. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 508
66. Which statement about multiple sclerosis is correct? a. The person may have remissions early in the disease. b. Symptoms depend on the age of onset. c. Cataracts often occur. d. Severe disability or death is common early after onset. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 508
67. A resident has MS. Which of the following is an accurate item that might be listed in the
person’s care plan? Perform all ADL for the person. Assist with measures to promote use of a Foley catheter. Assist with deep-breathing and coughing exercises. Perform active range-of-motion exercises every 4 hours while awake.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 508
68. A resident has amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). Which is correct? a. ALS attacks the nerve cells that control voluntary muscles. TESTBANKSELLER.COM b. ALS affects more women than men. c. ALS usually strikes between 60 and 80 years of age. d. ALS usually affects the mind, intelligence, and memory. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 508
69. A resident has ALS. Which of the following is an accurate item that might be listed in the
person’s care plan? a. Range-of-motion exercises b. Bed rest with commode privileges c. Ambulate in the halls three times per day d. High protein, high fat diet ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 508
70. Which statement about head injuries is correct? a. Rehabilitation will return the person to normal. b. The injury to the head is an isolated injury with no other body systems affected. c. Paralysis and breathing difficulties may result. d. The person will be unable to control his or her bowel or bladder from this point
forward. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 508
71. Which statement about spinal cord injuries is correct?
a. b. c. d.
All spinal cord injuries are reversible with intense therapy. Paraplegia or quadriplegia can result. A Foley catheter will be necessary for bladder control. Lower level injuries result in greater loss of function.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 509
72. A resident is paralyzed from the waist down. Which of the following is an accurate item that
might be listed in the person’s care plan? a. Safety measures to prevent falls b. Bath water, heat applications, and food should be cooler than the normal
temperatures c. Active range-of-motion exercises to all joints except the neck d. Limited range-of-motion exercises to prevent injury ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 509
73. A resident is paralyzed from the waist down. The person is at risk for: a. pressure ulcers and contractures. b. aphasia and dysphagia. c. aspiration and pneumonia. d. MS and Parkinson’s disease. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 509
74. Autonomic dysreflexia affects persons: a. in persistent vegetative states. b. with hemiplegia. c. with spinal cord injuries above the mid-thoracic level. d. with ALS. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 509
75. If untreated, autonomic dysreflexia can lead to: a. spinal cord infection. b. stroke and heart attack. c. paraplegia. d. constipation and fecal impaction. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 509
76. A common cause of autonomic dysreflexia is: a. being cold. b. nasal congestion. c. anxiety. d. fecal impaction. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 509
TRUE/FALSE 1. A resident has rheumatoid arthritis. You should encourage exercise when fever is present.
ANS: F
PTS: 1
REF: 510
Chapter 36: Cardiovascular and Respiratory System Disorders Kostelnick: Mosby’s Textbook for Long-Term Care Nursing Assistants, 8th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which is considered to be a chronic obstructive pulmonary disease? a. Pneumonia b. Chronic bronchitis c. Tuberculosis d. Asthma ANS: B
REF: 523
2. COPD interferes with: a. inhalation. b. blood flow. c. O2 and CO2 exchange in the lungs. d. exhalation. ANS: C
REF: 524
3. What is the major cause of chronic bronchitis? a. Smoking b. Infection c. Air pollution d. Family history ANS: A
REF: 524
4. A person has chronic bronchitis. You expect which of the following signs and symptoms? a. Productive cough, possibly with pus b. Cyanosis c. Frequent ear infections d. Increased energy levels ANS: A
REF: 524
5. A person has chronic bronchitis. Treatment involves which of the following? a. Continuous antibiotic treatment b. Lung transplant c. Prompt treatment of respiratory tract infections d. Artificial airways and chest tubes ANS: C
REF: 524
6. Which occurs with emphysema? a. Alveoli fill with fluid. b. Alveoli shrink. c. Air is trapped in the bronchus. d. Alveoli become less elastic. ANS: D
REF: 524
7. What is the most common cause of emphysema? a. Smoking b. Infection c. Air pollution d. Family history ANS: A
REF: 524
8. A resident has emphysema. You expect the person’s treatment to include which of the
following? Glucose therapy Breathing exercises Hormone therapy Diet therapy
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
REF: 524
9. Which statement about asthma is correct? a. Air passages widen. b. Wheezing and cough are common. c. An asthma attack does not typically get worse. d. The person has fever, pain, and chills. ANS: B
REF: 524
10. Which of the following signals influenza in older persons? a. A change in mental status TESTBANKSELLER.COM b. A body temperature above normal range c. Increased energy levels d. Increased appetite and fluid intake ANS: A
REF: 524
11. Influenza is caused by: a. viruses. b. immobility. c. aspiration. d. bacteria. ANS: A
REF: 524
12. Which statement about pneumonia is correct? a. It is constriction of alveoli. b. Affected alveoli fill with air. c. Affected alveoli are enlarged and less elastic. d. The person has fever, chills, painful cough, and chest pain on breathing. ANS: D
REF: 525
13. A resident has pneumonia. What color is the sputum? a. Green b. Yellowish
c. Rust-colored d. The color depends on the cause ANS: D
REF: 525
14. A resident has pneumonia. Which of the following should be included in the person’s care
plan? Discourage fluids. Encourage activity. Place in semi-Fowler’s position only. Change linens as needed.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D
REF: 525
15. Tuberculosis is spread by: a. direct contact. b. vector. c. indirect contact. d. airborne droplets. ANS: D
REF: 525
16. Which statement about TB is correct? a. Persons having frequent, close contact with the infected individual are at risk. b. Symptoms occur 6 weeks after being infected. c. It is treated with antibiotics. d. TB is detected by a nasal smear. ANS: A
25STBANKSELLER.COM REF: T5E
17. A person has TB. Which precautions are needed? a. Isolation precautions b. No precautions c. Contact precautions d. Droplet precautions ANS: A
REF: 525
18. Which of these blood pressure measurements indicates hypertension? a. 120/70 mm Hg b. 130/80 mm Hg c. 110/60 mm Hg d. 160/100 mm Hg ANS: D
REF: 525
19. Hypertension is dangerous because it: a. is a contagious disease. b. is a communicable disease. c. can damage other organs. d. cannot be treated. ANS: C
REF: 526
20. Risk factors for hypertension include the following. One risk factor a person can change
would be: his or her age. weight. family history. race.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
REF: 526
21. Hypertension can lead to which of the following? a. Stroke and heart attack b. Parkinson’s disease and multiple sclerosis c. Vitamin deficiencies d. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease ANS: A
REF: 520
22. What are the major complications of coronary artery disease? a. Hypertension, angina, and high blood pressure b. Angina, myocardial infarction, irregular heartbeat, and sudden death c. Myocardial infarction, hypertension, and COPD d. Heart failure, myocardial infarction, and atherosclerosis ANS: B
REF: 521
23. With coronary artery disease, the coronary arteries are: a. hardened and narrow. b. enlarged and less elastic. c. infected. d. opened or bypassed. ANS: A
REF: 521
24. The following are risk factors for coronary artery disease. Which can be controlled? a. Age b. Smoking c. Gender d. Race ANS: B 25. Angina is a. muscle b. joint c. lung d. chest ANS: D
REF: 521
pain(s).
REF: 521
26. Angina occurs when: a. the heart needs less oxygen. b. the lungs need more oxygen.
c. the heart needs more oxygen. d. blood flow increases. ANS: C
REF: 521
27. Which is a sign or symptom of angina? a. Pain in the jaw, neck, and down one or both arms b. Dry mouth c. Low heart rate d. Drowsiness ANS: A
REF: 521
28. Angina is usually relieved by: a. food and fluids. b. fresh air. c. rest and nitroglycerin. d. surgery. ANS: C 29.
REF: 522
A resident has angina. The person needs to: a. have nitroglycerin available at all times. b. keep a portable oxygen tank with him. c. stay inside. d. exercise vigorously. ANS: A
REF: 522
30. Angina not relieved by nitroglycerin and rest may signal: a. hypertension. b. stroke. c. heart failure. d. heart attack. ANS: D
REF: 522
31. Which statement about myocardial infarction is correct? a. Tissue death occurs from a sudden lack of blood supply to the heart muscle. b. The area of damage is large. c. The person could have a heart attack if the infarction is not resolved. d. Cardiac arrest is not common. ANS: A
REF: 522
32. Which statement about the pain of myocardial infarction is correct? a. It is usually mild with a gradual onset. b. It is often described as burning. c. It may radiate to the neck, jaw, teeth, shoulder, and arm. d. It is relieved by rest and nitroglycerin. ANS: C
REF: 522
33. Which statement about the pain of myocardial infarction is correct? a. The person may complain of constipation. b. The person is typically calm but uncomfortable. c. Sweating, pallor, and cyanosis are common. d. Hypertension and a strong pulse usually occur. ANS: C
REF: 522
34. After an MI, the person needs: a. rest. b. surgery. c. cardiac rehabilitation. d. dialysis. ANS: C
REF: 523
35. Heart failure means that the heart: a. has stopped beating. b. is damaged. c. cannot pump blood normally. d. is old and weak. ANS: C
REF: 523
36. A person has left-sided heart failure. Signs and symptoms include which of the following? a. No pulse, no respirations, and no blood pressure b. Wheezing, barrel-shaped chest c. Confusion, dizziness, aT nE dS faT inBtiA ngNKSELLER.COM d. Flushed skin and increased urinary output ANS: C
REF: 523
37. A person has right-sided heart failure. Signs and symptoms include: a. no pulse, no respirations, and no blood pressure. b. swollen feet and ankles. c. dyspnea, cyanosis, and elevated temperature. d. severe, sudden chest pain. ANS: B
REF: 523
38. A person has heart failure. The person’s diet is likely to be: a. sodium-controlled. b. high protein. c. high carbohydrate. d. high fat. ANS: A
REF: 523
39. What position is usually preferred by persons with heart failure? a. Supine b. Prone c. Side-lying position d. Semi-Fowler’s position
ANS: D
REF: 523
40. A resident has heart failure. Which of the following should be included in the person’s care
plan? Measure weight once per week. Encourage fluids. Provide skin care. Encourage frequent ambulation.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
REF: 523
41. A resident has heart failure. The doctor is likely to order: a. a splint or brace. b. elastic stockings. c. trochanter rolls. d. a cane or walker. ANS: B
REF: 523
TRUE/FALSE 1. The CDC recommends flu vaccine for persons 50 years of age and older. ANS: T
REF: 523
2. Pneumonia from aspiration is common in older persons. ANS: T
REF: 523
3. A resident has TB. Isolation precautions are needed. ANS: T
REF: 523
Chapter 37: Digestive and Endocrine System Disorders Kostelnick: Mosby’s Textbook for Long-Term Care Nursing Assistants, 8th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which means low blood sugar? a. Hyperglycemia b. Hypoglycemia c. Paraglycemia d. Quadriglycemia ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 528
2. In diabetes, the body lacks or is unable to use: a. estrogen. b. testosterone. c. insulin. d. protein and carbohydrates. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 532
3. Which type of diabetes is most common in children and young adults? a. Type 1 b. Type 2 c. Gestational d. Situational ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 532
4. What type of diabetes presents a risk to adults over 45? a. Type 1 b. Type 2 c. Gestational d. Situational ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 532
5. What are the risk factors for type 2 diabetes? a. Being over-weight and hypertension b. Lack of exercise and CAD c. Pregnancy and a family history d. Unprotected sex and IV drug use ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 532
6. Type 1 diabetes is treated with: a. insulin therapy, healthy eating, and exercise. b. estrogen therapy, healthy eating, and exercise. c. testosterone therapy, healthy eating, and exercise. d. healthy eating and exercise. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 533
7. Persons with diabetes need: a. good foot care. b. frequent oral hygiene. c. daily weight measurements. d. I&O measurements. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 533
8. Which of the following are common signs of diabetes? a. Increased thirst and urination b. Hypotension and anorexia c. Circulatory disorders d. Blindness and renal failure ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 533
9. A resident has diabetes. The person’s care plan includes measures to prevent hypoglycemia.
Which will increase the person’s blood sugar level? Too much diabetic medication Omitting a meal Too little exercise Vomiting
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 533
10. A resident has diabetes. The person’s care plan includes measures to prevent hyperglycemia.
Which will decrease the peTrsEoS n’Ts B blAoN odKsSuE gaLrLleEvR el. ? COM Not enough diabetic medication Eating too much food Increasing the person’s exercise Physical or emotional stress
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 533
11. If not corrected, hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia can lead to: a. a heart attack. b. renal failure. c. blindness. d. death. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 533
12. Which is a disease in which stomach contents flow back from the stomach into the
esophagus? a. Diabetes b. Hyperglycemia c. Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) d. Diverticulitis ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 528
13. The most common symptom of GERD is:
a. b. c. d.
