TEST BANK for Nutrition For Healthy Living 6th Edition by Wendy Schiff by ACADEMIAMILL

Nutrition For Healthy Living 6th Edition Schiff Test Bank Student name: TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) According to some nutrition scientists, fiber is a key beneficial nutrient. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) According to some nutrition scientists, selenium is a key beneficial nutrient. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) According to some nutrition scientists, vitamin E is a key beneficial nutrient. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) Vitamin C, iron, and fat are classified as macronutrients. ⊚

true

5) Jemma, who is 7 months pregnant, suffers from chronic undernutrition. Based on this information, she has a Version 1

⊚

false

higher than average risk of 1

a difficult labor and delivering a baby with serious health ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) Children who live in southern Australia and western Europe are more likely to die before their fifth birthday than ⊚ ⊚

problems.

children living in other regions of the world.

true false

7) Biotechnology involves the use of living things to improve manufactured products. ⊚ ⊚

true false

8) Bioengineering of food crops may result in better crop yields and more nutritious grains, fruits, and vegetables. ⊚ ⊚

true false

9) Infants and toddlers who are chronically undernourished are likely to develop stunting as they reach school age. ⊚

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true

⊚

false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 10) According to the main nutrition-related goal of Healthy People 2030, Americans should improve their health by .

A) decreasingtheir intake of refined, enriched, and fortified foods B) reducing their children's exposure to energy-dense foods C) learning how to obtain nutrition information from

11)

reliable sources D) making nutritious food more available

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Nutrients are life-sustaining phytochemicals in food. B) In the United States, poor eating habits contribute to some of the ten leading causes of death. C) A person's diet is influenced by his or her blood

type, birth order, and sustainability. D) Most people are born with the ability to choose a nutritious diet.

12) Which of the following conditions or diseases is a leading diet-related cause of death in the United States?

A) Chronic lower respiratory infections B) Heart disease

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C) Suicide D) Influenza and pneumonia

A) Chronic lower respiratory infections B) Stroke

C) Suicide D) Influenza and pneumonia

14) Which of the following conditions or diseases is a leading diet-related cause of death in the United States?

A) Chronic lower respiratory infections B) Diabetes

C) Suicide D) Influenza and pneumonia

15) Which of the following factors has a major influence over a person's food choices? C) Vitamin A A) Close friends B) Blood type

status D) Birth order

16) A person's is not a major influence for his or her food selection practices.

A) place ofresidence B) blood type

C) mood D) health status

17) A person's is (are) not a major influence for his or her food selection practices.

A) place ofresidence B) political beliefs

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C) moods D) health status

18)

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Nutrients are life-sustaining substances in food. B) In the United States, poor eating habits contribute to the ten leading causes of death, including influenza and pneumonia. C) A person's diet is influenced by his or her blood

type, birth order, and sustainability. D) People are born with the ability to choose a nutritious variety of foods.

19) A substance that can protect a person's cells from being damaged or destroyed by certain harmful factors is a(an) .

A) oxidizing agent B) antioxidant

20)

C) micronutrient D) phytochemical

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Phytochemicals are oxidizingagents produced by animal cells. B) An essential nutrient must be supplied by the diet. C) People develop scurvy when their diets lack

vitamin E. D) Under certain conditions, the human body can make iron, copper, and zinc.

21) According to the U.S. Food and Drug Administration, which of the following substances can not be classified as a dietary supplement?

A) Tobacco B) Vitamin E

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C) Copper D) Lysine

22) Which of the following substances is a phytochemical?

A) Glucose B) Zinc

C) Caffeine D) Pantothenic acid

23) Which of the following conditions is not a leading cause of death in the United States?

A) Tuberculosis B) Cancer

C) Heart disease D) Stroke

24) Tamika's 52-year-old father died as a result of a condition that is the leading cause of death in the United States. Based on this information, Tamika's father died from .

A) type 1 diabetes B) heart disease

C) lung cancer D) influenza

25) Which of the following nutrients is a source of energy for human cells?

A) Cholesterol B) Protein

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C) Vitamin D D) Iron

C) vitamin C D) carbohydrate

A) cholesterol B) water

27)

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Nutrient deficiency diseases develop when diets lack essential nutrients. B) A skin rash could be a symptom of a vitamin deficiency disease. C) A headache is a common sign of a mineral

deficiency disease. D) Most phytochemicals are classified as essential nutrients.

28) According to the U.S. Department of Agriculture, today's Americans consumemore than in 1970. C) red meat D) fluid milk

A) chicken B) beef liver

29) According to the U.S. Department of Agriculture,today's Americans consume more in 1970.

than

A) cheese B) eggs

C) red meat D) whole grains

30) According to the U.S. Department of Agriculture, today's Americans consumemore than in 1970.

A) fish

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B) eggs C) red meat

31) Today's Americans consumemore 1970.

D) fluid milk

than in

C) red meat D) fluid milk

A) added sugars B) chickeneggs

32) Today's Americans consumemore 1970.

than in

A) fruits and vegetables B) chicken eggs

33)

C) red meat D) fluid milk

Which of the following statements is true?

A) When compared to the typical American diet in 1987–1988,today's Americans consumemore total calories. B) Today, Americans eat more whole eggs than they consumed in 1970. C) In the United States, the adult population

consumes more red meat than they ate in 1970. D) Americans consume more fluid milk than they consumed in 1970.

34) A serving of food contains 15 g carbohydrate, 3 g protein, 5 g fat, 5 mg vitamin C, and 100 ml water. Based on this information, a serving of this food supplies kcal.

A) 87 B) 97

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C) 107 D) 117

35) A serving of food contains 35 g carbohydrate, 6 g protein, 10 g fat, 5 mg vitamin E, and 150 ml water. Based on this information, a serving of this food supplies kcal.

A) 194 B) 204

C) 234 D) 254

36) A serving of food contains 30 g fat, 2 g protein, 3 g carbohydrate, 5 mg iron, 600 mg calcium, and 250 ml water. Based on this information, a serving of this food supplies kcal.

A) 440 B) 200

C) 320 D) 290

37) A serving of food contains 20 g fat, 2 g protein, 5 g carbohydrate, 5 g alcohol, and 1000 mg potassium. Based on this information, a serving of this food supplies kcal.

A) 440 B) 200

38) A serving of food contains 3 g alcohol, 6 mg cholesterol, 500 ml water, 25 g fat, 5 g protein, and 38 g carbohydrate. Based on this information, a serving of this

A) 575 B) 636

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C) 423 D) 243

food supplies kcal.

C) 392 D) 418

39) Sam wants to estimate the grams of carbohydrate in a sugar-sweetened soft drink that supplies 100 kcal/serving. The soft drink contains no fiber, protein, fat, and alcohol. To obtain this value, he should .

A) divide the number of kcal by 2 B) multiply the number of kcal by 4 C) divide the number of kcal by 4

D) multiply the number per serving by 2

40) Lynne wants to estimate the grams of carbohydrate in a sugar-sweetened soft drink that supplies 200 kcal/serving. The soft drink contains no fiber, protein, fat, and alcohol. To obtain this value, she should .

A) divide the number of kcal by 9 B) multiply the number of kcal by 4 C) divide the number of kcal by 4

D) multiply the number per serving by 9

41) Lynne wants to estimate the grams of fat in a serving of oil that supplies 400 kcal. The oil contains no fiber, protein, carbohydrate, and alcohol. To obtain this value, she should .

A) divide the number of kcal by 9 B) multiply the number of kcal by 4 C) divide the number of kcal by 4

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D) multiply the number per serving by 9

42) Lynne consumes 6 ounces of a beverage that supplies 63 kcal from alcohol. To determine how many grams of alcohol are in that amount of the beverage, she should

A) divide 63 by 7 B) multiply 63 by 4

C) divide 63 by 4 D) multiply 63 by 9

43) A serving of food supplies 244 kcal from protein. Based on this information, how many grams of protein are in the serving?

A) 61 B) 27

C) 35 D) 175

44) A serving of food supplies 144 kcal from protein. Based on this information, how many grams of protein are in the serving?

A) 16 B) 26

C) 36 D) 46

45) A serving of food supplies 136 kcal from protein. Based on this information, how many grams of protein are in the serving?

A) 19 B) 26

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C) 34 D) 15

46) A serving of food supplies 99 kcal from fat. Based on this information, how many grams of fat are in the serving?

A) 9 B) 11

C) 33 D) 25

47) A serving of food supplies 153 kcal from fat. Based on this information, how many grams of fat are in the serving?

A) 9 B) 17

C) 38 D) 22

48) Which of the following substances is a nutrient that does not supply any energy for the human body?

A) Carbohydrate B) Fat

C) Alcohol D) Vitamin D

49) Which of the following substances is a nutrient that does not provide any energy for the human body?

A) Water B) Protein

C) Carbohydrate D) Alcohol

50) Which of the following foods is naturally a source of phytochemicals?

A) Margarine B) Tuna Version 1

C) Grapes D) Luncheon meat

51) Which of the following foods is not a source of phytochemicals? C) Whole-grain A) Fresh blueberries B) Cashew nuts

bread D) Lean meat

52) Which of the following behaviors is a known risk factor for heart disease?

A) Smokingcigarettes B) Being physically active C) Consuming excess vitamin c

D) Eating a highfiber diet

53) Eating diets that contain high amounts of certain kinds of fat raise the risk of developing heart disease. Thus, a diet that supplies anexcessive amount of such fats is a for heart disease.

A) hypotheticalvariable B) dietarymodulator

C) nutritionaldeterminant D) risk factor

54) Eating a high-salt diet increases people's chances of developing high blood pressure. Thus, a diet that supplies excessive amounts of salt is a for high blood pressure. C) risk factor A) hypotheticalvariable B) dietarymodulator

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D) primary predictor

55) Which of the following lifestyle choices is the primary cause of preventable cancer deaths in the United States?

A) Eating fatty food B) Consuming alcohol C) Exercising infrequently

D) Smoking cigarettes

56) Jorge weighs 153 pounds. What is his approximate weight in kilograms?

A) 80 kg B) 90 kg

C) 337 kg D) 70 kg

57) Jorge weighs 196 pounds. What is his approximate weight in kilograms?

A) 89 kg B) 431 kg

C) 337 kg D) 70 kg

58) Jorge weighs 48 pounds. What is his approximate weight in kilograms?

A) 89 kg B) 22 kg

C) 106 kg D) 70 kg

59) Elisa weighs 62 kg, which is approximately pounds. A) 136

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B) 152 C) 176

D) 202

60) Jerry's height is 65 inches. What is his approximate height in centimeters?

A) 26 cm B) 165 cm

C) 178 cm D) 225 cm

61) Dave's height is 69 inches. What is his approximate height in centimeters?

A) 27 cm B) 162 cm

C) 183 cm D) 175 cm

62) Kerry weighs 38 kg. What is her approximate weight in pounds?

A) 35 pounds B) 84 pounds

63)

Josh weighs 170 kg. What is hisweight in pounds?

A) 155 pounds B) 374pounds

64)

C) 17 pounds D) 128 pounds

C) 77 pounds D) 385 pounds

Archie weighs 62 kg, which is approximately pounds.

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A) 108 B) 158

C) 28 D) 136

65) A tablespoon of sugar supplies about 48 kilocalories, which is the same as calories.

A) 4.8 B) 4800

C) 48,000 D) 480,000

66) Two tablespoons of vegetable oil supply about 200,000 calories, which is the same as kilocalories.

A) 20 B) 2000

C) 200 D) 20,000

67) The energy value of a raw peach is reported as a number of .

A) BTUs B) kilocalories

C) rads D) thermals

68) A serving of food contains 7 g carbohydrate, 15 g protein, 6 g fat, 1 g alcohol, 2 mcg vitamin B-12, and 60 mg iron. Based on this information, this food provides kcal/serving.

A) 296 B) 149

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C) 126 D) 142

69) How many kilocalories are in a portion of food that contains 8 g protein, 10 g fat, 22 g carbohydrate, 130 mg

A) 208 B) 210

70) Erika is making a recipe from foods that contain the following nutrients: 120 ml of water, 60 g of fat, 20 g of protein, 500 mg of vitamin C, 275 g of carbohydrate, and 600 mg of calcium. Approximately how many kilocalories does

A) 780 B) 930

vitamin C, and 120 ml water? C) 204 D) 206

the entire product of this recipe provide?

C) 1550 D) 1720

71) A serving of food supplies 20 g carbohydrate, 10 g fat, 25 g protein, and 100 g water. Which of the following

statements is true about a serving of the food?

A) Fat provides about 20% of the food energy. B) Carbohydrate provides about 40% of the food

D) Carbohydrate provides about 30% of the food energy.

energy. C) Water provides about 10% of the food energy.

72) A serving of food supplies 20 g carbohydrate, 10 g fat, 25 g protein, 10 mg vitamin B-6, and 100 ml water. Which of the following statements is true about a serving of the food?

A) Fat provides themost food energy. B) Carbohydrate provides the most food energy. C) Water provides 15% of the food energy.

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D) Protein provides 37% of the food energy.

A) Fat provides the most food energy. B) Carbohydrate provides about the same amount of food energy as the fat in this food. C) Water supplies about the same amount of food

energy as the protein in this food. D) Protein provides about 60% of total calories.

74) A serving of food supplies 22 g carbohydrate, 8 g fat, 23 g protein, 120 mcg vitamin A, and 150 ml water. Which of the following statements is true about a serving of the food?

A) Fat provides themost food energy. B) Carbohydrate provides the least food energy. C) Carbohydate provides the most food energy.

D) Fat provides the least food energy.

75) A serving of food supplies 18 g protein, 20 g carbohydrate, 7 g fat, 18 mg vitamin E, 2 mg iron, and 100 g water. Which of the following statements is true about a serving of the food?

A) Fat provides themost food energy. B) Vitamin E provides about 10% of the food energy. C) Carbohydrateprovides the most food energy.

D) Fat provides about75% of total calories.

76) A serving of food supplies 25 g carbohydrate, 12 g protein, 400 ml water, 25 mg vitamin B-6, and 8 g fat. According to this information, how many kilocalories are in a serving of this food?

A) 182 B) 152

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C) 220 D) 212

77)

Which of the following foods is the most nutrient

A) Olive oil B) French fries

dense per serving? C) Grape drink D) Soy milk

78) Which of the following foods is the most nutrient dense per serving?

A) Cheese nachos B) Iceberg lettuce

C) Fat-free milk D) Softmargarine

79) Which of the following foods is the most nutrient dense per serving?

A) Cheese nachos B) Iceberg lettuce

C) Orange slices D) Softmargarine

80) The recommended amount of a nutrient is 100 mg. Therefore, a megadose of this nutrient would be .

A) 100 mcg B) 10 mg

C) 1 g D) 1 mcg

81) The recommended dose of a vitamin is 2 mg. Based on this information, a megadose of the vitamin would be .

A) 5 mg B) 10 mcg

82)

Each day, Phil takes ten pills that each supply 1000

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C) 25 mg D) 40 mcg

mg of vitamin C. The

recommended amount of vitamin C is 90 mg/day. His daily

A) physiological level B) requirement

vitamin C intake is an example of a . C) marginal intake D) megadose

83) Maria limits her sodium intake to 2.3 g/day. This amount is equivalent to .

A) 23 mg/day B) 230 mg/day

C) 2300 mg/day D) 23,000 mg/day

84) Benjamin limits his sodium intake to 1.5 g/day. This amount is equivalent to .

A) 15 mg/day B) 150 mg/day

C) 1500 mg/day D) 15,000 mcg/day

85) Which of the following substances is a nutrient that provides energy for humans?

A) Alcohol B) Glucose

86)

Which of the following nutrients is a micronutrient?

A) Fat B) Magnesium

87)

C) Caffeine D) Thiamin

C) Water D) Protein

Which of the following nutrients is a micronutrient?

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C) Water D) Fat

A) Cholesterol B) Vitamin E

88)

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Most naturally occurring foods contain more than one nutrient. B) Strawberries are an energy-dense food. C) Milk, bananas,and soybeans are among the few nutritionally perfect foods for humans.

D) According to nutrition experts, junk foods have no nutritional value.

89) Which of the following foods is the most energy dense per serving? C) Fat-free milk D) Baked chicken

A) Fresh blueberries B) Chocolate chip cookie

90) Which of the following foods is both energy and nutrient dense?

A) Strawberries B) Whole-grain bread

91)

C) Peanut butter D) Raw apple slices

Which of the following statements is true? C) A diet that

A) Nutrition experts generally classify foods as either "good" or "junk." B) According to scientific evidence, taking megadoses of vitamins and minerals is a safe way to prevent many chronic diseases.

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hasvariety contains many different kinds of nutritious foods. D) In the UnitedStates, you are more likely to see undernourished than overnourishedpeople.

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92)

An essential nutrient

A) performs a vital function in the body B) is only in foods from animal sources C) must be supplied by the diet

D) is not in foods that are rich sources of empty calories

93) Which of the following nutrients is the most essential for life? C) Omega-3 fatty A) Water B) Protein

acids D) Vitamin C

94) An 8-ounce serving of a beverage contains 450 ml water, 20 g sugar, and 6 g alcohol. This amount of the beverage supplies kcal.

A) 129 B) 115

C) 122 D) 189

95) An 8-ounce serving of a beverage contains 250 ml water, 20 g sugar, 3 mg caffeine, and 3g alcohol. This amount of the beverage supplies kcal.

A) 95 B) 150

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C) 125 D) 101

96) An 8-ounce serving of a beverage contains 250 ml water, 30 g sugar, 3 mg caffeine, and 3 g alcohol. This amount of the beverage supplies kcal.

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A) 91 B) 141

C) 176 D) 186

97) Which of the following substances is not a macronutrient?

A) Vitamin C B) Protein

98) Which of the following federally subsidized food programs is designed to improve the nutritional status specifically of low-income pregnant and breastfeeding women

A) Commodity Supplemental Food Program B) Meals on Wheels

C) Carbohydrate D) Fat

and their preschool children in the United States? C) UNICEF D) WIC

99) includes farming techniques that do not deplete natural resources or harm the environment.

A) Agritechnologic food production B) Organoleptic crop management C) Nutrigenomic farming

D) Sustainable agriculture

100) Which of the following groups of Americans is most at risk of undernutrition?

A) People who are addicted to drugs B) Preschool children who attend daycare C) College freshmen who live on campus

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D) Middle-age men who exercise regularly

101)

Which of the following groups of Americans is most

A) Residents of long-term care facilities B) School-age children who participate in school lunch programs C) College freshmen who live in dormitories

at risk of undernutrition? D) Individuals who have jobs that require a lot of sitting

102) In the United States, food insecurity is most likely to affect .

A) adolescent boys experiencing a growth spurt B) adult women who take birth control pills C) older adults on fixed incomes

D) body builders whoconsume too many protein supplements

103) Jaelyn is in her 6th month of pregnancy. Her diet is poor because she rarely pays attention to her food choices, and she eats a limited variety of foods that she likes. According to her doctor, Jaelyn is "chronically undernourished." Based on this information, Jaelyn is likely to .

B) deliver a baby who has no serious health problems

C) give birth to a high-birth-weight baby D) deliver a baby with type 1 diabetes

104) Debra is in her 7thmonth of pregnancy. Before she became pregnant, she didn'tcare about the nutritional quality of her food choices. She didn't make any effort to improve her

poor diet after she learned that she was pregnant. Debragenerally eats what

A) give birth at least four weeks earlier than expected

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is cheap, tastes good, and is convenient.Based on this information, she is undernourished and likely to

A) give birth a couple of weeks later than expected B) bleed excessively after delivering her baby C) give birth to a high-birth-weight baby

D) deliver a baby with vitamin C toxicity

105) Impoverished children who live in developing countries have a high risk of dying from .

A) consuming too much fat and sugar B) vitamin A deficiency C) developing cystic fibrosis

106)

D) developing type 2 diabetes

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Meals on Wheelsprovides nutritious meals for pregnant, low-income women who are too sick toleave their homes. B) The SchoolBreakfast Program offers free or reduced-cost breakfasts to children,regardless of their family incomes. C) The Supplemental Nutrition Assistance

Programhelps low-income Americans buy allowable foods. D) The School Lunch and Breakfast programs are available to low- and middle-income children in 20 states.

107) Which of the following foods is a major source of empty calories?

A) Sugar-sweetened soft drinks B) Fresh fruit C) Fat-free dairy products

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D) Breads made with wheat flour

108)

is an example of a food that supplies a lot of

A) Whole milk B) Cottage cheese

109)

C) Lite beer D) Unsaltedcrackers

Which of the following foods is not nutrient dense?

A) Fresh strawberries B) Chocolate cookies

110)

empty calories.

C) Orange juice D) Romaine lettuce

Which of the following statements is true?

A) A megadose ofvitamin C is within the range of safe intake for the nutrient. B) Peanut butter contains too many empty calories to be a nutritious food. C) Most foods aremixtures of nutrients.

D) A healthy diet supplies about 90% of its calories from energydensefoods.

111) Which of the following practices is most likely to result in a nutrient toxicity disorder?

A) Consuming 6 servings of fruits and vegetables daily

D) Drinking 8 ounces of fat-free milk with each meal

B) Taking megadoses of various vitamin supplements daily C) Eating 4 ounces of chicken liver once a week

112) Belle is pregnant and has two young children. She is having difficulty supporting her

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family on an income of $22,000/year. Recently, she was diagnosed with high blood pressure and iron deficiency.

Based on this information, Belle should enroll in the program. C) WIC D) HWHB

A) FDIC B) FDA

113) Anna is 17 years of age and pregnant with her first child. She has difficulty earning enough money to support herself, and recently, she was diagnosed with iron deficiency. Based on this information, Anna should enroll in the program. C) WIC D) HWHB

A) FDIC B) FDA

114) A food scientist would like to develop a ready-to-use therapeutic food that would be consumed by 3- to 5-year-old starving children. Based on this information, which of the

following ingredients is not necessary to include in the food's recipe? C) Iron D) Vitamin A

A) Cholesterol B) Peanut butter

115) A scientist thinks she has discovered an essential nutrient for humans, because this substance is .

A) required by cats and dogs B) needed for the normal development of human cells

processing D) easily manufactured by food chemists

C) in most natural foods that undergo minimal

116)

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Scientists at a

major university have isolated a chemical from grapes. Which of the following features is an indication that this chemical could be a vitamin?

A) When large amountsof the chemical are consumed, no health problems occur. B) The chemical has avery limited range of safe intake. C) The chemical is ingrapes, cherries, and tomatoes.

D) When a person'sdiet lacks the chemical, his or her body experiences abnormal functioning.

117) For five years, Michael ate only plant foods. He recently developed numbness in his feet and a sore swollen tongue. A few days after he added eggs and milk to his diet, his tongue healed and the numbness in his feet stopped bothering him. Based on this information, Michael probably .

A) had absorbed toxic mineralsfrom plant foods, which were eliminated from his body when he consumed the animal foods B) suffered from a rare genetic disorder that developed when high levels of various phytochemicals were consumed C) developed a nutrient deficiency disorder that was

cured by the eating animal foods D) had been infected with a rare viral disease that was transmitted by certain plant foods

118) Most of the people living in a small South African village have access to nutritious foods. Soon after their birth, ten infants in the village developed severe diarrhea, which resulted in dehydration. After questioning the infants' parents, local public health officials were able to determine the cause of the diarrhea. Based on the officials' findings, the parents were advised to . water A) give megadoses of vitamin C to each baby B) add more fruit juice to the babies' diets C) stop diluting the babies' formula with local well

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D) reduce the amount of iron in the babies' diets

119) Which of the following food-related practices is recommended because it can improve the environment?

A) Throwing out uneaten and/or leftover foods B) Eating more meat, especially beef C) Eating smaller food portions

D) Consuming more corn-fed beef and pork

120) Which of the following agricultural practices is recommended because it can improve the environment? crops A) Expanding farmland into forests and grasslands B) Using chemical methods to control crop pests C) Applying irrigation water directly to the roots of

D) Raising more corn-fed beef and pork

121) A team of biologists is using scientific methods to develop chickens that lay eggs, which supply 20% more healthy fat than the eggs that chickens currently lay. If the team's effort is successful, the eggs will be an example of a food.

A) bioengineered B) sustainable C) minimally-processed

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D) syntheticallyfabricated

122)

The main nutrition-related goal of Healthy People

A) increase the use of dietary supplements that contain vitamins and minerals B) reduce children's exposure to substances in foods that cause allergies and diseases C) obtain nutrition information from reliable and

123)

scientific sources D) improve healthby promoting healthy eating and making nutritious foods available

Which of the following statements is true?

A) The height of a child with stunting is much lower than normal when compared to children who are the same age but adequately nourished. B) In Africa, type 1 diabetes is a major cause of death among impoverished children who are under 5 years of age. C) Vitamin C deficiency is a major cause of blindness among children who are poorly-nourished, especially children who live in developing countries.

124)

2030 is to

Most Americans

A) are food secure B) develop scurvy by the time they are 2 years of age C) experience stunting before they reach school age

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D) In developing countries, most children are vaccinated against measles, but they still have a higher than average risk of contracting the infectious disease.

D) are concerned about running out of food

Answer Key Test name: ch1

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1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) TRUE 9) TRUE 10) D 11) B 12) B 13) B 14) B 15) A 16) B 17) B 18) A 19) B 20) B 21) A Version 1

22) C 23) A 24) B 25) B 26) D 27) A 28) A 29) A 30) A 31) A 32) A 33) A 34) D 35) D 36) D 37) D 38) D 39) C 40) C 41) A 42) A Version 1

43) A 44) C 45) C 46) B 47) B 48) D 49) A 50) C 51) D 52) A 53) D 54) C 55) D 56) D 57) A 58) B 59) A 60) B 61) D 62) B 63) B Version 1

64) D 65) C 66) C 67) B 68) B 69) B 70) D 71) D 72) D 73) B 74) D 75) C 76) C 77) D 78) C 79) C 80) C 81) C 82) D 83) C 84) C Version 1

85) B 86) B 87) B 88) A 89) B 90) C 91) C 92) C 93) A 94) C 95) D 96) B 97) A 98) D 99) D 100) A 101) A 102) C 103) A 104) B 105) B Version 1

106) C 107) A 108) C 109) B 110) C 111) B 112) C 113) C 114) A 115) B 116) D 117) C 118) C 119) C 120) C 121) A 122) D 123) A 124) A

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Student name: TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) A registered dietitian nutritionist has been trained to apply food and nutrition information to help treat many health conditions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) Scientific evidence provides considerable support for the effectiveness of most forms of alternative health care. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) A person who promotes the use of ginseng, garlic, and fish oil as the cure for cancer is practicing quackery. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) A dietary supplement is a natural product that can be taken by mouth, injected into the bloodstream, or rubbed on skin. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 5) After examining a patient, a health care practitioner tells the patientthat hermild back pain is caused by poor flow of energy from her mind to her back. The practitioner treats the patient with acupuncture, ginseng, and massage therapy.

A) integrative medicine B) conventional medicine C) placebo-based health care

Based on this information, the practitioner's treatments indicate that he relies on .

D) alternative health care

6) After examining a patient and reviewing the results of his blood tests, a physician tells the patient that his mild depressive symptoms are not the result of a serious health problem. The physician suggests that the patient should try regular exercise and take the dietary supplement St. John's wort for 3 months. After this period, the physician will prescribe antidepressant medication, if the patient does not feel emotionally better. This advice is .

A) quackery and medically irresponsible B) typical for a conventional medical practitioner C) an indication that the physician practices integrative medicine

D) unreliable becausethe physician is not considering alternative methods of treating thepatient's mental illness

Which of the following statements is true?

A) A person with a PhD who promotes drinking Version 1

vinegar as the cure for lung cancer is practicing 2

quackery. B) Scientific evidence supports the effectiveness of most forms of alternative health care. C) The RDN credential can be used by anyone who earns a college nutrition degree.

Which of the following statements is true?

A) A person with a PhD who promotes drinking vinegar as the cure for lung cancer is practicing conventional medicine. B) Scientific evidence supports the effectiveness of most forms of alternative health care. C) The RDN credential is legally protected.

D) Disclaimers are clues that a product will meet your expectations or the manufacturer's claims.

Which of the following statements is true?

10)

D) Disclaimers are clues that a product may not meet your expectations or the manufacturer's claims.

can be classified as a dietary supplement.

A) Chewingtobacco B) Ginkgo biloba

C) Cherry jelly D) Orange drink

11) can be classified as a dietary supplement. Version 1

A) Chewing tobacco B) Bitter orange

12) A scientist discovers a chemical in certain rocks that kills bacteria when it is mixed with sterile water in a test tube. She cannot market extracts that contain this chemical as a

A) has to receive a U.S. patent before the FDA will approve its use B) contains more than one kind of natural material C) does not contain dietary ingredients

13)

dietary supplement, because it .

D) must first undergo scientific testing to determine its effectiveness

Which of the following statements is true?

A) According to thelegal definition developed by the FDA, a "dietary supplement" isa food that influences metabolism. B) Physicians and registered dietitian nutritionists do not recommend dietary supplements for their patients. C) Dietary supplements may interact negatively with

14)

C) Red wine D) Wheat germ

other substances a person takes. D) People who develop side effects after taking dietary supplements can reporttheir experiences to the GAO.

Which of the following statements is true?

A) According to the legal definition developed by the FDA, a "dietary supplement" is a natural substance that benefits health. B) Physicians and registered dietitian nutritionists do not recommend dietary supplements for their patients. C) Before taking a dietary supplement, people should determine whether the product is necessary and safe.

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D) People who develop side effects after taking dietary supplements can reporttheir experiences to the GAO.

A) A physician who treats a patient's back pain with cortisone injections and massage therapy. B) A physician who has a patient take prescription medications to reduce chronic heartburn. C) A surgeon who removes a cancerous tumor from a

patient's stomach. D) A physician who applies evening primrose oil to the skin of a person to treat a rash.

16) Which of the following practices is an example of integrative health care?

A) Taking an aspirin and resting quietly to relieve a headache B) Having surgery and physical therapy to treat a torn tendon C) Having psychological counseling and taking St. John's wort to improve mood

17)

Which of the following statements is true?

A) The EPA regulatesthe labeling of dietary supplements. B) Medicinal herbsmust undergo testing for safety and effectiveness by the FDA before they can bemarketed. C) Manufacturers ofdietary supplements must inform the FTC about negativehealthreportsthat may have resulted

18)

D) Applying a prescription antibiotic to a wound and wrapping the affected area with sterile gauze to prevent infection

from the use of their products. D) The FDA can recall a dietary supplements when there is evidence that it is harmful.

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Dietary supplements can include substances that are spread on the skin or injected into the body. B) Consumers canreport negativehealthreports that may have resulted from their useof dietary supplements to the FDA. C) Dietarysupplements can be recalled if the products contain kava, lysine, orglucosamine. Version 1

D) Medicinal herbsmust undergo testing for safety and effectiveness by the FDA before they can bemarketed in the United States.

19)

Which of the following statements is true?

A) It is not unusual for studies that have similar designs to have different findings, especially when human subjects are used. B) The results of one study are usually enough to convince nutrition scientists to adopt new ideas about nutrition-related topics. C) Dietary recommendations are generally based on the findings of one team of nutrition researchers.

20)

Which of the following statements is true?

A) A scientist's professional affiliations and sources of financial support may influence his or her research findings. B) The results of one study are usually enough to convince the majority of nutrition scientists to adopt new ideas about nutrition-related topics. C) Dietary recommendations are generally based on the findings of one well-respected team of nutrition

21)

D) Since 1970, nutrition information has undergone few updates, because scientists have discovered all of the nutrients and their relationships to health.

researchers. D) Since 1995, nutrition information has undergone few updates, because scientists have discovered all of the nutrients and determined their functions.

Which of the following statements is true?

A) When interpreting results of their studies, researchers generally seek to include some bias into their analyses. B) Scientific studies that are designed to investigate the same question can have different findings. C) Dietary recommendations are generally based on the findings of one team of nutrition researchers.

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D) Since 1990, nutrition information has undergone few updates, because scientists havedetermined how nutrients maintain health and diets prevent disease.

22) A group of scientists suspects that certain dietary practices are partially responsible for different rates of hypertension among adults of different ethnic/racial groups. To test their hypothesis, the researchers examine data concerning the different population groups' hypertension rates and their past dietary practices. This research is a study.

A) retrospective B) case-control

C) prospective D) hypothetical

23) A group of registered dietitian nutritionists is planning to conduct a scientific study to investigate the effects of eating honey on school-age children's behavior. At first, the researchers will . D) gather data A) analyze the hypothesis B) make observations C) identify relationships between variables

24) A medical researcher reads an article in "Today's Health-Conscious Woman" magazine about the benefits of using the phytochemical capsaicin to treat knee pain. She asks 10 people with arthritic kneesto rub a cream that contains the phytochemical on their knee joints for two weeks. At the end of the two weeks, the researcher asks the subjects whether their knee pain improved, stayed about the same, or worsened during the treatment period. After collecting responses from the people, the researcher reports the results of her study during a popular TV show that is hosted by a doctor. Based on this information,which of the following statements is true?

A) The researcher used a standard scientific design Version 1

for research involving human subjects. 7

B) The researcher reviewed scientific literature regarding the use of capsaicin to treat knee pain. C) The researcher subjected the results of her study to peer-review.

D) The researcher did not divide the subjects of her study into control andtreatment groups.

25) A group of scientists conducts a scientific study to investigate dietary factors that influence the development of obesity. Which of the following activities is not likely to be a

component of their research efforts?

A) Making observations and formulating a hypothesis B) Submitting an article describing the study to a peer-reviewed journal C) Posting findings at the main researcher's Internet

26) According to the observations of anutritionscientist, laboratory mice are healthier when their diet contains physiological levels of vitamin D than when their diet lacks themicronutrient. The scientist hypothesizes that mice will be less likely to develop cancer when they consume a diet that

A) plan a retrospective study involving at least 5,000 laboratory mice to test the vitamin D and cancer hypothesis in mice B) design a double-blind study to test the vitamin D and cancer hypothesis in mice C) conduct a controlled laboratory experiment to test

27) Researchers at a major American university plan a 10year study involving 25,000 adults who will follow their usual lifestyles while they participate in the study. One of the main goals of this particular scientific investigation is to determine lifestyle factors that contribute to stomach cancer. Which of

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web site D) Collecting data and analyzing results

supplies megadoses of vitamin D. Based on this information, the scientist is ready to .

the vitamin D and cancer hypothesis in mice D) set up an experimental epidemiological study to test the vitamin D and cancer hypothesis in mice

the following activities is likely to be a component of their research efforts?

A) Contacting the local news station to report their findings B) Submitting an article describing the results of the study to a peer-reviewed journal C) Posting significant findings at the main

researcher's Internet website D) Establishing a place for the subjects to live for the duration of the study

28) Scientists enroll 500 healthy adults in a study and collect dietary and other lifestyle information about the group. After 6 years, the scientists determine that study participants who ate at least 5 servings of fruits and vegetables daily were less likely to develop high blood pressure than participants

who ate fewer than 5 servings of these foods daily. This study is an example of a(an) study.

A) prospective B) nutritive

29) A scientist adds 5 mcg of the mineral cadmium to the daily diet of 100 4-week-old laboratory mice. After twelve weeks, the researcher weighs and takes blood samples from each mouse. According to her findings, the mice lost weight during the 12-week period and they have abnormal levels of certain hormones in their blood. Based on this information

A) Her results arevery interesting and she should report her findings to nutrition scientists, sothey can repeat her study and confirm the results. B) The findings arenot meaningful or valid because of the way she designed her study. C) She needs toconduct more tests on the animals'

C) retrospective D) introspective

and your knowledge of scientific research, what would you tell the researcher about her findings?

blood, because her findings areincomplete. D) The findings needto be summarized in a research article for submission to a peerreviewednutrition journal.

30) A nutrition researcher evenly divides a large group of 3-week-old healthy laboratory mice Version 1

into two groups and keeps the animals in separate rooms. He adds 30 mg of the mineral iron to the daily diet of one group of the mice. The other group of mice receives the same diet as the first group, but their diet does not contain additional iron. After ten weeks, the scientist takes blood samples from each mouse. According to his findings, the mice that obtained the iron supplement developed abnormal levels of certain

A) He should report his findings to other nutrition scientists, so they can repeat his study and confirm the results. B) He should call apress conference and report his findings to the public, so they can avoidconsuming excess iron. C) He should consider his findings as an observation

31) Over a 4-year period, a team of scientists records the eating behaviors and physical activity patterns of a group of healthy8-year-old children to determine whether these factors are associated with excessive weight gain. This study is an

A) case-control B) retrospective

32) A group of nutrition researchers interviews 100 adults who have chronic high blood pressure to determine whether there is an association between consuming diets low in calcium during adolescence and developing high blood

A) case-control B) retrospective

enzymes in their red blood cells. Based on this information and your knowledge of scientific research, what would you tell him?

and redesign the study to include a control group. D) He should write an article that describes his results and submit the article to a popular nutrition magazine.

example of a(an) study.

C) prospective D) in-vitro

pressure in adulthood. This study is an example of a study.

C) prospective D) macrosomatic

33) Which of the following kinds of studies

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would be the best to use when designing a scientific investigation to determine whether there is an association between consuming diets high in sodiumduring adolescence

A) Single-blind study B) Experimental study C) Double-blindstudy

34) A nutrition researcher would like to determine whether healthy women who take fish oil supplements during pregnancy give birth to children who score higher on basic intelligence tests when they are 5 years of age. The scientist plans to compare the IQ test results of this group of children with the test results of a group of 5-year-old children with similar backgrounds whose mothers were healthy but did not

A) double-blind B) in-vitro

and developing high blood pressure in adulthood?

D) Observational epidemiological study

take fish oil supplements when pregnant. This kind of research is a(an) study.

C) retrospective D) intervention

35) Which of the following kinds of studies would be the best to use to identify lifestyle factors that may be related to the development of liver cancer in an adult population?

A) Single-blind study B) Experimental study C) Retrospectivestudy

D) Doubleblindstudy

36) Scientists who investigate lifestyle factors that influence the prevalence of obesity among different human population groups are conducting a(an) study.

A) epidemiological B) technological

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C) pathological D) in-vitro

37) Which of the following kinds of studies would be the best to use when investigating whether cigarette smoking influences weight gain?

A) Cohort B) Single-blind

38) Scientists in a Central American country are studying factors that may be associated with delayed physical growth among a group of low-income children. The children live in a region of the nation that has high levels of lead in drinking

A) epidemiological B) uncontrollable

39) Scientists would like to conduct a study to identify lifestyle factors that are associated with delayed physical growth among a group of low-income American children. Which of the following research designs would be the best for

A) Human in-vivo experimental B) Epidemiological

40) A group of scientists would like to determine lifestyle factors that are associated with the development of asthma among American children. Based on this information, the

A) conventional B) in-vivo

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C) Double-blind D) Conventional

water. This study is an example of a(an) study.

C) introspective D) conventional

the researchers to use when designing their study?

C) Double-blind D) Interventional

researchers should design a(an) study.

C) double-blind D) epidemiological

A) establish causation without observations B) prove positive correlations C) cannot determine cause-and-effect relationships

42) According to results of a researcher's epidemological study, diets that supply higher than recommended amounts of empty calories are associated with a higher than average risk of a chronic disease that affects the large intestine. This

D) involve invitro experimentation

finding is an example of a(an) correlation.

C) in-vitro D) prospective

A) direct (positive) B) inverse (negative)

43) As a population reduces its consumption of vitamin A, the number of people in that population who develop blindness increases. This situation is an example of a(an) relationship.

A) inverse (negative) B) direct (positive)

44) As a population increases its consumption of wholegrain and minimally-processed foods, the number of people in that population who have bowel movements every day

A) inverse (negative) B) direct (positive)

C) prospective D) cause and effect

increases. This situation is an example of a(an) relationship. C) prospective D) cause and effect

45) Derek takes protein supplements before and after his workouts. He told his workout partner that he

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became 200% stronger within a couple of months after he added the supplements to his diet. His report about the effects of the supplementsis an example of a(an) .

A) factoid B) anecdote

46) Zack takes 500 mg of vitamin C daily. He advises his friends to take vitamin C supplements because, he claims, the vitamin protects him from cold viruses. His claim about the

A) in-vivo report B) in-vitro assumption

47) Emily has brittle fingernails that crack and split easily. Emily's mother advises her daughter to take gelatin pills 3 times/day, because she has heard the practice strengthens fingernails. The mother's nutrition-related advice about the

A) hypothesis B) testimonial

48) William takes garlic pills to lower his bloodcholesterol level, and he recommends the pills to his friends, because he thinks the supplement is helpful. William's nutrition-related

A) introspection B) subjective bias

49)

C) variable D) case report

usefulness of the vitaminis an .

C) introspection D) anecdote

benefit of taking gelatin pillsis an example of a(an) .

C) anecdote D) placebo

advice to his friends is an example of a(an) . C) peer review D) anecdote

Having a control group enables researchers to .

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A) provide specific treatments to participants of the group B) compare findings of the control group with those of the experimental group C) avoid using harmful interventions when testing

50) Phil is a participant in a study designed to examine the effects of taking a dietary supplement on muscle tissue development. Phil suspects he is in the experimental group, because he is certain his muscles are bigger and stronger as a result of taking the product supplied by the researchers. When the study is completed, Phil learns that he did not receive the dietary supplement. Phil thinks the researchers made a mistake—he is certain his muscle mass increased while he

A) placebo B) anecdotal

51) The host of a radio program makes a "red flag" claim about a nutrition-related product, because the claim is generally an indication that the information about the product

A) "According to the FDA, this product is classified a dietary supplement, because it contains vitamins" B) "All ingredients in this product have been scientifically tested and clinically proven" C) "This product contains sugar and certain artificial

control subjects' responses D) explore possible hypotheses for future research efforts

took the supplement. According to this information, Phil's belief that his physical condition improved while he participated in the study is an example of the effect. C) subject bias D) nocebo

is unreliable. The radio program host said, . color and flavor additives" D) "The ingredients in this product are listed on the label"

52) A physician who hosts a popular TV show makes several nutrition-related claims during one of the programs. Which of the doctor's claims is a"red flag" of unreliable information? A) Kava cures Version 1

migraine headaches. B) The "noceboeffect" often occurs in controlled studies involving human subjects. C) Niacin cures pellagra.

D) Not all doctors are nutrition experts.

53) Which of the following observations is an example of an inverse correlation?

A) When members of apopulation increase their consumption of milk and milk products, their risk ofbone fractures decreases. B) As childrenincrease their physical activity level, they develop greater muscle mass thanchildren who are lessactive. C) When pregnant womengain more weight than average, they are more likely to give birth to babies whoare

heavier than average. D) When children eat three or more servings fruits and vegetables a day, their blood levels of vitamin C increase.

54) Which of the following observations is an example of a positive correlation?

A) When members of apopulation consume fewer fruits and vegetables, their risk of high bloodpressure increases. B) When a group ofchildren increases their physical activity levels, the percentage of thechildren who contract cold infections decreases. C) When women gain less weight than average during pregnancy, the birthweights of their babies tend to be

lower than average. D) When a population'sintake of green tea increases, the percentage of lung cancer cases in thatpopulation decreases.

55) Which of the following observations is an example of an inverse correlation?

A) When a population increases its daily

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consumption of foods that supply empty calories, the

population's average belt size increases. B) Children whoconsume 3 cups of vitamin D milk daily develop stronger bones than children whodrink fewer than 3 cups of vitamin D milk each day. C) Women who smoke 5or more cigarettes each day during pregnancy are more likely to give birth tounderweight babies than women who smoke fewer than 5 cigarettes a day

duringpregnancy. D) As a population's intake of foods that contain betacarotene increases, the population's tissue levels of vitamin A increase.

56) Which of the following observations is an example of a positive correlation?

A) When teenage girls increase their intake of ironrich foods, the percentage of the girls who have irondeficiency decreases. B) When a populationconsumes more fruits and vegetables, the percentage of people in thatpopulation with scurvy decreases. C) When older adultsincrease their dailyintake of vitamin D, the percentage of the adultsthat develops

infections decreases. D) When a group of 6-year-old children increase their physical activity level to 60 minutes a day, the children's muscle mass increases.

57) Which of the following observations is an example of a positive correlation?

A) When teenage girls decrease their intake of ironrich foods, the percentage of the girls who have irondeficiency increases. B) When a population consumes fewer fruits and vegetables, the percentage of people in that population with scurvy increases. C) When older adults increase their dailyintake of

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vitamin D, the percentage of the adults that develops infections decreases. D) When teenagers decrease their usual intake of sugarsweetened beverages, their body fat level declines.

