Chapter 1 1.
The most important goal of virtually all organizations is a. profit. b. survival. c. employee development. d. cost reduction. e. increased productivity.
2.
Organizational survival is often dependent on how well the organization can adapt. Which of the following behaviours on the part of individuals is necessary for the organization to survive? a. Being motivated to join and remain with the organization b. Performing their work in terms of productivity, quality, and service c. Being flexible d. Being innovative e. All of the above
3.
Which of the following statements best defines an "organization"? a. A social convention for accomplishing individual goals through group effort b. A group which accomplishes common goals through social interactions and individual effort c. A social invention for accomplishing common goals through group effort d. A collection of formally organized social entities e. A combination of people and physical capital designed to accomplish a common goal
4.
When we say that organizations are social inventions, we mean that a. organizations don't exist without members. b. physical assets and implements of technology are irrelevant to organizations. c. they don't really exist. d. the existence of organizations is what differentiates humans from animals. e. they must have both people and things to be considered organizations.
5.
A social invention for accomplishing goals through group effort is a(n) a. managerial task. b. contingency. c. organization. d. operative goal. e. manager.
6.
Which of the following is NOT usually a requirement for organizational survival? a. The continuing membership of particular, specific individuals in the organization b. The ability to induce persons to join and remain in the organization c. Innovative activities which go beyond members' usual assignments d. The reliable performance of usual assignments e. Flexible and innovative behaviour
7.
What do 87 percent of executives believe is a strategic priority for their organization? a. Employee engagement b. Psychological capital c. Human capital d. Corporate social responsibility e. Innovation
Chapter 1 8.
Organizational behaviour is concerned with groups because a. informal groups can influence organizational effectiveness. b. much work is performed by formal work groups. c. groups can influence new organizational members. d. organizations depend on interaction and coordination among people to accomplish their goals. e. all of the above.
9.
Social inventions for accomplishing goals through group effort are called __________ .
10.
__________ is a goal of virtually all organizations.
11.
Much of the intellectual and physical work done in organizations is quite literally performed by __________ .
12.
87 percent of executives believe that __________ is a strategic priority for their organization.
13.
Organizational behaviour is interested in a. the attitudes of individuals and groups in organizations. b. the behaviours of individuals and groups in organizations. c. the structure of organizations. d. the formation of groups in organizations. e. all of the above.
14.
Knowledge of organizational behaviour will help you understand the use and effectiveness of __________ .
15.
__________ refers to the social resources that individuals obtain from participation in a social structure.
16.
Define and describe the differences and relationship between organizational behaviour and human resources management.
17.
Management is defined as a. the art of telling people what to do. b. the art of getting things accomplished through others. c. the art of getting people to do what you want. d. the art of controlling employees. e. the art which prescribes how things get accomplished in organizations.
18.
Two important managerial tasks are the analysis of problems and taking action to deal with these problems. Analysis is closely related to which goal(s) of the field of organizational behaviour? a. Management b. Prediction and explanation c. Explanation and control d. Prediction and management e. Prediction and control
Chapter 1 19.
If prediction and explanation constitute analysis, then management constitutes a. change. b. action. c. behaviour. d. structure. e. reason.
20.
Which of the following best represents the meaning of evidence-based management? a. A manager designs a program to reduce absenteeism based on a program implemented in another organization. b. A manager designs a program to reduce absenteeism based on previous experience and intuition. c. A manager designs a program to reduce absenteeism based on a principle learned in an OB course. d. A manager designs a program to reduce absenteeism based on an article read in the newspaper. e. A manager designs a program to reduce absenteeism based on a book read on leadership.
21.
Which of the following statements is FALSE? a. If we can accurately predict organizational behaviour, then we can explain the reason for the behaviour. b. "Organizational behaviour" refers to both the behaviour and attitudes of organizational members. c. The field of organizational behaviour is concerned with both formal and informal groups in organizations. d. The field of organizational behaviour is concerned with the impact of culture on organizations. e. The field of organizational behaviour is concerned with determining the most effective structure for organizations.
22.
Which goal of the field of organizational behaviour is most clearly exemplified by the practice of introducing a new pay system? a. Explanation b. Analysis c. Managing d. Prediction e. Survival
23.
Which of the following is FALSE? a. Contingent means dependent. b. Prediction is a more complex process than explanation. c. All organizations have survival as a goal. d. Organizational behaviour involves both theory and practice. e. Accurate prediction usually precedes explanation.
24.
Effective management of organizational behaviour a. is predicated on good prediction and explanation of behaviour. b. is an example of the managerial task of analysis. c. was the first or earliest goal of the field of organizational behaviour. d. is impossible to achieve since each organizational member is a unique individual. e. requires quick and decisive action on the part of management.
Chapter 1 25.
The interventions or technologies for change proposed by the field of organizational behaviour (such as certain forms of supervision and job design) most clearly reflect which goal of the field? a. Prediction b. Analysis c. Explanation d. Management e. Innovation
26.
A supervisor is aware that a large proportion of employees are absent on Fridays. However, the supervisor doesn't know why they are absent and can't figure out what to do about it. Which goal of the field of organizational behaviour has the supervisor achieved? a. Prediction b. Analysis c. Explanation d. Management e. Diagnosis
27.
Translating principles based on the best scientific evidence into organizational practices is known as __________ .
28.
If we understand the reasons for a behaviour, we can often __________ that behaviour effectively.
29.
__________ is the goal of the field of organizational behaviour that involves determining the true reason for behaviour.
30.
The goals of the field of organizational behaviour as portrayed in the text include management, explanation, and __________ .
31.
Prediction and explanation of organizational behaviour correspond to the managerial task of __________ .
32.
Explain what evidence-based management involves and give an example.
33.
Which of the following is NOT a concern of the field of organizational behaviour? a. How organizations can survive and adapt to change b. How to get people to practise effective teamwork c. Understanding people and managing them to work effectively d. Understanding people in order to create the most sustainable organization possible e. How to get people to think and act in exactly the same way as everyone else
34.
A large Canadian corporation has recently merged with a French company. Which of the following is least likely to be related to the field of organizational behaviour? a. The adoption of a new leadership style and the subsequent resignation of two executives in Canada b. The development of an organizational structure for the newly merged company c. The impact of different cultural values on the newly merged company d. The adoption of a bilingual communication policy for all announcements in the employee newsletter e. The legal restrictions pertaining to shared ownership in the newly merged company
Chapter 1 35.
Human resources management refers to a. the attitudes and behaviours of individuals and groups in organizations. b. an approach to management that recognizes there is no one best way to manage. c. programs, practices, and systems for improving the attitudes and behaviours of individuals and groups in organizations. d. programs, practices, and systems to acquire, develop, and retain employees in organizations. e. programs, practices, and systems to make an organization more effective.
36.
Soon after Taz began his new job, he began to develop relationships with others in the organization who could assist him in his work and career. What is it that Taz gained from doing this? a. Psychological capital b. Social capital c. Human capital d. Self-efficacy e. Resilience
37.
The field of organizational behaviour is concerned with the actual behaviour or activities of organizational members but not with their attitudes. a. True b. False
38.
Who was the father of scientific management? a. Henri Fayol b. Frederick Taylor c. Lyndall Urwick d. Max Weber e. Elton Mayo
39.
Scientific management is the process of a. using research to develop the optimum degree of specialization and standardization of work tasks. b. developing a strict set of rules and regulations. c. developing a strict chain of command. d. establishing objective criteria for promotion and selection of employees. e. centralizing power at the top of organizations.
40.
The idea of bureaucracy was developed by a. Henri Fayol. b. Frederick Taylor. c. Lyndall Urwick. d. Max Weber. e. Mary Parker Follett.
41.
The human relations movement was critical of a. bureaucracy. b. participative management. c. open communication. d. decentralized controls. e. flexible management systems.
Chapter 1 42.
The human relations movement of the 1920s and 30s was originally concerned with the impact of fatigue, rest pauses, and lighting on productivity. Researchers began seeing the additional effects on productivity of a. wage rates and profit sharing. b. ethnicity and culture. c. psychological and social processes. d. flex-work programs. e. product quality.
43.
The Hawthorne studies illustrated how a. fatigue can be avoided by redesigning work. b. rest pauses can cause employees to lower their productivity. c. lighting can reduce the quality of employees' work. d. psychological and social processes affect productivity and work adjustment. e. all of the above.
44.
A manager who wants to centralize power at the top of the organization is creating a(n) __________ .
45.
The __________ illustrated how psychological and social processes affect productivity and work adjustment.
46.
Describe Max Weber's ideal bureaucracy. Why does the term "bureaucracy" have a negative connotation today?
47.
Describe Frederick Taylor's contribution to the early prescriptions of management.
48.
The contingency approach to management suggests that a. one management style should work for all individuals. b. management style makes no difference. c. management style depends on the demands of the situation. d. management styles are constantly changing. e. the best management style depends on the size of the organization.
49.
When we say that the effectiveness of a particular leadership style is contingent upon certain factors, we mean that a. this leadership style is effective in all circumstances. b. this leadership style is almost never effective. c. the leadership style causes these factors to occur. d. the effectiveness of the leadership style depends on what these factors are. e. the leadership style will only emerge if these factors are present.
50.
Which of the following statements by managers reflects a recognition of contingencies? a. "We took a real chance building the plant in that location." b. "Those engineers should get out into the real world once in a while." c. "If my employees work hard, I'm friendly. If not, I crack down." d. "I always try to treat the union steward with courtesy." e. "The customer is always right."
Chapter 1 51.
Which statement reflects a recognition of contingencies? a. "We pay labourers by the hour and machinists with a piece rate system." b. "Our aim is to have the best benefits package in the nation." c. "Customer Service is Job 1." d. "After months of study we finally decided to go with a state-of-the-art management information system." e. "Our company policies ensure that every employee is treated equitably."
52.
When I say that my management style is contingent upon the tasks my employees are performing, I mean that a. I always use the same management style. b. my management style affects the tasks they choose to perform. c. the type of task determines my management style. d. I treat all employees as equals. e. my management style is only effective if certain tasks are performed.
53.
When we say that the relationship between job satisfaction and turnover is contingent on the labour market, we mean that a. the condition of the labour market influences the extent to which satisfaction predicts turnover. b. job satisfaction depends on the condition of the labour market. c. turnover will result in job dissatisfaction when jobs are plentiful. d. turnover is wholly determined by the condition of the labour market. e. workers will be less likely to quit their jobs in a strong labour market.
54.
When we say that organizational behaviour involves contingencies, we mean that the occurrence of organizational behaviour depends on the presence or absence of other factors. a. True b. False
55.
If the absenteeism rate of the organization depends on the season, we can also say that the absenteeism rate is __________ upon the season.
56.
If the proper leadership style is contingent upon the experience of the employees, this means that it __________ the employees' experience.
57.
What is the contingency approach to management? Explain how a manager should decide the best way to lead a group of employees using the contingency approach to management.
58.
A Mintzberg managerial role is a. monitor. b. liaison. c. entrepreneur. d. negotiator. e. all of the above.
Chapter 1 59.
According to Mintzberg, which of the following is an interpersonal role of management? a. Disseminator b. Spokesperson c. Disturbance handler d. Figurehead e. Negotiator
60.
Victor Lee, the production manager with Alpha Electronics, has lunch with Lisa Alfredo, the marketing manager. The topics of conversation range from personal family matters to issues of concern in their respective departments at Alpha. According to Mintzberg, these managers are performing the role of a. liaison. b. spokesperson. c. disturbance handler. d. figurehead. e. negotiator.
61.
Robert Rennie, the Chief Operating Officer of Clearwater Industrial Products, is interviewed by TV reporters about recent allegations that the company has been dumping toxic waste into a stream. According to Mintzberg, Robert is performing the managerial role of a. liaison. b. spokesperson. c. disturbance handler. d. disseminator. e. negotiator.
62.
Which of the following is NOT one of the four basic types of managerial activities identified by Luthans, Hodgetts, and Rosenkrantz? a. Routine communication b. Traditional management c. Networking d. Entrepreneuring e. Human resource management
63.
Parminder Singh supervises the sheet metal shop at Globetrotter Airlines. One of his employees was late for the second time this week and, in accordance with company policy, Parminder warned the employee that if they were late again, they would be sent home without pay for the day. According to Luthans, Hodgetts, and Rosenkrantz, which of the following managerial activities is Parminder performing? a. Routine communication b. Traditional management c. Networking d. Entrepreneuring e. Human resource management
64.
Which of the following is one of the most important contingency variables in organizational behaviour? a. Employee-organization relationships b. Work-life conflict c. National culture d. Organizational culture e. Diversity
Chapter 1 65.
Geert Hofstede's research on cross-cultural differences found that a. technical and behavioural requirements differ across cultures. b. technical and behavioural requirements are the same across cultures. c. technical requirements differ, but behavioural requirements are the same across cultures. d. behavioural requirements differ, but technical requirements are the same across cultures. e. differences in technical and behavioural requirements depend on where one is in the world.
66.
The negotiation of a collective agreement with a union is a good example of the managerial role of disturbance handler. a. True b. False
67.
A manager who presents a new company policy to employees at a meeting is performing the managerial role of spokesperson. a. True b. False
68.
A manager who decides to commit more money and employees to the development of a potentially lucrative new product is performing the managerial roles of both entrepreneur and resource allocator. a. True b. False
69.
According to Luthans, Hodgetts, and Rosenkrantz, if success is defined in terms of moving up the ladder quickly, then successful managers were those who devoted above average effort to networking. a. True b. False
70.
According to Luthans, Hodgetts, and Rosenkrantz, if success is defined in terms of moving up the ladder quickly, then successful managers were those who devoted above average effort to human resource management. a. True b. False
71.
A manager who wants to move up in the organization quickly should focus on motivating and developing employees. a. True b. False
72.
A manager who wants to have employees who are satisfied and committed should focus on interacting with people and informal socializing. a. True b. False
73.
__________ is a critical managerial activity for moving up the ranks of the organization quickly.
74.
A manager who signs legal documents on behalf of their company is performing the role of __________ .
75.
The manager who __________ is likely to move up the ranks of the organization quickly.
Chapter 1 76.
The manager who devotes time to __________ is likely to have employees who are satisfied and committed.
77.
__________ is one of the most important contingency variables in organizational behaviour.
78.
Observers of successful managers have often noted that __________ seems to guide many of their actions.
79.
It has been reported that the total cost of reported absenteeism in Canada is a. $15.5 billion annually. b. $20 million annually. c. $16.6 million annually. d. $16.6 billion annually. e. $20 billion annually.
80.
Diversity can be defined in terms of a. age. b. gender. c. race. d. ethnic background. e. all of the above.
81.
What are two major contributors to absenteeism? a. Violence in the workplace and poorly-designed jobs b. Downsizing and stress c. Union-management conflict and stress d. Poorly designed jobs and downsizing e. Poorly-designed jobs and stress.
82.
Which of the following represents the fastest growing segment of the Canadian population? a. Women b. Senior citizens c. Racialized people d. Teenagers e. Children
83.
By the year 2031, what percent of the Canadian population will consist of BIPOC groups? a. 30.6 percent. b. 26.6 percent. c. 40.6 percent. d. 50.5 percent. e. 20.6 percent.
84.
In less than a decade, the workforce will be dominated by a. racialized people. b. men. c. women. d. people over the age of 40. e. people under the age of 40.
Chapter 1 85.
The text defines organizations as "socially unstructured units of authority." a. True b. False
86.
A family could be an example of an organization, as the term "organization" is defined in the text. a. True b. False
87.
The text argues for a very physical, rather than a social, definition of organizations. a. True b. False
88.
When the text says that organizations are "social inventions," it means that they are essentially defined by people, not things. a. True b. False
89.
According to the text, all viable organizations have goals. a. True b. False
90.
When we say that organizations are social inventions, we mean that their existence depends on the presence of specific individuals. a. True b. False
91.
Nonprofit organizations have goals. a. True b. False
92.
Survival is a goal of virtually all organizations. a. True b. False
93.
Almost 90 percent of executives believe that innovation is a strategic priority for their organizations. a. True b. False
94.
The fact that organizations are "social inventions" means that they are defined by the presence of __________ , not things.
95.
What is an organization? Apply your definition to a non-profit organization as an example.
96.
Which of the following is most accurate? a. Human resources management is basically the same as organizational behaviour. b. Human resources management has more to do with individuals than organizational behaviour. c. Human resources management can help you understand organizational behaviour. d. Organizational behaviour can help you understand human resources management. e. Organizational behaviour has more to do with groups than human resources management.
Chapter 1 97.
Workers have a very accurate idea about how often they are absent from work. a. True b. False
98.
Pay is the best way to motivate most employees and improve job performance. a. True b. False
99.
Organizational behaviour and human resources management are basically the same discipline. a. True b. False
100. Human capital is a key determinant of psychological capital. a. True b. False 101. Human capital is a key determinant of firm performance. a. True b. False 102. Management and organizational behaviour are two different terms for the same thing. a. True b. False 103. Organizational behaviour is defined, in the text, as those employee behaviours that contribute to the achievement of organizational goals. a. True b. False 104. Human resources management provides the theoretical basis for organizational behaviour. a. True b. False 105. Human capital refers to the social resources that individuals obtain from participation in a social structure. a. True b. False 106. Human resources management refers to the application of organizational behaviour. a. True b. False 107. The best companies to work for also have the best performance. a. True b. False 108. Effective organizational leaders tend to possess identical personality traits. a. True b. False 109. Nearly all workers prefer stimulating, challenging jobs. a. True b. False
Chapter 1 110. Women are just as likely to become leaders in organizations as men. a. True b. False 111.
__________ is defined as the attitudes and behaviours of individuals and groups in organizations.
112. Evidence-based management involves the use of management intuition. a. True b. False 113. If a manager implements a program to lower employee turnover based on what other companies are doing, they are practising evidence-based management. a. True b. False 114. Explanation and management constitute actions. a. True b. False 115. The goals of the field of organizational behaviour include predicting, explaining, and __________ behaviour.
116. Managers acquire, allocate, and utilize physical and __________ resources to accomplish goals.
117. Describe the main goals of organizational behaviour. Under what conditions can behaviour be controlled?
118. The text suggests that, in general, explaining behaviour is a more complex process than predicting behaviour. a. True b. False 119. If a kind of organizational behaviour can be predicted, then we must be able to explain why it occurs. a. True b. False 120. Behaviour in organizations can be effectively and efficiently controlled even if it can't be predicted or understood. a. True b. False 121. The field of organizational behaviour contributes to the prediction and understanding of behaviour, but it leaves the technology of intervening in organizational events to other disciplines. a. True b. False 122. Managers have a very accurate idea about how much their peers and superiors are paid. a. True b. False
Chapter 1 123. Describe the goals of organizational behaviour and then apply them to an organization that has a turnover problem. How can the goals of organizational behaviour help an organization lower its turnover?
124. The idea of scientific management was developed at the Hawthorne Works in the 1920s. a. True b. False 125. Max Weber is the father of scientific management. a. True b. False 126. Most of the major advocates of the classical viewpoint were researchers. a. True b. False 127. The human relations movement began with the Hawthorne studies. a. True b. False 128.
__________ advocates the use of careful research to determine the optimum degree of specialization and standardization.
129. If the employee turnover of a firm is contingent upon the unemployment rate, it could mean that turnover increases as unemployment decreases. a. True b. False 130. The contingency approach to management focuses on systematic improvement in the quality of an organization's products. a. True b. False 131. When we say that rewards should be contingent on the needs of the worker, we mean that workers with different needs may require different rewards. a. True b. False 132. Kotter found that managers use interpersonal networks to accomplish important organizational agendas. a. True b. False 133. Research by Simon and Isenberg indicates that successful managers almost never rely on intuition. a. True b. False 134. National culture is one of the most important contingency variables in organizational behaviour. a. True b. False
Chapter 1 135. The technical requirements for accomplishing goals are the same across cultures. a. True b. False 136. The behavioural requirements for accomplishing goals are the same across cultures. a. True b. False 137. All of the managerial activities involve dealing with people. a. True b. False 138. The managerial activity of human resource management includes motivating, reinforcing, disciplining and punishing, managing conflict, staffing, and __________ .
139. Describe the managerial informational roles identified by Mintzberg and give an example of each.
140. Describe the managerial decisional roles identified by Mintzberg and give an example of each.
141.
According to Luthans, Hodgetts, and Rosenkrantz, what are the four main types of managerial activities? Provide a specific example of each activity.
142.
According to Luthans, Hodgetts, and Rosenkrantz, which activities were highly correlated with managerial success?
143. Comment on the following statement: "Intuition results in random and often irrational decisions, and therefore, it should not be used by managers."
144. What percent of older Canadians expect to continue working past the age of 65? a. 95 b. 75 c. 25 d. 45 e. 55 145. What percent of workers are engaged? a. One-half b. One-third c. One-fourth d. One-fifth e. One-sixth
Chapter 1 146. What percent of Canadian workers feel more stressed out today than they did five years ago? a. 26 percent b. 36 percent c. 46 percent d. 56 percent e. 66 percent 147. Which of the following is NOT associated with psychological capital? a. Self-esteem b. Self-efficacy c. Optimism d. Resilience e. Hope 148. Most of Canada's top CEOs believe that their number one priority is a. attracting new talent. b. motivating talent. c. engaging talent. d. financial performance and profitability. e. retaining talent. 149. Which of the following is NOT associated with a spiritual workplace? a. Meaning and purpose b. Sense of community c. Connection to others d. Religion e. Interesting work 150. What percent of Canadians indicated that the COVID-19 pandemic was having a negative impact on their mental health? a. 41 percent. b. 51 percent. c. 61 percent. d. 71 percent. e. 81 percent. 151. Corporate social responsibility has to do with organizations a. taking responsibility for employee decisions. b. involving employees in decisions. c. making employees responsible for their decisions. d. taking responsibility for the impact of its decisions and actions on its stakeholders. e. giving employees responsibility for the impact they have on stakeholders. 152. ACME Inc. has decided to give their employees several days off each year to do volunteer work in the community. What is this an example of? a. Talent management b. Employee engagement c. Corporate social responsibility d. Human resource management e. The human relations movement
Chapter 1 153. If an organization wants to be more socially responsible, what should it do? a. Give employees more money b. Make donations to charitable organizations c. Create a spiritual workplace d. Improve talent management e. Increase employee engagement 154. A survey of senior executives from all over the world found that talent was ranked as a. the most critical challenge. b. the least critical challenge. c. the second most critical challenge. d. the third most critical challenge. e. the only critical challenge. 155. It is predicted that there will a shortfall of workers between the ages of 25 and 44 of a. 10 percent. b. 20 percent. c. 30 percent. d. 40 percent. e. 50 percent. 156. The Smelly Cheese Company is very concerned about labour shortages and is having difficulty attracting and retaining employees. What should they do? a. Improve employee engagement b. Create a spiritual workplace c. Focus on corporate social responsibility d. Focus on psychological capital e. Improve talent management 157. Work engagement is characterized by a. vigour, dedication, and resilience. b. vigour, dedication, and optimism. c. vigour, optimism, and resilience. d. vigour, dedication, and absorption. e. vigour, absorption, and optimism. 158. A positive work-related state of mind refers to a. psychological capital. b. work engagement. c. optimism. d. hope. e. self-efficacy. 159. What are the two kinds of practices associated with corporate social responsibility? a. Informal and formal b. Internal and external c. Inside and outside d. Proactive and reactive e. Voluntary and involuntary
Chapter 1 160. The Bouncy Toy Ball company has decided to change the way they do things. One of the major changes they made was to provide employees with more opportunities for personal growth and development and to make them feel valued and supported. What is this an example of? a. Workplace spirituality b. Work engagement c. Talent management d. Corporate social responsibility e. The human relations movement 161. Psychological capital refers to a. a workplace that provides employees with meaning and purpose. b. a positive work-related state of mind. c. an individual's positive psychological state of development. d. a psychological state of mind. e. an individual's state of wellness. 162. Which of the following is NOT associated with psychological capital? a. Vigour b. Self-efficacy c. Optimism d. Hope e. Resilience 163. The confidence to take on and put in the necessary effort to succeed at challenging tasks is known as a. vigour. b. self-efficacy. c. optimism. d. hope. e. resilience. 164. Explaining positive events in terms of personal and permanent causes, and negative events as external and situation-specific causes is called a. absorption. b. self-efficacy. c. optimism. d. hope. e. resilience. 165. Persevering towards one's goals and, when necessary, making changes and using multiple pathways to achieve one's goals is known as a. goal setting. b. self-efficacy. c. optimism. d. hope. e. resilience. 166. The ability to bounce back or rebound from adversity and setbacks to attain success is known as a. vigour. b. self-efficacy. c. optimism. d. hope. e. resilience.
Chapter 1 167. Mental illness in Canada is costing businesses billions of dollars in a. employee turnover and absenteeism. b. lost productivity and turnover. c. lost productivity and absenteeism. d. lost sales and absenteeism. e. lost sales and turnover. 168. In 2013, a new national standard for workplace mental health and safety was introduced to help Canadian organizations create workplaces that promote a mentally healthy workplace. What is the national standard called? a. National Standard for Psychological Health and Safety in the Workplace b. National Standard for Workplace Mental Health and Safety c. Health, Safety, and Wellness in the Workplace d. Psychological Wellness and Safety in the Workplace e. Psychological Health and Safety in the Workplace 169. A study of professionals found that 46 percent of Canadian workers feel more stressed out today than they were a. one year ago. b. two years ago. c. three years ago. d. four years ago. e. five years ago. 170. An increasing number of Canadian workers are struggling to achieve a. better jobs. b. more pay. c. work-life balance. d. more challenging work. e. spirituality in the workplace. 171. What does POB mean? a. Positive oriented behaviour b. Psychological organizational behaviour c. Psychological oriented behaviour d. Positive organizational behaviour e. Psychological observation of behaviour 172. What does PCI mean? a. PsyCap investment b. Psychological capacity and initiative c. PsyCap intervention d. Positive capital intervention e. Psychological corporate intervention 173. What is the foundation for a psychologically healthy workplace? a. Work-life balance b. Employee involvement c. Communication d. Employee growth and development e. Health and safety
Chapter 1 174. Which one of the following is NOT one of the essential components of a psychologically healthy workplace? a. Work-life balance b. Employee involvement c. Employee growth and development d. Employee psychological capital e. Health and safety 175. Which one of the following is NOT consistent with the model of organizational behaviour? a. Organizational behaviour involves three levels of analysis. b. The factors within each level influence individual attitudes and behaviours. c. The factors within each level influence group attitudes and behaviours. d. Each level is influenced by organizational performance. e. Each level can influence the factors and processes at the other levels. 176. Which of the following is NOT associated with the definition of talent management? a. Attracting people b. Developing people c. Retaining people d. Motivating people e. Deploying people 177. Which of the following involves values and principles centred on fulfilling employees' needs, promoting employees' best interests, and valuing employees' contributions? a. Workplace spirituality b. Positive organizational behaviour c. Organizational care d. Thriving at work e. Mindfulness 178. A recent survey found that __out of 10 working Canadians are more likely to work for an employer who cares about their overall health and well-being. a. 6 b. 7 c. 8 d. 9 e. 10 179. What does mindfulness refer to? a. A state in which people are highly engaged in what is happening around them b. A state in which people are highly aware of and attentive to what has happened to them in the past c. A state in which people are highly aware of and attentive to what is happening in the present d. A state in which people are highly aware of and attentive to what is going to happen in the future e. A state in which people are highly aware of and attentive to what has happened in the past, what is happening in the present, and what will happen in the future. 180. After starting a new job, Jia notices that many of her co-workers are highly aware of and attentive to what is happening in the organization. What is this an example of? a. Workplace spirituality b. Thriving at work c. Employee engagement d. Mindfulness e. Psychological capital
Chapter 1 181. Salma has a co-worker who has an interesting characteristic. It seems that the co-worker explains positive events in terms of personal and permanent causes and explains negative events as external and situationspecific causes. What is this called? a. Self-efficacy b. Optimism c. Hope d. Resilience e. Mindfulness 182. What is a positive psychological state that is characterized by a joint sense of vitality and learning? a. Employee engagement b. Mindfulness c. Thriving at work d. Optimism. e. Hope 183. Thriving at work is characterized by a joint sense of a. vigour and learning. b. vitality and absorption. c. learning and dedication. d. vitality and vigour. e. vitality and learning. 184. What does precarious work refer to? a. Work that employees only do when they want to b. Work that is risky, uncertain, and unpredictable c. Work that is easy, certain, and predictable d. Work that is risky, challenging, and difficult e. Work that is routine, fast-paced, and hard to find 185. What percent of the workforce works in the gig economy? a. 1 percent b. 6 percent c. 8 percent d. 10 percent e. 16 percent 186. Organizations across all cultures face the same type of diversity issues as exist in North America. a. True b. False 187. Canada's top CEOs believe that retaining employees has become their number one priority. a. True b. False 188. A survey of senior executives from all over the world found that talent was ranked as the most critical challenge. a. True b. False 189. Canada's top CEOs believe that recruiting employees has become their number one priority. a. True b. False
Chapter 1 190. The best companies to work for in Canada have an annual rate of turnover that is lower than the national average and half that of other companies. a. True b. False 191. Workplace spirituality is about religion in the workplace. a. True b. False 192. Workplace spirituality refers to religion in the workplace. a. True b. False 193. Psychological capital is characterized by vigour, dedication, and absorption. a. True b. False 194. Psychological capital is considered to be a stable personality trait. a. True b. False 195. The psychological capital of individuals can be changed. a. True b. False 196. Work engagement is characterized by vigour, absorption, and resilience. a. True b. False 197. Only one-half of all workers are engaged. a. True b. False 198. Corporate social responsibility has to do with the way that organizations treat their employees. a. True b. False 199. CSR practices can be formal and informal. a. True b. False 200. By 2031, 50 percent of the Canadian population will belong to a BIPOC group. a. True b. False 201. By 2031, 60 percent of the population in Toronto and Vancouver will belong to a BIPOC group. a. True b. False
Chapter 1 202. A study of professionals found that 46 percent of Canadian workers feel more stressed out today than they were five years ago. a. True b. False 203. An increasing number of Canadian workers, especially men, are struggling to achieve work-life balance. a. True b. False 204. Mental illness in Canada is costing businesses billions of dollars in lost productivity and absenteeism. a. True b. False 205. POB refers to psychological organizational behaviour. a. True b. False 206. According to POB, psychological capacities can be measured and developed but not managed. a. True b. False 207. PCI refers to psychological capabilities intervention. a. True b. False 208. Communication is the foundation for a psychologically healthy workplace. a. True b. False 209. CSR practices can be external or internal. a. True b. False 210. Mindfulness is a state in which people are highly aware of and attentive to what is happening in the present and what might happen in the future. a. True b. False 211. Mindfulness is a state in which people are highly aware of and attentive to what is happening in the present. a. True b. False 212. Workplace spirituality refers to organizational values and principles centred on fulfilling employees' needs, promoting employees' best interests, and valuing employees' contributions. a. True b. False 213. Organizational care refers to organizational values and principles centred on fulfilling employees' needs, promoting employees' best interests, and valuing employees' contributions. a. True b. False
Chapter 1 214. Thriving at work is positively related to career development initiatives. a. True b. False 215. A survey found that 9 out of 10 working Canadians are more likely to work for an employer that cares about their overall health and well-being. a. True b. False 216. Thriving at work is a psychological state that is characterized by a joint sense of vitality and vigour. a. True b. False 217. Thriving at work is a psychological state that is characterized by a joint sense of vitality and learning. a. True b. False 218. Precarious work is work that is risky, uncertain, and unpredictable to workers. a. True b. False 219. Precarious work is work that is risky, uncertain, and unpredictable for organizations. a. True b. False 220. It is estimated that about 10 percent of the Canadian workforce works in the gig economy. a. True b. False 221. Precarious workers are more likely to work in unsafe and dangerous working conditions. a. True b. False 222. A low percentage of workers in precarious jobs are women, immigrants, and racialized people. a. True b. False 223. Work engagement is characterized by vigour, dedication, and __________ .
224. It has been estimated that the total cost of reported ______________________________________ in Canada is $16.6 billion annually.
225. Canada's top CEOs believe that __________ has become their number one priority.
226. In Canada, __________ are the fastest growing segment of the population.
Chapter 1 227. By 2031, 30.6 of the Canadian population will be members of __________ groups.
228. In less than a decade, the workforce will be dominated by people over the age of __________ .
229. Psychological capital is characterized by self-efficacy, optimism, hope, and __________ .
230. Work engagement is a positive work-related state of __________ .
231.
________ refers to an organization taking responsibility for the impact of its decisions and actions on its stakeholders.
232. It has been reported that only one-third of workers are __________ .
233. The new national standard for workplace mental health and safety is called __________ Health and Safety in the Workplace.
234. An increasing number of Canadian workers, especially __________ (more than half), are struggling to achieve work-life balance.
235. Mental illness in Canada is costing business billions of dollars in lost productivity and __________ .
236. Positive organizational behaviour is the study and application of positively oriented human resource strengths and psychological capacities that can be measured, __________ , and effectively managed for performance improvement.
237. Positive organizational behaviour is the study and application of positively oriented human resource strengths and __________ capacities that can be measured, developed, and effectively managed for performance improvement.
238.
______________________________________ practices can be external or internal.
239.
__________ is the foundation of a psychologically healthy workplace.
240.
__________ is a state in which people are highly aware of and attentive to what is happening in the present.
Chapter 1 241. Thriving at work is a positive psychological state that is characterized by a joint sense of vitality and __________ .
242.
__________ refers to organizational values and principles centred on fulfilling employees' needs, promoting employees' best interests, and valuing employees' contributions.
243.
__________ refers to work that is risky, uncertain, and unpredictable for workers.
244. Explain why "diversity" has become an important management issue in the modern workplace.
245. What is psychological capital and what does it have to do with organizational behaviour?
246. Explain why employee recruitment and retention has become an important management concern and what it has to do with organizational behaviour.
247. What is corporate social responsibility and what does it have to do with organizational behaviour?
248. How can an organization create a positive work environment and improve employee well-being?
249. Define workplace spirituality and describe what an organization can do to create a spiritual workplace.
250. Define corporate social responsibility and describe what organizations can do to be more socially responsible.
251. Define talent management and describe how organizational behaviour can help organizations improve their management of talent.
252. What is work engagement and why have organizations become so concerned about it? What does organizational behaviour have to do with employee engagement?
253. What is positive organizational behaviour and how can it contribute to employee health and well-being?
254. Why should organizations be concerned about the mental health of employees and what can they do to address mental illness in the workplace?
Chapter 1 255. What is precarious work and what are its implications for employees, organizations, and society?
256. What is the meaing of thriving at work and why is it important for employees and organizations?
Chapter 1
Test Name: 1.
b.survival.
2.
e.All of the above
3.
c.A social invention for accomplishing common goals through group effort
4.
a.organizations don't exist without members.
5.
c.organization.
6.
a.The continuing membership of particular, specific individuals in the organization
7.
e.Innovation
8.
e.all of the above.
9.
organizations
10.
Survival
11.
groups
12.
innovation
13.
e.all of the above.
14.
human resources
15.
Social capital
16.
Organizational behaviour refers to the attitudes and behaviours of individuals and groups in organizations. Human resources management refers to programs, practices, and systems to acquire, develop, and retain employees in organizations. Human resource practices can be used to help develop positive employee attitudes and behaviours, and organizational behaviour can help to understand the use and effectiveness of different human resources practices.
17.
b.the art of getting things accomplished through others.
18.
b.Prediction and explanation
19.
b.action.
20.
c.A manager designs a program to reduce absenteeism based on a principle learned in an OB course.
21.
a.If we can accurately predict organizational behaviour, then we can explain the reason for the behaviour.
22.
c.Managing
23.
b.Prediction is a more complex process than explanation.
24.
a.is predicated on good prediction and explanation of behaviour.
Chapter 1 25.
d.Management
26.
a.Prediction
27.
evidence-based management
28.
manage
29.
Explanation
30.
prediction
31.
analysis
32.
Evidence-based management involves translating principles based on the best scientific evidence into organizational practices. An example: The director of a health care system recalls the principle that human beings can process only a limited amount of information. And, thus, the director works on redesigning a feedback system that provides feedback on a small set of critical performance indicators using terms people readily understand.
33.
e.How to get people to think and act in exactly the same way as everyone else
34.
e.The legal restrictions pertaining to shared ownership in the newly merged company
35.
d.programs, practices, and systems to acquire, develop, and retain employees in organizations.
36.
b.Social capital
37.
b.False
38.
b.Frederick Taylor
39.
a.using research to develop the optimum degree of specialization and standardization of work tasks.
40.
d.Max Weber.
41.
a.bureaucracy.
42.
c.psychological and social processes.
43.
d.psychological and social processes affect productivity and work adjustment.
44.
bureaucracy
45.
Hawthorne studies
46.
Weber's bureaucracy included a strict chain of command, objective criteria for selection and promotion, a detailed set of rules and regulations, highly specialized jobs, and centralized power. Today, the term has become synonymous with too many rules and regulations, resulting in inflexible behaviour.
47.
Frederick Taylor is considered to be the father of scientific management. He was concerned with job design and the structure of work on the shop floor. Taylor's scientific management advocated the use of careful research to determine the optimum degree of specialization and standardization. He supported the development of written instructions that clearly defined work procedures, and he encouraged supervisors to standardize workers' movements and breaks for maximum efficiency.
Chapter 1 48.
c.management style depends on the demands of the situation.
49.
d.the effectiveness of the leadership style depends on what these factors are.
50.
c."If my employees work hard, I'm friendly. If not, I crack down."
51.
a."We pay labourers by the hour and machinists with a piece rate system."
52.
c.the type of task determines my management style.
53.
a.the condition of the labour market influences the extent to which satisfaction predicts turnover.
54.
a.True
55.
contingent
56.
depends upon
57.
The contingency approach recognizes that there is no one best way to manage, and that an appropriate management style depends on the demands of the situation. The manager, therefore, has to take into consideration the characteristics of the employees (e.g., do they respond better to direction or participation) as well as the nature of the situation or task and what the group is trying to achieve (e.g., is it straightforward and routine or novel and complex). In other words, the management style will vary for different groups, in different situations, and for different tasks.
58.
e.all of the above.
59.
d.Figurehead
60.
a.liaison.
61.
b.spokesperson.
62.
d.Entrepreneuring
63.
e.Human resource management
64.
c.National culture
65.
d.behavioural requirements differ, but technical requirements are the same across cultures.
66.
b.False
67.
b.False
68.
a.True
69.
a.True
70.
b.False
71.
b.False
72.
b.False
Chapter 1 73.
Networking
74.
figurehead
75.
networks
76.
human resource management
77.
National culture
78.
intuition
79.
d.$16.6 billion annually.
80.
e.all of the above.
81.
e.Poorly-designed jobs and stress.
82.
c.Racialized people
83.
a.30.6 percent.
84.
d.people over the age of 40.
85.
b.False
86.
a.True
87.
b.False
88.
a.True
89.
a.True
90.
b.False
91.
a.True
92.
a.True
93.
a.True
94.
people
95.
An organization is a social invention for accomplishing common goals through group effort. Non-profit organizations may include hospitals, schools, churches, and charities. The goal of a charity may be to help the needy through the group effort of many volunteers.
96.
d.Organizational behaviour can help you understand human resources management.
97.
b.False
98.
b.False
99.
b.False
Chapter 1 100. b.False 101. a.True 102. b.False 103. b.False 104. b.False 105. b.False 106. b.False 107. a.True 108. b.False 109. b.False 110. b.False 111. Organizational behaviour 112. b.False 113. b.False 114. b.False 115. managing 116. human 117. The main goals are to predict, explain, and manage organizational behaviour. Generally, if behaviour can be predicted and explained, it can be controlled or managed. 118. a.True 119. b.False 120. b.False 121. b.False 122. b.False 123. The goals of organizational behaviour are predicting, explaining, and managing. If an organization has a turnover problem, it would first want to predict it. For example, the organization might predict that new employees will quit after three months. Then, it would want to be able to explain why new hires quit after three months. The explanation is important because it can imply how the problem can be managed. Explanations might include: the job might be boring and lack challenge, the supervisor might not be providing support, or perhaps new hires are dissatisfied with their pay. Each one of these explanations will require a different approach. Managing it (lowering turnover) might involve making the job more challenging, encouraging supervisors to provide more support, or improving pay.
Chapter 1 124. b.False 125. b.False 126. b.False 127. a.True 128. scientific management 129. a.True 130. b.False 131. a.True 132. a.True 133. b.False 134. a.True 135. a.True 136. b.False 137. a.True 138. training 139. Monitor, disseminator, and spokesperson. Examples will vary, but note that the example for disseminator should relate to internal communication, while that for spokesperson should be external. 140. Entrepreneur, disturbance handler, resource allocator, and negotiator. Examples will vary. 141. Routine communication (e.g., memos and paperwork), traditional management (e.g., planning, decision making, and controlling), networking (e.g., meetings and social events with people both inside and outside the organization), and human resource management (e.g., motivating, disciplining, and training staff). 142. It depends on how you define "managerial success." Networking is important for gaining rapid promotions in organizations, while human resource management is relatively more important for obtaining employee commitment and satisfaction. 143. Simon, Isenberg, and most modern management theorists would disagree. For the experienced manager, good intuition in problem solving is often based on years of systematic education and experience, which enable the manager to quickly locate problems within a network of previously acquired information. 144. b.75 145. b.One-third 146. c.46 percent 147. a.Self-esteem
Chapter 1 148. e.retaining talent. 149. d.Religion 150. e.81 percent. 151. d.taking responsibility for the impact of its decisions and actions on its stakeholders. 152. c.Corporate social responsibility 153. b.Make donations to charitable organizations 154. c.the second most critical challenge. 155. c.30 percent. 156. e.Improve talent management 157. d.vigour, dedication, and absorption. 158. b.work engagement. 159. b.Internal and external 160. a.Workplace spirituality 161. c.an individual's positive psychological state of development. 162. a.Vigour 163. b.self-efficacy. 164. c.optimism. 165. d.hope. 166. e.resilience. 167. c.lost productivity and absenteeism. 168. e.Psychological Health and Safety in the Workplace 169. e.five years ago. 170. c.work-life balance. 171. d.Positive organizational behaviour 172. c.PsyCap intervention 173. c.Communication 174. d.Employee psychological capital 175. d.Each level is influenced by organizational performance.
Chapter 1 176. d.Motivating people 177. c.Organizational care 178. d.9 179. c.A state in which people are highly aware of and attentive to what is happening in the present 180. d.Mindfulness 181. b.Optimism 182. c.Thriving at work 183. e.vitality and learning. 184. b.Work that is risky, uncertain, and unpredictable 185. c.8 percent 186. b.False 187. a.True 188. b.False 189. b.False 190. a.True 191. b.False 192. b.False 193. b.False 194. b.False 195. a.True 196. b.False 197. b.False 198. a.True 199. b.False 200. b.False 201. a.True 202. a.True 203. b.False
Chapter 1 204. a.True 205. b.False 206. b.False 207. b.False 208. a.True 209. a.True 210. b.False 211. a.True 212. b.False 213. a.True 214. a.True 215. a.True 216. b.False 217. a.True 218. a.True 219. b.False 220. b.False 221. a.True 222. b.False 223. absorption 224. absenteeism 225. retaining talent 226. racialized people 227. BIPOC 228. 40 229. resilience 230. mind 231. Corporate social responsibility
Chapter 1 232. engaged 233. Psychological 234. women 235. absenteeism 236. developed 237. psychological 238. Corporate social responsibility, CSR 239. Communication 240. Mindfulness 241. learning 242. Organizational care 243. Precarious work 244. Changing demographics and the globalization of business are resulting in increasingly diverse labour forces and customer markets. In addition, many organizations have realized that in many aspects of employment, they have not treated certain segments of the population fairly such as women, members of the LGBTQ community, members of the BIPOC community, and persons with disabilities. 245. Psychological capital refers to an individual's positive psychological state of development that is characterized by self-efficacy, optimism, hope, and resilience. Each state can be changed, modified, and developed. Research has shown that PsyCap is positively related to psychological well-being as well as more positive job attitudes, behaviours, and job performance and negatively related to undesirable attitudes and behaviours. Organizational behaviour is concerned with creating a positive work environment and employee well-being, and one way of doing this is to develop employees' PsyCap which can be done through the use of PsyCap interventions. 246. Organizations will be facing severe shortages of labour in the coming years due to a number of factors such as the retirement of baby boomers, fewer Canadians entering skilled trades, and the willingness of knowledge workers to relocate anywhere in the world. Talent management refers to an organization's processes for attracting, developing, retaining, and deploying people with the required skills to meet current and future business needs. These are issues that are also associated with organizational behaviour. Organizational behaviour provides the means for organizations to be designed and managed in ways that optimize the attraction, development, retention, engagement, and performance of talent. 247. Corporate social responsibility refers to an organization taking responsibility for the impact of its decisions and actions on its stakeholders. Many CSR issues are associated with organizational behaviour (treating employees fairly, creating a positive work environment, promoting employee well-being, having a diverse workforce, encouraging work-family balance, and ensuring employment equity). Thus, organizational behaviour plays an important role in CSR, and organizational behaviour programs and practices are necessary for CSR.
Chapter 1 248. Organizational behaviour is concerned with creating a positive work environment and improving employee well-being. The chapter describes the essential components of a psychologically healthy workplace according to the American Psychological Association for Organizational Excellence which states that the practices that help to create a healthy and productive work environment include employee involvement, health and safety, employee growth and development, work-life balance, and employee recognition. Communication is also important and the foundation for the five psychologically healthy workplace practices. The chapter also discusses how workplace spirituality, organizational care, and positive organizational behaviour also contribute to a positive work environment. Workplace spirituality refers to workplaces that provide employees with meaning, purpose, a sense of community, and a connection to others. Employees in a spiritual workplace have opportunities for personal growth and development and feel valued and supported. Organizational care refers to organizational values and principles centred on fulfilling employees' best interests, and valuing employees' contributions. Organizations that care about their employees are responsive to employees' needs, interests, concerns, and well-being. The chapter also describes the importance of positive organizational behaviour and psychological capital which contributes to employee success and well-being as well as more positive attitudes and behaviours. Thus, a positive work environment and employee well-being can also be created by developing employees' PsyCap which can be achieved through the use of PsyCap interventions. 249. Workplace spirituality refers to workplaces that provide employees with meaning, purpose, a sense of community, and a connection to others. Employees in a spiritual workplace have opportunities for personal growth and development and feel valued and supported. Organizations can create a spiritual workplace by providing employees with a meaningful work life that is aligned with their values, interesting work that provides meaning and a feeling of purpose, a caring and supportive work environment, and connections to others. Providing employees with opportunities for growth and development is also important. 250. Corporate social responsibility refers to an organization taking responsibility for the impact of its decisions and actions on its stakeholders. There are many things that organizations can do to be more socially responsible: treating employees fairly, having a diverse workforce, providing programs for work-family balance, having employment equity programs, being involved in the community, making donations to charitable organizations, and showing concern for the environment and green initiatives. 251. Talent management refers to an organization's processes for attracting, developing, retaining, and utilizing people with the required skills to meet current and future business needs. Many organizational behaviour practices are associated with attracting, developing, retaining, and utilizing people. Organizational behaviour provides the means for organizations to be designed and managed in ways that optimize the attraction, development, retention, engagement, and performance of talent. Examples described in the chapter include providing opportunities for learning, designing jobs that are challenging, meaningful, and rewarding, providing recognition and monetary rewards for performance, managing a diverse workforce, offering flexible work arrangements, and providing effective leadership. These are some of the things associated with organizational behaviour that can help an organization improve the management of talent. 252. Work engagement refers to a positive work-related state of mind that is characterized by vigour, dedication, and absorption. Organizations have become concerned about it because it has been reported that only one-third of workers are engaged in their work and yet engaged workers have more positive work attitudes and higher job performance. In addition, work engagement is considered to be a key factor for an organization's success and competitiveness and can have a significant effect on productivity, customer satisfaction, profitability, innovation, and quality.
Chapter 1 253. Positive organizational behaviour (POB) is "the study and application of positively oriented human resource strengths and psychological capacities that can be measured, developed, and effectively managed for performance improvement in today's workplace." The psychological capacities are known as psychological capital (PsyCap) and they refer to an individual's positive psychological state of development that is characterized by self-efficacy, optimism, hope, and resilience. Self-efficacy refers to one's confidence to take on and put in the necessary effort to succeed at challenging tasks; optimism refers to an attributional style that involves explaining positive events in terms of personal and permanent causes, and negative events as external and situation-specific causes; hope refers to persevering toward one's goals, and when necessary making changes and using multiple pathways to achieve one's goals; and resilience refers to one's ability to bounce back or rebound from adversity and setbacks to attain success. PsyCap is positively related to employee psychological well-being as well as more positive job attitudes, behaviours, and job performance, and negatively related to undesirable attitudes and behaviours such as employee anxiety, stress, and turnover intentions. POB can contribute to employee health and well-being by developing employees' PsyCap. This can be done with PsyCap interventions (PCI) that focus on enhancing each of the components of PsyCap and have been found to be effective for developing employees' PsyCap. Thus, POB is an effective approach for organizations to improve employee health and well-being by developing employees' PsyCap. 254. Organizations should be concerned about the mental health of their employees for a number of reasons. Mental illness in Canada is on the rise and is said to be costing business billions of dollars in lost productivity and absenteeism. It is the leading cause of disability in Canada, and has a huge cost on productivity and the Canadian economy. In 2013 a new national standard for workplace mental health and safety (Psychological Health and Safety in the Workplace) was introduced to help Canadian organizations create workplaces that promote a mentally healthy workplace and support employees dealing with mental illness. The standard provides guidelines to help organizations identify potential hazards to mental health and how they can improve policies and practices. To address mental illness in the workplace, organizations can implement mental health initiatives and make mental health a priority at work. In addition, according to the American Psychological Association for Organizational Excellence, the practices that help to create a psychologically healthy workplace include employee involvement, health and safety, employee growth and development, work-life balance, and employee recognition. Communication is also important and the foundation for the five psychologically healthy workplace practices. 255. Precarious work refers to work that is risky, uncertain, and unpredictable for workers. This is work that tends to be unstable or short-term, the pay is low or unreliable, there are no benefits, the hours are uncertain and inconsistent, and workers have few rights and protections. Precarious work can have many negative consequences for employees, organizations, and society. The consequences of precarious work include decreased trust, morale, job satisfaction, and commitment, and a negative effect on workers' mental health and well-being. Many workers in precarious work situations lost their jobs during the pandemic making them vulnerable to the consequences of unemployment such as financial and mental distress. Precarious workers are more likely to work in unsafe and dangerous working conditions and to suffer the consequences of economic crises which can result in mental and physical health problems. A high percentage of workers in precarious jobs are women, immigrants, and racialized people which means that they are especially vulnerable to economic disruptions and most likely to lose their jobs. 256. Thriving at work is a positive psychological state that is characterized by a joint sense of vitality and learning. Vitality has to do with a positive feeling of having energy and feeling alive, and learning has to do with having a sense of continually acquiring and applying valuable knowledge and skills. Thriving at work is important for employees' health and personal development and it contributes to human sustainability at work. It is positively related to career development initiatives, job performance, leadership effectiveness, and general health and well-being.
Chapter 2 1.
An individual's personality encompasses a. a relatively stable set of psychological characteristics. b. a constantly shifting set of personal characteristics. c. all aspects of the individual's consciousness. d. behaviours which are mostly learned through childhood experience. e. all aspects of the individual's physical and emotional response to their environment.
2.
Personality will have the most impact in which situation? a. Weak situations of loosely defined roles with few rules b. Strong situations with well-defined roles, rules, and contingencies c. Both weak and strong situations d. Situations of medium strength e. Weak situations with well-defined roles, rules, and contingencies
3.
According to the ________ approach, organizational behaviour is a function of both dispositions and the situation. a. personality b. interactionist c. operant learning d. social cognitive e. contingency
4.
If an organization decides to change the characteristics of work tasks in order to improve employee satisfaction and performance, what approach to organizational behaviour are they following? a. Dispositional approach b. Personality approach c. Situational approach d. Interactionist approach e. Operant learning approach
5.
If an organization decides to use personality tests in the hiring of employees in order to improve employee satisfaction and performance, what approach to organizational behaviour are they following? a. Dispositional approach b. Situational approach c. Interactionist approach d. Testing approach e. Military approach
6.
Which of the following is the most widely accepted perspective within organizational behaviour? a. The five-factor approach b. The dispositional approach c. The situational approach d. The interactionist approach e. The personality approach
7.
According to trait activation theory, a. traits lead to certain personalities only when the situation makes the need for that personality salient. b. traits lead to certain behaviours only when the situation makes the need for that trait salient. c. situations lead to certain traits only when the situation makes the need for that trait salient. d. situations lead to certain behaviours only when the situation makes the need for a trait salient. e. personality leads to certain traits only when the situation makes the need for that personality salient.
Chapter 2 8.
The idea that personality characteristics influence people's behaviour when the situation calls for a particular personality characteristic is known as a. personality activation theory. b. situation activation theory. c. trait activation theory. d. situational approach. e. dispositional approach.
9.
Personality is the unstable set of psychological characteristics that influences the way an individual interacts with the environment. a. True b. False
10.
According to the dispositional approach, individuals possess stable traits or characteristics that influence their attitudes and behaviours. a. True b. False
11.
The dispositional approach is the most widely accepted perspective within organizational behaviour. a. True b. False
12.
An important implication of the situational approach is that some personality characteristics are useful in certain organizational situations. a. True b. False
13.
According to trait activation theory, traits lead to certain personalities only when the situation makes the need for them salient. a. True b. False
14.
Personality characteristics influence people's behaviour when the situation calls for a particular personality characteristic. a. True b. False
15.
A relatively stable set of psychological characteristics that influences the way an individual interacts is referred to as __________ .
16.
The __________ approach is the most widely accepted perspective within organizational behaviour.
17.
According to __________ activation theory, traits lead to certain behaviours only when the situation makes the need for the trait salient.
18.
__________ characteristics influence people's behaviour when the situation calls for a particular personality characteristic.
Chapter 2 19.
What is personality? Is it possible for an individual to have "no personality"? Explain.
20.
What is trait activation theory and what does it tell us about the role that personality plays in organizational behaviour?
21.
What are the implications of trait activation theory for a manager who has to assign employees to various tasks in different situations? How should the manager proceed and what will be most effective?
22.
Personality is most commonly thought to consist of ________ general dimensions. a. four b. five c. three d. seven e. six
23.
The personality dimension of extraversion is defined as a. the extent to which a person is outgoing and enjoys social situations. b. the degree to which a person has appropriate emotional control. c. the extent to which a person is friendly and approachable. d. the degree to which a person thinks flexibly and is receptive to new ideas. e. the degree to which a person is responsible and achievement oriented.
24.
The personality dimension of emotional stability is defined as a. the extent to which a person is outgoing and enjoys social situations. b. the degree to which a person has appropriate emotional control. c. the extent to which a person is friendly and approachable. d. the degree to which a person thinks flexibly and is receptive to new ideas. e. the degree to which a person is responsible and achievement oriented.
25.
Extraversion is especially important for jobs that require a. low interpersonal interaction and independence. b. in-depth research and analysis with great independence. c. extensive education and credibility, e.g., Ph.D. d. a lot of interpersonal interaction such as sales and management. e. being a solo practitioner.
26.
The personality dimension of agreeableness is defined as a. the extent to which a person is outgoing and enjoys social situations. b. the degree to which a person has appropriate emotional control. c. the extent to which a person is friendly and approachable. d. the degree to which a person thinks flexibly and is receptive to new ideas. e. the degree to which a person is responsible and achievement oriented.
27.
Emotional stability helps support positive work performance because a. the person is neurotic about their responsibilities and is fanatically detail oriented. b. the person is calm and has highly effective interactions with co-workers and customers. c. the person is obsessive with customer service quality. d. the person expresses great detachment and apathy. e. the person sticks to their established patterns and ignores updated information.
Chapter 2 28.
The personality dimension of conscientiousness is defined as a. the extent to which a person is outgoing and enjoys social situations. b. the degree to which a person has appropriate emotional control. c. the extent to which a person is friendly and approachable. d. the degree to which a person thinks flexibly and is receptive to new ideas. e. the degree to which a person is responsible and achievement oriented.
29.
The personality dimension of openness to experience is defined as a. the extent to which a person is outgoing and enjoys social situations. b. the degree to which a person has appropriate emotional control. c. the extent to which a person is friendly and approachable. d. the degree to which a person thinks flexibly and is receptive to new ideas. e. the degree to which a person is responsible and achievement oriented.
30.
The personality dimension which helps foster cooperation and nurturing of others and teamwork is a. emotional stability. b. conscientiousness. c. general self-efficacy. d. self-monitoring. e. agreeableness.
31.
Recent studies suggest that extraversion is related to absenteeism in a positive direction. This means that a. extraverts tend to be absent less often than introverts. b. the more extraverted a person is, the less absent they are. c. extraverts tend to be absent more often than introverts. d. the more introverted a person is, the more absent they are. e. people become more extraverted through higher absenteeism.
32.
Edward has recently been told that he is very effective at networking with potential customers. However, his follow-up after initial contact is sloppy and his files are not up to date. In order to be more effective on the job he needs to keep working on the ________ part of his personality. a. emotional stability b. openness to experience c. neuroticism d. conscientiousness e. independence
33.
Gurpreet has shown her boss how effective she is on the job because she is naturally curious about what is happening with her company, has broad interests, and has a vibrant imagination. She is demonstrating great a. willingness to get along with everyone. b. openness to experience. c. focus on getting promoted and is highly ambitious. d. emotional stability. e. reluctance to work long hours.
34.
Gary Reynolds is the CEO of Reynolds Software Limited. He attributes his success to careful planning, hard work, and a good business education. In terms of locus of control, Gary is most likely a(n) a. external. b. extravert. c. introvert. d. internal. e. high self-monitor.
Chapter 2 35.
A person who is a high self-monitor will a. observe the situation when determining how to behave. b. ignore the situation when determining how to behave. c. be rather rigid in their leadership style. d. be prone to uncontrollable emotional outbursts. e. have difficulty regulating their behaviour in social situations.
36.
A person with low self-esteem will likely a. react well to ambiguous stressful situations. b. be able to deal with negative feedback. c. be less susceptible to external and social influences. d. respond well to mentoring. e. be less pliable than someone with high self-esteem.
37.
Which of the following is associated with more unsafe behaviours? a. High extraversion b. High emotional stability c. High agreeableness d. High conscientiousness e. High openness to experience
38.
According to behavioural plasticity theory, a. people with high self-esteem are more likely to benefit from external and social influences. b. people with low self-esteem are more susceptible to external and social influences. c. people's self-esteem can easily be changed in response to external and social influences. d. people's behaviour will only change when their self-esteem is threatened. e. the best way to change people's behaviour is to use external and social influence.
39.
Which of the following is TRUE about high self-monitors? a. They experience more role stress and show higher commitment to their organization. b. They experience less role stress and show higher commitment to their organization. c. They experience less role stress and show less commitment to their organization. d. They experience no role stress and show less commitment to their organization. e. They experience more role stress and show less commitment to their organization.
40.
Which of the following is TRUE about high self-monitors? a. They tend to be less involved in their jobs and experience more role stress. b. They tend to be more involved in their jobs and show more commitment to their organization. c. They tend to be more involved in their jobs and to experience more role stress. d. They tend to be less involved in their jobs and are more likely to emerge as leaders. e. They tend to be less involved in their jobs and show more commitment to their organization.
41.
Which of the following statements is most accurate? a. Each of the Big Five dimensions is related to job performance but not organizational citizenship behaviours. b. Each of the Big Five dimensions is related to organizational citizenship behaviours but not job performance. c. Some of the Big Five dimensions are related to job performance and all of them are related to organizational citizenship behaviours. d. Some of the Big Five dimensions are related to organizational citizenship behaviours and all of them are related to job performance. e. Each of the Big Five dimensions is related to job performance and organizational citizenship behaviours.
Chapter 2 42.
Which of the Big Five dimensions predicts job performance in all jobs across occupations? a. Extraversion b. Emotional stability c. Agreeableness d. Conscientiousness e. Openness to experience
43.
If Nadia is susceptible to external and social influences, what can you say about her personality? a. She has an internal locus of control. b. She has an external locus of control. c. She has high self-esteem. d. She has low self-esteem. e. She is a high self-monitor.
44.
Behavioural plasticity theory has to do with what personality characteristic? a. Locus of control b. Self-esteem c. Self-monitoring d. General self-efficacy e. Core self-evaluations
45.
Which of the following when exhibited in adolescence is related to lower unemployment throughout adulthood? a. Conscientiousness b. Agreeableness c. Emotional stability d. Openness to experience e. Extraversion
46.
The Big Chunk Candy Company has experienced problems with employees engaging in deviant workplace behaviours. As a result, they are going to begin to use personality tests to hire employees who are less likely to be deviant. What should they be looking for? a. High conscientiousness and high openness to experience b. High conscientiousness and high self-monitoring c. High extraversion and high emotional stability d. High conscientiousness and high extraversion e. High conscientiousness and high agreeableness
47.
Which of the following are associated with fewer unsafe work behaviours? a. High conscientiousness and high openness to experience b. High conscientiousness and high emotional stability c. High extraversion and high emotional stability d. High conscientiousness and high extraversion e. High conscientiousness and high agreeableness
48.
Which of the following is most strongly related to organizational commitment? a. Openness to experience b. Emotional stability c. Extraversion d. Agreeableness e. Conscientiousness
Chapter 2 49.
The Don't Break Your Back fitness company has a serious problem with the commitment of new employees. As a result, they are thinking about including personality measures in the selection process. If they want to hire employees who will be highly committed, what would be the best personality variable to include in the selection process? a. Openness to experience b. Agreeableness c. Extraversion d. Emotional stability e. Conscientiousness
50.
Which of the following is the strongest predictor of job satisfaction? a. Openness to experience b. Emotional stability c. Extraversion d. Agreeableness e. Conscientiousness
51.
Which of the following is related to higher organizational financial performance? a. Openness to experience b. Emotional stability c. Extraversion d. Agreeableness e. Conscientiousness
52.
According to a study on conscientiousness during the COVID-19 pandemic, conscientious workers reported higher _____and lower ________as a result of increased job demands. a. job performance; strain b. strain; job performance c. job satisfaction; job performance d. job performance; job satisfaction e. strain; job satisfaction
53.
Behavioural plasticity has to do with how external and social influences can change people's self-esteem. a. True b. False
54.
Conscientiousness is the strongest predictor of all of the "Big Five" dimensions of overall job performance. a. True b. False
55.
Behavioural plasticity theory has to do with the situations in which personality characteristics influence people's behaviour. a. True b. False
56.
High levels of conscientiousness, agreeableness, and emotional stability are associated with lower levels of workplace deviance. a. True b. False
Chapter 2 57.
High levels of extraversion, agreeableness, and emotional stability are associated with lower levels of workplace deviance. a. True b. False
58.
__________ skills are skills such as problem solving, critical thinking, learning about alternative work processes, and risk taking.
59.
__________ skills are skills such as communicating, teamwork, and conflict resolution.
60.
__________ awareness involves learning the social norms of organizations and understanding company goals, business operations, and company expectations and priorities.
61.
Define learning and describe what people learn in organizations.
62.
Ron is a sensitive person, and he works very hard so that his boss doesn't criticize him. Criticism is a(n) ________ of Ron's work. a. positive reinforcer b. extinguisher c. negative reinforcer d. punisher e. continuous reinforcer
63.
When we say that organizations sometimes confuse rewards with reinforcers, we mean that a. rewards cannot serve as reinforcers. b. people differ as to which rewards are reinforcing. c. the rewards are not made contingent on a desired behaviour. d. the reinforcers are not backed up with attractive rewards. e. only monetary rewards work as effective reinforcers.
64.
A positive reinforcer is a. pay. b. interesting work. c. a holiday. d. a company car. e. There is insufficient information to accurately answer this question.
65.
________ increases the probability of a behaviour by the removal of a negative stimulus after that behaviour occurs. a. Punishment b. Extinction c. Negative reinforcement d. Positive reinforcement e. Modelling
Chapter 2 66.
Positive reinforcement ________ the probability of a behaviour by applying a ________ stimulus after that behaviour occurs. a. increases; nasty b. increases; pleasant c. decreases; pleasant d. decreases; nasty e. increases; neutral
67.
________ increase or maintain the probability of some response by their ________ the situation in question. a. Positive reinforcers; removal from b. Negative reinforcers; application or addition to c. Positive reinforcers; application or addition to d. Negative reinforcers; modelling of e. Rewards; removal from
68.
What is the most sensible strategy for administering punishment, as long as conditions permit? a. Partially and immediately b. Partially with delay c. Continuously with delay d. Continuously and immediately e. Intermittently and cautiously
69.
A manager has just provided an employee with information on past performance for the purpose of changing or maintaining performance in specific ways. What is this called? a. Social recognition b. Self-regulation c. Behaviour modelling training d. Performance feedback e. Modelling
70.
Performance feedback is most effective when it is a. conveyed in a negative manner. b. delivered immediately after observing performance. c. represented verbally, such as a written description. d. delivered by several observers. e. delivered only after everyone has had a chance to think about the performance.
71.
When one individual provides informal acknowledgement, attention, praise, approval, or genuine appreciation for work well done to another individual, they are providing a. performance feedback. b. a good example of a model. c. social recognition. d. peer recognition. e. continuous and immediate reinforcement.
72.
Millennial workers prefer non-monetary rewards to a greater extent than a. traditionalists and baby boomers. b. generation X and traditionalists. c. traditionalists only. d. generation X and baby boomers. e. traditionalists, generation X, and baby boomers.
Chapter 2 73.
To obtain the best compromise between the speed of acquisition of a desired response and resistance to its extinction, which reinforcement strategy should be used in training? (In other words, how do we get the fastest learning combined with the strongest resistance to extinction?) a. Continuous reinforcement b. Begin with self-management and then go to modelling. c. Begin with delayed and partial reinforcement and gradually go to immediate and continuous reinforcement. d. Begin with immediate and continuous reinforcement and gradually go to delayed and partial reinforcement. e. Begin with negative reinforcement and gradually change to continuous positive reinforcement.
74.
A supervisor complimented each of their workers as they arrived promptly to work every morning. Due to time constraints, the supervisor had to stop this practice, resulting in a much higher rate of tardiness among the workers. Which of the following statements best explains this situation in operant terms? a. The supervisor was inadvertently punishing the workers by not complimenting them, so the workers didn't arrive on time any more. b. The supervisor's negative reinforcement strategy was stopped, thus extinguishing the behaviour of arriving promptly. c. The supervisor was using a continuous, immediate reinforcement strategy, and behaviour learned under such conditions is easily extinguishable. d. The supervisor was using a partial reinforcement strategy, and behaviour learned under such conditions is easily extinguishable. e. The supervisor was using a delayed reinforcement strategy, and behaviour learned under such conditions is easily extinguishable.
75.
Which of the following represents the least effective reinforcement strategy? a. Delayed reinforcement b. Immediate reinforcement c. Continuous reinforcement d. Negative reinforcement e. This question cannot be answered accurately as posed.
76.
Persistent learning is best achieved through a. partial, delayed reinforcement. b. continuous, immediate reinforcement. c. partial, immediate reinforcement. d. continuous, delayed reinforcement. e. punishment.
77.
In order to obtain the fastest acquisition of some response, reinforcement should be used a. immediately and continuously. b. immediately and partially. c. after a long delay and continuously. d. after a long delay and partially. e. intermittently and cautiously.
78.
To make behaviour most resistant to extinction, it should be learned under ________ reinforcement. a. continuous and delayed b. continuous and immediate c. partial and delayed d. partial and immediate e. negative
Chapter 2 79.
Negative reinforcement is a technical term for punishment. In fact, they both mean the same thing. a. True b. False
80.
By definition, all rewards that organizations provide for employees are reinforcers. a. True b. False
81.
It is probably easier for managers to learn to use positive reinforcement effectively than to use punishment effectively. a. True b. False
82.
Negative reinforcement and punishment produce similar results but through different processes. a. True b. False
83.
Negative reinforcers increase the probability of a behaviour occurring. a. True b. False
84.
A manager who wants to use performance feedback should provide quantitative but not qualitative information on past performance. a. True b. False
85.
Personality is a relatively new idea in organizational behaviour research. a. True b. False
86.
The "Big Five" refers to five distinct dimensions of personality. a. True b. False
87.
Altruism is one of the "Big Five" personality dimensions. a. True b. False
88.
Agreeableness means that a person tends to be friendly and approachable. a. True b. False
89.
If you believe that you are being controlled by internal forces, you are an external locus of control person. a. True b. False
90.
Locus of control is not a personality dimension. a. True b. False
Chapter 2 91.
Being a high self-monitor means that you observe only yourself and no one else. a. True b. False
92.
Having high self-esteem means that you have a negative self-evaluation. a. True b. False
93.
Self-esteem, self-monitoring, locus of control, agreeableness, conscientiousness, and emotional stability are all examples of personality characteristics or dimensions. a. True b. False
94.
High self-monitors experience less role stress. a. True b. False
95.
Each of the Big Five dimensions is related to job performance but not organizational citizenship behaviours. a. True b. False
96.
High agreeableness predicts performance in all jobs across occupations. a. True b. False
97.
Extraverts tend to be absent more often than introverts. a. True b. False
98.
People with high self-esteem tend to be more susceptible to external and social influences than those who have low self-esteem. a. True b. False
99.
High levels of conscientiousness and agreeableness are associated with fewer unsafe behaviours. a. True b. False
100. High levels of conscientiousness and extraversion are associated with fewer unsafe behaviours. a. True b. False 101. High levels of extraversion and low emotional stability are associated with more unsafe behaviours. a. True b. False 102. High levels of agreeableness and low emotional stability are associated with more unsafe behaviours. a. True b. False
Chapter 2 103. Interpersonal skills include skills such as communicating, teamwork, and conflict resolution. a. True b. False 104. Punishment is the easiest operant technique to use effectively. a. True b. False 105. Extinction is accomplished by terminating reinforcement. a. True b. False 106. Self-efficacy beliefs are influenced by positive reinforcement. a. True b. False 107. Self-efficacy beliefs are beliefs people have about how successful they will be in all aspects of their lives. a. True b. False 108. Self-regulation is closely related to the concept of social cognition. a. True b. False 109. Under self-regulation, employees in effect reinforce themselves. a. True b. False 110. In social cognitive theory, a model is a person who imitates another person's behaviour. a. True b. False 111. The modelling process is an example of social cognitive theory. a. True b. False 112. Ironically, the best models in learning terms behave in a subtle and forgettable manner. a. True b. False 113. Cultural awareness involves learning about the culture of different nations. a. True b. False 114. Cultural awareness involves learning the social norms of organizations and understanding company goals. a. True b. False 115.
__________ skills include job-specific skills, knowledge, and technical competence.
Chapter 2 116. Performance feedback is most effective when it is represented visually in a graph or chart form. a. True b. False 117. Of all of the Big Five factors, conscientiousness is the most strongly related to organizational commitment. a. True b. False 118. During the COVID-19 pandemic, conscientious workers reported higher strain and lower job satisfaction as a result of increased job demands. a. True b. False 119. During the COVID-19 pandemic, conscientious workers reported higher strain and lower job performance as a result of increased job demands. a. True b. False 120.
__________ is the strongest predictor of all of the "Big Five" dimensions of organizational commitment.
121. Organizations with more __________ employees have higher organizational financial performance.
122.
__________ in adolescence is related to lower unemployment throughout adulthood.
123.
__________ is the strongest predictor of all of the "Big Five" dimensions of overall job performance.
124.
__________ refers to the extent to which a person thinks flexibly and is receptive to new ideas.
125. Jamal believes that his boss is responsible for all the stuff that happens to him (Jamal). Jamal is exhibiting an external __________ .
126. Susan is disliked by her sorority sisters because she is always able to act perfectly, regardless of the situation. Susan might be called a(n) __________ .
127.
__________ is the degree to which a person has a positive self-evaluation.
128. High __________ are likely to experience more role stress and show less commitment to their organization.
129. High __________ predicts performance in all jobs across occupations.
Chapter 2 130. High conscientiousness and __________ are associated with fewer unsafe behaviours.
131. High __________ and low emotional stability are associated with more unsafe behaviours.
132. High conscientiousness, __________ , and emotional stability are associated with lower levels of workplace deviance.
133. High conscientiousness, agreeableness, and emotional stability are associated with lower levels of workplace __________ .
134. During the COVID-19 pandemic, conscientious workers reported higher strain and lower job performance as a result of increased __________ .
135. Of the "Big Five" personality dimensions, which three do you feel are the most important in order to be effective as a sales representative?
136. What are the "Big Five" dimensions of personality? Give two examples of research from the text which link these dimensions to workplace behaviours.
137. Describe three personality characteristics which you would expect to be associated with success as a manager. Defend your answer.
138.
Distinguish between self-esteem and self-efficacy. Is it possible for an individual to have high self-esteem but low self-efficacy? Explain your answer.
139. Which of the following is an emotional disposition that predicts people's general emotional tendencies? a. General self-efficacy b. Self-esteem c. Proactive personality d. Positive affectivity e. Locus of control 140. A person who is relatively unconstrained by situational forces and acts to change and influence the environment has what kind of personality? a. High self-esteem b. Internal locus of control c. Proactive personality d. Positive affect e. General self-efficacy
Chapter 2 141. Which of the following is an example of a motivational trait? a. Positive affectivity b. Self-esteem c. Core self-evaluations d. Emotional stability e. General self-efficacy 142. Which one of the dimensions of the five-factor model of personality is also one of the traits of core selfevaluations? a. Extraversion b. Emotional stability c. Agreeableness d. Conscientiousness e. Openness to experience 143. Which of the following is NOT one of the traits of core self-evaluations? a. General self-efficacy b. Self-esteem c. Locus of control d. Neuroticism e. Negative affectivity 144. What personality trait is considered to be one of the best dispositional predictors of job satisfaction and job performance? a. Locus of control b. Self-esteem c. Self-monitoring d. General self-efficacy e. Core self-evaluations 145. Which personality trait is considered to be a motivational trait? a. Negative affect b. Self-esteem c. Self-monitoring d. General self-efficacy e. Positive affect 146. Which of the following is a multidimensional trait? a. Negative affect b. Core self-evaluations c. Proactive personality d. General self-efficacy e. Positive affect 147. Which of the following is related to learning outcomes? a. Negative affectivity b. Core self-evaluations c. Proactive personality d. General self-efficacy e. Positive affectivity
Chapter 2 148. Which of the following is the strongest predictor of employee engagement? a. Negative affectivity b. Core self-evaluations c. Proactive personality d. General self-efficacy e. Positive affectivity 149. The Don't Break Your Back Fitness Company has a serious problem with the engagement of new employees. As a result, they are thinking about including personality measures in the selection process. If they want to hire employees who will be highly engaged, what would be the best personality variable to include in the selection process? a. Proactive personality b. General self-efficacy c. Conscientiousness d. Positive affectivity e. Core self-evaluations 150. During the COVID-19 pandemic, frontline healthcare professionals with a proactive personality had higher _____ and _____as a result of using their strengths in the face of the crisis. a. stress; burnout b. performance; well-being c. job satisfaction; well-being d. job satisfaction; commitment e. commitment; well-being 151. Core self-evaluations are positively related to learning outcomes. a. True b. False 152. Among eight personality traits, core self-evaluations are the strongest predictor of employee engagement. a. True b. False 153. People who have high negative affectivity experience more stressful conditions at work and report higher levels of workplace stress. a. True b. False 154. General self-efficacy is a stable personal disposition that reflects a tendency to effect positive change in one's environment. a. True b. False 155. Core self-evaluations are related to job satisfaction but not life satisfaction. a. True b. False 156. A good indication of whether or not an individual believes they can succeed at a variety of tasks is their general self-efficacy. a. True b. False
Chapter 2 157. Employees who have higher negative affectivity have been found to be more creative at work. a. True b. False 158. Positive affect is a key factor that links happiness to success in life and at work. a. True b. False 159. Positive and negative affectivity are opposite ends of a continuum. a. True b. False 160. Core self-evaluations are among the best dispositional predictors of job satisfaction and job performance. a. True b. False 161. During the COVID-19 pandemic, frontline healthcare professionals with a proactive personality had higher performance and well-being as a result of using their strengths in the face of the crisis. a. True b. False 162. During the COVID-19 pandemic, frontline healthcare professionals with a proactive personality had higher performance and lower well-being as a result of using their strengths in the face of the crisis. a. True b. False 163. People who have high __________ experience more stressful conditions at work and report higher levels of workplace stress and strain.
164. The four traits that make up a person's core self-evaluations are self-esteem, general self-efficacy, locus of control, and __________ .
165. There is some evidence that __________ is a key factor that links happiness to success in life and at work.
166. Employees who have higher __________ have been found to be more creative at work.
167.
__________ are a multidimensional trait.
168.
__________ are related to learning outcomes.
169. Among eight personality traits, __________ is by far the strongest predictor of employee engagement.
Chapter 2 170. During the COVID-19 pandemic, frontline healthcare professionals with a proactive personality had higher performance and lower well-being as a result of using their __________ in the face of the crisis.
171. During the COVID-19 pandemic, frontline healthcare professionals with a __________ personality had higher performance and lower well-being as a result of using their strengths in the face of the crisis.
172. What is the difference between positive affectivity and negative affectivity and what are the implications of each for work outcomes?
173. What is the meaning of proactive behaviour and what kind of employee is most likely to engage in proactive behaviour?
174. Learning is a. a relatively temporary change in behaviour potential due to experience. b. a relatively permanent change in behaviour potential due to experience. c. not directly related to behaviour or experience. d. related to behaviour more than experience. e. concerned with both permanent and temporary changes. 175. Which of the following is NOT one of the four primary categories of learning content in organizations? a. Practical skills b. Intrapersonal skills c. Interpersonal skills d. Cultural awareness e. Financial management 176. Learning job-specific skills, knowledge and technical competence is known as a. job skills. b. practical skills. c. work skills. d. technical skills. e. task skills. 177. Learning skills such as problem solving, critical thinking, alternative work processes, and risk taking is known as a. critical skills. b. thinking skills. c. cognitive skills. d. practical skills. e. intrapersonal skills. 178. Learning skills such as communicating, teamwork, and conflict resolution is known as a. cultural awareness skills. b. team skills. c. interpersonal skills. d. soft skills. e. intrapersonal skills.
Chapter 2 179. Learning the social norms of an organization and understanding company goals, business operations, and company expectations and priorities is known as a. interpersonal skills. b. intrapersonal skills. c. organization skills. d. cultural awareness. e. organization awareness. 180. Interpersonal skills are skills such as problem solving, critical thinking, learning about alternative work processes, and risk taking. a. True b. False 181. Social recognition and performance feedback are the same thing. a. True b. False 182. Performance feedback is most effective when it is represented verbally in written form. a. True b. False 183. In order to provide effective performance feedback, a manager should provide employees with informal acknowledgement, attention, praise, approval, and genuine appreciation for work well done. a. True b. False 184. According to operant learning theory, human behaviour can best be explained through a system of triadic reciprocal causation. a. True b. False 185. Millennials prefer non-monetary rewards to a greater extent than Generation X and Baby Boomers. a. True b. False 186. Millennials prefer monetary rewards to a greater extent than Generation Y and Baby Boomers. a. True b. False 187. Bashir praises every good report his employee produces. This is an example of a partial reinforcement strategy. a. True b. False 188. The very fastest acquisition of behaviour will occur under continuous and delayed reinforcement. a. True b. False 189. Delayed reinforcement results in slowly learned but persistent behaviour. a. True b. False
Chapter 2 190. Continuous reinforcement with short delay causes behaviours to be learned __________ .
191. Behaviour learned under delayed partial reinforcement will be learned slowly but it will also be __________ .
192. To obtain the fast acquisition of some response, reinforce that response __________ and __________ .
193. Negative reinforcement __________ the probability of some behaviour occurring.
194. Removing a negative stimulus when a behaviour occurs in order to strengthen the behaviour is called __________ .
195. Learning by virtue of direct experience with the consequences of one's behaviour is called __________ learning.
196. To increase the probability of some behaviour, __________ that behaviour.
197. Millennials prefer non-monetary rewards to a greater extent than __________ and Baby Boomers.
198. Describe three common errors made by managers involving reinforcement.
199. If a manager wants to reinforce organizational behaviour but is unable to use formal means such as pay and promotions, describe what they might use instead?
200. What are the most common organizational errors that managers make in trying to use reinforcement and what should they do to avoid these errors?
201. Conscientiousness in adolescence is related to lower unemployment throughout adulthood. a. True b. False 202. Organizations with more conscientious employees have higher organizational financial performance. a. True b. False 203. Intrapersonal skills are skills such as problem solving, critical thinking, learning about alternative work processes, and risk taking. a. True b. False
Chapter 2 204. Intrapersonal skills include skills such as communicating, teamwork, and conflict resolution. a. True b. False 205. If a manager wants to use performance feedback to change employee behaviour, they should convey it after the employee has had some time to think about the performance in question. a. True b. False 206. A company converted its machine operators from piece rate pay to hourly pay and found that accidents involving the machines were reduced to almost zero from a previously high level. What can we conclude? a. Safe working practices were positively reinforced. b. Unsafe working practices were punished. c. Safe working practices were negatively reinforced. d. Unsafe working practices were extinguished. e. Hourly pay resulted in bigger pay cheques for the machine operators. 207. Which of the following statements concerning extinction is FALSE? a. Extinction works best when coupled with the reinforcement of a desired substitute behaviour. b. Behaviours learned under delayed or partial reinforcement schedules are more difficult to extinguish than those learned under continuous, immediate reinforcement. c. Extinction can be successful in reducing an unwanted behaviour by removing the reinforcer of that behaviour. d. Using the application of an unpleasant stimulus after an unwanted behaviour, extinction can reduce the probability of that behaviour occurring again. e. Behaviours which are eliminated through extinction may reappear if they become positively reinforced again. 208. If a behaviour is increasing in probability, we can be certain that it is NOT being a. extinguished. b. positively reinforced. c. learned. d. negatively reinforced. e. modelled. 209. ________ decreases the probability of a behaviour by the application of a negative stimulus after that behaviour occurs. a. Punishment b. Extinction c. Negative reinforcement d. Positive reinforcement e. Modelling 210. To reduce the probability of some unwanted behaviour we can use a. positive reinforcement. b. extinction. c. negative reinforcement. d. continuous reinforcement. e. immediate reinforcement.
Chapter 2 211. Which of the following statements concerning punishment is generally TRUE? a. Punishment involves the same process as extinction. b. Managers seldom use punishment to control organizational behaviour. c. Punishment differs from negative reinforcement in that punishment removes a nasty stimulus following some behaviour. d. While punishment signals which behaviours are inappropriate, it fails to illustrate correct behaviour. e. Managers should punish subordinates in front of other employees to set an example. 212. A manager who scolds employees for being late with the hope that this will stop them from being late is using a. punishment. b. negative reinforcement. c. extinction. d. positive reinforcement. e. modelling. 213. Managers should be especially careful in administering punishment because a. over a long period of time, repeated punishment becomes positively reinforcing. b. punishment has a tendency to provoke a strong emotional reaction on the part of the punished individual. c. punishment usually has no impact on the behaviour they are trying to eliminate. d. punishment will always lead to the emergence of other undesirable behaviours. e. punishment must be administered in front of other employees, and this often results in lowered morale. 214. Which of the following statements represents bad advice on administering punishment? a. Punishment should start off with a very mild warning, gradually proceeding to stronger punishment if the offence continues. b. The chosen punishment should be truly aversive to the individual being punished. c. Punishment should be coupled with an indication of the correct behaviour in the situation. d. Do not reward unwanted behaviours before or after punishment. e. Do not inadvertently punish desirable behaviour. 215. A manager realizes that their complaints about employee horseplay seem to encourage more horseplay. The manager resolves to ignore their horseplay in the future. In operant terms, what has the manager decided to do? a. Positively reinforce proper work behaviour b. Negatively reinforce horseplay c. Extinguish horseplay d. Punish horseplay e. Model horseplay 216. There are two strategies that can be used to reduce the probability of learned behaviour. They are a. organizational behaviour modification and reinforcement. b. extinction and punishment. c. negative reinforcement and punishment. d. negative reinforcement and extinction. e. modelling and positive reinforcement. 217. Stop reinforcement to ________ a behaviour. a. punish b. extinguish c. model d. strengthen e. learn
Chapter 2 218. The most difficult tactic for a manager to use effectively is a. positive reinforcement. b. negative reinforcement. c. punishment. d. modelling. e. extinction. 219. Which of the following represents the most effective punishment strategy? a. Continuous b. Delayed c. Partial d. Intermittent e. This question cannot be answered accurately as posed. 220. In technical terms, to extinguish some behaviour, just stop reinforcement. a. True b. False 221. Punishment is most effective when it is delivered according to a partial and delayed schedule. a. True b. False 222. In theory, both punishment and extinction should have a similar impact on the probability of behaviour occurring. a. True b. False 223. Punishment stops unwanted behaviours most effectively when it is mild and accompanied by presents or rewards. a. True b. False 224. Negative reinforcement is more effective than punishment in stopping unwanted behaviours. a. True b. False 225. Both punishment and extinction should __________ the probability of a behaviour occurring.
226. To extinguish some behaviour we __________ reinforcement.
227. Applying a negative stimulus to terminate unwanted behaviour is called __________ .
228. Explain the difference between negative reinforcement and punishment. Give an example of each.
229. What advice would you give to a manager about the effective use of punishment in the workplace?
Chapter 2 230. Social cognitive theory is most strongly associated with which of the following concepts? a. Punishment b. Delayed reinforcement c. Partial reinforcement d. Modelling e. Extinction 231. In learning terms, a model is a person who a. imitates the behaviour of others. b. administers a high degree of positive reinforcement. c. has their behaviour imitated. d. engages in self-management. e. seeks a mentor. 232. The concepts of observational learning and self-regulation both assume a. that cognitive learning cannot occur. b. that extinction is superior to punishment. c. that people can reinforce themselves. d. that learning can occur without reinforcement. e. that all workers prefer the same reinforcers. 233. The process of self-regulation can include a. observation of models. b. collection of self-observation data. c. goal setting. d. rehearsal. e. all of the above. 234. In the text, observational learning is described as a process of a. reinforcing others. b. punishing others. c. imitating others. d. showing others. e. managing others. 235. The idea of triadic reciprocal causation has its basis in a. operant learning theory. b. organizational behaviour modification. c. behaviour modelling training. d. social cognitive theory. e. employee recognition programs. 236. When there exists a discrepancy between one's goals and performance, this is known as a. discrepancy production. b. discrepancy induction. c. discrepancy seduction. d. discrepancy reduction. e. discrepancy function.
Chapter 2 237. When individuals attain their goals, they are likely to set even higher and more challenging goals, a process known as a. discrepancy production. b. discrepancy reduction. c. discrepancy seduction. d. discrepancy induction. e. discrepancy function. 238. A new manager wants employees to learn the principles of self-regulation. The manager has them set a goal so that there is a discrepancy between their goal and their performance. When employees attain their goals, they are likely to a. set the same goal. b. set lower goals. c. set even higher and more challenging goals. d. stop setting goals. e. ask the manager to set a new goal. 239. According to social cognitive theory, human behaviour can best be explained through a system of a. bidirectional reciprocal causation. b. triadic reciprocal causation. c. triadic bidirectional causation. d. cognitive reciprocal causation. e. triadic cognitive causation. 240. Which of the following is NOT a determinant of self-efficacy beliefs? a. Performance mastery b. Observation c. Social recognition d. Verbal persuasion e. Physiological state 241. A task-specific cognitive appraisal of one's ability to perform a specific task is known as a. core self-evaluations. b. self-efficacy. c. proactive personality. d. self-regulation. e. self-esteem. 242. After installing new technology, the Crying Baby Diaper Company found that many of its employees were not very confident about using the technology and so they continued to use the old technology. What is the source of this problem? a. Core self-evaluations b. Self-efficacy beliefs c. Proactive personality d. Self-regulation e. Self-esteem
Chapter 2 243. After installing new technology, the Crying Baby Diaper Company found that many of its employees had low self-efficacy beliefs about using the new technology. If they want to strengthen employees' self-efficacy beliefs for using the new technology, which of the following is LEAST likely to influence employees' selfefficacy beliefs? a. Performance mastery b. Observation c. Social recognition d. Verbal persuasion e. Physiological state 244. The imitation of a prominent model (such as a successful and respected CEO) is an example of social cognitive theory. a. True b. False 245. When individuals attain their goals, they are likely to set even higher and more challenging goals. a. True b. False 246. In social cognitive theory, a(n) __________ is a person whose behaviour is imitated.
247. In social cognitive theory, the process of imitating the behaviour of others is called __________ .
248. Collecting self-observation data, observing models, goal setting, and rehearsal are all aspects of __________ .
249.
__________ who are attractive, credible, competent, and of high status are the people who are most likely to be imitated.
250.
__________ reinforcement occurs in the modelling process.
251. According to social cognitive theory, human behaviour can best be explained through a system of __________ reciprocal causation.
252. Social cognitive theory emphasizes the role of __________ processes in regulating people's behaviour.
253. When individuals attain their goals, they are likely to set even higher and more challenging goals, a process known as __________ .
254. When there exists a discrepancy between one's goals and performance, individuals are motivated to modify their behaviour in the pursuit of goal attainment, a process known as __________ .
Chapter 2 255. Sasha wants to change his behaviour through self-regulation. The first thing he needs to do is collect __________ data.
256. Beliefs that people have about their ability to successfully perform a specific task are called __________ .
257. Self-efficacy is a task-specific __________ appraisal of one's ability to perform a specific task.
258. Describe social cognitive theory and the key components.
259. What is the meaning of triadic reciprocal causation of social cognitive theory and what are the main components of social cognitive theory?
260. What is self-regulation and how can it be used by a manager to improve safety among employees in the workplace? Be sure to describe self-regulation techniques and how they should be used by employees to improve safety.
261. Define self-efficacy beliefs and describe its determinants and consequences.
262. The chapter described a company that posted a feedback chart in the workplace to indicate the percentage of safe behaviours observers noted every three days. Which of the following is NOT true about this practice? a. It was an example of positive reinforcement. b. It was an example of organizational behaviour modification. c. It was an example of self-regulation. d. The scheme was designed to improve safe working practices. e. The posting of safe behaviours every three days is essentially a delayed, continuous reinforcement strategy. 263. Which of the following best describes the effects of organizational behaviour modification on task performance? a. The effects are strongest in service organizations. b. The effects are strongest in military organizations. c. The effects are strongest in manufacturing organizations. d. The effects are the same in all organizations. e. It depends on the type of positive reinforcement used. 264. Which of the following most accurately indicates the forms of positive reinforcement that have been found to be effective for organizational behaviour modification? a. Money and feedback but not social recognition b. Money and social recognition but not feedback c. Social recognition and feedback but not money d. Only money e. Money, feedback, and social recognition
Chapter 2 265. Which of the following is a key part of an employee recognition program? a. The type of award b. The amount of financial reward c. Public acknowledgement d. The fairness of the program e. The type of recognition 266. Which of the following is NOT one of the steps of behaviour modelling training? a. Describe a set of well-defined behaviours to be learned. b. Provide a model displaying the effective use of the behaviours. c. Provide opportunities to practice using the behaviours. d. Determine the most appropriate reinforcement strategy. e. Provide feedback and reinforcement to trainees. 267. One of the most widely used and effective methods of training is a. organizational behaviour modification. b. self-regulation training. c. behaviour modelling training. d. self-efficacy training. e. social cognitive training. 268. Research on behaviour modelling training has concluded that it has a positive effect on a. learning and skills. b. learning only. c. learning and behaviour. d. learning, skills, and behaviour. e. skills and behaviour. 269. The effects of behaviour modelling training are greatest when a. trainees are instructed to set goals. b. rewards and sanctions are used in the work environment. c. trainees are instructed to set goals and rewards and sanctions are used in the work environment. d. trainees are instructed to set goals and rewards are used in the work environment. e. trainees are instructed to set goals and sanctions are used in the work environment. 270. Luke has just described a set of well-defined behaviours to be learned. What is he doing? a. Organizational behaviour modification b. Self-regulation c. Positive reinforcement d. Behaviour modelling training e. Self-monitoring 271. Luke has just described to trainees a set of well-defined behaviours to be learned. What does he need to do next? a. Provide feedback and social reinforcement to trainees. b. Provide opportunities for trainees to practise using those behaviours. c. Provide a model or models displaying the effective use of those behaviours. d. Take steps to maximize the transfer of those behaviours to the job. e. Take the steps that are required to achieve an individual's goals and career plans.
Chapter 2 272. Luke has just provided opportunities for trainees to practise using newly learned behaviours. What does he need to do next? a. Provide a model or models displaying the effective use of those behaviours. b. Take steps to maximize the transfer of those behaviours to the job. c. Describe to trainees a set of well-defined behaviours to be learned. d. Provide feedback and social reinforcement to trainees. e. Collect self-observation data. 273. Which of the following represents the findings of research on organizational behaviour modification? a. Social recognition has stronger effects on performance than money and performance feedback. b. Performance feedback has stronger effects on performance than money and social recognition. c. Social recognition and performance feedback have the same effects on performance as money. d. Money has stronger effects on performance than social recognition and performance feedback. e. Money and social recognition have stronger effects on performance than performance feedback. 274. According to research on organizational behaviour modification, which combination of factors has the strongest effect on task performance? a. Money, social recognition, and formal recognition b. Money, formal recognition, and performance feedback c. Money, social recognition, and performance feedback d. Formal recognition, social recognition, and performance feedback e. Money, peer recognition, and performance feedback 275. Companies that invest the most in recognition programs have more than a. double the profits of those that invest the least. b. double the revenues of those that invest the least. c. triple the profits of those that invest the least. d. triple the revenues of those that invest the least. e. double the number of employees who apply for jobs. 276. Formal programs in which employees can publicly acknowledge, recognize, and reward their co-workers for exceptional work and performance are called a. employee recognition programs. b. co-worker recognition programs. c. colleague recognition programs. d. peer recognition programs. e. group recognition programs. 277. Money, feedback, and social recognition together have the strongest effect on task performance. a. True b. False 278. The effects of organizational behaviour modification on task performance tend to be strongest in service organizations. a. True b. False 279. Money has been found to have stronger effects than social recognition and performance feedback in organizational behaviour modification. a. True b. False
Chapter 2 280. The effect of money on performance is greater when it is part of a pay-for-performance program than organizational behaviour modification. a. True b. False 281. The first step of behaviour modelling training is to provide a model or models displaying the effective use of behaviours to be learned. a. True b. False 282. Behaviour modelling training is based on organizational behaviour modification. a. True b. False 283. A financial reward for good performance will not qualify as an employee recognition program if it is not accompanied by ________ .
284. The chapter presented detailed examples of programs that used reinforcement to improve safety. These programs are examples of __________ .
285. Research on organizational behaviour modification has found that __________ has stronger effects on performance than other forms of positive reinforcement.
286. One of the most widely used and effective methods of training is __________ training.
287. Behaviour modelling training is based on the __________ component of social cognitive theory.
288. With the increasing use of technology, many organizations have begun to use __________ recognition platforms for peer recognition.
289. With the increasing use of technology, many organizations have begun to use social recognition platforms for __________ recognition.
290. Under the concept of self-regulation, an employee reinforces their own behaviour. a. True b. False 291. In learning terms, attractive, high-status people are often effective models. a. True b. False 292. Self-regulation involves both discrepancy reduction and discrepancy production. a. True b. False
Chapter 2 293. Formal programs in which employees can publicly acknowledge, recognize, and reward their co-workers for exceptional work and performance are called __________ recognition programs.
294. What should a formal employee recognition program specify in order to be effective? Give an example for improving work attendance.
295. What is organizational behaviour modification? Give an example of a reinforcement strategy which may be applied to improve worker safety.
296. Is it unethical for managers to use reinforcement strategies to control the behaviour of workers? Be sure to consider the use of organizational behaviour modification and to defend your answer.
297. What is behaviour modelling training and what are the steps involved?
Chapter 2
Test Name: 1.
a.a relatively stable set of psychological characteristics.
2.
a.Weak situations of loosely defined roles with few rules
3.
b.interactionist
4.
c.Situational approach
5.
a.Dispositional approach
6.
d.The interactionist approach
7.
b.traits lead to certain behaviours only when the situation makes the need for that trait salient.
8.
c.trait activation theory.
9.
b.False
10.
a.True
11.
b.False
12.
b.False
13.
b.False
14.
a.True
15.
personality
16.
interactionist
17.
trait
18.
Personality
19.
Personality is the relatively stable set of psychological characteristics that influences the way individuals interact with their environment. As a result, everyone must have a personality. The expression "no personality" is often directed towards individuals who are low on a personality dimension such extraversion or agreeableness.
20.
According to trait activation theory, traits lead to certain behaviours only when the situation makes the need for the trait salient. This tells us that personality will only be important in situations that call for a particular personality trait. In situations where the personality trait is not important it will not be a factor in terms of a person's behaviour. Thus, personality characteristics influence people's behaviour when the situation calls for a particular personality characteristic. This also means that there is no one best personality trait; it depends on the situation.
Chapter 2 21.
According to trait activation theory, traits lead to certain behaviours only when the situation makes the need for the trait salient. Thus, personality characteristics influence people's behaviour when the situation calls for a particular personality characteristic. This means that a manager must understand each employee in terms of their personality traits and assign them to tasks that call for their personality traits. For example, if a task requires an employee to interact with others and to be sociable and talkative, it would be best to assign an employee who is high on extraversion since this will be important for the employee's behaviour and success rather than, say, an employee who is high on openness to experience. The point is to match the employee to the task with an understanding that the employee has a personality trait that will lead to behaviours that are necessary to be effective in task performance. As described in the text, the key concept here is fit: putting the right person in the right job, group, or organization.
22.
b.five
23.
a.the extent to which a person is outgoing and enjoys social situations.
24.
b.the degree to which a person has appropriate emotional control.
25.
d.a lot of interpersonal interaction such as sales and management.
26.
c.the extent to which a person is friendly and approachable.
27.
b.the person is calm and has highly effective interactions with co-workers and customers.
28.
e.the degree to which a person is responsible and achievement oriented.
29.
d.the degree to which a person thinks flexibly and is receptive to new ideas.
30.
e.agreeableness.
31.
c.extraverts tend to be absent more often than introverts.
32.
d.conscientiousness
33.
b.openness to experience.
34.
d.internal.
35.
a.observe the situation when determining how to behave.
36.
d.respond well to mentoring.
37.
a.High extraversion
38.
b.people with low self-esteem are more susceptible to external and social influences.
39.
e.They experience more role stress and show less commitment to their organization.
40.
c.They tend to be more involved in their jobs and to experience more role stress.
41.
e.Each of the Big Five dimensions is related to job performance and organizational citizenship behaviours.
42.
d.Conscientiousness
43.
d.She has low self-esteem.
Chapter 2 44.
b.Self-esteem
45.
a.Conscientiousness
46.
e.High conscientiousness and high agreeableness
47.
e.High conscientiousness and high agreeableness
48.
d.Agreeableness
49.
b.Agreeableness
50.
b.Emotional stability
51.
e.Conscientiousness
52.
e.strain; job satisfaction
53.
b.False
54.
a.True
55.
b.False
56.
a.True
57.
b.False
58.
Intrapersonal
59.
Interpersonal
60.
Cultural
61.
Learning occurs when practice or experience leads to a relatively permanent change in behaviour potential. The words practice or experience rule out viewing behavioural changes caused by factors like drug intake or biological maturation as learning. The "what" aspect of learning can be described as learning content, of which there are four primary categories: practical skills, intrapersonal skills, interpersonal skills, and cultural awareness. Practical skills include job-specific skills, knowledge, and technical competence. Intrapersonal skills are skills such as problem solving, critical thinking, learning about alternative work processes, and risk taking. Interpersonal skills include interactive skills such as communicating, teamwork, and conflict resolution. Finally, cultural awareness involves learning the social norms of organizations and understanding company goals, business operations, and company expectations and priorities.
62.
c.negative reinforcer
63.
c.the rewards are not made contingent on a desired behaviour.
64.
e.There is insufficient information to accurately answer this question.
65.
c.Negative reinforcement
66.
b.increases; pleasant
67.
c.Positive reinforcers; application or addition to
Chapter 2 68.
d.Continuously and immediately
69.
d.Performance feedback
70.
b.delivered immediately after observing performance.
71.
c.social recognition.
72.
d.generation X and baby boomers.
73.
d.Begin with immediate and continuous reinforcement and gradually go to delayed and partial reinforcement.
74.
c.The supervisor was using a continuous, immediate reinforcement strategy, and behaviour learned under such conditions is easily extinguishable.
75.
e.This question cannot be answered accurately as posed.
76.
a.partial, delayed reinforcement.
77.
a.immediately and continuously.
78.
c.partial and delayed
79.
b.False
80.
b.False
81.
a.True
82.
b.False
83.
a.True
84.
b.False
85.
b.False
86.
a.True
87.
b.False
88.
a.True
89.
b.False
90.
b.False
91.
b.False
92.
b.False
93.
a.True
94.
b.False
Chapter 2 95.
b.False
96.
b.False
97.
b.False
98.
b.False
99.
a.True
100. b.False 101. a.True 102. b.False 103. a.True 104. b.False 105. a.True 106. b.False 107. b.False 108. a.True 109. a.True 110. b.False 111. a.True 112. b.False 113. b.False 114. a.True 115. Practical 116. a.True 117. b.False 118. a.True 119. b.False 120. Agreeableness 121. conscientious 122. Conscientiousness
Chapter 2 123. Conscientiousness 124. Openness to experience 125. locus of control 126. high self-monitor 127. Self-esteem 128. self-monitors 129. conscientiousness 130. agreeableness 131. extraversion 132. agreeableness 133. deviance 134. job demands 135. It is likely that all five play a role in the success of a sales representative. The three that are most likely to help an individual be successful are extraversion, agreeableness, and conscientiousness. Extraversion is important because most sales roles involve breaking some new ground and creating new customer relationships on a continual basis. Agreeableness is important because of the need to build relationships over time and to foster social connections. A high degree of conscientiousness helps ensure that the sales representative works effectively and diligently and is thorough when serving customers. 136. Extraversion, emotional stability, agreeableness, conscientiousness, and openness to experience. There are several examples of research in the chapter, which link these dimensions to workplace behaviours. One study suggests that extraversion is important for managers and salespeople, while another one found that extraversion was positively correlated with absenteeism. Each of the Big Five dimensions is related to job performance, employee engagement, and organizational citizenship behaviours. Conscientiousness is positively related to retention and attendance at work and is an antidote for counterproductive behaviours such as theft, absenteeism, and disciplinary problems. Extraversion is related to absenteeism. Conscientiousness and agreeableness are related to fewer unsafe work behaviours while extraversion and low emotional stability are associated with more unsafe behaviours. 137. High internal locus of control, high self-monitor, and high self-esteem would all be considered desirable personality characteristics for managerial success. Students may also cite some of the "Big Five" personality dimensions such as extraversion and conscientiousness. 138. Self-esteem is the degree to which a person has an overall positive self-evaluation; self-efficacy refers to the beliefs which people have about their ability to successfully perform a specific task. It is clearly possible for an individual to have high self-esteem and also have low self-efficacy with respect to a specific task. For example, someone who has a favourable self-image may also acknowledge that they are not very good at playing golf. 139. d.Positive affectivity 140. c.Proactive personality
Chapter 2 141. e.General self-efficacy 142. b.Emotional stability 143. e.Negative affectivity 144. e.Core self-evaluations 145. d.General self-efficacy 146. b.Core self-evaluations 147. b.Core self-evaluations 148. e.Positive affectivity 149. d.Positive affectivity 150. b.performance; well-being 151. a.True 152. b.False 153. a.True 154. b.False 155. b.False 156. a.True 157. b.False 158. a.True 159. b.False 160. a.True 161. a.True 162. b.False 163. negative affectivity 164. neuroticism 165. positive affect 166. positive affect 167. Core self-evaluations 168. Core self-evaluations
Chapter 2 169. positive affectivity 170. strengths 171. proactive 172. People who are high on positive affectivity (PA) experience positive emotions and moods like joy and excitement and view the world, including themselves and other people, in a positive light. They tend to be cheerful, enthusiastic, lively, sociable, and energetic. People who are high on negative affectivity (NA) experience negative emotions and moods like fear and anxiety and view the world in a negative light. They have an overall negative view of themselves and the world around them, and they tend to be distressed, depressed, and unhappy. Research has found that people who are high on PA have higher job satisfaction and job performance and engage in more organizational citizenship behaviours. They are also more creative at work and PA is the strongest predictor of employee engagement. Individuals who are high on NA report lower job satisfaction and engagement and have poorer job performance. High-NA employees experience more stressful work conditions and report higher levels of workplace stress and strain. NA is also associated with counterproductive work behaviours, withdrawal behaviours, and occupational injury. 173. Proactive behaviour involves taking initiative to improve one's current circumstances or creating new ones. It involves challenging the status quo rather than passively adapting to present conditions. Some people are very good at this because they have a stable disposition toward proactive behaviour, known as a "proactive personality." Individuals who have a proactive personality are relatively unconstrained by situational forces and act to change and influence their environment. Proactive personality is a stable personal disposition that reflects a tendency to take personal initiative across a range of activities and situations and to effect positive change in one's environment. 174. b.a relatively permanent change in behaviour potential due to experience. 175. e.Financial management 176. b.practical skills. 177. e.intrapersonal skills. 178. c.interpersonal skills. 179. d.cultural awareness. 180. b.False 181. b.False 182. b.False 183. b.False 184. b.False 185. a.True 186. b.False 187. b.False 188. b.False
Chapter 2 189. a.True 190. quickly 191. persistent 192. continuously/immediately 193. increases 194. negative reinforcement 195. operant 196. reinforce 197. Generation X 198. Confusing rewards with reinforcers, neglecting diversity in preferences for reinforcers, and neglecting important sources of reinforcement. 199. Performance feedback and social recognition. Performance feedback involves providing quantitative or qualitative information on past performance for the purpose of changing or maintaining performance in specific ways. Social recognition involves informal acknowledgement, attention, praise, approval, or genuine appreciation for work well done from one individual or group to another. 200. The most common errors using reinforcement are confusing rewards with reinforcers, neglecting diversity in preferences for reinforcers, and neglecting important sources of reinforcement. To avoid these errors, managers should make sure rewards are contingent on specific behaviours that are of interest to the organization; appreciate individual differences in preferences for reinforcers; and consider reinforcers administered by co-workers and those intrinsic to the jobs being performed. Two important sources of reinforcement that managers often ignore and should use are performance feedback and social recognition. 201. a.True 202. a.True 203. a.True 204. b.False 205. b.False 206. d.Unsafe working practices were extinguished. 207. d.Using the application of an unpleasant stimulus after an unwanted behaviour, extinction can reduce the probability of that behaviour occurring again. 208. a.extinguished. 209. a.Punishment 210. b.extinction. 211. d.While punishment signals which behaviours are inappropriate, it fails to illustrate correct behaviour.
Chapter 2 212. a.punishment. 213. b.punishment has a tendency to provoke a strong emotional reaction on the part of the punished individual. 214. a.Punishment should start off with a very mild warning, gradually proceeding to stronger punishment if the offence continues. 215. c.Extinguish horseplay 216. b.extinction and punishment. 217. b.extinguish 218. c.punishment. 219. a.Continuous 220. a.True 221. b.False 222. a.True 223. b.False 224. b.False 225. reduce 226. stop 227. punishment 228. In negative reinforcement, an unpleasant stimulus is removed following some desired behaviour, increasing the probability of that behaviour. In punishment, an unpleasant stimulus is applied after some undesired behaviour, decreasing the probability of that behaviour. Examples include cleaning up a desk to avoid a supervisor's nagging, and docking a worker one hour's pay for being late. 229. Punishment can be an effective means for stopping undesirable behaviour, but it must be applied very carefully. When using punishment, managers should provide correct alternative responses, limit the emotions involved, ensure that the punishment is truly aversive, punish immediately when possible, avoid the rewarding of unwanted behaviours, and try not to inadvertently punish undesirable behaviours. 230. d.Modelling 231. c.has their behaviour imitated. 232. c.that people can reinforce themselves. 233. e.all of the above. 234. c.imitating others. 235. d.social cognitive theory.
Chapter 2 236. d.discrepancy reduction. 237. a.discrepancy production. 238. c.set even higher and more challenging goals. 239. b.triadic reciprocal causation. 240. c.Social recognition 241. b.self-efficacy. 242. b.Self-efficacy beliefs 243. c.Social recognition 244. a.True 245. a.True 246. model 247. observational learning 248. self-regulation 249. Models 250. Self 251. triadic 252. cognitive 253. discrepancy production 254. discrepancy reduction 255. self-observation 256. self-efficacy beliefs 257. cognitive 258. A theory that emphasizes the role of cognitive processes in regulating people's behaviour. According to social cognitive theory, human behaviour can best be explained through a system of triadic reciprocal causation in which personal factors and environmental factors work together and interact to influence people's behaviour. In addition, people's behaviour also influences personal factors and the environment. Social cognitive theory involves three key components: observational learning, self-efficacy beliefs, and self-regulation. 259. According to SCT, human behaviour can best be explained through a system of triadic reciprocal causation in which personal factors and environmental factors work together and interact to influence people's behaviour. In addition, people's behaviour can also influence personal factors and the environment. SCT involves three key components: observational learning, self-efficacy beliefs, and self-regulation.
Chapter 2 260. Self-regulation refers to the use of learning principles to regulate one's own behaviour. A manager can teach employees how to use self-regulation to manage their own behaviour and to learn and engage in safe working practices and behaviours. Self-regulation techniques include collecting self-observation data; observing models; setting goals; rehearsing; and reinforcing oneself. These techniques can be taught to employees with respect to specific safe working practices and behaviours—employees observe their own behaviour, observe others engaging in safe working behaviours, set goals for their own safe working behaviour, practise the safe working behaviours, and reward themselves for performing the safe working behaviours. 261. Self-efficacy beliefs refer to beliefs people have about their ability to successfully perform a specific task. It is one of the components of social cognitive theory. There are four determinants of self-efficacy: performance mastery, observation, verbal persuasion and social influence, and physiological state. Self-efficacy beliefs influence the activities people choose to perform, the amount of effort and persistence they devote to a task, affective and stress reactions, and job performance. 262. c.It was an example of self-regulation. 263. c.The effects are strongest in manufacturing organizations. 264. e.Money, feedback, and social recognition 265. c.Public acknowledgement 266. d.Determine the most appropriate reinforcement strategy. 267. c.behaviour modelling training. 268. d.learning, skills, and behaviour. 269. c.trainees are instructed to set goals and rewards and sanctions are used in the work environment. 270. d.Behaviour modelling training 271. c.Provide a model or models displaying the effective use of those behaviours. 272. d.Provide feedback and social reinforcement to trainees. 273. d.Money has stronger effects on performance than social recognition and performance feedback. 274. c.Money, social recognition, and performance feedback 275. c.triple the profits of those that invest the least. 276. d.peer recognition programs. 277. a.True 278. b.False 279. a.True 280. b.False 281. b.False 282. b.False
Chapter 2 283. public praise and recognition 284. organizational behaviour modification 285. money 286. behaviour modelling 287. observational learning 288. social 289. peer 290. a.True 291. a.True 292. a.True 293. peer 294. a) how a person will be recognized, b) the type of behaviour being encouraged, c) the manner of public acknowledgement, and d) a token or icon of the event for the recipient. The example for work attendance can be found in the text. Employees with perfect attendance for an entire month had their names posted with a gold star for that month. At the end of each quarter, employees with no more than two absences received a personal card notifying and congratulating them. At the end of the year there was a plant-wide meeting to recognize good attendance and small, engraved mementos were awarded to employees who had perfect attendance during the entire year. 295. The systematic use of learning principles to influence organizational behaviour. The slide show, feedback chart, and supervisor praise of safe performance program discussed in the text is one strategy that has been successfully used to improve safe working practices. 296. This is an opinion question which forces students to consider the positive and negative aspects of organization behaviour modification. Most would agree that managers control the behaviour of workers anyway, so it may be beneficial for them to learn about the effective use of reinforcement strategies. For example, a manager who learns to use positive reinforcement techniques instead of punishment may also be helping their workers achieve higher levels of job satisfaction. 297. BMT is a training method based on the observational learning component of social cognitive theory in which trainees observe a model performing a task followed by opportunities to practise the observed behaviours. It involves the following steps: describe to trainees a set of well-defined behaviours to be learned; provide a model or models displaying the effective use of those behaviours; provide opportunities for trainees to prepare using those behaviours; provide feedback and social reinforcement to trainees following practice; and take steps to maximize the transfer of those behaviours to the job.
Chapter 3 1.
Which of the following statements most accurately defines "perception"? a. Perception is reality. b. Perception is the tendency to attribute one's own thoughts and feelings to others. c. Perception is the tendency to generalize about people and ignore variations between individuals. d. Perception is the process by which motives are assigned to explain people's behaviour. e. Perception is the process of interpreting messages of our senses to provide meaning.
2.
The three main components of perception are a. selectivity, constancy, and primacy. b. primacy, recency, and projection. c. perceiver, situation, and target. d. perceiver, situation, and projection. e. perceiver, target, and attribution.
3.
Perceptual defence is a. the tendency for the perceptual system to defend the perceiver against unpleasant emotions. b. the tendency to attribute one's own thoughts and feelings to others. c. the tendency to generalize about people and ignore variations between individuals. d. the process by which motives are assigned to explain people's behaviour. e. the process of interpreting messages of our senses to provide meaning.
4.
What aspects of a perceiver can affect their perceptions of a target? a. Experience, cognitions, and needs b. Experience, cognitions, and emotions c. Experience, needs, and values d. Experience, needs, and beliefs e. Experience, needs, and emotions
5.
Nicole believes that her presentation was very good even though she overheard some of her friends say that it was the worst in the class. What is this an example of? a. Projection b. Perceptual defence c. Self-serving bias d. Actor-observer effect e. Fundamental attribution error
6.
__________ is defined as the failure to perceive unpleasant emotions.
7.
The perceiver's experience, needs, and __________ can affect their perceptions of a target.
8.
The most important effect that the __________ can have is to add information about the target.
Chapter 3 9.
Yujie met a salesperson for the first time. Her first impression was that the salesperson was pushy, as were most people in sales that she had encountered in the past. According to Bruner's model of the perceptual process, Yujie is most likely to a. seek out cues that contradict her first impression. b. change her perception as soon as new cues become evident. c. select cues that confirm her first impression. d. recategorize the target. e. form a stereotype about the salesperson.
10.
According to Bruner's model of perception, we are most open to cues about a target a. when the target is first encountered. b. when the target has been categorized. c. when the target is very familiar to us. d. when we already have a lot of information about the target. e. once the categorization has been strengthened.
11.
According to social identity theory, our sense of self is composed of a a. personal identity and relational identity. b. personal identity and social identity. c. social identity and relational identity. d. self-identity and social identity. e. social identity and normative identity.
12.
Prototypes refer to a. members of a social category who best represent the attributes of that category. b. our unique personal characteristics, such as our interests, abilities, and traits. c. our perception that we belong to various social groups, such as our gender, nationality, and so on. d. the most typical attributes embodied by members that belong to a social category. e. social categories that we use to categorize people such as gender, religion, and so on.
13.
Which of the following best represents the notion that social identities are relational and comparative? a. Medical students are perceived as doctors by patients in the hospital but as children by their parents. b. Medical students are perceived as doctors by patients in the hospital but as students by their professors in the classroom. c. Medical students are perceived as doctors by patients in the hospital but as students by themselves. d. Medical students are perceived as students by patients in the hospital and as students by their professors in the classroom. e. Medical students are perceived as students by patients in the hospital before they graduate, but as doctors by the same patients after they have graduated.
14.
Which of the following statements is indicative of an implicit personality theory on the part of the speaker? a. "Roger is aggressive." b. "Accountants are intelligent." c. "Introverts are honest." d. "Women make bad managers." e. "Teenagers drive more recklessly than seniors."
Chapter 3 15.
My perceptions of people are strongly influenced by how kind they are to others. Which concept explains my reaction? a. Central tendency b. Central trait c. Similar-to-me effect d. Primacy effect e. Projection
16.
"You're just like me. I despise you." Which perceptual tendency might the speaker be revealing? a. Actor-observer effect b. Self-serving bias c. Projection d. Similar-to-me effect e. Central trait
17.
The chairperson opened the meeting by saying "I'm sure you all agree with me that . . ." What perceptual phenomenon might the speaker be exhibiting? a. Implicit personality theory b. Projection c. Fundamental attribution error d. Similar-to-me effect e. Stereotyping
18.
Knowing that a person falls into some social category, we might assume that they possess certain traits, and that everyone in this category possesses these traits. This is an example of a. reliance on central traits. b. a situational attribution. c. projection. d. a stereotype. e. consensus cues.
19.
For many months, Sam performed her job excellently. However, just before her performance evaluation, Sam's boss saw her insult a client. In the performance evaluation, the boss gave Sam a very low rating. What happened? a. Recency effect b. Harshness c. Contrast effect d. Self-serving bias e. Primacy effect
20.
If primacy is operating within a selection interview, the job candidate would be well advised to a. get an early appointment to see the interviewer. b. see the interviewer early in the morning. c. be sure their good qualities come out early in the interview. d. engage the interviewer in small talk before getting down to business. e. ask for a different interviewer.
21.
If recency is operating within a selection interview, the job candidate would be well advised to a. see the interviewer late in the day. b. hold off revealing some good qualities until the end of the interview. c. try to be the last applicant interviewed. d. list their most recent jobs first on their resumé. e. ask for a different interviewer.
Chapter 3 22.
Rosa thinks that her new hardworking friend is also very honest, so she agrees to lend her new friend some money. What is this an example of? a. Projection b. Implicit personality theories c. Fundamental attribution error d. Reliance on central traits e. Stereotyping
23.
Our __________ is based on our unique personal characteristics, such as our interests, abilities, and traits.
24.
Our __________ is based on our perception that we belong to various social groups, such as our gender, nationality, religion, occupation, and so on.
25.
I am a Canadian male who wants to become a doctor. Knowing this contributes to my __________ .
26.
I love sports and I am very good at hockey and baseball. I also really love food and my friends say that I am a great cook. These things all contribute to my __________ .
27.
When I see somebody who is Canadian, I begin to perceive them as being friendly, modest, and nice because these are the __________ that I associate with the category of Canadian.
28.
We tend to see members of a category as embodying the most typical attributes of that category, or what are called __________ .
29.
Social identities are relational and __________ .
30.
What is social identity theory and how does it help us understand stereotypes and discrimination?
31.
Describe Bruner's model of the perceptual process and explain the three important characteristics of the perceptual process that it demonstrates.
32.
Exaggerating the weight of cues obtained early in an interaction with someone is the hallmark of the __________ .
33.
Attributing our own thoughts, feelings, or attitudes to someone else is characteristic of __________ .
34.
Having a mental model where certain traits tend to "fit together" is indicative of a(n) _______ .
Chapter 3 35.
Perceptually exaggerating the weight of some newly obtained information about an old friend is an example of the __________ .
36.
You have a friend who is very tall and always seems to be getting paid more than you and everyone else who is shorter than your friend. One reason for this might be _______ .
37.
Which is a potential example of the fundamental attribution error? a. Jean explained his failure to land the big account by saying that the competing firm had a better product. b. Nancy explained her department's success by describing her boss as brilliant. c. Toma realized that most of his crew failed to get to work because of the big snowstorm. d. Rodney defended his boss's embezzlement by pointing out that he was under severe marital stress at the time of the incident. e. Savannah acknowledged that her company's sales growth was largely due to the booming economy.
38.
"Kevin acts the same as everyone else." The speaker here is invoking a ________ cue. a. recency b. distinctiveness c. consensus d. consistency e. stereotype
39.
We may rely on dispositional explanations when making judgments about the behaviour of other people because a. we are making excuses for our own behaviour. b. we have a tendency to give others the benefit of the doubt when they offend us. c. we don't appreciate how their behaviour can vary in other situations. d. we realize that circumstances beyond their control can cause them to act the way they do. e. we have a tendency to project our own thoughts and feelings on others.
40.
When we explain a behaviour by referring to some internal personality characteristic, we are NOT offering a. an inference about the cause of the behaviour. b. an attribution. c. a dispositional explanation. d. a situational explanation. e. a rational explanation.
41.
Avinash resigns from a job that most of his friends consider to be a very good job. Which of the following is a dispositional attribution of the reason for Avinash's resignation? a. Avinash found a super job somewhere else. b. Avinash is irresponsible and doesn't know a good thing when he sees it. c. Avinash was forced to move to another city where medical care for his ill daughter is available. d. The job that he resigned from was actually very bad. e. The job that he resigned from was scheduled to be eliminated in an upcoming restructuring.
42.
The actor-observer effect suggests that a. actors and observers tend to view the actor's behaviour in an identical way. b. actors tend to make dispositional attributions about their own behaviour. c. actors and observers tend to view the actor's behaviour in a different way. d. observers tend to make situational attributions about the actor's behaviour. e. actors tend to take credit for successful outcomes and blame failures on observers.
Chapter 3 43.
On a construction site, Ray drops a wrench and it almost hits Cecil on the head. If Cecil develops a situational (as opposed to dispositional) explanation of Ray's behaviour he might assume that a. he was the target of a murder attempt. b. the wrench was oily and it slipped. c. Ray is stupid. d. Ray is a careless person. e. Ray has poor aim.
44.
A reporter covering a price fixing trial felt that the alleged price fixer was a crook. The alleged price fixer testified that his boss pressured him to engage in illegal activities. The alleged price fixer felt that the reporter's stories about the trial were the product of a vindictive and nasty mind. The price fixer explained his own behaviour ________ and that of the reporter ________. a. situationally; situationally b. dispositionally; dispositionally c. situationally; dispositionally d. dispositionally; situationally e. desperately; consistently
45.
The self-serving bias a. may involve providing excuses for one's own behaviour. b. suggests that we will provide dispositional reasons for our failures. c. suggests that we will provide situational reasons for our successes. d. may lead one to provide phony compliments when things go well for others. e. may lead one to attribute their own thoughts and feelings to others.
46.
Samantha engages in a low consensus behaviour. What other combination of cues will ensure that an observer makes a dispositional attribution about the behaviour? a. The behaviour is also low in distinctiveness and low in consistency. b. The behaviour is also low in distinctiveness and high in consistency. c. The behaviour is also high in distinctiveness and low in consistency. d. The behaviour is also high in distinctiveness and high in consistency. e. The behaviour is also low in distinctiveness and high in contrast.
47.
"Kamillah acts differently from everyone else, but Byron acts the same as everyone else." The speaker here is invoking a ________ cue to describe Kamillah's behaviour and a ________ cue to describe Byron's behaviour. a. distinctiveness; consensus b. distinctiveness; consistency c. consensus; consistency d. consensus; consensus e. consistency; consistency
48.
Heloise was happy that the systems manager was fired. She incorrectly assumed that everyone else in the company was also happy. What perceptual tendency is at work here? a. Fundamental attribution error b. Similar-to-me effect c. Projection d. Occupational stereotyping e. Consensus cues
Chapter 3 49.
When we invoke ________, we tend not to perceive differences between people. a. projection b. the halo effect c. a stereotype d. the recency effect e. consistency cues
50.
"He does it everywhere, he does it all the time, and no one else does it." Which cue combination is the speaker invoking? a. High consensus, high consistency, high distinctiveness b. Low consensus, high consistency, low distinctiveness c. Low consensus, low consistency, high distinctiveness d. High consensus, low consistency, low distinctiveness e. Low consensus, low consistency, low distinctiveness
51.
"He does it everywhere, he does it all the time, and no one else does it." Which attribution is the speaker likely to make? a. Dispositional b. Situational c. Self-serving d. Temporary situation e. Actor-observer effect
52.
Gloria is absent a lot, her co-workers are seldom absent, and she was absent a lot in her previous job. What kind of attribution is her manager likely to make? a. Disposition b. Situation c. Temporary situation d. Temporary disposition e. It depends on other factors.