heartburn. flatulence. fever. diarrhea.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 528
14. Which is a risk factor for GERD? a. Being underweight b. High cholesterol c. Vitamin Use d. Smoking ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 528
15. A pouch that bulges outward through a weak spot in the colon is called a: a. colon pouch. b. colostomy. c. diverticulum. d. hernia. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 529
16. Which is a risk factor for diverticulosis? a. Being over 60 years old b. A high-fiber diet c. Diarrhea d. Being over-weight ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 529
17. A resident is vomiting. Which action is correct? a. Follow Standard Precautions and the Bloodborne Pathogen Standard. b. Offer the person milk to drink. c. Prevent aspiration by having the person lie flat. d. Encourage the person to try to eat a cracker. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 529
18. A person has vomited. Which will promote comfort? a. Oral hygiene b. Turning and repositioning c. Semi-Fowler’s position d. Assisting with elimination ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 529
19. A person has vomited. Which action is correct? a. Test the vomitus for sugar and blood. b. Measure the amount of vomitus. c. Dispose of the vomitus immediately in the commode. d. Leave the vomitus on the patient gown until the nurse observes it.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 529
20. Risk factors for gallstones include which of the following? a. Male gender b. Low-fat diet c. African American ethnicity d. Cholesterol-lowering drugs ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 530
21. Signs and/or symptoms that indicate a resident may be experiencing a gallbladder attack
include: a. pain in the lower abdomen. b. bright red-colored stools. c. nausea and vomiting. d. dry mouth. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 530
22. Hepatitis A is spread by: a. airborne droplets. b. blood. c. the fecal-oral route. d. direct contact. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 530
23. Hepatitis B, C, and D are spread by: a. airborne droplets. b. contaminated blood. c. the fecal-oral route. d. direct contact. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 530-531
24. Which is a sign of hepatitis? a. Pale yellow urine b. Light-colored stools c. High cholesterol d. Sputum containing pus ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 531
25. IV drug users are at risk for which of the following types of hepatitis a. B b. F c. A d. E ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 530
26. Hepatitis C is particularly dangerous for which of the following reasons? a. The infected person may not have symptoms.
b. Signs and symptoms of liver disease and damage only appear when a person is
nearing death c. Infected persons can spread the virus to others just by being in the same room. d. Contaminated water can affect many people. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 531
27. Treatment of hepatitis A involves which of the following? a. Rest and fluids b. Antibiotics c. Alcohol d. Surgery ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 531
28. When caring for persons with hepatitis, you need to practice which of the following? a. Sterile procedures b. Bloodborne Pathogen Standard c. Respiratory isolation d. Surgical asepsis ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 530
TRUE/FALSE 1. High-risk sexual activity is associated with all of the following types of hepatitis except
hepatitis E. ANS: T
PTS: 1
REF: 530
2. Emesis is the same as vomitus. ANS: T
PTS: 1
REF: 529
Chapter 38: Urinary and Reproductive System Disorders Kostelnick: Mosby’s Textbook for Long-Term Care Nursing Assistants, 8th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A urostomy is a. an artificial way to remove waste and excess fluid from the body. b. a process that uses the abdominal cavity lining to remove waste from the body. c. the surgical creation of an artificial opening. d. an artificial opening between the ureter and the abdomen. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 535
2. Which statement about urinary tract infections is correct? a. An infection in one structure can lead to an infection of the entire system. b. Men are at greater risk than women. c. Increased fluid intake is a common cause. d. Urinary tract infections are uncommon in nursing centers. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 535
3. Cystitis means: a. an inflammation of the kidney pelvis. b. kidney stones. c. a bladder infection. d. pus in the urine. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 535
4. A person with cystitis may have which of the following signs and symptoms? a. Urinary frequency with large amounts of bloody urine b. Dysuria and urinary urgency c. Constipation d. Changes in skin color and dry, itchy skin ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 535
5. Cystitis is usually treated with: a. dialysis. b. antibiotics and fluids. c. fluids and drugs for pain relief. d. dietary changes. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 536
6. Pyelonephritis means: a. an inflammation of the kidney pelvis. b. kidney stones. c. a bladder infection. d. pus in the urine. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 536
7. Pyelonephritis is usually treated with: a. dialysis. b. antibiotics and fluids. c. fluids and drugs for pain relief. d. dietary changes. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 536
8. Benign prostatic hypertrophy is another term for: a. frequent urination. b. difficulty voiding. c. enlarged prostate. d. bladder infection. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 536
9. A resident had a transurethral resection of the prostate. Which of the following should be
included in the person’s care plan? Resume normal activity. Restrict fluids to 1000 mL each day. Measures to prevent constipation. Heavy lifting permitted if not strenuous.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 536
10. When the urinary bladder is removed, a new pathway is needed for urine to exit the body. The
new pathway is called a: urinary diversion. ureterostomy. renal pathway. renal tubule.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 536
11. Calculi mean: a. an inflammation of the kidney pelvis. b. kidney stones. c. a bladder infection. d. pus in the urine. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 536
12. The person with kidney stones usually experiences which of the following? a. Changes in skin color and dry, itchy skin b. Severe, cramping pain in the back and side c. Chest pain d. Constipation ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 537
13. The person with kidney stones is encouraged to drink fluids. The person needs to drink
mL per day.
a. b. c. d.
1000 to 2000 2000 to 3000 3000 to 4000 4000 to 5000
ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 537
14. Which statement about renal failure is correct? a. The person is very ill. b. Heart attack can result. c. The body releases excess fluids. d. Waste products are removed from the blood. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 537
15. The person with renal failure has: a. dysuria. b. hematuria. c. oliguria. d. polyuria. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 538
16. Which is a cause of acute renal failure? a. Immunizations b. Childbirth c. Asthma d. Burns, infection, or sevTeE reSaT lleBrA giN cK reSacEtiLoL nsER.COM ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 538
17. A person has acute renal failure. Which of the following should be included in the care plan? a. Measure urine output daily. b. Encourage fluids. c. Assist with coughing and deep-breathing exercises. d. Weigh weekly. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 538
18. A person has acute renal failure. The person’s diet is likely to be: a. low protein, low potassium, and high carbohydrate. b. high protein, high potassium, and high sodium. c. low carbohydrate, low potassium, and low sodium. d. high fat, low protein, and high potassium. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 538
19. The common causes of chronic renal failure are: a. tumors and infections. b. hypertension and diabetes. c. coronary artery disease and COPD. d. severe allergic reactions and severe bleeding.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 538
20. Signs and symptoms of chronic renal failure: a. involve every body system. b. occur when death is near. c. involve bleeding tendencies and bruising. d. involve headaches, convulsions, confusion, and coma. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 538
21. A resident has chronic renal failure. Which of the following should be included in the
person’s care plan? a. Measures to encourage fluids. b. Measures to encourage frequent ambulation. c. Measures for weight gain. d. Measures to prevent pressure ulcers. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 538
22. A resident has chronic kidney failure. The person needs which of the following? a. Weight reduction exercises b. Frequent oral hygiene c. Weekly weight measurements d. A high-protein diet ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 540
23. Which statement about STDs is correct? a. Signs and symptoms only occur in the genital area. b. To transmit an STD, both partners must be infected. c. Condoms do not help prevent the spread of STDs. d. Standard Precautions and the Bloodborne Pathogen Standard must be followed. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 540
24. Signs and symptoms of herpes include: a. painless warts. b. painful, blister-like sores. c. urinary frequency and urgency. d. diarrhea. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 540
25. Which is a sign or symptom of gonorrhea? a. Painful, blister-like sores b. Discharge from the vagina, urethra, or rectum c. Presence of yeast in the vagina d. Urinary retention ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 540
26. Which is a sign or symptom of chlamydia? a. Painful, blister-like sores
b. Yeast present in the vagina c. Constipation d. Testicular pain or swelling ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 541
27. Trichomoniasis can cause which of the following signs and symptoms? a. Thick, frothy, foul-smelling vaginal discharge b. Genital warts c. Constipation d. Testicular pain and swelling ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 541
28. Which statement about syphilis is correct? a. It can cause death if untreated. b. Untreated syphilis will eventually go away. c. The infected person has sores that are painful. d. The person usually has no symptoms. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 541
TRUE/FALSE 1. An enlarged prostate can cause urinary problems in men. ANS: T
PTS: 1
REF: 541
2. When the bladder drops down, this is called a cystocele. ANS: T
PTS: 1
REF: 535
Chapter 39: Mental Health Problems Kostelnick: Mosby’s Textbook for Long-Term Care Nursing Assistants, 8th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Affect relates to: a. a vague, uneasy feeling in response to stress. b. a false belief. c. feelings and emotions. d. a persistent thought or idea. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 543
2. Anxiety is: a. a vague, uneasy feeling in response to stress. b. a false belief. c. feelings and emotions. d. a persistent thought or idea. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 543
3. The repeating of an act over and over again is: a. an obsession. b. paranoia. c. phobia. d. compulsion. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 543
4. Which is used to block unpleasant or threatening feelings? a. Delusions b. Delusions of grandeur c. Delusions of persecution d. Defense mechanisms ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 543
5. A delusion is: a. a false belief. b. seeing, hearing, smelling, or feeling something that is not real. c. a persistent thought or idea. d. an intense and sudden feeling of fear, anxiety, terror, or dread. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 543
6. A delusion of grandeur is: a. a false belief that one is being mistreated, abused, or harassed. b. an exaggerated belief about one’s importance, wealth, power, or talents. c. an intense and sudden feeling of fear, anxiety, terror, or dread. d. seeing, hearing, or feeling something that is not real. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 543
7. A hallucination is: a. a false belief. b. an exaggerated belief. c. seeing, hearing, smelling, or feeling something that is not real. d. a persistent thought or idea. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 543
8. An obsession is: a. the uncontrolled performance of an act. b. a false belief. c. a mental illness. d. a recurrent, unwanted thought, idea, or image. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 543
9. Panic is: a. a persistent thought or idea. b. false beliefs and suspicion about a person or situation. c. an intense and sudden feeling of fear, anxiety, terror, or dread. d. not being able to view or interpret reality correctly. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 543
10. Paranoia is: a. a persistent thought or idea. b. false beliefs and suspicion about a person or situation. TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. fear, panic, or dread. d. not being able to view or interpret reality correctly. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 543
11. Phobia is: a. a false belief. b. intense anxiety. c. a persistent thought or idea. d. intense fear, panic, or dread. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 543
12. Psychosis means that the person: a. has false beliefs. b. sees, hear, or feels things that are not real. c. has severe mental impairments. d. has fear, panic, or dread. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 543
13. Stress is: a. a mental illness or mental disorder. b. the response or change in the body caused by any emotional, physical, social, or
economic factor.