A) When apopulation's vitamin D intake decreases, the percentage of people in thepopulation that have healthy immune systems decreases. B) When apopulation's intake of plant foods decreases, the percentage of obese people inthat population increases. C) When a population's intake of vitamin C decreases, the percentage of people in the population who

develop scurvy increases. D) When apopulation's level of physical activity increases, the percentage of people whodevelop heart disease decreases.

59) Scientists study 200 adults who have type 2 diabetes and 200 adults who have similar characteristics but do not have the disease. For 18 months, the researchers collect lifestyle information on all the study participants. According to the study's findings, the adults with type 2 diabetes were 25% less physically active than their counterparts who did not have type 2 diabetes. This is an example of a(an) study.

A) inverserelationship B) anecdotal

60) A researcher wants to identify lifestyle factors that increase the risk of stomach cancer in men. His study design involves enrolling 250 men who have stomach cancer and 250 men who are cancer-free but have similar characteristics and backgrounds as the men who have stomach cancer. The researcher collects and analyzes information about each

C) prospective D) case-control

participant's lifestyle. Based on this information, what kind of study is the researcher conducting?

B) Cohort A) Case-control Version 1

C) Experimental D) In-vivo

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61) Which of the following observations is an example of an inverse (negative) correlation?

A) When a group of adults increases their intake of fruits and vegetables, the percentage of people in the group who have high blood levels of vitamin C levels increases. B) When a group of people decreases their physical activity levels, the percentage of people in the group with healthy levels of body fat decreases. C) When a group of older adults increases their intake of high-fiber foods, the percentage of people in the

group who develop intestinal cancer decreases. D) When a group of children eat more sugary foods, the percentage of children in the group who develop two or more decayed teeth increases.

62) Scientists conduct a study in which 100 adults with chronic diarrhea are divided into 2 groups of 50 people. One group is given a supply of yogurt that contains a certain kind of bacteria and the other group is given yogurt that is bacteria free. The study's participants and researchers do not know which group of subjects has the bacteria in the yogurt and which group does not. The scientists instruct the participants to eat the entire 8 ounces of yogurt once a day for a month and record the their bowel habits. This is an example of a(an) study.

A) introspective B) double-blind

C) uncontrolled D) hypothetical

63) A group of researchers wants to determine whether certain dietary factors are associated with the risk of attention deficit

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hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). The scientists follow a group of 500 healthy newborn babies for 10 years and collect health information as well as dietary practices for each child. At the end of the study period, the scientists analyze the data for correlations between the children's dietary practices and their

A) retrospective B) factorial

64) Researchers are conducting a study to determine the effects of vitamin C on the human immune system. The study involves providing pills that contain vitamin C to one group of human subjects and pills that do not contain vitamin C or other active ingredients to another group of people. The pills

A) nocebos B) supplements

likelihood of being diagnosed with ADHD. This is an example of a study.

C) prospective D) hypothetical

that do not contain the vitamin are .

C) placebos D) probiotics

65) Researchers are conducting a study to determine the effects of vitamin D supplements on the adult human immune system. The study involves providing pills that contain vitamin D to one group of human adults and pills that do not contain the vitamin or other active ingredients to another group of adults. The pills that do not contain vitamin D are .

A) placebos B) antidotes

C) distractors D) interventions

66) Researchers are conducting a study to determine the effects of

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zinc supplements on the human immune system. The study involves providing pills that contain zinc to one group of human subjects and pills that do not contain zinc or other active ingredients to another group of people. The pills that do

A) probiotics B) supplements

not contain zinc are .

C) antidotes D) placebos

67) Which of the following periodicals features peerreviewed articles? D) Men's Journal A) Ladies Home Journal B) National Geographic Magazine C) Journal of the American Medical Association

68) The government agency that enforces consumer protection laws by investigating false or misleading health-

A) Federal Trade Commission (FTC) B) Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) C) Agricultural Research Service (ARS)

69) Actress Lotta Talent appears in commercials endorsing a dietary supplement containing a substance from dandelions for weight loss. Her paid endorsement is an

A) purport B) testimonial

70) The professional football star Andro "The Man" McGraw claims the dietary supplement AminoProFixate helped him build muscle mass quickly and safely. His paid

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related claims is the . D) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)

example of a(an) .

C) anecdote D) factoid

endorsement of the product is an example of .

A) unbiased reporting B) a scientifically valid claim

C) a testimonial D) peer review

71) Which of the following websites is most likely a source of biased and unreliable nutrition information?

A) purdue.edu B) dietsnomore4u.com

72) A popular fitness magazine has an article about the health benefits of high-fiber diets. If the article's author has the credentials after his or her name, the article

A) RDN B) MS

C) eatright.org D) choosemyplate.gov

islikely to be a reliable source of nutrition information. C) DNutr D) MD

73) A popular women's magazine has an article about the health benefits of consuming calcium-rich foods. If the article's author has the credentials after his or her name, the article is likely to be a reliable source of nutrition information.

A) DRN B) PhD

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C) RDN D) MD

A) The Internet is generally a reliable source of nutrition information, because information posted at websites has been peer-reviewed. B) Websites with .edu in their addresses are likely to provide reliable nutrition information. C) When evaluating claims for dietary supplements that appear at a website, be wary of products that include

75) A magazine article about weight loss diets includes false information about the process of digestion that uses scientific-sounding terms to make it seem factual. The faulty

A) mislabeling B) bias

76)

promises for quick remedies. D) In general, personal websites, such as blogs, are not reliable sources of nutrition information.

information is an example of .

C) pseudoscience D) hypothesizing

Which of the following statements is true?

A) People who describe themselves as nutritionists are registered dietitians or registered dietitian nutritionists. B) In general,registered dietitians are reliable sources of nutrition information. C) Pseudoscience isthe practice of medicine without proper training and credentials.

D) In the UnitedStates, a person can obtain a Ph.D. in nutritiononly by graduating froman accredited institution of higher learning.

77) A person claims his newly invented device treats cancer without surgery, medication, or other forms of conventional medical therapy. However, people who have used the device report that it was not helpful, and it may have

harmed them. According to this information, the inventor's claims and his device are .

A) quackery B) unbiased

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C) intuitive D) legal

78)

Which of the following statements is true?

A) The First Amendmentof the U.S. Constitution often protects people who spread nutritionmisinformation. B) Pseudoscience isthe scientific study of the causation and treatment of chronic diseases. C) In the United States, only registered dietitians and registered dietitian nutritionists can provide nutrition

information legally. D) Registered dietitian nutritionists are not required to update their knowledge of nutrition and dietetics regularly.

79) During a television interview, Dr. Ima Quack provides the following statement. "Most Americans suffer from nutritional deficiency diseases and will develop cancer within the next 10 years because they are not taking my megavitamin formula therapy." Dr. Quack's statement is an example of a(an) .

A) medical hypothesis B) scare tactic C) intuitive deduction

80) A magazine advertisement for a weight loss product includes before and after photos of a woman who supposedly lost 50 pounds in 3 weeks while taking the product. The bottom of the ad includes the statement, "Results are not

A) testimonial B) anecdote

D) personal observation

typical." This statement is an example of a(an) .

C) placebo D) disclaimer

81) A team of scientists extracts a chemical that they call "Zombia" from the leaves of a common houseplant. One of the scientists would like to market Zombia as a dietary supplement because it makes people sleepy, when it is injected into them. Based on this information, Zombia .

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A) cannot be marketed as a dietary supplement B) can be marketed as a dietary supplement because it is from a plant C) cannot be marketed as a dietary supplement because its source is widespread in nature

D) can be marketed as a dietary supplement, but onlyif it is promoted as a conventional food item

82) The is responsible for ensuring the safety and effectiveness of medications.

A) EPA B) FDA

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C) NRC D) FTC

Answer Key Test name: ch2

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1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) D 6) C 7) A 8) C 9) D 10) B 11) B 12) C 13) C 14) C 15) A 16) C 17) D 18) B 19) A 20) A 21) B Version 1

22) A 23) B 24) D 25) C 26) C 27) B 28) A 29) B 30) A 31) C 32) B 33) D 34) C 35) C 36) A 37) A 38) A 39) B 40) D 41) C 42) A Version 1

43) A 44) B 45) B 46) D 47) C 48) D 49) B 50) A 51) B 52) A 53) A 54) C 55) C 56) D 57) D 58) A 59) D 60) A 61) C 62) B 63) C Version 1

64) C 65) A 66) D 67) C 68) A 69) B 70) C 71) B 72) A 73) C 74) A 75) C 76) B 77) A 78) A 79) B 80) D 81) A 82) B

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Student name: TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) People who have diabetes prefer to use the Exchange System of menu planning instead of carbohydrate counting. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) A food manufacturer can use the USDA's organic symbol on a food label if the food contains at least 70% organic ingredients. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) According to the FDA, a food's label can include the "high fiber" nutrient content claim if the food provides 3 ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) According to the FDA, a packaged food can contain 0.4 grams of fat per serving and still display the "fat free" ⊚ ⊚

grams or more fiber per serving.

nutrient content claim on its label.

true false

5) Version 1

In general, 1

organically grown crops contain fewer pesticides than conventionally grown crops. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) The FDA does not permit manufacturers of dietary supplements to market their products as treatments for cancer or other diseases. ⊚ ⊚

true false

7) About 100 years ago, the Pima tribe of American Indians had the highest rates of obesity and type 2 diabetes in the United States. ⊚ ⊚

true false

8) Many people who have diabetes use MyPlate instead of carbohydrate counting to manage their macronutrient intakes. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 10) Which of the following statements is true?

A) Dietary analysis software programs provide exact values for the micronutrient contents of foods. B) The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention maintains the government's database of the nutrient contents of foods for labeling purposes. C) By using dietary analysis software, you can obtain

11)

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Dietary analysis software programs provide estimatesfor the micronutrient contents of foods. B) The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention maintains the government's database of the nutrient contents of foods for labeling purposes. C) By using dietary analysis software, you can obtain precise information about your total day's energy and nutrient

12)

precise information about your total day's energy and nutrient intakes. D) FoodData Centralis an Internet tool for assessing the nutrient content of foods.

intakes. D) Consumers can use the USDA's "FoodLinks" databaseto assess the nutrient content of foods.

Which of the following statements is true?

A) The energy and nutrient contents of foods used in dietary analysis software are not necessarily exact values. B) The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention maintains the government's database of the nutrient contents

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of foods for labeling purposes. C) By using dietary analysis software, you can obtain precise

information about your intake of calories and micronutrients. D) The U.S. Department of Agriculture does not provide information about the nutritional value of foods.

13) A nutrition scientist wants to develop a nutritionally complete formula diet for adults who are healthy but need to avoid solid food for awhile. Based on this information, she is

A) Dietary Guidelines B) DRIs

14)

likely to refer to when developing the new formula. C) MyPlate D) Food lists

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Registered dietitians may teach their clients who have diabetes how to use carbohydrate counting for planning healthy menus. B) People can calculate their vitamin and mineral intakes by using the Food Lists method of dietary analysis. C) The Food Lists method for menu planning and

MyPlate use the same food groups. D) "Carbohydrate counting" is the USDA's practical component of MyPlate.

15) The Food Lists system of menu planning enables people to

A) estimate theircarbohydrate intake. B) interpret nutrition information on food labels. C) predict theirrisk of serious chronic diseases such

16)

as diabetes. D) calculate theirDRIs.

Which of the following statements is true?

A) A group of scientists at the Academy of Nutrition

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and Dietetics developed the DRIs.

B) The adult AMDR forcarbohydrates is 45 to 65% of total energy intake. C) Recommended DietaryAllowances meet the nutrient needs of 50% of healthy people.

D) Nutrient requirements are the same, regardless of a person's age or sex.

17) Marc was a participant in a clinical study to determine how much niacin cures pellagra, the niacin deficiency disease. During the study, he consumed only a formula diet that was deficient in niacin. After developing pellagra, he was given 2 mg of niacin a day for 2 weeks, but he still suffered from the disease, so the scientists added 2 mg of the vitamin to Marc's formula. By the beginning of the 5th week of the study, the researchers noticed that Marc's signs and symptoms were greatly improved. At the end of the 5th week, he was feeling fine. The researchers concluded that

A) Marc's niacin requirement was about 4 mg a day. B) the RDA for niacinshould be 4 mg. C) the AI for niacinshould be 4 mg plus 60 mg as a

margin of safety. D) Marc's Daily Value for niacin was 4 mg a day.

18) Ramon was a participant in a clinical study to determine how much vitamin D is required by healthy humans. During the study, Ramon consumed only a formula diet that was nutritionally complete, except it did not Version 1

contain vitamin D. Within a few weeks, he developed signs and symptoms of vitamin D deficiency. At that point, researchers gave 5 mcg vitamin D to Ramon each day for a week, but his signs and symptoms of the deficiency remained. The next week, the scientists added 5 mcg vitamin D to his diet, so that his formula contained 10 mcg of the vitamin. By

A) daily value for vitamin D was about 100 mcg. B) AI for vitamin Dwas 50 mcg, which was 5 times the amount that cured his deficiency of thevitamin. C) AMDR for vitamin Dis between 5 and 10 mcg.

19) Kayla was a participant in a clinical study to determine how much vitamin C cures scurvy, the vitamin's deficiency disease. During the study, Kayla consumed only a formula diet that was nutritionally complete, except it did not contain vitamin C. Within a few weeks, Kayla developed scurvy. At that point, researchers gave 2 mg vitamin C to Kayla each day for a week, but her signs and symptoms of scurvy remained. In the weeks that followed, the scientists continued to increase Kayla's intake of the vitamin by 2

A) EER for vitamin Cwas about 10 mg. B) AI for vitamin Cwas 100 mg, which is 10 times that amount that cured her case of scurvy. C) requirement forvitamin C was 10 mg.

the end of that week, Ramon reported feeling much better. Based on this information, the researchers concluded that Ramon's D) requirement forvitamin D is 10 mcg.

mg/week. After a week of taking 10 mg ofvitamin C/day, Kayla reported feeling much better. Based on this information, the researchers concluded that Kayla's

D) RDA for vitamin Cis 10 mg, plus 15 mg as a margin of safety.

20) A group of 50 adult male humans were in a clinical study to determine how much niacin is toxic. During the first two weeks of the study, members of the group consumed only a formula diet that was nutritionally complete, except it contained 24 Version 1

mgniacin, which is 1.5 times the RDA for niacin (adult males). At that point in the study, all members reported feeling fine, and they could function normally. During the next week, they were given a formula that contained 48 mg niacin. Within a few days of consuming this formula, 90%of the participants reported feeling ill, and they complained of having upset stomachs and reddened facial skin. At that point, researchers gave the subjects a formula that contain 16 mg

A) EER for niacin was16 mg/day. B) UL for niacin was between 24 and 48 mg/day. C) requirement for niacin was 16 mg/day.

21) Josh was a participant in a clinical study to determine how much thiamin cures beriberi, the vitamin's deficiency disease. During the study, Josh consumed only a formula diet that was nutritionally complete, except it did not contain thiamin. Within a few weeks, Josh developed beriberi. At that point, researchers gave 0.1 mg thiamin to Josh each day for a week, but his signs and symptoms of beriberi remained. In the weeks that followed, the scientists continued to increase Josh's intake of the vitamin by 0.1 mg/week. After a week of taking 0.8 mg ofthiamin/day, Josh reported feeling much

A) RDA for thiaminwas 0.6 mg/day. B) requirement for thiamin was approximately 0.6 mg/day. C) AMDR for thiamin was between 0.1 and 0.8

niacin. After a week of consuming the new formula, all participants reported feeling well again. Based on this information, the researchers concluded that adult males'

D) AMDR for niacin was between 16 and 24 mg/day.

better and the researchers noted that Josh did not have any signs or symptoms of beriberi. Based on this information, the researchers concluded that Josh's

mg/day. D) requirement for thiamin was at least 0.8mg/day.

22) Recently, Miriah participated in a study that was designed to determine how much iron is necessary to prevent iron deficiency. Within a few weeks of consuming an iron-free diet, Miriah's red Version 1

blood cells began to show signs that they lacked iron, and she began to complain about feeling tired. At that point, the researched added some iron to Miriah's food, so her daily intake of the mineral would be 1 mg. After 1 week, the researchers checked the iron content of Miriah's blood, and although it was higher than the earlier value, she still complained about feeling tired. In the weeks that followed, the scientists continued to increase Miriah's iron intake by 1 mg/week and check her for signs and symptoms of iron

A) UL for iron was 6 mg, plus 2 mg as a margin of safety.

deficiency. After a week of taking 8 mg ofiron/day, she reported feeling like "her old self" and having plenty of energy. Based on this information, the researchers concluded that Miriah's

D) minimum Daily Value was 6 to 8mg iron/day.

B) RDA for iron was 6mg. C) body required 8 mg iron/day.

23) The amount of vitamin C that meets about 98% of the population's need for the nutrient is the for the vitamin.

A) RDA B) EAR

24) A team of scientists determines that the average healthy woman who is between 19 and 30 years of age needs 40 mg of a vitamin to prevent developing the vitamin's

A) woman will developthe vitamin's toxicity disorder when she consumes between 40 and 50 mg of thevitamin on a daily basis for about 10 weeks. B) scientists candetermine the RDA for the vitamin. C) woman can meet herAMDR for the vitamin by

C) UL D) %DV

deficiency disorder. Based on this information, the

consuming at least 40 mg/day. D) UL for the vitaminwill be based on the EER value.

25) Which of the following statements is true? Version 1

A) If you do notconsume 100% of the RDA for vitamin C each day, you have a high risk ofdeveloping the vitamin's deficiency disease. B) Dietitians use theMyPyramid Plan as the standard for assessing a population's nutrientadequacy. C) The Food andNutrition Board of the Institute of Medicine established Daily Values todetermine the nutritional

26)

The Tolerable Upper Intake Level for a nutrient is the

A) amount that meetsthe nutrient needs of 98% of the population. B) minimum amount ofthe nutrient that can be tolerated on an empty stomach when consumed as adietary supplement. C) highest averageamount that is unlikely to harm

27)

most people when consumed daily. D) precise amountproven to cure the nutrient's deficiency disorder in humans.

An Estimated Average Requirement (EAR) is the

A) amount of anutrient that meets the needs of 50% of healthy people in a particularpopulation. B) range of intakefor a particular nutrient that is not likely to cause toxicity ordeficiency. C) minimum amount ofa nutrient that is safe to consume and cures the nutrient's deficiencydisease.

28)

adequacy of Americans' diets. D) A few nutrients have Adequate Intake values instead of Recommended Dietary Allowances.

D) percentage of a nutrient standard that is used for food labeling purposes.

To establish a nutrient's RDA, nutrition scientists add of the nutrient to its EAR.

A) 50 to 100 mg B) a "margin ofsafety" amount

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C) an AI amount D) the %DV amount

29)

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Nutritionscientists have established RDAs for all essential nutrients. B) People can haveenergy needs that are higher or lower than the Estimated EnergyRequirement. C) People who consume90% of the RDA for iron regularly are likely to develop an iron deficiency.

30)

D) People who consume less than the Tolerable Upper Intake Level of a nutrienthave a high risk of developing the nutrient's toxicity disorder.

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Nutritionalstandards are often used to evaluate the nutritional adequacy of diets. B) Most Americansshould consume 150% of the RDA or AI for each nutrient. C) A nutrientrequirement is the maximum amount that results in optimal nutritionalstatus.

31) Benton usually consumes 2100 kcal/day. He wants to meet the AMDR for carbohydrate intake (45–65% of total kcal). Based on this information, his acceptable range of

A) 990–1430 B) 850–1130

D) The Recommended Dietary Allowance is the amount of a nutrient that is required by humans.

intake for carbohydrates is kcal/day.

C) 945–1365 D) 725–1030

32) Bathsheba usually consumes 1900 kcal/day. She wants to meet the AMDR for fat intake (20–35% of total kcal). Based on this information, her acceptable range of intake for fat is kcal/day.

A) 320–560 B) 160–460

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C) 380–665 D) 130–260

33) Ellisha typically consumes 2100 kcal/day. She wants to meet the AMDR for protein intake (10–35% of total kcal). Based on this information, her acceptable range of intake for

protein is kcal/day.

C) 380–665 D) 210–735

A) 320–560 B) 160–460

34) According to the Dietary Guidelines for Americans, healthy people should limit their sodium intake to mg/day. C) 2300 D) 4300

A) 300 B) 1000

35) Hillary consumed 3 servings of an orange-flavored sugar-sweetened soft drink that provided 140 kcal/serving.

This amount of the beverage juice.

A) substitutes for 3 eating fresh oranges. B) provides a nutrient-dense source of a watery fluid. C) is nutritionally equivalent to 3 cups of orange

D) should be considered a source of empty calories.

36) One day, Hillary consumed a handful of peanuts, a bowl of chocolate pudding, a sugar-sweetened soft drink, and three hard-cooked eggs. Which of these foods contains a lot of empty calories and is not a member of one of the USDA's major food groups?

A) Chocolatepudding B) Soft drink

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C) Peanuts D) Eggs

37) Jewel reads food labels of processed foods to learn about the products' nutrient contents as well as the kinds of ingredients they contain. She wants to avoid purchasing ultraprocessed foods. Which of the following ingredients is in

A) Distilled monoglycerides B) Baking soda

38) Henrique reads the food labels of processed foods to learn about the products' nutrient contents as well as the kinds of ingredients they contain. He wants to avoid purchasing ultra-processed foods. Which of the following ingredients is

A) Sodium nitrate B) Niacin

39) Today, the only food Meghan ate was a casserole that contained 24 ounces of lemon-flavored yogurt, 16 ounces of cooked turkey, and 10 ounces of cooked noodles. According

A) fruit. B) milk and milkproducts.

40) Today, Sean only ate three sandwiches made with whole-grain buns, 3 slices of cheese, and 10 ounces of roast beef. He also drank 3 cups of orange juice. According to

A) eggs. B) milk and milkproducts.

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foods that Jewel is likely to avoid?

C) Whole-wheat enriched flour D) Corn starch

in foods that he is likely to avoid?

C) Canola oil D) Folate

to MyPlate, she ate nothing from the food group that includes C) grains. D) eggs.

MyPlate, he ate nothing from the food group that includes C) pudding. D) vegetables.

C) Oils D) Protein foods

A) Dairy B) Grains

42) Food guides generally do not group dairy foods.

with

C) plain yogurt D) pudding

A) eggs B) Americancheese

43) In general, food guides do not group dairy foods.

with

C) unsaltedbutter D) pudding made with1% milk

A) American cheese B) fat-freeyogurt

44) In general, food guides do not group dairy foods.

with

C) ice cream D) frozen yogurt

A) cream cheese B) pudding made withfat-free milk

45) In general, food guides do not group dairy foods.

A) whipped cream B) pudding made withfat-free milk

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with

C) ice cream D) frozen yogurt

C) green olives D) ice cream

A) American cheese B) hard-cookedeggs

47)

Some food guides classify

as oils. C) vanilla icecream D) whole milk

A) fatty fish B) hard-cookedeggs

48)

Some food guides classify

as oils.

A) avocados B) hard-cookedeggs

49)

C) vanilla icecream D) whole milk

Some food guides classify dried beans and peas with

A) foods that are sources of empty calories. B) seeds and nuts. C) fruits and fruit drinks.

D) low-fat dairyproducts.

50) Food guides usually classify sunflower and other seeds in the group. C) protein-rich A) empty calories B) fruit andvegetable

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foods D) dairy products

C) protein-rich A) empty calories B) fruit and vegetable

foods D) dairy products

52) Which of the following statements about fruits and/or vegetables is false?

A) Fruits and vegetables are sources of phytochemicals. B) Vegetables are often good sources of fiber. C) Most fruits and vegetables are naturally low in fat.

53) Jamie wants to eat more foods that are naturally high in phytochemicals and fiber. Based on this information, which

D) Fruit juices provide more fiber than whole fruit.

of the following foods would you recommend? C) Low-fat dairy

A) Organic beef B) Fresh fruits andvegetables

54) Dorrie wants to eat a food that is a good source of fiber and phytochemicals. Based on this information, which of

A) Brown eggs B) Organic chicken

55)

foods D) Eggs

the following foods would you recommend? C) Dairy foods D) Green beans

Which of the following statements is true? C) Olives, salmon,

A) Most food guides classify eggs in the protein-rich foods group. B) According toMyPlate, foods that provide empty calories should be avoided.

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and avocados are sources of unhealthy solid fats. D) Food guidesgenerally classify butter in the food group that includes milk and eggs.

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56)

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Olives, salmon, and avocados are sources of unhealthy solid fats. B) According toMyPlate, fats and oils are not a food group. C) Most food guides classify milk in the protein-rich

57) Phil wants to eat more foods that are sources of healthy fats. Based on this information, which of the

A) Whole milk B) Ground beef

58) Andre wants to eat more foods that are sources of healthy fats. Based on this information, which of the

foods group. D) According to MyPlate, dried beans are classified as fruits.

following foods would you recommend? C) Sodiumreduced bacon D) Peanut butter

following foods would you recommend? C) Low-sodium

A) Whole milk B) Ground beef

bacon D) Walnuts

59) When following recipes, Candice wants to use a type of fat that is not a solid fat. Which of the following fats should she use?

A) Unsaltedbutter B) Shortening

C) Walnut oil D) Stick margarine

60) When following recipes, Candice wants to Version 1

avoid using foods that are sources of solid fat. Which of the following fats should she avoid?

A) Olive oil B) Coconut oil

C) Walnut oil D) Peanut oil

61) When preparing meals, Jared wants to use a "healthy" type of fat. Which of the following fats should he use?

A) Butter B) Shortening

C) Olive oil D) Stick margarine

62) While baking, Max wants to use an ingredient that contains healthy fat in a recipe. Which of the following fats should he use?

A) Shortening B) Cream

C) Unsalted butter D) Peanut oil

63) While making cookies, Anna wants to add a source of healthy fat to the recipe. Which of the following fats should she add?

A) Shortening B) Cream

64) Derek wants to eat enough salad greens in one meal to equal 2 servings of food from the vegetable group. According

A) 5 cups B) 2 cups

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C) Unsalted butter D) Peanut butter

to the USDA, how much of the greens should he eat? C) 4 cups D) 3 cups

65) According to MyPlate, Chloe should consume 2½ cups of vegetables daily. After eating 1½ cups of cooked carrots, string beans, and broccoli, she decided to fulfill the USDA's recommendation for daily servings of vegetables by drinking some vegetable juice. Based on this information, Chloe should drink of the juice. C) 1½ cups D) 2 cups

A) ½ cup B) 1 cup

66) According to MyPlate, Erika should consume 3 cups of milk daily. She prefers eating plain yogurt to drinking milk. According to the USDA, how much plain yogurt should she eat per day? C) 4cups D) 4.5 cups

A) 3 cups B) 3.5 cups

67) Donovan wants to consume 3 cups of dairy products daily. According to the USDA, which of the following foods should he eat to replace 1 cup of milk? D) 2 cups cottage A) 1.5 oz creamcheese B) 1.5 cups bakedbeans C) 4 oz American cheese

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cheese

A) ½ cup B) 1 cup

C) 2 cups D) 2½ cups

69) Three-year-old Amanda does not like to drink milk, but she loves pudding made with fat-free milk. MyPlate recommends that Amanda should consume 2 cups of dairy products daily. According to the USDA, Amanda can meet this recommendation by consuming cups of pudding daily.

A) 2 B) 2.5

C) 3 D) 3.5

70) Five-year-old Wyatt does not like milk, but he loves American cheese. MyPlate recommends that Wyatt should consume 2.5 cups of dairy products daily. According to the USDA, he can meet this recommendation by eating ounces of American cheese.

A) 2.5 B) 3

C) 3.5 D) 5

71) When using the MyPlate website's MyPlate Plan to plan your menus, it is not necessary to provide information about your A) Version 1

ethnicbackground. B) sex. C) age.

D) physical activitylevel.

72) When using the MyPlate website's MyPlate Plan to plan your menus, it is not necessary to provide information about your

A) occupation. B) sex.

C) age. D) physical activitylevel.

73) Which of the following practices fits into one of the overarching guidelines of theDietary Guidelines?

A) Use dietary supplements to boost intakes of essential nutrients B) Rely on MyPyramid to make wise food choices C) Limit added sugars intake to less than 20% of

total calories D) Limit intake of alcohol-containing beverages

74) Which of the following recommendations supportsone of the overarching guidelines of theDietary Guidelines?

A) Reduce your sodium and potassium intake to no more than 3,000 mg/day B) Limit your intake of foods that are high in saturated fat C) Choose foods to achieve optimal health, physical

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fitness, and well-being D) Consume between 2000 and 2500kcal/dayto prevent undernutrition

snacks A) Focus on variety, nutrient density, and amount of food B) Choose a variety of enriched, ultra-processed

D) Focus on eliminating sodium from your diet

foods C) Choose rich sources of saturated fat for meals and

76) Which of the following recommendations is an overarching guidelineof the Dietary Guidelines for Americans?

A) Follow a healthy dietarypattern during each life stage B) Avoid eating any form of refined grains C) Increase your sodium intake to 4000 mg/day to

lower your risk of hypertension D) Do not consume alcohol

77) According to one of the selected messages of the Dietary Guidelines for Americans, should be consumed in amounts that are as low as possiblewhile following a healthy diet.

A) cholesterol B) grilled legumes C) potassium-richfoods

D) dietarysupplements

78) According to one of the selected messages of theDietary Guidelines for Americans, should be consumed in amounts that are as low as possible while following a healthy diet. C) iron-rich foods A) trans fat B) grilled legumes

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D) artificial food additives

79) Beka is a 24-year-old woman who wants to follow the recommendations ofthe Dietary Guidelines for Americans. She typically consumes about 4300 mg sodium/day, 2500 mg potassium/day, and150mg cholesterol/day. Furthermore, her added sugar intakeis 8% of her total daily calorie intake, and saturated fat comprises about 9% of her daily calorie intake. According to this information, she should reduce her consumptionof

A) potassium-richfoods. B) cholesterol.

80)

MyPlate

A) uses the same food groupings as the Food Lists for menu planning. B) classifies olives in the oil foods group. C) can beindividualized to meet a person's food

81)

C) saturated fat. D) sodium.

preferences. D) was replaced by MyPyramid in 2014.

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Nutrition Factslabels provide information about Version 1

amounts of ingredients in product recipes. 23

B) Daily Values aredietary standards developed for food labeling purposes. C) If you do notconsume 100% of the Daily Values for nutrients, you have a high risk ofdeveloping nutritional deficiency disorders.

D) The Nutrition Facts panel indicates amounts of phytochemicals in a serving of the food.

82) Jeremy would like to know the amount of vitamin C that is recommended for his life/stage group. He can obtain this information by

A) checking the RDAtable for vitamin C. B) reading NutritionFacts panels to determine the %DV for vitamin C. C) checking a Food List for vitamin C intake

recommendations. D) reading the ingredients' list on a food label.

83) Which of the following menu items has major ingredients that represent three different MyPlate food groups?

A) Ready-to-eat cereal with strawberries and fat-free milk B) Fruit smoothie made with vanilla yogurt, orange juice, and fresh peaches C) Toasted cheese sandwich made with American cheese and two slices of whole-wheat bread

D) Tuna-noodle casserole made with canned tuna, green onions, noodles, and cheddar cheese

84) Which of the following menu items has primary ingredients that represent all MyPlate food groups?

A) Ready-to-eatcereal with strawberries, blueberries,wheat germ, and fat-freemilk B) Sandwich made withSwiss cheese, cooked ham, mayonnaise, and two slices of buttered whole-wheatbread C) Salad madehard-cooked eggs, grapes, leaf lettuce, cooked pasta, and cheddar cheese Version 1

D) Smoothie madewith vanilla yogurt, fat-free milk, orange juice, wheat germ, and freshpeaches

85) Which of the following menu items has primary ingredients that represent two different MyPlate food groups?

A) Vanilla ice creamtopped with peanuts, strawberries,and chocolate syrup B) Fruit smoothiemade with vanilla yogurt, orange juice, fat-free milk, and fresh peaches C) Cheese sandwichmade with American cheese, leaf lettuce, sliced tomato, mayonnaise, and twoslices of whole-

wheat bread D) Casserole madewith cooked ham, cheddar cheese, peas, and milk

86) Sheena prepared a casserole with canned tuna, cooked egg noodles, shredded Cheddar cheese, and mayonnaise. She would like to serve the casserole with side dishes or beverages that would make the entire meal have items from 4 different food groups. Which of the following items should she include?

A) Sliced ripe tomatoes B) Whole-wheat dinner rolls

C) Yogurt smoothie D) Fat-free milk

87) Which of the following menu items has major ingredients that represent three different MyPlate food groups?

A) Vanilla ice creamtopped with peanuts, strawberries,and chocolate syrup B) Fruit smoothiemade with vanilla yogurt, orange juice, fat-free milk, and fresh peaches C) Sandwich madewith American cheese, chicken, leaf lettuce, sliced tomato, mayonnaise, and twoslices of

whole-wheat bread D) Casserole made with cooked ham, cheddar cheese, dried apricots, green onions, and milk

88)

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Which of the

following menu items has ingredients that represent four different MyPlate food groups?

A) Smoothie madewith vanilla yogurt, orange juice, wheat germ, and fresh peaches B) Toasted cheesesandwich made with American cheese, Swiss cheese, mayonnaise, and two slices ofbuttered, whole-wheat bread C) Oatmeal cerealwith fresh strawberries,

almonds,and fat-free milk D) Stir-fry madewith shrimp, rice, green peas, broccoli, and onions

89) Which of the following menu items has major ingredients that represent three different MyPlate food groups?

A) Smoothie madewith vanilla yogurt, orange juice, peanut butter, wheat germ, and freshpeaches B) Oatmeal cerealwith fresh strawberries, almonds,and fat-free milk C) Toasted cheesesandwich made with American cheese, Swiss cheese, mayonnaise, and two slices ofbuttered,

whole-wheat bread D) Stir-fry madewith shrimp, rice, green peas, broccoli, and onions

90) Which of the following menu items has major ingredients that represent three different MyPlate food groups?

A) Stir-fry madewith chicken, broccoli, rice, green peas, and soy sauce B) Cooked oatmealwith fresh blueberries, walnuts,and fat-free milk C) Toasted cheesesandwich made with American cheese, Swiss cheese, mayonnaise, and two slices ofbuttered,

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whole-wheat bread D) Smoothie madewith vanilla yogurt, orange juice, peanut butter, toasted wheat germ, and freshpeaches

bread A) Ready-to-eatcereal with strawberries, blueberries,and fat-free milk B) Casserole madewith canned tuna, green onions, noodles, and cheddar cheese C) Toasted cheesesandwich made with American cheese, Swiss cheese, and two slices of butteredwhole-wheat

D) Smoothie madewith vanilla yogurt, fat-free milk, orange juice, wheat germ, and freshpeaches

92) Which of the following standards can help you compare nutrient contents of packaged foods to make more healthful choices?

A) RDAs B) ULs

C) AIs D) DVs

93) Jeannette wants to increase her intake of iron without taking a dietary supplement. When she shops for food, she reads Nutrition Facts labels. Which of the following kinds of information will help her choose foods that are the richest sources of iron?

A) Structure/function claims B) %DVs C) Country of origininformation

D) Organic foodlogo

94) Which of the following statements is a health claim that the FDA allows on a food package? vitamin C may reduce the A) "Healthfuldiets with adequate folate may reduce a woman's risk of having a child with abrain or spinal cord defect." B) "Drinkingwhole milk adds calcium and vitamin D to your diet. These nutrients areessential for strengthening bones." C) "Foods that contain dietary fiber, vitamin A or Version 1

risk of cancer. Although a serving of our creamed broccoli has 7 grams of fat, it is an excellent source of fiber and vitamins A and C." D) "Vitamin C reduces the risk of the common cold by 50%."

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95) Review the following claims that a manufacturer wants to include on the labels of packaged foods. Which one would the FDA allow to be used?

A) "While many factors contribute to the development of heart disease, diets low in saturated fat and trans fat may reduce the risk of this disease." B) "Drinkingwhole milk adds calcium and vitamin D to your diet. These nutrients areessential for strengthening bones." C) "Foods that contain dietary fiber, vitamin A or vitamin C may reduce the risk of cancer. Although a serving

of our creamed broccoli has 7 grams of fat, it is an excellent source of fiber and vitamins A and C." D) "Iron strengthens blood by 75%."

96) Before she shops for groceries, Terry plans several nutritionally adequate daily menus for her family. Which of the following guides is the best menu-planning tool for her to use?

A) Recommended Dietary Allowances B) Daily Values

97) The label on a bag of salt-free pretzels indicates that they chips are "low-fat." This means the pretzels provide

A) 1 B) 3

C) MyPlate D) Basic Four Food Groups

gram(s) of fat or less per serving. C) 5 D) 7

98) According to the Dietary Guidelines for Americans, adults should limit their intake of added sugars to

A) less than 10% Version 1

of daily calories. B) less than 20% of daily calories. C) no more than 300 mg/day.

99)

Which of the following statements is true?

A) A plant's genetic traits have little influence on its nutrient contents. B) Growing conditions, such as the use of fertilizers, can influence the amount of nutrients in crops. C) Regardless of a farm's production methods, the crops grown on that farm and other farms within a 10-mile

100)

D) no more than 2300 mg/day.

radius will have the same nutritional value. D) In general, the age of a plant when it is harvested does not affect its nutrient contents.

Which of the following statements is true?

A) The traditionalMediterranean diet supplies more olive oil and fish than the traditionalAmerican diet. B) The traditional Asian diet contains high amounts of milk and milk products. C) According to Mormon dietary laws, pork and pork

by-products are forbidden as food. D) Jewish dietary laws forbid the use of alcohol.

101) Theodore is an 18-year-old college student who would like to improve his health by following a Mediterranean diet pattern instead of his current "western" diet. Based on this information, he should

A) eat more poultryand eggs. B) substitute pork andlamb for fish and seafood. C) drink less milk andmore wine.

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D) substitute legumesfor cheeses.

102) Juan is a 25-year-old college student who would like to reduce his risk of heart disease by following a

A) drinking a glass of wine with dinner. B) increasing his intake of meat and seeds. C) decreasing his intake of whole grains.

103)

Mediterranean diet plan. Based on this information, he should consider D) eating less fish and more eggs.

Which of the following statements is true?

A) The traditionalMediterranean diet supplies more animal protein and fewer fruitsthan thetraditional American diet. B) The typical Asiandiet contains high amounts of vegetables and inadequate amounts of milk andmilk products. C) According toJewish dietary laws, pork and pork

by-products can be eaten if milk is consumedwith them. D) People who follow the religion of Islam must drink red wine with the main meal of the day.

104) Monique is a 19-year-old college student who would like to follow a Mediterranean diet pattern instead of her typical "western" diet. Based on this information, Monique should

A) increase her intake of fruit. B) eat fewer beans and peas. C) decrease her intake of fish and seafood.

105)

D) increase her red meat intake.

Which of the following statements is true? C) According

A) In some regions of the United States, the traditional African heritage diet may contain unhealthy amounts of sodium and solid fat. B) The typical Asiandiet usually includes plenty of milk and milk products.

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toIslamic dietary laws, chicken is a prohibited food. D) According to Jewish dietary laws, caffeinated beverages should not be consumed.

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106) You are planning a party for a group of college students. Some of the students follow the dietary practices of the Jewish, Islamic, and Mormon religions. Which of the following menu items would be acceptable to everyone at the party? C) Meatless bean A) Crackers toppedwith slices of smoked ham B) Cheeseburgers

107) You are planning a party for a group of college students. Some of the students follow the dietary practices of the Jewish religion. Which of the following foods would be

A) A cheese ball made with cream cheese, grated cheddar cheese, and walnuts B) Meatballs made with pork sausage, ground beef, eggs, bread crumbs, and chopped green peppers C) Spinach dip made with bits of shrimp, chopped

dip D) Beer

acceptable to everyone at the party?

onions, and sour cream D) Baked beans made with chopped onions and bits of bacon

108) You are planning a party for a group of 22-year-old college students. Some of the students follow the dietary practices of the Mormon religion. Which of the following

beverages would be acceptable to everyone at the party?

A) Coffee, served with sugar and cream B) Wines that are not more than 9% alcohol by volume

C) Fruit punch made with orange juice, limes,and carbonated water D) Iced tea

109) You are planning a party for a small group of college students. Some of the students follow the dietary practices of the Mormon religion. Which of the following beverages

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would be acceptable to everyone at the party?

A) Coffee with no sugar added B) Beer

110) You are planning a party for a group of 22-year-old college students. Two of the students follow the dietary practices of the Mormon religion and one of the students practices the religion of Islam. Which of the following

A) Regular coffee, served with sugar and cream B) Fruit juice blend made with grape and apple juice, orange slices, and carbonated water

C) Lemonade D) Spiced hot tea

beverages would be acceptable to everyone at the party?

C) "Lite" beer D) White wine

111) Which of the following resources is a useful dietary analysis tool?

A) Nutrition Live B) The DRI tables C) Food GuideforAmericans

112)

D) "What's in the Food You EatSearch Tool"

Which of the following statements is true?

A) A food cannot be labeled "organic" unless it meets certain government standards. B) Organic food is more nutritious than foods that contain conventionally-grown ingredients. C) A food label cannot include the organic symbol if it contains any detectable amount of nonorganic ingredients.

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D) The U.S. Department of Agriculture has not established national regulations for the production of organic foods.

A) A food that contains at least 90% organic ingredients canbe labeled "100% certified organic." B) Organic food is more nutritious than foods that contain conventionally-grown ingredients. C) A food label cannot include the organic symbol if it contains any detectable amount of nonorganic ingredients.

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D) Organic milk isfrom cows that arenot givenhormones to increase milk production or antibiotics.

Answer Key Test name: ch3

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1) FALSE 2) FALSE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) D 11) A 12) A 13) B 14) A 15) A 16) B 17) A 18) D 19) C 20) B 21) D Version 1

22) C 23) A 24) B 25) D 26) C 27) A 28) B 29) B 30) A 31) C 32) C 33) D 34) C 35) D 36) B 37) A 38) A 39) A 40) D 41) C 42) A Version 1

43) C 44) A 45) A 46) C 47) A 48) A 49) B 50) C 51) C 52) D 53) B 54) D 55) A 56) B 57) D 58) D 59) C 60) B 61) C 62) D 63) D Version 1

64) C 65) B 66) A 67) D 68) B 69) A 70) D 71) A 72) A 73) D 74) B 75) A 76) A 77) A 78) A 79) D 80) C 81) B 82) A 83) A 84) C Version 1

85) B 86) A 87) A 88) C 89) D 90) A 91) B 92) D 93) B 94) A 95) A 96) C 97) B 98) A 99) B 100) A 101) D 102) A 103) B 104) A 105) A Version 1

106) C 107) A 108) C 109) C 110) B 111) D 112) A 113) D

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Student name: TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) A mitochondrion is a type of cell found in the human body. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) A mitochondrion is a type of organelle that is in human cells. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) Human cells contain organelles, including ribosomes and mitochondria. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) DNA contains coded information that enables human cells to make micronutrients, including as iron and vitamin C. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Protons carry negative charges.

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⊚

true

⊚

false

⊚ ⊚

true false

6) Electrons are small, positively charged particles that surround the nucleus of a cell. ⊚ ⊚

true false

7) When the pH of blood is higher than normal, the blood has become more acidic. ⊚ ⊚

true false

8) When the pH of blood is lower than normal, the blood has become more alkaline. ⊚ ⊚

true false

9) The process of digestion in the human intestinal tract involves decomposition reactions.

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10)

The edges of the tongue do not have any taste buds. ⊚ ⊚

true false

11) A healthy person has vast numbers of different kinds of bacteria living in his or her stomach. ⊚ ⊚

true false

12) Prebiotics are substances in food that the human body digests to form probiotics. ⊚ ⊚

true false

13) Antibiotic use can disrupt the normal balance and diversity of microbes in human intestinal tract. ⊚ ⊚

true false

14) Ulcerative colitis is a temporary condition that develops after the large intestine is surgically removed. ⊚

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true

⊚

false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 15) Which of the following statements is true?

A) The body is comprised of organ systems. B) A cell is comprised of related tissues. C) Cells that have unrelated functions are organized into tissues.

D) An organelle is the smallest living component of the human body.