53.
Orli is absent a lot, her co-workers are also absent a lot, but she was almost never absent in her previous job. What kind of attribution is her manager likely to make? a. Disposition b. Situation c. Temporary situation d. Temporary disposition e. It depends on other factors.
54.
Taylor is seldom absent, her co-workers are seldom absent, and she was seldom absent in her previous job. What kind of attribution is her manager likely to make? a. Disposition b. Situation c. Temporary situation d. Temporary disposition e. It depends on other factors.
Chapter 3 55.
The fact that people will explain the very same behaviour differently on the basis of events that happened after the behaviour occurred is suggested by a. the fundamental attribution error. b. the actor-observer effect. c. the self-serving bias. d. perceptual defence. e. contrast effects.
56.
After writing an exam, Yani told everybody that he studied really hard and spent a great deal of time preparing for the exam. However, when the exam grades were posted the following week, Yani did not talk about how he studied but instead told everybody that the exam was not fair and was poorly graded. What is this an example of? a. The fundamental attribution error b. The actor-observer effect c. The self-serving bias d. Perceptual defence e. Contrast effects
57.
The tendency for actors to attribute their behaviour to situational factors can be overcome by a. the fundamental attribution error. b. the actor-observer effect. c. the self-serving bias. d. perceptual defence. e. contrast effects.
58.
After writing an exam, Yani told everybody that he did not study very hard and spent the weekend partying and playing video games. However, when the exam grades were posted the following week, Yani told everybody that he never studied so hard for an exam in his life and he described himself as brilliant. What is this an example of? a. The fundamental attribution error b. The actor-observer effect c. The self-serving bias d. Perceptual defence e. Contrast effects
59.
Other things equal, high consensus behaviour on the part of an employee will lead a manager to make a dispositional attribution about the behaviour. a. True b. False
60.
Rita inaccurately attributed Tomas's failure to show up at work to car problems. This is a potential example of the fundamental attribution error. a. True b. False
61.
Wes inaccurately attributed Nina's failure to show up at work to her poor work ethic. This is a potential example of the fundamental attribution error. a. True b. False
Chapter 3 62.
"Laurie acts just like her co-worker." In attribution theory terms, this statement invokes a "low distinctiveness" cue. a. True b. False
63.
If I make a situational attribution about your behaviour, I am more likely to reward you or punish you than if I make a dispositional attribution. a. True b. False
64.
The actor-observer effect refers to the remarkable similarity in the attributions that the actor and an observer make about the actor's behaviour. a. True b. False
65.
If I make a dispositional attribution about your behaviour, I am more likely to reward you or punish you than if I make a situational attribution. a. True b. False
66.
The fundamental attribution error occurs when we blame others for our failures and take credit for our successes. a. True b. False
67.
The actor-observer effect suggests that actors and observers will view an actor's behaviour differently. a. True b. False
68.
The self-serving bias can overcome the tendency for actors to attribute their behaviour to situational factors. a. True b. False
69.
According to the actor-observer effect, people will explain the very same behaviour differently on the basis of events that happened after the behaviour occurred. a. True b. False
70.
The tendency for observers to exaggerate the role of dispositional factors in explaining behaviour is called the ________ .
71.
"Roberto acts differently from everyone else at work." In attribution theory terms, the speaker has invoked a(n) ______________________________________ cue.
72.
"Heathcliffe only acts pretentious at work. Everywhere else he's down to earth." In attribution theory terms, the speaker has invoked a(n) __________ cue.
73.
__________ is the process of assigning causes to behaviour.
Chapter 3 74.
The tendency to take credit for successes and deny responsibility for failures is called the __________ .
75.
A(n) __________ attribution is most likely to be made when consistency is high and consensus and distinctiveness are low.
76.
A(n) __________ attribution is most likely to occur when distinctiveness, consistency, and consensus are all high.
77.
Jack has just failed his midterm and he is blaming the professor for making the exam too long and for being a hard marker. This is a good example of the __________ .
78.
__________ bias can overcome the tendency for actors to attribute their behaviour to situational factors.
79.
Describe three biases that occur in the attribution process.
80.
The perception that a person might be judged on the basis of stereotype and that their behaviour or performance will confirm the stereotype is known as a a. preconception phenomenon. b. coloured lens bias. c. peer group sifting. d. stereotype threat. e. monotype bias.
81.
Common workplace stereotypes include stereotypes based on a. age. b. gender. c. ethnicity. d. race. e. all of the above.
82.
Workforce diversity can be defined in terms of which characteristics? a. Age b. Gender c. Religion d. Ethnicity e. All of the above
83.
Gender stereotypes are least likely to have a negative impact on women a. when their performance is being evaluated by their boss. b. when they are applying for a job. c. when they are seeking a promotion. d. when a rater or evaluator has little information about their qualifications. e. when they ask to attend a professional development conference.
Chapter 3 84.
Encouraging teamwork between minority and majority members should a. reduce workplace stereotypes by requiring different individuals to work with people different than themselves. b. increase workplace stereotypes by requiring different individuals to work with people different than themselves. c. maintain workplace stereotypes by requiring different individuals to work with people different than themselves. d. have no effect on workplace stereotypes. e. result in increased employee turnover.
85.
Perceptual defence is the tendency for the perceptual system to defend the perceiver against unpleasant targets. a. True b. False
86.
Perceptual defence is the tendency for the perceptual system to defend the perceiver against unpleasant emotions. a. True b. False
87.
The perceiver's experience, needs, and emotions can affect their perceptions of a target. a. True b. False
88.
The perceiver's experience, needs, and emotions can affect their perceptions of the situation. a. True b. False
89.
The most important effect that the situation can have is to add information about the target. a. True b. False
90.
The most important effect that the target can have is to add information about the situation. a. True b. False
91.
Define "perception." What are its three main components?
92.
What is perceptual defence? Give an example.
93.
According to Bruner's model of the perceptual process, when an unfamiliar target is encountered, we are likely to be ________ to target cues. Once the target has been categorized, however, we become ________ selective in our cue search. a. open; more b. closed; more c. open; less d. closed; less e. selective; consistent
Chapter 3 94.
Our sense of self is composed of a self-identity and a social identity. a. True b. False
95.
Personal identity is based on our unique characteristics, such as our interests, abilities, and traits. a. True b. False
96.
Social identity is based on our perception that we are similar to many other individuals. a. True b. False
97.
Which of the following statements may indicate projection by the speaker? a. "I didn't land the contract because the competition was just too good." b. "I would never assign a woman to that sales territory." c. "Telling a white lie to clinch a sale is perfectly ethical." d. "Most of my sales staff think like I think." e. "I don't steal from the company but I'm sure that others do."
98.
Your interest in music and your musical talents can contribute to your personal identity. a. True b. False
99.
Your gender, religion, and occupation are important in the formation of your personal identity. a. True b. False
100. A prototype is a member of a social category who is easy to identify and categorize. a. True b. False 101. According to __________ , people form perceptions of themselves based on their characteristics and memberships in social categories.
102. I say you are angry when, truly, I am angry. This is an example of projection. a. True b. False 103. The person who fails to perceive differences among the members of a class or category of people has fallen prey to a(n) __________ .
104. Describe four common biases which may influence the impressions that we form of others.
105. Describe what stereotyping is and the three specific aspects to stereotyping.
Chapter 3 106. Driving home from an auto repair shop, you find that the repair you just paid for wasn't done properly. Which of the following would increase your tendency to blame the mechanic's error on dispositional factors? a. You have never had a car repair done right the first time by any mechanic. b. When you picked up the car, the shop manager said that the mechanic had gone home early after being injured on the job. c. This mechanic has done poor repairs on your car twice before. d. Several friends told you that this mechanic was excellent. e. You had authorized the mechanic to use reconditioned parts instead of new ones. 107. "Geraldo acts differently from everyone else." The speaker in the statement is invoking a ________ cue. a. consistency b. recency c. distinctiveness d. consensus e. situational 108. A recency effect means that the most recently acquired information we have about a target person has the least effect on our impression of the target. a. True b. False 109. A stereotype suggests that we fail to perceive important distinctions within a class or category of people. a. True b. False 110. The more information you have about Bob, the more likely a stereotype will influence your perceptions of him. a. True b. False 111. Which is a potential example of the fundamental attribution error? a. Shawna thought that her secretary was the kindest person she had ever met. b. Rich figured that the team was late because of congested air traffic over Atlanta. c. Gurpreet explained that late report by noting that she wasn't familiar with the new software. d. Cleo mistook the female vice-president for a secretary. e. José attributed the car accident to slippery pavement. 112. In attributional terms, highly consistent behaviours are those that most people engage in. a. True b. False 113. People tend to overemphasize the role that disposition plays in causing the behaviour of others. a. True b. False 114. Jamal attributes Lou's behaviour to immorality. This is a situational attribution. a. True b. False 115. Explain the difference between situational and dispositional attributions.
Chapter 3 116. Name and briefly define the three main cues which lead to attributions. What combination of these cues will likely lead an observer to make a dispositional attribution? To make a situational attribution?
117.
Professor Schaan has just returned an exam to her organizational behaviour class. Unfortunately, the class average was much lower than usual, and nearly half the students failed. The students complained that the test was much too difficult and was full of tricky and misleading questions. However, Professor Schaan insists that the test was fair and believes that the students simply did not study hard enough. Use your knowledge of attribution errors and perceptual biases to analyze this scenario.
118. Women suffer from a stereotype that is detrimental to their a. hiring. b. development. c. promotion. d. salary. e. all of the above. 119. What organization has been recognized for its efforts in attracting and hiring older workers? a. Shell Canada Ltd. b. Federal Express Canada Ltd. c. Walmart Canada d. Boeing Canada e. American Express 120. Which of the following has been found to be associated with business-unit performance? a. Diversity president b. Diversity strategy c. Diversity team d. Diversity climate e. Diversity policy 121. If there is a single concept that serves as a barrier to valuing diversity, it is a. discrimination. b. the stereotype. c. stereotype threat. d. the halo effect. e. similar-to-me effect. 122. Retail stores have higher customer satisfaction and productivity when their employees represent the ethnicity of their a. community. b. country. c. customers. d. city. e. all of the above 123. ________ are rated more favourably than ________ for male-dominated jobs, especially by ________ raters. a. Men; women; female b. Women; men; male c. Women; men; female d. Men; women; male e. Managers; employees; male
Chapter 3 124. Which of the following is most accurate? a. Women with MBAs earn the same as men in their first year of work. b. Women with MBAs earn less than men in their first year of work. c. Women with MBAs earn more than men in their first year of work. d. Women with MBAs earn the same as women without MBAs in their first year of work. e. Women with MBAs earn the same as men with MBAs in their first year of work. 125. Which of the following is least accurate? a. Women with MBAs start in more junior positions than men. b. Women with MBAs earn less than men in their first year of work. c. Women with MBAs are offered fewer international assignments than men. d. Women with MBAs are less likely to receive technical job assignments than men. e. Women with MBAs are less likely to receive job rotation assignments than men. 126. The detrimental effects of gender stereotypes are reduced or removed when a. decision makers have experience and training. b. decision makers are held accountable for their decision. c. decision makers have job-related information about the qualifications of women. d. decision makers have an accurate picture of the job. e. all of the above 127. The detrimental effects of gender stereotypes are NOT likely to be reduced or removed when a. decision makers have experience and training. b. decision makers are held accountable for their decision. c. decision makers have job-related information about the qualifications of women. d. the decision maker is a woman. e. decision makers have an accurate picture of the job. 128. A review of male and female performance reviews found that women are more likely to a. receive positive comments about their personality. b. receive positive comments about their appearance. c. receive negative comments about their personality. d. receive negative comments about their appearance. e. receive negative comments about their personality and positive comments about their appearance. 129. A review of male and female performance reviews found that a. men receive positive comments about their personality. b. men receive negative comments about their personality. c. women receive positive comments about their personality. d. women receive negative comments about their personality. e. women receive positive comments about their appearance. 130. A review of research on gender differences in job performance ratings found that a. females scored slightly lower than males. b. males scored much higher than females. c. females scored slightly higher than males. d. males and females scored the same. e. males scored slightly higher than females.
Chapter 3 131. Which of the following is true of age discrimination? a. Older workers experience the highest rates of age discrimination. b. Younger workers experience the highest rates of age discrimination. c. Middle-aged workers experience the highest rates of age discrimination. d. Older and middle-aged workers experience the highest rates of age discrimination. e. Younger and middle-aged workers experience the highest rates of age discrimination. 132. In 2014, what CEO became the first CEO of a fortune 500 company to publicly announce that he was gay? a. Bill Gates b. Tim Cook c. Steve Jobs d. Tom Jones e. Mark Zuckerberg 133. In 2014, what company CEO became the first CEO of a fortune 500 company to publicly announce that he was gay? a. Microsoft b. Google c. Apple d. Yahoo e. Facebook 134. Which of the following is most accurate? a. LGBTQ+ women report a less friendly workplace and more hurdles than LGBTQ+ men. b. LGBTQ+ women report a more friendly workplace and more hurdles than LGBTQ+ men. c. LGBTQ+ women report a less friendly workplace and less hurdles than LGBTQ+ men. d. LGBTQ+ men report a less friendly workplace and more hurdles than LGBTQ+ women. e. LGBTQ+ women report just as less friendly a workplace and similar hurdles as LGBTQ+ men. 135. Which of the following is most accurate about age discrimination? a. Older workers experience the highest rates of age discrimination, followed by younger workers and then middle-aged workers. b. Older workers experience the highest rates of age discrimination, followed by middle-aged workers and then younger workers. c. Younger workers experience the highest rates of age discrimination, followed by middle-aged workers and then older workers. d. Younger workers experience the highest rates of age discrimination, followed by older workers and then middle-aged workers. e. Middle-aged workers experience the highest rates of age discrimination, followed by older workers and then younger workers. 136. Sales performance is positively influenced by a match between racial diversity in a store and racial diversity in a. customers. b. management. c. the community. d. the country. e. the organization.
Chapter 3 137. The practice of minority applicants changing their name to sound anglicized or by removing experience with an ethnic group or organization on their resumé is known as a. resumé faking. b. resumé fixing. c. resumé anglicizing. d. resumé cleaning. e. resumé "whitening." 138. "Whitened" resumés in which racial information was removed were a. not any more likely to get a callback than resumés that were not "whitened." b. less likely to get a callback than resumés that were not "whitened." c. two to two-and-a-half times more likely to get a callback than resumés that were not "whitened." d. three to three-and-a-half times more likely to get a callback than resumés that were not "whitened." e. four to four-and-a-half times more likely to get a callback than resumés that were not "whitened." 139. Among the top 500 companies in the world, what percent of the CEOs are women? a. 1 b. 3 c. 5 d. 7 e. 13 140. Discriminatory behaviour experienced by both younger and older workers is associated with a. greater intentions to quit and greater turnover. b. higher absenteeism and greater intentions to quit. c. lower job performance and greater intentions to quit. d. lower job attitudes and lower job performance. e. lower job attitudes and greater intentions to quit. 141. What is a diversity climate? a. The degree to which an organization advocates human resource policies that ensure that all individuals have a fair chance of being hired and promoted b. The degree to which an organization advocates fair human resource policies, promotes equal employment opportunities and inclusion, and socially integrates immigrants c. The degree to which an organization advocates fair human resource policies, promotes and develops underrepresented groups, and socially integrates underrepresented employees d. The degree to which an organization advocates fair human resource policies, promotes equal employment opportunities and inclusion, and socially integrates underrepresented employees e. The degree to which an organization advocates fair working conditions, promotes equal employment opportunities and inclusion, and socially integrates underrepresented employees 142. Workplace stereotypes are not harmful in any way. a. True b. False 143. Gender stereotypes have fewer negative effects when an observer has accurate knowledge about the woman in question. a. True b. False
Chapter 3 144. Male managers today hold the same dysfunctional stereotypes about women and management that they held in the early 1970s. a. True b. False 145. Recent research indicates that both men and women of varying age, education, and work experience still describe a good manager as possessing predominantly masculine characteristics. a. True b. False 146. Discrimination on the basis of age is experienced mostly by older workers. a. True b. False 147. Among the top 500 companies in the world, only five percent of the CEOs are women. a. True b. False 148. People who threaten to stereotype others are issuing a stereotype threat. a. True b. False 149. Gender stereotypes tend to favour women when they are being considered for "women's" jobs. a. True b. False 150. People tend to perceive leaders as similar to men and women. a. True b. False 151. Age is not related to task performance, but it is related to creativity. a. True b. False 152. When women are successful in traditional male jobs, they are more liked. a. True b. False 153. Women in Canada hold 46 percent of CEO positions. a. True b. False 154. If there is a single concept that serves as a barrier to valuing diversity, it is the stereotype. a. True b. False 155. A diversity climate has been found to be associated with business-unit performance. a. True b. False
Chapter 3 156. People perceive leaders as possessing both, and in equal measure, masculine and feminine characteristics. a. True b. False 157. Retail stores can improve customer satisfaction and productivity if their employees represent the ethnicity of their customers. a. True b. False 158. Women with MBAs earn the same as men in their first year of work. a. True b. False 159. The detrimental effects of gender stereotypes can be reduced or removed when decision makers are held accountable for their decisions. a. True b. False 160. It is not possible to remove the detrimental effects of gender stereotypes. a. True b. False 161. Women are more likely to receive negative comments about their personality in performance reviews. a. True b. False 162. Women are more likely to receive negative comments about their appearance in performance reviews. a. True b. False 163. Females score slightly higher than males in job performance ratings. a. True b. False 164. Older workers perform as well or better than younger workers across numerous dimensions of job performance. a. True b. False 165. LGBTQ+ women report a friendlier workplace and fewer hurdles than LGBTQ+ men. a. True b. False 166. Older workers are discriminated against the most, followed by younger workers, and then middle-aged workers. a. True b. False 167. Younger workers are judged more negatively and experience age discrimination more frequently than older workers. a. True b. False
Chapter 3 168. A match between racial diversity in a store and racial diversity in management is positively related to sales performance. a. True b. False 169. Overt but not subtle discrimination has a negative effect on employees' physical and psychological health and work-related outcomes. a. True b. False 170. A survey of Canadian employers found that many are willing to consider immigrants for supervisory, managerial, and senior leadership positions. a. True b. False 171. Resumés with English-sounding names are 35 percent more likely to receive a callback for a job. a. True b. False 172. Changing one's name on a resumé to sound anglicized or removing experience with an ethnic group or organization is known as resumé faking. a. True b. False 173. Canada is one of the most diverse countries in the world. a. True b. False 174. Organizations with more gender-or-racially diverse executives are 33 percent more likely to have aboveaverage profits. a. True b. False 175. Organizations with more gender-or-racially diverse executives are 55 percent more likely to have aboveaverage profits. a. True b. False 176.
__________ is characterized by individual differences such as race, age, physical ability, and sexual orientation.
177. The perception that a person might be judged on the basis of stereotype and that their behaviour or performance may be hindered by it is known as a(n) __________ .
178. Men and women of varying age, education, and work experience describe a good manager as possessing predominantly __________ characteristics.
179. Among the top 500 companies in the world, only three percent of the __________ are women.
Chapter 3 180. Diversity training should be accompanied by __________ that is relevant to the particular needs of the organization.
181. Age is not related to task performance or __________ .
182. A diversity __________ has been found to be associated with business-unit performance.
183. If there is a single concept that serves as a barrier to valuing diversity, it is the __________ .
184.
__________ is not related to task performance or creativity.
185. Retail stores have higher customer satisfaction and productivity when their employees represent the __________ of their customers.
186. Even women with __________ earn less than men in their first year of work.
187.
__________ workers experience the highest rates of age discrimination.
188. Women are more likely to receive negative comments about their __________ in performance reviews.
189.
__________ CEO Tim Cook became the first CEO of a Fortune 500 company to publicly announce that he was gay.
190. LGBTQ+ women report a less __________ workplace and more hurdles than LGBTQ+ men.
191. A match between racial diversity in a store and racial diversity in the __________ is positively related to sales performance.
192. Both subtle and overt __________ have a negative effect on employees' physical and psychological health and work-related outcomes.
193.
__________ is a term used to refer to minority applicants changing their name on their resumé to sound anglicized or removing experience with an ethnic group or organization.
Chapter 3 194.
__________ workers tend to be viewed as less loyal, inexperienced, unmotivated, immature, and selfish compared to __________ workers.
195.
__________ refers to the degree to which an organization advocates fair human resource policies, promotes equal employment opportunities and inclusion, and socially integrates underrepresented employees.
196. What are some of the competitive advantages available to organizations which value and manage a diverse workforce?
197. Describe the nature of gender and age stereotypes and the impact they have on human resource decisions.
198. What is a stereotype threat? Give an example and discuss its implications for individuals and organizations.
199. The ACME Insurance Company has tried to achieve a diverse workforce, but they have had difficulty changing a workforce that has historically not been all that diverse. If you were hired as the new manager of human resources, what actions would you take to achieve and manage a diverse workforce?
200. Some have argued that organizations should value diversity, not just tolerate it or try to blend everyone into a narrow mainstream. What is the basis for this argument?
201. After a review of its hiring and promotion decisions, the You Don't Pay Unless We Win law firm determined that women in the firm suffer from a stereotype that is detrimental to their hiring, development, promotion, and salaries. What is the nature of this stereotype and what can the firm do to reduce or remove the detrimental effects of it?
202. What is the nature of LGBTQ+ stereotypes and what effect do they have on LGBTQ+ employees? What can organizations do to make their workplaces more inclusive for LGBTQ+ employees and how will this affect LGBTQ+ employees?
203. What is workforce diversity and what are the reasons for the current interest in it? What are organizations doing in response to the greater interest today in workforce diversity?
204. Trust perceptions towards management are based on perceptions of a. ability, benevolence, and support. b. ability, honesty, and support. c. ability, fairness, and support. d. benevolence, integrity, and support. e. ability, benevolence, and integrity.
Chapter 3 205. Which one of the following is NOT associated with building trust according to the trust model? a. Credibility b. Respect c. Fairness d. Pride e. Support 206. Which of the following factors contribute to perceived organizational support? a. Supervisor support, job security, recognition, job conditions, job enrichment, and human resource practices b. Fairness, rewards, pay, job security, job enrichment, and human resource practices c. Fairness, rewards, pay, job conditions, job enrichment, and human resource practices d. Supervisor support, fairness, rewards, job conditions, job enrichment, and human resource practices e. Supervisor support, fairness, rewards, opportunities for advancement, job enrichment, and human resource practices 207. What is considered to be a critical factor when judging the best workplaces in Canada? a. Organizational support b. Supervisor support c. Diversity d. Trust e. Fairness 208. ACME Insurance Company wants to improve employee perceptions of organizational support. They hired a new director of human resources to implement supportive human resource practices. What practices are likely to be most effective for developing more positive perceptions of organizational support? a. Participation in decision making and opportunities for advancement b. Participation in decision making and opportunities for training c. A fair reward and recognition system and better compensation d. Participation in decision making and opportunities for growth and development e. A fair reward and recognition system, and opportunities for advancement 209. Trust in one's direct leader has a positive influence on trust of a. all leaders. b. top leaders. c. co-workers. d. future leaders. e. all of the above. 210. Trust in one's direct leader has a positive influence on trust of top leaders and this is due to a. fairness of the direct leader. b. support of the direct leader. c. fairness of top leaders. d. support of top leaders. e. respect of the direct leader. 211. When POS is strong, employees feel obligated to reciprocate the organization's care and support or what is generally known as the a. norm of support. b. norm of obligation. c. norm of trust. d. norm of reciprocity. e. norm of fairness.
Chapter 3 212. What does the norm of reciprocity refer to? a. A felt obligation to provide support to others in return for perceived support from the organization b. A felt obligation to help the organization achieve its goals and objectives in return for its perceived support c. A felt obligation to support the organization in return for fair pay and good working conditions d. A felt obligation to achieve one's goals and objectives in return for support from the organization e. A felt obligation to help co-workers achieve their goals and objectives in return for support from the organization 213. What is the meaning of organizational climate? a. Shared perceptions that employees have about what it is like to work in their organization and what they can expect to receive from the organization in return for meeting the organization's objectives b. Shared perceptions that groups have about group goals, objectives, and strategies and what group members are expected to do to help the group achieve its goals and objectives c. Shared perceptions that employees have about the organization's goals, objectives, and strategies and what employees are expected to do to help the organization achieve its goals and objectives d. Shared perceptions that employees have about the organization's policies, practices, and procedures and the behaviours that are expected, supported, and rewarded e. Shared perceptions that groups have about the organization's policies, practices, and procedures and the behaviours that are expected, supported, and rewarded 214. What kind of organizational climate is associated with customer satisfaction? a. Safety climate b. Diversity climate c. Service climate d. Ethical climate e. Innovative climate 215. Which of the following is NOT a factor that influences organizational climates? a. Interaction b. Interdependence c. Communication d. Human resource management practices e. Independence 216. If an organization wants to improve perceptions of organizational support, it should make sure that employee compensation is above the industry average. a. True b. False 217. If an organization wants to improve perceptions of organizational support, it should make sure that employees have opportunities for growth and development. a. True b. False 218. More than one-half of employees do not trust their immediate supervisor when it comes to making decisions with their best interest in mind. a. True b. False
Chapter 3 219. Trust has been defined as a willingness to be vulnerable and to take risks with respect to the actions of the organization. a. True b. False 220. Employees who have greater POS have higher trust toward the organization and management. a. True b. False 221. A fair reward and recognition program is an example of a supportive human resource practice that leads to the development of POS. a. True b. False 222. Organizations usually have just one particular or singular organizational climate. a. True b. False 223. Trust perceptions towards management are based on perceptions of ability, benevolence, and __________ .
224.
________ refers to employees' general belief that their organization values their contribution and cares about their well-being.
225.
__________ is a psychological state in which one has a willingness to be vulnerable and to take risks with respect to the actions of another party.
226. Trust in one's direct leader has a positive influence on trust of __________ leaders.
227. Higher perceptions of management ability, benevolence, and integrity are associated with greater perceptions of __________ .
228. When POS is strong, employees feel obligated to reciprocate the organization's care and support, or what is generally known as the norm of __________ .
229. Employees who have greater POS have higher __________ toward the organization and management.
230.
__________ refers to the shared perceptions that employees have about the organization's policies, practices, and procedures and the behaviours that are expected, supported, and rewarded.
231. Organizations with a strong __________ climate have higher customer satisfaction, service quality, and superior financial performance.
Chapter 3 232. Organizations with a strong __________ climate have fewer accidents and injuries.
233. Define perceived organizational support and describe organizational support theory.
234. What factors contribute to perceived organizational support and what can organizations do to develop strong perceptions of organizational support?
235. Define the meaning of trust and describe what managers can do to improve employees' trust perceptions towards management.
236. What is an organizational climate and what effect does it have on employees?
237. What is a safety climate and why is it important for employees and organizations?
238. "I don't really like you very much, and this causes me to overlook a number of your good qualities." This is an example of a. implicit personality theory. b. harshness. c. stereotyping. d. the halo effect. e. central tendency. 239. The contrast effect means that the perceiver a. exaggerates differences among target people. b. favours target people who are different from themself. c. compares target people with her own qualities. d. rejects target people who are different from themself. e. will generalize about people in a given social category and ignore variations among them. 240. The professor who gives all C's to his class is exhibiting a. the halo effect. b. central tendency. c. self-serving bias. d. central trait bias. e. harshness. 241. Research shows that the employment interview a. is free of perceptual biases. b. is a totally invalid selection technique. c. is most effective when the interviewer does not ask personal questions. d. gives more importance to positive information. e. is most valid when the interviewer conducts it in an unstructured format.
Chapter 3 242. When we invoke ________, we tend not to perceive different qualities within people. a. the primacy effect b. projection c. the recency effect d. the halo effect e. consensus cues 243. Employment interviewers tend to a. have an easy perceptual task. b. give less importance to positive information about the applicant. c. give less importance to negative information about the applicant. d. predict applicant success better with an unstructured interview than with a guided interview. e. avoid making comparisons between the current candidate and those previously interviewed. 244. Subjective performance measures are called "subjective" because a. all performance measures are subjective. b. they are a product of the perceptions of an observer. c. it is impossible to measure performance objectively. d. bosses and employees frequently disagree on the ratings. e. they focus attention directly on the interview subject. 245. The Devious Employment Agency uses a trick to get companies to hire its candidates. If it only has a marginal candidate, it sends over two real duds before sending over this marginal person. Which perceptual reaction is the Devious manager relying on to get the marginal candidate hired? a. Contrast effect b. Halo effect c. Leniency d. Central trait e. Actor-observer effect 246. Ellen is an employment interviewer. One day she interviews three job applicants and rates the third applicant very negatively. If the contrast effect is responsible for this negative rating, we can be sure that the first two applicants were a. perceived as totally unqualified for the job. b. seen by Ellen to be very different from herself. c. seen by Ellen to be very similar to herself. d. perceived as well qualified for the job. e. given unstructured interviews. 247. Kai is completing performance evaluations of his employees. Unwittingly, he allows his perceptions of their attendance to colour his ratings of many specific characteristics, including their quality and quantity of work. Thus, those with poor attendance invariably get poor ratings. What's happened? a. Knowledge-of-predictor bias b. Harshness c. Halo effect d. Contrast effects e. Similar-to-me effect
Chapter 3 248. Joan was poorly treated in an employment interview and perceived the organization as lacking respect for its employees. What is this an example of? a. Contrast effects b. Halo effect c. Signalling theory d. Social identity theory e. Fundamental attribution error 249. Among various selection procedures, which ones are perceived most favourably? a. Employment interviews and personality tests b. Personality tests and honesty tests c. Employment interviews and work samples d. Personality tests and work samples e. Work samples and honesty tests 250. Interviews are more likely to be structured when a. the interviewer has a great deal of experience interviewing. b. the interviewer has worked for the same company for many years. c. the interviewer focuses on selection rather than recruitment. d. the interviewer focuses on recruitment rather than selection. e. the interviewer focuses on recruitment and selection. 251. A training method to improve rating accuracy in performance appraisals is known as a. behaviourally anchored training. b. rater accuracy training. c. frame-of-reference training. d. rater error training. e. performance evaluation training. 252. A rating scale that gives very specific examples of good, average, and poor performance is known as a a. behaviourally specific rating scale. b. behaviourally diverse rating scale. c. behaviourally based rating scale. d. behaviourally anchored rating scale. e. behaviourally oriented rating scale. 253. What does a morning bias refer to? a. Employees who work on morning shifts receive higher job performance ratings. b. Employees who work on night shifts receive lower job performance ratings. c. Employees with late start times receive lower job performance ratings. d. Employees receive higher job performance ratings when the ratings are made in the morning. e. Employees perform better in the morning than later in the day. 254. A recent study found that employees with late start times receive lower job performance ratings than employees with early start times. What is this called? a. Shift bias b. Performance bias c. Halo effect d. Similar-to-me effect e. Morning bias
Chapter 3 255. The morning bias occurs because employees with late start times are perceived as a. more conscientious. b. less conscientious. c. more agreeable. d. less agreeable. e. more extraverted. 256. The contrast effect is the tendency for interviewers to select candidates who are very different from themselves. a. True b. False 257. Employment interviews that focus on selection are more valid than those that focus on recruitment. a. True b. False 258. One implication of the halo effect is that we fail to appreciate that a target person could have both strengths and weaknesses. a. True b. False 259. According to the text, a performance rater who is unfair and vindictive with regard to employees is engaging in harshness. a. True b. False 260. When doing performance evaluations, Rick's boss engaged in central tendency. This means that Rick probably received an average performance rating. a. True b. False 261. Company attendance records are an example of a subjective performance measure. a. True b. False 262. Employment interviewers tend to give less importance to positive information about job applicants. a. True b. False 263. Central tendency is our propensity to organize perceptions of others around certain key traits. a. True b. False 264. The similar-to-me effect means that we often attribute our own feelings, attitudes, and ideas to others. a. True b. False 265. According to the text, a performance rater who overlooks gross errors on the part of employees is engaging in leniency. a. True b. False
Chapter 3 266. Halo effect can cause a person to receive a bad performance evaluation. a. True b. False 267. If an interviewer wants to improve the validity of the employment interview, they should focus on selection rather than recruitment. a. True b. False 268. If an interviewer wants to improve the validity of the employment interview, they should focus on recruitment and selection. a. True b. False 269. Among various selection procedures, employment interviews and cognitive ability tests are perceived most favourably. a. True b. False 270. According to signalling theory, job applicants interpret performance appraisals as signals of how they will be treated in the organization. a. True b. False 271. If you are treated poorly during the recruitment process, you will probably not let it affect your perceptions towards the organization. a. True b. False 272. If you are asked to take a selection test that you perceive to be unfair, you will probably form a negative perception of the organization. a. True b. False 273. If an organization wants job applicants to form positive perceptions of selection fairness, they should have them take an honesty test. a. True b. False 274. Frame-of-reference training is an example of an activity to manage workforce diversity. a. True b. False 275. The morning bias refers to employees who receive higher performance ratings in the morning than in the afternoon. a. True b. False 276. Employees with late start times receive lower job performance ratings from their supervisors than employees with early start times. a. True b. False
Chapter 3 277. Although there were considerable performance differences among his employees, Chester rated them all about average. Chester committed the __________ rater error.
278. After interviewing three superstars, the perfectly adequate candidate looked weak to Margo. The __________ biased her impression of the adequate candidate.
279. A performance rater who can't perceive differences within ratees is most likely a victim of the __________ .
280. Because the employee was not creative, Jana tended to rate her unfairly low on all performance categories. Jana has fallen prey to the __________ .
281. The tendency for a rater to give more favourable evaluations to those who they find are similar to them in background or attitudes is called the __________ .
282. Daniel rates all his employees as superstars. Either they are very good, or Daniel has exhibited __________ .
283. Interviewers have a tendency to give less importance to __________ information about the applicant.
284. The employment interview tends to be more structured when the interviewer focuses on __________ .
285. If your task is to conduct a structured interview, then you should not focus on __________ .
286. Perceptions of trust have their basis in the norm of reciprocity. a. True b. False 287. Perceived supervisor support contributes strongly to POS. a. True b. False 288. Organizations can have multiple organizational climates. a. True b. False 289. Your friend Jael has just had an interview and was so impressed with the way she was treated that she is convinced that the organization must be a great place to work. This is a good example of __________ .
290.
__________ training is a method of training to improve rating accuracy for evaluating performance.
Chapter 3 291. The morning bias is due to the negative stereotype of employees with late start times being perceived as less __________ .
292. What is the halo effect? Give examples which illustrate how the halo effect might lead to either a favourable or unfavourable rating.
293. What factors threaten the validity of the employment interview? What can be done to improve the validity of the employment interview?
294. As a new director of human resources, your first major task is to ensure that all employment interviews are structured. You are to meet with all of the human resources staff to instruct them on how to conduct structured employment interviews. What will you tell them?
295. The competition for talent has become intense and you need to make sure that every job applicant who applies for a job will stay interested in the job and will want to work for your organization. What can you do to make sure that job applicants have positive perceptions of the recruitment and selection process and of the organization?
296. What are rater errors and what can organizations do to reduce them and improve the accuracy of performance appraisals?
297. Identify and briefly describe five types of "rater errors" which managers sometimes make in performance appraisals.
Chapter 3
Test Name: 1.
e.Perception is the process of interpreting messages of our senses to provide meaning.
2.
c.perceiver, situation, and target.
3.
a.the tendency for the perceptual system to defend the perceiver against unpleasant emotions.
4.
e.Experience, needs, and emotions
5.
b.Perceptual defence
6.
Perceptual defence
7.
emotions
8.
situation
9.
c.select cues that confirm her first impression.
10.
a.when the target is first encountered.
11.
b.personal identity and social identity.
12.
d.the most typical attributes embodied by members that belong to a social category.
13.
b.Medical students are perceived as doctors by patients in the hospital but as students by their professors in the classroom.
14.
c."Introverts are honest."
15.
b.Central trait
16.
c.Projection
17.
b.Projection
18.
d.a stereotype.
19.
a.Recency effect
20.
c.be sure their good qualities come out early in the interview.
21.
b.hold off revealing some good qualities until the end of the interview.
22.
b.Implicit personality theories
23.
personal identity
24.
social identity
25.
social identity
26.
personal identity
Chapter 3 27.
prototypes
28.
prototypes
29.
comparative
30.
According to social identity theory, people form perceptions of themselves and others based on their characteristics and memberships in social categories. Therefore, our sense of self is composed of a personal identity and a social identity. We categorize ourselves and others to make sense of and understand the social environment. Once a category has been chosen, we see members of that category embodying the most typical attributes of that category. How we categorize the individuals and the associated attributes can lead to the creation of stereotypes. Further, because we tend to perceive members of own social categories in more positive and favourable ways than those who belong to other categories, this can lead to discrimination towards those who belong to other social categories.
31.
According to Bruner, when the perceiver encounters an unfamiliar target, the perceiver is very open to the informational cues contained in the target and the situation surrounding it. In this unfamiliar state, the perceiver needs information on which to base perceptions of the target and will actively seek out cues to resolve this ambiguity. Gradually, the perceiver encounters some familiar cues that enable them to make a crude categorization of the target. At this point, the cue search becomes less open and more selective. The perceiver begins to search out cues that confirm the categorization of the target. As this categorization becomes stronger, the perceiver actively ignores or even distorts cues that violate initial perceptions. This does not mean that an early categorization cannot be changed. It does mean, however, that it will take a good many contradictory cues before one re-categorizes the target, and that these cues will have to overcome the expectations that have been developed. Bruner's model demonstrates three important characteristics of the perceptual process. First, perception is selective. Perceivers do not use all the available cues, and those they do use are thus given special emphasis. This means that our perception is efficient, and this efficiency can both aid and hinder our perceptual accuracy. Second, Bruner's model illustrates that our perceptual system works to paint a constant picture of the target. Perceptual constancy refers to the tendency for the target to be perceived in the same way over time or across situations. Third, the perceptual system also creates a consistent picture of the target. Perceptual consistency refers to the tendency to select, ignore, and distort cues in such a manner that they fit together to form a homogeneous picture of the target. We strive for consistency in our perception of people.
32.
primacy effect
33.
projection
34.
implicit personality theory
35.
recency effect
36.
reliance on central traits
37.
b.Nancy explained her department's success by describing her boss as brilliant.
38.
c.consensus
39.
c.we don't appreciate how their behaviour can vary in other situations.
40.
d.a situational explanation.
41.
b.Avinash is irresponsible and doesn't know a good thing when he sees it.
42.
c.actors and observers tend to view the actor's behaviour in a different way.
Chapter 3 43.
b.the wrench was oily and it slipped.
44.
c.situationally; dispositionally
45.
a.may involve providing excuses for one's own behaviour.
46.
b.The behaviour is also low in distinctiveness and high in consistency.
47.
d.consensus; consensus
48.
c.Projection
49.
c.a stereotype
50.
b.Low consensus, high consistency, low distinctiveness
51.
a.Dispositional
52.
a.Disposition
53.
b.Situation
54.
c.Temporary situation
55.
c.the self-serving bias.
56.
c.The self-serving bias
57.
c.the self-serving bias.
58.
c.The self-serving bias
59.
b.False
60.
b.False
61.
a.True
62.
b.False
63.
b.False
64.
b.False
65.
a.True
66.
b.False
67.
a.True
68.
a.True
69.
b.False
70.
fundamental attribution error
Chapter 3 71.
consensus, low consensus
72.
distinctiveness
73.
Attribution
74.
self-serving bias
75.
dispositional
76.
situational
77.
self-serving bias
78.
Self-serving
79.
Three biases are the fundamental attribution error which is the tendency to overemphasize dispositional explanations for behaviour at the expense of situational explanations; the actor-observer effect which is the propensity for actors and observers to view the causes of the actor's behaviour differently; and the self-serving bias which is the tendency to take credit for successful outcomes and to deny responsibility for failures.
80.
d.stereotype threat.
81.
e.all of the above.
82.
e.All of the above
83.
a.when their performance is being evaluated by their boss.
84.
a.reduce workplace stereotypes by requiring different individuals to work with people different than themselves.
85.
b.False
86.
a.True
87.
a.True
88.
b.False
89.
a.True
90.
b.False
91.
Perception is the process of interpreting the messages of our senses to provide order and meaning to the environment. Its three main components are the perceiver, a target that is being perceived, and a situational context in which the perception is occurring.
92.
Perceptual defence is the tendency for the perceptual system to defend the perceiver against unpleasant emotions. It occurs whenever we "see what we want to see" or "hear what we want to hear." A good example is when an individual fails to see and hear negative things about themselves that are threatening.
93.
a.open; more
94.
b.False
Chapter 3 95.
a.True
96.
b.False
97.
d."Most of my sales staff think like I think."
98.
a.True
99.
b.False
100. b.False 101. social identity theory 102. a.True 103. stereotype 104. There are actually six biases in person perception presented in the text: primacy effect, recency effect, central traits, implicit personality theories, projection, and stereotyping. 105. Stereotyping is the tendency to generalize about people in a social category and ignore variations among them. Categories on which people might base a stereotype include race, age, gender, ethnic background, religion, social class, and occupation. There are three specific aspects to stereotyping: We distinguish some category of people; we assume that the individuals in this category have certain traits; and we perceive that everyone in this category possesses these traits. 106. c.This mechanic has done poor repairs on your car twice before. 107. d.consensus 108. b.False 109. a.True 110. b.False 111. a.Shawna thought that her secretary was the kindest person she had ever met. 112. b.False 113. a.True 114. b.False 115. Situational attributions are explanations for behaviour based on an actor's external situation or environment. Dispositional attributions are explanations for behaviour based on an actor's personality or intellect. 116. The cues are consistency, consensus, and distinctiveness. A dispositional attribution is likely to occur when consistency is high, consensus is low, and distinctiveness is low. A situational attribution is likely to occur when consistency, consensus, and distinctiveness are all high.
Chapter 3 117. Professor Schaan may be making a fundamental attribution error by underestimating the situational explanations (e.g., tricky questions) and overestimating the dispositional explanations (e.g., laziness or poor study habits). The students' complaints indicate a self-serving bias by attributing their poor performance to situational factors (e.g., tricky questions) rather than accepting personal responsibility. 118. e.all of the above. 119. c.Walmart Canada 120. d.Diversity climate 121. b.the stereotype. 122. c.customers. 123. d.Men; women; male 124. b.Women with MBAs earn less than men in their first year of work. 125. d.Women with MBAs are less likely to receive technical job assignments than men. 126. e.all of the above 127. d.the decision maker is a woman. 128. c.receive negative comments about their personality. 129. d.women receive negative comments about their personality. 130. c.females scored slightly higher than males. 131. b.Younger workers experience the highest rates of age discrimination. 132. b.Tim Cook 133. c.Apple 134. a.LGBTQ+ women report a less friendly workplace and more hurdles than LGBTQ+ men. 135. d.Younger workers experience the highest rates of age discrimination, followed by older workers and then middle-aged workers. 136. c.the community. 137. e.resumé "whitening." 138. c.two to two-and-a-half times more likely to get a callback than resumés that were not "whitened." 139. b.3 140. e.lower job attitudes and greater intentions to quit. 141. d.The degree to which an organization advocates fair human resource policies, promotes equal employment opportunities and inclusion, and socially integrates underrepresented employees
Chapter 3 142. b.False 143. a.True 144. a.True 145. a.True 146. b.False 147. b.False 148. b.False 149. a.True 150. b.False 151. b.False 152. b.False 153. b.False 154. a.True 155. a.True 156. b.False 157. a.True 158. b.False 159. a.True 160. b.False 161. a.True 162. b.False 163. a.True 164. a.True 165. b.False 166. b.False 167. a.True 168. b.False 169. b.False
Chapter 3 170. b.False 171. a.True 172. b.False 173. a.True 174. a.True 175. b.False 176. Workforce diversity 177. stereotype threat 178. masculine 179. CEOs 180. skills training 181. creativity 182. climate 183. stereotype 184. Age 185. ethnicity 186. MBAs 187. Younger 188. personality 189. Apple 190. friendly 191. community 192. discrimination 193. Resumé"whitening" 194. Younger/older 195. Diversity climate 196. Six advantages or "arguments" are presented in Exhibit 3.5 in the text: lower integration costs, improved recruitment and marketing capabilities, higher levels of creativity, enhanced problem-solving abilities, and greater system flexibility to react to environmental changes.
Chapter 3 197. The nature of gender stereotypes is such that successful managers are perceived as having traits and qualities that are generally ascribed to men and do not correspond to stereotypes of women. As for age stereotypes, older workers are perceived as having less capacity for performance. They are viewed as less productive, creative, logical, and less capable of performing under pressure compared to younger workers. They are also viewed as having less potential for development. Younger workers tend to be viewed as less loyal, inexperienced, unmotivated, immature, and selfish compared to older workers. They are also perceived less favourably than older workers in terms of initiative, stability, and work experience. Gender and age stereotypes have a detrimental effect on the hiring, promotion, and skills development of women and older and younger workers. 198. A stereotype threat occurs when members of a social group such as visible minorities or women feel they might be judged or treated according to a stereotype and that their behaviour and/or performance will confirm the stereotype. The activation of a stereotype threat in a testing situation has been found to result in lower cognitive ability and math test scores of minorities and women. This means that individuals might not do well on selection tests and as a result will not be hired. Organizations might be losing good employees who perform poorly on selection tests because of a stereotype threat. 199. Select enough minority members to get them beyond token status; develop an employment equity plan to ensure that members of designated groups are represented throughout the organization; provide a flexible work environment that can accommodate the needs of all employees and fosters work-life balance and an inclusive workplace; encourage teamwork that brings minority and majority members together; ensure those making career decisions about employees have accurate information about them; and train people to be aware of stereotypes and to value diversity. Additional answers can be found in Exhibit 3.7. 200. A critical motive is the basic fairness of valuing diversity. In addition, there is increasing awareness that diversity and its proper management can yield strategic and competitive advantages such as improved problem solving and creativity when diverse perspectives are brought to bear on an organizational problem as well as improved recruiting and marketing. More organizations are adopting diversity as part of their corporate strategy to improve their competitiveness in global markets. Furthermore, a diversity climate has been found to be positively related to employee job satisfaction, organizational commitment, employee engagement, and performance outcomes and negatively related to withdrawal outcomes (e.g., turnover), and associated with business-unit performance. Organizations with gender-diverse teams have superior financial performance. 201. Gender stereotypes suggest that successful managers are seen as more similar to men in qualities such as leadership ability, competitiveness, self-confidence, ambitiousness, and objectivity. Stereotypes of successful middle managers do not correspond to stereotypes of women. People perceive leaders as similar to men but not very similar to women. The detrimental effects of gender stereotypes can be reduced or removed when decision makers have increased experience and training, are held accountable for their decisions, and have good job-related information about the qualifications, competence, and performance of particular women, and an accurate picture of the job that they are applying for or seeking promotion into.
Chapter 3 202. The results of several surveys found that misperceptions and stereotypes lead to discriminatory behaviours towards LGBTQ employees, such as homophobia, inappropriate humour, exclusion from networks inside and outside of the organization, social exclusion, ridicule, and a lack of role models. LGBTQ employees who do not feel safe to come out at work are less productive, more likely to suffer from depression and stress, and more likely to quit. They have greater feelings of being stalled in their careers, and dissatisfaction with their rate of promotion and advancement. They are less likely to trust their employers, and more likely to leave within three years compared to those who have come out at work. Employees in general (56 percent) and 86 percent of LGBTQ employees are more likely to consider working for organizations that are LGBTQ friendly. Organizations can make their workplaces more inclusive for LGBTQ employees by creating LGBTQ resource groups and employee groups for LGBTQ employees. LGBTQ -inclusive workplaces can increase employee engagement because they allow employees to be authentic and spend less time self-editing, which can also increase loyalty and reduce turnover. When organizations implement programs to create LGBTQ -inclusive workplaces, they improve LGBTQ employee relationships with co-workers, increase perceptions of fairness, and increase organizational commitment and career satisfaction, which can lead to increased productivity. See Exhibit 3.6 for more examples of how to make a workplace LGBTQ -inclusive. 203. Workforce diversity refers to differences among employees or potential recruits in characteristics such as gender, race, age, religion, cultural background, physical ability, or sexual orientation. The interest in diversity stems from at least three broad facts. First, the workforce is becoming more diverse. Second, there is growing recognition that many organizations have not successfully managed workforce diversity. Third, the murder of George Floyd in the United States resulted in global conversations about policing and racism and the renewed influence of the Black Lives Matter movement which has carried over into the workplace. In addition, the #MeToo movement which exposed the extent of sexual harassment in the workplace led to calls for organizations to improve gender equality in the workplace and to achieve greater representation of women in senior leadership positions. In response, many organizations such as Apple Inc. and Google have implemented new measures to promote racial justice, and many Canadian organizations are now implementing initiatives to improve racial diversity and inclusion. 204. e.ability, benevolence, and integrity. 205. e.Support 206. d.Supervisor support, fairness, rewards, job conditions, job enrichment, and human resource practices 207. d.Trust 208. d.Participation in decision making and opportunities for growth and development 209. b.top leaders. 210. a.fairness of the direct leader. 211. d.norm of reciprocity. 212. b.A felt obligation to help the organization achieve its goals and objectives in return for its perceived support 213. d.Shared perceptions that employees have about the organization's policies, practices, and procedures and the behaviours that are expected, supported, and rewarded 214. c.Service climate 215. e.Independence 216. b.False
Chapter 3 217. a.True 218. b.False 219. b.False 220. a.True 221. a.True 222. b.False 223. integrity 224. Perceived organizational support 225. Trust 226. top 227. trust 228. reciprocity 229. trust 230. Organizational climate 231. service 232. safety 233. Perceived organizational support refers to employees' general belief that their organization values their contribution and cares about their well-being. According to organizational support theory, employees who have strong perceptions of organizational support feel an obligation to care about the organization's welfare and to help the organization achieve its objectives. 234. The factors that contribute to POS are supervisor support, fairness, organizational rewards, job conditions, job enrichment, and human resource practices. Supportive human resource practices such as participation in decision making, opportunities for growth and development, and a fair reward and recognition system contribute to the development of POS. 235. Trust refers to a psychological state in which one has a willingness to be vulnerable and to take risks with respect to the actions of another party. If managers want to improve employees' trust perceptions, they need to improve employees' perceptions with respect to 1) management's competence and skills (ability perceptions); 2) management's caring and concern for employees' interests and willingness to do good for employees (benevolence); and 3) adhering to and behaving according to a set of values and principles that employees find acceptable (integrity). According to the trust model, managers can improve employees' trust perceptions by practicing credibility, respect, and fairness, and by encouraging pride and camaraderie among employees. 236. Organizational climate refers to the shared perceptions that employees have about the organization's policies, practices, and procedures and the behaviours that are expected, supported, and rewarded. Organizational climates that are strong and positive are associated with positive employee attitudes, behaviour, and performance as well as organizational performance.
Chapter 3 237. A safety climate refers to employees' shared perceptions of safety-related events, practices, and procedures as well as the types of safety-oriented behaviours that are expected, supported, and rewarded. A safety climate is important for employees and organizations because organizations with a safety climate have more positive safety outcomes such as fewer accidents and injuries and more safety behaviour and reporting of accidents. 238. d.the halo effect. 239. a.exaggerates differences among target people. 240. b.central tendency. 241. c.is most effective when the interviewer does not ask personal questions. 242. d.the halo effect 243. b.give less importance to positive information about the applicant. 244. b.they are a product of the perceptions of an observer. 245. a.Contrast effect 246. d.perceived as well qualified for the job. 247. c.Halo effect 248. c.Signalling theory 249. c.Employment interviews and work samples 250. c.the interviewer focuses on selection rather than recruitment. 251. c.frame-of-reference training. 252. d.behaviourally anchored rating scale. 253. c.Employees with late start times receive lower job performance ratings. 254. e.Morning bias 255. b.less conscientious. 256. b.False 257. a.True 258. a.True 259. b.False 260. a.True 261. b.False 262. a.True
Chapter 3 263. b.False 264. b.False 265. b.False 266. a.True 267. a.True 268. b.False 269. b.False 270. b.False 271. b.False 272. a.True 273. b.False 274. b.False 275. b.False 276. a.True 277. central tendency 278. contrast effect 279. halo effect 280. halo effect 281. similar-to-me effect 282. leniency 283. positive 284. selection 285. recruitment 286. b.False 287. a.True 288. a.True 289. signalling theory 290. Frame-of-reference
Chapter 3 291. conscientious 292. The halo effect occurs when the observer allows the rating of an individual on one trait or characteristic to colour the ratings of other traits or characteristics. A manager might rate a worker as punctual, leading them to give a good evaluation on other factors such as productivity and quality of work. The manager may subsequently rate another worker as frequently late, leading to a poor overall evaluation of the employee's productivity and quality of work. In both cases, the issue of punctuality may be irrelevant to the worker's productivity and quality of work; the employee who is frequently late may actually be the more productive employee. 293. Applicants are motivated to present an especially favourable impression of themselves; interviewers compare applicants to a stereotype of the ideal applicant which is often inaccurate; interviewers have a tendency to exhibit primacy reactions; interviewers have a tendency to give less importance to positive information about the applicant; contrast effects sometimes occur in the interview. The validity of the interview improves when it is structured which involves four dimensions: evaluation standardization, question sophistication, question consistency, and rapport building. In addition, the interview is more likely to be structured when the interviewer has had formal interview training and is focused on selection rather than recruitment during the interview. 294. You need to tell them to standardize the evaluation of applicants by using standardized and numeric scoring procedures; to use only job-related behavioural questions and situational questions; to be consistent in questioning applicants by asking the same questions in the same order of every candidate; and not to ask personal questions that are unrelated to the job. You should also tell them to focus on selection rather than recruitment. It is also helpful if interviewers receive formal interview training. 295. Applicants interpret recruitment experiences as signals about what it is like to work in an organization. Therefore, it is important that applicants are treated well during recruitment and that recruiters are friendly, professional, and respectful. This will increase the likelihood that applicants will form positive perceptions of their recruitment experience and the organization. In addition, the selection procedures should be perceived as fair by applicants who will form more positive perceptions of the selection process and the organization when they have more positive perceptions of selection fairness. In terms of various methods of selection, employment interviews and work samples are perceived more favourably than personality tests and honesty tests. 296. Rater errors refer to perceptual tendencies that occur in performance evaluations. Examples described in the text include leniency, harshness, central tendency, halo effect, and similar-to-me effect. They can be minimized through the use of behaviourally anchored rating scales (BARS) and frame-of-reference training (FOR). 297. Leniency, harshness, central tendency, halo effect, and similar-to-me effect.
Chapter 4 1.
In which of the following is work viewed as most important and central in life? a. Germany b. The United States c. Britain d. Japan e. The Netherlands
2.
According to Geert Hofstede's research, the most masculine culture is that of a. Norway. b. the United States. c. Japan. d. Sweden. e. Canada.
3.
According to Geert Hofstede's research, the most individualistic culture is that of a. Venezuela. b. Japan. c. the United States. d. Colombia. e. Pakistan.
4.
Which of the following statements about the cultural value of power distance is FALSE? a. High power distance cultures tend to also be individualistic, rather than collective, cultures. b. Superiors tend to be accessible in low power distance cultures. c. In high power distance cultures, the unequal distribution of power is acceptable to members of the culture. d. Denmark has lower power distance than Mexico. e. Japan has higher power distance than Canada.
5.
In a collective culture a. it may be a good idea to reward groups rather than individuals. b. power distance tends to be low. c. privacy and personal initiatives are stressed. d. loyalty to one's family or clan are downplayed. e. interdependence is minimized.
6.
In Geert Hofstede's survey of values across cultures, individualistic societies can be contrasted most readily with ________ societies. a. low power distance b. collective c. masculine d. weak uncertainty avoidance e. feminine
7.
Which of the following statements concerning values is FALSE? a. Values are randomly distributed across the population. b. Members of different occupational groups tend to hold different values. c. Value differences may be responsible for conflict between people from different occupational groups. d. Values are relatively stable. e. Values are learned through reinforcement processes.
Chapter 4 8.
What are Gen X and Y more inclined to value than Boomers? a. Challenge and rapid career growth b. Flexibility and status c. Flexibility and rapid career growth d. Status and challenge e. Status and rapid career growth
9.
Which of the following is an accurate description of how Gen Ys and Xers differ from Boomers? a. Gen Ys and Xers see work as less central, value leisure more, and are more inclined towards work-life balance. b. Gen Ys and Xers see work as more central, value leisure more, and are more inclined towards worklife balance. c. Gen Ys and Xers see work as more central, value leisure more, and are less inclined towards work-life balance. d. Gen Ys and Xers see work as more central, value leisure less, and are more inclined towards work-life balance. e. Gen Ys and Xers see work as less central, value leisure less, and are less inclined towards work-life balance.
10.
Mika has just interviewed a job applicant for a position in her organization. She asked the applicant what the most important thing to them was. The answer was status. What can we conclude about the job applicant? a. The applicant is a Baby Boomer. b. The applicant is a Traditionalist. c. The applicant is a Boomer or Gen X. d. The applicant is a Gen X or Gen Y. e. The applicant is a Boomer or Gen Y.
11.
What does cultural distance refer to? a. The extent to which cultures differ in beliefs b. The extent to which cultures differ in attitudes c. The extent to which cultures differ in work centrality d. The extent to which cultures differ in values e. The extent to which cultures differ in geography
12.
In general, greater cultural distance a. impedes communication. b. impedes decision making. c. impedes employee performance. d. impedes problem solving. e. impedes employee development.
13.
Which of the following makes negotiations, mergers, acquisitions, and joint ventures more difficult? a. Power distance b. Uncertainty avoidance c. Cultural deviance d. Cultural distance e. Generational distance
Chapter 4 14.
Expatriates working abroad will find it more difficult to adjust to more a. collective cultures. b. masculine cultures. c. power distant countries. d. distant countries. e. distant cultures.
15.
Cultural intelligence refers to a. the capability to function and manage well in culturally diverse environments. b. the capability to understand differences between cultures. c. the capability to understand the difference between one's own culture and other cultures. d. the capability for organizations to work in different cultures. e. the capability to understand how organizations function in different cultures.
16.
The capability to function and manage well in culturally diverse environments is known as a. cultural astuteness. b. cultural intelligence. c. cultural ability. d. cultural capacity. e. cultural mobility.
17.
Cultural intelligence encompasses a. knowledge, skills, and abilities. b. knowledge, skills, and attitudes. c. knowledge, motivation, and attitudes. d. knowledge, motivation, and behaviour. e. knowledge, attitudes, and behaviour.
18.
Which of the following best describes tight cultures? a. Strong high standards for conformity and strong sanctions for deviation from those standards b. Strong high standards for work centrality and strong sanctions for deviation from those standards c. Strong clear standards for values and strong sanctions for deviation from those standards d. Strong, clear standards for behaviour and strong sanctions for deviation from those standards. e. Strong, clear standards for attitudes and strong sanctions for deviation from those standards.
19.
Cultures that are flexible in terms of how people are expected to behave and forgiving of violations of expected behaviours are known as a. feminine cultures. b. loose cultures. c. collective cultures. d. weak cultures. e. flexible cultures.
20.
The extent to which cultures have more or less strong standards for behaviour and sanctions for deviation from these standards is known as a. cultural strength versus weakness. b. cultural rigidity versus flexibility. c. cultural tightness versus looseness. d. cultural femininity versus masculinity. e. cultural narrowness versus openness.
Chapter 4 21.
Cultural missteps are most likely in a. tight cultures. b. loose cultures. c. strong cultures. d. weak cultures. e. narrow cultures.
22.
Mika is on her way to her first work assignment in another country. Before she left, her boss told her to be especially careful about how she behaves and to try and avoid cultural missteps. What kind of cultural is Mika is going to be working in? a. Tight culture b. Loose culture c. Strong culture d. Weak culture e. Narrow culture
23.
What do the following countries have in common: Pakistan, Singapore, and Korea? a. Tight cultures b. Loose cultures c. Strong cultures d. Weak cultures e. Narrow cultures
24.
What do the following countries have in common: Netherlands, Brazil, Australia, Canada, and the United States? a. Tight cultures b. Loose cultures c. Strong cultures d. Weak cultures e. Narrow cultures
25.
Which one of the following countries does NOT have a loose culture? a. Netherlands b. Brazil c. Australia d. Singapore e. United States
26.
Which of the following is NOT one of the generations in the workplace? a. Traditionalists b. Baby Boomers c. Millennials d. Generation XY e. Generation Z
27.
A large-scale survey of values has shown that Americans rank slightly above the Japanese in the extent to which work is a central life interest. a. True b. False
28.
According to Geert Hofstede's large survey, the United States is one of the most collective societies. a. True b. False
Chapter 4 29.
In societies characterized by high power distance, organizations would tend to emphasize differences in rank and position. a. True b. False
30.
In an individualistic culture, distributing rewards according to equity principles rather than equality principles seems like a sensible strategy. a. True b. False
31.
Gen Y is more inclined to value status and rapid career growth than are Gen Xers and Boomers. a. True b. False
32.
Gen Ys and Xers compared to Boomers, see work as less central, value leisure more, and are more inclined towards work-life balance. a. True b. False
33.
Cultural distance has to do with exporting OB theories while cultural intelligence has to do with importing OB theories. a. True b. False
34.
Cultural intelligence refers to the capability to understand the differences between one's own culture and other cultures. a. True b. False
35.
Cultural intelligence refers to the capability to function and manage well in culturally diverse environments. a. True b. False
36.
People with high cultural intelligence tend to score high on intercultural adjustment, global leadership, and performance in intercultural settings. a. True b. False
37.
Tight cultures tend to have strong, clear standards for behaviour and strong sanctions for deviation from these standards. a. True b. False
38.
Loose cultures tend to have strong, clear standards for behaviour and strong sanctions for deviation from these standards. a. True b. False
39.
The study on generational values conducted by the Center for Creative Leadership concluded that all generations share the same values but __________ .
Chapter 4 40.
Popular literature contains many generational stereotypes. For example, Gen Z is depicted as somewhat unfocused but independent and __________ .
41.
In Geert Hofstede's cross-cultural research __________ was the country that exhibited the most masculine of cultures.
42.
In Geert Hofstede's cross-cultural research, Venezuela, Colombia, and Pakistan exhibited highly __________ cultures that favoured interdependence over individualism.
43.
__________ dictate a broad preference for certain states of affairs over others.
44.
In Geert Hofstede's cross-cultural terminology, a high degree of participation in work decisions might not be preferred in high __________ societies.
45.
Quality circles, total quality management, and just-in-time production are examples of __________ management techniques.
46.
Cultural __________ refers to the extent to which cultures differ in values.
47.
In general, cultural distance impedes __________ .
48.
Cultural distance makes negotiations, mergers, acquisitions, and joint ventures more __________ .
49.
Expatriates working abroad will generally find it more difficult to adjust to more distant __________ .
50.
Cultural __________ is the capability to function and manage well in culturally diverse environments.
51.
Cultural intelligence encompasses knowledge, __________ , and behaviour.
52.
People with high cultural intelligence score high on intercultural adjustment, __________ leadership, and performance in intercultural settings.
53.
__________ cultures tend to have strong, clear standards for behaviour and strong sanctions for deviation from these standards.
Chapter 4 54.
Attitudes are a function of a. what we think and what we see. b. what we do and what we want. c. what we think and what we feel. d. what we obtain and what we want. e. what we feel and intend to do.
55.
A fairly stable evaluative tendency to respond consistently to some specific object, situation, person, or category of people is called a(n) a. belief. b. value. c. attitude. d. facet. e. cognitive dissonance.
56.
Which of the following equations is accurate? a. Attitude + value = belief. b. Belief + value = attitude. c. Attitude + belief = value. d. Input + outcome = equity. e. Belief + behaviour = attitude.
57.
Although one's behaviour is not necessarily consistent with one's attitude, behaviour is most likely to correspond to attitude when one has a direct experience with the target of the attitude and a. the target person is about to be fired from their position. b. the target person is of a lower organizational rank. c. the attitude is strongly and confidently held. d. the attitude is socially acceptable. e. All of the above
58.
When is behaviour most likely to correspond to attitudes? a. When people have held the attitude for a long time and the attitude is held strongly and confidently b. When people have held the attitude for a long time and the attitude is held in different situations c. When people have direct experience with the target of the attitude and the attitude is held strongly and confidently d. When people have direct experience with the target of the attitude and the attitude is held in different situations e. When people have direct experience with the type of attitude and the attitude is held in different situations
59.
A wide range of behaviours might be susceptible to the tight-loose distinction, including how one dresses, how rigid social class distinctions are, and how the __________ are expected to interact.
60.
______________________________________ nations include Pakistan, Singapore, and Korea.
61.
______________________________________ nations include Netherlands, Brazil, Australia, Canada, and the United States.
Chapter 4 62.
Although we should always be alert to cultural differences, extra care is merited in ______________________________________ cultures, where there are more opportunities for cultural missteps.
63.
Hofstede identified four basic dimensions along which work-related values differ across cultures. Describe all four dimensions and indicate how Canada ranks on each.
64.
Explain the difference between values, beliefs, and attitudes. How are they linked to behaviour? Give a hypothetical example of how a value, belief, and attitude may lead an individual to quit their job.
65.
Describe different generations in the workplace and how they differ in values.
66.
Explain what an attitude is and its association with behaviour. Where do attitudes come from?
67.
The requirement for people to conform to certain emotional "display rules" in their job behaviour is known as a. emotional contagion. b. emotionally challenging work. c. emotional labour. d. emotional work conditions. e. emotional dispositions.
68.
Discrepancy theory suggests that job dissatisfaction develops when a. supervisors and employees differ radically in their values. b. workers don't see their jobs as offering what they want. c. job outcomes don't match job inputs. d. work is unchallenging and repetitive. e. workers begin to take benefits for granted.
69.
Alice perceives her job inputs as high and her job outcomes as high. Alice perceives Jael's inputs as low and her outcomes as low. Jael's perceptions are identical to Alice's in all respects. According to equity theory, a. both women are experiencing inequity. b. Alice experiences inequity but Jael doesn't. c. Jael experiences inequity but Alice doesn't. d. both women are experiencing equity. e. both women should earn exactly the same income.
70.
Which of the following is NOT a job input, according to equity theory? a. Education b. Pay c. Seniority d. Hard work e. Experience
Chapter 4 71.
One reason why two people performing the same job may have different attitudes towards that job is that a. they may differ in their perceptions concerning the actual nature of the job. b. they may differ in their beliefs about the job. c. they may differ in what they want from the job. d. they may have different work values. e. All of the above
72.
The collection of attitudes that workers have about their jobs is called a. discrepancy. b. equity. c. performance. d. job satisfaction. e. beliefs.
73.
Mark says that he is happy with his salary, but finds that his job is not very challenging. This illustrates the concept of a. discrepancy. b. inequity. c. facet satisfaction. d. distributive fairness. e. procedural fairness.
74.
Which of the following is a measure of job satisfaction? a. Job Satisfaction Index b. Job Descriptive Index c. Job Attitude Index d. Facet Satisfaction Index e. Job Diagnostic Index
75.
Which of the following is TRUE? a. Pay is often considered an input in equity theory. b. The Job Descriptive Index measures facet and overall job satisfaction. c. The Job Descriptive Index measures overall satisfaction but not facet satisfaction. d. The values held by members of various occupations are remarkably similar. e. The Minnesota Satisfaction Questionnaire measures facet satisfaction but not overall satisfaction
76.
Toma recently started working at his fifth job in ten years. Toma has been happy at all of his jobs. This suggests that his job satisfaction is a. a product of distributive fairness. b. mainly due to situational factors. c. partially due to his disposition. d. a product of procedural fairness. e. highest when the employment opportunity is only short term.
Chapter 4 77.
Here is an equity equation for Louis and Rita, both of whom agree that all figures are accurate:
According to equity theory a. Rita should be experiencing inequity. b. Louis should be experiencing equity. c. Louis and Rita should be experiencing equity. d. Rita and Louis should be experiencing job satisfaction. e. None of the above 78.
Job satisfaction research has pointed to the influence of dispositional factors because a. identical twins raised apart tend to have similar levels of job satisfaction. b. job satisfaction is stable over time, regardless of current employer. c. adolescent dispositional measures correlate with job satisfaction. d. optimists with realistic thinking processes are more likely to be satisfied. e. All of the above
79.
Carefully applying equity theory should have a direct effect upon a. procedural fairness. b. cognitive dissonance. c. discrepancy theory. d. distributive fairness. e. interactional fairness.
80.
Distributive fairness results in a. equity. b. procedural fairness. c. cognitive dissonance. d. work centrality. e. disposition.
81.
Which of the following would NOT be part of an equity equation involving you and your co-worker Lee? a. Your inputs b. Lee's inputs c. Lee's outputs d. Your outcomes e. Lee's outcomes
82.
To increase the overall job satisfaction of an employee, a. increase organizational citizenship behaviour. b. create a discrepancy between desired and actual outcomes. c. use the Job Descriptive Index. d. increase facet satisfaction. e. reduce turnover.
83.
People with the following personality traits tend to be more satisfied with their jobs. a. Extraverted and open to experience b. Extraverted and conscientious c. Open to experience and conscientious d. Open to experience and agreeable e. Extraverted and high in neuroticism
Chapter 4 84.
What are emotions? a. Intense, often long-lived, feelings caused by a particular event b. Subtle, often long-lived, diffuse feelings c. Intense, often short-lived, diffuse feelings d. Intense, often short-lived, feelings caused by a particular event e. Subtle, often short-lived, diffuse feelings
85.
According to Geert Hofstede's large survey, Japan is the most masculine society. a. True b. False
86.
More collective cultures tend to de-emphasize differences in power among their members. a. True b. False
87.
Values are a product of beliefs and attitudes. a. True b. False
88.
Values usually change greatly from day to day. a. True b. False
89.
Theories of organizational behaviour, such as motivation, are easily transferred to other cultures. a. True b. False
90.
Millennials are also known as Generation X. a. True b. False
91.
Baby Boomers are more accepting of diversity than the other generations. a. True b. False
92.
Millennials are also known as Generation Y. a. True b. False
93.
Most research indicates that there are more similarities than differences in values across generations. a. True b. False
94.
All work generations share the same values but express them differently. a. True b. False
95.
Most research points to more differences than similarities in values across generations. a. True b. False
Chapter 4 96.
Cultural distance refers to the extent to which cultures differ in work centrality. a. True b. False
97.
In general, cultural distance impedes communication. a. True b. False
98.
Cultural distance can make negotiations, mergers, acquisitions, and joint ventures more likely. a. True b. False
99.
Expatriates working abroad will find it more difficult to adjust to more distant cultures. a. True b. False
100. Cultural intelligence encompasses knowledge, motivation, and performance. a. True b. False 101. Cultural intelligence encompasses knowledge, motivation, and behaviour. a. True b. False 102. Cultural missteps are most likely to occur in tight cultures. a. True b. False 103. Cultural missteps are most likely to occur in loose cultures. a. True b. False 104. Canada has a tight culture. a. True b. False 105. A wide range of behaviours might be susceptible to the tight-loose culture distinction. a. True b. False 106. Countries with loose cultures include Pakistan, Singapore, and Korea. a. True b. False 107. Attitudes are a function of what we think and what we do. a. True b. False 108. Beliefs are made up of values and attitudes. a. True b. False
Chapter 4 109. A fairly evaluative tendency to respond consistently to some specific object, situation, person, or category of people is called a(n) __________ .
110.
__________ cultures are flexible in terms of how people are expected to behave and more forgiving of violations of expected behaviour.
111. Discuss the implications of cultural variation in values for organizational behaviour.
112. What is cultural intelligence and what does it encompass? What are its benefits?
113. What is cultural distance and why should organizations be concerned about it? What are the benefits of being exposed to distant cultures?
114. What are moods? a. Intense, long-lived, diffuse feelings b. Not so intense, often short-lived, diffuse feelings c. Not so intense, long-lived, diffuse feelings d. Intense, often short-lived, feelings caused by a particular event e. Not so intense, long-lived, feelings caused by a particular event 115. Which of the following is an example of affect events theory and job satisfaction? a. The tendency for people to conform to certain "display rules" in their job satisfaction in spite of their mood or emotions b. The tendency for job satisfaction to spread between people or throughout a group c. When certain "shocks" such as an unsolicited job offer lower one's job satisfaction and lead to turnover d. Seeing a co-worker receiving more outcomes even though your inputs are greater lowers one's job satisfaction. e. Seeing a co-worker being put down by a manager provokes emotional anger and lowers one's job satisfaction. 116. Which of the following is an example of emotional contagion? a. Pleasant service encounters contribute to the service provider's satisfaction as well as to that of the customer. b. All employees must do certain things in spite of their true mood and emotions to provide pleasant service encounters. c. An employee who has low satisfaction at work will also have low satisfaction outside of work. d. An employee who is angry at work is also angry at home. e. When an employee's emotions are in a constant state of change 117. What do the following jobs have in common: waiters, bank tellers, and flight attendants? a. Emotional contagion b. Job satisfaction c. Organizational commitment d. Emotional labour e. Emotional opposition
Chapter 4 118. Which of the following jobs are especially laden with display rules? a. Waiter, dishwasher, cook b. Waiter, bank teller, dishwasher c. Waiter, bank teller, cook d. Waiter, bank teller, flight attendant e. Waiter, dishwasher, flight attendant 119. Which of the following is an example of emotional labour? a. Employees are supposed to remain calm and civil even when hassled or insulted. b. Employees are supposed to be perky and upbeat even when they feel down. c. Employees are supposed to be nice to customers even when they are angry at them. d. Employees are supposed to repress their anger when dealing with customers. e. All of the above 120. People who experience interactional unfairness are likely to be dissatisfied with a. their pay. b. their co-workers. c. their boss. d. their job. e. their status. 121. What is interactional fairness? a. When employees have interactions with each other that they perceive to be fair b. When employees have interactions with their managers that they perceive to be fair c. When people feel that they have received respectful and informative communication about some outcome d. When people see the process used to determine outcomes as reasonable e. When people receive what they think they deserve from their jobs 122. If you experience procedural unfairness at work, how will this affect your satisfaction? a. You will be dissatisfied with your boss. b. You will be dissatisfied with your pay. c. You will be dissatisfied with your job. d. You will be dissatisfied with the system. e. You will be dissatisfied with your coworkers. 123. If you experience interactional unfairness at work, how will this affect your satisfaction? a. You will be dissatisfied with the system. b. You will be dissatisfied with your co-workers. c. You will be dissatisfied with your boss. d. You will be dissatisfied with yourself. e. You will be dissatisfied with your friends. 124. As a manager, you have to communicate to employees their work outcomes. You are concerned about interactional fairness, which means that your communication must be a. positive and informative. b. positive and respectful. c. open and honest. d. respectful and honest. e. respectful and informative.
Chapter 4 125. Which of the following is most accurate about the negative effects of distributive unfairness? a. Procedural fairness but not interactional fairness can offset the negative effects of distributive unfairness. b. Interactional fairness but not procedural fairness can offset the negative effects of distributive unfairness. c. Procedural fairness and interactional fairness can offset the negative effects of distributive unfairness. d. Neither procedural fairness nor interactional fairness can offset the negative effects of distributive unfairness. e. The negative effects of distributive unfairness can only be offset by distributive fairness. 126. Which of the following best represents the relationship between personality and job satisfaction? a. People high in self-esteem and neuroticism are more satisfied. b. People high in self-esteem and neuroticism are less satisfied. c. People high in self-esteem and external locus of control are more satisfied. d. People with internal locus of control and high in neuroticism are more satisfied. e. People high in self-esteem and internal locus of control are more satisfied. 127. You have two friends who are going to start new jobs after they graduate. Your friend Sasha has always had high self-esteem and your friend Ellen is someone with an external locus of control. How satisfied do you think your friends will be with their new jobs? a. They will both have high job satisfaction. b. They will both have low job satisfaction. c. Ellen will be more satisfied than Sasha. d. Sasha will be more satisfied than Ellen. e. It depends on the jobs they have. 128. Jobs that have some physical, social, or moral stigma attached to them by the public are known as a. poor jobs. b. bad jobs. c. bad work. d. dirty work. e. dirty jobs. 129. The requirement to express positive emotions, especially when you really are feeling positive, a. boosts job performance and reduces stress. b. boosts job satisfaction and reduces stress. c. boosts motivation and reduces absenteeism. d. boosts job satisfaction and reduces absenteeism. e. boosts motivation and reduces stress. 130. Which of the following is NOT a key contributor to job satisfaction? a. Mentally challenging work b. Meaningful work c. Career opportunities d. High pay e. People 131. Opportunities for growth and learning are often as important as formal promotions, especially among a. Baby Boomers. b. Generation X. c. Millennials. d. Traditionalists. e. Generation Z.
Chapter 4 132. Which of the following is most accurate about dirty work and job satisfaction? a. Many people doing dirty work express considerable job dissatisfaction. b. Many people doing dirty work express considerable job satisfaction. c. About half of the people doing dirty work express job satisfaction while the other half express job dissatisfaction. d. The relationship between dirty work and job satisfaction depends on the person doing the dirty work. e. The relationship between dirty work and job satisfaction is strongest for dirty work that has a physical stigma. 133. How much variation in job satisfaction is explained by the Big Five personality traits? a. 5 percent b. 10 percent c. 15 percent d. 20 percent e. 15 percent 134. Which of the following is most accurate about the contributors to job satisfaction? a. People tend to underestimate how much pay influences their job satisfaction and underestimate the impact of challenging and meaningful work. b. People tend to overestimate how much pay influences their job satisfaction and the impact of challenging and meaningful work. c. People tend to underestimate how much pay influences their job satisfaction and overestimate the impact of challenging and meaningful work. d. People tend to overestimate how much pay influences their job satisfaction and underestimate the impact of challenging and meaningful work. e. People tend to overestimate how much pay influences their job satisfaction and underestimate the impact of opportunities for promotion. 135. The requirement to express positive emotions, especially when you really are feeling positive, boosts job satisfaction and reduces absenteeism. a. True b. False 136. The requirement to express positive emotions, especially when you really are feeling positive, boosts job satisfaction and reduces stress. a. True b. False 137. People who experience interactional unfairness are more likely to be dissatisfied with their co-workers. a. True b. False 138. Emotional labour is an informal term for emotional contagion. a. True b. False 139. Equity theory is mainly concerned with distributive fairness rather than procedural fairness. a. True b. False 140. According to equity theory, equity exists when work inputs equal work outputs. a. True b. False
Chapter 4 141. In highly collective cultures, allocating work rewards according to individual equity principles is the best way to promote job satisfaction. a. True b. False 142. In equity theory terms, an unequal input/outcome ratio is an obvious example of procedural unfairness. a. True b. False 143. The Minnesota Satisfaction Questionnaire measures overall satisfaction but not facet satisfaction. a. True b. False 144. According to equity theory, having outcomes equal to a comparison person does not guarantee equity. a. True b. False 145. The word discrepancy in discrepancy theory refers to the discrepancy between job inputs and job outcomes. a. True b. False 146. Pay would not be considered an input in equity theory. a. True b. False 147. Emotions are intense, often long-lived, feelings caused by a particular event. a. True b. False 148. Moods are not so intense, long-lived, and diffuse feelings. a. True b. False 149. Affective events theory explains how emotions and moods affect job satisfaction. a. True b. False 150. The tendency for moods and emotions to spread between people or throughout a group is known as emotional regulation. a. True b. False 151. An example of emotional labour is when an employee is nice to a customer because they like the customer. a. True b. False 152. If your boss is fair about the processes used to determine work outcomes you have interactional fairness. a. True b. False
Chapter 4 153. When your boss gives you respectful and informative communication about some outcome then you will have experienced interactional fairness. a. True b. False 154. It is impossible for absolutely fair outcomes or procedures to be perceived as unfair just because they are inadequately or uncaringly explained. a. True b. False 155. If you experience procedural unfairness, you are most likely to be dissatisfied with your boss. a. True b. False 156. If you experience interactional unfairness, you are most likely to be dissatisfied with your co-workers. a. True b. False 157. Procedural and interactional fairness can offset the negative effects of distributive unfairness. a. True b. False 158. People who are extraverted and high in neuroticism tend to be more satisfied with their jobs. a. True b. False 159. People who are more optimistic and proactive report higher job satisfaction. a. True b. False 160. The Big Five personality traits explain about 5 percent of the variation in job satisfaction. a. True b. False 161. In more feminine cultures, equality of outcomes might produce more feelings of distributive fairness than equity of outcomes. a. True b. False 162. Opportunities for growth and learning are often as important as formal promotions, especially among Millennials. a. True b. False 163. Opportunities for growth and learning are often as important as formal promotions, especially among Gen Z. a. True b. False 164. Recent findings suggest that inconsistency, being fairly treated sometimes but not others, may be more stressful than consistent unfair treatment. a. True b. False
Chapter 4 165. The Big Five personality traits explain about 10 percent of the variation in job satisfaction. a. True b. False 166. People tend to overestimate how much pay influences their job satisfaction and underestimate the impact of challenging and meaningful work. a. True b. False 167. People tend to underestimate how much pay influences their job satisfaction and overestimate the impact of challenging and meaningful work. a. True b. False 168. Many people doing dirty work express considerable job satisfaction. a. True b. False 169. Many people doing dirty work express considerable job dissatisfaction. a. True b. False 170. The requirement to express positive emotions, especially when you really are feeling positive, boosts job satisfaction and reduces __________ .
171. The __________ theory portrays job satisfaction as the difference between desired and received job outcomes.
172.
__________ fairness is determined by the processes used to allocate rewards and resources.
173.
__________ fairness is a function of the actual amount of work rewards or resources received.
174. In equity theory __________ refer to the rewards or resources received in an exchange with the organization.
175. A popular measure of job satisfaction is the __________ Descriptive Index.
176. Equity theory is an example of a theory that is concerned with __________ fairness or justice, not the process used to allocate outcomes.
177. People are most likely to be concerned with procedural fairness when distributive fairness is __________ .
Chapter 4 178. The Job Descriptive Index is a measure of __________ .
179.
__________ are intense, often short-lived, feelings caused by a particular event.
180.
__________ are less intense, longer-lived, and more diffuse feelings.
181.
__________ explains how emotions and moods affect job satisfaction.
182.
__________ is the tendency for moods and emotions to spread between people or throughout a group.
183. Emotional __________ is the requirement for people to conform to certain emotional display rules in their job behaviour.
184. If your boss provides you with respectful and informative communication about your work outcomes then __________ has occurred.
185. People who experience interactional unfairness are most likely dissatisfied with the __________ .
186. People who experience procedural unfairness are most likely dissatisfied with the __________ .
187. People who are high in __________ tend to be dissatisfied.
188. If you have a job in which you need to suppress negative emotions, it can lower your job satisfaction and increase your __________ .
189. Jobs that have physical, social, or moral stigma attached to them are known as __________ .
190. If you have a job in which you must conform to certain __________ in spite of your true mood or emotions, then your job is high in terms of emotional labour.
191. Procedural fairness seems especially likely to provoke dissatisfaction when people also see __________ as being low.
192. Being fairly treated sometimes but not others, may be more __________ than consistent unfair treatment.
Chapter 4 193. If you have a friend who has told you that they are very dissatisfied with their boss, they are probably experiencing __________ unfairness.
194. Being fairly treated sometimes but not others, may be more stressful than consistent __________ treatment.
195. Meaningful work is work that has a positive and substantial impact on other __________ .
196. Opportunities for growth and learning are often as important as formal promotions, especially among __________ .
197. Many people doing dirty work express considerable __________ .
198. People tend to overestimate how much __________ influences their job satisfaction.
199. People tend to underestimate the impact of challenging and __________ on their job satisfaction.
200. What is equity theory? Use it to explain why Minjin, a doctor who earns $100,000 per year, might be more dissatisfied with her job than Shelley, a plumber who earns $50,000 a year.
201. Which facets contribute the most to feelings of job satisfaction for the average Canadian worker?
202.
Describe affective events theory and give an example of how it can explain why an employee is dissatisfied with their job.
203. What is emotional labour and what are its consequences? Give an example of an employee who has a job that is high in emotional labour.
204. What should organizations do to ensure that employees have perceptions of fairness? What are the kinds of fairness that organizations should focus on and how are they related?
205. What is dirty work and what is its relationship to job satisfaction? What is the reason for this relationship with job satisfaction?
206. Job dissatisfaction underpins many counterproductive work behaviours. a. True b. False
Chapter 4 207. Counterproductive work behaviour is usually unintentional. a. True b. False 208. Counterproductive behaviour directed toward co-workers can be considered a source of stress. a. True b. False 209. Informal, voluntary activity that contributes to organizational effectiveness but may not be formally rewarded by the organization is called _________ .
210. Helping, conscientiousness, courtesy, cooperation, and being a good sport are all examples of _________ .
211. The job satisfaction facet that is most predictive of absenteeism is satisfaction with __________ .
212. Employees are more likely to be satisfied when good performance is followed by __________ .
213. Certain __________ such as a marital break-up or the birth of a child might stimulate turnover despite job satisfaction.
214. A growing body of evidence has established that employee job satisfaction is translated into ______________________________________ satisfaction.
215. The __________ occurs when bad facets of the old job are gone, the good facets of the new job are apparent, and the bad facets of the new job are not yet known.
216. Dissatisfaction is most likely to result in __________ when jobs are plentiful.
217. After being on the job for some time, you begin to realize some of the bad facets, and you begin to experience what is known as a(n) __________ .
218. Research shows that __________ are very good predictors of turnover.
219. The most important facet for stimulating performance has to do with the __________ .
220. The first response in the progression of withdrawal is reduced _________ .
Chapter 4 221. Your friend Carys has become very dissatisfied with her job. In response to this, she is most likely to first reduce her __________ .
222. The second response in the progression of withdrawal is __________ .
223. The third response in the progression of withdrawal is __________ .
224. The last response in the progression of withdrawal is __________ .
225. When good performance is followed by __________ , employees are more likely to be satisfied.
226. Contemporary research indicates that __________ is more likely to affect __________ , rather than the reverse.
227.
__________ underpins many counterproductive work behaviours.
228. Intentional verbal or physical behaviour meant to harm one's organization or individuals such as co-workers or customers is known as ________ .
229. Gordon Wong, the VP of Human Resources at Zeta Manufacturing, recently tested the job satisfaction of all Zeta's employees using the Job Descriptive Index. Based on the disappointingly low levels of job satisfaction related by most employees, he is predicting dramatic increases in absenteeism and massive employee turnover. Do you agree with his prediction? Explain your reasons.
230. Describe the connection between job satisfaction and performance. Which is the cause, and which is the effect, and how do rewards fit in?
231. What are some of the reasons why satisfied people sometimes quit their jobs and dissatisfied people stay?
232. Describe the relationship between employee job satisfaction and customer satisfaction and explain when they are or are not related.
233.
Employees often quit a job they don't like with the expectation that they will be happier in a new job. If you had a friend in this situation who was about to start their new job, what would you tell them about the "honeymoon-hangover effect"?
Chapter 4 234. Explain how job satisfaction contributes to organizational citizenship behaviour.
235. Describe the meaning of a progression of withdrawal and the various responses involved. What are the implications of this for managers?
236. Explain what counterproductive involves and provide some examples of counterproductive activities. What are some of the reasons for it and what determines the type of behaviour that is enacted?
237. All forms of organizational commitment are related to a. promotions. b. performance. c. turnover. d. organizational citizenship behaviour. e. absenteeism. 238. What factor would be most likely to boost continuance commitment? a. A generous pension fund b. Interesting work c. Organizational ideology d. Friendly supervision e. Moving to a new community 239. Your friend Bea has told you that she feels that leaving her organization will result in personal sacrifice. What can you say about your friend? a. She has high affective commitment. b. She has low affective commitment. c. She has high continuance commitment. d. She has low continuance commitment. e. She has high normative commitment. 240. Your friend Jean-Paul has told you that he has received many benefits from his organization and, as a result, he feels a sense of obligation. What can you say about your friend? a. He has high affective commitment. b. He has low affective commitment. c. He has high continuance commitment. d. He has low continuance commitment. e. He has high normative commitment. 241. What type of commitment increases with the time a person is employed by an organization? a. Affective commitment b. Affective commitment and normative commitment c. Continuance commitment d. Continuance commitment and normative commitment e. Normative commitment
Chapter 4 242. Certain socialization practices that emphasize loyalty to the organization can stimulate a. affective commitment. b. affective commitment and normative commitment. c. continuance commitment. d. continuance commitment and normative commitment. e. normative commitment. 243. What type of commitment is negatively related to performance? a. Affective commitment b. Affective commitment and normative commitment c. Continuance commitment d. Continuance commitment and normative commitment e. Normative commitment 244. When it comes to organizational commitment, which of the following is considered to be an especially bad combination for both the employee and the organization? a. High normative commitment and low affective commitment b. Low normative commitment and high affective commitment c. High continuance commitment and low affective commitment d. Low continuance commitment and low affective commitment e. Low continuance commitment and high normative commitment 245. Gwen, a manager of a toy manufacturing company, has just spoken to an employee who has indicated she has very low affective organizational commitment. What should Gwen do to increase the employees' commitment? a. Give her more pay. b. Give her a promotion. c. Give her more interesting work. d. Give her more flexible work hours. e. Give her more time off. 246. Which of the following is most accurate? a. Affective and normative commitment reduce turnover intentions and actual turnover. b. Affective commitment reduces turnover intentions and actual turnover. c. Normative commitment reduces turnover intentions and actual turnover. d. Affective and continuance commitment reduce turnover intentions and actual turnover. e. All forms of commitment reduce turnover intentions and actual turnover. 247. Why is affective commitment positively related to performance? a. Because it increases job satisfaction b. Because it focuses attention on goals c. Because it increases job challenge d. Because it lowers work stress e. Because it increases intrinsic motivation 248. Changes that are made in the organization's best interest but that are detrimental to employees' well-being are most likely to damage a. normative commitment. b. continuance commitment. c. affective commitment. d. affective and normative commitment. e. continuance and normative commitment.
Chapter 4 249. Which of the following represent solutions for coping with and adapting to rapid change? a. Focusing on only temporary employees b. Not hiring full-time employees c. Having the same relationship with all employee groups d. Having different relationships with employee groups e. Avoiding relationships with all employee groups 250. What type of commitment is associated with elevated job satisfaction and lower work stress? a. High affective commitment b. High normative commitment c. High continuance commitment d. High affective commitment and normative commitment e. High affective commitment and continuance commitment 251. What type of commitment is associated with job dissatisfaction and work stress? a. High affective commitment b. High normative commitment c. High continuance commitment d. High affective commitment and normative commitment e. High affective commitment and continuance commitment 252. In terms of commitment profiles, what profile is considered to be the most advantageous? a. Affective dominant b. Fully committed (high on all three types) c. Affective/continuance dominant d. Continuance dominant e. Normative dominant 253. Organizational commitment is the strength of the linkage between an employee and an organization. a. True b. False 254. Continuance commitment and normative commitment are caused by the same factors. a. True b. False 255. The best predictor of normative commitment is interesting, satisfying work. a. True b. False 256. Normative commitment increases with the time a person is employed by an organization. a. True b. False 257. Certain socialization practices that emphasize loyalty to the organization can stimulate affective commitment. a. True b. False 258. An especially bad combination of commitments is high normative commitment coupled with low affective commitment. a. True b. False
Chapter 4 259. Affective commitment is positively related to performance because it focuses attention on goals. a. True b. False 260. Changes that are made in the organization's best interest but that are detrimental to employees' well-being are most likely to damage continuance commitment. a. True b. False 261. As organizations increase in size, employees are likely to increase their commitment to the organization. a. True b. False 262. The most advantageous commitment profile is fully committed (high on all three types). a. True b. False 263. Affective commitment is associated with elevated job satisfaction and lower work stress. a. True b. False 264. Normative commitment is associated with elevated job satisfaction and lower work stress. a. True b. False 265.
__________ commitment is based on an employee's identification and involvement with the organization.
266. By far the best predictor of __________ commitment is interesting, satisfying work.
267. Very high levels of __________ can cause conflicts between family life and work-life.
268. Interesting, satisfying work is the best predictor of __________ commitment.
269.
__________ commitment increases with the time a person is employed by an organization.
270. Certain socialization practices that emphasize loyalty to the organization can stimulate __________ commitment.
271. All forms of commitment reduce __________ .
272.
__________ commitment is negatively related to performance.
Chapter 4 273.
__________ commitment is positively related to performance because it focuses attention on goals.
274. Changes that are made in the organization's best interest but that are detrimental to employees' well-being are most likely to damage __________ commitment.
275. As organizations increase in size, employees are likely to shift their __________ to smaller units.
276. High __________ commitment is associated with elevated job satisfaction and lower work stress.
277. Name and briefly define three different types of organizational commitment. Give an example of each.
278. Describe how changes in the workplace are having an impact on organizational commitment.
279. Is there a downside to organizational commitment?
280. Discuss the key contributors and consequences of each type of organizational commitment.
281. What job satisfaction facet is most likely to stimulate high performance? a. Pay b. Content of the work c. Supervision d. People e. Promotion 282. If a manager wants to increase the job satisfaction of employees, they should a. give everybody a pay increase. b. provide rewards for good performance. c. increase employees' outcomes. d. increase employees' affective commitment. e. give employees the job outcomes that they want. 283. The contemporary view of the relationship between job satisfaction and performance suggests that a. performance is just as likely to contribute to job satisfaction as job satisfaction is to contribute to performance. b. job satisfaction is more likely to contribute to performance. c. performance is more likely to contribute to job satisfaction. d. job satisfaction is unlikely to contribute to performance and job performance is unlikely to contribute to job satisfaction. e. the relationship between job satisfaction and performance depends on other things.
Chapter 4 284. What role do rewards play in the relationship between job satisfaction and job performance? a. Employees who are satisfied are more likely to be rewarded so they will perform better. b. Employees who are rewarded will be more satisfied so they will perform better. c. Employees who perform better will be rewarded so they will be more likely to be satisfied. d. Employees who perform better will be more satisfied so they will be more likely to be rewarded. e. Employees who are rewarded will perform better so they will be more likely to be satisfied. 285. Which job satisfaction facet is the best predictor of absence from work? a. Pay b. Supervision c. Content of the work d. Co-workers e. Hours of work 286. In order to predict turnover, it would be most useful to know a person's a. overall level of job satisfaction. b. satisfaction with various facets of the job. c. organizational commitment. d. intentions about quitting. e. attitude towards their co-workers. 287. Organizational citizenship behaviour a. involves carrying out one's assigned job duties to the best of one's ability. b. is positively related to job satisfaction. c. is negatively related to equity. d. is an important evaluation component in most formal performance review systems. e. is usually rewarded through formal performance evaluations. 288. All forms of commitment are positively related to performance. a. True b. False 289. Continuance commitment is negatively related to performance. a. True b. False 290. All forms of commitment reduce turnover intentions and actual turnover. a. True b. False 291. There is not a downside to organizational commitment. a. True b. False 292. All forms of commitment are positively related to job performance. a. True b. False 293. The most advantageous commitment profile is affective dominant. a. True b. False
Chapter 4 294. Organizational citizenship behaviour is a. one of Geert Hofstede's work-related value dimensions. b. unlikely to be rewarded directly and explicitly by the organization. c. likely to occur when employees experience inequity. d. included in most job descriptions. e. unrelated to job satisfaction. 295. To increase organizational citizenship behaviour, a. reduce turnover. b. increase job satisfaction. c. increase performance. d. decrease procedural fairness. e. reduce organizational commitment. 296. According to the model of employee turnover in the text, what contributes to turnover intentions? a. Job satisfaction, organizational commitment, and "shocks" b. Job satisfaction, mentally challenging work, and "shocks" c. Job satisfaction, organizational commitment, and mentally challenging work d. Mentally challenging work, supervision, and adequate compensation e. Mentally challenging work, adequate compensation, and career opportunities 297. According to the model of employee turnover in the text, what two factors are directly related to turnover? a. Job satisfaction and organizational commitment b. Job satisfaction and turnover intentions c. Turnover intentions and organizational commitment d. Turnover intentions and comparison of alternatives e. Job satisfaction and comparison of alternatives 298. What is the relationship between employee job satisfaction, customer satisfaction, and organizational profitability? a. Employee job satisfaction is not related to customer satisfaction or organizational profitability. b. Employee job satisfaction is related to customer satisfaction and organizational profitability. c. Employee job satisfaction is related to customer satisfaction but not organizational profitability. d. Employee job satisfaction is related to organizational profitability but not customer satisfaction. e. Employee job satisfaction is not related to customer satisfaction, but customer satisfaction is related to organizational profitability. 299. Research shows that there is sometimes a progression of withdrawal in response to job dissatisfaction. Which of the following is often the first withdrawal response? a. Lateness b. Reduced organizational citizenship behaviours c. Absenteeism d. Turnover e. Reduced job performance 300. You have three friends who have been working since they graduated. Tom has the best paying job. Kamal has the most challenging job. Leanne has the least stressful job. Which friend(s) is least likely to be absent from work? a. Kamal b. Kamal and Tom c. Tom and Leanne d. Tom e. Leanne
Chapter 4 301. Your three best friends all found jobs after graduation. Jack has just found out that he has to attend a training program. Jamal has just announced that he is getting a divorce. And Jenna is complaining about her boss who has been pushing her to work harder. Which friend(s) is most likely to quit? a. Jenna b. Jenna and Jack c. Jamal and Jenna d. Jamal e. Jack 302. Which one of your friends is experiencing a "honeymoon effect"? a. Jenna has just returned home from her honeymoon and now must begin her new job. b. Luke has just quit a job that had many things he did not like, started a new job with many things he likes, and knows there will be even more good things to come. c. Sally has just started her first job and likes many things about it and does not yet know about some other things that she will not like. d. Thelma has just quit a job that had many things she did not like, started a new job with many things she likes, and does not yet know about some other things she will not like. e. Christine has just quit a job that had many things she did not like, started a new job with many things she likes, and does not yet know about some other things that she will also like. 303. If you have a friend who is experiencing the "honeymoon-hangover effect," what does this say about your friend's job satisfaction? a. They were more satisfied on an old job than on a new job. b. They are just as satisfied on a new job as on an old job. c. Their job satisfaction on a new job decreases and then increases. d. Their job satisfaction on a new job increases and then decreases. e. Their job satisfaction on a new job increases and then stays at the same level. 304. What is the last withdrawal response in the progression of withdrawal? a. Absenteeism b. Turnover c. Lateness d. Reduced job performance e. Reduced organizational citizenship behaviours 305. What is the second last withdrawal response in the progression of withdrawal? a. Absenteeism b. Turnover c. Lateness d. Reduced job performance e. Reduced organizational citizenship behaviours 306. What is the proper sequence of events in the progression of withdrawal? a. Reduced job performance, lateness, absenteeism, turnover b. Reduced organizational citizenship behaviours, lateness, absenteeism, turnover c. Lateness, reduced job performance, absenteeism, turnover d. Lateness, reduced organizational citizenship behaviours, absenteeism, turnover e. Reduced job performance, reduced organizational citizenship behaviours, absenteeism, turnover
Chapter 4 307. Zoran has noticed that some of his employees have reduced their organizational citizenship behaviours. He is concerned that this could progress to other forms of withdrawal. What might happen next? a. Employees might reduce their job performance. b. Employees might come to work late. c. Employees might be absent more often. d. Employees might quit. e. Employees might stop helping each other. 308. What underpins many counterproductive work behaviours? a. Personality b. Job dissatisfaction c. A lack of distributive fairness d. A lack of procedural fairness e. A lack of distributive and procedural fairness 309. What is the meaning of counterproductive work behaviours? a. Intentional verbal or physical behaviour meant to harm one's organization or individuals such as coworkers or customers b. Unintentional verbal or physical behaviour meant to harm one's organization or individuals such as coworkers or customers c. Intentional verbal behaviour meant to harm one's organization or individuals such as co-workers or customers d. Intentional physical behaviour meant to harm one's organization or individuals such as co-workers or customers e. Intentional verbal or physical behaviour meant to harm competitive organizations or their workers or customers 310. What factors affect the counterproductive behaviour that is enacted? a. Personality and type of job b. The person's gender and age c. Personality and the person's age d. Personality and the person's gender e. Personality and the work context 311. The concept of organizational citizenship behaviour illustrates one good reason to cultivate the job satisfaction of the workforce. a. True b. False 312. Organizational citizenship behaviour refers to the idea of doing an excellent job in one's formally assigned responsibilities but not going beyond them. a. True b. False 313. Organizational citizenship behaviour is explicitly recognized in most organizations' performance evaluation and reward systems. a. True b. False 314. Satisfaction causes performance when satisfaction is followed by rewards. a. True b. False
Chapter 4 315. The job satisfaction facet that is most predictive of absenteeism is satisfaction with pay. a. True b. False 316. Job satisfaction does not contribute to performance. a. True b. False 317. Intentions to quit are poor predictors of turnover. a. True b. False 318. Not all turnover is bad. a. True b. False 319. Job satisfaction and organizational commitment are directly related to turnover intentions. a. True b. False 320. Employee job satisfaction does not translate into organizational profitability. a. True b. False 321. Certain "shocks," like an earthquake, might stimulate turnover despite satisfaction with one's current job. a. True b. False 322. Reduced job performance is often the first withdrawal response. a. True b. False 323. Certain "shocks" are most likely to stimulate turnover for employees who are dissatisfied with their jobs. a. True b. False 324. If a friend of yours is aware of the good facets of a new job and knows that there are more good things on the horizon, they are experiencing the "honeymoon effect." a. True b. False 325. When people experience the "hangover effect," their job satisfaction rises and then becomes stable. a. True b. False 326. After starting a new job, a friend of yours begins to realize some bad facets of the job. This is what is known as a "hangover effect." a. True b. False
Chapter 4 327. Satisfaction with the content of work is the most important facet in relation to absence from work and performance. a. True b. False 328. People will endure a dissatisfying job if they are embedded in the community. a. True b. False 329. Procedural and interactional fairness are more critical for organizational citizenship behaviour than distributive fairness. a. True b. False 330. The progression of withdrawal begins with lateness. a. True b. False 331. The progression of withdrawal begins with reduced job performance. a. True b. False 332. The progression of withdrawal ends with turnover. a. True b. False 333. Job satisfaction contributes to performance, but performance does not contribute to job satisfaction. a. True b. False 334. All turnover is bad. a. True b. False
Chapter 4
Test Name: 1.
d.Japan
2.
c.Japan.
3.
c.the United States.
4.
a.High power distance cultures tend to also be individualistic, rather than collective, cultures.
5.
a.it may be a good idea to reward groups rather than individuals.
6.
b.collective
7.
a.Values are randomly distributed across the population.
8.
e.Status and rapid career growth
9.
a.Gen Ys and Xers see work as less central, value leisure more, and are more inclined towards work-life balance.
10.
d.The applicant is a Gen X or Gen Y.
11.
d.The extent to which cultures differ in values
12.
a.impedes communication.
13.
d.Cultural distance
14.
e.distant cultures.
15.
a.the capability to function and manage well in culturally diverse environments.
16.
b.cultural intelligence.
17.
d.knowledge, motivation, and behaviour.
18.
d.Strong, clear standards for behaviour and strong sanctions for deviation from those standards.
19.
b.loose cultures.
20.
c.cultural tightness versus looseness.
21.
a.tight cultures.
22.
a.Tight culture
23.
a.Tight cultures
24.
b.Loose cultures
25.
d.Singapore
26.
d.Generation XY
Chapter 4 27.
b.False
28.
b.False
29.
a.True
30.
a.True
31.
b.False
32.
a.True
33.
b.False
34.
b.False
35.
a.True
36.
a.True
37.
a.True
38.
b.False
39.
express them differently
40.
creative
41.
Japan
42.
collective
43.
Values
44.
power distance
45.
Japanese
46.
distance
47.
communications
48.
difficult
49.
cultures
50.
intelligence
51.
motivation
52.
global
53.
Tight
54.
c.what we think and what we feel.
Chapter 4 55.
c.attitude.
56.
b.Belief + value = attitude.
57.
c.the attitude is strongly and confidently held.
58.
c.When people have direct experience with the target of the attitude and the attitude is held strongly and confidently
59.
sexes
60.
Tight, Tighter
61.
Loose, Looser
62.
tight, tighter
63.
Power distance – Canada ranks relatively low; uncertainty avoidance – Canada is low; masculinity/femininity – Canada ranks in the middle of the countries studied by Hofstede; and individualism/collectivism – Canada is highly individualistic.
64.
Values are broad preferences towards certain outcomes over others. Beliefs are conclusions drawn about ideas which may or may not be accurate. Attitudes are evaluations directed towards specific preferences or targets. In our model of attitude formation, beliefs and values combine to form an attitude which influences behaviour. For example, "having a good job is important" (a value) and "my job is not very good" (a belief) could create the attitude "I hate my job" and ultimately lead a worker to quit.
65.
There are five generations in the workplace today: Traditionalists, Baby Boomers, Generation X, the Millennials (or Generation Y), and Generation Z. There is some indication that Gen X and Y are more inclined to value status and rapid career growth than are Boomers. There is also evidence that Generations X, Y, and Z compared to Boomers, see work as less central, value leisure more, and are more inclined towards work-life balance. However, the evidence indicates that all work generations share the same values but express them differently.
66.
An attitude is a fairly stable evaluative tendency to respond consistently to some specific object, situation, person, or category of people. Attitudes are tendencies to respond to the target of the attitude. Although attitudes often influence our behaviour toward some object, situation, person, or group, attitudes are not always consistent with behaviour. Attitudes provide useful information over and above the actions that we can observe. Behaviour is most likely to correspond to attitudes when people have direct experience with the target of the attitude and when the attitude is strongly and confidently held. Attitudes are a function of what we think and what we feel. That is, attitudes are the product of a related belief and value.
67.
c.emotional labour.
68.
b.workers don't see their jobs as offering what they want.
69.
d.both women are experiencing equity.
70.
b.Pay
71.
e.All of the above
72.
d.job satisfaction.
73.
c.facet satisfaction.
Chapter 4 74.
b.Job Descriptive Index
75.
b.The Job Descriptive Index measures facet and overall job satisfaction.
76.
c.partially due to his disposition.
77.
a.Rita should be experiencing inequity.
78.
e.All of the above
79.
d.distributive fairness.
80.
a.equity.
81.
c.Lee's outputs
82.
d.increase facet satisfaction.
83.
b.Extraverted and conscientious
84.
d.Intense, often short-lived, feelings caused by a particular event
85.
a.True
86.
b.False
87.
b.False
88.
b.False
89.
b.False
90.
b.False
91.
b.False
92.
a.True
93.
a.True
94.
a.True
95.
b.False
96.
b.False
97.
a.True
98.
b.False
99.
a.True
100. b.False 101. a.True
Chapter 4 102. a.True 103. b.False 104. b.False 105. a.True 106. b.False 107. b.False 108. b.False 109. attitude 110. Loose 111. The implications of cultural variation in values for organizational behaviour include exporting OB theories, importing OB theories, appreciating global customers, and developing global employees. 112. Cultural intelligence is the capability to function and manage well in culturally diverse environments. It encompasses knowledge, motivation, and behaviour that contribute to good cross-cultural functioning. It has a number of benefits. People with high CI tend to score high on intercultural adjustment, global leadership, and performance in intercultural settings. 113. Cultural distance refers to the extent to which cultures differ in values. In general, greater cultural distance impedes communication and makes negotiations, mergers, acquisitions, and joint ventures more difficult. In addition, expatriates working abroad will generally find it more difficult to adjust to more distant cultures. Exposure to distant cultures has some benefits. Multicultural experiences can enhance creativity, communication skills, generalized trust, and well-being as well as increase salaries and promotions. 114. c.Not so intense, long-lived, diffuse feelings 115. e.Seeing a co-worker being put down by a manager provokes emotional anger and lowers one's job satisfaction. 116. a.Pleasant service encounters contribute to the service provider's satisfaction as well as to that of the customer. 117. d.Emotional labour 118. d.Waiter, bank teller, flight attendant 119. e.All of the above 120. c.their boss. 121. c.When people feel that they have received respectful and informative communication about some outcome 122. d.You will be dissatisfied with the system. 123. c.You will be dissatisfied with your boss. 124. e.respectful and informative.
Chapter 4 125. c.Procedural fairness and interactional fairness can offset the negative effects of distributive unfairness. 126. e.People high in self-esteem and internal locus of control are more satisfied. 127. d.Sasha will be more satisfied than Ellen. 128. d.dirty work. 129. b.boosts job satisfaction and reduces stress. 130. d.High pay 131. c.Millennials. 132. b.Many people doing dirty work express considerable job satisfaction. 133. b.10 percent 134. d.People tend to overestimate how much pay influences their job satisfaction and underestimate the impact of challenging and meaningful work. 135. b.False 136. a.True 137. b.False 138. b.False 139. a.True 140. b.False 141. b.False 142. b.False 143. b.False 144. a.True 145. b.False 146. a.True 147. b.False 148. a.True 149. a.True 150. b.False 151. b.False
Chapter 4 152. b.False 153. a.True 154. b.False 155. b.False 156. b.False 157. a.True 158. b.False 159. a.True 160. b.False 161. b.False 162. a.True 163. b.False 164. a.True 165. a.True 166. a.True 167. b.False 168. a.True 169. b.False 170. stress 171. discrepancy 172. Procedural 173. Distributive 174. outcomes 175. Job 176. distributive 177. low 178. job satisfaction 179. Emotions
Chapter 4 180. Moods 181. Affective events theory 182. Emotional contagion 183. labour 184. interactional fairness 185. boss 186. system 187. neuroticism 188. stress 189. dirty work 190. display rules 191. distributive fairness 192. stressful 193. interactional 194. unfair 195. people 196. Millennials 197. job satisfaction 198. pay 199. meaningful work 200. Equity theory suggests that job satisfaction stems from a comparison of the inputs one invests in a job and the outcomes one receives in comparison with the inputs and outcomes of another person or group. In the example, Minjin may perceive that her inputs—years of education, long hours, dedication to her field, etc.— are disproportionately greater than those of Shelley in comparison to the outcomes—higher pay—which may, in fact, not be all that great after taxes! If Minjin compares herself to other doctors, she might also perceive inequity given her inputs and outcomes relative to other doctors. On the other hand, Shelley might perceive a more favourable ration of inputs to outcomes compared to other plumbers. 201. Mentally challenging work, meaningful work, adequate compensation, career opportunities, and people. 202. Affective events theory explains how emotions and moods affect job satisfaction. Events or experiences at work can lead to certain emotions and moods which in turn influence employee job satisfaction. For example, seeing a co-worker being yelled at and put down by a manager might provoke emotional anger and disgust and then lower one's job satisfaction.
Chapter 4 203. Emotional labour is the requirement for people to conform to certain "display rules" in their job behaviour in spite of their true mood or emotions. There is growing evidence that the frequent need to suppress negative emotions takes a toll on job satisfaction and increases stress. An example is when an employee must remain calm and civil even when being harassed and insulted by customers. Flight attendants who must be calm and pleasant when interacting with rude passengers is an example. However, the requirement to express positive emotions, especially when you are really feeling positive, boosts job satisfaction and reduces stress. 204. Organizations should be aware of three kinds of fairness: distributive fairness, procedural fairness, and interactional fairness. Distributive fairness has to do with the outcomes employees receive; procedural fairness has to do with the process that led to those outcomes; and interactional fairness concerns how these matters are communicated to employees. Organizations need to ensure that employees receive what they deserve from their jobs. In this regard, it is important to consider employees' inputs, outcomes, comparison alternatives (compare them against the inputs and outcomes of some other relevant person or group), and to study how equity theory operates to influence distributive fairness. Organizations should also ensure that the process used to determine work outcomes is reasonable, and that employees receive respectful and informative communication about these outcomes. The three types of fairness are related in several respects. First, procedural fairness is especially likely to provoke dissatisfaction when people also see distributive fairness as being low. Second, it is possible for absolutely fair outcomes or procedures to be perceived as unfair when they are inadequately or uncaringly explained. And third, both procedural and interactional fairness can to some extent offset the negative effects of distributive unfairness. Recent findings suggest that inconsistency, being fairly treated sometimes but not others, may be more stressful than consistent unfair treatment. 205. Dirty work refers to jobs that have some physical, social, or moral stigma attached to them by the public. Research has shown that many people doing dirty work actually express considerable job satisfaction. This is because those doing dirty work often find social solidarity with each other and develop strong occupational cultures that reframe their work to stress the positive and foster cohesion. In addition, a study of domestic cleaners and refuse workers, who were often immigrants with little education and unstable employment histories, found they were happy to be able to secure regular work, and their expectations were thus set rather low. 206. a.True 207. b.False 208. a.True 209. organizational citizenship behaviour 210. organizational citizenship behaviour 211. the work itself 212. rewards 213. shocks 214. customer, client 215. honeymoon effect 216. turnover 217. hangover effect 218. intentions
Chapter 4 219. content of the work 220. organizational citizenship behaviour 221. organizational citizenship behaviours 222. lateness 223. absenteeism 224. turnover 225. rewards 226. satisfaction/performance 227. Job dissatisfaction 228. counterproductive work behaviour 229. Research suggests that his prediction about absenteeism is probably wrong, but he may be right about turnover. The association between job satisfaction and absenteeism is generally small; work content is actually the best predictor of job satisfaction. The association between job satisfaction and turnover is moderately strong, but stated intentions to quit are actually a better predictor of turnover. 230. There is evidence that job satisfaction causes performance and that the most important facet has to do with the content of the work itself. Interesting, challenging jobs are most likely to stimulate high performance. Although job satisfaction contributes to performance, performance could also contribute to job satisfaction when good performance is followed by rewards. As a result, employees are more likely to be satisfied. However, contemporary research indicates that satisfaction is more likely to affect performance, rather than the reverse. 231. Certain "shocks" stimulate turnover even when one or more employees are satisfied with their jobs; an employee's dissatisfaction might be offset by a strong commitment to the organization; an employee might be so embedded in the community that they do not want to move; a weak job market and limited employment alternatives are also some reasons why dissatisfied people might not quit their jobs. 232. There is growing evidence that employee job satisfaction is related to customer or client satisfaction as well as organizational profitability. Reasons for how employee job satisfaction translates into customer satisfaction include: reduced absenteeism and turnover; organizational citizenship behaviour; a good mood among employees that is contagious for customers. 233. You should tell them that a decrease in job satisfaction often precedes turnover and that those who quit experience a boost in satisfaction on their new job. This boost is due in part to a "honeymoon effect" in which the bad facets of the old job are gone, the good facets of the new job are apparent, and the bad facets of the new job are not yet known. You should also let them know that, over time, as these bad facets are recognized, a "hangover effect" can occur in which their overall job satisfaction with the new job will decrease. 234. Fairness is key. Although distributive fairness (especially in terms of pay) is important, procedural and interactional fairness from a supportive manager seem especially critical. If the manager strays from the prescriptions for procedural fairness, OCB can suffer. If one feels unfairly treated, it might be difficult to lower formal performance for fear of dire consequences. It might be much easier to withdraw the less visible, informal activities that make up OCB. On the other hand, fair treatment and its resulting satisfaction might be reciprocated with OCB.
Chapter 4 235. Research has found that there is sometimes a progression of withdrawal in response to job dissatisfaction. The idea is that people withdraw their attention or work effort in an attempt to compensate for dissatisfaction. This usually begins with more subtle behaviours and progresses to more extreme behaviours. A reduction in OCB is often the first withdrawal response which may be followed in turn by coming to work late, then absenteeism, and ultimately turnover. Managers should be alert to increases in the lower forms of withdrawal, because they may signal bigger problems in the future. 236. Counterproductive work behaviour is intentional verbal or physical behaviour meant to harm one's organization or individuals such as co-workers or customers. Examples of counterproductive behaviour include theft, abusive supervision, and the use of uncivil language, as well as bullying, ostracizing, and undermining others. Job dissatisfaction underpins many of these behaviours. The source of dissatisfaction, the dissatisfied person's personality, and the work context affect exactly which counterproductive behaviour is enacted. 237. c.turnover. 238. a.A generous pension fund 239. c.She has high continuance commitment. 240. e.He has high normative commitment. 241. c.Continuance commitment 242. e.normative commitment. 243. c.Continuance commitment 244. c.High continuance commitment and low affective commitment 245. c.Give her more interesting work. 246. e.All forms of commitment reduce turnover intentions and actual turnover. 247. b.Because it focuses attention on goals 248. c.affective commitment. 249. d.Having different relationships with employee groups 250. a.High affective commitment 251. c.High continuance commitment 252. b.Fully committed (high on all three types) 253. a.True 254. b.False 255. b.False 256. b.False 257. b.False
Chapter 4 258. b.False 259. a.True 260. b.False 261. b.False 262. a.True 263. a.True 264. b.False 265. Affective 266. affective 267. commitment 268. affective 269. Continuance 270. normative 271. turnover intentions or actual turnover 272. Continuance 273. Affective 274. affective 275. commitment 276. affective 277. Affective commitment—"I want to stay because I love my job and this company." Continuance commitment—"I have to stay because I don't want to relocate." Normative commitment—"I should stay with this company because they helped pay for my business education." 278. The impact of changes in the workplace on employees' commitment to their organization can be seen in three main areas: changes in the nature of employees' commitment to the organization; changes in the focus of employees' commitment; and the multiplicity of employer-employee relationships within organizations. 279. Yes, there definitely can be. Very high levels of commitment can cause conflicts between family life and work life. Also, very high levels of commitment have often been implicated in unethical and illegal behaviour, including a General Electric price-fixing conspiracy. Finally, high levels of commitment to a particular form or style of organization can cause a lack of innovation and lead to resistance when a change in the culture is necessary.
Chapter 4 280. The best predictor of affective commitment is interesting and satisfying work. Role clarity and having one's expectations met after being hired also contribute to affective commitment. Continuance commitment occurs when people feel that leaving the organization will result in personal sacrifice or they perceive good alternative employment is lacking. Continuance commitment increases with the length of time a person is employed by an organization. Normative commitment is fostered by benefits that build a sense of obligation to the organization such as tuition reimbursement as well as strong identification with an organization's product or service, and certain socialization practices that emphasize loyalty to the organization. High affective commitment is associated with elevated job satisfaction and lower work stress, while high continuance commitment due to lack of alternatives provokes dissatisfaction and stress. All forms of commitment reduce turnover intentions and actual turnover. Affective commitment is positively related to performance; however, continuance commitment is negatively related to performance. 281. b.Content of the work 282. b.provide rewards for good performance. 283. b.job satisfaction is more likely to contribute to performance. 284. c.Employees who perform better will be rewarded so they will be more likely to be satisfied. 285. c.Content of the work 286. d.intentions about quitting. 287. b.is positively related to job satisfaction. 288. b.False 289. a.True 290. a.True 291. b.False 292. b.False 293. b.False 294. b.unlikely to be rewarded directly and explicitly by the organization. 295. b.increase job satisfaction. 296. a.Job satisfaction, organizational commitment, and "shocks" 297. d.Turnover intentions and comparison of alternatives 298. b.Employee job satisfaction is related to customer satisfaction and organizational profitability. 299. b.Reduced organizational citizenship behaviours 300. a.Kamal 301. d.Jamal
Chapter 4 302. d.Thelma has just quit a job that had many things she did not like, started a new job with many things she likes, and does not yet know about some other things she will not like. 303. d.Their job satisfaction on a new job increases and then decreases. 304. b.Turnover 305. a.Absenteeism 306. b.Reduced organizational citizenship behaviours, lateness, absenteeism, turnover 307. b.Employees might come to work late. 308. b.Job dissatisfaction 309. a.Intentional verbal or physical behaviour meant to harm one's organization or individuals such as co-workers or customers 310. e.Personality and the work context 311. a.True 312. b.False 313. b.False 314. b.False 315. b.False 316. b.False 317. b.False 318. a.True 319. a.True 320. b.False 321. b.False 322. b.False 323. b.False 324. b.False 325. b.False 326. a.True 327. a.True 328. a.True
Chapter 4 329. a.True 330. b.False 331. b.False 332. a.True 333. b.False 334. b.False
Chapter 5 1.
Effort, persistence, and direction are basic components of a. equity. b. expectancy. c. motivation. d. performance. e. attitude.
2.
According to the text, which of the following is NOT a basic characteristic or component of motivation? a. Effort b. Performance c. Persistence d. Direction e. Goals
3.
Which of the following statements about motivation and performance is FALSE? a. A person could be highly motivated and still perform poorly. b. A person could perform fairly well despite low motivation. c. Motivation is defined as the extent to which workers contribute to achieving organizational objectives. d. Task understanding is important for motivation to be converted into performance. e. General cognitive ability and emotional intelligence are important for motivation to be converted into performance.
4.
When we speak of a person being motivated, we usually mean that the person a. works hard and keeps at it. b. directs their behaviour. c. keeps at it and directs their behaviour. d. works hard and directs their behaviour. e. works hard, keeps at it, and directs their behaviour.
5.
Which characteristics of motivation refer mainly to the quantity of work an individual produces? a. Effort and persistence b. Effort and direction c. Persistence and direction d. Effort and goals e. Persistence and goals
6.
Which of the following is most likely to stimulate intrinsic motivation? a. High pay b. Challenging job c. Close supervision d. Generous fringe benefits e. Company policies
7.
Al told his friends that "the job makes me feel good about myself. I feel a real sense of accomplishment at the end of the day." Al is probably a. intrinsically motivated. b. extrinsically motivated. c. fulfilling his relatedness needs on the job. d. experiencing inequity. e. self-actualized.
Chapter 5 8.
"An interesting job that pays well" suggests that the job a. meets the motivational requirements of equity theory. b. is high in intrinsic motivation. c. is high in extrinsic motivation. d. is high in intrinsic and extrinsic motivation. e. is high in extrinsic motivation but low in intrinsic motivation.
9.
Some researchers have argued that intrinsic and extrinsic motivation are incompatible. By this, they mean that a. intrinsic rewards may decrease extrinsic motivation. b. extrinsic rewards may decrease intrinsic motivation. c. extrinsic rewards usually lead to better performance than intrinsic rewards. d. intrinsic rewards usually lead to better performance than extrinsic rewards. e. when used in combination, they result in lower levels of performance.
10.
You have two co-workers who you like to work with because they are hard workers. Sal says he works hard because of the pay and benefits. Trisha says she works hard because the job gives her feelings of achievement and accomplishment. What can you say about your two co-workers? a. Sal has intrinsic motivation and Trisha has intrinsic motivation. b. Sal has extrinsic motivation and Trisha has extrinsic motivation. c. Sal has autonomous motivation and Trisha has controlled motivation. d. Sal has intrinsic motivation and Trisha has extrinsic motivation. e. Sal has extrinsic motivation and Trisha has intrinsic motivation.
11.
Which of the following statements is most accurate? a. Intrinsic but not extrinsic motivation is positively related to performance. b. Extrinsic but not intrinsic motivation is positively related to performance. c. Intrinsic motivation is positively related to performance and extrinsic motivation is negatively related. d. Extrinsic motivation is positively related to performance and intrinsic motivation is negatively related. e. Both intrinsic and extrinsic motivation are positively related to performance.
12.
Which of the following statements is most accurate? a. Intrinsic motivation is more strongly related to the quantity of performance. b. Extrinsic motivation is more strongly related to the quantity of performance. c. Extrinsic motivation is more strongly related to the quality of performance. d. Extrinsic and intrinsic motivation are similarly related to the quality of performance. e. Extrinsic and intrinsic motivation are similarly related to the quantity of performance.
13.
Which of the following statements is most accurate? a. Intrinsic motivation is more strongly related to the quality of performance. b. Intrinsic motivation is more strongly related to the quantity of performance. c. Extrinsic motivation is more strongly related to the quality of performance. d. Extrinsic and intrinsic motivation are similarly related to the quality of performance. e. Extrinsic and intrinsic motivation are similarly related to the quantity of performance.
14.
Which of the following statements is most accurate? a. Intrinsic motivation is especially beneficial for performance on mundane tasks. b. Extrinsic motivation is especially beneficial for performance on complex tasks. c. Intrinsic motivation is especially beneficial for performance on complex tasks. d. Extrinsic and intrinsic motivation are similarly beneficial on mundane tasks. e. Extrinsic and intrinsic motivation are similarly beneficial on complex tasks.