c. any emotional, physical, social, or economic factor that causes stress. d. not being able to view or interpret reality correctly. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 543
14. A stressor is: a. a mental illness or mental disorder. b. the response or change in the body caused by any emotional, physical, social, or
economic factor. c. any factor that causes stress. d. not being able to view or interpret reality correctly. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 543
15. A person is able to cope with and adjust to everyday stresses. The person: a. is mentally healthy. b. has a mental illness. c. has an emotional illness. d. has a psychiatric disorder. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 544
16. A person’s ability to cope and adjust to stress is disturbed. Behavior and function are
impaired. Which is correct? a. The person has a mental illness. b. The person has false beliefs. c. The person has severe mood swings. d. The person has paranoiTa.E STBANKSELLER.COM ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 544
17. Which is a cause of mental health disorders? a. Infection b. Immunizations c. Genetics d. Schizophrenia and anxiety ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 544
18. Which statement about anxiety is correct? a. Mentally healthy people are free of anxiety. b. It usually occurs when needs are met. c. The person senses real or imagined danger or harm. d. The person always knows the source or cause of the anxiety. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 544
19. Which statement about anxiety is correct? a. Anxiety levels are higher in persons with mental health disorders. b. Anxiety level depends on the age of the person. c. A specific stressor always produces the same anxiety level. d. Medications are always needed to relieve anxiety.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 544
20. Signs and symptoms of anxiety include which of the following? a. Pain with urination b. Drowsiness c. Low pulse, respirations, and blood pressure d. Dry mouth, sweating, and poor attention span ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 544
21. Which statement about defense mechanisms is correct? a. They are conscious reactions. b. They are used by everyone. c. They do not relieve anxiety. d. They reflect the highest level of anxiety. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 544
22. A woman wants to be a lawyer. Her family does not have the money to send her to law
school. She decides to become a teacher. What defense mechanism is she using? Displacement Projection Conversion Compensation
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 545
23. You are unhappy with your supervisor. You call in sick because of a headache. What defense
mechanism are you using? Denial Substitution Reaction formation Conversion
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 545
24. A new resident waits at the front door for her daughter to take her home. What defense
mechanism is she using? Denial Conversion Regression Repression
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 545
25. A person’s eyeglasses break. Your supervisor blames you. At home you scold your family for
not helping with dinner. What defense mechanisms are you using? Conversion Displacement Projection Reaction formation
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 545
26. You admire the way that a nurse dresses and styles her hair. You try to do the same. What
defense mechanism are you using? Projection Identification Rationalization Substitution
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 545
27. You forgot to assist a resident with ambulation. You blame the nurse for not reminding you.
What defense mechanism are you using? Projection Identification Rationalization Substitution
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 545
28. You forgot to assist a resident with ambulation. You tell the nurse that you have too much
work to do. What defense mechanism are you using? Projection Identification Rationalization Substitution
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 545
29.2 You do not like a coworker. You invite him to a party at your home. What defense mechanism 9 are you using? . a. Reaction formation b. Conversion c. Repression d. Displacement ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 545
30. A husband asks his wife for a divorce. She starts sucking her thumb. What defense
mechanism is she using? Denial Conversion Regression Repression
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 545
31. A person does not remember being told about the need for nursing center care. What defense
mechanism is being used? Denial Conversion Regression Repression
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 545
32. What is the highest level of anxiety? a. Panic b. Phobia c. Obsession d. Compulsion ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 544
33. A resident has agoraphobia. This means that the person has an intense fear of: a. being in pain or seeing others in pain. b. the slightest uncleanliness. c. being in an open, crowded, or public space. d. being trapped in an enclosed or narrow space. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 544
PTS: 1
REF: 545
34. Fear of darkness is: a. algophobia. b. mysophobia. c. xenophobia. d. nyctophobia. ANS: D
35. A resident washes her hands over and over many times during the day. This behavior is a: a. hallucination. b. defense mechanism. c. phobia. d. compulsion. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 545
36. Schizophrenia usually involves which of the following? a. Anxiety b. Depression c. Delusions of grandeur and delusions of persecution d. Obsessive-compulsive behaviors and severe mood swings ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 546
37. Which of the following are common in persons with schizophrenia? a. Excellent, clear communication b. Engagement with people and society c. Sitting for hours without moving, speaking, or responding d. Lack of loyalty or morals ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 546
38. Infant-like behavior, such as bedwetting, may occur in those persons with: a. obsessive-compulsive disorders.
b. bipolar disorder. c. schizophrenia. d. antisocial personality disorders. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 546
39. The person with bipolar disorder: a. has extremes in mood, energy, and ability to function. b. abuses others. c. has poor judgment and is hostile. d. cannot interpret reality correctly. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 546
40. Which of the following may occur in the manic phase of bipolar disorder? a. Rapid speech b. Decreased sex drive c. Increased sleep d. Feelings of worthlessness and helplessness ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 546
41. A person has major depression. Which is correct? a. Suicide is a risk. b. The person is mildly sad. c. Body functions are increased. d. Violent behaviors are common. ANS: A
L:LE RE EF 54R7.COM PTS: T1ESTBANKS
42. Which statement about depression is correct? a. Depression is uncommon in older persons. b. Depression in older persons is often overlooked. c. Younger persons with depression are often thought to have a cognitive disorder. d. Depression in younger persons is often untreated. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 547
43. The person with an antisocial personality: a. alternates between depression and paranoia. b. is suicidal. c. distrusts others. d. has poor judgment, lacks responsibility, and is hostile toward others. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 547
44. The person with a borderline personality: a. alternates between mania and depression. b. lacks morals and ethics. c. hallucinates and is delusional. d. has intense bouts of anger, depression, and anxiety that last for hours or most of
the day.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 548
45. The overuse of a drug for its nonmedical or nontherapy effects is: a. drug tolerance. b. drug addiction. c. drug abuse. d. therapeutic drug use. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 549
46. Which statement about substance abuse is correct? a. It is always genetic. b. Dependency always results in physical symptoms. c. It affects school and work performance, relationships, health, appearance, and
behavior. d. Only illegal drugs and alcohol are abused. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 548
47. A resident has a drug addiction. Which is correct? a. The person has a chronic brain disease. b. The person can stop taking the drug without treatment. c. Higher doses of the drug are not needed for the same effects. d. The person takes the drug to treat medical symptoms only. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 549
48. Which statement about alcoholism is correct? a. Alcoholism is an acute disease. b. Lifestyle and genetics are risk factors. c. It can be cured. d. There is no treatment. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 549
49. The highest rate of suicide was among which group? a. African American men b. White men c. White women d. Asian women ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 548
50. When a person tells you they don’t want to live anymore, you should: a. document the statement in their chart. b. comfort the person by telling them they are being well taken care of. c. call for the nurse at once. d. notify a family member that the person seems unhappy. ANS: C TRUE/FALSE
PTS: 1
REF: 548
1. Drug addiction is a chronic, relapsing brain disease in which the person has an overwhelming
desire to take a drug. ANS: T
PTS: 1
REF: 548
2. Over time, heavy drinking of alcohol damages the brain, central nervous system, liver, heart,
kidneys, and stomach. ANS: T
PTS: 1
REF: 548
3. The effects of alcohol vary with age. ANS: T
PTS: 1
REF: 552
4. A resident has a cocktail every evening before bedtime. This means that the person has a
drinking problem. ANS: F
PTS: 1
REF: 551
5. Persons with mental health disorders do not have the right to quality of life. ANS: F
PTS: 1
REF: 551
Chapter 40: Confusion and Dementia Kostelnick: Mosby’s Textbook for Long-Term Care Nursing Assistants, 8th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Delirium is: a. a false belief. b. the loss of cognitive function caused by changes in the brain. c. a false disorder of the mind. d. a temporary state of sudden, severe confusion and rapid brain changes. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 555
2. A delusion is: a. a false belief. b. seeing, hearing, smelling, or feeling something that is not real. c. a false disorder of the mind. d. a state of temporary but acute mental confusion. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 555
3. Dementia is: a. a false belief. b. the loss of cognitive function that interferes with routine personal, social, and
occupational activities. c. a false disorder of the mind. d. a state of temporary buT tE acS utTeBmAeN ntK alScE onLfL usEioRn. . COM ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 555
4. A hallucination is: a. a false belief. b. seeing, hearing, smelling, or feeling something that is not real. c. a false disorder of the mind. d. a state of temporary but acute mental confusion. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 555
5. Pseudodementia is: a. when signs, symptoms, and behaviors of AD increase during hours of darkness. b. the loss of cognitive function that interferes with routine personal, social, and
occupational activities. c. a false dementia. d. a state of temporary but acute mental confusion. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 555
6. Sundowning is: a. when signs, symptoms, and behaviors of AD increase during hours of darkness. b. the loss of cognitive and social function caused by changes in the brain. c. a false dementia.
d. a state of temporary but acute mental confusion. ANS: A 7.
PTS: 1
REF: 555
Which statement is correct regarding changes in the brain? Aging causes changes in the brain and nervous system. Weight gain affects the brain. Hormonal changes affect brain function. When the brain is affected, signs, symptoms, and behaviors are permanent.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 555
8. Cognitive function involves which of the following? a. Memory and thinking b. Hormonal balance c. Temperature regulation d. The senses and mobility ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 555
9. Which is a cause of confusion in older persons? a. Arthritis b. Vitamin use c. Change in lunar phases of the moon d. Reduced blood supply to the brain ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 555
10. Which is common with coT nfE usSioTnB? ANKSELLER.COM a. Aphasia and paralysis b. Personality and mental changes c. Increased duration of sleep cycles d. Restraints are needed ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 555
11. You would expect the person who is confused to: a. know people, the time, and the place. b. have difficulty with activities of daily living. c. have excellent memory. d. have good judgment. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 555
12. Which statement about acute confusion is correct? a. It occurs gradually. b. It is usually permanent. c. Infection, illness, and injury are common causes. d. Excessive use of vitamins is a common cause. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 555
13. A resident is confused. The person usually naps after lunch. Which action is correct?
a. b. c. d.
Follow the person’s routine. Prevent the person from taking a nap. Help the person change into sleepwear. Use music and other activities to distract the person.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 556
14. A resident is confused. Which is correct? a. Open drapes during the day. b. Keep the room dark at bedtime. c. Provide music in the background of the person’s room. d. Perform all ADL for the person. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 556
15. Which statement about dementia is correct? a. Most older people show signs and symptoms of dementia. b. Persons with signs and symptoms of dementia need to see a therapist. c. All dementias can be treated and reversed. d. The person with dementia may have delirium and depression. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 556
16. Which is an early warning sign of dementia? a. Getting lost in unfamiliar places b. Problems with complex tasks, such as working a large puzzle c. Anxiety and hallucinations d. Misplacing things and T puEttSinTgBthAiN ngKsSinEuLnLuE suR al.pClaOcM es ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 556
17. Which is an early warning sign of dementia? a. Getting lost in familiar places b. Increased sleeping duration c. Increased judgment d. Not recognizing self or family members ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 556
18. Which is the most common cause of permanent dementia? a. Parkinson’s disease b. Cerebrovascular disease c. Alzheimer’s disease d. Multi-infarct dementia ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 556
19. Which statement about permanent dementia is correct? a. There is a cure, although it takes a long time to achieve it. b. Loss of cognitive function improves over time. c. Disease progression is the same for everyone affected. d. The person has signs and symptoms of dementia.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 556
20. Which statement about pseudodementia is correct? a. The person has signs and symptoms that are different from dementia. b. There is no real difference between dementia and pseudodementia. c. It can occur with delirium and depression. d. All causes are treated the same way. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 556
21. Which statement about delirium is correct? a. Onset is gradual. b. It is common in older people with acute illnesses. c. It is not an emergency. d. It is not necessary to treat; it will resolve. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 556
22. Which statement about depression is correct? a. It does not occur in older persons. b. Depression, aging, and some drug side effects have similar signs and symptoms. c. Depression is uncommon in older persons. d. The person hallucinates and has attention problems. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 557
23. Which statement about Alzheimer’s disease is correct? a. Brain cells controlling intellectual and social function die. b. The person has behavior, mood, and personality changes. c. Memory and mental abilities suddenly decline. d. Sudden in onset, the disease progresses over many years. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 557
24. At what age do the first symptoms of AD usually occur? a. Between age 30 and 40 b. Between age 40 and 50 c. After age 60 d. Around age 80 ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 557
25. What is the cause of AD? a. Family history b. Down syndrome c. Aging d. Unknown ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 557
26. What is the classic sign of AD? a. Problems finding or speaking the right word b. Poor judgment
c. Forgetting how to use simple, everyday things d. Gradual loss of short-term memory ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 558
27. Which of the following problems occur early in mild AD? a. Blaming others for mistakes b. Difficulty managing money c. Moodiness d. Problems with performing ADL ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 558
28. A resident has AD. Which of the following is probably caused by AD? a. Forgetting names b. A rash on her or his extremities c. Resenting family members d. Having a fever ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 558
29. A resident has AD. Which of the following is probably caused by AD? a. Loss of control b. Loneliness c. Not being able to tell time d. Skin tears and skin breakdown ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 558
30. A resident is in the last stage of AD. The person’s care plan should include which of the
following? Measures to prevent wandering Providing for all ADL Insertion of a Foley catheter Use of restraints
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 559
31. A resident has AD. The person has the following behaviors. Which has the greatest risk for
danger? Wandering Delusions Catastrophic reactions Screaming
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 561
32. Which statement about wandering is correct? a. There is always a cause. b. You can reason with the person as to why wandering is not safe. c. The person did not get enough exercise that day. d. Pain, restlessness, and anxiety are possible causes.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 561
33. The Alzheimer’s Association has a program for persons who wander. The program is called: a. Safe Return. b. Take Me Home. c. Call Home. d. Emergency Response System. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 561
34. A resident has AD. She tends to wander. Her care plan should include which of the following? a. Make sure that she wears her ID bracelet. b. Restrain her to a chair so that she can still see outside. c. Direct her to her room for trying to leave. d. Let her wander on the sidewalks outside. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 565
35. A resident with AD experiences sundowning every day. The person’s care plan should include
which of the following? a. Complete treatments and activities in the evening to give him or her something to do. b. Keep lights on at night to prevent darkness. c. Ask the person what the problem is. d. Provide adequate lighting. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 566