16) An is a body structure composed of tissues that have related functions. C) electrolyte D) organelle

A) organ B) anion

17) The an organism.

is the smallest living functional unit in

A) cell B) atom

18)

C) mitochondrion D) organelle

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Matter is comprisedof atoms. B) Protons are negatively charged particles that are in a cell's nucleus. C) Electrons are positively charged particles.

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D) Acids are substances that gain hydrogen ions, when they are dissolved in water.

19)

Iron, calcium, and carbon are

. C) solvents D) bases

A) compounds B) elements

20)

Phosphorus, potassium, and sodium are

A) compounds B) elements

21)

C) electrons D) organelles

is a mineral nutrient.

A) Carbon B) Nitrogen

22)

C) Hydrogen D) Iron

is a mineral nutrient.

A) Oxygen B) Nitrogen

C) Hydrogen D) Calcium

23) An is a compound that speeds up (catalyzes) a chemical reaction.

A) organelle B) anion

24) A scientist discovers a new chemical in the leaves of a rare tropical plant. When trying to determine the role of the chemical, the scientist determined that it is not a structural part of the plant's cells or a pigment that contributes to the

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C) enzyme D) acid

color of the plant's leaves. She was able to learn that the chemical sped up a particular chemical

reaction involving the plant's metabolism. Based on this information, the new chemical is a (an) .

A) solution B) enzyme

C) sphincter D) ileum

25) A (An) is an atom or a group of atoms that has a positive or negative charge.

A) enzyme B) diatom

C) solvent D) ion

26) The atoms of a compound, such as sugar, are held together by .

A) basic solutes B) chemical bonds

C) active enzymes D) osmotic attractions

27) A molecule forms when two or more atoms are attracted to each other and held together by .

A) solvents B) salts

28) In chemistry class, Karl combines hydrochloric acid with a base called sodium hydroxide. This chemical reaction

A) proton B) buffer

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C) bonds D) bases

results in the formation of a . C) salt D) tissue

29) Which of the following organs helps maintain the body's acid-base balance by removing excess hydrogen ions? C) Heart D) Spleen

A) Kidneys B) Brain

30) Which of the following substances has a pH that is higher than the pH of pure water? C) Lemon juice D) Blood

A) Tomato juice B) Gastric juice

31) A liquid has a pH that is higher than the pH of pure water but lower than the pH of household ammonia. Based on this information, the liquid is a .

A) fluid ounce of black coffee B) baking soda solution C) cup of lemon juice

32) A foodhas a pH that is higher than the pH of pure water but lower than the pH of an oven cleaning solution.

D) tablespoon of fat-free milk

Based on this information, the food is a . D) cup of black

A) raw egg white B) teaspoon of lemon juice C) 5-ounce serving of red wine

33) A substance has a pH that is lower than the pH of household bleach but higher than the pH of egg whites. Based

coffee

on this information, the substance is . B) gastric juice

A) milk of magnesia

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C) lemon juice D) pure water

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34) A substance has a pH that is higher than the pH of tomatoes and lower than the pH of blood. Based on this

A) egg white B) black coffee

35) To make hot tea, Sonya adds boiling water to a cup that has a teabag in it. She waits about 5 minutes for the tea to steep, then removes the teabag. Before drinking the tea, she adds a teaspoon of sugar to the hot beverage. When added to

information, the substance is . C) lemon juice D) milk of magnesia

the tea, the sugar is a .

C) buffer D) solvent

A) diffusion B) solute

36) Devon adds a little salt to a pot of water before he boils the water to cook pasta. When added to the water, the salt is a . C) buffer D) solvent

A) diffuser B) solute

37)

is an ion that can conduct electricity.

A) enzyme B) amp

38)

C) electrolyte D) atom

Which of the following statements is true?

A) After an enzyme catalyzes a chemical reaction, it can no longer function. Version 1

B) Most enzymes havenames that end with ase. 9

C) Enzymes canfunction under a wide range of environmental conditions, such as pH andtemperature.

D) Enzymes can function as electrolytes.

39) A scientist wants to break down a carbohydrate called "maltose" into its component parts. To accomplish this task, she should .

A) add maltase to a solution that contains maltose B) heat maltose until it decomposes C) mix maltose with 10 ml of water to form a

solution D) combine maltose with copper and zinc ions

40) is the sum of all chemical reactions that occur in living cells.

A) Anatomy B) Chyme

C) Metabolism D) Homeostasis

41) Which of the following physiological changes is a result of anabolic chemical reactions?

A) Breakdown of largefood molecules within the lumen of the small intestine B) Enlargement ofmuscle tissue after 3 weeks of regular exercise C) Loss of body fatduring a week of starvation

D) The liver's conversion of a large carbohydrate molecule into its component parts

42) Which of the following physiological changes is a result of anabolic chemical reactions?

A) Breakdown of large food molecules within the lumen of the small intestine

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B) Addition of calcium and phosphorus to the thigh bone of a

growing child C) Loss of body fatduring a week of starvation D) The liver's conversion of a large carbohydrate

molecule into its component parts

43) Which of the following physiological changes is a result of catabolic chemical reactions?

A) Weight loss as a result of starvation B) Muscle mass enlargement as a result of lifting weights C) Weight gain as a result of overeating

D) Bone growth as a result of hormonal stimulation during puberty

44) Which of the following physiological changes is a result of catabolic chemical reactions?

A) Bone growth that occurs during adolescence B) Muscle mass enlargement that occurs after lifting weights C) Weight gain that occurs after 3 weeks of

45) Certain organs and tissues use messages to target cells.

to send

A) enzymes B) hormones

46) the

overeating D) Muscle loss that normally occurs in older adults

C) bonds D) lacteals

Blood and blood vessels are primary components of system.

A) nervous B) integumentary

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C) urinary D) circulatory

47)

The primary function of the cardiovascular system is

A) production of red blood cells B) circulation of blood throughout the body C) destruction of toxic metabolic by-products

48)

. D) regulation of body activities

A primary function of the digestive system is the .

A) production of red blood cells B) transmission of nervous impulses C) destruction of toxic metabolic by-products

D) breakdown of food into nutrients

49) The back (rear) portion of your tongue is very sensitive to foods that taste .

A) cold B) sweet

50)

C) bitter D) meaty

The brain and spinal cord are structures of the system.

A) integumentary B) cardiovascular

C) nervous D) endocrine

51) The bladder and kidneys are organs of the system.

A) urinary B) cardiovascular

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C) endocrine D) integumentary

52) Bernetta has an autoimmune disease that affects salivary glands. As a result of this condition, Bernetta . D) develops numerous stomach ulcers

A) has trouble swallowing B) digests food too rapidly C) cannot tolerate eating cold foods

53) Libby was born without salivary glands. As a result of this condition, she . D) develops numerous stomach ulcers

A) has trouble tasting food B) digests food too rapidly C) cannot tolerate eating cold foods

54)

The process of digesting food begins in the

A) colon B) liver

C) mouth D) esophagus

55) Rose has an autoimmune disease that destroyed her salivary glands. As a result of this condition, Rose probably .

A) has difficulty eliminating feces during bowel movements B) digests foods too quickly C) uses a lot of spices and sauces to season her foods

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D) must eat refined functional foods

C) Pancreas D) Gallbladder

A) Liver B) Brain

57) Which of the following organs is not an accessory organ of the digestive system? C) Pancreas D) Tongue

A) Liver B) Spleen

58) The system.

is an accessory organ of the digestive

A) colon B) jejunum

C) liver D) epiglottis

59) Salivary glands secrete amylase, an enzyme that enables a minor amount of to be digested in the mouth.

A) alcohol B) starch

C) water D) protein

60) Avi's salivary glands do not secrete amylase. As a result of his condition, his mouth cannot .

A) absorb alcohol B) begin starch digestion C) lubricate dry foods

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D) begin fat digestion

61)

The lining of the small intestine is covered with , tiny, finger-like structures that absorb nutrients from food. C) neurons D) lacteals

A) villi B) arteries

62) Small amounts of food move through the esophagus by involuntary muscular movements called . C) lipolysis D) peristalsis

A) segmentation B) gluconeogenesis

63)

Chyme is the

A) material absorbed by lacteals that the liver must detoxify and excrete B) large particle that transports lipids throughout the bloodstream C) semisolid liquid formed by the partial digestion of

food in the stomach D) organelle that maintains fluid balance within intestinal cells

64) After being absorbed, water-soluble nutrients such as glucose, fructose, iron, and vitamin C .

A) enter a capillary within the villus and are transported to the liver by the bloodstream B) diffuse through the membrane of the intestinal cell and enter lymph C) pass into the lacteal of the villus and are

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transported to the pancreas D) combine to form chylomicrons that can be stored in the liver

65)

After being absorbed, most lipids become

incorporated into

A) special cells lining the hepatic portal vein B) lacteals within the villi C) the lower esophageal sphincter D) chyme

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66)

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Probiotics are beneficial bacteria that live in the human large intestine. B) Prebiotics are immature probiotics. C) Diets that contain a lot of probiotics have been

clinically proven to cure colon cancer. D) Prebiotics are harmful to gut microbiota.

67) Which of the following foods is considered to be a probiotic?

A) Yogurt with live and active cultures of Lactobacillus B) Fresh lean meat C) Breads and cereals made from refined enriched

wheat flour D) Eggs laid by hens that consume organic feed

68) Which of the following foods is a rich source of prebiotics?

A) Soybeans B) Eggs

C) Yogurt D) Butter

69) Which of the following foods is a rich source of prebiotics?

A) Berries B) Eggs

C) Yogurt D) Butter

70) Which of the following nutrients is made by gut microbiota? A) Biotin

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B) Iron C) Zinc

D) Cholesterol

71) Which of the following nutrients is made by gut microbiota? C) Potassium D) Bile

A) Biotin B) Sodium

72) After being absorbed, most lipids become incorporated into . C) chylomicrons D) the hepatic portal vein

A) the lumen B) lacteals

73) Leonard has a disease that causes his lacteals to become blocked. Based on this information, his

A) ability to digest proteins is reduced B) intestinal tract does not absorb much fat C) lumen does not allow chyme to enter the small

74) Last night, Sara ate French fries, fried fish, and creamy cole slaw. For dessert, she had a chocolate milk shake. About an hour after eating this food, she suddenly complained of severe abdominal pain. Based on this

A) colitis B) aneurysms

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intestine D) hepatic portal vein can rupture

information, Sara probably has .

C) constipation D) gallstones

A) Bile B) Hydrochloricacid

C) Mucus D) Gastric juice

76) Marcus has an infection that causes a temporary loss of villi. Based on this information, you would expect Marcus to while he has this illness.

A) absorb vitaminsmore rapidly B) digest proteinsmore efficiently C) lose weightrapidly

D) develop gallstones.

77) Which of the following substances is (are) secreted by the human stomach?

A) Gastric juice B) Chyme

C) Bile salts D) Saliva

78) Which of the following substances is secreted by the human stomach?

A) Salivaryamylase B) Hydrochloric acid

79)

C) Bile D) Chyme

Which of the following statements is true?

A) The pyloricsphincter controls the rate at which chyme enters the small intestine. B) The esophagus isthe muscular valve that connects the stomach to the small intestine. C) The colon is themajor site of nutrient absorption

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in the human digestive system. D) Lean people have ahigher risk of gallstones than fat people.

80)

Which of the following statements is true?

A) The gallbladdermakes bile and stores the compound in the liver. B) Older adultsgenerally have fewer taste buds than children. C) Foods that tastebitter are generally good energy

81)

sources because of their high carbohydratecontents. D) Segmentation enables chyme to move through the esophagus.

Which of the following statements is false?

A) The sense of smellcontributes to the sense of taste.

D) Peristalsis occurs when villi absorb fat.

B) Mucus protects thelining of the stomach. C) Some absorption ofalcohol occurs in the stomach.

82) Which of the following organs produces and secretes enzymes that are essential for proper digestion?

A) Liver B) Pituitary

C) Pancreas D) Gallbladder

83) The of a food describes the extent to which the body is able to absorb the nutrients from the food and use them.

A) digestibility B) bioavailability

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C) essentiality D) homeostasis

C) Pharynx D) Epiglottis

A) Tongue B) Voice box

85)

Chyme moves from the stomach into the

. C) duodenum D) jejunum

A) ileum B) colon

86) The intestine.

is the second segment of the small

C) jejunum D) duodenum

A) ileum B) colon

87) The intestine.

is the third segment of the small

C) jejunum D) duodenum

A) colon B) ileum

88)

Feces form in the

A) lower stomach B) lower esophageal sphincter

C) large intestine D) pyloric valve

89) Which of the following conditions is an autoimmune disorder characterized by inflammation and swelling of the intestines? A) Cystic fibrosis

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D) Peptic ulcer B) Crohn's disease C) Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)

90) People who have Crohn's disease or ulcerative colitis have increased risk of cancer.

A) colorectal B) esophageal

C) liver D) pancreatic

91) For several years, Corey has suffered from intermittent abdominal pain along with bouts of diarrhea and constipation. According to Corey, his "bad guts" worsen whenever he is "stressed out" or eats certain foods, especially raw fruit and baked beans. His doctor has determined that his intestinal tract is not inflamed. Based on this information, Corey probably has .

A) Crohn's disease B) ulcerative colitis C) gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)

D) irritable bowel syndrome

92) Amanda is a three-year-old who has a condition that is characterized by the inability of her pancreas to produce cholecystokinin. Based on this information, she . C) is taller than A) has difficulty digesting food B) is heavier than average for her height Version 1

most children who are her age D) absorbs higher than normal amounts of micronutrients

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93) Which of the following microbes is associated with the development of most stomach ulcers?

A) E. coli B) S. aureus

C) H. pylori D) C.botulinum

94) Tyler smokes cigarettes, drinks excess alcohol, and takesaspirins regularly to treat his headaches. Based on this information, Tyler has a high risk of developing .

A) cystic fibrosis B) peptic ulcers C) irritable bowel syndrome

95) Jillian drinks a couple of beers and smokes over a pack of cigarettes daily. Even though she's about 40 pounds overweight, she likes to wear tight-fitting clothes. Based on

A) gastroesophageal reflux disease B) cystic fibrosis C) rheumatoid arthritis

D) chronic constipation

this information, Jillian has a high risk of developing . D) irritable bowel syndrome

96) Coretta has severe chronic gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). To reduce her likelihood of developing heartburn, her physician recommended that she .

A) have a glass of wine with dinner B) eat peppermint candy after meals C) drink chocolate milk shakes with meals

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D) lose excess body fat

97) Antonio has severe chronic gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). To reduce his likelihood of developing heartburn, his physician recommended that he .

A) have a bottle of beer with his dinner B) increase his intake of solid fats C) avoid overeating during meals

D) take a multivitamin/multimineral pill before meals

98) Jared often eats a large dinner about an hour before he lies down to sleep. Based on this information, he is likely to develop .

A) Crohn's disease B) gastroesophageal reflux disease

C) chronic constipation D) colon cancer

99) Paisley usually has four bowel movements each week. Based on this information, Paisley should .

A) not worry, because she is not constipated B) take a gentle laxative so she has at least one bowel movement daily C) increase her intake of high-fiber foods and fiber

wafers to relieve her chronic constipation D) consult her physician to determine why she is constipated

100) Treatment of irritable bowel syndrome usually includes making dietary changes and .

A) learning ways to manage stress effectively B) moving to a drier climate C) having the lower third of the colon removed

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D) reducing physical activity

D) taking antacids A) following a low-FODMAP diet B) consuming more high-fructose corn syrup C) having the lower third of the colon removed

102) Treatment of irritable bowel syndrome often includes making dietary changes and . D) reducing physical activity

A) lying down after meals B) taking antidepressant medication C) having the lower third of the colon removed

103)

Bella is an omnivore, because she can

A) digest and absorb nutrients from a wide variety of foods B) synthesize protease, urease, and DNA polymerase

C) absorb 100% of the nutrients she eats. D) only eat plant foods

104) Dorothy is an 85-year-old woman who is having difficulty swallowing. Food seems to enter her stomach too slowly. Based on this information, Dorothy probably has a (an) .

A) excessive amount of secretory activity within her digestive tract B) overgrowth of probiotics in her stomach C) blockage caused by undigested fiber deposits in

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her jejunum D) condition characterized by loss of peristaltic functioning

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Answer Key Test name: ch4

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1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) FALSE 6) FALSE 7) FALSE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) FALSE 11) FALSE 12) FALSE 13) TRUE 14) FALSE 15) A 16) A 17) A 18) A 19) B 20) B 21) D Version 1

22) D 23) C 24) B 25) D 26) B 27) C 28) C 29) A 30) D 31) B 32) A 33) A 34) B 35) B 36) B 37) C 38) B 39) A 40) C 41) B 42) B Version 1

43) A 44) D 45) B 46) D 47) B 48) D 49) C 50) C 51) A 52) A 53) A 54) C 55) C 56) B 57) B 58) C 59) B 60) B 61) A 62) D 63) C Version 1

64) A 65) B 66) A 67) A 68) A 69) A 70) A 71) A 72) C 73) B 74) D 75) A 76) C 77) A 78) B 79) A 80) B 81) D 82) C 83) B 84) D Version 1

85) C 86) C 87) B 88) C 89) B 90) A 91) D 92) A 93) C 94) B 95) A 96) D 97) C 98) B 99) A 100) A 101) A 102) B 103) A 104) D

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Student name: TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) A person who experiences hypoglycemia should avoid eating foods that contain carbohydrates for at least 3 hours. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) Ryan's fasting blood glucose level is consistently between 126 and 140 mg/dl. Based on this information, Ryan has pre-diabetes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) The Nutrition Facts panel does not need to indicate amounts of "Added Sugars" in a serving of food. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) The Nutrition Facts panel on a food package includes information about the amount of carbohydrates, including ⊚ ⊚

added sugars in a serving of the food.

true false

The liver stores carbohydrate in the form of glycogen.

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⊚

true

⊚

false

"Fruit sugar" is the common name for galactose. ⊚ ⊚

true false

7) Lactose intolerance is caused by eating foods that contain high amounts of sucrose and maltose. ⊚ ⊚

true false

8) People who have lactose intolerance should avoid foods that contain gluten. ⊚ ⊚

true false

9) Kevin has lactose intolerance, which means he is allergic to lactose. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

11)

Maltose is the disaccharide that is in milk. ⊚ ⊚

12)

true false

The body stores glucose in the form of glycogen. ⊚ ⊚

true false

13) A gram of sugar supplies more than twice the energy that is supplied by a gram of starch. ⊚ ⊚

true false

14) Humans do not make intestinal enzymes that digest the dietary fiber cellulose. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

15)

According to the Dietary Guidelines for Americans, ⊚ ⊚

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fiber is a nutrient of public

true false

16) In the United States, high-fructose corn syrup is the most popular high-intensity sweetener used by consumers. ⊚ ⊚

true false

17) Children who eat a lot of added sugars have a higher risk of developing attention deficit hyperactivity disorder than children who eat very small amounts of added sugars. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 18) According to Shawn's physician, Shawn has a high risk of because his waist circumference is 42 inches, his blood pressure consistently measures 140 mm

A) metabolicsyndrome B) cysticfibrosis

Hg/90 mm Hg, and his fasting blood glucose level is 110 mg/dl.

C) diverticulitis D) constipation

19) Which of the following physical characteristics or health conditions is a sign of metabolic syndrome?

A) Waist circumference of 43 inches B) Body temperature that is over 101°F

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C) Frequent urination D) Unexpected

weight loss

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20) Which of the following physical characteristics or health conditions is a sign of metabolic syndrome?

A) Waist circumference that is 32 inches B) Body temperature that is over 101°F C) Fasting blood glucose levels that are consistently between 75 and 99 mg/dl

D) Fasting blood triglyceride levels that are consistently more than 150 mg/dl

21) Which of the following physical characteristics or health conditions is a sign of metabolic syndrome?

A) Waist circumference that measures 33 inches B) Body temperature that is over 101°F C) Stomach ulcers that bleed

22) After Cameron consumes foods and beverages that contain fructose, he develops abdominal bloating, cramps, and gas that is followed by diarrhea. A diet is likely to

A) low-FODMAP B) high-fiber

D) Blood pressure that is consistently higher than normal

help him avoid these intestinal signs and symptoms. C) low-sodium D) high-GI/highGL

23) Betty is constipated; she generally has bowel movements only twice a week. To help relieve her constipation without taking medications, Betty should .

A) reduce her intake of fruits and vegetables B) increase her intake of fiber-rich foods

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C) use colon cleansing enemas daily D) restrict her

fluid intake

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24) Bill has type 1 diabetes. What step can he take to reduce the likelihood that he develops hypoglycemia?

A) Eat meals and snacks that contain carbohydrate on a regular basis B) Give himself insulin injections whenever he feels hungry C) Take a daily dietary supplement that provides a

variety of B vitamins D) Eat one large meal per day, in the morning, if possible

25) This morning, Margie's fasting blood glucose level indicated that she has hyperglycemia and pre-diabetes. Based on this information, her fasting blood glucose level was mg/dl.

A) 120 B) 158

C) 95 D) 67

26) Melania's fasting blood glucose level consistently is between 102 and 113 mg/dl. Based on this information, she has .

A) a healthy blood glucose level B) a defect of her pancreatic beta cells

C) pre-diabetes D) chronic hypoglycemic syndrome

27) Devon's fasting blood glucose level consistently is between 78 and 95 mg/dl. Based on this information, he has .

A) a healthy blood glucose level

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B) defective pancreatic beta cells

C) type 2 diabetes D) chronic hypoglycemic syndrome

28) Lena's 4-year-old son is not well. He lacks much interest in playing, he has lost weight, his breath has a strange odor, and he seems to be thirsty all the time. Based on this

A) decrease her son's intake of dietary fiber B) have her son tested for type 1 diabetes C) have her son treated for cystic fibrosis

29) Until recently, Victoria was a healthy, energetic 3year-old. A couple of weeks ago, her parents noticed that she does not want to play, and she seems to be tired all of the time. Additionally, Victoria has been unusually thirsty and "wets the bed" at night. Based on this information, Victoria's

A) type 1 diabetes B) lactose intolerance C) metabolic syndrome

information, Lena should .

D) limit her son's intake of fluids

parents should have their daughter evaluated for .

D) sucrase deficiency

30) Katie is pregnant. She has type 1 diabetes and often has difficulty controlling her blood glucose level. Based on this information, Katie is likely to .

A) give birth to a baby that has birth defects B) have a lower risk of gestational hypertension C) require more vitamin D, calcium, and iron than a pregnant woman who does not have diabetes

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D) require more glucagon than she needed before becoming pregnant

31) Joshua has type 2 diabetes, and he does not control his blood glucose levels. As a result of his lack of control, which of the following conditions is he most likely to develop?

A) Blindness B) Cystic fibrosis C) Irritable bowel syndrome

D) Lactose intolerance

32) Betty has type 2 diabetes, and she has difficulty keeping her fasting blood glucose level under 180 mg/dl. Based on this information, Betty has a high risk of .

A) kidney failure B) cystic fibrosis C) irritable bowel syndrome

D) lactose intolerance

33) If your diet supplies more sugar and starch than you need, the excess can be . C) eliminated in A) converted to proteins that are metabolized for energy B) metabolized to form urea and excreted by the kidneys

feces D) converted into fat and stored

34) When cells have more glucose than they need energy, they mayconvert some of the excess into .

A) fat B) ketone bodies Version 1

C) certain B vitamins

D) fiber

Version 1

35) When muscle cells have more glucose than they need for energy, they maystore some of the excess as .

A) glycogen B) ketone bodies

36) true?

Which of the following statements about food labels is

A) The Nutrition Facts panel provides information about total carbohydrates in a serving of food. B) The list ofingredients on food packages does not have to include added sugars. C) Information about the fiber contents of a food are

37)

not provided in the Nutrition Facts panel. D) The Nutrition Facts panel includes information about a food's glycogen content.

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Consuming more carbohydrates than you need can result in an increase in your body fat. B) Foods that are high in simple carbohydrates are fattening because they usually contain a lot of protein. C) People can gain body fat when they consume more micronutrients in relation to their macronutrient intakes.

38)

C) certain B vitamins D) fiber

D) High-fiber diets are associated with greater weight gain in adults because fiber-rich foods are less filling than foods that contain sugars.

Which of the following statements is true?

A) When cells have plenty of glucose to metabolize

Version 1

for energy, they store dietary fat instead of use it

for energy. B) Foods that are high in simple sugars are fattening because they usually contain a lot of protein. C) People can gain body fat when they consume more micronutrients in relation to their macronutrient intakes. D) High-fiber diets are associated with greater

39)

Which of the following statements is true?

A) When cells have too little glucose to metabolize for energy, they store dietary fat instead of using it for energy. B) Foods that are high in simple sugars are fattening because they usually contain a lot of protein. C) People can gain body fat when they consume more micronutrients in relation to their macronutrient intakes.

40) true?

weight gain in adults, because fiber-rich foods are less filling than foods that contain sugars.

D) High-fiber diets are associated with weight loss in adults because fiber-rich foods are more filling than foods that contain sugars.

Which of the following statements about food labels is

A) Information about the grams of total carbohydrate in a serving of food is displayed on a food label. B) The list ofingredients on food packages does not have to include added sugars. C) Information about the fiber contents of a food are

not provided in the Nutrition Facts panel. D) The Nutrition Facts panel includes information about a food's glycogen content.

41) Abe wants to use canned or frozen peaches to make a dessert. While shopping for the fruit, how can he determine which kind has the least sugar per serving?

A) By reading the ingredients' lists on the labels B) By checking the labels for health claims

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C) By subtracting amounts of fiber in the two kinds of fruit from their

total carbohydrate contents D) By comparing sugar content information that is

42)

listed in the Nutrition Facts panels

To reduce her intake of added sugars, Isabelle should .

A) replace regular soft drinks with plain water B) consume more refined sources of carbohydrates C) increase her intake of beverages sweetened with

high-fructose corn syrup D) consume energy drinks instead of coffee

43) Franklin wants to limit his added sugar intake. He should .

A) replace energy drinks with unsweetened tea B) consume more refined sources of carbohydrates C) increase his intake of beverages sweetened with

high-fructose corn syrup D) decrease his intake of polysaccharides

44) Max wants to limit the added sugar intake of his 5year-old son. He should .

A) give the child low-fat milk with meals and snacks instead of regular soft drinks B) serve more foods that are sources of refined carbohydrates C) replace his son's favorite fruit juices with fruit

Version 1

ades or drinks D) encourage the child to consume more energy drinks

A) Sugar-sweetened soft drinks B) Ready-to-eat cereals

C) Fruit D) Flavored Greek yogurt

46) Which of the following foods or beverages is not a major source of added sugars in American diets?

A) Candy B) Fresh fruit

C) Energy drinks D) Cookies

47) Which of the following foods or beverages is a major source of added sugars in American diets?

A) Energy drinks B) Whole-grain breads

C) Fruit D) Processed luncheon meats

48) Duncan's diet contains high amounts of protein and fat, but it is very low in carbohydrate. As a result of following this diet, Duncan's body forms more than normal.

A) ketone bodies B) glycogenstores

C) muscle fibers D) vitamin C

49) Adrian's diet supplies only about 10% of his daily energy needs from carbohydrates. Therefore, most of his energy intake is provided by protein and fat. As a result of following this diet, Adrian's cells form more than normal.

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C) connective A) ketone bodies B) glycogen

tissue D) antioxidants

50) Bethany consumes a very-low-carbohydrate diet that supplies less than 100 g of carbohydrate daily, but she eats high amounts of meat and fat. As a result of her diet, Bethany's cells form more than normal. C) muscle cells D) vitamins

A) ketone bodies B) glycogen

51)

is the primary fuel for active muscles. C) Lactose D) Sucrose

A) Glucose B) Fructose

52) Which of the following substances is the primary fuel for muscles and other cells? C) Lactose D) Fiber

A) Glucose B) Fructose

53) Nervous system cells rely on primary energy.

A) glucose B) fructose Version 1

for

C) lactose D) fiber

54) Which of the following substances is a complex carbohydrate?

A) Starch B) High-fructose corn syrup

C) Glucose D) Carbon dioxide

55) Which of the following substances is a complex carbohydrate?

A) Soluble fiber B) High-fructose corn syrup

C) Glucose D) Lactose

56) Which of the following substances is a simple carbohydrate?

A) Starch B) Lignin

57)

C) Glucose D) Glycogen

Which of the following substances is a simple sugar?

A) Starch B) Lignin

C) Fructose D) Glycogen

58) The three most important dietary monosaccharides for humans are .

A) glucose, Version 1

galactose, and mannose B) fructose, lactose, and hexose monophosphate C) galactose, glucose, and fructose

D) maltose, ribose, and galactose

59) Which of the following substances is an important dietary monosaccharide for humans? C) Xylose D) Lactose

A) Mannose B) Fructose

60)

The common name for glucose is

sugar.

A) milk B) simple

61)

C) fruit D) blood

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Most animal foodsare good sources of carbohydrate. B) Honey is naturallya rich source of fructose. C) High-glucose cornsyrup is commonly used to sweeten foods, such as regular soft drinks.

D) Sucrose consistsof one molecule of glucose and one molecule of galactose.

62) Clayton is a 19-year-old college student. He avoids milk, because he claims drinking the beverage upsets his stomach and gives him intestinal "gas." However, he can eat yogurt and certain types of cheese without experiencing any symptoms. Based on this information, Clayton probably has .

A) cystic fibrosis B) lactose intolerance C) botulism poisoning

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D) amylase deficiency

63) Caden develops intestinal cramps and gas after he drinks more than a half cup of milk. He can eat yogurt and cheese without any discomfort. Based on this information, Caden probably has .

A) lactose intolerance B) milk allergy

C) diverticulosis D) inflamed hemorrhoids

64) Five-year-old Tailia develops abdominal cramps and diarrhea a few hours after she eats sugary foods. Based on this information, Tailia probably has .

A) diabetes B) sucrase deficiency

65)

C) hypoglycemia D) lactose intolerance

is a source of sucrose.

A) Sugar cane B) Beef liver

C) Fat-free milk D) Egg white

66) Ian sweetens his hot oatmeal with a teaspoon of brown sugar. The chemical name for this type of sugar is .

A) lactose B) sucrose

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C) galactose D) maltose

D) Luncheon A) White bread B) Regular softdrink C) Fresh strawberries

68)

meats

Which of the following foods is a rich source of fiber?

A) Roast turkey B) Beef steak

C) Brown rice D) Grilled salmon

69) Hillary would like to add more soluble fiber to her diet. Which of the following foods should she add?

A) Citrus fruits B) Red meats

C) Margarine D) White bread

70) Justin's blood cholesterol level is too high. He'd like to add foods to his diet that can help reduce his blood cholesterol level. Based on this information, which of the following foods should he add?

A) Liver B) Butter

C) Beans D) Steak

71) Which of the following foods provides the most carbohydrate per 4-ounceserving?

A) Ham slice B) Fat-free milk

C) Baked chicken D) Canned tuna

72) Mike likes to drink a commercially prepared Version 1

milk-based beverage. According to the label, the flavored milk contains 2% milk, water, high-fructose corn syrup, molasses, vegetable oil, saccharin, and natural vanilla

A) 2% milk, saccharin, and vanilla B) high-fructose corn syrup, water, and vanilla C) molasses, 2% milk, and high-fructose corn syrup

flavoring. The in this beverage are its sources of carbohydrate. D) high-fructose corn syrup and saccharin

73) Camden likes to drink a beverage that is made with maple syrup, fruit juice concentrate, aspartame, and molasses. Which of these ingredients does not contain a form of sugar?

A) Maple syrup B) Aspartame

C) Molasses D) Fruit juice concentrate

74) Macey would like to sweeten her tea with a nonnutritive sweetener that provides no calories per teaspoon. Which of the following sweeteners would she use?

A) Table sugar B) Levulose

75) Alicia has PKU. She would like to sweeten her coffee with a substance that provides 0 kcal/g. Based on this information, which of the following sweeteners supplies 0

A) Sucralose B) Aspartame

C) Mannitol D) Sucralose

kcal/g and is safe for her to use?

C) Molasses D) Xylitol

76) Leah's parents are afraid the 5-year-old will

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develop tooth decay if she chews gum that is sweetened with sugar. Based on this information, Leah's parents should buy

Lactose is the disaccharide in

C) sucrose D) honey

A) high-fructose corn syrup B) xylitol

77)

chewing gum that is sweetened with

A) liver B) milk

C) sugar D) grapes

78) Which of the following carbohydrates is in plain, fatfree milk?

A) Sucrose B) Lactose

C) Glycogen D) Starch

79) A food scientist is developing a infant formula that simulates the composition of breast milk. Based on this information, which of the following substances would he add to the formula's recipe?

A) Lactose B) Sucrose

C) Mannose D) Xylitol

80) A scientist is developing a new food that would help people recover quickly from hypoglycemia. Which of the following sweeteners should he add to the new product?

A) Glucose B) Lactose

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C) Glycogen D) Acesulfame-K

81)

is the disaccharide comprised of two

glucose molecules. C) Maltose D) Hexose

A) Sucrose B) Galactose

82) is the disaccharide comprised of one glucose and one galactose molecule. C) Maltose D) Lactose

A) Sucrose B) Hexose

83)

Glycogen is

A) the form of carbohydrate that is stored in liver and muscle tissue B) a polysaccharide made by plants

C) a simple sugar in grapes and honey D) the form of fat stored in fat cells

84) Jacob has a rare condition, aninborn error of metabolism, that prevents his body from storing glucose as glycogen. Every four hours, day and night, Jacob has to consume a solution that provides a source of glucose, which is slowly digested and absorbed by the intestinal tract. Which of the following foods should Jacob mix with water to form his life-saving solution?

A) Corn starch B) High-fructosecorn syrup

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C) Aspartame D) Saccharin

A) fructose B) ribose

C) glucose D) insulin

86) Steve has pancreatic cancer. As a result of the disease, Steve has a high risk of .

A) diabetes mellitus B) cystic fibrosis C) diverticular disease

D) metabolic syndrome

87) Which of the following groups of foods are sources of starch?

A) Liver, apples, andcheese B) Eggs, fat-freemilk, and corn oil C) Corn, potatoes,and rice

88)

The starch in oatmeal and wheat is composed of molecules.

A) fructose B) glucose

89)

D) Peaches, saffloweroil, and peanuts

C) mannose D) lactose

The starch in rice and potatoes is composed of molecules.

A) glycogen B) polysaccharide

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C) fructose D) glucose

A) Seedlessgrapes B) Chicken livers

C) Sweet potatoes D) Egg yolks

91) Which of the following foods is a rich source of starch?

A) White rice B) Egg yolk

C) Fresh chicken D) Raw shrimp

92) If you wanted to include a starchy food to your meal, which of the following foods would you add?

A) Potatoes B) Honey

93)

Which of the following statements is true?

A) A diet thatcontains whole-grain foods may help relieve constipation. B) The pancreassecretes glucagon, a hormone that signals your cells to take up glucose fromthe bloodstream. C) The human bodystores carbohydrate as glucose.

94)

D) Maltose is the complex carbohydrate in potatoes, rice, and beans.

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Sucrose suppliesmore energy, gram per gram, than starch. B) Sucrose is a source of glucose. C) Sucrose has no nutritional value.

95)

C) Milk D) Eggs

D) Sucrose is comprised of two glucose molecules.

Which of the following statements is true?

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A) The typical American consumes recommended amounts of fiber. B) Fruits andvegetables are sources of fiber. C) People may increase their risk of type 2 diabetes by eating more fiber-rich foods.

96)

D) Most forms of fiber are easily digested by enzymes secreted by human small intestinal cells.

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Dietary fiberincludes the stringy material found in tough, overcooked meat. B) Most Americans donot consume enough dietary fiber. C) Scientistsclassify forms of fiber according to their

solubility in oil. D) Most forms of fiber are comprised of fructose molecules bonded together.

97) Which of the following characteristics increases a person's risk of type 2 diabetes?

A) Having northern European ancestry B) Being taller than average C) Weighing more than average

98) According to Cleo's physician, her blood cholesterol level is too high. Which of the following foods can Cleo add

A) Ready-to-eat oatmeal cereal B) Fat-free chocolate milk

D) Having low blood pressure

to her diet to help lower her cholesterol? C) Lean beef D) American processed cheese food

99) According to theDietary Guidelines for Americans, which of the following substances is a nutrient of public health concern?

Version 1

C) Sucralose D) Starch

A) Added sugars B) Dietary fiber

100)

Pancreatic amylase

A) digests starch in the small intestine B) is secreted by the gallbladder C) contributes to cystic fibrosis

101) Chelsea is concerned that her 2-year-old daughter may have type 1 diabetes. Which of the following conditions is a

A) Having a fasting blood glucose level of 80 mg/dl

D) converts glucose to energy in cells

typical sign or symptom of this form of diabetes? D) Gaining an unexpected amount of weight

B) Having fruity-smelling breath C) Urinating less frequently than normal

102) Theresa is concerned that her 10-year-old son may have type 1 diabetes. Which of the following conditions is a

A) Gaining an unexpected amount of weight B) Having a fasting blood glucose level of 90 mg/dl C) Losing weight despite increased food intake

typical sign or symptom of this form of diabetes? D) Urinating less frequently than usual

103) Bryan has type 2 diabetes. Which of the following conditions is a typical sign or symptom of this chronic disease?

A) Frequent urination B) Fever

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C) Chills D) Chest pains

104) Marissa is concerned about her risk of type 2 diabetes. To reduce her risk of this disease, Marissa should .

A) take iron supplements daily B) avoid gaining excess weight C) use foods that are sweetened with fructose or

maltose D) reduce her intake of sodium

105) Pearson's mother and father have type 2 diabetes. To reduce his risk of this disease, Pearson should .

A) consume a low-fiber diet B) avoid gaining excess weight C) reduce his sodium intake to 1500 mg/day

D) increase his animal protein intake to 120 g/day

106) Amy has type 1 diabetes. To reduce her son's risk of this disease, Amy should .

A) avoid feeding him foods that contain carbohydrates B) prepare low-fat, high-fiber foods for him to eat C) protect him from excess sun exposure

107)

D) monitor her child's health, because there is no way to reduce the risk

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Each gram offiber supplies about 6 kcal for humans. B) Diets high infiber increase the risk of type 2 diabetes. C) The humandigestive tract does not produce

enzymes that digest dietary fiber. D) Eating foods richin insoluble fiber helps reduce the risk of heart disease.

108)

insoluble forms of fiber?

What is the major difference between soluble and

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A) Soluble fiber is inanimal foods, whereas insoluble fiber is in plant foods. B) Soluble fiberdissolves or swells in water, whereas insoluble fiber generally does not changein water. C) Soluble fiberprovides no health benefits to humans, whereas insoluble fiber reduces the riskof heart

109) Emma's usual diet provides 2000 kcal daily. To obtain 55% of her total energy intake from carbohydrates, she should

A) 275 B) 300

110)

C) 550 D) 600

than 7.5%. D) Excessive thirst and frequent urination are signs of diabetes.

Which of the following statements is true?

A) People who haveexcess body fat are more likely to develop type 1 diabetes than type 2diabetes. B) To remainhealthy, your fasting blood glucose level should be between 70 and 100mg/dl. C) A healthy person'shemoglobin A1c level is greater

112)

consume grams of carbohydrates daily.

Which of the following statements is true?

A) People who haveexcess body fat are more likely to develop type 1 diabetes than type 2diabetes. B) To remainhealthy, your fasting blood glucose level should always be at least 140mg/dl. C) A healthy person'shemoglobin A1c level is greater

111)

disease. D) Soluble fiber canbe digested by humans, whereas insoluble fiber cannot be digested.

than 7.5%. D) High blood pressure is a sign of type 1 diabetes.

Which of the following statements is true?

A) In the UnitedStates, type 2 diabetes is more

Version 1

common than type 1 diabetes.

B) The primary sign of diabetes mellitus is hypoglycemia. C) A person with type 1 diabetes who takes too much insulin is likely to experience hyperglycemia.

D) By losing excess weight, a person can reduce his or her risk of type 1 diabetes.

113) Phil is a healthy college student. When he wakes up in the morning, he can't wait to eat breakfast. While he is asleep and before he consumes food or beverages, his pancreas secretes to maintain his blood glucose level within normal limits. C) glucagon D) thyroxin

A) insulin B) aldosterone

114)

Insulin

. meals

A) helps glucose enter cells B) stimulates cells to break down glycogen for

D) increases blood glucose levels after meals

energy C) is released during fasting periods, such as between

115)

Glucagon

A) helps glucose enter cells B) stimulates cells to store glucose as glycogen C) raises blood glucose levels

D) increases the metabolic rate

116) According to scientific evidence, which of the following actions can help reduce a person's risk of type 2 diabetes mellitus?

A) Drinking 3

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servings of alcohol daily B) Losing excess body fat C) Smoking less than 2 packs of cigarettes/week

D) Reducing intake of salty foods

117) According to scientific evidence, which of the following actions can help reduce a person's risk of type 2 diabetes mellitus?

A) Smoking less than 2 packs of cigarettes/week B) Drinking 2 servings of alcohol daily C) Exercising daily

118) Laura consumes a sugar-frosted doughnut for a snack. In her gastrointestinal tract, the sucrose in the doughnut is

D) Taking vitamin C supplements

digested into molecules. D) alanine andaspartic acid

A) maltose andglycogen B) glucose andfructose C) glycerol and fattyacid

119) In the human intestinal tract, cooked rice is broken down into molecules that can be absorbed. C) lactose D) ribose

A) sucrose B) glucose

120) In the human intestinal tract, potato starch is broken down into molecules that can be absorbed. C) lactose D) ribose

A) sucrose B) glucose

121)

Table sugar is nearly

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carbohydrate. 32

A) 25% B) 50%

122)

C) 75% D) 100%

Which of the following sweeteners provides 4 kcal/g?

A) Sucralose B) Stevia

C) Saccharin D) Sucrose

123) You would like to add a nutritive sweetener to a food that is almost pure carbohydrate. Which of the following substances would you add?

A) Sucrose B) Aspartame

C) Honey D) Molasses

124) Which of the following substances is a sugar that contributes to the sweetness of honey?

A) Fructose B) Lactose

C) Molasses D) Ribose

125) Which of the following foods has a high glycemic index (70 or more)?

A) Peanuts B) Baked potato

C) Fat-free milk D) Banana

126) Which of the following foods has a high glycemic index (70 or more)?

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C) Fat-free milk D) Orange juice

A) Jelly beans B) Snicker's candy bar

127) Which of the following foods has a high glycemic index (70 or more)? C) Raw apple A) Vanilla, low-fat ice cream B) Baked Russet potato

slices D) Peanuts

128) Which of the following foods has a low glycemic index (less than 70)? D) Raw apple A) Jelly beans B) Cornflakes cereal C) Popcorn, popped in a microwave and served plain

129) Which of the following foods has a low glycemic index (less than 70)?

A) Cornflakescereal B) Raw carrots

C) Banana D) Plain white bagel

130) Which of the following foods has a high glycemic index but a low glycemic load?

B) Plain white A) Baked Russet potato

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bagel

C) Medium grain, boiled white rice D) Plain microwave popcorn

131) Mark has type 2 diabetes. For the past two weeks, his fasting blood glucose level has been below 130 mg/dl. Today, Mark's physician tested his blood. Although the fasting value was 125 mg/dl, she reported that he needs to do a better job of

A) Mark is losingweight rapidly. B) Mark's bloodpressure is too low. C) Mark's HbA1c is8.5.

controlling his blood glucose level. Why would the physician make such a recommendation to Mark? D) Mark's blood pressure is too high.

132) Jamie has a tumor that affects the functioning ofher beta cells. Based on this information, Jamie's .

A) intestinal tract has difficulty digesting fatty foods B) nerves are more sensitive to pain stimuli

133) Anna has type 1 diabetes and gives herself insulin injections to help manage her blood glucose level. One morning, Anna tested her blood before she ate breakfast and discovered that her blood glucose level was 88 mg/dl. Based

A) consume candy or fruit juice to increase her blood glucose level B) do nothing to intervene, because her fasting blood glucose level is normal C) give herself an extra injection of insulin

C) lacteals absorb excess lipids D) blood glucose level is difficult to regulate

on this information, Anna should .

D) do not eat anything for the next 5 hours, which provides time for her blood glucose level to drop to normal naturally

134) Erika has type 1 diabetes and gives herself

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insulin injections to help manage her blood glucose level. One afternoon, Erika tested her blood and discovered that her blood glucose level was 260 mg/dl. Based on this

A) consume candy or fruit juice to increase her blood glucose level B) do nothing to intervene, because her blood glucose level is normal

information, Erika should .