Chapter 5 15.
Which of the following statements is most accurate? a. Extrinsic motivation is especially beneficial for performance on mundane tasks. b. Extrinsic motivation is especially beneficial for performance on complex tasks. c. Intrinsic motivation is especially beneficial for performance on mundane tasks. d. Extrinsic and intrinsic motivation are similarly beneficial on mundane tasks. e. Extrinsic and intrinsic motivation are similarly beneficial on complex tasks.
16.
What does the motivation purity bias refer to? a. Job candidates who express satisfaction with extrinsic rewards are perceived as more intrinsically motivated. b. Job candidates who express satisfaction with intrinsic and extrinsic rewards are perceived as more motivated. c. Job candidates who express satisfaction with intrinsic rewards are perceived as less extrinsically motivated. d. Job candidates who express satisfaction with intrinsic rewards are perceived as more intrinsically motivated. e. Job candidates who express satisfaction with extrinsic rewards are perceived as less intrinsically motivated.
17.
Which of the following is most accurate? a. Job candidates with an expressed interest in intrinsic motivation are more likely to be hired than those with an expressed interest in extrinsic motivation. b. Job candidates with an expressed interest in extrinsic motivation are more likely to be hired than those with an expressed interest in intrinsic motivation. c. Job candidates with an expressed interest in intrinsic and extrinsic motivation are more likely to be hired. d. Job candidates that do not express an interest in intrinsic or extrinsic motivation are more likely to be hired. e. Job candidates that express an interest in intrinsic motivation and express a lack of interest in extrinsic motivation are more likely to be hired than those with an expressed interest in intrinsic and extrinsic motivation.
18.
Researchers have argued that making intrinsic rewards contingent upon performance can reduce extrinsic motivation. a. True b. False
19.
Job candidates who express satisfaction with extrinsic rewards are perceived as less intrinsically motivated by decision makers. a. True b. False
20.
According to the motivation purity bias, job candidates who express satisfaction with extrinsic rewards are perceived as less intrinsically motivated by decision makers. a. True b. False
21.
According to the motivation purity bias, job candidates who express satisfaction with intrinsic rewards are perceived as less extrinsically motivated by decision makers. a. True b. False
Chapter 5 22.
Job candidates with an expressed interest in intrinsic motivation are more likely to be hired than those with an expressed interest in extrinsic motivation. a. True b. False
23.
Job candidates with an expressed interest in extrinsic motivation are more likely to be hired than those with an expressed interest in intrinsic motivation. a. True b. False
24.
People's motivation is often affected by how they see others being __________ .
25.
The text defines __________ as the extent to which persistent effort is directed towards a goal.
26.
__________ and persistence mainly refer to the quantity of work an individual produces.
27.
Effort and persistence mainly refer to the __________ of work an individual produces.
28.
A controversy exists as to whether the provision of __________ rewards for task performance might damage intrinsic motivation.
29.
__________ motivation is self-applied and stems from a direct relationship between the person and the task.
30.
__________ motivation is more strongly related to the quantity of performance.
31.
__________ motivation is more strongly related to the quality of performance.
32.
Extrinsic motivation is more strongly related to the __________ of performance.
33.
Intrinsic motivation is more strongly related to the __________ of performance.
34.
Intrinsic motivation is especially beneficial for performance on __________ tasks.
35.
Extrinsic motivation is especially beneficial for performance on __________ tasks.
36.
__________ motivation is especially beneficial for performance on mundane tasks.
Chapter 5 37.
__________ motivation is especially beneficial for performance on complex tasks.
38.
According to the __________ job candidates who express satisfaction with extrinsic rewards are perceived as less intrinsically motivated by decision makers.
39.
Job candidates with an expressed interest in __________ motivation are more likely to be hired than those with an expressed interest in __________ motivation.
40.
Gordon Wong, the VP of Human Resources at Zeta Manufacturing, is concerned about the apparent lack of motivation among Zeta's employees. At a meeting with company executives, he proposes that workers' wages be immediately increased by 20 percent in order to improve motivation levels. Julia Franco, the VP of Operations disagrees. "If you throw more money at them, they will become even less motivated!" she exclaims. Who is correct? Explain your answer.
41.
Compare and contrast intrinsic and extrinsic motivation and discuss the relationship of each with performance.
42.
The extent to which an organizational member contributes to achieving the objectives of the organization is called a. effort. b. performance. c. intrinsic motivation. d. extrinsic motivation. e. expectancy.
43.
A person's overall capacity and efficiency for processing information is called a. performance. b. motivation. c. emotional intelligence. d. general cognitive ability. e. intelligence.
44.
Which of the following is most accurate about the relationship between general cognitive ability and performance? a. General cognitive ability predicts performance only on mental tasks. b. General cognitive ability predicts performance only on manual tasks. c. General cognitive ability does not predict performance. d. General cognitive ability is a better predictor of performance for more complex tasks. e. General cognitive ability predicts performance to the same degree on all tasks.
45.
General cognitive ability predicts a. learning, training, career success, and job satisfaction. b. learning, training, job satisfaction, and job performance. c. motivation, training, job satisfaction, and job performance. d. learning, training, career success, and job performance. e. motivation, training, career success, and job performance.
Chapter 5 46.
From bottom to top, what is the correct order of Salovey and Mayer's model of emotional intelligence? a. Perception of emotions; understanding of emotions; use and assimilation of emotions; management of emotions b. Management of emotions; understanding of emotions; use and assimilation of emotions; perception of emotions c. Perception of emotions; management of emotions; understanding of emotions; use and assimilation of emotions d. Perception of emotions; use and assimilation of emotions; understanding of emotions; management of emotions e. Understanding of emotions; perception of emotions; use and assimilation of emotions; management of emotions
47.
What step is the most basic level of emotional intelligence? a. Use and assimilation of emotions b. Perception of emotions c. Understanding of emotions d. Management of emotions e. It depends on the situation
48.
Being able to calm oneself when angry or lower the anxiety of another person is an example of a. management of emotions. b. perception of emotions. c. understanding of emotions. d. use and assimilation of emotions. e. general cognitive ability.
49.
Emotional intelligence is especially important in jobs a. that are complex. b. that involve mental tasks. c. that involve social interaction. d. that involve manual tasks. e. at higher organizational levels.
50.
Research has found that emotional intelligence a. does not predict job performance. b. predicts job performance and academic performance. c. predicts job performance but not academic performance. d. does not predict academic performance. e. predicts academic performance but not job performance.
51.
Which of the following is NOT predicted by general cognitive ability? a. Learning b. Organization citizenship behaviour c. Career success d. Job performance e. Training
52.
The ability to accurately identify emotions in people's faces and nonverbal behaviour is an example of the a. management of emotions. b. understanding of emotions. c. perception of emotions. d. use and assimilation of emotions. e. diagnosis of emotions.
Chapter 5 53.
According to one study, the importance of emotional intelligence for job performance depends on one's a. intrinsic motivation. b. extrinsic motivation. c. cognitive ability. d. controlled motivation. e. autonomous motivation.
54.
Emotional intelligence has been found to be most important for the job performance of employees with a. lower levels of cognitive ability. b. higher levels of cognitive ability. c. higher levels of intrinsic motivation. d. lower levels of intrinsic motivation. e. higher levels of extrinsic motivation.
55.
Which of the following best represents the relationship between emotional intelligence and job performance? a. It predicts job performance above and beyond cognitive ability but not the Big Five personality variables. b. It does not predict job performance above and beyond cognitive ability or the Big Five personality variables. c. It predicts job performance above and beyond the Big Five personality variables but not cognitive ability. d. It predicts job performance above and beyond cognitive ability and the Big Five personality variables. e. It predicts job performance above and beyond cognitive ability and motivation.
56.
Which of the following statements is most accurate? a. General cognitive ability measured in high school has been found to predict career success in terms of job prestige, pay, and income toward the end of one's work life. b. General cognitive ability measured in high school has been found to predict career success in terms of job prestige, pay, and income at the start of one's career. c. General cognitive ability measured in high school has been found to predict career success in terms of job prestige, promotions, and income toward the end of one's work life. d. General cognitive ability measured in high school has been found to predict career success in terms of job prestige, promotions, and income at the start of one's career. e. General cognitive ability measured in university has been found to predict career success in terms of job prestige, pay, and income toward the end of one's work life.
57.
Emotional intelligence is most important for the job performance of employees with high levels of cognitive ability. a. True b. False
58.
If you have a friend who has low cognitive ability, then their emotional intelligence will be important for job performance. a. True b. False
59.
The text defines performance as the extent to which persistent effort is directed towards a goal. a. True b. False
60.
General cognitive ability is only related to performance on complex tasks. a. True b. False
Chapter 5 61.
The most basic step in emotional intelligence is the knowledge and understanding of emotions. a. True b. False
62.
The highest level of emotional intelligence is the perception of emotions. a. True b. False
63.
Emotional intelligence predicts academic performance. a. True b. False
64.
Emotional intelligence is most important for complex and higher-level jobs. a. True b. False
65.
General cognitive ability measured in high school has been found to predict career success in terms of job prestige, pay, and income toward the end of one's work life. a. True b. False
66.
General cognitive ability measured in university has been found to predict career success in terms of job prestige, pay, and income toward the end of one's work life. a. True b. False
67.
General cognitive ability is an even better predictor of performance for more __________ and higher-level jobs.
68.
Emotional intelligence is most important for the job performance of employees with lower levels of __________ .
69.
The text defines __________ as the extent to which a member contributes to achieving the objectives of the organization.
70.
__________ is a term used to refer to a person's basic information processing capabilities.
71.
General cognitive ability is a better predictor of performance for __________ jobs.
72.
__________ is the first and most basic level of emotional intelligence.
73.
__________ is the highest level of emotional intelligence.
Chapter 5 74.
__________ is particularly important in jobs that involve a lot of emotional labour.
75.
General cognitive ability measured in __________ has been found to predict career success in terms of job prestige, pay, and income toward the end of one's work life.
76.
Discuss the relationship between motivation and performance and explain why a person with high motivation might have low performance, and a person with low motivation might have high performance.
77.
"Choosing another comparison person or group" is a reaction that is associated with McClelland's theory of need for achievement. a. True b. False
78.
According to ERG theory, a person whose existence needs are frustrated is likely to regress to a concern with growth needs. a. True b. False
79.
According to self-determination theory, needs for competence, autonomy, and relatedness are important for all individuals. a. True b. False
80.
Autonomy support involves providing employees with opportunities to develop their true potential as individuals to the fullest extent and to express their skills, talents, and emotions in a manner that is most personally fulfilling. a. True b. False
81.
When motivation is __________ , individuals are engaged in a task because they choose to be.
82.
When motivation is __________ , individuals feel they have no choice, and they have to engage in a task.
83.
After a few weeks on the job, you feel that your motivation is __________ because the boss is watching you.
84.
After a few weeks on the job, you feel that your motivation is __________ because the work is interesting and fun.
85.
Some potential motivators might have both extrinsic and intrinsic qualities. a. True b. False
Chapter 5 86.
Both intrinsic and extrinsic motivation are related to performance. a. True b. False
87.
Extrinsic motivation is more strongly related to the quantity of performance. a. True b. False
88.
Extrinsic motivation is more strongly related to the quality of performance. a. True b. False
89.
Intrinsic motivation is more strongly related to the quantity of performance. a. True b. False
90.
Intrinsic motivation is more strongly related to the quality of performance. a. True b. False
91.
Extrinsic motivation is especially beneficial for performance on mundane tasks. a. True b. False
92.
Motivation is the number one problem facing many organizations. a. True b. False
93.
The strength of a person's work-related behaviour is also known as the persistence the person exhibits on the job. a. True b. False
94.
Effort and goals refer mainly to the quantity of work an individual produces. a. True b. False
95.
What is motivation and what are its basic characteristics?
96.
Extrinsic motivation is especially beneficial for performance on complex tasks. a. True b. False
97.
Intrinsic motivation is especially beneficial for performance on complex tasks. a. True b. False
98.
Intrinsic motivation is especially beneficial for performance on mundane tasks. a. True b. False
Chapter 5 99.
People's motivation is often affected by how they see others being treated. a. True b. False
100. Employees can be motivated by goals that are contrary to the objectives of the organization. a. True b. False 101. Need theories are concerned with how various factors motivate people. a. True b. False 102. High performance could occur despite fairly low motivation. a. True b. False 103. From bottom to top, what are the levels in Salovey and Mayer's model of emotional intelligence?
104. What is general cognitive ability and what role does it play in the motivation-performance relationship?
105. According to Maslow, self-actualization is the most potent motivator. a. True b. False 106. According to Maslow, physiological needs are the strongest motivators. a. True b. False 107. Natasha wants a promotion to a more interesting and challenging job but doesn't get it. According to Alderfer's ERG theory and its frustration-regression hypothesis, she may now seek more social support from her boss. a. True b. False 108. High need for achievement is the need profile most consistently predictive of success as a manager. a. True b. False 109. People high in need for achievement tend to set remarkably difficult performance goals. a. True b. False 110. According to Maslow, once a person has experienced self-actualization, they will no longer be motivated by needs. a. True b. False 111. According to Alderfer's ERG theory, a satisfied need is no longer a motivator. a. True b. False
Chapter 5 112. When motivation is controlled, individuals are engaged in a task because they choose to be. a. True b. False 113. People with a high need for achievement prefer to set __________ goals.
114. What are the mechanisms of goal setting? a. Goal specificity, participation, rewards, supportiveness b. Goal specificity, challenge, effort, persistence c. Direction, effort, persistence, feedback d. Goal specificity, challenge, commitment, and feedback e. Direction, effort, persistence, and task strategies 115. Process theories of motivation are concerned with a. how various factors motivate people. b. why various factors motivate people. c. when various factors motivate people. d. what various factors motivate people. e. what various factors motivate people, and how they motivate people. 116. What kind of goals result in more frequent feedback? a. Learning goals b. Performance goals c. Proximal goals d. Distal goals e. Specific goals 117. If you are learning a complex task and you do not have the required knowledge and skills, what kind of goal will be most effective for you? a. Do-your-best goal b. Specific and challenging performance goal c. Specific performance goal d. Specific high-learning goal e. Specific high-performance goal 118. What is the performance impact of specific, challenging goals? a. The same for all kinds of jobs b. Stronger for simple jobs c. Weaker for simple jobs d. Stronger for complex jobs e. Weaker for complex jobs 119. When a task is novel or complex and individuals need to acquire new knowledge and skills for good performance, which of the following is most accurate? a. Setting a high-performance goal will be most effective. b. Setting a specific learning goal will be most effective. c. Setting a high-performance goal and a high-learning goal will be most effective. d. Setting a do-your-best goal will be most effective. e. Setting a high-performance goal and a low-learning goal will be most effective.
Chapter 5 120. You have just been hired to perform a job that you have done before and have the ability to perform effectively. What kind of goal should your boss set for you? a. A specific learning goal b. A do-your-best goal c. A high-performance goal and a high-learning goal d. A high-performance goal e. A high-learning goal and a low-performance goal 121. Which of the following about the relationship between goals and performance is most accurate? a. When a task is novel, a specific challenging performance goal will increase performance. b. When a task is straightforward, a specific learning goal will increase performance. c. When a task is complex, a specific learning goal can decrease performance. d. When a task is straightforward, a specific learning goal can decrease performance. e. When a task is complex, a specific challenging performance goal can decrease performance. 122. Which of the following is TRUE about the classic goal setting study conducted at Weyerhaeuser Company? a. The results were achieved with driver participation. b. The results were achieved with monetary incentives. c. Drivers were assigned a specific learning goal. d. The effects were short-lived. e. Drivers were assigned a specific challenging performance goal. 123. When will setting a specific learning goal be more effective than setting a high-performance goal? a. When the job is simple b. When individuals have the knowledge and skills to perform the task effectively c. When the task is straightforward d. When the task is complex e. When the task is intrinsically motivating 124. The Stinky Cheese company realized that their world-famous cheese doesn't smell really bad anymore as a result of an employee motivation problem. A famous organizational behaviour professor conducted some research and realized that the problem is that employees feel that the tools and equipment they are using are old and need to be replaced. In terms of expectancy theory, what is the problem? a. Low valence and instrumentality b. Low expectancy and instrumentality c. Low valence d. Low expectancy e. Low instrumentality 125. The Stinky Cheese company was having trouble living up to their reputation. Their cheese was not smelling as bad as it should. A famous organizational behaviour professor conducted some research and learned that the employees did not understand what the organization considers to be stinky or how they can get the cheese to smell really bad. In terms of expectancy theory, what is the problem? a. Low valence and instrumentality b. Low expectancy and instrumentality c. Low valence d. Low expectancy e. Low instrumentality 126. A specific high-learning goal is more effective than a specific high-performance goal and a do-your-best goal when individuals are learning to perform a simple task. a. True b. False
Chapter 5 127. Gina sees herself as having identical job outcomes to Rob but having fewer inputs than Rob. According to equity theory, Gina should feel a sense of inequity. a. True b. False 128. Goal __________ refers to an individual's goal preferences in achievement situations.
129. The effect of __________ goal setting on performance is similar to the effect of individual goal setting.
130. In the classic goal setting study conducted at Weyerhaeuser Company, truck drivers were assigned a specific, challenging __________ goal.
131. When a task is straightforward, a specific, high- __________ goal results in higher performance than a doyour-best goal.
132. A specific, high-learning goal is more effective than a specific, high-performance goal or a do-your-best goal when a task is __________ .
133. If you have just started a new job and must perform a complex task, then your boss should set a specific high__________ goal.
134. When individuals lack the knowledge or skills to perform a complex task effectively, a specific and challenging performance goal can __________ performance relative to a do-your-best goal.
135. When a task is straightforward, a specific high-performance goal results in __________ performance than a do-your-best goal.
136. Bashir gives his employees clear instructions and training and then gives them feedback to improve their performance. In expectancy theory terminology, he is boosting __________ .
137. Alice promises her employee a promotion if the employee can land a big contract. In expectancy theory terminology she is boosting __________ .
138. Lew's boss promised him more vacation days if he completed the project on time, but Lew said he just wasn't interested in vacation days. In expectancy theory terminology, Lew is talking about __________ .
139. Equity theory and expectancy theory are two prominent __________ theories of motivation.
Chapter 5 140. At the quarterly meeting, the sales rep met with the sales manager to discuss the next quarter and set the sales target. They both agreed on a number. This is the sales rep's __________ goal for the quarter.
141. After meeting with her sales manager, Jialin began to break down her quarterly sales target into monthly and then weekly benchmarks. These are __________ goals.
142. Imagine workers who are underpaid on an hourly basis. According to equity theory, if these people remain employed their productivity will be __________ .
143. Specific goals are goals that specify an exact level of achievement for people to accomplish in a particular __________ .
144. Specific and challenging goals are most beneficial when they are accompanied by ongoing __________ .
145. Participation can improve performance by increasing the __________ of the goals that employees adopt.
146.
__________ goals focus on knowledge and skill acquisition.
147. Goal orientation is a stable __________ .
148. The mechanisms of goal setting include direction, effort, persistence, and __________ .
149. David Lucero is the Regional Sales Manager for Western Canada at Kapster Enterprises. He enjoys his job and earns a good enough salary to comfortably support his wife and two children in an upscale area of Calgary. He was recently offered a promotion to General Sales Manager for Canada based in Toronto. The promotion would have increased his salary by $10,000 per year and placed him a notch higher on the organization chart. However, the move to Toronto would have resulted in much higher housing expenses, and David's wife would have had to go back to work if they wanted to maintain the same overall living standards. David knew that he would make an excellent GM, but, after some consideration, he declined the offer. Use expectancy theory to explain why David may have turned down the promotion.
150. What are proximal and distal goals? How are they related? Provide examples of each.
151. Research on self-determination theory across cultures found that a. five psychological needs are related to autonomous motivation in all countries. b. no one psychological need is related to autonomous motivation in all countries. c. two psychological needs are related to autonomous motivation in all countries. d. three psychological needs are related to autonomous motivation in all countries. e. one psychological need is related to autonomous motivation in all countries.
Chapter 5 152. Expectancy theory a. applies across cultures because it was formulated to be explicitly cross-cultural. b. applies across cultures because of its flexibility. c. is most relevant to the Western cultures because of its need-based philosophy. d. is most relevant to North America because of its rigid hierarchy. e. applies to nearly as many cultures as Maslow's need hierarchy. 153. What need(s) vary in the size of the relationship with autonomous motivation across cultures? a. Competence and relatedness b. Relatedness and autonomy c. Competence and autonomy d. Relatedness, competence, and autonomy e. Autonomy 154. What motivation theory is power distance likely to be particularly important for? a. Equity theory b. Goal setting theory c. Expectancy theory d. Self-determination theory e. ERG theory 155. What motivation theory has been found to be a cross-culturally valid theory of work motivation? a. Equity theory b. McClelland's theory of needs c. Maslow's need hierarchy d. Self-determination theory e. ERG theory 156. In collective cultures, equal rewards for all in spite of individual performance may be the preferred mode of compensation. This preference actually violates the prescriptions of __________ theory.
157. All three basic psychological needs are related to autonomous motivation in different countries, however, the __________ of the relationships varies across countries for competence and autonomy.
158. All three basic psychological needs are related to autonomous motivation in different countries; however, the size of the relationships varies across countries for __________ and autonomy.
159. Power distance is likely to be important in the __________ process.
160. In cultures where __________ is large, it would be expected that goals be assigned by superiors.
161.
__________ theory has been found to be a cross-culturally valid theory of work motivation.
162. Discuss the extent to which each of the theories of work motivation translate across cultures.
Chapter 5 163. What components of expectancy theory should goal specificity strengthen? a. Expectancy b. Instrumentality c. Valence d. Expectancy and instrumentality e. Expectancy and valence 164. The connection between performance and the occurrence of intrinsic rewards should be strong and reliable because such rewards are a. need satisfying. b. motivational. c. highly desirable. d. highly valent. e. self-administered. 165. Good performance leads to job satisfaction if that performance is rewarded, and job satisfaction in turn leads to good performance. a. True b. False 166. Job satisfaction leads to good performance if that performance is rewarded, and job performance in turn leads to high job satisfaction. a. True b. False 167. Goal specificity should strengthen both expectancy and __________ connections.
168. Chance can help to translate __________ into good performance.
169. The connection between performance and the occurrence of __________ rewards should be strong and reliable.
170. Good performance leads to __________ if that performance is rewarded, and in turn leads to good performance.
171. The connection between performance and the occurrence of intrinsic rewards should be strong and reliable because such rewards are __________ .
172. Discuss how the different theories of motivation can be integrated to explain the relationships between motivation, job performance, and job satisfaction.
173. Equity theory predicts that someone who is underpaid on a piece rate basis will produce a high volume of low-quality output. a. True b. False
Chapter 5 174. Process theories of motivation are concerned with when various factors motivate people. a. True b. False 175. The goal setting study conducted at Weyerhaeuser Company involved drivers participating in goal setting. a. True b. False 176. In the goal setting study conducted at Weyerhaeuser Company, the drivers did not receive monetary incentives. a. True b. False 177. In the goal setting study conducted at Weyerhaeuser Company, the drivers were assigned a specific highlearning goal. a. True b. False 178. When individuals lack the knowledge or skill to perform a task, a specific challenging goal can decrease performance. a. True b. False 179. People with high achievement needs are consistently better performers than people with high affiliation needs. a. True b. False 180. McClelland's affiliation need is essentially equivalent to Maslow's belongingness need. a. True b. False 181. According to McClelland, people with high needs for affiliation are likely to be good salespersons. a. True b. False 182. According to self-determination theory, needs are universal necessities for psychological health. a. True b. False 183. Self-determination theory is a hierarchical need theory of motivation. a. True b. False 184. According to self-determination theory, people differ in the strength of particular needs. a. True b. False 185. According to self-determination theory, three basic physiological needs are important for all individuals. a. True b. False
Chapter 5 186. According to self-determination theory, needs for existence, relatedness, and growth are important for all individuals. a. True b. False 187. If you are learning to perform a new task, your boss should set a specific challenging performance goal for you. a. True b. False 188. If you are performing a task that is straightforward, your boss should set a specific high-learning goal for you. a. True b. False 189. When a task is straightforward, a specific high-performance goal results in higher performance than a doyour-best goal. a. True b. False 190. In expectancy theory, the variable that links first- and second-level outcomes is instrumentality. a. True b. False 191. Ray's boss and mentor showed him in great detail how to write a marketing plan. In expectancy theory terminology, the boss increased Ray's expectancy. a. True b. False 192. Expectancy theory is concerned with specifying how an employee might attempt to choose one first-level outcome instead of another. a. True b. False 193. Valence is the expected value of outcomes. a. True b. False 194. Equity theory predicts that a person who is underpaid on an hourly basis will reduce inputs and perform at a low level. a. True b. False 195. For goals to be challenging, they should be based on past performance. a. True b. False 196. What is the main difference between the need theories and process theories of work motivation?
197. The need theories of motivation are particularly universal in their applicability across cultures. a. True b. False
Chapter 5 198. In more collective cultures, there is a tendency to favour reward allocation based on equality rather than equity. a. True b. False 199. Of all the motivation theories studied in the chapter, expectancy theory handles cross-cultural differences best. a. True b. False 200. Need for achievement and equity concepts are more applicable in collective societies than in individualistic societies. a. True b. False 201. Self-determination theory has been found to be a cross-culturally valid theory of work motivation. a. True b. False 202. Because of its flexibility, __________ is the motivation theory that seems to hold up well or translate best across cultures.
203. Chance can help to translate motivation into good performance. a. True b. False 204. The connection between performance and the occurrence of intrinsic rewards should be strong. a. True b. False 205. When people have their basic psychological needs satisfied, their motivation will be controlled. a. True b. False 206. When people have their basic psychological needs satisfied, their motivation will be autonomous. a. True b. False 207. Autonomy support is most clearly associated with McClelland's theory of needs. a. True b. False 208. Autonomy support is most clearly associated with self-determination theory. a. True b. False 209. Autonomy support involves providing employees with choice and encouragement for personal initiative. a. True b. False
Chapter 5 210. Autonomy support is positively related to the satisfaction of all three basic psychological needs. a. True b. False 211. Maslow's hierarchy of needs is most accurately represented by a pyramid. a. True b. False 212. Maslow's hierarchy of needs is most accurately represented by a ladder. a. True b. False 213. The effect of goals on performance is strongest when individuals have high goal commitment. a. True b. False 214. Participation in goal setting is necessary for goals to improve performance. a. True b. False 215. Participation can improve performance by increasing the difficulty of the goal that employees adopt. a. True b. False 216. Individuals with a learning goal orientation are most concerned about demonstrating their competence in performing a task. a. True b. False 217. Distal goals provide clear markers of progress and result in more frequent feedback. a. True b. False 218. A performance-prove goal orientation is related to learning and performance outcomes. a. True b. False 219. A performance-avoid goal orientation is positively related to learning and job performance. a. True b. False 220.
__________ goals provide clear markers of progress towards a distal goal because they result in more frequent feedback.
221. What advice would you give to a manager about the effective use of expectancy theory as a model to improve motivation in their workplace?
222. Maslow was most interested in people's growth, happiness, and fulfillment in life. a. True b. False
Chapter 5 223. Maslow was most interested in how to motivate workers to maximize productivity and profit. a. True b. False 224. According to Maslow, most people are partially satisfied and unsatisfied in all their basic needs at the same time. a. True b. False 225. According to Maslow, most people are fully satisfied in all their basic needs at the same time. a. True b. False 226.
__________ theories are concerned with what motivates workers.
227.
__________ developed a motivation theory that is hierarchical, meaning that one need must or might be filled before higher-level needs can be filled.
228. In Maslow's hierarchy, __________ needs fall between esteem needs and safety needs.
229. Belongingness needs in Maslow's hierarchy correspond most closely to __________ needs in Alderfer's ERG theory.
230. According to David McClelland, the most effective managers have a high need for __________ .
231. According to Maslow, once an individual has fulfilled their belongingness needs, the ________ needs become motivating. a. affiliation b. esteem c. safety d. relatedness e. physiological 232. Which of the following theories proposes that individuals have basic needs, which are associated with extrinsic motivation, and higher-order needs, which are associated with intrinsic motivation? a. Maslow's hierarchy of needs b. Expectancy theory c. Equity theory d. Goal setting theory e. Valence theory 233. According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, a given worker at a given point in time is most motivated by a. self-actualization because all persons seek to fulfill their highest potential. b. physiological needs because these are most basic and important. c. the highest-level unsatisfied need. d. the lowest-level unsatisfied need. e. belongingness needs because everyone needs some form of social interaction.
Chapter 5 234. According to Maslow, the ________ level ________ need is most motivational. a. lowest-; unsatisfied b. lowest-; satisfied c. highest-; unsatisfied d. highest-; satisfied e. highest-; emotional 235. Alderfer's existence needs correspond closely to Maslow's a. self-actualization needs. b. belongingness needs. c. physiological needs. d. esteem needs. e. growth needs. 236. Alderfer differs from Maslow in that his ERG theory assumes a. growth needs can be completely satisfied just as existence and relatedness needs can be. b. a lower-level need must be gratified before a less concrete need becomes operative. c. a rigid hierarchy of needs exists. d. if higher-level needs are strong but ungratified, individuals will increase their desire for the gratification of lower-level needs. e. the least concrete needs become more desired as they are fulfilled. 237. If Steve desires friendly and supportive supervision, he is trying to fulfill a. his existence needs. b. his relatedness needs. c. his growth needs. d. any one of his needs, depending on which is operative. e. his safety needs. 238. Paulo has a secure, well-paying, but boring job. He gets along well with his boss and his co-workers. Recently, he has put in a bid for several more interesting jobs that have opened up, but each time the job has been given to someone with more seniority. According to Alderfer's ERG theory, Paulo will probably a. seek support and additional attention from his boss and co-workers. b. continue to pursue a more interesting job indefinitely. c. exhibit frequent absenteeism. d. press for higher pay. e. quit his job and leave the company. 239. Which theory proposes a weak or flexible hierarchy of needs? a. Expectancy b. Equity c. ERG d. Maslow's e. Adams' 240. In McClelland's theory of needs sales jobs are attractive to those high in need for ________, and management jobs are attractive to those high in need for ________. a. achievement; power b. affiliation; power c. power; achievement d. achievement; achievement e. achievement; affiliation
Chapter 5 241. A person who is high in need for achievement will tend to favour ________ goals. a. fairly easy b. moderately difficult c. very difficult d. fairly easy or very difficult e. moderately easy 242. McClelland's need for affiliation is most closely related to Alderfer's ________ need. a. resistance b. existence c. growth d. relatedness e. esteem 243. According to McClelland, which need profile characterizes the most effective managers? a. High achievement, high affiliation b. High power, low affiliation c. High achievement, low power d. Low affiliation, high achievement e. High power, high affiliation 244. McClelland's need for affiliation is most closely related to (or an example of) Maslow's ________ needs. a. belongingness b. esteem c. safety d. self-actualization e. physiological 245. Which of the following statements about persons with high need for achievement is least accurate? a. High need achievers tend to excel in sales jobs. b. High need achievers tend to seek out performance feedback. c. High need achievers tend to set extremely difficult goals for themselves. d. High need achievers have a strong desire to perform challenging tasks well. e. High need achievers prefer situations in which they can take personal responsibility for outcomes. 246. You have two good friends who are about to graduate and begin working full-time. Omar wants to open his own small business and Jason wants to be a social worker. According to McClelland's theory of needs, what are the needs of your friends? a. Omar has a high need for power and Jason has a high need for affiliation. b. Omar has a high need for power and Jason has a high need for achievement. c. Omar has a high need for achievement and Jason has a high need for affiliation. d. Omar has a high need for achievement and Jason has a high need for achievement. e. Omar has a high need for affiliation and Jason has a high need for power. 247. Self-determination theory seeks to determine whether a person's motivation is ________ or ________. a. autonomous; controlled b. need based; extrinsic c. expectant; controlled d. valent; autonomous e. valent; equitable
Chapter 5 248. The ________ theory of motivation seeks to help a person understand whether their motivation is either autonomous or controlled. a. equity b. goal setting c. expectancy d. ERG e. self-determination 249. As a manager, you need to evaluate the performance of your employees. Stan seems to be working hard because he wants to get a pay raise. Zola seems to work hard because she finds her work interesting and fun. What can you say about each of these employees? a. Stan's motivation is controlled, and Zola's motivation is controlled. b. Stan's motivation is autonomous, and Zola's motivation is autonomous. c. Stan's motivation is controlled, and Zola's motivation is autonomous. d. Stan's motivation is autonomous, and Zola's motivation is controlled. e. Stan's motivation is extrinsic, and Zola's motivation is controlled. 250. After several months on your new job, you find that your motivation is controlled. What does this mean? a. You are motivated because you like what you are doing. b. You are motivated because the boss likes you. c. You are motivated because you like your boss. d. You are motivated because of the rewards you receive. e. You are motivated because you have to be. 251. Need theories of motivation are concerned with a. how various factors motivate people. b. why various factors motivate people. c. when various factors motivate people. d. what various factors motivate people. e. what various factors motivate people, and how they motivate people. 252. According to Maslow, a. self-actualization needs become weaker as they are gratified. b. self-actualization needs become stronger as they are gratified. c. self-actualization needs are seldom gratified. d. when self-actualization needs are gratified, physiological needs become motivating. e. when self-actualization needs are gratified, people are no longer motivated. 253. N-Ach is an example of a. belongingness or relatedness need. b. growth or relatedness need. c. growth or belongingness need. d. growth or self-actualization need. e. growth or self-esteem need. 254. According to self-determination theory, the extent to which a person's motivation is autonomous or controlled depends on a. the satisfaction of physiological needs. b. the satisfaction of basic psychological needs. c. the satisfaction of growth needs. d. the satisfaction of lower-level needs. e. the satisfaction of higher order needs.
Chapter 5 255. According to self-determination theory, a. needs are hierarchical. b. needs are universal necessities for physiological health. c. needs are relatively stable personality characteristics. d. people differ in the strength of particular needs. e. needs are universal necessities for psychological health. 256. According to self-determination theory, a. there is one basic psychological need that is important for all individuals. b. there is one basic physiological need that is important for all individuals. c. there are three basic psychological needs that are important for all individuals. d. there are three basic physiological needs that are important for all individuals. e. there are no needs that are important for all individuals. 257. According to self-determination theory, what basic psychological needs are important for all individuals? a. Competence, autonomy, and relatedness b. Achievement, affiliation, and power c. Existence, relatedness, and growth d. Lower-level needs and higher-order needs e. Physiological, safety, belongingness, self-esteem, and self-actualization 258. Which of the following is NOT a basic psychological need of self-determination theory? a. Competence b. Relatedness c. Achievement d. Autonomy e. All of the above are basic psychological needs. 259. According to self-determination theory, a. when people have their basic psychological needs satisfied, their motivation will be controlled. b. when people have their basic physiological needs satisfied, their motivation will be controlled. c. when people have their basic psychological needs satisfied, their motivation will be autonomous. d. when people have their basic physiological needs satisfied, their motivation will be autonomous. e. when people have their basic psychological and physiological needs satisfied, their motivation will be autonomous. 260. Providing employees with choice and encouragement for personal initiative is known as a. intrinsic motivation. b. extrinsic motivation. c. autonomy support. d. controlled motivation. e. autonomous motivation. 261. Mika's boss provides her with a meaningful rationale for performing a task, allows her some choice in her work, and understands and acknowledges her feelings and perspectives. What is this a good example of? a. Autonomy support b. Emotional intelligence c. Goal setting d. Expectancy e. Need for achievement
Chapter 5 262. Which of the following is related to the satisfaction of basic psychological needs and autonomous motivation? a. Distal goals b. Proximal goals c. Performance goals d. Autonomy support e. Learning goals 263. Maslow's hierarchy of needs is best portrayed as a a. pyramid. b. triangle. c. ladder. d. rectangle. e. circle. 264. What was Maslow most interested in? a. People's growth and happiness b. People's intrinsic motivation c. People's performance d. How to maximize productivity and profit e. How to change people's behaviour 265. According to Maslow, a. most people are highly unsatisfied with most of their basic needs at the same time. b. most people are highly satisfied with most of their basic needs at the same time. c. most people are partially satisfied and unsatisfied in all their basic needs at various times. d. most people are partially satisfied and unsatisfied in all their basic needs at the same time. e. very few people are satisfied with all their basic needs at the same time. 266. Clarence has been unable to establish friendly, supportive relationships at work. According to Alderfer's ERG theory, this may cause his __________ needs to become stronger.
267. McClelland's need for __________ corresponds most closely to Alderfer's relatedness needs.
268. The theories of Maslow, Alderfer, and McClelland are classified as __________ theories of motivation.
269. According to David McClelland, a sales job is particularly suited to a person who is high in __________ .
270. According to self-determination theory, needs are __________ necessities for psychological health.
271. Self-determination theory posits that needs are not __________ and people do not differ in the strength of particular needs.
Chapter 5 272. According to self-determination theory, there are three basic __________ needs that are important for all individuals.
273. According to self-determination theory, all people have basic psychological needs for __________ , autonomy, and relatedness.
274. When people have their basic psychological needs satisfied, their motivation will be __________ .
275. When people do not have their basic psychological needs satisfied, their motivation will be __________ .
276.
__________ support involves providing employees with choice and encouragement for personal initiative.
277. Autonomy __________ involves providing employees with choice and encouragement for personal initiative.
278. Autonomy support is positively related to the satisfaction of basic psychological needs as well as __________ motivation.
279. Autonomous motivation is related to more effective job performance, especially on __________ tasks.
280. Maslow's hierarchy of needs is most accurately represented as a __________ .
281. Compare and contrast the motivation theories of Maslow and Alderfer. What advice would you have for a manager with respect to applying these theories in their workplace?
282.
According to McClelland's theory, what are the main characteristics of individuals who are high in need of achievement? What types of jobs would likely motivate them?
283. Describe self-determination theory and discuss its implications for motivating employees. According to selfdetermination theory, what should managers do to motivate employees?
284. What are need theories of motivation? Give two examples of a need theory of motivation and discuss the managerial implications of need theories for motivating employees.
Chapter 5 285. The Big Smelly Cheese Company has realized that employees are only motivated if they are promised extrinsic rewards or if the supervisor is carefully watching over them. This made it difficult to keep employees motivated and it has not improved job performance. Therefore, Mr. Stink, the owner of the company, has decided that they need to change their approach to motivation and focus more on autonomous motivation. Do you think this is a good idea? Use self-determination theory to explain what Mr. Stink needs to do and if it will work. Be sure to indicate what he will have to do if he wants his employees' motivation to be autonomous.
286. Two process theories of motivation include a. Maslow's need hierarchy and McClelland's theory of needs. b. Equity and ERG. c. Maslow's need hierarchy and Expectancy. d. Equity and Expectancy. e. Maslow's need hierarchy and ERG. 287. Maurice sees his organization's performance evaluation system as arbitrary, capricious, and unreliable. In motivational terms, this performance evaluation system has reduced a. instrumentality. b. the valence of second-level outcomes. c. expectancy. d. the valence of first-level outcomes. e. both levels of valence. 288. The manager who tells an employee "I'll recommend you for a promotion if you implement the new system by January" is attempting to strengthen which expectancy theory component? a. Instrumentality b. Valence of second-level outcomes c. Expectancy d. Needs e. Relatedness 289. In expectancy theory, the valence of first-level outcomes is the sum of the product of a. second-level valences and expectancies. b. force and instrumentalities. c. expectancies and instrumentalities. d. second-level valences and instrumentalities. e. second-level instrumentalities and expectancies. 290. According to the expectancy theory of motivation, if we find that workers feel that they are unable to perform at a high level, we are dealing with a problem of a. instrumentality. b. expectancy. c. valence. d. second-level outcomes. e. relatedness.
Chapter 5 291. Mike, a production worker, reports on a research questionnaire that high performance has a valence of 10, average performance a valence of 5, and low performance a valence of 1. Also, he reports that he is certain that he can perform at low or average levels but only 40 percent sure that he can perform at a high level. According to expectancy theory, at which level should Mike perform? a. High b. Average c. Low d. High if task complexity is low to moderate e. Instrumentalities are also needed to answer this question. 292. Cassandra's boss has not had time to clearly explain her new job to her. According to expectancy theory, this should have a direct impact on a. instrumentality. b. expectancy. c. first-level valence. d. second-level valence. e. relatedness. 293. According to the expectancy theory of motivation, if we find that employees don't like the rewards the firm offers, we are dealing with a problem of a. instrumentality. b. expectancy. c. inputs. d. second-level outcomes. e. first-level outcomes. 294. The consultant said to a client company, "Look, you people offer the highest pay in the industry! If you tied it to performance, you'd get some motivational punch." The consultant is saying that a. expectancy is low. b. instrumentality is low and second-level valence is high. c. second-level valence is low and instrumentality is high. d. expectancy is high. e. second-level valence is low and instrumentality is low. 295. Which theory suggests that a social comparison process which affects perceived fairness can have an impact on motivation? a. ERG theory b. McClelland's need theory c. Equity theory d. Need hierarchy theory e. Maslow's hierarchy of needs 296. Which theory of work motivation most explicitly involves a comparison with others? a. Equity b. Expectancy c. ERG d. Maslow e. Alderfer
Chapter 5 297. According to equity theory, an underpaid individual would not ________ to achieve equity. a. accept a job in another organization b. reduce their inputs c. reduce their outcomes d. perceptually distort their inputs or outcomes e. perceptually distort the inputs or outcomes of a comparison person 298. According to equity theory, the overpaid worker a. should not experience inequity. b. may increase inputs to achieve equity. c. may reduce inputs to achieve equity. d. may increase outcomes to achieve equity. e. may reduce inputs and increase outcomes to achieve equity. 299. According to equity theory, individuals compare themselves with others when determining if the company is treating them fairly. Which of the following comparisons is likely to happen? a. Men tend to make equity comparisons with men. b. Men tend to make equity comparisons with women. c. Men tend to make equity comparisons with both men and women. d. Women tend to make equity comparisons with men. e. None of the above 300. How might equity theory explain employee theft? a. High work expectancies b. Low need for achievement c. High work instrumentalities d. Low work outcomes e. Low work inputs 301. Which of the following best represents the findings from research on equity theory? a. More support when inequity occurs because of underpayment than overpayment b. More support when inequity occurs because of overpayment than underpayment c. Little support when inequity occurs because of underpayment and overpayment d. Similar support when inequity occurs because of underpayment and overpayment e. It depends on whether the comparison person is a male or female. 302. Sandra is a sales rep working for a bottled water distribution company whose clients are large companies in her city. Each quarter, she meets with her sales manager to jointly set a quarterly (3 month) sales target as well as create a road map of weekly goals to help her reach her quarterly numbers. Her quarterly sales benchmark is a(n) ________ goal and the weekly targets are ________ goals. a. proximal; distal b. intrinsic, extrinsic c. automatic; guided d. distal; proximal e. distal; intrinsic 303. Which of the following is a good practical example of goal challenge? a. To encourage a D student to set a goal of achieving Cs in the coming semester b. To encourage a D student to set a goal of achieving Bs in the coming semester c. To encourage a D student to set a goal of achieving As in the coming semester d. To encourage a D student to set a goal of achieving Ds in the coming semester e. It depends on the student.
Chapter 5 304. Which of the following is most accurate concerning participation in goal setting? a. Participation in goal setting always increases performance. b. Participation in goal setting never increases performance. c. Participation in goal setting sometimes increases performance and sometimes it does not. d. Participation should never be used for goal setting in a climate of distrust between employees and management. e. Participation in goal setting almost always results in the setting of less difficult goals. 305. Research shows that participation in goal setting a. can reduce performance by lowering the difficulty of goals that employees adopt. b. can improve performance by lowering the difficulty of goals that employees adopt. c. can improve performance by increasing the difficulty of goals that employees adopt. d. can reduce performance by increasing the difficulty of goals that employees adopt. e. has no effect at all on performance or goal difficulty. 306. What is the relationship between monetary incentives in goal setting and performance? a. Goal setting has led to performance increases without monetary incentives for goal accomplishment. b. Goal setting has led to performance decreases with monetary incentives for goal accomplishment. c. Goal setting has led to performance decreases when monetary incentives are not provided for goal accomplishment. d. Goal setting only leads to performance increases when monetary incentives for goal accomplishment are provided. e. It depends on the employees and the incentive. 307. Goals that focus attention on the achievement of specific performance outcomes are called a. learning goals. b. outcome goals. c. performance goals. d. specific goals. e. challenging goals. 308. Goals that focus on knowledge and skill acquisition are called a. process goals. b. performance goals. c. task goals. d. strategy-oriented goals. e. learning goals. 309. If your goal in this course is to achieve a particular grade, what kind of goal have you set? a. A challenging goal b. A learning goal c. A performance goal d. An outcome goal e. A proximal goal 310. Controlled motivation has to do with being in control of your own motivation. a. True b. False 311. Autonomous motivation has been shown to facilitate effective performance. a. True b. False
Chapter 5 312. When motivation is autonomous, individuals are engaged in a task because they choose to be. a. True b. False 313. What are the basic characteristics of highly motivating goals?
314. What is the difference between a learning-goal orientation, a performance-prove goal orientation, and a performance-avoid goal orientation, and what effect do they have on learning and performance?
315. What are the mechanisms that explain the relationship between goals and performance?
316. Discuss some of the factors that might affect commitment to challenging, specific goals.
317. Describe what makes equity theory a theory of motivation and the tactics that people might be motivated to employ.
318. As a manager who is responsible for employee performance, you are considering using goal setting to motivate employees to improve their performance. However, you are not sure what kinds of goals to set. You have new employees who are learning to perform complex tasks and you also have experienced employees who can perform their tasks effectively. In the past, you have just told all employees to do their best. What kinds of goals should you set to motivate your employees?
319. Other things equal, which need should be of particular interest in a highly collective culture? a. Safety b. Self-esteem c. Self-actualization d. Belongingness e. Physiological 320. Which motivation theory seems to translate across cultures best? a. ERG theory b. Expectancy theory c. Equity theory d. Maslow's need hierarchy e. McClelland's theory of needs 321. In collective cultures it is often observed that groups favour an equality norm for reward allocation. Which theory's motivational premises does this norm most clearly contradict? a. ERG theory b. Expectancy theory c. Equity theory d. Maslow's need hierarchy e. McClelland's theory of needs
Chapter 5 322. All three basic psychological needs have been found to be related to autonomous motivation across cultures. a. True b. False 323. The size of relationships for all three basic psychological needs and autonomous motivation varies across countries. a. True b. False 324. The size of relationships between competence and autonomy needs and autonomous motivation varies across countries. a. True b. False 325. The size of relationships between competence and relatedness needs and autonomous motivation varies across countries. a. True b. False 326. Autonomous motivation is only related to work outcomes in North America. a. True b. False 327. Goal specificity should strengthen expectancy and instrumentality connections. a. True b. False
Chapter 5
Test Name: 1.
c.motivation.
2.
b.Performance
3.
c.Motivation is defined as the extent to which workers contribute to achieving organizational objectives.
4.
e.works hard, keeps at it, and directs their behaviour.
5.
a.Effort and persistence
6.
b.Challenging job
7.
a.intrinsically motivated.
8.
d.is high in intrinsic and extrinsic motivation.
9.
b.extrinsic rewards may decrease intrinsic motivation.
10.
e.Sal has extrinsic motivation and Trisha has intrinsic motivation.
11.
e.Both intrinsic and extrinsic motivation are positively related to performance.
12.
b.Extrinsic motivation is more strongly related to the quantity of performance.
13.
a.Intrinsic motivation is more strongly related to the quality of performance.
14.
c.Intrinsic motivation is especially beneficial for performance on complex tasks.
15.
a.Extrinsic motivation is especially beneficial for performance on mundane tasks.
16.
e.Job candidates who express satisfaction with extrinsic rewards are perceived as less intrinsically motivated.
17.
a.Job candidates with an expressed interest in intrinsic motivation are more likely to be hired than those with an expressed interest in extrinsic motivation.
18.
b.False
19.
a.True
20.
a.True
21.
b.False
22.
a.True
23.
b.False
24.
treated
25.
motivation
26.
Effort
Chapter 5 27.
quantity
28.
extrinsic
29.
Intrinsic
30.
Extrinsic
31.
Intrinsic
32.
quantity
33.
quality
34.
complex
35.
mundane
36.
Extrinsic
37.
Intrinsic
38.
motivation purity bias
39.
intrinsic/extrinsic
40.
As discussed in the text, there is considerable debate about the relationship between extrinsic and intrinsic motivators. In support of Julia's position, there is research evidence which suggests that the proposed increase in pay (an extrinsic reward) may lead to reduced levels of intrinsic motivation stemming from the workers' tasks. Other studies suggest that intrinsic motivation is only negatively affected by extrinsic rewards in certain circumstances, and therefore, Julia's argument may not be relevant at Zeta. Either way, pay is only one type of reward and Zeta's management would be well advised to develop a strategy which includes both intrinsic and extrinsic motivators. It should also be noted that according to self-determination theory, more pay will simply increase controlled motivation. Autonomous motivation facilitates effective performance and is also associated with other work outcomes. Thus, they should consider increasing autonomous motivation as well. Furthermore, both intrinsic and extrinsic motivation are related to performance although intrinsic motivation is more strongly related to the quality of performance while extrinsic motivation is more strongly related to the quantity of performance. In addition, intrinsic motivation is most beneficial for performance on complex tasks while extrinsic motivation is most beneficial for performance on more mundane tasks.
41.
Intrinsic motivation is motivation that stems from the direct relationship between the worker and the task, and it is usually self-applied. Extrinsic motivation stems from the work environment external to the task, and it is usually applied by others. As indicated in the text, there is research evidence which suggests that extrinsic rewards may lead to reduced levels of intrinsic motivation. Other studies suggest that intrinsic motivation is only negatively affected by extrinsic rewards in very limited conditions that are easily avoidable. Furthermore, both intrinsic and extrinsic motivation are related to performance although intrinsic motivation is more strongly related to the quality of performance while extrinsic motivation is more strongly related to the quantity of performance. In addition, intrinsic motivation is most beneficial for performance on complex tasks while extrinsic motivation is most beneficial for performance on more mundane tasks.
42.
b.performance.
43.
d.general cognitive ability.
44.
d.General cognitive ability is a better predictor of performance for more complex tasks.
Chapter 5 45.
d.learning, training, career success, and job performance.
46.
d.Perception of emotions; use and assimilation of emotions; understanding of emotions; management of emotions
47.
b.Perception of emotions
48.
a.management of emotions.
49.
c.that involve social interaction.
50.
b.predicts job performance and academic performance.
51.
b.Organization citizenship behaviour
52.
c.perception of emotions.
53.
c.cognitive ability.
54.
a.lower levels of cognitive ability.
55.
d.It predicts job performance above and beyond cognitive ability and the Big Five personality variables.
56.
a.General cognitive ability measured in high school has been found to predict career success in terms of job prestige, pay, and income toward the end of one's work life.
57.
b.False
58.
a.True
59.
b.False
60.
b.False
61.
b.False
62.
b.False
63.
a.True
64.
b.False
65.
a.True
66.
b.False
67.
complex
68.
cognitive ability
69.
performance
70.
General cognitive ability
71.
complex
Chapter 5 72.
Perception of emotions
73.
Management of emotions
74.
Emotional intelligence
75.
high school
76.
While motivation clearly contributes to performance, the relationship is not one to one because a number of other factors also influence performance. For example, personality traits such as the Big Five and core selfevaluations also predict job performance as does intelligence or general cognitive ability and emotional intelligence. Thus, it is possible for performance to be low even when a person is highly motivated. In addition to personality, general cognitive ability, and emotional intelligence, poor performance could also be due to a poor understanding of the task or luck and chance factors that can damage the performance of the most highly motivated individuals. The opposite effect is also possible. An individual with low or marginal motivation might have high general cognitive ability or emotional intelligence or might understand the task so well that some compensation occurs—what little effort the individual makes is expended very efficiently in terms of goal accomplishment. A person with weak motivation might perform well because of some luck or chance factor that boosts performance.
77.
b.False
78.
b.False
79.
a.True
80.
b.False
81.
autonomous
82.
controlled
83.
controlled
84.
autonomous
85.
a.True
86.
a.True
87.
a.True
88.
b.False
89.
b.False
90.
a.True
91.
a.True
92.
a.True
93.
b.False
94.
b.False
Chapter 5 95.
Motivation refers to the extent to which persistent effort is directed towards a goal. The basic characteristics of motivation are effort, persistence, direction, and goals.
96.
b.False
97.
a.True
98.
b.False
99.
a.True
100. a.True 101. b.False 102. a.True 103. Perception of emotions, use and assimilation of emotions, understanding emotions, emotional language, and the signals conveyed by emotions, and management of emotions. 104. General cognitive ability refers to a person's basic information processing capacities and cognitive resources. It has been found to predict learning, training, career success, and job performance in all kinds of jobs and occupations. In terms of the motivation-performance relationship, it can either enhance or lower a person's performance. For example, if a person has high cognitive ability but low motivation, they still might have high performance. On the other hand, a person with high motivation might not perform well if they have low cognitive ability. 105. b.False 106. b.False 107. a.True 108. b.False 109. b.False 110. b.False 111. b.False 112. b.False 113. moderately difficult 114. e.Direction, effort, persistence, and task strategies 115. a.how various factors motivate people. 116. c.Proximal goals 117. d.Specific high-learning goal 118. b.Stronger for simple jobs
Chapter 5 119. b.Setting a specific learning goal will be most effective. 120. d.A high-performance goal 121. e.When a task is complex, a specific challenging performance goal can decrease performance. 122. e.Drivers were assigned a specific challenging performance goal. 123. d.When the task is complex 124. d.Low expectancy 125. d.Low expectancy 126. b.False 127. a.True 128. orientation 129. group 130. performance 131. performance 132. novel 133. learning 134. decrease 135. higher 136. expectancy 137. instrumentality 138. valence 139. process 140. distal 141. proximal 142. low 143. time frame 144. feedback 145. difficulty 146. Learning
Chapter 5 147. individual difference 148. task strategies 149. David's expectancy is high (i.e., he is certain that he can do the job), but the combination of both attractive and unattractive second-level outcomes has resulted in low valence, overall. 150. Distal goals are long-term or end goals, such as achieving a level of sales revenue in a month or quarter. Proximal goals are short-term or sub-goals that provide the stepping stones for attaining greater distal goals. So, for example, if a sales rep meets with a sales manager and they jointly set a quarterly target of $500,000 in closed business (distal goal), the sales rep may work out a three-month plan with weekly targets (proximal goals) that together will build upon each other to reach the distal goal at the end of the quarter. 151. d.three psychological needs are related to autonomous motivation in all countries. 152. b.applies across cultures because of its flexibility. 153. c.Competence and autonomy 154. b.Goal setting theory 155. d.Self-determination theory 156. equity 157. size 158. competence 159. goal setting 160. power distance 161. Self-determination 162. Most theories that revolve around human needs will come up against cultural limitations to their generality. However, research on self-determination theory has found that it is cross-culturally valid as the three psychological needs are positively related to autonomous motivation and autonomous motivation is related to work outcomes in different countries. Equity theory will depend on how rewards are allocated in a particular culture. Because of its flexibility, expectancy theory is very effective when applied cross-culturally. Goal setting has been found to translate in numerous countries and cultures; however, the goal setting process must be adjusted in each culture especially in collectivist cultures and in high power distance cultures. 163. d.Expectancy and instrumentality 164. e.self-administered. 165. a.True 166. b.False 167. instrumentality 168. motivation
Chapter 5 169. intrinsic 170. job satisfaction 171. self-administered 172. First, for individuals to obtain rewards they must achieve designated levels of performance. Performance is a function of motivation as well as other factors, such as personality, general cognitive ability, emotional intelligence, understanding of the task, and chance. Perceptions of expectancy and instrumentality (expectancy theory) influence motivation. Individuals direct their effort toward a particular first-level outcome (expectancy) and increase the amount and persistence of effort to the extent that they believe it will result in second-level outcomes (instrumentality). Goal setting theory indicates that specific and challenging goals that people are committed to, as well as feedback about progress toward goal attainment, will have a positive effect on motivation. Goal specificity should also strengthen both expectancy and instrumentality connections. Motivation will be translated into good performance if the worker has the levels of general cognitive ability and emotional intelligence relevant to the job, and if the worker understands the task. If these conditions are not met, high motivation will not result in good performance. Second, a particular level of performance will be followed by certain outcomes. To the extent that performance is followed by outcomes that fulfill individual needs (need theory) and are positively valent second-level outcomes (expectancy theory), they can be considered rewards for good performance. In general, the connection between performance and the occurrence of intrinsic rewards should be strong and reliable because such rewards are self-administered. On the other hand, the connection between performance and extrinsic rewards might be much less reliable because the occurrence of such rewards depends on the actions of management. Third, to the extent that the rewards fulfill individual needs (need theory), they will be motivational. However, in accordance with self-determination theory, intrinsic rewards will influence autonomous motivation, while extrinsic rewards will influence controlled motivation. In addition, the rewards that individuals receive are also the outcomes of equity theory and will be used by individuals to form perceptions of equity. Perceptions of equity also influence motivation and job satisfaction. According to equity theory, individuals in a state of equity have high job satisfaction. Individuals who are in a state of inequity experience job dissatisfaction. In addition, good performance leads to job satisfaction if that performance is rewarded, and job satisfaction in turn leads to good performance. 173. a.True 174. b.False 175. b.False 176. a.True 177. b.False 178. a.True 179. b.False 180. a.True 181. b.False 182. a.True 183. b.False 184. b.False
Chapter 5 185. b.False 186. b.False 187. b.False 188. b.False 189. a.True 190. a.True 191. a.True 192. a.True 193. a.True 194. a.True 195. a.True 196. Need theories are concerned with what motivates workers (e.g., needs and their associated goals). Process theories are concerned with how various factors motivate people. 197. b.False 198. a.True 199. a.True 200. b.False 201. a.True 202. expectancy theory 203. a.True 204. a.True 205. b.False 206. a.True 207. b.False 208. a.True 209. a.True 210. a.True 211. b.False
Chapter 5 212. a.True 213. a.True 214. b.False 215. a.True 216. b.False 217. b.False 218. b.False 219. b.False 220. Proximal 221. The manager should utilize strategies which boost expectancies, clarify reward contingencies, and address the diverse needs of the workers. 222. a.True 223. b.False 224. a.True 225. b.False 226. Need 227. Maslow 228. belongingness 229. relatedness 230. power 231. b.esteem 232. a.Maslow's hierarchy of needs 233. d.the lowest-level unsatisfied need. 234. a.lowest-; unsatisfied 235. c.physiological needs. 236. d.if higher-level needs are strong but ungratified, individuals will increase their desire for the gratification of lower-level needs. 237. b.his relatedness needs. 238. a.seek support and additional attention from his boss and co-workers.
Chapter 5 239. c.ERG 240. a.achievement; power 241. b.moderately difficult 242. d.relatedness 243. b.High power, low affiliation 244. a.belongingness 245. c.High need achievers tend to set extremely difficult goals for themselves. 246. c.Omar has a high need for achievement and Jason has a high need for affiliation. 247. a.autonomous; controlled 248. e.self-determination 249. c.Stan's motivation is controlled, and Zola's motivation is autonomous. 250. d.You are motivated because of the rewards you receive. 251. d.what various factors motivate people. 252. b.self-actualization needs become stronger as they are gratified. 253. d.growth or self-actualization need. 254. b.the satisfaction of basic psychological needs. 255. e.needs are universal necessities for psychological health. 256. c.there are three basic psychological needs that are important for all individuals. 257. a.Competence, autonomy, and relatedness 258. c.Achievement 259. c.when people have their basic psychological needs satisfied, their motivation will be autonomous. 260. c.autonomy support. 261. a.Autonomy support 262. d.Autonomy support 263. c.ladder. 264. a.People's growth and happiness 265. d.most people are partially satisfied and unsatisfied in all their basic needs at the same time. 266. existence
Chapter 5 267. affiliation 268. need 269. need for achievement 270. universal 271. hierarchical 272. psychological 273. competence 274. autonomous 275. controlled 276. Autonomy 277. support 278. autonomous 279. complex 280. ladder 281. Both theories are based on need hierarchies. Alderfer's ERG theory (existence, relatedness, and growth) is a compressed version of Maslow's five-category need system (physiological, safety, belongingness, esteem, and self-actualization). Alderfer's theory is more flexible than Maslow's in that it does not assume that a lowerlevel need must be gratified before a higher-level need becomes operative. It also suggests that frustration of a higher-level need will lead a worker to regress to a lower, more concrete need category. Good advice for managers might be to focus relatively more attention on workers' higher-level needs (i.e., appreciate intrinsic motivation), and remember that these models do not apply evenly across all employees or cultures (i.e., appreciate diversity). 282. People who are high in need for achievement prefer situations in which they can take personal responsibility, tend to set moderately difficult goals, and have a desire for performance feedback. They should be strongly motivated by sales jobs or entrepreneurial positions.
Chapter 5 283. Self-determination theory is a theory of motivation that considers whether people's motivation is autonomous or controlled. The theory argues that people have three basic psychological needs: competence, autonomy, and relatedness. The extent to which these three needs are satisfied determines whether motivation is controlled or autonomous. When motivation is autonomous, individuals are engaged in a task because they choose to be, and their actions are internally regulated. People are self-motivated by intrinsic factors. When motivation is controlled, individuals feel they have no choice and they have to engage in a task, so their behaviour is externally regulated. People are motivated to obtain a desired extrinsic reward. Autonomous motivation has been shown to facilitate effective performance, especially on complex tasks. It is also related to positive attitudes and psychological well-being. The implications of the theory for motivating employees is to ensure that the work environment will satisfy employees' needs for competence, autonomy, and relatedness so that their motivation will be autonomous. In addition, autonomy support from one's supervisor is also a key predictor of the three basic psychological needs as well as autonomous motivation. Thus, managers should provide employees with autonomy support as well as jobs that are interesting and challenging and that allow employees some choice in the performance of their job. They should also acknowledge employees' perspectives, encourage self-initiation, provide meaningful feedback, and provide a reasonable explanation when requesting certain behaviours. In addition, managers should be trained on how to provide employees with autonomy support. Structuring work to allow interdependence among employees can also facilitate autonomous motivation by satisfying the need for relatedness. 284. Need theories are motivation theories that specify the kinds of needs people have and the conditions under which they will be motivated to satisfy these needs in a way that contributes to performance. Examples of need theories are Maslow's hierarchy of needs, Alderfer's ERG theory, and McClelland's theory of needs. Selfdetermination is also a theory that involves need satisfaction although the focus is on whether motivation is controlled or autonomous. The managerial implications of need theories for motivating employees are to appreciate diversity and to appreciate intrinsic motivation. For self-determination theory, managerial implications involve the satisfaction of the three basic psychological needs. 285. This is a good idea because when employee motivation is autonomous employees will be more engaged in a task because they choose to be, and they will be self-motivated by intrinsic factors. In addition, autonomous motivation facilitates effective performance and is also related to positive attitudes and psychological wellbeing. According to SDT, people have three basic psychological needs: competence, autonomy, and relatedness. The satisfaction of these needs leads to autonomous motivation. Therefore, if Mr. Stink wants his employees' motivation to be autonomous, he will have to ensure that the work environment will satisfy employees' needs for competence, autonomy, and relatedness. In addition, autonomy support from one's supervisor is also a key predictor of the three basic psychological needs as well as autonomous motivation so he will have to make sure that managers provide employees with autonomy support as well as jobs that are interesting and challenging and that allow employees some choice. Managers should also acknowledge employees' perspectives, encourage self-initiation, provide meaningful feedback, and provide a reasonable explanation when requesting certain behaviours. In addition, managers should be trained on how to provide employees with autonomy support. Structuring work to allow interdependence among employees can also facilitate autonomous motivation by satisfying the need for relatedness. If employee motivation becomes less controlled and more autonomous, Mr. Stink can expect job performance to improve. 286. d.Equity and Expectancy. 287. c.expectancy. 288. a.Instrumentality 289. d.second-level valences and instrumentalities. 290. b.expectancy. 291. b.Average
Chapter 5 292. b.expectancy. 293. d.second-level outcomes. 294. b.instrumentality is low and second-level valence is high. 295. c.Equity theory 296. a.Equity 297. c.reduce their outcomes 298. b.may increase inputs to achieve equity. 299. a.Men tend to make equity comparisons with men. 300. d.Low work outcomes 301. a.More support when inequity occurs because of underpayment than overpayment 302. d.distal; proximal 303. a.To encourage a D student to set a goal of achieving Cs in the coming semester 304. c.Participation in goal setting sometimes increases performance and sometimes it does not. 305. c.can improve performance by increasing the difficulty of goals that employees adopt. 306. a.Goal setting has led to performance increases without monetary incentives for goal accomplishment. 307. c.performance goals. 308. e.learning goals. 309. c.A performance goal 310. b.False 311. a.True 312. a.True 313. Goals are most motivational when they are specific, challenging, and organizational members are committed to them. In addition, feedback about progress towards goal attainment should be provided. 314. A learning-goal orientation is a preference to learn new things and develop competence in an activity by acquiring new skills and mastering new situations. A performance-prove goal orientation is a preference to obtain favourable judgments about the outcome of one's performance. A performance-avoid goal orientation is a preference to avoid negative judgments about the outcome of one's performance. A learning-goal orientation has been found to be positively related to learning and academic, task, and job performance. A performanceavoid orientation is negatively related to learning and lower task, and job performance. A performance-prove orientation is not related to learning or performance outcomes. 315. The mechanisms of goal setting are direction, effort, persistence, and task strategies.
Chapter 5 316. The factors that might affect commitment to challenging and specific goals are participation, rewards, and supportiveness. 317. Equity theory is a theory of motivation (in addition to job satisfaction) because individuals are motivated to maintain an equitable exchange relationship. People will devote considerable energy to reducing inequity and achieving equity. The tactics they might use to do this include perceptually distorting their own inputs or outcomes; perceptually distorting the inputs or outcomes of the comparison person or group; choosing another comparison person or group; altering their inputs or altering their outcomes; and leaving the exchange relationship. 318. For new employees who do not have the knowledge or skill to perform novel and complex tasks, you should set a specific high-learning goal which will be more effective than a specific high-performance goal or a doyour-best goal. In fact, for these employees a specific high-performance goal might decrease performance. For the more experienced employees, for whom the task is now straightforward, you should set a highperformance goal which will result in higher performance than a do-your-best goal. 319. d.Belongingness 320. b.Expectancy theory 321. c.Equity theory 322. a.True 323. b.False 324. a.True 325. b.False 326. b.False 327. a.True
Chapter 6 1.
Which of the following is most accurate about the importance of pay as a motivator? a. Employees overestimate the importance of pay as a motivator. b. Employees and managers overestimate the importance of pay as a motivator. c. Employees and managers underestimate the importance of pay as a motivator. d. Employees overestimate and managers underestimate the importance of pay as a motivator. e. Employees underestimate and managers overestimate the importance of pay as a motivator.
2.
When a portion of employees' pay is based on a measure of performance, it is called a. performance pay. b. extra pay. c. variable pay. d. motivational pay. e. bonus pay.
3.
Raoul is searching for a new job because he wants to earn more money. He is especially interested in a job in which a portion of his pay is based on a measure of his performance. What kind of pay is Raoul interested in getting? a. Performance pay b. Extra pay c. Variable pay d. Motivational pay e. Bonus pay
4.
What is variable pay? a. Pay that some employees receive but not others. b. Pay that an organization will give employees when they are profitable. c. Pay that changes throughout the year. d. A portion of employees' pay that is based on a measure of performance. e. A portion of employees' pay that is based on their seniority.
5.
What does PFP mean? a. Pay from performance b. Pay for performance c. Performance for pay d. Performance from pay e. Profits from performance
6.
What is another term for variable pay? a. PPF b. FPP c. P&P d. FPF e. PFP
Chapter 6 7.
Which of the following is most accurate? a. Performance-based pay can result in mental health problems, especially for low-performing and younger workers. b. Performance-based pay can result in mental health problems, especially for low-performing and older workers. c. Performance-based pay can result in mental health problems, especially for high-performing and younger workers. d. Performance-based pay can result in mental health problems, especially for high-performing and older workers. e. Performance-based pay can result in mental health problems, especially for low-performing and female workers.
8.
What percent of organizations in Canada have variable pay programs? a. 42 percent b. 52 percent c. 62 percent d. 72 percent e. 82 percent
9.
Research on financial incentives and pay-for-performance plans has found that they a. increase performance but have no effect on turnover. b. increase performance and lower turnover. c. lower performance and lower turnover. d. lower performance and increase turnover. e. have no effect on performance or turnover.
10.
Employees and managers seriously underestimate the importance of __________ as a motivator.
11.
Financial incentives and pay-for-performance plans have been found to increase performance and lower __________ .
12.
__________ may well be the most important and effective motivator of performance.
13.
When a portion of employees' pay is based on a measure of performance it is called pay for __________ .
14.
When a portion of employees' pay is based on a measure of performance it is called __________ pay.
15.
Performance-based pay can result in mental health problems, especially for low-performing and __________ workers.
16.
One of the best examples of the successful use of a wage incentive plan is the Lincoln Electric Company. a. True b. False
Chapter 6 17.
One of the best examples of the successful use of a wage incentive plan is the General Electric Company. a. True b. False
18.
Restriction of productivity seems less likely when there is a history of good relations between employees and management. a. True b. False
19.
Restriction of productivity seems less likely when there is a history of good relations among employees. a. True b. False
20.
__________ pay plans can stimulate productivity, but they can also lead to restriction of productivity.
21.
The prototype of all schemes to link pay to performance on production jobs is __________ .
22.
Various schemes to link pay to performance on production jobs are called __________ .
23.
One of the best examples of the successful use of a __________ is the Lincoln Electric Company.
24.
It is sometimes argued that wage incentives can increase productivity at the expense of __________ .
25.
One of the potential problems with wage incentives is that the supply of raw materials or the quality of production equipment might vary from workplace to workplace. In expectancy theory terminology, this is called __________ .
26.
Restriction of productivity is less likely when a climate of __________ and a history of good relations exist between employees and management.
27.
What is restriction of productivity and why does it occur?
28.
Managers have a tendency to ________ the pay of their boss and ________ the pay of their employees. a. underestimate; underestimate b. underestimate; overestimate c. overestimate; overestimate d. overestimate; underestimate e. correctly estimate; underestimate
Chapter 6 29.
As discussed in the text, the rationale for removing the secrecy surrounding salaries is that a. we should be honest with employees, and this is a good place to start. b. they know salaries anyway, via the grapevine, but secrecy reduces confidence in the company. c. positive motivational consequences may occur if the pay system is well designed. d. consumers should understand that labour costs contribute greatly to retail prices. e. a more open pay policy will expose the inadequacy of the merit system.
30.
The systematic mis-estimates that managers make of the pay of others in their firm suggests that they will often a. underestimate the pay of employees. b. experience equity with regard to peers. c. underestimate the value of a promotion. d. overestimate the value of a promotion. e. experience equity with regard to employees.
31.
Alice, a middle manager in an oil company, makes $65,000 a year. Her boss makes $71,000, her peers average $60,000, and her employees average $59,000. Alice doesn't know the pay of these co-workers, but we ask her to guess. Research suggests that she will say a. the employees average $58,000. b. the boss makes $73,000. c. the peers average $64,000. d. the boss makes $75,000. e. the peers average $60,000.
32.
One reason why merit pay plans are employed with a much greater frequency than wage incentive plans is that a. white-collar workers particularly believe that performance should be an important determinant of pay. b. blue-collar jobs more often offer objective performance criteria with which pay can be linked. c. blue-collar workers tend to perceive a strong link between rewards and performance. d. merit pay plans that are actually in use are very effective. e. substantial evidence indicates that merit plans are very effective for improving performance.
33.
A lump sum bonus is a. a payment that employees receive as part of the Scanlon plan. b. a wage incentive that is awarded in a single payment and built into base pay. c. a wage incentive that is awarded in a single payment and not built into base pay. d. merit pay that is awarded in a single payment and not built into base pay. e. merit pay that is awarded in a single payment and built into base pay.
34.
Whole Foods is noted in the text for its approach to a. job design. b. profit sharing. c. pay secrecy. d. management by objectives. e. flexible work arrangements.
35.
What organization has an open book policy that allows employees to see the compensation of their coworkers? a. Lincoln Electric Company b. Whole Foods c. Ontario Lottery and Gaming Corporation d. WestJet Airlines e. Telus
Chapter 6 36.
What type of pay plan has been associated with risky and unethical behaviour? a. Piece-rate b. Lump sum bonus c. Gain-sharing d. Profit sharing e. Employee stock ownership plans
37.
Which statement is most accurate about the effects of pay on job performance? a. Bonus pay has a stronger effect than conventional merit pay. b. Conventional merit pay has a stronger effect than bonus pay. c. Piece-rate pay has a stronger effect than bonus pay. d. Bonus pay has a stronger effect than piece-rate pay. e. Piece-rate pay has a stronger effect than conventional merit pay.
38.
Attempts to link pay to performance on white-collar jobs are called a. wage incentive plans. b. piece rate plans. c. merit pay plans. d. white-collar pay plans. e. performance-based pay plans.
39.
Many individuals who work under merit pay plans a. do not perceive a link between their job performance and pay. b. perceive a strong link between their job performance and pay. c. do not perceive a strong link between their seniority and pay. d. perceive a strong link between their seniority and pay. e. perceive a strong link between their job tenure and pay.
40.
What is incentive compensation and variable pay and what are their consequences for employees and organizations?
41.
Piece rate pay systems a. usually increase cooperation among workers on peripheral, nonproduction tasks (for example, keeping the shop clean). b. have generally been supported by unions. c. are especially useful when few objective performance criteria exist. d. generally lead to increased productivity unless restriction occurs. e. are most effective when applied to white-collar jobs.
42.
Restriction of productivity is a phenomenon associated with a. piece rate pay. b. hourly pay. c. MBO. d. job enrichment. e. merit pay.
Chapter 6 43.
José, Margaret, and Denise are co-workers. José produces five widgets and is paid $5. Margaret produces twenty widgets and is paid $20. Denise produces fifty widgets and is paid $50. These workers are being paid according to a(n) ________ pay plan. a. merit b. hourly c. Scanlon d. piece rate e. lump sum
44.
As the size of the team ________, the relationship between any individual's productivity and their pay ________. a. increases; increases b. decreases; decreases; c. increases; decreases d. decreases; will approach zero e. increases; becomes stable
45.
What is the prototype of all schemes to link pay to performance on production jobs? a. merit pay b. performance-rate c. piece-rate d. performance pay e. production rate
46.
The various schemes to link pay to performance on production jobs are called a. performance incentive plans. b. wage incentive plans. c. merit pay plans. d. performance pay plans. e. production pay plans.
47.
Which of the following is one of the best examples of the successful use of a wage incentive plan? a. General Electric b. Lincoln Electric c. General Motors d. Harley Davidson e. Coca-Cola
48.
One of the problems with wage incentive plans is differential opportunity. What does this refer to in expectancy theory terminology? a. valence b. instrumentality c. force d. expectancy e. second-level outcomes
49.
One day the CEO of the Smelly Cheese Company, J. B. Stink, noticed that some employees were hoarding raw materials. What wage incentive problem is most likely the reason for this? a. lower quality b. differential opportunity c. reduced cooperation d. incompatible job design e. restriction of productivity
Chapter 6 50.
One day the CEO of the Smelly Cheese Company, J. B. Stink, noticed that employees were not performing regular maintenance on the equipment and some machines were breaking down resulting in cheese that was not smelly. What wage incentive problem is most likely the reason for this? a. lower quality b. differential opportunity c. reduced cooperation d. incompatible job design e. restriction of productivity
51.
What is the potential problem with a wage incentive plan being used for employees on an assembly line? a. lower quality b. differential opportunity c. reduced cooperation d. incompatible job design e. restriction of productivity
52.
What is it called when employees come to an informal agreement about what constitutes a fair day's work and artificially limit their output? a. restriction of output b. artificial output c. restriction work rules d. work restriction e. restriction of productivity
53.
When is restriction of productivity less likely? a. when employees do not get along with each other b. when there is a pay secrecy system in place c. when there is a history of good relations between employees and management d. when there is a history of good relations among employees e. when employees are working independently
54.
Tanya's work group restricts its productivity. According to the text, this is a pretty good sign that the group members are paid an hourly wage. a. True b. False
55.
When workers are paid according to the performance of their work group, the relationship between individual pay and productivity decreases as the group gets bigger. a. True b. False
56.
Bonuses are believed to be one of the reasons why organizations have engaged in risky and unethical behaviour. a. True b. False
57.
Merit pay plans are believed to be one of the reasons why organizations have engaged in risky and unethical behaviour. a. True b. False
Chapter 6 58.
Many individuals who work under merit pay plans do not perceive a link between their job performance and their pay. a. True b. False
59.
Many individuals who work under merit pay plans perceive a strong link between their job performance and their pay. a. True b. False
60.
In most organizations, seniority, the number of employees, and job level account for more variation in pay than performance does. a. True b. False
61.
In most organizations, seniority, the number of employees, and job tenure account for more variation in pay than performance does. a. True b. False
62.
When asked to make estimates of the pay of various organizational members, managers tend to __________ the pay of their superiors.
63.
When asked to estimate the pay of their peers and employees, managers tend to __________ the correct figure.
64.
__________ are used to tie pay to performance on white-collar jobs.
65.
Your boss has just given you merit pay in the form of a one-time payment that will not be built into your base pay. This is known as a(n) __________ .
66.
Whole Foods is noted for its policy when it comes to pay __________ .
67.
Whole Foods has a(n) __________ book policy when it comes to pay secrecy.
68.
Large pay increases are believed to be one of the reasons why organizations have engaged in risky and __________ behaviour.
69.
__________ pay has a stronger effect on job performance than conventional merit pay.
70.
__________ plans have become one of the most common forms of motivation in Canadian organizations.
Chapter 6 71.
Many individuals who work under merit pay plans do not perceive a link between their __________ and their __________ .
72.
In most organizations, seniority, the number of employees, and __________ account for more variation in pay than __________ does.
73.
The Scanlon Plan is a type of ________ system. a. job enrichment b. MBO c. gain-sharing d. piece rate pay e. skill-based
74.
The owner of Acme Manufacturing Company is thinking about introducing the Scanlon Plan. This plan will most likely have the greatest impact on his employees' a. job design. b. autonomy. c. working hours. d. pay. e. skill level.
75.
Which system is specifically based on cost reduction? a. Gain-sharing b. MBO c. Merit pay d. Goal setting e. Skill-based pay
76.
Under a skill-based pay plan, people are paid according to a. their personal productivity. b. the number of tasks they know how to perform. c. their contribution to product or service quality. d. how skillfully they can perform their main job function. e. the number of job skills they have acquired.
77.
An organization wishes to base pay on objective, measurable performance data, but the performance of individual workers cannot be isolated and measured. Which system should it adopt? a. Piece-rate b. Gain-sharing c. Merit pay d. Hourly pay e. Skill-based pay
78.
Which pay system is intentionally designed to motivate groups of employees rather than individual employees? a. Gain-sharing b. Goal setting c. Piece-rate pay d. Merit pay e. Skill-based pay
Chapter 6 79.
In a study in a unionized auto parts manufacturing plant, a Scanlon gain-sharing program had a positive effect on the a. scrap and waste reduction. b. labour required. c. number of suggestions provided by employees. d. number of errors made by employees. e. quality and quantity of parts.
80.
In a study in a unionized auto parts manufacturing plant, a Scanlon gain-sharing program had a positive effect on the number of suggestions provided by employees and the number of suggestions implemented was associated with a. fewer accidents. b. lower labour costs. c. lower production costs. d. fewer errors made by employees. e. all of the above
81.
Which of the following is one of the most commonly used group-oriented incentive systems? a. Gain-sharing b. Skill-based pay c. Lump sum bonus d. Profit sharing e. Employee stock ownership plans
82.
When is profit sharing likely to be most effective? a. In large organizations that regularly make a profit b. In medium size organizations that regularly make a profit c. In small organizations that regularly make a profit d. In large organizations that make a profit occasionally e. In small organizations that make a profit occasionally
83.
What pay plan loses its motivational potential in a weak economy? a. Gain-sharing b. Profit sharing c. ESOPs d. Skill-based pay e. Lump sum bonus
84.
What pay plan provides employees with a sense of legal and psychological ownership? a. Gain-sharing b. Profit sharing c. ESOPs d. Skill-based pay e. Lump sum bonus
85.
Rodney has just accepted a job offer and he already feels a sense of legal and psychological ownership in his new organization. What pay plan does Rodney's new organization offer employees? a. Gain-sharing b. Profit sharing c. ESOPs d. Skill-based pay e. Lump sum bonus
Chapter 6 86.
Financial incentives and pay-for-performance have no effect on turnover. a. True b. False
87.
Pay is one of the most important and effective motivators of performance. a. True b. False
88.
When a portion of employees' pay is based on a measure of performance it is called variable pay. a. True b. False
89.
When a portion of employees' pay is based on seniority it is called variable pay. a. True b. False
90.
In Canada, about 82 percent of organizations have variable pay programs. a. True b. False
91.
In Canada, about 52 percent of organizations have variable pay programs. a. True b. False
92.
Variable pay is also called pay for performance. a. True b. False
93.
Merit pay plans have become one of the most common forms of motivation in Canadian organizations. a. True b. False
94.
Whole Foods is an example of a company that has a strict policy that enforces pay secrecy. a. True b. False
95.
Bonus pay has a stronger effect on job performance than conventional merit pay. a. True b. False
96.
Conventional merit pay has a stronger effect on job performance than bonus pay. a. True b. False
97.
Attempts to link pay to performance on white-collar jobs are called wage incentive plans. a. True b. False
98.
Attempts to link pay to performance on white-collar jobs are called merit pay plans. a. True b. False
Chapter 6 99.
Discuss some of the potential problems of merit pay plans.
100. Your organization is considering implementing a merit pay plan. However, you are concerned about this because many such systems are in fact ineffective. You have arranged to meet with management to discuss this and you need to provide them with some evidence of why merit pay plans are often ineffective and what can be done to make them more effective. What will you tell them?
101. Your organization is considering implementing a merit pay plan in the hopes of increasing employees' and managers' motivation and satisfaction. However, you are concerned about this because they want to maintain pay secrecy. You have arranged to meet with management to discuss this with them. What will you tell them about pay secrecy and how it might impact the effectiveness of the merit pay plan?
102. Profit sharing plans lose their motivational potential in a weak economy. a. True b. False 103. Variable pay is also called performance for pay. a. True b. False 104. Performance-based pay can result in mental health problems, especially for low-performing and older workers. a. True b. False 105. Performance-based pay can result in mental health problems, especially for low-performing and younger workers. a. True b. False 106. Restriction of productivity has been a problem with wage incentive plans. a. True b. False 107. Wage incentive plans have become one of the most common forms of motivation in Canadian organizations. a. True b. False 108. The prototype of all schemes to link pay to performance on production jobs is piece-rate. a. True b. False 109. The various schemes to link pay to performance on production jobs are called wage incentive plans. a. True b. False 110. The various schemes to link pay to performance on production jobs are called merit pay plans. a. True b. False
Chapter 6 111. The introduction of wage incentives usually leads to substantial increases in productivity. a. True b. False 112. Those who only occasionally telecommute obtain the greatest career benefits. a. True b. False 113. Those who frequently telecommute obtain the greatest career benefits. a. True b. False 114. If an organization is facing a difficult financial period but does not want to lay off employees, one cost cutting measure they can implement and still keep everyone's job is __________ .
115. The introduction of wage incentives seldom leads to substantial increases in productivity. a. True b. False 116. It is sometimes argued that wage incentives can increase productivity at the expense of quality. a. True b. False 117. It is sometimes argued that wage incentives can increase productivity at the expense of quantity. a. True b. False 118. Discuss some of the potential problems of wage incentive plans.
119. What accounts for more variation in pay than performance? a. Seniority, job tenure, age b. Number of employees, job level, job tenure c. Seniority, job level, job tenure d. Seniority, number of employees, job level e. Seniority, number of employees, job tenure 120. Managers habitually underestimate the pay that their bosses receive. a. True b. False 121. Managers are more supportive than blue-collar employees of the idea that pay should be closely tied to performance. a. True b. False 122. Merit pay plans attempt to link pay to performance on blue-collar jobs. a. True b. False
Chapter 6 123. Generally, managers underestimate the pay of their employees and peers and overestimate the pay of their superiors. a. True b. False 124. Employees, but not managers, underestimate the importance of pay as a motivator. a. True b. False 125. Wage incentive plans are employed with much greater frequency than merit pay plans. a. True b. False 126. Sydney works under a gain-sharing plan. In other words, he is paid according to individual piece rate. a. True b. False 127. Skill-based pay is a motivation system whereby people are paid on the basis of how many skills they have mastered. a. True b. False 128. Profit sharing seems to work best in larger firms that regularly turn a handsome profit. a. True b. False 129. Training costs can be high with a skill-based pay system. a. True b. False 130. If an organization wants to create a sense of legal and psychological ownership amongst its employees, it should implement a profit sharing pay system. a. True b. False 131. The concept of MBO was developed by management theorist Peter Drucker. a. True b. False 132. The objectives of MBO programs involve both current and future job performance. a. True b. False 133. The objectives of MBO programs involve both current job performance and personal development. a. True b. False 134. A primary focus of MBO is the nature of the interaction between managers and individual workers. a. True b. False
Chapter 6 135. The effect of team-based financial incentives on performance has been found to be strongest for larger teams. a. True b. False 136. Team-based pay for performance programs have a positive effect on behavioural and operational outcomes but not financial outcomes. a. True b. False 137. What is another name for skill-based pay plans? a. Pay-for-skills b. Skill-based compensation plan c. Pay-for-what you know d. Pay-for knowledge e. Knowledge-based pay plan 138. What pay plan is associated with high training costs? a. Gain-sharing b. Scanlon plan c. Profit-sharing d. Skill-based pay e. ESOPs 139. Team-based pay for performance programs have a positive effect on a. behavioural, functional, and operational outcomes. b. behavioural, psychological, and attitudinal outcomes. c. individual, team, and organization outcomes. d. behavioural, human resource, and operational outcomes. e. behavioural, operational, and financial outcomes. 140. The effect of team-based financial incentives on performance has been found to be strongest in what kind of teams? a. Smaller teams b. Medium size teams c. Larger teams d. Formal teams e. Informal teams 141. Skill-based pay plans are especially useful for a. virtual teams. b. cross functional teams. c. self-managed teams. d. cohesive teams. e. formal teams. 142. A study on the effects of a skill-based pay system in a large organization that manufactures vehicle safety systems reported an increase in _________ following the implementation of a skill-based pay program. a. productivity b. sales c. innovations d. profits e. safety
Chapter 6 143. A study on the effects of a skill-based pay system in a large organization that manufactures vehicle safety systems reported a reduction in _________ following the implementation of a skill-based pay program a. turnover b. absenteeism c. accidents d. scrap e. safety violations 144. The turnaround of the motorcycle producer Harley-Davidson is, in part, attributed to the institution of a. profit sharing. b. gainsharing. c. ESOPs. d. skill-based pay. e. lump sum bonuses. 145. A study conducted by the Toronto Stock Exchange found that companies with skill-based pay plans outperformed those that do not have skill-based pay plans on a number of performance indicators. a. True b. False 146.
__________ is a group incentive pay system that is based on cost reductions.
147. The system of pay which pays on the basis of the number of job skills acquired is called __________ .
148. Profit sharing works best in __________ that regularly turn a profit.
149. Your organization is considering offering an employee stock ownership plan (ESOP), but they are hesitating because ESOPs lose their motivational potential in a(n) __________ when a company's share price goes down.
150. The most common gain-sharing plan is the __________ .
151.
__________ costs can be high with a skill-based pay system.
152. Team-based pay for performance programs have a positive effect on behavioural, operational, and __________ outcomes.
153. The effect of team-based financial incentives on performance has been found to be strongest in __________ teams.
154.
__________ is one of the most commonly used group-oriented incentive systems.
Chapter 6 155.
______________________________________ align employees' goals and interests with those of the organization and create a sense of legal and psychological ownership.
156. The turnaround of the motorcycle producer Harely-Davidson is, in part, attributed to the institution of __________ .
157. Skill-based pay plans are especially useful with __________ teams.
158. Describe three types of incentive plans which use pay to motivate teamwork. Which one do you think is probably the most effective, overall? Explain your reasons.
159. The practices of scientific management seem LEAST compatible with a. job enrichment. b. piece-rate pay. c. high specialization. d. goal setting. e. close supervision. 160. In general, we would not expect a high scope job to ________ than a low scope job. a. have higher "motivating potential" b. pay more c. conform more closely to the principles of scientific management d. involve more task variety e. have more job depth 161. Debbie's job is very broad, but it has almost no depth. She is most likely a(n) a. manager. b. physician. c. assembly line utility worker. d. quality control inspector. e. professor. 162. Lee's job is very broad, but it has almost no depth. Lee has a(n) ________ job. a. high-scope b. high MPS c. low-scope d. enriched e. high autonomy 163. Which job enrichment technique would prove most threatening to workers with poor social skills? a. Reducing supervision b. Combining tasks c. Making feedback more direct d. Establishing client relationships e. Reducing reliance on others
Chapter 6 164. Very strict union rules about who does what work are most likely to pose a problem for installing which system? a. Merit pay b. Flextime c. Job enrichment d. Scanlon plan e. Gain-sharing 165. What is the motivating potential score (MPS) for this job profile: Variety = 1; identity = 2; significance = 3; autonomy = 3; feedback = 5? a. 14 b. 28 c. 30 d. 45 e. 90 166. According to Hackman and Oldham's Job Characteristic Model, employees should respond most favourably to jobs high in motivating potential when growth need strength is ________ and satisfaction with job context factors is ________. a. high; high b. high; low c. low; high d. low; low e. moderate; low 167. In terms of job design, satisfaction with ________ would not be an example of context satisfaction. a. supervision b. autonomy c. pay d. company policy e. workplace safety 168. Which of the following is both a core job characteristic and a necessary condition for goals to motivate performance? a. Pay b. Identity c. Growth need strength d. Feedback e. Context satisfaction 169. A company is thinking about enriching a certain job. Which of the following factors would suggest that this strategy is incorrect? a. The current job has a very high Motivating Potential Score (MPS). b. The workers have very high growth need strength. c. Context satisfaction among the workers is very high. d. The job knowledge and skills of the workers are very high. e. Task significance is low.
Chapter 6 170. The degree to which a job has a substantial impact on the lives of other people, whether those people are in the immediate organization or in the world at large is called a. task identity. b. skill variety. c. task significance. d. autonomy. e. feedback. 171. In Hackman and Oldham's Job Characteristics Model, which of the following is NOT a critical psychological state? a. Meaningfulness of work b. Significance of task c. Responsibility for outcomes d. Knowledge of results e. None of the above 172. Veronica doesn't feel responsible for the outcomes of her work. According to Hackman and Oldham's Job Characteristics Model, which core job characteristic is low? a. Feedback b. Skill variety c. Task identity d. Autonomy e. Task significance 173. What is the motivating potential score (MPS) for a job in which all five core characteristics are scored "4" on the Job Diagnostic Survey? a. 20 b. 48 c. 64 d. 80 e. 96 174. According to the Job Characteristics Model, what should be done to increase experienced responsibility for work outcomes? a. Increase skill variety b. Increase task significance c. Reduce feedback d. Increase autonomy e. Reduce task identity 175. Ross's job is very low in feedback. According to Hackman and Oldham's Job Characteristics Model, which psychological state will be most affected by this low feedback? a. Knowledge of results of the work b. Experienced meaningfulness of the work c. Experienced responsibility for work outcomes d. Experienced identity of the work e. Experienced autonomy
Chapter 6 176. Establishing client relationships is an example of which motivational strategy? a. Goal setting b. Flextime c. Gain-sharing d. Job enrichment e. Job sharing 177. The extent to which an individual identifies psychologically with their work and the importance of work to one's total self-image is known as a. job enrichment. b. job involvement. c. experienced meaningfulness. d. task significance. e. experienced responsibility for outcomes of the work. 178. Recent research into the Job Characteristics Model has confirmed that in addition to the original outcomes provided by the use of the model (e.g., job satisfaction and internal work motivation), all of the following were discovered to be beneficial outcomes EXCEPT a. supervisor satisfaction. b. co-worker satisfaction. c. compensation satisfaction. d. promotion satisfaction. e. career satisfaction. 179. What is task identity? a. It is the opportunity to do a variety of job activities using various skills and talents. b. It is the impact that a job has on other people. c. It is the extent to which an individual identifies psychologically with their job. d. It is the extent to which a job involves doing a complete piece of work, from beginning to end. e. It is the extent to which an individual can identify the core tasks of a job. 180. In order to increase the scope of employees' jobs and help them build greater skills and expertise by performing different jobs, many organizations have implemented ________ programs. a. career scouting b. career ramping c. job splicing d. job rotation e. job movements 181. If your boss has given you a stretch assignment, what does this mean? a. You have many more tasks to perform as part of your job. b. You will have to get more accomplished in a shorter period of time. c. You will have to share your job with another employee. d. You will be working on a variety of tasks with more responsibility. e. You will be working on a new task for an extended period of time. 182. Where do the moderator variables in the Job Characteristics Model intervene? a. Between job characteristics and the critical psychological states b. Between the critical psychological states and outcomes c. Between job characteristics and the critical psychological states, and between the critical psychological states and outcomes d. Between job characteristics and outcomes e. Between job characteristics and growth need strength
Chapter 6 183. What does prosocial motivation refer to? a. The desire to expend effort to benefit one's co-workers b. The desire to expend effort to benefit other people c. The desire to expend effort to benefit the organization d. The desire to expend effort to improve one's performance e. The desire to expend effort to improve group effectiveness 184. Where does the Job Characteristics Model falter in its predictions? a. Growth need strength and knowledge and skill b. Growth need strength and context satisfaction c. Knowledge and skills and context satisfaction d. Task identity and the critical psychological states e. Feedback and knowledge of results 185. If your boss has decided to redesign your job using job enlargement, what does this mean? a. You will have more job scope. b. You will have more job breadth and more job depth. c. You will have more job breadth. d. You will have less job breadth and more job depth. e. You will have more job depth. 186. If your job has been redesigned so that you are given more boring, fragmented, routine tasks to do, what has happened? a. Job enrichment b. Job derichment c. Job engorgement d. Job shrinkage e. Job enlargement 187. What does task variety refer to? a. The extent to which a job requires an individual to perform a wide range of tasks on the job b. The extent to which a job requires an individual to use a variety of different skills to perform a job c. The extent to which a job involves performing specialized tasks or possessing specialized knowledge and skill d. The extent to which the tasks on a job are complex and difficult to perform e. The extent to which a job requires an individual to learn to perform a variety of tasks 188. What does skill variety refer to? a. The extent to which a job requires an individual to perform a wide range of tasks on the job b. The extent to which a job requires an individual to use a variety of different skills to perform a job c. The extent to which a job involves performing specialized tasks or possessing specialized knowledge and skill d. The extent to which the tasks on a job are complex and difficult to perform e. The extent to which a job requires an individual to learn to perform a variety of tasks 189. Morgeson and Humphrey developed a scale to measure work design characteristics. What is it called? a. Job Diagnostic Survey b. Work Design Survey c. Job Diagnostic Questionnaire d. Work Design Questionnaire e. Work Design Scale
Chapter 6 190. Which of the following best represents the categories associated with work design characteristics? a. Motivational characteristics, task characteristics, social characteristics b. Motivational characteristics, task characteristics, work context characteristics c. Task characteristics, social characteristics, work context characteristics d. Motivational characteristics, social characteristics, work context characteristics e. Motivational characteristics, social characteristics, job characteristics 191. The motivational characteristics associated with work design include a. task characteristics and knowledge characteristics. b. task characteristics and social characteristics. c. task characteristics and work context characteristics. d. social characteristics and work context characteristics. e. job characteristics and task characteristics. 192. Which of the following is NOT associated with the social characteristics of work design? a. Interaction inside the organization b. Social support c. Interdependence d. Interaction outside of the organization e. Feedback from others 193. Compared to motivational characteristics, social characteristics have been found to be more strongly related to a. job satisfaction and organizational commitment. b. job satisfaction and turnover intentions. c. organizational commitment and turnover intentions. d. job satisfaction and turnover. e. turnover intentions and turnover. 194. After graduating from university, Jael told her friends that she wants to find a job where she can make a difference in other people's lives. What is this an example of? a. Job involvement b. Prosocial motivation c. Task identity d. Social support e. Growth need strength 195. The idea that work can be designed to provide opportunities to connect and interact with other people is known as a. work design. b. job design. c. social architecture of jobs. d. relational architecture of jobs. e. prosocial motivation. 196. Which of the following is an example of the relational architecture of jobs? a. A student, has just found out that they will receive a scholarship. b. A call centre employee has been told about a scholarship recipient. c. A call centre employee has been given the opportunity to interact with other employees. d. A call centre employee has been given a university scholarship. e. A call centre employee has been given more job autonomy.
Chapter 6 197. After graduating from university, Gwen decided to find a job that was consistent with the relational architecture of jobs. Which of the following would be a good job for her? a. A job that involves doing a whole piece of work and the results can easily be identified b. A job that provides opportunities for advice and assistance from others c. A job that provides opportunities to connect and interact with other people d. A job in which others in the organization provide information about one's performance e. A job that provides direct and clear information about the effectiveness of task performance 198. If Kayla is concerned about the degree to which her new job allows correct or appropriate posture and movement, what should she ask about? a. Physical demands of the job b. Ergonomics c. Equipment use d. Work conditions e. Interdependence 199. Which of the following is NOT an example of knowledge characteristics of work design? a. Job complexity b. Information processing c. Problem solving d. Specialization e. Task variety 200. The model of relational job design was developed by a. Adam Grant. b. Frederick Morgeson and Stephen Humphrey. c. J. Richard Hackman and Greg Oldham. d. Frederick Winslow Taylor. e. Peter Drucker. 201. Who, in the following list, is NOT associated with job design? a. Adam Grant b. Frederick Morgeson and Stephen Humphrey c. J. Richard Hackman and Greg Oldham d. Frederick Winslow Taylor e. Peter Drucker 202. Luca wants a job where he will be able to use many of his skills. What work design characteristic should he be asking about during his job interview? a. Autonomy b. Task variety c. Skill variety d. Job complexity e. Specialization 203. The awareness and inclusion of motivational characteristics, social characteristics, and work context characteristics when designing how work gets done is known as a. Job Characteristics Model. b. work design characteristics. c. relational job design. d. job enrichment. e. relational architecture of jobs.
Chapter 6 204. Self-initiated changes that employees make in their job demands and job resources to improve the fit or match between characteristics of their job and their personal abilities and needs is known as a. prosocial motivation. b. job design. c. relational job design. d. work design. e. job crafting. 205. After graduating from university, Maria started a new job and immediately began making changes to her job demands and job resources to improve the fit between the characteristics of her job and her abilities and needs. What is Maria doing? a. Prosocial motivation b. Job enlargement c. Stretch assignments d. Job rotation e. Job crafting 206. Which one of the following is NOT a dimension of job crafting? a. Increasing social job resources b. Increasing structural job resources c. Increasing challenging demands d. Increasing interpersonal job resources e. Decreasing hindering job demands 207. After graduating from university, Maria started a new job and immediately began to ask for feedback, advice, and support from supervisors and colleagues. What is Maria doing? a. Increasing social job resources b. Increasing structural job resources c. Increasing challenging demands d. Increasing interpersonal job resources e. Increasing hindering job demands 208. After graduating from university, Maria started a new job and immediately began to make changes to her autonomy and skill variety. What is Maria doing? a. Increasing social job resources b. Increasing structural job resources c. Increasing challenging demands d. Increasing task job resources e. Increasing hindering job demands 209. After graduating from university, Maria started a new job and immediately began to ask for more responsibilities and volunteering for special projects. What is Maria doing? a. Increasing social job resources b. Increasing structural job resources c. Increasing challenging demands d. Increasing task job resources e. Increasing hindering job demands
Chapter 6 210. After graduating from university, Maria started a new job and after just a few months she began to reduce her workload and work-family conflict. What is Maria doing? a. Decreasing social job resources b. Decreasing structural job resources c. Decreasing challenging demands d. Decreasing task job resources e. Decreasing hindering job demands 211. Which one of the following is NOT related to job crafting? a. Agreeableness b. Conscientiousness c. Extraversion d. Emotional stability e. Openness to experience 212. What job characteristics are positively related to job crafting? a. Job autonomy and skill variety b. Job autonomy and workload c. Skill variety and task significance d. Skill variety and workload e. Job autonomy and task significance 213. Which of the following statements about gender and job crafting is most accurate? a. Women engage in more job crafting behaviours than men. b. Men engage in more job crafting behaviours than women. c. Men and women both engage in job crafting behaviours infrequently. d. Men and women both engage in job crafting behaviours very frequently. e. Men and women engage in a similar amount of job crafting behaviours. 214. What job crafting dimension is the most important dimension for predicting work outcomes? a. Increasing social job resources b. Increasing structural job resources c. Increasing challenging demands d. Increasing interpersonal job resources e. Decreasing hindering job demands 215. Why is job crafting an effective strategy that leads to positive work outcomes? a. It reduces employees' job demands. b. It increases employees' job demands. c. It increases employees' job resources. d. It decreases employees' job resources. e. It increases employees' job resources and job demands. 216. Task variety refers to the extent to which a job requires an individual to use a variety of different skills to perform a job. a. True b. False 217. Skill variety refers to the degree to which a job requires employees to perform a wide range of tasks on the job. a. True b. False
Chapter 6 218. The scientific management movement strongly supported job enrichment. a. True b. False 219. In the Job Characteristics Model, autonomy is the core job characteristic that leads to the critical psychological state known as "experienced responsibility for outcomes of work." a. True b. False 220. According to the Job Characteristics Model, people with low growth need strength should respond best to jobs with a high motivating potential. a. True b. False 221. Skill-based pay plans are especially useful with self-managed teams. a. True b. False 222. Skill-based pay plans are especially useful with cross-functional teams. a. True b. False 223. A study conducted by the Toronto Stock Exchange found that companies with employee stock ownership plans outperformed those that do not have ESOPs on a number of performance indicators. a. True b. False 224. The turnaround of the motorcycle producer Harley-Davidson is, in part, attributed to the institution of gainsharing. a. True b. False 225. The turnaround of the motorcycle producer Harley-Davidson is, in part, attributed to the institution of profit sharing. a. True b. False 226. The Scanlon Plan is a group-oriented rather than an individual-oriented pay plan. a. True b. False 227. Hackman and Oldham developed a questionnaire called the Work Design Questionnaire to measure the core characteristics of jobs. a. True b. False 228. Both job enrichment and goal setting theory stress the value of performance feedback to employees. a. True b. False
Chapter 6 229. Job enrichment is said to improve job context satisfaction. a. True b. False 230. The traditional view of job design stressed job simplification. a. True b. False 231. Job breadth refers to the number of different activities performed in a job. a. True b. False 232. The notion of job depth corresponds very closely to what Hackman and Oldham call skill variety. a. True b. False 233. According to the Job Characteristics Model, context satisfactions is a moderator variable. a. True b. False 234. A low scope job would have a low motivating potential score. a. True b. False 235. Unions have traditionally been very active in demanding job enrichment. a. True b. False 236. Stretch assignments give employees more tasks at the same level to perform but leave other core characteristics unchanged. a. True b. False 237. Among the five core job characteristics, only skill variety is related to all of the outcomes in the Job Characteristics Model. a. True b. False 238. Research on the Job Characteristics Model supports the role of growth need strength as a moderating variable. a. True b. False 239. In general, job enrichment involves increasing the motivating potential of jobs via the arrangement of the critical psychological states. a. True b. False 240. Employees who have challenging and enriched jobs tend to have higher levels of job involvement. a. True b. False
Chapter 6 241. Job enrichment and job enlargement both involve increasing the depth of a job. a. True b. False 242. If your boss gives you more tasks to perform along with more responsibility and autonomy, then you are experiencing job enlargement. a. True b. False 243. Job enlargement involves increasing the breadth and depth of a job. a. True b. False 244. A good example of job enlargement would be to give workers more boring, fragmented, routine tasks to perform. a. True b. False 245. Task characteristics are similar to the core job characteristics of the Job Characteristics Model. a. True b. False 246. The motivational characteristics category of work design includes task characteristics and social characteristics. a. True b. False 247. Task variety and skill variety refer to the same thing. a. True b. False 248. The relational architecture of jobs has to do with designing jobs so that employees have opportunities to connect and interact with their co-workers. a. True b. False 249. One of the objectives of job enrichment is to increase prosocial motivation. a. True b. False 250. Providing employees more opportunities to interact and connect with other people is an example of the relational architecture of jobs. a. True b. False 251. Job crafting involves giving employees challenging assignments and projects that are larger in scope than one's current job and involve more responsibility. a. True b. False
Chapter 6 252. Increasing social job resources involves asking for feedback, advice, and support from supervisors and colleagues. a. True b. False 253. Increasing structural job resources involves asking for feedback, advice, and support from supervisors and colleagues. a. True b. False 254. Increasing structural job resources involves behaviours to increase job characteristics. a. True b. False 255. Increasing social job resources involves behaviours to increase job characteristics. a. True b. False 256. Increasing challenging job demands involves behaviours such as asking for more responsibilities and volunteering for special projects. a. True b. False 257. Increasing hindering job demands involves behaviours such as asking for more responsibilities and volunteering for special projects. a. True b. False 258. Decreasing hindering job demands involves behaviours to minimize physical, cognitive, and emotional demands. a. True b. False 259. If you begin a new job and decide to reduce your workload and work-family conflict then you will be decreasing hindering job demands. a. True b. False 260. If you begin a new job and decide to reduce your workload and work-family conflict then you will be decreasing challenging job demands. a. True b. False 261. Women engage in more job crafting behaviours than men. a. True b. False 262. Men engage in more job crafting behaviours than women. a. True b. False
Chapter 6 263. Increasing structural job resources is the most important job crafting dimension for predicting work outcomes. a. True b. False 264. Increasing social job resources is the most important job crafting dimension for predicting work outcomes. a. True b. False 265. In the Job Characteristics Model, the core job characteristic of __________ is most likely to lead to the psychological state of experienced responsibility for work outcomes.
266. Combining tasks, establishing client relationships, and reducing supervision are examples of how to accomplish __________ .
267. In terms of job design, the scientific management movement advocated __________ jobs.
268. The extent to which an individual identifies psychologically with their work and the importance of work to one's total self-image is called __________ .
269. A variable that influences the extent to which a job that is high in motivating potential will lead to favourable outcomes is called a(n) __________ variable.
270. In the Job Characteristics Model, the __________ intervene between the core job characteristics and work outcomes.
271. A job in which a whole piece of work is done from beginning to end is said to be high in __________ .
272. Recent research into the Job Characteristics Model suggests that _______ is the most critical psychological state.
273. If your boss asks you to work on a variety of challenging assignments with new responsibilities, you have been given a(n) __________ assignment.
274.
__________ assignments offer employees opportunities to work on a variety of challenging assignments and projects to broaden their skills.
275. Among the five job characteristics, __________ is important for experienced responsibility for outcomes of the work.
Chapter 6 276. The job characteristics model seems to falter in its predictions about growth needs and __________ .
277. Employees who have challenging and enriched jobs tend to have higher levels of __________ .
278. All of the __________ have been found to be positively related to job involvement.
279. In general, __________ involves increasing the motivating potential of jobs via the arrangement of their core characteristics.
280. In order to redesign your jobs, your boss has just given you more boring, fragmented, routine tasks to perform at the same level. This is known as __________ .
281. When job enrichment results in increasing job breadth but leaves other core characteristics unchanged, it is known as __________ .
282. The term __________ has been used to refer to the enrichment of jobs that are already perceived as too rich by their incumbents.
283.
_______ consists of three categories: motivational characteristics, social characteristics, and work context characteristics.
284. The goal of __________ is to identify the characteristics that make some tasks more motivating than others and to capture these characteristics in the design of jobs.
285.
__________ characteristics refer to the attributes of the task, job, and social and organizational environment.
286.
__________ involves the degree to which a job requires employees to perform a wide range of tasks on the job.
287.
__________ reflects the extent to which a job requires an individual to use a variety of different skills to perform a job.
288.
__________ characteristics are similar to the core job characteristics of the Job Characteristics Model.
289.
__________ characteristics have to do with the interpersonal and social aspects of work.
Chapter 6 290.
__________ characteristics refer to the context within which work is performed.
291.
__________ characteristics refer to the kinds of knowledge, skill, and ability demands required to perform a job.
292. The desire to expend effort to benefit other people is known as __________ .
293. Structural properties of work that shape employees' opportunities to connect and interact with other people is known as the ________ .
294. Self-initiated changes that employees make in their job demands and job resources to improve the fit or match between characteristics of their job and their personal abilities and needs is known as __________ .
295. Increasing __________ job resources involves asking for feedback, advice, and support from supervisors and colleagues.
296. Increasing __________ job resources involves behaviours to increase job characteristics.
297. Increasing __________ job demands involves behaviours such as asking for more responsibilities and volunteering for special projects.
298. Decreasing __________ job demands involves behaviours such as reducing one's workload or work-family conflict.
299. Among the four types of job crafting behaviours, increasing __________ job resources has been found to be the most important dimension for predicting work outcomes.
300. Job crafting is effective because it increases employee's job __________ .
301. What are the two main factors which determine job scope? Give examples of jobs which have low job scope and high job scope.
302. Explain the relationship between the core job characteristics and the critical psychological states in the Hackman and Oldham Job Characteristics Model.
Chapter 6 303.
Describe several job enrichment strategies which a manager might try to implement, depending on the organizational context.
304. Work design characteristics acknowledges both the job and the broader work environment. They include the attributes of the task, job, and social and organizational environment and consist of three categories. Identify and describe each of the three categories and give an example of each.
305. What does the relational architecture of jobs mean and what are its implications for job design?
306.
Describe how you would design a job in accordance with relational job design and provide an example of such a job.
307.
Describe two new models of job design.
308. What are work design characteristics and how do they extend the Job Characteristics Model?
309. What does job crafting involve and what are the four dimensions of job crafting behaviours? Be sure to give examples of each dimension of job crafting behaviour.
310. Discuss some of the potential problems of job enrichment.
311. Two organizations are considering job redesign in order to improve employee motivation. One organization is planning on job enrichment and the other is going to use job enlargement. Each organization has asked you to explain how they should proceed, and the likely outcomes of their job redesign programs. What will you tell them?
312. Which motivational technique is most closely associated with goal setting? a. Job enrichment b. Wage incentives c. MBO d. Flextime e. Job sharing 313. Which motivational strategy is most clearly associated with written agreements and paperwork? a. Job enrichment b. Management by Objectives c. Flextime d. Compressed workweek e. Job sharing
Chapter 6 314. One problem that may cause MBO to fail is that a. top management gets too involved in the MBO program. b. MBO may lead to problems in achieving adequate supervisory coverage. c. performance reviews may become an exercise in punishing employees. d. workers may become fatigued because of longer working days. e. the objectives are too specific. 315. Who developed the concept of Management by Objectives? a. Hackman and Oldham b. Peter Drucker c. Frederick Winslow Taylor d. Frederick Morgeson and Stephen Humphrey e. Adam Grant 316. What is the primary focus of Management by Objectives? a. The type of goal that is set b. The development of objectives for all employees c. The nature of the interaction between managers and individual workers d. The involvement of senior management in the process e. The involvement of employees in the establishment of objectives 317. The objectives of MBO usually involve a. current and future job performance. b. current job performance and personal development. c. past and current job performance. d. future job performance and personal development. e. past and future job performance. 318. Research on MBO programs has shown a. poor productivity gains. b. no productivity gains. c. clear productivity gains. d. short-term productivity gains. e. long-term productivity gains. 319. To be effective, the implementation of MBO programs must have the a. the full commitment of employees. b. the full commitment of middle managers. c. the full commitment of top management. d. the full commitment of supervisors. e. all of the above. 320. Which motivational strategy is an elaborate, difficult, time-consuming process? a. Job enrichment b. Management by Objectives c. Flextime d. Compressed workweek e. Job sharing
Chapter 6 321. What is the gain in productivity associated with MBO when there is high top-management commitment and when there is low commitment? a. 26 percent and 6 percent b. 36 percent and 14 percent c. 66 percent and 16 percent d. 56 percent and 6 percent e. 46 percent and 8 percent 322. One review on MBO showed a 76 percent average gain in productivity for programs with high topmanagement support, and a 6 percent gain for those with low commitment. a. True b. False 323.
__________ theory provides the theoretical foundation for Management by Objectives.
324. The research evidence shows that Management by Objectives (MBO) programs result in clear __________ gains.
325. The objectives of MBO programs usually involve current job performance and personal __________ .
326. The implementation of MBO programs must have the full commitment of __________ management.
327. The concept of MBO was developed by management theorist Peter __________ .
328. What is Management by Objectives (MBO)? What advice would you give to a manager who is considering MBO for their workplace?
329. Your organization is considering implementing a Management by Objectives (MBO) program in the hopes of increasing employee motivation and productivity. However, you are concerned about this because a number of factors can cause MBO programs to fail. You have arranged to meet with management to discuss this with them. What will you tell them about the effectiveness of MBO programs and the reasons they sometimes fail?
330. Define Management by Objectives (MBO) and describe how manager-employee interactions unfold when MBO is implemented.
331. When an organization faces a slow-down in business activity, there may be a reduction in the number of hours employees work in order to avoid layoffs. This is called a. reduction contingency. b. job contingency. c. work sharing. d. work sustainability. e. layoff avoidance.
Chapter 6 332. The text cites several examples of companies that have engaged in work sharing. Their workers accepted a reduction in their weekly hours in order to avoid a. excessive retraining costs. b. wage increases. c. compliance with government workforce diversity policy. d. layoffs. e. termination. 333. "Core time" is a. a term associated with the compressed workweek. b. the time under which pay is calculated at a base rate rather than an overtime rate. c. the time when employees working under flex time are all in the office. d. the time frame over which goals are set in a Management by Objectives program. e. the overlap in shifts between two workers who are job sharing. 334. In a flex time system, the period when all employees must be present at work is called a. full force. b. flexband. c. core time. d. nonflex. e. compressed time. 335. In a flex time system, core time is a. the total amount of time per week that each employee must work. b. the time of the day when all employees must be present at work. c. the time period within which employees are free to exercise flex time privileges. d. the amount of time an employee must work to acquire flex time privileges. e. the time in excess of a normal work shift. 336. Which of the following consequences is least likely to occur as a result of flex time? a. Increased job satisfaction b. Decreased turnover c. Decreased absenteeism d. Increased satisfaction with work schedule e. Increased productivity 337. In its most simple form, people who work under a compressed workweek work a. fewer days per week than normal. b. less weeks per year than normal. c. less hours per day than normal. d. fewer hours per week than normal. e. fewer hours per month than normal. 338. What is job sharing? a. Two people do one job. b. Two people do the work of three people. c. Two people help each other do their separate jobs. d. Two jobs are given to one individual. e. Two jobs are combined into one and shared by two people.
Chapter 6 339. What did Yahoo and IBM do with respect to telecommuting? a. They were among the first companies to allow their employees to work from home during the pandemic. b. They were among the first companies to allow their employees to work from home full time. c. They stopped allowing employees to work from home. d. They closed their offices and told employees they would no longer have to come into the office. e. They were one of the first companies to offer their employees a hybrid approach to telecommuting. 340. What is a greater frequency of telecommuting associated with? a. Reduction in work-family conflict and counterproductive work behaviour b. Reduction in burnout and stress c. Reduction in turnover and absenteeism d. Reduction in work-family conflict and absenteeism e. Reduction in work-family conflict and stress 341. One report found that three-quarters of employees in Canada who worked from home during the pandemic had a least one symptom of a. depression. b. burnout. c. stress. d. mental illness. e. physical illness. 342. Which of the following is most accurate about Cisco Systems? a. They reported a gain of US $195 million in productivity within the first year of adopting a telecommuting program. b. They reported a gain of US $195 million in productivity within the first year of adopting a job sharing program. c. They reported a gain of US $195 million in productivity within the first year of adopting a flex time program. d. They reported a gain of US $195 million in productivity within the first year of adopting a compressed workweek program. e. They reported a gain of US $195 million in productivity within the first year of adopting a work sharing program. 343. What is the most common compressed workweek system? a. the 5-40 system b. the 4-40 system c. the 4-50 system d. the 3-40 system e. the 5-50 system 344. A review of research on the compressed workweek concluded that a. there is a positive effect on absenteeism. b. there is a positive effect on productivity. c. there is a positive effect on job satisfaction. d. there is a positive effect on satisfaction with one's boss. e. there is a positive effect on life satisfaction.
Chapter 6 345. Work options that permit flexibility in terms of where and/or when work is completed are called a. flexible work schedules. b. flexible work options. c. workplace flexibility. d. flexible work arrangements. e. flexible work time. 346. Flexible work arrangements are work options that permit flexibility in terms of a. where, when, and/or how work is completed. b. where and/or when work is completed. c. where and/or how work is completed. d. when and/or how work is completed. e. where work is completed. 347. Flexible work arrangements that permit flexibility in terms of when employees can work are called a. flex time and compressed work week. b. job sharing and work sharing. c. flex time and telecommuting. d. compressed work week and telecommuting. e. flex time, compressed work week, and telecommuting. 348. Flexible work arrangements that permit flexibility in terms of where employees can work are called a. flex time. b. job sharing. c. telecommuting. d. compressed work week. e. work sharing. 349. Telecommuting has been found to be positively related to a. job performance. b. organizational citizenship behaviours. c. job performance and organizational citizenship behaviours. d. organizational commitment. e. organizational commitment and organizational citizenship behaviours. 350. Telecommuting has been found to be positively related to job performance and organizational citizenship behaviours in part because it a. increases employees' perceptions of fairness. b. increases employees' perceptions of responsibility. c. increases employees' perceptions of accountability. d. increases employees' perceptions of autonomy. e. increases employees' perceptions of control. 351. What are the main reasons why many workers say they want to continue to work from home during and after the pandemic? a. Convenience, saving money, increased autonomy b. Convenience, increased autonomy, increased productivity c. Convenience, saving money, increased productivity d. Saving money, increased autonomy, increased productivity e. Convenience, more leisure time, saving money
Chapter 6 352. What are the positive effects of telecommuting mostly due to? a. A decrease in stress b. A decrease in work-family conflict c. An increase in perceived fairness. d. An increase in perceived trust e. An increase in perceived autonomy 353. According to one study on telecommuting and career success, the extent of telecommuting was a. positively related to promotions and salary growth. b. negatively related to promotions and salary growth. c. positively related to promotions and negatively related to salary growth. d. negatively related to promotions and positively related to salary growth. e. not related to promotions or salary growth. 354. The effect of extensive telecommuting on career success depends on a. the employee's personality. b. the organization. c. work context factors. d. the type of job. e. job level in the organization. 355. When are the greatest benefit from telecommuting obtained? a. When telecommuting is extensive b. When telecommuting is occasional c. When telecommuting is voluntary d. When telecommuting is required e. When telecommuting is part of a formalized program 356. Why are the motivational practices used by the best companies effective? a. Because they are based on sound research b. Because they have a proven track record c. Because employees have indicated they want them d. Because they are a good fit for the organization e. Because they have a strong commitment to them 357. What does the choice of motivational practices require organizations to do? a. Find out what practices their competitors are using. b. Find out what the best companies are doing to motivate their employees. c. Conduct a thorough diagnosis. d. Find out what has worked best in the past. e. Conduct a research study to test the effectiveness of different motivational practices. 358. The motivational practices used by the best companies are effective because they fit with the organization's culture and system of management practices. a. True b. False 359. The choice of motivational practices requires a thorough diagnosis of the organization and the needs and desires of employees. a. True b. False
Chapter 6 360. The choice of motivational practices requires a thorough diagnosis of the practices being used by other organizations. a. True b. False 361. Motivational systems that make use of a variety of motivators used in conjunction with one another are likely to be most effective. a. True b. False 362. The contingency factors that should be considered when choosing a motivational practice include employee needs, the nature of the job, __________ characteristics, and the desired outcome.
363. The contingency factors that should be considered when choosing a motivational practice include employee needs, the nature of the job, organization __________ characteristics, and the desired __________ .
364. The choice of motivational practices requires a thorough diagnosis of the __________ and the needs and desires of employees.
365. The motivational practices used by the best companies are effective because they __________ in with and are part of a larger organizational culture and system of management practices.
366. Describe the factors that an organization needs to consider when choosing to implement a motivational practice.
367. Flex time and the compressed workweek are examples of flexible work arrangements that provide flexibility in terms of where employees perform their job. a. True b. False 368. Flex time and telecommuting are examples of flexible work arrangements that provide flexibility in terms of where employees perform their job. a. True b. False 369. One of the reasons that telecommuting is positively related to job performance is because it increases employees' perceptions of fairness. a. True b. False 370. One of the reasons that telecommuting is positively related to job performance is because it increases employees' perceptions of autonomy. a. True b. False
Chapter 6 371. The __________ reduces the number of days per week worked but not the number of hours per week.
372.
__________ is a system that permits employees to choose their own work arrival and departure times.
373. Gigantico Insurance is interested in reducing lateness among its staff. This might be accomplished by installing a flexible work arrangement called __________ .
374. The purpose of flexible work arrangements is not to produce direct performance benefits, but rather to promote __________ .
375. The most common compressed workweek is the __________ system.
376. Research on the compressed workweek has found that there is a positive effect on job satisfaction and satisfaction with __________ .
377. Your organization has decided to provide workers with an office close to their home that provides all of the amenities of a home office. This is known as a(n) __________ .
378. Your organization has decided to provide workers with a combination of remote work arrangements that will allow them to work at the company's office, a satellite office, or their home office. These arrangements are a part of what constitutes __________ .
379. Flexible work arrangements refer to work options that permit flexibility in terms of where and/or __________ work is completed.
380. Flexible work __________ refer to work options that permit flexibility in terms of where and/or when work is completed.
381. Flex time is a work arrangement that provides flexibility in terms of __________ employees work.
382. The compressed workweek is a work arrangement that provides flexibility in terms of __________ employees work.
383. Telecommuting is a work arrangement that provides flexibility in terms of __________ employees work.
Chapter 6 384.
__________ is a work arrangement that provides flexibility in terms of where employees work.
385. Telecommuting is positively related to job performance in part because it increases employees' perceptions of __________ .
386. Describe four programs which utilize flexible work arrangements as motivators. Give examples of jobs which might apply to each program.
387. Discuss the benefits and potential problems of telecommuting.
388. Lawyers at the You Don't Pay Unless We Win law firm have been complaining about their long work hours and the lack of flexibility. The partners of the firm are considering making changes so that employees have some flexibility in terms of where and/or when they work. What are some of the flexible work arrangements they should consider and what effect might they have on employees?
389. What is telecommuting and what role did it play during the COVID-19 pandemic? What effect did telecommuting have on employees during the pandemic?
390. "Establishing internal client relationships" is a motivational strategy advocated by Management by Objectives. a. True b. False 391. Research evidence on Management by Objectives shows that MBO programs rarely result in productivity gains. a. True b. False 392. A primary focus of MBO is the nature of the interaction between top managers and middle managers. a. True b. False 393. The implementation of MBO must have the full commitment of top management. a. True b. False 394. The implementation of MBO must have the full commitment of middle management. a. True b. False 395. Excessive long-term orientation can be a problem with MBO. a. True b. False
Chapter 6 396.
__________ is an elaborate, ongoing, systematic program designed to facilitate goal establishment, goal accomplishment, and employee development.