TESTBANKSELLER.COM
36. A resident has AD. The person’s hallucinations include seeing “kitty cats” in the closet.
Which of the following measures will be helpful? Making sure that the person wears needed eyeglasses Directing the person to his or her room Turn on some background noise Explaining that there are no cats in the nursing center
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 565
37. A resident has AD. The person’s hallucinations include seeing “kitty cats” in the closet.
Which of the following measures will be helpful? Helping the person search the closet Restraining the person Preventing glares, shadows, and reflections Taking the person to his or her room for bed
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 566
38. A resident has AD. The person thinks that the food contains poison. This is called: a. a hallucination. b. a delusion. c. a catastrophic reaction. d. sundowning. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 562
39. A resident has AD. The person thinks that the food contains poison. What could you do for
the person to help her or him? Offering to taste the food for the person Showing the person the box where the food came from Taking the person for a walk Reasoning with the person
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 565
40. Catastrophic reactions usually occur from: a. elimination needs. b. hunger. c. too many stimuli at one time. d. lack of sleep. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 562
41. A resident has AD. Sometimes, the person is agitated and combative. The person is pacing
and trying to hit others. Which of the following measures would be helpful? a. Restraining the person b. Sending the person to her or his room c. Distracting the person to go away from others d. Providing a calm, quiet setting ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 562
42. A resident has AD. The peT rsE onSo TfBteAn NscKreSaEmLs La EwRor.dCinOaMforeign language. You know that
screaming is: the person’s way of communicating. an aggressive behavior. an agitated behavior. a restless behavior.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 564
43. A resident has AD. The person often screams a word in a foreign language. Possible causes of
screaming include which of the following? The person is reacting to a family member. The person has repressed anger. The person is acting out for attention. Depression and aging.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 564
44. Persons with AD may have abnormal sexual behaviors. The behaviors are abnormal because: a. persons with AD do not have sexual needs. b. of how and when they occur. c. they are high risk for STDs. d. persons with AD cannot perform sexually. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 563
45. Persons with AD may have abnormal sexual behaviors. Which of the following is a normal
behavior? Undressing in front of other residents Masturbating in the dining room Hugging and kissing one’s partner Fondling another person
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 563
46. A resident has AD. She is trying to rub her perineum through her clothes. Which statement is
correct? The behavior is sexual. She needs to be told this is inappropriate behavior. She may be trying to seek attention. She may have pain or discomfort in her urinary or reproductive system.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 563
47. A resident has AD. His wife visits daily. They like to touch, hold hands, and kiss. Which
action is correct? Discourage such contact. Provide privacy. Allow only supervised visits. Try to distract them.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 563
48. A resident has AD. You finTdEhSim stur gE inRa. noCtO heMr person’s room. What should you TBmAaN KSbaEtiLnL
do?
a. b. c. d.
Tell him to stop what he is doing. Explain that his behavior is not appropriate. Close the room door to provide for privacy. Guide him to his room.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 563
49. A resident has AD. Sometimes the person has repetitive behaviors. This means that the
person: repeats the same motion or word over and over again. does things that are harmful. repeats things the person said and did during childhood. does everything twice.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 563
50. A resident has AD. The person keeps saying: “Where’s Mama? Where’s Mama? Where’s
Mama?” Which action may be helpful? Tell the person that Mama is gone. Ask why the person needs Mama. Ask who Mama is. Take the person for a walk.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 563
51. While caring for a person with AD, you find yourself becoming frustrated and short-tempered.
Which of the following statements is correct? The person should be restrained. The person deserves to be punished for improper behavior. The person is responsible for agitated, aggressive, and wandering behaviors. The person has the same rights as other residents.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 567
52. A resident has AD. As death nears, the person may need: a. hospice care. b. restraints. c. an Alzheimer’s Association support group. d. supervised activities. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 567
53. Persons with AD are at risk for: a. infection. b. stroke. c. heart attack. d. diarrhea. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 567
54. You care for several residents with AD. Why must you report behavior changes to the nurse? a. They may signal other illnesses or injuries. b. Persons with AD cannot report such changes. c. Persons with AD depend on others for care. d. It is your responsibility to report signs and symptoms. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 567
55. A resident has AD. When planning activities for the person, the therapist considers: a. What equipment and supplies are available? b. How much time is available? c. the person’s abilities and interests. d. staff interests and needs. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 567
56. A resident has problems finding her room, the bathroom, the dining room, and so on. Which
of the following might help her? Telling her the date, the time, and the place Showing her where things are Picture signs Keeping personal items where she can see them
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 565
57. A resident has AD. The person easily becomes agitated and combative. Which of the
following measures might help the person? Change the person’s routines. Allow for background noise to keep the resident distracted. Keep the person’s treasures nearby. Change the person’s room.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 563
58. A resident has AD. The person’s communication is impaired. When talking to the person,
which is correct? Use a calm, gentle voice. Speak quickly, using simple words and sentences. Give the person time to respond and then answer for him or her. Explain why the person’s answer is wrong.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 564
59. A resident has AD. Which is the correct way to gain the person’s attention? a. Approach the person from behind. b. Approach the person from the side. c. Approach the person from the front. d. Lightly touch the person’s arm. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 564
60. A resident has AD. The person is trying to tell you something. What should you do? a. Ask the person simple T quEeS stT ioBnA s. NKSELLER.COM b. Let the person speak. Do not interrupt or rush the person. c. Offer words and ideas to help the person communicate. d. Tell the person that you understand. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 564
61. A resident has AD. You are helping her dress. Which action is correct? a. Decide what she will wear. b. Let her choose from a dress, pant suit, sweat suit, or a skirt and blouse. c. Let her choose between a dress and a pant suit. d. Explain why she needs to wear undergarments. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 566
62. A resident has AD. You find the following items in the person’s room. Which is unsafe? a. A quilt b. Shampoo c. Socks d. A sweater ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 565
63. A maintenance worker left a hammer at the nurses’ station. What should you do? a. Leave it there. b. Ask the maintenance department to send someone to pick it up.
c. Place it in a secure drawer. Then report its location to the maintenance department. d. Look for the maintenance worker who left it. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 565
64. Which is a safety measure to protect persons with AD? a. Keep doors partly open or partly closed, never completely closed. b. Allow the resident to store his or her car keys in the bedside table. c. Allow the person who smokes time each day to do so in private. d. Place safety plugs in electrical outlets. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 565
65. A resident has AD. The person’s care plan should include which of the following measures to
promote sleep? a. Follow the person’s bedtime rituals. b. Keep the room dark at night. c. Encourage the person to nap during the day. d. Encourage caffeine during the day. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 566
66. A resident has AD. You are helping the person dress. Which of the following will cause the
fewest problems? a. A front-opening garment that closes with Velcro b. A pullover garment c. A back-opening garment that closes with buttons d. Pants that close with a T ziE ppSeTr B anAdNhK ooSkELLER.COM ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 566
67. A resident has AD. You are helping the person dress. Which action is correct? a. Leave the room when the person puts on undergarments to protect the right to
privacy. b. Let the person choose the order the person will put it on. c. Hand the person the stack of clothing for her or him to put on and leave the room. d. Tell the person what to do with each clothing item. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 566
68. A resident has AD. When providing for the person’s basic needs, which is correct? a. Give the person many choices. b. Complete the person’s care as fast as possible. c. Have equipment ready for any procedure. d. Provide stimulation to distract the person. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 566
69. A resident has AD. When meeting the person’s basic needs, you should do which of the
following? a. Encourage bed rest. b. Provide for personal hygiene, oral hygiene, and skin care. c. Promote exercise and activity during the late evening hours.
d. Provide an evening full of music and dancing with other residents. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 566
70. A nursing center has a secured unit for persons with AD. Which statement is correct? a. OBRA considers secured units to be physical restraints. b. A family’s request is needed to place a person on a secured unit. c. The person remains on the secured unit until death. d. Only persons with aggressive behaviors are allowed on a secured unit. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 568
71. When a person’s care needs became great, the person’s family agreed on the need for nursing
center care. You would expect family members to experience which of the following? Joy Relief Denial Guilt
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 568
72. A resident has AD. His daughter has three children in high school and college. His daughter is
likely to find herself in: generation X. the “Baby Boom” generation. generation Y. the sandwich generation.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D
L:LE RE EF 56R8.COM PTS: T1ESTBANKS
73. A person has AD. Which of the following can offer the person’s daughter support and
encouragement? The sandwich generation OBRA An Alzheimer’s support group The American Dementia Association
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 568
74. A resident has AD. The person’s rights are protected by OBRA. Which is the best way to
protect the person’s right to personal choice? Give the person many choices. Let the person’s family make all choices. Give the person simple choices. Make choices for the person based on your interests.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 570
75. A resident has AD. She carries a small stuffed animal that is coming apart at the seams. What
should you do? a. Ask the family to bring her a new one. b. Take it from her so that it can be repaired. c. Ask her why she carries it all the time.
d. Protect it from further damage. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 570
76. A resident has AD. She tends to wander and is sometimes combative. Her son asks you to
restrain her. Which statement is correct? Restraints require an ombudsman’s order. Restraints are used if the family requests them. Restraints can make confused and demented behaviors worse. All family members have the right to request restraints for their family members.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 570
77. Confused and demented behaviors are often hard to handle. Therefore, persons who are
confused or have AD are at risk for: a. restraint use. b. infection. c. falls and other injuries. d. abuse, mistreatment, and neglect. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 570
78. A resident has AD. What activities should you encourage the person to do? a. Stringing beads and folding towels b. Painting and puzzles c. Singing and dancing d. The ones in the person’s care plan ANS: D
L:LE RE EF 57R0.COM PTS: T1ESTBANKS
TRUE/FALSE 1. Proper use of validation therapy requires special training. ANS: T
PTS: 1
REF: 569
Chapter 41: Developmental Disabilities Kostelnick: Mosby’s Textbook for Long-Term Care Nursing Assistants, 8th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A developmental disability is: a. a disability that occurs before 22 years of age. b. a chronic condition produced by temporary changes in the brain’s electrical
function. c. the uncontrolled contractions of skeletal muscles. d. the violent and sudden contractions or tremors of muscle groups. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 572
2. Similar body parts are affected on both sides of the body. This is: a. uniplegia. b. diplegia. c. hemiplegia. d. paraplegia. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 572
3. Spastic means: a. a disability that occurs before 22 years of age. b. a chronic condition produced by temporary changes in the brain’s electrical
function.
c. the uncontrolled contraT ctEioSnT sB ofAsN keKleStaElLmLuE scRle.s.COM d. the violent and sudden contractions or tremors of muscle groups. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 572
4. Which statement about developmental disabilities is correct? a. The impairment must have a physical component to be considered a disability. b. The disability is severe but reversible. c. Function is limited in three or more life skill areas. d. The disability improves during adulthood. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 572
5. A person with a developmental disability may have limited function in which of the following
areas? Being able to see Hearing what you are saying Heart, respiratory, and digestive function Capacity for independent living and economic self-sufficiency
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 572
6. Persons who are developmentally disabled need: a. hospital services. b. long-term care.
c. life-long assistance, support, and services. d. residential care. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 572
7. Causes of developmental disabilities occur: a. before, during, or after birth. b. during adolescence. c. during early and middle adulthood. d. during late adulthood. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 572
8. Intellectual disabilities (mental retardation) involve which of the following? a. An IQ score of about 100 or below b. The condition being present before 21 years of age c. Nerve damage d. Significant limit in at least one adaptive behavior ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 573
9. Intellectual disabilities involve: a. an extra chromosome and heart defects. b. muscle weakness and poor muscle control. c. low intellectual functioning and impaired adaptive behavior. d. hearing and vision impairments and seizures. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 573
10. Which statement about persons with intellectual disabilities is correct? a. Their ability to learn impossible without intensive treatment. b. They have difficulty learning to love. c. Their ability to respond in socially appropriate ways is limited. d. They need constant support. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 573
11. Which statement about persons with intellectual disabilities is correct? a. Children with intellectual disabilities should play only with children who have
similar disabilities. b. Responsible adults should make decisions for them. c. Marriage is discouraged. d. Adults with intellectual disabilities should do meaningful work and enjoy adult
activities. ANS: D 12.