C) take a dietary supplement that containsvitamin C D) give herself a specific dose of insulin

135) Phil has type 1 diabetes and gives himself insulin injections to help manage his blood glucose level. One afternoon, Phil tested his blood and discovered that his blood glucose level was 60 mg/dl. Based on this information, Phil should .

A) consume 15 grams of glucose in a pill or gel to increase his blood glucose level B) do nothing to intervene, because his blood glucose level is normal C) give himself an extra injection of insulin

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D) do not eat anything for the next 5 hours, which will provide time for his blood glucose level to drop to normal naturally

Answer Key Test name: ch5

Version 1

1) FALSE 2) FALSE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) FALSE 8) FALSE 9) FALSE 10) TRUE 11) FALSE 12) TRUE 13) FALSE 14) TRUE 15) TRUE 16) FALSE 17) FALSE 18) A 19) A 20) D 21) D Version 1

22) A 23) B 24) A 25) A 26) C 27) A 28) B 29) A 30) A 31) A 32) A 33) D 34) A 35) A 36) A 37) A 38) A 39) D 40) A 41) D 42) A Version 1

43) A 44) A 45) A 46) B 47) A 48) A 49) A 50) A 51) A 52) A 53) A 54) A 55) A 56) C 57) C 58) C 59) B 60) D 61) B 62) B 63) A Version 1

64) B 65) A 66) B 67) B 68) C 69) A 70) C 71) B 72) C 73) B 74) D 75) A 76) B 77) B 78) B 79) A 80) A 81) C 82) D 83) A 84) A Version 1

85) C 86) A 87) C 88) B 89) D 90) C 91) A 92) A 93) A 94) B 95) B 96) B 97) C 98) A 99) B 100) A 101) B 102) C 103) A 104) B 105) B Version 1

106) D 107) C 108) B 109) A 110) D 111) B 112) A 113) C 114) A 115) C 116) B 117) C 118) B 119) B 120) B 121) D 122) D 123) A 124) A 125) B 126) A Version 1

127) B 128) D 129) B 130) D 131) C 132) D 133) B 134) D 135) A

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Student name: TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) According to the Dietary Guidelines for Americans, adults should keep their trans fat intake as low as possible, while eating a healthy diet. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) The primary role of adipose cells is producing chylomicrons from phospholipids. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) Oleic acid is an essential fatty acid that is in whole milk. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) Human cells can convert linoleic acid, an omega-6 fatty acid, to arachidonic acid. ⊚

true

⊚

false

5) Lipids present in foods interfere with fat soluble vitamin absorption. Version 1

⊚

true

⊚

false

Lecithin is a type of sterol. ⊚ ⊚

true false

7) High-density lipoproteins contain more protein than low-density lipoproteins. ⊚ ⊚

true false

8) High-density lipoproteins carry more cholesterol than low-density lipoproteins. ⊚ ⊚

true false

9) In 2015, the U.S. Food and Drug Administration banned the use of partially-hydrogenated oils in foods. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

11) High-fiber diets can lower blood cholesterol because fiber transports cholesterol into fatty tissues. ⊚ ⊚

true false

12) Stick margarine is one of the main sources of cholesterol in the typical American's diet. ⊚ ⊚

true false

13) After drinking too much alcohol at a party, Samantha can sober up rapidly by drinking coffee and taking high doses of vitamin C. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

A) provides insulation against cold temperatures B) is necessary for the absorption of dietary fiber C) stimulates the production of vitamins and

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14)

In the body, fat .

minerals D) is necessary for proper cholesterol digestion

15)

In the body, certain lipids

A) are necessary for the absorption of dietary fiber B) help maintain cell membranes C) stimulate the production of vitamins and minerals

16)

In the body, fat

A) is necessary for the absorption of dietary fiber B) stimulates the production of vitamins C) provides energy

17)

D) contribute to proper body hydration

Subcutaneous fat does not

D) is used to make minerals

A) insulate the body against cold temperatures B) store energy C) protect against minor bruising

D) stimulate red blood cell production

18) Mason would like to compare amounts of saturated fat in salad dressings. To obtain this information, he should read the on the products' labels.

A) Nutrition Facts panel B) structure/functions claims C) list of ingredients

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D) country of origin information

19) Sari would like to compare amounts of polyunsaturated fat in two brands of canned tuna. She should read the on each product's label.

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A) Nutrition Facts panel B) structure/functions claims C) list of ingredients

D) country of origin information

20) Stanley would like to compare the total fat contents of packaged hotdogs. He should read the on the products' labels.

A) Nutrition Facts panel B) structure/functions claims

C) nutrient claims D) country of origin information

21) Sarah consumes approximately 2000 kcal/day. According to recommendations of the Dietary Guidelines for Americans, she should limit her saturated fat intake to fewer than kcal/day.

A) 200 B) 250

C) 350 D) 450

22) Amanda consumes approximately 2500 kcal/day. According to recommendations of the Dietary Guidelines for Americans, she should limit her saturated fat intake to fewer than kcal/day.

A) 150 B) 250

Version 1

C) 350 D) 450

23) Reggie consumes approximately 3000 kcal/day. According to recommendations of the Dietary Guidelines for Americans, he should limit his saturated fat intake to fewer

than

kcal/day.

C) 300 D) 450

A) 100 B) 250

24) According to the Dietary Guidelines for Americans, cholesterol intake should be . D) kept as low as possible, while eating a healthy diet

A) between 300 and 600 mg/day B) limited to no more than 500 mg/day C) limited to 2 eggs/day or 5 egg yolks/week

25)

The primary function of an adipose cell is

A) storing fat B) making insulin C) metabolizing glycogen

26)

Adipose cells

D) transporting cholesterol within tissues

A) store triglycerides B) secrete insulin C) metabolize glycogen

27)

D) transport cholesterol away from other cells

Which of the following statements is true?

A) A saturated fathas atriple bond between two carbons in the hydrocarbon chain. Version 1

B) A polyunsaturatedfatty acid has two or more double 7

bonds between carbons in the hydrocarbonchain. C) The omega end ofa fatty acid molecule contains the acid group.

28) Triglycerides have structures.

in their chemical

A) glucosepolymers B) nitrogen andsulfur

29)

D) Fatty acids contain nitrogen, hydrogen, and carbon.

C) fatty acids D) amino acids

Which of the following statements is true?

A) A fatty acid has achain of carbons bonded to each other and to hydrogen atoms. B) A fatty acid is apolymer of glucose molecules. C) The omega end of afatty acid molecule is the acid

30) A scientist has isolated a fatty acid that has 26 carbons bonded together. All of the carbon atoms in the chainare connected by single bonds. The only other elements in the compound are hydrogen and oxygen. Based on this

A) polyunsaturated B) monounsaturated

31) A scientist has isolated a fatty acid that has 26 carbons. Most of the carbon atoms in the fatty acid chainare connected by single bonds, except there is a double bond between the number 3 and 4 carbons as well as the number 9 and 10 carbons. The only other elements in the compound are

A) hydroxytransylated

Version 1

portion of the molecule. D) Most fatty acids infood are water soluble.

information, the compound is a (an) fatty acid.

C) saturated D) essential

hydrogen and oxygen. Based on this information, the compound is a fatty acid.

B) monounsaturated

C) saturated D) polyunsaturated

32) A scientist has isolated a fatty acid that has 26 carbons bonded together. Most of the carbon atoms in the chainare connected by single bonds, but there is a doublebond between the number 9 and 10 carbons in the chain. The only other elements in the compound are hydrogen and oxygen. Based on this information, the compound is a(an) fatty acid.

A) polyunsaturated B) monounsaturated

33) A scientist has isolated a chemical compound that is partially soluble in water. The chemical helps keep watersoluble substances mixed with fats. When analyzing the composition of the chemical, the scientist determined that in addition to carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen, the compound

A) phospholipid B) essential fatty acid

34) A scientist has discovered a new molecular compound that is a long chain of 26 carbons bonded together, with a methyl group on one end and an acid group on the other end of the molecule. The compound does not contain any nitrogen

A) fatty acid B) amino acid

Version 1

C) saturated D) essential

contains nitrogen and phosphorus atoms. Based on this information, the compound is a(an) . C) sterol D) nutrino

or sulfur atoms. Based on this information, the compound is a(an) . C) sterol D) phospholipid

C) Palmitic acid D) Alphalinolenic acid

A) Oleic acid B) Stearic acid

36)

acid is an essential fatty acid. C) Palmitic D) Lauric

A) Stearic B) Linoleic

37) The body can make limited amounts of from alpha-linoleic acid.

A) oleic B) hydrochloric

38)

acid

C) stearic D) eicosapentaenoic

acid is an omega-6 fatty acid.

A) Eicosapentaenoic B) Alpha-linolenic

39)

C) Docosahexaenoic D) Linoleic

acid is an omega-3 fatty acid.

A) Stearic B) Eicosapentaenoic

40)

C) Linoleic D) Lauric

acid is an omega-3 fatty acid.

A) Docosahexaenoic B) Linoleic Version 1

C) Stearic D) Lauric

41) Which of the following substances have hormonelike functions in the body? C) Chylomicrons D) Trans fats

A) Prostaglandins B) Fatty acids

42)

Which of the following statements is true?

A) A fatty acid is apolymer of glucose molecules. B) The omega end of afatty acid molecule is the acid portion of the molecule. C) In nature, fattyacids typically have even numbers

43)

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Food fat is not asource of essential nutrients. B) Fat contributes tothe flavor of foods. C) Each gram of fat contributes 4 kcal.

44) Victor is making cake batter. When he added corn oil, fat-free milk, baking powder, and salt together, the oil and milk separated into two layers. To make a mixture that does not separate into oily and watery components, Victor should

Lecithin is a type of

A) sterol B) triglyceride Version 1

D) Adding fat to a food reduces the food's "mouth feel."

add and stir the ingredients together.

C) whey protein D) fruit juice

A) high-fructose corn syrup B) egg yolks

45)

of carbon atoms. D) Most fatty acidsin food are water soluble.

. C) phospholipid D) fatty acid

46)

A chylomicron is a type of

A) lipoprotein B) fatty acid

C) sterol D) phospholipid

47) Which of the following lipoproteins contains the highest percentage of cholesterol?

A) VLDL B) LDL

C) HDL D) Chylomicron

48) Which of the following substances carries cholesterol away from tissues?

A) LDL B) HDL

49)

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Hydrolyzed HDL isa toxic lipoprotein that contributes to cardiovascular disease. B) All forms of LDLcholesterol are considered unhealthy, because they increase the risk ofdiabetes. C) VLDLs transport most forms of cholesterol in blood to the liver for disposal.

50) acid

C) Insolublefiber D) Insulin

D) The cholesterolcarried by oxidized LDL is taken up by certain arterial cells and deposited inplaque.

Compared to an unsaturated fatty acid, a trans fatty .

A) is less likely to undergo oxidation Version 1

B) contains no double bonds 12

C) has a kink in its molecular structure that keeps it from being straight

D) is comprised of glucose molecules

51) Which of the following foods is a naturally rich source of monounsaturated fatty acids?

A) Baked chicken B) Canola oil

C) Green beans D) Corn oil

52) Which of the following foods is a naturally rich source of monounsaturated fatty acids?

A) Avocado B) Walnuts

C) Milk D) Chicken

53) Which of the following foods is a naturally rich source of monounsaturated fatty acids?

A) Cherries B) 1% Milk

C) Peanuts D) Beef

54) Which of the following foods is a naturally rich source of polyunsaturated fatty acids?

A) Raw carrots B) Whole milk

C) Corn oil D) Ground beef

55) Which of the following foods is a naturally rich source of polyunsaturated fatty acids? A) Green beans

Version 1

B) Whole milk

C) Roast beef D) Soybean oil

56) Which of the following foods is a naturally rich source of polyunsaturated fatty acids?

A) Green beans B) Cottonseed oil

C) Roast beef D) Stick margarine

57) April wants to add to her salad, because the food is a naturally rich source of omega-3 fats.

A) walnuts B) coconut oil

C) cheddar cheese D) bread cubes

58) Which of the following foods is a naturally rich source of omega-3 fatty acids?

A) Ground beef B) Whole-wheat bread

C) Fried chicken D) Tuna fish

59) Which of the following foods is a naturally rich source of omega-3 fatty acids?

A) Canned salmon B) Whole-wheat bread

Version 1

C) Fried chicken D) Roast beef

C) Baked trout D) Canned peaches

A) Baked beans B) Whole-wheat bread

61) Which of the following foods is a good source of omega-3 fatty acids? C) Leaf lettuce D) Fat-free milk

A) Flaxseeds B) Apples

62) Brett eats fatty acids.

to increase his intake of omega-3

D) canned sardines

A) baked beans B) whole-wheatbread C) fresh strawberries

63)

The liver uses cholesterol to make

. C) water D) fatty acids

A) vitamin A B) bile

64)

The body uses cholesterol to make

. C) water D) fatty acids

A) vitamin A B) steroid hormones

65)

The body uses cholesterol to make vitamin

Version 1

C) E D) B-12

A) A B) D

66)

Cholecystokinin (CCK) is a hormone that

A) stimulates the gallbladder to secrete bile into the small intestine B) enables glucose to enter muscle cells C) increases the production of salivary amylase

D) decreases the excretion of sodium ions from kidneys

67) Which of the following organs relies on enterohepatic circulation to recycle bile salts? C) Brain D) Thyroid

A) Liver B) Esophagus

68)

The liver recycles bile salts to make new

. C) white blood

A) bile B) hemoglobin

cells D) glycogen

69) Chase is a 22-year-old college student. According to recommendations of the Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range (AMDR), fat should comprise % of his total energy intake each day.

A) 35 to 45 B) 20 to 35

Version 1

C) 10 to 20 D) 5 to 10

70) Which of the following characteristics is a major risk factor for cardiovascular disease (CVD)?

A) High intakes of vitamin C B) Asian ancestry

C) Increasing age D) Low income level

71) Which of the following characteristics increases a person's risk of cardiovascular disease (CVD)?

A) Higher than average intakes of calcium B) Female sex

C) Type 2 diabetes D) Asian ancestry

72) Which of the following characteristics or conditionsincreases a person's risk of cardiovascular disease (CVD)? C) Asian ancestry D) Hypertension

A) Low body weight B) Female sex

73) Which of the following characteristics or conditions is a major risk factor for cardiovascular disease (CVD)?

D) Vitamin D A) Low body fat B) Male gender C) Household income

Version 1

intake

74) Jared has a high risk of cardiovascular disease, because he has .

A) a family history of cystic fibrosis B) chronic high blood pressure

C) high blood levels of HDL cholesterol D) Asian ancestry

75) Layla has a high risk of cardiovascular disease, because of her family history and .

A) European ancestry B) high blood levels of LDL cholesterol C) physically active lifestyle

D) low blood pressure

76) Carlos has a family history of premature heart disease and stroke. To lower his risk of cardiovascular disease, Carlos should .

A) increase his intake of trans fat B) take medication to increase his blood pressure C) stop smoking cigarettes

77) Bill would like to follow recommendations that would reduce his risk of cardiovascular disease (CVD). Based on

A) become more physically active B) consume more saturated fat C) smoke no more than a pack of cigarettes daily

D) increase his intake of vitamin K

this information, Bill should . D) gain some body weight

78) Which of the following statements is true? Version 1

A) Foods thatcontain cholesterol should be avoided because the substance is toxic to humancells. B) High levels of HDLcholesterol are associated with increased risk of heart disease. C) A diet that ishigh in saturated fat helps reduce

79) Having high blood levels of person's risk of CVD.

high blood cholesterol levels. D) Oxidized LDL contributes to arterial plaque buildup.

may increase a

A) HDL B) tryptophan

C) aspartic acid D) homocysteine

80) Albert is a healthy, 23-year-old college student. He would like to know more about hisrisk of cardiovascular disease, so he can take preventive measures, if they are necessary.Albert should .

A) test his urinefor the presence of glucocorticoids B) have a lipoprotein profile performed on a sample ofhis blood C) undergo cardiac catheterization to determine the

ejection factor of his heart D) have a chest xray

81)

A 10-month-old baby whose diet is low in fat has , which is a sign of an essential fatty acid deficiency.

A) poor growth B) sleep apnea

82) Duncan was a subject in a clinical study that was designed to determine the effects of certain diets on health. While participating in the study, he was given a synthetic Version 1

C) arterial plaque D) heart failure

formula diet that provided vitamins, minerals, animal protein, purified water, and 19

corn starch. Within a few weeks, Duncan developed patches of scaly skin on his arms and legs and bald spots on his head. When was added to his formula, the signs of the

nutritional deficiency disappeared.

C) lipase D) oleic acid

A) polyunsaturated fat B) calcium citrate

83) Maggie was a subject in a clinical study that was designed to determine the effects of certain diets on health. While participating in the study, she was given a synthetic formula diet that provided vitamins, minerals, egg protein, purified water, and potato starch. Within a few weeks, Maggie's hair began to fall out and she developed patches of scaly skin on her arms and legs. Which of the following substances should be added to her formula to treat her nutritional deficiency?

D) Cholesterol A) Bile salts B) Glucose polymers C) Essential fatty acids

esters

84) When she prepares food, Felicia wants to use a product that is a rich source ofunsaturated fat. Based on this information, which of the following fats should she select?

A) Unsaltedbutter B) Cream cheese

Version 1

C) Olive oil D) Coconut oil

85) When he prepares food, Nick wants to use a product that is a rich source ofunsaturated fat. Based on this information, which of the following fats should he select?

A) Unsaltedbutter B) Partially hydrogenated shortening

C) Coconut oil D) Canola oil

86) When he prepares food, Edgar wants to use ingredients that are not high in trans fat. Based on this information, which of the following fats should he include in his recipes?

A) Corn oil B) Shortening C) Stick margarinemade with olive oil

D) Partiallyhydrogenated peanut oil

87) Layla loves to cook, but she is concerned about the effects that certain dietary lipids may have on her health. She wants to prepare foods with fats that are naturally low in saturated fatty acidsand high in polyunsaturated fatty acids. Based on this information, which of the following ingredients should she select?

A) Corn oil B) Coconut oil

88)

C) Lard D) Butter

Which of the followings statements is true?

A) Saturated fattyacid has one double bond within its hydrocarbon chain. Version 1

B) The human body canconvert simple carbohydrates into alpha21

linolenic acid. C) Trans fatty acidsare naturally in many foods. D) Certain fish, suchas salmon, are rich sources of

omega-3 fatty acids.

89) Carter wants to lower his blood cholesterol level. Based on this information, he should limit his intake of . C) butter and beef D) fruit juices

A) whole-grain products B) nuts and seeds

90) Which of the following foods naturally contains cholesterol? C) Sunflower A) Broccoli B) Peanuts

seeds D) Chicken

91) Which of the following foods is a source of cholesterol?

A) Organiccarrots B) Rolled oats

92)

C) Pork steak D) High-fructose cornsyrup

Which of the following foods contains cholesterol?

A) Green beans B) Roast pork

Version 1

C) Ripe banana D) White potato

93)

Which of the following foods is a rich source of

saturated fat and

A) Coconut oil B) Peanut butter C) Whole milk D) Margarine

Version 1

94) Owen usually consumes about 3000 kcal/day. On average, his fat intake is approximately 80 g/day. Based on this information, which of the following statements describes Owen's diet?

A) Owen's fat intake meets the RDA for lipids. B) Owen's fat intake is too high. C) Owen's fat intake is within the AMDR.

D) Owen's fat intake is not high enough to support good health.

95) Maria usually consumes about 2000 kcal/day. On average, her fat intake is approximately 90 g/day. Based on this information, which of the following statements describes Maria's diet?

A) Maria's fatintake meets the RDA for lipids. B) Maria's fatintake is higher than the AMDR. C) Maria's fatintake is within the AI.

96) Bill recorded his food intake for a week and then used a computerized dietary analysis program to analyze his diet record. According to the results of the analysis, his average fat intake was of total calories each day, which is

A) 5% B) 10%

D) Maria's fatintake is not high enough to support good health.

within the Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range.

C) 15% D) 25%

97) Phyllis recorded her food intake for a week and then used a computerized dietary analysis program to analyze her diet record.

Version 1

According to the results of the analysis, her average daily saturated fat intake was 10% of total calories;her average daily unsaturated fat intake was 35% of total calories; and her average dailycholesterol intake was 250 mg. Based on this information, her total fat intake is theAcceptable

A) above B) within C) below

98) Don recorded his food intake for a week and then used a computerized dietary analysis program to analyze his diet record. According to the results of the analysis, his average daily saturated fat intake was 5% of total calories;his average daily unsaturated fat intake was 12% of total calories; and his average dailycholesterol intake was 350 mg. Based on this

A) above B) below C) within

Macronutrient Distribution Range.

D) More informationabout Phyllis's omega-6 intake is needed to answer this question.

information, his total fat intake is theAcceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range.

D) More informationabout Don's omega-3 intake is needed to answer this question.

99) Jason would like to know the amount of saturated fat in a serving of food, but he does not have access to a food composition table or the Internet. According to the Nutrition Facts panel on the food's package, one serving has 10 g of fat, 5 g of polyunsaturated fat, 2 g of monounsaturated fat, and 150 mg of cholesterol. Approximately how much saturated fat is in a serving of the food?

A) 3 g B) 17 g

Version 1

C) 167 g D) 8 g

100) According to the original Nutrition Facts panel on a package of reduced fat cream cheese, a 1 oz serving of the cream cheese supplies 70 kcal; 50 of the kcal are from fat.

A) 31 B) 51

Based on this information, fat contributes about % of total kcal. C) 71 D) 91

101) Jeanne's total blood cholesterol level is 240 mg/dl. According to this information, .

A) Jeanne's total blood cholesterol level is too low to provide optimal health, and she should consume more foods that are rich sources of saturated fat B) Jeanne's total blood cholesterol level and her ratio of total cholesterol to HDL cholesterol are within healthy limits C) Jeanne needs to reduce her total blood cholesterol

level to under 200 mg/dl and increase her HDL level to lower her risk of heart disease D) Jeanne needs to increase her intake of trans fat and decrease her intake of omega-3 fat

102) Kevin's total blood cholesterol level is 190 mg/dl and his HDL cholesterol level is 60 mg/dl.According to this information, .

A) Kevin needs to reduce his total blood cholesterol level to under 50 mg/dl to lower his risk of heart disease B) Kevin's total blood cholesterol level is within the healthy range C) Kevin's total blood cholesterol level is too low to provide optimal health and he should eat more saturated fat

Version 1

D) Kevin's HDL cholesterol level is too low to reduce his risk of cardiovascular disease

A) more coconut oil B) less beef C) more partially-hydrogenated fats

D) fewer fruits and vegetables

104) While at a party, Jenna drank 24 ounces ofbeer and 10 ounces of wine. Based on this information, her alcohol consumption was equivalent to standard alcoholic drinks. C) 6 D) 8

A) 2 B) 4

105) While at a bar, Jake drank 3 ounces of whiskey. Based on this information, Jake consumed about the same amount of

alcohol that is in 12-oz cans of regular beer. C) four D) five

A) two B) three

106) Theresa drank 5 ounces of wine. This amount of wine has about as much alcohol as the amount that is in . D) 1 ounce of A) 5 ounces of beer B) 3 ounces of liquor C) 12 ounces of beer

liquor

107) Christina drinks 1 beer a day. At this level of alcohol consumption, she is .

B) a moderate A) an abstainer

Version 1

drinker

C) an abuser

D) a binge drinker

108) Eddie drinks 6 beers a week. At this level of alcohol consumption, he is . C) an abuser D) a binge drinker

A) an abstainer B) a moderate drinker

109) When Leah parties with her friends, she usually drinks 6 beers during a 2-hour party. At this level of alcohol consumption, she is . C) a restrained A) an abstainer B) a moderate drinker

drinker D) a binge drinker

110) Which of the following organs is the main site for detoxifying alcohol?

A) Spleen B) Liver

C) Stomach D) Kidneys

111) While at a party, Dimitrius became drunk after consuming 6 cans of beer and 2 shots of whiskey. To sober up, he should .

A) drink a glass of orange juice that contains a raw egg and tabasco sauce B) run a mile and then take a cold shower Version 1

C) drink 3 cups of strong coffee D) stop drinking and give his liver time to 28

metabolize the alcohol

Version 1

112)

Which of the following statements is true? limit for intoxication for adultdrivers. D) Rapid heart rateis a sign of alcohol poisoning.

A) Alcohol is storedin body fat. B) The pancreas isthe primary site for alcohol metabolism. C) In the UnitedStates, a BAC of 0.08% is the legal

113)

Chronic alcohol abuse

. D) increases alertness

A) damages the heart muscle B) reduces fat deposits in the abdominal region C) lowers blood pressure

114)

Chronic alcohol abuse

. D) increases the size of the adrenal glands

A) causes the heart to shrink B) increases fat deposits in the abdominal region C) lowers blood pressure

115) Chronic alcohol abuse increases the risk of cancer. C) muscle D) thyroid

A) pancreatic B) skin

116)

Chronic alcohol abuse increases the risk of

A) colon and rectal cancer B) arthritis and low blood pressure C) vitamin D and A toxicity syndromes Version 1

. D) essential fatty acid deficiency and cystic fibrosis

117)

Chronic alcohol abuse increases the risk of

A) skin tumors B) liver cancer C) low blood pressure

D) shrunken heart syndrome

118) Manny's blood alcohol concentration is 0.36. Based on this information, Manny is .

A) able to drive safely B) acting more sociable and feeling less tense C) unconscious

D) acting aggressively toward his partner

119) Women who are trying to become pregnant or are pregnant should .

A) limit their alcohol consumption to beer B) mix distilled alcohol with fruit juice before consuming it

C) avoid all forms of alcohol D) drink alcohol only with meals

120) Lydia thinks she is 6 weeks pregnant. While she was at a party, she , because she did not want to endanger the embryo that was developing inside her body.

A) refused allalcoholic beverages B) drank only a fewbeers C) consumed only dryred wines

D) limited heralcohol intake to one shot of liquor

121) Paige is 6 weeks pregnant. Although Paige drank alcohol before she Version 1

became pregnant, she refuses to drink any alcohol now, because she does not want to have a baby born with . D) pancreatic A) cirrhotic liver disease B) Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome C) a fetal alcohol spectrum disorder

Version 1

cancer

Answer Key Test name: ch6

Version 1

1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) FALSE 11) FALSE 12) FALSE 13) FALSE 14) A 15) B 16) C 17) D 18) A 19) A 20) A 21) A Version 1

22) B 23) C 24) D 25) A 26) A 27) B 28) C 29) A 30) C 31) D 32) B 33) A 34) A 35) D 36) B 37) D 38) D 39) B 40) A 41) A 42) C Version 1

43) B 44) B 45) C 46) A 47) B 48) B 49) D 50) A 51) B 52) A 53) C 54) C 55) D 56) B 57) A 58) D 59) A 60) C 61) A 62) D 63) B Version 1

64) B 65) B 66) A 67) A 68) A 69) B 70) C 71) C 72) D 73) B 74) B 75) B 76) C 77) A 78) D 79) D 80) B 81) A 82) A 83) C 84) C Version 1

85) D 86) A 87) A 88) D 89) C 90) D 91) C 92) B 93) C 94) C 95) B 96) D 97) A 98) B 99) A 100) C 101) C 102) B 103) B 104) B 105) A Version 1

106) C 107) B 108) B 109) D 110) B 111) D 112) C 113) A 114) B 115) A 116) A 117) B 118) C 119) C 120) A 121) C

Version 1

Student name: TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) The Nutrition Facts panel provides information concerning amounts of seven essential amino acids in a serving of food. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) All proteins have potassium in their chemical structures. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) Proteins help the body maintain its proper acid-base balance. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) Human proteins can be made from as many as 25 different amino acids. ⊚

true

⊚

false

Methionine is an essential amino acid.

Version 1

⊚

⊚ ⊚

true false

Tryptophan is an essential amino acid. ⊚ ⊚

10)

true false

Lysine is not an essential amino acid. ⊚ ⊚

false

Phenylalanine is not an essential amino acid. ⊚ ⊚

⊚

Threonine is an essential amino acid. ⊚ ⊚

true

true false

Alanine is not an essential amino acid.

Version 1

11)

Aspartic acid is not an essential amino acid. ⊚ ⊚

true false

12) In humans, the pancreas is the main site for nonessential amino acid production. ⊚ ⊚

13)

true false

DNA contains coded information for making proteins. ⊚ ⊚

true false

14) To estimate a healthy college student's RDA for protein, multiply his or her weight in kg by 0.8 grams. ⊚ ⊚

15)

true false

"Hives" are a common sign of a food allergy. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

16)

"Eczema" is a common sign of a food allergy. ⊚ ⊚

true false

17) Gluten sensitivity is the medical name for celiac disease. ⊚ ⊚

true false

18) In 2015-2016, American's typical consumption of fish and shellfish increased compared to 1999. ⊚ ⊚

true false

19) Diets that contain high amounts of ham, sausage,and bacon are not associated with an increased risk of developing cardiovascular disease. ⊚ ⊚

20)

true false

Peaches and apricots are classified as legumes.

Version 1

⊚

true

⊚

false

21) People who have high blood uric acid levels are likely to develop gout. ⊚ ⊚

true false

22) A person with pneumonia can experience protein undernutrition. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 23) The Nutrition Facts panel on a food label .

A) typically includes information about the bioavailability of protein in the product B) provides information about a product's essential amino acid content C) does not include information about the product's

protein quality D) does not provide information about the amount of protein in a serving of the food

24) According to the Nutrition Facts panel on a can of beans, one serving of the legumes supplies 6 g of protein. The DV for protein is 50 g. Estimate the %DV for protein in a serving of the beans. A) 12%

Version 1

B) 300% C) 8.3% D) Cannot be determined by using the information

provided in the question

25) According to the Nutrition Facts panel on a can of tuna, one serving of the fish supplies 16 g of protein. The DV for protein is 50 g. Estimate the %DV for protein in a serving of the tuna.

A) 32% B) 800% C) 3.125%

D) Cannot be determined by using the information provided in the question

26) Which of the following substances is usually one of the limiting amino acid in foods, particularly those of plant origin? C) Methionine D) Leucine

A) Phenylalanine B) Arginine

27) Which of the following substances is usually one of the limiting amino acid in foods, particularly those of plant

A) Phenylalanine B) Asparagine

origin?

C) Threonine D) Leucine

28) Which of the following substances is usually the limiting amino acid in foods, particularly those of plant origin?

A) Glycine

Version 1

B) Alanine C) Lysine

29)

Proteins

D) Isoleucine

A) are comprised of amino acids B) have phosphorus in their chemical structures C) provide 7 kcal/g

30) Every amino acid has structure.

in its chemical

C) nitrogen D) iron

A) potassium B) chloride

31)

An amino acid does not contain a(an)

A) fatty acid B) acid group C) nitrogen-containing group

32)

D) are stored as glycogen in the body

D) carbon skeleton

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Transamination isthe process of removing the nitrogen group from an amino acid and transferringit to another substance. B) A protein moleculeloses its natural folded and coiled shape as well as its usual functions whenit undergoes hydrogenation. C) Application ofheat, alcohol, or acid can kill

Version 1

proteins. D) The human digestive tract cannot digest the peptide bonds that hold amino acids together.

33)

Compared to a triglyceride molecule, a protein

molecule

D) has three fatty acids attached to glycerol

A) is comprised of glucose units B) has nitrogen in its chemical structure C) provides more energy

34) A scientist isolates a water-soluble compound from spider venom. The substance has nitrogen, carbon, hydrogen, and oxygenin its chemical structure. Based on this information, the compound is probably a . C) polysaccharide D) mineral salt

A) protein B) triglyceride

35) A remains when the nitrogen-containing portion of an amino acid is removed. C) dipeptidefragment D) ribonucleotide

A) fatty acid B) carbonskeleton

36)

The body uses proteins to make

A) certain hormones B) bile salts C) magnesium ions

37)

D) calcium carbonate

Which of the following statements is true? body. A) All hormones areproteins. B) Protein is theprimary energy source for the human

Version 1

C) Certain proteinstransport nutrients 8

and oxygen in the bloodstream. D) Proteins are a major component of starch

38)

molecules.

Which of the following statements is true?

A) The human bodynormally uses very little protein for energy. B) Proteins arecomprised of smaller chemical units called nucleic acids. C) Proteins are comprised of phosphorus, oxygen,

hydrogen, and carbon. D) The body needs protein to make sodium, calcium, and other mineral elements.

39) May is 89 years of age. Her heart is weak, so she spends most of her time lying in bed or sitting in a chair. Although she takes medication for hypertension, she has been unable to keep her blood pressure in the normal range. Her diet consists mainly of apples, leafy vegetables, gelatin, toast, butter, tea, and chocolate candy. May's lower legs and feet and swollen. Based on this information, the swelling is probably the result of a(an) .

A) chronic bladder infection B) dietary fiber deficiency

C) starvation diet D) PKU

40) Which of the following amino acids is a dietary essential?

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A) Alanine B) Phenylalanine

41)

C) Aspartic acid D) Homocysteine

is an essential amino acid.

A) Homocysteine B) Alanine

42)

C) Lysine D) Aspartic acid

is an essential amino acid.

A) Homocysteine B) Alanine

43)

C) Aspartic acid D) Methionine

is an essential amino acid.

A) Alanine B) Serine

44) A team of food scientists wants to develop a formula diet for newborns that is a nutritionally complete food that replaces human milk. To support normal infant development,

A) lactose B) lysine

45) A team of food scientists wants to develop a formula diet for newborns that is a nutritionally complete food that replaces human milk. To support normal infant development,

C) Threonine D) Homocysteine

the formula must have as an ingredient.

C) lipase D) homocysteine

the formula must have as an ingredient.

B) glutamic acid A) tryptophan

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C) taurine D) aspartic acid

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46) A team of food scientists wants to develop a formula diet for newborns that is a nutritionally complete food that replaces human milk. To support normal infant development, the formula must have all of the following ingredients, except . C) methionine D) homocysteine

A) tryptophan B) phenylalanine

47) The is the primary site for nonessential amino acid production in humans. C) pancreas D) smallintestine

A) pituitarygland B) liver

48) The chemical attraction between the acid group of one amino acid and the amino group of another amino acid can form a . D) partiallyhydrogenated protein

A) peptide bond B) fatty acid chain C) glycosidic linkage

49)

Instructions for making proteins are coded in a cell's . C) DNA D) ribosomes

A) plasma membrane B) golgi apparatus

50)

A gene is a

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A) type of lipoprotein that transports certain vitamins in the bloodstream B) piece of DNA that codes for a specific protein C) cellular organelle that helps maintain proper acid-

51) Two-month-old Deanna is not growing normally. After Deanna underwent numerous tests, her physicians determined that she was born with a condition in which fat deposits form in cells that are not designed to store fat. The fat deposits eventually kill the cells. Her older brother died as

The

is main site of deamination in the body. C) thyroid D) liver

A) spleen B) gallbladder

53)

a result of the same disorder when he was 8 months of age. Based on this information, Deanna has . C) defective DNA D) celiac disease

A) metabolic syndrome B) type 1 diabetes

52)

base balance D) structure that helps transfer amino acids to ribosomes

The deamination process forms

A) urine B) ammonia

C) trans fat D) glycogen

54) is the process that changes the normal shape of a protein and, as a result, the molecule loses its usual functions.

A) Hydrogenation B) Protonation

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C) Denaturation D) Filtration

55) To tenderize a thin piece of raw meat before cooking it, place the meat in a marinade that contains .

A) olive oil B) red wine

56) Leona is making lemon pudding from "scratch." Her ingredients include fat-free milk, corn starch, lemon juice, egg yolks, salt, sugar, and butter. When she added some of the ingredients together, little clumps formed in the mixture

A) The acid in thelemon juice denatured the milk proteins. B) The cholesterol inthe raw egg yolks reacted with the butter. C) The saltactivated the sugar after being mixed with

C) plain water D) cooked mushrooms

before she could heat it. What happened to those ingredients?

the egg yolks. D) The corn starch transaminated the lactose in the milk.

57) During digestion, which of the following substances denatures the proteins in food?

A) Intrinsic factor B) Mucus

C) Stomach acid D) Amylase

58) Roberta is 25 years of age, healthy, and pregnant. Based on this information, her body is in nitrogen balance.

A) inverse B) negative

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C) positive D) activated

59) Three-year-old Jamie is a healthy, active child. Based on this information, his body is in nitrogen balance.

A) activated B) positive

C) pediatric D) inverse

60) Jacob is a healthy, active 14-year-old boy. Recently, he began to experience a growth spurt. Based on this information, his body is in nitrogen balance.

A) positive B) activated

C) inverted D) negative

61) Rosa is a teenager who has an eating disorder characterized by self-imposed starvation. Based on this information, her body is in nitrogen balance.

A) activated B) positive

62) Bernard has been suffering from a viral infection for over a week. As a result of the illness, he has a fever and has lost his appetite. Based on this information, his body is in

A) negative B) facilitated

C) denatured D) negative

nitrogen balance.

C) positive D) deactivated

63) Victoria is 92 years of age. Recently, she experienced a viral infection that has made her weak and lose interest in eating. Based on this information, Victoria is in .

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A) positive nitrogen equilibrium B) anaphylactic shock C) negative nitrogen balance

D) facilitated reenergizing mode

64) Luis is 23 years of age and weighs 220 pounds. Based on his body weight, his RDA for protein is grams.

A) 80 B) 100

C) 120 D) 140

65) Marta is 22 years of age and weighs 132 pounds. Based on her body weight, her RDA for protein is grams.

A) 48 B) 68

C) 88 D) 108

66) Isabella is 24 years of age and weighs 156 pounds. Based on her body weight, her RDA for protein is about grams.

A) 47 B) 57

C) 125 D) 345

67) Keegan is 24 years of age and weighs 178 pounds. Based on his body weight, his RDA for protein is about grams.

A) 45 B) 55

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C) 65 D) 75

68) Bethaney is 20 years of age and weighs 50 kg. Based on her body weight, her RDA for protein is grams. C) 35 D) 40

A) 25 B) 30

69) Evan is 28 years of age and weighs 130 kg. His RDA for protein is grams. C) 87 D) 104

A) 47 B) 70

70) Which of the following substances is an enzyme thatparticipates in the digestion of proteins? C) Trypsin D) Bile

A) Amylase B) Cholecystokinin

71) Which of the following substances is an enzyme that participates in the digestion of proteins? C) Mucus D) Pepsin

A) Amylase B) Lipase

72) In the stomach, digestion of protein.

participate in the chemical

A) gastric lipase andintrinsic factor B) hydrochloric acidand pepsin Version 1

C) mucus andcholecystokinin D) pancreatic 17

amylase and intrinsic factor

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73) Lucy has a disease that affects the functioning of her pancreas. Based on this information, she may have difficulty

digesting proteins because of a lack of . C) trypsin D) lipase

A) pepsin B) amylase

74) Which of the following foods is often responsible for causing an allergic response in susceptible persons? C) Blueberries D) Peanuts

A) Broccoli B) Grapes

75) Which of the following foods is not usually responsible for causing allergic responses?

A) Carrots andcelery B) Wheat andshellfish C) Peanuts and other nuts

D) Fish andshellfish

76) Carmen is an activechild who is allergic to peanuts. While attending a classroom party, Carmen accidentally was exposed to trail mix that contained peanuts, and she rapidly developed as a result.

D) anaphylactic A) gluten sensitivity B) positive protein balance C) cirrhosis of the liver

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shock

77)

A person suffering from celiac disease must avoid

A) lying down after meals B) eating foods that contain phenylalanine C) consuming foods that contain gluten

. D) taking dietary supplements that contain homocysteine

78) You are planning a party for a group of friends. Which of the following foods can you serve to everyone at the party, without having to worry about your friend who has celiac disease?

A) Pizza made with whole-grain flour B) Cheddar cheese on wheat crackers C) Pieces of melon and berries

79) You would like to bake a special birthday cake for a friend who has celiac disease. The original cake recipe is made with eggs, flour, milk, sugar, vanilla, and butter. To make a cake that is safe for your friend to consume, you plan

D) Corn beef on rye bread

to substitute for the in the recipe.

D) aspartame; A) water; milk B) cornmeal;flour C) margarine; butter

80) You would like to bake a special pudding for a friend who has celiac disease. The original pudding recipe is made with eggs, flour, milk, sugar, vanilla, and butter. To make pudding that is safe for your friend to consume, you plan to

sugar

substitute

C) corn oil;butter D) tapioca;flour

A) apple juice;milk B) honey; sugar

81)

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for the in the recipe.

You would like to

make chicken soup for a friend whohas celiac disease. To make the soup according to the recipe, you need to cook chicken, celery, onions, barley, salt, pepper, bay leaf, and carrots in a large amount of water. Based on this information,

A) Avoid adding thebay leaf B) Omit the salt andinclude a beef bouillon cube C) Replace the barleywith rice

how can you make the soup safe for your friend to eat?

D) Add some wine to denature the chicken protein

82) When Thompson was 5 years of age, he began to complain that his stomach hurt, especially after eating meals and snacks. He also experienced chronic diarrhea. His parents noticed that he could eat poultry, meat, dairy foods, fruits, and vegetables without developing any intestinal problems, but he would get a "tummy ache" soon after eating sandwiches, cookies, crackers, or pancakes. Based on this information, Thompson's parents should have him evaluated for .

A) cystic fibrosis B) celiac disease

C) irritable bowel syndrome D) colon cancer

83) Cameron was born with a condition that requires him to limit eating foods that contain phenylalanine. Based on this information, Cameron has .

A) PKU B) amino acid toxicity syndrome

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C) cystic fibrosis D) IBD

84) Dallas, a healthy, active teenager, was diagnosed with PKU when he was only a few days old. In addition to foods that are manufactured to be low in phenylalanine, which of

A) Baked potatoes B) Fat-free milk

85) Tessa, a healthy, active teenager, was diagnosed with PKU when she was an infant. In addition to foods that are manufactured to be low in phenylalanine, which of the

A) Pasta B) Yogurt

the following foods can he eat to meet his protein needs safely? C) Fried fish D) Lean hamburger

following foods can she eat to meet her protein needs safely? C) Chicken D) Eggs

86) Lily is 22 years of age. She usually consumes about 1800 kcal per day. According to AMDR guidelines, protein should comprise % of her total energy intake.

A) 10 to 35 B) 20 to 45

87) Katrina is 20 years of age. She usually consumes about 1800 kcal per day. According to AMDR guidelines,

A) 90 to 360kcal/day B) 180 to 630kcal/day C) 450 to 900kcal/day

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C) 30 to 55 D) 40 to 65

what is her range of protein intake? D) 720 to 1080kcal/day

A) 6 B) 11

89) from

In 2015-2016, Americans typically ate more protein than they consumed in 1999.

A) unprocessed poultry B) unprocessed red meat

90)

C) 16 D) 20

C) processed meat D) fish and shellfish

In 2015-2016, American's typical consumption of decreased compared to 1999.

A) unprocessed poultry B) unprocessed red meat

C) processed meat D) fish and shellfish

91) Diets that contain high amounts of red or processed meats are associated with an increased risk of developing .

A) colorectal cancer B) protein undernutrition C) malabsorption in children

D) phenylketonuria (PKU)

92) Diets that contain high amounts of red or processed meats are associated with an increased risk of developing .

A) pancreatic cancer B) protein undernutrition

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C) malabsorption in children D)

phenylketonuria (PKU)

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93) Which of the following foods is a high-protein snack that can replace a snack that contains animal proteins?

A) Slice of American cheese B) Vegetable salad with greens and baby carrots C) Apple and watermelon chunks

D) Peanut butter on crackers

94) Which of the following foods is a high-protein snack that can replace a snack that contains animal proteins?

A) 8 ounces of soy milk B) 1 ounce of baby carrots C) ½ cup ofwatermelon chunks

95)

D) 6 whole-wheat crackers

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Most food labels include information about the bioavailability of protein in the product. B) The Nutrition Facts panel provides information about a product's essential amino acid content. C) You can judge a packaged food's protein quality by reviewing the ingredients' list.

D) Nutrient labels are not required to include information about the grams of protein in a serving of the food.

96) Which of the following label resources can you use to determine whether a canned food has high-quality protein?

D) Nutrition Facts A) Ingredients' list B) Daily Value for protein C) Protein disclaimer Version 1

panel

97) Joaquin would like to purchase a salad at the grocery store that contains high-quality protein. According to the following salad product label ingredient lists, which product should he choose?