397. June works a compressed workweek. This means that she works fewer total hours a week than normal. a. True b. False 398. The compressed workweek holds the number of days worked constant but reduces the number of hours worked each day. a. True b. False 399. The primary purpose of flexible work arrangements is to motivate employees to work harder. a. True b. False 400. Core time is the period when employees working under flex time are all in the office. a. True b. False 401. The most common compressed workweek is the 4-50 system. a. True b. False 402. Research on the compressed workweek has found that there is a positive effect on absenteeism. a. True b. False 403. The positive effects of telecommuting are mostly due to an increase in perceived fairness. a. True b. False 404. Which of the following is NOT a contingency factor for choosing motivational practices? a. Employee needs b. Management needs c. Nature of the job d. Organization characteristics e. Desired outcome 405. The motivational practices used by the best companies are effective because they have a proven track record. a. True b. False 406. Motivational systems that make use of a single motivator are likely to be most effective. a. True b. False 407. Telecommuting is an example of a flexible work arrangement that provides flexibility in terms of where employees can perform their job. a. True b. False
Chapter 6 408. Telecommuting is an example of a flexible work arrangement that provides employees flexibility in terms of when they work. a. True b. False 409. The extent of telecommuting is negatively related to promotions and salary growth. a. True b. False 410. The extent of telecommuting is positively related to promotions and salary growth. a. True b. False 411. The effect of extensive telecommuting on career success depends on work context factors. a. True b. False 412. The effect of extensive telecommuting on career success depends on whether the program is formal or informal. a. True b. False 413. MBO is an elaborate, difficult, time-consuming process. a. True b. False 414. One review on MBO showed a 56 percent average gain in productivity for programs with high topmanagement support, and a 6 percent gain for those with low commitment. a. True b. False 415. Excessive short-term orientation can be a problem with MBO. a. True b. False 416. The positive effects of telecommuting are mostly due to an increase in perceived autonomy. a. True b. False 417. Flexible work arrangements refer to work options that permit flexibility in terms of where, when, and/or how work is completed. a. True b. False 418. Flexible work arrangements refer to work options that permit flexibility in terms of when and/or how work is completed. a. True b. False
Chapter 6 419. Flexible work arrangements refer to work options that permit flexibility in terms of where and/or when work is completed. a. True b. False 420. The purpose of flexible work arrangements is to motivate employees to work harder and produce performance benefits. a. True b. False 421. Flex time and telecommuting are examples of flexible work arrangements that provide flexibility in terms of when employees work. a. True b. False
Chapter 6
Test Name: 1.
c.Employees and managers underestimate the importance of pay as a motivator.
2.
c.variable pay.
3.
c.Variable pay
4.
d.A portion of employees' pay that is based on a measure of performance.
5.
b.Pay for performance
6.
e.PFP
7.
b.Performance-based pay can result in mental health problems, especially for low-performing and older workers.
8.
e.82 percent
9.
b.increase performance and lower turnover.
10.
pay
11.
turnover
12.
Pay
13.
performance
14.
variable
15.
older
16.
a.True
17.
b.False
18.
a.True
19.
b.False
20.
Piece-rate
21.
piece-rate
22.
wage incentive plans
23.
wage incentive plan
24.
quality
25.
expectancy
26.
trust
Chapter 6 27.
It is the artificial limitation of work output that can occur under wage incentive plans. Workers come to an informal agreement about what constitutes a fair day's work and limit their output accordingly. It can occur for a number of reasons: Sometimes workers feel that increased productivity due to the incentive will lead to reductions in the workforce or they fear that if they produce at an especially high level, the organization will reduce the rate of payment to cut labour costs (rate-cutting). In the early days of industrialization, when unions were non-existent or weak, this often happened. When management introduced the incentive system, workers employed legitimate shortcuts that they had learned on the job to produce at a higher rate than expected. In response to this, management simply changed the rate to require more output for a given amount of pay. Restriction seems less likely when a climate of trust and a history of good relations exist between employees and management.
28.
b.underestimate; overestimate
29.
c.positive motivational consequences may occur if the pay system is well designed.
30.
c.underestimate the value of a promotion.
31.
c.the peers average $64,000.
32.
a.white-collar workers particularly believe that performance should be an important determinant of pay.
33.
d.merit pay that is awarded in a single payment and not built into base pay.
34.
c.pay secrecy.
35.
b.Whole Foods
36.
b.Lump sum bonus
37.
a.Bonus pay has a stronger effect than conventional merit pay.
38.
c.merit pay plans.
39.
a.do not perceive a link between their job performance and pay.
40.
Variable pay or incentive compensation, involves providing employees some portion of their pay that is based on a measure of performance. Financial incentives and variable pay, or pay-for-performance plans, have been found to increase performance and lower turnover. Both individual and team-based financial incentives have been shown to have a positive effect on performance. Research not only supports the motivational effects of pay but also suggests that pay might well be the most important and effective motivator of performance. In general, the ability to earn money for outstanding performance is a competitive advantage for attracting, motivating, and retaining employees. However, performance-based pay can result in mental health problems for employees, especially for low-performing and older workers.
41.
d.generally lead to increased productivity unless restriction occurs.
42.
a.piece rate pay.
43.
d.piece rate
44.
c.increases; decreases
45.
c.piece-rate
46.
b.wage incentive plans.
Chapter 6 47.
b.Lincoln Electric
48.
d.expectancy
49.
c.reduced cooperation
50.
c.reduced cooperation
51.
d.incompatible job design
52.
e.restriction of productivity
53.
c.when there is a history of good relations between employees and management
54.
b.False
55.
a.True
56.
a.True
57.
b.False
58.
a.True
59.
b.False
60.
a.True
61.
b.False
62.
underestimate
63.
overestimate
64.
Merit pay plans
65.
lump sum bonus
66.
secrecy
67.
open
68.
unethical
69.
Bonus
70.
Merit pay
71.
job performance/pay
72.
job level/performance
73.
c.gain-sharing
74.
d.pay.
Chapter 6 75.
a.Gain-sharing
76.
e.the number of job skills they have acquired.
77.
b.Gain-sharing
78.
a.Gain-sharing
79.
c.number of suggestions provided by employees.
80.
c.lower production costs.
81.
d.Profit sharing
82.
c.In small organizations that regularly make a profit
83.
c.ESOPs
84.
c.ESOPs
85.
c.ESOPs
86.
b.False
87.
a.True
88.
a.True
89.
b.False
90.
a.True
91.
b.False
92.
a.True
93.
a.True
94.
b.False
95.
a.True
96.
b.False
97.
b.False
98.
a.True
99.
Low discrimination; small increases; and pay secrecy.
Chapter 6 100. Merit pay plans are often ineffective because workers do not see a link between their job performance and their pay and, in many cases, pay is, in fact, not related to performance. Evidence for this includes findings that show that pay increases in a given year are often uncorrelated with pay increases in adjacent years, which seems unlikely if organizations are truly tying pay to performance. Furthermore, in most organizations, seniority, the number of employees, and job level account for more variation in pay than performance does. The main problems with merit pay plans are low discrimination, small increases, and pay secrecy. To make the program effective, you need to emphasize the importance of ensuring that performance is linked to pay and that the best performers do in fact receive the most or highest merit pay rewards. 101. Pay secrecy can threaten the effectiveness of merit pay plans. The problem is that even if merit pay is administered fairly, is contingent on performance, and is generous, employees might remain ignorant of these facts because they have no way of comparing their own merit pay with that of others. As a consequence, such secrecy might severely damage the motivational potential impact of a well-designed merit plan. To make matters worse, in the absence of better information, employees are inclined to "invent" salaries for other members, and this can reduce both satisfaction and motivation. Several studies have found that managers have a tendency to overestimate the pay of their employees and their peers and to underestimate the pay of their superiors. This can reduce satisfaction with pay, damage perceptions of the linkage between performance and rewards, and reduce the valence of promotion to a higher level of management. Thus, pay secrecy might have a negative effect on the effectiveness of the merit pay plan. 102. b.False 103. b.False 104. a.True 105. b.False 106. a.True 107. b.False 108. a.True 109. a.True 110. b.False 111. a.True 112. a.True 113. b.False 114. work sharing 115. b.False 116. a.True 117. b.False 118. Lowered quality; differential opportunity; reduced cooperation; incompatible job design; and restriction of productivity.
Chapter 6 119. d.Seniority, number of employees, job level 120. a.True 121. a.True 122. b.False 123. b.False 124. b.False 125. b.False 126. b.False 127. a.True 128. b.False 129. a.True 130. b.False 131. a.True 132. b.False 133. a.True 134. a.True 135. b.False 136. b.False 137. d.Pay-for knowledge 138. d.Skill-based pay 139. e.behavioural, operational, and financial outcomes. 140. a.Smaller teams 141. c.self-managed teams. 142. a.productivity 143. d.scrap 144. b.gainsharing. 145. b.False 146. Gain-sharing
Chapter 6 147. skill-based pay 148. smaller firms 149. weak economy 150. Scanlon Plan 151. Training 152. financial 153. smaller 154. Profit sharing 155. Employee stock options, ESOPs 156. gainsharing 157. self-managed 158. There are four types of plans described in the text: profit sharing, ESOPs, gain-sharing (including the Scanlon Plan), and skill-based pay. The second part of the question requires students to weigh the advantages and disadvantages of each incentive plan and to defend their position on one. In reality, there is evidence to support the merits of each. The key point is that each one has a different motivational focus and should support the strategic needs of an organization. Team-based pay for performance programs have been found to have a positive effect on behavioural, operational, and financial outcomes. The effect of team-based financial incentives on performance is strongest for smaller teams. 159. a.job enrichment. 160. c.conform more closely to the principles of scientific management 161. c.assembly line utility worker. 162. c.low-scope 163. d.Establishing client relationships 164. c.Job enrichment 165. c.30 166. a.high; high 167. b.autonomy 168. d.Feedback 169. a.The current job has a very high Motivating Potential Score (MPS). 170. c.task significance. 171. b.Significance of task
Chapter 6 172. d.Autonomy 173. c.64 174. d.Increase autonomy 175. a.Knowledge of results of the work 176. d.Job enrichment 177. b.job involvement. 178. e.career satisfaction. 179. d.It is the extent to which a job involves doing a complete piece of work, from beginning to end. 180. d.job rotation 181. d.You will be working on a variety of tasks with more responsibility. 182. d.Between job characteristics and outcomes 183. b.The desire to expend effort to benefit other people 184. b.Growth need strength and context satisfaction 185. c.You will have more job breadth. 186. e.Job enlargement 187. a.The extent to which a job requires an individual to perform a wide range of tasks on the job 188. b.The extent to which a job requires an individual to use a variety of different skills to perform a job 189. b.Work Design Survey 190. d.Motivational characteristics, social characteristics, work context characteristics 191. a.task characteristics and knowledge characteristics. 192. a.Interaction inside the organization 193. c.organizational commitment and turnover intentions. 194. b.Prosocial motivation 195. d.relational architecture of jobs. 196. b.A call centre employee has been told about a scholarship recipient. 197. c.A job that provides opportunities to connect and interact with other people 198. b.Ergonomics 199. e.Task variety
Chapter 6 200. a.Adam Grant. 201. e.Peter Drucker 202. c.Skill variety 203. b.work design characteristics. 204. e.job crafting. 205. e.Job crafting 206. d.Increasing interpersonal job resources 207. a.Increasing social job resources 208. b.Increasing structural job resources 209. c.Increasing challenging demands 210. e.Decreasing hindering job demands 211. d.Emotional stability 212. b.Job autonomy and workload 213. a.Women engage in more job crafting behaviours than men. 214. b.Increasing structural job resources 215. c.It increases employees' job resources. 216. b.False 217. b.False 218. b.False 219. a.True 220. b.False 221. a.True 222. b.False 223. a.True 224. a.True 225. b.False 226. a.True 227. b.False
Chapter 6 228. a.True 229. b.False 230. a.True 231. a.True 232. b.False 233. a.True 234. a.True 235. b.False 236. b.False 237. b.False 238. b.False 239. b.False 240. a.True 241. b.False 242. b.False 243. b.False 244. a.True 245. a.True 246. b.False 247. b.False 248. b.False 249. b.False 250. a.True 251. b.False 252. a.True 253. b.False 254. a.True 255. b.False
Chapter 6 256. a.True 257. b.False 258. a.True 259. a.True 260. b.False 261. a.True 262. b.False 263. a.True 264. b.False 265. autonomy 266. job enrichment 267. simple 268. job involvement 269. moderator 270. psychological states 271. task identity 272. experienced meaningfulness 273. stretch 274. Stretch 275. autonomy 276. context satisfaction 277. job involvement 278. job characteristics 279. job enrichment 280. job enlargement 281. job enlargement 282. job engorgement 283. Work design characteristics
Chapter 6 284. job design 285. Work design 286. Task variety 287. Skill variety 288. Task 289. Social 290. Work context 291. Knowledge 292. prosocial motivation 293. relational architecture of jobs 294. job crafting 295. social 296. structural 297. challenging 298. hindering 299. structural 300. resources 301. Job breadth and job depth. A traditional assembly line job would have low job scope. A manager or professor would generally have high job scope. 302. The core job characteristics affect the meaningfulness, responsibility, and knowledge of results experienced by the worker. Specifically, skill variety, task identity, and task significance all affect the experienced meaningfulness. Autonomy affects the level of responsibility, and feedback gives the worker knowledge of the results. 303. Combining tasks, establishing internal and external client relationships, reducing supervision, forming work teams, and making feedback more direct. 304. The motivational characteristics category includes task characteristics (similar to those of the Job Characteristics Model) as well as knowledge characteristics that refer to the kinds of knowledge, skill, and ability demands required to perform a job. Social characteristics are the interpersonal and social aspects of work and include social support, interdependence, interaction outside of the organization, and feedback from others. Work context characteristics refer to the context within which work is performed and consist of ergonomics, physical demands, work conditions, and equipment used.
Chapter 6 305. It refers to the structural properties of work that shape employees' opportunities to connect and interact with other people. The idea is to design jobs by putting an emphasis on strong relational aspects and to consider their social impact and value. In effect, this involves designing jobs so that employees have contact with those who benefit from their work. 306. If you were to design a job in accordance with the relational job design you would want to ensure that employees have opportunities to connect and interact with other people. You would emphasize the relational aspects of the job and you would design it so that employees have contact with those who benefit from their work. Examples from the text include call centre employees who raise funds for a university. The callers in one study were provided with a brief exposure to a scholarship recipient who benefited from their work. In another study, callers read stories about how former callers helped to finance student scholarships. 307. Two new models of job design: work design and relational job design. Work design involves designing jobs using attributes of the task, job, and social and organizational environment. Work design characteristics include motivational characteristics, social characteristics, and work context characteristics. Relational job design refers to the structural properties of work that shape employees' opportunities to connect and interact with other people. It involves designing jobs so that employees have contact with those who benefit from their work. 308. Work design characteristics refer to attributes of the task, job, and social and organizational environment. They extend the Job Characteristics Model by including additional characteristics besides the core job characteristics (task characteristics). In addition to task characteristics, work design characteristics include knowledge characteristics, social characteristics, and work context characteristics. 309. Job crafting involves self-initiated changes that employees make in their job demands and job resources to improve the fit or match between characteristics of their job and their personal abilities and needs. The four dimensions of job crafting behaviours and examples of each are as follows: Increasing social job resources (asking for feedback, advice, and support from supervisors and colleagues); increasing structural job resources (behaviours to increase job characteristics such as autonomy and skill variety); increasing challenging job demands (asking for more responsibilities and volunteering for special projects); and decreasing hindering job demands (behaviours to minimize physical, cognitive, and emotional job demands such as reducing one's workload or work-family conflict). 310. Poor diagnosis; lack of desire or skill; demand for rewards; union resistance; and supervisory resistance. 311. Job enrichment is the design of jobs to enhance intrinsic motivation, quality of working life, and job involvement. Job enrichment procedures can include combining tasks, establishing client relationships (internal and external), reducing supervision, forming teams, and making feedback more direct. The organization can expect an improvement in employees' intrinsic motivation and job involvement. Job enlargement involves increasing job breadth by giving employees more tasks at the same level to perform but leaves the other core job characteristics unchanged. As a result, it is unlikely to improve intrinsic motivation especially if employees are just given more boring, fragmented, routine tasks to do. 312. c.MBO 313. b.Management by Objectives 314. c.performance reviews may become an exercise in punishing employees. 315. b.Peter Drucker 316. c.The nature of the interaction between managers and individual workers 317. b.current job performance and personal development.
Chapter 6 318. c.clear productivity gains. 319. c.the full commitment of top management. 320. b.Management by Objectives 321. d.56 percent and 6 percent 322. b.False 323. Goal setting 324. productivity 325. development 326. top 327. Drucker 328. MBO is an elaborate, systematic ongoing program designed to facilitate goal establishment, goal accomplishment, and employee development. MBO is a time-consuming process which must have the full commitment of top management. Goals must be as specific and measurable as possible and periodic appraisal meetings should be held to diagnose the reasons for success or failure. Research indicates that MBO programs result in clear productivity gains. 329. MBO programs can result in clear productivity gains. However, a number of factors can cause them to fail. For example, it is an elaborate, difficult, and time-consuming process and its implementation requires the full commitment of top management—programs without such commitment are much less effective than those with it. Without such commitment, managers at lower levels simply go through the motions of practising MBO. This can also lead to the haphazard specification of objectives and thus subvert the very core of MBO—which is goal setting. A frequent symptom of this degeneration is the complaint that MBO is "just a bunch of paperwork." Setting specific, quantifiable objectives can be a difficult process that results in an overemphasis on measurable objectives at the expense of more qualitative objectives. As well, an excessive short-term orientation can be a problem. A final reason for failure can occur if the performance review becomes an exercise in punishing employees for failing to achieve objectives. 330. MBO is an elaborate, systematic ongoing program designed to facilitate goal establishment, goal accomplishment, and employee development. The process unfolds as follows: the manager meets with individual workers to develop and agree on employee objectives for the coming months; there are periodic meetings to monitor employee progress in achieving objectives; an appraisal meeting is held to evaluate the extent to which the agreed-upon objectives have been achieved; the MBO cycle is repeated. 331. c.work sharing. 332. d.layoffs. 333. c.the time when employees working under flex time are all in the office. 334. c.core time. 335. b.the time of the day when all employees must be present at work. 336. b.Decreased turnover
Chapter 6 337. a.fewer days per week than normal. 338. a.Two people do one job. 339. c.They stopped allowing employees to work from home. 340. e.Reduction in work-family conflict and stress 341. b.burnout. 342. a.They reported a gain of US $195 million in productivity within the first year of adopting a telecommuting program. 343. b.the 4-40 system 344. c.there is a positive effect on job satisfaction. 345. d.flexible work arrangements. 346. b.where and/or when work is completed. 347. a.flex time and compressed work week. 348. c.telecommuting. 349. c.job performance and organizational citizenship behaviours. 350. d.increases employees' perceptions of autonomy. 351. c.Convenience, saving money, increased productivity 352. e.An increase in perceived autonomy 353. b.negatively related to promotions and salary growth. 354. c.work context factors. 355. b.When telecommuting is occasional 356. d.Because they are a good fit for the organization 357. c.Conduct a thorough diagnosis. 358. a.True 359. a.True 360. b.False 361. a.True 362. organization 363. outcome
Chapter 6 364. organization 365. fit 366. The general approach to this issue is fit. The motivational practices implemented by an organization should fit with the organization's culture and system of management practices. The choice of motivational practices requires a thorough diagnosis of the organization and the needs and desires of employees. More specifically, the choice of motivational practices should consider four key factors: the needs of employees, the nature of the job, the characteristics of the organization, and the motivational outcomes that an organization desires. The most effective motivational system will depend on these factors. Motivational systems that make use of a variety of motivators are likely to be most effective. 367. b.False 368. b.False 369. b.False 370. a.True 371. compressed workweek 372. Flex time 373. flex time 374. job satisfaction 375. 4-40 376. work schedule 377. telework centre 378. distributed work programs 379. when 380. arrangements 381. when 382. when 383. where 384. Telecommuting 385. autonomy 386. Flex time, compressed workweeks, job sharing, and telecommuting. There are several examples of jobs cited in the text. Generally, examples for compressed workweeks and job sharing can be blue- or white-collar jobs from almost any industry, while flex time and telecommuting programs tend to apply more to white collar jobs.
Chapter 6 387. Benefits include greater flexibility in work schedules; distant staffing; lower costs; a potential increase of employee productivity; stress reduction when grinding commutes are eliminated; greater work-life balance. Problems can include damage to informal communication; decreased visibility when promotions are considered; problems handling rush projects; workload spillover for non-telecommuters; distractions at home; feelings of isolation; overwork. 388. Flexible work arrangements permit employees flexibility in terms of where and/or when work is completed. Flex time and the compressed workweek provide flexibility in terms of when employees work while telecommuting provides flexibility in terms of where they perform their job. In terms of the effects these programs will have on employees, flex time can have a positive effect on productivity, job satisfaction, and satisfaction with work schedule, and it can lower absenteeism; the compressed workweek can have a positive effect on job satisfaction and satisfaction with work schedule; and telecommuting can have a positive effect on job satisfaction, job performance, and it can reduce work-family conflict, stress, and turnover intentions. 389. Telecommuting is a system by which employees are able to work at remote locations but stay in touch with their offices through the use of information and communication technology. When the pandemic was declared, working from home or telecommuting became the new normal for many workers. An estimated 4.7 million Canadians started working from home in March 2020. Many organizations had to offer telecommuting to their employees and many employees were forced to telecommute for the first time or to a greater extent than they ever had. In the first year of the pandemic, 40 percent of organizations in Ontario reported that 90 percent or more of their employees were working from home which is seven points higher than the national average. However, the increased time spent telecommuting during the pandemic had some negative effects with many workers reporting feelings of isolation, loneliness, and increased feelings of exhaustion and stress. One report found that three-quarters of employees in Canada who worked from home during the pandemic had at least one symptom of burnout. Common symptoms identified by the respondents include feelings of isolation, trouble sleeping, and difficulty concentrating. A survey by the Canadian Mental Health Association found that 77 percent of Canadians reported feeling negative emotions such as being worried or anxious, bored, lonely or isolated, and sad. Working from home during the pandemic contributed to various health problems such as stress and a sedentary lifestyle as well as a decline in overall mental well-being 390. b.False 391. b.False 392. b.False 393. a.True 394. b.False 395. b.False 396. Management by Objectives 397. b.False 398. b.False 399. b.False 400. a.True 401. b.False 402. b.False
Chapter 6 403. b.False 404. b.Management needs 405. b.False 406. b.False 407. a.True 408. b.False 409. a.True 410. b.False 411. a.True 412. b.False 413. a.True 414. a.True 415. a.True 416. a.True 417. b.False 418. b.False 419. a.True 420. b.False 421. b.False
Chapter 7 1.
Temporarily organized groups that are formed to achieve particular goals or solve particular problems are called a. work groups. b. task forces. c. committees. d. informal groups. e. self-managed teams.
2.
According to behavioural scientists, a. groups have at least five members. b. group members have a common goal and interact with each other. c. group members must interact face-to-face. d. informal groups are shown on organizational charts. e. members of larger groups tend to report higher levels of satisfaction.
3.
Identify the proper sequence of group development activities. a. Forming, norming, storming, performing, adjourning b. Forming, storming, performing, norming, adjourning c. Forming, storming, norming, performing, adjourning d. Norming, forming, storming, performing, adjourning e. Storming, forming, norming, performing, adjourning
4.
During which stage of group development is conflict likely to develop? a. Forming b. Storming c. Norming d. Adjourning e. Performing
5.
In the punctuated equilibrium model of group development, a critical point occurs a. when the group enters the storming stage. b. at the midpoint of the group's allotted time until deadline. c. at the midpoint of the volume of work that has to be accomplished. d. at the middle of Phase 1. e. towards the end of Phase 2.
6.
In the punctuated equilibrium model of group development, the midpoint transition occurs a. when half the group's time is elapsed. b. when half the group's work is done. c. at the beginning of Phase 1. d. at the end of Phase 2. e. as the group enters the storming stage.
7.
In the stage model of group development, conflict is a particular problem a. in the stage before norming. b. in the forming stage. c. in the adjourning stage. d. in the stage after norming. e. in the performing stage.
Chapter 7 8.
Connie Gersick's research resulted in which of the following? a. Typical stages of group development b. Punctuated equilibrium model c. Model of the role assumption process d. Model of group cohesiveness e. Model of factors that influence work group effectiveness
9.
What did Connie Gersick study to learn about the development of groups? a. Workers at Federal Express improving billing accuracy and reducing lost packages b. Student groups doing class projects c. Sales teams at UPS that sell and deliver products and services d. Teams at Rubbermaid that invent and design innovative household products e. A team at Thermos that invented an ecologically friendly electric barbecue grill
10.
You have been assigned a group project in your organizational behaviour course. You have six weeks to complete it. When will the midpoint transition occur? a. At about one week b. At about two weeks c. At about three weeks d. At about four weeks e. At about five weeks
11.
At what stage during group development does conflict often emerge? a. Forming b. Storming c. Norming d. Performing e. Adjourning
12.
__________ groups are groups that organizations establish to facilitate the achievement of organizational goals.
13.
The stages of group development are forming, storming, norming, performing, and __________ .
14.
The stages of group development are forming, __________ norming, performing, and adjourning.
15.
A model of group development that describes how groups with deadlines are affected by their first meetings and crucial midpoint transitions is called the __________ model.
16.
A model of group development that describes how groups with __________ are affected by their first meetings and crucial midpoint transitions is called the punctuated equilibrium model.
Chapter 7 17.
As a group size increases a. members become less inhibited about participating in group activities. b. members become more satisfied with group membership. c. the group consistently performs better. d. the time available for verbal participation by each member decreases. e. performance on conjunctive tasks improves.
18.
Which of the following equations is accurate? a. Potential performance = actual performance + process losses b. Process losses = potential performance + actual performance c. Potential performance = actual performance – process losses d. Actual performance = potential performance – process losses e. Process performance = actual performance – process losses
19.
A group performing a disjunctive task will perform at the level of a. its best member. b. its worst member. c. the average performance of all its members. d. the member who is most friendly to other members. e. the relative process loss.
20.
One reason for members reporting less satisfaction in larger groups is a. they have more time to develop friendships with other group members. b. individual members can identify less easily with the success of the group. c. opportunities for participation increase in larger groups. d. conflict and dissension are less likely in larger groups. e. people are less inhibited about participating in larger groups.
21.
On which task is the presence of only one poor performer most likely to damage group performance? a. Conjunctive b. Disjunctive c. Reflexive d. Additive e. Complex
22.
A television news team consists of a reporter, a camera operator, and a sound technician. Their job is to get good news reports to the station in time to make the evening news. A bad story, a bad picture, or bad sound means they have failed. This is a(n) ________ task. a. additive b. disjunctive c. conjunctive d. reflexive e. complex
23.
Which of the following statements is most indicative of a process loss? a. As the task force got bigger, it encountered more coordination problems. b. Bill forgot how to program FORTRAN computer language because he hadn't used it in ten years. c. Nan experienced role conflict when her boss told her to do something that she felt was unethical. d. Zeke worked harder when his colleagues were present than when he was alone. e. Carly was clearly the star of the group and they could not have completed the project on time without her participation.
Chapter 7 24.
The relationship between group size and group ________ is particularly complex and highly contingent upon the task being performed. a. cohesiveness b. member participation c. member satisfaction d. performance e. norms
25.
Which of the following is an example of process loss? a. No one in the group could remember how to work the video machine. b. Because the group was so large, communication became a problem. c. After losing the game, the team was much less cohesive. d. After they failed to land the big contract, the status of the sales staff decreased. e. The source of the quality problems could have originated in any one of three separate departments.
26.
As a group performing an additive task gets bigger, a. process losses decrease. b. the average productivity per member decreases. c. group cohesiveness should increase. d. potential group productivity decreases. e. the performance of the best member becomes more critical to group success.
27.
Which of the following is an additive task for a group? a. Picking grapes at harvest b. Passing water buckets along a human chain c. Writing a short story d. Working in a self-managed group e. Looking for a single error in a complicated computer program
28.
Diverse groups tend to develop more ________ than less diverse groups. a. roles b. poorly c. quickly d. slowly e. loyalty norms
29.
Tasks that depend on the performance of the best group member's performance are a. disjunctive. b. conjunctive. c. injunctive. d. reflexive. e. complex
30.
The Stinky Cheese Company has decided to form work teams in all of their plants. They are most concerned about team creativity and innovation. What type of teams should they use? a. Self-managed teams b. Virtual teams c. Cohesive teams d. Diverse teams e. Cross-functional teams
Chapter 7 31.
Which of the following can badly damage cohesiveness in diverse groups? a. Deep diversity b. Surface diversity c. Age d. Gender e. Race
32.
A manager recommends an employee for a promotion because the employee stood up for the manager during a leadership crisis. Which reward allocation norm led the superior to recommend this employee for promotion? a. Reciprocity b. Equity c. Equality d. Social responsibility e. Performance
33.
Lisa is a very religious person whose boss tells her to offer an illegal bribe to a government official to obtain a lucrative contract. What kind of role conflict is she experiencing? a. Person-role b. Interrole c. Intrasender d. Intersender e. Role ambiguity
34.
Gurpreet is a physician who is employed as the director of research for a large drug company. She often worries that her actions as a manager could possibly violate the physicians' code of professional conduct. This is most clearly an example of ________ conflict. a. person-role b. intrasender c. intersender d. interrole e. role ambiguity
35.
Who is experiencing interrole conflict? a. Jack is vice-president of sales and marketing. b. The boss on the construction job was unsure if they were a worker or a supervisor. c. The head of engineering told Jan to do one thing, and the head of design told her to do the opposite. d. The plant manager debated in whether to open the valve and risk polluting the environment. e. Michel's boss told him to relax while handing him another report to finish by the end of the day.
36.
The members of a work group are paid a group bonus according to the productivity of the group. Because of this, each member expects the other to perform at the highest level. This expectation is an example of which aspect of group structure? a. Status b. Cohesiveness c. A norm d. A role e. A disjunctive task
Chapter 7 37.
Which of the following statements about norms is TRUE? a. A person can have their own private, personal norm. b. Norms are generally unrelated to attitudes. c. Norms are not an aspect of group structure. d. Norms cannot be targeted at a specific individual. e. Normative influence is often unconscious.
38.
The workforce petitioned management to be paid on an individual piece-rate basis. Which reward allocation norm do the workers favour? a. Social responsibility b. Equality c. Equity d. Reciprocity e. Loyalty
39.
The boss who constantly changes their mind can cause uncertainty for an employee. To put this another way, a. intrasender role conflict can cause role ambiguity. b. role ambiguity can cause intersender role conflict. c. person-role conflict can cause role ambiguity. d. role ambiguity can cause interrole conflict. e. intersender role conflict can cause interrole conflict.
40.
Which aspect of group structure most closely reflects the way members evaluate each other? a. Size b. Roles c. Norms d. Status e. Diversity
41.
Higher status group members ________ than lower status members. a. are addressed more frequently b. have more influence c. communicate more d. participate more e. all of the above
42.
Which of the following statements about status and communication is TRUE? a. Lower-status members do more talking. b. Most people like to communicate with others at their own status or lower. c. Communication has a tendency to move down the status hierarchy. d. Status has very little relation to communication in organizations. e. People can be inhibited from communicating upward if status differences are large.
43.
Jael thought that her summer job as a municipal garbage collector would be easy. Unfortunately, her supervisor tells her to do one thing one day and the exact opposite the next day. Jael's role ambiguity a. is inherent in the job she performs. b. stems from a role sender. c. stems from the social facilitation effect. d. is a function of intersender role conflict. e. is a function of person-role conflict.
Chapter 7 44.
Which of the following statements about status is TRUE? a. Informal status in the organization is more likely than formal status to carry over into the community. b. In most organizations, formal and informal status systems are equivalent. c. All organizations have both formal and informal status systems. d. In organizations, status symbols are more a part of the informal status system than the formal status system. e. Most organizations try not to tie status symbols to assigned roles.
45.
Which of the following statements is TRUE? a. The "class clown" fills an emergent role in their school. b. People with similar attitudes are less likely to form a group than those with different attitudes. c. A group has at least three members. d. Moving a heavy crate is a disjunctive task. e. Equity norms allocate rewards equally to everyone in the group.
46.
Positions in a group that have attached to them a set of expected behaviours are called a. roles. b. norms. c. status symbols. d. attributes. e. conjunctive tasks.
47.
Robin is a member of a task force that may do away with her own department. Robin is most obviously experiencing a. intrasender role conflict. b. person-role conflict. c. interrole conflict. d. role ambiguity. e. intersender role conflict.
48.
Which of the following types of role conflict is most likely to provoke role ambiguity? a. Intrasender role conflict b. Intersender role conflict c. Interrole conflict d. Person-role conflict e. Status-role conflict
49.
The first-line supervisor who serves as the interface between "management" and "the workers" is most likely to experience ________ role conflict when labour relations are poor. a. intrasender b. intersender c. boundary d. person-role e. status
50.
Which of the following factors is most influential in achieving formal organizational status? a. Age b. Assigned role in the organization c. Nationality and religion d. Ability to perform disjunctive tasks e. Loyalty norms
Chapter 7 51.
Organizations that allocate rewards to those who truly need the rewards have adopted a reward system that is based on a(n) ________ norm. a. social responsibility b. reciprocity c. equity d. equality e. loyalty
52.
What is the most important function of norms? a. To increase group cohesiveness b. To prevent social loafing c. To prevent intersender role conflict d. To provide regularity and predictability of behaviour e. To prevent interrole conflict
53.
What kinds of roles develop in organizations? a. Designated roles and assigned roles b. Designated roles and informal roles c. Assigned roles and informal roles d. Designated roles and emergent roles e. Formal roles and informal roles
54.
Selma and Sam have just started new jobs at the same company. After one month, Selma has become known by her co-workers as the new software engineer, and Sam has become known as the office gossip. What kind of roles are these? a. Selma's role is designated, and Sam's role is designated. b. Selma's role is designated, and Sam's role is assigned. c. Selma's role is assigned, and Sam's role is designated. d. Selma's role is emergent, and Sam's role is emergent. e. Selma's role is designated, and Sam's role is emergent.
55.
What elements can lead to role ambiguity? a. Organizational factors, individual factors, role senders b. Individual factors, role senders, focal person c. Organizational factors, individual factors, focal person d. Organizational factors, role senders, focal person e. Individual factors, group factors, organizational factors
56.
All of the following are frequent outcomes of role ambiguity EXCEPT a. absenteeism. b. job stress. c. dissatisfaction. d. reduced organizational commitment. e. intentions to quit.
57.
Employees who straddle the boundary between the organization and its clients or customers are especially likely to encounter what form of role conflict? a. Intrasender role conflict b. Intersender role conflict c. Interrole conflict d. Person-role conflict e. All of the above
Chapter 7 58.
Whistle-blowing is often a signal of what form of role conflict? a. Intrasender role conflict b. Intersender role conflict c. Interrole conflict d. Person-role conflict e. None of the above
59.
Which of the following has levelled status barriers? a. Clothing b. Casual Friday policies c. Job titles d. Email e. Work schedules
60.
Studies of jury deliberations have found that jurors with high social status a. participate more. b. have more effect on the verdict. c. participate less and have more effect on the verdict. d. participate more and have more effect on the verdict. e. participate more and have less effect on the verdict.
61.
The production manager tells Louis to do one thing and the sales manager says to do the opposite. Louis is experiencing intersender role conflict. a. True b. False
62.
The controller told Jan to do one thing and the controller's secretary told Jan to do the opposite. Jan is experiencing interrole conflict. a. True b. False
63.
The informal status system of an organization involves status symbols such as company cars, large offices, and first-class air travel. a. True b. False
64.
Reward allocation norms, such as equity norms, means that all group members expect to be treated equally. a. True b. False
65.
Most Western organizations tend to stress allocation of rewards according to some combination of equity and social responsibility. a. True b. False
66.
Expectations that social units have regarding the behaviour of others are called __________ .
67.
__________ are positions in a group that have attached to them a set of expected behaviours.
Chapter 7 68.
Avinash's boss tells him to do one thing one minute and the opposite thing the next minute. Avinash is experiencing __________ .
69.
The controller tells Tina to do one thing and the firm's legal counsel tells her to do the opposite. Tina is experiencing __________ .
70.
When working on a(n) __________ task the potential performance of a group depends on the performance of its best member.
71.
"One weak link in the chain" severely damages a group's performance on a(n) __________ task.
72.
For a(n) __________ task, the potential performance of the group equals the sum of the individual members' performances.
73.
Actual group performance equals potential performance minus __________ .
74.
The most basic structural characteristics along which groups vary are size and __________ .
75.
__________ groups have a more difficult time communicating effectively and becoming cohesive.
76.
__________ refers to the characteristics of the stable social organization of a group.
77.
Jason had trouble balancing the demands of work with the needs of his family. Jason is experiencing __________ .
78.
Stanley decided that he just didn't have the right personality for sales. In terms of role dynamics, Stanley is experiencing __________ .
79.
One's rank or social position in a group is called __________ .
80.
__________ occurs when job goals or the method of performing one's job is unclear.
81.
By definition, incompatible role expectations cause __________ .
Chapter 7 82.
Managers are most likely to develop norms regarding the performance and __________ of employees.
83.
Studies of jury deliberations show that jurors with higher __________ participate more and have more effect on the verdict.
84.
Explain the difference between additive tasks, disjunctive tasks, and conjunctive tasks. Give an example of each.
85.
The hierarchy of most organizations is a series of informal, interlocked work groups. a. True b. False
86.
The punctuated equilibrium model only works for groups that successfully manage the midpoint transition. a. True b. False
87.
The proper sequence of group development activities is forming, storming, norming, performing, adjourning. a. True b. False
88.
Conflict is particularly likely to develop during the norming stage of group development. a. True b. False
89.
The punctuated equilibrium theory of group development has five phases. a. True b. False
90.
All groups go through the typical stages of group development. a. True b. False
91.
The concept of punctuated equilibrium applies to groups without deadlines. a. True b. False
92.
By definition, a group has at least __________ members.
93.
__________ groups are groups that emerge naturally in response to the common interests of organizational members.
94.
Individual resilience translates into team resilience. a. True b. False
Chapter 7 95.
Individual resilience does not necessarily translate into team resilience. a. True b. False
96.
Self-efficacy does not necessarily translate into collective efficacy. a. True b. False
97.
All relevant specialties should be included when designing a. virtual teams. b. self-managed teams. c. cross-functional teams. d. any kind of team. e. task forces.
98.
Instilling shared mental models in many cross-functional teams can often be challenging because of the a. reluctance to agree on what the project is. b. avoidance of revealing that each person has an opinion. c. slow moving process of working in a cross-functional team. d. resistance to cross-functional teams in organizations. e. divergent backgrounds of the team members.
99.
A cross-functional team can also be self-managed. a. True b. False
100. Superordinate goals are especially important for the effectiveness of self-managed teams. a. True b. False 101. Training is an important principle for the effectiveness of cross-functional teams. a. True b. False 102. A climate of psychological safety promotes fairness. a. True b. False 103. Team members who feel psychologically safe learn from their mistakes rather than becoming defensive. a. True b. False 104.
Distinguish between formal and informal work groups in organizations. Give an example of each.
105. Describe the five stages of group development. At which stage is conflict most likely to emerge?
106. You have just formed a group as a part of a class assignment to complete a group project. You have four weeks to complete the project and present it to the class. What can you tell the other group members about how the group will develop and how they should proceed? What advice will you give them?
Chapter 7 107. You have just formed a group as a part of a class assignment to complete a group project. You want to make sure that it follows the different stages of group development. What are the different stages of group development and what should happen at each stage?
108. The group had trouble coordinating its efforts because it was so big. This is an example of a. a conjunctive task. b. social loafing. c. a process loss. d. role ambiguity. e. punctuated equilibrium. 109. Which of the following type of group can enhance team creativity and innovation? a. Self-managed b. Informal c. Cohesive d. Diverse e. Cross-functional 110. Large groups promote greater member satisfaction than small groups. a. True b. False 111. A sequential assembly line type of task is an example of a conjunctive task. a. True b. False 112. As group size increases, the time available for verbal participation by each member increases. a. True b. False 113. Process losses damage group performance. a. True b. False 114. Disjunctive tasks depend on the performance of the best group member. a. True b. False 115. Once they develop, more and less diverse groups can be equally cohesive and productive. a. True b. False 116. Surface diversity can badly damage group cohesiveness. a. True b. False 117. Much normative influence is unconscious. a. True b. False
Chapter 7 118. The most important function that norms serve is to increase group cohesiveness. a. True b. False 119. According to the text, norms are personal, individual standards of conduct. a. True b. False 120. Seniority is the most important criterion in a formal status system. a. True b. False 121. The boss who is constantly changing their mind is likely to provoke intrasender role conflict in employees. a. True b. False 122. Role conflict is defined as a lack of clarity of job goals or methods. a. True b. False 123. Jamal is quiet and shy. He takes a job as a bouncer in a nightclub. This may provoke person-role conflict. a. True b. False 124. Role ambiguity is defined as the presence of incompatible role expectations. a. True b. False 125. The manager who can't make up their mind will likely cause their employees to experience intrasender role conflict. a. True b. False 126. High status persons tend to initiate and receive less communication than low status persons. a. True b. False 127. Cohesiveness is more likely to pay off when the task requires more interdependence. a. True b. False 128. Cohesiveness is more likely to pay off when the task requires more independence. a. True b. False 129. In highly cohesive groups, the productivity of individual group members tends to be fairly similar to that of other members. In less cohesive groups, there is more variation in productivity. a. True b. False
Chapter 7 130. Highly cohesive groups tend to be more or less productive than less cohesive groups, depending on a number of variables. a. True b. False 131. Highly cohesive groups tend to be more productive than less cohesive groups, depending on a number of variables. a. True b. False 132. What is group cohesiveness and what factors influence cohesiveness?
133. What factors can influence the impact of cohesiveness on productivity?
134. Which of the following is an example of a process loss? a. Performance norm b. Disjunctive task c. Reduced status d. Social loafing e. Loyalty norm 135. Social loafing is an example of a. role conflict. b. role ambiguity. c. a disjunctive task. d. punctuated equilibrium. e. a process loss. 136. Social loafing is a motivation problem. a. True b. False 137. Social loafing is a process loss. a. True b. False 138. One way to counteract social loafing is to reward group performance. a. True b. False 139. The recruitment of members for virtual teams should focus on good technical expertise rather than interpersonal skills. a. True b. False 140. An important characteristic of virtual teams is that the members do not need to get to know each other. a. True b. False
Chapter 7 141. In many cases, virtual teams falter not due to weak technical skills but due to poor communication and cooperation. a. True b. False 142. Rules and procedures are an important principle for the effectiveness of self-managed teams. a. True b. False 143. Self-managed teams whose members have higher average team tenure tend to perform better. a. True b. False 144. Self-managed teams whose members have lower average team tenure tend to perform better. a. True b. False 145. Self-managed teams whose members have higher average team seniority tend to perform better. a. True b. False 146. In self-managed teams, high cognitive ability among team members contributes to effectiveness. a. True b. False 147. The uniqueness advantage has to do with cross-functional teams. a. True b. False 148. Virtual teams are more likely to share unique information than face-to-face teams. a. True b. False 149. Self-efficacy translates into collective efficacy. a. True b. False 150. A team's capacity to bounce back from setbacks or adversity is called team resilience. a. True b. False 151. A team's capacity to bounce back from setbacks or adversity is called team reflexivity. a. True b. False 152. Shared mental models and team reflexivity enhance team coordination. a. True b. False 153. Shared mental models and team resilience enhance team coordination. a. True b. False
Chapter 7 154. Shared mental models ensure that team members are "on the same page." a. True b. False 155. Gary Lee is the supervisor of the sheet metal shop at Kapster Enterprises. He is known for his friendly, easygoing manner and mild temperament. Recently, he was asked by his boss to introduce several new policies designed to tighten up break times and reduce unnecessary overtime. Gary has always considered himself to be a friend as well as a supervisor to his employees. In fact, he often socializes with them just as he did before he was promoted to supervisor. Now his boss wants him to start adopting a tougher, more controlling leadership style. His workers, on the other hand, want Gary to "cut them some slack" and give them more freedom in their duties. Discuss the three types of role conflict which Gary is experiencing.
156. Describe four types of reward allocation norms which may affect how workers are paid and rewarded in organizations. Which one do you think is the fairest, overall? Why?
157. What are the different kinds of role conflict and what can managers do to help prevent employee role conflict?
158. Members of your organization are complaining that they are not sure how they should be performing their job and what methods they should be using to perform it. You have been assigned the task of finding out more about this problem in terms of what it is, what causes it, the consequences it can have, and how it can be prevented. What will you tell management about these issues?
159. The task force is large, successful, and experiencing moderate threat. Which factor would most likely prevent the task force from being cohesive? a. Its size b. Its success c. The threat d. Its homogeneous makeup e. Its tough initiation procedures 160. Highly cohesive work groups almost always a. have high levels of turnover. b. accomplish their own goals effectively. c. produce more than less cohesive groups. d. produce less than less cohesive groups. e. accomplish the goals of the organization effectively. 161. Which factor is least likely to promote group cohesiveness? a. Losing a contest b. Winning a contest c. Competing in a contest d. Experiencing a tough initiation into the group e. Small group size
Chapter 7 162. Highly cohesive groups tend to be ________ than less cohesive groups. a. more productive b. less productive c. more or less productive d. more conflict-ridden e. larger 163. Which of the following statements concerning group cohesiveness is FALSE? a. Smaller groups generally have a more difficult time becoming and staying cohesive. b. Groups that are tough to get into should be more attractive than those that are easy to join. c. A group becomes more attractive to its members when it has successfully accomplished some important goal. d. Under extreme threat or loss of a contest, group cohesiveness is likely to suffer. e. Voluntary turnover from highly cohesive groups should be low. 164. When we use the adjective cohesive to refer to groups what does it mean? a. Groups that are attractive to those inside and outside of the group b. Groups that are attractive to members of other groups c. Groups that are more attractive than other groups that members have been in d. Groups that are more attractive than average for their members e. Groups that are more attractive than other groups to their members 165. Many examples of "whistle-blowing" are signals of a. person-role conflict. b. role ambiguity. c. interrole conflict. d. intersender role conflict. e. intrasender role conflict. 166. On an additive task, the presence of an especially strong group member can compensate for a weak group member. a. True b. False 167. On a conjunctive task, the presence of an especially strong group member can compensate for a weak group member. a. True b. False 168. One of the members of Kai's self-managed work team had forgotten how to use Excel. This is an example of a process loss. a. True b. False 169. The self-managed work teams at Excelsior Widgets were so large that confusion and poor coordination existed within every team. This is an example of a process loss. a. True b. False
Chapter 7 170. How do cohesive groups react to deviants? a. They decrease the amount of communication directed at them. b. They increase the amount of communication directed at them. c. They decrease the amount of time they can spend with group members. d. They increase the amount of time they can spend with group members. e. They remove them from the group. 171. Which statement is most accurate about group cohesiveness and productivity? a. In highly cohesive groups, the productivity of individual group members tends to be fairly similar to that of other members. In less cohesive groups, there is more variation in productivity. b. In less cohesive groups, the productivity of individual group members tends to be fairly similar to that of other members. In highly cohesive groups, there is more variation in productivity. c. In highly and low cohesive groups, the productivity of individual group members tends to be fairly similar. d. In highly and low cohesive groups, the productivity of individual group members tends to vary considerably. e. Group cohesiveness is only weakly related to productivity in highly and low cohesive groups. 172. Which statement is most accurate about group cohesiveness and productivity? a. Highly cohesive groups tend to be more productive than less cohesive groups, depending on a number of variables. b. Highly cohesive groups tend to be less productive than less cohesive groups, depending on a number of variables. c. Highly cohesive groups tend to be more or less productive than less cohesive groups, depending on a number of variables. d. Highly cohesive groups are always more or less productive than less cohesive groups. e. Highly cohesive groups are always more productive than less cohesive groups. 173. When is cohesiveness more likely to pay off? a. When the task requires more independence b. When the task is more complex c. When the task is novel d. When the task requires more interdependence e. When the task requires more time 174. In less cohesive groups, the productivity of individual group members tends to be fairly similar to that of other members. In highly cohesive groups, there is more variation in productivity. a. True b. False 175. Groups that are especially attractive to their members are labelled __________ groups.
176. Competition, success, small size, and a tough initiation are part of the recipe for forming a(n) __________ group.
177. Cohesive groups react to deviants by increasing the amount of __________ directed at these individuals.
178. Cohesiveness is more likely to pay off when the task requires more __________ .
Chapter 7 179. Julia Franco, the VP of Operations at Zeta Manufacturing, is concerned about the consistently low levels of productivity in the assembly plant. At a meeting with company executives, she proposes the introduction of some social activities to increase cohesiveness among the workers, and thereby improve productivity. Gordon Wong, the VP of Human Resources, disagrees. "This group of workers is known to frequent the local pub every day after work and vacation together on long weekends. If you increase cohesiveness any further, productivity will probably come to a complete halt!" Who do you think is correct? Explain your answer.
180. What are the two forms of social loafing? a. The free loader effect and the free rider effect b. The free loader effect and the sucker effect c. The free rider effect and the sucker effect d. The free rider effect and the solo effect e. The free rider effect and the loafer effect 181. All of the following are ways to counteract social loafing EXCEPT a. making individual performance more visible. b. establishing a superordinate goal. c. increasing performance feedback. d. increasing feelings of indispensability. e. making sure that the work is interesting. 182. In the __________ , people lower their effort because of the feeling that others are free riding, that is, they are trying to restore equity in the group.
183. The tendency to withhold physical or __________ effort when performing a group task is called social loafing.
184. Just because a sports team has the most talented players, it does not necessarily mean the team will be the most successful in the league. The team usually needs to have a strong sense of ________ in order to become better than simply the sum of its players. a. fear b. homogeneity c. ethnic diversity d. self-efficacy e. collective efficacy 185. Shared beliefs that a team can successfully perform a given task is known as a. group cohesiveness. b. superordinate goals. c. shared mental models. d. collective efficacy. e. social norms. 186. What is collective efficacy? a. Shared beliefs that a team can successfully achieve a goal b. Shared beliefs that a team can successfully perform a given task c. Team members share identical information about how they should interact and what their task is d. Attractive outcomes that can only be achieved by collaboration e. Shared beliefs that a team will outperform other teams
Chapter 7 187. Which of the following is a primary feature of virtual teams? a. Team member stability b. Small group size c. Diversity of members d. Lack of face-to-face contact e. Superordinate goals 188. The technologies used by virtual teams tend to be a. either asynchronous or synchronous ones. b. asynchronous ones. c. synchronous ones. d. chat and groupware. e. email, faxes, and voice mail. 189. Virtual teams are a. groups that exist throughout an organization and include customers and suppliers. b. groups that use technology to accomplish their tasks and communicate with other groups in the organization. c. groups of people who have expertise in technology and are always available when a task needs to be completed. d. groups that use technology to communicate and collaborate across time, space, and organizational boundaries. e. groups of individuals who are always available when the organization needs to form a team. 190. Which of the following is the most accurate statement about virtual teams? a. Virtual teams are often self-managed. b. Virtual teams are often cross-functional. c. Virtual teams are seldom self-managed. d. Virtual teams are seldom cross-functional. e. Virtual teams are often self-managed and cross-functional. 191. Which one of the following is NOT an advantage of virtual teams? a. Around-the-clock work b. Reduced travel time c. Reduced cost d. Larger talent pool e. Trust 192. Research on virtual teams has found that, compared to face-to-face teams, virtual teams engage in a a. larger volume of information sharing. b. lower volume of information sharing. c. similar volume of information sharing. d. lower volume of unique information sharing. e. larger volume of redundant information sharing. 193. A major disadvantage of virtual teams is that they increase a. instances of discrimination. b. stereotyping. c. the formation of cliques. d. personality conflicts. e. miscommunication.
Chapter 7 194. What type of group has a uniqueness advantage? a. Self-managed teams b. Virtual teams c. Cohesive teams d. Diverse teams e. Cross-functional teams 195. Which of the following is most accurate about virtual teams compared to face-to-face teams? a. Virtual teams engage in a larger volume of information sharing but are more likely to share unique information. b. Virtual teams engage in a lower volume of information sharing and are less likely to share unique information. c. Virtual teams engage in a larger volume of information sharing and are less likely to share unique information. d. Virtual teams engage in a lower volume of information sharing but are more likely to share unique information. e. Virtual teams engage in a lower volume of information sharing that is more likely to be redundant information. 196. A study comparing mono- and multilingual virtual teams found that a. monolingual teams and multilingual teams preferred more real-time media. b. monolingual teams preferred email while multilingual teams favoured more real-time media. c. monolingual teams preferred more real-time media while multilingual teams favoured email. d. monolingual teams and multilingual teams preferred email. e. monolingual teams preferred more real-time media while multilingual teams favoured real-time media as well as email. 197. Which of the following is difficult to develop among virtual team members? a. Respect b. Trust c. Friendship d. Consensus e. Relationships 198. Soon after joining a new work group, Heidi is told that the group was going to have a meeting for team reflexivity. She is not sure what this means and has asked you about it. What will you tell her? a. The team is going to discuss the roles of group members. b. The team is going to discuss team processes and goals. c. The team is going to discuss team communication. d. The team is going to discuss group norms. e. The team is going to discuss group cohesiveness. 199. Jasmine is concerned about her group project because after the group met it became apparent that not all group members believed that they would be able to successfully complete the project. What problem is the group having? a. Low team resilience b. Low collective efficacy c. Low team reflexivity d. Low psychological safety e. Poor shared mental models
Chapter 7 200. When team members share identical information about how they should interact and what their task is, they are experiencing a. shared mental models. b. shared status. c. shared litmus testing. d. shared heritage. e. shared leadership. 201. What does research show regarding the benefits of team-based work arrangements? a. Improvement in efficiency but not effectiveness b. Improvements in quality but not efficiency c. Improvements in efficiency but not quality d. Improvements in both efficiency and quality e. Improvements in both efficiency and effectiveness 202. Which of the following is NOT one of the basic qualities of effective work teams? a. Psychological safety b. Team reflexivity c. Shared mental models d. Superordinate goals e. Capacity to improvise 203. What does a climate of psychological safety promote? a. Fairness b. Support c. Trust d. Autonomy e. Shared mental models 204. Jasmine was feeling good after her team's first meeting because she was able to suggest new ideas and openly disagree with other team members. What is it that Jasmine is feeling good about? a. Shared mental models b. Collective efficacy c. Capacity to improvise d. Psychological safety e. Team reflexivity 205. What basic work team quality is evident when team members can learn from their mistakes and not become defensive? a. Shared mental models b. Collective efficacy c. Capacity to improvise d. Psychological safety e. Team reflexivity 206. What basic work team qualities enhance team coordination? a. Shared mental models and capacity to improvise b. Collective efficacy and shared mental models c. Capacity to improvise and team reflexivity d. Psychological safety and shared mental models e. Team reflexivity and shared mental models
Chapter 7 207. What basic work team quality ensures that team members are "on the same page"? a. Shared mental models b. Collective efficacy c. Capacity to improvise d. Psychological safety e. Team reflexivity 208. A team's capacity to bounce back from setbacks is known as a. shared mental models. b. collective efficacy. c. capacity to improvise. d. team resilience. e. team reflexivity. 209. Virtual teams are work groups that use technology to communicate and collaborate across time, space, and organizational __________ .
210. Along with their reliance on computer and electronic technology, the primary feature of a virtual team is the lack of __________ contact between team members due to geographic dispersion.
211. When recruiting members for virtual teams, it is important to find smart people with good __________ and intercultural skills, not just technical expertise.
212. Compared to face-to-face teams, virtual teams engage in a lower volume of __________ sharing.
213. Compared to face-to-face teams, virtual teams are more likely to share __________ information which was not known by other team members.
214. The uniqueness advantage is associated with __________ teams.
215.
__________ teams can allow for a better work-life balance.
216. Trust is even more important in __________ teams than in conventional teams to achieve high team effectiveness.
217.
__________ is difficult to develop among virtual team members.
218. What are the lessons and things that managers should consider when developing virtual teams?
Chapter 7 219. Define virtual teams and discuss the advantages and challenges of virtual teams.
220.
__________ provide their members with the opportunity to do challenging work under reduced supervision.
221. Conventional highly specialized __________ generally disappear in effective self-managed work groups.
222. The development of __________ among team members is critical for high team performance and positive team functioning.
223. Self-managed teams whose members have higher average team __________ tend to perform better.
224. High __________ among team members on self-managed teams contributes to effectiveness.
225. Diverse __________ among team members on self-managed teams threaten the effectiveness of selfmanagement.
226. What are self-managed teams and how should they be designed in terms of tasks, composition, and support?
227. Work groups that bring people with different functional specialties together to better invent, design, or deliver a product or service are called a. self-managed teams. b. virtual teams. c. task forces. d. cross-functional teams. e. formal teams. 228. What do Rubbermaid and pharmaceutical development teams have in common? a. They have used virtual teams. b. They have used self-managed teams. c. They have used cross-functional teams. d. They have used diverse work teams. e. They have all used task forces. 229. Superordinate goals are an important factor that contribute to the effectiveness of a. cohesive groups. b. virtual teams. c. cross-functional teams. d. self-managed teams. e. diverse groups.
Chapter 7 230. The Really Sweet Candy Company is interested in developing new and innovative types of candy and has decided to form cross-functional teams. Which of the following is NOT something they need to consider if they want to ensure that the teams are effective? a. Composition b. Superordinate goals c. Technical training d. Autonomy e. Rules and procedures 231. Attractive outcomes that can be achieved only by collaboration are called a. team goals. b. subordinate goals. c. collaborative goals. d. process goals. e. functional goals. 232. What are the general goals of using cross-functional teams? a. Innovation, speed, and efficiency b. Innovation, speed, and quality c. Efficiency, speed, and quality d. Efficiency, speed, and quantity e. Innovation, speed, and quantity 233. Cross-functional teams are likely to be a part of a. evolving team systems. b. informal team systems. c. matrix-team systems. d. hybrid-team systems. e. multi-team systems. 234. Research on cross-functional teams reveals improvements in all of the following areas except for a. team productivity. b. quality. c. customer satisfaction. d. customer retention. e. safety. 235. Collective __________ consists of shared beliefs that a team can successfully perform a given task.
236. Team __________ is the extent to which teams deliberately discuss team processes and goals and adapt their behaviour accordingly.
237. Shared mental models enhance __________ .
238. A climate of psychological safety promotes __________ .
Chapter 7 239. Potential group performance minus process losses equals actual group performance. a. True b. False 240. On disjunctive tasks, potential group performance should depend on the performance of the best member. a. True b. False 241. Tough initiation into a group increases group cohesiveness. a. True b. False 242. The performance of cohesive groups is consistently better than that of incohesive groups. a. True b. False 243. To increase group cohesiveness, make the group extremely difficult to get into. a. True b. False 244. Up to a point, threat promotes group cohesiveness. a. True b. False 245. Higher levels of diversity on a team will lead to higher cohesiveness. a. True b. False 246. Cross-functional teams are likely to be a part of hybrid-team systems. a. True b. False 247. The general goals of using cross-functional teams are some combination of innovation, speed, and quality. a. True b. False 248. The general goals of using cross-functional teams are some combination of innovation, speed, and quantity. a. True b. False 249. Why is it more challenging to have shared mental models in cross-functional teams?
250. Describe the qualities that are beneficial to all types of work teams?
Chapter 7 251. Conventional specialized ________ usually disappear when effective self-managed teams are used by organizations. a. norms b. aspirations c. tasks d. values e. roles 252. A successful self-managed work team would probably NOT be a. extremely large. b. high in social skills. c. highly cohesive. d. performing an interesting task. e. high in expertise. 253. Which factor is most important in leading to the success of a self-managed work team? a. Extra pay b. Large size c. An interesting task d. Great similarity of members e. Great diversity of members 254. Self-managed work groups typically a. are used only for white-collar work. b. have highly specialized, carefully defined roles within the group. c. suffer from the free rider effect. d. perform best when assigned to very routine tasks. e. must have stable membership to be effective. 255. Self-managed work teams are most effective when the tasks that they are required to perform are simple rather than complex. a. True b. False 256. Self-managed work teams are most effective when the members develop a very high degree of role specialization. a. True b. False 257. Self-managed work teams are most effective when they experience a fairly high degree of member turnover. This prevents the team from becoming "stale." a. True b. False 258. Virtual teams engage in a lower volume of information sharing compared to face-to-face teams. a. True b. False 259. One way to counteract social loafing is to reward individual performance. a. True b. False
Chapter 7 260. Intrinsic motivation should counteract social loafing. a. True b. False 261. Extrinsic motivation should counteract social loafing. a. True b. False 262. Social loafing is a(n) __________ problem.
263. In the __________ , people lower their effort to get a free ride at the expense of their fellow group members.
264. Describe the two main forms of social loafing. What are some ways to counteract them?
265. You have just formed a group as a part of a class assignment to complete a group project. You are concerned that some of the group members are not going to put in the physical or intellectual effort required to complete their tasks. What is this called and what are its different forms? What can you do to prevent this problem in your group?
266. The team members' shared beliefs that their team can successfully perform a given task is known as a. self-efficacy. b. mutual gain. c. collective efficacy. d. mutual satisfaction. e. collective self-interest. 267. Virtual teams are often cross-functional in nature. a. True b. False 268. The technologies of virtual teams are usually just asynchronous ones. a. True b. False 269. Virtual teams allow for a better work-life balance. a. True b. False 270. One of the primary features of virtual teams is the lack of face-to-face contact between team members. a. True b. False 271. In self-managed teams, high emotional intelligence among team members contributes to effectiveness. a. True b. False
Chapter 7 272. When a team deliberately discusses team processes and goals and adapts their behaviour accordingly, it is called a. team communication. b. team processing. c. team goal setting. d. team reflexivity. e. team reflection. 273. Collective efficacy refers to shared beliefs that a team can outperform other teams. a. True b. False 274. Collective efficacy refers to shared beliefs that a team can successfully perform a given task. a. True b. False 275. Team reflexivity is the extent to which teams deliberately discuss team processes and goals and adapt their behaviour accordingly. a. True b. False 276. Diverse goals among team members on self-managed teams threaten the effectiveness of self-management. a. True b. False 277. Diverse goals among team members on self-managed teams improve the effectiveness of self-management. a. True b. False 278. Virtual teams are often __________ in nature.
279. What role does training play in self-managed teams and what are some common areas of training for selfmanaged teams?
280. Team reflexivity is the extent to which teams deliberately discuss team membership and group norms and adapt their behaviour accordingly. a. True b. False 281. Capacity to improvise ensures that team members are "on the same page." a. True b. False 282. A climate of psychological safety promotes trust. a. True b. False 283. What are cross-functional teams and what factors contribute to their effectiveness?
Chapter 7 284. The performance of virtual teams is especially dependent on them having a high volume of open communication. a. True b. False 285. Monolingual virtual teams prefer real-time media. a. True b. False 286. Multilingual teams prefer email rather than real-time media. a. True b. False 287. Trust is difficult to develop among virtual team members. a. True b. False 288. Trust is easier to develop among virtual team members. a. True b. False 289. Team members who feel psychologically safe try to avoid errors that can interfere with learning. a. True b. False 290. Shared __________ models mean that the team members share identical information about how they should interact and what their task is.
291. Team members who feel psychologically safe learn from their __________ .
292.
__________ ensure that team members are "on the same page."
293.
__________ is a team's capacity to bounce back from setbacks or adversity.
294. What does it mean when a team has psychological safety? What are the effects of psychological safety for the team and team members?
295. What does it mean for a group to be effective? Describe the factors that indicate that a work group has been effective.
296. The term for a team composed of individuals from several different departments is a(n) __________ team.
Chapter 7 297. Superordinate goals are attractive outcomes that can only be achieved by __________ .
298. Cross-functional team leaders need especially strong __________ skills in addition to task expertise.
299.
__________ are attractive outcomes that can only be achieved by collaboration.
300. Cross-functional teams are likely to be a part of __________ systems.
301. The general goals of using cross-functional teams include some combination of innovation, speed, and __________ .
302. What kind of tasks are most appropriate for self-managed work groups? a. Blue-collar b. White-collar c. Complex and challenging d. Routine and boring e. Conjunctive 303. The text cites the example of how job seekers at Britain's Pret A Manger sandwich and coffee shops must work in a shop for a day and then the staff votes on whether the person can join the team. This is one strategy that can be used to help ensure the ________ of a new employee. a. heredity b. compensation c. homogeneity d. heterogeneity e. fit 304. What kind of jobs have self-managed teams been used for? a. White-collar b. Blue-collar c. White-collar and blue-collar d. Medical and professional e. Professional 305. All of the following are common areas of training for self-managed teams EXCEPT for a. technical training. b. social skills training. c. language skills training. d. business training. e. quality control training. 306. Which of the following is critical for high team performance and positive team functioning? a. Team trust b. Collective efficacy c. Group cohesiveness d. Group stability e. Team reflexivity
Chapter 7 307. What is the theme that best captures the composition of self-managed teams? a. High communication and the development of group norms that stress group effectiveness b. Superordinate goals and high cohesiveness c. Superordinate goals and the development of group norms that stress group effectiveness d. High cohesiveness and the development of group norms that stress group effectiveness e. High communication and high cohesiveness 308. Which of the following about the composition of self-managed teams is most accurate? a. Teams whose members have higher average team tenure and seniority tend to perform better. b. Teams whose members have lower average team seniority tend to perform better. c. Teams whose members have higher average team seniority tend to perform better. d. Teams whose members have lower average team tenure tend to perform better. e. Teams whose members have higher average team tenure tend to perform better. 309. Which of the following about the composition of self-managed teams is most accurate? a. High cognitive ability among team members contributes to effectiveness. b. High emotional intelligence among team members contributes to effectiveness. c. High conscientiousness among team members contributes to effectiveness. d. High cognitive ability and emotional intelligence among team members contributes to effectiveness. e. High self-efficacy among team members contributes to effectiveness. 310. What does it mean when a project team is comprised of members with shared mental models? What are the effects of shared mental models?
311. Rules and procedures are important for the effectiveness of cross-functional teams. a. True b. False 312. Superordinate goals are especially important for the effectiveness of cross-functional teams. a. True b. False 313. Shared mental models are relatively easy to instill in cross-functional teams. a. True b. False 314. Shared mental models are a particular challenge to instill in cross-functional teams. a. True b. False 315. Cross-functional teams are likely to be a part of multi-team systems. a. True b. False
Chapter 7
Test Name: 1.
b.task forces.
2.
b.group members have a common goal and interact with each other.
3.
c.Forming, storming, norming, performing, adjourning
4.
b.Storming
5.
b.at the midpoint of the group's allotted time until deadline.
6.
a.when half the group's time is elapsed.
7.
a.in the stage before norming.
8.
b.Punctuated equilibrium model
9.
b.Student groups doing class projects
10.
c.At about three weeks
11.
b.Storming
12.
Formal
13.
adjourning
14.
storming
15.
punctuated equilibrium
16.
deadlines
17.
d.the time available for verbal participation by each member decreases.
18.
d.Actual performance = potential performance – process losses
19.
a.its best member.
20.
b.individual members can identify less easily with the success of the group.
21.
a.Conjunctive
22.
c.conjunctive
23.
a.As the task force got bigger, it encountered more coordination problems.
24.
d.performance
25.
b.Because the group was so large, communication became a problem.
26.
b.the average productivity per member decreases.
Chapter 7 27.
a.Picking grapes at harvest
28.
d.slowly
29.
a.disjunctive.
30.
d.Diverse teams
31.
a.Deep diversity
32.
a.Reciprocity
33.
a.Person-role
34.
d.interrole
35.
b.The boss on the construction job was unsure if they were a worker or a supervisor.
36.
c.A norm
37.
e.Normative influence is often unconscious.
38.
c.Equity
39.
a.intrasender role conflict can cause role ambiguity.
40.
d.Status
41.
e.all of the above
42.
e.People can be inhibited from communicating upward if status differences are large.
43.
b.stems from a role sender.
44.
c.All organizations have both formal and informal status systems.
45.
a.The "class clown" fills an emergent role in their school.
46.
a.roles.
47.
c.interrole conflict.
48.
a.Intrasender role conflict
49.
b.intersender
50.
b.Assigned role in the organization
51.
a.social responsibility
52.
d.To provide regularity and predictability of behaviour
53.
d.Designated roles and emergent roles
54.
e.Selma's role is designated, and Sam's role is emergent.
Chapter 7 55.
d.Organizational factors, role senders, focal person
56.
a.absenteeism.
57.
b.Intersender role conflict
58.
d.Person-role conflict
59.
d.Email
60.
d.participate more and have more effect on the verdict.
61.
a.True
62.
b.False
63.
b.False
64.
b.False
65.
b.False
66.
norms
67.
Roles
68.
intrasender role conflict
69.
intersender role conflict
70.
disjunctive
71.
conjunctive
72.
additive
73.
process losses
74.
member diversity
75.
Diverse
76.
Group structure
77.
interrole conflict
78.
person-role conflict
79.
status
80.
Role ambiguity
81.
role conflict
82.
attendance
Chapter 7 83.
social status
84.
Additive tasks are those tasks in which group performance is dependent on the sum of the performance of individual members (e.g., moving a heavy crate). Disjunctive tasks are those tasks in which group performance is dependent on the performance of the best group member (e.g., debugging a software program). Conjunctive tasks are those tasks in which the performance of the group is limited by its poorest performer (e.g., sequential tasks such as assembly lines).
85.
b.False
86.
b.False
87.
a.True
88.
b.False
89.
b.False
90.
b.False
91.
b.False
92.
two
93.
Informal
94.
b.False
95.
a.True
96.
a.True
97.
c.cross-functional teams.
98.
e.divergent backgrounds of the team members.
99.
a.True
100. b.False 101. b.False 102. b.False 103. a.True 104. Formal work groups are established to facilitate the achievement of organizational goals. Examples include departments, task forces, and committees. Informal groups emerge naturally in response to the common interests of organizational members. Examples might include a softball team, a fitness group or a wine tasting club. 105. Forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning are the five stages of group development. Conflict emerges in the storming stage.
Chapter 7 106. According to the punctuated equilibrium model, the group will experience stretches of group stability punctuated by a critical first meeting (Phase 1), a midpoint change (midpoint transition) in group activity, and a rush to task completion (Phase 2). Based on the model, you can offer group members the following advice: -prepare carefully for the first meeting; -as long as people are working, do not look for radical progress during Phase 1; -manage the midpoint transition carefully; -be sure that adequate resources are available to execute the Phase 2 plan; -and resist deadline changes. 107. The five stages of group development are forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning. During the forming stage, group members should orient themselves by "testing the waters." During the storming stage, confrontation and criticism will occur, and group members must sort out roles and responsibilities. During the norming stage members must resolve issues that provoked storming and develop social consensus. During the performing stage, group members must devote their energies toward task accomplishment. And during the adjourning stage rites and rituals affirm the group's successful development and members often exhibit emotional support for each other. 108. c.a process loss. 109. d.Diverse 110. b.False 111. a.True 112. b.False 113. a.True 114. a.True 115. a.True 116. b.False 117. a.True 118. b.False 119. b.False 120. b.False 121. a.True 122. b.False 123. a.True 124. b.False 125. a.True 126. b.False
Chapter 7 127. a.True 128. b.False 129. a.True 130. a.True 131. b.False 132. Group cohesiveness refers to the degree to which a group is attractive to its members. The factors that influence cohesiveness are threat and competition, success, member diversity, size, and toughness of initiation. 133. A number of factors can influence the impact of cohesiveness on productivity. First, if work groups have productivity norms, more cohesive groups should be better able to enforce them. If cohesive groups accept organizational norms regarding productivity, they should be highly productive. If cohesive groups reject such norms, they are especially effective in limiting productivity. Other factors that can influence the impact of cohesiveness on productivity is the extent to which the task requires interdependence and cooperation among group members. Cohesiveness is more likely to pay off when the task requires more interdependence. 134. d.Social loafing 135. e.a process loss. 136. a.True 137. a.True 138. a.True 139. b.False 140. b.False 141. a.True 142. b.False 143. a.True 144. b.False 145. b.False 146. a.True 147. b.False 148. a.True 149. b.False 150. a.True 151. b.False
Chapter 7 152. a.True 153. b.False 154. a.True 155. Gary is likely experiencing intersender role conflict (what the boss wants versus what the subordinates want), interrole conflict (he is both a friend and a supervisor to his workers), and person-role conflict (he may not have it in him to become tough on his employees, or anyone else, for that matter). 156. Equity, equality, reciprocity, and social responsibility. The second part of the question challenges students to consider the merits of each norm, and to take a position in support of one. Of course, they all have merit, depending on the circumstances, but most organizations would officially support reward allocation based on some combination of equity and equality norms. 157. Intrasender role conflict occurs when a single role sender provides incompatible role expectations to a role occupant. Intersender role conflict occurs when two or more role senders provide a role occupant with incompatible expectations. Interrole conflict occurs when several roles are held by a role occupant that involve incompatible expectations. Person-role conflict occurs when role demands call for behaviour that is incompatible with the personality or skills of a role occupant. Managers can help prevent employee role conflict by avoiding self-contradictory messages, conferring with other role senders, being sensitive to multiple role demands, and fitting the right person to the right role. 158. The problem is role ambiguity. Role ambiguity refers to a lack of clarity of job goals or methods of performing the job. A number of factors or elements can cause role ambiguity including organizational factors, role senders, and the focal person. The consequences include job stress, dissatisfaction, reduced organizational commitment, lower performance, and intentions to quit. Managers can reduce role ambiguity by providing clear performance expectations and performance feedback, especially for new employees and for those in more intrinsically ambiguous jobs. 159. a.Its size 160. b.accomplish their own goals effectively. 161. a.Losing a contest 162. c.more or less productive 163. a.Smaller groups generally have a more difficult time becoming and staying cohesive. 164. d.Groups that are more attractive than average for their members 165. a.person-role conflict. 166. a.True 167. b.False 168. b.False 169. a.True 170. b.They increase the amount of communication directed at them.
Chapter 7 171. a.In highly cohesive groups, the productivity of individual group members tends to be fairly similar to that of other members. In less cohesive groups, there is more variation in productivity. 172. c.Highly cohesive groups tend to be more or less productive than less cohesive groups, depending on a number of variables. 173. d.When the task requires more interdependence 174. b.False 175. cohesive 176. cohesive 177. communication 178. interdependence 179. This question is intended to test students' understanding of the relationship between cohesiveness, norms, and performance. Like Julia, many students automatically assume that high cohesiveness will lead to improved performance. However, this is only true if the group productivity norms support the goals of the organization. If, as Gordon suggests, cohesiveness is high and group productivity norms are poor from an organizational standpoint, then increasing cohesiveness will not lead to improved performance. Julia may have to reduce the cohesiveness of the group first (e.g., by removing key members, adding new members, or perhaps introducing competition or conflict into the group) and then encourage the adoption of better performance norms, perhaps through an incentive program, as one example, before trying to increase cohesiveness. 180. c.The free rider effect and the sucker effect 181. b.establishing a superordinate goal. 182. sucker effect 183. intellectual 184. e.collective efficacy 185. d.collective efficacy. 186. b.Shared beliefs that a team can successfully perform a given task 187. d.Lack of face-to-face contact 188. a.either asynchronous or synchronous ones. 189. d.groups that use technology to communicate and collaborate across time, space, and organizational boundaries. 190. b.Virtual teams are often cross-functional. 191. e.Trust 192. b.lower volume of information sharing. 193. e.miscommunication.
Chapter 7 194. b.Virtual teams 195. d.Virtual teams engage in a lower volume of information sharing but are more likely to share unique information. 196. c.monolingual teams preferred more real-time media while multilingual teams favoured email. 197. b.Trust 198. b.The team is going to discuss team processes and goals. 199. b.Low collective efficacy 200. a.shared mental models. 201. d.Improvements in both efficiency and quality 202. d.Superordinate goals 203. c.Trust 204. d.Psychological safety 205. d.Psychological safety 206. e.Team reflexivity and shared mental models 207. a.Shared mental models 208. d.team resilience. 209. boundaries 210. face-to-face 211. interpersonal 212. information 213. unique 214. virtual 215. Virtual 216. Virtual 217. Trust
Chapter 7 218. Recruitment in terms of attitude and personality and good interpersonal and intercultural skills in addition to technical expertise; investment in training for both technical and interpersonal skills; personalization (encourage team members to get to know each other); leadership such that virtual team leaders define goals clearly, set rules for communication standards and responses, and provide feedback to keep team members informed of progress and the big picture, resolve conflict, and evoke shared mental models; and peer feedback as weekly structured peer feedback among team members can ensure that communication gets translated into coordination and enhances team performance. 219. Virtual teams are work groups that use technology to communicate and collaborate across time, space, and organizational boundaries. They have many advantages: around-the-clock work; reduced travel time and cost; and larger talent pool. The disadvantages are miscommunication; the difficulty to develop trust; feelings of isolation; the costs of cutting-edge technology; and new challenges for management such as dealing with employees who are no longer in view. 220. Self-managed work teams 221. roles 222. trust 223. tenure 224. cognitive ability 225. goals 226. Self-managed teams are groups that have the opportunity to do challenging work under reduced supervision. The tasks assigned to self-managed teams should be complex and challenging, requiring high interdependence among team members for accomplishment. The tasks should have the qualities of enriched jobs. In order for a self-managed team to become effective, its composition should focus on stability of group membership; small size; members with a high level of task expertise and social skills; members similar enough to work well together but diverse enough to bring a variety of perspectives and skills to the task at hand. Support factors that can assist self-managed teams in staying effective are training in various areas, rewards tied to team accomplishment, and management support that encourages independence. 227. d.cross-functional teams. 228. c.They have used cross-functional teams. 229. c.cross-functional teams. 230. c.Technical training 231. b.subordinate goals. 232. b.Innovation, speed, and quality 233. e.multi-team systems. 234. e.safety. 235. efficacy 236. reflexivity
Chapter 7 237. coordination 238. trust 239. a.True 240. a.True 241. a.True 242. b.False 243. a.True 244. a.True 245. b.False 246. b.False 247. a.True 248. b.False 249. Cross-functional teams present particular challenges because each team member is coming from a different part of the organization and/or has a different kind of professional background (e.g., marketing versus engineering). 250. The qualities that are beneficial to all types of work teams are psychological safety, team reflexivity, shared mental models, capacity to improvise, collective efficacy, and team resilience. 251. e.roles 252. a.extremely large. 253. c.An interesting task 254. e.must have stable membership to be effective. 255. b.False 256. b.False 257. b.False 258. a.True 259. b.False 260. a.True 261. b.False 262. motivation
Chapter 7 263. free rider effect 264. Free rider effect and sucker effect. Ways to counteract them include increasing the visibility of individual performance, making the work more interesting, increasing workers' feelings of indispensability, increasing performance feedback, and rewarding group performance. 265. The problem is social loafing which refers to the tendency to withhold physical or intellectual effort when performing a group task. The two forms of it are the free rider effect and the sucker effect. To prevent or counteract social loafing you can make individual performance more visible, make the work more interesting, increase group members' feelings of indispensability, increase performance feedback, and reward group performance. 266. c.collective efficacy. 267. a.True 268. b.False 269. a.True 270. a.True 271. b.False 272. d.team reflexivity. 273. b.False 274. a.True 275. a.True 276. a.True 277. b.False 278. cross-functional 279. Members of self-managed teams require extensive training. The kind of training depends on the exact job design and on the needs of the workforce. Some common areas include technical training, social skills training, language skills training, and business training. 280. b.False 281. b.False 282. a.True 283. Cross-functional teams are work groups that bring people with different functional specialties together to better invent, design, or deliver a product or service. The factors that contribute to their effectiveness include composition that consists of all relevant specialties; superordinate goals; close physical proximity of team members; autonomy from the larger organization; some basic decision rules and procedures; and leaders with strong people skills in addition to task expertise. 284. a.True
Chapter 7 285. a.True 286. b.False 287. a.True 288. b.False 289. b.False 290. mental 291. mistakes 292. Shared mental models 293. Team resilience 294. Psychological safety is a shared belief that it is safe to take social risks. This might mean feeling safe to question the status quo, to suggest a new idea, or to disagree with a colleague. A climate of psychological safety promotes trust which is critical for team functioning and performance. Team members who feel psychologically safe learn from their mistakes rather than becoming defensive. 295. According to J. Richard Hackman, a work group is effective when (1) its output is acceptable to management and to users in other parts of the organization, (2) group members' needs are satisfied rather than frustrated by the group, and (3) the group experience enables members to continue to work together. Group effectiveness occurs when high effort is directed toward the group's task, when great knowledge and skill are directed toward the task, and when the group adopts sensible strategies for accomplishing its goals. 296. cross-functional 297. collaboration 298. people 299. Superordinate 300. multi-team 301. quality 302. c.Complex and challenging 303. e.fit 304. c.White-collar and blue-collar 305. e.quality control training. 306. a.Team trust 307. d.High cohesiveness and the development of group norms that stress group effectiveness 308. e.Teams whose members have higher average team tenure tend to perform better.
Chapter 7 309. a.High cognitive ability among team members contributes to effectiveness. 310. Shared mental models mean that team members share identical information about how they should interact and what their task is. It ensures that they are "on the same page." Shared mental models enhance coordination and contribute to effective team performance when the shared knowledge reflects reality. 311. a.True 312. a.True 313. b.False 314. a.True 315. a.True
Chapter 8 1.
Which motive for conformity most clearly involves effect dependence? a. Socialization b. Identification c. Internalization d. Compliance e. Dissension
2.
If I conform to my boss's wishes because of identification, I am conforming because a. I'm afraid of my boss. b. I see myself as similar to my boss. c. I might be able to get my boss to recommend me for promotion. d. I absolutely believe, trust, and accept my boss's directives. e. I believe the issues at hand are difficult and ambiguous.
3.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of compliance? a. It occurs because a member subscribes to the beliefs and values underlying the norm. b. It occurs because a member wishes to avoid punishment. c. It occurs because a member wishes to acquire rewards. d. It primarily involves effect dependence. e. It is the simplest, most direct motive for conformity to group norms.
4.
When conformity occurs because it is seen as right, it is known as a. compliance. b. effect dependence. c. identification. d. information dependence. e. internalization.
5.
What is the most likely motive for mere compliance to a request? a. You identify with the person making the request. b. You truly believe in the idea underlying the request. c. You are afraid of the person making the request. d. You like the person making the request. e. The request is easy and straightforward.
6.
Mario acts in accordance with group norms because he believes that the norms are truly right. He ________ the norms. a. is complying with b. has internalized c. is identifying with d. is imitating e. is dissenting from
7.
The patriotic soldier truly agreed with the statement "My country, right or wrong." This agreement is indicative of a. internalization. b. identification. c. compliance. d. effect dependence. e. dissension.
Chapter 8 8.
Information dependence can be explained by a. social association theory. b. social information processing theory. c. socialization processing theory. d. information dependence theory. e. social dependence processing theory.
9.
After beginning her new job, Mika wasn't sure how she should think, feel, and act around her co-workers. She felt very dependent on her co-workers. What is this an example of? a. Socialization b. Information dependence c. Effect dependence d. Unrealistic expectations e. Psychological contract
10.
After beginning her new job, Mika quickly realizes that she'd better listen to what her co-workers want her to do because they could be friendly and helpful, or they could ignore her and not ask her to join them for lunch. What is this an example of? a. Socialization b. Information dependence c. Effect dependence d. Unrealistic expectations e. Psychological contract
11.
Bashir is very afraid that his boss will fire him. This is an example of effect dependence. a. True b. False
12.
Internalization is a stronger and deeper motive for conformity to organizational norms than is identification. a. True b. False
13.
Compliance with organizational norms and goals is clear evidence that these norms and goals have been internalized. a. True b. False
14.
Effect dependence is explained by social information processing theory. a. True b. False
15.
__________ means that people are motivated to conform to avoid punishment or obtain rewards.
16.
If I conform to your wishes because I admire you and see myself as similar to you, I am conforming due to __________ .
17.
Jemma conformed to the norms of her organization because she truly believed in and supported them. This is an example of conformity because of __________ .
Chapter 8 18.
"My country, right or wrong" suggests that the speaker will conform to national norms due to __________ .
19.
Information dependence can be explained by __________ information processing theory.
20.
Even before he graduated from business school, Stan replaced his knapsack with an expensive leather briefcase. This is an example of a. a realistic job preview. b. anticipatory socialization. c. a strong culture. d. collective socialization. e. debasement.
21.
What do newcomers need to learn about during the socialization process? a. Task, performance expectations, psychological contract, organization b. Performance expectations, psychological contract, culture, task c. Health and safety issues, terms and conditions of employment, psychological contract, organizational procedures d. Task, role, group, organization e. Career and psychosocial functions
22.
Person-organization fit refers to a. the match between an employee's knowledge, skills, and abilities, and the requirements of a job. b. the match between an employee's personality and the personality of other members of the organization. c. the match between an employee's goals and the goals of the organization. d. the match between an employee's personal values and the values of the organization. e. the match between an employee's expectations and the expectations of the organization.
23.
Which of the following depicts the socialization process? a. Socialization methods -> Encounter stage -> Outcomes b. Socialization methods -> Anticipatory socialization -> Encounter stage c. Socialization methods -> Distal outcomes -> Proximal outcomes d. Socialization methods -> Proximal outcomes -> Distal outcomes e. Distal outcomes -> Proximal outcomes -> Socialization methods
24.
Person-job fit refers to the a. match between an employee's personality and the requirements of a job. b. match between an employee's knowledge, skills, and abilities, and the requirements of a job. c. match between an employee's personal values and the requirements of a job. d. match between an employee's personality and the personality of the organization. e. match between an employee's previous work experience and new job.
25.
At what stage of the socialization process is the organization looking for an acceptable degree of conformity to organizational norms? a. Anticipatory stage b. Encounter stage c. Role management stage d. Anticipatory stage and encounter stage e. It depends on the organization.
Chapter 8 26.
All of the following are proximal socialization outcomes EXCEPT for a. learning. b. organizational identification. c. role conflict. d. task mastery. e. social integration.
27.
All of the following are distal socialization outcomes EXCEPT for a. person-job fit. b. organizational identification. c. organizational commitment. d. stress. e. organizational citizenship behaviour.
28.
Soon after starting a new job, Carman beings to define herself in terms of the organization and what it is perceived to represent. What is this called? a. Person-job fit b. Social integration c. Person-organization fit d. Organizational identification e. Internalization
29.
What kinds of fit are important for socialization? a. PJ fit, PO fit, PE fit b. PJ fit, PG fit, PE fit c. PO fit, PG fit, PE fit d. PJ fit, PO fit, PG fit e. PO fit and PG fit
30.
What theory explains the motivation of newcomers during the socialization process? a. Social information processing theory b. Uncertainty deduction theory c. Social information reduction theory d. Uncertainty reduction theory e. Socialization resource theory
31.
According to uncertainty reduction theory, a. newcomers are motivated to get to know their co-workers. b. newcomers are motivated to reduce their uncertainty. c. newcomers are motivated to improve their fit. d. newcomers are motivated to become socialized. e. newcomers are motivated to lower their expectations.
32.
After beginning her job, Mika wanted the work environment to be more predictable and understandable. What theory explains her motivation? a. Social information processing theory b. Uncertainty deduction theory c. Social information reduction theory d. Uncertainty reduction theory e. Socialization resource theory
Chapter 8 33.
The following socialization sequence is portrayed in the text: Anticipatory socialization -> Role management -> encounter. a. True b. False
34.
Socialization is the process by which people learn the attitudes, knowledge, and behaviours necessary to function in a group or organization. a. True b. False
35.
__________ socialization is socialization that occurs before a person even joins an organization.
36.
In the stages of socialization presented in the text, __________ falls between anticipatory socialization and role management.
37.
While still in business school, Terrence bought a number of expensive business suits. This is an example of __________ socialization.
38.
The extent to which an individual defines themselves in terms of the organization and what it is perceived to represent is known as ________ .
39.
Learning during socialization has often been described in terms of content areas or domains of learning such as the task, __________ , group, and organization.
40.
The three kinds of fit that are important for socialization are PJ fit, PO fit, and __________ fit.
41.
______________________________________ fit refers to the match or compatibility between an employee's values and beliefs and the values and beliefs of their work group.
42.
Describe the three stages of socialization. Give an example of a type of conformity behaviour which would likely occur at each stage.
43.
Describe the socialization process model as presented in the text.
44.
A psychological contract is a. the process by which people learn the norms required to function in an organization. b. conformity to a social norm prompted by the desire to acquire rewards. c. an explicit agreement between a worker and their employer which states the pay and benefits offered in exchange for work. d. the shared beliefs, values, and assumptions that exist in an organization. e. the set of beliefs held by employees concerning the reciprocal obligations between them and their employer.
Chapter 8 45.
Research indicates that the expectations people have about organizations before they actually join them a. are extremely vague. b. are amazingly accurate. c. are unrealistically low. d. are unbelievably poor. e. are unrealistically high.
46.
Salma has just started a new job and is explaining the reciprocal obligations and promises between her and her organization. What is she talking about? a. Realistic job preview b. Culture c. Norms d. Psychological contract e. Expectations
47.
Psychological contract breach can occur for all of the following reasons EXCEPT for a. when recruiters promise more than the organization can provide. b. when newcomers lack sufficient information to form accurate perceptions. c. when downsizing occurs. d. when too many newcomers are hired at the same time. e. when restructuring occurs.
48.
If a recruiter promises you more than an organization can provide, what might happen after you join the organization? a. Compliance b. Psychological contract breach c. Institutionalized socialization d. Individualized socialization e. Downsizing
49.
When newcomers enter organizations and they realize that their expectations are not being met, what are they experiencing? a. A surprise b. A psychological contract breach c. A reality shock d. Uncertainty reduction e. Encounter disbelief
50.
Organizational changes such as downsizing and restructuring can lead to a. a surprise. b. a psychological contract breach. c. a reality shock. d. uncertainty reduction. e. encounter disbelief.
51.
When are many of the terms of the psychological contract established? a. In college/university b. During anticipatory socialization c. During the encounter stage d. During the role management stage e. When the newcomer is promoted
Chapter 8 52.
When people join organizations, they usually have unrealistically low expectations about what the organization will be like. a. True b. False
53.
Many of the terms of the psychological contract are established during the encounter stage of socialization. a. True b. False
54.
Perceptions of psychological contract __________ occur when an employee perceives that their organization has failed to fulfill one or more promised obligations of the psychological contract.
55.
Psychological contract __________ is related to affective reactions, work attitudes, and work behaviours.
56.
The first day on his new job, Shayan's experienced workmates sent him to the equipment shed to ask the attendant for a ridiculously named, nonexistent tool. Shayan came back very embarrassed, much to their amusement. What is this an example of? a. A variable tactic b. A disjunctive tactic c. A serial tactic d. A collective tactic e. A divestiture tactic
57.
Given the research findings, an organization would most likely introduce realistic job previews to a. reduce absenteeism. b. increase applicant expectations about the job. c. reduce the effects of socialization. d. reduce turnover. e. increase the rate of job offer acceptance by applicants.
58.
What socialization tactics are also known as debasement? a. Investiture b. Serial c. Disjunctive d. Divestiture e. Random
59.
Which is the best example of collective socialization? a. Any manager-employee relationship b. On-the-job training c. Marine Corps boot camp d. An apprenticeship e. Mentoring
60.
As normally practised, a realistic job preview a. concentrates on the bad aspects of the job. b. portrays both the good and bad aspects of the job. c. permits a person to try out the job for a couple of weeks. d. is put in place to reduce employee absenteeism. e. increases the likelihood of job offer acceptance by applicants.
Chapter 8 61.
Collective socialization is NOT used to a. socialize police officer recruits in a large urban police force. b. encourage individuality in the way jobs are performed. c. promote uniform behaviour among organizational members. d. promote loyalty to the organization. e. train soldiers in army boot camp.
62.
Organizations that handle a substantial proportion of their own socialization rather than rely on external agents to socialize their members a. are especially open to new ideas and procedures. b. don't socialize very extensively and pretty much accept recruits as they are. c. wish to foster reliable, stable job behaviour over time. d. expect their recruits to enter the organization with a high degree of anticipatory socialization. e. are less susceptible to inbreeding.
63.
Which person least likely experienced collective socialization with regard to their work? a. An IBM salesperson b. A police officer c. An airline cabin attendant d. A soldier e. A novelist
64.
Which practice is most likely to lead to uniform conformity to a standard set of organizational norms? a. Individual socialization b. Socialization by external agents c. Collective socialization d. Socialization via debasement e. Disjunctive socialization
65.
The tailor sent the eager apprentice out to find some (nonexistent) striped thread. This is an example of a(n) a. serial tactic. b. informal tactic. c. individual tactic. d. divestiture tactic. e. investiture tactic.
66.
Institutionalized socialization involves all of the following tactics EXCEPT a. collective tactics. b. serial tactics. c. investiture tactics. d. fixed tactics. e. disjunctive tactics.
67.
Individualized socialization involves all of the following tactics EXCEPT a. informal tactics. b. random tactics. c. variable tactics. d. serial tactics. e. disjunctive tactics.
Chapter 8 68.
Mentoring provides a number of career-enhancing benefits for the apprentice. These include a. recognition and a "positive reinforcer" for being included in such a program. b. sponsorship, exposure and visibility, and developmental assignments. c. acceptance and confirmation, optimal levels of stress, and financial incentives. d. special tours of company facilities and presentations by top managers. e. rigorous divestiture and debasement experiences.
69.
Research on women and mentoring suggests that a. men have far more trouble establishing this relationship due to the threat they pose to their mentors. b. women, unlike men, build successful careers through peer relationships rather than linking up with a mentor. c. women tend to link up with male mentors and men tend to link up with female mentors because crossgender dynamics help cement these relationships. d. women who make it to executive positions invariably have had a mentor earlier in their careers. e. women generally make better mentors than men.
70.
There are a number of career functions of mentoring. Which of the following is NOT a mentoring career function? a. Sponsorship b. Visibility c. Discipline d. Coaching e. Developmental assignments
71.
Which mentoring relationship is most likely to experience difficulties? a. Female protégé, female mentor b. Male protégé, female mentor c. Male protégé, male mentor d. Female protégé, male mentor e. Visible minority protégé, visible minority mentor
72.
What is the main content of most orientation programs? a. Health and safety, terms and conditions of employment, information about the organization b. Performance expectations, terms and conditions of employment, information about the organization c. Performance expectations, terms and conditions of employment, information about career opportunities d. Health and safety, terms and conditions of employment, information about the career opportunities e. Health and safety, terms and conditions of employment, information about the socialization process
73.
Institutionalized socialization tactics are especially effective in a. inducing creative behaviour. b. inducing individual behaviour. c. inducing ethical behaviour. d. inducing risk-taking behaviour. e. inducing uniform behaviour.
74.
Which of the following is a psychosocial function of mentoring? a. Role modelling b. Sponsorship c. Exposure and visibility d. Developmental assignments e. Coaching and feedback
Chapter 8 75.
Research on formal mentoring programs indicates that a. they are not nearly as beneficial as informal mentoring. b. they are most beneficial for women. c. they are more beneficial than informal mentoring. d. they are just as beneficial as informal mentoring. e. they rarely if ever result in beneficial outcomes.
76.
Research on mentoring indicates that mentoring is a. more critical to men's career success than it is to women's. b. just as critical to men's career success as it is to women's. c. not very critical for the career success of men or women. d. more critical to women's career success than it is to men's. e. only critical to career success when it is informal.
77.
Which of the following best describes cross-race mentoring relationships? a. They focus more on psychosocial functions than career functions of mentoring. b. They focus on both psychosocial functions and career functions of mentoring. c. They do not focus on either psychosocial functions or career functions of mentoring. d. They focus more on career functions than psychosocial functions of mentoring. e. They focus mostly on diversity issues and overcoming discrimination.
78.
What kind of information do newcomers tend to seek out the most? a. Group information b. Realistic information c. Role information d. Task information e. Organization information
79.
What source do newcomers primarily rely on to acquire information? a. Supervisors b. Co-workers c. Written documents d. Observation e. Mentors
80.
During the early period of socialization, what kind of information do newcomers seek from most to least? a. Task, role, organization, group b. Task, organization, role, group c. Task, group, role, organization d. Task, role, group, organization e. Role, task, group, organization
81.
If an organization wants to prevent newcomers from experiencing a reality shock when they join the organization, what should they do? a. Have a formal mentoring program b. Use institutionalized socialization tactics c. Provide a realistic job preview d. Provide an orientation program e. Avoid psychological contract breach
Chapter 8 82.
What does "self-selection" refer to? a. Self-socialization b. Proactive socialization c. Choosing to withdraw from the selection process d. Selecting the type of socialization program that you want e. Selecting the type of mentor that you want
83.
All of the following are common examples of collective socialization EXCEPT for a. army boot camps. b. fraternity pledge classes. c. airline attendants. d. salespeople. e. apprenticeships.
84.
What socialization tactic involves a fixed sequence of steps leading to the assumption of the role? a. Fixed b. Serial c. Sequential d. Collective e. Formal
85.
Why do people conform to social norms?
86.
Harjit Dhaliwal is a new sales representative for Kapster Enterprises. He enjoys making sales calls and meeting with clients, but dislikes the weekly paperwork that he has to prepare for head office. He initially feels that weekly activity reports are a bureaucratic waste of time, but he dutifully completes them to avoid any trouble with head office. After several months, Harjit attends his first national sales meeting at which the VP of Marketing stresses the importance of accurate information from the field. Harjit begins to appreciate the importance of the reports and now understands why head office needs them on a timely basis each week. After the meeting, Harjit is asked by his boss to train a new sales rep who has just been hired in a nearby territory. In showing the new worker the ropes, Harjit is heard to say, "These weekly reports are very important. You won't understand now, but you will later." Explain Harjit's metamorphosis in terms of compliance, identification, and internalization.
87.
From the first stage to the last stage, which of the following sequences accurately portrays the stages of organizational socialization? a. Encounter; anticipatory socialization; role management b. Anticipatory socialization; role management; encounter c. Role management; anticipatory socialization; encounter d. Encounter; role management; anticipatory socialization e. Anticipatory socialization; encounter; role management
88.
In his last year of university, even before he took a job with a conservative bank, Randall began wearing three-piece suits regularly. To which stage of socialization does this example refer? a. Role management b. Debasement c. Encounter d. Anticipatory socialization e. Identification
Chapter 8 89.
At which stage of socialization is the new organizational member most likely to be information dependent and effect dependent on experienced organizational members? a. Role management b. Internalization c. Anticipatory socialization d. Encounter e. Identification
90.
Anticipatory socialization occurs before a person actually joins an organization. a. True b. False
91.
There are generally three kinds of fit that are important for socialization. a. True b. False
92.
There are generally two kinds of fit that are important for socialization. a. True b. False
93.
The kinds of fit that are important for socialization are PJ fit, PO fit, and PE fit. a. True b. False
94.
The kinds of fit that are important for socialization are PJ fit, PO fit, and PG fit. a. True b. False
95.
Newcomers are motivated to reduce their uncertainty. a. True b. False
96.
Your socialization will require you to attend two days of orientation followed by one week of classroom training, then one month of on-the-job training. You will then be assigned a mentor for the next six months. What is this called? a. Formal socialization b. Fixed socialization c. Serial socialization d. Sequential socialization e. Investiture socialization
97.
Kamal has begun a new job and his boss has told him what he can expect to happen during his first year on the job including when he will attend training, when he will be assigned a mentor, when he will be given various assignments, and so on. What is this called? a. Individual socialization b. Formal socialization c. Fixed socialization d. Serial socialization e. Investiture socialization
Chapter 8 98.
After beginning a new job following graduation, you are surprised to learn that there are so many experienced members of the organization who were once in your situation and are always willing and able to help you. What is this called? a. Mentoring b. Proactive socialization c. Collective socialization d. Serial socialization e. Informal socialization
99.
What tactics represent the context of socialization? a. Collective-individual and sequential-random b. Collective-individual and formal-informal c. Fixed-variable and formal-informal d. Fixed-variable and serial-disjunctive e. Formal-informal and serial-disjunctive
100. What tactics represent the content of socialization? a. Sequential-random and fixed-variable b. Collective-individual and formal-informal c. Formal-informal and fixed-variable d. Serial-disjunctive and sequential-random e. Sequential-random and investiture-divestiture 101. What tactics represent the social aspects of socialization? a. Formal-informal and serial-disjunctive b. Serial-disjunctive and sequential-random c. Collective-individual and investiture-divestiture d. Collective-individual and serial-disjunctive e. Serial-disjunctive and investiture-divestiture 102. What socialization tactics have been found to be most strongly related to socialization outcomes? a. Content tactics b. Context tactics c. Social tactics d. Collective tactics e. Formal tactics 103. Research on mentoring has found that mentored individuals have a. higher objective outcomes but not higher subjective outcomes. b. higher objective and subjective outcomes. c. lower subjective and objective outcomes. d. higher objective outcomes but lower subjective outcomes. e. higher subjective outcomes but not higher objective outcomes. 104. Joan and Tabatha started new jobs after graduation. Joan has had a mentor since she began but Tabatha has not been able to find a mentor. What are the likely career consequences of this? a. Joan is more likely to be promoted, but Tabatha is more likely to be satisfied with her job. b. Joan is more likely to get paid more, but Tabatha is more likely to be satisfied with her job. c. Joan is more likely to be satisfied with her career, but Tabatha is more likely to be satisfied with her job. d. Joan is more likely to be promoted and to be more satisfied with her job. e. Joan is more likely to be promoted, but Tabatha is more likely to be committed to her career.
Chapter 8 105. Research on mentoring has found that a. the psychosocial function is more strongly related to satisfaction with the mentoring relationship. b. the career function is more strongly related to satisfaction with the mentoring relationship. c. the psychosocial function is more strongly related to positive attitudes towards one's job. d. the career function is more strongly related to positive attitudes towards one's job. e. the psychosocial function is more strongly related to positive attitudes towards one's career. 106. Research on mentoring has found that a. the psychosocial function is more strongly related compensation and advancement. b. the career function is more strongly related to compensation and advancement. c. the career function is more strongly related to compensation, and the psychosocial function is more strongly related to advancement. d. the career function is more strongly related to advancement, and the psychosocial function is more strongly related to compensation. e. the psychosocial and career functions are similarly related to compensation and advancement. 107. Formal mentoring programs are most effective when a. the mentor has input into the matching process. b. the protégé has input into the matching process. c. the mentor and protégé have input into the matching process. d. the organization determines the matching process. e. the mentor and organization determine the matching process. 108. Which of the following is most accurate? a. Organizations that provide realistic job previews are perceived by applicants as more honest but less trustworthy. b. Organizations that provide realistic job previews are perceived by applicants as less honest and less trustworthy. c. Organizations that provide realistic job previews are perceived by applicants as more honest and more trustworthy. d. Organizations that provide realistic job previews are perceived by applicants as less honest but more trustworthy. e. Organizations that provide realistic job previews are perceived by applicants as more honest and more fair. 109. Orientation programs that are designed to teach newcomers coping techniques to manage workplace stressors are known as a. entry stress reduction programs. b. newcomer stress reduction programs. c. realistic orientation program for entry stress. d. realistic orientation program for socialization stress. e. realistic orientation program for newcomer stress. 110. What does ROPES stand for? a. Realistic orientation preview for entry stress b. Realistic orientation program for entry socialization c. Realistic orientation program for entry stress d. Realism orientation process for entry stress e. Realistic orientation program for encounter stress
Chapter 8 111. What does ROPES teach newcomers? a. Cognitive coping techniques to manage workplace stressors b. Behavioural coping techniques to manage workplace stressors c. Emotional coping techniques to manage workplace stressors d. Cognitive and behavioural coping techniques to manage workplace stressors e. Emotional and behavioural coping techniques to manage workplace stressors 112. Which of the following is most accurate? a. Men and women are equally likely to have been a protégé. b. Men are more likely to have been a protégé than women. c. Women are more likely to have been a protégé than men. d. Men are more likely to have been a mentor, and women are more likely to have been a protégé. e. Women are more likely to have been a mentor, and men are more likely to have been a protégé. 113. Which of the following is most accurate? a. Male protégés report receiving more psychosocial support. b. Female protégés report receiving more psychosocial support. c. Male protégés report receiving more career development mentoring. d. Female protégés report receiving more career development mentoring. e. Male protégés report receiving more psychosocial support and more career development mentoring. 114. Which of the following is most accurate? a. Protégés in cross-gender dyads receive just as much career and psychosocial mentoring as those in same-gender relationships. b. Protégés in cross-gender dyads receive less career and less psychosocial mentoring as those in samegender relationships. c. Protégés in cross-gender dyads receive just as much career mentoring but less psychosocial mentoring as those in same-gender relationships. d. Protégés in cross-gender dyads receive less career mentoring but just as much psychosocial mentoring as those in same-gender relationships. e. Protégés in cross-gender dyads receive more career mentoring and just as much psychosocial mentoring as those in same-gender relationships. 115. Which of the following is most accurate? a. Female managers and professionals benefit the least from a senior male mentor in male-dominated industries. b. Female managers and professionals benefit the most from a senior male mentor in male-dominated industries. c. Female managers and professionals benefit the most from a senior male mentor in female-dominated industries. d. Female managers and professionals benefit the most from a senior female mentor in female-dominated industries. e. Female managers and professionals benefit the most from a senior female mentor in male-dominated industries. 116. What is a developmental network? a. A group of newcomers who go through the socialization process together b. A group of people who take an active interest in and actions towards advancing the career of a protégé c. A group of people who take an active interest in and actions towards advancing the socialization of newcomers d. A group of people who form a network to help and advance the career of female protégés e. A group of people who form a network to form relationships and develop their career
Chapter 8 117. Which of the following best represents a developmental network? a. A protégé can have multiple developers from inside and outside the organization. b. A protégé can have multiple developers from inside the organization. c. A protégé can have multiple developers from outside the organization. d. A protégé can have one developer from inside the organization and one developer from outside the organization. e. A protégé can have multiple developers from inside the organization and from other organizations. 118. Two of the most important proactive behaviours are a. information seeking and relationship building. b. feedback seeking and relationship building. c. information seeking and feedback seeking. d. information seeking and general socializing. e. general socializing and relationship building. 119. Research on ROPES has found that it a. increases expectations, lowers stress, and improves adjustment and retention. b. lowers expectations, lowers stress, and improves adjustment and retention. c. lowers expectations, increases stress, and improves adjustment and retention. d. lowers expectations, lowers stress, and has no effect on adjustment and retention. e. increases expectations, increases stress, and improves adjustment and retention. 120. Research on the effects of ROPES does NOT support which of the following? a. Lowers expectations b. Lowers stress c. Improves adjustment d. Improves performance e. Improves retention 121. A study conducted at Corning Inc. concluded that employees who completed a full orientation program were more a. productive. b. satisfied. c. committed. d. likely to remain employed with the company. e. socialized. 122. Which of the following best represents research on the effects of proactive behaviours? a. A positive effect on proximal outcomes but no effect on distal outcomes b. A positive effect on distal outcomes but no effect on proximal outcomes c. A negative effect on proximal outcomes and a positive effect on distal outcomes d. A positive effect on proximal outcomes and a positive effect on distal outcomes e. A negative effect on proximal outcomes and a negative effect on distal outcomes 123. Which of the following does NOT influence newcomers' proactive behaviours? a. Openness to experience b. Self-efficacy c. Extraversion d. Proactive personality e. Locus of control
Chapter 8 124. Which of the following is NOT a proactive socialization behaviour? a. Positive framing b. Feedback seeking c. Networking d. Challenging e. Job change negotiation 125. What is the main premise of socialization resources theory? a. Socialization programs will be most effective when they provide newcomers with resources. b. Providing newcomers with resources will facilitate their adjustment and successful socialization. c. Newcomers who are able to obtain resources during socialization will be able to reduce their uncertainty. d. Newcomers who obtain the most resources will be the most successful. e. The socialization process is costly and organizations need to invest resources to make it successful. 126. The theory that providing newcomers with resources throughout the socialization process will facilitate their adjustment and successful socialization is called a. socialization adjustment theory. b. the resource socialization theory. c. newcomer resource theory. d. socialization resources theory. e. the resource theory of socialization. 127. What is the first step in the realistic job preview process? a. Job satisfaction and high organizational commitment b. Job meets expectations and good PJ and PO fit c. Self-selection based on needs matched to job d. Positive and negative aspects of the job identified e. Job expectations set realistically 128. What is the second step in the realistic job preview process? a. Job satisfaction and high organizational commitment b. Job meets expectations and good PJ and PO fit c. Self-selection based on needs matched to job d. Positive and negative aspects of the job identified e. Job expectations set realistically 129. What is the third step in the realistic job preview process? a. Job satisfaction and high organizational commitment b. Job meets expectations and good PJ and PO fit c. Self-selection based on needs matched to job d. Positive and negative aspects of the job identified e. Job expectations set realistically 130. What is the fourth step in the realistic job preview process? a. Job satisfaction and high organizational commitment b. Job meets expectations and good PJ and PO fit c. Self-selection based on needs matched to job d. Positive and negative aspects of the job identified e. Job expectations set realistically
Chapter 8 131. What is the fifth step in the realistic job preview process? a. Job satisfaction and high organizational commitment b. Job meets expectations and good PJ and PO fit c. Self-selection based on needs matched to job d. Positive and negative aspects of the job identified e. Job expectations set realistically 132. What is the final step in the realistic job preview process? a. Job satisfaction and high organizational commitment b. Job meets expectations and good PJ and PO fit c. Self-selection based on needs matched to job d. Positive and negative aspects of the job identified e. Job expectations set realistically 133. Which of the following is supported by research? a. Individualized socialization tactics result in lower satisfaction of newcomers' basic psychological needs b. Institutionalized socialization tactics result in greater satisfaction of newcomers' basic physiological needs c. Individualized socialization tactics result in greater satisfaction of newcomers' basic psychological needs d. Institutionalized socialization tactics result in greater satisfaction of newcomers' basic psychological needs e. Institutionalized socialization tactics result in lower satisfaction of newcomers' basic psychological needs 134. Formal mentoring programs are most effective when the organization determines the matching process. a. True b. False 135. Mentoring tends to be more strongly related to objective career outcomes than to subjective outcomes. a. True b. False 136. The psychosocial function of mentoring is more strongly related to satisfaction with the mentoring relationship than the career function. a. True b. False 137. The psychosocial function of mentoring is more strongly related to compensation and advancement than the career function. a. True b. False 138. Both the psychosocial and career functions of mentoring are just as important in generating positive attitudes towards one's job and career. a. True b. False 139. Organizations that carefully select new members for certain attributes and characteristics are more likely to use the divestiture tactic than the investiture tactic. a. True b. False
Chapter 8 140. Evidence shows that realistic job previews are effective in reducing inflated expectations and turnover but not for improving job performance. a. True b. False 141. An example of debasement would be giving a new recruit a challenging task in their area of expertise. a. True b. False 142. People entering organizations hold many __________ that are inaccurate and often unrealistically high.
143. Many of the terms of the psychological contract are established during __________ socialization.
144. Incongruence and psychological contract breach are less likely in organizations where __________ is intense.
145. Igor has just started a job and is telling you about the reciprocal obligations and promises between him and his organization or what others refer to as a(n) __________ .
146. Rachel has a goal of becoming a criminal lawyer with the prestigious law firm of Shayster & Sosume. Her fascination with the law profession began three years ago when she became hooked on a weekly television series about lawyers. Since then, she has followed every high-profile law story covered in the media and has become familiar with many of the procedural issues in Canadian law. She has just completed her undergraduate degree and hopes to start law school next year. With a bit of luck and a lot of hard work, Rachel expects to be defending her first client in front of a judge and jury within four years. What advice might you give to Rachel about her expectations?
147. Your organization has discovered that new hires enter the organization with unrealistic expectations. They have asked you to explain why this happens and what can be done about it. What will you say?
148. ACME Insurance Company has discovered that many of their employees are feeling angry over a sense of betrayal. Employees believe that their psychological contract with the company has been breached. Management is not sure what all the fuss is about or even what a psychological contract is. You have been hired to help them understand what a psychological contract is, what it means to breach a psychological contract, and the reasons why psychological contract breach occurs. What will you tell them?
149. One of the purposes of employee orientation programs is to teach newcomers how to cope with stressful work situations. a. True b. False
Chapter 8 150. Debasement is an aspect of socialization that may prove unpleasant or embarrassing to the person being socialized. a. True b. False 151. Although mentoring is often an informal process, some organizations have developed formal mentoring programs. a. True b. False 152. A realistic orientation program for entry stress teaches newcomers how to improve their job performance. a. True b. False 153. Research indicates that a few common themes underlie many organizational __________ .
154. Issues of equality, security, and __________ underlie organization stories.
155. Issues of equality, security, and control underlie organization __________ .
156. When HBC acquired 50 Towers department stores almost every Towers store manager quit because of differences in the way managers are treated. a. True b. False 157. When HBC acquired 50 Towers department stores almost every Towers store manager quit because of differences in the way employees are treated. a. True b. False 158. Organizations with a strong culture of health and safety excelled when it came to meeting the challenges of the COVID-19 pandemic. a. True b. False 159. Organizations with a strong culture of openness and honesty excelled when it came to meeting the challenges of the COVID-19 pandemic. a. True b. False 160. Culture is so important that many employees place more emphasis on a strong organizational culture than on their compensation. a. True b. False 161. Culture is so important that many employees place more emphasis on a strong organizational culture than on their job security. a. True b. False
Chapter 8 162. Organizational cultures in which certain beliefs and values are intensely and pervasively held are called __________ cultures.
163. Strong cultures contribute to financial success when the culture supports the mission, __________ , and goals of the organization.
164. An organization does not need to be ______________________________________ to have a strong culture.
165. Executives across Canada have consistently ranked WestJet as having one of the most admired __________ in Canada.
166. When HBC acquired 50 Towers department stores, almost every Towers manager quit because of differences in the way the two companies __________ employees.
167. Organizations with a strong culture of __________ excelled when it came to meeting the challenges of the COVID-19 pandemic.
168. Culture is so important that many employees place more emphasis on a strong organizational culture than on their __________ .
169. A meticulous step-by-step socialization process is characteristic of organizations with a. strong cultures. b. subcultures. c. pathological cultures. d. mature cultures. e. individualized socialization. 170. Bill Gates's impact on Microsoft illustrates a. the liability of a strong organizational culture. b. how the founder can shape an organizational culture. c. the dilemmas of organizational socialization. d. the limits of using socialization to mold the organizational culture. e. how the values of an organization rarely reflect those of its founder. 171. All of the following are part of a careful step-by-step socialization process EXCEPT a. selecting employees. b. reward and promotion. c. role models d. mentoring. e. exposure to core culture.
Chapter 8 172. The Running Room is a good example of a. step-by-step socialization process. b. socialization tactics. c. the influence of the founder on a company's culture. d. the communication of culture through the use of stories. e. the use of rites, rituals, and ceremonies to convey a company's culture. 173. What is the first step in the socialization process of strong cultures? a. Recruiting employees b. Selecting employees c. Debasement d. Training in the trenches e. Reward and promotion 174. What company is a good example of training in the trenches? a. Procter & Gamble b. Google Canada c. Lincoln Electric d. Agrium Inc. e. WestJet 175. What company is a good example of using all of the socialization steps in strong cultures? a. Procter & Gamble b. Google Canada c. Lincoln Electric d. Agrium Inc. e. Disney 176. What is the second step in the socialization process of strong cultures? a. Recruiting employees b. Selecting employees c. Debasement d. Training in the trenches e. Reward and promotion 177. What is the third step in the socialization process of strong cultures? a. Recruiting employees b. Selecting employees c. Debasement d. Training in the trenches e. Reward and promotion 178. What is the fourth step in the socialization process of strong cultures? a. Recruiting employees b. Selecting employees c. Debasement d. Training in the trenches e. Reward and promotion
Chapter 8 179. What is the fifth step in the socialization process of strong cultures? a. Exposure to core culture b. Selecting employees c. Debasement d. Training in the trenches e. Reward and promotion 180. What is the sixth step in the socialization process of strong cultures? a. Exposure to core culture b. Selecting employees c. Organizational folklore d. Training in the trenches e. Reward and promotion 181. Cross-race mentoring relationships focus on the psychosocial function of mentoring. a. True b. False 182. Individualized socialization tactics are especially effective in inducing uniform behaviour. a. True b. False 183. Content tactics have been found to be the most strongly related to socialization outcomes. a. True b. False 184. The socialization of flight attendants relies heavily upon the collective socialization tactic. a. True b. False 185. Individualized socialization is always followed up by some institutionalized socialization. a. True b. False 186. Providing realistic job previews can help prevent perceptions of psychological contract violations. a. True b. False 187. Most orientation programs take place during the first day of entry and last one to two days. a. True b. False 188. Uncertainty reduction theory explains how organizations reduce uncertainty during the socialization process. a. True b. False 189. Uncertainty reduction theory explains newcomers' motivation during the socialization process. a. True b. False
Chapter 8 190. Psychological contract breach is a common occurrence. a. True b. False 191. Inflated positive expectations are common among people before they begin a new job. a. True b. False 192. Many of the terms of the psychological contract are established during anticipatory socialization. a. True b. False 193. What organizations actually give employees is less important than the psychological contract. a. True b. False 194. What organizations actually give employees is more important than the psychological contract. a. True b. False 195. The psychological contract can influence newcomers' socialization. a. True b. False 196. When newcomers enter an organization, they experience a(n) __________ and their expectations are not met.
197. Research shows that stories and folklore about particular organizations are unique and that they reveal few common themes across organizations. a. True b. False 198. The Rocky Mountain Soap Company is a good example of the use of stories to communicate a company's culture. a. True b. False 199. The Rocky Mountain Soap Company is a good example of the use of rites, rituals, and ceremonies to communicate a company's culture. a. True b. False 200. Issues of equality, security, and control underlie many stories. a. True b. False 201. Issues of equality, security, and autonomy underlie many stories. a. True b. False
Chapter 8 202. Rituals need to be exotic to send a cultural message. a. True b. False 203. Organizations often communicate their culture through the use of stories. a. True b. False 204. A few common themes underlie organizational stories. a. True b. False 205. Formal mentoring programs are just as beneficial as informal ones. a. True b. False 206. In a developmental network, a protégé can have multiple developers in their own organization as well as from other organizations. a. True b. False 207. In a developmental network, a protégé can have multiple developers from inside and outside the organization. a. True b. False 208. Research on ROPES has found that it lowers participants' expectations and stress and improves job performance. a. True b. False 209. Research on ROPES has found that it lowers participants' expectations and stress and improves adjustment and retention. a. True b. False 210. Many organizations include mentoring and networking opportunities as part of their diversity strategy. a. True b. False 211. Proactive behaviours are positively related to proximal socialization outcomes but not distal socialization outcomes. a. True b. False 212. Proactive behaviours are positively related to distal socialization outcomes but not proximal socialization outcomes. a. True b. False 213. Walt Disney's continuing impact on the culture of the company that bears his name shows how the __________ frequently shapes organizational culture.
Chapter 8 214. Organizations with strong cultures pay meticulous attention to the __________ of new recruits.
215. It is the __________ among the socialization steps in strong cultures and their mutually reinforcing properties that make for a strong culture.
216. It is remarkable how many cultures, especially strong cultures, reflect the values of an organization's __________ .
217. Describe the step-by-step socialization process of organizations with strong cultures, discuss what makes this process effective for developing strong cultures and provide an organization example.
218. Stories about events in organizations a. are a poor source of information about an organization's culture. b. reflect several common themes across organizational cultures. c. are of historical value but fail to capture the essence of the organization's current culture. d. are not meant to communicate how things work. e. generally have a good version only. 219. Mary Kay Cosmetics gives top performers pink Cadillacs during sales meetings that have the flavour of a Hollywood premiere. This illustrates how a. compliance is the truest motive for conformity. b. individual socialization can overpower collective socialization. c. rituals can shape an organization's culture. d. some strong cultures can become pathological. e. debasement can enhance the socialization process. 220. What issues underlie organizational stories? a. Honesty, security, and control b. Equality, security, and control c. Integrity, honesty, and control d. Fairness, safety, and honesty e. Independence, safety, and security 221. All of the following are common themes that underlie organizational stories EXCEPT a. Is the big boss human? b. Will I get fired? c. Will I get promoted? d. How will the boss react to mistakes? e. How will the organization deal with obstacles? 222. Flight Centre's monthly parties called "buzz nights" are a good example of a. rituals. b. symbols. c. stories. d. subcultures. e. the founder's role.
Chapter 8 223. What does Disney, Flight Centre, and Mary Kay Cosmetics have in common? a. Subcultures b. Stories c. Rituals d. Symbols e. Step-by-step socialization process 224. During the 2011 Stanley Cup playoffs, in what company did staff hold a noon-hour street hockey game in the parking lot? a. Flight Centre b. Coast Capital Savings Credit Union c. Rocky Mountain Soap Company d. Kicking Horse Coffee e. WestJet 225. The Rocky Mountain Soap Company is an example of a. a step-by-step socialization process. b. the use of symbols to communicate a company's culture. c. the influence of the founder on a company's culture. d. the communication of culture through the use of stories. e. the use of rites, rituals, and ceremonies to convey a company's culture. 226. Coast Capital Savings Credit Union is an example of a. a step-by-step socialization process. b. the use of symbols to communicate a company's culture. c. the influence of the founder on a company's culture. d. the communication of culture through the use of stories. e. the use of rites, rituals, and ceremonies to convey a company's culture. 227. Newcomers are more likely to engage in proactive behaviours when the socialization tactics used to socialize them are institutionalized. a. True b. False 228. Newcomers are more likely to engage in proactive behaviours when the socialization tactics used to socialize them are individualized. a. True b. False 229. According to socialization resources theory, providing newcomers with resources will facilitate their adjustment and successful socialization. a. True b. False 230. According to socialization resources theory, newcomers who obtain the most resources will be the most adjusted and successfully socialized. a. True b. False 231. Realistic job previews result in large reductions in turnover and result in substantial financial savings. a. True b. False
Chapter 8 232. Realistic job previews result in small reductions in turnover and result in substantial financial savings. a. True b. False 233. The first stage of the realistic job preview process is to indicate the positive and negative aspects of a job. a. True b. False 234. The second stage of the realistic job preview process is to indicate the positive and negative aspects of a job. a. True b. False 235. Institutionalized socialization tactics result in greater satisfaction of newcomers' basic physiological needs. a. True b. False 236. Institutionalized socialization tactics result in greater satisfaction of newcomers' basic psychological needs. a. True b. False 237. Under a(n) __________ socialization strategy, organizational recruits are socialized as an intact group, facing the same challenges together.
238. Realistic job previews cause individuals not cut out for a job to withdraw from the application process, a process known as __________ .
239. Exposing job applicants to the positive and negative features of a job so that they better understand it is called a(n) __________ .
240. Institutionalized socialization consists of collective, formal, sequential, fixed, serial, and __________ .
241. Debasement is most likely to occur during the __________ stage of socialization.
242. On his first day on the job Raul was requested by his experienced workmates to go get a bucket of steam (an impossible task). This is an example of ______________________________________ .
243.
__________ tactics have been found to be the most strongly related to socialization outcomes.
244. Newcomers tend to seek out __________ information the most.
245. Newcomers rely primarily on __________ for acquiring information during socialization.
Chapter 8 246.
______________________________________ is an orientation program designed to teach newcomers coping techniques to manage workplace stressors.
247.
__________ is a type of developmental relationship.
248. Female protégés report receiving more __________ support.
249. Women who make it to executive positions invariably had a(n) __________ along the way.
250. In a(n) __________ network a protégé can have multiple developers from inside and outside of the organization.
251. Two of the most important proactive behaviours are feedback seeking and __________ .
252. Research on ROPES has found that it lowers expectations and stress and improves newcomers' __________ and retention.
253. Many organizations include mentoring and networking opportunities as part of their __________ strategy.
254. Proactive behaviours are positively related to proximal socialization outcomes and ______________________________________ socialization outcomes.
255. Newcomers are more likely to engage in proactive behaviours when the socialization tactics used to socialize them are __________ .
256.