PTS: 1
REF: 573
Which statement about persons with intellectual disabilities is correct? a. Their reproductive organs do not develop because of the disability. b. They cannot control their sexual urges. c. They have the right to protect from sexual abuse. d. Sex and sexual issues are of limited concern.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 574
13. Down syndrome is caused by: a. an extra chromosome. b. lack of oxygen to the brain. c. faulty development during the first month of pregnancy. d. unknown factors. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 574
14. Children with Down syndrome often have which of the following? a. Oval-shaped eyes that slant downward b. Short, wide hands with stubby fingers c. Large head and flat face d. Small tongue and large ears ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 574
15. Children with Down syndrome are often born with: a. heart defects. b. spina bifida. c. cerebral palsy. d. paralysis. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 574
16. Persons with Down syndrome usually need which of the following? a. Wheelchairs and braces TESTBANKSELLER.COM b. Extra Vitamin C c. A low fat diet d. Speech, language, physical, and occupational therapies ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 574
17. Cerebral palsy is caused by a defect in the: a. spinal cord. b. motor region of the brain. c. sensory region of the brain. d. brain’s electrical function. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 575
18. Which of the following is a cause of cerebral palsy? a. An extra chromosome b. Brain damage c. Too much oxygen to the brain d. Too much fluid on the brain ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 575
19. Which statement about cerebral palsy is correct? a. It can occur in early childhood from a lack of nutrition. b. Infants who are born by cesarean section are at risk.
c. Infants born with fetal alcohol syndrome are at risk. d. It can occur in adulthood from stroke, heart attack, and accidents. ANS: C 20.
REF: 575
A person has spastic cerebral palsy. Which is correct? a. The person has slow weaving or writhing motions. b. Muscles are relaxed and loose. c. One or both sides of the body may be involved. d. Speech is always affected. ANS: C
21.
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
REF: 575
A person has athetoid cerebral palsy. Which is correct? a. The person has slow weaving or writhing motions. b. Muscles are stiff and cannot relax. c. One or both sides of the body may be involved. d. Only the arms are involved. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 575
22. Which statement about cerebral palsy is correct? a. Affected persons can have many other impairments. b. It is cured with drugs and surgery. c. Affected persons can develop Down syndrome. d. Boys are affected more than girls. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 575
23. A resident has cerebral palsy. The person’s care depends on: a. the person’s financial abilities. b. the person’s gender. c. the degree of brain damage. d. center policy and procedures. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 575
24. Autism usually begins: a. at birth. b. around 18 months of age. c. after 3 years of age. d. between 3 and 6 years of age. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 575
25. Children with autism typically have which of the following impairments? a. Social skills b. Vision c. Hearing d. Respiratory and cardiac function ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 575
26. Children with autism usually: a. spend time alone. b. like changes in routine. c. react to pain with loud screaming. d. have appropriate language development. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 576
27. Children with autism usually: a. have tantrums for no apparent reason. b. respond to their names. c. like to be touched and cuddled. d. talk earlier than other children. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 576
28. Which statement about autism is correct? a. It can be cured with early diagnosis. b. With therapy, the person can learn to change or control behaviors. c. Persons with autism may also have Down Syndrome. d. The person needs to be placed in a special home. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 576
29. Spina bifida is a congenital defect of the: a. brain. b. spinal column. c. nerves. d. meninges. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 576
30. Spina bifida develops: a. during the first month of pregnancy. b. before, during, or after birth. c. because of an extra chromosome. d. before 22 years of age. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 576
31. Which is the most common site for spina bifida? a. Upper back b. Mid-back c. Lower back d. Scalp ANS: C
PTS: 1
32. Nerve damage usually occurs with: a. spina bifida occulta. b. meningocele. c. myelomeningocele. d. hydrocephalus.
REF: 576
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 577
33. A child has spina bifida cystica. The child is at risk for: a. infection. b. aspiration. c. autism. d. epilepsy. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 576
34. Spina bifida cystica includes meningocele and myelomeningocele, both of which are usually
corrected with: a. drugs. b. surgery. c. physical therapy. d. a shunt. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 576
35. Which are common with spina bifida? a. Bowel and bladder problems b. Breathing problems c. Seizures d. Behavior problems ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 576
LiLthE: R.COM 36. Mobility problems are mosTt E liS keTlyBtA oN oK ccS urEw a. spina bifida occulta. b. meningocele. c. myelomeningocele. d. hydrocephalus. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 577
37. An enlarged head is seen with: a. spina bifida occulta. b. meningocele. c. myelomeningocele. d. hydrocephalus. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 577
38. A child has hydrocephalus. Which are likely to occur without treatment? a. Intellectual disabilities and neurological damage b. Spina bifida and epilepsy c. Heart disease and paralysis d. Autism and Down syndrome ANS: A
PTS: 1
39. Hydrocephalus is usually treated with:
REF: 577
a. b. c. d.
drugs. behavior therapy. physical therapy. a shunt.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 577
40. The goal for persons with developmental disabilities is to: a. live in an apartment without support of others. b. receive needed care in a nursing center. c. be independent to the greatest extent possible. d. be able to support themselves financially. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 577
TRUE/FALSE 1. Persons with developmental disabilities do not have the same rights as every other United
States citizen because they do not understand these rights. ANS: F
PTS: 1
REF: 577
2. Fragile X Syndrome is an inherited disorder affecting bone growth. ANS: F
PTS: 1
REF: 575
Chapter 42: Rehabilitation and Restorative Nursing Care Kostelnick: Mosby’s Textbook for Long-Term Care Nursing Assistants, 8th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A disability is: a. an artificial replacement for a missing body part. b. a chronic illness or disease. c. any lost, absent, or impaired physical or mental function. d. a temporary state of impairment. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 579
2. A prosthesis is: a. an artificial replacement for a missing body part. b. a chronic illness or disease. c. any lost, absent, or impaired physical or mental function. d. a temporary state of impairment. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 579
3. Rehabilitation is: a. the process of restoring the person to his or her highest possible level of function. b. adjusting to a disability. c. care given by the nursing team that helps persons regain their health, strength, and
independence.
d. the process of assistingTtE heSpTeB rsA onNtKoSmEaL inL taE inRo.r CreOgM ain health. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 579
4. Restorative nursing care is: a. the process of restoring the person to his or her highest possible level of function. b. using the nursing process to help the person adjust to a disability. c. care that helps persons regain health, strength, and independence. d. the process of assisting the person to maintain or regain health. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 579
5. Which of the following are common causes of disabilities? a. Vitamin Use b. Immunizations c. Choking and aspiration d. Birth injuries and birth defects ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 579
6. Which statement about disabilities is correct? a. Losses can be temporary. b. Losses are permanent. c. Only one function is lost. d. Multiple functions are lost.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 579
7. Which statement about disabilities is correct? a. Causes are always chronic. b. The person must depend totally on others for basic needs. c. The degree of disability affects how much function is possible. d. Complete recovery is always possible when the person has a good attitude. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 580
8. Which is a focus of rehabilitation? a. Acknowledging the person’s inability to function b. Promoting the best possible quality of life for the person c. Reversing all loss of function d. Stressing the degree of disability and the functions lost ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 579
9. Restorative nursing care does which of the following? a. Focuses on the whole person. b. Provides all ADL for the person. c. Prevents any and all decline in function. d. Helps the person maintain some level of function. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 579
10. Which statement is correct? a. Rehabilitation begins aT ftE erSrT esB toAraNtiK veSnEuLrsLinEgRc. arCe.OM b. Restorative nursing care begins after rehabilitation. c. Some people need both rehabilitation and restorative care. d. The person returns home after completing a rehabilitation program. ANS: C 11.
PTS: 1
REF: 580
Which statement about restorative aides is correct? a. They must meet OBRA training requirements. b. They are nursing assistants with training in restorative nursing and rehabilitation
skills. c. Those with excellent work ethics are promoted to nursing assistants. d. They have had some nursing education. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 580
12. Restorative nursing may involve measures that promote which of the following? a. End-of-life measures b. Elimination c. Surgical correction d. Bed rest and immobility ANS: B
PTS: 1
13. A disability affects the:
REF: 580
a. b. c. d.
person physically. person psychologically. person socially. whole person.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 580
14. Rehabilitation starts when the person: a. first seeks health care. b. seeks hospital care. c. is in an assisted living facility. d. is admitted to a nursing center. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 580
15. What is stressed during rehabilitation? a. The person’s disabilities b. What the person can do c. The person’s weaknesses d. The person’s attitude ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 580
16. Rehabilitation often takes longer for: a. teenagers. b. young adults. c. middle-aged adults. d. older persons. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 580
17. Which of the following prevent contractures and pressure ulcers? a. Immobility b. Bed rest c. Range-of-motion exercises d. Restraint use ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 580
18. A resident needs bowel and bladder training. What should you do? a. Offer the bedpan regularly. b. Restrict the person’s fluid intake. c. Provide catheter care. d. Follow the person’s care plan. ANS: D
PTS: 1
19. Activities of daily living refer to: a. work functions. b. self-care. c. prostheses. d. assistive devices.
REF: 580
ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 580
20. A resident’s right wrist is affected by a disability. You would expect the person to need: a. a prosthesis. b. self-help devices. c. a wheelchair. d. a cast. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 580
21. A resident has aphasia following a stroke. Which of the following are helpful? a. Speech therapy and a diet full of raw fruits and vegetables b. Physical therapy and braces c. Speech therapy and communication devices d. Occupational therapy and a transfer board ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 580
22. During rehabilitation, persons need to be reminded of their: a. disabilities. b. strengths and weaknesses. c. limits. d. progress. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 581
23. Which person is the least likely to have a successful rehabilitation program? a. Mr. Costa had both legs amputated. He tries to do what the physical therapist
TESTBANKSELLER.COM
suggests. b. Miss Burns had a stroke with left hemiplegia. She believes that her stroke was God’s will. c. Mrs. Polk fell and fractured her hip. She is not happy but goes to physical therapy willingly. d. Mr. Stein injured his spine during a construction accident. He tries to go beyond his limits and tells the staff what to do. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 582
24. Persons with disabilities often feel which of the following? a. Wanted b. Unclean c. Useful d. Attractive ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 583
25. Which statement about the rehabilitation team is correct? a. The team usually meets without the person and family. b. The team meets regularly to discuss the person’s progress. c. Nursing assistants are not included in part of the rehabilitation team. d. The person is not included as part of the rehabilitation team. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 583
26. When assisting with rehabilitation, which is correct? a. Follow the service plan. b. Follow the care plan. c. Carry out the doctor’s orders. d. Ask the person what to do. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 582
27. When assisting with rehabilitation, you must always: a. do what the person wants. b. protect the person’s rights. c. apply assistive devices. d. show pity and sympathy. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 583
28. A resident takes a long time getting dressed. What should you do? a. Give the person time to complete the task. b. Ask if you can help the person. c. Report the problem to the nurse. d. Time the person. Encourage the person to beat that time. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 583
29. You are feeling frustrated because a resident’s progress is slow. You feel like the person is not
trying. What should you do? a. Tell the person how you feel. TESTBANKSELLER.COM b. Ask a coworker to care for the person. c. Discuss your feelings with the nurse. d. Ask the person’s family what to do. ANS: C 30.