A) Cucumbers, strawberries, grapes, red bell peppers, chopped basil, pumpkin seeds, olive oil, lime juice, and salt B) Cooked rotini pasta, spinach, tomatoes, soybean oil, vinegar, salt, red peppers, and olives C) Romaine lettuce, iceberg lettuce, carrots, and red cabbage

98)

D) Cooked chicken breast, mayonnaise, hard-boiled eggs, celery, sugar, sea salt, lemon juice, and pepper

Which of the following foods are legumes? C) Onions D) Mushrooms

A) Peanuts B) Potatoes

99) Which of the following foods is a poor source of essential amino acids? C) Peanuts D) Sesame seeds

A) Fat-free milk B) Apple

100) Which of the following foods is a poor source of essential amino acids?

A) Cashew nuts B) Red cabbage

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C) Fat-free milk D) Sunflower seeds

A) Cottage cheese B) Pistachio nuts

C) Chicken D) Onions

102) Which of the following foods is naturally a good source of high-quality protein?

A) Tuna fish B) Corn oil margarine

C) Leaf lettuce D) Red grapes

103) Which of the following foods is naturally a good source of high-quality protein?

A) Fat-free milk B) Soybean oil C) Avocado with leafy greens salad

D) Sesame seed crackers

104) Which of the following foods is a good source of highquality protein?

A) Soy milk B) Orange juice

C) Boiled cabbage D) Leaf lettuce

105) Of the following foods, which is the best source of essential amino acids?

A) Leaf lettuce B) Sunflower seeds

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C) Grape juice D) Carrots

A) Cranberries,apples, and marshmallows B) Kidney beans,rice, and sesame seeds C) Peaches, bananas, and apricots

D) Iceberg lettuce,carrots, and tomatoes

107) When combined, which of the following groups of foods forms a complementary protein dish?

A) Sesame, sunflower,and pumpkin seeds B) Peaches, bananas,and apricots C) Iceberg lettuce,carrots, and tomatoes

D) Peanuts, rice, and cashews

108) Which of the following menu items contains complementary protein?

A) Whole-wheat crackers spread with soy nut butter B) Banana, apple,and grapefruit slices in a mixed fruit salad

C) Kidney and green beans in vinegar and oil D) Whole-wheat bread with strawberry jam

109) Which of the following menu items does not contain complementary protein?

A) Whole-wheat crackers spread with soy nut butter

D) Salad made with apples, pears, and grapes

B) Pita bread dipped in mashed chickpeas C) Kidney beans mixed with rice

110) Bernice is a vegan. Which of the following foods does she eat to supply her diet with protein? A) Eggs

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B) Cheese C) Legumes

D) Butter

111) Buddy is a vegan. Which of the following foods does he eat to supply his diet with protein?

A) Eggs B) Quinoa

C) Fat-free milk D) Butter

112) Fred is a lactovegetarian. Which of the following foods does he eat?

A) Eggs B) Fish

C) Cheese D) Chicken

113) Bryce is an ovovegetarian. Which of the following foods does he eat?

A) Egg salad B) Chicken salad

C) Tuna salad D) Turkey salad

114) Taryn is a pescatarian. Which of the following foods does she eat?

A) Eggs B) Chicken

115)

C) Salmon D) Cheese

The typical vegetarian diet supplies high amounts of . A) saturated fat

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C) vitamin B-12 D) vitamin C

B) cholesterol

116) Ruben has a family history of type 2 diabetes. To reduce his risk of this disease, he should consider following a diet. C) high-protein A) Western B) vegan

diet D) low-potassium

117) Which of the following diets does not provide enough high-quality proteins to support a child's growth? C) Fruitarian D) Semivegetarian

A) Pescatarian B) Ovovegetarian

118) Erika is a vegan. To avoid developing a serious nutritional deficiency, she needs to include a source of in her diet. C) magnesium D) folate

A) vitamin B-12 B) fiber

119) Plant-based diets may not supply enough meet a child's needs.

A) fiber B) vitamin C Version 1

C) protein D) sodium

120) Plant-based diets may not supply enough meet a child's needs.

A) fiber B) energy

C) vitamin C D) magnesium

121) Consuming too much protein or excess amino acids can contribute to .

A) dehydration B) coronary artery disease

C) arthritis D) stroke

122) Marla is a healthy 30-year-old woman. She doesn't work out, but she consumes protein supplements because she thinks they will increase her muscle mass without the need to exercise. Based on this information, the excess amino acids in her diet will .

A) be added to her muscle tissue B) undergo deamination in her liver C) enhance her body's absorption of calcium

123)

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Diabetes is a major sign of protein undernutrition. B) People with chronic inflammation often have higher protein needs. C) A person with an increased appetite has a higher

124)

D) be metabolized for energy quickly

risk of protein undernutrition. D) Teenagers often do not consume enough protein to meet their needs.

Which of the following statements is true?

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A) Compared to children in other parts of the world, impoverished children in the United States have the highest risk of protein-energy malnutrition. B) Protein-energy malnutrition affects babies while they are breastfeeding. C) Edema is a major sign of protein-energy

malnutrition. D) In the United States, teenagers have the greatest risk of proteinenergy malnutrition.

125) A child with protein-energy malnutrition has a high risk of dying from .

A) hyperglycemia B) celiac disease

C) measles D) diabetes

126) High intakes of vitamin A during pregnancy can cause birth defects. This is an example of .

A) nutrigenomics B) nutrigenetics

C) nutrifanatics D) nutripronomics

127) Jerome and Joseph are the same age, weight and height. However, Jerome requires more vitamin C than Joseph. This is an example of .

A) nutrigenomics B) nutrigenetics

128)

Aniah and Tiffany are the same age, weight, and

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C) nutrifanatics D) nutripronomics

height. However, Tiffany's

heart rate increases and she feels anxious after drinking 1 cup of caffeinated coffee. Aniah drinks 3 cups of caffeinated coffee a day and does not experience any side effects from the

A) nutrigenomics B) nutrigenetics

caffeine. This is an example of

C) nutrifanatics D) nutripronomics

129) Which of the following foods is the least expensive per ounce?

A) Sliced peaches at $1.49 per 16-ounce can B) Sliced peaches at $1.29 per 12-ounce can C) Frozen sliced peaches at $2.59 per 10-ounce bag

D) Frozen sliced peaches at $2.99 per 16ounce bag

130) Which of the following foods is the least expensive per ounce?

A) Sliced peaches at $2.59 per 16-ounce can B) Sliced peaches at $2.19 per 10-ounce can C) Frozen sliced peaches at $2.56 per 12-ounce bag

D) Frozen slicedpeaches at $2.69 per 18-ounce bag

131) Which of the following bags of frozen peaches is the most expensive per ounce?

A) Frozen sliced peaches at $2.59 per 10-ounce bag

D) Frozen sliced peaches at $2.50 per 1pound bag

B) Frozen sliced peaches at $4.49 per 2-pound bag C) Frozen slicedpeaches at $2.56 per 12-ounce bag

132) Which of the following forms of produceis the most expensive per pound?

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A) Sliced, yellow, delicious apples at $1.00 per 1ounce bag B) Fresh, yellow, delicious apples at $5.49 per 2pound bag C) Sliced, yellow, delicious apples at $2.25 per

Version 1

pound bag D) Fresh, yellow, delicious apples at $3.50 per 2-pound bag

Answer Key Test name: ch7

Version 1

1) FALSE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) TRUE 12) FALSE 13) TRUE 14) TRUE 15) TRUE 16) TRUE 17) FALSE 18) FALSE 19) FALSE 20) FALSE 21) TRUE Version 1

22) TRUE 23) C 24) A 25) A 26) C 27) C 28) C 29) A 30) C 31) A 32) A 33) B 34) A 35) B 36) A 37) C 38) A 39) C 40) B 41) C 42) D Version 1

43) C 44) B 45) A 46) D 47) B 48) A 49) C 50) B 51) C 52) D 53) B 54) C 55) B 56) A 57) C 58) C 59) B 60) A 61) D 62) A 63) C Version 1

64) A 65) A 66) B 67) C 68) D 69) D 70) C 71) D 72) B 73) C 74) D 75) A 76) D 77) C 78) C 79) B 80) D 81) C 82) B 83) A 84) A Version 1

85) A 86) A 87) B 88) C 89) A 90) B 91) A 92) A 93) D 94) A 95) C 96) A 97) D 98) A 99) B 100) B 101) D 102) A 103) A 104) A 105) B Version 1

106) B 107) D 108) A 109) D 110) C 111) B 112) C 113) A 114) C 115) D 116) B 117) C 118) A 119) C 120) B 121) A 122) B 123) B 124) C 125) C 126) A Version 1

127) B 128) B 129) A 130) D 131) A 132) A

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Student name: TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Scientists have discovered all essential vitamins. ⊚ ⊚

Vitamins E, K, C, and D are fat-soluble vitamins. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Niacin is a water-soluble vitamin. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) To conserve the vitamin C content of cabbage, add a teaspoon of baking soda to the cooking water before heating the cabbage. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Vitamin K is a powerful antioxidant. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

6) During the grain enrichment process, refined wheat flour has vitamins E, C, and D added to it. ⊚ ⊚

true false

7) Beta-carotene is the most biologically active form of vitamin A. ⊚ ⊚

true false

8) One of the major signs of a severe vitamin A deficiency is xerophthalmia. ⊚ ⊚

true false

9) Night blindness is an early symptom of vitamin D deficiency. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) Women who take high doses of riboflavin during pregnancy are more likely to deliver babies with birth defects than pregnant women who take high doses of vitamin A.

Version 1

⊚

true

⊚

false

11) When healthy skin is exposed to sunshine, it forms a substance that the body converts to active vitamin D. ⊚ ⊚

12)

true false

The adult form of rickets is called osteomalacia. ⊚ ⊚

true false

13) According to the Dietary Guidelines for Americans, vitamin C is a "nutrient of public health concern." ⊚ ⊚

true false

14) The body uses vitamin K to make provitamin, which is needed for proper blood clotting. ⊚ ⊚

true false

15) In humans, the lack of vitamin K results in a condition called pernicious anemia. Version 1

⊚

16)

true

⊚

false

Kale is a rich source of vitamin K. ⊚ ⊚

true false

17) Niacin is a B vitamin that is needed for energy metabolism. ⊚ ⊚

18)

true false

People can die from pellagra. ⊚ ⊚

true false

19) Milk, eggs, poultry, meat, and pork are poor sources of vitamin B-12. ⊚ ⊚

true false

20) According to results of scientific studies, taking megadoses of vitamin E is an effective way of lowering the

Version 1

risk of heart disease and cancer.

⊚

true

21) According to results of some scientific studies, people who have age-related macular degeneration (AMD) may be able to slow the progression of the disease by taking dietary ⊚ ⊚

false

supplements that contain lutein and zeaxanthin.

true false

22) According to results of scientific studies, people who take dietary supplements of vitamin A or beta-carotene have a ⊚ ⊚

⊚

lower risk of developing cancer.

true false

23) In 2020, the liver was the leading site for new cases of cancer among American men. ⊚ ⊚

true false

24) In 2020, the stomach was the leading site for new cases of cancer among American women. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 25) Which of the following statements is true?

A) People can survive for years by only consuming formula diets that contain all known vitamins. B) Biotin is a vitamin-like substance for humans. C) Vitamins are classified as being soluble in either alcohol or fat.

26)

D) Scientists are conducting research on plants to discover more vitamins that are essential for human beings.

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Scientists think all vitamins have been discovered. B) Biotin is a vitamin-like substance for humans. C) Vitamins are classified as being soluble in either

alcohol or fat. D) The first vitamin was discovered in 1960.

27) Which of the following statements is true about vitamins?

A) Chemically, theyare the same as minerals. B) Compared to protein, the body requires vitamins in larger quantities. C) Excesses can beconverted to glucose for energy.

28)

D) They are usually in foods that Americans commonly eat.

Which of the following statements is true? C) The body

A) Vitamins supplyabout 2 kcal per gram. B) The body excretesfat-soluble vitamins more easily than water-soluble vitamins.

Version 1

stores vitamins in the liver, spleen, and bones. D) Most vitamins cannot be synthesized by the human body.

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29) The human body can absorb some synthesized by intestinal bacteria.

that is

C) biotin D) beta-carotene

A) vitamin C B) riboflavin

30) The human body may absorb some of the that is synthesized by intestinal bacteria. C) thiamin D) vitamin A

A) vitamin K B) riboflavin

31) Which of the following vitamins can be made by the human body? C) D D) Thiamin

A) C B) B-12

32) Sonyahas a chronic illness, and to treat the condition, she takes an antibiotic every day. Despite her illness, Sonya's diet is nutritionally adequate, and she exercises regularly.

Based on this information, Sonya may need to . acids

A) reduce her protein intake B) eat more vitamin C rich foods C) consume fewer foods that containomega-3 fatty

33) Damonhas a chronic illness, and to treat the condition, he takes an antibiotic every day. Despite his illness, Damon's diet is nutritionally adequate, and he exercises regularly.

D) take a dietary supplement that contains biotin

Based on this information, Damon may need to . A) reduce his

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protein intake B) eat more vitamin-C rich foods C) take a dietary supplement that contains vitamin K

D) consume fewer foods that containomega-3 fatty acids

34) Which of the following substances is considered a "vitamin-like" nutrient for humans? C) Pantothenic A) Choline B) Biotin

35)

acid D) Riboflavin

are fat-soluble vitamins.

A) Niacin,riboflavin, and thiamin B) Vitamins K, E, andD C) Pantothenic acid,vitamin A, and choline

36)

D) Vitamins B-12, B-6,and E

are fat-soluble vitamins. D) Vitamins K, D, A) Niacin,riboflavin, and thiamin B) Vitamins B-12,B-6, and E C) Pantothenic acid,vitamin E, and choline

37)

andA

are fat-soluble vitamins.

A) Vitamins D and E B) Niacin and thiamin C) Pantothenic acid and vitamin A

D) Vitamins B-12 and B-6

38) are water-soluble vitamins.

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D) Vitamin A,riboflavin, and vitamin C

A) Vitamin D, A, andE B) Thiamin, vitaminK, and niacin C) Pantothenic acid,vitamin C, and thiamin

39)

are water-soluble vitamins. D) Vitamins B12,B-6, and E

A) Niacin,riboflavin, and thiamin B) Vitamins K, D, andE C) Pantothenic acid,vitamin A, and choline

40)

The body can store large amounts of

A) vitamin C B) riboflavin

C) thiamin D) vitamin B-12

41) Why is taking excess amounts of fat-soluble vitamin supplements more likely to cause toxicity than taking excess

amounts of water-soluble vitamin supplements?

A) In general, the body is likely to store more watersoluble vitamins than fat-soluble vitamins. B) The body has higher requirements for watersoluble vitamins. C) The body has higherrequirements for fat-soluble

vitamins. D) In general, it is more difficult for the body to eliminate fat-soluble vitamins than watersoluble vitamins.

42) Which of the following cooking methods can result in major losses of water-soluble vitamins?

A) Stir-frying in a small amount of oil B) Boiling in a saucepan of water C) Steaming in a vegetable steamer

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D) Microwaving in little or no water

43)

To conserve the vitamin content of foods,

. and air

A) cook slowly in large amounts of water B) peel vegetables and cut into small pieces before cooking in water C) store in warm conditions, and expose to sunlight

D) stir-fry instead of boil

44) When cooking green beans, Jamal likes to add baking soda to the cooking water, because it keeps the color of the beans from turning olive green. As a result of this practice, Jamal's green beans have than green beans cooked in plain water.

A) more essentialamino acids B) greater fattyacid content

45) Adding a small amount of to cooked vegetables can enhance the intestinal tract's ability to absorb

C) less vitamin C D) fewerkilocalories

the fat-soluble vitamins they contain. C) butter D) sugar

A) water B) wine

46) A researcher has isolated an organic, water-soluble chemical from roses. After performing in vivo tests, the scientist determines that the chemical supplies no energy for cells, but protects cell membranes from being damaged by certain environmental factors. Based on this information, the researcher may have discovered a(an) .

A) antioxidant B) amino acid

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C) precursor D) autoanalyzing agent

47) An is a substance that protects vulnerable molecules from radicals.

A) enzyme B) oncogene

C) antioxidant D) ion

48) prevent or limit the ability of radicals to damage polyunsaturated fatty acids and DNA in cells.

A) Phosphates B) Oxidizing agents

C) Antidotes D) Antioxidants

49) Which of the following vitamins have antioxidant activity?

A) B-6 B) D

50) A medical researcher is investigating the chemical and physical properties of substance that she isolated from the surface of charcoal-grilled meat. When the scientist mixes a small amount of the substance with living human cells, the chemical causes the rapid breakdown of the cells' plasma membranes. She is able to prevent this reaction by adding

A) discovered that vitamin C is has pro-oxidant activity during in vivo experiments B) isolated a potential treatment for cancer in charcoal-grilled meat C) determined that the chemical isolated from

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C) K D) E

vitamin C to the mixture of the substance chemical and cells. Based on this information, the scientist has .

charcoal-grilled meat is an oxidizing agent D) conducted an in vitro experiment under poorly controlled conditions

51) A medical researcher has isolated a chemical from cigarette smoke. When the scientist mixes a small amount of the substance with living human cells, the chemical damages unsaturated fatty acids in the cells' plasma membranes. He is able to prevent this damage by adding vitamin E to the

A) determined that the chemical in cigarette smoke is an oxidizing agent B) discovered a vitamin-based cure for lung cancer C) conducted an in vitro experiment under poorly

mixture of the chemical and cells. Based on this information, the scientist has .

controlled conditions D) identified vitamin E as a prooxidant

52) is added to refined cornmeal during the grain enrichment process.

A) Vitamin B-6 B) Thiamin

C) Vitamin D D) Choline

53) is added to refined rice during the grain enrichment process.

A) Vitamin B-6 B) Pantothenic acid

C) Vitamin D D) Riboflavin

54) is added to refined cereal grains during the grain enrichment process.

A) Niacin B) Pantothenic acid

C) Vitamin D D) Vitamin B-6

55) Which of the following vitamins is not added to refined grains as part of the grain enrichment process? A) Niacin

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B) Folic acid C) Vitamin B-6

D) Thiamin

56) Which of the following substances is a provitamin or a precursor for a vitamin?

A) Lecithin B) Acetyl-CoA

57) Barry is a vegan. His diet does not include foods that contain preformed vitamin A, and he does not take any vitamin A supplements. Nevertheless, his body has adequate vitamin A stores. Which of the following statements provides

A) He eats plenty offoods that contain beta-carotene. B) His body does notrequire sources of vitamin A. C) He consumes foodsthat supply tryptophan, which his liver converts to preformed vitamin A.

C) Beta-carotene D) Alphatocopherol

the best explanation for Barry's adequate vitamin A status?

D) His fat cellssynthesize preformed vitamin A from essential fatty acids.

58) Matt is a vegan. As a result of his diet, he consumes no sources of preformed vitamin A. Which of the following statements explains why he has not developed a deficiency of vitamin A?

A) Matt's dietsupplies high amounts of beta-carotene. B) Matt's diet isrich in vitamin C, which reduces his need for vitamin A. C) Matt eats plenty of vitamin B-enriched cereal

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products. D) Matt's diet contain high amounts of tryptophan.

59)

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Retinol is foundonly in plant foods. B) Certaincarotenoids are precursors for preformed vitamin A. C) Vitamin A isnecessary for calcium and

phosphorus absorption. D) In children,vitamin A deficiency is called rickets.

60) is the most biologically active form of vitamin A in the body.

A) Alpha-tocopherol B) Lutein

C) Beta-carotene D) Retinol

61) In general, yellow, red, and orange fruits and vegetables are rich sources of .

A) gelatin B) essential amino acids

C) beta-carotene D) vitamin D

62) Which of the following foods is a rich source of betacarotene?

A) Bacon B) Carrots

C) Chicken D) Pear

63) Which of the following foods provides the most betacarotene per serving?

A) Bacon, 1 strip, cooked

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B) Mango, 1 medium, raw

C) Plain yogurt, 1/2 cup D) Pear, 1 medium, raw

64) Which of the following foods is a good dietary source of beta-carotene? C) Bread D) Broccoli

A) Hamburger B) Salmon

65) Which of the following foods is the best source of preformed vitamin A? C) Soybeans D) Apples

A) Carrots B) Liver

66)

In the body, vitamin A helps

A) reduce collagen synthesis B) insulin enter cells C) maintain epithelial cells

67)

D) the small intestine absorb calcium and phosphorus

An early symptom of vitamin A deficiency is .

A) night blindness B) headaches

C) hair loss D) swollen tongue

68) In underdeveloped countries, severe vitamin A deficiency is a major cause of . A) diabetes

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mellitus B) megaloblastic anemia

69) A deficiency of vitamin deterioration of epithelial cells.

C) blindness D) beriberi

results in

A) B-6 B) A

C) B-12 D) K

70) Which of the following vitamins is a teratogen, when consumed in excess?

A) Pantothenic acid B) Choline

C) Vitamin C D) Vitamin A

71) Gina is pregnant. Although Gina's physician prescribed a prenatal vitamin for her to take daily, Gina thought she could have a very healthy baby by taking extra vitamins, so she took several other dietary supplements, including thosethat contained vitamin A. As a result, her total intake of vitamin A was over 5000 mcg RAE/day. Based on this information, Gina is at risk of .

A) giving birth to a baby with cystic fibrosis B) developing gestational diabetes mellitus C) giving birth to a baby with birth defects

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D) developing vitamin C-resistant scurvy

C) copper D) glucose

A) choline B) vitamin D

73) Which of the following vitamins functions as a hormone in the human body? C) Riboflavin D) Vitamin D

A) Vitamin C B) Niacin

74) Which of the following foods are reliable dietary sources of vitamin D?

A) Fresh fruits B) Fortified dairy products C) Refined breads and cereals

D) Processed luncheon meats

75) Which of the following foods is a natural source of vitamin D?

A) Fatty fish B) Dark orange and yellow vegetables

C) Whole-grain breads and cereals D) Fresh fruit

76) Which of the following substances is a rich source of vitamin D?

A) Cod liver oil B) Collagen

77)

C) Tryptophan D) Fresh lime juice

Which of the following statements is true?

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adults. A) Excessive intakesof vitamin D cause rickets in children. B) Skin can form previtamin D after being exposed to sunlight. C) Pellagra is thevitamin D deficiency disorder in

D) Vitamin D is necessary for proper collagen formation.

78) Which of the following hormones acts to increase calcium absorption and decrease urinary calcium excretion? C) Antidiuretic hormone D) Insulin

A) Parathyroidhormone B) Glucagon

79)

Vitamin D helps the body absorb

A) iron and copper B) sodium and potassium C) phosphorus and calcium

80) Jameela is an Iranian woman living in poverty. She is almost completely covered in heavy veils when in public places. Her usual diet includes legumes, small amounts of yogurt, whole-grain bread and rice, fruits, and a few

A) pellagra B) beriberi

81) Issac is an 8-year-old child who has African ancestry. He lives in Chicago and does not spend much time outdoors. He does not like to consume dairy foods because he has lactose intolerance. His diet consists primarily of enriched white bread, peanut butter, chicken, pork, apples, bananas,

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D) magnesium and iodine

vegetables. Based on this information, Jameela is most at risk of .

C) scurvy D) osteomalacia

and green vegetables. Based on this information, Issac has a high risk of .

A) pellagra B) beriberi

82)

C) scurvy D) rickets

Excessive vitamin D consumption can result in .

A) deposition of calcium in soft tissues B) increased blood clot formation C) megaloblastic anemia

D) No particular health problems, because the vitamin is rapidly excreted in urine

83) According to the Dietary Guidelines, which of the following vitamins is a "nutrient of public health concern"?

A) Pantothenic acid B) Choline

84)

C) Vitamin D D) Vitamin B-6

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Technically,vitamin E is not a vitamin because the body can make the nutrient. B) Premature infantsare at risk of vitamin E deficiency. C) Megadoses ofvitamin E are associated with bone pain, general weakness, and death.

D) According toscientific research, 75% of Americans consume diets that supply excessiveamounts of vitamin E.

85) Which of the following foods is not a good source of vitamin E?

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C) Ground beef D) Whole grains

A) Safflower oil B) Sunflower seeds

86) Vitamin protects polyunsaturated fatty acids from being damaged by radicals. C) D D) K

A) B-12 B) E

87) The liver needs clotting factors.

to make certain blood

C) homocysteine D) riboflavin

A) vitamin C B) vitamin K

88)

The human body needs vitamin K to

A) absorb phosphorus from foods B) release the energy stored in glucose C) synthesize DNA

89)

The liver needs vitamin K to

D) form active blood clotting factors

. D) metabolize

A) process calcium B) store glycogen C) synthesize prothrombin

90)

alcohol

In the United States, newborns receive an injection of to prevent . A) vitamin

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K;bleeding B) vitamin C;collagen breakdown C) niacin;pellagra

D) thiamin;beriberi

91) Which of the following foods is a goodsource of vitamin K? C) Processed poultry products D) Citrus fruit

A) Green leafy vegetables B) Butter

92) Which of the following foods is a rich source of vitamin K? C) Lean pork D) Banana

A) Whole egg B) Spinach

93) Which of the following foods is a good source of vitamin K? C) Soybean oil D) Orange juice

A) Bread made from refined wheat flour B) Ground beef

94)

In general, B vitamins function as

A) parts of coenzymes B) hormones C) neurotransmitters

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. D) structural components of body cells

C) Pantothenic A) Vitamin A B) Vitamin K

acid D) Ascorbic acid

96) Which of the following vitamins plays a direct role in energy metabolism? C) Vitamin C D) Riboflavin

A) Vitamin A B) Vitamin K

97) Which of the following vitamins does not play a direct role in energy metabolism?

A) Thiamin B) Niacin

C) Folate D) Pantothenic acid

98) Which of the following vitamins does not play a direct role in energy metabolism?

A) Thiamin B) Niacin

C) Vitamin B-12 D) Pantothenic acid

99) Which of the following foods is not a good source of thiamin?

A) Whole milk B) Pork chops

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C) Bread made from enriched wheat flour D) Wheat germ

100)

Which of the following foods is a good source of

thiamin?

A) Corn oil B) Cheddar cheese

C) Bread made from enriched wheat flour D) Milk

101) Exposing milk to light can reduce its content.

A) thiamin B) riboflavin

102) Libby wants to have a birthday party for her 5-yearold daughter and several of the child's friends. She plans to serve cake, ice cream, and milk to the children in the backyard on a warm sunny afternoon. To conserve vitamins in

A) add a teaspoon of baking soda and chocolate syrup to it B) serve the milk in a clear glass container C) heat the milk to the boiling point, and let it cool

C) niacin D) vitamin D

the milk, Libby should .

before serving it D) store the milk in the refrigerator until serving time

103) Which of the following food groups includes foods that are rich sources of riboflavin?

A) Fruits B) Vegetables

C) Dairy D) Oils

104) Which of the following food groups includes foods that are among the best sources of riboflavin?

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A) Grains that have undergone enrichment B) Vegetables that are lightly cooked C) Fruits that are eaten raw

D) Oils that have undergone partial hydrogenation

105) Of the following foods, which is the richest source of riboflavin?

A) Tomatoes B) Corn oil margarine

106) Ron's diet lacks niacin. He hasn't developed pellagra, because he consumes a high-protein diet that contains plenty

A) beta-carotene B) alanine

107) Cooper eats a lot of refined grain products that have not been enriched with nutrients. He likes to eat fresh fruit, cabbage, and corn; but he avoids pork, beef, poultry, chicken, eggs, and dairy foods. Recently, he has been feeling tired, and his muscles are not as strong as they used to be. The skin of his face and neck has red and scaly patches. For the past

C) Fat-free milk D) Red delicious apples

of , the precursor for niacin. C) alphatocopherol D) tryptophan

couple of days, he has had bouts of diarrhea. Based on this information, Cooper probably is suffering from .

C) pernicious A) pellagra B) scurvy

anemia D) xerophthalmia

108) The classic signs and symptoms of pellagra include . A) diarrhea Version 1

B) dry cough C) edema

D) night blindness

109) The classic signs and symptoms of pellagra include . C) dermatitis D) night blindness

A) heartburn B) weak bones

110) Felicity's LDL cholesterol level is too high. To lower her cholesterol level, she took large doses of a certain vitamin supplement, but she experienced gastrointestinal ulcers and liver damage as a result. Based on this information, which vitamin did she take? C) Vitamin C D) Riboflavin

A) B-12 B) Niacin

111)

Humans need vitamin B-6 for

A) magnesium absorption B) vitamin C synthesis C) carbohydrate excretion

112) Erika takes megadoses of vitamin B-6 because she thinks it benefits her health. After learning about this vitamin in your nutrition class, which of the following statements

D) amino acid metabolism

about vitamin B-6 would be the most accurate information to tell her? D) Women who

A) Vitamin B-6 is theleast toxic of the B vitamins. B) Megadoses ofvitamin B-6 can result in calcification of soft tissues. C) Ingesting largedoses of vitamin B-6 can cause nerve damage.

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takemegadoses of vitamin B-6 are healthier than those who do

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113) Sean has carpal tunnel syndrome. A few months ago, he began taking megadoses of vitaminB-6, when he read that the vitamincan cure the disorder. Today, Sean reported to his friends that his hands were feeling numb and his walking is

A) continue taking the megadoses of vitamin B-6, because his body needs more time to heal B) discontinue taking vitamin B-6, because his body does not require the micronutrient C) increase his vitamin B-6 intake, because the numbness and unsteadiness are signs that the treatment is

114) Ronald has an inherited metabolic defect in which his cells have difficulty processing the toxic amino acid homocysteine to form the nonessential amino acid cysteine. His physician may recommend vitamin

A) B-6 B) A

unsteady. Based on this information, Sean should .

working D) stop taking vitamin B-6, because he is showing signs and symptoms of vitamin B-6 toxicity

supplements to help Ronald's body metabolize homocysteine.

C) C D) D

115) As a result of an inherited metabolic defect, Christopher's cells have difficulty converting homocysteine to .

A) tryptophan B) cysteine

116) that

C) vitamin B-6 D) folate

The body needs folate to produce a coenzyme .

A) metabolizes vitamin E B) protects fatty acids from oxidation C) helps form DNA

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D) transmits nervous impulses

117)

Green leafy vegetables and orange juice are rich

sources of

C) thiamin D) folate

A) vitamin B-12 B) iron

118) Becky's 2-year-old-son can not walk because he was born with spina bifida. To reduce the chances that her next baby is born with this birth defect or related disorders, Becky should .

A) consume green leafy vegetables, drink orange juice, and take a folic acid supplement before getting pregnant B) eat at least 3 ounces of fatty fish three times a week, take vitamin A and D supplements, and drink at least 2 cups of fat-free milk during the first three months of pregnancy C) take pantothenic acid, B-6, and B-12 supplements

before getting pregnant D) take iron, zinc, and magnesium supplements during the first month of pregnancy, then eat more whole-grain breads and cereals for the remaining months of pregnancy

119)

Pregnant women who have a history of inadequate intakes are at risk of having babies with neural tube defects. C) folate D) selenium

A) vitamin A B) iron

120)

Intrinsic factor is needed to absorb vitamin

A) B-12 B) C

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. C) B-6 D) A

A) pellagra B) cystic fibrosis

C) osteomalacia D) pernicious anemia

122) Dorothy is a 65-year-old woman with pernicious anemia. What treatment would her doctor recommend?

A) Iron supplements B) Vitamin B-12 injections

123) Edna is 70 years of age. She is very healthy, and the only medication she takes is a prescription drug that reduces her stomach's acid production. Her diet includes a variety of foods from all food groups. Based on this information, Edna

A) vitamin B-12 deficiency B) cystic fibrosis

C) Vitamin C supplements D) A vegan diet

is at risk of developing

C) beriberi D) neural tube defects

124) Which of the following foods are a goodsource of vitamin B-12?

A) Whole-wheat breads B) Apples

125)

C) Eggs D) Peanuts

are a goodsource of vitamin B-12.

A) Raw carrots B) Lean meats

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C) Bananas D) Walnuts

126)

Which of the following foods is a goodsource of

vitamin B-12? C) Grapefruit

A) Fat-free milk B) Broccoli

127)

juice D) Brown rice

Which vitamin is needed to make coenzyme A?

A) Pantothenic acid B) Vitamin A

C) Vitamin B-6 D) Biotin

128) When consumed with certain plant foods, vitamin C enhances the absorption of . C) niacin D) riboflavin

A) iron B) calcium

129)

Vitamin C

A) dissolves in the fatty portions of foods B) acts as a coenzyme in certain reactions that release energy from glucose

C) is needed to form strong collagen D) can cure nightblindness

130) Your best friend eats plenty of meats and dairy products but avoids eating fruits and vegetables. She bruises easily, her sores take a long time to heal,and her gums bleed when she brushes her teeth. Based on this information, which of the following vitamins is most likely to be deficient in her diet?

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C) Vitamin B-12 D) Vitamin C

A) Pantothenic acid B) Vitamin B-6

131) Juan is a body builder who takes a variety of vitamin supplements. He often has diarrhea, and last week he was diagnosed with a kidney stone. Based on this information, which of his supplements is most likely contributing to his current health problems? C) Biotin D) Vitamin B-6

A) Vitamin C B) Thiamin

132) Which of the following foods is a rich source of vitamin C?

A) Cheese B) Papaya

C) Chicken D) Whole-wheat bread

133) Which of the following foods is a rich source of vitamin C?

A) Ground beef B) Fat-free milk

C) Broccoli D) Whole-wheat bread

134) Which of the following foods is a good source of vitamin C?

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A) Beef steak B) Fat-free milk

C) Wholewheatbread D) White potato

135) Blake is a college student whose diet consists primarily of refined white bread, chicken, meat, cheese, yogurt, and milk. Furthermore, he doesn't take dietary supplements. Based on this information, Blake has a high risk of developing .

A) beriberi B) scurvy

C) pellagra D) neural tube defects

136) Marta is a teenager who doesn't eat fruits and vegetables. Her diet consists primarily of chicken, cottage cheese, yogurt, white bread, and butter. Furthermore, she doesn't take dietary supplements. Based on this information, Marta has a high risk of .

A) beriberi B) scurvy

C) pellagra D) osteomalacia

137) Megadoses of may be used to reduce elevated LDL cholesterol levels. B) thiamin A) niacin

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C) vitamin K D) biotin

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138)

Routine vitamin C supplementation

. C) prevents Alzheimer's disease D) may reduce the risk of kidney stones

A) prevents common colds among the general population B) may reduce the duration of cold symptoms by a day or so

139)

is a carcinogen. C) Whole milk D) Alcohol

A) Cholesterol B) White bread

140)

Charcoal-broiled meats may be a source of

. C) heterocyclic

A) dietary fiber B) vitamin C

amines D) statins

141) Which of the following practices is associated with an increased risk of cancer?

A) Consuminghigh-fiber diets B) Drinking alcoholicbeverages C) Being physicallyactive

D) Eating foods that contain high amounts of folate and vitamin C

142) Eating cruciferous vegetables regularly may reduce the risk of cancer. Which of the following foods is a cruciferous vegetable?

A) Iceberg lettuce

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B) Cabbage C) Celery

D) Cucumber

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143)

Having excess body fat increases the risk of

A) beriberi B) pernicious anemia

144) Sam wants to lower his risk of colorectal cancer. According to scientific studies, consuming may

C) diverticulosis D) esophageal cancer

increase his risk of this chronic disease. C) citrus fruit D) processed meat

A) Brussels sprouts B) onions

145) Chino wants to lower his risk of cancer. According to scientific studies, consuming may decrease his risk of this chronic disease. C) broccoli D) processed meat

A) beer B) charcoal-grilledmeat

146)

Jamal wants to lower his risk of cancer. He should . D) drink less A) avoid drinking alcohol B) reduce his fiber intake C) reduce his coffee intake

water

147) Which of the following organs is the leading site for cancer deaths among American men and women?

A) Lung

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B) Breast C) Liver

D) Prostate

148) cancer causes the most cancer-related deaths among American men and women.

A) Lung B) Pancreatic

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C) Liver D) Bladder

Answer Key Test name: ch8

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1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) FALSE 6) FALSE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) FALSE 10) FALSE 11) TRUE 12) TRUE 13) FALSE 14) FALSE 15) FALSE 16) TRUE 17) TRUE 18) TRUE 19) FALSE 20) FALSE 21) TRUE Version 1

22) FALSE 23) FALSE 24) FALSE 25) A 26) A 27) D 28) D 29) C 30) A 31) C 32) D 33) C 34) A 35) B 36) D 37) A 38) C 39) A 40) D 41) D 42) B Version 1

43) D 44) C 45) C 46) A 47) C 48) D 49) D 50) C 51) A 52) B 53) D 54) A 55) C 56) C 57) A 58) A 59) B 60) D 61) C 62) B 63) B Version 1

64) D 65) B 66) C 67) A 68) C 69) B 70) D 71) C 72) B 73) D 74) B 75) A 76) A 77) B 78) A 79) C 80) D 81) D 82) A 83) C 84) B Version 1

85) C 86) B 87) B 88) D 89) C 90) A 91) A 92) B 93) C 94) A 95) C 96) D 97) C 98) C 99) A 100) C 101) B 102) D 103) C 104) A 105) C Version 1

106) D 107) A 108) A 109) C 110) B 111) D 112) C 113) D 114) A 115) B 116) C 117) D 118) A 119) C 120) A 121) D 122) B 123) A 124) C 125) B 126) A Version 1

127) A 128) A 129) C 130) D 131) A 132) B 133) C 134) D 135) B 136) B 137) A 138) B 139) D 140) C 141) B 142) B 143) D 144) D 145) C 146) A 147) A Version 1

148) A

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Student name: TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) For humans, sulfur is a trace mineral. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) For most Americans, beverages supply most of the water in diets. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) In general, healthy people lose most of their excess body water by sweating. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) A ripe banana has a higher percentage of water (by weight) than the same amount of a ripe tomato. ⊚

⊚

true

Version 1

false

Urine that is darker

than normal may be sign of dehydration. ⊚

true

⊚

false

⊚ ⊚

true false

6) People who are over 60 years of age are less likely to become dehydrated than young adults, because they sense thirst more effectively than young adults. ⊚ ⊚

Sodium and potassium ions are electrolytes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Electrolytes are ions that conduct electricity. ⊚ ⊚

true false

9) Intracellular fluid is the fluid that surrounds cells and is in the plasma component of the bloodstream.

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10) Aldosterone is a hormone that helps the body conserve water. ⊚ ⊚

true false

11) In general, a woman's risk of osteoporosis increases after menopause. ⊚ ⊚

true false

12) Testosterone is a hormone that is needed for healthy bone development and maintenance. ⊚ ⊚

true false

13) Having blood pressure readings that are consistently between 145/89 mm Hg and 155/95 mm Hg is a sign of hypertension. ⊚ ⊚

true false

14) People can often reduce their elevated blood pressure levels by following the DASH diet.

Version 1

⊚

true

⊚

false

⊚ ⊚

true false

15) Red meats contain phytic acid, a substance that interferes with iron absorption. ⊚ ⊚

true false

16) Tannins are naturally-occurring substances in tea that interfere with iron absorption. ⊚ ⊚

true false

17) Hemoglobin is the magnesium-containing component of red blood cells. ⊚ ⊚

true false

18) In the United States, copper deficiency is the most common nutritional deficiency.

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19)

Corn naturally contains high levels of arsenic. ⊚ ⊚

true false

20) Bisphenol-A (BPA) is in the epoxy resin that is used to coat the inside of cans. BPA may leach out of the resin and ⊚ ⊚

enter the food stored in the cans.

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 21) Dehydration can cause . C) hypoglycemia D) cirrhosis

A) death B) diabetes

22)

Hyperthermia occurs when the body's

A) temperature is too high B) calcium content increases C) blood glucose level rises too quickly

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. D) metabolic rate is too slow

A) Humans relyprimarily on panting to dissipate excess body heat. B) Human cellsmaintain proper hydration primarily by controlling ions in fluidcompartments.

24)

Which of the following nutrients is a major mineral? C) Potassium D) Zinc

A) Iodine B) Iron

25) Lydia's diet lacks major mineral.

, which is classified as a

C) selenium D) calcium

A) iodine B) iron

26) Derek's diet contains high amounts of which is classified as a major mineral.

A) iodine B) iron

27)

C) phosphorus D) lithium

Which of the following nutrients is a trace mineral?

A) Zinc B) Calcium

28)

C) Most people can tolerate hyperthermia. D) Iron ions arecrucial for maintaining cellular fluid balance.

C) Phosphorus D) Potassium

Which of the following nutrients is a trace mineral? A) Calcium

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B) Copper C) Sulfur

D) Magnesium

29) Which of the following minerals may have a physiological role, but more research is necessary to

C) Zinc D) Lithium

A) Selenium B) Magnesium

30) Scientists are uncertain whether essential mineral for humans.

is an

C) iodine D) magnesium

A) silicon B) zinc

31) Scientists are uncertain whether essential mineral for humans.

determine whether it is essential?

is an

A) chromium B) magnesium

C) potassium D) vanadium

32) The RDA for iron is 8 mg and 18 mg, for young men and women, respectively. Based on this information, iron is a mineral.

A) trace B) conditionally essential

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C) major D) possible essential

33) A scientist is creating a formula diet that supplies all essential nutrients. One of the minerals in her formula has a Recommended Dietary Allowance of 130 mg/day. How

A) Trace mineral B) Major mineral C) Possible essential mineral

should she classify this particular mineral?

D) Nonessential mineral

34) A scientist is creating a formula diet that supplies all essential nutrients. She knows the RDA/AI for each mineral, one of which has an AI of 30 mg/day. How should she classify this particular mineral?

A) Trace mineral B) Major mineral C) Possible essential mineral

D) Nonessential mineral

35) A scientist is creating a formula diet that supplies all essential nutrients. One of the minerals in her formula has a Recommended Dietary Allowance of 85 mg/day. How should she classify this particular mineral?

A) Trace mineral B) Major mineral C) Possible essential mineral

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D) Nonessential mineral

A) transporting substances B) providing energy to fuel cellular activity C) protecting polyunsaturated fatty acids from free

37)

In the human body, water is involved in

. D) making mineral nutrients

A) providing energy for physical activities B) protecting DNA from oxidizing agents C) regulating body temperature

38)

In the human body, water is involved in

radical damage D) alcohol digestion

A) protecting cell membranes from oxidants B) storing wastes

C) regulating energy metabolism D) digesting foods

39) According to Adequate Intake recommendations, the total water intake for healthy young adults is approximately cups/day.

A) 4 to 6.5 B) 11 to 15.5

C) 18 to 20.5 D) 22 to 25.5

40) The body constantly loses water through the skin as a result of perspiration.

A) insensible B) hydrostatic

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C) perceptible D) homeostatic

41)

Which of the following substances is a diuretic? C) Calcium D) Phenylalanine

A) Iron B) Caffeine

42)

Which of the following substances is a diuretic? C) Salt D) Calcium

A) Iron B) Alcohol

43) The play a major role in regulating the body's fluid balance. C) parathyroid A) salivary glands B) ovaries

glands D) kidneys

44) Which of the following organs is not directly involved in maintaining the body's fluid balance?

A) Lung B) Kidney

45)

C) Skin D) Thyroid gland

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Most of the waterthat enters the digestive tract is

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excreted in feces. B) Water

andbeverages comprise 100% of a person's total water intake. C) Cells producewater as a by-product of metabolism. D) In general, fruits and vegetables are less than 25%

water by weight.

46) Which of the following foods contains the most water by weight?

A) Baked white potato in skin B) Tomato

C) Avocado D) Stick margarine

47) Which of the following foods contains the least water by weight?

A) Leaf lettuce B) Whole-wheat bread

C) Corn oil D) Apple with skin

48) Which of the following foods contains the most water by weight?

A) Leaf lettuce B) Whole-wheat bread

C) Corn oil D) Stick margarine

49) Which of the following foods contains the most water by weight? D) Crackers, A) Safflower oil B) Peach C) Whole-wheat bread

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saltine

50) Which of the following nutrients helps the body maintain normal fluid balance? C) Fluoride D) Copper

A) Potassium B) Iron

51)

Extracellular fluid

A) is within the nucleus and DNA B) provides cellular energy

52)

Intracellular fluid

C) is within cells D) includes plasma and tissue fluid

A) surrounds cells B) includes the plasma of blood C) is within cells

D) normally contains high amounts of sodium

53) Maintenance of normal intracellular fluid volume depends largely on the intracellular concentration of ions.