__________ socialization tactics result in greater satisfaction of newcomers' basic psychological needs.
257. Institutionalized socialization tactics result in greater satisfaction of newcomers' basic __________ needs.
258. Realistic job previews result in small reductions in turnover that can result in substantial __________ savings for organizations.
259. Realistic job previews result in small reductions in __________ that can result in substantial financial savings for organizations.
Chapter 8 260.
Describe several tactics which newcomers can employ to be proactive during the socialization process. What are the consequences of engaging in these tactics?
261.
Describe what a realistic job preview is, how they work, and what they do. Be sure to describe each step in the realistic job preview process.
262. New employees at the Stinky Cheese Company are having a difficult time coping with the job and are experiencing a great deal of stress. What should the organization do to help new employees manage workplace stressors?
263. What is institutionalized and individualized socialization, and why would an organization choose institutionalized over individualized socialization?
264. What is a developmental network and how is it similar and different from mentoring?
265. Harold has just begun a new job and the organization does not provide a very good socialization program. As a result, Harold is not sure what he can do on his own to improve his chances of a successful socialization. What would you tell him to do and how effective would it be for his socialization?
266.
Although sales have increased over the last several months and business has never been better for the Stinky Cheese Company, they have a big problem. Following a hiring blitz in which over 100 new employees were hired, many quit after just one month. The director of human resources began to conduct exit interviews and learned that many of the new hires could not handle the smell of the cheese which they said was making them sick and staying with them all day and night. You have been hired as an organizational behaviour consultant and asked to come up with a solution to this problem. What will you suggest to lower the turnover of future new hires and how will your program work and how effective will it be?
267. The hardware division and the software division had rather different beliefs, values, and assumptions. This illustrates the operation of a. symbolic cultures. b. ritual cultures. c. strong cultures. d. subcultures. e. pathological cultures. 268. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of developing and maintaining a strong organizational culture? a. Increased coordination b. Ease of conflict resolution c. Increased financial success d. Improved communication e. Resistance to change
Chapter 8 269. Which of the following is a benefit of developing and maintaining a strong organizational culture? a. Culture clash b. Pathological behaviours c. Conflict resolution d. Resistance to change e. Increased dissension 270. Organizational cultures that involve intense and pervasive beliefs, values, and assumptions are called ________ cultures. a. sub b. strong c. symbolic d. ritual e. pathological 271. Which of the following statements about strong organizational cultures is FALSE? a. They have a strong impact on organizational members. b. They can be pathological. c. They always contribute to organizational success. d. They engage in extensive socialization of organizational members. e. They can damage a firm's ability to innovate. 272. Organizations with strong cultures tend NOT to a. use careful and protracted socialization practices. b. merge well with each other. c. remember their founders. d. have symbols. e. have rituals. 273. What do Enron, WorldCom, and NASA have in common? a. Subcultures b. Pathological cultures c. Culture clash d. Resistance to change e. Step-by-step socialization process 274. Which of the following provides a good example of resistance to change? a. Enron b. NASA c. WorldCom d. Compaq e. Oracle Corporation 275. Which of the following is a good example of resistance to change and top management's role in shaping organizational culture? a. NASA b. IBM c. WorldCom d. Enron e. Compaq
Chapter 8 276. Which of the following is a good example of culture clash? a. IBM b. Oracle Corporation c. NASA d. Hewlett-Packard e. WorldCom 277. What company was ranked as having one of the most admired Canadian corporate cultures in Canada? a. Hilti (Canada) Corp. b. Flight Centre c. Suncor Energy Inc. d. Boston Pizza e. WestJet Airlines 278. The text notes that when HBC acquired 50 Towers department stores, almost every Towers store manager quit. Why? a. Because the cultures differed in terms of how much time managers are given for holidays b. Because the cultures differed in terms of opportunities for advancement c. Because the cultures differed in terms of how management treats employees d. Because the cultures differed in terms of how much managers are compensated e. Because the cultures differed in terms of how much control managers have in the way they perform their job 279. What kind of organizational culture excelled when it came to meeting the challenges of the COVID-19 pandemic? a. Creative and innovative b. Family-oriented and fun c. Collaborative and friendly d. Health and safety e. Open and honest 280. Employees place more emphasis on a strong organizational culture than on their a. family. b. job security. c. compensation. d. job level. e. performance evaluation. 281. Two of the most important proactive behaviours are feedback seeking and relationship building. a. True b. False 282. Proactive behaviours are positively related to proximal and distal socialization outcomes. a. True b. False 283. Newcomers with a desire for control are more likely to engage in proactive behaviours. a. True b. False 284. Environmental and individual factors influence newcomers' proactive behaviours. a. True b. False
Chapter 8 285. The Running Room is a good example of the influence of the founder on the company's culture. a. True b. False 286. The Disney company is a good example of the socialization steps in strong cultures. a. True b. False 287. Investiture tactics are also known as debasement. a. True b. False 288. Uniformity is more likely under individualized socialization. a. True b. False 289. Realistic job previews are used during the role management stage of socialization. a. True b. False 290. Having a mentor contributes to individual career success. a. True b. False 291. Realistic job previews are perceived by job applicants as more honest and trustworthy. a. True b. False 292. ROPES stands for, Realistic Orientation Program for Entry Socialization. a. True b. False 293. Mentoring is a type of developmental relationship. a. True b. False 294. Organizational stories often have a good version in which things turn out well and a bad version in which things go sour. a. True b. False 295. Strong cultures consistently lead to organizational effectiveness. a. True b. False 296. Many themes underlie organizational stories. a. True b. False 297. Symbols, rituals, and stories can all help us diagnose __________ .
Chapter 8 298. The Rocky Mountain Soap Company is a good example of how organizations use __________ to communication their culture.
299. Describe three mechanisms which serve to diagnose, teach, and reinforce organizational culture. Give an example of each.
300. You have just started a new job in an organization that has a unique culture that you are not yet familiar with. What can you refer to find out about the organization's core values and beliefs and culture? Give an example of each.
301. Discuss three examples from the text that demonstrate how organizations use rituals to convey the culture.
302. Organizations with strong cultures are usually large organizations. a. True b. False 303. Strong cultures are always good for the organization. a. True b. False 304. An organization can have more than one culture. a. True b. False 305. Google Canada is a good example of the benefits of a strong culture in terms of coordination. a. True b. False 306. Google Canada is a good example of the benefits of a strong culture in terms of conflict resolution. a. True b. False 307. Discuss the assets and liabilities associated with strong organizational cultures.
308. Discuss the meaning of a strong organizational culture and the three points about strong cultures.
309. Is culture important for an organization's financial success? Provide evidence for this relationship and an example of an organization that helps to answer this question.
Chapter 8 310. What is the seventh step in the socialization process of strong cultures? a. Exposure to core culture b. Role models c. Organizational folklore d. Training in the trenches e. Reward and promotion 311. Top management strongly shapes the organization's culture. a. True b. False 312. The culture of IBM became more people-friendly as a result of the CEO. a. True b. False 313. The Running Room is a good example of a careful, step-by-step socialization process. a. True b. False 314. Female protégés report receiving more career development mentoring than males. a. True b. False 315. Female managers and professionals benefit the most from a senior female mentor in male-dominated industries. a. True b. False 316. Mentoring is more strongly related to subjective career outcomes. a. True b. False 317. Mentoring is more strongly related to objective career outcomes. a. True b. False 318. The career function of mentoring is most strongly related to compensation and advancement. a. True b. False 319. The career function of mentoring is most strongly related to satisfaction with the mentoring relationship. a. True b. False 320. Informal mentoring programs are more effective than formal ones. a. True b. False 321. The first step of socialization in strong cultures is recruitment. a. True b. False
Chapter 8 322. The first step of socialization in strong cultures is selecting employees. a. True b. False 323. It is the consistency among the steps in the socialization steps of strong cultures and their mutually reinforcing properties that make for a strong culture. a. True b. False 324. It is the choice of what steps to use in the socialization steps of strong cultures and their different properties that make for a strong culture. a. True b. False 325. Men are more likely to have been a protégé than women. a. True b. False 326. Female protégés report receiving more psychosocial support than males. a. True b. False 327. What is the difference between divestiture and investiture socialization tactics?
328. How do mentors help improve the self-confidence and career potential of their apprentices?
329.
Describe the career and psychosocial functions of mentoring.
330. What is the purpose and content of employee orientation programs and how effective are they as a method of socialization?
331.
Describe individualized and institutionalized socialization, discuss the main differences between them, and explain the outcomes of each.
Chapter 8
Test Name: 1.
d.Compliance
2.
b.I see myself as similar to my boss.
3.
a.It occurs because a member subscribes to the beliefs and values underlying the norm.
4.
e.internalization.
5.
c.You are afraid of the person making the request.
6.
b.has internalized
7.
a.internalization.
8.
b.social information processing theory.
9.
b.Information dependence
10.
c.Effect dependence
11.
a.True
12.
a.True
13.
b.False
14.
b.False
15.
Compliance
16.
identification
17.
internalization
18.
internalization
19.
social
20.
b.anticipatory socialization.
21.
d.Task, role, group, organization
22.
d.the match between an employee's personal values and the values of the organization.
23.
d.Socialization methods -> Proximal outcomes -> Distal outcomes
24.
b.match between an employee's knowledge, skills, and abilities, and the requirements of a job.
25.
b.Encounter stage
26.
b.organizational identification.
Chapter 8 27.
a.person-job fit.
28.
d.Organizational identification
29.
d.PJ fit, PO fit, PG fit
30.
d.Uncertainty reduction theory
31.
b.newcomers are motivated to reduce their uncertainty.
32.
d.Uncertainty reduction theory
33.
b.False
34.
a.True
35.
Anticipatory
36.
encounter
37.
anticipatory
38.
organizational identification
39.
role
40.
PG
41.
Person-group, PG
42.
Anticipatory socialization (e.g., skill acquisition through a college training program); encounter (e.g., orientation program); role management (e.g., active management and fine tuning of one's role in the organization). Conformity throughout the process will likely begin with compliance during anticipatory socialization and the beginning of the encounter stage, and then shift to identification. Internalization is likely to occur during the role management stage.
43.
Socialization methods (realistic job previews, employee orientation programs, socialization tactics, mentoring, and proactive tactics) result in proximal socialization outcomes (learning, task mastery, social integration, role conflict, role ambiguity, person-job fit, and person-organization fit) which then lead to distal socialization outcomes (job satisfaction, organizational commitment, organizational identification, organizational citizenship behaviour, job performance, stress, and turnover).
44.
e.the set of beliefs held by employees concerning the reciprocal obligations between them and their employer.
45.
e.are unrealistically high.
46.
d.Psychological contract
47.
d.when too many newcomers are hired at the same time.
48.
b.Psychological contract breach
49.
c.A reality shock
50.
b.a psychological contract breach.
Chapter 8 51.
b.During anticipatory socialization
52.
b.False
53.
b.False
54.
breach
55.
breach
56.
e.A divestiture tactic
57.
d.reduce turnover.
58.
d.Divestiture
59.
c.Marine Corps boot camp
60.
b.portrays both the good and bad aspects of the job.
61.
b.encourage individuality in the way jobs are performed.
62.
c.wish to foster reliable, stable job behaviour over time.
63.
e.A novelist
64.
c.Collective socialization
65.
d.divestiture tactic.
66.
e.disjunctive tactics.
67.
d.serial tactics.
68.
b.sponsorship, exposure and visibility, and developmental assignments.
69.
d.women who make it to executive positions invariably have had a mentor earlier in their careers.
70.
c.Discipline
71.
d.Female protégé, male mentor
72.
a.Health and safety, terms and conditions of employment, information about the organization
73.
e.inducing uniform behaviour.
74.
a.Role modelling
75.
d.they are just as beneficial as informal mentoring.
76.
d.more critical to women's career success than it is to men's.
77.
d.They focus more on career functions than psychosocial functions of mentoring.
78.
d.Task information
Chapter 8 79.
d.Observation
80.
d.Task, role, group, organization
81.
c.Provide a realistic job preview
82.
c.Choosing to withdraw from the selection process
83.
e.apprenticeships.
84.
c.Sequential
85.
The main motives for conformity are compliance, identification, and internalization.
86.
At first, Harjit's motive for completing the reports is compliance. At the sales meeting, he begins to see things from a head office perspective, and identification becomes the dominant motive. Finally, when he is asked to train a new worker, Harjit's comments suggest that internalization has occurred. He now supports the values of head office and truly believes that the weekly paperwork is important.
87.
e.Anticipatory socialization; encounter; role management
88.
d.Anticipatory socialization
89.
d.Encounter
90.
a.True
91.
a.True
92.
b.False
93.
b.False
94.
a.True
95.
a.True
96.
d.Sequential socialization
97.
c.Fixed socialization
98.
d.Serial socialization
99.
b.Collective-individual and formal-informal
100. a.Sequential-random and fixed-variable 101. e.Serial-disjunctive and investiture-divestiture 102. c.Social tactics 103. b.higher objective and subjective outcomes. 104. d.Joan is more likely to be promoted and to be more satisfied with her job.
Chapter 8 105. a.the psychosocial function is more strongly related to satisfaction with the mentoring relationship. 106. b.the career function is more strongly related to compensation and advancement. 107. c.the mentor and protégé have input into the matching process. 108. c.Organizations that provide realistic job previews are perceived by applicants as more honest and more trustworthy. 109. c.realistic orientation program for entry stress. 110. c.Realistic orientation program for entry stress 111. d.Cognitive and behavioural coping techniques to manage workplace stressors 112. a.Men and women are equally likely to have been a protégé. 113. b.Female protégés report receiving more psychosocial support. 114. a.Protégés in cross-gender dyads receive just as much career and psychosocial mentoring as those in samegender relationships. 115. b.Female managers and professionals benefit the most from a senior male mentor in male-dominated industries. 116. b.A group of people who take an active interest in and actions towards advancing the career of a protégé 117. a.A protégé can have multiple developers from inside and outside the organization. 118. c.information seeking and feedback seeking. 119. b.lowers expectations, lowers stress, and improves adjustment and retention. 120. d.Improves performance 121. d.likely to remain employed with the company. 122. d.A positive effect on proximal outcomes and a positive effect on distal outcomes 123. e.Locus of control 124. d.Challenging 125. b.Providing newcomers with resources will facilitate their adjustment and successful socialization. 126. d.socialization resources theory. 127. d.Positive and negative aspects of the job identified 128. e.Job expectations set realistically 129. c.Self-selection based on needs matched to job 130. b.Job meets expectations and good PJ and PO fit
Chapter 8 131. a.Job satisfaction and high organizational commitment 132. c.Self-selection based on needs matched to job 133. d.Institutionalized socialization tactics result in greater satisfaction of newcomers' basic psychological needs 134. b.False 135. b.False 136. a.True 137. b.False 138. a.True 139. b.False 140. b.False 141. b.False 142. expectations 143. anticipatory 144. socialization 145. psychological contract 146. Research indicates that people often have inaccurate and unrealistically high expectations about jobs and organizations. These expectations may be partially attributed to occupational stereotypes communicated through the popular media. Rachel may indeed achieve her goals and be very satisfied with her career choice, but she is more likely to discover that becoming a criminal lawyer isn't always as glamorous as she had anticipated. She is likely to experience some "reality shock" as a result of her unrealistic and high expectations. 147. New members have unrealistic expectations for a number of reasons: occupational stereotypes could be responsible—the media are often responsible for this, and so are teachers. Overzealous recruiters who paint rosy pictures to attract job applicants to the organization are also responsible. One solution to this problem is to present job applicants with a realistic job preview so that they have a realistic picture of the positive and negative aspects of a job before they decide to accept a job offer and join an organization. 148. A psychological contract refers to beliefs held by employees regarding the reciprocal obligations and promises between them and their organization. Perceptions of psychological contract breach occur when an employee perceives that their organization has failed to fulfill one or more promised obligations of the psychological contract. Some of the reasons for psychological contract breach include recruiters promising more than the organization can provide to attract the best applicants; newcomers often lacking sufficient information to form accurate perceptions concerning their psychological contract; differences in understandings between an employee and the organization about promised obligations; and organizational changes such as downsizing and restructuring causing organizations to knowingly break promises made to an employee that they are either unable or unwilling to keep. 149. a.True
Chapter 8 150. a.True 151. a.True 152. b.False 153. stories 154. control 155. stories 156. b.False 157. a.True 158. a.True 159. b.False 160. a.True 161. b.False 162. strong 163. strategy 164. big, large 165. cultures 166. treat 167. health and safety 168. compensation 169. a.strong cultures. 170. b.how the founder can shape an organizational culture. 171. d.mentoring. 172. c.the influence of the founder on a company's culture. 173. b.Selecting employees 174. c.Lincoln Electric 175. e.Disney 176. c.Debasement 177. d.Training in the trenches
Chapter 8 178. e.Reward and promotion 179. a.Exposure to core culture 180. c.Organizational folklore 181. b.False 182. b.False 183. b.False 184. a.True 185. b.False 186. a.True 187. b.False 188. b.False 189. a.True 190. a.True 191. a.True 192. a.True 193. b.False 194. a.True 195. a.True 196. reality shock 197. b.False 198. a.True 199. b.False 200. a.True 201. b.False 202. b.False 203. a.True 204. a.True 205. a.True
Chapter 8 206. b.False 207. a.True 208. b.False 209. a.True 210. a.True 211. b.False 212. b.False 213. founder 214. socialization 215. consistency 216. founder 217. Step 1: Selecting employees; Step 2: Debasement; Step 3: Training "in the trenches"; Step 4: Reward and promotion; Step 5: Exposure to core culture; Step 6: Organizational folklore; Step 7: Role models. It is the consistency among these steps and their mutually reinforcing properties that make for a strong culture. A good example is the Walt Disney Company. Selection is rigorous, and grooming standards serve as mild debasement. Everyone begins at the bottom of the hierarchy. Pay is low, but promotion is tied to performance. Folklore stresses core values ("Walt's in the park"). And better performers serve as role models at Disney University or in paired training. Another example is Four Seasons Hotels and Resorts, where the company wants new employees to buy in to the team philosophy and a "service mindset," all new hires—from hotel managers to dishwashers—go through four interviews during the selection process; once hired, they enter a three-month socialization program. 218. b.reflect several common themes across organizational cultures. 219. c.rituals can shape an organization's culture. 220. b.Equality, security, and control 221. c.Will I get promoted? 222. a.rituals. 223. c.Rituals 224. b.Coast Capital Savings Credit Union 225. d.the communication of culture through the use of stories. 226. e.the use of rites, rituals, and ceremonies to convey a company's culture. 227. a.True 228. b.False
Chapter 8 229. a.True 230. b.False 231. b.False 232. a.True 233. a.True 234. b.False 235. b.False 236. b.False 237. collective 238. self-selection 239. realistic job preview 240. investiture tactics 241. encounter 242. debasement, divestiture socialization 243. Social 244. task-related 245. observation 246. Realistic Orientation Program for Entry Stress, ROPES 247. Mentoring 248. psychosocial 249. mentor 250. developmental 251. information seeking 252. adjustment 253. diversity 254. distal 255. institutionalized 256. Institutionalized
Chapter 8 257. psychological 258. financial 259. turnover 260. Proactive tactics include requesting feedback (feedback seeking), seeking information (information seeking), networking, general socializing, building relationships with co-workers (relationship building) and one's boss (boss-relationship building), negotiating job changes, and framing the new situation in a positive manner (positive framing). Research has found that newcomers who engage in proactive behaviours more frequently are more likely to obtain the corresponding proactive outcomes and to have more positive proximal socialization outcomes (e.g., fit perceptions, social integration) and distal socialization outcomes (e.g., job satisfaction, work engagement). 261. A realistic job preview provides a balanced, realistic picture of the positive and negative aspects of a job to job applicants. They work as follows: the positive and negative aspects of a job are identified; job expectations are set realistically; not all applicants accept a job offer and self-selection occurs based on needs matched to the job; met expectations and good PJ and PO fit for those who accept job offers; job satisfaction and high organizational commitment; and lower turnover and high job performance. Realistic job previews have also been shown to increase job applicants' perceptions of honesty and trustworthiness. Realistic job previews lower expectations, increase job satisfaction, lower turnover, and improve job performance. 262. The company should provide new hires with a realistic orientation program for entry stress or ROPES. ROPES provide newcomers with realistic information like a realistic job preview and also teaches newcomers how to use cognitive and behavioural coping techniques to manage workplace stressors. 263. Institutionalized socialization involves a more formal and structured program of socialization that reduces uncertainty and encourages new hires to accept organizational norms and maintain the status quo. Individualized socialization reflects a relative absence of structure that creates ambiguity and encourages new hires to question the status quo and develop their own approach to their role. Institutionalized tactics are effective in promoting organizational loyalty and uniformity of behaviour among those being socialized. With individualized socialization, new members are more likely to take on the particular characteristics and style of those who are socializing them. Uniformity is less likely. Thus, individualized socialization results in a more innovative role orientation, while institutionalized socialization results in a more custodial role orientation. 264. Mentoring is a type of developmental relationship in which an experienced or more senior person in the organization gives a junior person guidance and special attention. A developmental network refers to groups of people who take an active interest in and actions towards advancing a protégé's career by providing developmental assistance. With a developmental network, a protégé can have multiple developers from inside and outside of the organization and include people from different hierarchical levels of the organization. As a result, the protégé is more likely to obtain different types of support and a broader range of career outcomes. 265. Tell Harold about proactive socialization in which newcomers play an active role in their own socialization through the use of a number of proactive socialization behaviours such as requesting feedback (feedback seeking), seeking information (information seeking), networking, general socializing, building relationships with co-workers (relationship building) and one's boss (boss-relationship building), negotiating job changes, and positive framing. Proactive behaviours have a positive effect on proximal and distal socialization outcomes so they can be effective in helping him have a successful socialization.
Chapter 8 266. The best solution to this problem is a realistic job preview that informs job applicants of what it is like to work at the Stinky Cheese Company and informs them about the smell of cheese that they must get used to. A realistic job preview provides a balanced, realistic picture of the positive and negative aspects of a job to job applicants. They work as follows: the positive and negative aspects of a job are identified; job expectations are lowered and set realistically; not all applicants accept a job offer and self-selection occurs based on needs matched to the job; met expectations and good PJ and PO fit for those who accept job offers; job satisfaction and high organizational commitment; and lower turnover and high job performance. Realistic job previews are effective for lowering expectations, increasing job satisfaction, lowering turnover, and improving job performance. Providing a realistic job preview to job applicants in which they are informed of the working conditions at the Stinky Cheese Company is likely to provide job applicants with a realistic picture of what to expect and as a result, those job applicants who perceive a good PJ and PO fit will be most likely to accept a job offer and less likely to quit. Thus, it will be effective for lowering the turnover of new hires. 267. d.subcultures. 268. e.Resistance to change 269. c.Conflict resolution 270. b.strong 271. c.They always contribute to organizational success. 272. b.merge well with each other. 273. b.Pathological cultures 274. e.Oracle Corporation 275. b.IBM 276. d.Hewlett-Packard 277. e.WestJet Airlines 278. c.Because the cultures differed in terms of how management treats employees 279. d.Health and safety 280. c.compensation. 281. b.False 282. a.True 283. a.True 284. a.True 285. a.True 286. a.True 287. b.False
Chapter 8 288. b.False 289. b.False 290. a.True 291. a.True 292. b.False 293. a.True 294. a.True 295. b.False 296. b.False 297. an organization's culture 298. stories 299. Symbols (e.g., pink Cadillacs are the symbols of success at Mary Kay Cosmetics); rituals (e.g., Mary Kay's seminars); and stories (e.g., Ray Kroc cancelled a McDonald's franchise deal after finding a fly in the restaurant). 300. You can learn about an organization's culture through its symbols, rituals, and stories. Some examples of each include: symbols (e.g., pink Cadillacs are the symbols of success at Mary Kay Cosmetics); rituals (e.g., Flight Centre's monthly buzz nights); and stories (e.g., Ray Kroc cancelled a McDonald's franchise deal after finding a fly in the restaurant). 301. At Coast Capital Savings Credit Union, the company's executives dress up in costumes during the employee recognition awards event. During the 2011 Stanley Cup playoffs, staff held noon-hour street hockey games in the parking lot to support the Vancouver Canucks. These events are indicative of a culture of fun and lightheartedness. The Disney picnics, beach parties, and employee nights are indicative of a peer-oriented, youthoriented culture. At Flight Centre, the monthly parties called "buzz nights," at which employees are recognized for their accomplishments, are indicative of a youthful, energetic, and fun culture. At Mary Kay Cosmetics, elaborate "seminars" with the flavour of a Hollywood premiere combined with a revival meeting are used to make the sales force feel good about themselves and the company. Pink Cadillacs and other extravagant sales awards reinforce the cultural imperative that any Mary Kay woman can be successful. 302. b.False 303. b.False 304. a.True 305. a.True 306. b.False 307. Assets of strong cultures include improved coordination, conflict resolution, and financial success. Liabilities include resistance to change, and the potential for pathology and culture clash.
Chapter 8 308. In a strong culture, the beliefs, values, and assumptions that make up the culture are both intense and pervasive across the organization. Three points are worth emphasizing about strong cultures. First, an organization need not be big to have a strong culture. If its members agree strongly about certain beliefs, values, and assumptions, a small business, school, or social service agency can have a strong culture. Second, strong cultures do not necessarily result in blind conformity. Third, strong cultures are associated with greater success and effectiveness. 309. There is growing consensus that strong cultures contribute to financial success and organizational effectiveness when the culture supports the mission, strategy, and goals of the organization. A good example is WestJet Airlines whose corporate culture includes a universal desire to maximize profits. The company has not only become one of the most profitable airlines in North America, but it is also the most successful lowcost carrier in Canadian history. Executives across Canada have consistently ranked WestJet as having one of the most admired corporate cultures in Canada. Executive respondents believe that there is a direct correlation between culture and an organization's health and financial performance, and that corporate culture has a tangible impact on long-term success and an organization's ability to recruit, manage, and retain the best people. Further evidence for the relationship between culture and financial success is that the most admired corporate cultures have been found to have a three-year average revenue growth that has significantly outpaced the S&P/TSX compound annual growth rate (CAGR) by over 600 percent. 310. b.Role models 311. a.True 312. a.True 313. b.False 314. b.False 315. b.False 316. a.True 317. b.False 318. a.True 319. b.False 320. b.False 321. b.False 322. a.True 323. a.True 324. b.False 325. b.False 326. a.True
Chapter 8 327. Divestiture tactics, such as debasement, are designed to humble new members and strip away some of their initial self-confidence. Investiture tactics are designed to affirm the incoming identity and attributes of new members rather than deny them and strip them away. 328. Effective mentors perform two types of developmental functions. Career functions include sponsorship, exposure and visibility, coaching and feedback, and developmental assignments. Psychosocial functions are role modelling, acceptance and confirmation, and counselling. 329. Career functions include sponsorship, exposure and visibility, coaching and feedback, and developmental assignments. Psychosocial functions include role modelling, acceptance and confirmation, and counselling. 330. Orientation programs are designed to introduce new employees to their job, the people they will be working with, and the organization. The main content of most orientation programs consists of health and safety issues, terms and conditions of employment, and information about the organization. Another purpose is to begin conveying and forming the psychological contract and to teach newcomers how to cope with stressful work situations. Orientation programs are an effective method of socialization that can have long lasting effects on the job attitudes and behaviour of new hires. They have been found to increase knowledge and understanding of the organization's goals and values, history, and involvement with people, and to result in higher organizational commitment and lower turnover. 331. Institutionalized socialization consists of collective, formal, sequential, fixed, serial, and investiture tactics. Individualized socialization consists of individual, informal, random, variable, disjunctive, and divestiture tactics. The main difference between them is that institutionalized socialization reflects a more formalized and structured program of socialization that reduces uncertainty and encourages new hires to accept organizational norms and maintain the status quo. Individualized socialization reflects a relative absence of structure that creates ambiguity and encourages new hires to question the status quo and develop their own approach to their role. Institutionalized socialization tactics are related to proximal outcomes, such as lower role ambiguity and role conflict and more positive perceptions of PJ and PO fit, as well as distal outcomes, such as greater job satisfaction and organizational commitment and lower stress and turnover. In addition, institutionalized socialization tactics result in a custodial role orientation, in which new hires accept the status quo and the requirements of their tasks and roles. Individualized socialization tactics result in a more innovative role orientation in which new recruits might change or modify the way they perform their tasks and roles.
Chapter 9 1.
Which statement about leadership is TRUE? a. Leadership can be exhibited by persons other than those formally designated as leaders by the organization. b. The most effective leader will exhibit high consideration and high initiating structure in all leadership situations. c. Initiating structure is a leadership trait. d. There is a set of leadership traits that strongly and consistently predicts leader effectiveness across a broad range of situations. e. A leader can be either high on initiating structure or high on consideration but not both.
2.
Which of the following best represents strategic leadership? a. Open and honest interactions with the organization's stakeholders b. Unbridled inquisitiveness c. Personal character d. Duality e. Savvy
3.
If your leader works with others to initiate changes that will create a viable future for the organization, what kind of leader are they? a. Transformational leader b. Transactional leader c. Participative leader d. Strategic leader e. Global leader
4.
What is the most pressing human capital challenge facing Canadian businesses today? a. Leadership b. Employee retention c. Job performance d. Employee recruitment e. Corporate social responsibility
5.
An emergent and dynamic team phenomenon whereby leadership roles and influence are distributed among team members is known as a. mutual leadership. b. emergent leadership. c. shared leadership. d. dynamic leadership. e. distributed leadership.
6.
Leadership is about motivating people and gaining their a. job satisfaction. b. commitment. c. acceptance. d. attention. e. loyalty.
Chapter 9 7.
What does emergent leadership refer to? a. The degree to which an individual with no formal status or authority is perceived by one or more team members as deserving to be given formal leadership status and authority b. The degree to which an individual is perceived by one or more team members as exhibiting leaderlike influence and is given formal status and authority to lead c. The degree to which an individual with formal status or authority is perceived by one or more team members as exhibiting leaderlike influence d. The degree to which an individual with no formal status or authority is perceived by one or more team members as exhibiting leaderlike influence e. The degree to which an individual with no formal status or authority is perceived by one or more team members to be an emergent leader
8.
What do we know about the effects of shared leadership? a. Shared leadership is positively related to team satisfaction and team creativity. b. Shared leadership is positively related to team performance and team creativity. c. Shared leadership is positively related to team satisfaction and team performance. d. Shared leadership is positively related to team commitment and team creativity. e. Shared leadership is positively related to team commitment and team satisfaction.
9.
An emergent and dynamic team phenomenon whereby leadership roles and influence are distributed among team members is called shared leadership. a. True b. False
10.
An emergent and dynamic team phenomenon whereby leadership roles and influence are distributed among team members is called mutual leadership. a. True b. False
11.
Emergent leadership is the degree to which an individual with no formal status or authority is perceived by one or more team members as exhibiting leaderlike influence.) a. True b. False
12.
Emergent leadership is the degree to which an individual is perceived by one or more team members as exhibiting leaderlike influence and is given formal status and authority to lead. a. True b. False
13.
__________ leaders work with others to initiate changes that will create a viable future for the organization.
14.
A recent survey found that the most pressing human capital challenge facing Canadian businesses today is __________ .
15.
__________ leadership is an emergent and dynamic team phenomenon whereby leadership roles and influence are distributed among team members.
Chapter 9 16.
__________ occurs when particular individuals exert influence on the goal achievement of others in an organizational context.
17.
__________ leadership is the degree to which an individual with no formal status or authority is perceived by one or more team members as exhibiting leaderlike influence.
18.
Of the Big Five dimensions of personality, extraversion and conscientiousness are the most consistent predictors of leadership effectiveness. a. True b. False
19.
According to leadership categorization theory, prejudice against female leaders is the result of a difference between the perceived characteristics of women and the perceived requirements of leadership roles. a. True b. False
20.
According to leadership categorization theory, people are more likely to view somebody as a leader and to evaluate them as a more effective leader when they possess prototypical characteristics of leadership. a. True b. False
21.
Narcissism is a personality trait that combines grandiosity, attention seeking, a realistically inflated self-view, a need for that self-view to be continuously reinforced through compliments, and a general lack of regard for employees. a. True b. False
22.
Of the Big Five dimensions of personality, extraversion and __________ are the most consistent predictors of leadership effectiveness.
23.
__________ leadership is positively related to team satisfaction and team creativity.
24.
What is strategic leadership and why is it important for organizations to have strategic leaders?
25.
What is shared leadership and what are the benefits of it for organizations?
26.
Which of the following is NOT a trait? a. Consideration b. Low intelligence c. High energy d. Tallness e. Honesty
Chapter 9 27.
When did serious scientific research on leadership traits begin? a. During the lifetime of Charles Darwin b. During World War I c. During World War II d. During the Trudeau years e. During the Great Depression
28.
Research on leadership traits has mostly focused on a. demographics, interpersonal attributes, and physical attributes. b. demographics, task competence, and interpersonal attributes. c. demographics, task competence, and physical attributes. d. task competence, interpersonal attributes, and physical attributes. e. task competence, interpersonal attributes, and psychological attributes.
29.
Which of the Big Five dimensions of personality are the most consistent predictors of leadership effectiveness? a. Extraversion and agreeableness b. Extraversion and conscientiousness c. Agreeableness and conscientiousness d. Emotional stability and conscientiousness e. Emotional stability and extraversion
30.
Which of the following best represents the relationship between traits and leadership effectiveness? a. The relationship is stronger for affective measures of effectiveness than performance measures. b. The relationship is the same for affective and performance measures of effectiveness. c. The relationship is stronger for performance measures of effectiveness than affective measures. d. The relationship is poor or non-existent for affective and performance measures of effectiveness. e. The relationship is poor or non-existent for affective measures of effectiveness and very high for performance measures of effectiveness.
31.
As discussed in the text, ________ are examples of potential leadership traits. a. charisma and agreeableness b. dominance and intelligence c. consideration and initiating structure d. reward and punishment e. direction and support
32.
Which dimensions of the "Big Five" have been found to be related to leadership emergence and success? a. Agreeableness, extraversion, and conscientiousness b. Agreeableness, extraversion, conscientiousness, and openness to experience c. Agreeableness, conscientiousness, emotional stability, and openness to experience d. Agreeableness, conscientiousness, extraversion, and emotional stability e. Agreeableness, conscientiousness, extraversion, openness to experience, and emotional stability
33.
If you are looking for an effective leader to hire into your organization, which personality dimension(s) should you focus on during the hiring process? a. Extraversion b. Conscientiousness c. Agreeableness d. Extraversion and conscientiousness e. Agreeableness and conscientiousness
Chapter 9 34.
How many of the Big Five dimensions of personality have been found to be related to leadership emergence and success? a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four e. Five
35.
Which of the following is most accurate about leadership effectiveness? a. Leader traits have a greater impact than leader behaviours. b. Leader behaviours have a greater impact than leader traits. c. Leader traits and behaviours have a similar impact. d. Sometimes leader traits have a greater impact, and sometimes leader behaviours have a greater impact. e. Some leader traits have a greater impact, and some have a weaker impact than leader behaviours.
36.
What characteristic of the CEO and top management is related to organizational performance? a. Team intelligence b. Team conscientiousness c. Team charisma d. Team ethics e. Team LMX
37.
According to leadership categorization theory a. people are more likely to view somebody as a leader and to evaluate them as a more effective leader when they possess characteristics of their organization. b. people are less likely to view somebody as a leader and to evaluate them as a less effective leader when they possess characteristics of leadership. c. people are more likely to view somebody as a leader and to evaluate them as a more effective leader when they possess characteristics that are similar to themselves. d. people are more likely to view somebody as a leader and to evaluate them as a more effective leader when they possess characteristics of leadership. e. people are more likely to view somebody as a leader and to evaluate them as a more effective leader when they possess characteristics associated with men.
38.
What theory suggests that people are more likely to view somebody as a leader and to evaluate them as a more effective leader when they possess prototypical characteristics of leadership? a. Role congruity theory b. Leadership categorization theory c. Implicit leadership theory d. Leader-member exchange theory e. Contingency theory
39.
What theory of leadership helps to explain bias and discrimination when evaluating a leader's effectiveness and when making decisions about who should be in a leadership position? a. Laissez-faire leadership theory b. Leadership categorization theory c. Implicit leadership theory d. Leader-member exchange theory e. Contingency theory
Chapter 9 40.
Which of the following statements about narcissistic CEOs is most accurate? a. CEO narcissism is positively related to innovation, growth, and firm performance. b. CEO narcissism is negatively related to innovation, growth, and firm performance. c. CEO narcissism is positively related to innovation and growth and negatively related to firm performance. d. CEO narcissism is negatively related to innovation and growth, and positively related to firm performance. e. CEO narcissism is positively related to innovation and negatively related to growth and firm performance.
41.
Which of the following statements about narcissistic CEOs is most accurate? a. CEO narcissism has many detrimental effects on organizations. b. CEO narcissism has many beneficial effects on organizations. c. CEO narcissism can have both beneficial and detrimental effects on organizations. d. CEO narcissism has few if any effects on organizations. e. The effects of CEO narcissism on organizations depends on the CEO and the organization.
42.
What is the meaning of motivation to lead? a. The desire to attain leadership roles and the formal authority to influence others b. The need to attain leadership roles and to influence others c. The motivation to become a leader and to expand effort to fulfill leader role requirements d. The desire to attain leadership roles and to emerge as a leader e. The desire to attain leadership roles and to expand effort to fulfill leader role requirements
43.
"Leaders are born, not made" is a statement that suggests that the speaker believes in the __________ theory of leadership.
44.
Research on leadership has focused on traits associated with __________ , task competence, and interpersonal attributes.
45.
All five of the Big Five dimensions of personality have been found to be related to leadership emergence, and success, __________ , and conscientiousness are the most consistent predictors of leadership effectiveness.
46.
Research indicates that leader behaviours have a greater impact on leadership effectiveness than leader __________ .
47.
A recent study found that CEO and top management team __________ were directly related to organizational performance.
48.
According to leadership __________ theory, people are more likely to view somebody as a leader and to evaluate them as a more effective leader when they possess prototypical characteristics of leadership.
49.
__________ are only a precondition for certain actions that a leader must take to be successful.
Chapter 9 50.
__________ is the desire to attain leadership roles and to expand effort to fulfill leader role requirements
51.
__________ is a personality trait that combines grandiosity, attention seeking, an unrealistically inflated self-view, a need for that self-view to be continuously reinforced through self-regulation, and a general lack of regard for others.
52.
CEO __________ is positively related to innovation, growth, and firm performance.
53.
__________ seems to be associated with extreme variations in leader behaviour that tends to result in greater performance volatility. is positively related to innovation, growth, and firm performance.
54.
CEO __________ can have both beneficial and detrimental effects on organizations.
55.
Describe the trait theory of leadership and discuss the main research findings on leadership traits and leader effectiveness.
56.
Describe the trait theory of leadership and discuss its main limitations.
57.
Describe leadership categorization theory and explain how it can result in bias and discrimination.
58.
Define narcissism and consider if it is good or bad for organizations to have narcissistic CEOs and leaders.
59.
According to Bernard Bass's theory of transformational leadership, the distinctive qualities of transformational leaders are a. leader reward behaviour, leader punishment behaviour, and charisma. b. individualized consideration, inspirational motivation, charisma, and intellectual stimulation. c. participation, initiating structure, and consideration. d. leader reward behaviour, leader punishment behaviour, and task leadership. e. honesty, dominance, and need for achievement.
60.
What is the most important component of transformational leadership? a. Individualized consideration b. Intellectual stimulation c. Participation d. Charisma e. Inspirational motivation
Chapter 9 61.
If Mark's job is clear and routine, a leader is most likely to increase Mark's satisfaction by a. being directive and participative. b. being supportive and participative. c. being supportive. d. being participative. e. being directive.
62.
Fiedler's contingency theory of leadership is most clearly a a. behavioural theory. b. theory of participation. c. trait theory. d. situational theory. e. path-goal theory.
63.
The task is unstructured, the group members hate the leader, and the leader has no position power. According to Fiedler, the leader will perform best if they a. are task-oriented. b. use participation. c. are relationship-oriented. d. are charismatic. e. are social-emotional.
64.
Fiedler's contingency theory of leadership predicts that relationship-oriented leadership will be most effective in a. very favourable situations. b. very unfavourable situations. c. situations of medium favourableness. d. very favourable and very unfavourable situations. e. virtually all situations.
65.
According to Fiedler, the most favourable situation for leadership involves good leader-member relations, a(n) ________ task, and ________ position power. a. unstructured; strong b. structured; weak c. structured; strong d. unstructured; weak e. challenging; informal
66.
In Fiedler's contingency theory of leadership, an LPC score measures a. type of leadership orientation. b. task structure. c. leader-member relations. d. position power. e. Least Personal Charisma.
67.
Nellie is a high LPC leader. According to Fiedler's contingency theory of leadership, she a. will be most effective in very favourable leadership situations. b. will be most effective in very unfavourable leadership situations. c. is more relationship-oriented than task-oriented. d. is more task-oriented than relationship-oriented. e. has high position power and low task structure.
Chapter 9 68.
What is the "contingency" variable in Fiedler's contingency theory of leadership? a. Leadership orientation b. Task structure c. Position power d. Consideration e. Situational favourableness
69.
Imagine that a military commander who is well liked and admired by their troops is leading them on a highly structured mission. According to Fiedler's contingency theory a. the troops will perform best if the commander is relationship-oriented (high LPC). b. the troops will perform best if the commander is task-oriented (low LPC). c. task and relationship orientation are irrelevant to performance in this situation. d. the situation is very unfavourable for the leader. e. the situation is moderately favourable for the leader.
70.
Directive behaviour is essentially the same as a. consideration. b. participative behaviour. c. initiating structure. d. achievement-oriented behaviour. e. empowering leadership.
71.
Path-goal theory differs from Fiedler's contingency theory in that a. only path-goal theory takes account of the situation. b. path-goal theory has aroused much more research controversy. c. path-goal theory is an example of the trait approach to leadership. d. path-goal theory is concerned with the effects of specific leader behaviour. e. only path-goal theory considers the role of leadership orientation.
72.
According to path-goal theory, which of the following statements is TRUE? a. Employees who prefer being told what to do respond best to a supportive leadership style. b. Employees who are high need achievers work best under achievement-oriented leadership. c. When tasks are clear and routine, directive leadership is preferred. d. Frustrating, dissatisfying jobs increase employee appreciation of directive leadership. e. Employees who are high need achievers work best under participative-oriented leadership.
73.
According to path-goal theory, employee effort can be increased by a. using a leadership style that increases job satisfaction. b. always using achievement-oriented leadership. c. clarifying the path to valued rewards. d. maximizing both consideration and initiating structure. e. strengthening leader-member relations.
74.
An extremely conscientious and experienced group of labourers is doing a hot, dirty, routine task. What leadership style does House's path-goal theory suggest using here? a. Participative b. Directive c. Supportive d. Task e. Achievement-oriented
Chapter 9 75.
What are the situational factors in House's path-goal theory of leadership? a. Situational favourableness b. Employee characteristics and leader power c. Employee characteristics and environmental factors d. Individualized consideration e. Leader-member relations, task structure, and position power
76.
Which of the following best represents research on Fiedler's contingency theory? a. The prescription for task leadership in octant V is contradicted by the evidence. b. The prescription for task leadership in octant II is contradicted by the evidence. c. The prescription for relationship leadership in octant I is contradicted by the evidence. d. The prescription for task leadership in octant I is contradicted by the evidence. e. The prescription for relationship leadership in octant II is contradicted by the evidence.
77.
What does it mean when a leader describes their least preferred co-worker favourably? a. Despite the fact that the LPC is or was difficult to work with, the leader can still have a favourable relationship with the LPC. b. Despite the fact that the LPC is or was not the most favourable person to work with, the leader can still find positive qualities in the LPC. c. Despite the fact that the LPC is or was difficult to work with, the leader can still find reasons to work with the LPC. d. Despite the fact that the LPC is or was difficult to work with, the leader can still find positive qualities in the LPC. e. Despite the fact that the LPC is or was favourable to work with, the leader can still find negative qualities in the LPC.
78.
Which of the following predictions by Fiedler's contingency theory is contradicted by the research evidence? a. Task leadership in octant III b. Task leadership in octant II c. Relationship leadership in octant II d. Relationship leadership in octant III e. Task leadership in octant V
79.
How many octants are included in Fiedler's contingency theory? a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 7 e. 8
80.
House's path-goal theory and Fiedler's contingency theory are examples of transformational leadership theories. a. True b. False
81.
Calvin is supervising workers who are doing a simple, routine, boring job, such as collecting refuse. Research suggests that participative leadership is a more appropriate leadership style than supportive leadership for this job. a. True b. False
Chapter 9 82.
According to Fiedler's contingency theory, relationship-oriented leaders perform best when the situation for leaders is neither extremely favourable nor extremely unfavourable. That is, they do best in situations of medium favourableness. a. True b. False
83.
Any organizational member can exert influence and engage in leadership. a. True b. False
84.
The most pressing human capital challenge facing Canadian businesses today is leadership. a. True b. False
85.
Leadership is about motivating people and gaining their job satisfaction. a. True b. False
86.
Leadership is about motivating people and gaining their commitment. a. True b. False
87.
Individuals can emerge to occupy informal leadership roles. a. True b. False
88.
Shared leadership is positively related to team performance and team creativity. a. True b. False
89.
Shared leadership is positively related to team satisfaction and team creativity. a. True b. False
90.
Motivation to lead is the desire to attain leadership roles and to expand effort to fulfill leader role requirements a. True b. False
91.
A recent study found that CEO and top management team intelligence was directly related to organizational performance. a. True b. False
92.
A recent study found that CEO and top management team conscientiousness was directly related to organizational performance. a. True b. False
93.
Motivation to lead is the desire to attain the formal authority to influence others. a. True b. False
Chapter 9 94.
Narcissism is a personality trait that combines grandiosity, attention seeking, an unrealistically inflated selfview, a need for that self-view to be continuously reinforced through self-regulation, and a general lack of regard for others. a. True b. False
95.
The personalities of top executives can influence firm performance. a. True b. False
96.
The personalities of top executives have no influence on firm performance. a. True b. False
97.
CEO narcissism is positively related to innovation, growth, and firm performance. a. True b. False
98.
CEO narcissism is positively related to innovation and growth, and negatively related to firm performance. a. True b. False
99.
Shared leadership is positively related to team satisfaction and team creativity. a. True b. False
100. Trait theories of leadership have the strongest, most supportive research base. a. True b. False 101. Intelligence is an example of a trait. a. True b. False 102. Research has isolated a large number of leadership traits that are highly associated with effective leadership. a. True b. False 103. The trait approach is one of the best means of understanding and improving leadership. a. True b. False 104. Leader traits have a greater impact on leadership effectiveness than leader behaviours. a. True b. False 105. All of the Big Five dimensions of personality have been found to be related to leadership emergence and success. a. True b. False
Chapter 9 106. Of the Big Five dimensions of personality, extraversion and agreeableness are the most consistent predictors of leadership effectiveness. a. True b. False 107. Research indicates that leader behaviours have a greater impact on leadership effectiveness than leader traits. a. True b. False 108. Narcissism is associated with extreme variations in leader behaviour that tends to result in greater performance volatility. a. True b. False 109. Narcissism is associated with extreme variations in leader behaviour that tends to result in less performance volatility. a. True b. False 110. There is a significant and strong relationship between intelligence and leadership. a. True b. False 111. Extraversion and agreeableness are the most consistent predictors of leadership effectiveness among the Big Five dimensions of personality. a. True b. False 112. The most effective leaders have high levels of intelligence. a. True b. False 113. Many contemporary organizations use trait-based assessment centres to measure leadership traits when making hiring and promotion decisions. a. True b. False 114. In recent years, there has been little interest in the study of leadership traits. a. True b. False 115. Research on leadership traits has focused mostly on traits associated with physical attributes. a. True b. False 116. Intelligence and dominance are possible examples of leadership __________ .
117. House's path-goal leadership theory prescribes matching leadership style to leadership situation. a. True b. False
Chapter 9 118. In Fiedler's contingency theory, the "contingency variable" is the leader's orientation towards relationships versus tasks. a. True b. False 119. Fiedler's LPC score is a measure of task structure. a. True b. False 120. Supportive leadership is the preferred leadership behaviour when job methods are unclear and stress is high. a. True b. False 121. According to Fiedler's contingency theory, task-oriented leaders perform best when the situation for leaders is either very favourable or very unfavourable. a. True b. False 122. In Fiedler's contingency theory of leadership, the variable upon which leadership style is contingent is _______ .
123. In Fiedler's contingency theory, LPC stands for __________ .
124. Fiedler's contingency theory of leadership prescribes a(n) __________ orientation when the situation is of medium favourableness for the leader.
125. A low LPC leader is __________ oriented.
126. Leadership theories that argue that the most appropriate leadership style depends on the task, employees, or other similar factors are called __________ theories of leadership.
127. Using Fiedler's contingency theory, explain which type of leadership orientation is most effective at low, medium, and high levels of situational favourableness. Give an example of a management job which might apply to each level of favourableness. Use different combinations of the three basic situation factors to construct low, medium, and high levels of favourableness to support your examples.
128.
According to House's path-goal theory, under what conditions should employees appreciate both directive and participative leader behaviours? Under what conditions are they not likely to appreciate them? Give examples of tasks which illustrate each set of conditions.
Chapter 9 129. Participation may increase the motivation of employees by a. allowing them to contribute to the establishment of work goals. b. allowing them to decide how work goals can be accomplished. c. enriching their jobs. d. adding some variety to the job. e. all of the above. 130. One of the problems with participative leadership is that participation a. tends to reduce the quality of decision-making. b. decreases subordinates' acceptance of decisions. c. requires a great deal of time and energy on the part of the leader. d. tends to reduce the intrinsic motivation of subordinates. e. results in abdication of leadership, which is almost always ineffective. 131. For reasons that were too complicated to explain to his employees, Louis had to figure out how long it would take to write a new computer program. He asked each employee individually, averaged their responses, and put this figure in his report. What leadership style is this? a. AI b. AII c. CII d. GI e. GII 132. Which theory or model of leadership discussed in the text explicitly involves a decision tree? a. Fiedler's contingency theory b. Vroom and Jago's situational model of participation c. House's path-goal theory d. Bass' transformational leadership model e. Leader member exchange theory 133. Raul, a middle manager, has to make a decision. Decision quality and acceptance are an issue, and Raul is not an expert on this problem. However, Raul wishes to reserve the final decision for his own judgment. According to the Vroom and Jago model of participation, this is time for a(n) ________ decision strategy. a. A b. C c. E d. G e. L 134. The Vroom and Jago decision tree model of leadership a. is a trait model. b. allows for autocratic, consultative, and group decisions. c. always specifies using the maximum degree of participation possible. d. is a model of emergent leadership. e. uses three situation factors to determine favourableness. 135. According to Vroom and Jago, the leader's goal should be to a. use leader reward and punishment behaviour effectively. b. seek the best match between the leader's personality and the group. c. clarify the path to employee goal achievement. d. use persuasion and negotiation rather than formal power to achieve commitment. e. make high quality, acceptable decisions without undue delay.
Chapter 9 136. Research has found that employees who have the opportunity to participate in work-related decisions report more positive job satisfaction, higher performance, and organizational citizenship behaviour. These results are due in part to a positive effect on which of the following? a. Employee empowerment b. Trust in one's supervisor c. Employee self-confidence d. Employee empowerment and trust in one's supervisor e. Employee empowerment and employee self-confidence 137. In the Vroom and Jago situational model of participation, a "GII" strategy can be rather time consuming. a. True b. False 138. Celine, a middle manager, has to make a decision. Decision quality and employee commitment are not at issue, and Celine has good information about the problem. According to the Vroom and Jago model of participation, this is the time for a "CII" strategy. a. True b. False 139. In the Vroom and Jago situational model of participation, "C"-type decision strategies involve employees but do not give them final say over a decision. a. True b. False 140. The term "participative leadership" is restricted to cases in which a leader brings employees together in a group and allows them to make a decision with the leader's guidance. a. True b. False 141. The Vroom and Jago situational model of participation sometimes recommends that the leader make an autocratic decision. a. True b. False 142. The Vroom and Jago decision tree specifies the degree of __________ that a leader should use to make various work decisions.
143. In the Vroom and Jago leadership decision tree, "C" solutions are __________ solutions.
144. The Vroom and Jago decision tree shows the fastest approach possible that still maintains decision quality and __________ .
145. The fastest leader decision style in the Vroom and Jago decision tree is the __________ style.
146. In the Vroom and Jago decision tree, letting the group decide with the leader's guidance is a(n) __________ style.
Chapter 9 147. Which of the following is NOT a trait that might be investigated in leadership studies? a. Need for achievement b. Height c. Leader reward behaviour d. Self-confidence e. Emotional stability 148. A leader who stresses standard procedures, schedules the work to be done, and assigns subordinates to particular tasks is high on a. initiating structure. b. consideration. c. task structure. d. leader reward behaviour. e. supportive behaviour. 149. Research shows that consideration on the part of a leader a. is more effective for follower satisfaction than motivation. b. is more effective for follower satisfaction than leader effectiveness. c. is more effective for follower satisfaction than leader job performance. d. is more effective for leader job performance than group performance. e. is more effective for follower satisfaction than job satisfaction. 150. When did the most involved, systematic study of leadership behaviour take place? a. 1930s b. 1940s c. 1950s d. 1960s e. 1970s 151. Research on consideration and initiating structure has found that a. consideration is more strongly related to leader job performance, and initiating structure is more strongly related to group performance. b. initiating structure is more strongly related to leader job performance, and consideration is more strongly related to group performance. c. consideration is more strongly related to leader job performance and group performance. d. initiating structure is more strongly related to leader job performance and group performance. e. consideration and initiating structure are similarly related to leader job performance and group performance. 152. Compared to initiating structure, consideration is more strongly related to a. leader satisfaction, job satisfaction, and motivation. b. leader satisfaction, leader job performance, and group performance. c. leader satisfaction, job satisfaction, and leader job performance. d. leader job performance, job satisfaction, and motivation. e. job satisfaction, leader job performance, and group performance. 153. If you have a boss who provides you with compliments, tangible benefits, and special attention, then what kind of behaviour does your boss exhibit? a. Considerate leader behaviour b. Transactional leader behaviour c. Transformational leader behaviour d. Leader reward behaviour e. Participative leader behaviour
Chapter 9 154. Leader reward and punishment behaviours are related to employee attitudes and behaviours because they a. lead to more positive perceptions of justice and lower role conflict. b. lead to more positive perceptions of justice and lower stress. c. lead to more positive perceptions of justice and lower role ambiguity. d. lead to more positive perceptions of the leader and lower stress. e. lead to more positive perceptions of the leader and lower role ambiguity. 155. What is non-contingent punishment behaviour related to? a. Employee attitudes b. Role ambiguity c. Unfavourable outcomes d. Positive perceptions of justice e. Motivation 156. Leader reward and punishment behaviour lead to more positive perceptions of justice and lower role ambiguity. a. True b. False 157. Initiating structure is more strongly related to leader job performance and group performance than consideration. a. True b. False 158. Consideration and initiating structure both contribute positively to employees' motivation, job satisfaction, and leader effectiveness. a. True b. False 159. A leader who is high on initiating structure can also be high on consideration. a. True b. False 160. Consideration and initiating structure are incompatible. a. True b. False 161. Contingent leader reward behaviour is positively related to employees' perceptions, attitudes, and behaviour, while contingent leader punishment behaviour is negatively related. a. True b. False 162. Contingent leader punishment behaviour is positively related to employees' perceptions, attitudes, and behaviour, while non-contingent leader punishment behaviour is negatively related. a. True b. False 163. Leader punishment behaviour is ineffective regardless of whether it is contingent or non-contingent. a. True b. False
Chapter 9 164. A leader who is high on initiating structure cannot also be high on consideration and vice versa. a. True b. False 165. Leader reward and punishment behaviours are positively related to employee attitudes and behaviours because they lead to more positive perceptions of justice and lower role ambiguity. a. True b. False 166. Leader reward and punishment behaviours are positively related to employee attitudes and behaviours because they lead to more positive perceptions of justice and lower role conflict. a. True b. False 167.
__________ involves providing employees with compliments, tangible benefits, and deserved special treatment.
168. Leader reward and punishment behaviours are related to employee attitudes and behaviours because they lead to more positive perceptions of justice and lower __________ .
169. Initiation structure and __________ are not incompatible.
170. There is some evidence that the relative importance of consideration and initiating structure varies according to the nature of the leadership __________ .
171. Describe the main findings of the Ohio State University studies on leadership behaviour. What behaviours did they identify and what are their consequences?
172. If a leader was to engage in leader reward and leader punishment behaviour what would they be doing? What are the effects of leader reward and punishment behaviour on employees?
173. An especially effective transactional leader probably a. has charisma. b. rewards employees for good performance. c. provides individualized consideration. d. uses leader punishment behaviour extensively. e. uses intellectual stimulation extensively. 174. Transformational leadership is to transactional leadership as a. intelligence is to emotional intelligence. b. low LPC is to high LPC. c. charm is to charisma. d. change is to exchange. e. boss centred is to subordinate centred.
Chapter 9 175. Sonya needed to find a transformational leader to deal with the failing division. To shorten her search, she began by looking for someone with a. charisma. b. low LPC. c. an AI leadership style. d. a GII leadership style. e. low initiating structure. 176. What role does charisma play in transformational leadership? a. An emotional role b. An intellectual role c. A task role d. A legal role e. No role 177. Which of the following statements about charismatic leaders is least accurate? a. Their goals often have a moral or ideological character. b. They express confidence in their followers' capabilities. c. They tend to lack self-confidence and dominance. d. They can emerge in business as well as politics. e. They are usually good at transactional aspects of leadership as well. 178. Which of the following is an example of leader-member exchange theory? a. A leader who is concerned with accomplishing a task by organizing others b. A leader who is concerned with reducing tension and maintaining morale c. A leader who consults with employees about work-related matters d. A leader who is concerned about maintaining high-quality social exchange relationships e. A leader who provides employees with a new vision that instills true commitment 179. The focus of leader-member exchange theory is a. the favourableness of the situation for influence. b. the relationship between a leader and an employee. c. involving employees in making work-related decisions. d. forming a connection between employee goals and organizational goals. e. the extent to which a leader is approachable and shows personal concern for employees. 180. One of the things Jack really likes about his boss is that his boss monitors his behaviour, anticipates problems, and takes corrective actions before the behaviour creates serious problems. What is this called? a. Contingent reward behaviour b. Contingent punishment behaviour c. Management by exception d. Laissez-faire leadership e. Inspirational motivation 181. What does transactional leadership involve? a. Contingent reward and punishment behaviour b. Contingent reward behaviour and management by exception c. Management by exception and laissez-faire leadership d. Contingent reward behaviour and laissez-faire leadership e. Contingent punishment behaviour and laissez-faire leadership
Chapter 9 182. What do these leaders have in common: Herb Kelleher, Michael Eisner, and Steven Jobs? a. They are transactional leaders. b. They are transformational leaders. c. They are global leaders. d. They are ethical leaders. e. They are strategic leaders. 183. What are the key dimensions of transformational leadership? a. Intellectual stimulation, management by exception, individualized consideration, and charisma b. Contingent reward behaviour, management by exception, individualized consideration, and charisma c. Intellectual stimulation, individualized consideration, inspirational motivation, and charisma d. Individualized consideration, charisma, management by exception, and inspirational motivation e. Intellectual stimulation, individualized consideration, participation, and charisma 184. Cory thought all bosses were alike until he began a new job and his manager was interested in his concerns and needs, and was available to coach him when necessary. What is Cory's boss displaying? a. Consideration b. Participation c. Management by exception d. Intellectual stimulation e. Individualized consideration 185. What dimension of transformational leadership is also known as idealized influence? a. Intellectual stimulation b. Individualized consideration c. Inspirational motivation d. Charisma e. Management by exception 186. Comparisons between transformational leadership and contingent reward behaviour indicate that a. transformational leadership is more strongly related to follower satisfaction with the leader, and contingent reward behaviour is more strongly related to leader effectiveness. b. transformational leadership is more strongly related to follower satisfaction with the leader, and contingent reward behaviour is more strongly related to follower job satisfaction. c. transformational leadership is more strongly related to follower satisfaction, and contingent reward behaviour is more strongly related to follower satisfaction with the leader. d. transformational leadership is more strongly related to leader job performance, and contingent reward behaviour is more strongly related to leader effectiveness. e. transformational leadership is more strongly related to follower job satisfaction, and contingent reward behaviour is more strongly related to leader job performance. 187. What leadership theory is social exchange theory associated with? a. Transformational leadership b. Leader-member exchange (LMX) c. Transactional leadership d. Servant leadership e. Authentic leadership
Chapter 9 188. What leadership theory involves a social exchange relationship-based approach to leadership? a. Transformational leadership b. Leader-member exchange (LMX) c. Transactional leadership d. Servant leadership e. Authentic leadership 189. You are surprised to discover that your new boss is very concerned about developing a good relationship with you and your co-workers. What does this tell you about their leadership style? a. They are a transformational leader. b. They are a high LMX leader. c. They are a transactional leader. d. They are a servant leader. e. They are an authentic leader. 190. How is LMX theory different from other theories of leadership? a. It focuses on the relationship that develops between a leader and an employee. b. It focuses on the exchange relationship between the leader and followers. c. It focuses on providing followers with a new vision that instills true commitment. d. It focuses on implementing conditions that enable power to be shared with employees. e. It focuses on going beyond one's own self-interests and having a genuine concern to serve others and a motivation to lead. 191. Which of the following best describes transactional leadership? a. It focuses on the relationship that develops between a leader and an employee. b. It focuses on the exchange relationship between the leader and followers. c. It focuses on providing followers with a new vision that instills true commitment. d. It focuses on implementing conditions that enable power to be shared with employees. e. It focuses on going beyond one's own self-interests and having a genuine concern to serve others and a motivation to lead. 192. Which of the following best describes transformational leadership? a. It focuses on the relationship that develops between a leader and an employee. b. It focuses on the exchange relationship between the leader and followers. c. It focuses on providing followers with a new vision that instills true commitment. d. It focuses on implementing conditions that enable power to be shared with employees. e. It focuses on going beyond one's own self-interests and having a genuine concern to serve others and a motivation to lead. 193. What has charismatic leadership been found to be strongly related to? a. Follower organizational citizenship behaviour b. Follower performance c. Follower satisfaction d. Follower commitment e. Follower motivation 194. Research on transformational leadership has found that a. the best leaders are transformational. b. the best leaders are transactional. c. the best leaders are transformational and transactional. d. the best leaders are transformational but not transactional. e. the best leaders are transactional but not transformational.
Chapter 9 195. The variability in the quality of LMX relationships between members of the same workgroup is called a. LMX variability. b. LMX differences. c. LMX distance. d. LMX differentiation. e. LMX divergence. 196. What does LMX differentiation refer to? a. Variability in the quality of LMX relationships between leaders of the same organization b. Variability in the quality of LMX relationships between members of the same workgroup c. Variability in the quality of LMX relationships between individuals in the same organization d. Variability in the quality of LMX relationships between members of different organizations e. Variability in the quality of LMX relationships between leaders of different organizations 197. What is the reason for the relationship between LMX and performance and OCB? a. Lower levels of role ambiguity b. Higher levels of fairness c. Lower levels of role conflict d. Higher levels of trust e. Higher levels of support 198. What can greater LMX differentiation be detrimental to? a. Group harmony and processes b. Group trust and loyalty c. Group trust and dynamics d. Group trust and processes e. Group harmony and commitment 199. What does LMXD refer to? a. Leader-member exchange variability b. Leader-member exchange differences c. Leader-member exchange distance d. Leader-member exchange differentiation e. Leader-member exchange divergence 200. When is the negative relationship between LMX differentiation and group effectiveness most likely? a. When the reason for LMX differentiation is based on a leader's personal respect of group members) b. When the reason for LMX differentiation is based on a leader's personal trust of group members c. When the reason for LMX differentiation is based on a leader's personal disappointment with the performance of group members d. When the reason for LMX differentiation is based on a leader's personal liking of group members e. When the reason for LMX differentiation is based on a leader's personal conflict with group members 201. When is LMX differentiation positively related to group effectiveness? a. When it is based on group members' performance b. When it is based on group performance c. When it is based on personal liking of group members d. When it is based on trust e. When it is based on respect
Chapter 9 202. What does the effect of LMX differentiation on group effectiveness depend on? a. How a leader communicates with group members b. How a leader relates to group members c. How a leader works with group members d. How a leader differentiates group members e. How much time a leader spends with group members 203. What is the most common style of leadership? a. Leader-member exchange b. Transactional leadership c. Transformational leadership d. Participative leadership e. Directive leadership 204. Describe the potential advantages and problems associated with participative leadership.
205. What is participative leadership and is it effective? In other words, what are the potential advantages and disadvantages of participative leadership for employees and leaders?
206. What are the two forms of management by exception? a. Management by exception-individual and management by exception-group b. Management by exception-reward and management by exception-punishment c. Management by exception-internal and management by exception-external d. Management by exception-formal and management by exception-informal e. Management by exception-active and management by exception-passive 207. What does management by exception-active involve? a. Routinely monitoring the behaviour of followers and actively searching for and correcting deviations from the norm as they happen b. Routinely monitoring the behaviour of followers and correcting deviations before they occur c. Occasionally monitoring the behaviour of followers and actively searching for and correcting deviations from the norm as they happen d. Routinely monitoring the behaviour of followers and actively searching for and observing deviations from the norm as they happen e. Routinely monitoring the behaviour of followers and passively searching for and correcting deviations from the norm as they happen 208. What does management by exception-passive involve? a. Routinely monitoring for mistakes and correcting them as they occur b. Routinely monitoring for mistakes and making note of them when they occur c. Correcting mistakes as they occur d. Correcting mistakes only after they have occurred e. Correcting mistakes before they have occurred 209. Research has found that transactional leadership is a. positively related to task performance but not contextual performance. b. positively related to task performance and contextual performance. c. positively related to contextual performance but not task performance. d. positively related to task performance and negatively related to contextual performance. e. positively related to contextual performance and negatively related to task performance.
Chapter 9 210. What is the reason for the relationship between transactional leadership and task and contextual performance? a. Management by exception-active and management by exception-passive b. Contingent reward behaviour and management by exception-active c. Management by exception-passive d. Management by exception-active e. Contingent reward behaviour 211. Transactional leadership has been found to be the most consistent predictor of effective leadership. a. True b. False 212. CEO transformational leadership is related to organizational performance, especially in large organizations. a. True b. False 213. Charismatic leadership has been found to be strongly related to follower satisfaction and leadership effectiveness. a. True b. False 214. Individualized consideration contributes to the "new vision" aspect of transformational leadership. a. True b. False 215. Transformational leadership is leadership that is based on a fairly straightforward exchange between the leader and the followers. a. True b. False 216. Transactional leadership behaviour involves contingent reward behaviour and management by exception. a. True b. False 217. Transactional leadership behaviour involves contingent reward behaviour and laissez-faire leadership. a. True b. False 218. One negative aspect of charismatic leaders is that they invariably damage the self-esteem of followers. a. True b. False 219. Leader member exchange theory focuses on the quality of the relationship that develops between a leader and an employee. a. True b. False 220. Social exchange theory helps to explain the effects of transactional leadership. a. True b. False
Chapter 9 221. LMX differentiation has to do with the variability in the quality of LMX relationships between members of the same workgroup. a. True b. False 222. LMX differentiation has to do with the variability in the quality of LMX relationships between leaders in an organization. a. True b. False 223. The relationship between LMX and performance and OCB is primarily due to greater levels of support. a. True b. False 224. The relationship between LMX and performance and OCB is primarily due to greater levels of trust. a. True b. False 225. There is some evidence that LMX differentiation can be detrimental to group harmony and processes, which can be harmful to group performance. a. True b. False 226. Transactional leadership is the most common style of leadership in organizations. a. True b. False 227. Transformational leadership is the most common style of leadership in organizations. a. True b. False 228. The effect of LMX differentiation on group effectiveness depends on how a leader differentiates group members. a. True b. False 229. The effect of LMX differentiation on group effectiveness depends on how a leader communicates with group members. a. True b. False 230. The negative effect of LMX differentiation on group effectiveness is especially likely when the reason for LMX differentiation is based on a leader's personal liking of group members. a. True b. False 231. The negative effect of LMX differentiation on group effectiveness is especially likely when the reason for LMX differentiation is based on the performance of group members. a. True b. False
Chapter 9 232. When LMX differentiation is based on group members' performance, it is positively related to group effectiveness. a. True b. False 233. When LMX differentiation is based on the leader's personal liking of group members, it is positively related to group effectiveness. a. True b. False 234. Transactional leadership is positively related to follower task performance and contextual performance. a. True b. False 235. Transactional leadership is positively related to follower task performance but not contextual performance. a. True b. False 236. The positive relationship between transactional leadership and follower task performance and contextual performance is primarily due to contingent reward behaviour. a. True b. False 237. The positive relationship between transactional leadership and follower task performance and contextual performance is primarily due to management by exception. a. True b. False 238. The two forms of management by exception are management by exception-active and management by exception-passive. a. True b. False 239. The two forms of management by exception are management by exception-formal and management by exception-informal. a. True b. False 240. If Yiming's boss is routinely monitoring the behaviour of followers and actively searching for and correcting deviations from the norm as they happen then the boss is engaged in management by exception-active. a. True b. False 241. If Yiming's boss is routinely monitoring the behaviour of followers and actively searching for and making notes of deviations from the norm as they happen then the boss is engaged in management by exceptionactive. a. True b. False 242. If Yiming's boss is correcting mistakes only after they have occurred then the boss is engaged in management by exception-passive. a. True b. False
Chapter 9 243. If Yiming's boss is correcting mistakes as they occur then the boss is engaged in management by exceptionpassive. a. True b. False 244.
__________ is the degree to which the leader takes corrective action on the basis of results of leaderfollower transactions.
245. The most important component of transformational leadership is __________ .
246. Transformational leaders exhibit consideration for employees, but it is __________ consideration.
247. The __________ leader decisively changes the beliefs and attitudes of followers to correspond to their new vision.
248. The focus of leader-member exchange theory is the __________ of the relationship that develops between a leader and an employee.
249. LMX theory is a __________ exchange relationship-based approach to leadership.
250. The basis for the effects of LMX is __________ theory.
251. Overall, research indicates that the best leaders are both transformational and __________ .
252. The variability in the quality of LMX relationships between members of the same workgroup is known as LMX __________ .
253. The relationship between LMX and performance and OCB is primarily due to greater levels of __________ .
254. Greater LMX __________ can be detrimental to group harmony and processes.
255.
__________ leadership is the most common style of leadership in organizations.
256. LMXD refers to __________ .
Chapter 9 257. The negative effect of LMX differentiation on group effectiveness is especially likely when the reason for LMX differentiation is based on the leader's personal __________ of group members.
258. When LMX differentiation is based on group members' __________ , it is positively related to group effectiveness.
259. The effect of LMX differentiation on group effectiveness depends on how a leader __________ group members.
260. Research on transactional leadership has found that it is positively related to follower task performance and contextual performance, and this is mostly due to _______
261. The two forms of management by exception are management by exception- __________ and management by exception- __________ .
262.
Describe the differences between transactional and transformational leadership.
263.
Describe leader-member exchange (LMX) theory and discuss the role that social exchange theory plays in explaining the effects of LMX.
264. Define transformational leadership and describe the four key dimensions of transformational leader behaviour. Is transformational leadership an effective style of leadership? Discuss the results of research to support your answer.
265. Authentic leadership consists of four related but distinct dimensions. They are all of the following EXCEPT a. self-awareness. b. relational transparency. c. balanced processing. d. internalized moral perspective. e. independent rationalization. 266. When an executive acts upon their true values, beliefs, and strengths, and they help others do the same, they are practising a. empowering leadership. b. authentic leadership. c. ethical leadership. d. transformational leadership. e. individualized consideration.
Chapter 9 267. If an authentic leader is participating in an objective analysis of a situation and considering others' different points of view before making their decision, they are engaging in a. relational transparency. b. balanced processing. c. self-serving bias. d. internalized moral perspective. e. cognitive restraint. 268. If an authentic leader is presenting their true or authentic self to others and is open with their sharing of their real feelings and thoughts, they are practising a. emotional adjustment. b. balanced processing. c. external processing. d. internalized moral perspective. e. relational transparency. 269. The experience of psychological empowerment that employees with empowering leaders experience includes all of the following EXCEPT for a. meaning. b. competence. c. self-leadership. d. self-determination. e. impact. 270. What leadership theory emphasizes self-awareness? a. Transformational leadership b. Strategic leadership c. Global leadership d. Ethical leadership e. Authentic leadership 271. Maple Leaf Foods CEO Michael McCain is a good example of a. transformational leadership. b. ethical leadership. c. strategic leadership d. global leadership. e. authentic leadership. 272. Soon after starting a new job, Lilli was pleased and surprised to learn that her new boss was concerned about her needs and well-being. What does this say about Lilli's boss? a. Her boss is an empowering leader. b. Her boss is an authentic leader. c. Her boss is a transformational leader. d. Her boss is an ethical leader. e. Her boss is a servant leader. 273. The relationship between ethical leadership and employee work outcomes is due to a. fairness of the leader. b. support of the leader. c. trust in the leader. d. respect for the leader. e. trust and support in employees.
Chapter 9 274. Which of the following leaders is a good example of an authentic leader? a. Michael McCain b. Paulette Senior c. Rania Llewellyn d. Catherine Tait e. Linda Hasenfratz 275. Which of the following best describes servant leadership? a. It focuses on the relationship that develops between a leader and an employee. b. It focuses on the exchange relationship between the leader and followers. c. It focuses on providing followers with a new vision that instills true commitment. d. It focuses on implementing conditions that enable power to be shared with employees. e. It focuses on going beyond one's own self-interests and having a genuine concern to serve others and a motivation to lead. 276. Which of the following best describes empowering leadership? a. It focuses on the relationship that develops between a leader and an employee. b. It focuses on the exchange relationship between the leader and followers. c. It focuses on providing followers with a new vision that instills true commitment. d. It focuses on implementing conditions that enable power to be shared with employees. e. It focuses on going beyond one's own self-interests and having a genuine concern to serve others and a motivation to lead. 277. What do employees who have empowering leaders experience? a. A state of psychological fulfillment b. A state of psychological commitment c. A state of psychological empowerment d. A state of psychological motivation e. A state of psychological control 278. The Stinky Cheese Company has sent all of its managers to a training program so that they learn how to engage in a new style of leadership that will help employees experience meaning, competence, selfdetermination, and impact. What kind of leaders will they be? a. Transformational b. Servant c. Empowering d. Authentic e. High LMX 279. The Stinky Cheese Company has sent all of its managers to a training program so that they learn how to engage in a new style of leadership that involves the demonstration of normatively appropriate conduct through personal actions and interpersonal relationships. What kind of leaders will they be? a. Transformational b. Servant c. Empowering d. Authentic e. Ethical
Chapter 9 280. Which of the following is NOT associated with the state of psychological empowerment? a. Meaning b. Competence c. Self-determination d. Impact e. Responsibility 281. Which of the following best represents the state of psychological empowerment that stems from empowering leadership? a. Meaning, competence, responsibility, and self-determination b. Meaning, competence, self-determination, and impact c. Self-awareness, meaning, competence, and self-determination d. Self-awareness, responsibility, meaning, and competence e. Self-awareness, responsibility, meaning, and impact 282. Ethical leadership is likely to have the greatest effect on employees when it comes from a. the CEO. b. the immediate supervisor. c. middle management. d. senior management. e. human resource management. 283. What type of leadership has been found to be positively related to the psychological capital of work groups? a. Transformational b. High LMX c. Empowering d. Servant e. Authentic 284. The new CEO of the Bouncy Ball Toy Company gave a speech to the company's employees and the first thing that the CEO said was: "I want to serve first and lead second." What kind of leader is she? a. Transformational b. Ethical c. Empowering d. Servant e. Authentic 285. Which of the following best represents a servant leader? a. Serve first and lead second b. Lead first and serve second c. Serve first and motivate second d. Serve first and influence second e. Influence first and serve second 286. The term "servant leadership" was first coined by a. Fred Fiedler. b. Robert House. c. Victor Vroom. d. Bernard Bass. e. Robert Greenleaf.
Chapter 9 287. Robert Greenleaf is credited with coining the phrase a. authentic leadership. b. ethical leadership. c. transformational leadership. d. servant leadership. e. empowering leadership. 288. Which of the following is NOT one of the key characteristics of servant leader behaviour? a. Empowering and developing people b. Savvy c. Humility d. Authenticity e. Providing direction 289. Which of the following is NOT one of the key characteristics of servant leader behaviour? a. Empowering and developing people b. Personal character c. Stewardship d. Authenticity e. Providing direction 290. Charisma is also known as stylized influence. a. True b. False 291. Transformational leaders are not very good transactional leaders. a. True b. False 292. Charisma is also known as idealized influence. a. True b. False 293. Charisma is a critical characteristic of transformational leaders. a. True b. False 294. Charismatic leaders are dominant and self-confident. a. True b. False 295. The best leaders are both transformational and transactional. a. True b. False 296. The basis for the effects of LMX is social exchange theory. a. True b. False 297. The norm of reciprocity is associated with social exchange theory. a. True b. False
Chapter 9 298. LMX differentiation can be detrimental to group harmony and processes. a. True b. False 299. LMX differentiation can be helpful to group harmony and processes. a. True b. False 300. The positive outcomes of LMX generalize across cultures. a. True b. False 301. The positive outcomes of LMX do not generalize across cultures. a. True b. False 302. LMXD refers to leader-member exchange differentiation. a. True b. False 303. LMXD refers to leader-member exchange diversity. a. True b. False 304. Besides authentic leadership, what other type of leadership is authenticity associated with? a. Empowering leadership b. Ethical leadership c. Global leadership d. Servant leadership e. Transformational leadership 305. Besides empowering leadership, what other type of leadership is empowerment associated with? a. Authentic leadership b. Ethical leadership c. Global leadership d. Servant leadership e. Transformational leadership 306. What type of leadership is stewardship associated with? a. Authentic leadership b. Ethical leadership c. Global leadership d. Servant leadership e. Transformational leadership 307. What type of leadership is humility associated with? a. Authentic leadership b. Ethical leadership c. Global leadership d. Servant leadership e. Transformational leadership
Chapter 9 308. The new CEO of the Bouncy Ball Toy Company said: "The needs of my followers and their well-being are what is most important to me." What kind of leader is the CEO of the Bouncy Ball Company? a. Authentic leader b. Ethical leader c. High LMX leader d. Servant leader e. Transformational leader 309. What type of leadership has been found to be associated with service performance behaviours in a study of hairstylists in a Chinese chain of hair salons? a. Authentic leadership b. Ethical leadership c. Charismatic leadership d. Servant leadership e. Empowering leadership 310. What type of leadership focuses on leader behaviours and interpersonal dynamics that increase followers' confidence and result in positive outcomes, beyond task compliance, such as motivating followers to go beyond expectations, positive self-development, and prosocial beahviours? a. Transactional leadership b. LMX leadership c. Positive leadership d. Participative leadership e. Developmental leadership 311. Which one of the following is NOT an example of positive leadership? a. Empowering leadership b. LMX leadership c. Ethical leadership d. Servant leadership e. Authentic leadership 312. The positive relationship between ethical leadership and work outcomes is for a. normative-focused ethical leadership. b. prevention-focused ethical leadership. c. promotion-focused ethical leadership. d. behaviour-focused ethical leadership. e. reward-focused ethical leadership. 313. What are the two forms of ethical leadership? a. Normative-focused and prevention-focused. b. Promotion-focused and prevention-focused. c. Promotion-focused and normative-focused d. Behaviour-focused and promotion-focused. e. Reward-focused and prevention-focused.
Chapter 9 314. Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding the relationship between ethical leadership and work outcomes? a. Promotion-focused ethical leadership is positively related to work outcomes and prevention-focused ethical leadership is negatively related to work outcomes. b. Promotion-focused ethical leadership and prevention-focused ethical leadership are positively related to work outcomes. c. Promotion-focused ethical leadership is positively related to work outcomes and prevention-focused ethical leadership is not related to work outcomes. d. Promotion-focused ethical leadership is negatively related to work outcomes and prevention-focused ethical leadership is positively related to work outcomes. e. Prevention-focused ethical leadership is positively related to work outcomes and promotion-focused ethical leadership is not related to work outcomes. 315. The encouragement of normatively appropriate behaviour is called a. normative-focused ethical leadership. b. promotion-focused ethical leadership. c. prevention-focused ethical leadership. d. behaviour-focused ethical leadership. e. reward-focused ethical leadership. 316. The discouragement of normatively inappropriate behaviour is called a. normative-focused ethical leadership. b. promotion-focused ethical leadership. c. prevention-focused ethical leadership. d. behaviour-focused ethical leadership. e. punishment-focused ethical leadership. 317. What is an ethical organizational climate? a. Employee perceptions about ethical policies, practices, and procedures in formal organizational systems b. Shared perceptions that employees have about the organization's policies, practices, and procedures in formal organizational systems c. Shared perceptions that employees have about policies, practices, and procedures regarding the appropriate climate for the organization d. Shared perceptions that employees have about ethical policies, practices, and procedures in formal organizational systems e. The organization's ethical guidelines and policies regarding normatively appropriate behaviour in the organization 318. Maple Leaf Foods CEO Michael McCain is a good example of a global leader. a. True b. False 319. Empowering leadership is a response to changes in organizations that have made them flatter, more flexible, and less bureaucratic. a. True b. False 320. Servant leadership is a response to changes in organizations that have made them flatter, more flexible, and less bureaucratic. a. True b. False
Chapter 9 321. The experience of meaning, competence, self-determination, and impact is associated with empowering leadership. a. True b. False 322. If your new boss makes you experience meaning, competence, self-determination, and impact, then they are probably an empowering leader. a. True b. False 323. If your new boss makes you experience meaning, competence, self-determination, and impact then they are probably a servant leader. a. True b. False 324. Michael McCain of Maple Leaf Foods is a good example of a servant leader. a. True b. False 325. Authentic leadership has been found to be positively related to the psychological capital of work groups in a large bank. a. True b. False 326. Empowering leadership has been found to be positively related to the psychological capital of work groups in a large bank. a. True b. False 327. The phrase "servant leadership" was coined by Bernard Bass. a. True b. False 328. The phrase "servant leadership" was coined by Robert Greenleaf. a. True b. False 329. Humility and stewardship are associated with servant leadership. a. True b. False 330. Humility and self-awareness are associated with authentic leadership. a. True b. False 331. Providing direction is a characteristic of servant leadership. a. True b. False
Chapter 9 332. A study of hairstylists in a Chinese chain of hair salons found that salon managers' servant leadership was positively related to stylists' service performance behaviours. a. True b. False 333. A study of hairstylists in a Chinese chain of hair salons found that salon managers' empowering leadership was positively related to stylists' service performance behaviours. a. True b. False 334. There has been a 36 percent rise in turnover due to ethical lapses over the past four years. a. True b. False 335. There has been a 56 percent rise in turnover due to ethical lapses over the past four years. a. True b. False 336. Ethical leadership behaviour is positively related to employees' psychological well-being. a. True b. False 337. The relationship between ethical leadership and positive work outcomes is due to trust in the leader. a. True b. False 338. The relationship between ethical leadership and positive work outcomes is due to faith in the leader. a. True b. False 339. The extent to which an organization has an ethical organizational climate is influenced by ethical leadership. a. True b. False 340. Ethical leadership on the part of the immediate supervisor is likely to have the greatest effect on employees. a. True b. False 341. Ethical leadership on the part of senior management is likely to have the greatest effect on employees. a. True b. False 342. Promotion-focused ethical leadership is positively related to work outcomes. a. True b. False 343. Prevention-focused ethical leadership is positively related to work outcomes. a. True b. False
Chapter 9 344. Prevention-focused ethical leadership is negatively related to work outcomes. a. True b. False 345. Promotion-focused ethical leadership is positively related to work outcomes and prevention-focused ethical leadership is negativley related to work outcomes. a. True b. False 346. Promotion-focused and prevention-focused ethical leadership are positively related to work outcomes. a. True b. False 347. Authentic leadership comprises four main dimensions: self-awareness, relational transparency, balanced processing, and ________ .
348. With empowering leadership, employees experience a state of __________ empowerment.
349. The state of psychological empowerment consists of meaning, competence, self-determination, and __________ .
350.
__________ leadership has been found to have a positive effect on the psychological capital of work groups in a large bank.
351. A servant leader is somebody who wants to __________ first and lead second.
352.
__________ leadership is a form of leadership that involves going beyond one's own self-interests and having a genuine concern to serve others and a motivation to lead.
353. The focus of __________ leadership is a concern for the needs of followers and their well-being.
354. After becoming the CEO of a large financial company, the CEO told a journalist, "Humility and stewardship are important components of my leadership style because I am a(n) __________ leader."
355. A study of hairstylists in a Chinese chain of hair salons found that salon managers' __________ leadership was positively related to stylists' service performance behaviours.
356.
__________ leadership focuses on leader behaviours and interpersonal dynamics that increase followers' confidence and result in positive outcomes, beyond task compliance.
Chapter 9 357.
__________ ethical leadership is positively related to work outcomes.
358.
__________ ethical leadership is negatively related to work outcomes.
359.
__________ ethical leadership involves the encouragement of normatively appropriate behaviour.
360.
__________ ethical leadership involves the discouragement of normatively inappropriate behaviour.
361. Ethical leadership on the part of the __________ is likely to have the greatest effect on employees.
362. Define and describe authentic leadership. What are its four related dimensions (please provide an example of each dimension).
363. What is ethical leadership and an ethical organizational climate and what should a leader do to develop an ethical climate?
364. Your organization has just made a number of structural changes that have made the organization flatter, more flexible, and less bureaucratic. As a result, employees will have more autonomy and responsibility in how they perform their jobs. The organization realizes that the style of leadership must now also change but they are not sure how. Describe the type of leadership that you feel will be most effective and explain why.
365. Describe empowering leadership and explain the effect it has on employees.
366. Maria has just been promoted to a leadership position in her organization, something that she has always dreamed of. However, she promised herself that if she were to become a leader she would not be like other leaders. She would be a leader that is concerned about her employees and their well-being. However, Maria is not exactly sure what to call this style of leadership and what exactly it should involve. What would you tell Maria about the style of leadership she is thinking about and what it should involve in terms of style and behaviour?
367. Describe servant leadership and discuss the six key characteristics of servant leader behaviour.
368. A review of research on gender differences in perceptions of leadership effectiveness found there are a. no differences. b. big differences. c. some differences in all situations. d. some differences in certain situations. e. differences that favour men in all situations.
Chapter 9 369. Which of the following statements is the most appropriate statement concerning leadership styles? a. Men and women rely on exactly similar leadership styles. b. Women tend towards a more participative leadership style than men. c. Men have less freedom in choosing the leadership style appropriate to the situation. d. Women tend towards a more autocratic leadership style than men. e. None of the above. 370. Research on the leadership styles of men and women has found that a. male leaders were more transformational than women, and women engaged in more of the contingent reward behaviours of transactional leadership. b. female leaders were more transformational than men, and men engaged in more of the contingent reward behaviours of transactional leadership. c. male leaders were more transformational than women and also engaged in more of the contingent reward behaviours of transactional leadership. d. female leaders were more transformational than men and also engaged in more of the contingent reward behaviours of transactional leadership. e. female leaders were more transformational than men and also engaged in more of a laissez-faire style of leadership. 371. What is laissez-faire leadership? a. Leaders who are lazy b. Leadership styles in foreign countries c. The avoidance or absence of leadership d. A relaxed and fair-minded style of leadership e. An open and participative style of leadership 372. What is an implicit leadership theory? a. A theory of leadership that has its basis in one's actual work experiences b. Individuals hold theories of leadership that are based on common sense and their own observations and perceptions. c. Individuals hold a set of beliefs about the kinds of attributes, personality characteristics, skills, and behaviours that contribute to or impede outstanding leadership. d. A theory of leadership that integrates aspects of the various theories of leadership e. A theory of leadership based on common sense and people's own experience as leaders 373. Jack and Clarice have just begun work at ACME Insurance Co. They work for different managers, and they have different ideas about what makes someone a good leader. Jack does not respond well to his manager and does not want to accept the manager as his leader. Clarice responds very well to her manager and believes her manager has the qualities of a good leader. What does this demonstrate? a. Cultural differences in leadership b. Implicit leadership theory c. Ethical leadership d. Gender differences in leadership e. Situational theories of leadership 374. What is the meaning of a culturally endorsed implicit leadership theory? a. Theories of leadership that are acceptable in common cultures b. Theories of leadership that are specific to common cultures c. Belief systems about the characteristics associated with leadership that are shared among individuals in different cultures d. Belief systems about the characteristics associated with leadership that are shared among individuals in common cultures e. Belief systems about leadership theories that are shared among individuals in common cultures
Chapter 9 375. All of the following are global leadership dimensions from the GLOBE project EXCEPT the a. charismatic/value-based leadership dimension. b. team-oriented leadership dimension. c. participative leadership dimension. d. task-oriented leadership dimension. e. humane-oriented leadership dimension. 376. Compared to other culture clusters, what global leadership dimensions does Canada and the United States score high on? a. Charismatic/value-based, participative, and autonomous b. Participative, autonomous, and self-protective c. Participative, team-oriented, and humane-oriented d. Charismatic/value-based, participative, and humane-oriented e. Self-protective, team-oriented, and autonomous 377. Compared to other culture clusters, what global leadership dimension does Canada and the United States score low on? a. Charismatic/value-based b. Self-protective c. Team-oriented d. Humane-oriented e. Participative 378. How many societal cultures were included in the GLOBE research project? a. 24 b. 36 c. 58 d. 62 e. 85 379. On what culture dimensions do Canada and the United States score medium on? a. Charismatic/value-based and participative b. Charismatic/value based and humane-oriented c. Self-protective and team-oriented d. Team-oriented and autonomous e. Team-oriented and participative 380. Research conducted by the GLOBE project found many attributes to be universally desirable and believed to facilitate outstanding leadership in all countries. a. True b. False 381. Some leadership attributes are effective in some cultures but are either ineffective or even dysfunctional in others. a. True b. False 382. Research conducted by the GLOBE project found that the ten culture clusters differ significantly on all six of the global leadership dimensions. a. True b. False
Chapter 9 383. Canada and the United States score high on charismatic/value-based, participative, and humane-oriented dimensions of the GLOBE project. a. True b. False 384. Canada and the United States score high on charismatic/value-based, participative, and autonomous dimensions of the GLOBE project. a. True b. False 385. Canada and the United States score medium on the team-oriented and participative dimensions of the GLOBE project. a. True b. False 386. Canada and the United States score medium on the team-oriented and autonomous dimensions of the GLOBE project. a. True b. False 387. According to __________ theory, individuals hold a set of beliefs about the kinds of attributes, personality characteristics, skills, and behaviours that contribute to or impede outstanding leadership.
388. The global leadership dimension from the GLOBE project that focuses on ensuring the safety and security of the individual is known as __________ .
389. Servant leaders want to lead first and serve second. a. True b. False 390. Servant leaders want to serve first and lead second. a. True b. False 391. Empowerment is a characteristic of servant leadership. a. True b. False 392. Authenticity is a characteristic of servant leadership. a. True b. False 393. Canada and the United States score low on the team-oriented dimension of the GLOBE project. a. True b. False 394. Canada and the United States score low on the self-protective dimensions of the GLOBE project. a. True b. False
Chapter 9 395. The global leadership dimension from the GLOBE project known as __________ refers to independent and individualistic leadership.
396. What is a culturally endorsed implicit leadership theory? Describe the six global leadership dimensions identified by the GLOBE project.
397. Sasha is interested in international business and is planning on working around the world when he graduates from university. He is especially interested in being a leader and strongly believes that he has what it takes to be an outstanding leader anywhere in the world. In other words, he feels that with his leadership attributes, he will be a successful leader no matter what country or culture he is working in. Do you agree with Sasha? What should you tell him about the leadership attributes required for outstanding leadership across cultures?
398. What is the metaphor suggested by Alice Eagly and Linda Carli to explain why women hold so few senior leadership positions in organizations? a. The glass ceiling b. A labyrinth c. A detour d. A dead end e. An endless road 399. Which of the following best represents the traits of men and women? a. Men are perceived as having more communal traits, and women are perceived as having more agentic traits. b. Women are perceived as having more communal traits, and men are perceived as having more agentic traits. c. Men and women are perceived as having the same number of communal traits, but men are perceived as having more agentic traits. d. Men and women are perceived as having the same number of communal traits, but women are perceived as having more agentic traits. e. Men and women are perceived as having the same number of agentic traits, but women are perceived as having more communal traits. 400. A review of 95 studies on gender differences in perceptions of leadership effectiveness found that a. men are perceived as more effective in all organizations. b. women are perceived as more effective in all organizations. c. there are no differences between men and women in any organization. d. men are perceived as more effective in government organizations. e. women are perceived as more effective in government organizations. 401. A review of 95 studies on gender differences in perceptions of leadership effectiveness found that a. men are perceived as more effective in all organizations. b. women are perceived as more effective in all organizations. c. there are no differences between men and women in any organization. d. men are perceived as more effective in education organizations. e. women are perceived as more effective in education organizations.
Chapter 9 402. A review of 95 studies on gender differences in perceptions of leadership effectiveness found that a. men are perceived as more effective in middle management positions. b. women are perceived as more effective in middle management positions. c. there are no differences between men and women in any position. d. men are perceived as more effective in senior management positions. e. women are perceived as more effective in senior management positions. 403. A review of 95 studies on gender differences in perceptions of leadership effectiveness found that a. men were rated as more effective when the ratings were made by peers. b. men were rated as more effective when the ratings were made by their bosses. c. men were rated as more effective when the ratings were made by subordinates. d. men were rated as more effective when the ratings were made by themselves. e. there were no differences between men and women. 404. What theory suggests that prejudice against female leaders is the result of a difference between the perceived characteristics of women and the perceived requirements of leadership? a. Leader categorization theory b. Role congruity theory c. Implicit leadership theory d. Contingency theory e. Social exchange theory 405. During the COVID-19 pandemic, what percent of new CEOs chosen by the largest companies in the world were women? a. 3 percent b. 5 percent c. 7 percent d. 10 percent e. 15 percent 406. The invisible barrier that prevents women from advancing to senior leadership positions in organizations is called a(n) a. brick wall. b. stone ceiling. c. glass fence. d. glass ceiling. e. invisible ceiling. 407. Female leaders have been found to be more transformational than male leaders. a. True b. False 408. Men are perceived as having agentic traits and women are perceived as having communal traits. a. True b. False 409. Women are perceived as having agentic traits and men are perceived as having communal traits. a. True b. False
Chapter 9 410. Research on gender differences in perceptions of leadership effectiveness found no differences between men and women. a. True b. False 411. Research on gender differences in perceptions of leadership effectiveness found that there are some differences in certain situations. a. True b. False 412. Research on gender differences in perceptions of leadership effectiveness found that men are perceived as more effective in education organizations. a. True b. False 413. Research on gender differences in perceptions of leadership effectiveness found that women are perceived as more effective in middle management positions. a. True b. False 414. Research on gender differences in perceptions of leadership effectiveness found that men are perceived as more effective in middle management positions. a. True b. False 415. Research on gender differences in perceptions of leadership effectiveness found that men are perceived as more effective when the ratings of effectiveness are made by their peers and bosses. a. True b. False 416. Research on gender differences in perceptions of leadership effectiveness found that women are perceived as more effective when the ratings of effectiveness are made by their peers and bosses. a. True b. False 417. According to role congruity theory, prejudice against female leaders is the result of a preference for male leaders. a. True b. False 418. According to role congruity theory, prejudice against female leaders is the result of a difference between the perceived characteristics of women and the perceived requirements of leadership roles. a. True b. False 419. During the COVID-19 pandemic, 3 percent of new CEOs chosen by the largest companies in the world were women. a. True b. False
Chapter 9 420. During the COVID-19 pandemic, 6 percent of new CEOs chosen by the largest companies in the world were women. a. True b. False 421. In Canada, women currently hold 36 percent of senior leadership roles and 26 percent of CEO positions. a. True b. False 422. In Canada, women currently hold 26 percent of senior leadership roles and 36 percent of CEO positions. a. True b. False 423. Men engage in more __________ leadership than women.
424. Female leaders have been found to be more __________ than male leaders.
425. Female leaders tend to have a more __________ leadership style than male leaders.
426. For decades, the __________ has been the metaphor that has described the invisible barrier to women's advancement to senior leadership positions in organizations.
427. For many years, the glass ceiling metaphor was used to describe the invisible barrier to women's advancement to senior leadership positions in organizations. Recently, a new and likely more accurate metaphor is a(n) __________ because of the many twists, turns, detours, and dead ends that women encounter.
428. Research on gender differences in perceptions of leadership effectiveness found that men are perceived as more effective in organizations that are masculine and __________ dominated.
429. Research on gender differences in perceptions of leadership effectiveness found that women are perceived as more effective in __________ management positions.
430. Research on gender differences in perceptions of leadership effectiveness found that women are rated more effective when the ratings of effectiveness are made by __________ .
431. Research on gender differences in perceptions of leadership effectiveness found that men are rated more effective when the ratings of effectiveness are made by __________ .
Chapter 9 432. According to role __________ theory, prejudice against female leaders is the result of a difference between the perceived characteristics of women and the perceived requirements of leadership roles.
433. Do men and women differ in leadership effectiveness? What does the research say about the answer to this question?
434. What is role congruity theory and how does it explain the underrepresentation of women in leadership roles?
435. The most powerful strategy for developing global leaders is work experience, transfers, and __________ .
436. Linamar Corporation's CEO Linda Hasenfratz is a good example of a(n) __________ leader.
437. What style of leadership is best and what does it take to be an effective leader? What are the main factors to consider to answer this question?
438. Canadian companies are ahead of most organizations in big countries like the United States when it comes to a. strategic leadership. b. transformational leadership. c. ethical leadership. d. global leadership. e. participative leadership. 439. What is the most powerful strategy for developing global leaders? a. Learning to speak foreign languages b. Travel to foreign countries c. Teamwork with members of diverse backgrounds d. Transfers and overseas assignments e. Formal training programs 440. Which of the following is a characteristic of global leadership? a. Determining the firm's purpose or vision b. Developing human capital c. Unbridled inquisitiveness d. Establishing balanced organizational controls e. Exploiting and maintaining core competencies 441. All of the following are characteristics of global leaders EXCEPT a. unbridled inquisitiveness. b. personal character. c. emphasizing ethical practices. d. duality. e. savvy.
Chapter 9 442. The personal character component of global leadership consists of which two components? a. An emotional connection and unbridled inquisitiveness b. An emotional connection and uncompromising integrity c. Uncompromising integrity and unbridled inquisitiveness d. An emotional connection and high ethical standards e. Business savvy and organizational savvy 443. Being able to manage uncertainty and balance global and local tensions is an example of a. strategic leadership. b. unbridled inquisitiveness. c. personal character. d. savvy. e. duality. 444. What kind of leader does Canada have more of than other countries? a. Transformational leaders b. Ethical leaders c. Strategic leaders d. Global leaders e. Participative leaders 445. What do these countries have in common: Canada, Belgium, and Sweden? a. They produce more strategic leaders than other countries. b. They produce more global leaders than other countries. c. They produce more transformational leaders than other countries. d. They produce more ethical leaders than other countries. e. They produce more participative leaders than other countries. 446. Linda Hasenfratz, CEO of Linamar Corporation is a good example of a. ethical leadership. b. authentic leadership. c. global leadership. d. servant leadership. e. empowering leadership. 447. Which of the following leaders is a good example of a global leader? a. Michael McCain b. Linda Hasenfratz c. Rania Llewellyn d. Herb Kelleher e. Paulette Senior 448. Most companies have a system in place for developing global leaders. a. True b. False 449. One of the most powerful strategies for developing global leaders is formal training programs. a. True b. False 450. Linamar Corporation's CEO Linda Hasenfratz is a good example of a global leader. a. True b. False
Chapter 9 451. Living in a multicultural environment like Canada is excellent preparation for being a(n) __________ manager.
452. What are some of the key characteristics of successful global leaders?
453. Discuss how Canada compares to other countries in terms of global leadership and explain any differences.
454. Global leadership emphasizes high ethical standards. a. True b. False 455. Canadian organizations are way ahead of the United States in global leadership. a. True b. False 456. Most companies do not have enough global leaders. a. True b. False
Chapter 9
Test Name: 1.
a.Leadership can be exhibited by persons other than those formally designated as leaders by the organization.
2.
a.Open and honest interactions with the organization's stakeholders
3.
d.Strategic leader
4.
a.Leadership
5.
c.shared leadership.
6.
b.commitment.
7.
d.The degree to which an individual with no formal status or authority is perceived by one or more team members as exhibiting leaderlike influence
8.
b.Shared leadership is positively related to team performance and team creativity.
9.
a.True
10.
b.False
11.
a.True
12.
b.False
13.
Strategic
14.
leadership
15.
Shared
16.
Leadership
17.
Emergent
18.
a.True
19.
b.False
20.
a.True
21.
b.False
22.
conscientiousness
23.
Shared
24.
Strategic leadership involves the ability to anticipate, envision, maintain flexibility, think strategically, and work with others to initiate changes that will create a viable future for the organization. Strategic leaders are important for organizations because they can provide an organization with a sustainable competitive advantage by helping their organization compete in turbulent and unpredictable environments, and by exploiting growth opportunities.
Chapter 9 25.
Shared leadership is an emergent and dynamic team phenomenon whereby leadership roles and influence are distributed among team members. Thus, multiple team members emerge as informal leaders. Research on shared leadership has found that it is positively related to team performance and team creativity. Thus, the more that leadership is shared in a team the better its performance
26.
a.Consideration
27.
b.During World War I
28.
b.demographics, task competence, and interpersonal attributes.
29.
b.Extraversion and conscientiousness
30.
a.The relationship is stronger for affective measures of effectiveness than performance measures.
31.
b.dominance and intelligence
32.
e.Agreeableness, conscientiousness, extraversion, openness to experience, and emotional stability
33.
d.Extraversion and conscientiousness
34.
e.Five
35.
b.Leader behaviours have a greater impact than leader traits.
36.
b.Team conscientiousness
37.
d.people are more likely to view somebody as a leader and to evaluate them as a more effective leader when they possess characteristics of leadership.
38.
b.Leadership categorization theory
39.
b.Leadership categorization theory
40.
a.CEO narcissism is positively related to innovation, growth, and firm performance.
41.
c.CEO narcissism can have both beneficial and detrimental effects on organizations.
42.
e.The desire to attain leadership roles and to expand effort to fulfill leader role requirements
43.
trait
44.
demographics
45.
extraversion
46.
traits
47.
conscientiousness
48.
categorization
49.
Traits
50.
Motivation to lead
Chapter 9 51.
Narcissism
52.
narcissism
53.
Narcissism
54.
narcissism
55.
According to the trait theory of leadership, leadership depends on the personal qualities or traits of the leader. The basic idea is that those who become leaders and are successful leaders possess a special set of traits that distinguish them from followers. Research on leadership traits has found that all of the Big Five dimensions of personality are related to leadership emergence and success, with extraversion and conscientiousness being the most consistent predictors of leadership effectiveness. Although intelligence is also related to leadership effectiveness, the relationship is lower than previously thought. The relationship between traits and leadership effectiveness is stronger for relational measures of effectiveness than for performance-related measures.
56.
According to the trait theory of leadership, leadership depends on the personal qualities or traits of the leader. The basic idea is that those who become leaders and are successful leaders possess a special set of traits that distinguish them from followers. The main limitations of the trait theory of leadership include: a) it is difficult to determine whether traits make the leader or whether the opportunity for leadership produces the traits; b) we have few clues about what leaders with certain traits actually do to influence others, so we have little information about how to train and develop leaders and no way to diagnose failures of leadership; and c) because the trait approach leads us to believe that people are more likely to become a leader or to be a more effective leader simply because they possess certain traits, it can lead to bias and discrimination when it comes to evaluating a leader's effectiveness and decisions about promoting people to leadership positions. Finally, the most crucial problem is its failure to take into account the situation in which leadership occurs.
57.
According to leadership categorization theory, people are more likely to view somebody as a leader and to evaluate them as a more effective leader when they possess prototypical characteristics of leadership. Research has found that leaders are more often assumed to be white by white and non-white research participants regardless of the percentage of white individuals in an organization and in leadership positions. White and non-white participants evaluate white leaders as more effective and as having more leadership potential than non-white leaders when the leader is credited with their organization's success. Thus, leadership categorization theory helps to explain bias and discrimination when evaluating leader effectiveness and when making decisions about promoting people to leadership positions given that persons who are perceived as not possessing prototypical characteristics of leadership will be perceived as less effective leaders and less likely to be placed in leadership roles.
58.
Narcissism is a personality trait that combines grandiosity, attention seeking, an unrealistically inflated selfview, a need for that self-view to be continuously reinforced through self-regulation, and a general lack of regard for others. There are both positive and negative things about narcissistic CEOs and leaders. For starters, they can engage in questionable behaviours such as bullying, fraud, and distorting financial information. They are also more likely to make risky decisions, to spend more on research and development and acquisitions, and to manipulate polices to achieve desired results. However, there is also some evidence that CEO narcissism is positively related to innovation, growth, and firm performance. Thus, narcissism seems to be associated with extreme variations in leader behaviour that tends to result in greater performance volatility. So, it seems that CEO narcissism can have both beneficial and detrimental effects on organizations.
59.
b.individualized consideration, inspirational motivation, charisma, and intellectual stimulation.
60.
d.Charisma
61.
c.being supportive.
62.
d.situational theory.
Chapter 9 63.
a.are task-oriented.
64.
c.situations of medium favourableness.
65.
c.structured; strong
66.
a.type of leadership orientation.
67.
c.is more relationship-oriented than task-oriented.
68.
e.Situational favourableness
69.
b.the troops will perform best if the commander is task-oriented (low LPC).
70.
c.initiating structure.
71.
d.path-goal theory is concerned with the effects of specific leader behaviour.
72.
b.Employees who are high need achievers work best under achievement-oriented leadership.
73.
c.clarifying the path to valued rewards.
74.
c.Supportive
75.
c.Employee characteristics and environmental factors
76.
b.The prescription for task leadership in octant II is contradicted by the evidence.
77.
d.Despite the fact that the LPC is or was difficult to work with, the leader can still find positive qualities in the LPC.
78.
b.Task leadership in octant II
79.
e.8
80.
b.False
81.
b.False
82.
a.True
83.
a.True
84.
a.True
85.
b.False
86.
a.True
87.
a.True
88.
a.True
89.
b.False
Chapter 9 90.
a.True
91.
b.False
92.
a.True
93.
b.False
94.
a.True
95.
a.True
96.
b.False
97.
a.True
98.
b.False
99.
b.False
100. b.False 101. a.True 102. b.False 103. b.False 104. b.False 105. a.True 106. b.False 107. a.True 108. a.True 109. b.False 110. b.False 111. b.False 112. b.False 113. a.True 114. b.False 115. b.False 116. traits 117. a.True
Chapter 9 118. b.False 119. b.False 120. b.False 121. a.True 122. situational favourableness 123. least preferred co-worker 124. relationship 125. task 126. situational 127. Task-oriented leadership is most effective when the situation is either very favourable or very unfavourable. Relationship-oriented leadership is most effective in conditions of medium favourableness. An example for high favourableness might be an office manager where leader-member relations are good, task structure is high, and position power is strong. Medium favourableness might be applicable to a supervising nurse in a hospital ward where leader-member relations are good, but task structure is low (due to the constant turnover of patients and their requirements), and position power is weak since doctors, and not the supervising nurse, give most of the critical directions pertaining to patient care. Very unfavourable situations may be characterized by an external expert, such as a management consultant or project engineer, who is brought into an organization to solve a problem. For the external expert, leader-member relations are poor and may even be hostile. Task structure is low (that is why they called in an expert), and position power is weak since the expert is an "outsider." 128. Employees will likely appreciate both directive and participative leader behaviours when they are working on challenging but ambiguous tasks (e.g., a manager developing a project proposal or a budget for a new department). Employees will generally not appreciate directive and participative leader behaviours when the tasks are clear and routine (e.g., janitorial work). 129. e.all of the above. 130. c.requires a great deal of time and energy on the part of the leader. 131. b.AII 132. b.Vroom and Jago's situational model of participation 133. b.C 134. b.allows for autocratic, consultative, and group decisions. 135. e.make high quality, acceptable decisions without undue delay. 136. d.Employee empowerment and trust in one's supervisor 137. a.True 138. b.False
Chapter 9 139. a.True 140. b.False 141. a.True 142. participation 143. consultative 144. commitment 145. AI 146. GII 147. c.Leader reward behaviour 148. a.initiating structure. 149. c.is more effective for follower satisfaction than leader job performance. 150. b.1940s 151. d.initiating structure is more strongly related to leader job performance and group performance. 152. a.leader satisfaction, job satisfaction, and motivation. 153. d.Leader reward behaviour 154. c.lead to more positive perceptions of justice and lower role ambiguity. 155. c.Unfavourable outcomes 156. a.True 157. a.True 158. a.True 159. a.True 160. b.False 161. b.False 162. a.True 163. b.False 164. b.False 165. a.True 166. b.False
Chapter 9 167. Leader reward behaviour 168. role ambiguity 169. consideration 170. situation 171. The most involved, systematic study of leadership took place at Ohio State University in the 1940s. The Ohio State researchers began by having employees describe their superiors along a number of behavioural dimensions. Statistical analyses of these descriptions revealed that they boiled down to two basic kinds of behaviour—consideration and initiating structure. Consideration is the extent to which a leader is approachable and shows personal concern and respect for employees. The considerate leader is seen as friendly and egalitarian, expresses appreciation and support, and is protective of group welfare. Initiating structure is the degree to which a leader concentrates on group goal attainment. The structuring leader clearly defines and organizes their role and the roles of followers, stresses standard procedures, schedules the work to be done, and assigns employees to particular tasks. In general, research shows that consideration and initiating structure both contribute positively to employees' motivation, job satisfaction, and leader effectiveness. However, consideration tends to be more strongly related to follower satisfaction (leader satisfaction and job satisfaction), motivation, and leader effectiveness, while initiating structure is slightly more strongly related to leader job performance and group performance. 172. Leader reward behaviour provides employees with compliments, tangible benefits, and deserved special treatment. When such rewards are made contingent on meeting performance goals and expectations (contingent reward behaviour), employees should perform at a high level and experience job satisfaction. Under such leadership, employees have a clear picture of what is expected of them, and they understand that positive outcomes will occur if they achieve these expectations. Leader punishment behaviour involves the use of reprimands or unfavourable task assignments and the active withholding of raises, promotions, and other rewards. Contingent leader reward behaviour is positively related to employees' perceptions, attitudes, and behaviour. Contingent leader punishment behaviour is related to more favourable employee perceptions, attitudes, and behaviour, however, non-contingent punishment behaviour is related to unfavourable outcomes. These relationships are much stronger when rewards and punishment are made contingent on employee behaviour. One of the reasons that leader reward and punishment behaviours are positively related to employee attitudes and behaviours is because they lead to more positive perceptions of justice and lower role ambiguity. 173. b.rewards employees for good performance. 174. d.change is to exchange. 175. a.charisma. 176. a.An emotional role 177. c.They tend to lack self-confidence and dominance. 178. d.A leader who is concerned about maintaining high-quality social exchange relationships 179. b.the relationship between a leader and an employee. 180. c.Management by exception 181. b.Contingent reward behaviour and management by exception 182. b.They are transformational leaders.
Chapter 9 183. c.Intellectual stimulation, individualized consideration, inspirational motivation, and charisma 184. e.Individualized consideration 185. d.Charisma 186. b.transformational leadership is more strongly related to follower satisfaction with the leader, and contingent reward behaviour is more strongly related to follower job satisfaction. 187. b.Leader-member exchange (LMX) 188. b.Leader-member exchange (LMX) 189. b.They are a high LMX leader. 190. a.It focuses on the relationship that develops between a leader and an employee. 191. b.It focuses on the exchange relationship between the leader and followers. 192. c.It focuses on providing followers with a new vision that instills true commitment. 193. c.Follower satisfaction 194. c.the best leaders are transformational and transactional. 195. d.LMX differentiation. 196. b.Variability in the quality of LMX relationships between members of the same workgroup 197. d.Higher levels of trust 198. a.Group harmony and processes 199. d.Leader-member exchange differentiation 200. d.When the reason for LMX differentiation is based on a leader's personal liking of group members 201. a.When it is based on group members' performance 202. d.How a leader differentiates group members 203. b.Transactional leadership 204. Potential advantages include increased motivation and performance, quality, and acceptance of decisions. Potential problems include concerns about loss of power, excessive time and energy requirements, and lack of receptivity or knowledge by employees.
Chapter 9 205. Participative leadership means involving employees in making work-related decisions. Participation is not a fixed or absolute property but a relative concept. Leaders can vary in the extent to which they involve employees in decision making. Minimally, participation involves obtaining employee opinions before making a decision. Maximally, it allows employees to make their own decisions within agreed-on limits. As the "area of freedom" on the part of employees increases, the leader is behaving in a more participative manner. There is substantial evidence that employees who have the opportunity to participate in work-related decisions report more job satisfaction and higher task performance and organizational citizenship behaviour toward the organization than those who do not. These results are due in part to a positive effect on employee empowerment and trust in one's supervisor. Other advantages include higher quality decisions and an increase in employees' acceptance of decisions. Potential problems of participative leadership include time and energy and loss of power. Furthermore, employees might not be receptive to participation or might lack the knowledge required to participate in making a decision. 206. e.Management by exception-active and management by exception-passive 207. a.Routinely monitoring the behaviour of followers and actively searching for and correcting deviations from the norm as they happen 208. d.Correcting mistakes only after they have occurred 209. b.positively related to task performance and contextual performance. 210. e.Contingent reward behaviour 211. b.False 212. b.False 213. a.True 214. b.False 215. b.False 216. a.True 217. b.False 218. b.False 219. a.True 220. b.False 221. a.True 222. b.False 223. b.False 224. a.True 225. a.True 226. a.True
Chapter 9 227. b.False 228. a.True 229. b.False 230. a.True 231. b.False 232. a.True 233. b.False 234. a.True 235. b.False 236. a.True 237. b.False 238. a.True 239. b.False 240. a.True 241. b.False 242. a.True 243. b.False 244. Management by exception 245. charisma 246. individualized 247. transformational 248. quality 249. social 250. social exchange 251. transactional 252. differentiation 253. trust 254. differentiation
Chapter 9 255. Transactional 256. Leader-member exchange differentiation 257. liking 258. performance 259. differentiates 260. contingent reward behaviour 261. active/passive 262. Transactional leadership describes the routine relationship between leaders and followers in which the leader uses rewards and other management techniques to bring subordinate behaviour in line with organizational goals. Transactional leadership behaviour involves contingent reward behaviour and management by exception. Transformational leadership provides followers with a new vision that instills commitment. The qualities that set transformational leaders apart from transactional ones are intellectual stimulation, individualized consideration, inspirational motivation, and charisma. 263. LMX theory is a theory of leadership that focuses on the quality of the relationship that develops between a leader and an employee. It is a social exchange relationship-based approach to leadership. Social exchange theory is the basis for the effects of LMX. According to social exchange theory, individuals who are treated favourably by others feel obliged to reciprocate by responding positively and returning that favourable treatment in some manner. Thus, employees who are in a high-quality relationship with their supervisor will reciprocate with extra effort and higher commitment and performance. 264. Transformational leadership is leadership that provides followers with a new vision that instills true commitment. The four key dimensions of transformational leader behaviour are intellectual stimulation, individualized consideration, inspirational motivation, and charisma. Transformational leadership is an effective style of leadership. A review of studies on transformational leadership found that transformational leadership is strongly related to follower motivation, work engagement, satisfaction (satisfaction with leader and job satisfaction), organizational commitment, leader performance, leader effectiveness, and individual, group, and organizational performance. Compared to other forms of leader behaviour (initiating structure, consideration, contingent reward behaviour), transformational leadership has been found to be the most consistent predictor of effective leadership. In addition, several studies have found that CEO transformational leadership is positively related to organizational performance, especially under conditions of environmental uncertainty and in small- to medium-sized organizations. Transformational leadership seems to be especially effective during times of change and for obtaining employees' commitment to a change. Employees with transformational leaders have been found to be more committed to and less likely to resist a large-scale organizational change. 265. e.independent rationalization. 266. b.authentic leadership. 267. b.balanced processing. 268. e.relational transparency. 269. c.self-leadership. 270. e.Authentic leadership
Chapter 9 271. e.authentic leadership. 272. e.Her boss is a servant leader. 273. c.trust in the leader. 274. a.Michael McCain 275. e.It focuses on going beyond one's own self-interests and having a genuine concern to serve others and a motivation to lead. 276. d.It focuses on implementing conditions that enable power to be shared with employees. 277. c.A state of psychological empowerment 278. c.Empowering 279. e.Ethical 280. e.Responsibility 281. b.Meaning, competence, self-determination, and impact 282. b.the immediate supervisor. 283. e.Authentic 284. d.Servant 285. a.Serve first and lead second 286. e.Robert Greenleaf. 287. d.servant leadership. 288. b.Savvy 289. b.Personal character 290. b.False 291. b.False 292. a.True 293. a.True 294. a.True 295. a.True 296. a.True 297. a.True
Chapter 9 298. a.True 299. b.False 300. a.True 301. b.False 302. a.True 303. b.False 304. d.Servant leadership 305. d.Servant leadership 306. d.Servant leadership 307. d.Servant leadership 308. d.Servant leader 309. d.Servant leadership 310. c.Positive leadership 311. b.LMX leadership 312. c.promotion-focused ethical leadership. 313. b.Promotion-focused and prevention-focused. 314. a.Promotion-focused ethical leadership is positively related to work outcomes and prevention-focused ethical leadership is negatively related to work outcomes. 315. b.promotion-focused ethical leadership. 316. c.prevention-focused ethical leadership. 317. d.Shared perceptions that employees have about ethical policies, practices, and procedures in formal organizational systems 318. b.False 319. a.True 320. b.False 321. a.True 322. a.True 323. b.False 324. b.False
Chapter 9 325. a.True 326. b.False 327. b.False 328. a.True 329. a.True 330. b.False 331. a.True 332. a.True 333. b.False 334. a.True 335. b.False 336. a.True 337. a.True 338. b.False 339. a.True 340. a.True 341. b.False 342. a.True 343. b.False 344. a.True 345. a.True 346. b.False 347. internalized moral perspective 348. psychological 349. impact 350. Authentic 351. serve 352. Servant
Chapter 9 353. servant 354. servant 355. servant 356. Positive 357. Promotion-focused 358. Prevention-focused 359. Promotion-focused 360. Prevention-focused 361. immediate supervisor 362. Authentic leadership is a positive form of leadership that involves being true to oneself. One is aware and acts upon one's true values, beliefs, and strengths, and helps others to do the same. The four dimensions are: 1. Self-awareness—an understanding of one's strengths and weaknesses and an awareness of one's impact on others. Authentic leaders gain insight into themselves through interactions with others. 2. Relational transparency—the presenting of one's true or authentic self to others and the sharing of information and expressions of one's true thoughts and feelings. 3. Balanced processing—the objective analysis of all relevant information before making a decision and consideration of views that challenge one's own position. 4. Internalized moral perspective—the internal moral standards and values that guide one's behaviour and decision making. Authentic leaders exhibit behaviour that is consistent with their internal values and standards. 363. Ethical leadership involves the demonstration of normatively appropriate conduct through personal actions and interpersonal relationships, and the promotion of such conduct to followers through two-way communication, reinforcement, and decision-making. An ethical organizational climate refers to employee shared perceptions of ethical policies, practices, and procedures in formal organizational systems and it is influenced by ethical leadership. In other words, the ethical behaviour of leaders has a significant positive influence on the ethical climate of an organization. Engaging in ethical leadership is important for developing an ethical organizational climate because employees who perceive their leaders as ethical are more likely to view their work context as ethical and to engage in ethical behaviours. This is because ethical leaders set ethical standards, model ethical behaviours, and use rewards and punishment to ensure ethical behaviour on the part of employees. 364. In this kind of an organization, the appropriate style of leadership is empowering leadership. It involves implementing conditions that enable power to be shared with employees. This will enable employees to make decisions and take actions on their own without direct supervision which is appropriate given the flatter organization structure and the autonomy and responsibility that employees now have in performing their jobs. Empowering leaders highlight the significance of employees' work, provide participation and autonomy in decision making, express confidence in employees' capabilities, and remove bureaucratic constraints or hindrances to performance. Employees experience a state of psychological empowerment that consists of a feeling that their work is personally important (meaning), a belief in their ability to successfully perform work tasks (competence), freedom to choose how to initiate and carry out their tasks (self-determination), and a belief that their behaviour is making a difference (impact). Thus, empowering leadership provides employees with a greater feeling of control over their work and a sense that they can make a difference in their organization's effectiveness
Chapter 9 365. Empowering leadership involves implementing conditions that enable power to be shared with employees. Empowering leaders highlight the significance of employees' work, provide participation and autonomy in decision making, express confidence in employees' capabilities, and remove bureaucratic constraints or hindrances to performance. As a result, employees experience a state of psychological empowerment that consists of a feeling that their work is personally important (meaning), a belief in their ability to successfully perform work tasks (competence), freedom to choose how to initiate and carry out one's tasks (selfdetermination), and a belief that one's behaviour is making a difference (impact). Empowering leadership provides employees with a greater feeling of control over their work and a sense that they can make a difference in their organization's effectiveness. 366. You should tell Maria that the style of leadership she is thinking about is called servant leadership and that it is a form of leadership that involves going beyond one's own self-interests and having a genuine concern to serve others and a motivation to lead. Servant leadership emphasizes the needs of follower and their growth and development. In terms of the behaviour she should exhibit, there are six key characteristics of servant leader behaviour: empowering and developing people, humility, authenticity, interpersonal acceptance, providing direction, and stewardship. 367. Servant leadership is a form of leadership that involves going beyond one's own self-interests and having a genuine concern to serve others and a motivation to lead. Servant leadership emphasizes the needs of followers and their growth and development. The six key characteristics of servant leader behaviour are: empowering and developing people, humility, authenticity, interpersonal acceptance, providing direction, and stewardship. 368. d.some differences in certain situations. 369. b.Women tend towards a more participative leadership style than men. 370. d.female leaders were more transformational than men and also engaged in more of the contingent reward behaviours of transactional leadership. 371. c.The avoidance or absence of leadership 372. c.Individuals hold a set of beliefs about the kinds of attributes, personality characteristics, skills, and behaviours that contribute to or impede outstanding leadership. 373. b.Implicit leadership theory 374. d.Belief systems about the characteristics associated with leadership that are shared among individuals in common cultures 375. d.task-oriented leadership dimension. 376. d.Charismatic/value-based, participative, and humane-oriented 377. b.Self-protective 378. d.62 379. d.Team-oriented and autonomous 380. a.True 381. a.True 382. a.True
Chapter 9 383. a.True 384. b.False 385. b.False 386. a.True 387. implicit leadership 388. self-protective 389. b.False 390. a.True 391. a.True 392. a.True 393. b.False 394. a.True 395. autonomous 396. A culturally endorsed implicit leadership theory refers to belief systems about the characteristics that contribute to outstanding leadership that are shared among individuals in common cultures. The six global leadership dimensions are: charismatic/value-based; team-oriented; participative; humane-oriented; autonomous; and self-protective. 397. Sasha assumes that the attributes required for outstanding leadership are the same in all countries and cultures. You should tell him that this is not true. Many attributes such as being honest, decisive, motivational, and dynamic are universally desirable and believed to facilitate outstanding leadership in many countries. There are also leadership attributes such as being a loner, being irritable, egocentric, and/or ruthless that are ineffective in most countries. And other attributes such as being individualistic, status conscious, and a risk taker are culturally contingent. In other words, some attributes are effective in some cultures but are either ineffective or even dysfunctional in others. 398. b.A labyrinth 399. b.Women are perceived as having more communal traits, and men are perceived as having more agentic traits. 400. d.men are perceived as more effective in government organizations. 401. e.women are perceived as more effective in education organizations. 402. b.women are perceived as more effective in middle management positions. 403. d.men were rated as more effective when the ratings were made by themselves. 404. b.Role congruity theory 405. a.3 percent
Chapter 9 406. d.glass ceiling. 407. a.True 408. a.True 409. b.False 410. b.False 411. a.True 412. b.False 413. a.True 414. b.False 415. b.False 416. a.True 417. b.False 418. a.True 419. a.True 420. b.False 421. a.True 422. b.False 423. laissez-faire 424. transformational 425. participative 426. glass ceiling 427. labyrinth 428. male 429. middle 430. others 431. themselves 432. congruity
Chapter 9 433. A review of 95 studies on gender differences in perceptions of leadership effectiveness found that there are some differences between men and women but only in certain situations. For example, men are perceived as more effective in organizations that are masculine and male dominated while women are perceived as more effective in feminine and female dominated organizations. Women are perceived as more effective leaders in middle management positions and when the ratings of effectiveness are made by the leaders themselves, men rate themselves as more effective than women. When the ratings of effectiveness are made by others (e.g., peers, subordinates, bosses), women are perceived as more effective leaders. However, when all these factors are taken into account, men and women do not differ in perceived leadership effectiveness. 434. According to role congruity theory (RCT), prejudice against female leaders is the result of an incongruity between the perceived characteristics of women and the perceived requirements of leadership roles. Leaders are perceived as similar to men and not very similar to women, as more "agentic" than communal, and as more masculine than feminine. Men are perceived as having agentic traits, which convey assertion and control which are associated with effective leadership. Women are perceived as having communal traits, which convey a concern for the compassionate treatment of others. Agentic leadership traits tend to be associated with male leaders to a greater extent than with female leaders. Thus, males but not females are perceived as having traits that are associated with leadership. 435. overseas assignments 436. global 437. A good leader must be able to use many different styles of leadership and must be able to know what style of leadership is required in each situation encountered. Thus, the most effective style of leadership depends on the situation. The main situational factors to consider when determining an effective leadership style is the nature of the task, employee characteristics, characteristics of the organization, and national culture. When the style of leadership is matched to the situation, a leader will be effective in terms of employee attitudes, behaviours, and performance, and organizational performance. Further, to be an effective leader a leader must influence followers' cognitions such as self-efficacy and justice perceptions; followers' affects such as attitudes and emotions; and followers' behaviours such actions and motivation. In other words, the effectiveness of leadership depends on the extent to which a leader influences followers' cognitive, affective, and behavioural tendencies. 438. d.global leadership. 439. d.Transfers and overseas assignments 440. c.Unbridled inquisitiveness 441. c.emphasizing ethical practices. 442. b.An emotional connection and uncompromising integrity 443. e.duality. 444. d.Global leaders 445. b.They produce more global leaders than other countries. 446. c.global leadership. 447. b.Linda Hasenfratz 448. b.False
Chapter 9 449. b.False 450. a.True 451. global 452. According to research by Gregersen, Morrison and Black cited in the text, global leaders have unbridled inquisitiveness, strong personal character, savvy, and a quality called "duality" which enables them to balance the tensions between global integration and local differentiation. 453. Canada has more global leaders than some big countries like the United States. This is because middle economy countries like Canada, the Netherlands, Switzerland, Belgium and others are dependent on foreign trade and must be able to understand and empathize with persons of other cultures. Canadians learn from the cradle to take into account other perspectives. In addition, living in a multicultural environment like Canada is excellent preparation for becoming a global leader. 454. a.True 455. a.True 456. a.True
Chapter 10 1.