PTS: 1
REF: 583
OBRA requires that nursing centers: provide assisted living facilities. provide rehabilitation services. hire therapists. provide respiratory rehabilitation.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 583
31. A resident is learning to use an eating device. Where should she practice using the device? a. In the dining room b. In the lounge area c. In the TV room d. In private ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 583
32. Why is privacy important during rehabilitation? a. It protects the person’s dignity and promotes self-respect. b. It is required by OBRA.
c. It is a matter of personal choice. d. It prevents abuse and mistreatment. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 584
33. Which promotes quality of life during rehabilitation and restorative care? a. Providing a safe setting b. Encouraging the person to remain in his or her room c. Discourage the family members from visiting during this time d. Asking for a different assignment every week ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 584
34. You see another nursing assistant laughing at a resident. What should you do? a. Tell the nurse. b. Talk to your coworker. c. Ask if you can join in the fun. d. Ignore the situation. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 584
TRUE/FALSE 1. A person with a disability needs to adjust physically, psychologically, socially, and
economically. ANS: T
PTS: 1
REF: 584
2. The goal for prosthesis is to be like the missing body part in function and appearance. ANS: T
PTS: 1
REF: 584
Chapter 43: Assisted Living Kostelnick: Mosby’s Textbook for Long-Term Care Nursing Assistants, 8th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Some people choose assisted living because they need: a. nursing center care. b. medical care. c. help with activities of daily living. d. skilled nursing care. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 586
2. Assisted living offers a setting that: a. has a swimming pool, sauna, and golf course. b. offers independence and companionship. c. is resort-like. d. provides therapies and nursing service. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 586
3. Which statement about assisted living is correct? a. All needs are scheduled. b. Persons are cognitively impaired. c. Nursing care is provided 24 hours a day. d. Standard Precautions and the Bloodborne Pathogen Standard are followed. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 587
4. Most assisted living residents need help with which of the following? a. Skin care b. Wound care c. Eating d. Foley catheter insertion ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 586
5. Assisted living units must have which of the following? a. A door that locks b. A fire extinguisher for every room c. A dining room d. Windows in the hallway if not in the person’s room ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 587
6. Assisted living units must have which of the following? a. A bell to ring if something is needed b. A mailbox for every two persons c. Adequate lighting d. At least one television per hall ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 587
7. Bathrooms in assisted living units must have which of the following? a. A bench b. Jacuzzi jets c. Grab bars d. A linen closet ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 587
8. Kitchens in assisted living units must have which of the following? a. A sink b. A toaster c. A microwave oven d. Stainless steel appliances ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 587
9. The following occur in an assisted living residence (ALR). Which is considered to be unsafe? a. Garbage is stored in covered containers. b. The hot water temperature is 130° F. c. Hazardous substances are stored in locked areas. d. Soiled linen and clothing are stored away from food areas. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 587
10. Which statement about ALRs is correct? a. Clean and soiled linens are stored in the same area. b. Pets and animals are never allowed. TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. Oxygen is not allowed in ALRs. d. Employees have access to a first aid kit. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 587
11. An ALR admits persons with Alzheimer’s disease. The ALR must provide: a. skilled nursing care. b. staff with required training. c. each person with a 24-hour attendant. d. a locked courtyard. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 589
12. Assisted living caregivers need training in which of the following areas? a. Oxygen therapy b. The needs and goals of ALR residents c. Foley catheter insertion d. Management of an intravenous line ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 589
13. Assisted living caregivers need training in which of the following areas? a. Maintenance of an intravenous line b. Food preparation, service, and storage c. Wound care
d. Using care plans ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 589
14. Assisted living caregivers need training in which of the following areas? a. Maintenance of an intravenous line b. Catheter care c. Early signs of illness d. Tube feedings ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 589
15. ALRs usually require that residents: a. be able to dress themselves. b. be able to eat without help. c. be mobile. d. have transportation. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 589
16. Which lists the services needed by the resident? a. Care plan b. Service plan c. Medication record d. Medical record ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 587
17. ALRs usually offer: a. 24-hour supervision and security. b. physical and occupational therapy. c. home health care. d. skilled nursing and rehabilitation. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 586
18. Assisted living residents receive: a. one meal a day. b. one meal a day and snacks. c. two meals a day. d. three meals a day and snacks. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 586
19. Which statement about meals is correct? a. Special eating utensils are provided as needed. b. Assistance is not able to be given with eating. c. The menu is the same for each person. d. Residents are urged to eat in their own rooms. ANS: A
PTS: 1
20. How often should you dust furniture?
REF: 586
a. b. c. d.
Every day At least weekly Twice a month Every month
ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 589
21. How often should you vacuum floors? a. Every day b. At least weekly c. Twice a month d. Every month ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 589
22. A resident spills coffee. When should you wipe up the spill? a. When the person is done eating b. Right away c. When you clear the table d. When the room is empty ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 589
23. Sinks are rinsed after which of the following? a. Handwashing b. Pouring drinks down the drain c. Rinsing a cup of water out d. Washing hair ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 589
24. Bathroom surfaces are cleaned: a. every day. b. every week. c. twice a month. d. every month. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 589
25. The bathroom wastebasket is emptied every: a. shift. b. day. c. 2 days. d. week. ANS: B
PTS: 1
26. The person’s shower is cleaned: a. after each use. b. every day. c. every week. d. every month.
REF: 589
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 589
27. When handling meat and poultry, you need to follow: a. care labels. b. safe handling instructions. c. Standard Precautions. d. The Bloodborne Pathogen Standard. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 589
28. Which statement about left-over food is correct? a. The food is placed in aluminum foil. b. Containers with left-over food are dated. c. The food is cooled before being refrigerated. d. Left-over food is used within a week. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 589
29. You are washing eating and cooking utensils. Which do you wash first? a. Pots and pans b. Silverware c. Glasses d. Plates and bowls ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 590
30. How should you dry eating and cooking utensils? a. With a towel b. In a dishwasher c. By laying them out on a counter d. By letting them air dry in a drainer ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 590
31. You are using a dishwasher for eating and cooking utensils. Which is correct? a. Hand soap is used. b. They are rinsed before loading them into the dishwasher. c. Cast iron items are put in the dishwasher. d. Wood items are put in the dishwasher. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 590
32. Which is used to remove grease spills and splashes? a. Powdered cleanser and hot water b. A wet sponge c. A liquid surface cleaner d. Scouring powder ANS: C
PTS: 1
33. Sinks are cleaned with: a. detergent and hot water. b. a wet sponge.
REF: 590
c. a sink cleaner. d. scouring powder. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 590
34. Left-over food and soiled supplies are disposed of: a. once a day. b. after each meal. c. weekly. d. every shift. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 590
35. You are assisting with laundry. A garment is heavily soiled. Which is correct? a. Wear gloves and wash it separately. b. Check into dry cleaning. c. Give the item to the family. d. Follow detergent instructions. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 590
36. To protect garments from damage, which is correct? a. Wear gloves. b. Follow care label directions. c. Send them to the dry cleaners. d. Use the delicate cycle. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 590
37. Laundry is sorted by: a. color and fabric. b. color only. c. fabric only. d. as the person prefers. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 590
38. Which of the following prevents damage to laundry? a. Wearing gloves b. Emptying pockets c. Leaving zippers unzipped d. Using the hot temperature setting to kill germs ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 590
39. The six rights of medication administration include the right medication, the right person, and
the right documentation. What are the other rights? The right dose, route, and time The right to refuse, to choose, and select the site The right site, form, and method The right color, day, and food or drink
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 590
40. A person needs help taking medications. State laws usually allow you to: a. give the medications. b. remind the person that it is time to take the medication. c. take the medication out of the container. d. change the dosage of a medication. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 590
41. A resident says: “I usually take this pill after lunch. I haven’t eaten yet.” What should you do? a. Let the person take the medication after lunch. b. Check with the nurse. c. Remind the person that it is time to take the medication. d. Check the dosage. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 590
42. A resident needs help taking medicine. State laws usually allow you to do which of the
following? Read the medication label to the person. Prepare the medication for the person using a pill crusher. Mix the medication. Give the medicine.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 590
43. A medication record includes which of the following? a. Medication name, dose, directions, and route of administration TESTBANKSELLER.COM b. Fluid of choice to mix it with c. Cost of medication d. Incident reports about medication errors ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 590
44. Pill organizers can be prepared by which of the following? a. The activities director b. The family c. The person’s roommate d. A nursing assistant ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 591
45. The ALR stores a resident’s medications. Where are the person’s medications kept? a. In the refrigerator b. In the person’s drawer c. In the person’s closet d. In a locked container or area ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 590
46. Which statement about medication errors is correct? a. An error occurs if the person takes the wrong medication. b. An error occurs if the person takes a medication with milk instead of water.
c. You need to report any medication error to the person. d. You need to complete an incident only if the error caused harm. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 591
47. Who plans, organizes, and conducts activity programs? a. The nurse b. Resident groups c. An activities director d. The family ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 591
48. To leave the building in an emergency, a resident requires an attendant. Which is correct? a. The attendant is called when an emergency occurs. b. The attendant is needed 24 hours a day. c. The attendant is needed only at night. d. The person will be discharged from the ALR. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 591
49. Which is a reason for transfer, discharge, or eviction from the ALR? a. The person is rude and unkind. b. The person does not like his or her roommate. c. The person desires to sleep late in the morning. d. The facility closes. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 591
50. Assisted living residents have the right to which of the following? a. Leave when they desire. b. Demand another meal be prepared for them. c. Refuse services. d. Nursing care. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 592
51. Assisted living residents have the right to which of the following? a. Privacy b. Receive mail that has postage due c. Direct food preparation d. As many visitors as they like in their room ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 592
52. Assisted living residents have the right to which of the following? a. Leave the premises at their leisure b. Transportation and an attendant c. Freedom from restraints d. Freedom from any treatment at all ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 588
53. Assisted living residents have the right to which of the following? a. Hit other residents b. Participate in community activities c. Smoke anywhere in the facility d. Have personal access to a phone in their room 24 hours a day ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 588
TRUE/FALSE 1. Criminal background and fingerprint checks are common staff requirements. ANS: T
PTS: 1
REF: 588
2. Expired or discontinued medications are flushed down the toilet. ANS: F
PTS: 1
REF: 588
Chapter 44: Basic Emergency Care Kostelnick: Mosby’s Textbook for Long-Term Care Nursing Assistants, 8th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A life-threatening sensitivity to an antigen is: a. a seizure. b. respiratory arrest. c. anaphylaxis. d. cardiac arrest. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 594
2. What happens with sudden cardiac arrest? a. There are violent and sudden contractions or tremors of muscles. b. The heart and breathing stop without warning. c. Organs and tissues do not get enough blood. d. There is excessive blood loss in a short time. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 594
3. Another term for convulsion is: a. shock. b. stroke. c. seizure. d. fainting. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 594
4. Emergency care given to an ill or injured person before medical help arrives is: a. first aid. b. basic life support. c. chain of survival. d. cardiopulmonary resuscitation. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 594
5. Fainting is: a. when the heart and breathing stop without warning. b. the sudden loss of consciousness from an inadequate blood supply to the brain. c. the excessive loss of blood in a short time. d. a condition that results when organs and tissues do not get enough blood. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 594
6. Hemorrhage is: a. when the heart and breathing stop without warning. b. the sudden loss of consciousness from an inadequate blood supply to the brain. c. the excessive loss of blood in a short time. d. a condition that results when organs and tissues do not get enough blood. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 594
7. Breathing stops but heart action continues for several minutes. This is: a. stroke. b. respiratory arrest. c. cardiac arrest. d. shock. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 594
8. A seizure is: a. violent and sudden contractions or tremors of muscle groups. b. the excessive loss of blood in a short time. c. the sudden loss of consciousness. d. the same as stroke. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 594
9. Shock is: a. when the heart and breathing stop without warning. b. the sudden loss of consciousness from an inadequate blood supply to the brain. c. the excessive loss of blood in a short time. d. a condition that results when organs and tissues do not get enough blood. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 594