A) hydride B) citrate

C) oxygen D) potassium

54) Maintenance of normal intracellular fluid volume depends largely on the intracellular concentration of ions.

A) hydride and iodide

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B) potassium and phosphate

C) oxide and nitride D) sulfide and bromide

55) Maintenance of normal extracellular fluid volume depends largely on the extracellular concentration of ions. C) sodium D) iodide

A) hydride B) nitrogen

56) Maintenance of normal extracellular fluid volume depends largely on the extracellular concentration of ions. D) iodide and A) hydride and bromide B) nitrogen and potassium C) sodium and chloride

sulfide

57) When the concentration of in tissue fluid is too high, intracellular watermoves into the extracellular fluid compartment.

A) sodium ions B) cesiumparticles

C) soluble fibers D) immature osteoblasts

58) Maris has a metabolic condition that upsets her body's hydration status. Her body has difficulty removing excess sodium ions from intracellular fluid. As a result of this condition, .

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A) extracellular water moves into her cells, causing them to swell B) excess calcium and magnesium ions enter her bloodstream by osmosis

59) ions,

C) her cells die from a lack of intracellular fluid D) she develops ketosis

If extracellular fluid has an excess of sodium .

A) sodium ions move into cells B) excess zinc and fluoride ions are eliminated in

D) extracellular watermoves into cells

feces C) cells lose intracellular water and shrink

60) While Aaron was at a party, he drank too much alcohol. The following morning, he had a headache and his mouth felt very dry. Based on this information, Aaron was .

A) experiencing the effects of delayed ethanol metabolism disorder B) suffering from ion overload syndrome, which often occurs after excess alcohol ingestion C) being affected by the dehydration that resulted

61)

The body loses water daily through the

A) lungs B) lymphatic system

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from drinking alcohol D) displaying the typical signs and symptoms of alcohol spectrum disease

. C) liver D) thyroid gland

A) spleen B) lymphatic system

C) kidneys D) adrenal glands

63) Which of the following compounds is a hormone that helps the body maintain fluid balance?

A) Insulin B) Pepsin

C) Glucagon D) Aldosterone

64) Aldosterone and antidiuretic hormone act to increase urinary .

A) water excretion B) water conservation C) sodium elimination

65)

D) iron metabolism

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Older adults can sense thirst more effectively than young adults. B) Drinking lite beer or wine after exercising is an effective way to replace body fluids quickly. C) Most healthy young people can use thirst as a guide to knowing when to drink water.

66) Yesterday, Jenny ran in a marathon race. While she ran, she drank many large cups of water at water stations along the race course. Near the end of the race, she experienced difficulty making it to the finish line. She was confused, and she complained of feeling sleepy and having

D) While engaging in physical activities, healthy people should consume plenty of water frequently because they are not likely to develop water intoxication.

nausea. Based on this information, Jenny was probably suffering from .

A) brain cancer

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B) water intoxication

C) heat cramps D) kidney failure

67) After running in a marathon race in July, Chino felt weak and his body weight was about 3% less than before the race. Based on this information, Chino was probably suffering from .

A) cystic fibrosis B) brain cancer

C) dehydration D) liver failure

68) Before Alonzo prepares potatoes for dinner, he takes them out of the refrigerator and allows them to sit by a sunny window for about 30 minutes. To prepare them, he peels the potatoes, cuts them into small pieces, and boils them in water. Which of his actions can lead to losses of minerals from the vegetable?

A) Using excess water to cook the potatoes B) Cooking the potatoes at high temperatures C) Exposing the potatoes to sunlight

D) Storing the potatoes in the refrigerator

69) Samantha is making a vegetable soup that contains carrots, beans, water, salt, pepper, bits of ham, and onions. The soup has to cook for 4 hours. While the soup is cooking,

what will happen to some of the minerals that are in its ingredients?

A) The relativelyhigh temperature that is needed to

cook the soup will destroy the iron,phosphorus, and

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sulfur in the vegetables. B) The minerals willleach out of the ham and vegetables and into the watery portion of thesoup. C) Unless Samantha places a cover on the soup pot, the minerals will decompose when exposed to light and

oxygen. D) The minerals will denature and become less bioavailable.

70) Constance is making a vegetable soup that contains carrots, beans, water, salt, pepper, bits of ham, and onions. The soup has to cook for 4 hours. While the soup is cooking, what will happen to some of the minerals that are in its ingredients?

A) The minerals willleach out of the ham and vegetables and lose their natural bioavailability. B) The relativelyhigh temperature that is needed to cook the soup will destroy the iron,phosphorus, and sulfur in the vegetables. C) Cooking the soup'singredients for this extensive amount of time will enable the minerals tobecome

antioxidants. D) The minerals will leach out of the food and into the cooking water, becomingpart of the soup in the process.

71) Which of the following minerals is necessary for proper muscle contraction?

A) Aluminum B) Cesium

C) Selenium D) Calcium

72) Which of the following foods is not a good source of calcium?

A) Fat-free yogurt B) Baked chicken

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C) Canned sardines D) Raw kale

73)

Christine loves to eat canned salmon and sardines.

These fish are good

A) folate B) calcium C) vitamin C D) magnesium

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74) are

The most bioavailable and safest sources of calcium .

A) dietary supplements that contain calcium carbonate and magnesium B) dairy products

C) spinach and broccoli D) meat, fish, and poultry

75) Which of the following foods supplies the most bioavailable calcium per 1 cup serving? C) Spinach D) Fat-free milk

A) Cottage cheese B) Ice cream

76) Which of the following foods is the richest source of bioavailable calcium per one cup serving? C) Cottagecheese D) Tomato juice

A) Spinach B) Plain yogurt

77) Mariyah loves leafy green salads. Which of the following foods should she add to the salads to increase their calcium content?

D) Raw apple A) Raw, shredded bok choy B) Cooked chicken strips C) Shredded red cabbage

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slices

78)

Which of the following statements about calcium is

A) A person's calcium intake early in life can affect his or her bone density later. B) Adolescentsshould consume adequate dairy products to build strong bones. C) After bones areformed early in life, the body has

79)

Osteoporosis is characterized by

D) immature red blood cells that lack hemoglobin

Which of the following statements is false?

A) Women generallyhave the highest risk of osteoporosis before menopause. B) Efforts to reducethe risk of osteoporosis should begin early in life.

81)

no need for calcium. D) The calcium indairy products is well absorbed by the body.

A) defective collagen production B) keratinization and death of epithelial cells C) loss of bone mass and structure

80)

false?

C) Loss of height is a sign of osteoporosis. D) Estrogen and testosterone are needed for good bone health.

Which of the following statements is false?

A) Women generallyhave the highest risk of osteoporosis after menopause. B) Efforts to reducethe risk of osteoporosis should begin early in life. C) People with Africanancestry have a higher risk of

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osteoporosis than people with Asian or whiteancestry. D) Loss of height is a sign of osteoporosis.

A) consume more iron-rich foods B) avoid foods such as kale and frozen yogurt C) reduce her physical activity level

D) avoid smoking cigarettes

83) Which of the following individuals is most likely to develop osteoporosis?

A) A sedentary whitemale college student who smokes cigarettes. B) A 30-year-oldoverweight Hispanic man who plays basketball 5 days a week. C) A tall 35-year-oldAfrican-American woman who

consumes 3 cups of dairy products daily. D) A 25-year-old white woman who exposes her skin to sunlight every day for at least 30 minutes.

84) Young women who have higher risk of developing osteoporosis than young women who do not have this characteristic.

A) exercise for 30 minutes each day B) haveAfrican-American ancestry C) smokecigarettes

D) consume kale,spinach, and yogurt

85) Monique would like to perform exercises that increase her bone mass. To help achieve this goal, which of the following activities would be the best for her to perform?

A) Yoga B) Swimming

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C) Cycling D) Walking

86) Paul wants to maintain his bone mass. To help him achieve this goal, which of the following activities would be the best for him to perform?

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A) Stretching hamstrings for 15 minutes daily B) Swimming 15 lapsevery other day C) Cyclingon a stationary bike for 45 minutes daily

D) Playing basketball with friends for 45 minutes, every other day

87) Which of the following hormones is needed for normal bone development and maintenance? C) Glucagon D) Oxytocin

A) Insulin B) Estrogen

88)

Weight-bearing exercises can

A) delay the development of diverticulosis B) strengthen bones C) reduce the body's need for vitamin C and iron

D) increase the body's metabolism of zinc and sulfur

89) Mary is a 58-year-old postmenopausal woman. In the past three years, she lost 2 inches in height and broke her wrist. Based on this information, Mary's physician should test her for . C) osteoporosis D) osteoarthritis

A) osteocarcinoma B) osteomalacia

90)

Parathyroid hormone

A) increases the body's rate of potassium excretion B) signals osteoblasts to release calcium from bones C) enables glucose to enter cells

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D) enhances the body's ability to retain calcium

91) When Benson had his blood pressure tested, it was normal. Based on this information, what was his blood

A) 80/120 mm Hg B) 145/60 mm Hg

pressure?

C) 118/69 mm Hg D) 70/120 mm Hg

92) Which of the following blood pressure values is normal?

A) 114/70 mm Hg B) 142/65 mm Hg

C) 80/120 mm Hg D) 70/120 mm Hg

93) Ricky has hypertension (stage 2), because his blood pressure readings are consistently around .

A) 90/120 mm Hg B) 117/65 mm Hg

94)

C) 128/88 mm Hg D) 142/92 mm Hg

Which of the following statements is true?

A) A blood pressure reading of 135/85 mm Hg is in the stage 1 hypertension range. B) Approximately one-tenth of adult Americans have hypertension. C) "Deli"meats, such as bologna and ham, are rich sources of potassium and poor sourcesof sodium.

D) It is safe to takelarge doses of potassium supplements, because the mineral is nontoxic.

95) Which of the following characteristics is a risk factor for hypertension?

A) Underweight

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B) Cigarettesmoking

C) Asianancestry D) High-potassium diet

96) Which of the following groups of Americans has the highest risk of hypertension?

A) African Americans B) Non-Hispanic white Americans C) Native Americans

D) Asian Americans

97) Which of the following foods is low in sodium and high in potassium?

A) Dill pickles B) Orange juice

C) Soy sauce D) Canned soup

98) Pickled foods, canned soups, soy sauce, and deli (luncheon) meats contain high amounts of .

A) magnesium B) potassium

C) selenium D) sodium

99) is a major source of sodium and chloride in the typical American's diet.

A) Tap water B) Processed food

100)

Which of the following foods is not a good source of

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C) Fresh fruit D) Yogurt

potassium?

C) Canned tomato A) Papaya B) Ground beef

soup D) Corn oil

101) In general, fresh fruits and vegetables are good sources of .

A) zinc B) calcium

C) potassium D) iron

102) Which of the following disorders is associated with high sodium intakes?

A) Osteomalacia B) Hypertension

103) of

C) Fluorosis D) Type 2 diabetes

Consuming a high-sodium diet can increase the risk .

A) hypertension B) cystic fibrosis

C) liver cancer D) osteomalacia

104) Rebecca has hypertension. To help lower her blood pressure, she should .

A) follow a high-glycemic diet

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B) consume more foods that contain iron and

zinc

D) reduce her potassium intake

C) follow the DASH diet

105) Dominic has a family history of hypertension. According to the Chronic Disease Risk Reduction Intakes (CDRR) for sodium, Dominic should lower or maintain his sodium intake to below mg/day to reduce his risk of chronic disease, including hypertension. C) 2300 D) 3300

A) 1300 B) 2000

106) In the United States, hypertension.

have a high risk of

A) college-agenon-Hispanic white females who do not drink alcohol B) young, physicallyactive non-Hispanic white males C) people who are 65 years of age and older

D) teens who consumelarge amounts of fruit

107) Which of the following foods is not a good source of magnesium?

A) Beans B) Leafy greens

C) Chocolate D) White bread

108) Which of the following groups of people has the highest risk of magnesium deficiency?

A) Teenage boys B) Alcoholic men

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C) Femaleathletes D) Vegetarians

109) For the past 4 years, 23-year-old Maggie has been losing a lot of blood during her menstrual periods. Based on this information, which of the following conditions is she most likely to develop?

A) Osteoporosis B) Pellagra

C) Hemochromatosis D) Iron deficiency

110) Which of the following foods is a good source of nonheme iron, but very little of the mineral is absorbed by the human intestinal tract?

A) Spinach B) Red meats

C) Liver D) Fat-free milk

111) Which of the following foods is an excellent source of heme iron?

A) Corn oilmargarine B) Broccoli

C) Beef steak D) Fat-free milk

112) must be added to refined grains during the grain enrichment process.

A) Zinc B) Iron

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C) Magnesium D) Calcium

C) Ferritin D) Hemoglobin

A) Myoglobin B) Cytochrome

114) Marcus has iron deficiency. He should considerincluding in his diet, because it is a good source of heme iron. C) fat-free milk D) bok choy

A) chicken liver B) spinach

115) In the United States, common nutritional deficiency.

deficiency is the most

C) calcium D) magnesium

A) selenium B) iron

116) Sylvia has hemochromatosis. Which of the following conditions is a common sign or symptom of this disorder? D) Iron deficiency A) Blocked bile ducts B) "Bronze" skin color C) Megaloblastic anemia

anemia

117) Marty has hemochromatosis. Which of the following supplements should he avoid taking? C) Iron D) Calcium

A) Vitamin D B) Vitamin B-12

118) Version 1

Which of the 29

following practices would help a total vegetarian increase his or her iron intake from plant foods?

B) Cooking vegetables in a cast-iron skillet with tomatoes or lemon juice

C) Drinking more milk and avoiding inbetween-meal snacks D) Adding cheese to salads and sandwiches

119) Jared is a vegan (total vegetarian). He can increase his intestinal tract's ability to absorb iron in his diet by combining

iron-rich plant foods with sources of .

A) Taking zinc,calcium, and selenium supplements daily

A) vitamin A B) calcium

C) vitamin C D) copper

120) A youngman in a rural Iranian village eats very little meat and dairy products, but his diet contains a lot of unleavened whole-grain flatbread. He is very short for his age; his sexual organs are not fully developed; his intelligence is lower than normal; and he suffers from iron deficiency anemia. Based on this information, the man probably has deficiency.

A) folate B) zinc

121) Lawrence wants to increase his zinc intake without relying on dietary supplements. Which of the following foods should he avoid eating, because they can interfere with

C) vitamin K D) acetyl-CoA

intestinal absorption of zinc?

A) Unleavened

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wholewheat breads B) Breaded, friedoysters C) Grilled hamburger on a bun

122)

Iodine is necessary for

D) Barbequed chicken wings

A) carrying oxygen in blood B) maintaining normal thyroid function C) transporting proteins in lymph

123) Marta is a pregnant woman suffering from severe iodine deficiency. As a result of the deficiency, she has a high

A) type 2 diabetes B) phenylketonuria

D) producing properly-formed collagen

risk of giving birth to a child with . C) cretinism D) ariboflavinosis

124) The introduction of iodized salt in the 1920s dramatically reduced rates of in the United States.

A) anemia B) pellagra

125)

C) hypogonadism D) goiter

In the United States, the practice of fortifying with iodide has reduced the risk of goiter.

A) oatmealproducts B) table salt

C) soft drinks D) processedvegetables

126) Gayle had thyroid cancer. After surgeons

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removed her thyroid gland, she underwent radiation treatment to kill any remaining cancer cells. During the treatment period, she had to limit her daily intake of iodine to a small

A) Sushi wrapped in seaweed B) Fresh-water trout C) Unsalted peanut butter

127) Cameron takes megadoses of a single mineral supplement. Lately, he's noticed that his fingernails break easily, his hair is falling out, and he's more tired than usual. His friends have told him that he smells like garlic. Based on

A) calcium B) magnesium

128) Although Tim's body is not zinc deficient, he takes large doses of zinc because his best friend told him it will enhance his athletic performance. He is likely to experience

A) enlarged skeletalmuscles B) enhancedreproductive system functioning C) reduced HDLlevels

fraction of the recommended amount. Which of the following foods should Gayle avoid? D) Unsalted crackers

this information, Cameron has consumed too much .

C) selenium D) iron

as a result of this practice.

D) increasedhemoglobin production

129) Although Trevor is not zinc deficient, he takes large doses of zinc because he thinks it will enhance his athletic performance. He is likely to experience as a result of this practice.

A) increased copper absorption B) enhancedreproductive system functioning C) depressed immune system functioning

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D) chronic constipation

130) membranes.

enhances the effects of insulin on cell

A) Cobalamin B) Boron

C) Chromium D) Selenium

131) Erika is a college student who has never experienced dental decay. Recently, she slipped and fell down a flight of stairs. Although she had bumps and bruises after the fall, she did not break any bones. Which of the following practices is the most likely reason for Erika's strong bones and decayresistant teeth?

A) Taking vitamin K supplements daily B) Drinking fluoridated water C) Eating a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet

D) Chewing iron pills before swallowing them

132) Angela is a 20-year-old college student. In addition to having a history of losing several primary teeth to dental decay, she seems to break bones easily. Based on this information, Angela may need to increase her intake of .

A) iodine B) fluoride

C) vanadium D) copper

133) Lola doesn't like to cook, so she eats fast food

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at least three times a week. When she doesn't eat fast food, she opens a can of soup and makes a ham and cheese sandwich. For snacks, she prefers processed cheese cubes,

A) potassium B) vitamin D

potato chips, and pretzels. Based on this information, her diet is very high in . C) beta-carotene D) sodium

134) Foster consumes about 350 g of protein daily, mostly in the form of meat and amino acid supplements. He does not use vitamin/mineral supplements, and he eats very few fruits, vegetables, dairy products, and grains. Based on this information, Foster's diet lacks .

A) iron B) calcium

135) Emma consumes dairy products, but she does not eat meat, fish, eggs or poultry. She eats some vegetables and fruits, but she avoids beans, breads and cereal products. Based

A) calcium B) potassium

C) zinc D) potassium

on this information, her diet lacks adequate . C) magnesium D) iron

136) According to the Dietary Guidelines, which of the following minerals is a nutrient of public health concern?

A) Copper B) Magnesium

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C) Potassium D) Sodium

137) According to the Dietary Guidelines, which of the following minerals is a nutrient of public health concern?

A) Calcium B) Copper

C) Manganese D) Selenium

138) According to the Dietary Guidelines, which of the following minerals is a nutrient of public health concern for pregnant females?

A) Iron B) Nickel

C) Selenium D) Silicon

139) In the United States, the plastic used to make water bottles may contain .

A) EPA B) bisphenol A

C) acetyl CoA D) EDTA

140) While at a garage sale, Jenna purchased a set of used plastic baby bottles. She noticed the symbol "7" in a triangle on the bottom of the bottles. What would you tell her concerning the use of these bottles to feed her baby?

A) The symbol "7" in a triangle means the bottles have been approved for daily use by the EPA. B) These bottles should not be used because they probably contain bisphenol A.

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C) These bottles are not safe to use, unless they are washed and dried in a dishwasher before filling them with formula.

D) Jenna should fill these bottles with formula and heat them in a microwave oven before feeding her baby.

141) Mario is concerned about the safety of his home's tap water, which is conveyed by pipes from a public source in his community. Which of the following agencies should he contact to learn more about the safety of his tap water? C) FDA D) BPA

A) EPA B) USDA

142) Jamal is concerned about the safety of the bottled water he prefers to drink. Which of the following agencies should he contact to learn more about the safety of his bottled water? C) FDA D) BPA

A) EPA B) USDA

143)

In the United States,

A) it is safe to drink tap water from public water supplies B) bottled water is generally less expensive per fluid ounce than tap water from a public supply C) all bottled water products must contain fluoride

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D) government regulations do not permit manufacturers of bottled water to use water from public sources in their products

144)

Which of the following statements about bottled water

in the United States is

A) Bottled water must be in sealed containers and have no added ingredients, except an agent that prevents the growth of microbes. B) The production of bottled water must follow regulations established by the EPA and CDC. C) In the United States, all bottled water must be certified as being safe and from a natural source by the FDA. D) The government requires manufacturers of bottled water to follow safety standards that are more strict than the standards for tap water from public water supplies.

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Answer Key Test name: ch9

Version 1

1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) TRUE 9) FALSE 10) TRUE 11) TRUE 12) TRUE 13) TRUE 14) TRUE 15) FALSE 16) TRUE 17) FALSE 18) FALSE 19) FALSE 20) TRUE 21) A Version 1

22) A 23) B 24) C 25) D 26) C 27) A 28) B 29) D 30) A 31) D 32) A 33) B 34) A 35) A 36) A 37) C 38) D 39) B 40) A 41) B 42) B Version 1

43) D 44) D 45) C 46) B 47) C 48) A 49) B 50) A 51) D 52) C 53) D 54) B 55) C 56) C 57) A 58) A 59) C 60) C 61) A 62) C 63) D Version 1

64) B 65) C 66) B 67) C 68) A 69) B 70) D 71) D 72) B 73) B 74) B 75) D 76) B 77) A 78) C 79) C 80) A 81) C 82) D 83) A 84) C Version 1

85) D 86) D 87) B 88) B 89) C 90) D 91) C 92) A 93) D 94) A 95) B 96) A 97) B 98) D 99) B 100) D 101) C 102) B 103) A 104) C 105) C Version 1

106) C 107) D 108) B 109) D 110) A 111) C 112) B 113) D 114) A 115) B 116) B 117) C 118) B 119) C 120) B 121) A 122) B 123) C 124) D 125) B 126) A Version 1

127) C 128) C 129) C 130) C 131) B 132) B 133) D 134) B 135) D 136) C 137) A 138) A 139) B 140) B 141) A 142) C 143) A 144) A

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Student name: TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) In the United States, the percentage of obese adults over the past 25 years has remained relatively the same. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) The omentum stores adipose tissue that is referred to as "visceral fat." ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) Cellulite is metabolically active fat tissue that is located primarily in the omentum of a woman. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) A BOD POD is a special device that measures how well an overfat body conducts electrical impulses. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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Hypothyroidism

results when the parathyroid glands do not secrete enough thyroid hormone to maintain a normal metabolic rate. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) People who have excess body fat have a higher risk of hypertension than people with BMIs in the healthy range. ⊚ ⊚

true false

7) A woman who is obese during pregnancy has a higher risk of delivering an infant who has birth defects than a pregnant woman whose body weight is in the healthy range. ⊚ ⊚

true false

8) A simple way to predict a person's risk of developing serious chronic diseases such as cardiovascular disease, hypertension, and type 2 diabetes is to measure his or her waist circumference. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Ghrelin is a hormone that reduces hunger.

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⊚

10)

true

⊚

false

Leptin is a hormone that reduces hunger. ⊚ ⊚

true false

11) Leptin is a hormone that stimulates fat cells to store triglycerides. ⊚ ⊚

true false

12) Bariatric medicine is the medical specialty that focuses on the treatment of obesity. ⊚ ⊚

true false

13) By 2020, the FDA had approved over 50 prescription medications for use as appetite suppressing agents. ⊚ ⊚

true false

14) People with anorexia nervosa have a high risk of dying from alcoholism. Version 1

⊚

true

⊚

false

15) People with night eating syndrome experience eating binges and purging activities that typically occur between 5 and 8 p.m. ⊚ ⊚

true false

16) The signs and symptoms of diabulimia are the same as those that occur in people with poorly controlled type 1 diabetes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

17) Dorrie frequently skips meals to control her weight, which is a disordered eating practice. ⊚ ⊚

true false

18) Young men and women participating in sports that benefit from a low body weight can develop signs and ⊚ ⊚

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symptoms of the athlete triad.

true false

19) To be effective, treatment for eating disorders should include a multidisciplinary approach that involves experts in ⊚ ⊚

dietetics, medicine, and mental health.

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 20) Which of the following statements is true?

A) A person who has a BMI of 26.2 can have more muscle and bone tissue than another person who has the same BMI. B) An obese person with a BMI of 32 has more healthy fat tissue than an obese person with a BMI of 25. C) A healthy person has a percentage of body fat that

is between 1 and 9%. D) A man is obese when his percentage of body fat reaches 15%.

21) Jason is a college football player who works out for 60 minutes per day, at least 5 days a week. He weighs 230 pounds, and his BMI is 23.7. According to this information, Jason .

22)

A) has more lean than fat tissue B) is overweight

C) is obese D) has the athletic sports triad

According to national surveys, over the past 25 years

the percentage of obese

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American adults has

A) increased B) slowly decreased C) remained relatively the same

23) In the United States, obese than other adults.

are more likely to be

A) men with Asian ancestry B) white women C) men with European ancestry

24)

D) rapidly increased

D) non-Hispanic black women

is the primary function of adipose cells.

A) Storing glycogen B) Metabolizingglucose to generate heat C) Storing triglycerides (fat)

25)

D) Metabolizing amino acids to build muscle tissue

fat is located in the omentum.

A) Visceral B) Cellulite

C) Bariatric D) Subcutaneous

26) fat insulates the body and protects muscles and bones from bumps and bruises.

A) Intracellular B) Cellulite

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C) Visceral D) Subcutaneous

27) Deon has pancreatic cancer. His BMI is 14.2, and he's lost a substantial amount of subcutaneous fat. Based on this information, Deon has .

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A) numerous bruises on his body, especially his arms and legs B) increased urinary nitrogen output in response to the lack of subcutaneous fat C) elevated visceral fat

28)

"Cellulite" is

D) vitamin toxicity disorders, especially those associated with the fat-soluble vitamins

A) a special type of muscle tissue that is stored in thighs and buttocks of women B) subcutaneous adipose tissue that gives skin a lumpy appearance C) visceral fat that has migrated from the abdomen to

thighs and buttocks D) fat that can be removed by mechanicalmassage or melted by hot laser therapy

29) Which of the following body fat assessment techniques relies on the principle that lean tissue is denser than water?

A) Bioelectrical impedance B) Underwater weighing C) Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry

D) Air displacement

30) Which of the following body fat assessment techniques relies on the principle that water and electrolytes conduct electricity?

A) Skinfold measurements B) Underwater weighing C) Airdisplacement

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D) Bioelectrical impedance

A) airdisplacement B) dual-energy X-rayabsorptiometry C) skinfoldmeasurements

D) bioelectricalimpedance

32) Tamara is a 19-year-old female college student. Her percentage of body fat is 8%. Which of the following

statements about Tamara is true?

A) Tamara is lean andhas a healthy percentage of body fat for a young woman. B) Tamara's body hastoo much fat. C) Tamara's percentageof body fat is acceptable, if

her body water content is higher thanaverage. D) Tamara's percentageof body fat is too low.

33) Craig is a 22-year-old man who has a healthy percentage of body fat. Based on this information, about

of his body is fat. C) 35% D) 45%

A) 15% B) 25%

34)

Basal metabolism includes energy needs for . D) circulating A) digesting food B) performing physical activity C) shivering in cold conditions

blood

35) Basal metabolism includes energy needs for .

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A) breathing B) performing physical activity

C) digesting food D) maintaining muscle tone

36) Which of the following activities is an aspect of basal metabolism?

A) Building bone tissue B) Digesting starches and sugars

C) Maintaining an upright posture D) Watching TV

37) Elsa is a 22-year-old woman who weighs 152 pounds. Using the simple "rule of thumb" method, what is her estimated 24-hour basal energy needs?

A) 1056 kcal B) 2469 kcal

C) 3282 kcal D) 1490 kcal

38) Barry is a 25-year-old man who weighs 222 pounds. Using the simple "rule of thumb" method, what is his estimated 24-hour basal energy needs?

A) 1056 kcal B) 2422 kcal

39) Alyssa is a 22-year-old woman who weighs 132 pounds. Using the simple "rule of thumb" method, what is her

A) 1056 kcal B) 2851 kcal Version 1

C) 3282 kcal D) 5328 kcal

estimated 24-hour basal energy needs? C) 1440 kcal D) 1296 kcal

40) Kume is a 22-year-old woman who weighs 154 pounds. Using the simple "rule of thumb" method, what is her estimated 24-hour basal energy needs? C) 4140 kcal D) 1512 kcal

A) 3326 kcal B) 2469 kcal

41) Angelina is a 21-year-old woman who weighs 64 kg. Using the simple "rule of thumb" method, what is her estimated 24-hour basal energy needs? C) 1382 kcal D) 1512 kcal

A) 2133 kcal B) 1894 kcal

42) A person's does not influence the amount of energy he or she uses while performing physical activity.

A) ethnicancestry B) degree ofeffort

43) While in class, Barry can't seem to sit still. He constantly taps his feet on the floor and frequently shifts his position. The energy Barry uses for these involuntary

A) basal metabolism B) resting metabolism

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C) body weight D) time spent in motion

movements is classified as .

C) NEAT D) TEF

44) While sitting at a desk, Lisa talks on her cell phone. Under these conditions, talking on a cell phone is a form of activity.

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D) TEF A) basalmetabolic B) physical C) nonexerciseactivity thermogenesis

45)

Breathing, circulating blood, and thinking are activities.

A) basal metabolic B) TEF

C) NEAT D) physical

46) The gland produces the primary hormone that controls the metabolic rate.

A) hypothalamus B) thyroid

47)

C) adrenal D) salivary

Which of the following statements is true?

A) On average, women have higher metabolic rates than men. B) Taking stimulantdrugs, such as caffeine, decreases a person's metabolic rate. C) A young person'smetabolic rate increases during

periods of growth. D) A person candramatically increase his or her metabolic rate by eating a very-lowcaloriediet.

48) Which of the following conditions or situations increases a person's metabolic rate?

A) Fever B) Aging Version 1

C) Short height D) Starvation diet

49) Which of the following conditions increases a person's metabolic rate?

A) Consuming caffeine B) Having a lower than normal level of thyroid hormone C) Consuming nucleic acids

D) Having a higher than normal level of ghrelin

50) Which of the following conditions increases a person's metabolic rate?

A) Being pregnant B) Having a lower than normal level of thyroid hormone C) Consuming essential fatty acids

D) Having a higher than normal level of cholecystokinin

51) Which of the following conditions increases a person's metabolic rate?

A) Producing milk to breastfeed a baby B) Having a lower than normal level of thyroid hormone C) Consuming essential fatty acids

D) Having a higher than normal level of cholecystokinin

52) Which of the following conditions increases a person's metabolic rate?

A) Recovering from an exercise workout B) Having a lower than normal level of thyroid hormone C) Consuming essential fatty acids

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D) Having a higher than normal level of cholecystokinin

53) Manuel's BMI is 24.2. Based on this information, her weight is in the range.

A) underweight B) healthy

C) overweight D) extremelyobese

54) Tyrone's BMI is 27.2. Based on this information, his weight is in the range.

A) underweight B) healthy

C) overweight D) extremelyobese

55) Macey's BMI is 30.2. Based on this information, her weight is in the range.

A) underweight B) healthy

C) overweight D) obese

56) Ashley's BMI is 16.8. Based on this information, her weight is in the range.

A) underweight B) healthy

C) overweight D) obese

57) Ming's BMI is 17.4. According to this information, Ming is .

A) underweight

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D) extremely B) overweight C) obese

obese

58) The is a numerical value that reflects body weight adjusted for height. C) adjusted adiposityfactor D) VO 2 max

A) body massindex B) waist/hipvariable

59) is the standard for evaluating body weight that reflects body weight adjusted for height. D) Fat-to-lean A) Waist circumference index B) Body mass index C) Relative adiposity index

60) A person's risk of BMI is 25 or more.

increases as his or her

C) type 2diabetes D) beriberi

A) cysticfibrosis B) perniciousanemia

61) A person's risk of BMI is 25 or more.

A) cysticfibrosis B) perniciousanemia Version 1

index

increases as his or her

C) cardiovascular disease (CVD)

D) beriberi

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62)

People with BMIs of 25 or more have greater risks of than people with BMIs in the healthyrange.

A) osteomalacia B) anemia

C) fluorosis D) hypertension

63)

Obese women have a higher risk of developing during pregnancy than pregnant women who are not obese.

A) maternal homocystinuria B) cysticfibrosis C) perniciousanemia

D) gestationaldiabetes

64) Marissa is in the 4th month of her first pregnancy. Although she has no major health problems, her prepregnancy BMI was 32.2. Based on this information, she has a high risk of developing .

A) hypertension B) megaloblastic anemia

C) cystic fibrosis D) osteomalacia

65) Jillian is 3-months pregnant with her first child. Before she became pregnant, her BMI was 33.4. Based on this information, she has a high risk of developing .

A) gestational diabetes B) megaloblastic anemia

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C) cystic fibrosis D) osteomalacia

66) People with central-body obesity are more likely to develop than people who do not have excess fat in

A) iron-deficiencyanemia B) type 2diabetes

the midsection of their bodies. C) elevated HDLcholesterol D) beriberi

67) Imani has a "pear-shaped" body because her excess body fat is distributed mostly below her waist. Her body fat

distribution is associated with .

A) increased risk of type 2 diabetes, hypertension, and heart disease B) increased risk of osteoporosis, cystic fibrosis, and autoimmune diseases C) fewer serious chronic health problems than if the

excess fat were in the upper part of her body D) more nutrient deficiencydiseases than if the excess fat were in the upper part of her body

68) Which of the following measurement techniques is a convenient, practical, and inexpensive way to determine if a

person has an unhealthy distribution of body fat?

A) Measuring theperson's waist circumference B) Weighing the person and then consulting a weight/height table C) Using theunderwater weighing technique

D) Using the BOD POD method

69) Jose's waist circumference is 42 inches. Based on this information, he has a high risk of .

C) cardiovascular A) low LDL cholesterol B) elevated HDL cholesterol

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disease D) protein-energy

malnutrition

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70) Jerad's BMI is 31.4. His waistline measures 42 inches, and his hip circumference measures 38 inches. Based on this information, he has .

A) hypometabolic syndrome B) a "pear-shaped" body C) a high risk of developing type 2 diabetes

D) "lower-body obesity"

71) Gloria's BMI is 32.4; her waist circumference is 38 inches and her hip circumference is 37 inches. According to this information, she .

A) consumes fewer kilocalories than she needs B) engages in too much physical activity C) is likely to have fertility problems

72)

D) has a "pearshaped" body

Which of the following statements is true?

A) An average womanhas a higher metabolic rate than an average man. B) Fat cells requiremore energy to function than muscle cells. C) As people growolder, their metabolic rates

decline. D) The aging processcauses muscle cells to become fat cells.

73) Which of the following conditions decreases a person's metabolic rate?

A) Producing milk to breastfeed a baby B) Having a lower than normal level of thyroid Version 1

hormone C) Consuming essential fatty acids 21

D) Having a fever

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74) Which of the following conditions decreases a person's metabolic rate?

A) Producing milk to breastfeed a baby B) Growing older

C) Consuming essential fatty acids D) Having a fever

75) Which of the following conditions decreases a person's metabolic rate?

A) Producing milk to breastfeed a baby B) Losing muscle mass

76)

Ultra-processed foods may

A) help with weight loss because they increase a person's metabolic rate B) help with weight loss because they are nutrientdense C) contribute to weight gain because a person can

77)

C) Consuming essential fatty acids D) Having a fever

easily eat too many kilocalories of these foods D) contribute to weight gain because they increase satiety

According to the "set-point theory," a person's .

A) metabolic rate remains the same, regardless of environmental or physical factors B) body weight is influenced primarily by environmental factors C) body fat level is genetically determined and

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difficult to alter D) saturated fat intake strongly influences the rate at which he or she loses weight

78) A person who has a "thrifty metabolism" when compared to a person who does not have a thrifty

A) gains weight more easily B) loses excess food energy in the form of body heat C) burns three times more fat

metabolism.

D) metabolizes more glucose than fatty acids for energy

79) According to the theory, a person's body fat level is genetically determined and difficult to alter.

A) metabolic-factor B) hormonal-inaction

80)

C) set-point D) thermostaticcontrol

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Ghrelin is anenzyme that breaks down fat in the stomach. B) Fat cells produceleptin, a hormone that can reduce hunger. C) Satiety is thefeeling that drives a person to

consume food. D) People with "thrifty" metabolisms burn more fat per hour than other people.

81) Which of the following persons is in a state of positive energy balance?

A) A 25-year-old woman who is in her 6th month of pregnancy. B) A 22-year old man who consumes 1900 kcal/day and is losing weight. C) An 89-year-old man who spends most of his day

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in a wheelchair or bed. D) A 29-year old woman who has maintained her weight for six months.

82)

Which of the following persons is in a state of

A) A 5-year-old girl who is healthy and physically active. B) A 22-year old man who consumes 1900 kcal/day and is losing weight. C) A 23-year-old man who lifts weights every other

83) A scientist wants to develop a medication that safely reduces hunger to help obese people lose weight. Based on this information, this researcher will explore ways to block

A) ghrelin B) insulin

84) A scientist wants to develop a medication that safely reduces hunger to help obese people lose weight. Based on this information, this researcher will explore ways to

A) ghrelin B) leptin

85) A scientist wants to develop a medication that safely reduces hunger to help obese people lose weight. Based on this information, this researcher will explore ways to

A) ghrelin B) salivary amylase

negative energy balance? day and has a BMI of 24. D) A 29-year old woman who has maintained her weight for six months.

the production, release, or action of .

C) leptin D) melatonin

stimulate the production, release, or action of . C) ADH D) aldosterone

stimulate the production, release, or action of . C) peptide YY D) aldosterone

86) A scientist wants to develop a medication that safely reduces hunger to

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help obese people lose weight. Based on this information, this researcher will explore ways to stimulate the production,

C) aldosterone D) CCK

A) ghrelin B) polyesterase

87)

A pound of body fat contains about

release, or action of .

kcal.

A) 1500 B) 2500

C) 3500 D) 4500

88) Consuela is an overweight young woman who wants to lose 10 pounds. The most reliable and safe way for her to lose this weight is to .

A) decrease her usual daily energy intake B) decrease her physical activity C) increase her daily vitamin D intake

89) Jennifer has lost weight by following a well-balanced and calorie-reduced weight loss diet plan that includes daily exercise for several months. Recently, her rate of weight loss slowed, and this week, she lost no weight, even though she

A) reached a "plateau," because she's in energy equilibrium B) cheated and consumed more calories than she's willing to admit C) reduced her weight to a healthy BMI, so she will

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D) increase her essential fatty acid intake

has continued to follow the weight lossplan. Based on this information, Jennifer has . be unable to lose any more D) failed to reach her biological set point

90) Jorge wants to gain weight, primarily as lean tissue. In addition to performing resistance exercise regularly, he should .

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A) increase his protein intake to 60% of total energy intake, eat more complex carbohydrates, and take a multivitamin/multimineral supplement B) add nutrient-dense, healthy sources of energy to his diet, including fatty fish, whole-grain cereals, nuts, peanut butter, and olive oil C) supplement his diet with essential amino acids and

limit his total fat intake to no more than 10% of total kilocalories D) avoid aerobic activities on the days he doesn't lift weights and eat about 50% of total calories from saturated fat

91) Erin is following a safe and medically sound weight loss program to lose 20 pounds. According to this

information, her program .

A) includes regular physical activity B) limits her energy intake to no more than 800 kcal/day C) reduces her metabolic rate by 20%

92) at one time.

limits the amount of food a person can eat

A) Liposuction B) Bariatricsurgery

93) George is a 5′ 8′′, 29-year-old man who weighs almost 350 pounds. To lose weight, he has tried calorie-restricted diets, fad diets, exercise programs, and appetite-suppressing pills without success. George's physician is likely to recommend a as a long-term solution to help

A) posterior thyroidectomy B) sleeve gastrectomy C) frontallobotomy

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D) requires dietary supplements that contain vitamins, minerals, and ephedra

C) Stomachectomy D) Colonoscopy

George lose his excess body fat and maintain the weight loss.

D) viscerallipectomy

94) Shelby is a 5′ 2′′, 23-year-old woman who weighs almost 250 pounds. To lose weight, she has tried calorierestricted diets, fad diets, exercise programs, and appetitesuppressing pills without success. She would like to try a surgical weight loss method that reduces the size of her

A) gastric resection B) sleeve gastrectomy C) adjustable gastric banding

95) William is a 5′ 9′′, 40-year-old man who weighs almost 350 pounds. To lose weight, he's tried calorierestricted diets, fad diets, exercise programs, and appetitesuppressing pills without success. William's physician is likely to recommend as the best way to help Bill

A) gastric bypass B) hypothalamectomy

96) Leona is a 5′ 4′′, 30-year-old woman who weighs almost 225 pounds. To lose weight, she's tried calorierestricted diets, fad diets, exercise programs, and appetitesuppressing pills without success. Leona would like to try a surgical weight loss method that can be reversed if she has serious side effects. Based on this information, Leona's

A) visceral fatreduction surgery B) hypothalamectomy C) adjustable gastric banding

stomach without the use of staples and is reversible. Her physician is likely to recommend .

D) gastric bypass procedure

lose his excess body weight and maintain the weight loss.

C) frontallobotomy D) liposuction

physician is likely to recommend as the best way to help Leona lose her excess body weight.

D) sleeve gastrectomy

97) Peter is a 5′ 7′′, 30year-old man who weighs almost 350 pounds. To lose weight, he's tried

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calorie-restricted diets, fad diets, exercise programs, and appetite-suppressing pills without success. Peter would like to have weight loss surgery that involves stapling his stomach. Based on this information, Peter's physician is likely to recommend the as the best way to help Peter lose

A) gastric banding method B) hypothalamectomy method C) visceral liposuction procedure

98) Lily is a 5′4′′, 40-year-old woman who weighs almost 200 pounds. To lose weight, she's tried calorie-restricted diets, fad diets, exercise programs, and appetite-suppressing pills without success. She would like a surgical weight loss method that can be easily reversed and does not involve stapling her stomach or cutting her small intestine. Based on this

A) Roux-en-Y gastric bypass B) hypothalamectomy

his excess body weight and maintain the weight loss.

D) Roux-en-Y procedure

information, her physician is likely to recommend as the best way to help her lose some of her excess weight.

C) gastricbanding D) sleeve gastrectomy

99) Members of the National Weight Control Registry tend to to maintain the weight they have lost.

A) eat high-protein diets B) skip meals, especially breakfast C) weigh themselves only once a month

D) exercise, on average, for 60 minutes daily

100) Members of the National Weight Control Registry tend to to maintain the weight they have lost.

A) eat breakfast daily B) exercise for at least 30 minutes daily Version 1

C) weigh themselves only once a month 30

D) limit television viewing to no more than 20

101)

The weight loss medication orlistat (Alli)

hours/week

A) reduces the amount of fat absorbed by the digestive tract B) increases the metabolic rate by stimulating the release of certain hormones C) reduces the rate at which glucose enters cells

D) increases the amount of energy the body expends by NEAT

102) Esther would like to gain weight, but despite eating regular meals and having no disordered eating practice or eating disorder, her BMI dropped from 19.0 to 16.2 in one year. According to this information, Esther's physician will need to .

A) determine whether Esther has cancer or another serious chronic disease B) treat Esther with hypermetabolic medications C) let Esther know that she shouldn't try to gain weight, because her BMI is in the healthy range

D) provide Esther with a low-fat, low-carb diet that provides 900 kcal/day to gain weight

103) Chino would like to gain weight, but despite eating regular meals and having no disordered eating practice or eating disorder, his BMI dropped from 19.5 to 17.0 in one year. According to this information, his physician will need to .

gain weight, because his A) determine whether he has a serious chronic disease, such as tuberculosis B) treat him with hypermetabolic medications C) let him know that it is not necessary for him to

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BMI is in the healthy range D) provide him with a low-fat, low-carb diet that provides 900 kcal/day to gain weight

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104) Pedro would like to gain weight, but despite eating regular meals and having no disordered eating practice or eating disorder, his BMI dropped from 19.0 to 16.7 in one year. According to this information, his physician will need to .

A) determine whether he has a serious chronic disease, such as inflammatory bowel disease B) treat him with hypermetabolic medications C) let him know that it is not necessary for him to gain weight, because his BMI is in the healthy range

D) provide him with a low-fat, low-carb diet that provides 900 kcal/day to gain weight

105) A new weight loss program includes recommendations that are likely to be unsafe and not result in long-term weight loss and maintenance. Which of the following recommendations is a component of this particular weight loss program?

A) The person only eats foods that are green or red in color. B) The person finds ways to incorporate more physical activity into his or her daily routine. C) The person measures his or her waistline weekly.

D) The person keeps a daily food intake record to identify "problem foods."

106) A weight loss program includes recommendations that are likely to be unsafe and not result in long-term weight loss and maintenance. Which of the following recommendations is a component of this particular weight loss program?