Communication is defined as a. understanding between people. b. the exchange of information. c. a method of persuasion. d. the flow of information down an organizational hierarchy. e. the encoding of information.
2.
In order for a receiver to understand a communicated message, they must first ________ the message. a. filter b. encode c. decode d. transmit e. integrate
3.
Who is encoding messages? a. Bashir, who is writing a technical report b. Aaron, who is hearing a rumour on the grapevine c. Sharon, who is the target of upward communication d. Alexis, who is trying to figure out what her boss's memo means e. Victor, who is trying to decipher some legal jargon in a contract
4.
Who is decoding a message? a. Robin, who is initiating downward communication b. Kai, who is preparing a financial statement c. Wilhelm, who is studying blueprints d. Olive, who is making a speech e. Sylvia, who is passing along a bit of gossip about a co-worker
5.
Effective communication occurs when the right people receive the right information in a ________ manner. a. timely b. formal c. friendly d. filtered e. proper
6.
Which of the following is an example of encoding? a. Thinking b. Reading a novel c. Reading a memo d. Writing a letter e. Watching television
7.
Which of the following is an example of horizontal communication? a. A supervisor tells an employee that the employee has been performing poorly. b. An employee explains to their boss why their performance has not been up to par recently. c. The vice-president of marketing sends a memo to the vice-president of manufacturing. d. The president of a college calls a meeting to explain the college's financial situation to the faculty. e. A purchasing agent leaves a voicemail message for a new supplier.
Chapter 10 8.
The chain of command does not reflect the number of communication channels that exist in organizations because a. it ignores informal communication. b. it ignores downward communication. c. it ignores upward communication. d. it ignores horizontal communication. e. managers may not encode communication.
9.
Which of the following is an example of filtering? a. The manager confused the secretary. b. Juan didn't tell his employees about their impending layoffs. c. Sarah misunderstood her boss's memo. d. Ralph sent an email directly to the vice president to explain the sudden decrease in sales. e. All of the above
10.
Sticking to the strict chain of command can be especially slow for ________ communication. a. formal b. upward c. downward d. horizontal e. backwards
11.
The filtering of information pertains to what type of communication? a. Upward communication b. Downward communication c. Non-verbal communication d. Upward and downward communication e. Cross-cultural communication
12.
Filtering is the tendency for a message to be watered down or stopped altogether at some point during transmission. a. True b. False
13.
The tendency for information to be watered down or stopped altogether during transmission is __________ .
14.
Effective communication occurs when the right information gets to the right people __________ .
15.
Who is most likely to exercise voice? a. More satisfied employees who identify more strongly with their work unit or organization b. More committed employees who identify more strongly with their work unit or organization c. More satisfied employees who are more committed to the organization d. More satisfied employees who like to communicate e. More satisfied employees who don't like to use the grapevine
16.
Which of the following contributes to a positive climate for voice? a. Direct supervisors b. Teammates c. Direct supervisors and teammates d. Higher-level managers e. Direct supervisors and higher-level managers
Chapter 10 17.
Which of the following best characterizes high "voicers"? a. They report more work stress than those who remain silent. b. They report lower job satisfaction than those who remain silent. c. They report less work stress than those who remain silent. d. They report higher job satisfaction than those who remain silent. e. They report lower organizational commitment than those who remain silent.
18.
Psychological safety is important for a. cross-cultural communication. b. voice. c. the grapevine. d. upward communication. e. downward communication.
19.
Which of the following contributes to silence and works against voice? a. Filtering b. The grapevine c. Jargon d. Rumours e. The mum effect
20.
Which of the following will result in a climate of silence? a. Rumours b. The grapevine c. Jargon d. Self-censorship e. Filtering
21.
Myra knows that her organization should not be using certain chemicals in the production process but has decided not to say anything about it. What is this an example of? a. A rumour b. The grapevine c. Jargon d. Silence e. Filtering
22.
The __________ occurs when people avoid communicating unfavourable news to others.
23.
The __________ is even more likely when the sender is responsible for bad news.
24.
__________ refers to "speaking up."
25.
Voice can be contrasted with __________ .
26.
The constructive expression of disagreement or concern about a work unit or organizational practices is known as __________ .
Chapter 10 27.
Voice can be considered a form of _________ .
28.
Voice might be directed horizontally, to teammates, or vertically, to the boss or to __________ in general.
29.
Speaking up can be perceived as __________ due to inherent power differentials in organizations.
30.
More __________ employees who identify more strongly with their work unit or organization are most likely to speak up.
31.
Employees who are conscientious and __________ are most likely to speak up.
32.
__________ refers to a shared belief that it is safe to take social risks.
33.
Self-censorship will result in a climate of __________ .
34.
High "voicers" report less __________ than those who remain silent.
35.
What is voice and what are the different forms it can take? Who is inclined to exercise voice in organizations?
36.
Discuss the role that climate and psychological safety play in employee voice. How can organizations create a positive climate and an atmosphere of psychological safety?
37.
The Bouncy Ball Toy Company has realized that employees are not speaking up about important work unit and organization concerns. As a result, they have hired a consultant to help them increase employee voice and create a more positive climate. If you were the consultant, what would you tell the company to do to increase employee voice and create a positive climate for voice and an atmosphere of psychological safety?
38.
Jacques spends much of his time speaking up to others in the organization about his concerns and disagreements about the organization's practices. As a result, he tends to experience much less work stress than his co-workers who choose to be silent. a. True b. False
Chapter 10 39.
Research suggests that a. employees with good performance ratings are more likely to be informed of those ratings than employees with bad ratings. b. employees with good performance ratings are less likely to be informed of those ratings than employees with bad ratings. c. employees with good and bad performance ratings are just as likely to be informed of these ratings. d. employees with good and bad performance ratings are just as unlikely to be informed of these ratings. e. employees are seldom informed about their performance regardless of how they have performed.
40.
The toy market has fallen off, and the Zippy Toy Company has to lay off workers. Mattia, the plant manager, must inform all the workers, but is so upset about this task that he writes a vague, contradictory letter which no one understands. What happened? a. Rumour has caused confusion. b. Jargon caused the manager to produce non-verbal communication. c. All-channel communication was used when exit interviews would have been better. d. The mum effect caused the workers to have decoding problems. e. Status differences have resulted in ineffective communication.
41.
Which of the following is an example of the mum effect? a. The president of a firm would not tell a newspaper reporter what the firm's market share was. b. The secretary did not care to participate in the office grapevine. c. The manager would only communicate with workers through their supervisor. d. The sales manager decided to postpone announcing the good news about the Christmas bonuses until the company party at the end of the month. e. The young lawyer who lost the court case delayed telling the senior partner of the law firm.
42.
The constructive expression of disagreement or concern about work unit or organizational policies is known as a. filtering. b. the grapevine. c. voice. d. rumours. e. upward communication.
43.
The mum effect is a good example of a. moderately high information richness. b. poor cross-cultural communication. c. information overload. d. filtering. e. ineffective decoding.
44.
The mum effect means that people a. fail to encode bad news. b. fail to decode bad news. c. refuse to pass on a rumour. d. refuse to filter information. e. prefer to communicate bad news rather than to receive it.
Chapter 10 45.
Voice refers to a. a specialized language used by members of particular occupations or organizations. b. the transmission of messages by some medium other than speech or writing. c. speaking up. d. a condition in which a person's words, thoughts, feelings, and actions all contain the same message. e. all of the above.
46.
The mum effect is one example of a. how the grapevine works. b. how rumours get transmitted. c. how information filtering occurs. d. how the clothing we wear transmits information. e. how status can lead to problems in informal communication.
47.
The constructive expression of disagreement or concern about a work unit or organizational practices is known as a. the grapevine. b. jargon. c. voice. d. informal communication. e. the mum effect.
48.
What does psychological safety refer to? a. A shared belief that it is safe to say what you want b. A shared belief that it is safe to use the grapevine c. A shared belief that informal communication is safe d. A shared belief that it is safe to take social risks e. A shared belief that what you say will be confidential
49.
Voice can be contrasted with a. email. b. written communication. c. non-verbal communication. d. informal communication. e. silence.
50.
Silence refers to a. the failure to communicate. b. withholding relevant information. c. the use of written communication. d. the use of non-verbal communication. e. the use of technology to communicate.
51.
Voice can be considered a form of a. organizational citizenship behaviour. b. non-verbal communication. c. job performance. d. filtering. e. ineffective communication.
Chapter 10 52.
Alessandra has organized a meeting with her teammates to express her concern about the use of chemicals in the production process. What is this an example of? a. A rumour b. The grapevine c. Informal communication d. Voice e. The chain of command
53.
The __________ can be a timely, inexpensive source of information that isn't available through other channels.
54.
Much __________ material involves releasing pent-up emotions concerning bosses or customers that can't otherwise be comfortably expressed.
55.
Some jobs are so boring that __________ provides one of the few available sources of social and intellectual stimulation.
56.
What is the grapevine? Is it generally good or bad for an organization? Explain.
57.
What motivates people to gossip using the grapevine?
58.
You want your employees to feel comfortable in your office. Research suggests a. placing your desk between them and you. b. not being so tidy that it scares people away. c. dressing in designer fashions. d. decorating with plants and posters. e. placing your credentials and awards in a prominent location.
59.
Jargon is a form of a. decoding. b. non-verbal communication. c. verbal communication. d. body language. e. communication media.
60.
Which of the following is an example of jargon? a. Any incident of non-verbal communication b. The manager used video to address the department. c. The MBA used the word downsizing. d. The secretary started a rumour that the company was bankrupt. e. The manager was reluctant to inform the boss that the report was going to be late.
Chapter 10 61.
Which of the following statements about organizational communication is FALSE? a. Physical location affects the opportunity to participate in the grapevine. b. Supervisors can be trained to communicate more effectively. c. It is more difficult to regulate non-verbal communication when the sender has low emotional involvement. d. Organizational grapevines can communicate accurate information. e. Personality plays a role in the transmission of grapevine information.
62.
Non-verbal communication does NOT include a. the way one decorates and arranges one's office. b. the clothing one wears. c. one's use of jargon. d. one's body language. e. props and artifacts.
63.
Which of the following statements about the decor and arrangement of offices is TRUE? a. Although visitors read things into office decor and arrangement, decor and arrangement are unrelated to the personality of the occupant. b. Although office decor and arrangement are related to the personality of the occupant, visitors do not make attributions about the occupant from decor and arrangement. c. Office decor and arrangement neither convey the personality of the occupant nor evoke attributions in visitors about the occupant. d. Employees feel more comfortable when there is a desk between them and their manager. e. An office which is tidy may be seen as more welcoming than one which is messy.
64.
Which of the following is TRUE? a. What is considered polite behaviour is similar across cultures. b. Exit interviews conducted by managers provide a wealth of accurate information. c. The clothing people wear communicates interpretable messages. d. In Latin America, an extended gaze is considered rude. e. Interpretation of emotions in basic facial expressions varies widely across cultures.
65.
What did middle managers working in the California information technology sector use to "profile" the identity and status of office occupants? a. Clothing b. Office decor c. Computer-mediated communication d. 360-degree feedback e. Survey feedback
66.
Which of the following does NOT communicate liking and interest? a. Directing the torso toward the receiver b. Positioning oneself physically closely c. Touching the person on the arm d. Maintaining eye contact e. Leaning forward during an interaction
67.
How does humour operate as a form of communication? a. It affects the emotions of the sender of the communication. b. It affects the cognition of the recipient of the communication. c. It affects the cognition of the sender of the communication. d. It affects the emotions of the recipient of the communication. e. It affects the emotions of the sender and recipient of the communication.
Chapter 10 68.
Why do leaders often employ self-deprecating humour? a. To reduce the power distance between themselves and their subordinates b. To reduce the language distance between themselves and their subordinates c. To reduce the emotional distance between themselves and their subordinates d. To reduce the status distance between themselves and their subordinates e. To reduce the social distance between themselves and their subordinates
69.
What does leader humour facilitate? a. Equality b. Fun c. Respect d. Trust e. All of the above
70.
Which of the following statements about humour is most accurate? a. Managers can develop a good relationship with subordinates by employing humour. b. Managers need to develop a good relationship with subordinates before employing humour. c. Managers need to develop a fun relationship with subordinates before employing humour. d. Managers can develop a fun relationship with subordinates by employing humour. e. Managers can develop a close relationship with subordinates by employing humour.
71.
Which of the following statements about humour is most accurate? a. The use of humour can enhance the status of communicators by making them appear more fun and confident. b. The use of humour can enhance the status of communicators by making them appear more competent and fun. c. The use of humour can enhance the status of communicators by making them appear more competent and confident. d. The use of humour can enhance the status of communicators by making them appear more easy going and confident. e. The use of humour can enhance the status of communicators by making them appear more fun and easy going.
72.
Which of the following statements about clothing is most accurate? a. People who are conventionally well dressed communicate high status, competence, and wealth to others. b. People who are conventionally well dressed communicate high status, power, and authority to others. c. People who are conventionally well dressed communicate high status, power, and wealth to others. d. People who are conventionally well dressed communicate high status, competence, and authority to others. e. People who are conventionally well dressed communicate leadership, competence, and authority to others.
73.
What does the red sneakers effect refer to? a. The occasional tendency for conformity to signal status and competence b. The occasional tendency for nonconformity to signal status and competence c. The occasional tendency for nonconformity to signal status and wealth d. The occasional tendency for conformity to signal status and wealth e. The occasional tendency for nonconformity to signal status and power.
Chapter 10 74.
What was the difference between student job applicants who wore street clothes to an interview and those who wore appropriate formal interview clothing? a. Those who wore appropriate formal interview clothing asked for a higher starting salary than job seekers who wore street clothes. b. Those who wore appropriate formal interview clothing received a higher starting salary than job seekers who wore street clothes. c. Those who wore appropriate formal interview clothing were more likely to be hired than job seekers who wore street clothes. d. Those who wore appropriate formal interview clothing were more likely to be invited back for a second interview than job seekers who wore street clothes. e. Those who wore appropriate formal interview clothing were more likely to be hired for a higher paying job than job seekers who wore street clothes.
75.
Who is most likely to pass on grapevine information? a. Introverts b. Those with high self-esteem c. Extraverts d. Men e. Women
76.
Rumours are a. examples of non-verbal communication. b. examples of jargon. c. always false. d. examples of filtering. e. unverified beliefs.
77.
An organization's informal communication network is known as the a. greenvine. b. gruntvine. c. grapevine. d. gripevine. e. grapeline.
78.
Which of the following does NOT explain what motivates people to gossip via the grapevine? a. A source of information not available through other channels b. An alternative source of power and influence c. A way to release pent-up emotions d. A way to provide social and intellectual stimulation e. A way to be accepted by one's peers
79.
If Lily has a lot of pent-up emotions at work concerning her boss and customers what would be the best way to communicate it? a. Horizontal communication b. Vertical communication c. Downward communication d. The grapevine e. Non-verbal communication
Chapter 10 80.
Maurice is bored with his job and is looking for some social and intellectual stimulation at work. What is he likely to do? a. Write some ideas for the suggestion system b. Use the grapevine to gossip c. Use the organization's telephone hotline d. Change his clothing to communicate e. Voice his concerns
81.
Which of the following is most likely to build a bond of trust between senders and receivers? a. Non-verbal communication b. 360-degree feedback c. Provision of explanations d. Grapevine e. Voice
82.
Which of the following is NOT a reason why rumours spread fastest and farthest? a. When the information is ambiguous b. When the content of the rumour is important to those involved c. When the rumour seems credible d. When the recipient is anxious e. When the sender is anxious
83.
The chain of command is the fastest communication system. a. True b. False
84.
The chain of command is fastest for communication between departments. a. True b. False
85.
What are the basic forms of communication which take place in a chain of command? What factors often lead to ineffective communication in a chain of command?
86.
What is filtering and what are the different forms it can take? Why does filtering occur in organizations?
87.
Voice can be directed to teammates, to the boss, or to management in general. a. True b. False
88.
Voice tends to be perceived as a low-risk form of communication. a. True b. False
89.
Employees who are not satisfied and do not identify strongly with the organization are most likely to exercise voice. a. True b. False
Chapter 10 90.
Employees who are agreeable and extraverted are more likely to speak up. a. True b. False
91.
Much grapevine material involves releasing pent-up emotions. a. True b. False
92.
The exchange of grapevine information can build a bond of trust between senders and receivers. a. True b. False
93.
Gossip can be a source of social and intellectual stimulation. a. True b. False
94.
Research shows that the clothing people wear communicates messages to others. a. True b. False
95.
It is difficult to regulate non-verbal behaviour when we are feeling very strong emotions. a. True b. False
96.
It is easier to regulate non-verbal behaviour when we are feeling very strong emotions. a. True b. False
97.
Proper clothing may enhance self-esteem and self-confidence to a noticeable degree. a. True b. False
98.
Student job applicants who wore appropriate formal interview clothing to an interview asked for a higher starting salary than job seekers who wore street clothes. a. True b. False
99.
Student job applicants who wore appropriate formal interview clothing to an interview received a higher starting salary than job seekers who wore street clothes. a. True b. False
100. Who is most likely to exercise voice? a. Those who are conscientious and agreeable b. Those who are extraverted and agreeable c. Those who are conscientious and extraverted d. Those who are conscientious and introverted e. Those who are agreeable and introverted 101. Body language is a primary example of __________ communication.
Chapter 10 102. The computer analyst called easy problems "dead ducks." This is an example of the use of __________ .
103. Non-verbal communication that occurs by means of facial expressions or physical location relative to the receiver is called __________ .
104. The occasional tendency for nonconformity to signal status and competence is called the __________ effect.
105. Proper clothing may enhance __________ and self-confidence to a noticeable degree.
106. It is difficult to regulate non-verbal behaviour when we are feeling very strong __________ .
107. It is difficult to regulate __________ when we are feeling very strong emotions.
108. Humour operates by affecting the __________ of the recipient of the communications.
109. Effective leaders often employ self-deprecating humour to reduce the __________ distance between themselves and their subordinates.
110. Leader humour facilitates __________ .
111. The use of humour can enhance the __________ of communicators by making them appear more competent and confident.
112. Managers need to develop a good relationship with subordinates before employing __________ .
113. Describe three sources of non-verbal language in a typical workplace. Give an example of each and discuss the messages that they may communicate.
114. Describe what body language is and how it occurs and discuss two ways that senders can communicate with body language.
115. Describe the red sneakers effects and what it communicates about a person.
Chapter 10 116. Describe the use of humour to communicate and the effect it can have in the workplace. Do you think leaders should use humour in the workplace?
117. Which of the following is NOT cited as a distinguishing factor in the differences between male and female communication styles? a. Getting credit b. Asking questions c. Giving compliments d. Boasting e. Gossiping 118. Which of the following is most accurate about communication styles in childhood? a. Girls see conversations as a way to develop networks of connection and maintain independence. b. Boys see conversations as a way to develop networks of connection and maintain independence. c. Girls see conversations as a way to develop networks of connection and as a way to achieve status. d. Boys view conversations as a way to achieve status and to maintain independence. e. Girls view conversations as a way to achieve status and intimacy. 119. Gender differences in communication revolve around what Tannen refers to as the a. one up, two down position. b. one for, one against position. c. one win, one lost position. d. one up, one down position. e. nothing ventured, nothing gained position. 120. Tannen found that there are a number of key differences in male and female communication styles and rituals that often place women in a a. win-lose position. b. lose-lose position. c. one-down position. d. two-down position. e. one-up position. 121. Congruence refers to a condition in which members of an organization's words, thoughts, feelings, and actions all contain the same message. a. True b. False 122. Congruence refers to a condition in which members of an organization's words, thoughts, feelings, and actions of a sender are the same as those of the receiver. a. True b. False 123. Stories are good vehicles for __________ .
124.
__________ occurs when a person's words, thoughts, feelings, and actions all contain the same message.
125.
__________ promote upward communication by soliciting ideas for work improvements from employees.
Chapter 10 126. After the interview, Mika realized that the interviewer's words, thoughts, feelings, and actions all contained the same message—this is something that is called __________ .
127. The 360-degree system usually focuses on required __________ rather than bottom-line performance.
128. Surveys of the attitudes and opinions of current employees can provide a useful means of __________ communication.
129. Surveys are especially useful when they are administered __________ .
130. When survey results are fed back to employees, along with managerial responses and any plans for changes, this feedback should enhance __________ communication.
131. Suggestion systems are designed to enhance __________ communication.
132. Two factors are critical to the perceived fairness of controversial policies: the adequacy of the explanation and the __________ with which they are delivered.
133. A review of research concluded that an adequate explanation for a policy decision reduced employees' tendencies to __________ .
134. Enterprise social media refers to a private work-related social media platform that is accessible to the general public. a. True b. False 135. The essential feature of an enterprise social media platform is the capacity to communicate with the general public or to broadcast messages widely. a. True b. False 136. The less routine the message, the __________ the communication medium that should be used.
137. The potential information-carrying capacity of a communication medium is known as __________ .
138. Two important dimensions of information richness are the extent to which both parties receive non-verbal and paraverbal cues, and the degree to which the information is __________ between senders and receivers.
Chapter 10 139. Communication that relies on digital technology to facilitate information exchange is called ________ .
140. Computer-mediated groups perform more __________ than face-to-face groups.
141. One challenge posed by social media is that they can be addictive to the extent that employees engage in __________ while at work.
142. One challenge posed by __________ is that they can be addictive to the extent that employees engage in cyberloafing while at work.
143. A recent study found that cyberloafers tended to be younger, __________ , better-educated men.
144. Enterprise social __________ refers to a private work-related social media platform that is accessible only by organizational members.
145. Enterprise social media refers to a private work-related social media platform that is accessible only by __________ members.
146. The essential feature of __________ social media is the capacity to communicate with specific co-workers or to broadcast messages widely.
147. High levels of __________ consumption contribute to reduced personal well-being.
148. Julia Franco, the VP of Operations at Zeta Manufacturing, is concerned about the consistently low levels of productivity in the assembly plant. At a meeting with company executives, she proposes that the company invite comments from employees through their internal email system and through an anonymous employee survey and feedback system. Gordon Wong, the VP of Human Resources disagrees. He says, "The best way to get honest and detailed information from these workers is to schedule face-to-face interviews. Only then will we be able to get to the real source of the productivity and morale problems in the assembly unit." Who do you think is correct? Explain your answer.
149. How do computer-mediated groups compare to face-to-face groups when tasked with making a decision?
150. What accounts for the slow development of trust using text-based computer-mediated communication?
151. Discuss the challenges and opportunities of social media for organizations and their members.
Chapter 10 152. Describe an enterprise social media and give an example of how it can be used by an organization and its members.
153. Which of the following is NOT a basic principle of effective communication? a. Take the time b. Listen c. Provide feedback d. Use jargon e. Exhibit congruence 154. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate active listening technique? a. Awareness of body language b. Asking questions c. Showing empathy d. Responding as soon as possible e. Paraphrasing what the speaker means 155. Which of the following provides information in a 360-degree feedback system? a. Clients b. Employees c. Peers d. Superiors e. All of the above 156. The performance appraisal system that has been adopted by several companies to enhance communication is called a. peer review. b. 180-degree feedback. c. 360-degree feedback. d. employee-manager process review. e. query system. 157. An employee hotline generally a. is a means of downward communication. b. uses the richest communication medium available. c. is a form of non-verbal communication. d. replaces an employee suggestion system. e. replaces the 360-degree feedback system. 158. Traditionally, employee performance appraisal has been viewed as an exercise in a. horizontal communication. b. informal communication. c. upward communication. d. downward communication. e. ineffective communication. 159. What do these organizations have in common: Air Canada and Bell Canada? a. TV networks b. Telephone hotlines c. Suggestion systems d. 360-degree feedback e. Employee surveys and survey feedback
Chapter 10 160. 360-degree feedback systems usually focus on a. bottom-line performance. b. behavioural competencies. c. group performance. d. individual performance. e. all aspects of performance. 161. 360-degree feedback is usually used for a. employee development and salary determination. b. employee development. c. salary determination. d. advancement potential. e. employee development and advancement potential. 162. After six months on your new job, you were expecting your boss to provide you with a review of your performance. However, to your surprise, your co-workers and clients are also providing information on your performance. What is this an example of? a. Congruence b. Information richness c. Grapevine d. Survey feedback e. 360-degree feedback 163. When survey results are fed back to employees, along with management responses and any plans for changes, this feedback should enhance a. downward communication. b. upward communication. c. horizontal communication. d. informal communication. e. upward and downward communication. 164. What are suggestion systems designed to do? a. To enhance upward and downward communication b. To enhance horizontal communication c. To enhance horizontal and upward communication d. To enhance upward communication e. To enhance downward communication 165. Jake has described something to you that you have never heard about. All employees in his organization are allowed to write down and submit ideas for improvements. What is this called? a. Employee survey b. 360-degree feedback c. Suggestion system d. Survey feedback e. Telephone hotline 166. Storytelling can be used to a. convey subtle knowledge. b. reinforce organizational norms and values. c. stimulate organizational change. d. tell a cautionary tale. e. All of the above.
Chapter 10 167. What factors are critical to the perceived fairness of controversial policies? a. The adequacy of the explanation b. The adequacy of the outcome c. The style with which they are delivered d. The adequacy of the explanation and the style with which they are delivered e. The adequacy of the outcome and the style with which they are delivered 168. What effect did an adequate explanation for a policy decision have on employees? a. It reduced their tendency to quit. b. It reduced their stress. c. It improved their job performance. d. It reduced their tendency to retaliate. e. It reduced their tendency to be absent. 169. The CEO of the Stinky Cheese Company met with all of the company's employees to express sincere remorse at having to lay off workers and to explain why this was necessary. What is this an example of? a. Voice b. Provision of explanations c. Informal communication d. The grapevine e. Congruence 170. When providing an explanation for a controversial policy, what should an organization do? a. Use the grapevine b. Use informal communication c. Use a telephone hotline, intranet, or webcast d. Use a rich communication medium e. Use a computer-mediated communication 171. 360-degree feedback is also known as a. circular feedback. b. multisource feedback. c. multiple feedback. d. full circle feedback. e. multipurpose feedback. 172. What is the goal of employer branding? a. To promote a clear and consistent image of the positive and distinctive features of an organization as a good corporate citizen b. To promote a clear and consistent image of the positive and distinctive features of an organization as an employer c. To promote a clear and consistent image of the positive and distinctive features of an organization as a member of the community d. To promote a clear and consistent image of the positive and distinctive features of an organization to its customers e. To promote a clear and consistent image of the positive and distinctive features of an organization's products and services
Chapter 10 173. Which of the following statements is most accurate about employer branding? a. Branding is first and foremost used to attract new customers. b. Branding is first and foremost used to communicate to organizational members. c. Branding is first and foremost used to communicate to the general public. d. Branding is first and foremost used to attract new employees. e. Branding is first and foremost used to publicize new products and services. 174. Which of the following is NOT an example of a tangible factor associated with effective branding? a. Social responsibility b. Pay c. Location d. Learning opportunities e. Perks 175. Which of the following is NOT an example of a symbolic factor associated with effective branding? a. Social responsibility b. Prestige c. Innovation d. Culture e. Perks 176. What is the tool of choice when it comes to employer branding? a. Print media b. Social media platforms c. Organization websites d. Television e. Conferences 177. Which of the following is most accurate about the use of stories? a. They are good vehicles for humour. b. They are good vehicles for learning. c. They are good vehicles for feedback. d. They are good vehicles for branding. e. They are good vehicles for improving job performance. 178. The condition in which a person's words, thoughts, feelings, and actions all contain the same message is called a. synchronization. b. agreement. c. alignment. d. concordance. e. congruence. 179. What is the meaning of congruence? a. Two or more persons have the same thoughts, feelings, and actions. b. A person's words, thoughts, feelings, and actions all contain the same message. c. Organization members' words, thoughts, feelings, and actions all contain the same message. d. Employees' and managers' words, thoughts, feelings, and actions all contain the same message. e. The message received by a receiver is the same as the message intended by the sender.
Chapter 10 180. Which of the following is most accurate about the use of stories? a. They do not require a rich communication medium and are best told using computer-mediated communications. b. They require a rich communication medium and are best told face to face. c. They require a rich communication medium and are best told using memos. d. They do not require a rich communication medium and are best told using text-based media. e. They require a rich communication medium and are best told in a phone conversation. 181. A performance appraisal system that has been adopted by several companies to enhance communication is called 360-degree feedback. a. True b. False 182. Telling a story can be an effective way to communicate. a. True b. False 183. Stories require a rich communication medium and are best told face to face. a. True b. False 184. Stories require a rich communication medium and are best told in a memo or letter. a. True b. False 185. Stories are good vehicles for learning. a. True b. False 186. Stories are good vehicles for changing people's attitudes. a. True b. False 187. Clients, employees, and __________ all provide information in a 360-degree feedback system.
188. Information richness refers to the cost of using an information medium. a. True b. False 189. One should consistently try to use the communication medium that is richest in information. a. True b. False 190. As the routineness of the message to be sent increases, a richer communication medium should be chosen. a. True b. False 191. Employees who are conscientious and extraverted are more likely to speak up. a. True b. False
Chapter 10 192. High "voicers" report more work stress than those who remain silent. a. True b. False 193. High "voicers" report less work stress than those who remain silent. a. True b. False 194. Jacques spends much of his time speaking up to others in the organization about his concerns and disagreements about the organization's practices. As a result, he tends to experience much more work stress than his co-workers who choose to be silent. a. True b. False 195. The mum effect is even more likely when the sender is responsible for bad news. a. True b. False 196. The tendency to avoid communicating unfavourable news to others is called non-verbal communication. a. True b. False 197. The mum effect is an example of filtering. a. True b. False 198. Voice is a form of organizational citizenship behaviour. a. True b. False 199. Voice can be contrasted with silence. a. True b. False 200. Humour operates by affecting the emotions of the recipient of the communication. a. True b. False 201. Rumours seem to spread fastest and farthest when the recipient is anxious. a. True b. False 202. Humour operates by affecting the emotions of the sender of the communication. a. True b. False 203. Humour can serve as a potent antidote to workplace stress. a. True b. False
Chapter 10 204. Humour can serve as a potent antidote to workplace depression. a. True b. False 205. Effective leaders often employ self-deprecating humour to reduce the social distance between themselves and their subordinates. a. True b. False 206. Effective leaders often employ self-deprecating humour to reduce the power distance between themselves and their subordinates. a. True b. False 207. Humour is risky. a. True b. False 208. An atmosphere of psychological safety is important for using the grapevine. a. True b. False 209. The mum effect works against voice. a. True b. False 210. Psychological safety refers to a shared belief that it is safe to take social risks. a. True b. False 211. Psychological safety refers to a shared belief that it is safe to communicate. a. True b. False 212. Self-censorship will result in a climate of silence. a. True b. False 213. The tendency to avoid communicating bad news to others is called the __________ .
214. Rumours seem to spread fastest and farthest when the sender is anxious. a. True b. False 215. Gossip can contribute to effective communication. a. True b. False 216. An unverified belief in general circulation is a(n) __________ .
Chapter 10 217. The informal communication network found in all organizations is called the __________ .
218. What is a rumour and when are rumours likely to spread fastest and farthest?
219. Jargon a. often leads to effective communication. b. often leads to ineffective communication. c. is usually characteristic of particular jobs or occupations. d. can be very intimidating to new organizational members. e. All of the above 220. Jargon is an unverified belief that is in general circulation. a. True b. False 221. The smaller the difference in physical relaxation between two parties, the more they communicate a status differential to each other. a. True b. False 222. Jargon can both facilitate and damage the effectiveness of communication. a. True b. False 223. Writing is classified as verbal communication rather than non-verbal communication. a. True b. False 224. Which of the following best represents the accuracy of the grapevine? a. At least 75 percent of the controversial organizationally related information carried by the grapevine is correct. b. At least 75 percent of the non-controversial organizationally related information carried by the grapevine is correct. c. At least 75 percent of the controversial organizationally related information carried by the grapevine is incorrect. d. At least 75 percent of the non-controversial organizationally related information carried by the grapevine is incorrect. e. At least 75 percent of the controversial and non-controversial organizationally related information carried by the grapevine is incorrect. 225. The grapevine can transmit information relevant to the performance of an organization as well as personal gossip. a. True b. False 226. Due to their similar appearance, the grapevine is an informal term for the chain of command. a. True b. False
Chapter 10 227. The information that is communicated through the grapevine is almost always communicated through word of mouth. a. True b. False 228. The grapevine can provide an alternative source of power and influence. a. True b. False 229. In an electronic meeting, men and women are equally likely to offer the first idea. a. True b. False 230. High levels of social media consumption contribute to reduced personal well-being. a. True b. False 231. High levels of social media consumption contribute to reduced job performance. a. True b. False 232. The richest of communications media is __________ .
233. How does communicating electronically through email differ from face-to-face communication and when should it be used and avoided?
234. Feedback is not a basic principle of effective communication. a. True b. False 235. Telephone hotlines are developed to improve horizontal communication. a. True b. False 236. When listening to another person, good communication techniques recommend expressing your opinion as soon as possible. a. True b. False 237. When supervisors receive performance ratings from multiple employees, it is called multisource feedback. a. True b. False 238. Gender differences in communication develop during adulthood. a. True b. False 239. The goal of employer branding is to promote an organization's products and services. a. True b. False
Chapter 10 240. Branding is first and foremost used to attract and recruit new employees. a. True b. False 241. Branding is first and foremost used to inform customers about an organization's new products and services. a. True b. False 242. Effective branding conveys both tangible and more symbolic aspects of the employment experience. a. True b. False 243. The focus of effective branding is tangible aspects of the employment experience. a. True b. False 244. The focus of effective branding is symbolic aspects of the employment experience. a. True b. False 245. Richer communication media are more appropriate to convey employer branding. a. True b. False 246. Well-tailored organization websites have been the tool of choice for conveying employer branding. a. True b. False 247. The red sneakers effect refers to the occasional tendency for nonconformity to signal status and competence. a. True b. False 248. The red sneakers effect refers to the occasional tendency for conformity to signal status and competence. a. True b. False 249. People who are conventionally well dressed communicate high status, competence, and authority to others. a. True b. False 250. If Lane has pent-up emotions concerning her boss, then she might use the grapevine. a. True b. False 251. The grapevine is a timely, inexpensive source of information. a. True b. False 252. If Orli finds her new job boring, she just might begin to gossip for social and intellectual stimulation. a. True b. False
Chapter 10 253. Rumours seem to spread fastest and farthest when the information is especially ambiguous. a. True b. False 254. Voice can be directed to a. teammates. b. one's boss. c. management. d. teammates, one's boss, or management. e. one's boss or management. 255. People who are conventionally well dressed communicate high status, wealth, and power to others. a. True b. False 256. Humour is usually pretty safe. a. True b. False 257. The use of humour can enhance the status of communicators by making them appear more competent and confident. a. True b. False 258. The use of humour can hurt the status of communicators by making them appear thoughtless and irresponsible. a. True b. False 259. Managers need to develop a good relationship with subordinates before employing humour. a. True b. False 260. Managers can develop a good relationship with subordinates by employing humour. a. True b. False 261.
__________ is the specialized verbal language characteristic of a particular occupation, profession, or organization.
262. Leader humour facilitates trust. a. True b. False 263. Leader humour can hurt trust. a. True b. False 264. Paid suggestion systems tend to be the most effective for sharing information. a. True b. False
Chapter 10 265. Congruence refers to a condition in which a person's words, thoughts, feelings, and actions all contain the same message. a. True b. False 266. Cyberloafers tend to be introverted men. a. True b. False 267. People with demanding and challenging jobs report more cyberloafing. a. True b. False 268. Social media can aid in problem solving and innovation. a. True b. False 269. Social media can be harmful for problem solving and innovation. a. True b. False 270. Enterprise social media refers to a private work-related social media platform that is accessible only by organizational members. a. True b. False 271. Enterprise social media platforms can feature blogs, wikis, and document sharing. a. True b. False 272. The essential feature of an enterprise social media platform is the capacity to communicate with specific coworkers or to broadcast messages widely. a. True b. False 273. Telus employs an enterprise social media platform. a. True b. False 274. Web media are commonly classified as computer-mediated communication. a. True b. False 275. In principle, social media messages are permanent, and they can be sent anonymously. a. True b. False 276. Computer-mediated groups enhance the quality of ideas generated. a. True b. False
Chapter 10 277. Computer-mediated groups perform more poorly than face-to-face groups. a. True b. False 278. Face-to-face communication is an example of highly synchronous communication. a. True b. False 279. In an electronic meeting, men are more likely to offer the first idea. a. True b. False 280. In a face-to-face meeting, men and women are equally likely to offer the first idea. a. True b. False 281. E-mail is less prone to miscommunication than chat formats. a. True b. False 282. People strongly overestimate their skill in both communicating and interpreting sarcasm, humour, and emotions via email. a. True b. False 283. One of the challenges of social media is cyberloafing. a. True b. False 284. Cyberloafers tend to be less-educated men. a. True b. False 285. Men are more likely to blow their own horn about something good they have done. a. True b. False 286. Girls see conversations as a way to develop networks of connection and intimacy. a. True b. False 287. Girls see conversations as a way to develop networks of connection and to maintain independence. a. True b. False 288. Boys see conversations as a way to develop networks of connection and to maintain independence. a. True b. False 289. Boys see conversations as a way to achieve status and to maintain independence. a. True b. False
Chapter 10 290. Gender differences in communication revolve around what Tannen refers to as the "win-lose" position. a. True b. False 291. Gender differences in communication revolve around what Tannen refers to as the "one up, one down" position. a. True b. False 292. There are a number of key differences in male and female communication styles and rituals that often place __________ in a one-down position.
293. Gender differences in communication revolve around what Tannen refers to as the __________ position.
294. Girls see conversations as a way to develop networks of connection and __________ .
295. Boys see conversations as a way to achieve status and to maintain __________ .
296. What is the nature of gender differences in communication, and what are the key differences in male and female communication styles?
297. In which of the following cases is cross-cultural communication very good? a. Understanding symbolic gestures b. Conveying etiquette and politeness c. Agreeing on what constitutes punctuality d. Interpreting basic emotions in facial expressions e. Physical proximity and contact 298. You are a member of a Canadian company trying to negotiate with a Chinese firm. Which of the following instructions should you be sure to follow? a. Keep meetings with the Chinese firm brief and to the point. b. Provide the Chinese firm with long, detailed contracts. c. Ensure that all members of your team are able to jump into the discussion at any time. d. Provide the Chinese firm with knowledge of yourself and your culture. e. Ignore differences in age and rank when dealing with the Chinese firm. 299. Which of the following is an example of a high-context culture? a. Canada b. Australia c. Northern Europe d. Scandinavia e. Japan
Chapter 10 300. When doing business with people from Arab countries it is wise to avoid a. touching. b. extended gaze. c. sitting or standing close together. d. discussions about your family or personal life. e. getting down to business very quickly. 301. ________ are one of the few forms of communication that have similar meanings across cultures. a. Physical gestures b. Facial expressions of basic emotions c. Social conventions d. Lubricant expressions e. Greetings 302. Showing up late for a meeting is a sign of success in a. Japan. b. the United States. c. Canada. d. Brazil. e. Germany 303. You are a member of a Canadian company trying to negotiate with a German firm. Which of the following instructions should you be sure to follow? a. Keep meetings with the German firm brief and to the point. b. Provide the German firm with short, non-detailed contracts. c. Ensure all members of your team speak privately to you and you convey their message. d. Provide the German firm with knowledge of yourself and your culture. e. Use lubricant expressions to soften rejection. 304. Which of the following has the highest context culture? a. North America b. Latin America c. Scandinavia d. Germany e. Australia 305. Which of the following has the lowest context culture? a. Japan b. Switzerland c. Egypt d. China e. Australia 306. Which message translates best across cultures? a. A look of anger b. A "thumbs up" signal c. A touch while speaking d. A lubricant expression e. Arriving late for a meeting
Chapter 10 307. A recent study of over 800 foreign subsidiaries of multinational firms indicated that language differences between headquarters and subsidiaries a. are not as significant as they used to be. b. pose very few challenges. c. are much greater than expected. d. pose substantial challenges. e. are much smaller than expected. 308. One solution to language differences between headquarters and subsidiaries a. is not to have a language policy. b. is to have an English-only policy. c. is to allow a variety of languages to be spoken. d. is to only speak the language spoken at headquarters. e. is to only speak the language spoken at the subsidiaries. 309. Companies with English-only policies have experienced a. improved cross-cultural communication. b. very few language differences. c. the reduction of language problems. d. a host of problems. e. resentment from foreign subsidiaries. 310. A study of over 800 foreign subsidiaries of multinational firms indicated that language differences between headquarters and subsidiaries resulted in a. less face-to-face interaction and emails. b. less face-to-face and telephone interaction. c. less social gatherings and emails. d. more face-to-face and telephone interaction. e. more social gatherings and emails. 311. In North America, there is a social norm that a. professional people should communicate personal information in work settings. b. professional people should communicate work information in work settings. c. professional people should not communicate too much personal information in work settings. d. professional people should not communicate too much work information in work settings. e. professional people should not communicate through the grapevine in work settings. 312. Which of the following is seen as less professional in North America? a. Using the grapevine to communicate b. Non-verbal communication c. Excessive personalization of one's office with non-work references d. Excessive personalization of one's office with work references e. Spreading rumours in the workplace 313. In what country is an extended gaze favoured? a. France b. Germany c. Canada d. Latin America e. Australia
Chapter 10 314. Which of the following contributes to understanding over and above words within cultures? a. Facial expressions b. Gestures c. Gaze d. Touch e. All of the above 315. People are good at interpreting simple, basic emotions in facial expressions, even when the target person is from another culture. a. True b. False 316. Physical gestures are one of the few means of communication that have similar meanings across cultures. a. True b. False 317. While Europeans favour an extended gaze, most Latin Americans avoid this form of communication. a. True b. False 318. As a form of communication, Arabs are more likely than Canadians to favour touch. a. True b. False 319. While Arabs favour an extended gaze, most Europeans avoid this form of communication. a. True b. False 320. In Brazil, being late to a meeting is considered the sign of a successful person. a. True b. False 321. In Japan, there are various set phrases for expressing sympathy, rejection, or apology that are designed to maintain harmony. These phrases are called "lubricant expressions." a. True b. False 322. Language differences between headquarters and subsidiaries of multinational firms seldom pose problems. a. True b. False 323. Language differences between headquarters and subsidiaries of multinational firms can result in less face-toface and telephone interaction. a. True b. False 324. One solution to language differences between headquarters and subsidiaries of multinational firms is an English-only policy. a. True b. False
Chapter 10 325. An English-only policy is the most effective solution to language differences between headquarters and subsidiaries of multinational firms. a. True b. False 326. In North America, there is a social norm that professional people should go out of their way to communicate personal information in work settings. a. True b. False 327. Excessive personalization of one's office with non-work references concerning one's family, hobbies, or leisure travels is seen as less professional in North America. a. True b. False 328. In North America, trying to build rapport by discussing one's family life in an employment interview is considered a sign of professionalism. a. True b. False 329. Across cultures, gestures actually contribute to understanding over and above words. a. True b. False 330.
__________ is the cultural information that surrounds a communication episode.
331. In Japan, a set phrase that expresses sympathy, softens rejection, or facilitates apology is called a(n) __________ expression.
332. In Brazil, being __________ for an appointment is a sign of success.
333. Cross-culturally, people are probably best at decoding basic, simple __________ in facial expressions.
334. To some extent, __________ has become the default language of global business.
335.
__________ differences between headquarters and subsidiaries pose substantial challenges.
336.
__________ do not translate well across cultures.
337. One solution to language differences between headquarters and subsidiaries of multinational firms is __________ -only policies.
Chapter 10 338. What is considered proper professional behaviour varies across __________ .
339. In North America, there is a social __________ that professional people should not communicate too much personal information in work settings.
340. In North America, there is a social norm __________ that professional people should not communicate too much __________ information in work settings.
341. Within cultures, __________ actually contribute to understanding over and above words.
342. Carole Robson, the new International Sales Manager for Kapster Enterprises, is about to make her first sales trip to Japan. Using your knowledge of cultural context, etiquette, and social conventions, what advice would you give her?
343. The Bouncy Ball Toy Company is a multinational company with subsidiaries around the world. However, the company has come to realize that language differences between headquarters and subsidiaries are a major challenge. What are some of the consequences of language differences and what are some possible solutions to this challenge?
344. Discuss some of the similarities and differences in non-verbal communication across cultures.
345. According to the text, which medium can transmit the richest information? a. Video b. Face-to-face interaction c. Computer d. Telephone e. Written memos 346. Which statement about media choice and communication is TRUE? a. It is best to always choose the medium that is capable of transmitting the richest information. b. Less-routine messages require richer media. c. Routine messages require richer media. d. Richer media consistently lead to better communication. e. Richer media lead to lower levels of censorship.
Chapter 10 347. Two important dimensions of information richness are a. the degree to which information is synchronous and the extent to which both parties can receive nonverbal and paraverbal cues. b. the degree to which information is asynchronous and the extent to which both parties can receive nonverbal and paraverbal cues. c. the degree to which information is synchronous and the extent to which both parties can receive paraverbal cues. d. the degree to which information is asynchronous and the extent to which both parties can receive paraverbal cues. e. the degree to which information is synchronous and the extent to which both parties can receive nonverbal cues. 348. Which of the following is an example of high synchronous communication? a. Memos b. Letters c. Email d. Chat e. Face-to-face 349. Which of the following are high on non-verbal and paraverbal cues? a. Face-to-face interaction and email b. Face-to-face interaction and memos c. Letters and memos d. Face-to-face interaction and videoconferencing e. Computer-mediated groups and face-to-face interactions 350. The most information rich media are a. highly asynchronous and high in paraverbal cues. b. highly asynchronous and high in non-verbal and paraverbal cues. c. highly synchronous and high in non-verbal cues. d. highly synchronous and high in paraverbal cues. e. highly synchronous and high in non-verbal and paraverbal cues. 351. Computer-mediated groups have been found to a. enhance the quality of ideas generated. b. enhance the number of ideas generated. c. enhance the richness of communication. d. enhance the number and quality of ideas generated. e. enhance the speed with which ideas are generated. 352. People strongly overestimate their skill in both communicating and interpreting sarcasm, humour, and emotions via a. teleconference. b. videoconference. c. email. d. chat formats. e. face-to-face.
Chapter 10 353. Which of the following is a challenge posed by social media? a. Excessive use of the grapevine b. Spreading of rumours c. Cyberloafing d. A breakdown of etiquette and politeness e. Language differences 354. Which of the following is a characteristic of cyberloafers? a. Better educated men b. Better educated women c. Poorly educated men d. Poorly educated women e. Poorly educated men and women 355. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of cyberloafers? a. Better educated b. Young c. Extraverted d. Male e. Low self-esteem 356. A private work-related social media platform that is accessible only by organizational members is called a. organization social media. b. enterprise social media. c. employee platform for social media. d. social media platform. e. social media enterprise. 357. What is the essential feature of enterprise social media? a. The capacity to communicate with specific co-workers or to broadcast messages widely b. The capacity to communicate with the general public or to broadcast messages widely c. The capacity to communicate with an organization's customers or to broadcast messages widely d. The capacity to communicate with senior management or to broadcast messages widely e. The capacity for upward, downward, and horizontal communication that is available to all organizational members 358. Which of the following organizations does the text cite as employing an enterprise social media platform? a. Bell Canada b. Sick Kids Hospital c. Telus d. Air Canada e. General Electric 359. Web media are commonly classified as a. web-mediated communication. b. computer-mediated communication. c. web media communication. d. computer-media communication. e. electronic communication.
Chapter 10 360. What were the main findings of a study of executives in an electronic meeting? a. Men were five times more likely than women to offer an initial idea. b. Women were five times more likely than me to offer an initial idea. c. Men were two times more likely than women to offer an initial idea. d. Women were two times more likely than men to offer an initial idea. e. Men and women were equally likely to offer the first idea. 361. What happens when computer-mediated groups that have to make a decision meet for only a single session compared to face-to-face groups? a. They take less time and make more effective decisions. b. They take less time and make less effective decisions. c. They take more time and make more effective decisions. d. They take more time and make less effective decisions. e. They take the same time as face-to-face groups and make more effective decisions. 362. What happens when computer-mediated groups that have to make a decision meet for only a single session compared to face-to-face groups? a. They have less satisfied members and make more effective decisions. b. They have more satisfied members and make more effective decisions. c. They have more satisfied members and make less effective decisions. d. They have less satisfied members and make less effective decisions. e. They take the same time as face-to-face groups and have more satisfied members. 363. Which of the following is most accurate about enterprise social media platforms? a. They are restricted to senior management. b. They are restricted to an organization's customers. c. They are restricted to organizational members. d. They are only restricted in the case of sensitive information. e. They are not restricted at all. 364. Which of the following is NOT one of the most important features of enterprise social media platforms? a. Opportunity to post b. Opportunity to search c. Opportunity to edit d. Opportunity to comment e. Opportunity to evaluate 365. High levels of social media consumption contribute to a. improved personal well-being. b. improved social awareness. c. lower work performance. d. more stress and burnout. e. reduced personal well-being. 366. The goal of employer branding is to promote a clear and consistent image of the positive and distinctive features of an organization as an employer. a. True b. False 367. To some extent, English has become the default language of global business. a. True b. False
Chapter 10 368. What is considered proper professional behaviour is the same across cultures. a. True b. False 369. Within cultures, gestures actually contribute to understanding over and above words. a. True b. False 370. Suggestion systems are designed to enhance upward and downward communication. a. True b. False 371. A rich communication medium should be used to improve the perceived fairness of controversial policies. a. True b. False 372. An adequate explanation for a policy decision can reduce employees' tendencies to quit. a. True b. False 373. An adequate explanation for a policy decision can reduce employees' tendencies to retaliate. a. True b. False 374. Social media platforms have been the tool of choice for conveying employer branding. a. True b. False 375. Paid suggestion systems can motivate secrecy rather than sharing. a. True b. False 376. Providing a clear and consistent image of the positive and distinctive features of an organization as an employer is known as __________ .
377.
__________ is first and foremost used to attract and recruit new employees.
378. Stories require a rich communication medium and are best told __________ .
379. Stories require a __________ communication medium and are best told face to face.
380. What is active listening? Describe the main techniques involved.
Chapter 10 381. The Stinky Cheese Company is opening a new plant and needs to hire several hundred new employees. Unfortunately, it is having a very difficult time attracting and recruiting new employees due to the false perception that it is a smelly place to work. You have been hired as a consultant to help them with employer branding. What will you tell them about employer branding in terms of what it is, what kind of factors it conveys, and how best to convey it?
382. Discuss the basic principles of effective communication.
383. Discuss the basic principles of effective cross-cultural communication.
384. ACME Realty wants to provide employees with feedback, but have found that the traditional approach of having the boss tell employees how they are doing has become time consuming and difficult as the number of employees continues to increase. The company is considering using 360-feedback, but management does not know very much about it. They have hired you to explain to them what it is and what it can be used for. What will you tell them?
385. Discuss three techniques that an organization can use to improve communication.
386.
Renswartz Realty recently implemented a suggestion system. They placed suggestion boxes in various locations throughout the organization and asked employees to put written ideas for improvement in the boxes. However, after six months very few employees have provided suggestions. You have been hired as a consultant to improve the system. You need to tell management what a suggestion system is, why their system is not very effective, and what they can do to make it more effective. What will you tell them?
387. What can an organization do to improve the perceived fairness of controversial policies?
388. The Stinky Cheese Company has just realized that they must lower the pay of all employees. They need to inform employees about the new policy, but they are concerned about employees' reaction and resistance to it. They want to make sure that employees perceive the new policy as fair. What should they do?
Chapter 10
Test Name: 1.
b.the exchange of information.
2.
c.decode
3.
a.Bashir, who is writing a technical report
4.
c.Wilhelm, who is studying blueprints
5.
a.timely
6.
d.Writing a letter
7.
c.The vice-president of marketing sends a memo to the vice-president of manufacturing.
8.
a.it ignores informal communication.
9.
b.Juan didn't tell his employees about their impending layoffs.
10.
d.horizontal
11.
d.Upward and downward communication
12.
a.True
13.
filtering
14.
on time
15.
a.More satisfied employees who identify more strongly with their work unit or organization
16.
e.Direct supervisors and higher-level managers
17.
c.They report less work stress than those who remain silent.
18.
b.voice.
19.
e.The mum effect
20.
d.Self-censorship
21.
d.Silence
22.
mum effect
23.
mum effect
24.
Voice
25.
silence
26.
voice
Chapter 10 27.
organizational citizenship behaviour
28.
management
29.
risky
30.
satisfied
31.
extraverted
32.
Psychological safety
33.
silence
34.
stress
35.
Voice refers to the constructive expression of disagreement or concern about work unit or organizational practices. It can be directed horizontally, to teammates, or vertically, to the boss or to management in general. More satisfied employees who identify strongly with their work unit or organization are most likely to speak up, as are those who are conscientious and extraverted.
36.
A positive climate is important for employee voice. Employees will be more likely to speak up when there exists a positive climate for voice. Direct supervisors and higher-level managers play a critical role in creating a climate in which constructive dissent can emerge. Both direct support for dissent as well as symbolic stories about what has happened to those who exercise voice are strong determinants of such a climate. Meeting employees informally on their own turf and not unfairly punishing honest mistakes can foster a positive climate for voice. All of these factors can contribute to an atmosphere of psychological safety which refers to a shared belief that it is safe to take social risks.
37.
A positive climate is important for employee voice. Employees will be more likely to speak up when there exists a positive climate for voice. You should tell the company that direct supervisors and higher-level managers play a critical role in creating a climate in which constructive dissent can emerge. Both direct support for dissent as well as symbolic stories about what has happened to those who exercise voice are strong determinants of such a climate. You should let the company know that meeting employees informally on their own turf and not unfairly punishing honest mistakes can foster a positive climate for voice. All of these factors can contribute to an atmosphere of psychological safety which refers to a shared belief that it is safe to take social risks.
38.
a.True
39.
a.employees with good performance ratings are more likely to be informed of those ratings than employees with bad ratings.
40.
d.The mum effect caused the workers to have decoding problems.
41.
e.The young lawyer who lost the court case delayed telling the senior partner of the law firm.
42.
c.voice.
43.
d.filtering.
44.
a.fail to encode bad news.
45.
c.speaking up.
Chapter 10 46.
c.how information filtering occurs.
47.
c.voice.
48.
d.A shared belief that it is safe to take social risks
49.
e.silence.
50.
b.withholding relevant information.
51.
a.organizational citizenship behaviour.
52.
d.Voice
53.
grapevine
54.
grapevine
55.
gossip
56.
The grapevine is an organization's informal communication network. The grapevine can have both positive and negative effects on an organization. On the positive side, the grapevine can keep employees informed about important organizational matters, add a little interest and diversion to the work setting, and be used to test employee reactions to proposed changes before they are formally introduced. On the negative side, the grapevine can become a pipeline for rumours, which may affect performance and morale.
57.
There are several things that might motivate people to gossip through the grapevine. First, it can be a timely, inexpensive source of information that isn't available through other channels. Second, this information can provide an alternative source of power and influence. Third, much grapevine material involves releasing pentup emotions concerning bosses or customers that can't otherwise be comfortably expressed, and the exchange of delicate information can build a bond of trust between senders and receivers. Fourth, some jobs are so boring that gossip provides one of the few available sources of social and intellectual stimulation.
58.
d.decorating with plants and posters.
59.
c.verbal communication.
60.
c.The MBA used the word downsizing.
61.
c.It is more difficult to regulate non-verbal communication when the sender has low emotional involvement.
62.
c.one's use of jargon.
63.
e.An office which is tidy may be seen as more welcoming than one which is messy.
64.
c.The clothing people wear communicates interpretable messages.
65.
b.Office decor
66.
c.Touching the person on the arm
67.
d.It affects the emotions of the recipient of the communication.
68.
e.To reduce the social distance between themselves and their subordinates
Chapter 10 69.
d.Trust
70.
b.Managers need to develop a good relationship with subordinates before employing humour.
71.
c.The use of humour can enhance the status of communicators by making them appear more competent and confident.
72.
d.People who are conventionally well dressed communicate high status, competence, and authority to others.
73.
b.The occasional tendency for nonconformity to signal status and competence
74.
a.Those who wore appropriate formal interview clothing asked for a higher starting salary than job seekers who wore street clothes.
75.
c.Extraverts
76.
e.unverified beliefs.
77.
c.grapevine.
78.
e.A way to be accepted by one's peers
79.
d.The grapevine
80.
b.Use the grapevine to gossip
81.
d.Grapevine
82.
e.When the sender is anxious
83.
b.False
84.
b.False
85.
The basic forms of communication are downward, upward, and horizontal. Deficiencies may arise due to informal communication, filtering, and slowness.
86.
Filtering is the tendency for a message to be watered down or stopped during transmission. Upward filtering often occurs because employees do not feel the information is important enough to pass along, or because they are afraid that their boss will use the information against them. Downward filtering is often due to time pressures or simple lack of attention to detail, but it may also be due to more sinister motives. Some managers filter downward communications to maintain an edge on their subordinates.
87.
a.True
88.
b.False
89.
b.False
90.
b.False
91.
a.True
92.
a.True
Chapter 10 93.
a.True
94.
a.True
95.
a.True
96.
b.False
97.
a.True
98.
a.True
99.
b.False
100. c.Those who are conscientious and extraverted 101. non-verbal 102. jargon 103. body language 104. red sneakers 105. self-esteem 106. emotions 107. non-verbal behaviour 108. emotions 109. social 110. trust 111. status 112. humour 113. Three sources of non-verbal language are body language, office decor and arrangement, and clothing. Good eye contact and upright posture can signal interest in an interview; decorating an office with plants and personal artifacts can make it more welcoming; and dressing in the proper attire may communicate competence, seriousness, and promotability. People who are conventionally well dressed communicate high status, competence, and authority to others.
Chapter 10 114. Body language is non-verbal communication that occurs by means of the sender's bodily motions and facial expressions or the sender's physical location in relation to the receiver. Although we can communicate a variety of information via body language, two important messages are the extent to which the sender likes and is interested in the receiver and the sender's views concerning the relative status of the sender and the receiver. In general, senders communicate liking and interest when they direct their torso toward the receiver, position themselves physically closely, maintain eye contact, and lean forward during the interaction. Each of these behaviours demonstrates that the sender has genuine consideration for the receiver's point of view. Senders who feel themselves to be of higher status than the receiver act more relaxed than those who perceive themselves to be of lower status. Relaxation is demonstrated by the casual placement of arms and legs, a reclining, non-erect seating position, and a lack of fidgeting and nervous activity. The greater the difference in relaxation between two parties, the more they communicate a status differential to each other. 115. The red sneakers effect refers to the occasional tendency for nonconformity to signal status and competence. Nonconformity has to be seen as intentional; accidentally dressing in a nonconforming way doesn't signal competence. The nonconforming behaviour has to occur in a prestigious context where there are general expectations that one might dress in a conventional manner; dressing down at the beach won't score any points, but doing so in the boardroom might do so. The nonconformists were perceived as more autonomous and more in control, and these are valued qualities in our society. 116. Humour can create positive emotions that can in turn facilitate attention, understanding, and message acceptance on the part of the receiver. Numerous studies confirm that humour operates by affecting the emotions of the recipient of the communication, whether that recipient is a co-worker, subordinate, or customer. Positive emotions can facilitate creativity because they create a "fun" atmosphere that makes people less critical and more open to new ideas. Humour can also serve as a potent antidote to workplace stress. Effective leaders often employ self-deprecating humour to reduce the social distance between themselves and their subordinates. Leader humour facilitates trust, and this stimulates feedback seeking on the part of followers. The use of humour can enhance the status of the communicator by making them appear more competent and confident. However, humour is risky. While appropriate humour that is seen as funny has status-enhancing effects, inappropriate jokes signal a lack of competence and reduce the communicator's status. Further, managers need to develop a good relationship with subordinates before employing humour. Thus, while there are many benefits for leaders to use humour, they have to be careful about how and when it is used. 117. e.Gossiping 118. d.Boys view conversations as a way to achieve status and to maintain independence. 119. d.one up, one down position. 120. c.one-down position. 121. b.False 122. b.False 123. learning 124. Congruence 125. Suggestion systems 126. congruence 127. behavioural competencies
Chapter 10 128. upward 129. periodically 130. downward 131. upward 132. style 133. retaliate 134. b.False 135. b.False 136. richer 137. information richness 138. synchronous 139. computer-mediated communication 140. poorly 141. cyberloafing 142. social media 143. extraverted 144. media 145. organizational 146. enterprise 147. social media 148. This question tests students' understanding of the relationship between information richness and the appropriate choice of communication medium. In this situation, Julia's approach is probably better for at least two reasons. Firstly, messages sent via computer or through anonymous surveys are less likely to be censored by the employees. Face-to-face interviews would tend to inhibit employees from discussing certain issues (especially if they are fearful of retaliation by their superiors). Secondly, depending on the size of the work unit, the use of computers and surveys could be considerably cheaper and less time consuming than face-toface interviews. 149. When they meet for only a single session, computer-mediated groups that are tasked with making a decision generally take more time, make less effective decisions, and have less-satisfied members than face-to-face groups. However, time is relevant, and computer-mediated groups gradually develop increased trust and cooperation over repeated meeting sessions.
Chapter 10 150. For one thing, people are less likely to self-disclose personal information compared to face-to-face interaction. Additionally, some observers have found that the detachment of electronic communication can give rise to rude, impulsive messages and to the expression of extreme views, so-called "flaming." Also, electronic media elicit informal modes of expression that are prone to misinterpretation, especially when it comes to sarcasm. The frequent use of emotional icons ("emoticons") such as the smiley face or the wink ;) show that people are aware of this problem and are trying to counteract it. In addition, the lack of non-verbal cues may make it difficult to recognize subtle trends toward decision consensus. 151. One challenge posed by social media is that they can be addictive to the extent that employees engage in "cyberloafing" while at work, updating their Facebook profiles rather than serving customers. Besides the wasted time, a high consumption of social media can contribute to reduced personal well-being. In addition, social media can blur the distinction between the work and non-work domains, and senders may not be aware of just who receives their messages. There are also opportunities as social media can aid in problem solving and innovation. Many organizations have established private enterprise social media platforms with the capacity to communicate with specific co-workers or to broadcast messages widely. This creates new social networks among employees and facilitates social learning and innovation. 152. Enterprise social media platforms are platforms that mimic public sites such as Facebook in look and functionality, but they can also feature blogs, wikis, and document sharing. Their essential feature is the capacity to record, store, and share ideas such that they can be accessed by all organizational members. This creates new social networks among employees and facilitates social learning and innovation. An example of how it can be used by an organization and its members is provided in the text for Telus. Telus employs an enterprise social media platform called TELUS Xchange that is used to encourage a "media mindset and a culture of collaboration." In a typical scenario, an employee encounters an unfamiliar problem when doing a custom home installation. They video the issue, narrate the problem, and upload it to Xchange. In ten minutes, employees across the country advise them of potential solutions. The video is then tagged, archived, and available to others with an easy search. This is what is meant by knowledge sharing and collaboration. Research suggests that the most important features of such platforms are the opportunity to 1) post (seeking or giving help), 2) search, 3) comment, and 4) evaluate others' ideas. It also shows that using these features contributes to job performance and job satisfaction. 153. d.Use jargon 154. d.Responding as soon as possible 155. e.All of the above 156. c.360-degree feedback. 157. a.is a means of downward communication. 158. d.downward communication. 159. d.360-degree feedback 160. b.behavioural competencies. 161. b.employee development. 162. e.360-degree feedback 163. a.downward communication. 164. d.To enhance upward communication
Chapter 10 165. c.Suggestion system 166. e.All of the above. 167. d.The adequacy of the explanation and the style with which they are delivered 168. d.It reduced their tendency to retaliate. 169. b.Provision of explanations 170. d.Use a rich communication medium 171. b.multisource feedback. 172. b.To promote a clear and consistent image of the positive and distinctive features of an organization as an employer 173. d.Branding is first and foremost used to attract new employees. 174. a.Social responsibility 175. e.Perks 176. c.Organization websites 177. b.They are good vehicles for learning. 178. e.congruence. 179. b.A person's words, thoughts, feelings, and actions all contain the same message. 180. b.They require a rich communication medium and are best told face to face. 181. a.True 182. a.True 183. a.True 184. b.False 185. a.True 186. b.False 187. peers 188. b.False 189. b.False 190. b.False 191. a.True
Chapter 10 192. b.False 193. a.True 194. b.False 195. a.True 196. b.False 197. a.True 198. a.True 199. a.True 200. a.True 201. a.True 202. b.False 203. a.True 204. b.False 205. a.True 206. b.False 207. a.True 208. b.False 209. a.True 210. a.True 211. b.False 212. a.True 213. mum effect 214. b.False 215. a.True 216. rumour 217. grapevine 218. A rumour is an unverified belief that is in general circulation. Rumours spread fastest and farthest when the information is especially ambiguous, when the content of the rumour is important to those involved, when the rumour seems credible, and when the recipient is anxious.
Chapter 10 219. e.All of the above 220. b.False 221. b.False 222. a.True 223. a.True 224. b.At least 75 percent of the non-controversial organizationally related information carried by the grapevine is correct. 225. a.True 226. b.False 227. b.False 228. a.True 229. a.True 230. a.True 231. b.False 232. face-to-face interaction 233. Email lacks information richness compared to face-to-face communication. As a result, it is best used for routine communication. Important decisions, news, intended changes, controversial messages, and emotional issues require richer media such as face-to-face. 234. b.False 235. b.False 236. b.False 237. b.False 238. b.False 239. b.False 240. a.True 241. b.False 242. a.True 243. b.False 244. b.False
Chapter 10 245. a.True 246. a.True 247. a.True 248. b.False 249. a.True 250. a.True 251. a.True 252. a.True 253. a.True 254. d.teammates, one's boss, or management. 255. b.False 256. b.False 257. a.True 258. b.False 259. a.True 260. b.False 261. Jargon 262. a.True 263. b.False 264. b.False 265. a.True 266. b.False 267. b.False 268. a.True 269. b.False 270. a.True 271. a.True 272. a.True
Chapter 10 273. a.True 274. a.True 275. a.True 276. b.False 277. a.True 278. a.True 279. b.False 280. b.False 281. b.False 282. a.True 283. a.True 284. b.False 285. a.True 286. a.True 287. b.False 288. b.False 289. a.True 290. b.False 291. a.True 292. women 293. one up and one down 294. intimacy 295. independence 296. Females see communication as a way to develop relationships and networks of connection and intimacy. Males view conversations as a way for them to achieve status within groups and to maintain independence. Gender differences in communication revolve around the "one up, one down" position. Men are sensitive to power dynamics and use communication as a way to position themselves in a one-up situation and avoid a one-down situation. Women are more concerned with rapport building and avoid putting others down. The key differences in male and female communication styles and rituals that often place women in a one-down position include: getting credit; confidence and boasting; asking questions; apologies; feedback; compliments; ritual opposition; managing up and down; and indirectness.
Chapter 10 297. d.Interpreting basic emotions in facial expressions 298. d.Provide the Chinese firm with knowledge of yourself and your culture. 299. e.Japan 300. e.getting down to business very quickly. 301. b.Facial expressions of basic emotions 302. d.Brazil. 303. a.Keep meetings with the German firm brief and to the point. 304. b.Latin America 305. b.Switzerland 306. a.A look of anger 307. d.pose substantial challenges. 308. b.is to have an English-only policy. 309. d.a host of problems. 310. b.less face-to-face and telephone interaction. 311. c.professional people should not communicate too much personal information in work settings. 312. c.Excessive personalization of one's office with non-work references 313. d.Latin America 314. b.Gestures 315. a.True 316. b.False 317. b.False 318. a.True 319. a.True 320. a.True 321. a.True 322. b.False 323. a.True 324. a.True
Chapter 10 325. b.False 326. b.False 327. a.True 328. b.False 329. b.False 330. Cultural context 331. lubricant 332. late 333. emotions 334. English 335. Language 336. Gestures 337. English 338. cultures 339. norm 340. personal 341. gestures 342. Japan is a high context culture, so Carole should be prepared to spend some time introducing herself and her company to prospective Japanese clients. She should also be prepared to give long presentations rather than getting right to the point. She should be sensitive to differences in age and rank among her Japanese hosts, and avoid lengthy and overly detailed business contracts. In addition, she should be sure to greet her Japanese hosts with a bow, and watch for lubricant expressions which may be polite signals that the Japanese clients are not interested in doing business with her company at this time. 343. Lack of a common language can lead to misunderstandings and conflict, and this can result in the rise of parallel information networks and less face-to-face and telephone interaction. As a result, more personal forms of communication will be replaced by less personal written communication via email. A common solution is English-only policies. However, such policies can result in a host of problems. For example, forcing employees to speak English can lead to feelings of reduced professional status and extreme anxiety about having to communicate about important business matters in a language that is not one's native language. 344. Facial expressions—people are very good at decoding basic, simple emotions in facial expressions across cultures; Gestures—do not translate well across cultures; Gaze—there are cultural differences in the extent to which it is considered suitable to look others directly in the eye; Touch—in some cultures, people tend to stand close to one another when meeting and often touch each other as an adjunct to conversation. 345. b.Face-to-face interaction
Chapter 10 346. b.Less-routine messages require richer media. 347. a.the degree to which information is synchronous and the extent to which both parties can receive non-verbal and paraverbal cues. 348. e.Face-to-face 349. d.Face-to-face interaction and videoconferencing 350. e.highly synchronous and high in non-verbal and paraverbal cues. 351. b.enhance the number of ideas generated. 352. c.email. 353. c.Cyberloafing 354. a.Better educated men 355. e.Low self-esteem 356. b.enterprise social media. 357. a.The capacity to communicate with specific co-workers or to broadcast messages widely 358. c.Telus 359. b.computer-mediated communication. 360. e.Men and women were equally likely to offer the first idea. 361. d.They take more time and make less effective decisions. 362. d.They have less satisfied members and make less effective decisions. 363. c.They are restricted to organizational members. 364. c.Opportunity to edit 365. e.reduced personal well-being. 366. a.True 367. a.True 368. b.False 369. a.True 370. b.False 371. a.True 372. b.False
Chapter 10 373. a.True 374. b.False 375. a.True 376. employer branding 377. Branding 378. face to face 379. rich 380. Active listening is a technique for improving the accuracy of information reception by paying close attention to the sender. The specific techniques involved in active listening include watching your body language (e.g., sit up, lean forward, and maintain eye contact), paraphrasing what the speaker means, showing empathy, asking questions, and waiting out pauses. 381. You should tell them that the goal of employer branding is to promote a clear and consistent image of the positive and distinctive features of an organization as an employer and that branding is first and foremost used to attract and recruit new employees. It can also be effective in retaining existing employees by reinforcing their commitment to the organization. Branding is meant to convey the values of the organization and emphasize why it is an attractive place to work. Effective branding conveys both tangible and more symbolic aspects of the employment experience. Tangible factors might include pay, location, responsibilities, learning opportunities, status as a startup, or a wide variety of perks. Symbolic factors might stress an employer's prestige, innovation, informal culture, or social responsibility to the community or environment. Although conventional print recruiting advertisements can be used, there is consensus that richer communication media are more appropriate to convey employer branding. Well-tailored organization websites have been the tool of choice, but social media presence on platforms such as Facebook, Glassdoor, and LinkedIn have become increasingly important. 382. The basic principles of effective communication include taking the time; being accepting of the other person; not confusing the person with the problem; saying what you feel; listening actively; and giving timely and specific feedback. 383. Principles for effective cross-cultural communication include assuming differences until you know otherwise; recognizing differences within cultures; and watching your language (and theirs). 384. You should tell them that 360-degree feedback uses input from supervisors, employees, peers, and clients or customers of the appraised individual. They also need to know that the focus of the feedback is behavioural competencies rather than bottom-line performance, and it is usually used for employee development rather than salary determination. Furthermore, because it is possible that the various sources of feedback might contradict each other, ratees may need some assistance in putting all of the feedback together. They should also know that in a well-designed 360-degree system, the various information sources provide unique data about a person's performance. 385. The text describes the following six techniques: employer branding, provision of explanations; 360-degree feedback; employee surveys and survey feedback; suggestion systems; and telephone hotlines and webcasts.
Chapter 10 386. Suggestion systems are designed to enhance upward communication by soliciting ideas for improved work operations from employees. A simple system like the one the company has implemented is usually not very effective because there is no tangible incentive for making a submission and no clear mechanism to show that management considered a submission. To make the system more effective, you can tell management to consider rewarding employees for suggestions that are actually adopted. A flat fee might be provided for simple suggestions, while a percentage of the anticipated savings might be awarded for complex suggestions that might result in substantial savings to the company. You should also recommend that they provide feedback to employees as to how management evaluated each suggestion. 387. Procedural and interactional fairness are key to effective communication of controversial polices. Two factors are critical to the perceived fairness of controversial polices: the adequacy of the explanation and the style with which they are delivered. 388. Two factors are critical to the perceived fairness of controversial polices: the adequacy of the explanation and the style with which they are delivered. The communicator should also express sincere remorse for having to implement the policy and acknowledge any suffering that the policy might cause. All this requires a rich communication medium, such as a personal appearance by the CEO or other high organizational representative.
Chapter 11 1.
The well-structured problem does NOT exhibit which of the following characteristics? a. Clear existing state b. Clear desired state c. Uncertainty about what to do d. Certainty about what to do e. Familiar and repetitive problem
2.
Which of the following is another name for a programmed problem solution technique? a. Rules b. Routines c. Rules of thumb d. Standard operating procedures e. All of the above
3.
One is most likely to see a program used to make a(n) ________ decision. a. routine b. unique c. executive-level d. important e. ill-structured
4.
Which of the following most clearly involves a decision program? a. A medical ethics committee b. A task force to improve company image c. A standing order to a supplier d. A billion-dollar investment decision e. A corporate merger
5.
The ill-structured problem is one where the a. existing state is clear, and the desired state is clear. b. existing state is clear, and the desired state is unclear. c. existing state is unclear, and the desired state is clear. d. existing state is unclear, and the desired state is unclear. e. existing state is clear, but the method of getting to the desired state is unknown.
6.
At what part of an organization would an ill-structured problem most likely be encountered? a. The top of the hierarchy b. The middle of the hierarchy c. The bottom of the hierarchy d. Where the bottom of the hierarchy meets the middle e. Ill-structured problems are equally likely throughout the organizational hierarchy.
7.
Which of the following problems would most likely be solved with a program (that is, using programmed decision making)? a. Should this convict be granted parole? b. Which candidate should we choose to be vice-president of marketing? c. In which part of the country should we locate our new business? d. How many workers should we call out to staff the assembly line next week? e. Should we merge with this company or not?
Chapter 11 8.
Which of the following is characteristic of well-structured problems? a. They are unusual and have not been encountered before. b. They tend to be complex and involve a high degree of uncertainty. c. The existing state and the desired state are understood. d. They frequently arouse controversy and conflict among those interested in the problem. e. They often entail high risk.
9.
A program would most likely be used a. to justify group decision making. b. to solve problems dealt with by top management. c. to solve a well-structured problem. d. to solve an ill-structured problem. e. to solve a risky problem.
10.
Which of the following is an example of an ill-structured problem? a. The retailer must decide whether to reorder lawn chairs. b. The sales manager must decide what to do about sales that seem sluggish. c. The assistant bank manager must decide which automobile loan applications to approve. d. The welfare officer must decide how much assistance a particular client should receive. e. The production manager must decide how many workers to schedule on the line next week.
11.
Non-programmed decision making a. may stimulate strong political considerations. b. is used to solve well-structured problems. c. is most likely to be required at lower levels of the organizational hierarchy. d. tends to involve much certainty. e. is used to solve repetitive problems.
12.
What three things are noteworthy about the definition of decision making? a. Choice, problem, and resources b. Choice, problem, and process c. Choice, process, and resources d. Problem, process, and resources e. Choice, problem, and program
13.
In computer terminology, "garbage in" will result in "garbage out." This is used to describe a. non-programmed decision making. b. programmed decision making. c. bounded rationality. d. escalation of commitment. e. satisficing.
14.
You have just applied for a job and when completing the application form you were surprised to see questions about your age and marital status. Such questions would seem to violate equal employment and human rights legislation and are not likely to be related to the job. It made you wonder why a company would ask these questions. What is a good explanation for this? a. Difficulties of non-programmed decision making b. Bounded rationality c. Cognitive biases d. Information overload e. Difficulties of programmed decision making
Chapter 11 15.
Which of the following is an example of an ill-structured problem? a. Which of these 10 car loan applications should I approve? b. How much assistance should this client receive? c. How much weight should I carry? d. In which part of the country should we build a new plant? e. All of the above
16.
When it comes to the Phoenix payroll system, paying people their salaries is a(n) ________ problem, and putting in place the system to do this was a(n) ________ problem. a. structured; structured b. unstructured; unstructured c. structured; unstructured d. unstructured; structured e. structured; programmed
17.
Paying people their salaries is an unstructured problem, putting into place the Phoenix system to do this was a structured problem. a. True b. False
18.
A standardized way of solving a problem is a(n) __________ .
19.
For a(n) __________ problem, the existing and desired states are clear, and it is obvious how to get from one to another.
20.
When the existing state of a situation is well-known and the desired state is also known, you are facing a __________ problem.
21.
When a gap is perceived to exist between an existing state and a desired state, we have a(n) __________ .
22.
__________ frequently arouse controversy and conflict among the people who are interested in the decision.
23.
__________ is the process of developing a commitment to some course of action.
24.
Decision making is the process of developing a __________ to some course of action.
25.
What is the difference between a well-structured problem and an ill-structured problem and what is the best way to solve each type of problem?
26.
What is the meaning of decision making, and what are four things that are noteworthy about it?
Chapter 11 27.
An Economic Person does NOT a. make rational decisions. b. make decisions like the average consumer or manager. c. use economic gain to evaluate the correctness of decisions. d. have adequate information to make good decisions. e. use logic in making decisions.
28.
Managers who exhibit bounded rationality a. might be operating under time constraints. b. might be factoring political considerations into decisions. c. might be limited in their capacity to acquire and process information. d. might be subject to cognitive biases. e. All of the above
29.
What did Nobel Prize winner Herbert Simon recognize? a. The usefulness of programmed decision making b. The usefulness of non-programmed decision making c. The perfectly rational characteristics of Economic Person do not exist in real decision makers d. The characteristics of Economic Person e. The existence of groupthink
30.
A decision strategy that relies on limited information and that reflects time constraints and political considerations is known as a. bundled rationality. b. limited rationality. c. bounded rationality. d. biased rationality. e. bewildered rationality.
31.
Aspects of the presentation of information about a problem that are assumed by decision makers is called a. perceptual defence. b. framing. c. confirmation bias. d. anchoring effect. e. satisficing.
32.
The tendency to acquire and process information in a particular way that is prone to error is known as a. a cognitive bias. b. framing. c. bounded rationality. d. groupthink. e. satisficing.
33.
The perfectly rational characteristics embodied in Economic Persons exist in many decision makers. a. True b. False
34.
Intelligence does not counteract biases, and both more and less smart people are equally prone to them. a. True b. False
Chapter 11 35.
__________ refers to the often subtle aspects of the presentation of information about a problem that are assumed by decision makers.
36.
Political considerations, time constraints, and limited information processing capacity mean that people exhibit __________ rather than perfect rationality.
37.
The perfect prototype for __________ is the Economic Person.
38.
Nobel Prize winner Herbert Simon suggested that managers use __________ rationality rather than perfect rationality.
39.
Tendencies to acquire and process information in an error-prone way are known as __________ .
40.
__________ constitute assumptions and shortcuts that can improve decision-making efficiency but lead to serious errors in judgment.
41.
What is bounded rationality and how can it influence alternative development, evaluation, and choice?
42.
In evaluating alternative solutions, decision makers with bounded rationality a. know the ultimate value of each alternative. b. often consider the political acceptability of the solution to other organizational members. c. know the probability that each alternative will work. d. tend to exhibit maximization. e. rarely engage in satisficing.
43.
The human resource manager heard that turnover was increasing, and immediately told the president that salaries would have to be raised. Unfortunately, low pay wasn't the cause of the turnover. Which decisionmaking error did the manager commit? a. The manager treated sunk costs improperly. b. The manager defined the problem in terms of a solution. c. The manager escalated commitment. d. The manager exhibited the knew-it-all-along effect. e. The manager revealed a confirmation bias.
44.
Information overload is likely to lead to a. fast decision making. b. only relevant information influencing decision making. c. greater confidence by managers in their decisions. d. higher quality decisions. e. lower satisfaction with the ultimate decision.
Chapter 11 45.
Mark has two alternatives. There is a 50 percent chance that he will earn $120,000 if he accepts a government contract. If he decides not to accept the contract and instead continues on his present project, he has an 80 percent chance of earning $100,000. If Mark is a perfectly rational decision maker, which of the following statements is TRUE? a. He will accept the government contract. b. His expected value of continuing on the present project is $80,000. c. He will attempt to satisfice. d. He will ignore economic criteria in making his decision. e. He will revise his earnings estimate on the government contract to make it more attractive.
46.
At which stage of the rational decision-making model is information overload a particular problem? a. Problem identification b. Search for relevant information c. Evaluation of alternative solutions d. Implementation of chosen solution e. Monitoring and evaluation of chosen solution
47.
Research has shown that people tend to have a(n) ________ to value information advice for which they have paid over free advice of equal quality. a. insight bias b. interpretation bias c. insight forgiveness d. cognitive bias e. confirmation bias
48.
Managers must often rely upon others when making decisions and solving problems. At what stage of the rational decision-making process does reliance upon others often cause special problems? a. Information search b. Development of alternative solutions c. Evaluation of alternative solutions d. Solution choice e. Solution implementation
49.
Decision makers who establish an adequate level of acceptability for a solution and then screen solutions until one that exceeds this level is found are a. maximizers. b. optimizers. c. satisficers. d. rationalizers. e. diffusers.
50.
Satisficing is a concept that is most associated with a. identifying a problem. b. searching for information. c. choosing a solution. d. implementing a solution. e. monitoring a solution.
Chapter 11 51.
According to the anchoring effect, people a. resist problem solutions developed by others. b. depend too much on problem solutions developed by others. c. don't adjust successive estimates enough in the face of new information. d. rely too much on the most recent information received. e. tend to invest additional resources in an apparently failing course of action.
52.
Which of the following is a problem frame? a. How the problem is stated b. How the problem is solved c. How the solution is evaluated d. How the solution is implemented e. How the decision makers are rewarded
53.
Sharon framed the problem as a choice between two losses. What is she likely to do now? a. Make a conservative decision b. Ignore sunk costs c. Make a risky decision d. Ignore sample sizes e. Ignore economic considerations
54.
All of the following illustrate the operation of bounded rationality EXCEPT a. framing. b. cognitive biases. c. emotions and moods. d. political considerations. e. maximization.
55.
Which of the following is NOT a difficulty that can result from bounded rationality in problem identification? a. Perceptual defence b. Problem defined in terms of functional specialty c. Problem defined in terms of solution d. Problem diagnosed in terms of symptoms e. Problem defined as ill-structured
56.
Sales at the Smelly Cheese Company had been down all year. Management met to try and identify the problem. The marketing manager was convinced that the problem was the result of poor marketing. The manager of human resources believed the problem was due to the lack of employee motivation. What is the difficulty they are having? a. Perceptual defence b. Problem defined in terms of solution c. Problem diagnosed in terms of symptoms d. Problem defined in terms of functional specialty e. Too little information
57.
When Thelma's boss said, "What we have here is a morale problem," what was her boss doing? a. Defining a problem in terms of functional specialty b. Defining a problem in terms of solution c. Diagnosing a problem in terms of symptoms d. Revealing confirmation bias e. Demonstrating hindsight
Chapter 11 58.
Which of the following is a cognitive bias that contributes to the failure of decision makers to acquire enough information to make a good decision? a. Perceptual defence b. Anchoring effect c. Satisficing d. Hindsight e. Confirmation bias
59.
Decision makers violate statistical principles at what stage of the decision-making process? a. Problem identification b. Information search c. Solution implementation d. Solution evaluation e. Alternative development, evaluation, and choice
60.
After graduating from university, you are planning to get a job as an accountant. Your best friend Jay is planning on opening his own restaurant. He says he has thought a great deal about this and believes he will be very successful and it is a good decision. You explain to him that most new restaurants fail, but it does not factor into Jay's decision. What does this demonstrate? a. Base rates b. Anchoring effect c. Perceptual defence d. Sunk costs e. Hindsight
61.
Absenteeism has become a problem at the Smelly Cheese Company, so the human resource manager has decided to do something about it. The HR manager has decided to choose the first offered solution that will get the level of absenteeism to what it was in the previous year. What is this an example of? a. Anchoring effect b. Satisficing c. Sunk costs d. Framing e. Confirmation bias
62.
Research by Daniel Kahneman and Amos Tversky shows that a. when people view a problem as a choice between losses, they tend to make conservative decisions. b. when people view a problem as a choice between gains, they tend to make risky decisions. c. when people view a problem as a choice between losses, they tend to make risky decisions. d. when people view a problem as a choice between losses, they tend to make poor decisions. e. when people view a problem as a choice between losses, they tend to make better decisions.
63.
In a study on real estate agents, it was found that the agents allowed the asking price of a house to unduly influence their professional evaluation of the house. What is this an example of? a. Satisficing b. Anchoring effect c. Confirmation bias d. Hindsight e. Risky shift
Chapter 11 64.
The tendency to ignore or harbour negative attitudes toward ideas from outside one's own organization or project team is known as a. satisficing. b. anchoring effect. c. confirmation bias. d. not-invented-here bias. e. risky shift.
65.
What does the not-invented-here bias refer to? a. The tendency to ignore or harbour negative attitudes toward ideas from other members of one's own organization or project team b. The tendency to admire or harbour positive attitudes toward ideas from outside one's own organization or project team c. The tendency to ignore or harbour negative attitudes toward ideas from outside one's own organization or project team d. The tendency to admire or harbour positive attitudes toward ideas from other members of one's own organization or project team e. The tendency to ignore or harbour negative attitudes toward ideas from inside and outside one's own organization or project team
66.
At which stage of the rational decision-making model is the not-invented-here bias likely to be a particular problem? a. Problem identification b. Search for relevant information c. Evaluation of alternative solutions d. Implementation of chosen solution e. Monitoring and evaluation of chosen solution
67.
What bias has been implicated in costly and inefficient duplication of organizational efforts, such as the failure to reuse existing software developed by outside sources? a. Framing b. Escalation of commitment c. Anchoring effect d. Not-invented-here bias e. Confirmation bias
68.
What has been identified as the most underrated skill in management? a. Evaluating the chosen solution b. Problem identification c. Implementing the chosen solution d. Choosing the best solution e. Evaluating alternative solutions
69.
A survey of executives found that ____percent agreed that their people were poor at diagnosing problems. a. 45 b. 55 c. 65 d. 75 e. 85
Chapter 11 70.
A survey of executives found 85 percent agreed that their people were poor at a. identifying problems. b. diagnosing problems. c. evaluating alternative solutions. d. implementing the best solution. e. Evaluating the chosen solution.
71.
What does the "plunging-in bias" refer to? a. Perceptual defence b. Problem defined in terms of functional specialty c. Problem defined in terms of solution. d. Problem diagnosed in terms of symptoms e. The tendency to seek out information that conforms to one's own definition of or solution to a problem
72.
The tendency to favour information that can be accessed quickly and easily is known as a. confirmation bias. b. not-invented-here bias. c. availability bias. d. framing. e. anchoring effect.
73.
What does the availability bias refer to? a. The tendency to favour decision solutions that have been implemented in the past b. The tendency to favour decision solutions that can be easily implemented c. The tendency to favour decision solutions that can be accessed quickly and easily d. The tendency to favour positive information over negative information e. The tendency to favour information that can be accessed quickly and easily
74.
The tendency of emergency-room doctors to misdiagnose patients due to "COVID brain" even though they signalled other underlying problems is an example of a. confirmation bias. b. availability bias. c. not-invented-here bias. d. framing. e. anchoring effect.
75.
When events transpire that were not envisioned by decision makers it is referred to as the a. law of unintended bias. b. law of unknown alternatives. c. law of unintended consequences. d. law of unintended decisions. e. law of unknown events.
76.
What does the law of unintended consequences refer to? a. When events transpire that were only envisioned by decision makers after a decision has been made b. When decision outcomes transpire that were not envisioned by decision makers c. When decisions transpire that were not envisioned by decision makers d. When events transpire that were not envisioned by decision makers e. When decision alternatives transpire but were not envisioned by decision makers
Chapter 11 77.
Which of the following is most accurate regarding information overload? a. Information overload can lead to a deficit of scientific information. b. Information overload can lead to an increase in useful decision alternatives. c. Information overload can lead to a deficit of useful decision alternatives. d. Information overload can lead to a deficit of useful information. e. Information overload can lead to an increase in useful information.
78.
Which of the following is most accurate about the use of statistical evidence? a. People gravitate toward anecdotal evidence and downplay statistical evidence when they are more emotionally involved with a decision. b. People gravitate toward statistical evidence and downplay anecdotal evidence when they are more emotionally involved with a decision. c. People gravitate toward anecdotal evidence and downplay statistical evidence when they are more cognitively involved with a decision. d. People gravitate toward statistical evidence and downplay anecdotal evidence when they are more cognitively involved with a decision. e. People gravitate toward anecdotal evidence and downplay statistical evidence when they are more emotionally and cognitively involved with a decision.
79.
The tendency to ignore or harbour negative attitudes toward ideas from outside one's own organization or project team is known as the not-invented-here bias. a. True b. False
80.
The tendency to ignore or harbour negative attitudes toward ideas from outside one's own organization or project team is known as the confirmation bias. a. True b. False
81.
People gravitate toward statistical evidence and downplay anecdotal evidence when they are more emotionally involved with a decision. a. True b. False
82.
Programs should be used to solve ill-structured problems. a. True b. False
83.
A rule is an example of a program for making a decision. a. True b. False
84.
A characteristic of a well-structured problem is uncertainty. a. True b. False
85.
An ill-structured problem is one where the existing state is unclear, and the desired state is clear. a. True b. False
86.
The existing and desired states of a well-structured problem are clear. a. True b. False
Chapter 11 87.
Rules, routines, and rules of thumb are programmed solution techniques. a. True b. False
88.
Both ill-structured and well-structured problems can be solved with programmed problem-solving methods. a. True b. False
89.
Many of the problems encountered in organizations are well structured. a. True b. False
90.
Ill-structured problems can entail high risk and stimulate political considerations. a. True b. False
91.
Paying people their salaries is a structured problem, putting into place the Phoenix system to do this was an unstructured problem. a. True b. False
92.
Nobel Prize winner Herbert Simon suggested that managers use perfect rationality. a. True b. False
93.
Nobel Prize winner Herbert Simon suggested that managers use bounded rationality. a. True b. False
94.
Framing and cognitive biases both illustrate the operation of bounded rationality. a. True b. False
95.
Intelligence counteracts biases as less smart people are more prone to them. a. True b. False
96.
The perfectly rational decision maker tends to satisfice. a. True b. False
97.
Although information overload damages decisions, decision makers are usually eager to collect a large amount of information. a. True b. False
98.
Satisficing refers to making the best possible decision that can be made. a. True b. False
Chapter 11 99.
Confirmation bias occurs during problem identification. a. True b. False
100. Too little information can damage the quality of decisions but you can never have too much information for making a decision. a. True b. False 101. Decision makers know that more information is not always better. a. True b. False 102. When people view a problem as a choice between losses, they tend to make conservative decisions. a. True b. False 103. When people frame the alternatives as a choice between gains, they tend to make conservative decisions. a. True b. False 104. The not-invented-here bias can lead to serious failures to innovate. a. True b. False 105. People gravitate toward anecdotal evidence and downplay statistical evidence when they are more emotionally involved with a decision. a. True b. False 106. Information overload can lead to a deficit of useful information. a. True b. False 107. Which of the following is an example of faulty hindsight? a. Mia erroneously predicted that her superiors would favour the reorganization plan. b. The small business owner could never forget how they had been let down by a particular supplier. c. The small business owner who had been let down by a supplier gave the supplier another large order. d. Suki decided to spend more money upgrading her old computer instead of buying a new one. e. When it became clear that the investment was a poor one, Pierre realized that he had known it was bad all along. 108. Escalation of commitment a. involves committing more and more resources to a failing course of action. b. illustrates how decision makers often ignore sunk costs. c. only occurs when the decision maker is responsible for beginning a course of action. d. runs counter to the general tendency for decision makers to try to justify their actions. e. is the most common outcome of information overload.
Chapter 11 109. Escalation of commitment to a failing course of action a. only occurs if the decision maker was personally responsible for the initial loss. b. shows how people may treat sunk costs improperly. c. is what defines the occurrence of a risky shift. d. is the most common outcome of information overload. e. only occurs in highly competitive situations. 110. Who failed to treat sunk costs properly? a. The devil's advocate in the meeting b. The leader of the group that exhibited groupthink c. The manager who escalated commitment d. The salesperson who acted unethically e. The politician who cancelled the public works project 111. Which of the following is probably an example of the irrational treatment of sunk costs? a. Diego studied the computer output for two hours before the big meeting, but he couldn't use the information. Before the next meeting he studied the output for four hours. b. Mika obtained much more information than she needed in order to make a decision on the leasing arrangement. c. Janine had her travel agent book two flights for her to New York so that she was certain not to miss the big meeting. d. The pilot feared landing on the remote airstrip because there had been an accident there the day before. e. The company president decided to cancel the expansion project even though construction work had already begun. 112. Which of the following accurately depicts the relationship between personality and escalation? a. People high on neuroticism and high on negative affectivity are more likely to escalate. b. People high on neuroticism and low on negative affectivity are more likely to escalate. c. People low on neuroticism and high on negative affectivity are more likely to escalate. d. People high on neuroticism and high on negative affectivity are less likely to escalate. e. People high on neuroticism and low on negative affectivity are less likely to escalate. 113. You and a friend have decided to study for your final exams together. However, time to study for your organizational behaviour exam is running out. Your friend persuades you to only study the first five of the ten chapters to be covered on the exam. When you get to the exam, you quickly read through all of the questions and are surprised to see that in fact the majority of the questions are from the first five chapters you studied. You and your friend both receive very good grades on the exam. Your friend never misses an opportunity to remind you how smart it was to only study the first five chapters. What is this an example of? a. Escalation of commitment b. Hindsight c. Framing d. Confirmation bias e. Anchoring effect 114. Which of the following is most accurate? a. Individuals are more prone than groups to escalate commitment. b. Groups are more prone to escalate commitment than individuals. c. Individuals and groups are equally likely to escalate commitment. d. Individuals are more prone to escalate commitment than groups when the individual in question is personally responsible for the sunk costs. e. Escalation only occurs in competitive situations.
Chapter 11 115. What are sunk costs? a. Permanent losses of resources incurred as the result of cognitive biases in decision making b. Temporary losses of resources incurred as the result of not making a decision c. Permanent losses of resources incurred as the result of not making a decision d. Temporary losses of resources incurred as the result of a decision e. Permanent losses of resources incurred as the result of a decision 116. Which of the following can prevent the tendency to escalate commitment to a failing course of action? a. A change in leadership vision b. A change in leadership style c. A change in leadership d. Leadership training e. A change in leadership direction. 117.
__________ refers to the practice of accepting a solution to a problem that is not optimal but is good enough to meet pre-established criteria.
118. Receiving more information than is necessary to make an effective decision puts a person in a state of __________ .
119. At the __________ stage of the rational decision-making model the assistance of others is often a particularly critical issue.
120. Decision makers are often dependent on others to __________ their decisions.
121. The decision-making strategy of choosing the alternative with the greatest expected value is called __________ .
122.
__________ refers to the tendency to seek out information that conforms to one's own definition of or solution to a problem.
123. When people view a problem as a choice between losses, they tend to make __________ decisions.
124. The tendency to ignore or harbour negative attitudes toward ideas from outside one's own organization or project teams is known as the __________ bias.
125. The __________ bias has been implicated in costly and inefficient duplication of organizational efforts, such as the failure to reuse existing software developed by outside sources.
126. A recent article declared that __________ is the most underrated skill in management.
Chapter 11 127. A survey of executives found that 85 percent agreed that their people were poor at __________ .
128. The "plunging-in bias" is another term for a problem defined in terms of a __________ .
129. The __________ bias means that we favour information that can be accessed quickly and easily.
130. When events transpire that were not envisioned by decision makers it is referred to as the law of unintended __________ .
131. Information __________ can lead to a deficit of useful information.
132. People gravitate toward anecdotal evidence and downplay statistical evidence when they are more __________ involved with a decision.
133. Define bounded rationality and discuss the difficulties it can lead to in problem identification.
134. Escalation of commitment only happens when the current decision maker is responsible for the previous sunk costs. a. True b. False 135. Assuming, after a decision has been made, that one knew the decision was flawed before it was made is an example of _______ .
136. Devoting more and more resources to a failing course of action is known as __________ .
137. Permanently lost resources that often enter inappropriately into subsequent decision making are called __________ .
138.
__________ changes can sometimes break a spiral of escalation.
Chapter 11 139. Robert Leung is the leader of a product development project at Kapster Enterprises. He has spent nearly two years on the project, which is now nine months behind schedule and approximately 50 percent over budget. In the meantime, a competitor has introduced a similar product which is rapidly penetrating the market, thereby reducing the remaining market potential for Kapster. Yet, Robert feels that their product will be superior to the competitor's, and he is preparing a report for his boss to request additional funds in order to complete the development phase and debug the product prototype. He is hoping that his boss will approve the request, since his boss has supported the project this far. If you were Robert's boss, what problems associated with bounded rationality might you be concerned about? What are some of the reasons for these problems?
140. Give an example of an escalation of commitment and discuss five ways to prevent the tendency to escalate commitment to a failing course of action.
141. What is escalation of commitment and what are the reasons why it occurs?
142. What is escalation of commitment and how can the tendency to escalate commitment to a failing course of action be prevented?
143. In what kind of decisions does mood have its greatest impact? a. Uncertain and ill-structured b. Certain and unambiguous c. Uncertain and ambiguous d. Well-structured and unambiguous e. Certain and well-structured 144. Which of the following accurately describes the effect of moods on decision making? a. Mood affects what, but not how, people think when making decisions. b. Mood does not affect what or how people think when making decisions. c. Mood affects how, but not what, people think when making decisions. d. Mood affects what and how people think when making decisions. e. Only a positive mood has an effect on how people think when making decisions. 145. What is most likely to lead one to adopt a simplified, short-cut decision-making strategy that is likely to violate the rational model? a. A positive emotion b. A negative emotion c. A positive mood d. A negative mood e. The lack of emotion 146. A study of 356 decisions in medium and large organizations found that ________ of the decisions made in organizations fail. a. over 50 percent b. 10 percent c. half d. one third e. one quarter
Chapter 11 147. Whistle-blowers often report that they were motivated by a. intrinsic rewards. b. extrinsic rewards. c. emotion. d. dissonance. e. social norms. 148. People in a positive mood tend to remember a. positive and negative information. b. positive information. c. negative information. d. neutral information. e. recent information. 149. People in a good mood are more likely to a. violate the rational model. b. adhere to the rational model. c. approach decisions in a deliberate, systematic, detailed way. d. avoid making decisions. e. make better decisions. 150. Utima has a job interview and is spending the day preparing for it. She wants to make a good impression and is hoping the interviewer will make a positive decision. What would you advise her to do? a. Try to create a bad mood on the part of the interviewer b. Try to create a good mood on the part of the interviewer c. Try to be in a good mood during the interview d. Try to be in a bad mood during the interview e. Try to create a neutral mood on the part of the interviewer 151. What were the results of a simulation of foreign currency traders? a. Those in a good and bad mood performed better than those in a neutral mood. b. Those in a good and neutral mood performed more poorly than those in a bad mood. c. Those in a neutral mood performed more poorly than those in good or bad moods. d. Those in a bad mood performed more poorly than those in good or neutral moods. e. Those in a good mood performed more poorly than those in bad or neutral moods. 152. In a simulation of foreign currency traders, which ones performed the best? a. Those in a bad and good mood b. Those in a good and neutral mood c. Those in a neutral mood d. Those in a bad mood e. Those in a good mood 153. Low-cost information technology and the rise of social media have contributed to the growth of crowdsourcing as a decision aid. a. True b. False 154. Low-cost information technology and the rise of expertise in the general public have contributed to the growth of crowdsourcing as a decision aid. a. True b. False
Chapter 11 155. Which of the following is an example of diffusion of responsibility? a. Paul allows the secretary to make certain decisions without consulting him. b. After her boss's decision turned out to be wrong, Sally said she knew all along that it was wrong. c. The surgery team decided on a more conservative operating technique when they discussed the operation face-to-face. d. A firing squad of ten soldiers was used to execute the prisoner. e. As Douglas accepted the award on behalf of his department, he made a point of acknowledging the contributions of his colleagues. 156. After a group discussion, group members tend to make decisions that are ________ the positions of individual members before discussion. a. more risky than b. more conservative than c. equal to the average risk of d. more risky or more conservative than e. less risky or less conservative than 157. Diffusion of responsibility might contribute to a. hindsight. b. risky shifts. c. conservative shifts. d. information overload. e. confirmation bias. 158. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of groupthink? a. The group experiences much dissension and argument. b. Much conformity occurs in the group. c. The group sees itself as morally correct. d. Group members censor themselves from bringing up issues which are contrary to the group consensus. e. The group constructs unfavourable stereotypes of outsiders. 159. The manager who wishes to diffuse responsibility for a potentially incorrect decision should a. use non-programmed decision making. b. make the decision themselves. c. use a group to make the decision. d. disregard the rational decision-making model. e. be prepared to accept the sunk costs associated with the decision. 160. A devil's advocate is a. a group member that everyone dislikes. b. a person who intentionally stimulates controversy. c. a person who smoothes over conflict. d. a group member who bullies other members into accepting the group consensus. e. a genuinely evil person. 161. According to the groupthink phenomenon, group members who are overconfident and willing to assume great risks are suffering from a. the knew-it-all-along effect. b. the conservative shift phenomenon. c. an illusion of invulnerability. d. an illusion of unanimity. e. an escalation of commitment.
Chapter 11 162. What is a strong cause of groupthink? a. The group contains a devil's advocate. b. Conflict exists within the group. c. The group leader favours a particular decision. d. Group members feel too free to speak their minds. e. There is an absence of mindguards. 163. After meeting together, the members of the venture capital group decided not to fund any more projects for the year. Before the meeting, some members had been cautiously in favour of funding. What happened? a. Groupthink b. Diffusion of responsibility c. Risky shift d. Conservative shift e. Hindsight 164. Illusion of invulnerability, illusion of morality, and illusion of unanimity are all characteristics of a. hindsight. b. risky shift. c. groupthink. d. maximization. e. confirmation bias. 165. Which of the following is a potential example of the risky shift? a. Leona quit her secure job in a large company to start her own business even though she had to mortgage her house. b. Steve decided to take an elective course in statistics even though he wasn't very good at quantitative subjects. c. A drug company put a new drug on the market even though it was possible that the drug would provoke bad side effects. d. Three partners were uncertain about expanding their business. After discussing the matter, they decided to expand even though the economy was bad. e. The board of directors voted to proceed with the expansion even though it would cost $10 million more than originally planned. 166. Which is an example of a conservative shift? a. After reading an article about the economy in Business Week, Franco decided not to expand his small business. b. Because of the recession, the construction firm lowered its profit margin to get more of its bids accepted. c. Coach Smith decided to play it safe and kick a field goal rather than having the injured quarterback try a pass. d. Several board members were cautiously optimistic about the merger proposal before the meeting. During the board meeting, so many problems were cited that the proposal was unanimously defeated. e. The individual city councilors were moderately opposed to the expensive bond issue. During the council meeting, so many negative points were raised that the bond issue was soundly defeated. 167. What are the reasons for using groups to make organizational decisions? a. Quality, acceptance and commitment, responsibility b. Quantity, acceptance and commitment, diffusion of responsibility c. Quality, acceptance and commitment, diffusion of responsibility d. Quality, quantity, acceptance and commitment e. Quantity, quality, diffusion of responsibility
Chapter 11 168. What are the disadvantages of group decision making? a. Time, conflict, controversy, groupthink b. Time, conflict, domination, groupthink c. Time, controversy, domination, risk d. Conflict, controversy, domination, risk e. Time, controversy, domination, groupthink 169. When members of a group are overconfident and willing to assume great risks and ignore obvious danger signs, it is called a. illusion of invulnerability. b. rationalization. c. illusion of morality. d. self-censorship. e. illusion of unanimity. 170. When members of a group convince themselves to avoid voicing opinions contrary to the group it is called a. illusion of invulnerability. b. mindguards. c. illusion of morality. d. self-censorship. e. illusion of unanimity. 171. When members of a group adopt the role of "protecting" the group from information that goes against its decisions it is called a. illusion of invulnerability. b. mindguards. c. illusion of morality. d. self-censorship. e. illusion of unanimity. 172. Individual decision making generally results in higher quality decisions than group decision making. a. True b. False 173. Individuals who prefer a conservative solution to a problem will probably make an even more conservative decision when they meet as a group. a. True b. False 174. Groupthink is a common phenomenon when groups are riddled with conflict and dissension. a. True b. False 175. As individuals, the five partners who own a business tend to favour a risky investment. When they meet as a group to discuss the investment, we can expect a less risky course of action to be adopted. a. True b. False 176. Groupthink is defined as the tendency for a group to reach a unanimous decision. a. True b. False
Chapter 11 177. Sally tended to make a riskier decision about investing in her small business after reading an article in Fortune. This is an example of the risky shift phenomenon. a. True b. False 178. Toma excused his poor judgment in choosing the wording for the contract by saying that he was under medication for an ulcer at the time. This is an example of diffusion of responsibility. a. True b. False 179. Appointing a devil's advocate might be a way to prevent groupthink from occurring in a decision-making group. a. True b. False 180. The tendency for group members to feel less anxious about the consequences of a decision because it was made by a group rather than an individual member is called _______ .
181. The tendency for a group to make a less risky decision than its individual members favour is called the __________ .
182. If group pressure leads to reduced mental efficiency, poor reality testing, and lax moral judgments, __________ has probably occurred.
183. A person appointed to identify and challenge the weaknesses of a proposed plan or strategy is known as a(n) __________ .
184. There is plenty of evidence that __________ contributes to poor and risky decisions.
185. Whistle-blowers often report that they were motivated by __________ to protest decision errors.
186.
__________ has its greatest impact on uncertain, ambiguous decisions of the type that are especially crucial for organizations.
187. A study of 356 decisions in medium to large organizations found that __________ of them failed.
188. Discuss the effect of mood on decision making. What kind of decisions are most likely to be affected by mood, and what does research reveal about moods and decision making?
Chapter 11 189. Leadership changes can sometimes break a spiral of escalation. a. True b. False 190. Escalation can occur in both competitive and noncompetitive situations. a. True b. False 191. People high on neuroticism and negative affectivity are more likely to escalate. a. True b. False 192. Individuals are more prone than groups to escalate commitment. a. True b. False 193. People high on neuroticism and negative affectivity are less likely to escalate. a. True b. False 194. People in a negative mood tend to remember positive information. a. True b. False 195. When crowdsourcing is used the crowd in question is usually outside of the organization. a. True b. False 196. Crowdsourcing is the same as contracting with outside experts. a. True b. False 197. One familiar application of crowdsourcing is employed by Wikipedia. a. True b. False 198. Crowdsourcing has been applied to solving diverse problems. a. True b. False 199. Crowdsourcing has been applied to solving a relatively limited number of problems. a. True b. False 200. The three Vs of big data are volume, velocity, and variety. a. True b. False 201. The three Vs of big data are volume, vividness, and variety. a. True b. False
Chapter 11 202. Evidence-based management involves making decisions through the conscientious, explicit, and judicious use of the best available evidence from __________ sources.
203. A change in leadership style can sometimes break a spiral of escalation. a. True b. False 204. Information overload can lead to an increase of useful information. a. True b. False 205. When events transpire that were not envisioned by decision makers it is referred to as the law of unintended consequences. a. True b. False 206. When events transpire that were not envisioned by decision makers it is referred to as the law of unintended decisions. a. True b. False 207. The availability bias means we favour information that can be accessed quickly and easily. a. True b. False 208. The availability bias means we favour decision alternatives that can be accessed quickly and easily. a. True b. False 209. The "plunging-in bias" refers to a problem defined in terms of a solution. a. True b. False 210. The "plunging-in bias" refers to a problem diagnosed in terms of symptoms. a. True b. False 211. Groups almost always make riskier decisions than individuals. a. True b. False 212. People in a good mood approach decisions in a deliberate, systematic, detailed way. a. True b. False 213. A negative mood promotes more creative, intuitive decision making. a. True b. False
Chapter 11 214. The impact of mood on decision making is usually dysfunctional. a. True b. False 215. A study of 356 decisions in medium to large organizations found that half the decisions made in organizations fail. a. True b. False 216. Mood has its greatest impact on uncertain, ambiguous decisions. a. True b. False 217. Mood has its greatest impact on certain, unambiguous decisions. a. True b. False 218. People in a good mood are more likely to violate the rational model. a. True b. False 219. A recent article declared that problem identification is the most underrated skill in management. a. True b. False 220. A recent article declared that evaluating the chosen solution is the most underrated skill in management. a. True b. False 221. A survey of executives found that 85 percent agreed that their people were poor at diagnosing problems. a. True b. False 222. A survey of executives found that 85 percent agreed that their people were good at diagnosing problems. a. True b. False 223. Is it possible for a manager to have too much information when faced with an ill-structured problem? Explain.
224. Suzie Desouza, the Manager of Industrial Relations at Zeta Manufacturing, has just come from a ten-hour marathon meeting with the union negotiators who represent the workers in the assembly plant. The union leaders have tabled their final offer and are threatening to call a strike if management does not accept it. Suzie now has to meet with her boss, Gordon Wong, and brief him on the union's final offer. Suzie is hopeful that Gordon will accept the union's terms, but she is not sure how to frame the cost arguments in order to achieve this objective. In her meeting with Gordon the next morning she summarizes the impact of the union's offer as follows: "If we accept their offer, it will cost us an extra $10 million over the next three years. However, if we reject their offer, there's a 50 percent chance that it will cost us more than $10 million, perhaps as much as $20 million; but there is also a 50 percent chance that it will cost us less, perhaps much less." Do you think Gordon will accept or reject the union's offer? Use your knowledge of framing bias to explain why.
Chapter 11 225. The knew-it-all-along effect is an example of faulty hindsight. a. True b. False 226. Escalation of commitment to a losing course of action could be an example of the improper treatment of sunk costs. a. True b. False 227. Escalation of commitment refers to committing more and more resources to a failing course of action. a. True b. False 228. Sunk costs refer to resources that were knowingly committed to a failing course of action. a. True b. False 229. The fashion business relies heavily on crowdsourcing to guide its choice of designs for production. a. True b. False 230. The automobile business relies heavily on crowdsourcing to guide its choice of designs for production. a. True b. False 231. Crowdsourcing is best employed when the nature of the problem can be clearly stated. a. True b. False 232. Crowdsourcing is best employed when the nature of the problem cannot be clearly stated. a. True b. False 233. Analytics and big data are other facets of evidence-based management. a. True b. False 234. Moneyball is an example of analytics. a. True b. False 235. Evidence-based management has its roots in evidence-based science. a. True b. False 236. Much of what passes for decision making in organizations consists of guessing what the boss favours. a. True b. False
Chapter 11 237. A meta-analysis is a technique used when multiple independent research studies are summarized in a systematic review. a. True b. False 238. A meta-analysis is a technique used when evidence from many experts is being used to make a decision. a. True b. False 239. Much social science research is underappreciated by managers. a. True b. False 240. Social science research is much appreciated by managers. a. True b. False 241. Data generated by or for a specific organization can constitute reasonable evidence. a. True b. False 242. The views of experts and professionals with profound experience in a particular domain can constitute evidence. a. True b. False 243. Harder sources of evidence are most useful at the information search and solution evaluation stages of the decision cycle. a. True b. False 244. Crowdsourcing is meant to capitalize on the merits of group decision making. a. True b. False 245. People in a bad mood are more likely to violate the rational model. a. True b. False 246. Whistle-blowers often report that they were motivated by emotion to protest decision errors. a. True b. False 247. There is plenty of evidence that stress contributes to poor and risky decisions. a. True b. False 248. A simulation of foreign currency traders found that those in a bad mood were the best performers. a. True b. False
Chapter 11 249. A simulation of foreign currency traders found that those in a neutral mood were the best performers. a. True b. False 250. A simulation of foreign currency traders found that the best performers were in a neutral mood followed by those in a bad mood and then those in a good mood. a. True b. False 251. Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of group decision making.
252. What is groupthink? What are its symptoms? How can it be prevented?
253. Explain the meaning of a risky shift and a conservative shift and why they occur in group decision making.
254. What sources of evidence are most useful for identifying a problem and when developing, choosing, and implementing solutions? a. Scientific research b. Company data c. Hard data d. Expert and professional judgment e. Big data 255. Harder sources of evidence are most useful at what stage of the decision cycle? a. Identifying the problem b. Developing solutions c. Choosing solutions d. Searching for information e. Implementing solutions 256. Scientific research and company data are most useful at what stage of the decision cycle? a. Identifying the problem b. Developing solutions c. Choosing solutions d. Searching for information e. Implementing solutions 257. What is good evidence? a. What other organizations have done b. Scientifically conducted peer-reviewed research c. What has worked in the past d. Big data e. Feedback from employees
Chapter 11 258. What is it called when multiple independent research studies are summarized in a systematic way? a. Data analysis b. Systematic analysis c. Meta-analysis d. Research summary e. Research analysis 259. What is evidence-based management? a. The use of evidence based on management experience b. Making decisions through the conscientious, explicit, and judicious use of the best available evidence from multiple sources c. Making decisions through the conscientious, explicit, and judicious use of the best available evidence from employee surveys d. Management decision making based on management practice e. The use of evidence based on management practice 260. Evidence-based management has its roots in a. evidence-based science. b. evidence-based psychology. c. evidence-based medicine. d. evidence-based engineering. e. evidence-based education. 261. Much of what passes for decision making in organizations consists of a. evidence-based management. b. guessing what employees favour. c. doing what the boss favours. d. doing what employees favour. e. guessing what the boss favours. 262. Indiscriminately copying competitors is sometimes called a. evidence-based management. b. imitation. c. benchmarking. d. analytics. e. best practices. 263. What sources of evidence are most useful at the information search and solution evaluation stages of the decision cycle? a. Harder sources of evidence b. Expert judgment c. Professional judgment d. Softer sources of evidence e. Management judgment 264. What sources of evidence are most useful at the information search and solution evaluation stages of the decision cycle? a. Expert and management judgment b. Company data and expert judgment c. Scientific research and expert judgment d. Scientific research and company data e. Expert and professional judgment
Chapter 11 265. Outsourcing aspects of a decision process to a large collection of people is known as a. outsourcing. b. evidence-based management. c. crowdsourcing. d. crowdfunding. e. big data. 266. Crowdsourcing refers to a. outsourcing aspects of a decision process to a large collection of people. b. hiring experts to assist in the decision process. c. using groups to participate in the decision process. d. outsourcing aspects of a decision process to decision-making experts. e. outsourcing aspects of a decision process to a small collection of experts. 267. Crowdsourcing can be used to a. identify the problem and search for relevant information. b. identify the problem and develop alternative solutions to a problem. c. search for relevant information and develop alternative solutions to a problem. d. develop alternative solutions to a problem and choose the best solution. e. develop and evaluate alternative solutions to a problem. 268. Which of the following is the most accurate description of crowdsourcing? a. It involves contracting with outside experts. b. Expertise is sought among experts in the area of concern. c. Expertise is sought among the masses. d. Expertise is sought from consultants. e. Expertise is sought from decision-making experts. 269. If you are involved in an important decision in your organization and are looking for some assistance in developing alternative solutions to a problem and choosing the best solution, what might be helpful? a. Evidence-based management b. Big data c. Crowdsourcing d. Analytics e. Group decision making 270. Which of the following is an application of crowdsourcing? a. Facebook b. Twitter c. Wikipedia d. LinkedIn e. All of the above 271. If you worked in an organization that had to make an important decision and the information required to make the decision was not available, which of the following would be an appropriate response? a. Evidence-based management b. Crowdsourcing c. Big data d. Analytics e. Stimulate controversy
Chapter 11 272. If a large collection of diverse individuals is likely to contain either a single superior solution to a problem, or on average, the collection will be correct, what would be an appropriate approach to decision making? a. Evidence-based management b. Crowdsourcing c. Big data d. Analytics e. Stimulating controversy 273. What business relies heavily on crowdsourcing? a. Automobile b. Restaurant c. Healthcare d. Fashion e. Education 274. What has contributed to crowdsourcing as a decision aid? a. Low-cost information technology b. An increase in the number of decisions that organizations must make c. An increase in the difficulty of decisions that organizations must make d. The number of people who are affected by organization decisions e. The need to make high-quality decisions 275. When is crowdsourcing best employed? a. When in-house expertise is lacking, and the nature of the problem can be clearly stated b. When in-house expertise is available, and the nature of the problem can be clearly stated c. When in-house expertise is lacking, and the nature of the problem cannot be clearly stated d. When in-house expertise is available, and the nature of the problem cannot be clearly stated e. When a diverse crowd is knowledgeable, and the problem cannot be clearly stated 276. Finding meaningful patterns in large datasets using conventional statistics, mathematical modelling, and various techniques to represent data visually is called a. big data. b. data mining. c. analytics. d. crowdsourcing. e. data sorting. 277. The bestselling book and movie Moneyball, is an interesting example of a. big data. b. escalation of commitment. c. analytics. d. crowdsourcing. e. risky shift. 278. What company is strongly identified with the use of analytics? a. General Motors b. General Electric c. Lincoln Electric d. Telus e. Starbucks
Chapter 11 279. What two companies have profited greatly from applying sophisticated analytics to big data to facilitate decisions about targeted advertising? a. Google and Facebook b. Google and Yahoo c. Facebook and Yahoo d. Google and Microsoft e. Facebook and Apple 280. Copious amounts of information that are often collected in real time and can come from a wide variety of sources, particularly digital is known as a. analytics. b. crowdsourcing. c. big data. d. digital data. e. data analytics. 281. What does big data refer to? a. Limited amounts of information that are often collected in real time and can come from a wide variety of sources, particularly digital b. Limited amounts of information that are often collected over time and can come from a wide variety of sources, particularly digital c. Copious amounts of information that are often collected over time and can come from a wide variety of sources, mostly from experts d. Copious amounts of information that are often collected in real time and can come from a wide variety of sources, particularly digital e. Copious amounts of information that are often collected in real time and can come from a wide variety of sources, mostly from experts 282. What do the three Vs of big data refer to? a. Volume, vivid, variety b. Volume, velocity, variety c. Volume, velocity, vivid d. Veracity, velocity, variety e. Veracity, velocity, vivid 283. What do volume, velocity, and variety have to do with? a. Crowdsourcing b. Evidence-based management c. Big data d. Groupthink e. Escalation of commitment 284. Evidence-based management involves making decisions through the conscientious, explicit, and judicious use of the best available evidence from other organizations. a. True b. False 285. Evidence-based management involves making decisions through the conscientious, explicit, and judicious use of the best available evidence from multiple sources. a. True b. False
Chapter 11 286. Apple and Microsoft are two companies that have profited greatly from applying sophisticated analytics to big data to facilitate decisions about targeted advertising. a. True b. False 287.
__________ -based management involves making decisions through the conscientious, explicit, and judicious use of the best available evidence from multiple sources.
288. Evidence-based management has its roots in evidence-based __________ .
289. Much of what passes for decision making in organizations consists of guessing what the __________ favours.
290. Crowdsourcing refers to __________ aspects of a decision process to a large collection of people.
291. Crowdsourcing can be used to develop alternative solutions to a problem, choose the best __________ , or both.
292. Usually the __________ used in crowdsourcing is outside of the organization in which a decision is being made.
293. Expertise is sought among the masses when using __________ .
294. A familiar application of crowdsourcing is employed by __________ .
295. The __________ business relies heavily on crowdsourcing to guide its choice of designs for production.
296. The fashion business relies heavily on __________ to guide its choice of designs for production.
297. Low-cost information technology and the rise of __________ media have contributed to the growth of crowdsourcing as a decision aid.
298. Low-cost information technology and the rise of social media have contributed to the growth of __________ as a decision aid.