10. Emergencies occur: a. in hospitals. b. in nursing centers. c. in emergency rooms. d. anywhere. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 594
11. You are giving first aid. Your goal(s) is (are) to: a. prevent death and prevent injuries from becoming worse. b. maintain an open airway and give rescue breathing. c. activate the EMS system and keep the person warm. d. start early defibrillation. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 594
12. The EMS system is activated by: a. calling 911. b. calling for help. c. giving rescue breathing. d. starting CPR. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 594
13. In nursing centers, who decides to activate the EMS system? a. Doctors b. Nurses c. Nursing assistants
d. Residents ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 594
14. You have activated the EMS system. When should you hang up the phone? a. After telling what happened b. After giving your location c. After telling how many people need help d. After the operator hangs up ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 595
15. You come upon a car accident. What should you do? a. Move victims out of the car. b. Check the victims for breathing, a pulse, and bleeding. c. Put on sterile gloves. d. Remove clothing. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 595
16. When removing clothing in an emergency, which is correct? a. Tear or cut the garment along the seams. b. Follow the rules for dressing and undressing. c. Cover the person with a blanket first. d. Remove garments from the strong side first. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 595
EeLiLs E 17. You find a person lying onThEisSrT igB htAsNidKeS .H brR ea.thCiO ngMand has a pulse. However, he is bleeding from his right leg. How should you position him? Turn him to the supine position. Elevate his legs. Help him to a Fowler’s position. Leave him as you found him.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 595
18. You find a victim lying on his right side. He is breathing and has a pulse. However, he is
bleeding from his right leg. Which action is correct? Cover him with something cold. Try to control the bleeding. Give him fluids. Try to move him to another location.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 603
19. A person is in sudden cardiac arrest. Which statement is correct? a. Brain and organ damage will occur within minutes. b. Permanent brain damage occurs within seconds. c. A respiratory illness is the common cause. d. The Heimlich maneuver is necessary. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 595
20. A person is in respiratory arrest. What will happen if breathing is not restored? a. Cardiac arrest will occur. b. The person will have a seizure. c. The person will have a stroke. d. The person will go into shock. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 596
21. Basic Life Support procedures: a. support breathing and circulation. b. prevent ventricular fibrillation. c. control bleeding and prevent shock. d. prevent injuries from becoming worse. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 595
22. Which is a major sign of sudden cardiac arrest? a. Slow breathing b. Low pulse c. No response d. No blood pressure ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 596
23. Chain of Survival actions are taken for which of the following? a. Cardiac arrest b. Seizures c. Falling d. Fainting ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 595
24. What are the basic parts of CPR? a. Airway, breathing, circulation, and defibrillation b. Circulation, pulse, blood pressure, and respiration c. Temperature, pulse, circulation, and respiration d. Compressions, early AED, and early advanced care ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 601
25. What is a common cause of airway obstruction during cardiac arrest? a. The tongue falling toward the back of the throat b. Loose dentures c. Poorly chewed meat d. Shock ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 597
26. What is used to open the airway during cardiac arrest? a. The Heimlich maneuver b. The head tilt-chin lift method c. The tongue-jaw lift maneuver
d. The finger sweep maneuver ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 597
27. A person is in cardiac arrest. After opening the airway, you need to: a. check for adequate breathing. b. give two rescue breaths. c. check for a pulse. d. position the person supine. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 596
28. A person is in cardiac arrest. Adequate breathing is determined by which of the following? a. Counting respirations for 30 seconds b. Looking to see if the heart is beating c. Listening for a pulse d. Looking to see if the chest rises and falls ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 597
29. You need to give mouth-to-mouth rescue breathing. Which statement is correct? a. Contact with blood, body fluids, secretions, and excretions is likely. b. You need to pinch the mouth shut. c. You place your mouth loosely over the person’s mouth. d. You remove your mouth from the person’s mouth after giving two rescue breaths. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 595
30. Which type of rescue breatT hE inS gT isBuA seNdKwShE enLeL veErRp. osCsiObM le? a. Mouth-to-mouth b. Mouth-to-nose c. Mouth-to-barrier device d. The type that the rescuer is most comfortable using ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 598
31. A person is in cardiac arrest. You cannot open the person’s mouth. Which of the following is
indicated? Mouth-to-barrier device breathing Mouth-to-nose breathing Mouth-to-stoma breathing The Heimlich maneuver
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 599
32. Before starting chest compressions, you need to check for a pulse. What pulse site should you
use? The radial pulse The apical pulse The carotid pulse The femoral pulse
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 597
33. For effective chest compressions, the person must be positioned: a. in the recovery position. b. in Fowler’s position. c. in the supine position on a hard, flat surface. d. on a firm mattress. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 596
34. To give effective chest compressions to an adult, which is correct? a. Depress the sternum 1 1/2 to 2 inches. b. Give abdominal thrusts above the navel. c. Depress the lower end of the sternum about 1 inch. d. Make a fist with one hand. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 597
35. How many chest compressions are given to adults in 1 minute? a. 5 b. 15 c. 80 d. 100 ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 597
36. You should start CPR only if the person: a. has had a heart attack. b. is not responding, is not breathing, and has no pulse. TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. consents. d. has a chance of recovery. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 597
37. Which is the proper position for CPR? a. You straddle the person’s thighs so that you face the person. b. You stand behind the person. c. You are at the person’s side. Your arms are straight and your shoulders are directly
over your hands. Your hands are on the sternum. d. You kneel behind the person’s head. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 596
38. You are performing 2-rescuer CPR. How many compressions are given per minute? a. 5 b. 15 c. 80 d. 100 ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 597
39. A person shows signs of circulation after CPR was started. The person is breathing. What
should you do? a. Continue CPR until medical help arrives.
b. Continue rescue breathing. c. Position the person in the recovery position. d. Measure the person’s blood pressure. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 601
40. You are performing 2-rescuer CPR. Two rescue breaths are given after every
compressions. 2 5 10 30
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 601
41. A defibrillator is: a. used to deliver a shock to the heart when a person is in ventricular fibrillation. b. used to give rescue breathing. c. a device used for CPR only available in hospitals. d. used to start V-fib. ANS: A
PTS: 1
42. The recovery position is a. the prone b. the supine c. Fowler’s d. a side-lying ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 603
position.
REF: 603
43. What is the purpose of the recovery position? a. It helps the person wake up. b. It prevents pressure ulcers. c. It promotes good alignment. d. It helps keep the airway open and prevents aspiration. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 600
44. Which statement about hemorrhage is correct? a. Internal hemorrhage can be seen. b. Bleeding from a vein occurs in spurts. c. Direct pressure is applied to the bleeding site. d. The EMS system must be activated only if the person stops breathing. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 600
45. A person is hemorrhaging. Direct pressure does not stop the bleeding. What should you do? a. Give the person fluids. b. Start CPR. c. Apply pressure to the artery above the bleeding site. d. Apply pressure to the artery below the bleeding site.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 603
46. Which signals internal bleeding? a. Seizures b. Vomiting green-tinged fluid c. Headache pain d. Coughing up blood ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 603
47. To control external bleeding, you should do which of the following? a. Remove objects that may have pierced the person. b. Have the person dangle the affected part. c. Place a sterile dressing or clean material over the wound. d. Apply pressure directly below the bleeding site. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 603
48. Which is a sign of anaphylaxis? a. Cold chills b. Shortness of breath c. High blood pressure d. Low pulse ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 603
49. The person in shock has which of the following? a. Rising blood pressure b. Slow, strong pulse c. Dry, red skin d. Restlessness and confusion ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 603
50. A person is in shock. Which action is correct? a. Keep the person in a semi-Fowler’s position. b. Keep the airway open. c. Keep the person cool. d. Give the person fluids. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 603
51. A person is in shock. Which action is correct? a. Start CPR. b. Perform the Heimlich maneuver. c. Give chest thrusts. d. Activate the EMS system. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 604
52. A brain disorder in which clusters of brain cells sometimes signal abnormally is: a. shock. b. stroke.
c. epilepsy. d. brain tumor. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 604
53. Which statement about epilepsy is correct? a. There is a cure for the disorder. b. Medications control seizures in many people. c. The person has a reversible brain injury. d. The disorder always affects learning and ADL. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 604
54. Seizures are caused by: a. shock. b. cardiac arrest. c. uncontrolled bleeding. d. an abnormality in the brain. ANS: D 55.
REF: 604
During a partial seizure: a. a body part may jerk. b. the person loses consciousness. c. all muscles contract at once. d. incontinence occurs. ANS: A
56.
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
REF: 605
Which statement about generalized seizures is correct? a. The body is loose because all muscles relax at once. b. The person’s muscles are in a relaxed state. c. Urinary and fecal incontinence may occur. d. First aid can stop the seizure. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 605
57. A person is having a seizure. Which action is correct? a. Protect the person’s head. b. Position the person supine. c. Leave jewelry intact. d. Move the person. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 605
58. A person is having a seizure. Which action is correct? a. Restrain the person’s movements. b. Offer fluids. c. Put your fingers between the person’s teeth. d. Stay with the person. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 605
59. Which of the following are at high risk for burns? a. Teenagers b. Middle adults c. Young adults d. Older persons ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 605
60. Which statement about burns is correct? a. Partial-thickness burns are numb. b. In full-thickness burns, nerve endings are very painful. c. Arm and leg burns are more serious than burns to the face, eyes, ears, hands, and
feet. d. Burns may destroy fat, muscle, and bone. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 605
61. A person has electrical burns. The person is still in contact with the electrical source. What
should you do? Move the person from the electrical source. Do nothing until paramedics arrive. If possible, remove the electrical source with a piece of wood. Cover the person with moist towels.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 605
62. A person’s clothing is burned. What should you do? a. Remove the burned cloTthEeS s.TBANKSELLER.COM b. Cool the clothing with water. c. Put butter or oil on the burns. d. Cover the burn with a wet, cool sterile dressing. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 606
63. A person has suffered burns. Which action is correct? a. Roll the person to soft ground. b. Stop the burning process. c. Pour cool water on the burn. d. Remove clothing that sticks to the skin. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 606
64. A person has fainted. What should you do? a. Have the person sit or lie down. b. Elevate the person’s legs. c. Start CPR. d. Give rescue breaths. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 606
65. A person has fainted. Which action is correct? a. Loosen tight clothing. b. Lower the person’s legs.
c. Have the person walk around to stimulate circulation. d. After recovery from fainting, assist the person to a squatting position. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 606
66. A person has had a stroke. Basic emergency care includes which of the following? a. Positioning the person on the unaffected side b. Lowering the person’s head without flexing the neck c. Loosening tight clothing d. Giving food and fluids ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 606
67. A person has had a stroke. Which is correct? a. The EMS system must be activated. b. Rescue breathing or CPR must be initiated to return blood supply to the brain. c. The person may have something to eat. d. The person needs fluids to prevent dehydration. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 603
68. Which statement about quality of life during emergencies is correct? a. The person is protected from unnecessary exposure. b. The right to personal choice is given up during an emergency. c. Onlookers have the right to know what happened. d. Personal items are donated. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 603
TRUE/FALSE 1. Some persons breathe through a stoma in the neck. Before starting mouth-to-mouth or
mouth-to-nose breathing, always check to see if the person has a stoma. ANS: T
PTS: 1
REF: 605
2. Never practice CPR on another person. ANS: T
PTS: 1
REF: 605
3. Defibrillation as soon as possible after onset of ventricular fibrillation increases the person’s
chance of survival. ANS: T
PTS: 1
REF: 607
Chapter 45: End-of-Life Care Kostelnick: Mosby’s Textbook for Long-Term Care Nursing Assistants, 8th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. An advance directive is: a. the care plan. b. an order not to resuscitate the person. c. a document stating a person’s wishes about health care when that person cannot
make such decisions. d. a document stating the person’s wishes about life support measures. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 609
2. Postmortem means: a. a diagnosis of death. b. after death. c. before death. d. the stiffness of skeletal muscles that occurs after death. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 609
3. Reincarnation is the belief that: a. the spirit or soul is reborn in another human body or in another form of life. b. the person is punished for sins and misdeeds in the afterlife. c. the body keeps its physical form in the afterlife. d. life after death is free oTf E suSffTeB rinAgNaKnS dE haLrdLsE hiRp. . COM ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 609
4. Rigor mortis means: a. a diagnosis of death. b. after death. c. before death. d. the stiffness of skeletal muscles that occurs after death. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 609
5. A person has a terminal illness. This means that: a. the person will recover. b. there is no reasonable expectation of recovery. c. there is an end to the illness. d. the illness ends with a cure. ANS: B
PTS: 1
6. Your feelings about death: a. affect the care you give. b. are shared with the dying person. c. do not matter while at work. d. are shared with the nurse.