A) The person does not eat grains, starchy foods, or fruit. B) The person finds ways to incorporate more Version 1

physical activity into his or her daily routine. C) The person consumes nutrient-dense 33

snacks.

identify "problem foods." D) The person keeps a daily food intake record to

107) Carey skips breakfast and eats only organic foods. Before exams, she avoids eating anything that is "alive" or "had a face" while it was alive. Her BMI is 21.6 and she seems to be healthy. Based on this information, Carey is at risk of developing . D) the female athlete triad

A) an eating disorder B) diabulimia C) muscle dysmorphia

108) According to the DSM-5, the three main types of eating disorders are .

A) binge-eating disorder, bulimia nervosa, and anorexia nervosa B) anorexia, diabulimia, and night eating syndrome C) muscle dysmorphia, bulimia nervosa, and binge-

109)

Risk factors for eating disorders include

. D) pursuing a college degree

A) being teased about one's weight B) training to become a master chef C) being a physically active, adolescent male

110)

Risk factors for eating disorders include

eating disorder D) anorexia, female athlete triad, and night eating syndrome

. C) experiencing

A) having African-American ancestry B) being female

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physical abuse as an adult D) being a low-birth-weight baby

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111)

Most people who suffer from anorexia nervosa .

A) are older adults B) have high self-esteem

112)

C) realize that they are too thin D) are females

Most people who suffer from anorexia nervosa .

A) have a strong desire to gain weight B) have high self-esteem C) deny they are too thin

D) are males between 16 and 30 years of age

113) Which of the following conditions or behaviors is a characteristic sign of a person with anorexia nervosa?

A) Consuming dietary supplements daily B) Having a metabolic rate that is 10 to 25% above

D) Having a chronic digestive tract disorder

normal C) Maintaining a BMI of 17.5 or less

114) People with anorexia nervosa have a high risk of dying from . C) pancreatic A) suicide B) vitamin toxicities

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cancer D) hyperglycemia

A) taking thyroid hormone supplements to increase their metabolic rate B) purging, including self-induced vomiting C) abusing alcohol

D) abusing stimulant drugs, such as cocaine, caffeine, and ephedra

116) After bingeing on cakes and cookies, Bonnie practices self-induced vomiting to avoid gaining weight. Based on this information, you would expect to notice as a sign of her purging behavior.

A) sores on herknuckles B) cuts on herforehead C) bruises on hercheeks

117) During a dental examination, the dentist notices that the enamel on the back sides of Jamal's teeth has eroded, and the some of the teeth are decaying. Based on this information,

A) has a vitamin D deficiency disorder B) frequently makes himself vomit after eating C) is not brushing his teeth regularly

D) scar tissue in her kidneys

the dentist suspects that Jamal .

D) eats foods that contain too much dietary fiber

118) Jana's BMI is 25.5. She skips breakfast andusually eats a salad for lunch. While she is with friends, she eats large amounts of cookies, pastries, and ice cream. After eating such foods, she excuses herself to go to the bathroom. Her friends are amazed that she doesn't gain weight. Based on this information, Jana may have .

A) a hypoactive thyroid gland B) bulimia nervosa

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C) a "lazy" spleen D) systemic lipodystrophy

119)

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Disordered eating practices are usually temporary and occur when the person is under stress. B) Binge-eating disorder is the most serious eating disorder, because 36% of people with the condition commit suicide. C) Young women are more likely to develop muscle dysmorphia than young men.

120)

D) According to the DSM-5, there are two main types of eating disorders that physicians can diagnose: bulimia and anorexia.

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Disordered eating practices are very serious psychological disturbances that typically become permanent. B) Anorexia nervosa is the most serious eating disorder, because the condition has the highest death rate of any psychological disorder. C) Young women are more likely to develop muscle

dysmorphia than young men. D) According to the DSM-5, there are two main types of eating disorders that physicians can diagnose: bulimia and anorexia.

121) Which of the following behaviors is typical of someone who has disordered eating but not an eating disorder?

A) Skipping breakfast when late for an exam B) Binge-eating dailyfor 4 months C) Frequently making oneself vomit after meals

D) Regularly using laxatives lose weight

122) Which of the following behaviors is typical of sign someone who has disordered eating but not an eating disorder?

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A) Eating only apples and cooked pasta with grated cheese for several days B) Binge-eating dailyfor 4 months C) Frequently making oneself vomit after meals

123) Victoria is a 21-year-old world-class gymnast who trains, on average, for about 6 hours/day. She frequently experiences stress fractures of the bones in her feet. Although she is not pregnant, she has not had a menstrual period for the

A) osteomalacia B) type 1 diabetes C) female athlete triad

D) Regularly using laxatives lose weight

past 6 months. Based on this information, Victoria probably has .

D) menopausal syndrome

124) Conditions associated with the female athlete triad include .

A) reduced bone mineral density B) cystic fibrosis

125)

Females involved in competitive sports, especially , are at risk of the female athlete triad.

A) gymnastics B) soccer

126)

C) premenopausal polycystic syndrome D) hyperthermia

C) softball D) lacrosse

Males involved in competitive sports, especially , are at risk of the male athlete triad.

A) wrestling B) soccer

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C) baseball D) lacrosse

127) Michael is a 17-year-old world-class gymnast who suffers from the male athlete triad. Based on this information, he has .

A) reduced bone density B) type 1 diabetes C) high testosterone levels

128)

D) chronic bronchitis

Typical treatments for eating disorders include .

A) psychological therapy B) thyroxin injections C) bariatric surgery

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D) appetite stimulant medications

Answer Key Test name: ch10

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1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) FALSE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) TRUE 8) TRUE 9) FALSE 10) TRUE 11) FALSE 12) TRUE 13) FALSE 14) TRUE 15) FALSE 16) TRUE 17) TRUE 18) TRUE 19) TRUE 20) A 21) A Version 1

22) A 23) D 24) C 25) A 26) D 27) A 28) B 29) B 30) D 31) A 32) D 33) A 34) D 35) A 36) A 37) D 38) B 39) D 40) D 41) C 42) A Version 1

43) C 44) B 45) A 46) B 47) C 48) A 49) A 50) A 51) A 52) A 53) B 54) C 55) D 56) A 57) A 58) A 59) B 60) C 61) C 62) D 63) D Version 1

64) A 65) A 66) B 67) C 68) A 69) C 70) C 71) C 72) C 73) B 74) B 75) B 76) C 77) C 78) A 79) C 80) B 81) A 82) B 83) A 84) B Version 1

85) C 86) D 87) C 88) A 89) A 90) B 91) A 92) B 93) B 94) C 95) A 96) C 97) D 98) C 99) D 100) A 101) A 102) A 103) A 104) A 105) A Version 1

106) A 107) A 108) A 109) A 110) B 111) D 112) C 113) C 114) A 115) B 116) A 117) B 118) B 119) A 120) B 121) A 122) A 123) C 124) A 125) A 126) A Version 1

127) A 128) A

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Student name: TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Proper nutrition is necessary for a person to have optimal physical fitness. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) A physically fit person can meet the physical demands of daily life, including physical activities and sports. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) People who exercise regularly can reduce their risk of cardiovascular disease. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) People who exercise regularly can reduce their risk of type 1 diabetes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) Solar energy is the direct source of energy that human cells use for their metabolic activities. Version 1

⊚

true

⊚

false

6) Human cells are unable to metabolize triglycerides to make ATP. ⊚ ⊚

true false

7) To obtain enough energy to perform long-term physical activities, muscle cells obtain ATP by breaking down PCr. ⊚ ⊚

true false

8) Glycolysis is the first step of the metabolic process that degrades glucose and forms pyruvate, when oxygen is unavailable. ⊚ ⊚

true false

9) When healthy athletes engage in vigorous exercise, their glycogen stores become depleted within 20 minutes. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

10) While running in a marathon, endurance athletes can delay "hitting the wall," by consuming 30 to 60 g of ⊚ ⊚

carbohydrate per hour of activity, during the event.

true false

11) If you suspect someone is suffering from heat cramps, call 911 because this is a life-threatening medical emergency. ⊚ ⊚

true false

12) The National Collegiate Athletic Association (NCAA) limits the amount of caffeine that can be in an athlete's urine before he or she competes. ⊚ ⊚

13)

true false

Caffeine is a stimulant drug. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement

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or answers the question. 14) Physical fitness may be defined as the ability to

A) perform moderate- to vigorous-intensity physical activity for a reasonable amount of time without becoming excessively tired B) move joints beyond their normal range of motion C) maintain maximum heart rate for 10 minutes,

without warming up D) engage in high-intensity workouts by reaching one's maximum heart rate within 5 minutes of beginning the exertion

15) Which of the following characteristics is not a component of physical fitness? C) Flexibililty D) Balance

A) Self-esteem B) Strength

16) Which of the following features is a characteristic of a physically fit person? D) Interest in A) Physical endurance B) Self-esteem C) High maximum heart rate

sports

17) Which of the following features is a characteristic of a physically fit person? D) Interest in

18)

A) Flexibility B) Self-esteem C) High maximum heart rate

sports

Which of the following features is a characteristic of a

physically fit person?

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D) Interest in A) Strength B) Self-esteem C) High maximum heart rate

19)

sports

What is physical activity?

A) Movement that results from contracting skeletal muscles. B) Movement that results from any muscular contraction. C) Muscular activity that is planned and conducted

for improving health. D) Muscular activity of vital organs, especially the heart and lungs.

20)

A) Movement that results from contracting skeletal muscles. B) Movement that results from any muscular contraction. C) Physical activities that are planned and conducted

21)

What is exercise?

for a particular purpose. D) Muscular activity of vital organs, especially the large intestine, heart, and lungs.

What is exercise?

A) Caloric expenditure that results from contracting skeletal muscles. B) Movement that results from any muscular contraction. C) Skeletal muscle contractions that are planned and

conducted for a reason, such as having fun. D) Muscular activity of vital organs, especially the intestine, heart, and lungs.

22)

moderate-intensity

Monroe is a healthy 55-year-old man who performs

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physical activities and muscle strengthening exercises to stay fit. According to recommendations of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, he should perform at least minutes of moderately intense physical activity

A) 150 B) 200

each week.

C) 100 D) 75

23) Matthew is a healthy 25-year-old man who lifts weights to strengthen his muscles and exercises vigorously to improve his endurance. According to recommendations of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, he should perform at least minutes of vigorous-intensity physical activity each week.

A) 150 B) 200

C) 100 D) 75

24) Gloria is a healthy 25-year-old woman. According to recommendations of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, she should perform strengthening activities that focus on major muscle groups at least twice a week.

A) 2to 5 B) 6to 8

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C) 12to 16 D) 8 to 10

A) beriberi B) cardiovascular disease C) pernicious anemia

26)

People who exercise regularly can reduce their risk of .

A) cystic fibrosis B) megaloblastic anemia

27)

C) type 2 diabetes D) celiac disease

People who exercise regularly can reduce their risk of .

A) phenylketonuria B) megaloblastic anemia

28)

D) hemochromatosis

C) type 1 diabetes D) hypertension

People who exercise regularly can reduce their risk of .

A) osteoporosis B) megaloblastic anemia

C) hemosiderosis D) iron deficiency

29) Including exercise in your daily routine can reduce your risk of .

A) osteoarthritis B) certain cancers

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C) inflammatory bowel disease D) rickets

D) pernicious A) colon cancer B) type 1 diabetes C) hemochromatosis

anemia

31) Including exercise in your daily routine can reduce your risk of . C) sickle cell A) pernicious anemia B) breast cancer

anemia D) PKU

32) Which of the following activities is generally classified as aerobic?

A) Stretching B) Cycling

C) Gardening D) Playing golf

33) Which of the following activities is generally classified as aerobic?

A) Gardening B) Stretching

C) Stair stepping D) Playing golf

34) Which of the following activities is generally classified as aerobic?

A) Running B) Bowling

C) Stretching D) Playing golf

35) Michelle's weekly exercise program includes Version 1

swimming, running, toe touches, and push-ups. Which of these activities is generally classified as a flexibility exercise? C) Swimming D) Push-ups

A) Running B) Toe touches

36) Malia's weekly exercise program includes jogging, lunges, triceps presses, and lifting weights. Which of these activities is generally classified as a flexibility exercise? C) Triceps presses D) Lifting weights

A) Jogging B) Lunges

37) Sasha's weekly exercise program includes stair stepping, stretching, cycling, and lifting weights. Which of these activities is generally classified as a strength (resistance)exercise? C) Cycling D) Lifting weights

A) Stairstepping B) Stretching

38) Oliver's weekly exercise program includes stair stepping, stretching, cycling, and squats. Which of these activities is generally classified as a strength (resistance)exercise?

C) Cycling D) Squats

A) Stairstepping B) Stretching

39) Version 1

Jerome's weekly 9

exercise program includes swimming laps, lunges, cycling, and biceps curls. Which of these activities is generally

A) Swimming laps B) Lunges

classified as a strength (resistance)exercise? C) Cycling D) Biceps curls

40) Which of the following physical activities is not aerobic?

A) Running B) Cross country skiing

41)

C) Cycling D) Driving a car

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Aerobic exercise involves rhythmic, sustained contractions of large muscle groups. B) Walking, bowling, and playing golf are forms of vigorous-intensity physical activity. C) For engaging in moderate physical activity, the target heart rate zone should be 25 to 50% of a person's age-

42)

related maximum heart rate. D) Low-intensity, unstructured physical activities include rapid walking, lunges, and squats.

is a form of vigorous physical activity.

A) Strength training B) Aerobic dancing

43)

C) Gardening D) Yoga

is a form of vigorous physical activity.

A) Strength training B) Mowing the lawn

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C) Swimming laps D) Performing biceps curls

44) Holly is a healthy woman who is 23 years of age. According to the CDC and American College of Sports Medicine, her approximate target heart rate zone for

moderate-intensity physical activity is . D) 126 to 150

A) 59 to 79 bpm B) 99 to 139 bpm C) 129 to 159 bpm

45) Hector is a healthy man who is 28 years of age.According to the CDC and American College of Sports Medicine, his approximate target heart rate zone for

bpm

moderate-intensity physical activity is . D) 139 to 168

A) 96 to 134 bpm B) 123 to 146 bpm C) 101 to 141 bpm

46) Harry is a healthy man who is 55 years of age.According to the CDC and American College of Sports Medicine, his approximate target heart rate zone for

A) 95 to 133 bpm B) 83 to 116 bpm

47) Curtis is a healthy man who is 32 years of age. Using this information, calculate his approximate target heart rate

bpm

moderate-intensity physical activity is

C) 115 to 161bpm D) 106 to 125 bpm

zone for vigorous-intensity physical activity. D) 132 to 160

A) 145 to 175 bpm B) 94 to 132 bpm C) 115 to 156 bpm

bpm

48) Version 1

Stefan is a healthy 11

man who is 26 years of age. Using this information, calculate his approximate target heart rate zone for vigorous-intensity physical activity.

A) 149 to 180 bpm B) 136 to 165 bpm

49) Luis is a healthy man who is 30 years of age. Using this information, calculate his approximate target heart rate

C) 97 to 136 bpm D) 110 to 134 bpm

zone for vigorous-intensity physical activity. D) 146 to 177

A) 138 to 167 bpm B) 129 to 159 bpm C) 133 to 162 bpm

50) Jenny is a healthy woman who is 42 years of age. Using guidelines of the CDC and American College of Sports Medicine, calculate her approximate target heart rate zone for

bpm

vigorous-intensity physical activity.

C) 153 to 180 A) 125 to 151 bpm B) 137 to 165 bpm

51)

bpm D) 165 to 213bpm

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Weight lifting and other resistance exercises can increase bone mass. B) In general, television watching is classified as a moderate-intensity physical activity. C) A quick and easy way to measure your heart rate is to place your fingers over your pulmonary artery and count

the number of beats per minute. D) Measuring your pulse during exercise is not an effective way of predicting the activity's intensity.

52)

macronutrients as

Cells release much of the energy stored in

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A) ATP B) creatine phosphate

C) heat D) carbon dioxide

53) is the primary source of direct energy ("energy currency") for cells.

A) Glucose B) Fat

C) Glycogen D) ATP

54) Which of the following nutrients cannot be metabolized for ATP production?

A) Glucose B) Fat

C) Protein D) Thiamin

55) Which of the following nutrients cannot be metabolized for ATP production?

A) Glucose B) Triglycerides

C) Amino acids D) Riboflavin

56) Which of the following nutrients can be metabolized for ATP production?

A) Glucose B) Vitamin C

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C) Iron D) Magnesium

57)

Which of the following nutrients can be metabolized

A) Vitamin D B) Fat

58)

for ATP production? C) Iron D) Pantothenic acid

can be metabolized for ATP production.

A) Vitamin D B) Iron

59)

C) Amino acids D) Niacin

can be metabolized for ATP production.

A) Vitamin D B) Iron

C) Pyridoxal phosphate D) Alcohol

60) are often referred to as the "powerhouses" of cells because they release most of the energy stored in macronutrients.

A) Ribosomes B) Plasma membranes

61)

C) Mitochondria D) Lysosomes

Which of the following statements is true?

A) After pyruvate enters the nucleus, it is broken down to release carbon monoxide and ATP. B) Human cells produce carbon dioxide as they metabolize macronutrients for energy. C) Oxidation of macronutrients to release energy is

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an anabolic process. D) Most of the energy released during catabolism is captured in ATP.

62)

Which of the following statements is true?

A) After glucose enters the nucleus, it is broken down to release ATP. B) Human cellsproduce glucose from carbon dioxide, oxygen, and water. C) Oxidation of macronutrients for energy is an

63)

anabolic process. D) Cells can metabolize glucose for energy when oxygen is unavailable.

Which of the following statements is true?

A) In ribosomes, food undergoes oxidative degradation, releasing creatine phosphate and ADP. B) In the cytoplasm, glycolysis generates oxygen and carbon monoxide molecules. C) In mitochondria, pyruvate molecules undergo complete degradation to form ATP.

D) Under normal conditions, muscle cells rely on amino acids as their primary source of energy.

64) The complete oxidation of glucose releases energy and results in the formation of . D) sodium hydroxide and calcium citrate

A) iron oxide and glycogen B) carbon dioxide and water C) sodium acetate and methane

65) Muscle cells can use the obtain energy.

A) PCr-ATP B) oxalic acid

energy system to

C) carbon dioxide D) citrate

66) Muscle cells can use the energy system to obtain energy.

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C) carbon D) GTP

A) oxaloacetate B) lactic acid

67) Muscle cells can use the obtain energy.

energy system to

A) fumarate B) oleic acid

68)

C) oxygen D) GTP

Which of the following statements is true?

A) The oxygen energy system does not produce ATP. B) Gram per gram, sugars supply more energy than fats.

quantities of oxygen to function properly. D) While at rest, a muscle cell stores only a small amount of ATP.

C) The lactic acid energy system requires large

69) Under anaerobic conditions, muscle cells convert pyruvate to .

A) alanine B) lactic acid

70) to lactate.

form when muscle cells convert lactic acid

A) Ketone bodies B) Trans fatty acids

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C) vitamin D D) carbon monoxide

C) Hydrogen ions D) Mineral elements

71) Muscles store , the immediate source of glucose for contracting muscles.

A) fatty acids B) alanine

72)

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Glucose is the primary fuel for resting muscles. B) During high-intensity exercise, the rate of fat oxidation decreases. C) Amino acids are a major source of energy for contracting muscles.

73)

C) ATP D) glycogen

D) Phosphocreatine provides about 85% of the energy needed to fuel muscles during endurance physical activities.

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Glucose is the primary fuel for resting muscles. B) During high-intensity exercise, the rate of glucose oxidation increases. C) Amino acids are a major source of energy for contracting muscles.

D) Phosphocreatine provides about 85% of the energy needed to fuel muscles during endurance physical activities.

74) Which of the following physical activities metabolizes the most fat?

A) Walking for anhour B) Running for twohours C) Hard cycling for 1 hour

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D) Performing 200-meter hurdles during competition

A) Jogging for 15 minutes B) Hard cycling for1 hour C) Sitting for 2 hours

76)

D) Lifting weight for 30 minutes

The liver supplies glucose for cells by breaking down .

A) cholesterol B) phosphocreatine

C) ATP D) glycogen

77) The liver can convert into glucose that can be released into the bloodstream or stored as glycogen.

A) fatty acids B) ATP

C) lactate D) vitamin D

78) Trey is relaxing while chatting online. During this time, his muscles are relying primarily on for energy.

A) glycogen B) glucose

79) Alicia's goal is to become a world-class endurance athlete. She trains aerobically for at least 90 minutes daily. She weighs 65 kg. Based on this information, she should consume at least kilocalories daily to maintain her

A) 2700 to 3000 B) 2925 to 3250

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C) fat D) methanol

body weight while in training.

C) 3750 to 4500 D) 3175 to 5250

80) Lance's goal is to win a marathon bicycle race. He trains aerobically for at least 90 minutes daily. He weighs 70 kg. Based on this information, he should consume at least kilocalories per day to maintain his body weight

A) 3000 B) 4000

81)

while in training and during a race.

C) 3500 D) 4500

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Registered dietitian nutritionists generally recommend very-low-fat diets (fat contributes less than 10% of total calories) for healthy athletes. B) According to research, trained athletes are unable to compete when fat comprises 40% of their total energy intake. C) Athletes and other physically active people should

avoid diets that supply more than 15% of total energy from fat. D) Most physically active people should consume 20 to 35% of their total energy intake from fat.

82) To boost hiscarbohydrate intake without adding lots of unhealthy solid fats to his diet, Devon can eat .

A) cream pies B) cheese

C) pretzels D) peanut butter

83) Which of the following foods would be a nutritious low-fat, high-carbohydrate pre-event snack for an athlete?

A) Handful of dried apricots B) Slice of sausage pizza C) Large serving of French fries

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D) Peanut butter on celery

84) Which of the following foods would be a nutritious low-fat, high-carbohydrate food for an athlete?

A) Sausage pizza B) Fried chicken breast

C) Pasta with fresh vegetables D) Cheese sticks

85) Which of the following foods is often recommended for an athlete who wants to replenish his or her glycogen stores quickly after performing vigorous physical activity?

A) Raw eggs B) Protein supplements

86) Brett is an athlete whose carbohydrate intake is inadequate. He wants to restore his glycogen stores quickly after performing vigorous physically activity. Which of the

A) Hard-cooked eggs B) Protein supplements

87) Tatiana is a competitive endurance athlete who weighs 75 kg. She would like to plan a nutritionally balanced diet that provides enough carbohydrate to maintain her weight and glycogen stores for the 1 to 3 hours per day of training that she undergoes to prepare for events. According to expert

A) 420 to 700 B) 520 to 800

C) Ripe avocados D) Fruit juices

following foods is often recommended for athletes such as Brett? C) Ripe bananas D) Chocolate milk

recommendations, she should consume at least grams of carbohydrate daily while training. C) 450 to 750 D) 720 to 1000

88) Shana is a competitive endurance athlete who weighs 148 lb.

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She would like to plan a nutritionally adequate diet that provides enough carbohydrate to maintain her weight and glycogen stores during days in which she spends 1 to 3 hours training for events. According to expert recommendations,

A) 220 to 500 B) 366 to 610

89) Lenny is a competitive endurance athlete who weighs 78 kg. He would like to plan a nutritionally adequate diet that provides enough carbohydrate to maintain his weight and glycogen stores during days in which he spends 1 to 3 hours training for events. According to expert recommendations, he

A) 1020 to 1340 B) 190 to 460

90) Jeremy is a competitive endurance athlete who weighs 176 pounds. He would like to plan a nutritionally adequate diet that provides enough carbohydrate to maintain his weight and glycogen stores during the 1 to 3 hours a day that he spends while in training. According to expert

A) 420 to 700 B) 480 to 800

91) Duncan is a competitive endurance athlete who weighs 82 kg. He would like to plan a nutritionally adequate diet that provides enough carbohydrate to maintain his weight and glycogen stores during the 1 to 3 hours that he spends while training daily. According to expert recommendations,

A) 510 to 850 B) 620 to 900

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she should consume approximately grams of carbohydrate daily while training. C) 402 to 670 D) 810 to 1350

should consume grams of carbohydrate daily while training.

C) 468 to 780 D) 390 to 650

recommendations, he should consume grams of carbohydrate daily.

C) 520 to 900 D) 1056 to 1760

he should consume grams of carbohydrate daily while in training.

C) 735 to 950 D) 492 to 820

92) Emmanuel is a competitive endurance athlete who weighs 73 kg. He would like to plan a nutritionally adequate diet that provides enough carbohydrate to maintain his weight and glycogen stores during training. According to expert

A) 228 to 620 B) 480 to 800

93) Jordan is a competitive endurance athlete who weighs 200 lb. He would like to plan a nutritionally adequate diet that provides enough carbohydrate to maintain his weight and glycogen stores during training. According to expert recommendations, he should consume approximately

A) 546 to 910 B) 480 to 820

94)

recommendations, he should consume grams of carbohydrate daily while in training. C) 540 to 900 D) 438 to 730

grams of carbohydrate daily while in training.

C) 600 to 1000 D) 1220 to 2000

Which of the following statements is true?

A) During vigorous physical activity that lasts more than 60 minutes, glycogen in muscles tends to increase. B) While engaging in vigorous physical activities, athletes should consume fruit drinks and sugar-sweetened soft drinks that have at least 20% sugar contents to meet their carbohydrate needs. C) Athletes can benefit from consuming sports drinks

during prolonged physical exertion. D) High-fat diets are generally recommended for competitive athletes.

95) Adara is an athlete who engages in moderate-intensity physical activity and weighs 60 kg. Based on this information, she should consume at least g of protein per day.

A) 84 B) 78 Version 1

C) 48 D) 135

96) Samir is an athlete who engages in moderate-intensity physical activity and weighs 79 kg. Based on this information,

A) 111 B) 78

he should consume at least g of protein per day. C) 63 D) 237

97) Lydia is an athlete who performs moderate-intensity physical activity and weighs 65 kg. Based on this information, she should consume at least g of protein daily.

A) 91 B) 60

C) 160 D) 125

98) Maggie is an athlete who performs moderate-intensity physical activity and weighs 72 kg. Based on this information, she should consume at least g of protein daily.

A) 91 B) 72

99) Ben is an athlete who engages in moderate-intensity physical activity and weighs 78 kg. Based on this information,

A) 102 B) 156

100) Porter is an athlete who engages in moderate-intensity physical activity and weighs 90 kg. Based on this information,

A) 126 B) 108 Version 1

C) 101 D) 58

he should consume at least g of protein daily. C) 109 D) 62

he should consume at least g of protein daily. C) 72 D) 90

101) Chase is an athlete who engages in moderate-intensity physical activity and weighs 95 kg. Based on this information,

A) 133 B) 114

102)

C) 76 D) 190

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Dehydration can result in declines in an athlete's strength and endurance. B) Heat cramps are a unique type of muscle spasms that occur along the digestive tract during exercise. C) A person suffering from heat cramps typically has

103)

he should consume at least g of protein daily.

a body temperature of 105º F or higher. D) Heat cramps are a life-threatening illness that requires emergency treatment.

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Heat cramps are muscle spasms that usually occur in the abdomen. B) A person suffering from heat cramps typically has a body temperature of 105º F or higher. C) Having dry, hot, red skin is a sign of heatstroke.

D) Beverages that contain alcohol are recommended for treating a person with heatstroke because they have a cooling effect on the body.

104) Excess fluid consumption can result in a condition called .

A) chronic hypotension B) idiopathic rehydration C) water intoxication

105)

D) terminal osmosis

Which of the following statements is true?

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A) Registered dietitian nutritionists generally recommend iron supplements to prevent dehydration. B) Consuming excess sports drinks or water during exercise can contribute to water intoxication. C) Alcohol enables the body to retain water and

prevent dehydration. D) Compared to nonathletes, endurance athletes can tolerate water intoxication without suffering ill effects.

106) According to scientific evidence, which of the following substances may improve the performance of non-

endurance athletes such as weightlifters?

A) Freeze-dried liver flakes B) Calcium pyruvate

C) Chromium D) Creatine

107) According to scientific evidence, which of the following substances may benefit muscle recovery after intense exercise and does not have known side effects?

A) Calcium pyruvate B) Branched-chain amino acids

C) Chromium D) Ephedra

108) Many sports organizations, including the National Collegiate Athletic Association, have banned the use of by athletes.

A) colloidal ligands B) herbal extracts C) anabolic steroids

109) The National Collegiate Athletic Association bans the use of and limits the amount of the substance that

A) high-fructose corn syrup (HFCS)

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D) branched chain amino acids

athletes can have in their bodies during competition. B) caffeine C) calcium

pyruvate

D) creatine

110) The National Collegiate Athletic Association (NCAA) bans the use of among competitive athletes.

A) ascorbic acid B) creatine C) growth hormone (GH)

111)

D) branched-chain amino acids

The Food and Drug Administration has not approved for production, sale, or use in the United States.

A) biotin B) beta-alanine

C) growth hormone D) ephedra

112) Which of the following conditions is often associated with the abuse of anabolic steroids?

A) Chronic cough B) Low blood pressure C) Aggressive behavior

D) Macular degeneration

113) Which of the following conditions is often associated with the abuse of anabolic steroids?

A) Bloody liver cysts B) Low blood pressure C) Urinary tractinfections

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D) Macular degeneration

114)

Which of the following conditions is commonly

associated with the abuse

A) Anemia B) Hyponatremia C) Constipation D) Hypertension

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115) Which of the following conditions is associated with the abuse of anabolic steroids? C) Alzheimer's A) Reproductive problems B) Low blood pressure

116)

Caffeine

D) enhances skeletal muscle contraction

A) is a depressant drug B) reduces the ability of skeletal muscles to contract

118)

D) Cystic fibrosis.

A) lowers fatty acid levels in blood B) increases muscle glycogen deposits C) is a depressant drug that reduces urine production

117)

disease

C) is addictive D) lowers blood fatty acid levels

Which of the following statements is true?

A) The first 3 to 6 weeks of a new exercise program is called the origination stage. B) When beginning the improvement stage of an exercise program, a person should exercise at 85% of his or her age-related target heart rate zone. C) Over time, a well-planned exercise program

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results in detraining. D) A comprehensive fitness program includes aerobic, resistance, and flexibility activities.

A) relies on resistance training B) gradually increases in duration and intensity of activities C) should be performed once a week to avoid

boredom D) should be performed for at least 90 minutes daily to be effective

120) To make your exercise routine more enjoyable, the routine should .

A) focus on resistance training B) include a daily form of vigorous exercise C) should be performed once a week to avoid boredom

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D) incorporate a variety of aerobic, resistance, and flexibility activities

Answer Key Test name: ch11

Version 1

1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) FALSE 6) FALSE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) FALSE 10) TRUE 11) FALSE 12) TRUE 13) TRUE 14) A 15) A 16) A 17) A 18) A 19) A 20) C 21) C Version 1

22) A 23) D 24) D 25) B 26) C 27) D 28) A 29) B 30) A 31) B 32) B 33) C 34) A 35) B 36) B 37) D 38) D 39) D 40) D 41) A 42) B Version 1

43) C 44) D 45) B 46) D 47) A 48) A 49) D 50) B 51) A 52) C 53) D 54) D 55) D 56) A 57) B 58) C 59) D 60) C 61) B 62) D 63) C Version 1

64) B 65) A 66) B 67) C 68) D 69) B 70) C 71) D 72) B 73) B 74) A 75) B 76) D 77) C 78) C 79) B 80) C 81) D 82) C 83) A 84) C Version 1

85) D 86) D 87) C 88) C 89) C 90) B 91) D 92) D 93) A 94) C 95) A 96) A 97) A 98) C 99) C 100) A 101) A 102) A 103) C 104) C 105) B Version 1

106) D 107) B 108) C 109) B 110) C 111) D 112) C 113) A 114) D 115) A 116) D 117) C 118) D 119) B 120) D

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Student name: TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) According to EPA regulations, fruits and vegetables should contain no detectable levels of pesticides. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) Home-canned low-acid foods, such as green beans and corn, may be contaminated with Clostridium botulinum, a ⊚ ⊚

bacterium that produces a potentially deadly toxin.

true false

3) When people consume toxins produced by pathogens in foods, they experience food-borne infections. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) The process of pasteurization uses high-energy radiation to kill pathogens. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Rodenticides are used to kill weeds.

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⊚

true

⊚

false

6) Vermin, such as cockroaches and flies, can transmit pathogens to food because they often come in contact with garbage and/or sewage. ⊚ ⊚

true false

7) Salmonella infection is the most common cause of food-borne illness in the United States. ⊚ ⊚

true false

8) The U.S. Department of Agriculture's Food Safety and Inspection Service enforces food safety regulations for ⊚ ⊚

imported fruits and vegetables.

true false

9) Sterilization is an extremely effective method of destroying food-borne pathogens. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

10) To prevent or slow the growth of food-borne pathogens, the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services and the U.S. Department of Agriculture recommend ⊚ ⊚

keeping foods colder than 40ºF or warmer than 140ºF.

true false

11) Keeping the temperature of food between 60ºF and 110ºF is an effective way of slowing the growth of pathogens that may be in the food. ⊚ ⊚

true false

12) Cryptosporidium is a tiny, parasitic worm that is in raw meat and fish. ⊚ ⊚

true false

13) After a natural disaster, it is safe to drink water from a car's radiator. ⊚ ⊚

14)

true false

The EPA establishes tolerances for pesticide residues.

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⊚

true

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 15) Home-canned low-acid foods, such as beans and corn, may be contaminated with Clostridium botulinum, a

A) frozen for 2 days and then thawed in the refrigerator before eating B) heated in a microwave oven for 5 minutes C) chilled for at least 24 hours before serving

⊚

false

bacterium that produces a dangerous toxin. To destroy the toxin, the food should be . D) boiled for 10 minutes before tasting or eating

16) Which of the following home-cannedfoods should never be tasted before boiling it for at least 10 minutes?

A) Tomato sauce B) 0range segments

17)

C) Corn kernels D) Lemon juice

Which of the following statements is true?

A) In the United States, molds and parasitic worms are responsible for most cases of food-borne illness. B) Sulfites are addedto grain products during the enrichment process. C) In the United States, most fruits, vegetables, mushrooms, and processed ("deli") meats undergo irradiation

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to preserve them. D) Pregnant women,very young children, and people who have weakened immune systems have high riskof food-borne illness.

A) Each year, an estimated 300,000 Americans develop a food-borne illness and as many as 300 of these persons die as a result. B) People who consume the toxin produced by E. coli O157:H7 should seek immediate medical attention. C) Food intoxication outbreaks that result from ingesting aflatoxins disable or kill thousands of Americans

19)

annually. D) If people with the stomach flu are treated with antibiotics immediately, their chances of survival improve considerably.

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Each year, an estimated 1,300,000 Americans develop a food-borne illness and about13,000 of these persons die as a result. B) People who consume foods that contain guar gumshould seek immediate medical attention. C) In the United States, fungi are not a common

cause of food-borne illness. D) In the United States, the stomach flu causes more childhood deaths than any other infectious disease.

20) The process of pasteurization involves the use of enough .

A) radiation to destroy pathogens B) heat to kill pathogens C) pressure to immobilize pathogens

D) chemicals to denature pathogens

21) Harold grows apple trees on his small farm. He practices organic farming methods, so he does not use pesticides. This fall, he would like to make minimally-processed organic apple juice that Version 1

does not contain preservatives. He wants to sell the beverage at the local farmer's market. Based on this information, Harold should before bottling the juice to make it

A) pasteurize the juice B) add BHA to the juice C) chill the juice for 24 hours

safe for consumers.

D) add sugar to the juice

22) Anna enjoys grilling hamburgers, but she wants to reduce the chances that her food preparation practices result in food-borne illness. Which of the following steps should she avoid?

A) Washing her hands in warm soapy water for at least 20 seconds after touching the raw ground meat. B) Sanitizing the plate that she used to carry the raw hamburgers to the grill before using it again. C) Grilling the hamburgers until the internal

temperature of the meat reached 160°F. D) Thawing the frozen, raw ground meat on the kitchen counter.

23) Trevor enjoys cooking chicken, but he wants to reduce the chances that his food preparation practices do not result in cross contamination. What should he avoid doing?

A) Washing his hands in warm soapy water for at least 20 seconds before and after touching the raw chicken. B) Sanitizing the knife that he used to cut up the raw chicken with a mixture of bleach and water before using it again. C) Grilling the chicken on a hot grill until the internal

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temperature of the flesh reached 165°F. D) Cleaning the plate used to carry the chicken to the grill with a paper towel before using it for serving raw vegetables.

24) Brad enjoys eating pork roasts and ribs, but he wants to reduce the chances that his food preparation practices do not result in food-borne illness. What should he avoid doing?

A) Washing his hands in warm soapy water for at least 20 seconds before and after touching the raw pork. B) Sanitizing the knife that he used to cut up the raw pork with a mixture of bleach and water before using it again. C) Grilling the pork on a hot grill until the internal temperature of the flesh reached 145°F.

D) Cleaning the plate used to carry the uncooked pork to the grill with a paper towel before using it for serving raw vegetables.

25) Lizzie enjoys eating grilled salmon and trout, but she wants to reduce the chances that her food preparation practices do not result in food-borne illness. What should she avoid doing?

A) Washing her hands in warm soapy water for at least 20 seconds before and after touching the raw fish. B) Sanitizing the knife that she used to remove bones from the raw fish with a solutionof bleach and water before using it again. C) Grilling the fish on a hot grill until the internal temperature of the flesh reached 145°F.

26)

D) Wiping the knife that she used to cutup the rawfish with a wet dishrag before using it to peelapples for making applesauce.

Which of the following pesticides kills weeds?

A) Rodenticide B) Fungicide

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C) Herbicide D) Insecticide

C) Snakes D) Spiders

A) Birds B) Flies

28) food.

are vermin that often transmit pathogens to

C) Snakes D) Spiders

A) Birds B) Cockroaches

29) Grace recently took a cruise onboard a luxury liner. A few days into her vacation, she developed signs of infection, the most common food-borne illness in the United States. C) botulism D) Anisakis

A) norovirus B) Trichinella

30) infection is the most common food-borne illness in the United States. C) Influenza D) Rotavius

A) Norovirus B) Hepatitis A

31)

Pathogens

A) cause oxidation of nutrients B) are disease-causing agents C) damage DNA

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D) protect cells from free radical destruction

32)

Which of the following statements is true?

A) In the United States, the Center for Food Preservation and Safety is the primary government agency that oversees the safety of most foods. B) Food-borneillnesses are usually characterized by the signs and symptoms of influenza. C) Fungi areresponsible for most cases of food-borne

illness among Americans. D) Certain microbesproduce poisonous chemicals that can cause food intoxication.

33) Which of the following U.S. government agencies oversees the quality of drinking water?

A) Environmental Protection Agency B) Agricultural Research Service C) Food Safety and Inspection Service

D) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention

34) Which of the following U.S. government agencies regulates toxic substances and wastes to prevent their entry into foods?

A) AgriculturalResearch Service B) EnvironmentalProtection Agency C) Food Safety and Inspection Service

D) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention

35) Which of the following U.S. government agencies regulates all domestic and imported food sold in interstate commerce?

A) AgriculturalResearch Service B) EnvironmentalProtection Agency C) Food and DrugAdministration

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D) National Institutes of Health

36) Which of the following U.S. government agencies enforces federal food safety laws?

A) AgriculturalResearch Service B) Environmental Prevention Agency C) Centers forDisease Control and Prevention

37) Jacob's Asiatic Meat Company, which is located in California, imports meat, poultry, and pork products from several Asian countries and distributes the products for sale throughout the United States. Jacob's company is subject to

A) Food Safety and Inspection Service B) Center for International Food Importation C) Environmental Prevention Agency

38)

D) Food and DrugAdministration

the regulations of the .

D) Domestic and Imported Foods Administration

Which of the following statements is true?

A) In the UnitedStates, people rarely suffer from food-borne illnesses. B) The U.S.Environmental Protection Agency is responsible for inspecting local restaurantsand grocery stores to ensure they meet food safety standards. C) A food's odor orappearance is not a reliable

indicator of whether it is safe to eat. D) An undercookedhamburger patty is the most likely source of aflatoxin.

39) Infants should not be fed honey because it can contain .

A) high-fructose corn syrup B) Clostridium botulinum spores

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C) aflatoxins D) aspartame

40) Before you prepare food or after you use the bathroom, wash your hands with hot soapy water for at least

A) 20 B) 40

41)

seconds to cleanse them thoroughly. C) 60 D) 90

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Freezing foodkills the pathogenic bacteria it contains. B) After a meal,refrigerate leftovers within 5 hours. C) Raw ground beef isoften a source of E. coli O157:H7.

D) In the United States, the hepatitis C virus causes more cases of foodborne illness than any other virus.

42) are poisonous substances produced by certain molds that can cause liver damage and death.

A) Pathogens B) Aflatoxins

C) Chelates D) Teratogens

43) Which of the following foods is likely to be a source of Salmonella?

A) Cannedapplesauce B) Honey

44) Terry uses a colander for draining hot water from cooked pasta. She does not clean the colander after each use; she simply lets it "air dry" before returning it to a cupboard. Recently, she became very ill with nausea, severe abdominal cramps, and watery diarrhea about 8 hours after eating cooked

C) Cooked pork D) Raw chicken

buttered pasta she had made for dinner. Based on this information, Terry illness was probably caused by . A) toxin produced

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by Bacillus cereus B) toxin produced by Clostridium botulinum C) infection caused by norovirus

D) infection caused by Giardia

45) Kevin and Neill spent a couple of days camping next to a lake in a national park. While at the campsite, they swam in the lake and noticed several trees near their campsite had been damaged by beavers. A couple of weeks after they returned home, both young men began to lose weight and have abdominal pain and diarrhea. Based on this information,

the emergency room doctor who treated Kevin suspected his patient had become infected with .

A) Giardia B) Bacillus cereus

C) Toxoplasma D) Influenza B

46) Which of the following food preservation methods is the most effective for destroying pathogens, including viruses?

A) Smoke curing B) Sterilization

47) Three days after eating an undercooked hamburger patty at a picnic, Grace experienced intestinal cramps and bloody diarrhea. When Grace became too weak to walk, her roommate took her to the emergency room of a hospital. Grace required treatment for kidney failure. Based on this

A) E. coli O157:H7 B) Staphylococcusaureus

C) Freezing D) Fermentation

information, which of the following food-borne pathogens was most likely responsible for Grace's serious illness? C) Bacilluscereus D) Trichinella

48) Which of the following foods often is not a common source of food-borne pathogens?

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A) Potato salad B) Unpasteurized milk

C) Egg custard D) White bread

49) Which of the following foods is frequently a source of food-borne pathogens?

A) Dried apricots B) Egg salad C) Peanut butter and jelly sandwich

D) Commerciallycanned baked beans

50) Which of the following foods is not a likely source of food-borne pathogens?

A) Dried apricots B) Egg salad C) Raw ground beef

D) Chicken casserole

51) Which of the following foods is not a likely source of food-borne pathogens?

A) Raw groundturkey B) Egg salad C) Ready-to-eat cereal

D) Chicken casserole

52) Which of the following foods is not a likely source of food-borne pathogens?

A) Raw groundturkey B) Potato salad C) Deli-sliced chicken

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D) Commerciallycanned peaches

53) The toxin produced by can cause blurry vision, muscle weakness, difficulty swallowing, and even death.

A) Giardia B) Salmonellaspecies

54) According to the U.S. Department of Human Services and the U.S. Department of Agriculture, pathogenic bacteriaare likely to multiply rapidly when environmental

C) Clostridiumbotulinum D) Trichinella

temperatures are between . C) 60 and 160ºF D) 80 and 180ºF

A) 20 and 120ºF B) 40 and 140ºF

55) Julio invited some friends to his apartment to share his "special recipe" chicken dinner. In addition to making the chicken, Julio prepared a salad of fresh leafy greens and pie made with eggs and milk for dessert. Julio and his dinner guests are likely to experience food-borne illness if he .