299. Crowdsourcing is best employed when in-house __________ is lacking.
Chapter 11 300.
__________ concerns finding meaningful patterns in large datasets.
301. Analytics concerns finding meaningful patterns in large __________ .
302. The bestselling book and movie Moneyball, is an example of __________ .
303. One company strongly identified with the use of __________ is General Electric.
304. One company strongly identified with the use of analytics is __________ .
305. The term "big data" is not exactly a(n) __________ term.
306. The term __________ refers to copious amounts of information that are often collected in real time and can come from a wide variety of sources, particularly digital.
307. The term "big data" refers to copious amounts of information that are often collected in real time and can come from a wide variety of sources, particularly __________ .
308. Google and __________ are two companies that have profited greatly from applying sophisticated analytics to big data to facilitate decisions about targeted advertising.
309.
__________ and Facebook are two companies that have profited greatly from applying sophisticated analytics to big data to facilitate decisions about targeted advertising.
310. Google and Facebook are two companies that have profited greatly from applying sophisticated __________ to big data to facilitate decisions about targeted advertising.
311.
__________ has been applied to solving diverse problems.
312. The three Vs of big data are volume, velocity, and __________ .
313. What is evidence-based management and what is good evidence?
314. Discuss the contemporary approaches that can be used to improve decision making in organizations.
Chapter 11 315. What is crowdsourcing and how can it aid decision making?
316. What is crowdsourcing and when is most likely to be effective for decision making? What has contributed to the growth of crowdsourcing as a decision aid?
317. What is crowdsourcing and when is it best employed for decision making?
318. Define analytics and provide an example of how it has been used in decision making.
319. What is big data and what are some of the concerns that have emerged about the rise of big data and analytics?
320. Define big data and provide an example of how it has been used in decision making.
321. When it comes to good evidence, scientifically conducted peer-reviewed research is the gold standard. a. True b. False 322. When it comes to good evidence, benchmarking is the gold standard. a. True b. False 323. Evidence-based management has its roots in evidence-based medicine. a. True b. False 324. In a simulation of foreign currency traders, which ones performed most poorly? a. Those in a bad and neutral mood b. Those in a good and neutral mood c. Those in a neutral mood d. Those in a bad mood e. Those in a good mood 325. Mood affects what and how people think when making decisions. a. True b. False 326. One company strongly identified with the use of analytics is General Electric. a. True b. False 327. One company strongly identified with the use of analytics is General Motors. a. True b. False
Chapter 11 328. Big data is a technical term. a. True b. False 329. Big data tends to be well structured and easily incorporated into standard databases. a. True b. False 330. Big data tends to be unstructured and not easily incorporated into standard databases. a. True b. False 331. Google and Facebook are two companies that have profited greatly from applying sophisticated analytics to big data to facilitate decisions about targeted advertising. a. True b. False 332. Crowdsourcing involves outsourcing aspects of a decision process to a large collection of people. a. True b. False 333. Crowdsourcing involves outsourcing aspects of a decision process to a large collection of experts. a. True b. False 334. Crowdsourcing can be used to develop alternative solutions to a problem. a. True b. False 335. Crowdsourcing can be used to choose the best solution. a. True b. False 336. Crowdsourcing can be used to develop alternative solutions to a problem, to choose the best solution, or both. a. True b. False 337. Crowdsourcing can be used to identify a problem. a. True b. False 338. People in a positive mood tend to evaluate objects, people, and events more positively. a. True b. False 339. People in a good mood tend to overestimate the likelihood that good events will occur and underestimate the occurrence of bad events. a. True b. False
Chapter 11
Test Name: 1.
c.Uncertainty about what to do
2.
e.All of the above
3.
a.routine
4.
c.A standing order to a supplier
5.
d.existing state is unclear, and the desired state is unclear.
6.
a.The top of the hierarchy
7.
d.How many workers should we call out to staff the assembly line next week?
8.
c.The existing state and the desired state are understood.
9.
c.to solve a well-structured problem.
10.
b.The sales manager must decide what to do about sales that seem sluggish.
11.
a.may stimulate strong political considerations.
12.
c.Choice, process, and resources
13.
b.programmed decision making.
14.
e.Difficulties of programmed decision making
15.
d.In which part of the country should we build a new plant?
16.
c.structured; unstructured
17.
b.False
18.
program
19.
well-structured
20.
well-structured
21.
problem
22.
Ill-structured problems
23.
Decision making
24.
commitment
Chapter 11 25.
A well-structured problem is a problem for which the existing state is clear, the desired state is clear, and how to get from one state to the other is fairly obvious. An ill-structured problem is a problem for which the existing and desired stages are unclear and the method of getting to the desired stage is unknown. A wellstructured problem can be solved by using a program which is a standardized way of solving a problem. Programmed decision making provides a useful means of solving well-structured problems. Ill-structured problems cannot be solved with programmed decisions. Rather, the decision makers must resort to nonprogrammed decision making. This means that they are likely to try to gather more information and be more self-consciously analytical in their approach.
26.
Decision making is the process of developing a commitment to some course of action. Four things are noteworthy about decision making. First, decision making involves making a choice among several action alternatives. Second, decision making is a process that involves more than simply the final choice among alternatives. Third, decision making involves a commitment to the dedication of resources such as time, money, or personnel. Fourth, decision making is a process of problem solving. A problem exists when a gap is perceived between some existing state and some desired state.
27.
b.make decisions like the average consumer or manager.
28.
e.All of the above
29.
c.The perfectly rational characteristics of Economic Person do not exist in real decision makers
30.
c.bounded rationality.
31.
b.framing.
32.
a.a cognitive bias.
33.
b.False
34.
a.True
35.
Framing
36.
bounded rationality
37.
perfect rationality
38.
bounded
39.
cognitive biases
40.
Cognitive biases
41.
Bounded rationality is a decision-making strategy that relies on limited information and reflects time constraints and political considerations. It terms of alternative development, evaluation, and choice it can result in cognitive biases especially in terms of the violation of standard statistical principles such as ignoring base rates, sample size, overestimating the odds of complex chains of events, and failure to revise estimates of probabilities and values as they acquire additional information (i.e., the anchoring effect). As well, the decision maker working under bounded rationality frequently satisfices rather than maximizes. Framing is also a factor. When people frame a problem as a choice between losses, they tend to make risky decisions. When they frame the alternatives as a choice between gains, they tend make conservative decisions.
42.
b.often consider the political acceptability of the solution to other organizational members.
Chapter 11 43.
b.The manager defined the problem in terms of a solution.
44.
c.greater confidence by managers in their decisions.
45.
b.His expected value of continuing on the present project is $80,000.
46.
b.Search for relevant information
47.
d.cognitive bias
48.
e.Solution implementation
49.
c.satisficers.
50.
c.choosing a solution.
51.
c.don't adjust successive estimates enough in the face of new information.
52.
a.How the problem is stated
53.
c.Make a risky decision
54.
e.maximization.
55.
e.Problem defined as ill-structured
56.
d.Problem defined in terms of functional specialty
57.
c.Diagnosing a problem in terms of symptoms
58.
e.Confirmation bias
59.
e.Alternative development, evaluation, and choice
60.
a.Base rates
61.
b.Satisficing
62.
c.when people view a problem as a choice between losses, they tend to make risky decisions.
63.
b.Anchoring effect
64.
d.not-invented-here bias.
65.
c.The tendency to ignore or harbour negative attitudes toward ideas from outside one's own organization or project team
66.
b.Search for relevant information
67.
d.Not-invented-here bias
68.
b.Problem identification
69.
e.85
Chapter 11 70.
b.diagnosing problems.
71.
c.Problem defined in terms of solution.
72.
c.availability bias.
73.
e.The tendency to favour information that can be accessed quickly and easily
74.
b.availability bias.
75.
c.law of unintended consequences.
76.
d.When events transpire that were not envisioned by decision makers
77.
d.Information overload can lead to a deficit of useful information.
78.
a.People gravitate toward anecdotal evidence and downplay statistical evidence when they are more emotionally involved with a decision.
79.
a.True
80.
b.False
81.
b.False
82.
b.False
83.
a.True
84.
b.False
85.
b.False
86.
a.True
87.
a.True
88.
b.False
89.
a.True
90.
a.True
91.
a.True
92.
b.False
93.
a.True
94.
a.True
95.
b.False
96.
b.False
Chapter 11 97.
a.True
98.
b.False
99.
b.False
100. b.False 101. b.False 102. b.False 103. a.True 104. a.True 105. a.True 106. a.True 107. e.When it became clear that the investment was a poor one, Pierre realized that he had known it was bad all along. 108. a.involves committing more and more resources to a failing course of action. 109. b.shows how people may treat sunk costs improperly. 110. c.The manager who escalated commitment 111. a.Diego studied the computer output for two hours before the big meeting, but he couldn't use the information. Before the next meeting he studied the output for four hours. 112. d.People high on neuroticism and high on negative affectivity are less likely to escalate. 113. b.Hindsight 114. b.Groups are more prone to escalate commitment than individuals. 115. e.Permanent losses of resources incurred as the result of a decision 116. c.A change in leadership 117. Satisficing 118. information overload 119. solution implementation 120. implement 121. maximization 122. Confirmation bias 123. risky
Chapter 11 124. not-invented-here 125. not-invented-here 126. problem identification 127. diagnosing problems 128. solution 129. availability 130. consequences 131. overload 132. emotionally 133. Bounded rationality is a decision strategy that relies on limited information and that reflects time constraints and political considerations. Difficulties in problem identification include perceptual defence, problem defined in terms of functional specialty, problem defined in terms of solution, and problem diagnosed in terms of symptoms. 134. b.False 135. the knew-it-all-along effect 136. escalation of commitment 137. sunk costs 138. Leadership 139. Robert's boss should be concerned with the possibility that this project should be written off as a sunk cost, and that any further investment in it may constitute an escalation of commitment—the tendency to invest additional resources in an apparently failing course of action. There are a number of reasons for these problems such as dissonance reduction, a social norm that favours consistent behaviour by managers, and changing one's mind and reversing previous decisions might be perceived as a sign of weakness. Escalation sometimes happens even when the current decision maker is not responsible for previous sunk costs. Escalation might also be due to the way decision makers frame the problem once some resources have been sunk. Rather than seeing savings from reversing the decision, they may frame the problem as a decision between a sure loss of x dollars (which have been sunk) and an uncertain loss of x y dollars (maybe the additional investment will succeed). When problems are framed this way, people tend to avoid the certain loss and go with the riskier choice, which in this case is escalation. In addition to situational causes, personality, moods, and emotions can affect escalation. For instance, people high on neuroticism and negative affectivity are less likely to escalate since they try to avoid stressful predicaments.
Chapter 11 140. An example is the executive who authorizes the purchase of several new machines to improve plant productivity. The machines turn out to be very unreliable, and they are frequently out of commission for repairs. Perfect rationality suggests admitting to a mistake and accepting the sunk costs. However, the executive might authorize an order for more machines from the same manufacturer to "prove" being right all along, hoping to recoup sunk costs with improved productivity from an even greater number of machines. Five ways to prevent escalation include: being alert for excessive optimism or extremely positive media attention early in a project cycle; encouraging continuous experimentation with reframing the problem to avoid the decision trap of feeling more resources have to be invested; setting specific goals for the project in advance that must be met if more resources are to be invested; placing more emphasis on evaluating managers on how they made decisions and less on decision outcomes; separating initial and subsequent decision making so that individuals who make the initial decision to embark on a course of action are assisted or replaced by others who decide if a course of action should be continued. 141. Escalation of commitment refers to the tendency to invest additional resources to an apparently failing course of action. Rather than accept sunk costs due to a past decision, the decision maker allows them to enter into future decisions in an attempt to recoup them. There are a number of reasons why it occurs including: dissonance reduction; a social norm that favours consistent behaviour by managers; decision makers might be motivated to not appear wasteful; the way that decision makers frame the problem once some resources have been sunk; personality, moods, and emotions can also affect escalation. People high on neuroticism and negative affectivity are less likely to escalate. 142. Escalation of commitment refers to the tendency to invest additional resources to an apparently failing course of action. Rather than accept sunk costs due to a past decision, the decision maker allows them to enter into future decisions in an attempt to recoup them. There are five ways to prevent it described in the chapter: being alert for excessive optimism or extremely positive media attention early in a project cycle; encouraging continuous experimentation with reframing the problem to avoid the decision trap of feeling more resources have to be invested; setting specific goals for the project in advance that must be met if more resources are to be invested; placing more emphasis in evaluating managers on how they made decisions and less on decision outcomes; separating initial and subsequent decision making so that individuals who make the initial decision to embark on a course of action are assisted or replaced by others who decide if a course of action should be continued. 143. c.Uncertain and ambiguous 144. d.Mood affects what and how people think when making decisions. 145. c.A positive mood 146. c.half 147. c.emotion. 148. b.positive information. 149. a.violate the rational model. 150. b.Try to create a good mood on the part of the interviewer 151. e.Those in a good mood performed more poorly than those in bad or neutral moods. 152. c.Those in a neutral mood 153. a.True 154. b.False
Chapter 11 155. d.A firing squad of ten soldiers was used to execute the prisoner. 156. d.more risky or more conservative than 157. a.hindsight. 158. a.The group experiences much dissension and argument. 159. c.use a group to make the decision. 160. b.a person who intentionally stimulates controversy. 161. c.an illusion of invulnerability. 162. c.The group leader favours a particular decision. 163. d.Conservative shift 164. c.groupthink. 165. d.Three partners were uncertain about expanding their business. After discussing the matter, they decided to expand even though the economy was bad. 166. e.The individual city councilors were moderately opposed to the expensive bond issue. During the council meeting, so many negative points were raised that the bond issue was soundly defeated. 167. c.Quality, acceptance and commitment, diffusion of responsibility 168. b.Time, conflict, domination, groupthink 169. a.illusion of invulnerability. 170. d.self-censorship. 171. b.mindguards. 172. b.False 173. a.True 174. b.False 175. b.False 176. b.False 177. b.False 178. b.False 179. a.True 180. diffusion of responsibility 181. conservative shift
Chapter 11 182. groupthink 183. devil's advocate 184. stress 185. emotion 186. Mood 187. half 188. Mood affects what and how people think when making decisions. Mood has its greatest impact on uncertain and ambiguous decisions. Research on mood and decision making reveals the following: -People in a positive mood remember positive information; people in a negative mood remember negative information. -People in a positive mood evaluate objects, people, and events more positively; those in a negative mood provide negative evaluation. -People in a good mood overestimate the likelihood that good events will occur and underestimate the occurrence of bad events; people in a bad mood do the opposite. -People in a good mood adopt simplified, short-cut decision-making strategies, more likely violating the rational model; people in a negative mood are prone to approach decisions in a more deliberate, systematic, detailed way. -Positive mood promotes more creative, intuitive decision making. 189. a.True 190. a.True 191. b.False 192. b.False 193. a.True 194. b.False 195. a.True 196. b.False 197. a.True 198. a.True 199. b.False 200. a.True 201. b.False 202. multiple 203. b.False
Chapter 11 204. b.False 205. a.True 206. b.False 207. a.True 208. b.False 209. a.True 210. b.False 211. b.False 212. b.False 213. b.False 214. b.False 215. a.True 216. a.True 217. b.False 218. a.True 219. a.True 220. b.False 221. a.True 222. b.False 223. Yes, and it is called information overload—the reception of more information than is necessary to make effective decisions. Information overload can lead to errors, omissions, delays, and cutting corners and can lead to a deficit of useful information. 224. According to the findings of Kahneman and Tversky cited in the text, Gordon will most likely reject the union offer because it has been framed as a choice between two losses. To improve her chances of getting Gordon's approval, she might try framing the union's offer in terms of gains, as follows: "If we accept this offer, it could save as much as $10 million over three years; if we reject this offer and engage in protracted negotiations, there is a 50 percent chance that we will save more than $10 million." 225. a.True 226. a.True 227. a.True 228. b.False
Chapter 11 229. a.True 230. b.False 231. a.True 232. b.False 233. a.True 234. a.True 235. b.False 236. a.True 237. a.True 238. b.False 239. a.True 240. b.False 241. a.True 242. a.True 243. a.True 244. a.True 245. b.False 246. a.True 247. a.True 248. b.False 249. a.True 250. a.True 251. The main advantages of group decision making include higher quality decisions, higher levels of decision acceptance and commitment, and diffusion of responsibility. The main disadvantages include conflict, domination by one or a few members, and groupthink. 252. Groupthink is the capacity for group pressure to damage the mental efficiency, reality testing, and moral judgment of decision-making groups. Symptoms include the illusion of invulnerability, rationalization, the illusion of morality, the stereotyping of outsiders, the pressure to conform, self-censorship, the illusion of unanimity, and mindguards. Leaders can prevent it by not exerting undue pressure for a particular decision outcome and by establishing norms that encourage and even reward dissent (e.g., appointing a devil's advocate). Outside experts can also be brought in from time to time to challenge the group's views.
Chapter 11 253. A risky shift is the tendency for groups to make riskier decisions than the average risk initially advocated by their individual members. A conservative shift is the tendency for groups to make less risky decisions than the average risk initially advocated by their individual members. A key factor appears to be the initial positions of the group members before they discuss the problem. When group members are somewhat conservative before interaction, they tend to exhibit a conservative shift when they discuss the problem. When group members are somewhat risky initially, they exhibit a risky shift after discussion. In other words, group discussion seems to polarize or exaggerate the initial position of the group. Why do risky and conservative shifts occur when groups make decisions? Evidence indicates two main factors. Group discussion generates ideas and arguments that individual members have not considered before. This information naturally favours the members' initial tendency toward risk or toward conservatism. Since discussion provides "more" and "better" reasons for the initial tendency, the tendency ends up being exaggerated. Group members try to present themselves as basically similar to other members but "even better." Thus, they try to one-up others in discussion by adopting a slightly more extreme version of the group's initial stance. 254. d.Expert and professional judgment 255. d.Searching for information 256. d.Searching for information 257. b.Scientifically conducted peer-reviewed research 258. c.Meta-analysis 259. b.Making decisions through the conscientious, explicit, and judicious use of the best available evidence from multiple sources 260. c.evidence-based medicine. 261. e.guessing what the boss favours. 262. c.benchmarking. 263. a.Harder sources of evidence 264. d.Scientific research and company data 265. c.crowdsourcing. 266. a.outsourcing aspects of a decision process to a large collection of people. 267. d.develop alternative solutions to a problem and choose the best solution. 268. c.Expertise is sought among the masses. 269. c.Crowdsourcing 270. c.Wikipedia 271. b.Crowdsourcing 272. b.Crowdsourcing 273. d.Fashion
Chapter 11 274. a.Low-cost information technology 275. a.When in-house expertise is lacking, and the nature of the problem can be clearly stated 276. c.analytics. 277. c.analytics. 278. b.General Electric 279. a.Google and Facebook 280. c.big data. 281. d.Copious amounts of information that are often collected in real time and can come from a wide variety of sources, particularly digital 282. b.Volume, velocity, variety 283. c.Big data 284. b.False 285. a.True 286. b.False 287. Evidence 288. medicine 289. boss 290. outsourcing 291. solution 292. crowd 293. crowdsourcing 294. Wikipedia 295. fashion 296. crowdsourcing 297. social 298. crowdsourcing 299. expertise 300. Analytics
Chapter 11 301. datasets 302. analytics 303. analytics 304. General Electric 305. technical 306. big data 307. digital 308. Facebook 309. Google 310. analytics 311. Crowdsourcing 312. variety 313. Evidence-based management is "making decisions through the conscientious, explicit, and judicious use of the best available evidence from multiple sources." Much of what passes for decision making in organizations consists of guessing what the boss favours, indiscriminately copying competitors (defended as "benchmarking"), or buying canned consulting packages, none of which passes the test for the best available evidence. Good evidence is scientifically conducted peer-reviewed research. This is especially true when multiple independent research studies are summarized in a systematic review using a technique called metaanalysis. Data generated by or for a specific organization can also constitute reasonable evidence. Traditional customer and employee surveys (if professionally constructed), financial data, and human resources data can all be valuable sources of information. In addition, new sources of data are coming into vogue, including seeking the views of the masses (crowdsourcing) and mining the massive wealth of archived internet traffic. The views of experts and professionals with profound experience in a particular domain can also constitute evidence. 314. The contemporary approaches to improve decision making in organizations are evidence-based management (making decisions through the conscientious, explicit, and judicious use of the best available evidence from multiple sources), crowdsourcing (outsourcing aspects of a decision process to a large collection of people), analytics (finding meaningful patterns in large datasets), and big data (copious amounts of information that are often collected in real time and can come from a wide variety of sources, particularly digital). 315. Crowdsourcing involves "outsourcing" aspects of a decision process to a large collection of people. It is meant to capitalize on the merits of group decision making. In terms of the rational decision model, crowdsourcing can aid decision making with respect to developing alternative solutions to a problem, to choose the best solution, or both.
Chapter 11 316. Crowdsourcing involves "outsourcing" aspects of a decision process to a large collection of people. It is meant to capitalize on the merits of group decision making. Two basic ideas underpin the effective use of crowdsourcing for decision making. One is that the information required to make a particular decision is not available to those charged with making that decision. That is, in evidence-based management terms, evidence is needed but it is not available in house. The other is that a large collection of diverse individuals is likely to contain either a single superior solution to a problem, or on average, the collection will be correct. Low-cost information technology and the rise of social media have contributed to the growth of crowdsourcing as a decision aid. 317. Crowdsourcing involves "outsourcing" aspects of a decision process to a large collection of people. It is meant to capitalize on the merits of group decision making. It is best employed when in-house expertise is lacking, the nature of the problem can be clearly stated, and a large, diverse crowd is both knowledgeable and motivated to participate. 318. Analytics concerns finding meaningful patterns in large datasets using conventional statistics, mathematical modelling, and various techniques to represent data visually. In some cases, the revealed patterns show that problems are more well structured than was thought. An example of analytics can be found in the bestselling book Moneyball by Michael Lewis. Lewis recounts how the general manager of the Oakland Athletics major league baseball team used an array of new performance statistics to evaluate players and implement tactics during games. The interesting thing about these analytic applications is that they showed that many intuitive and time-honoured decision rules used by managers (e.g., telling players to steal a base) were statistically incorrect. Using analytics enabled the Athletics to field highly competitive teams while paying comparatively modest salaries. 319. Big data refers to copious amounts of information that are often collected in real time and can come from a wide variety of sources, particularly digital. Such data tend to be unstructured and not easily incorporated into standard databases. A number of concerns have emerged about the rise of big data and associated analytics such as privacy issues, unintended consequences (e.g., racial discrimination by facial recognition technology), and overfitting, creating overly complex models that don’t generalize to new data. However, it is clear that big data will continue to fascinate organizational decision makers. 320. Big data refers to copious amounts of information that are often collected in real time and can come from a wide variety of sources, particularly digital. Such data tend to be unstructured and not easily incorporated into standard databases. It has been used by Amazon to determine what books online customers considered, what reviews they examined, and what they bought, enabling them to make recommendations for further reading. Acceptance or rejection of these suggestions allows them to refine future suggestions, all in real time. It has also been used by health researchers who have aggregated Google search data concerning the flu to predict hospital visits in advance of flu alerts from the Centers for Disease Control. 321. a.True 322. b.False 323. a.True 324. e.Those in a good mood 325. a.True 326. a.True 327. b.False 328. b.False
Chapter 11 329. b.False 330. a.True 331. a.True 332. a.True 333. b.False 334. a.True 335. a.True 336. a.True 337. b.False 338. a.True 339. a.True
Chapter 12 1.
Power is defined as a. the capacity to influence others who are in a state of dependence. b. a process of antagonism that occurs when one person or organizational subunit frustrates the goal attainment of another. c. the joint occurrence of antagonism and blocked goals. d. using influence to obtain ends not sanctioned by the organization or to obtain sanctioned ends through not-sanctioned means. e. establishing good connections with key organizational members in order to achieve one's goals.
2.
Which base of individual power is most closely associated with one's position or job in the organization? a. Referent b. Legitimate c. Expert d. Coercive e. Reward
3.
Which base of individual power is most consistently associated with employee effectiveness? a. Expert b. Coercive c. Legitimate d. Reward e. Referent
4.
A military commander who is well liked and admired by their troops is leading them on a highly structured mission. We can be certain that the commander is high on two bases of power. What are they? a. Legitimate and referent b. Reward and expert c. Coercive and expert d. Information and reward e. Referent and coercive
5.
Which of the following statements concerning power is FALSE? a. Power can flow in any direction in an organization. b. Power is not always exercised. c. Because the target of power is dependent upon the power holder, a poor relationship necessarily exists between the two. d. Power is a broad concept that applies to individuals, groups, and subunits. e. Two individuals can have power over each other.
6.
Legitimate power a. is a function of one's formal organizational role. b. is less important than the other power bases. c. is applied equally by all those who possess it. d. exists when the power holder is well liked by others. e. is perfectly correlated with coercive power.
7.
Coercive power a. is often associated with workgroup ineffectiveness. b. is perfectly correlated with legitimate power. c. is available when the power holder can exert influence by providing positive outcomes. d. can only be applied by higher-level organizational members to lower-level members. e. is generally effective at reducing employee resistance.
Chapter 12 8.
A well-liked Nobel Prize winner has considerable influence among the members of their scientific research team. This person is high on which two bases of social power? a. Legitimate and referent b. Coercive and reward c. Legitimate and coercive d. Reward and expert e. Referent and expert
9.
Two army officers get into an argument, and one cites their rank in an attempt to settle the matter. To which power base are they resorting? a. Expert b. Coercive c. Legitimate d. Reward e. Referent
10.
I have referent power over you. This means that a. I know something you don't want made public. b. I have a skill that you admire. c. I like you. d. you like me. e. you dislike me.
11.
Referent power is especially potent because a. it stems from identification with the power holder. b. few people have it. c. its absence may lead to cognitive dissonance. d. it is perfectly correlated with coercive power. e. it is perfectly correlated with expert power.
12.
What kind of power is most likely to be ineffective? a. Reward power b. Coercive power c. Referent power d. Expert power e. Legitimate power
13.
Expert power corresponds to the difficulty of a. the job. b. the subordinates. c. replacement. d. the situation. e. leadership.
14.
In contemporary organizations, much expertise involves the ability to assemble and interpret a. data and acquire more expertise. b. data and acquire knowledge. c. data and use it to acquire more power. d. data and expand one's power base. e. data and to exert more power over others.
Chapter 12 15.
Maja, a professor, has more important publications than anyone in her university department. She is very high on the __________ power base.
16.
William's employees cooperate with him because they like him. Thus, he has __________ power over them.
17.
The sergeant defers to the captain because of the captain's position. Thus, the captain has __________ power over the sergeant.
18.
Employee effectiveness is highest when the boss is high on the __________ power base.
19.
__________ is the capacity to influence others who are in a state of dependence.
20.
Of all the bases of managerial power, __________ is most consistently associated with employee effectiveness.
21.
__________ power corresponds to the difficulty of replacement.
22.
In contemporary organizations, much expertise involves the ability to assemble and interpret data and acquire __________ .
23.
Power asymmetry doesn't require an organizational __________ .
24.
Power asymmetry can be driven by an __________ .
25.
What are the five bases of individual power? Which one do you think is most powerful overall? Provide an example to illustrate your rationale.
26.
Define power and discuss four key things about power in organizations.
27.
Morris is in the process of establishing a new customer service program in his organization. What is this an example of and what effect will it have on his power? a. A relevant activity that will increase his power b. An extraordinary activity that will increase his power c. A visible activity that will increase his power. d. An extraordinary activity that will decrease his power e. A visible activity that will decrease his power
Chapter 12 28.
A professor has been featured in a prestigious magazine and was shown on the cover. What is this an example of and what effect will it have on the professor's power? a. A relevant activity that will increase the professor's power b. An extraordinary activity that will increase the professor's power c. A visible activity that will increase the professor's power d. An extraordinary activity that will decrease the professor's power e. A visible activity that will decrease the professor's power
29.
Cultivating others adds to one's power base because it builds a social network that leads to the accumulation of ________that can be used to influence people over and above formal sources of power. a. power b. social capital c. human capital d. expertise e. knowledge
30.
Cultivating others adds to one's power because it builds a social network that leads to the accumulation of human capital that can be used to influence people over and above formal sources of power. a. True b. False
31.
To gain power in an organization one's activities should be extraordinary, relevant, and __________ .
32.
Liaisons with key __________ probably represent the best way of obtaining power through cultivating others.
33.
Cultivating others adds to one's power base because it builds a social network that leads to the accumulation of __________ that can be used to influence people over and above formal sources of power.
34.
Cultivating the right people includes outsiders, subordinates, peers, and __________ .
35.
Establishing good relationships with key people outside one's organization can lead to increased power __________ the organization.
36.
Cultivating good relationships with __________ is mainly a means of ensuring that nothing gets in the way of one's future acquisition of power.
37.
Richard Thackeray has just been hired as a management trainee in the marketing department at Kapster Enterprises. He is hoping to quickly move up the corporate hierarchy and eventually become the Vice President of Marketing. However, Richard realizes that there are several powerful managers above him in the hierarchy who undoubtedly have aspirations about becoming a vice president as well. What advice might you give to Richard about how to obtain power?
Chapter 12 38.
Empowerment occurs when people are given ________ to take the initiative and solve organizational problems. a. excessive power b. authority, opportunity, and motivation c. orders d. employees e. assertiveness training
39.
The relationship between performance and empowerment suggests which of the following relationships? a. Low power-effective performance b. High power-effective performance c. Sufficient power-effective performance d. Legitimate power-expert performance e. None of the above
40.
Which of the following is NOT an influence tactic? a. Assertiveness b. Ingratiation c. Coalition formation d. Rationality e. Machiavellianism
41.
Behaviours that are used to convert power into actual influence are called a. authority. b. influence tactics. c. empowerment. d. power bases. e. Machiavellian tactics.
42.
An example of empowerment at work is approaching the service desk and hearing: a. "Sorry! I don't have the authority to solve that problem." b. "Let me refund your money in full." c. "That's not my job." d. "I'll tell my boss about this." e. "I just need to get my supervisor's signature."
43.
Which of the following is an example of an influence tactic? a. Buffing b. Buck passing c. Ingratiation d. Stalling e. Overconforming
44.
What is the relation between the bases of power and influence tactics? a. Coercive power uses assertiveness. b. Referent power uses rationality. c. Expert power uses exchange. d. Coercive power uses ingratiation. e. Referent power uses upward appeal.
Chapter 12 45.
What influence tactic do people report using very frequently? a. Upward appeal b. Exchange c. Ingratiation d. Rationality e. Assertiveness
46.
What group(s) is/are most likely to be the recipients of the assertiveness influence tactic? a. Subordinates b. Peers c. Superiors d. Subordinates and peers e. Subordinates, peers, and superiors
47.
Rationality is most likely to be directed towards a. subordinates. b. peers. c. superiors. d. men. e. women.
48.
What influence tactic is universally employed? a. Assertiveness b. Exchange c. Ingratiation d. Self-promotion e. Upward appeal
49.
What influence tactics are effective in job search situations? a. Assertiveness and self-promotion b. Ingratiation and self-promotion c. Rationality and assertiveness d. Exchange and rationality e. Upward appeal and self-promotion
50.
People who are empowered have a strong sense of a. who they are. b. what they want. c. what they must do. d. self-efficacy. e. self-esteem.
51.
When it comes to the use of influence tactics, someone with coercive power might gravitate towards a. assertiveness. b. ingratiation. c. rationality. d. exchange. e. upward appeal.
Chapter 12 52.
When it comes to the use of influence tactics, someone with referent power might gravitate towards a. assertiveness. b. ingratiation. c. rationality. d. exchange. e. upward appeal.
53.
When it comes to the use of influence tactics, someone with expert power might gravitate towards a. assertiveness or self-promotion. b. ingratiation or self-promotion. c. rationality or self-promotion. d. exchange or rationality. e. upward appeal or ingratiation.
54.
What influence tactic involves touting one's accomplishments, image enhancement, and name-dropping? a. Assertiveness b. Ingratiation c. Rationality d. Self-promotion e. Upward appeal
55.
What influence tactic involves ordering, nagging, setting deadlines, and verbally confronting others? a. Assertiveness b. Ingratiation c. Rationality d. Self-promotion e. Upward appeal
56.
Mara has just been introduced to Jael, a new employee in her organization. She is not sure what to think of Jael as she seems to spend a lot of her time touting her accomplishments and name-dropping. What is Jael exhibiting? a. Assertiveness b. Ingratiation c. Rationality d. Self-promotion e. Upward appeal
57.
People who are empowered have a strong sense of __________ .
58.
Used properly, __________ puts power where it is needed to make the organization effective.
59.
Self-promotion and ingratiation are effective in __________ situations.
60.
__________ means giving people the authority, opportunity, and motivation to take initiative and solve organizational problems.
61.
__________ involves touting one's accomplishments, image enhancement, and name-dropping.
Chapter 12 62.
Gordon Wong, VP of Human Resources at Zeta Manufacturing, has just reviewed last month's disappointing productivity figures from the assembly plant where an empowerment program was launched six months ago. Not only was performance down, but employee expenses and related costs had doubled over the same period last year. Gordon could not understand why the empowerment program had not achieved better productivity results—especially since the assembly workers now had virtually complete control over their jobs. As he reviewed the report, he pondered, "Perhaps our empowerment initiatives did not go far enough? Maybe we need to give them even more power?" Using your knowledge of empowerment, what advice might you give to Gordon?
63.
Describe four influence tactics and explain how each may be related to one of the individual power bases.
64.
Describe four influence tactics and explain which ones are most and least effective.
65.
According to David McClelland, institutional managers a. are very concerned with how much others like them. b. have a high need for power. c. use their power to further their self-interests and work against organizational goals. d. adopt a directive and coercive leadership style. e. are more likely to succeed in public sector organizations.
66.
According to David McClelland, the most effective managers a. have a high need for personal power. b. have a high need for affiliation. c. are institutional managers. d. are concerned with being well-liked. e. use coercive power extensively.
67.
A manager with a high need for personal power a. will be the most effective manager. b. will avoid using organizational politics. c. will avoid using that power to influence others. d. will use their power for personal gain. e. will not be concerned with status symbols.
68.
________ managers use their power for self-interest, whereas ________ managers are more concerned with being liked than with exercising power. a. Personal power; affiliative b. Institutional; affiliative c. Affiliative; personal power d. Personal power; institutional e. Affiliative; institutional
69.
According to David McClelland, the most effective managers do NOT a. use their power to achieve organizational goals. b. have a high need for power. c. show a high degree of concern about how much others like them. d. adopt a participative or coaching style of leadership. e. clarify organizational priorities for subordinates.
Chapter 12 70.
Critical factors that affect organizational effectiveness are known as a. strategic enforcers. b. strategic influence. c. strategic contingencies. d. power contingencies. e. influence tactics.
71.
Which of the following conditions will NOT add to a subunit's power in the organization? a. The work it performs can be contracted out. b. It can reduce organizational uncertainty. c. The work it performs is central to the organization's goals. d. It can secure scarce resources. e. The work it performs has an immediate impact on others.
72.
Which subunit controls strategic contingencies? a. The one that can contract out the most work b. The one that is most isolated from the other units c. The one that is most peripheral to the workflow d. The one that can obtain scarce resources e. The one that is most substitutable
73.
If you gain power by controlling strategic contingencies, you are most likely a. drawing new customers to the firm. b. acting unethically. c. exhibiting Machiavellianism. d. similar to McClelland's personal power managers. e. exercising coercive power.
74.
Which of the following is NOT one of the conditions for controlling strategic contingencies? a. Scarcity b. Uncertainty c. Centrality d. Defensiveness e. Substitutability
75.
What strategic contingency condition is at play when a subunit has an especially crucial impact on the quantity or quality of the organization's key product or service? a. Scarcity b. Uncertainty c. Centrality d. Defensiveness e. Substitutability
76.
__________ managers use their power for personal gain.
77.
__________ managers are concerned with being liked rather than exercising power.
78.
Subunits whose work is highly substitutable by other sources acquire substantial power by virtue of their flexibility and adaptability. a. True b. False
Chapter 12 79.
Research shows that men and women tend to have similarly sized networks, but that men tend to favour men in their networks while women show more gender balance but still favour women. a. True b. False
80.
Differences in subunit power are likely to be magnified when resources become __________ .
81.
The term __________ applies to organizational departments.
82.
Critical factors affecting organizational effectiveness are called __________ .
83.
What are strategic contingencies? How might a small department in a large organization use strategic contingencies to become more powerful?
84.
What role does centrality play in subunit power and what are the three ways that a subunit's activities can be central?
85.
The more critical and unusual an individual's expertise, the more referent power the individual has. a. True b. False
86.
A leader's legitimate power is the power base most consistently associated with employee effectiveness. a. True b. False
87.
Power can exist in a relationship even though it is not used or exercised. a. True b. False
88.
Effective managers are generally viewed as being high in coercive power. a. True b. False
89.
Of the various bases of individual power, expertise is most consistently associated with employee effectiveness. a. True b. False
90.
Power is a concept that applies to individuals. a. True b. False
91.
Power asymmetry doesn't require an organizational hierarchy. a. True b. False
Chapter 12 92.
Cultivating good relationships with peers is mainly a means of ensuring that nothing gets in the way of one's future acquisition of power. a. True b. False
93.
Liaisons with key superiors probably represent the best way of obtaining power through cultivating others. a. True b. False
94.
Liaisons with outsiders probably represents the best way of obtaining power through cultivating others. a. True b. False
95.
Cultivating others adds to one's power because it builds a social network that leads to the accumulation of social capital that can be used to influence people over and above formal sources of power. a. True b. False
96.
Superordinate goals are defined as the organization's most important strategic contingencies. a. True b. False
97.
A department that controls strategic contingencies has a strong effect on the activities of other departments. a. True b. False
98.
Being able to cope with environmental uncertainty can be a strong source of power within an organization. a. True b. False
99.
Empowerment fosters job satisfaction but not performance. a. True b. False
100. Someone with coercive power might gravitate towards ingratiation. a. True b. False 101. It has been determined that about 10 percent of knowledge transfer events consist of knowledge hiding rather than sharing. a. True b. False 102. It has been determined that about 15 percent of knowledge transfer events consist of knowledge hiding rather than sharing. a. True b. False 103. People are very open about knowledge hiding. a. True b. False
Chapter 12 104. People are very secretive about knowledge hiding. a. True b. False 105. The three forms of knowledge hiding are playing dumb, evasive hiding, and rationalized hiding. a. True b. False 106. The three forms of knowledge hiding are playing dumb, evasive hiding, and open hiding. a. True b. False 107. High Machs are inclined to knowledge hiding. a. True b. False 108. Sam pursued his self-interest at Omega Corporation, even when it went against organizational goals. This is an example of __________ .
109. Which of the following statements concerning organizational politics is TRUE? a. Political activity is self-conscious and intentional. b. Political activity cannot be beneficial to the organization. c. Political activity is solely an individual activity, not a group or subunit activity. d. Political activity involves placing organizational interests before self-interest. e. Political activity cannot be countered by those with different agendas. 110. Which of the following are facets of political skill? a. Social astuteness and apparent sincerity b. Networking ability and assertiveness c. Social astuteness and ingratiation d. Rationality and apparent sincerity e. Social astuteness and assertiveness 111. You have a new friend at work who has impressed you. They seem to be very good at observing others and they seem able to tune into their needs and motives. They can "read" people and seem to have emotional intelligence and know how to present themselves to others. What skill does your new friend possess? a. Assertiveness b. Ingratiation c. Networking ability d. Interpersonal influence e. Social astuteness 112. If you have political skill, it means you have all of the following EXCEPT a. social astuteness. b. interpersonal influence. c. assertiveness. d. apparent sincerity. e. networking ability.
Chapter 12 113. Employees who identify very strongly with their organization are more likely to engage in ethical activities than those who identify less strongly. a. True b. False 114. Just before Darrow graduated from university, he was told that once he begins work, he should learn how to network because it can help him in his career. While Darrow understands what it means to network, he is not sure of the actual things he must do to network or how effective it will be. He has asked you to describe how to network and the effect that it will have on his career. What are the various networking behaviours you should describe to Darrow and which ones are most effective?
115. What is knowledge hiding and what are its various forms?
116. What is knowledge hiding, what factors foster it, and what are some of the consequences of it?
117. Using not-sanctioned means to pursue not-sanctioned ends in an organization is a clear-cut case of __________ .
118.
__________ play hard organizational politics by acting cool in the face of emotion, forming alliances with others, and not feeling guilty.
119. A subtle form of politicking involves establishing good relations with key people inside and/or outside of the organization. This is known as __________ .
120. Blaming others when things go wrong is known as __________ .
121.
__________ is the ability to understand others at work and to use that knowledge to influence others to act in ways that enhance one's personal or organizational objectives.
122. Political skill is positively related to __________ , job satisfaction, and career success.
123. Political skill is positively related to job performance, job satisfaction, and __________ success.
124. Those high in self-esteem and __________ are more likely to engage in networking behaviours.
125. Engaging in professional activities and ________ are most associated with career success.
Chapter 12 126. The relationship between networking activities and career success only applies to __________ .
127. Men and women engage in networking equally, except for __________ .
128. High Machs are unlikely to be high __________ .
129. The two aspects of political skill are comprehending others and translating this comprehension into __________ .
130. When it comes to performance, politics take a toll on __________ workers.
131. High Machs are likely to be enthusiastic organizational __________ .
132. High Machs are inclined towards __________ behaviours such as sabotage and theft.
133. Political skill is negatively related to __________ and perceptions of stressors.
134. Research shows that men and women tend to have similarly sized networks, but that men tend to favour men in their networks while women show more gender balance but favour __________ .
135.
__________ entails intentionally concealing or withholding information that has been requested by or is relevant to another organizational member.
136. It has been determined that about 10 percent of knowledge transfer events consists of __________ .
137. The three forms of knowledge hiding are playing dumb, evasive hiding, and __________ hiding.
138. The three forms of knowledge hiding are __________ , evasive hiding, and rationalized hiding.
139. Explain how organizational politics may lead to behaviours which are potentially functional and dysfunctional to an organization. Give an example of each.
Chapter 12 140. Political skill is positively related to a. job performance. b. commitment. c. organizational citizenship behaviour. d. turnover. e. absenteeism. 141. What do general managers do to bolster their political networks? a. Meetings and informal small talk b. Face-to-face encounters and informal small talk c. Social activities and informal small talk d. Conferences and informal small talk e. Face-to-face encounters and social activities 142. If you do favours for others and stress the obligations of others to you, what are you doing? a. Bolstering your political network b. Increasing your referent power c. Forming a coalition d. Being assertive e. Buffing 143. The following are all aspects of networking EXCEPT a. maintaining contacts. b. socializing. c. engaging in professional activities. d. participating in community activities. e. upward appeal. 144. Soon after Liam began his new job, he started to observe his co-workers to learn about the organization and how people get things done. One thing he noticed was that some of his co-workers would try very hard to get high-profile work projects and to also sit on important committees and task forces. What is Liam observing? a. Maintaining contacts b. Increasing internal visibility c. Assertiveness d. Ingratiation e. Upward appeal 145. Owen is a longtime friend of Simon who has been working for a very prestigious law firm for several years. Simon admires Owen for how successful he has become and asks him how he has managed to become so successful. Owen tells Simon that he always gives his business card out and makes a point of sending gifts and thank you notes to people. What does Owen do? a. Engage in professional activities b. Participate in community activities c. Increase internal visibility d. Maintain contacts e. Socialize 146. What personality types are most likely to engage in networking behaviours? a. High need for power and high Machiavellianism b. High self-esteem and high Machiavellianism c. High need for power and extraversion d. High self-esteem and extraversion e. High need for power and self-esteem
Chapter 12 147. What networking activities are most associated with career success? a. Maintaining contacts and socializing b. Engaging in professional activities and participating in community activities c. Maintaining contacts and engaging in professional activities d. Maintaining contacts and increasing internal visibility e. Engaging in professional activities and increasing internal visibility 148. You have three friends who are doing the same job in the same company. Jill tries to be assigned to highprofile projects and also sits on important committees and task forces. She also gives workshops and speaking engagements whenever she can. Cara spends time having drinks with co-workers after work, participating in company sports leagues, and also participates in community activities. Minjin takes the time to send gifts and thank you notes to people and gives out her business card whenever she can. Who will have a more successful career? a. Jill b. Cara c. Minjin d. Jill and Minjin e. Jill and Cara 149. Which of the following is most accurate? a. Men engage in networking more than women. b. Women engage in networking more than men. c. Men and women engage in networking equally. d. Younger men engage in networking more than older men. e. Younger women engage in networking more than older women. 150. Highly political climates result in all of the following EXCEPT a. lower job satisfaction. b. lower job performance for younger workers. c. lower organizational commitment. d. increased turnover intentions. e. lower organizational citizenship behaviour. 151. What is the effect of politics on job performance? a. It has a negative effect on all workers. b. It has a negative effect on younger workers but not older workers. c. It has a negative effect on older workers but not younger workers. d. It has a positive effect on younger workers and a negative effect on older workers. e. It has a positive effect on older workers and a negative effect on younger workers. 152. High Machs are unlikely to a. be satisfied employees. b. be committed employees. c. be high performers. d. engage in sabotage. e. engage in theft. 153. Which of the following is political skill positively related to? a. Job performance, job satisfaction, career success b. Job satisfaction, job performance, organizational commitment c. Job satisfaction, organizational citizenship behaviour, career success d. Job performance, organizational commitment, and career success e. Job satisfaction, organizational commitment, and career success
Chapter 12 154. Teams that have members with elevated political skill tend to be a. less cohesive and perform worse. b. more cohesive and perform better. c. more motivated and perform better. d. more engaged and perform better. e. less motivated and perform worse. 155. Which of the following is political skill negatively related to? a. Burnout and stress b. Burnout and perceptions of stressors c. Intentions to quit and stress d. Job performance and stress e. Perceptions of stressors and stress reactions 156. Men and women engage in networking equally, except for a. increasing internal visibility. b. participating in community activities. c. engaging in professional activities. d. socializing. e. maintaining contacts. 157. When it comes to networking, which of the following is most accurate? a. Men have an edge in socializing. b. Women have an edge in socializing. c. Men have an edge in participating in community activities. d. Women have an edge in participating in community activities. e. Men have an edge in increasing internal visibility. 158. When it comes to networking, which of the following is most accurate? a. Men have networks that are more gender balanced. b. Women have networks that favour women. c. Women have larger networks. d. Men have larger networks. e. Men and women have similarly sized networks. 159. When it comes to networking, which of the following is most accurate? a. Men and women have similarly sized networks, but women tend to favour women in their networks while men show more gender balance but still favour men. b. Men and women have similarly sized networks, but women tend to favour men in their networks while men show more gender balance but still favour men. c. Men and women have similarly sized networks, but women tend to favour men in their networks while men show more gender balance but favour women. d. Men and women have similarly sized networks, but men tend to favour men in their networks while women show more gender balance but still favour women. e. Men and women have similarly sized networks, but men tend to favour men in their networks while women show more gender balance but still favour men.
Chapter 12 160. What is the meaning of knowledge hiding? a. Intentionally concealing or withholding information that is required by or is relevant to another organizational member b. Intentionally concealing or withholding information that has been requested by or is relevant to another organizational member c. Intentionally concealing or withholding information that is required by or belongs to another organizational member d. Unintentionally concealing or withholding information that has been requested by or is relevant to another organizational member e. Intentionally providing information that has been requested by another organizational member that is irrelevant or misleading 161. What percent of knowledge transfer events consist of knowledge hiding rather than sharing? a. 5 percent b. 10 percent c. 15 percent d. 20 percent e. 25 percent 162. What are the three forms of knowledge hiding? a. Evasive hiding, secret hiding, rationalized hiding b. Playing dumb, secret hiding, open hiding c. Evasive hiding, rationalized hiding, open hiding d. Playing dumb, evasive hiding, rationalized hiding e. Playing dumb, evasive hiding, open hiding 163. Which of the following tops the list of research on observed ethical misconduct? a. Lying to employees and breaching employee privacy b. Lying to employees and sexual harassment c. Abusive behaviour and lying to employees d. Abusive behaviour and falsifying expense reports e. Lying to employees and falsifying expense reports 164. Ethical questions usually revolve around the impact of organizational decisions on various a. stakeholders. b. subunits. c. Machiavellians. d. networks. e. managers. 165. The text defined ethics as a. acting morally. b. systematic thinking about the moral consequences of decisions. c. making decisions in such a way that the rights of all parties are considered. d. a major step in the rational decision-making model. e. reactive politics in organizations. 166. Behaviour is likely to be most ethical under conditions of ________ competition. a. high b. low c. medium d. high or low e. friendly
Chapter 12 167. Research indicates that among business students, a. undergraduates have been found to be more ethical than MBA students. b. undergraduates have been found to be just as ethical as MBA students. c. undergraduates have been found to be just as unethical as MBA students. d. MBA students have been found to be just as ethical as undergraduates. e. undergraduates have been found to be more ethical than top managers. 168. Research indicates that a. formal education in ethics has little impact on ethical attitudes. b. extreme competition reduces unethical behaviour. c. business students have higher ethical standards than practising managers. d. people with strong economic values seem prone to unethical behaviour. e. managers view themselves as having looser ethical standards than their peers. 169. According to the text, ethical business decisions are more likely to occur a. if we treat others the way we expect to be treated. b. after some systematic thinking about a decision's moral consequences. c. after managers are trained to satisfice rather than maximize. d. if a long-term orientation replaces a short-term orientation. e. if industry competition is weak or nonexistent. 170. Research has shown that 56 percent of MBA students admitted to cheating during the past year, while nonbusiness grad students admitted to cheating ________ of the time. a. 47 b. 64 c. 33 d. 72 e. 18 171. What is Dr. Jeffrey Wigand known for? a. Networking b. Whistle-blowing c. Unethical behaviour d. High need for power e. Sexual harassment 172. What have Canadians been most actively involved in? a. Reporting unethical behaviour b. Unethical behaviour c. Ethical behaviour d. Whistle-blowing e. Reporting sexual harassment 173. Which of the following is most accurate? a. Women are much more ethical than men. b. Women are marginally more ethical than men. c. Men are much more ethical than women. d. Men are marginally more ethical than women. e. Women and men are equally ethical.
Chapter 12 174. Which of the following is most accurate? a. Older people are much more ethical than the young. b. Older people are marginally more ethical than the young. c. Young people are much more ethical than the old. d. Young people are marginally more ethical than the old. e. Old and young people are equally ethical. 175. There is a point at which goal challenge can be so extreme as to induce a. sexual harassment. b. whistle-blowing. c. political behaviour. d. unethical behaviour. e. defensiveness. 176. What is most likely to deplete people's ethical focus? a. A consecutive series of low or decreasing performance goals b. A consecutive series of high or increasing performance goals c. An interrupted series of high or increasing performance goals d. An interrupted series of low or decreasing performance goals e. A consecutive series of moderate or increasing performance goals 177. What did the Canadian Federal Court approve in 2020? a. A whistle-blower class action settlement b. An ethical conduct legislation c. A gender-based workplace class action sexual harassment settlement d. An unethical class action settlement e. A bullying class action settlement 178. The psychological process by which people come to engage in behaviour that violates their own ethical standards is called a. restricted ethicality. b. bounded ethicality. c. limited ethicality. d. absent ethicality. e. diverted ethicality. 179. What does bounded ethicality mean? a. People don't know what it means to be ethical. b. People believe they are more ethical than others. c. People are prone to ethical blind spots. d. People believe they are more ethical than they really are. e. People are prone to believe that ethics is not relevant to them. 180. The Bernie Madoff case illustrates which factor associated with unethical behaviour? a. Personality b. Gain c. Extreme performance pressure d. Role conflict e. Competition
Chapter 12 181. What has virtually every Canadian bank CEO denied? a. That there is a culture of unethical decision making in retail banking b. That there is a culture of whistle-blowing in retail banking c. That there is a culture of bullying in retail banking d. That there is a culture of sexual harassment in retail banking e. That there is a culture of unethical sales behaviour in retail banking 182. The notion that people are prone to ethical blind spots is known as a. restricted ethicality. b. bounded ethicality. c. limited ethicality. d. absent ethicality. e. diverted ethicality. 183. Which of the following personality types is most prone to making unethical decisions? a. Need for affiliation b. Need for achievement c. Need for personal power d. Extraversion e. Introversion 184. What are people who are unfairly underpaid inclined to do? a. Blow the whistle on their organization b. Engage in bullying c. Engage in sexual harassment d. Act unethically e. Blow the whistle on their co-workers 185. What does the morning morality effect refer to? a. People tend to be more likely to report unethical behaviour in the morning. b. People tend to be more ethical in the morning. c. People tend to say they are more ethical in the morning. d. People tend to be more likely to blow the whistle in the morning. e. People tend to be more likely to hide unethical behaviour in the morning. 186. Which of the following is most accurate? a. People tend to be more likely to report unethical behaviour in the morning. b. People tend to be more ethical in the morning. c. People tend to say they are more ethical in the morning. d. People tend to be more likely to blow the whistle in the morning. e. People tend to be more likely to hide unethical behaviour in the morning. 187. Which of the following can lead to more ethical decisions? a. Food in the workspace b. Music in the workspace c. Furniture in the workspace d. Family photos in the workspace e. Flowers in the workspace
Chapter 12 188. A narrow focus on organizational economic indicators such as profits or stock price to the exclusion of espoused organizational values and fair procedures is known as a(n) a. profit mentality. b. bottom line mentality. c. economic maximization mentality. d. financial gain mentality. e. dollars and cents mentality. 189. What does a bottom line mentality refer to? a. A narrow focus on organizational economic indicators such as profits or stock price to the exclusion of employee needs and values. b. An exclusive focus on organizational economic indicators such as profits or stock price to the exclusion of the needs and values of other stakeholders c. A narrow focus on organizational economic indicators such as profits or stock price to the exclusion of social indicators of performance d. An exclusive focus on organizational economic indicators such as profits or stock price to the exclusion of espoused organizational and employee values e. A narrow focus on organizational economic indicators such as profits or stock price to the exclusion of espoused organizational values and fair procedures 190. Which of the following is most accurate about a bottom line mentality? a. Machiavellians are likely to espouse a bottom line mentality. b. It is associated with a variety of positive outcomes. c. It often moves up from lower-level employees to more senior level employees. d. It does not boost customer service. e. It is seldom associated with negative outcomes. 191. Power asymmetry requires an organizational hierarchy. a. True b. False 192. Power asymmetry can be driven by an algorithm. a. True b. False 193. In contemporary organizations, much expertise involves the ability to assemble and interpret data and acquire knowledge. a. True b. False 194. In contemporary organizations, much expertise involves the ability to assemble and interpret data and acquire more power. a. True b. False 195. What kinds of activities lead to power according to Rosabeth Moss Kanter?
Chapter 12 196. The text defines organizational politics as the a. capacity to influence others. b. pursuit of self-interest. c. creation of a network. d. changing of a culture. e. use of power to coerce others. 197. Using not-sanctioned means to pursue not-sanctioned ends is an example of a. networking. b. organizational politics. c. the control of strategic contingencies. d. conflict resolution. e. ethical behaviour. 198. The manager who agrees to recommend a raise for an employee if they increases their net sales by 30 percent is using ________ means to achieve ________ ends. a. sanctioned; not-sanctioned b. sanctioned; sanctioned c. not-sanctioned; not-sanctioned d. not-sanctioned; sanctioned e. unethical; ethical 199. The most effective strategy for neutralizing a "high Mach" co-worker is to a. try to make them feel guilty. b. expose their tactics and thus embarrass them. c. interact with them in a formal, structured manner. d. become highly emotional and thus unnerve them. e. meet face-to-face. 200. "High Machs" tend to be a. moralistic individuals. b. impractical people. c. convincing liars. d. gullible individuals. e. low self-monitors. 201. The ideal situation for "high Machs" is one where a. the "high Mach" can deal with those to be influenced face-to-face. b. the interaction occurs under fairly emotional circumstances. c. the situation is fairly unstructured. d. few guidelines for appropriate forms of interaction have been established. e. All of the above 202.
According to Rosabeth Moss Kanter, developing informal relationships with the right people is a useful means of acquiring power. Who are the "right" people she is referring to?
Chapter 12 203. Rosabeth Moss Kanter suggests that certain types of activities lead to power. Which of the following activities is NOT likely to lead to power acquisition? a. Extraordinary activities b. Visible activities c. Charitable activities d. Relevant activities e. Exceptional performance in non-routine activities 204. Rosabeth Moss Kanter suggests that ________ activities lead to the acquisition of power. a. charitable b. fiscal c. extraordinary d. Machiavellian e. unethical 205. Which of the following represents the best way of obtaining power through cultivating others? a. Relationships with outsiders b. Relationships with subordinates c. Relationships with peers d. Relationships with superiors e. Relationships with customers 206. Excellent performance of a routine job is usually enough to obtain power. a. True b. False 207. Establishing good relationships with key people outside of one's organization cannot lead to increased power within the organization. a. True b. False 208. When it comes to performance, politics takes a toll on young and older workers. a. True b. False 209. Men and women engage in networking equally. a. True b. False 210. Research shows that high Machs tend to be high performers. a. True b. False 211. Centrality in the workflow reduces the power of an organizational subunit. a. True b. False 212. The strategic contingencies view of power portrays power acquisition as a highly political and Machiavellian process. a. True b. False
Chapter 12 213. Differences in subunit power are likely to be reduced when resources become scarce. a. True b. False 214. Teams that have members with elevated political skill tend to be more cohesive and perform better. a. True b. False 215. Individuals high in self-esteem and agreeableness are more likely to engage in networking behaviours. a. True b. False 216. Political skill is positively related to job performance. a. True b. False 217. Political skill is positively related to job satisfaction and career success. a. True b. False 218. General managers use informal small talk to bolster their political networks. a. True b. False 219. Men and women engage in networking equally except for socializing. a. True b. False 220. Research indicates that older people are much more likely to be ethical than the young. a. True b. False 221. Individuals with an external locus of control are less tuned to ethical matters. a. True b. False 222. People who are unfairly underpaid are more inclined to act unethically. a. True b. False 223. Those high in self-esteem and extraversion are more likely to engage in networking behaviours. a. True b. False 224. Self-promotion is universally employed. a. True b. False 225. Ingratiation and self-promotion are effective in job search. a. True b. False
Chapter 12 226. Assertiveness and self-promotion are effective in a job search. a. True b. False 227. Someone with expert power might try rationality or self-promotion. a. True b. False 228. Empowerment means giving people the authority, opportunity, and __________ to take initiative to solve organizational problems.
229.
__________ are used to convert power into actual influence over others.
230. Someone with expert power might try rationality or self-promotion. a. True b. False 231. Self-promotion and ingratiation have mixed effects on job performance ratings. a. True b. False 232. Self-promotion and ingratiation have strong positive effects on job performance ratings. a. True b. False 233. Which of the following statements depicts a subunit controlling strategic contingencies? a. Last month, there was almost no absenteeism in the production department. b. The finance department spoke strongly against reorganizing the company. c. The marketing department's success saved the company from bankruptcy. d. The data processing department saved considerable money by contracting out certain services. e. The human resources manager recruited two new management trainees. 234. According to McClelland, the most effective managers have a high need for power and want others to like them. a. True b. False 235. Men and women engage in networking equally except for increasing internal visibility. a. True b. False 236. Political skill is negatively related to burnout and perceptions of stressors. a. True b. False 237. Political skill is negatively related to stress and perceptions of stressors. a. True b. False
Chapter 12 238. Research shows that men and women tend to have similarly sized networks, but that men tend to favour men in their networks while women show more gender balance but still favour men. a. True b. False 239. Knowledge hiding is political behaviour. a. True b. False 240. The human resources department is an example of an organizational subunit. a. True b. False 241. Changes in the source of uncertainty frequently lead to shifts in subunit power. a. True b. False 242. The finance department was central to the workflow, it controlled scarce resources, and its work was not substitutable. It had power in the organization because it _________ .
243. Knowledge hiding is not political behaviour. a. True b. False 244. Knowledge hiding is intentionally concealing or withholding information that has been requested by or is relevant to another organizational member. a. True b. False 245. Knowledge hiding is intentionally concealing or withholding information that is required by or belongs to another organizational member. a. True b. False 246. Networking can be an example of organizational politics. a. True b. False 247. Even though they feel very guilty about their tactics, Machiavellians will do almost anything to get their own way. a. True b. False 248. Whistle-blowers are almost always from outside the offending organization. a. True b. False 249. The text defines ethics as treating others the way you or your organization would expect to be treated. a. True b. False
Chapter 12 250. Managers tend to see themselves as having higher ethical standards than their peers. a. True b. False 251. Among business students, undergraduates have been found to be more ethical than MBA students. a. True b. False 252. Average or mid-range levels of business competition seem to stimulate the most unethical behaviour in organizations. a. True b. False 253. A survey of observed ethical misconduct found that abusive behaviour was at the top of the list. a. True b. False 254. Machiavellians are consistent social loners who avoid forming alliances with others. a. True b. False 255. A bottom line mentality has been associated with a variety of positive outcomes. a. True b. False 256. A bottom line mentality can boost customer service. a. True b. False 257. Machiavellians are likely to espouse a bottom line mentality. a. True b. False 258.
__________ is systematic thinking about the moral consequences of decisions.
259. Among business students, undergraduates have been found to be more ethical than __________ .
260. In deciding whether organizational politics is ethical, it is a good idea to think about its impact on interested parties. These interested parties are often called __________ .
261.
__________ involves the disclosure of illegitimate practices by a current or former organizational member to some person or organization that might be able to take action to correct these practices.
262. In a large survey, 56 percent of MBA students admitted to cheating during the past year, compared with __________ percent of non-business graduate students.
Chapter 12 263.
__________ are the people inside or outside of an organization who have the potential to be affected by organizational decisions.
264. Employees who __________ very strongly with their organizations can sometimes engage in unethical activities to "help" the organization.
265. People who blow the whistle can be inside or __________ of the offending organization.
266. A survey of ethical misconduct found that __________ behaviour, lying to employees, and conflicts of interest topped the list.
267. People who are unfairly underpaid are more inclined to act __________ to offset the underpayment.
268. There is a point at which goal __________ can be so extreme as to induce unethical behaviour.
269. There is a point at which goal challenge can be so extreme as to induce __________ behaviour.
270. Goal challenge can induce unethical behaviour when a consecutive series of high or __________ performance goals results in extreme performance pressure.
271. Goal challenge can induce unethical behaviour when a consecutive series of __________ or increasing performance goals results in extreme performance pressure.
272. Whistle-blowers are often the victims of considerable __________ for their efforts.
273.
__________ are often the victims of considerable retaliation for their efforts.
274.
__________ is a psychological process by which people come to engage in behaviour that violates their own ethical standards.
275. People are prone to __________ blind spots.
276. In 2020, the Canadian Federal Court approved a gender-based workplace class action __________ settlement between the RCMP and its civilian women employees.
Chapter 12 277. Virtually every Canadian bank CEO has denied that there is a culture of __________ sales behaviour in retail banking.
278.
__________ are marginally more ethical than __________ .
279. People tend to be more __________ in the morning.
280. People tend to be more ethical in the __________ .
281.
__________ in the workspace lead to more ethical decisions.
282. A narrow focus on organizational economic indicators such as profits or stock price to the exclusion of espoused organizational values and fair procedures is known as a __________ .
283. A bottom line mentality often trickles down from firm leaders to __________ .
284.
__________ are likely to espouse a bottom line mentality.
285. In 2020, the Canadian Federal Court approved a gender-based workplace class action sexual harassment settlement between the Canadian military and its civilian women employees. a. True b. False 286. Mika's organization has always used challenging goals to motivate employees; however, some now believe that the goals have become too challenging and might do more harm than good. Explain how challenging goals might do more harm than good and the consequences of such goals.
287. Define whistle-blowing and discuss two examples of persons who are considered to be whistle-blowers. What often happens to whistle-blowers?
288. Define a bottom line mentality, discuss how it flows in organizations, and explain some of its consequences.
289. What does the deaf ear syndrome refer to? a. Organizational inaction in the face of unethical behaviour b. Organizational inaction in the face of the abuse of power c. Organizational inaction in the face of allegations of sexual harassment d. Organizational inaction in the face of nonsanctioned influence ends e. Organizational inaction in the face of nonsanctioned influence means
Chapter 12 290. The most severe forms of sexual harassment are committed by a. co-workers. b. supervisors. c. customers. d. subordinates. e. top management. 291. The most frequent perpetrators of sexual harassment are a. supervisors. b. customers. c. top management. d. subordinates. e. co-workers. 292. Which of the following is most accurate? a. All women are equally likely to be harassed. b. Minority women are least likely to be harassed. c. Minority women are more likely to be harassed. d. Immigrant women are more likely to be harassed. e. Younger women are more likely to be harassed. 293. Which of the following is most accurate? a. All women are equally likely to be harassed. b. Women who exhibit traditional masculine personality traits are more likely to experience harassment. c. Women who exhibit traditional feminine personality traits are more likely to experience harassment. d. Immigrant women are more likely to be harassed. e. Younger women are more likely to be harassed. 294. What percentage of Canadians reported sexual harassment at work? a. Nearly a quarter b. Nearly a half c. Nearly a third d. Less than 10 percent e. Nearly a fifth 295. Bounded ethicality is a psychological process by which people come to engage in behaviour that violates their own ethical standards. a. True b. False 296. Bounded ethicality is a psychological process by which people come to engage in behaviour that violates their organization's ethical standards. a. True b. False 297. Canadians have been the most active foreign whistle-blowers to the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission Office of the Whistleblower. a. True b. False
Chapter 12 298. Canadians have been the least active foreign whistle-blowers to the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission Office of the Whistleblower. a. True b. False 299. The morning morality effect refers to the finding that people tend to be more likely to say that they are ethical in the morning. a. True b. False 300. What organizations have faced serious and expensive charges of harassment? a. BMW and Ford b. Uber and BMW c. Ford and General Motors d. Uber and General Motors e. Uber and Ford 301. What are the effects of sexual harassment on employees? a. Decreased job satisfaction and organizational commitment b. Decreased job performance and job satisfaction c. Decreased job performance and organizational commitment d. Decreased job performance and organizational citizenship behaviour e. Decreased job satisfaction and organizational citizenship behaviour 302. What type of sexual harassment training is best? a. Sexual harassment experts using interactive exercises b. Online training focused on limiting legal liability c. Expert in-person trainers using interactive exercises d. Expert-in person trainers using lectures and discussions e. Consultants with expertise in sexual harassment using interactive exercises 303. Which of the following statements about the damaging effects of sexual harassment is most accurate? a. Single incidents of low-intensity harassment can be more damaging than single incidents of a more intense nature. b. Chronic low-intensity harassment can be more damaging than single incidents of a more intense nature. c. Chronic low-intensity harassment can be more damaging than chronic incidents of a more intense nature. d. Single incidents of low-intensity harassment can be more damaging than single and chronic incidents of a more intense nature. e. Single and chronic incidents of low-intensity harassment can be more damaging than single incidents of a more intense nature. 304. What is one of the best ways to combat harassment against women? a. Ensure women have more career opportunities. b. Ensure women occupy middle management positions. c. Ensure women are promoted more frequently. d. Ensure women occupy senior leadership positions. e. Ensure women occupy leadership positions throughout the organization.
Chapter 12 305. What did an American Psychological Association survey find? a. Employees in organizations with senior women leaders would be much more likely to report and call out experienced or observed instances of harassment. b. Employees in organizations with senior women leaders would be much more likely to report and call out experienced but not observed instances of harassment. c. Employees in organizations with senior women leaders would be much more likely to report and call out observed but not experienced instances of harassment. d. Managers in organizations with senior women leaders would be much more likely to report and call out experienced or observed instances of harassment. e. Managers but not employees in organizations with senior women leaders would be much more likely to report and call out experienced or observed instances of harassment. 306. An Angus Reid poll found that nearly a quarter of Canadians reported sexual harassment at work. a. True b. False 307. An Angus Reid poll found that 58% of Canadians who reported sexual harassment at work did not report the behaviour. a. True b. False 308. An Angus Reid poll found that 78% of Canadians who reported sexual harassment at work did not report the behaviour. a. True b. False 309. Organizations such as the RCMP, Uber, and Ford have faced serious and expensive charges of harassment. a. True b. False 310. Organizations such as the RCMP, Uber, and General Motors have faced serious and expensive charges of harassment. a. True b. False 311. The deaf ear syndrome refers to the inaction or complacency of organizations in the face of charges of sexual harassment. a. True b. False 312. The deaf ear syndrome refers to the inaction or complacency of organizations in the face of whistle-blowing. a. True b. False 313. An American Psychological Association survey found that employees in organizations with senior women leaders would be much more likely to report and call out experienced or observed instances of harassment. a. True b. False
Chapter 12 314. An American Psychological Association survey found that employees in organizations with senior women leaders would be much more likely to report and call out experienced but not observed instances of harassment. a. True b. False 315. Chronic low-intensity harassment can be more damaging than single incidents of a more intense nature. a. True b. False 316. Chronic low-intensity harassment can be more damaging than chronic incidents of a more intense nature. a. True b. False 317. The effects of sexual harassment on employees include decreased job satisfaction and organizational commitment. a. True b. False 318. The effects of sexual harassment on employees include decreased job satisfaction and job performance. a. True b. False 319. Sexual harassment consultant trainers using interactive exercises is the best type of sexual harassment training. a. True b. False 320. Online training focused around limiting legal ability is the best type of sexual harassment training. a. True b. False 321. The inaction or complacency of organizations in the face of charges of sexual harassment is known as the __________ .
322.
__________ women are more likely to be harassed.
323. Research has found that harassment is more likely to be experienced by women who exhibit traditionally __________ personality traits.
324. An Angus Reid poll found that nearly a __________ of Canadians reported sexual harassment at work, but 78 percent of these respondents did not report the behaviour.
325. An Angus Reid poll found that nearly a third of Canadians reported sexual harassment at work, but __________ percent of these respondents did not report the behaviour.
Chapter 12 326. An Angus Reid poll found that nearly a third of Canadians reported __________ at work, but 78 percent of these respondents did not report the behaviour.
327. Organizations such as the RCMP, Uber, and Ford have faced serious and expensive charge of __________ .
328.
__________ is behaviour that derogates, demeans, or humiliates an individual based on that individual's sex.
329.
__________ could be psychological, social, or legal.
330. Sexual harassment is a form of __________ behaviour.
331. The effects of sexual harassment on employees include decreased job satisfaction and __________ .
332. The effects of sexual harassment on employees include reduced psychological and __________ well-being.
333. The most frequent perpetrators of sexual harassment are __________ .
334. The most severe forms of sexual harassment are committed by __________ .
335. Chronic low-intensity harassment can be more __________ than single incidents of a more intense nature.
336. An American Psychological Association survey found that employees in organizations with senior women __________ would be much more likely to report and call out experienced or observed instances of harassment.
337. An American Psychological Association survey found that employees in organizations with senior women leaders would be much more likely to report and call out experienced or observed instances of __________ .
338. Discuss what organizations can do to improve their responsiveness and deal with allegations of sexual harassment.
339. What are some guidelines that organizations can use to help in the ethical screening of decisions?
Chapter 12 340. People are prone to ethical blind spots. a. True b. False 341. What are some of the main causes of unethical behaviour in organizations?
342. Discuss the major themes associated with the ethical issues faced by managers and provide examples of ethical behaviour.
343. Virtually every Canadian bank CEO has denied that there is a culture of unethical sales behaviour in retail banking. a. True b. False 344. A bottom line mentality often trickles down from firm leaders to lower-level employees. a. True b. False 345. A bottom line mentality has been associated with a variety of negative outcomes. a. True b. False 346. What percentage of Canadians who experience sexual harassment at work do NOT report the behaviour? a. 55% b. 78% c. 83% d. 92% e. 48% 347. The most severe forms of sexual harassment are committed by supervisors. a. True b. False 348. The most frequent perpetrators of sexual harassment are supervisors. a. True b. False 349. Minority women are more likely to be harassed. a. True b. False 350. Women who exhibit traditionally feminine personality traits are more likely to experience harassment. a. True b. False 351. The most frequent perpetrators of sexual harassment are co-workers. a. True b. False
Chapter 12 352. Sexual harassment is a form of unethical behaviour. a. True b. False 353. Clients and customers can also engage in harassment. a. True b. False 354. More men than women have a high need for power. a. True b. False 355. According to David McClelland, institutional managers are more effective than personal power managers. a. True b. False 356. Men are more likely to have a high n Pow than women. a. True b. False 357. The most effective managers have a high need for power and a low need for __________ .
358.
__________ managers use their power for the good of the institution.
359.
According to David McClelland, what are the attributes of the most effective managers?
360.
According to David McClelland, what are the three types of managers?
361. "High Machs" a. tend to be loners and don't form coalitions with others. b. act in an exceedingly emotional manner. c. do not feel guilty about their Machiavellian behaviour. d. never assume that people are gullible. e. try to avoid face-to-face interactions as much as possible. 362. A political network could include a. peers. b. subordinates. c. people outside one's organization. d. superiors. e. All of the above
Chapter 12 363. Which of the following is a defensive behaviour used to avoid blame for the consequences of some behaviour? a. Stalling b. Overconforming c. Buffing d. Buck passing e. Ingratiation 364. Which of the following is a defensive behaviour that is used to avoid taking action? a. Scapegoating b. Overconforming c. Buffing d. Ingratiation e. Rationality 365. The definition of political skills includes what two aspects? a. Comprehending others and translating comprehension into action b. Comprehending others and translating comprehension into influence c. Comprehending others and translating comprehension into power d. Influencing others and translating influence into personal gain e. Influencing others and translating influence into self-interest 366. If you are able to understand your co-workers and to use that knowledge to influence them to act in ways that enhance your personal or organizational objectives, then what do you have? a. Expert power b. High need for power c. A Machiavellian personality d. Political skill e. Referent power 367. Maintaining contacts and increasing internal visibility are most associated with career success. a. True b. False 368. Politics can take a toll on the performance of older workers but not younger workers. a. True b. False 369. All uses of power constitute politics. a. True b. False 370. Clients and customers do not engage in harassment. a. True b. False 371. Expert in-person trainers using interactive exercises is the best type of sexual harassment training. a. True b. False 372. The relationship between networking activities and career success only applies to men. a. True b. False
Chapter 12 373. Goal challenge can induce unethical behaviour. a. True b. False 374. A consecutive series of high or increasing performance goals can result in extreme performance pressure. a. True b. False 375. An interrupted series of high or increasing performance goals can result in extreme performance pressure. a. True b. False 376. Whistle-blowers are often the victims of considerable retaliation for their efforts. a. True b. False 377. In 2020, the Canadian Federal Court approved a gender-based workplace class action sexual harassment settlement between the RCMP and its civilian women employees. a. True b. False 378. Define several defensive behaviours commonly used by organizational members to either reduce activity or avoid blame for the consequences of an activity.
379. What does it mean to have political skill and what are the four facets to political skill?
380. Political activity is most common at middle and upper management levels. a. True b. False 381. Men engage in more socializing activities than women. a. True b. False 382. Some personality dimensions seem to contribute to unethical behaviour. a. True b. False 383. The large majority of managers agree that unethical practices occur in business. a. True b. False 384. Dr. Jeffrey Wigand is best known for his unethical behaviour. a. True b. False 385. Research indicates that women are much more likely to be ethical than men. a. True b. False
Chapter 12 386. Machiavellians tend to be active organizational politicians. a. True b. False 387. Political activity can be self-conscious and unconscious. a. True b. False 388. Organizational politics is defined as the intentional damaging of the interests of other organizational members. a. True b. False 389. Virtually every Canadian bank CEO agrees that there is a culture of unethical sales behaviour in retail banking. a. True b. False 390. Older people are marginally more ethical than the young and women are marginally more ethical than men. a. True b. False 391. Younger people are marginally more ethical than the old and women are marginally more ethical than men. a. True b. False 392. People tend to be more ethical in the morning. a. True b. False 393. People tend to be more ethical in the evening. a. True b. False 394. The morning morality effect refers to the finding that people tend to be more ethical in the morning. a. True b. False 395. Family photos in the workspace can lead to more ethical decisions. a. True b. False 396. Flowers in the workspace can lead to more ethical decisions. a. True b. False
Chapter 12
Test Name: 1.
a.the capacity to influence others who are in a state of dependence.
2.
b.Legitimate
3.
a.Expert
4.
a.Legitimate and referent
5.
c.Because the target of power is dependent upon the power holder, a poor relationship necessarily exists between the two.
6.
a.is a function of one's formal organizational role.
7.
a.is often associated with workgroup ineffectiveness.
8.
e.Referent and expert
9.
c.Legitimate
10.
d.you like me.
11.
a.it stems from identification with the power holder.
12.
b.Coercive power
13.
c.replacement.
14.
b.data and acquire knowledge.
15.
expert
16.
referent
17.
legitimate
18.
expert
19.
Power
20.
expertise, expert power
21.
Expert
22.
knowledge
23.
hierarchy
24.
algorithm
Chapter 12 25.
The five bases of individual power are: legitimate, reward, coercive, referent, and expert. Student opinions will vary somewhat on which power base they consider to be the most powerful. Some students will correctly point out that the most powerful base depends on the situational context and nature of the organization. Generally, the three most common responses will be referent, expert, and legitimate—each of which could be supported with valid arguments. For example, referent power can be exercised by an individual regardless of their organizational status or the situational context. Expert power accruing to managers has been most consistently associated with employee effectiveness. Referent and expert power together are most likely to generate true commitment and enthusiasm for the manager's agenda. However, legitimate power is often accompanied by reward and coercive power, and studies across various cultures cite legitimate power as the major reason for complying with the boss's wishes. Finally, in workplace "showdowns" between legitimate power (e.g., the boss) and expert power (e.g., a highly competent employee), legitimate power almost always prevails.
26.
Power is the capacity to influence others who are in a state of dependence. Five things about power in organizations are described in the text and they are: Power is the capacity to influence the behaviour of others, it is not always perceived or exercised; the fact that the target of power is dependent on the power holder does not imply that a poor relationship exists between the two; power can flow in any direction in an organization; power asymmetry doesn't require an organizational hierarchy, and it can even be driven by an algorithm; and power is a broad concept that applies to both individuals and groups.
27.
b.An extraordinary activity that will increase his power
28.
c.A visible activity that will increase the professor's power
29.
b.social capital
30.
b.False
31.
visible
32.
superiors
33.
social capital
34.
superiors
35.
within
36.
peers
37.
Applying the concepts of Rosabeth Moss Kanter, Richard should pursue activities which are extraordinary, visible, and relevant. He should also try to cultivate relationships with the right people including outsiders, peers, and superiors.
38.
b.authority, opportunity, and motivation
39.
c.Sufficient power-effective performance
40.
e.Machiavellianism
41.
b.influence tactics.
42.
b."Let me refund your money in full."
43.
c.Ingratiation
Chapter 12 44.
a.Coercive power uses assertiveness.
45.
d.Rationality
46.
a.Subordinates
47.
c.superiors.
48.
d.Self-promotion
49.
b.Ingratiation and self-promotion
50.
d.self-efficacy.
51.
a.assertiveness.
52.
b.ingratiation.
53.
c.rationality or self-promotion.
54.
d.Self-promotion
55.
a.Assertiveness
56.
d.Self-promotion
57.
self-efficacy
58.
empowerment
59.
job search
60.
Empowerment
61.
Self-promotion
62.
As Exhibit 12.2 in the text illustrates, the key to improving performance through empowerment is to give workers sufficient power, not excessive power. Gordon should consider reducing power levels first (e.g., perhaps by introducing some productivity quotas and expense controls) instead of increasing them. As indicated in the text, when people are empowered, they should exhibit effective performance when they have sufficient power to carry out their jobs. Excessive power can lead to abuse and ineffective performance.
63.
Seven influence tactics are presented in the text: assertiveness, ingratiation, self-promotion, rationality, exchange, upward appeal, and coalition formation. Each tactic may be used to convert power into influence depending on the circumstances. For example, someone with coercive power might use assertiveness; someone with referent power might use ingratiation; and someone with expert power might use rationality or self-promotion.
Chapter 12 64.
Seven influence tactics are presented in the text: assertiveness, ingratiation, self-promotion, rationality, exchange, upward appeal, and coalition formation. Particularly ineffective is a "shotgun" style that is high on all tactics with particular emphasis on assertiveness and exchange. Most research has been done on selfpromotion and ingratiation, and both of these tactics are effective in job search (i.e., interview) situations. However, both tactics have been shown to have mixed effects on job performance ratings, suggesting that great care must be employed not to overdo them. One study showed that top managers who used ingratiation with their CEOs were inclined to receive appointments to corporate boards with whom the CEO was connected. Thus, flattery and opinion conformity work even at the very top of organizations. However, this comes at a price, as ingratiating managers come to resent CEOs who necessitate such behaviour and badmouth them in the press.
65.
b.have a high need for power.
66.
c.are institutional managers.
67.
d.will use their power for personal gain.
68.
a.Personal power; affiliative
69.
c.show a high degree of concern about how much others like them.
70.
c.strategic contingencies.
71.
a.The work it performs can be contracted out.
72.
d.The one that can obtain scarce resources
73.
a.drawing new customers to the firm.
74.
d.Defensiveness
75.
c.Centrality
76.
Personal power
77.
Affiliative
78.
b.False
79.
b.False
80.
scarce
81.
subunit
82.
strategic contingencies
83.
Strategic contingencies are critical factors affecting organizational effectiveness that are controlled by a key subunit. The small department may be able to increase its subunit power by controlling or manipulating one or more of the key strategic contingencies— securing scarce resources, coping with uncertainty or creating more certainty, increasing centrality, and reducing substitutability.
Chapter 12 84.
Subunits whose activities are most central to the mission or workflow of the organization should acquire more power than those whose activities are more peripheral. A subunit's activities can be central in at least three ways. First, it may influence the work of most other subunits. Second, centrality also exists when a subunit has an especially crucial impact on the quantity or quality of the organization's key product or service. Third, a subunit's activities are more central when their impact is more immediate.
85.
b.False
86.
b.False
87.
a.True
88.
b.False
89.
a.True
90.
b.False
91.
a.True
92.
a.True
93.
a.True
94.
b.False
95.
a.True
96.
b.False
97.
a.True
98.
a.True
99.
b.False
100. b.False 101. a.True 102. b.False 103. a.True 104. b.False 105. a.True 106. b.False 107. a.True 108. organizational politics 109. a.Political activity is self-conscious and intentional.
Chapter 12 110. a.Social astuteness and apparent sincerity 111. e.Social astuteness 112. c.assertiveness. 113. b.False 114. The text describes five aspects of networking: maintaining contacts, socializing, engaging in professional activities, participating in community activities, and increasing internal visibility. Engaging in professional activities and increasing internal visibility are associated with career success (compensation, promotions, perceived success) but only for men despite the fact that men and women engaged in networking equally. 115. Knowledge hiding is political behaviour that entails intentionally concealing or withholding information that has been requested by or is relevant to another organizational member. The three forms of knowledge hiding are: Playing dumb (pretending to be ignorant about requested knowledge); evasive hiding (providing misinformation or falsely promising knowledge in the future); and rationalized hiding (justifying the failure to share by claiming extenuating circumstances or blaming others). 116. Knowledge hiding is political behaviour that entails intentionally concealing or withholding information that has been requested by or is relevant to another organizational member. Distrustful, over-competitive, and overpoliticized work environments tend to foster knowledge hiding, as do managers who encourage or tolerate the behaviour. Knowledge hiding is damaging to creativity, innovation, and individual performance, and it damages relationships among co-workers. The free flow of information is essential for sustainable organizational success, and knowledge hiding works against this free flow. 117. organizational politics 118. Machiavellians 119. networking 120. scapegoating 121. Political skill 122. job performance 123. career 124. extraversion 125. increasing internal visibility 126. men 127. socializing 128. performers 129. influence 130. older 131. politicians
Chapter 12 132. counterproductive 133. burnout 134. men 135. Knowledge hiding 136. knowledge hiding 137. rationalized 138. playing dumb 139. Exhibit 12.4 in the text nicely summarizes the potential for functional and dysfunctional behaviours along the basic dimensions of organizational politics. Political behaviour involving sanctioned ends but not-sanctioned means may result in functional consequences to the organization (e.g., bribing a foreign official to help win a large export contract for your company). Political behaviour involving either sanctioned means and notsanctioned ends, or not-sanctioned means and not-sanctioned ends, both result in dysfunctional consequences to the organization. An example of the former might involve a manager who agrees to promote an employee in exchange for the employee's cooperation in concealing some fraudulent expense reports they submitted. Examples of the latter might involve any manager who violates rules or squanders organizational resources in order to enhance their own personal power. 140. a.job performance. 141. b.Face-to-face encounters and informal small talk 142. a.Bolstering your political network 143. e.upward appeal. 144. b.Increasing internal visibility 145. d.Maintain contacts 146. d.High self-esteem and extraversion 147. e.Engaging in professional activities and increasing internal visibility 148. a.Jill 149. c.Men and women engage in networking equally. 150. b.lower job performance for younger workers. 151. c.It has a negative effect on older workers but not younger workers. 152. c.be high performers. 153. a.Job performance, job satisfaction, career success 154. b.more cohesive and perform better. 155. b.Burnout and perceptions of stressors
Chapter 12 156. d.socializing. 157. a.Men have an edge in socializing. 158. e.Men and women have similarly sized networks. 159. e.Men and women have similarly sized networks, but men tend to favour men in their networks while women show more gender balance but still favour men. 160. b.Intentionally concealing or withholding information that has been requested by or is relevant to another organizational member 161. b.10 percent 162. d.Playing dumb, evasive hiding, rationalized hiding 163. c.Abusive behaviour and lying to employees 164. a.stakeholders. 165. b.systematic thinking about the moral consequences of decisions. 166. c.medium 167. a.undergraduates have been found to be more ethical than MBA students. 168. d.people with strong economic values seem prone to unethical behaviour. 169. b.after some systematic thinking about a decision's moral consequences. 170. a.47 171. b.Whistle-blowing 172. d.Whistle-blowing 173. b.Women are marginally more ethical than men. 174. b.Older people are marginally more ethical than the young. 175. d.unethical behaviour. 176. b.A consecutive series of high or increasing performance goals 177. c.A gender-based workplace class action sexual harassment settlement 178. b.bounded ethicality. 179. c.People are prone to ethical blind spots. 180. b.Gain 181. e.That there is a culture of unethical sales behaviour in retail banking 182. b.bounded ethicality.
Chapter 12 183. c.Need for personal power 184. d.Act unethically 185. b.People tend to be more ethical in the morning. 186. b.People tend to be more ethical in the morning. 187. d.Family photos in the workspace 188. b.bottom line mentality. 189. e.A narrow focus on organizational economic indicators such as profits or stock price to the exclusion of espoused organizational values and fair procedures 190. a.Machiavellians are likely to espouse a bottom line mentality. 191. b.False 192. a.True 193. a.True 194. b.False 195. Activities which are extraordinary, visible, and relevant lead to power. 196. b.pursuit of self-interest. 197. b.organizational politics. 198. b.sanctioned; sanctioned 199. c.interact with them in a formal, structured manner. 200. c.convincing liars. 201. e.All of the above 202. The right people to cultivate relationships with are outsiders, subordinates, peers, and superiors. 203. c.Charitable activities 204. c.extraordinary 205. d.Relationships with superiors 206. b.False 207. b.False 208. b.False 209. a.True
Chapter 12 210. b.False 211. b.False 212. b.False 213. b.False 214. a.True 215. b.False 216. a.True 217. a.True 218. a.True 219. a.True 220. b.False 221. a.True 222. a.True 223. a.True 224. a.True 225. a.True 226. b.False 227. a.True 228. motivation 229. Influence tactics 230. b.False 231. a.True 232. b.False 233. c.The marketing department's success saved the company from bankruptcy. 234. b.False 235. b.False 236. a.True 237. b.False
Chapter 12 238. a.True 239. a.True 240. a.True 241. a.True 242. controlled strategic contingencies 243. b.False 244. a.True 245. b.False 246. a.True 247. b.False 248. b.False 249. b.False 250. a.True 251. a.True 252. b.False 253. a.True 254. b.False 255. b.False 256. a.True 257. a.True 258. Ethics 259. MBA students 260. stakeholders 261. Whistle-blowing 262. 47 263. Stakeholders 264. identify 265. outside
Chapter 12 266. abusive 267. unethically 268. challenge 269. unethical 270. increasing 271. high 272. retaliation 273. Whistle-blowers 274. Bounded ethicality 275. ethical 276. sexual harassment 277. unethical 278. Women/men 279. ethical 280. morning 281. Family photos 282. bottom line mentality 283. lower level employees 284. Machiavellians 285. b.False 286. Although challenging goals lead to higher performance, there is a point at which goal challenge can be so extreme as to induce unethical behaviour. This is especially true when a consecutive series of high or increasing performance goals results in extreme performance pressure. In this situation, people's ethical focus is depleted, and the consequence is unethical behaviour. At the organizational level, pressure from analysts and investors for better and better financial performance has been implicated in ethical lapses among prominent and successful firms. 287. Whistle-blowing refers to the disclosure of illegitimate practices by a current or former organizational member to some person or organization that may be able to take action to correct these practices. Examples of whistleblowing in the text include Dr. Jeffrey Wigand, the former tobacco executive who leaked evidence to 60 Minutes that consumers had been misled about the addictiveness of nicotine for many years, and Catherine Galliford who blew the whistle on sexual harassment at the RCMP. Whistle-blowers are often the victims of considerable retaliation for their efforts because they have challenged the status quo and embarrassed those in power.
Chapter 12 288. Pressure from analysts and investors for better and better financial performance often results in a bottom line mentality which refers to a narrow focus on organizational economic indicators such as profits or stock price to the exclusion of espoused organizational values and fair procedures. It often trickles down from firm leaders to lower-level employees. Although it can boost customer service by inducing strong focus on work, bottom line mentality has been more associated with a variety of negative outcomes such as abusive supervision, reduced organizational citizenship, and ethical shortcuts. 289. c.Organizational inaction in the face of allegations of sexual harassment 290. b.supervisors. 291. e.co-workers. 292. c.Minority women are more likely to be harassed. 293. b.Women who exhibit traditional masculine personality traits are more likely to experience harassment. 294. c.Nearly a third 295. a.True 296. b.False 297. a.True 298. b.False 299. b.False 300. e.Uber and Ford 301. a.Decreased job satisfaction and organizational commitment 302. c.Expert in-person trainers using interactive exercises 303. b.Chronic low-intensity harassment can be more damaging than single incidents of a more intense nature. 304. d.Ensure women occupy senior leadership positions. 305. a.Employees in organizations with senior women leaders would be much more likely to report and call out experienced or observed instances of harassment. 306. b.False 307. b.False 308. a.True 309. a.True 310. b.False 311. a.True 312. b.False
Chapter 12 313. a.True 314. b.False 315. a.True 316. b.False 317. a.True 318. b.False 319. b.False 320. b.False 321. deaf ear syndrome 322. Minority 323. masculine 324. third 325. 78 326. sexual harassment 327. harassment 328. Sexual harassment 329. Sexual harassment 330. unethical 331. organizational commitment 332. physical 333. co-workers 334. supervisors 335. damaging 336. leaders 337. harassment 338. They can establish visible top management support, create a state-of-the-art policy, establish clear reporting procedures, take immediate action, examine the characteristics of deaf ear organizations, foster education, stay vigilant, and hire and promote women.
Chapter 12 339. Identify the stakeholders that will be affected by any decision; identify the costs and benefits of various decision alternatives to these stakeholders; consider the relevant moral expectations that surround a particular decision; be familiar with the common ethical dilemmas that decision makers face in your specific organizational role or profession; discuss ethical matters with decision stakeholders and others; convert your ethical judgments into appropriate action. 340. a.True 341. Certain personality traits such as high economic values or a need for personal power, potential for individual gain, extreme performance pressure, role conflict, strong organizational identification, too much or too little competition, and organizational and industry culture. 342. The themes and examples include honest communication (advertise honestly); fair treatment (pay equitably); special consideration ("fair treatment" standard can be modified for special cases); fair competition (avoid bribes and kickbacks); responsibility to organization (avoid waste and inefficiency); corporate social responsibility (do not pollute); and respect for the law (follow the letter and spirit of labour laws). 343. a.True 344. a.True 345. a.True 346. b.78% 347. a.True 348. b.False 349. a.True 350. b.False 351. a.True 352. a.True 353. a.True 354. b.False 355. a.True 356. b.False 357. affiliation 358. Institutional 359. The most effective managers have a high need for power; use their power to achieve organizational goals; adopt a participative or "coaching" leadership style; and are relatively unconcerned with how much others like them. 360. The three types of managers are institutional managers, personal power mangers, and affiliative managers.
Chapter 12 361. c.do not feel guilty about their Machiavellian behaviour. 362. e.All of the above 363. c.Buffing 364. b.Overconforming 365. b.Comprehending others and translating comprehension into influence 366. d.Political skill 367. b.False 368. a.True 369. b.False 370. b.False 371. a.True 372. a.True 373. a.True 374. a.True 375. b.False 376. a.True 377. a.True 378. Defensive behaviours that can be used to avoid activity include stalling, overconforming, and buck-passing. Defensive behaviours used to avoid blame for consequences include buffing and scapegoating. 379. Political skill is the ability to understand others at work and to use that knowledge to influence others to act in ways that enhance one's personal or organizational objectives. The four facets to political skill are social astuteness, interpersonal influence, apparent sincerity, and networking ability. 380. a.True 381. a.True 382. a.True 383. a.True 384. b.False 385. b.False 386. a.True
Chapter 12 387. b.False 388. b.False 389. b.False 390. a.True 391. b.False 392. a.True 393. b.False 394. a.True 395. a.True 396. b.False
Chapter 13 1.
Which of the following is a critical factor associated with intergroup bias? a. Locus of control b. Negative affectivity c. Type A behaviour d. Type B behaviour e. Self-esteem
2.
What is conflict? a. The process that occurs when one person, group, or organizational subunit disagrees with the goals of another b. The process that occurs when one person, group, or organizational subunit frustrates the goal attainment of another c. The process that occurs when one person, group, or organizational subunit has different goals than another d. The process that occurs when one person, group, or organizational subunit does not share the same beliefs as another e. The process that occurs when one person, group, or organizational subunit has a negative view of another
3.
In its classic form, conflict involves a. disagreements and opposition. b. negative attitudes and behaviours. c. frustration and opposition. d. antagonistic attitudes and behaviours. e. threats and disagreements.
4.
What factors contribute to organizational conflict? a. Group identification, intergroup bias, and isolation b. Group favouritism, intergroup bias, and interdependence c. Group favouritism, intergroup bias, and independence d. Group identification, intergroup bias, and independence e. Group identification, intergroup bias, and interdependence
5.
What of the following is NOT one of the causes of organizational conflict? a. Differences in power, status, and culture b. Interdependence c. Ambiguity d. Disagreement about goals e. Group identification and intergroup bias
6.
In which of the following conditions is conflict least likely? a. Group A is dependent on Group B. b. Group B is dependent on Group A. c. Group A is not dependent on Group B, but Group B is dependent on Group A. d. Group A is not dependent on Group B and Group B is not dependent on Group A. e. Group A is dependent on Group B, but Group B is not dependent on Group A.
Chapter 13 7.
At the New York Times, the print and digital units engaged in a turf war over the debatable issue of who should control the pricing and distribution of iPad content. What was the cause of this conflict? a. Group identification and intergroup bias b. Interdependence c. Differences in power, status, and culture d. Ambiguity e. Scarce resources
8.
At Amazon, competition to retain prime work positions, impress management, and get promoted prompted conflict among employees. What was the cause of this conflict? a. Group identification and intergroup bias b. Interdependence c. Differences in power, status, and culture d. Ambiguity e. Scarce resources
9.
Conflict is a process that occurs when one person, group, or organizational subunit frustrates __________ attainment of another.
10.
In its classic form, __________ involves antagonistic attitudes and behaviours.
11.
Which of the following events is least likely to happen when conflict begins between two groups? a. The parties begin to conceal information from each other. b. On each side, conciliatory persons who are skilled at conflict resolution emerge as leaders. c. Each group becomes more cohesive. d. While the opposite party is negatively stereotyped, the image of one's own position is boosted. e. Contact with the opposite party is discouraged.
12.
What is a process conflict? a. Disagreements about the nature of work to be done b. Disagreements about how the organization should function c. Disagreements about how work should be organized and accomplished d. Disagreements about how conflict should be managed e. Disagreements about the relationships among group members
13.
Disagreements about the nature of the work to be done are called a. relationship conflicts. b. work conflicts. c. process conflicts. d. organization conflicts. e. task conflicts.
14.
After a few days on a new job, you find yourself arguing with members of your group over who has authority and responsibility and who should do what. What is this an example of? a. A relationship conflict b. A task conflict c. Intergroup bias d. A process conflict e. Conflict dynamics
Chapter 13 15.
Which of the following is most accurate about the effects of conflict? a. Relationship conflict is helpful to member satisfaction and team performance. b. Relationship and process conflict is helpful to member satisfaction and team performance. c. Relationship and process conflict is detrimental to member satisfaction and team performance. d. Relationship and process conflict is detrimental to member satisfaction but helpful for team performance. e. Relationship and process conflict is helpful to member satisfaction but detrimental to team performance.
16.
Which of the following is most accurate about the effects of conflict? a. Task conflict is beneficial for team performance. b. Process conflict is beneficial for team performance. c. Relationship conflict is beneficial for team performance. d. Task and process conflict are beneficial for team performance. e. Task and relationship conflict are beneficial for team performance.
17.
When does task conflict benefit team performance? a. When the task is routine and does not require a variety of perspectives to be considered b. When the task is routine and requires a variety of perspectives to be considered c. When the task is non-routine and does not require a variety of perspectives to be considered d. When the task is non-routine and requires a variety of perspectives to be considered e. When the task is routine and it does not require a variety of skills to be performed
18.
In order to stimulate conflict, a manager might a. stop networking. b. make resources scarcer. c. assign a superordinate goal. d. ignore controversy. e. clarify goals.
19.
One way to stimulate conflict is to a. make the parties independent of each other. b. clarify ambiguous jurisdictions. c. make resources scarce. d. invoke a superordinate goal. e. make lower status individuals dependent on those of higher status.
20.
Which of the following best describes constructive conflict? a. A strategy of increasing conflict to motivate change b. The benefits outweigh the costs c. The benefits outweigh the loss d. A strategy of preventing conflict to improve decision making e. A strategy of finding benefits of a conflict for all parties
21.
A strategy of increasing conflict in order to motivate change is called a. conflict situation. b. conflict adaptation. c. conflict management. d. conflict stimulation. e. conflict strategy.
Chapter 13 22.
Conflict for which the benefits outweigh the costs is called a. cost-benefit conflict. b. distributive conflict. c. integrative conflict. d. constructive conflict. e. functional conflict.
23.
When is constructive conflict most likely? a. When the tendency to engage in conflict is resisted b. When the tendency to avoid conflict is resisted c. When the parties do not know each other very well d. When the parties know each other very well e. When the tendency to avoid conflict is more beneficial to both parties
24.
If the parties to a conflict engage in open-minded discussion of their differences and are open to evidence that is counter to their current position, what is likely to happen? a. Conflict stimulation b. Integrative negotiation c. Distributive negotiation d. Constructive conflict e. Third party involvement
25.
Which of the following is most accurate about the effects of conflict? a. Task conflict tends to prevent the development of cohesiveness. b. Process conflict tends to prevent the development of cohesiveness. c. Relationship conflict tends to prevent the development of cohesiveness. d. Task and process conflict tend to prevent the development of cohesiveness. e. Relationship and process conflict tend to prevent the development of cohesiveness.
26.
Which of the following is most accurate about the effects of conflict? a. Elevated task and process conflict coupled with low to minor levels of relationship conflict can result in constructive conflict. b. Elevated task and relationship conflict coupled with low to minor levels of process conflict can result in constructive conflict. c. Elevated process conflict coupled with low to minor levels of relationship and task conflict can result in constructive conflict. d. Elevated task conflict coupled with low to minor levels of relationship and process conflict can result in constructive conflict. e. Elevated relationship conflict coupled with low to minor levels of task and process conflict can result in constructive conflict.
27.
Which of the following is most accurate about the effects of conflict? a. As process and relationship conflict jointly increase, costly destructive conflict ensues. b. As task and relationship conflict jointly increase, costly destructive conflict ensues. c. As task and process conflict jointly increase, costly destructive conflict ensues. d. As task, process, and relationship conflict jointly increase, costly destructive conflict ensues. e. As process and relationship conflict jointly increase, costly task conflict ensues.
28.
In the context of work groups and teams, relationship and process conflict tend to be beneficial to member satisfaction and team performance. a. True b. False
Chapter 13 29.
In the context of work groups and teams, relationship and process conflict tend to be detrimental to member satisfaction but beneficial for team performance. a. True b. False
30.
Occasionally, some degree of __________ conflict is actually beneficial for team performance.
31.
Disagreements about responsibility, authority, resource allocation, and who should do what constitute __________ conflict.
32.
So-called personality clashes are examples of __________ conflicts.
33.
Differences of opinion about goals or technical matters are examples of __________ conflict.
34.
Conflict for which the benefits outweigh the costs is known as ______________________________________ conflict.
35.
__________ conflict is most likely when the tendency to avoid conflict is resisted and the parties engage in open-minded discussion of their differences.
36.
In teams, relationship and __________ conflict tend to prevent the development of cohesiveness.
37.
__________ and process conflict are detrimental to member satisfaction and team performance.
38.
Occasionally, some degree of ______________________________________ conflict is actually beneficial for performance.
39.
Elevated __________ conflict coupled with low to minor levels of process and __________ conflict can result in constructive conflict.
40.
Elevated task conflict with low to minor levels of relationship and process conflict can result in __________ conflict.
41.
As process and relationship conflict jointly increase, costly __________ conflict ensues.
42.
Conflict can improve decision making and promote necessary organizational __________ .
Chapter 13 43.
What are the main types of conflict and how are they related to member satisfaction and team performance? How are they related to decision making, organizational change, and goal accomplishment?
44.
Occasionally, some degree of task conflict is actually beneficial for performance, especially when the task is non-routine and requires a variety of perspectives to be considered or when it does not degenerate into relationship conflict. a. True b. False
45.
Occasionally, some degree of task conflict is actually beneficial for performance, especially when the task is routine and requires a variety of perspectives to be considered or when it does not degenerate into relationship conflict. a. True b. False
46.
Occasionally, some degree of relationship conflict is actually beneficial for performance, especially when the task is non-routine and requires a variety of perspectives to be considered or when it does not degenerate into task conflict. a. True b. False
47.
Elevated task conflict coupled with low to minor levels of relationship and process conflict can result in constructive conflict. a. True b. False
48.
Elevated relationship conflict coupled with low to minor levels of task and process conflict can result in constructive conflict. a. True b. False
49.
Which of the following statements concerning compromise is FALSE? a. Compromise involves each party giving up something with the expectation that it will receive something in exchange. b. Compromise is especially useful for resolving conflicts that stem from power differences. c. The goal of compromise is to establish rules of exchange to resolve conflict. d. Effective compromises are highly dependent on the bargaining skills and the good will of the bargainers. e. Compromise is especially useful for resolving conflicts that stem from scarce resources.
50.
Different approaches to managing conflict are a function of a. aggressiveness and cooperativeness. b. assertiveness and cooperativeness. c. assertiveness and communication. d. aggressiveness and communication. e. assertiveness and aggressiveness.
Chapter 13 51.
A conflict management style characterized by low assertiveness of one's own interests and low cooperation with the other party is called a. avoiding. b. accommodating. c. competing. d. compromise. e. collaborating.
52.
A conflict management style in which one cooperates with the other party, while not asserting one's own interests is called a. avoiding. b. accommodating. c. competing. d. compromise. e. collaborating.
53.
A conflict management style that combines intermediate levels of assertiveness and cooperation is called a. avoiding. b. accommodating. c. competing. d. compromise. e. collaborating.
54.
A conflict management style that maximizes assertiveness and minimizes cooperation is called a. avoiding. b. accommodating. c. competing. d. compromise. e. collaborating.
55.
A conflict management style that maximizes both assertiveness and cooperation is called a. avoiding. b. accommodating. c. competing. d. compromise. e. collaborating.
56.
Which of the following modes lead to conflict suppression? a. Avoiding and accommodating b. Competing and accommodating c. Avoiding and competing d. Competing and compromise e. Accommodating and collaborating
57.
What does the frequent use of the assertive style lead to? a. Conflict resistance b. Conflict repression c. Conflict suppression d. Destructive conflict e. Constructive conflict
Chapter 13 58.
Which models are most likely to result in constructive conflict? a. Avoiding and accommodating b. Competing and compromise c. Collaborating and compromise d. Competing and collaborating e. Accommodating and collaborating
59.
When cooperativeness is low and assertiveness is high, the mode of conflict management is __________ .
60.
When cooperativeness is high and assertiveness is low, the mode of conflict management is __________ .
61.
The approaches to managing conflict are a function of both how __________ you are in trying to satisfy your own or your group's concerns and how cooperative you are in trying to satisfy those of the other party or group.
62.
The approaches to managing conflict are a function of both how assertive you are in trying to satisfy your own or your group's concerns and how __________ you are in trying to satisfy those of the other party or group.
63.
Avoiding and accommodating lead to __________ .
64.
Destructive conflict results from the frequent use of the __________ style.
65.
__________ is most likely to emerge from collaboration and compromise.
66.
Constructive conflict is most likely to emerge from collaboration and __________ .
67.
What are the five modes or styles of managing conflict? Give an example which illustrates the relationship between assertiveness and cooperativeness for each mode.
68.
What are the likely outcomes of the various modes of managing conflict when used repeatedly?
69.
Which of the following is NOT a distributive negotiation tactic? a. Threats b. Concessions c. Promises d. Verbal persuasion e. Cutting costs
Chapter 13 70.
Which of the following is an integrative negotiation tactic? a. Copious information exchange b. Cutting costs c. Increasing resources d. Framing differences as opportunities e. All of the above
71.
Superordinate goals are a. goals that have the highest priority in the organization. b. goals that are used to stimulate conflict. c. goals that are most likely to provoke dysfunctional organizational politics. d. goals that can only be achieved by collaboration between conflicting parties. e. goals that can only be achieved through distributive negotiation.
72.
A superordinate goal is a goal that requires a. conflict. b. collaboration. c. competition. d. compromise. e. accommodation.
73.
What have studies on gender differences in negotiations found? a. Women tend to negotiate better outcomes than men. b. Some women tend to negotiate better outcomes than men. c. Men tend to negotiate better outcomes than women. d. Some men tend to negotiate better outcomes than women. e. Men and women negotiate similar outcomes.
74.
Introducing a superordinate goal is an example of a. constructive conflict. b. distributive negotiation tactics. c. integrative negotiation tactics. d. conflict stimulation. e. goal setting theory.
75.
What narrows gender differences in negotiation outcomes? a. When men gain negotiation experience b. When women gain negotiation experience c. When men and women gain negotiation experience d. When women gain negotiation experience with men e. When men gain negotiation experience with women
76.
When are persuaders most effective? a. When they are perceived as expert, likeable, and fair b. When they are perceived as expert, likeable, and honest c. When they are perceived as expert, honest, and fair d. When they are perceived as expert, honest, and unbiased e. When they are perceived as expert, likeable, and unbiased
Chapter 13 77.
What is the best example of creativity in integrative negotiation? a. Persuasion b. Copious information exchange c. Superordinate goals d. Increasing resources e. Framing differences as opportunities
78.
Distributive negotiation occurs on the axis between a. competition and collaboration. b. competition and accommodation. c. collaboration and accommodation. d. competition and avoiding. e. collaboration and compromise.
79.
Integrative negotiation occurs on the axis between a. avoiding and accommodating. b. avoiding and competing. c. avoiding and compromise. d. avoiding and collaborating. e. competition and accommodating.
80.
A study on salary negotiations found that new hires who negotiated received a a. $1,000 salary premium. b. $2,000 salary premium. c. $3,000 salary premium. d. $4,000 salary premium. e. $5,000 salary premium.
81.
What strategies were found to be most effective in a study in which new hires who negotiated received a salary premium? a. Compromising and accommodating b. Compromising and collaborating c. Accommodating and competing d. Collaborating and competing e. Compromising and competing
82.
Which of the following is most accurate regarding salary negotiations? a. Men outperform women in less individualistic and more collective cultures. b. Women outperform men in less individualistic and more collective cultures. c. Women outperform men in more individualistic and less collective cultures. d. Men outperform women in more individualistic and less collective cultures. e. Men outperform women in more individualistic and collective cultures.
83.
Competition is an example of conflict. a. True b. False
84.
Conflict is especially likely when those of low status are dependent upon those of high status. a. True b. False
Chapter 13 85.
A ready supply of resources is especially likely to prompt conflict among organizational subunits. a. True b. False
86.
Conflict involves antagonistic attitudes and behaviours. a. True b. False
87.
Self-esteem is a critical factor of intergroup bias. a. True b. False
88.
Interdependence always leads to conflict. a. True b. False
89.
Interdependence does not always lead to conflict. a. True b. False
90.
If dependence is not mutual but one way, the potential for conflict increases. a. True b. False
91.
If dependence is mutual the potential for conflict increases. a. True b. False
92.
Ambiguous jurisdictions and scarce resources cause __________ .
93.
__________ is a process that occurs when one person, group, or organizational subunit frustrates the goal attainment of another.
94.
What are the main causes of organizational conflict?
95.
__________ negotiation requires a degree of creativity.
96.
__________ outperform __________ in less individualistic and more collective cultures in salary negotiations.
97.
Women outperform men in less __________ and more __________ cultures in salary negotiations.
98.
What is the difference between distributive and integrative negotiation? Discuss the main tactics used in each.
Chapter 13 99.
Occasionally, some degree of task conflict is actually beneficial for team performance. a. True b. False
100. Occasionally, some degree of task conflict is actually beneficial to member satisfaction. a. True b. False 101. Not all conflict is detrimental. a. True b. False 102. Process conflict concerns disagreements about the nature of the work to be done. a. True b. False 103. Task conflict involves disagreements about how work should be organized and accomplished. a. True b. False 104. Disagreements about responsibility, authority, resource allocation, and who should do what constitute relationship conflict. a. True b. False 105. Conflict can improve decision making and promote necessary organizational change. a. True b. False 106. Conflict can stall decision making and prevent necessary organizational change. a. True b. False 107. In the context of work groups and teams, relationship and __________ conflict tend to be detrimental to member satisfaction and team performance.
108. What is constructive conflict and when is it most likely to happen?
109. What is conflict stimulation, when should a manager use it, and how can they achieve it?
110. Disagreements about responsibility, authority, resource allocation, and who should do what constitute process conflict. a. True b. False 111. Conflict stimulation can foster change. a. True b. False
Chapter 13 112. Constructive conflict refers to conflict for which the benefits outweigh the costs. a. True b. False 113. Constructive conflict refers to conflict for which the costs outweigh the benefits. a. True b. False 114. Constructive conflict is most likely to promote good decisions and positive organizational change. a. True b. False 115. Constructive conflict is most likely when the tendency to avoid conflict is resisted and the parties engage in open-minded discussion of their differences. a. True b. False 116. In teams, relationship and process conflict tend to prevent the development of cohesiveness. a. True b. False 117. In teams, relationship and task conflict tend to prevent the development of cohesiveness. a. True b. False 118. In teams, relationship and process conflict are detrimental to member satisfaction and team performance. a. True b. False 119. In teams, relationship and task conflict are detrimental to member satisfaction and team performance. a. True b. False 120. As process and relationship conflict jointly increase, costly destructive conflict ensues. a. True b. False 121. As task and relationship conflict jointly increase, costly destructive conflict ensues. a. True b. False 122. The avoiding style is characterized by low assertiveness of one's own interests and low cooperation with the other party. a. True b. False 123. A competing style tends to maximize assertiveness for your own position and minimize cooperative responses. a. True b. False
Chapter 13 124. A compromise style tends to maximize assertiveness for your own position and minimize cooperative responses. a. True b. False 125. Compromise combines intermediate levels of assertiveness and cooperation. a. True b. False 126. Collaborating combines intermediate levels of assertiveness and cooperation. a. True b. False 127. Compromise always results in the most creative response to conflict. a. True b. False 128. Compromise is not so useful for resolving conflicts that stem from power asymmetry. a. True b. False 129. Compromise is most useful for resolving conflicts that stem from power asymmetry. a. True b. False 130. Compromise is a sensible reaction to conflict stemming from scarce resources. a. True b. False 131. Collaboration frequently enhances productivity and achievement. a. True b. False 132. Avoiding and accommodating lead to conflict suppression. a. True b. False 133. Avoiding and accommodating lead to destructive conflict. a. True b. False 134. The frequent use of the assertive style results in destructive conflict. a. True b. False 135. The frequent use of the assertive style results in conflict suppression. a. True b. False 136. Constructive conflict is most likely to emerge from collaborating and compromise. a. True b. False
Chapter 13 137. Constructive conflict is most likely to emerge from collaborating and competing. a. True b. False 138.
__________ exists when assertiveness and cooperativeness are both high.
139. Superordinate goals require collaboration for their achievement. a. True b. False 140. Distributive negotiation assumes a zero-sum, win-lose situation in which a fixed pie is divided up between the parties. a. True b. False 141. Distributive negotiation assumes that mutual problem solving can result in a win-win situation in which the pie is actually enlarged before distribution. a. True b. False 142. Distributive and integrative negotiations can take place simultaneously. a. True b. False 143. Integrative negotiation is essentially a single-issue negotiation. a. True b. False 144. Distributive negotiation requires a degree of creativity. a. True b. False 145. Integrative negotiation requires a degree of creativity. a. True b. False 146. Paula resolved the conflict between her employees by giving them a very attractive assignment that neither could accomplish on their own. Paula used a(n) __________ to resolve the conflict.
147. A study showed that new hires who ______________________________________ received a $5000 salary premium.
148. By definition, which event occurs first? a. Stress reaction b. Stress c. Stressor d. Burnout e. Anxiety
Chapter 13 149. Environmental events or conditions that have the potential to induce stress are called a. stress reactions. b. stressors. c. anxiety episodes. d. burnout. e. defence mechanisms. 150. The three stages of a stress episode are, in order, a. stress, stressor, and stress reactions. b. frustration, stress, and conflict. c. stress reactions, stressor, and stress. d. stressor, stress, and stress reactions. e. stress, anxiety, and conflict. 151. According to a study conducted by the American Psychological Association, work was reported to be a potent source of stress, edging out ________ and ________. a. health; finances b. health; changing jobs c. finances; changing jobs d. finances; death of a loved one e. health; relationships 152. Stress reactions can be a. cognitive, psychological, and behavioural. b. behavioural, psychological, and physiological. c. cognitive, psychological, and physiological. d. emotional, cognitive, and behavioural. e. emotional, behavioural, and physiological. 153. What are things such as extreme heat, extreme cold, isolation, or hostile people? a. Stress b. Stressors c. Stress reactions d. Stress facilitators e. Stress stimulants 154. A psychological reaction to the demands inherent in a stressor that has the potential to make a person feel tense or anxious is called a. stress. b. stressors. c. stress reactions. d. anxiety. e. burnout. 155. The behavioural, psychological, and physiological consequences of stress are called a. stress outcomes. b. stress consequences. c. stress reactions. d. anxiety and tension. e. burnout.
Chapter 13 156. An individual's ________ often determines the extent to which a potential stressor becomes an actual stressor. a. personality b. frustration quotient c. stress reaction d. reaction formation e. anxiety reduction factor 157. Type A personalities a. exhibit more job dissatisfaction. b. have a strong need to control their environment. c. are less prone to coronary heart disease. d. are more relaxed and easygoing. e. are less effective in situations requiring persistence, endurance, or speed. 158. Which aspect of the Type A behaviour pattern is most responsible for adverse physiological reactions that lead to heart disease? a. Hostility b. Impatience c. Work involvement d. Competitiveness e. Persistence 159. Extreme hostility and cynicism are the physiologically risky components of a. negative affectivity. b. approach-avoidance conflict. c. burnout. d. Type A behaviour. e. locus of control. 160. The Type A behaviour pattern is a good example of how a. people can cope effectively with stress. b. personality is involved in stress. c. job dissatisfaction and poor performance are caused by stress. d. all humans respond very similarly to stressors. e. strong defence mechanisms can reduce the physiological reactions to stress. 161. ________ are the key factors that make a Type A individual prone to heart disease. a. Job involvement and work overload b. Repressed anger and hostility c. Impatience and competitiveness d. Time urgency and strict deadlines e. Endurance and persistence 162. People high in negative affectivity are particularly likely to feel stressed in response to the demands of a. work-family conflict. b. poor physical working conditions. c. poor job design. d. a heavy workload. e. interpersonal conflict.
Chapter 13 163. How can personality influence the stress experience? a. It can affect the extent to which stressors are perceived as stressful. b. It can affect the types of stress reactions that occur. c. It can affect the extent to which stress reactions are effective. d. It can affect the extent to which stressors are perceived as stressful and the extent to which stress reactions are effective. e. It can affect the extent to which stressors are perceived as stressful and the types of stress reactions that occur. 164. Karen has a new job, and she never stops complaining about the demanding workload and how stressed she feels about it. What kind of personality does Karen have? a. Low self-esteem b. Internal locus of control c. External locus of control d. High negative affectivity e. Type A behaviour pattern 165. Which of the following is most accurate about the relationship between personality and stress? a. Internals are more likely to feel anxious in the face of potential stressors. b. Externals are more likely to confront stressors directly. c. People high in negative affectivity report more stressors in the work environment. d. People low in negative affectivity feel stressed in response to the demands of a heavy workload. e. People high in negative affectivity report more objective but less subjective stress. 166. Which of the following is most accurate about the relationship between personality and stress? a. Internals are more likely to feel anxious in the face of potential stressors. b. Externals are more likely to confront stressors directly. c. Externals are more likely to feel anxious in the face of potential stressors. d. People low in negative affectivity feel stressed in response to the demands of a heavy workload. e. People high in negative affectivity report more objective but less subjective stress. 167. Which of the following is most accurate about the relationship between personality and stress? a. Internals are more likely to feel anxious in the face of potential stressors. b. Externals are more likely to confront stressors directly. c. Internals are more likely to confront stressors directly. d. People low in negative affectivity feel stressed in response to the demands of a heavy workload. e. People high in negative affectivity report more objective but less subjective stress. 168. What personality type reports heavy workloads, long work hours, and many conflicting work demands? a. Internals b. Externals c. Type As d. Negative affectivity e. Neuroticism 169. An addiction to work in which one has an internal compulsion to work, thinks persistently about work, and works excessively is called a. Type A behaviour pattern. b. burnout. c. negative affectivity. d. workaholism. e. work addiction.
Chapter 13 170. Which of the following tend to be achievement-oriented perfectionists? a. Type As b. Workaholics c. Negative affectivity d. Internals e. Externals 171. Which of the following types of people tend to be stressed, burned out, dissatisfied, in poor health, and do not perform better than their more laid-back colleagues? a. Type As b. Workaholics c. Negative affectivity d. Internals e. Externals 172. When are persons with high negative affectivity particularly likely to feel to stress? a. When role conflict is high b. When role ambiguity is high c. When they have a heavy workload d. When they have heavy responsibility e. When the working conditions are poor 173. Stressors are the behavioural, psychological, and physiological consequences of stress. a. True b. False 174. The text defines stress as a syndrome that includes depersonalization, emotional exhaustion, and perceptions of low accomplishment. a. True b. False 175. All people are susceptible to stressors and the experience of stress regardless of their personality. a. True b. False 176. The key component of Type A behaviour that contributes to physiological problems is hostility and repressed anger. a. True b. False 177. Ambition and competitiveness are the key aspects of Type A behaviour that contribute to physiological problems. a. True b. False 178. Externals are more prone to simple anxiety-reduction strategies that only work in the short run. a. True b. False 179. People high in negative affectivity are particularly likely to feel stressed in response to the demands of poor job design. a. True b. False
Chapter 13 180. People high in negative affectivity are particularly likely to feel stressed in response to the demands of a heavy workload. a. True b. False 181. Conditions or environmental events that have the potential to induce stress are __________ .
182. According to a study conducted by the American Psychological Association, work was reported to be a potent source of stress, edging out __________ and __________ .
183.
__________ is a psychological reaction to the demands inherent in a stressor that has the potential to make a person feel tense or anxious.
184.
__________ are the behavioural, psychological, and physiological consequences of stress.
185. The key factors in the Type A behaviour pattern that contributes to adverse physiological reactions are __________ and repressed anger.
186. People who exhibit the __________ tend to be aggressive, ambitious, impatient, competitive, and preoccupied with their work.
187. Personality can affect the extent to which potential stressors are perceived as stressful and the types of __________ that occur.
188. People high in negative affectivity are particularly likely to feel stressed in response to the demands of a(n) __________ .
189.
__________ is an "addiction" to work in which one has an internal compulsion to work, thinks persistently about work, and works excessively.
190.
__________ tend to be stressed, burned out, dissatisfied, in poor health, and they do not perform better than their more laid-back colleagues.
191. Describe the link between negative affectivity and stress, and the factors responsible for it.
192. Discuss the role of personality on the experience of stress and three personality traits associated with stress.
Chapter 13 193. Stress is not intrinsically bad. a. True b. False 194. Stress is intrinsically bad. a. True b. False 195. Work is ahead of health among a wide range of stressors. a. True b. False 196. Individual personality often determines the extent to which a potential stressor becomes a real stressor and actually induces stress. a. True b. False 197. Internals are more likely to feel anxious in the face of potential stressors. a. True b. False 198. Type A personalities experience less job satisfaction. a. True b. False 199. People have remarkably similar levels of toleration for stress. a. True b. False 200. Personality can affect the extent to which stress reactions are effective. a. True b. False 201. All Type As are workaholics. a. True b. False 202. Some Type As are workaholics. a. True b. False 203. Workaholics perform better than their more laid-back colleagues. a. True b. False 204. Describe the stress episode and indicate the role that personality plays in the stress episode.
205. Describe the stress episode and indicate the role that reactions play in the episode.
Chapter 13 206. Professionals are most likely to experience stress from job insecurity and change for which of the following reasons? a. The boundary roles they occupy tend to be insecure positions. b. They face the constant threat of automation. c. They tend to be overqualified or too specialized to easily obtain jobs in related industries should social or economic forces change. d. The great amount of authority they possess in the organization may make them the targets of much hostility. e. Increasing pressures for corporate performance have led to the recruitment of many professionals in recent years. 207. When the goals of one's job or the methods of performing it are unclear to an employee, ________ exists. a. role ambiguity b. role overload c. role conflict d. a boundary role e. job insecurity 208. Burnout seems especially likely to occur to a. people who make excessive use of defense mechanisms. b. those with Type A personalities. c. people who occupy organizational boundary roles. d. those who experience excessive role ambiguity. e. those who experience role overload. 209. Jack has so much work to do that he doesn't even know where to begin. We can be sure that Jack a. is experiencing role ambiguity. b. is a boundary role occupant. c. has a Type A personality. d. is experiencing burnout. e. is encountering role overload. 210. Role overload is a potential example of a. stress. b. role ambiguity. c. a stress reaction. d. a stressor. e. burnout. 211. Angela is a vice-president of public relations while Petro is a telephone installer. Both occupy a. operative roles. b. ambiguous roles. c. professional roles. d. boundary roles. e. conflicting roles. 212. People who occupy boundary role positions in organizations are especially likely to experience stress because a. they are inherently unable to deal with the causes of their anxiety. b. their roles tend to be boring and unchallenging. c. their roles as organizational members may be incompatible with the demands made by the public or other organizations. d. they tend to work longer hours under poor physical conditions. e. their roles lead to increased work-family conflict.