REF: 609
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 609
7. Which statement concerning attitudes about death is correct? a. They are formed by the media. b. They are influenced by age. c. They stay the same throughout adulthood. d. They don’t typically change. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 610
8. Which age-group has no concept of death? a. Infants and toddlers b. Children between the ages of 3 and 5 years c. Children between the ages of 5 and 7 years d. Teenagers ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 610
9. Which age-group views death as temporary? a. Infants and toddlers b. Children between the ages of 2 and 6 years c. Children between the ages of 6 and 11 years d. Teenagers ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 610
10. Which age-group views death as punishment for being bad? a. Infants and toddlers b. Children between the ages of 2 and 6 years c. Teenagers d. Young adults ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 610
11. Children between the ages of 2 and 6 years: a. blame themselves when someone or something dies. b. know that death is final. c. fear pain and suffering. d. believe that death can be avoided. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 610
12. Why do many adults resent death? a. It invades privacy. b. It causes pain and suffering. c. It causes loneliness and separation from loved ones. d. It affects plans, hopes, and dreams. ANS: D
PTS: 1
13. Older persons usually fear dying: a. in pain.
REF: 611
b. alone. c. in a hospital. d. in a nursing center. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 611
14. A resident was told that she has cancer and that it cannot be treated. The person insists that the
reports are wrong. In what stage of dying is the person? Denial Anger Bargaining Depression
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 611
15. A resident is terminally ill. Her pain is severe. She blames the staff for her pain. She
complains about having to wait for pain-relief drugs. She also says that the staff is rough when they turn and reposition her. In what stage of dying is this resident? a. Denial b. Anger c. Bargaining d. Depression ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 611
16. A resident is terminally ill. You are giving her a bath. Suddenly, she tells you to stop, that you
are hurting her, and that you do not know what you are doing. She is very angry and upset. Which statement is correctT ? ESTBANKSELLER.COM a. She is in the stage of denial. b. You need to leave the room until she calms down. c. You must control the urge to let her know that she has upset you. d. Her anger is abnormal and unhealthy. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 611
17. A resident is terminally ill. He is very quiet. You often find him reading his Bible. One day he
says, “I just want to see my grandson graduate from high school.” In what stage of dying is the resident? a. Denial b. Bargaining c. Depression d. Acceptance ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 611
18. A resident is terminally ill. She seems sad, and you see tears in her eyes. In what stage of
dying is the resident? Denial Bargaining Depression Acceptance
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 611
19. A resident is terminally ill. He often talks about not being able to see his grandchildren grow
up. He talks about never being a great-grandfather. In what stage of dying is the resident? Denial Bargaining Depression Acceptance
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 611
20. A resident is terminally ill. She has given pieces of jewelry to each child. She also has
selected songs for her funeral. In what stage of dying is this resident? Denial Bargaining Depression Acceptance
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 611
21. A resident is terminally ill. You are giving her a bath. Suddenly, she tells you to stop, that you
are hurting her, and that you do not know what you are doing. She is very angry and upset. What should you say to her? a. Say nothing. Let her do the talking. b. Explain what you are doing step-by-step. c. Ask if she wants to visit with a spiritual adviser. d. Ask if she needs drugs for pain relief. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 611
22. A resident is terminally ill. The person’s pastor comes for a visit. What should you do? a. Tell them that you need to give care in 10 minutes. b. Provide privacy. c. Ask if you can pray with them. d. Ask what they believe about the afterlife. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 611
23. A resident who is terminally ill is in the last days of living. Which of the following would be
included in the person’s care plan? Explain what you are doing to the person or in the room. Provide a diet high in fat. Keep the room dark. Avoid dim and soft lights.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 612
24. A resident is dying. When communicating with the person, which is correct? a. Speak loudly. b. Assume that the person can speak to you. c. Ask broad opening types of questions. d. Offer words of comfort.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 612
25. A resident is dying. Which of the following would be included in the person’s care plan? a. Provide oral hygiene every shift. b. Remove the blanket or bedspread. c. Change linens and gown once per week. d. Maintain the semi-Fowler’s position. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 612
26. A resident is dying. The person is incontinent of urine and feces. The person needs: a. a catheter and enemas. b. perineal care as needed. c. catheter care. d. bladder and bowel training. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 612
27. A resident is dying. Which will promote the person’s comfort? a. Reposition the person every 4 hours. b. Provide skin care and personal hygiene once per shift. c. Give back massages once per week. d. Position the person in good alignment. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 612
28. A resident is dying. The person has trouble breathing. Which position will the person most
likely prefer? Prone Supine Dorsal recumbent Semi-Fowler’s
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 612
29. A resident is dying. Which of the following measures promote comfort? a. Infrequent position changes b. Good body alignment c. Restraints d. Friction and shearing ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 612
30. A resident is dying. The person’s room is arranged: a. as the person wishes. b. to give efficient care. c. to provide privacy. d. so the person is near the bathroom. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 612
31. A resident is dying. His family is allowed to stay with him: a. until bedtime.
b. as long as they wish. c. during scheduled visiting hours. d. during the day. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 613
32. A resident is dying. He and his family have the right to: a. privacy. b. three meals a day. c. hospice care. d. home care. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 613
33. Hospice care focuses on: a. cure. b. life-saving measures. c. pain relief and comfort. d. advance directives. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 610
34. Which is an advance directive? a. A doctor’s order b. A “Do Not Resuscitate” order c. A living will d. A Dying Person’s Bill of Rights ANS: C
L:LE RE EF 61R3.COM PTS: T1ESTBANKS
35. A resident is dying. He gave “durable power of attorney” to his daughter. This means that his
daughter: will inherit his money. can make his health care decisions when he cannot. can start measures that prolong his life. can remove measures that prolong his life.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 613
36. A resident is dying. The doctor wrote a “Do Not Resuscitate” order. You do not agree with the
order. Which statement is correct? You can start CPR if necessary. You do not have to follow the order. You must follow the order. You do not have to care for the person.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 613
37. Signs that death is near include which of the following? a. Body temperature drops. b. Pulse is slow but strong. c. Blood pressure falls. d. Pain increases.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 612
38. Signs that death is near include which of the following? a. Increase in muscle tone b. Peaceful facial expression c. Regular respirations d. Increased gastrointestinal functions ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 616
39. Signs of death include which of the following? a. The eyes stay open b. No pulse c. Slow respirations d. Low blood pressure ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 616
40. Post-mortem care is done to: a. prevent rigor mortis. b. prevent the skin from changing color. c. maintain a good appearance of the body. d. clean the body. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 616
41. Before rigor mortis sets in, the body is: a. cleaned and dressed. b. taken to the funeral home. c. positioned in normal alignment. d. placed in a body bag or in a shroud. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 616
42. You are assisting with post-mortem care. The body produces sounds during turning and
repositioning. Which is correct? The person is still alive. CPR must be started. The sounds are normal and expected. The sounds are signs of rigor mortis.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 616
43. You are assisting with post-mortem care. You must follow: a. surgical asepsis. b. sterile technique. c. Standard Precautions and the Bloodborne Pathogen Standard. d. the care plan. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 616
44. You are assisting with post-mortem care. How is the body positioned?
a. b. c. d.
As the family chooses Prone In the supine position In the semi-Fowler’s position
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 616
45. You are assisting with post-mortem care. Dentures are not inserted. What should you do with
them? Put them in the personal belongings envelope for the family. Ask what the family wants you to do with them. Put them in a denture container labeled with the person’s name. Put them in the body bag.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 616
46. Which promotes quality of life? a. Exposing the body after death b. Providing privacy when the dying person is visiting with family and friends c. Keeping the person’s final moments within the family and roommate d. Donating the person’s property after death ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 616
47. Which promotes quality of life? a. Being forced to have treatment b. Being in a home-like setting c. Being restrained d. Having a cluttered room ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 616
48. A resident is dying. Staff members go into the person’s room only when the family uses the
signal light. Which statement is correct? The staff is providing privacy to the person and the family. The staff is abusing the person. The staff is neglecting the person. The staff is allowing personal choice.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 618
TRUE/FALSE 1. As death nears, hearing is one of the first functions lost. ANS: F
PTS: 1
REF: 618
2. The right to privacy and the right to be treated with dignity and respect do not apply after
death. ANS: F
PTS: 1
REF: 613
Chapter 46: Getting a Job—Career Management Kostelnick: Mosby’s Textbook for Long-Term Care Nursing Assistants, 8th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A nursing center wants to hire you. Which may be required? a. Nursing assistant training b. Your credit score c. A driving test d. Birth certificate ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 620
2. Before completing a job application, you need to: a. read and follow the directions. b. prove that you are qualified for the job. c. schedule an interview. d. prepare answers to the questions. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 623
3. A question on a job application does not apply to you. What should you do? a. Write neatly. b. Leave the space blank. c. Write “N/A” in the space. d. Write a brief response about why the question does not apply. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 623
4. You are completing a job application. How many references should you be prepared to give? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 623
5. You are completing a job application. You must be: a. honest. b. enthusiastic. c. courteous. d. cheerful. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 623
6. Mary Sanders has had four jobs in 1 year. She does not list all four jobs when completing a
job application so that she appears reliable. This is: fraud. invasion of privacy. her right to personal choice. poor work ethics.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 623
7. You are getting ready for an interview. You should do which of the following? a. Polish your nails. b. Take a bath and brush your teeth. c. Style your hair as you would for a party. d. Wear a strong fragrance. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 623
8. You have a job interview scheduled. Which shows that you are dependable? a. Being clean b. Dressing professionally c. Giving the receptionist your name d. Being on time ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 623
9. You arrive at Fair Haven Nursing Center for an interview. What should you do first? a. Sit quietly in the waiting area. b. Get something to drink. c. Turn off your cell phone or pager. d. Take a walk through the center. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 623
10. You are in the waiting area before your interview. What should you do? a. Sit quietly. b. Eat your lunch. c. Talk to the receptionist. d. Look at things on the receptionist’s desk. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 623
11. During an interview, it is correct to do which of the following? a. Ask for a drink of water. b. Take a seat as soon as you enter the room. c. Take things off the interviewer’s desk. d. Make good eye contact with the interviewer. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 624
12. Which answers are best during an interview? a. “Yes” and “no” answers b. Complete and honest answers c. Long explanations d. Written responses ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 624
13. Which should you review with the interviewer? a. The nursing assistant registry
b. Your competency evaluation c. Your job description d. Center policies and procedures ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 625
14. Which statement about job interviews is correct? a. You can ask questions about smoking during breaks. b. You can ask questions about bringing your children to work with you. c. You can ask about benefits. d. You can ask for a vacation in advance. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 626
15. You should write a thank-you note: a. within 24 hours of your interview. b. the week after the interview. c. 2 weeks after the interview. d. when you have the time. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 626
16. You accept a job at Fair Haven Nursing Center. You should get which of the following
information in writing? a. The date of your first pay raise b. Starting date c. Who you will be working with d. What your references sT aiEdSaT boBuA t yNoKuSELLER.COM ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 627
17. You accept a job at Fair Haven Nursing Center. Which of the following typically occurs
during new employee orientation? a. You learn to be a preceptor. b. You learn about the center’s policies and procedures. c. You demonstrate procedures outside of your job description to show you are advanced. d. You complete an application for employment. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 627
18. You decide to resign from your job. What should you do? a. Do not show up for work. b. Give a 2-week notice. c. Hire someone to take your place. d. Give a 1-day notice. ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 627
19. When you resign from a job, you should do which of the following? a. Give your reason for leaving. b. Announce your last day at the beginning of the shift. c. Explain that you are leaving because the facility is short-staffed.
d. Make a list of the things that you do not like about your job and the center. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 627
20. You could lose your job for which of the following reasons? a. Being harassed b. Poor attendance c. Working long hours d. Using alcohol outside of the work setting ANS: B
PTS: 1
REF: 628
21. Your work contributes to the resident’s quality of life by: a. giving compassionate care. b. working overtime shifts. c. giving residents gifts. d. not taking vacation days. ANS: A
PTS: 1
REF: 628
22. A nursing assistant is your preceptor or mentor. You know that the preceptor: a. is your supervisor. b. is the person who hires you. c. introduces you to residents. d. is also a new employee. ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 627
AeNwKhSeE 23. New employee orientationTisEtS heTtB im n:LLER.COM a. you submit your application. b. your references are checked. c. you interview with the nurse. d. your skills are checked. ANS: D
PTS: 1
REF: 627
24. A thank-you note after your interview should include which of the following? a. Vacation requests b. Complaints about the interview c. The interviewer’s formal name d. A request to increase the pay rate ANS: C
PTS: 1
REF: 628
25. How long does an interview usually last? a. 10 minutes b. 60 minutes c. 30 minutes d. 90 minutes ANS: C TRUE/FALSE
PTS: 1
REF: 624
1. It is best to arrive about 10 minutes before the scheduled interview. ANS: T
PTS: 1
REF: 623
2. To work in long-term care, you must complete a state-approved nursing assistant training and
competency evaluation program (NATCEP). ANS: T
PTS: 1
REF: 620
3. Absences and tardiness are common reasons for losing a job. ANS: T
PTS: 1
REF: 628
4. A nursing assistant preceptor is your supervisor. ANS: F
PTS: 1
REF: 627
5. Read the dress code requirements on the first day of work. ANS: F
PTS: 1
REF: 627