A) thaws the frozen raw chicken in a covered tray on the bottom shelf of the refrigerator B) wipes the knife used to cut up the raw chicken on a hand towel before using the knife to cut up the salad vegetables C) marinates the cut-up pieces of raw chicken in the

refrigerator and then throws out the marinade D) keeps the pie chilled before serving it

56) Version 1

Julio invited some 14

friends to his apartment to share his "special recipe" chicken dinner. In addition to making the chicken, Julio prepared a salad of fresh leafy greens and a pie made with eggs and milk for dessert. Julio and his friends are likely to experience food-

A) thaws the frozen raw chicken in a covered tray on the bottom shelf of the refrigerator B) uses a clean knife to cut up the salad vegetables C) marinates the cut-up pieces of raw chicken and

borne illness if he .

uses the marinade to make a dipping sauce for the chicken D) keeps the pie chilled before serving it

57) Franco made dinner for his roommates. The meal included a baked cut-up chicken, fruit salad, and stir-fried rice with mixed vegetables. About 8 hours after eating dinner, Franco and his roommates experienced nausea, vomiting, fever, chills, and diarrhea. Based on this information, Franco probably .

A) thawed the frozen raw chicken in a covered tray on the bottom shelf of the refrigerator B) allowed the frozen vegetables to thaw before adding them to the rice C) did not cook the rice completely, before he added

the vegetables to it D) did not wash the knife that he used to cut up the chicken before using it to cut up the fruit

58) Felicia wants to follow the "Check Your Steps" actions for food safety. When she prepares high-risk foods, she avoids cross contamination, cooks raw foods to their safe internal temperatures, and chills leftovers within 30 minutes after serving them. After eating one of her meals, Felicia and her dinner guests developed a food-borne illness. Based on this information, which step did she fail to take?

A) Clean B) Irradiate

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C) Salt D) Pasteurize

59) Jermaine wants to follow the "Check Your Steps" actions for food safety. When he prepares high-risk foods, he washes his hands before and after touching food, sanitizes surfaces that come in contact with foods, cooks raw foods to their safe internal temperatures, and chills leftovers within 30 minutes after serving them. After eating one of his meals,

A) Clean B) Separate

Jermaine and his dinner guests developed a foodborne illness. Based on this information, which step did he fail to take?

C) Salt D) Pasteurize

60) Deon wants to follow the "Check Your Steps" rules for food safety. When he prepares high-risk foods, he washes his hands before and after touching the food, sanitizes surfaces that come in contact with all foods, avoids cross contamination, serves raw or barely-cooked meats, and refrigerates leftovers within 30 minutes after serving them. After eating one of his meals, Deon and his dinner guests developed a food-borne illness. Based on this information, which step did he fail to take?

A) Clean B) Separate

61) BJ wants to follow the "Check Your Steps" actions for food safety. When he prepares high-risk foods, he washes his hands before and after touching the food; sanitizes surfaces that come in contact with all foods; avoids cross contamination; cooks meats to their proper internal temperatures; and after meals, he keeps serving dishes with cooked food on the table, so his guests can nibble on the

C) Cook D) Pasteurize

items. After eating one of his meals, he and his dinner guests developed a food-borne illness. Based on this information, which step did he fail to take?

A) Clean Version 1

B) Separate C) Chill

D) Pasteurize

62) is a type of parasitic worm that can be transferred to humans who eat raw or undercooked fish.

A) Anisakis B) Giardia

C) Cryptosporidium D) Salmonella

63) is a type of parasitic worm that can be transferred to humans who eat raw or undercooked pork, bear, or seal meat.

A) Anisakis B) Cryptosporidium

C) Giardia D) Trichinella

64) While at a seafood restaurant, Jenny ate some raw oysters on the half shell. Within 24 hours, she developed a high fever that was accompanied by severe abdominal pain and diarrhea. Based on this information, Jenny probably is infected with .

A) Bacillus cereus B) Vibrio fulnificus

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C) Giardia D) Toxoplasma

C) Protozoa D) Bacteria

A) Viruses B) Worms

66) A is simply a piece of genetic material coated with protein. C) bacterium D) parasite

A) virus B) protozoan

67) Which of the following practices is the most reliable way of sanitizing impure water?

A) Freezing and thawing the water B) Boiling the water C) Adding salt to the water

D) Shaking the water vigorously for 1 minute

68) Kevin is an American who is staying in a hotel in Paris, France. To avoid traveler's diarrhea, Kevin should .

A) not be concerned because France is a low-risk country B) drink only water that has been boiled

C) add iodine drops to the water D) avoid eating fresh fruits and vegetables

69) Jillian is an American who is staying in a small town in Guatemala, Central America. To avoid traveler's diarrhea, Jillian should .

B) not drink fresh A) not be concerned because Guatemala is a low-risk country Version 1

water C) add fluorine

drops to drinking water D) only eat fresh fruits and vegetables

70) Irina is an American who is traveling through Northern Africa. Today, she's staying with friends in a house that is 20 miles south of Cairo, Egypt. To avoid traveler's

A) not be concerned because Egypt is a low-risk country B) wash fruits and vegetables in fresh water before eating them C) drink only water that has been boiled or is in a

diarrhea, should

Irina .

sealed bottle D) purchase only fresh fruits and vegetables from street vendors

71) Jordan is an American who is traveling through India. Today, he's staying in home that's in a village about 50 miles southwest of New Delhi. To avoid traveler's diarrhea, Jordan should .

A) not be concerned because India is a low-risk country B) drink only fresh water C) consume raw foods that have been purchased

72)

Which of the following statements is true?

A) The water in swimming pools is safe to drink. B) Using a microstrainer filter is the best way to remove viruses from impure water. C) People who travelto Central and South America have a high risk of developing traveler'sdiarrhea.

73)

from local street vendors D) use bottled water to drink, wash hands, brush teeth,and take medication

According to the USDA, a whole cooked chicken is

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D) Boiling water for several minutes is not an effective means of purification.

safe to serve when its

internal temperature reaches a minimum of

A) 115ºF B) 125ºF

C) 145ºF D) 165ºF

74) The USDA recommends that fresh pork be cooked until its internal temperature is at least . A) 130ºF B) 140ºF

C) 145ºF D) 155ºF

75) The USDA recommends that fresh ground meat be cooked until its internal temperature is at least . A) 130ºF B) 150ºF

C) 180ºF D) 160ºF

76) The USDA recommends that fresh turkey be cooked until its internal temperature is at least . A) 145ºF B) 155ºF

C) 165ºF D) 175ºF

77) The USDA recommends that a beef steak be cooked until its internal temperature is at least . A) 145ºF B) 155ºF

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C) 165ºF D) 175ºF

A) 145ºF B) 155ºF

79) The USDA recommends that egg custard be cooked until its internal temperature is at least . C) 170ºF D) 180ºF

A) 150ºF B) 160ºF

80) You have a high risk of developing traveler's diarrhea when you visit . C) Montreal, A) Mexico City, Mexico B) Los Angeles, California

Canada D) Tokyo, Japan

81) You have a high risk of developing traveler's diarrhea when you visit .

A) New York City, New York B) Paris, France

C) Sydney, Australia D) Calcutta, India

82) Which of the following food preservation methods draws water from cells, reducing the likelihood many pathogens can survive?

A) Canning B) Irradiating

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C) Drying D) Chilling

83) Which of the following food preservation methods treats the food with a high amount of energy that destroys the

genetic material of pathogens? C) Drying D) Chilling

A) Canning B) Irradiating

84) How can you tell if a food has been irradiated to preserve it?

A) Observe any unusual color changes in the food B) Smell the food and note any "off" flavors C) Test the food for nutrient losses

85) from

After a disaster, it is safe to drink the water .

A) car or truck radiators B) undamaged water heaters

86) from

D) Look for the Radura symbol on the package

C) toilet bowls D) swimming pools

During a natural disaster, it is safe to drink the water . D) swimming A) car or truck radiators B) toilet bowls, if the bathrooms have not flooded C) melted ice cubes that are in the freezer

87) from

pools

After a natural disaster, it is safe to drink the fluid .

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D) intact cans of A) car or truck radiators B) toilet bowls C) swimming pools

88) from

fruit

During a natural disaster, it is safe to drink the water .

A) the water tank of an intact toilet B) a queen-size water bed

89) James and his four relativeslive in New Orleans, Louisiana. For him and his family to survive a major hurricane, James wants to store enough clean water to last for about 5 days. Based on this information, he should store at

A) 15 B) 20

C) swimming pool D) broken water heater

least gallons of bottled and sealed water.

C) 25 D) 30

90) After a tornado outbreak, Marie's house was damaged and her neighborhood experienced a power outage that lasted three days. Which of the following steps should she take to avoid food-borne illness during the loss of electricity?

A) Do not eat raw or cooked foods that have been at room temperature for more than 2 hours B) Use a charcoal grill to cook foods to their proper internal temperatures in her kitchen C) Use water from a swimming pool or her car's

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radiator to wash her hands and dishes D) Serve foods from dented or bulging cans first

91) Which of the following safety steps should you take if your home experiences a loss of electricity that lasts for several days?

A) Eat raw or cooked foods that have been stored in the refrigerator B) Cook foods and boil water on a charcoal grill that is outdoors C) Use water from a swimming pool or your car's

radiator to wash your hands and dishes D) Serve foods from dented or bulging cans first

92) Which of the following substances is an intentional (direct) food additive?

A) Fly eggs B) Vitamin C

93)

C) Dirt D) Pesticide residues

is a direct (intentional) food additive.

A) FD&C Red No. 40 B) Rodent hair

C) Glass D) Sand

94) According to the Food Additives Amendment of 1958, . C) substances on A) manufacturers of new food additives did not need to test the compounds for safety before they could be used in food B) an additive that was in use and deemed safe prior to 1958 was placed on the GRAS list

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the GRAS list were classified as food additives D) the Delaney Clause was unconstitutional

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95) The following substances were detected in a slice of enriched bread. Which of the substances is a not a direct food additive?

A) Sugar B) Folic acid

C) Plastic wrap D) Thiamin

96) The following substances were detected in a jar of baby food. Which of the substances is a not a direct food additive?

A) Glassfragment B) High-fructosecorn syrup

C) Riboflavin D) Pantothenicacid

97) The following substances were detected in a can of food. Which of the substances is an unintentional food additive?

A) Beta-carotene B) High-fructosecorn syrup

C) Iron D) Pesticide residues

98) The following substances were detected in a can of food. Which of the substances is a direct food additive?

A) Insect eggs B) Mouse hairs C) High-fructose corn syrup Version 1

D) Pesticide residues

99) The prohibits food manufacturers from adding a new compound to food that causes cancer.

A) First Amendment of the U.S. Constitution B) Delaney Clause of the Food Additives Amendment

100)

C) Pure Food and Drug Act D) Cancer Prevention Act

Which of the following pesticides kills mice and rats?

A) Rodenticide B) Fungicide

C) Herbicide D) Insecticide

101) Which of the following pesticides controls the spread of molds that damage crops?

A) Rodenticide B) Fungicide

C) Herbicide D) Insecticide

102) Which federal agency regulates the proper use of pesticides?

A) FDA B) USDA

C) CDC D) EPA

103) A farmer wants to control crop pests by using biologically based pesticides to attract and trap insect pests. This method of pest control is a form of . C) inorganic A) integrated pest management B) conventional farming techniques Version 1

chemical pestprotection D) traditional pesticide practices

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104) A farmer in Iowa wants to control crop pests by using integrated pest management techniques. Based on this

A) EPA-approved herbicides B) viruses that attack a variety ofweeds C) rodenticides that contain arsenic andwarfarin

105)

information, the farmer will use . D) fungicides that control the spread of molds

Which of the following statements is true?

A) The risk of canceramong people who apply chemical pesticides is the same as that of people whoare not directly exposed to the substances. B) Pesticidesdecompose in soil and, as a result, do not enter the human food chain.

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C) Pesticides helpprotect the food supply and keep food costs down. D) The FDA regulates the use of pesticides.

Answer Key Test name: ch12

Version 1

1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) FALSE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) FALSE 12) FALSE 13) FALSE 14) TRUE 15) D 16) C 17) D 18) B 19) C 20) B 21) A Version 1

22) D 23) D 24) D 25) D 26) C 27) B 28) B 29) A 30) A 31) B 32) D 33) A 34) B 35) C 36) D 37) A 38) C 39) B 40) A 41) C 42) B Version 1

43) D 44) A 45) A 46) B 47) A 48) D 49) B 50) A 51) C 52) D 53) C 54) B 55) B 56) C 57) D 58) A 59) B 60) C 61) C 62) A 63) D Version 1

64) B 65) D 66) A 67) B 68) A 69) B 70) C 71) D 72) C 73) D 74) C 75) D 76) C 77) A 78) A 79) B 80) A 81) D 82) C 83) B 84) D Version 1

85) B 86) C 87) D 88) A 89) C 90) A 91) B 92) B 93) A 94) B 95) C 96) A 97) D 98) C 99) B 100) A 101) B 102) D 103) A 104) B 105) C Version 1

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Student name: TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Being obese reduces a person's fertility. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) In the United States, low-birth-weight is the second leading cause of death among infants. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) Vanessa developed gestational diabetes during her 22nd week of pregnancy. As a result of this condition, Vanessa is more likely to give birth to a high-birth-weight baby than a pregnant woman who does not have gestational diabetes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) The uterus is the female reproductive organ that protects the embryo/fetus during pregnancy. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

5) Compared to their Estimated Energy Requirement prior to becoming pregnant, healthy women who are in their first trimester of pregnancy should consume an additional 500 kcal/day. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) During pregnancy, an adult woman's need for vitamin D doubles. ⊚ ⊚

true false

7) While an infant suckles, the composition of breast milk gradually changes and has a higher fat content. ⊚ ⊚

true false

8) During pregnancy, oxytocin stimulates breast cells to make milk. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Before she became pregnant, Leonna's Estimated

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Energy Requirement

(EER) was 2300 kcal/day. While she is breastfeeding her baby, she should consume 2600 to 2700 kcal/day to maintain ⊚ ⊚

her BMI, which is in the healthy range.

true false

10) Compared to commercial infant formulas, breast milk is naturally low in cholesterol. ⊚ ⊚

true false

11) Delaying the introduction of allergenic foods, such as peanut butter, to infants may actually increase their risk of developing food allergies. ⊚ ⊚

true false

12) Children whose BMI-for-age is at or above the 95th percentile are obese. ⊚ ⊚

true false

13) Demetrius is 86 years of age. He walks about 2 miles/day, lives independently, prepares his own meals, and plays chess with his grandson. According to his physician, Demetrius does not have any serious chronic diseases. Based on this information, Demetrius is experiencing healthy aging. Version 1

⊚

true

⊚

false

14) Older adults are more likely to experience heartburn than young adults. ⊚ ⊚

true false

15) Because of normal changes that occur to the digestive system as a person ages, older adults are less likely to ⊚ ⊚

experience constipation than young adults.

true false

16) A person's life span is approximately one-half of his or her life expectancy. ⊚ ⊚

true false

17) According to scientific research involving animals, people may be able to live longer by obtaining adequate ⊚ ⊚

18)

true false

The telomeres in Mike's cells become a little longer

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nutrition while practicing calorie restriction.

everytime the cells divide. 4

⊚

true

false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 19) Which of the following statements is true?

A) Learning about health concerns and nutritional needs of people in different life stages has little practical value for adults. B) The major life stages formale human beings include the prenatal period, infancy, childhood, adolescence, adulthood, and "older adults" period.

C) The prenatal period includes lactation. D) People are in the "older adults" life stage when they are between 50 to 85 years of age.

20) A 25-year-old woman is producing breast milk. She is in which life stage?

A) Pregnancy B) Adolescence

21)

C) Lactation D) Older adult years

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Young adults should learn about nutrition needs for different life stages, because the information will be helpful as they age. B) There are three life stages: childhood, adolescence, and adulthood.

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C) The prenatal period includes lactation. D) People are in the "older adults" life stage when they are between 50 to 85 years of age.

22)

Which of the following statements is true?

A) A man's lifestyle choices can negatively affect his fertility. B) A woman's preconception period occurs two weeks after she becomes pregnant. C) Most women who are between 18 and 38 years of age are able to conceive, regardless of their lifestyle choices.

D) Alcohol consumption increases fertility, especially among young adult males.

23) The life stage that encompasses a person's prenatal period is .

A) pregnancy B) adolescence

C) lactation D) infancy

24) From 2 to 8 weeks after conception, scientists refer to the developing human being as .

A) an embryo B) an egg

C) a mass of cells D) a fetus

25) From 8 weeks until birth, scientists refer to the developing human being as .

A) an embryo B) an egg

26)

C) a fertilized mass of cells D) a fetus

Which of the following statements is true?

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A) Registered dietitian nutritionists generally recommend that women who are overweight or obese try to lose weight during pregnancy. B) Healthy women who gain 20 to 30 pounds during pregnancy are likely to give birth to high-birth-weight babies. C) Women with gestational hypertension are more likely to give birth to high-birth-weight babies than pregnant

women who do not have this condition. D) Females who smoke during pregnancy have an increased risk of giving birth prematurely.

27) The is the organ of pregnancy that transfers nutrients and oxygen from the mother's bloodstream to the embryo/fetus. C) placenta D) endometrium

A) ovary B) uterus

28)

The placenta

A) filters viruses and toxins from the mother's bloodstream, preventing them from reaching the embryo/fetus B) transfers sperm to the egg so fertilization can occur

embryo/fetus requires for growth and development D) transfers nutrients and oxygen from the mother's bloodstream to the embryo/fetus

C) synthesizes the essential micronutrients that the

29) is a common nutrition-related sign or symptom of early pregnancy that occurs in many healthy pregnant women.

D) Pernicious A) Fatigue B) Hypertension C) Gestational diabetes

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anemia

30) Which of the following conditions is a common nutrition-related sign of early pregnancy that occurs in many healthy pregnant women? D) Iron-deficiency A) Morning sickness B) Eclampsia C) Gestational diabetes

anemia

31) is a common nutrition-related sign of pregnancy that occurs in many healthy pregnant women. D) Pernicious A) Preeclampsia B) Heartburn C) Gestational diabetes

anemia

32) Reyna is a healthy 27-year-old pregnant woman. She is experiencing , a common nutrition-related condition that occurs in many healthy pregnant women. D) diarrhea A) minor edema of thehands and feet B) hypertension C) mild hypochromic,macrocytic anemia

33) is a common condition that occurs in healthy pregnant women.

A) Physiological anemia B) Gestational hypertension

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C) Gestational diabetes D) Preeclampsia

34) Mimi became pregnant about 6 months ago. Currently, she is experiencing , a common nutrition-related

A) preeclampsia B) gestationaldiabetes

35) Belle is pregnant with her first baby. During a routine prenatal visit with her doctor, Belle was told she has developed a condition that is associated with pregnancy. This condition increases the risk that she will give birth to a baby

A) chronic eclampsia B) gestational diabetes

condition that occurs in many healthy pregnant women. C) constipation D) perniciousanemia

that weighs more than 8.8 pounds. Based on this information, Belle has . C) cystic fibrosis D) pernicious anemia

36) During pregnancy, edema can be a sign of a serious health problem if .

A) the swelling is limited to the hands and feet B) morning sickness, heartburn, and fatigue also occur C) the swelling is accompanied by severe

hypertension and protein in the urine D) weight loss and morning sickness also occur

37) Ashley is due to give birth to a girl in March. Before she became pregnant, Ashley weighed 125 pounds and was in the healthy BMI range for her height. Based on this information, her physician will recommend that she gain pounds during her pregnancy.

A) 10 to 20 B) 15 to 25 Version 1

C) 20 to 30 D) 25 to 35

38) Gabrielle is due to give birth to a boy in March. Before she became pregnant, Gabrielle weighed 140 pounds, which was in the healthy BMI range for her height. Based on this information, her physician will recommend that she gain pounds during her pregnancy.

A) 10 to 20 B) 15 to 25

C) 25 to 35 D) 35 to 45

39) Iliana is due to give birth to a girl in March. Before she became pregnant, IIiana weighed 135 pounds and was in the healthy BMI range for her height. Based on this information, her physician will recommend that she gain pounds during her pregnancy.

A) 25 to 35 B) 30 to 40

40) Jenna is due to give birth to a girl in February. Before she became pregnant, Jenna weighed 105 pounds, which was in the underweight range for her height. Based on this information, her physician will recommend that she gain

A) 18 to 20 B) 28 to 40

41) Hayley is due to give birth to a girl in November. Before she became pregnant, Hayley weighed 108 pounds, which was in the underweight range for her height. Based on this information, her physician will recommend that she gain

C) 35 to 45 D) 40 to 50

pounds during her pregnancy.

C) 38 to 50 D) 48 to 60

pounds during her pregnancy.

A) 8 to 20 Version 1

B) 18 to 30 C) 28 to 40

42) Zoe is due to give birth to a girl in November. Before she became pregnant, Zoe weighed 168 pounds, which was in the overweight range for her height. Based on this information, her physician will recommend that she gain

A) no more than 5 B) 10 to 15

43) Kristan is due to give birth to a boy in September. Before she became pregnant, Kristan weighed 160 pounds, which was in the overweight range for her height. Based on this information, her physician will recommend that she gain

A) 15 to 25 B) 20 to 30

D) 48 to 50

pounds during her pregnancy.

C) 15 to 25 D) 20 to 35

pounds during her pregnancy.

C) 25 to 35 D) 30 to 40

44) Elsa is due to give birth to a boy in June. Before she became pregnant, Elsa weighed 195 pounds, which was in the obese BMI range. According to her physician, Elsa should gain no more than pounds during her pregnancy.

A) 15 B) 20

45) Angie is due to give birth to a boy in June. Before she became pregnant, Angie weighed 215 pounds, which was in

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C) 25 D) 30

the obese BMI range. According to her

physician, she should gain no more than

pounds

A) 5 B) 10

during her pregnancy. C) 15 D) 20

46) Valerie is a healthy young woman whose Estimated Energy Requirement is 2150 kcal/day. Based on this information, she should consume /day during her first trimester of pregnancy.

A) 3050 kcal B) 2600 kcal

47) Jillian is a healthy young woman whose Estimated Energy Requirement is 2500 kcal/day. Based on this information, she should consume kcal/day during

A) 3000 B) 2500

48) Tammy is a healthy young woman whose Estimated Energy Requirement is 2600 kcal/day. Based on this information, she should consume kilocalories/day

A) 1800 B) 2000

49) Lucinda is a healthy, physically active young woman whose Estimated Energy Requirement is 2350 kcal/day. Based on this information, she should consume /day

C) 2150 kcal D) 1800 kcal

her first trimester of pregnancy.

C) 2200 D) 2400

during her first trimester of pregnancy.

C) 2500 D) 2600

during her first trimester of pregnancy.

A) 2750 kcal Version 1

B) 2350 kcal C) 2250 kcal

D) 2000 kcal

50) Pregnant women generally need to take a dietary supplement that contains .

A) protein B) oxytocin

C) folic acid D) conjugated fatty acids

51) Pregnant women generally need to take a dietary supplement that contains .

A) iron B) oxytocin

C) protein D) intrinsic factor

52) Women who have iron deficiency anemia during pregnancy are more likely to give birth to a than pregnant women who do not have iron deficiency anemia.

A) premature infant B) high-birth-weight baby C) newborn with hypertension

53) Pregnant women who develop gestational diabetes are more likely to give birth to infants than pregnant

A) high-birth-weight B) low-birth-weight

54) During her 6th month of pregnancy, Miranda developed gestational hypertension. As a result of this Version 1

D) newborn with diabetes

women who do not have this condition. C) term D) anemic

condition, Miranda has a higher risk of giving birth 13

to a

than a pregnant woman who does not

A) newborn with hypertension B) low-birth-weight baby

55) During her 7th month of pregnancy, Sari developed a life-threatening complication of pregnancy that is characterized by severe hypertension and seizures. Based on

experience hypertension. C) high-birthweight baby D) full-term infant

this information, Sari developed .

C) endocarditis D) endometriosis

A) echolalia B) eclampsia

56) Which of the following conditions is a major cause of pregnancy-related deaths throughout the world?

A) Pica B) Pernicious anemia

C) Eclampsia D) Morningsickness

57) Lanelle is 5 months pregnant. Recently, she gained several pounds rapidly, and as a result,her face is "puffy" and her hands are swollen. Her physician is very concerned, because Lanelle's blood pressure has risen to a dangerouslevel. Based on this information, Lanelle probably has .

C) physiological A) preeclampsia B) pica

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anemia D) SIDS

58) for

Corrina is a 25-year-old pregnant woman. Her need is50% higher than before she became pregnant.

A) folate B) calcium

59)

C) vitamin D D) vitamin C

Emma is a 25-year-old pregnant woman. Her need for is 50% higher than before she became pregnant.

A) calcium B) iron

C) niacin D) vitamin C

60) Some women crave non-food items during pregnancy. This behavior is called .

A) edema B) eclampsia

C) pica D) SIDS

61) Cindy is pregnant with her first baby. Recently, she began to eat clay from a hole that she dug in her yard. Cindy's behavior is an example of .

A) edema B) eclampsia

62) Brenda's length was 20.5 inches at birth. Assuming her development proceeds normally, her length should be

A) 22.50 B) 25.75

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C) claymonia D) pica

about inches by her first birthday. C) 31.50 D) 30.75

63) Deone's length was 19.5 inches at birth. Assuming his development proceeds normally, his length should be about

C) 28.00 D) 39.00

A) 23.75 B) 29.25

64) Alexis weighs 7.8 pounds at birth. Assuming her development proceeds normally, she should weigh about

65) Bernard weighs 6.5 pounds at birth. Assuming his development proceeds normally, he should weigh about

pounds by his first birthday. C) 22.5 D) 19.5

A) 18.5 B) 20.5

The hormone oxytocin

pounds by her first birthday. C) 26.0 D) 23.4

A) 15.6 B) 22.5

66)

inches by his first birthday.

A) increases a woman's appetite during pregnancy B) reduces the ability of blood to clot during the birth process C) enables the "let-down" reflex to occur when a

woman breastfeeds her baby D) suppresses energy metabolism during pregnancy

67) Which of the following substances is a lipid that is necessary for the proper development of an infant's nervous system?

A) Alanine B) DHA Version 1

C) Trans fat D) EDTA

68)

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Breastfeeding reduces a woman's risk of type 1 diabetes in later adulthood. B) Human milk naturally contains antibodies and other unique immune system factorsthat are not in infant formulas. C) The composition of human milk remains

consistent over time. D) Women who breastfeed their babies tend to gain weight at a faster rate than women who choose to formula-feed their infants.

69) Compared to infant formulas, human milk is a rich source of .

A) fluoride B) iron

C) vitamin D D) cholesterol

70) Which of the following statements about human milk is false?

A) Consuming human milk may reduce a baby's risk of type 1 diabetes in childhood. B) Human milk naturally contains antibodies and immune system cells. C) The composition of human milk changes over

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time to meet the nutritional needs of a growing infant. D) Human milk is a rich source of vitamin D.

A) Breastfeeding may reduce her baby's risk of type 1 diabetes in childhood. B) Human milk naturally contains antibodies and immune system cells. C) The composition of human milk changes over time to meet the nutritional needs of a growing infant.

72) Kari is considering whether she should exclusivelybreastfeed or formula-feed her new baby. To encourage Kari to breastfeed, you provide some factual

A) breastfeeding can reduce her baby's risk of cystic fibrosisin childhood B) human milk has the same composition as infant formula C) breastfeeding can help her lose the body fat she

D) Breast milk contains more vitamin D, calcium, and iron than commercial infant formulas.

information by telling her that .

gained during pregnancy D) human milk is a rich source of iron, calcium, and vitamin D

73) After Ariel gave birth to a healthy baby boy, the physician immediately placed the baby next to Ariel's breast so the infant could begin breastfeeding. This practice .

A) stimulates Ariel's uterus to contract, reducing her risk of bleeding excessively B) increases the baby's heart rate, reducing his risk of heart disease in early childhood C) enables the baby's "let-down" reflex to occur, so his gastrointestinal tract will function normally

74)

D) suppresses Ariel's metabolic rate, so her body can shift more energy into milk production

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Breastfed babies are less likely to develop certain food allergies than babies who are fed infant formula. B) In the UnitedStates, children who were breastfed Version 1

as infants are more likely to reach pubertyfaster than children who were fed formula as babies. 18

C) Breastfed infantsgenerally develop more ear infections than babies who are fed infantformula. D) Compared to babieswho consume infant formula, breastfed babies are less likely to developinherited diseases

such as cystic fibrosis and sickle cell anemia.

75) Colostrum is an extremely valuable first food for infants because it contains .

A) biologically active substances that help the infant fight infections B) chemical factors that slow the maturation of the infant's immune system to a safe level C) hormones that stimulate the development of the

76)

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Breastfeeding ismore economical than formula feeding. B) Formula feeding ismore convenient than breastfeeding. C) Women who feedtheir babies formula tend to lose the extra body fat gained during pregnancyfaster than women

77) true?

infant's red blood cells D) natural preservatives that help protect the infant's nervous system from becoming oxidized

who breastfeed. D) Women whobreastfeed have higher risks of breast and ovarian cancer than women who feedtheir babies formula.

Which of the following statements about lactation is

A) Mothers who breastfeed their babies for at least 6 months are more likely to lose the excess body fat that they gained during pregnancy than mothers who do not breastfeed their infants. B) Under normal conditions, the breasts of a pregnant woman begin to produce milk between the 25th and 30th week of pregnancy. C) To ensure adequate milk production, a lactating

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mother should consume 25% more B vitamins and 30% more protein than she consumed before becoming pregnant. D) Before she breastfeeds her baby, a lactating mother should have a bottle of beer or

glass of red wine because the alcohol stimulates milk production.

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78) During the first few days after giving birth, the new mother's breasts produce . C) oxytocin D) estrogen

A) prolactin B) colostrum

79) in the breast.

stimulates milk production by certain cells

C) Oxytocin D) Estrogen

A) Prolactin B) Progesterone

80) Human milk naturally contains contains less per ounce than whole cow's milk. C) cholesterol D) energy

A) protein B) carbohydrate

81)

Human milk is naturally a rich source of

A) iron B) vitamin D

82)

. C) lipids D) fluoride

Compared to infant formulas, breast milk contains per ounce.

A) 50% lessenergy

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B) more iron C) less fat

D) morecholesterol

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83) Which of the following substances is in breast milk but not in infant formulas? C) Lactose D) Iron

A) Antibodies B) Lipids

84) Registered dietitian nutritionists recommend feeding healthy babies .

A) fresh fluid cow's milk by the time they are 6 months of age B) fat-free milk when they are 10 to 12 months of age C) breast milk until they are about 6 months of age

D) solid foods by the time they are 2 months of age

85) Infants are physically ready to start eating solid foods when they . D) can digest A) lose the extrusion reflex B) develop the let-down reflex C) have most of their primary teeth

lactose

86) Most infants are physically ready to start eating solid foods when they .

A) lose the let-down reflex B) can sit up with some back support C) have most of their primary teeth

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D) develop the swallowing reflux

A) develop most of their primary teeth B) lose the let-down reflex C) have kidneys that are physically mature

88)

Caregivers should not feed

D) are able to pick up foods with their fingers

to infants. C) soft drinks D) rice cereal

A) soy-basedformulas B) formulas thatcontain DHA

89)

Caregivers should not feed

to infants. C) rice cereal D) honey

A) soy-basedformulas B) formulascontaining lactose or DHA

90)

Caregivers should not feed

to infants.

A) soy-basedformulas B) pureed, cooked vegetables

C) fruit juice D) cooked, soft meat

91) Which of the following foods is often recommended as a firstfood for infants?

A) Soft, cooked cereal B) Carrot "coins" C) Cooked sausage

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D) Oatmeal cookies

A) Cooked ground meat mixed with breast milk B) Fresh green beans with mashed banana C) Fresh broccoli dipped in nacho sauce

D) Granola cooked in goat's milk

93) is the gradual process of shifting a baby from breastfeeding or bottle feeding to drinking from a cup and eating solid foods. C) Weaning D) Transitioning

A) Cupping B) Sparing

94)

Which of the following statements is true?

A) By 2 to 4 monthsof age, most infants can use their fingers to pick up and chew "fingerfoods." B) It is safe to usehoney to sweeten infant foods. C) Caregivers shouldnot give popcorn, grapes, and cut-up raw vegetables to infants.

95)

Caregivers should not feed

to infants.

A) soy-basedformulas B) semisolid food ina baby bottle C) rice cereal

96)

D) Goat's milk mixedwithgelatin wateris a suitable substitute for breast milk.

D) formulascontaining lactose or DHA

Which of the following statements is true? of age.

A) A child'sappetite typically increases as his or her growth rate slows. B) Snacks have noplace in a child's diet. C) Because of thechoking hazard, children should not be offered cut-up raw vegetables until theyare at least 7 years

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D) It is not unusual for children to have food jags.

97)

Which of the following statements is true? of age.

A) A child's appetitetypically increases as his or her growth rate increases. B) Snacks have noplace in a child's diet. C) Because of thechoking hazard, children should not be offered cut-up raw vegetables until theyare at least 7 years

D) It is unusual forchildren to have food jags.

98) Anna would like to offer a high-fiber, nutrient-dense snack to her healthy 4-year-old son. Based on this

information, she should serve .

A) a small, clean, unpeeled apple that has been cut into wedges B) ½ of a chocolate doughnut that has the frosting removed C) 1 cup of French fries from a fast-food restaurant

that has been salted with iodized salt D) 2 slices of baked ham on a toasted English muffin

99) To encourage healthy eating practices among children, caregivers should .

A) use threats or bribes to encourage youngsters to eat unfamiliar foods B) have youngsters help select and prepare new foods C) withhold dessert until youngsters finish eating the less appealing foods on their plates

D) require youngsters to take at least 3 tablespoons of each food that's on their plates during a meal

100) In the United States, the diets of many school-age children supply too much .

A) calcium B) potassium

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C) sodium D) iron

101) In the United States, the diets of many school-age children do not supply enough .

A) fiber B) simple carbohydrates

C) sodium D) vanadium

102) In the United States, many school-age children do not consume enough and experience as a result.

A) fruits and vegetables;constipation B) meat; protein malnutrition C) dairy foods; B-12 deficiency

103) eat

Compared to preschoolers, school-age children tend to .

A) fewer foods away from home B) smaller amounts of sodium C) fewer fried foods

104) eat

D) iodine;cretinism

D) more sugarsweetened beverages

Compared to preschoolers, school-age children tend to .

A) more foods away from home B) smaller amounts of added sugars C) fewer fried foods

D) smaller portions of sugarsweetened beverages

105) Compared to preschoolers, school-age children tend to . Version 1

A) eat fewer meals away from home B) skip breakfast C) dislike fried foods and sugar-sweetened drinks

D) consume smaller portions of food

106) To improve their children's eating habits, caregivers should .

A) prepare and eat meals more meals together as a family B) encourage children to eat at least 2 servings of fruits and vegetables daily C) discourage snacking

D) use the promise of desserts as a reward for eating vegetables

107) To improve their children's eating habits, caregivers should .

A) serve water instead of sugar-sweetened beverages B) encourage children to eat at least 2 servings of fruits and vegetables daily C) discourage snacking

D) use the promise of desserts as a reward for eating vegetables

108) Major nutrition-related concerns of adolescents include intakes.

A) low protein B) high niacin

Version 1

C) low calcium D) high iron

C) high protein D) low iron

A) high calcium B) low niacin

110)

In the United States, most

A) girls begin their growth spurt when they are between 14 and 16 years of age B) girls begin menstruating before they reach puberty C) boys begin puberty when they are between 12 to

111)

Which of the following statements is true?

A) In the United States, most healthy boys begin puberty between 10 and 12 years of age. B) A healthy girl'sskeletal growth is almost complete about 2 years after she beginsmenstruating. C) By the time hereaches 16 years of age, a healthy

112)

16 years of age D) boys have stopped growing by the time they are 16 years of age

boy's skeletal development is complete. D) In the United States, most girls do not begin puberty until they are 14 years of age.

Which of the following statements is true?

A) In the United States, about 86% of adolescent boys usually experience their growth spurt at a younger age than adolescent girls. B) Puberty is the life stage that marks the beginning of childhood. C) According to a recent national survey, 31% of American high school students did not drink milk during the

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week prior to the survey. D) Most obese children "grow out" of the condition by the time they reach adulthood.

113) Rose is an obese5-year-old child. is a factor that is associated with increased risk of excess body fatin preschool children.

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A) Family history of obesity B) Lower than average water intake C) High family income

114)

Infants

D) Living in western United States

have a high risk of obesity.

A) who obtain regular physical activity B) with birth weights between 6.0 and 8.0 pounds C) that are given vitamin C supplements

D) whose mothers are obese

115) During her first pregnancy, Britt was unable to stop smoking. Based on this information, her baby has a .

A) low risk of SIDS B) high risk of becoming an obese child C) low risk of asthma

D) high risk of megaloblastic anemia

116) Denisha is 15 years of age. Her BMI-for-age is in the 87th percentile. Based on this information, Denisha is . C) healthy D) obese

A) overweight B) underweight

117) Cher is a 7-year-old girl whose BMI-for-age is in the 86th percentile. According to this information, Cher's weight is . B) in the obese A) healthy for her age

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range

C) too low for her age D) classified as overweight

118) Mason is a 7-year-old boywhose BMI-for-age is in the 95th percentile. According to this information, Mason'sweight is .

A) healthy for his age B) in the obese range C) too low for hisage

D) in the overweight category

119) Mario is a 7-year-old boy whose BMI-for-age is in the 75th percentile. According to this information, Mario's weight is .

A) healthy for his age B) in the obese range C) too low for his age

120)

D) in the overweight category

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Obese children are more likely to have high blood glucose levels than children who have healthy body weights. B) By the end of adolescence, most overfat teenagers have slimmed down and achieved healthy body weights. C) Compared to other adolescents, sleep apnea is more likely to affect teens whose BMI-for-ages are between

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the 50th and 75th percentiles. D) For adolescents who are extremely obese, bariatric surgery is not recommended as a treatment option.

121)

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Children who are obese are more likely to have poor self-esteem than children who have healthy body weights. B) By the end of adolescence, most overfat teenagers have slimmed down and achieved healthy body weights. C) Compared to other adolescents, sleep apnea is more likely to affect teens whose BMI-for-ages are between

the 50th and 75th percentiles. D) For adolescents who are extremely obese, bariatric surgery is not recommended as a treatment option.

122) Which of the following statements about healthy aging is true?

A) A human body undergoes aging regardless of the person's lifestyle practices. B) Diets that are high in antioxidants have been clinically proven to slow the aging process by about 30 years. C) Most medical researchers think aging is a disease

123) aging.

process that eventually will be cured. D) For most people, the aging process begins between 35 and 45 years of age.

is a physiological change associated with

A) Increased brain weight B) Fewer episodes of heartburn C) Hardening of the arteries

D) Increased blood filtration rate

124) Increased is a physiological change associated with normal aging.

A) cardiacoutput B) heartburn C) activity ofbone-forming cells

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D) blood filtrationrate

125) Reduced associated with aging.

is a normal physiological change

A) salivaproduction B) heartburn

126) Reduced associated with aging.

C) bruising D) vulnerability toinfections

is a normal physiological change

A) vulnerability tocancer B) heartburn

C) bruising D) secretion ofintrinsic factor

127) Which of the following vitamins is often lacking in the diets of older adults?

A) Niacin B) Thiamin

C) Vitamin E D) Pantothenic acid

128) Which of the following micronutrients is often lacking in the diets of older adults?

A) Niacin B) Thiamin

C) Potassium D) Sodium

129) The diets of older adults often do not contain adequate amounts of .

A) thiamin, Version 1

riboflavin, and niacin B) vitamins A, B-6, and folate C) biotin, pantothenic acid, and choline

D) biotin, vitamin K, and selenium

130) The diets of older adults often do not contain adequate amounts of .

A) thiamin, riboflavin, and niacin B) vitamins C, D, and E C) biotin, pantothenic acid, and choline

D) biotin, vitamin K, and selenium

131) Which of the following vitamins is often lacking in the diets of older adults?

A) Niacin B) Thiamin

C) D D) Pantothenic acid

132) Which of the following minerals is often lacking in the diets of older adults?

A) Sodium B) Calcium

C) Molybdenum D) Vanadium

133) Which of the following minerals is often lacking in the diets of older adults?

A) Potassium B) Sodium

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C) Sulfur D) Vanadium

D) bones are more A) body requiresless vitamin B-12 B) cells requiremore energy C) stomach secretesless intrinsic factor

dense

135) Elizabeth is 90 years of age. Compared to when she was 30 years of age, her now. D) arteries are less flexible

A) skin is moreelastic B) cells requiremore energy C) stomach secretesmore intrinsic factor

136) Sylvia is 82 years of age. Compared to when she was 27 years of age, her now. D) cells requiremore energy

A) body synthesizesmore vitamin D B) kidney cellsfilter less blood C) stomach secretesmore intrinsic factor

137) Bernice is 91 years of age. Her is likely to have a negative influence her nutritional status.

A) participation in the "Meals on Wheels" program

D) frequentsocializing with friends and family

B) low annual income C) daily exerciseregimen

138) Dorothy is 86 years of age. Her have a negative influence her nutritional status.

A) arthritis B) ethnic background C) daily exerciseregimen

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is likely to

D) frequentsocializing with friends and family

139) Belva is 83 years of age. Her is likely to have a negative influence her nutritional status.

A) ethnic background B) daily exerciseregimen

C) social isolation D) full set of natural teeth

140) Darius is a 24-year-old graduate student who is healthy, but he's concerned about his future health. His middle-age parents recently developed hypertension, and Darius would like to stay healthy for as long as possible. To achieve this long-term health-related objective, Darius should .

A) avoid using tobacco products B) have medical checkups once every 5 years C) eat ultra-processed rather than minimallyprocessed foods

141) Toni is a 22-year-old college student who is healthy, but she's concerned about her future health. Her middle-age parents recently developed type 2 diabetes, and Toni would like to stay healthy for as long as possible. To achieve this

A) maintain a healthy body weight B) have medical checkups once every 5 years C) eat ultra-processed rather than minimallyprocessed foods

142)

D) obtain about 20 minutes of moderate- to vigorous-intensity exercise each week

long-term health-related objective, she should .

D) obtain about 20 minutes of moderate- to vigorous-intensity exercise each week

Which of the following statements is true?

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A) In 2018, the life expectancy for people living in the United States was about 79 years. B) The life span of a human being is 100 years. C) The longest living (documented) person was a man from Bulgaria who lived for 110 years.

143)

Which of the following statements is true?

A) In the United States, life expectancy is about 100 years. B) The life span of a human being is 122 years. C) The longest living (documented) person was a Russian man who lived for 114 years.

144)

D) There is little scientific evidence to support the notion that a person's genetic makeup contributes to his or her longevity.

According to scientific research involving animals, may extend one's life.

A) restrictingenergy intake B) taking DHEAsupplements C) consumingmegadoses of vitamins

D) following a high-fiber, high-protein diet

145) According to scientific research involving animals, consuming a nutritious diet that is low in calories may .

A) increase the risk of certain cancers B) stimulate the production of anti-aging hormones C) speed up the aging rate

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D) increase longevity

146)

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Older adults tend to have shorter telomeres than young adults. B) Telomeres are located at the end of polypeptides. C) People who have long telomeres tend to develop more serious chronic diseases than people who have short

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telomeres. D) Telomeres are components of human cell membranes.

Answer Key Test name: ch13

Version 1

1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) FALSE 11) TRUE 12) TRUE 13) TRUE 14) TRUE 15) FALSE 16) FALSE 17) TRUE 18) FALSE 19) B 20) C 21) A Version 1

22) A 23) A 24) A 25) D 26) D 27) C 28) D 29) A 30) A 31) B 32) A 33) A 34) C 35) B 36) C 37) D 38) C 39) A 40) B 41) C 42) C Version 1

43) A 44) B 45) D 46) C 47) B 48) D 49) B 50) C 51) A 52) A 53) A 54) B 55) B 56) C 57) A 58) A 59) B 60) C 61) D 62) D 63) B Version 1

64) D 65) D 66) C 67) B 68) B 69) D 70) D 71) D 72) C 73) A 74) A 75) A 76) A 77) A 78) B 79) A 80) A 81) C 82) D 83) A 84) C Version 1

85) A 86) B 87) C 88) C 89) D 90) C 91) A 92) A 93) C 94) C 95) B 96) D 97) A 98) A 99) B 100) C 101) A 102) A 103) D 104) A 105) B Version 1

106) A 107) A 108) C 109) D 110) C 111) B 112) C 113) A 114) D 115) B 116) A 117) D 118) B 119) A 120) A 121) A 122) A 123) C 124) B 125) A 126) D Version 1

127) C 128) C 129) B 130) B 131) C 132) B 133) A 134) C 135) D 136) B 137) B 138) A 139) C 140) A 141) A 142) A 143) B 144) A 145) D 146) A

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