Chapter 13 213. Which of the following is NOT a core characteristic of burnout? a. Low personal accomplishment b. Severe memory loss c. Depersonalization d. Emotional exhaustion e. Feeling fatigued and frustrated 214. According to the text, which is the most likely order of burnout stages? a. Low self-efficacy -> Cynicism -> Emotional exhaustion b. Cynicism -> Low self-efficacy -> Emotional exhaustion c. Cynicism -> Emotional exhaustion -> Low self-efficacy d. Emotional exhaustion -> Cynicism -> Low self-efficacy e. Emotional exhaustion -> Low self-efficacy -> Cynicism 215. In everyday language, role overload refers to a. competing role demands. b. too much work. c. a boundary role. d. lack of authority. e. ambiguous role demands. 216. In the realm of job burnout, depersonalization means a. taking an administrative job where one doesn't have to deal with clients. b. treating clients like objects. c. ignoring one's own needs for the sake of client welfare. d. that the individual experiencing burnout lacks social support. e. that the individual experiencing burnout feels like a machine instead of a person. 217. Burnout is a form of stress particularly associated with a. working in isolation from others. b. Type A behaviour. c. Type B behaviour. d. poor job design. e. boundary role occupancy. 218. The job demands-resources model is a model that specifies a. how job demands and job resources cause burnout. b. how job demands cause stress and job resources cause well-being. c. how job demands cause burnout and job resources cause engagement. d. how job demands and job resources cause engagement. e. how job demands and job resources cause stress. 219. Which of the following are consequences of an engaged workforce? a. Better financial performance b. Better financial performance and job satisfaction c. Better financial performance and customer satisfaction d. Better financial performance and organizational commitment e. Better job satisfaction and customer satisfaction
Chapter 13 220. What seems to be a key factor associated with the occurrence of burnout? a. Job insecurity b. Poor job design c. Dealing with distressed clients d. Being overqualified educationally and stuck in a dead-end job e. Role overload 221. Which of the following is a manifestation of conflict? a. Work-family conflict b. Role ambiguity c. Sexual harassment d. Bullying e. Burnout 222. A repeated negative behaviour directed towards one or more individuals of lower power or status that creates a hostile work environment is known as a. sexual harassment. b. bullying. c. violence d. burnout. e. a stressor. 223. When Jerome asked Larry about his new job, he was surprised to learn that Larry's co-workers have been teasing him and sabotaging his tools and equipment. What is this an example of? a. Sexual harassment b. Interpersonal conflict c. Relationship conflict d. Bullying e. Avoiding 224. An essential feature of bullying is a. its persistence. b. its harshness. c. its hostility. d. its harmfulness. e. its demeaning nature. 225. Which of the following is an example of bullying? a. Martin's co-workers are always teasing and criticizing him. b. One of Martin's co-workers stole his lunch and nobody would admit to it. c. Martin's boss was upset about a mistake he made and called him an idiot. d. Martin arrived at work one day to find that his tools were missing. e. One of Martin's co-workers punched him in the face. 226. When a group of individuals, usually direct co-workers, "gang up" on a particular employee, it is called a. sexual harassment. b. interpersonal conflict. c. mobbing. d. relationship conflict. e. conflict stimulation.
Chapter 13 227. The text states that organizations should be striving to foster exactly the opposite of burnout, which is high a. loyalty. b. goal setting. c. work engagement. d. laissez-faire. e. organizational citizenship behaviour. 228. According to the job demands-resources model, the work environment can be described in terms of demands and resources. Which of the following features would NOT be considered a job demand? a. Physical feature b. Social feature c. Psychological feature d. Organizational feature e. Academic feature 229. According to the job demands-resources model, the work environment can be described in terms of demands and resources. Which of the following examples would NOT qualify as job demands? a. Work overload b. Time pressure c. Role ambiguity d. Role conflict e. Social relations 230. All of the following are examples of job resources EXCEPT a. compensation. b. career advancement opportunities. c. skill training. d. performance feedback. e. role ambiguity. 231. Wayne just started a new job for a company that distributes swimming pool hardware like brass drain filters, pumps, and flexible heating coils for pool heaters. The warehouse is filled with approximately 400 SKUs or individual products. Wayne has been told that he is responsible for being the final "approver" for all orders before they get loaded on to the truck and sent to the customer. At the same time, his supervisor has asked him to try to manage the labour costs in the warehouse for himself and the dozen or so other employees in that area. In the middle of double checking a large and very complicated order, Wayne was asked to meet with the warehouse manager, as well as a handful of other managers from the company, to discuss customer service challenges. He is experiencing quite a bit of stress and he is worried it is going to get worse as the role ambiguity he is facing gets more confusing. The stressors Wayne is experiencing are coming from the intense a. job resources. b. work engagement. c. work ambivalence. d. job demands. e. physical working conditions. 232. Which of the following is most accurate? a. Gender but not personality is related to burnout. b. Personality but not gender is related to burnout. c. Gender and personality are not related to burnout. d. Gender and personality are related to burnout. e. Personality is related to burnout for women but not men.
Chapter 13 233. Which of the following is most accurate? a. Women are more likely to report emotional exhaustion, and men are more likely to report depersonalization. b. Men are more likely to report emotional exhaustion, and women are more likely to report depersonalization. c. Men and women are equally likely to report emotional exhaustion, and men are more likely to report depersonalization. d. Men and women are equally likely to report emotional exhaustion, and women are more likely to report depersonalization. e. Men and women are equally likely to report depersonalization, and women are more likely to report emotional exhaustion. 234. Three friends have just graduated from university and are about to begin their first full-time jobs. Avinash has high self-esteem, Jill has high conscientiousness, and Bo has an external locus of control. Who is most likely to experience burnout? a. Avinash b. Jill c. Bo d. Avinash and Jill e. Avinash and Bo 235. Which of the following best represents the relationship between personality and burnout? a. Those with high self-esteem, high conscientiousness, and external control report less burnout. b. Those with high self-esteem, high conscientiousness, and internal control report less burnout. c. Those with low self-esteem, high conscientiousness, and external control report less burnout. d. Those with low self-esteem, high conscientiousness, and internal control report less burnout. e. Those with high self-esteem, low conscientiousness, and internal control report less burnout. 236. What occupations tend to provoke the most work-family conflict? a. Those that require a high degree of autonomy b. Those that require a high degree of leadership c. Those that require a high degree of teamwork d. Those that have poor job design e. Those that have poor working conditions 237. What occupations tend to provoke the most work-family conflict? a. Those that require a high degree of autonomy b. Those that require a high degree of leadership c. Those that require a high degree of responsibilities for others d. Those that have poor job design e. Those that have poor working conditions 238. What occupations tend to provoke the most work-family conflict? a. Police detectives, firefighters, and family doctors b. Police detectives, insurance adjusters, and taxi drivers c. Firefighters, insurance adjusters, and taxi drivers d. Family doctors, insurance adjusters, and tellers e. Family doctors, police detectives, and taxi drivers.
Chapter 13 239. When can job scope be a stressor? a. When it is too high b. When it is too low c. When it is too low or too high d. When it is high and an individual has role overload e. When it is high and an individual has role ambiguity 240. What employees seem to handle the tension between work and family better than others? a. Employees with high self-esteem b. More conscientious employees c. Employees with an internal locus of control d. Employees with an external locus of control e. Employees with a Type B personality 241. The bullying of subordinates by managers is called a. cyberbullying. b. mobbing. c. abusive supervision. d. sexual harassment. e. the deaf ear syndrome. 242. Someone who is experiencing stress at work, comes from an abusive family, and feels that they have been treated unfairly is most likely to engage in which of the following? a. Cyberbullying b. Mobbing c. Abusive supervision d. Sexual harassment e. Bullying 243. Why is abusive supervision especially damaging to employee well-being? a. Because managers influence what one's co-workers will do b. Because managers control resources of interest to employees c. Because managers can get away with it d. Because managers determine what is appropriate behaviour e. Because managers are role models 244. Which of the following statements about cyberbullying is most accurate? a. It consists of direct messages. b. It consists of indirect messages. c. It consists of direct and indirect messages. d. The perpetrator is always anonymous. e. The abuse occurs in the work domain. 245. Abuse that occurs electronically is called a. abusive supervision. b. electronic bullying. c. cyberbullying. d. electronic abuse. e. cyberabuse.
Chapter 13 246. A national Canadian survey found that work-family conflict results in a. decreased work performance and increased turnover. b. decreased work performance and decreased job satisfaction. c. decreased work performance and increased absenteeism. d. decreased job satisfaction and increased absenteeism. e. increased absenteeism and increased turnover. 247. Research shows that more engaged people are a. better performers. b. better organizational citizens. c. less absent. d. better performers and better organizational citizens. e. better performers and less absent. 248. Which of the following is most accurate about job demands and job resources? a. The negative effects of demands are just as potent as the positive effects of resources. b. The negative effects of demands are more potent than the positive effects of resources. c. The negative effects of demands are not as potent as the positive effects of resources. d. The negative effects of demands will depend on how strong the positive effects of resources are. e. The positive effects of resources will depend on how strong the negative effects of demands are. 249. When resources are low, increased job demands are associated with a a. lower probability of death. b. higher probability of death. c. lower probability of a heart attack. d. higher probability of a heart attack. e. higher probability of absenteeism. 250. Which of the following is considered the best approach when it comes to demands and resources? a. It is best to minimize demands. b. It is best to maximize resources. c. It is best to minimize demands and maximize resources. d. It is best to maximize resources to buffer the negative effects of demands. e. It is best to eliminate demands and increase resources. 251. Stress emanating from the need for people to use and to master a variety of workplace information and communication technologies is called a. communication stressors. b. information stressors. c. technology stressors. d. techno-stressors. e. gizmo-stressors. 252. What is a techno-stressor? a. Stress from having to use new technology in the workplace to perform one's job b. Stress from having to use and master workplace information and communication technologies c. Stress from not having the technology required to perform one's job d. Stress from not knowing how to use new technology in the workplace e. Stress from not wanting to use new technology in the workplace to perform one's job
Chapter 13 253. Which of the following is NOT a dimension of techno-stressors? a. Techno-ambiguity b. Techno-uncertainty c. Techno-insecurity d. Techno-invasion e. Techno-overload 254. The feeling that too many people have access to us, there are too many technology features to master, or we have too much information to process is called a. techno-ambiguity. b. techno-uncertainty. c. techno-insecurity. d. techno-invasion. e. techno-overload. 255. The feeling that work demands have invaded non-work time, we must be constantly and immediately available, or our behaviour is being monitored is called a. techno-ambiguity. b. techno-uncertainty. c. techno-insecurity. d. techno-invasion. e. techno-overload. 256. The perception that technology is changing too often, that policies regarding technology use are unclear, or that text-based messages are prone to misinterpretation is called a. techno-ambiguity. b. techno-uncertainty. c. techno-insecurity. d. techno-invasion. e. techno-overload. 257. The feeling that new technology introduces complication and hassles to our everyday work is called a. techno-ambiguity. b. techno-uncertainty. c. techno-complexity. d. techno-invasion. e. techno-overload. 258. The fear that others are more adept at adapting to and using new technology than we are or that it could threaten our job is called a. techno-ambiguity. b. techno-uncertainty. c. techno-insecurity. d. techno-invasion. e. techno-overload. 259. What country has legislated the right of workers to ignore after-hours messages? a. Canada b. United States c. Germany d. France e. Belgium
Chapter 13 260. Persons who use connectivity to enable them to participate in family affairs (e.g., a short vacation) are known as a. instigators. b. integrators. c. enablers. d. connectors. e. includers. 261. Persons who are inclined to build a firewall between work and family, preventing techno-invasion by limiting connectivity are known as a. dividers. b. firewalls. c. separators. d. disablers. e. breakers. 262. A 2017 American Psychological Association survey indicated that a. 21 percent of the workforce are highly engaged in their work. b. 31 percent of the workforce are highly engaged in their work. c. 41 percent of the workforce are highly engaged in their work. d. 51 percent of the workforce are highly engaged in their work. e. 61 percent of the workforce are highly engaged in their work. 263. A 2017 American Psychological Association survey indicated that a. 21 percent of the workforce are disengaged. b. 31 percent of the workforce are disengaged. c. 41 percent of the workforce are disengaged. d. 51 percent of the workforce are disengaged. e. 61 percent of the workforce are disengaged. 264. What are the dimensions of work engagement? a. Attention, vigour, dedication b. Attention, vigour, determination c. Absorption, vigour, determination d. Absorption, vigour, dedication e. Absorption, variety, dedication 265. Which of the following is most accurate about counterproductive work behaviour? a. It often involves goal frustration. b. It often involves interpersonal conflict. c. It often involves job insecurity. d. It often involves role ambiguity. e. It often involves role conflict. 266. Which of the following is most accurate about the effects of abusive supervision? a. It is tied to reduced subordinate organizational citizenship and increased stress. b. It is tied to reduced subordinate organizational commitment and increased burnout. c. It is tied to reduced subordinate organizational citizenship and increased burnout. d. It is tied to reduced subordinate organizational citizenship and increased health problems. e. It is tied to reduced subordinate organizational commitment and increased health problems.
Chapter 13 267. When a group or individual fails to interact with a co-worker when it would be normal to do so, what is it called? a. Interpersonal conflict b. Bullying. c. Mobbing d. Workplace ostracism e. Harassment 268. Not long after Ivan began his new job, he noticed that his co-workers were ignoring him and excluding him from things. What is this called? a. Interpersonal conflict b. Bullying. c. Mobbing d. Workplace ostracism e. Harassment 269. What is ostracism especially likely to be used with? a. Interpersonal conflict b. Bullying c. Mobbing d. Abusive supervision e. Harassment 270. What is ostracism associated with? a. Poor performance and turnover b. Negative well-being and turnover c. Burnout and negative well-being d. Burnout and poor performance e. Negative well-being and poor performance. 271. What personality types are less likely to suffer ostracism? a. Agreeable, conscientious, and extraverted b. Agreeable conscientious, and introverted c. Agreeable, conscientious, and open to experience d. Agreeable, extraverted, and emotionally stable e. Agreeable, emotionally stabile, and open to experience 272. A 2017 American Psychological Association survey indicated that 41 percent of the workforce are highly engaged in their work. a. True b. False 273. Victims of counterproductive work behaviour can experience stress because they feel powerless to deal with the perpetrator(s). a. True b. False 274. Victims of counterproductive work behaviour can experience stress because they need the friendship of the perpetrator(s). a. True b. False
Chapter 13 275. When too many tasks must be performed in too short a time, __________ is likely to occur.
276. Terry is a sales clerk who serves as an interface between her department store and the buying public. As such she holds a(n) __________ role position.
277. The nurse said, "I'm emotionally exhausted. I don't care about the patients, and I'm not accomplishing anything." The nurse appears to be suffering from the form of stress called __________ .
278. Poor physical working conditions are most likely to be a stressor for __________ employees.
279. Burnout is a common stress reaction among people who occupy organizational __________ roles.
280. Role overload and heavy responsibility can be particular stressors for __________ personnel.
281. Police officers, nurses, and social workers are especially prone to the form of stress labelled as __________ .
282. Repeated negative behaviour directed towards one or more individuals of lower power or status that creates a hostile work environment is known as __________ .
283.
__________ can take many forms such as incessant teasing, demeaning criticism, social isolation, or sabotaging others' tools and equipment.
284. An essential feature of bullying is its __________ .
285.
__________ occurs when a number of co-workers "gang up" on a particular employee.
286. Victims of bullying and mobbing experience __________ because they feel powerless to deal with the perpetrator(s).
287.
__________ can be a stressor at levels that are either too low or too high.
288. Women are more likely to report emotional exhaustion, and men are more likely to report __________ .
289. In general, those with high self-esteem, high __________ , and internal control report less burnout.
Chapter 13 290. Role overload is an example of a stress reaction. a. True b. False 291. A computer programmer probably occupies a boundary role. a. True b. False 292. Professionals may experience stress because their profession and their employing organization make incompatible demands. a. True b. False 293. Many burnout-prone jobs involve the performance of a boundary role. a. True b. False 294. Role overload is often a source of stress for executives. a. True b. False 295. Jobs with heavy workloads and considerable decision-making authority seem to prompt heart disease. a. True b. False 296. Working with clients who have severe emotional or physical problems is a prime cause of burnout. a. True b. False 297. Burnout is an example of a stressor. a. True b. False 298. Stress from having to use and to master workplace information and communication technologies is called techno-stress. a. True b. False 299. Stress from not knowing how to use workplace information and communication technologies is called techno-stress. a. True b. False 300. Abusive supervision is especially damaging to employee well-being. a. True b. False 301. Negative behaviour can trickle down from managers to supervisors to workers. a. True b. False
Chapter 13 302. Abusive managers often come from abusive families. a. True b. False 303. Role overload is common in many jobs in the tech domain. a. True b. False 304. Abusive managers feel they have been treated unfairly. a. True b. False 305. Cyberbullying involves bullying via email, texting, social media, or blogs. a. True b. False 306. Too much work is a good example of role overload. a. True b. False 307. A national Canadian survey determined that work-family conflict results in decreased work performance and increased absenteeism. a. True b. False 308. A national Canadian survey determined that work-family conflict results in decreased work performance and increased turnover. a. True b. False 309. Burnout follows a process that begins with emotional exhaustion. a. True b. False 310. Burnout follows a process that begins with cynicism. a. True b. False 311. Resources can buffer the negative effects of demands. a. True b. False 312. Job scope can be a stressor at levels that are either too low or too high. a. True b. False 313. Personality but not gender is related to burnout. a. True b. False
Chapter 13 314. Women are more likely to report emotional exhaustion and men are more likely to report depersonalization. a. True b. False 315. Men are more likely to report emotional exhaustion and depersonalization than women. a. True b. False 316. In general, those with high self-esteem, high conscientiousness, and internal control report less __________ .
317. In general, it is better to minimize __________ and maximize __________ .
318. Occupations that require a high degree of __________ or responsibilities for others tend to provoke the most work-family conflict.
319. People who are highly __________ in their work have been shown to have elevated work-family conflict.
320. The bullying of subordinates by managers is called __________ supervision.
321. Abusive supervision is especially damaging to employee __________ .
322. Research has shown that negative behaviour can trickle down from __________ to supervisors to workers, creating a climate of abuse.
323. Research has shown that negative behaviour can trickle down from managers to supervisors to workers, creating a climate of __________ .
324. A profile of abusive managers shows that they often come from abusive __________ .
325. A profile of abusive managers shows they feel they have been treated __________ .
326.
__________ is a fairly new form of bullying in which the abuse occurs electronically.
327. In some cases, cyberbullying is __________ in that it consists of harassing messages sent directly to the target of abuse.
Chapter 13 328. In some cases, cyberbullying is __________ in that messages are posted publicly on Facebook, Twitter, YouTube, blogs, and web pages.
329. The content of some cyberbullying constitutes __________ harassment.
330. Cyberbullying can be especially destructive because the abuse extends into the __________ domain, so people feel they cannot get away from it.
331. A national Canadian survey determined that __________ results in decreased work performance and increased absenteeism.
332. A national Canadian survey determined that work-family conflict results in decreased __________ and increased absenteeism.
333. A national Canadian survey determined that work-family conflict results in decreased work performance and increased __________ .
334.
__________ can be defined as a positive work-related state of mind that is characterized by vigour, dedication, and absorption.
335. Work engagement can be defined as a positive work-related state of mind that is characterized by vigour, dedication, and __________ .
336. Research shows more engaged people are better performers and better organizational __________ .
337. Research shows more __________ people are better performers and better organizational citizens.
338. Companies with more __________ workforces have better financial performance and customer satisfaction.
339. The negative effects of __________ are more potent than the positive effects of __________ .
340. Counterproductive work behaviour often involves __________ .
341. A common form of work stress is __________ which is stress emanating from the need for people to use and to master a variety of workplace information and communication technologies.
Chapter 13 342. Abusive supervision is tied to reduced subordinate organizational citizenship and increased __________ .
343.
__________ occurs when a group or individual persistently fails to interact with a co-worker when it would be normal to do so.
344. Not long after Ivan began his new job, he realized that some of his co-workers were ignoring him and excluding him from things. Ivan is experiencing __________ .
345. Workplace ostracism is associated with negative well-being and poor __________ .
346. An essential assumption about the job demands-resources model is that high job resources foster work engagement, while high job demands exhaust employees physically and mentally, and lead to burnout. Explain how this is so and the relative importance of demands and resources for employee work engagement. Provide examples to help illustrate your answer.
347. Define and discuss "work engagement." What does it mean in the workplace and what are its consequences?
348. What is work engagement and why should organizations want to cultivate it?
349. Define counterproductive work behaviour and describe four manifestations of it. What are the consequences of these counterproductive work behaviours for employees?
350. What is workplace ostracism and what are its consequences for employees? What role does personality play in the likelihood of an employee experiencing ostracism?
351. People with __________ tendencies are more likely to suffer ostracism.
352. People who are agreeable, conscientious, and __________ are less likely to suffer ostracism.
353. People who are agreeable, conscientious, and extraverted are less likely to suffer __________ .
Chapter 13 354. Suzie Desouza, the Manager of Industrial Relations at Zeta Manufacturing, has just been informed that the union representing the assembly workers has rejected management's latest offer and has issued a strike notice. Suzie is very angry at both her superiors and the union representatives for their intransigence on key negotiation issues, but she tries to keep her cool as she prepares for yet another marathon bargaining session. She is concerned that the strike will lead to layoffs in other areas of the company, and she worries about those individuals who will be adversely affected if the next round of negotiations fails. She has been told by her boss to try to avoid a strike at all costs. Yet, her boss was the one who recommended countering the union's previous offer with the current failed offer. Based on the pace of negotiations to date, she predicts that even round-the-clock negotiations will not result in a settlement soon enough to avert the strike. As she sits at her desk, she glances at the pictures of her two children who she has hardly seen since negotiations started last month. She also notices that the in-basket of her mail tray is overflowing, and she has nearly 100 unopened email messages (half of them marked "URGENT"). As she pops another pill for her high blood pressure problem, she sighs, "Where do I start?" Analyze Suzie's situation in terms of stressors, stress, and stress reaction.
355.
Describe the job demands-resources model. Be sure to explain job demands and job resources and the effects they can have on employees.
356. What is abusive supervision and what effect does it have on employees and the organization?
357. What is cyberbullying and what are the different forms it can take?
358. Cyberbullying can be direct or indirect. a. True b. False 359. The content of some cyberbullying constitutes sexual harassment. a. True b. False 360. The content of some cyberbullying constitutes abusive supervision. a. True b. False 361. The abuse from cyberbullying can extend into the non-work domain. a. True b. False 362. Bullying always involves physical aggression. a. True b. False 363. Bullying is most commonly a subtle form of psychological aggression and intimidation. a. True b. False
Chapter 13 364. An essential feature of bullying is its harshness. a. True b. False 365. In general, those with high self-esteem, high conscientiousness, and external control report less burnout. a. True b. False 366. In general, those with high self-esteem, high conscientiousness, and internal control report more burnout. a. True b. False 367. People who are highly engaged in their work have been shown to have elevated work-family conflict. a. True b. False 368. More conscientious employees seem to handle the tension between work and family better than others. a. True b. False 369. Abusive supervision refers to the bullying of subordinates by managers. a. True b. False 370. The negative effects of demands are more potent than the positive effects of resources. a. True b. False 371. Occupations that require a high degree of teamwork tend to provoke the most work-family conflict. a. True b. False 372. Occupations that require a high degree of teamwork tend to provoke the least work-family conflict. a. True b. False 373. France has gone so far as to legislate the right of workers to ignore after-hours messages. a. True b. False 374. Germany has gone so far as to legislate the right of workers to ignore after-hours messages. a. True b. False 375. The positive effects of resources are more potent than the negative effects of demands. a. True b. False 376. Counterproductive work behaviour often involves interpersonal conflict. a. True b. False
Chapter 13 377. Abusive supervision is tied to reduced subordinate organizational citizenship and increased health problems. a. True b. False 378. Abusive supervision is tied to reduced subordinate job performance and increased health problems. a. True b. False 379. Workplace ostracism can be a potent stressor. a. True b. False 380. Workplace ostracism is often employed with abusive supervision. a. True b. False 381. Workplace ostracism is often employed with mobbing. a. True b. False 382. Shunning, ignoring, and excluding a person are examples of workplace ostracism. a. True b. False 383. Shunning, ignoring, and excluding a person are examples of bullying. a. True b. False 384. Workplace ostracism is associated with negative well-being and poor performance. a. True b. False 385. Workplace ostracism is associated with negative well-being and turnover. a. True b. False 386. People with neurotic tendencies are more inclined to suffer ostracism. a. True b. False 387. People who are agreeable, conscientious, and extraverted are less likely to suffer ostracism. a. True b. False 388. People who are agreeable, conscientious, and introverted are less likely to suffer ostracism. a. True b. False 389. A single harsh incident is a good example of bullying. a. True b. False
Chapter 13 390. Abusive managers often come from abusive families. a. True b. False 391. Mobbing occurs when a manager repeatedly intimidates a group of employees. a. True b. False 392. Men and women are equally susceptible to work-family conflict. a. True b. False 393. What are job resources? Explain the term and describe the four areas or categories of job resources that show up in organizations. Please provide an example of each of the four categories.
394.
Describe burnout and its stages.
395. What is bullying and what factors distinguish it as a stress-inducing form of conflict?
396. What is techno-stress and what are the five dimensions of techno-stress?
397. Which stress reaction has the best potential to permanently terminate a stress episode? a. Rationalization b. Projection c. Temporary withdrawal d. Problem solving e. Displacement 398. It was clear to everybody that the advertising campaign designed by Edwin had been a flop—sales had fallen rather than risen. Although under considerable stress and embarrassed, Edwin put up a false front, smiling and speaking positively about the campaign. What defense mechanism was he exhibiting? a. Projection b. Rationalization c. Reaction formation d. Displacement e. Compensation 399. Which of the following statements concerning defence mechanisms is FALSE? a. Used occasionally to temporarily reduce anxiety, they appear to be a useful reaction. b. When the use of defence mechanisms becomes a chronic reaction to stress, individuals may not be able to accurately assess the true reason for their anxiety. c. Individuals who do not use defence mechanisms may be incapacitated by anxiety and resort to dysfunctional withdrawal or addiction. d. Stress might increase with the knowledge that a defence mechanism has been ineffective. e. Defence mechanisms actually confront the stressor directly.
Chapter 13 400. Tanya is a nurse who has been stealing medical supplies from the hospital where she works. To cope with the stress provoked by her guilt, she tells herself that "all the nurses steal supplies." In fact, they don't. Tanya is exhibiting a. projection. b. compensation. c. rationalization d. displacement. e. reaction formation. 401. Diana's first job was as an air traffic controller, a position she found very stressful. Realizing that this wasn't for her, she found another job as a management trainee and resigned from her air traffic controller position. Her reaction to stress was one of a. problem solving. b. rationalization. c. time management. d. displacement. e. reaction formation. 402. After Alex was fired from his job, he went home and ripped up his small tomato patch. His reaction to stress was one of a. problem solving. b. projection. c. reaction formation. d. displacement. e. rationalization. 403. Which of the following are examples of challenge stressors? a. Heavy workload and responsibility b. Heavy workload and role ambiguity c. Heavy workload and interpersonal conflict d. Role ambiguity and interpersonal conflict e. Responsibility and interpersonal conflict 404. Which of the following represents the relationship between the type of stressor and performance? a. Hindrance and challenge stressors can damage and stimulate performance. b. Hindrance and challenge stressors can damage but not stimulate performance. c. Hindrance and challenge stressors can damage performance, but only challenge stressors can stimulate performance. d. Hindrance and challenge stressors can damage performance, but only hindrance stressors can stimulate performance. e. Hindrance stressors can damage performance, and challenge stressors stimulate performance.
Chapter 13
Test Name: 1.
e.Self-esteem
2.
b.The process that occurs when one person, group, or organizational subunit frustrates the goal attainment of another
3.
d.antagonistic attitudes and behaviours.
4.
e.Group identification, intergroup bias, and interdependence
5.
d.Disagreement about goals
6.
d.Group A is not dependent on Group B and Group B is not dependent on Group A.
7.
d.Ambiguity
8.
e.Scarce resources
9.
goal
10.
conflict
11.
b.On each side, conciliatory persons who are skilled at conflict resolution emerge as leaders.
12.
c.Disagreements about how work should be organized and accomplished
13.
e.task conflicts.
14.
d.A process conflict
15.
c.Relationship and process conflict is detrimental to member satisfaction and team performance.
16.
a.Task conflict is beneficial for team performance.
17.
d.When the task is non-routine and requires a variety of perspectives to be considered
18.
b.make resources scarcer.
19.
c.make resources scarce.
20.
b.The benefits outweigh the costs
21.
d.conflict stimulation.
22.
d.constructive conflict.
23.
b.When the tendency to avoid conflict is resisted
24.
d.Constructive conflict
25.
e.Relationship and process conflict tend to prevent the development of cohesiveness.
Chapter 13 26.
d.Elevated task conflict coupled with low to minor levels of relationship and process conflict can result in constructive conflict.
27.
a.As process and relationship conflict jointly increase, costly destructive conflict ensues.
28.
b.False
29.
b.False
30.
task
31.
process
32.
relationship
33.
task
34.
constructive
35.
Constructive
36.
process
37.
Relationship
38.
task
39.
task/relationship
40.
construct
41.
destructive
42.
change
43.
Relationship conflict, task conflict, and process conflict. In teams, relationship and process conflict tend to prevent the development of cohesiveness and are detrimental to member satisfaction and team performance. Occasionally, some degree of task conflict is beneficial for team performance, especially when the task is nonroutine and requires a variety of perspectives to be considered and when it does not degenerate into relationship conflict. Thus, there are some potential benefits of organizational conflict as shown in Exhibit 13.1. Elevated task conflict coupled with low to minor levels of relationship and process conflict can result in constructive conflict that promotes good decisions and positive organizational change. This means that the parties to the conflict agree that its benefits outweigh its costs. This is most likely when the tendency to avoid conflict is resisted and the parties engage in open-minded discussion of their differences, being open to evidence that is counter to their current positions. On the other hand, as process and relationship conflict jointly increase, costly destructive conflict ensues; the team can't accomplish its goals or work well together on future assignments. The argument that conflict can be functional asserts that it can improve decision making and promote necessary organizational change.
44.
a.True
45.
b.False
46.
b.False
Chapter 13 47.
a.True
48.
b.False
49.
b.Compromise is especially useful for resolving conflicts that stem from power differences.
50.
b.assertiveness and cooperativeness.
51.
a.avoiding.
52.
b.accommodating.
53.
d.compromise.
54.
c.competing.
55.
e.collaborating.
56.
a.Avoiding and accommodating
57.
d.Destructive conflict
58.
c.Collaborating and compromise
59.
competing
60.
accommodation
61.
assertive
62.
cooperative
63.
conflict suppression
64.
assertive
65.
Constructive conflict
66.
compromise
67.
The five modes are avoiding, accommodating, competing, compromising, and collaborating. Examples: 1) Avoiding (low assertiveness, low cooperativeness)–a manager who postpones meeting with an employee who wants a raise. 2) Accommodating (low assertiveness, high cooperativeness)–going to the movie that your date wants to see instead of the one that you would rather see. 3) Competing (high assertiveness, low cooperativeness)–most transactions where buyer and seller do not expect to meet again. 4) Collaborating (high assertiveness, high cooperativeness)–two department managers in the same company must share limited resources to achieve their individual departmental objectives, and jointly contribute to the attainment of the company's goals. 5) Compromising (moderate assertiveness, moderate cooperativeness)–when it becomes clear to union negotiators and management that neither is going to get the maximum deal they had hoped for, they settle for a deal that is adequate (satisficing).
Chapter 13 68.
Avoiding and accommodating lead to conflict suppression. Destructive conflict, resulting from the frequent use of the assertive style, is highly visible and severely damages group functioning and performance. Constructive conflict is most likely to emerge from collaboration and compromise. Organizations should strive to enlarge the "green zone" for constructive conflict and minimize suppressed and destructive conflict.
69.
e.Cutting costs
70.
e.All of the above
71.
d.goals that can only be achieved by collaboration between conflicting parties.
72.
b.collaboration.
73.
c.Men tend to negotiate better outcomes than women.
74.
c.integrative negotiation tactics.
75.
b.When women gain negotiation experience
76.
e.When they are perceived as expert, likeable, and unbiased
77.
c.Superordinate goals
78.
b.competition and accommodation.
79.
d.avoiding and collaborating.
80.
e.$5,000 salary premium.
81.
d.Collaborating and competing
82.
b.Women outperform men in less individualistic and more collective cultures.
83.
b.False
84.
b.False
85.
b.False
86.
a.True
87.
a.True
88.
b.False
89.
a.True
90.
a.True
91.
b.False
92.
conflict
93.
Conflict
Chapter 13 94.
Group identification, intergroup bias, interdependence, ambiguity, scarce resources, and differences in power, status, and culture.
95.
Integrative
96.
Women/men
97.
individualistic/collective
98.
Distributive negotiation is a win-lose negotiation in which a fixed amount of assets is divided between the parties. Integrative negotiation is a win-win negotiation in which it is assumed that mutual problem solving can enlarge the assets to be divided between parties. Distributive tactics may include the use of threats and promises, firm posturing, small concessions offered strategically, and verbal persuasion. Integrative tactics may include exchanging large amounts of information, reframing differences as opportunities, cutting costs for agreement, increasing resources, and introducing superordinate goals.
99.
a.True
100. b.False 101. a.True 102. b.False 103. b.False 104. b.False 105. a.True 106. b.False 107. process 108. Constructive conflict means that the parties to the conflict agree that its benefits outweigh its costs. It is most likely when the tendency to avoid conflict is resisted and the parties engage in open-minded discussion of their differences, being open to evidence that is counter to their current positions. 109. Conflict stimulation is a strategy of increasing conflict to motivate change. One signal for when to use it is the existence of a "friendly rut," in which peaceful relationships take precedence over organizational goals. Another is seen when parties that should be interacting closely withdraw from each other to avoid overt conflict. A third signal occurs when conflict is suppressed or downplayed by denying differences, ignoring controversy, and exaggerating points of agreement. The causes of conflict, such as scarcity and ambiguity, can be manipulated by managers to achieve change. 110. a.True 111. a.True 112. a.True 113. b.False 114. a.True
Chapter 13 115. a.True 116. a.True 117. b.False 118. a.True 119. b.False 120. a.True 121. b.False 122. a.True 123. a.True 124. b.False 125. a.True 126. b.False 127. b.False 128. a.True 129. b.False 130. a.True 131. a.True 132. a.True 133. b.False 134. a.True 135. b.False 136. a.True 137. b.False 138. Collaboration 139. a.True 140. a.True 141. b.False 142. a.True
Chapter 13 143. b.False 144. b.False 145. a.True 146. superordinate goal 147. negotiated 148. c.Stressor 149. b.stressors. 150. d.stressor, stress, and stress reactions. 151. e.health; relationships 152. b.behavioural, psychological, and physiological. 153. b.Stressors 154. a.stress. 155. c.stress reactions. 156. a.personality 157. b.have a strong need to control their environment. 158. a.Hostility 159. d.Type A behaviour. 160. b.personality is involved in stress. 161. b.Repressed anger and hostility 162. d.a heavy workload. 163. e.It can affect the extent to which stressors are perceived as stressful and the types of stress reactions that occur. 164. d.High negative affectivity 165. c.People high in negative affectivity report more stressors in the work environment. 166. c.Externals are more likely to feel anxious in the face of potential stressors. 167. c.Internals are more likely to confront stressors directly. 168. c.Type As 169. d.workaholism.
Chapter 13 170. b.Workaholics 171. b.Workaholics 172. c.When they have a heavy workload 173. b.False 174. b.False 175. b.False 176. a.True 177. b.False 178. a.True 179. b.False 180. a.True 181. stressors 182. health/relationships 183. Stress 184. Stress reactions 185. hostility 186. Type A behaviour pattern 187. stress reactions 188. heavy workload 189. Workaholism 190. Workaholics 191. People high in negative affectivity report more stressors in the work environment and feel more subjective stress. They are particularly likely to feel stressed in response to the demands of a heavy workload. Several factors that might be responsible for their susceptibility to stress include a predisposition to perceive stressors in the workplace, hypersensitivity to existing stressors, a tendency to gravitate to stressful jobs, a tendency to provoke stress through their negativity, or the use of passive, indirect coping styles that avoid the real sources of stress.
Chapter 13 192. Personality can affect both the extent to which potential stressors are perceived as stressful and the types of stress reactions that occur. Three personality traits associated with stress are locus of control, Type A behaviour pattern, and negative affectivity. Externals are more likely to feel anxious in the face of potential stressors and prone to simple anxiety-reduction strategies. Type A individuals encounter or perceive themselves as encountering more stressful situations and they exhibit adverse physiological reactions in response to stress. People high in negative affectivity report more stressors in the work environment and feel more subjective stress. 193. a.True 194. b.False 195. a.True 196. a.True 197. b.False 198. b.False 199. b.False 200. b.False 201. b.False 202. a.True 203. b.False 204. The stress episode consists of stressors which lead to stress which then lead to stress reactions. Personality determines the extent to which a potential stressor becomes a real stressor and actually induces stress. 205. The stress episode consists of stressors which lead to stress which then lead to stress reactions. Stress reactions can be behavioural, psychological, and physiological. Some of these reactions are passive responses over which the individual has little direct control, such as elevated blood pressure or reduced immune function. Other reactions are active attempts to cope with some previous aspect of the stress episode. Exhibit 13.5 indicates that stress reactions that involve coping attempts might be directed toward dealing directly with the stressor or simply reducing the anxiety generated by stress. In general, the former strategy has more potential for effectiveness than the latter because the chances of the stress episode being terminated are increased. 206. c.They tend to be overqualified or too specialized to easily obtain jobs in related industries should social or economic forces change. 207. a.role ambiguity 208. c.people who occupy organizational boundary roles. 209. e.is encountering role overload. 210. d.a stressor. 211. d.boundary roles.
Chapter 13 212. c.their roles as organizational members may be incompatible with the demands made by the public or other organizations. 213. b.Severe memory loss 214. d.Emotional exhaustion -> Cynicism -> Low self-efficacy 215. b.too much work. 216. b.treating clients like objects. 217. e.boundary role occupancy. 218. c.how job demands cause burnout and job resources cause engagement. 219. c.Better financial performance and customer satisfaction 220. c.Dealing with distressed clients 221. d.Bullying 222. b.bullying. 223. d.Bullying 224. a.its persistence. 225. a.Martin's co-workers are always teasing and criticizing him. 226. c.mobbing. 227. c.work engagement. 228. e.Academic feature 229. e.Social relations 230. e.role ambiguity. 231. d.job demands. 232. d.Gender and personality are related to burnout. 233. a.Women are more likely to report emotional exhaustion, and men are more likely to report depersonalization. 234. c.Bo 235. b.Those with high self-esteem, high conscientiousness, and internal control report less burnout. 236. c.Those that require a high degree of teamwork 237. c.Those that require a high degree of responsibilities for others 238. a.Police detectives, firefighters, and family doctors
Chapter 13 239. c.When it is too low or too high 240. b.More conscientious employees 241. c.abusive supervision. 242. c.Abusive supervision 243. b.Because managers control resources of interest to employees 244. c.It consists of direct and indirect messages. 245. c.cyberbullying. 246. c.decreased work performance and increased absenteeism. 247. d.better performers and better organizational citizens. 248. b.The negative effects of demands are more potent than the positive effects of resources. 249. b.higher probability of death. 250. c.It is best to minimize demands and maximize resources. 251. d.techno-stressors. 252. b.Stress from having to use and master workplace information and communication technologies 253. a.Techno-ambiguity 254. e.techno-overload. 255. d.techno-invasion. 256. b.techno-uncertainty. 257. c.techno-complexity. 258. c.techno-insecurity. 259. d.France 260. b.integrators. 261. c.separators. 262. b.31 percent of the workforce are highly engaged in their work. 263. a.21 percent of the workforce are disengaged. 264. d.Absorption, vigour, dedication 265. b.It often involves interpersonal conflict. 266. d.It is tied to reduced subordinate organizational citizenship and increased health problems.
Chapter 13 267. d.Workplace ostracism 268. d.Workplace ostracism 269. d.Abusive supervision 270. e.Negative well-being and poor performance. 271. a.Agreeable, conscientious, and extraverted 272. b.False 273. a.True 274. b.False 275. role overload 276. boundary 277. burnout 278. operative level 279. boundary 280. executive and managerial 281. burnout 282. bullying 283. Bullying 284. persistence 285. Mobbing 286. stress 287. Job scope 288. depersonalization 289. conscientiousness 290. b.False 291. b.False 292. a.True 293. a.True 294. a.True
Chapter 13 295. b.False 296. a.True 297. b.False 298. a.True 299. b.False 300. a.True 301. a.True 302. a.True 303. a.True 304. a.True 305. a.True 306. a.True 307. a.True 308. b.False 309. a.True 310. b.False 311. b.False 312. a.True 313. b.False 314. a.True 315. b.False 316. burnout 317. demands/resources 318. teamwork 319. engaged 320. abusive 321. well-being 322. managers
Chapter 13 323. abuse 324. families 325. unfairly 326. Cyberbullying 327. direct 328. indirect 329. sexual 330. non-work 331. work-family conflict 332. work performance 333. absenteeism 334. Work engagement 335. absorption 336. citizens 337. engaged 338. engaged 339. demands/resources 340. interpersonal conflict 341. techno-stress 342. health problems 343. Workplace ostracism 344. workplace ostracism 345. performance
Chapter 13 346. Job resources refer to features of a job that are functional in that they help achieve work goals, reduce job demands, and stimulate personal growth, learning, and development. Job resources can come from the organization, interpersonal and social relations, the organization or work, and the task itself. Research has found that job demands are related to burnout, disengagement, and health problems, while job resources lead to work engagement, organizational citizenship behaviour, and organizational commitment. Although it is often thought that resources can buffer the negative effects of demands, the most recent research indicates this is essentially untrue, and it is better to minimize demands and maximize resources. However, the negative effects of demands are more potent than the positive effects of resources. Organizations can provide job resources such as career opportunities, supervisor support, role clarity, and autonomy and feedback to foster work engagement. 347. Work engagement can be defined as "a positive work-related state of mind that is characterized by vigour, dedication, and absorption." Vigour involves high levels of energy and mental resilience at work. Dedication means being strongly involved in your work and experiencing a sense of significance, enthusiasm, and challenge. Absorption refers to being fully concentrated on and engrossed in your work. Research shows that more engaged people are better performers and better organizational citizens. Companies with more engaged workforces have better financial performance and customer satisfaction. 348. Work engagement can be defined as "a positive work-related state of mind that is characterized by vigour, dedication, and absorption." Vigour involves high levels of energy and mental resilience at work. Dedication means being strongly involved in your work and experiencing a sense of significance, enthusiasm, and challenge. Absorption refers to being fully concentrated on and engrossed in your work. Cultivating work engagement has positive benefits to employees and organizations. Job resources lead to work engagement as well as organizational citizenship behaviour and organizational commitment. Research shows that more engaged people are better performers and better organizational citizens. Companies with more engaged workforces have better financial performance and customer satisfaction. Although it is often thought that resources can buffer the negative effects of demands, the most recent research indicates this is essentially untrue, and it is better to minimize demands and maximize resources. However, the negative effects of demands are more potent than the positive effects of resources 349. Counterproductive work behaviour is intentional verbal or physical behaviour meant to harm one's organization or individuals such as co-workers or customers. It often involves interpersonal conflict, which can be a potent stressor. The chapter describes five forms of counterproductive work behaviour: bullying, mobbing, abusive supervision, workplace ostracism, and sexual harassment. Bullying is a potent source of stress, negative well-being, and sickness absenteeism. Mobbing can be especially intimidating and stressful because it restricts the availability of social support that might be present. Abusive supervision is related to reduced subordinate organizational citizenship and increased health problems. Ostracism is associated with negative well-being and poor performance. Sexual harassment is a major workplace stressor. The negative effects of sexual harassment include decreased morale, job satisfaction, organizational commitment, and job performance and increased absenteeism, turnover, and job loss. Sexual harassment has also been found to have serious effects on the psychological and physical well-being of its victims. 350. Workplace ostracism occurs when a group or individual persistently fails to interact with a co-worker when it would be normal to do so. This could include shunning, ignoring, or excluding the person. Ostracism can be extra stressful when employees need to interact with others to do their own job well. Ostracism is associated with negative well-being and poor performance. However, these factors may be both a cause and a result of ostracism, with unhappy poor performers being socially isolated. This possibility is strengthened by an observed connection with personality—people with neurotic tendencies are more inclined to suffer ostracism, while agreeable, conscientious, and extraverted people are less likely to experience ostracism. 351. neurotic 352. extraverted 353. ostracism
Chapter 13 354. The managerial stressors affecting Suzie are role overload (e.g., too much to do in too little time) and heavy responsibility (e.g., she is worried about the layoffs which will result if she cannot reach an agreement). There is also evidence of role ambiguity (e.g., the boss's directive to avoid a strike at all costs, and yet the boss rejected the union's previous offer), and work-family conflict (e.g., she has not seen much of her children lately). In addition, Suzie exhibits a Type A behaviour pattern, and her repressed anger for her boss and the union representatives may be contributing to her high blood pressure problem. 355. The job demands-resources model is a model that specifies how job demands cause burnout, and job resources cause engagement. Job demands are physical, psychological, social, or organizational features of a job that require sustained physical or psychological efforts that in turn can result in physiological or psychological costs. Common demands include work overload, time pressure, role ambiguity, and role conflict. Job resources refer to the features of a job that are functional in that they help achieve work goals, reduce job demands, and stimulate personal growth, learning, and development. Job resources can come from the organization (e.g., pay), interpersonal and social relations (e.g., co-worker support), the organization of work (e.g., role clarity), and the task itself (e.g., task significance). A central assumption of the model is that high job resources foster work engagement, while high job demands exhaust employees physically and mentally, and lead to burnout. Research has found that job demands are related to burnout, disengagement, and health problems, while job resources lead to work engagement, organizational citizenship behaviour, and organizational commitment. Although it is often thought that resources can buffer the negative effects of demands, the most recent research indicates this is essentially untrue, and it is better to minimize demands and maximize resources. However, the negative effects of demands are more potent than the positive effects of resources. 356. Abusive supervision is when managers engage in the bullying of subordinates. Abusive supervision is especially damaging to employee well-being, because managers control considerable resources of interest to employees (e.g., access to promotions) and are a natural place to turn to for support when experiencing abuse. This is impossible when it is the manager who is the abuser. Abusive supervision can also create a climate of abuse in the organization as the negative behaviour can "trickle down" from managers to supervisors to workers, creating a climate of abuse. Abusive supervision is tied to reduced subordinate organizational citizenship and increased health problems. 357. Cyberbullying is a fairly new form of bullying in which the abuse occurs electronically via email, texting, social media, or blogs. In some cases, the cyberbullying is direct in that it consists of harassing messages (e.g., emails or texts) sent explicitly to the target of abuse. In other cases, it is indirect in that messages are posted publicly on Facebook, Twitter, YouTube, blogs, and web pages. 358. a.True 359. a.True 360. b.False 361. a.True 362. b.False 363. a.True 364. b.False 365. b.False 366. b.False 367. a.True
Chapter 13 368. a.True 369. a.True 370. a.True 371. a.True 372. b.False 373. a.True 374. b.False 375. b.False 376. a.True 377. a.True 378. b.False 379. a.True 380. a.True 381. b.False 382. a.True 383. b.False 384. a.True 385. b.False 386. a.True 387. a.True 388. b.False 389. b.False 390. a.True 391. b.False 392. a.True 393. Job resources refer to features of a job that are functional in that they help achieve work goals, reduce job demands, and stimulate personal growth, learning, and development. Job resources can come from the organization (e.g., pay), interpersonal and social relations (e.g., supervisor and co-worker support), the organization or work (e.g., role clarity), and the task itself (e.g., performance feedback).
Chapter 13 394. Burnout is a form of stress that is experienced by some boundary role occupants. It is a syndrome of emotional exhaustion, cynicism, and reduced self-efficacy. It follows a process that begins with emotional exhaustion, leads to cynicism, and then to feelings of low self-efficacy and low personal accomplishment. 395. Bullying refers to repeated negative behaviour directed towards one or more individuals of lower power or status that creates a hostile work environment. Factors that distinguish it include the following: —Although it can involve physical aggression, it is most commonly a more subtle form of psychological aggression and intimidation that can take many forms such as incessant teasing, demeaning criticism, social isolation, or sabotaging others' tools and equipment. —An essential feature of bullying is its persistence—a single harsh incident would not constitute bullying. It is the repeated teasing, criticism, or undermining that signals bullying. —Another key feature of bullying is some degree of power or status imbalance between the bully and the victim. Managers are often identified as bullies by subordinates. However, there is power in numbers and subordinates might team up to harass their boss, a phenomenon known as mobbing. Victims of bullying and mobbing experience stress because they feel powerless to deal with the perpetrator(s). 396. Techno-stress is stress emanating from the need for people to use and to master a variety of workplace information and communication technologies. The five dimensions of techno-stress are techno-overload, techno-invasion, techno-uncertainty, techno-complexity, and techno-insecurity. 397. d.Problem solving 398. c.Reaction formation 399. e.Defence mechanisms actually confront the stressor directly. 400. a.projection. 401. a.problem solving. 402. d.displacement. 403. a.Heavy workload and responsibility 404. c.Hindrance and challenge stressors can damage performance, but only challenge stressors can stimulate performance.
Chapter 14 1.
By definition, open systems a. interact with their environments. b. have no barriers against membership. c. provide easy information access to outsiders. d. provide an open forum for interest groups. e. All of the above
2.
Legal regulations are most likely a part of which environmental component faced by a business firm? a. Customer component b. Social/political component c. Supplier component d. Competitor component e. Technological component
3.
Which of the following statements concerning the external environment is TRUE? a. Different interest groups use identical criteria to evaluate organizational effectiveness. b. Different interest groups seldom make conflicting demands on organizations. c. Different parts of an organization will often be concerned with different components of its environment. d. The smaller an organization, the more control it is likely to have over its environment. e. Customers, suppliers, and employees are all components of an organization's external environment.
4.
As defined and described in the text, interest groups do NOT a. exist within an organization's environment. b. exist within an organization. c. make competing demands on an organization. d. have different criteria for evaluating organizational effectiveness. e. have some vested interest in how an organization is managed.
5.
The components of a highly dynamic environment a. are in a constant state of cyclical change. b. remain fairly stable over time. c. contain a large number of dissimilar factors that affect an organization. d. are in a constant state of unpredictable and irregular change. e. are in a static state of unpredictable complexity.
6.
Other things equal, which of the following organizational environments is most uncertain? a. Complex and dynamic b. Simple and dynamic c. Complex and static d. Simple and static e. Static and dynamic
7.
What is the relationship between resource dependence and environmental uncertainty? a. They mean precisely the same thing. b. Uncertainty causes dependence. c. More uncertainty is correlated with more dependence. d. Less uncertainty is correlated with more dependence. e. They are fairly independent concepts.
Chapter 14 8.
Which of the following is most accurate? a. Uncertainty eliminates cause-and-effect relationships. b. As uncertainty decreases, cause-and-effect relationships become less clear. c. As uncertainty increases, cause-and-effect relationships become less clear. d. Cause-and-effect relationships increase uncertainty. e. Cause-and-effect relationships decrease uncertainty.
9.
Digital transformation enabled by big data, cloud computing mobile technology, and the Internet of Things has greatly accelerated the pace of a. environmental change. b. organizational change. c. environmental turbulence. d. organizational decline e. organizational failure.
10.
The most uncertain environments are complex and dynamic. a. True b. False
11.
Resource dependency and environmental uncertainty mean the same thing. a. True b. False
12.
Environmental uncertainty and resource dependence are highly correlated—the more uncertain the environment, the more the firms facing this uncertainty are resource dependent. a. True b. False
13.
The concept of resource dependence shows how organizations are totally at the mercy of their environments. a. True b. False
14.
Coping may be oriented towards changing the environment. a. True b. False
15.
As uncertainty decreases, cause-and-effect relationships become less clear. a. True b. False
16.
Resource dependence is dependent on environmental uncertainty. a. True b. False
17.
Digital transformation enabled by big data, cloud computing mobile technology, and the Internet of Things has greatly accelerated the pace of organizational change. a. True b. False
18.
Digital transformation enabled by big data, cloud computing mobile technology, and the Internet of Things has greatly accelerated the pace of organizational success. a. True b. False
Chapter 14 19.
The most __________ environment is complex and dynamic.
20.
__________ systems take inputs from the external environment, transform some of these inputs, and send them back into the environment as outputs.
21.
Parties or organizations other than direct competitors that have some vested interest in how an organization is managed are called __________ .
22.
Events in various components of the environment provide both __________ and opportunities for organizations.
23.
Environmental uncertainty exists when an organization is vague, difficult to diagnose, and __________ .
24.
Uncertainty depends on the environment's __________ and rate of change.
25.
Digital transformation enabled by big data, cloud computing mobile technology, and the Internet of Things has greatly accelerated the pace of organizational __________ .
26.
As __________ increases, cause-and-effect relationships become less clear.
27.
What are the main components of an organization's external environment? Which of these components may contain or influence interest groups which are relevant to your college or university? Cite examples.
28.
What are the two main factors which determine environmental uncertainty? Discuss how various combinations of these factors can result in four levels of uncertainty. Give examples of industries which depict each level of uncertainty.
29.
Describe the open systems concept of organizations and give an example. What is the value of the open systems concept?
30.
What is meant by the "external environment"? Provide some examples of how it can influence organizations.
31.
What are the effects of increasing uncertainty on organizations and their decision makers?
Chapter 14 32.
Strategy formulation follows directly from a. the objective environment. b. strategy implementation. c. the perceived environment. d. managerial experience and personality. e. organizational effectiveness.
33.
At what point in the relationship between the environment and strategy does managerial experience and personality play a role? a. Between the objective environment and the perceived environment b. Between perceived environment and strategy formulation c. Between strategy formulation and strategy implementation d. Between strategy implementation and organizational effectiveness e. Between perceived environment and strategy implementation
34.
What comprises the basis for strategy formulation? a. Objective environment b. Perceived environment c. Managerial experience d. Managerial personality e. Managerial objectives
35.
The process by which top executives seek to cope with the constraints and opportunities posed by an organization's environment is called a. resource dependence. b. environmental uncertainty. c. strategy. d. management coping. e. organization coping.
36.
Much of the impact that the environment has on organizations is a. direct. b. indirect. c. uncertain. d. unknown. e. ambiguous.
37.
What is one of the most common strategic responses employed by organizations? a. Change in organizational structure b. Mergers and acquisitions c. Vertical integration d. Joint ventures e. Strategic alliances
38.
Under normal circumstances, strategy formulation precedes strategy implementation. a. True b. False
39.
Strategy formulation is defined in the text as the process of adopting a particular organizational structure. a. True b. False
Chapter 14 40.
Much of the impact that the environment has on organizations is indirect rather than direct. a. True b. False
41.
Personality characteristics and experience may colour managers' perceptions of the environment. a. True b. False
42.
The process by which top executives seek to cope with the constraints and opportunities posed by an organization's environment is called __________ .
43.
__________ is the process by which top executives seek to cope with the constraints and opportunities posed by an organization's environment.
44.
Much of the impact that the __________ has on organizations is indirect rather than direct.
45.
It is the perceived __________ that comprises the basis for strategy formulation.
46.
The chosen __________ must correspond to the constraints and opportunities of the environment.
47.
One of the most common strategic responses employed by organizations is a change in organizational __________ .
48.
__________ formulation involves determining the mission, goals, and objectives of the organization.
49.
Strategy __________ involves determining the mission, goals, and objectives of the organization.
50.
Discuss the nature of the relationship between environment and strategy. Be sure to describe each step in the process.
51.
The vertical division of labour is best characterized by terms such as a. finance, production, and marketing. b. functional, product, and geographic. c. president, manager, and worker. d. span of control, size, and formalization. e. differentiation, job design, and matrix.
Chapter 14 52.
The grouping together of the basic tasks that must be performed for the organization to achieve its goals is called a. horizontal division of labour. b. vertical division of labour. c. integration. d. formalization. e. span of control.
53.
The domain of an individual's decision-making and authority ________ as the number of levels in the hierarchy increases. a. is reduced b. is increased c. stays the same d. is decentralized e. becomes more integrated
54.
Which of the following is a logical symptom of high differentiation? a. Marketing managers and engineering managers often don't see eye-to-eye. b. There is a high degree of superior-subordinate conflict. c. There are very large spans of control. d. The organization is in poor financial shape and gravitating toward bankruptcy. e. There are few formalized rules or procedures governing worker conduct.
55.
At Ajax Corporation, differentiation is high and integration is low. This suggests that a. Ajax offers a large number of products and services. b. sales and production don't see eye-to-eye. c. functional managers have similar goals and time orientations. d. Ajax is performing very effectively. e. managers have very wide spans of control.
56.
What two basic things must an organization do to achieve its goals? a. Divide and structure labour b. Departmentalize and coordinate labour c. Divide and differentiate labour d. Divide and coordinate labour e. Structure and coordinate labour
57.
Structure has to do with the manner in which an organization divides its labour into specific tasks and achieves a. differentiation among these tasks. b. integration among these tasks. c. organization among these tasks. d. coordination among these tasks. e. departmentation among these tasks.
58.
What are the two basic dimensions of the division of labour? a. A vertical dimension and a departmental dimension b. A vertical dimension and a horizontal dimension c. A differentiated dimension and a horizontal dimension d. A differentiated dimension and an integrated dimension e. A departmental dimension and a horizontal dimension
Chapter 14 59.
"Who gets to tell whom what to do" is associated with a. horizontal division of labour. b. differentiation. c. coordination. d. vertical division of labour. e. departmentation.
60.
As labour is progressively divided vertically, timely communication and coordination can become a. more complex. b. smoother and more efficient. c. easier to achieve. d. more effective. e. harder to achieve.
61.
Under high differentiation, various organizational units tend to operate more a. effectively. b. easily. c. autonomously. d. formally. e. centrally.
62.
At Sigma Limited, the production managers and the sales managers can't agree about anything. It would appear that differentiation is high and integration is low. a. True b. False
63.
To achieve its goals an organization has to do two very basic things: divide and differentiate labour among its members. a. True b. False
64.
As labour is progressively divided vertically, timely communication and coordination can become easier to achieve. a. True b. False
65.
The tendency for managers in separate functions or departments to differ in terms of goals, time spans, and interpersonal styles is called __________ .
66.
The manner in which an organization divides labour into tasks and coordinates these tasks is referred to as __________ .
67.
Organizational structure is the manner in which an organization divides its labour into specific __________ and achieves coordination among these __________ .
Chapter 14 68.
There is consensus that functional departmentation ________ than product departmentation. a. is less efficient b. is more sensitive to customers' needs c. is more logical d. leads to more coordination problems between functions e. works better in very large firms
69.
Functional departmentation may be based on division of the organization according to a. different products. b. different skills and responsibilities of individuals. c. different geographic areas. d. different customer types. e. different services offered to external customers.
70.
At Magno Limited, a consumer goods company, all the sales reps are in the same department and report to one sales manager. Magno is probably structured according to ________ departmentation. a. product b. geographic c. customer d. functional e. process
71.
Compared to functional departmentation, in product departmentation a. professional development might suffer. b. professional development is a major advantage. c. economies of scale is a major advantage. d. efficiency is a major advantage. e. it is difficult to respond to customers in a timely way.
72.
Which of the following is a problem with the matrix structure? a. Potential for conflict between the product manager and the functional manager b. Loss of economies of scale without proper coordination c. Poor coordination between departments results in slow response to organizational problems d. Permanent nature of the matrix requires total restructuring with each new project e. All of the above
73.
Which of the following statements is least accurate? a. As an organization's size increases, product departmentation is preferable to functional departmentation. b. Organizations with product departmentation are more centralized than those with functional departmentation. c. Organizations with functional departmentation are less complex than those with product departmentation. d. Organizations with product departmentation may duplicate effort more than those with functional departmentation. e. Communication between functional specialists tends to be more coordinated in organizations with product departmentation than in those with functional departmentation.
Chapter 14 74.
An organization has one production unit. Other factors equal, it probably relies on ________ departmentation. a. product b. geographic c. organic d. functional e. customer
75.
What is the most cited advantage of functional departmentation? a. Efficiency b. Communication c. Coordination d. Autonomy e. Career ladders
76.
Functional departmentation works best in a. large firms. b. medium firms. c. small firms. d. small to medium-sized firms. e. medium to large-sized firms.
77.
What structure is an attempt to capitalize simultaneously on the strengths of both functional and product departmentation? a. Hybrid departmentation b. Matrix departmentation c. Geographic departmentation d. Customer departmentation e. Functional-by-product departmentation
78.
Integrating business in multiple geographic regions is a common stimulus for a. geographic departmentation. b. matrix departmentation. c. customer departmentation. d. hybrid departmentation. e. product departmentation.
79.
Which of the following is most inclined to engage in complex strategic alliances with other firms? a. Geographic departmentation b. Matrix departmentation c. Customer departmentation d. Hybrid departmentation e. Product departmentation
80.
Which of the following is most accurate regarding McDonald's change in structure? a. It changed from a customer focus to a geographic focus. b. It changed from a geographic focus to a customer focus. c. It changed from a customer focus to a product focus. d. It changed from a product focus to a customer focus. e. It changed from a product focus to a geographic focus.
Chapter 14 81.
Professional development and career ladders are probably more favourable under functional departmentation than under product departmentation. a. True b. False
82.
The objective environment comprises the basis for strategy formulation. a. True b. False
83.
The impact that the environment has on organizations is direct. a. True b. False
84.
It is the perceived environment that comprises the basis for strategy formulation. a. True b. False
85.
It is the objective environment that comprises the basis for strategy formulation. a. True b. False
86.
Differentiation is defined as the number of different products or services offered by a firm. a. True b. False
87.
To achieve its goals an organization has to do two very basic things: divide and coordinate labour among its members. a. True b. False
88.
Under high differentiation, various organizational units tend to operate more autonomously. a. True b. False
89.
Differentiation is a natural and necessary consequence of the vertical division of labour. a. True b. False
90.
Functional departmentation is preferable to product departmentation as the organization increases in size. a. True b. False
91.
Achieving adequate coordination is often a problem of functional departmentation. a. True b. False
92.
Under functional departmentation, all the chemists employed by the organization will likely be in the same department. a. True b. False
Chapter 14 93.
Organizational customers are likely to prefer functional departmentation rather than product departmentation. a. True b. False
94.
The matrix departmentation method means that employees are members of both a functional department and a special product team. a. True b. False
95.
Under product departmentation, we are likely to find all the company's engineers housed in the same department. a. True b. False
96.
Organizations with functional departmentation are usually more complex and decentralized than those with product departmentation. a. True b. False
97.
Conflict between the product manager and the functional manager is a potential problem with the matrix structure. a. True b. False
98.
Employees of an organization with a matrix structure may be trying to please two different superiors at the same time and experience an inter-role conflict. a. True b. False
99.
The most cited advantage of functional departmentation is career ladders and training opportunities. a. True b. False
100. Integrating business in multiple geographic regions is a common stimulus for geographic departmentation. a. True b. False 101. Most organizations represent pure examples of functional, product, geographic, or customer departmentation. a. True b. False 102. McDonald's changed its structure from a cumbersome geographic one to one that is customer focused. a. True b. False 103. McDonald's changed its structure from a cumbersome geographic one to one that is product focused. a. True b. False 104. McDonald's structural change is credited with a surge in organizational performance. a. True b. False
Chapter 14 105. McDonald's structural change is credited with a surge in customer complaints. a. True b. False 106. Mutual adjustment is an informal means by which divided labour is coordinated. a. True b. False 107. An integrator role is a more elaborate coordination mechanism than a liaison role. a. True b. False 108. Mutual adjustment is useful for coordinating the most simple and the most complicated divisions of labour. a. True b. False 109. Standardization of outputs is often used to coordinate the work of separate product or geographic divisions. a. True b. False 110. Algorithmic control is the newest type of coordination. a. True b. False 111. Algorithmic control is the oldest type of coordination. a. True b. False 112. Algorithmic control permits the least amount of discretion. a. True b. False 113. Algorithmic control is most dominant for more routine work. a. True b. False 114. Very complex tasks dictate high formalization. a. True b. False 115. Major oil companies are highly vertically integrated. a. True b. False 116. Vertical integration can reduce and increase risk. a. True b. False 117. Ambidexterity has been associated with superior innovation but shorter survival. a. True b. False
Chapter 14 118. Exploration requires a more mechanistic approach, while exploitation requires a more organic structure. a. True b. False 119. Ambidexterity provides great pressure for differentiation. a. True b. False 120. Diffusion of information and innovation are two important outcomes of network forms. a. True b. False 121. Visa is an organization that is essentially virtual. a. True b. False 122. Each partner in a virtual organization contributes only in its area of core competencies. a. True b. False 123. Participating firms in a virtual organization maintain complete strategic control. a. True b. False 124. The word "ambidextrous" means equally capable of using both hands and feet. a. True b. False 125. The ideal ambidextrous organization is completely organic. a. True b. False 126. Digital platforms underpin many familiar modular organizations. a. True b. False 127. Autonomy and __________ are helpful for introducing innovations.
128. Matrix firms are more inclined than others to engage in complex strategic alliances with other firms. a. True b. False 129. Hybrid firms are more inclined than others to engage in complex strategic alliances with other firms. a. True b. False 130. At Roman Company, all sales people are in one sales department, all production people are in one production department, and all R&D people are in one R&D department. Roman obviously uses __________ departmentation.
Chapter 14 131. The company Gigantico Computers has separate hardware and software divisions. It is probably structured using __________ departmentation.
132. Although Cyclops Limited had several functions located only at world headquarters, sales and production were located in several geographic regions. This form of departmentation is called __________ .
133. The positive points of __________ departmentation include good communication within departments, good opportunities for professional development, and overall efficiency.
134. The most cited advantage of functional departmentation is __________ .
135. Integrating business in multiple geographic regions is a common stimulus for the __________ design.
136. McDonald's changed its structure from a cumbersome __________ structure to its current structure which is __________ focused.
137.
__________ departmentation attempts to capitalize on the strengths of various structures while avoiding the weaknesses of others.
138.
__________ departmentation is more inclined than others to engage in complex strategic alliances with other firms.
139. Organizational structure is the manner in which an organization divides its labour into specific tasks and achieves __________ among these tasks.
140. Once labour is divided, it must be __________ to achieve organizational effectiveness.
141. Labour must be __________ because individuals have physical and intellectual limitations.
142. Under high differentiation, various organizational units tend to operate more __________ .
143. Define differentiation as it relates to the division of labour. What is the connection between differentiation and integration?
Chapter 14 144. What does the horizontal division of labour refer to and what are the key themes that underlie the horizontal division of labour?
145. The process of facilitating timing, communication, and feedback among work tasks is called a. integration. b. coordination. c. mutual adjustment. d. standardization. e. facilitation. 146. Which method of organizational coordination permits workers the most discretion concerning the way they perform their jobs? a. Direct supervision b. Standardization of work processes c. Standardization of outputs d. Mutual adjustment e. Integration 147. The least formal means by which divided labour is coordinated is a. mutual adjustment. b. with an integrator. c. standardization of work processes. d. standardization of outputs. e. direct supervision. 148. Mutual adjustment is useful for coordinating ________ divisions of labour. a. only the most simple b. only the most complicated c. routine but moderately complicated d. the most simple and the most complicated e. neither the most simple nor the most complicated 149. When work tasks are routine, coordination of labour through ________ often substitutes for direct supervision. a. standardization of work processes b. small spans of control c. differentiation d. vertical division e. integrators 150. Which method of coordination is most elaborate and reflects the greatest commitment to ensuring coordination? a. Differentiation b. Task force c. Integrators d. Liaison role e. Decentralization
Chapter 14 151. Highly trained professionals with similar backgrounds and training most likely have their work coordinated through a. standardization of skills. b. standardization of outputs. c. standardization of work processes. d. direct supervision. e. liaison roles. 152. Who is permanently installed between two departments and given the full-time responsibility to assist in their coordination? a. A task force member b. An integrator c. A liaison role occupant d. A direct supervisor e. A mediator 153. What does an automobile assembly line provide a good example of? a. Mutual adjustment b. Standardization of work processes c. Standardization of outputs d. Standardization of skills e. Standardization of inputs 154. What is a very traditional form of coordination? a. Direct supervision b. Standardization of work processes c. Standardization of outputs d. Standardization of skills e. Standardization of inputs 155. What is often used to coordinate the work of separate product or geographic divisions? a. Direct supervision b. Standardization of work processes c. Standardization of outputs d. Standardization of skills e. Standardization of inputs 156. The process of attaining coordination across differentiated departments usually goes by the name of a. integration. b. coordination. c. mutual adjustment. d. standardization. e. facilitation. 157. What is the correct order of ascending elaboration of these methods of coordination? a. Task forces and teams, liaison roles, integrators b. Liaison roles, task forces and teams, integrators c. Integrators, liaison roles, task forces and teams d. Integrators, task forces and teams, liaison roles e. Liaison roles, integrators, task forces and teams
Chapter 14 158. A role occupied by a person who is assigned to help achieve coordination between their department and another department is called a(n) a. integrator role. b. facilitator role. c. linking role. d. liaison role. e. coordinating role. 159. Organizational members permanently assigned to facilitate coordination between departments are called a. integrators. b. facilitators. c. coordinators. d. communicators. e. directors. 160. Which coordination method permits the least amount of discretion? a. Standardization of skills b. Standardization of work processes c. Direct supervision d. Algorithmic control e. Standardization of outputs 161. What is the newest type of coordination? a. Standardization of skills b. Standardization of work processes c. Mutual adjustment d. Algorithmic control e. Standardization of outputs 162. If the ACME company digitally monitors employee interactions to understand and improve upon patterns of contact, what method of coordinating divided labour are they using? a. Standardization of skills b. Standardization of work processes c. Mutual adjustment d. Algorithmic control e. Standardization of outputs 163. What method of coordinating divided labour has been applied in many occupational contexts and is most dominant for more routine work? a. Standardization of skills b. Standardization of work processes c. Mutual adjustment d. Algorithmic control e. Standardization of outputs 164. When will liaison role holders, task force members, and integrators be most effective? a. When they identify strongly with the overall organization and its goals and with specific units. b. When they identify strongly with the overall organization and its goals rather than with specific units. c. When they identify strongly with the goals of specific units rather than with the organization. d. When they do not identify strongly with the overall organization and its goals or with specific units. e. When they teach others in the organization to identify strongly with the overall organization and its goals.
Chapter 14 165. In ascending order of elaboration, three methods of achieving integration include the use of task forces, liaison roles, and full-time integrators. a. True b. False 166. Standardization of work processes is often used to coordinate the work of separate product or geographic divisions. a. True b. False 167. Liaison role holders, task force members, and integrators will be most effective when they identify strongly with the goals of specific units. a. True b. False 168. The process of coordinating differentiated departments is called __________ .
169. The coordination of tasks via extensive informal communication is called __________ .
170. A(n) __________ is a temporary group set up to solve coordination problems across departments.
171. Bob is an engineer whose full-time job is to serve as a technical interface between production and R&D. He "translates" between the two groups and helps them solve problems. His role is that of as a(n) __________ .
172.
__________ adjustment is useful for coordinating the most simple and the most complicated divisions of labour.
173. The process of attaining coordination across differentiated departments usually goes by the special name of __________ .
174. Standardization of __________ is often used to coordinate the work of separate product or geographic divisions.
175. A(n) __________ role is occupied by a person in one department who is assigned, as part of their job, to achieve coordination with another department.
176.
__________ is the newest type of coordination.
177.
__________ and direct supervision permit little discretion.
Chapter 14 178. Algorithmic control is most dominant for more __________ work.
179. Discuss six basic ways to coordinate divided labour in an organization and indicate how they can be ordered in terms of the degree of discretion they permit in terms of task performance.
180. Excessive formalization may be responsible for the general failure of Western "internet firms" to prove competitive in China. a. True b. False 181. The structural characteristic of __________ is most obvious when we see all decisions made at the top of an organization.
182. Celine was shocked to find that she had twenty-five employees in her new supervisory job. She hadn't realized that her __________ would be so large.
183. A manufacturing company had myriad rules, regulations, and procedures, all detailed in thick operations manuals. Structurally, it was highly __________ .
184. In general, bigger organizations are more decentralized and __________ .
185. Speaking broadly, terms such as formalization, centralization, specialization, and tallness are associated with __________ structures.
186. The classical organizational theorists were advocates of a form of organizational structure that might be summarized as __________ .
187. Holding total organization size constant, __________ organizations have larger spans of control.
188. The larger the span, the less potential there is for coordination by direct __________ .
189. The __________ organizational theorists tended to favour mechanistic structures.
190. The classical organizational theorists tended to favour __________ structures.
191.
__________ is one factor that often dictates multiple structures.
Chapter 14 192. Flatness versus tallness is an index of the __________ division of labour.
193. Very complex tasks dictate high __________ .
194. The proper degree of __________ should put decision-making power where the best knowledge is located.
195.
__________ is the extent to which organizations divide labour vertically, horizontally, and geographically.
196. Complexity is the extent to which organizations divide labour vertically, horizontally, and __________ .
197. Speaking generally, __________ structures tend to be rather mechanistic.
198. Size is associated with increased __________ .
199. Some observers have attributed instances of fraud and other unethical behaviour to the lack of oversight that can result from large spans and __________ structures.
200. Research shows that large __________ tend to reduce the impact of ethical leadership on subordinates.
201. Research shows that large spans tend to reduce the impact of __________ leadership on subordinates.
202. Explain the relationship between "span of control" and "tall versus flat" structures. At what level of the management hierarchy is the span of control likely to be largest? Why?
203. Describe the main characteristics of mechanistic and organic structures. Which kinds of environments tend to favour each structure?
204. Discuss the effect of organizational size on the structure of organizations.
Chapter 14 205. One reason why the span of control tends to be smaller at upper levels in an organizational hierarchy is because a. in the managerial ranks, tasks are more routine. b. adequate time is necessary for informal mutual adjustment. c. coordination by direct supervision is easier. d. of the standardized nature of managerial work processes. e. recent trends in restructuring organizations have reduced the number of top management positions required. 206. A supervisor with a large span of control has a. quite a few managers above him in the hierarchy. b. authority over a wide range of decisions. c. a large number of employees. d. found a job in a very tall organization. e. many employees who require a lot of direct supervision. 207. Holding organizational size constant, a tall organization ________ than a flat organization. a. has fewer hierarchical levels b. is less formalized c. has smaller spans of control d. is less centralized e. has better vertical communication and coordination 208. The term "span of control" is defined as a. the number of levels in an organizational hierarchy. b. the number of employees supervised by a manager. c. the amount of power held by a chief executive. d. the extent to which an organization is independent of its environment. e. the extent to which an organization relies on formalized rules and processes to control output. 209. When organizational behaviour experts describe an organization as highly centralized, they mean that a. the organization is located in a single geographic location. b. the managers in the organization form a highly cohesive group. c. decision-making power is localized in a particular part of the organization. d. all or almost all of the members of the organization know each other. e. the organization uses empowerment and wide spans of control to coordinate work processes. 210. Which of the following statements about organizational structure is inconsistent with the mechanistic viewpoint? a. Organizations should be highly formalized. b. The span of control should be small. c. Detailed rules and regulations should be documented in writing. d. Organizations should be highly centralized. e. There should be a very low degree of specialization of labour. 211. Standardization of outputs and skills can result in much larger spans in ________ companies. a. manufacturing b. service c. high-tech d. medical e. pharmaceutical
Chapter 14 212. Employees sometimes resist employers by "working to rule." This means that they stick to the exact letter of work rules, often slowing their work considerably. Which structural characteristic are employees using to their advantage? a. Centralization b. Formalization c. Complexity d. Span of control e. Differentiation 213. The Rumpole Company had twelve thick procedures manuals that covered every contingency. From this, we know for certain that Rumpole was a. highly centralized. b. extremely flat. c. very large. d. highly formalized. e. highly integrated. 214. A mechanistic organization would NOT tend to be highly a. organic. b. centralized. c. formalized. d. bureaucratic. e. specialized. 215. Identify the four basic forms of departmentation introduced in the text. Describe two additional forms of departmentation which may result from combinations of the basic forms.
216. Gordon Wong is VP of Human Resources at Zeta Manufacturing. In a recent confidential meeting with the company's president, he was given a special assignment: develop a plan to improve coordination between departments without restructuring the company. Gordon understood the president's concerns, since he too had observed several coordination-related problems at the last executive meeting. In one instance, the VP of Marketing complained to the VP of Production that the company was losing market share due to low production capacity and late shipments. The VP of Production fired back, accusing the marketing department of "overly aggressive promotional tactics" which were resulting in unrealistic production expectations and low profit margins. In another instance, the VP of Marketing requested increased expense budgets for sales managers, who were complaining about the lack of funds available for sales promotion activities with customers. The VP of Finance told the VP of Marketing that his sales managers needed a "reality check" and that, if anything, expenses would need to become "tighter, not looser," in the future. Then, the VP of Research and Development stunned everyone by introducing detailed plans for a totally new product which would move the company into new markets. The VPs of Production and Marketing both demanded to know why they had not been informed about the new product concept sooner. As Gordon reflected on these events, he wondered, "How can I get these departments to work together in a more integrated manner?" Use your knowledge of organizational structure to 1) identify the type of departmentation at Zeta; 2) explain the advantages and disadvantages of this type of structure; and 3) recommend three methods to improve coordination across these departments without restructuring the organization.
217. What does the vertical division of labour refer to and what are the key themes that underlie the vertical division of labour?
Chapter 14 218. Mutual adjustment relies upon formal communication and written rules to coordinate tasks. a. True b. False 219. The more differentiated an organization is, the more integration it requires. a. True b. False 220. While task forces are temporary fixtures, integrators are permanent fixtures. a. True b. False 221. Algorithmic control is most dominant for non-routine work. a. True b. False 222. Liaison role holders, task force members, and integrators will be most effective when they identify strongly with the overall organization and its goals rather than with specific units. a. True b. False 223. What is the meaning of integration and what are, in ascending order of elaboration, three methods of achieving integration?
224. Other things equal, smaller organizations tend to be more ________ than larger organizations. a. complex b. formalized c. centralized d. differentiated e. mechanistic 225. Functional structures tend to be rather mechanistic. a. True b. False 226. Functional structures tend to be rather organic. a. True b. False 227. An organic organization would NOT tend to be a. decentralized. b. flat. c. bureaucratic. d. flexible. e. informal.
Chapter 14 228. The extent to which an organization divides labour vertically is most likely to be reflected in how ________ it is. a. formalized b. bureaucratic c. flat d. centralized e. integrated 229. Holding overall organizational size constant, ________ organizations have ________ spans of control. a. centralized; larger b. taller; smaller c. flatter; smaller d. taller; larger e. decentralized; smaller 230. Which of the following is most accurate? a. Mechanistic = bureaucratic b. Differentiation = integration c. Formalized = organic d. Mutual adjustment = direct supervision e. Centralization = complexity 231. Organic structures tend to ________ than mechanistic structures. a. be taller b. exhibit more centralization c. have wider spans of control d. be more formalized e. be more inflexible 232. Which term tends to describe mechanistic structures? a. Formalized b. Wide spans of control c. Flat d. Decentralized e. Flexible 233. The classical organizational theorists tended to favour ________ organizational structures. a. mechanistic b. organic c. flat d. hybrid e. decentralized 234. The human relations organizational theorists tended to favour ________ organizational structures. a. formalized b. bureaucratic c. mechanistic d. organic e. centralized
Chapter 14 235. Rules, regulations, and procedures denote an organization that is very a. complex. b. formal. c. organic. d. flat. e. small. 236. A small span of control means that a manager a. has few employees. b. has little power. c. works in a flat organization. d. works for a small company. e. works near the bottom of the hierarchy. 237. As organizations get bigger, a. functional departmentation is preferable to product departmentation. b. they become less formalized. c. they become flatter. d. they tend to centralize. e. they tend to decentralize. 238. The extent to which an organization divides labour vertically, horizontally, and geographically is known as a. formalization. b. centralization. c. differentiation. d. complexity. e. tallness and flatness. 239. Functional structures tend to be rather a. tall. b. flat. c. organic. d. mechanistic. e. ineffective. 240. Which of the following often dictates multiple structures? a. Organization size b. Innovation c. Differentiation d. Complexity e. Management 241. What structural characteristics have been associated with instances of fraud and other unethical behaviour? a. Small spans and decentralization b. Small spans and tall structures c. Large spans and tall structures d. Large spans and flat structures e. Small spans and flat structures
Chapter 14 242. What structural characteristics have been found to reduce the impact of ethical leadership on subordinates? a. Small spans b. Tall structures c. Large spans d. Flat structures e. Decentralization 243. What structural characteristics may be responsible for the general failure of Western "internet firms" to prove competitive in China? a. Formalization b. Tall structures c. Complexity d. Centralization e. Decentralization 244. The larger the span of control, the more potential there is for coordination by direct supervision. a. True b. False 245. Functional structures tend to be organically structured. a. True b. False 246. Flatter structures push decision-making powers downward in the organization. a. True b. False 247. Organic structures tend to have fewer levels of authority than mechanistic structures. a. True b. False 248. A decentralized organization is defined as one that has operations at two or more physical locations. a. True b. False 249. Alice has very few employees. This means she has a small span of control. a. True b. False 250. Highly formalized organizations have a lot of rules, regulations, and procedures. a. True b. False 251. Holding organizational size constant, taller organizations have larger spans of control. a. True b. False 252. Rules, regulations, and procedures are clear examples of the organizational structure characteristic called complexity. a. True b. False
Chapter 14 253. The classical organizational theorists tended to favour organic structures. a. True b. False 254. People who supervise extremely routine work usually have small spans of control. a. True b. False 255. The extent of vertical division of labour affects how flat an organization is. a. True b. False 256. Larger organizations tend to be more decentralized than smaller organizations. a. True b. False 257. Formalization is inversely related to organizational size. a. True b. False 258. For most organizations there is usually "one best way" to organize. a. True b. False 259. Innovation is one factor that often dictates multiple structures. a. True b. False 260. Product departments tend to be rather mechanistic. a. True b. False 261. In general, bigger organizations are less centralized than smaller organizations. a. True b. False 262. Large organizations tend to be more formal than small organizations. a. True b. False 263. Organizations with product departmentation should exhibit more complexity and more decentralization than those with functional departmentation. a. True b. False 264. Some observers have attributed instances of fraud and other unethical behaviour to the lack of oversight that can result from large spans and flat structures. a. True b. False
Chapter 14 265. Some observers have attributed instances of fraud and other unethical behaviour to the lack of oversight that can result from large spans and tall structures. a. True b. False 266. Research shows that large spans tend to reduce the impact of ethical leadership on subordinates. a. True b. False 267. Research shows that small spans tend to reduce the impact of ethical leadership on subordinates. a. True b. False 268. Excessive centralization may be responsible for the general failure of Western "internet firms" to prove competitive in China. a. True b. False 269. Which of the following is an example of vertical integration? a. A diamond mine starts to market diamond rings. b. A hotel chain buys a diamond mine. c. A hotel chain adds a level to its organizational structure. d. A diamond mine improves its labour/management relations. e. A hotel chain restructures so that its regional managers now report to the director of operations. 270. In the text, organizational structure, degree of vertical integration, and strategic alliances were examples of a. strategic response. b. strategy formulation. c. the objective organizational environment. d. the perceived organizational environment. e. organizational effectiveness. 271. What strategic reason might prompt an organization in one industry to acquire a firm in a completely different industry? a. To increase environmental uncertainty b. To reduce resource dependence c. To obtain a flatter structure d. To reduce differentiation e. To reduce competition 272. Which of the following is an example of vertical integration? a. A newsprint manufacturer owns a forestry company. b. Zeke is on the boards of directors of an oil exploration company and a gasoline retailer. c. A steel company removes two levels from its organizational hierarchy. d. An automobile company introduces computer-aided design. e. Two banks agree to merge. 273. Which of the following would NOT be classed as a strategic alliance? a. Company A buys company B. b. Company A enters into a research consortium with company B. c. Company A enters into a close arrangement with its unique supplier, company B. d. Company A engages in a joint venture with company B. e. Company A enters into a close arrangement with the union representing its workers.
Chapter 14 274. By definition, a strategic alliance would NOT occur between a. two competing organizations. b. a company and one of its suppliers. c. two departments in the same company. d. a company and a union. e. three companies who combine efforts to support common research goals. 275. A jewelry company buys a gold mine. This is an example of a. a joint venture. b. a strategic alliance. c. a merger. d. vertical integration. e. establishing legitimacy. 276. Which of the following is an example of a strategic alliance? a. Bloggs Corporation and Sigma Limited join an R&D consortium. b. Bloggs Corporation acquires Sigma Limited. c. Bloggs Corporation merges with Sigma Limited. d. Bloggs Corporation vertically integrates. e. Bloggs Corporation and Sigma Limited have interlocking directorates. 277. Copying another firm's management practices is an example of which strategic response? a. Vertical integration b. Establishment of legitimacy c. Strategic alliance d. Merger e. Acquisition 278. After graduating from university, Jael is planning to start her own business. She wants to have her own chain of coffee bars. But that's not all. She plans to import, roast, and package her own brand of coffee. What is this a good example of? a. Open systems b. Resource dependence c. Strategy d. Vertical integration e. Establishing legitimacy 279. A network organization is a good example of a. a strategic alliance. b. vertical integration. c. a merger. d. an acquisition. e. establishing legitimacy. 280. What strategic response helped WestJet get off the ground in its formative year? a. Joint venture b. Mergers and acquisitions c. Establishing legitimacy d. Vertical integration e. Organizational structure
Chapter 14 281. What is the most common way of achieving legitimacy? a. Imitate management practices that other firms have institutionalized b. Do good deeds in the community c. Associate with higher status individuals or organizations d. Make very visible responses to social trends and legal legislation e. Engage in corporate philanthropy and various charity activities 282. What is a joint venture an example of? a. Vertical integration b. Merger c. Acquisition d. Strategic alliance e. Establishing legitimacy 283. What is a joint venture? a. Two or more organizations decide to become one organization. b. Two or more organizations form an alliance in the creation of a new organizational entity. c. Two or more organizations have members who serve on each other's board of directors. d. One organization takes control of the sources of another organization's supply and distribution. e. Two or more organizations form an alliance to compete against other organizations. 284. Vertical integration refers to good communication between the levels of an organizational hierarchy. a. True b. False 285. Mergers and acquisitions are examples of strategy implementation. a. True b. False 286. A merger between two organizations is a good example of a strategic alliance. a. True b. False 287. The acquisition of one firm by another could be an example of vertical integration but not an example of a strategic alliance. a. True b. False 288. A paper manufacturer owns a forestry company. This is an example of vertical integration. a. True b. False 289. The most common way of achieving legitimacy is by associating with higher status individuals or organizations. a. True b. False 290. The most common way of achieving legitimacy is to be seen as doing good deeds in the community. a. True b. False
Chapter 14 291.
__________ are various kinds of actively cooperative relationships between legally separate organizations.
292. Taking formal control of sources of supply and distribution to strategically manage the environment is called __________ .
293. The development of an association with a higher status organization is a good way for an organization to develop __________ .
294. Organizations often use vertical integration to reduce __________ dependence.
295. The most common way of achieving legitimacy is to imitate management practices that other firms have __________ .
296. In a __________ two or more organizations form an alliance in the creation of a new organizational entity.
297. Describe four strategic responses other than organizational structure that are designed to reduce environmental uncertainty or resource dependence.
298. A flat decentralized structure made up of self-managing teams called circles in which employees have multiple roles and responsibilities is called a modular organization. a. True b. False 299. An alliance of independent companies share skills, costs, and access to one another's markets in what type of organization? a. Network organization b. Virtual organization c. Modular organization d. Holacratic organization e. Organic organization 300. An organization that performs a few core functions and outsources non-core activities to specialists and suppliers is called a(n) a. network organization. b. virtual organization. c. modular organization. d. holacratic organization. e. ambidextrous organization.
Chapter 14 301. Outsourcing is a key characteristic of what type of organization? a. Organic organization b. Network organization c. Virtual organization d. Holacratic organization e. Modular organization 302. When a large and established firm gets into a new line of business, either on its own or by acquiring a smaller and newer innovative firm, what does the new innovative unit require? a. Coordination b. Integration c. Differentiation d. Formalization e. Decentralization 303. When a large and established firm gets into a new line of business, either on its own or by acquiring a smaller and newer innovative firm, what kind of structure does the new innovative unit require compared to that of the established parent? a. More mechanistic b. More organic c. More matrix d. More virtual e. More modular 304. As innovative units mature, they often tend to become more a. organic. b. hybrid. c. holacratic. d. mechanistic. e. virtual. 305. A(n) ________ organization is one that can simultaneously exploit current competencies and explore emerging opportunities. a. network b. virtual c. ambidextrous d. modular e. holacratic 306. The ideal ambidextrous organization is partly ________ in form. a. organic b. mechanistic c. unethical d. hidden e. hierarchical
Chapter 14 307. Jennifer currently is a sales manager for the regional operation of a large, diversified, national corporation. She also participates in the strategic planning as liaison between the region and head office. Many of the discussions she has had with the head office executives had to do with finding a balance between fully leveraging current competencies and opportunities today, and developing opportunities on the horizon for which the organization does not currently have the capability. Jennifer seems to be working for a(n) ________ organization. a. virtual b. ambidextrous c. network d. modular e. holacratic 308. In an ambidextrous organization, there is an essential tension between getting the most out of existing technologies and the current products or services being offered, and, at the same time, searching for new opportunities and innovating. This tension is sometimes referred to as ________ versus ________. a. measuring; weighing b. executing; sifting c. exploiting; dreaming d. exploiting; exploring e. exploring; measuring 309. The text states that there is general agreement among experts that exploration and its quest for innovation require a more ________ structure. a. mechanistic b. organic c. formal d. closed e. open 310. The text states that there is general agreement among experts that exploitation and its focus on extracting value from existing competencies requires a more ________ structure. a. open b. organic c. closed d. mechanistic e. formal 311. Ambidexterity provides a dynamic capability for change and has been associated with all of the following EXCEPT a. superior innovation. b. better financial performance. c. longer survival. d. expanded bureaucracy. e. None of the above 312. Functional structures tend to be rather mechanistic. a. True b. False 313. Structure can and should change over time. a. True b. False
Chapter 14 314. Most organizations have a single structure. a. True b. False 315. Networks allow organizations to specialize in what they do best. a. True b. False 316. A disadvantage of the modular organization is the loss of strategic control. a. True b. False 317. A flat, decentralized structure made up of self-managing teams called circles in which employees have multiple roles and responsibilities is called a holacracy. a. True b. False 318. Zappos is one of the largest and best-known organizations that has adopted a holacracy organizational structure. a. True b. False 319. Visa is one of the largest and best-known organizations that has adopted a holacracy organizational structure. a. True b. False 320. USA Today is an example of an organization that made a successful transition to an ambidextrous organization. a. True b. False 321. USA Today is an example of an organization that made a successful transition to a virtual organization. a. True b. False 322. Digital platforms underpin many familiar virtual organizations. a. True b. False 323. In what type of organization are various functions coordinated as much by market mechanisms as by managers and formal lines of authority? a. Network organization b. Virtual organization c. Modular organization d. Holacratic organization e. Organic organization 324. Any merger of more and less entrepreneurial firms raises the need to consider a. a network organization. b. a virtual organization. c. a modular organization. d. an ambidextrous organization. e. a holacratic organization.
Chapter 14 325. Researchers have been learning that the most successful structure for achieving ambidexterity was one in which an innovative unit maintained its own ________, structure, and processes and at the same time was ________ with the organization by senior management. a. culture; integrated b. brand identity; integrated c. separate distribution; integrated d. financing; in conflict e. culture; differentiated 326. The Smelly Cheese Company has decided to get into a new line of business—smelly cheese sticks for children. Compared to the rest of the company, what kind of structure is best for this new unit? a. Mechanistic b. Organic c. Holacratic d. Virtual e. Modular 327. The video game industry is a good example of a. modular organizations. b. holacratic organizations. c. matrix organizations. d. ambidextrous organizations. e. network organizations. 328. The word "ambidextrous" means a. equally capable of using any organization structure. b. equally capable of using whatever it takes to get a job done. c. equally capable of using both hands and feet. d. equally capable of using both feet. e. equally capable of using both hands. 329. An important distinction associated with the ambidextrous organization is a. exporting versus exploring. b. exploiting versus exploring. c. exporting versus importing. d. exporting versus exploiting. e. exhaling versus inhaling. 330. What is helpful for introducing innovations? a. Autonomy b. Differentiation c. Centralization d. Autonomy and differentiation e. Differentiation and centralization 331. IKEA, the biggest furniture retailer in the world is a good example of what type of organizational structure? a. Ambidextrous b. Holacracy c. Network d. Virtual e. Modular
Chapter 14 332. Which of the following is most accurate about modular organizations? a. They share strategic control with other organizations. b. They give up strategic control to other organizations. c. They maintain complete strategic control. d. They acquire complete strategic control of other organizations. e. They give up operational control and share strategic control with other organizations. 333. What contemporary organizational structure outsources non-core activities? a. Ambidextrous b. Holacracy c. Network d. Virtual e. Modular 334. What type of contemporary organizational structure is Dell Computer and Nike a good example of? a. Ambidextrous b. Holacracy c. Network d. Virtual e. Modular 335. What contemporary organizational structure is dependent on many outsiders? a. Ambidextrous b. Holacracy c. Network d. Virtual e. Modular 336. In what industries has the modular organization been most popular? a. Furniture and apparel b. Furniture and electronics c. Automotive and electronics d. Apparel and electronics e. Apparel and automotive 337. What organizational structure is made up of self-managing teams called circles in which employees have multiple roles and responsibilities? a. Ambidextrous b. Holacracy c. Network d. Virtual e. Modular 338. Which of the following is a key feature of a holacracy? a. Outsourcing non-core activities b. Exploiting versus exploring c. Circles d. Networks e. Sharing
Chapter 14 339. Which of the following is one of the largest and best-known organizations that has adopted a holacracy organizational structure? a. USA Today b. Zappos c. BMW d. Nike e. Dell Computer 340. Which of the following is an example of an organization that made a successful transition to an ambidextrous organization? a. USA Today b. Zappos c. BMW d. Nike e. Dell Computer 341. Digital platforms underpin many familiar a. ambidextrous organizations. b. holacracy organizations. c. virtual organizations. d. modular organizations. e. network organizations. 342. In a modular organization, various functions are coordinated as much by market mechanisms as by managers and formal lines of authority. a. True b. False 343. In a virtual organization, an alliance of independent companies share skills, costs, and access to one another's markets. a. True b. False 344. When a large and established firm gets into a new line of business, the new innovative unit requires a more mechanistic structure. a. True b. False 345. When a large and established firm gets into a new line of business, the innovative unit often requires a more __________ structure than the established parent.
346. Innovations have life cycles and organizational __________ have to correspond to these cycles.
347. The text states that there is general agreement among experts that exploration and its quest for innovation require a more __________ structure.
348. Experts have discovered that exploitation and its focus on extracting value from existing competencies requires a more __________ structure.
Chapter 14 349. Mobolu is a new Chief Operating Officer at Rolling Corporation, a 30-year-old manufacturer of aluminum truck wheels and axles. One of her assignments is to lead a strategy team to figure out how to structure the company in order to most effectively support the growth of a new, experimental division whose mandate is to develop innovative friction reduction systems for aircraft landing gear. She wants to be sure that Rolling Corp. continues to excel in the trucking industry and, at the same time, lets the new division flourish. She will most likely need to create a(n) __________ organization.
350. The video game industry is a good example of __________ organizations.
351. The __________ organization maintains complete strategic control.
352. The ideal ambidextrous organization is partly __________ in form.
353. An important distinction associated with the ambidextrous organization is sometimes described as exploiting versus __________ .
354. An important distinction associated with the __________ organization is sometimes described as exploiting versus exploring.
355.
__________ and differentiation are helpful for introducing innovations, but more integration leads to efficiency as the innovation becomes familiar.
356. Diffusion of information and __________ are two important outcomes of network forms.
357. A flat, decentralized structure made up of self-managing teams called circles in which employees have multiple roles and responsibilities is called a(n) __________ .
358. Each partner in a(n) __________ organization contributes only in its area of core competencies.
359. The __________ organization maintains complete strategic control.
360. Zappos is one of the largest and best-known organizations that have adopted a __________ organizational structure.
361. Digital platforms underpin many __________ organizations.
Chapter 14 362. Roberto is the Chief Executive Officer at Strong Corporation, a 45-year-old engineering firm with long running success in the design and operation of user-pay highway and road systems. In the past three years the senior management team has concluded that Strong Corp. needs to develop completely new business opportunities, but the current structure of the company is too hierarchical and rigid to allow for a new division to flourish under the same roof. The consensus is that the organization needs to create a whole new division with the mandate to be creative and innovative. The new entity needs to be independent of Strong Corp. and, yet, remain somewhat integrated at the most senior levels to ensure accountability. If you were advising Roberto on what kind of structure would be best for Strong Corp., what would you recommend? Why would you recommend it?
363. With an ambidextrous organization, there is a tension between succeeding at what the organization is good at now and the opportunities immediately available and the development of new directions. This tension is sometimes referred to as exploiting versus exploring. Please explain the meaning of these two words and explain how an organization's ambidextrous structure can balance the two.
364. Describe the main characteristics of virtual organizations and modular organizations. How do they differ from each other?
365. What is a modular organization and what are the disadvantages of modular organizations?
366. Discuss five common symptoms of structural problems in organizations.
367. What is the meaning of vertical integration and why would an organization be interested in it as a strategic response? Provide some examples to support your answer.
368. Fred has started a new company but is having a difficult time getting support and backing from important stakeholders in the environment. He realizes that establishing legitimacy has been a problem and has hired you to explain to him what it involves and the different ways that it can be achieved. What will you tell him?
369. What is a merger and why would an organization want to be involved in a merger?
370. Each partner in a modular organization contributes only to its area of core competencies. a. True b. False 371. Contemporary publishers are good examples of a virtual organization. a. True b. False 372. A virtual organization maintains complete strategic control. a. True b. False
Chapter 14 373. Modular organizations are dependent on many outsiders. a. True b. False 374. Modular organizations are made up of self-managing and cross-functional teams. a. True b. False 375. A modular organization is made up of layers of teams. a. True b. False 376. Modular organizations remove internal and external barriers. a. True b. False 377. When a large and established firm gets into a new line of business, the new innovative unit often requires formalization. a. True b. False 378. As innovative units mature, they often tend to become more organic. a. True b. False
Chapter 14
Test Name: 1.
a.interact with their environments.
2.
b.Social/political component
3.
c.Different parts of an organization will often be concerned with different components of its environment.
4.
b.exist within an organization.
5.
d.are in a constant state of unpredictable and irregular change.
6.
a.Complex and dynamic
7.
e.They are fairly independent concepts.
8.
c.As uncertainty increases, cause-and-effect relationships become less clear.
9.
b.organizational change.
10.
a.True
11.
b.False
12.
b.False
13.
b.False
14.
a.True
15.
b.False
16.
b.False
17.
a.True
18.
b.False
19.
uncertain
20.
Open
21.
interest groups
22.
constraints
23.
unpredictable
24.
complexity
25.
change
26.
uncertainty
Chapter 14 27.
The main components of an organization's external environment include the general economy, customers, suppliers, competitors, social/political factors, and technology. Essentially, all of these components, except competitors, may contain interest groups relevant to your college or university. However, competitors can certainly influence your institution's interest groups (e.g., competing universities often promote their programs to try to influence students' educational choices).
28.
The two main factors are complexity (simple vs. complex) and rate of change (static vs. dynamic). As illustrated in the text in Exhibit 14.3, these factors can be combined to form four levels of perceived uncertainty: 1) low uncertainty (simple, static), for example, a funeral business; 2) moderately low uncertainty (complex, static), for example, the insurance industry; 3) moderately high uncertainty (dynamic, simple), for example, the fashion apparel industry; and 4) high uncertainty (complex, dynamic), for example, the computer software industry. This question is particularly challenging since students will have to think of their own industry examples for each level of uncertainty.
29.
Open systems take inputs from the external environment, transform some of them, and send them back into the environment as outputs. An example is an insurance company. It imports actuarial experts, information about accidents and mortality, and capital in the form of insurance premiums. Through the application of financial knowledge, it transforms the capital into insurance coverage and investments in areas such as real estate. The value of the open systems concept is that it sensitizes us to the need for organizations to cope with the demands of the environment on both the input side and the output side.
30.
The external environment refers to events and conditions surrounding an organization that influence its activities. An example of the influence of the external environment on organizations is how automotive companies have had to deal with fast-evolving consumer tastes, the need to cope with product mix, and environmental threats and opportunities posed by rapidly improving electric car technology, new competitors, the thrust for self-driving vehicles, and the rise of ride-hailing and car-sharing systems. New competitors, emerging social trends, and rapidly changing technology all contribute to increased uncertainty. Another example in the text can be found in the You Be the Manager feature on the bankruptcy of Forever 21 which describes how the company did not respond to changes in consumer tastes, concerns about the environmental effects of fast fashion, and increasing competition.
31.
As uncertainty increases, cause-and-effect relationships become less clear. Environmental uncertainty tends to make priorities harder to agree on and often stimulates a fair degree of political jockeying within the organization, and more information must be processed by the organization to make adequate decisions.
32.
c.the perceived environment.
33.
a.Between the objective environment and the perceived environment
34.
a.Objective environment
35.
c.strategy.
36.
b.indirect.
37.
a.Change in organizational structure
38.
a.True
39.
b.False
40.
a.True
41.
a.True
Chapter 14 42.
strategy
43.
Strategy
44.
environment
45.
environment
46.
strategy
47.
structure
48.
Strategy
49.
formulation
50.
It begins with the objective organizational environment which is portrayed in terms of uncertainty and available resources. This, however, is filtered through the perceptual system of managers and other organizational members. Thus, it is the perceived environment that comprises the basis for strategy formulation. Strategy formulation involves determining the mission, goals, and objectives of the organization. The organization must then determine its orientation to the perceived environment. The chosen strategy must correspond to the constraints and opportunities of the environment. The strategy must then be implemented by selecting appropriate managers for the task and employing appropriate techniques. As shown in Exhibit 14.4 of the text, the sequence of events is as follows: objective organizational environment, perceived organizational environment, strategy formulation, strategy implementation, and organizational effectiveness.
51.
c.president, manager, and worker.
52.
a.horizontal division of labour.
53.
a.is reduced
54.
a.Marketing managers and engineering managers often don't see eye-to-eye.
55.
b.sales and production don't see eye-to-eye.
56.
d.Divide and coordinate labour
57.
d.coordination among these tasks.
58.
b.A vertical dimension and a horizontal dimension
59.
d.vertical division of labour.
60.
e.harder to achieve.
61.
c.autonomously.
62.
a.True
63.
b.False
64.
b.False
65.
differentiation
Chapter 14 66.
organizational structure
67.
tasks/tasks
68.
d.leads to more coordination problems between functions
69.
b.different skills and responsibilities of individuals.
70.
d.functional
71.
a.professional development might suffer.
72.
a.Potential for conflict between the product manager and the functional manager
73.
b.Organizations with product departmentation are more centralized than those with functional departmentation.
74.
d.functional
75.
a.Efficiency
76.
d.small to medium-sized firms.
77.
b.Matrix departmentation
78.
b.matrix departmentation.
79.
b.Matrix departmentation
80.
b.It changed from a geographic focus to a customer focus.
81.
a.True
82.
b.False
83.
b.False
84.
a.True
85.
b.False
86.
b.False
87.
a.True
88.
a.True
89.
b.False
90.
b.False
91.
a.True
92.
a.True
Chapter 14 93.
b.False
94.
a.True
95.
b.False
96.
b.False
97.
a.True
98.
a.True
99.
b.False
100. b.False 101. b.False 102. a.True 103. b.False 104. a.True 105. b.False 106. a.True 107. a.True 108. a.True 109. a.True 110. a.True 111. b.False 112. a.True 113. a.True 114. a.True 115. a.True 116. a.True 117. b.False 118. b.False 119. a.True 120. a.True
Chapter 14 121. a.True 122. a.True 123. b.False 124. b.False 125. b.False 126. b.False 127. differentiation 128. a.True 129. b.False 130. functional 131. product 132. hybrid 133. functional 134. efficiency 135. matrix 136. geographic/customer 137. Hybrid 138. Matrix 139. coordination 140. coordinated 141. divided 142. autonomously 143. Differentiation is the tendency for managers in separated departments to differ in terms of goals, time spans, and interpersonal styles. Integration is the process of attaining coordination across differentiated departments. Therefore, differentiation and integration are positively correlated (i.e., the more differentiation between departments, the more need for integration). 144. The horizontal division of labour groups the basic tasks that must be performed into jobs and then into departments so that the organization can achieve its goals. Required workflow is the main basis for this division. Two key themes that underlie the horizontal division of labour are job design and differentiation. 145. b.coordination.
Chapter 14 146. d.Mutual adjustment 147. a.mutual adjustment. 148. d.the most simple and the most complicated 149. a.standardization of work processes 150. c.Integrators 151. a.standardization of skills. 152. b.An integrator 153. b.Standardization of work processes 154. a.Direct supervision 155. c.Standardization of outputs 156. a.integration. 157. b.Liaison roles, task forces and teams, integrators 158. d.liaison role. 159. a.integrators. 160. d.Algorithmic control 161. d.Algorithmic control 162. d.Algorithmic control 163. d.Algorithmic control 164. b.When they identify strongly with the overall organization and its goals rather than with specific units. 165. b.False 166. b.False 167. b.False 168. integration 169. mutual adjustment 170. task force 171. integrator 172. Mutual 173. integration
Chapter 14 174. outputs 175. liaison 176. Algorithmic control 177. Algorithmic control 178. routine 179. Algorithmic control, direct supervision, standardization of work processes, standardization of outputs, standardization of skills, and mutual adjustment. Algorithmic control and direct supervision permit little discretion. Standardization of processes and outputs permits successively more discretion. Finally, standardization of skills and mutual adjustment put even more control into the hands of those who are actually doing the work. 180. b.False 181. centralization 182. span of control 183. formalized 184. formalized 185. mechanistic 186. mechanistic 187. flatter 188. supervision 189. classical 190. mechanistic 191. Innovation 192. vertical 193. formalization 194. centralization 195. Complexity 196. geographically 197. functional 198. complexity 199. flat
Chapter 14 200. spans 201. ethical 202. Holding size constant, taller structures will have a smaller average span of control. Flatter structures will have a larger average span of control. The span of control is most likely to be larger at the lower levels of management (e.g., supervisor level), where the tasks performed by subordinates are generally more routine and the requirement for direct supervision is often reduced through standardization of work processes, outputs, or skills. 203. Mechanistic structures are characterized by tallness, narrow spans of control, high specialization, centralization, and formalization. Organic structures tend to favour wider spans of control and are characterized by flatness or few authority levels, less specialization, less formalization, and decentralization. Generally, mechanistic structures are favoured when an organization's environment is more stable and its technology is more routine. Organic structures tend to work better when the environment is uncertain, the technology is less routine, and innovation is important. 204. In general, large organizations are more complex than small organizations. Thus, large organizations will be taller, have a large number of job titles and departments, and might be spread around the world (complexity increases horizontal, vertical, and geographic division of labour). Other effects of size on structure are as follows: larger organizations are less centralized than smaller organizations; and large organizations tend to be more formal than small organizations. As a result of their greater complexity, large organizations have an increased need for coordination and control which is why they tend to have less centralization and more formalization. 205. b.adequate time is necessary for informal mutual adjustment. 206. c.a large number of employees. 207. c.has smaller spans of control 208. b.the number of employees supervised by a manager. 209. c.decision-making power is localized in a particular part of the organization. 210. e.There should be a very low degree of specialization of labour. 211. c.high-tech 212. b.Formalization 213. d.highly formalized. 214. a.organic. 215. The four basic forms are functional, product, geographic, and customer. The combinations include a matrix structure (usually functional and product), and a hybrid structure (any combination of the basic four). 216. 1) Functional departmentation. 2) Advantages include efficiency, enhanced communication within departments, clear career progressions and evaluation methods. Disadvantages include increased potential for poor coordination between departments, and conflicts arising from differences in goals. 3) Three methods to improve coordination include liaison roles, task forces and teams, and integrators.
Chapter 14 217. The vertical division of labour is concerned primarily with apportioning authority for planning and decision making—who gets to tell whom what to do. Two key themes that underlie the vertical division of labour are autonomy and control and communication. 218. b.False 219. a.True 220. a.True 221. b.False 222. a.True 223. Integration is the process of attaining coordination across differentiated departments. In ascending order of elaboration, three methods of achieving integration are the use of liaison roles, task forces, and full-time integrators. 224. c.centralized 225. a.True 226. b.False 227. c.bureaucratic. 228. c.flat 229. b.taller; smaller 230. a.Mechanistic = bureaucratic 231. c.have wider spans of control 232. a.Formalized 233. a.mechanistic 234. d.organic 235. b.formal. 236. a.has few employees. 237. e.they tend to decentralize. 238. d.complexity. 239. d.mechanistic. 240. b.Innovation 241. d.Large spans and flat structures 242. c.Large spans
Chapter 14 243. d.Centralization 244. b.False 245. b.False 246. a.True 247. a.True 248. b.False 249. a.True 250. a.True 251. b.False 252. b.False 253. b.False 254. b.False 255. a.True 256. a.True 257. b.False 258. b.False 259. a.True 260. b.False 261. a.True 262. a.True 263. a.True 264. a.True 265. b.False 266. a.True 267. b.False 268. a.True 269. a.A diamond mine starts to market diamond rings. 270. a.strategic response.
Chapter 14 271. b.To reduce resource dependence 272. a.A newsprint manufacturer owns a forestry company. 273. a.Company A buys company B. 274. c.two departments in the same company. 275. d.vertical integration. 276. a.Bloggs Corporation and Sigma Limited join an R&D consortium. 277. b.Establishment of legitimacy 278. d.Vertical integration 279. a.a strategic alliance. 280. c.Establishing legitimacy 281. a.Imitate management practices that other firms have institutionalized 282. d.Strategic alliance 283. b.Two or more organizations form an alliance in the creation of a new organizational entity. 284. b.False 285. a.True 286. b.False 287. a.True 288. a.True 289. b.False 290. b.False 291. Strategic alliances 292. vertical integration 293. legitimacy 294. resource 295. institutionalized 296. joint venture 297. The four types of strategic responses other than organizational structure described in the chapter include vertical integration, mergers and acquisitions, strategic alliances (including joint ventures), and establishing legitimacy.
Chapter 14 298. b.False 299. b.Virtual organization 300. c.modular organization. 301. e.Modular organization 302. c.Differentiation 303. b.More organic 304. d.mechanistic. 305. c.ambidextrous 306. a.organic 307. b.ambidextrous 308. d.exploiting; exploring 309. b.organic 310. d.mechanistic 311. d.expanded bureaucracy. 312. a.True 313. a.True 314. b.False 315. a.True 316. b.False 317. a.True 318. a.True 319. b.False 320. a.True 321. b.False 322. a.True 323. a.Network organization 324. d.an ambidextrous organization. 325. a.culture; integrated
Chapter 14 326. b.Organic 327. e.network organizations. 328. e.equally capable of using both hands. 329. b.exploiting versus exploring. 330. d.Autonomy and differentiation 331. e.Modular 332. c.They maintain complete strategic control. 333. e.Modular 334. e.Modular 335. e.Modular 336. d.Apparel and electronics 337. b.Holacracy 338. c.Circles 339. b.Zappos 340. a.USA Today 341. c.virtual organizations. 342. b.False 343. a.True 344. b.False 345. organic 346. structures 347. organic 348. mechanistic 349. ambidextrous 350. network 351. modular 352. organic 353. exploring
Chapter 14 354. ambidextrous 355. Autonomy 356. innovation 357. holacracy 358. virtual 359. modular 360. holacracy 361. virtual 362. I would recommend that Strong Corp. begins to move toward an ambidextrous organization. This is one in which a company can simultaneously exploit current competencies while at the same time explore emerging opportunities. It is likely they will need to create a separate legal entity, even in a separate location geographically to be sure the culture can remain as independent as possible. The ambidexterity will start to become important as the new entity is created, and Strong Corp. will have a tendency to want to operate it in the same way as the main engineering business. This is somewhat akin to Saturn Automobiles when GM originally created it. By having some independence coupled with integration at the most senior management level, the combination of organic and mechanistic organizations should be the right solution for Strong Corp. 363. The tension stems from the fact that both require organizational resources, most of which are being generated by exploitation. Exploiting is also a more certain activity but with diminishing returns, while exploring is a highly uncertain activity but has the potential to unlock great new opportunities for the organization. The ambidextrous organization allows for both a mechanistic structure (getting the most out of existing technology and the firm's current competencies) and an organic structure (exploring, searching for new opportunities, and innovating). The synergy required between the two often requires integration at a senior level as well as other mechanisms like cross-functional teams, separate work groups, as long as the integration does not turn into assimilation. 364. Virtual organizations consist of a network of continually evolving independent organizations that share skills, costs, and access to one another's markets. Modular organizations perform a few core functions and outsource non-core activities to specialists and suppliers. A major distinction between virtual and modular organizations is that virtual organizations give up part of their control and experience higher interdependence between their network members, while modular organizations retain complete strategic control. Virtual and modular organizations represent structures which reduce or modify external boundaries. 365. A modular organization is a network organization that performs a few core functions and outsources other activities to specialists and suppliers. Although they have many advantages, they also have some disadvantages. For example, they work best when they focus on the right specialty and have good suppliers. Because they are dependent on so many outsiders, it is critical that they find suppliers who are reliable and loyal and can be trusted with trade secrets. They must also be careful not to outsource critical technologies which could diminish future competitive advantages. Another disadvantage is decreased operational control due to dependence on outsiders. 366. The chapter describes the following seven symptoms of structural problems: bad job design, the right hand does not know what the left is doing, persistent conflict between departments, structure changed to avoid dealing with interpersonal conflict, slow response times, decisions made with incomplete information, and a proliferation of committees.
Chapter 14 367. Vertical integration is the strategy of formally taking control of sources of supply and distribution. It is a basic way to buffer the organization against uncertainty over resource control. Major oil companies, for instance, are highly vertically integrated, handling their own exploration, drilling, transport, refining, retail sales, and credit. Starbucks imports, roasts, and packages its own coffee and, in order to maintain high quality, refuses to franchise its cafés. 368. Establishing legitimacy involves taking actions that conform to prevailing norms and expectations. The point is to not only be strategically correct but to have the appearance of being strategically correct. One way to achieve legitimacy is by associating with higher status individuals or organizations. Another way is to be seen as doing good deeds in the community. A third way is to make very visible responses to social trends and legal legislation. The most common way of achieving legitimacy is to imitate management practices that other firms have institutionalized. 369. A merger involves the joining of two organizations. There are several reasons for an organization to be involved in a merger. Some mergers are stimulated by economies of scale. For example, a motel chain with 100 motels might have the same advertising costs as one with 50 motels. Other mergers are pursued for vertical integration. For instance, a paper manufacturer might merge with a timber company. When mergers occur within the same industry, such as the merger between Tim Hortons and Burger King, the purpose is partly to reduce uncertainty prompted by competition. When they occur across different industries (a diversification strategy), the goal is often to reduce resource dependence on a particular segment of the environment. A portfolio is created so that if resources become threatened in one part of the environment, the organization can still prosper. 370. b.False 371. a.True 372. b.False 373. a.True 374. b.False 375. b.False 376. b.False 377. b.False 378. b.False
Chapter 15 1.
Organizations in a(n) ________ environment must generally exhibit more change to be effective than those operating in a more ________ environment. a. dynamic; stable b. dynamic; hostile c. stable; dynamic d. stable; open e. open; hostile
2.
Unfreezing a. is an organizational development technique pioneered by the U.S. Navy. b. is the first step in the organizational change process. c. is the most effective organizational development technique. d. consistently prevents the diffusion of change efforts. e. is required to ensure that new attitudes or behaviours become an enduring part of the organization.
3.
Almost any organizational change effort must consider changes in ________ to be effective. a. people b. technology c. structure d. basic goals and strategies e. process
4.
Which statement about environmental change, organizational change, and organizational effectiveness is TRUE? a. Organizations that exhibit the most change are most effective, regardless of their environment. b. Organizations that exhibit the least change are most effective, regardless of their environment. c. Dynamic environments require a fairly high degree of organizational change if the organization is to be effective. d. Stable environments require a fairly high degree of organizational change if the organization is to be effective. e. All organizations should exhibit the same degree of change to be effective, regardless of environment.
5.
Recent research is showing that some organizations experience constant, unpredictable, non-linear change. These environments are called a. difficult. b. hyperturbulent. c. chaotic. d. unmanageable. e. all of the above.
6.
To achieve and maintain seamless change, hyperturbulent environments need to have the qualities of a ________ organization. a. divisional b. multi-national c. learning d. hierarchical e. mechanistic
Chapter 15 7.
What is the main reason reported for the failure of organizational change programs? a. The failure to use an experienced change agent b. The failure to conduct a proper diagnosis c. The failure to change the organization's culture d. The failure to change the organization's structure e. The failure to refreeze the change
8.
What effect does the perception of threat have on change? a. Motivator for change b. Extreme inertia c. Motivator for change and extreme inertia d. Resistance and extreme inertia e. Motivator for change and resistance
9.
The Stinky Cheese Company has begun to behave rigidly and exhibit extreme inertia. What has happened? a. Unfreezing b. Refreezing c. Resistance d. Perceived threat e. Conflict
10.
When is inertia most likely to occur? a. When there is a lack of resources b. When routines and processes are not modified c. When routines and processes are modified d. When there is a lack of resources and routines and processes are not modified e. When there is a lack of resources and routines and processes are modified
11.
When a university program was threatened by low enrollment, the faculty spent many hours revising the curriculum. Resources were invested but the revised curriculum looked like the old one. What happened? a. Resistance b. Poor diagnosis c. Failure to institutionalize the change d. Routines and processes were not modified e. Refreezing did not occur
12.
What can cause organizations to unfreeze, scan the environment, and be motivated to change? a. Perception of threat b. Perception of inertia c. Perception of resistance d. Perception of threat and inertia e. Perception of threat and resistance
13.
In order for change to occur, people must have the a. capability and the opportunity and the need to change. b. knowledge and the opportunity and the motivation to change. c. capability and the opportunity and the support to change. d. capability and the opportunity and the motivation to change. e. capability and the motivation and the support to change.
Chapter 15 14.
Some degree of capability, opportunity, and ________ must be present for successful change. a. motivation b. support c. autonomy d. feedback e. leadership
15.
Organizations sometimes invest resources in PR campaigns to trumpet change without a. revising routines and processes to actually institutionalize such change. b. revising routines and processes to actually execute such change. c. unfreezing to actually execute such change. d. conducting a diagnosis and revising routines and processes. e. unfreezing and revising routines and processes.
16.
What kind of change involves a more external than internal change? a. People b. Culture c. Technology d. Structure e. Branding
17.
For major organizational changes, what will contribute to unfreezing? a. A threat that the organization must change b. A threat to terminate employees if the organization does not change c. Government legislation that has a direct impact on the organization d. Extreme competition from other organizations e. A clear and compelling vision
18.
When will a vision be most effective? a. When it comes from the union b. When it appeals to a variety of organizational stakeholders c. When employees have developed it d. When top management supports it e. When it is consistent with the organization's culture
19.
The main reason for the failure of organizational change programs is the failure to change an organization's culture. a. True b. False
20.
The perception of threat can be a motivator for change or result in extreme inertia. a. True b. False
21.
One of the most important and difficult changes that an organization can make is to change its technology. a. True b. False
22.
Lewin's model of change does not apply to firms in hyperturbulent environments. a. True b. False
Chapter 15 23.
In order for change to occur, people must have the capability and the opportunity and the motivation to change. a. True b. False
24.
In order for change to occur, people must have the capability and the opportunity and the support to change. a. True b. False
25.
Top executives sometimes engage in dramatic symbolic acts to underline the need for change. a. True b. False
26.
Organizations sometimes invest resources in PR campaigns to trumpet change without revising routines and processes to actually execute such change. a. True b. False
27.
Organizations sometimes invest resources in PR campaigns to trumpet change without revising routines and processes to actually freeze such change. a. True b. False
28.
For major organizational changes, a clear and compelling vision will contribute to unfreezing. a. True b. False
29.
For major organizational changes, a clear and compelling story will contribute to unfreezing. a. True b. False
30.
A vision will be most effective when it appeals to a variety of organizational stakeholders. a. True b. False
31.
A vision will be most effective when it appeals to a variety of organizational members. a. True b. False
32.
Top executives sometimes engage in dramatic symbolic acts to underline the need for __________ .
33.
Organizations with hyperturbulent environments face special challenges which require them to constantly acquire, assimilate, and __________ information.
34.
The main reason reported for the failure of organizational change programs is the failure to change an organization's __________ .
Chapter 15 35.
Changing an organization's __________ is considered to be a fundamental aspect of organizational change.
36.
Sometimes when a threat is perceived, organizations use the threat as a __________ for change.
37.
Sometimes organizations seem paralyzed by threat and exhibit extreme __________ .
38.
Change almost always requires some investment of __________ .
39.
Change almost always requires some modification of __________ and processes.
40.
__________ are especially likely to stimulate unfreezing.
41.
One of the most important and difficult changes that an organization can make is to change its __________ .
42.
Crises are especially likely to stimulate __________ .
43.
In order for change to occur, people must have the capability and the opportunity and the __________ to change.
44.
In order for change to occur, people must have the capability and the __________ and the motivation to change.
45.
An organization might have strategic reasons to change its externally viewed identity or __________ .
46.
For major organizational changes, a clear and compelling __________ will contribute to unfreezing.
47.
For major organizational changes, a clear and compelling vision will contribute to __________ .
48.
A vision will be most effective when it appeals to a variety of organizational stakeholders so as to constitute a __________ vision.
49.
What are the three stages of change according to Lewin's model of the change process? Briefly explain what happens at each stage.
Chapter 15 50.
What is a hyperturbulent environment? What industries do we usually associate with this type of organizational environment? How do organizations with this type of environment manage information in order to be ready for rapid change on an ongoing basis?
51.
Discuss four specific factors that organizations can change. What factor is most important for change and why?
52.
Discuss the factors that organizations can change and mention two important points about the various areas in which organizations can introduce change.
53.
Discuss the effect of the perception of threat on change and the likelihood of inertia.
54.
The Stinky Cheese Company has determined that in order to remain competitive they need to make some changes to the organization's culture and become more innovative and entrepreneurial. However, they are concerned that such a change might be difficult for employees who might not want to change. What three factors should the company focus on if they want to achieve a successful change? Give an example of each factor.
55.
What are the primary methods of organizational learning? a. Knowledge finding and knowledge sharing b. Knowledge acquisition and knowledge innovation c. Knowledge creation and knowledge sharing d. Knowledge acquisition and knowledge development e. Knowledge acquisition and knowledge management
56.
What are the key dimensions of a learning organization? a. Vision/support; culture; learning systems/dynamics; knowledge acquisition b. Vision/support; knowledge acquisition; learning systems/dynamics; knowledge distribution c. Vision/support; knowledge acquisition; learning systems/dynamics; knowledge management/infrastructure d. Knowledge acquisition; knowledge distribution; knowledge transfer; knowledge management e. Vision/support; culture; learning systems/dynamics; knowledge management/infrastructure
57.
Which of the following statements is most accurate? a. Learning organizations are not more likely to have higher overall levels of profitability. b. Learning organizations are almost 100 percent more likely to have higher overall levels of profitability. c. Learning organizations are almost 50 percent more likely to have higher overall levels of profitability. d. Learning organizations are almost 10 percent more likely to have higher overall levels of profitability. e. Learning organizations are almost 90 percent more likely to have higher overall levels of profitability.
58.
Which of the following statements about organizational learning is most accurate? a. Failure is a more potent determinant of organizational learning than success. b. Success is a more potent determinant of organizational learning than failure. c. Neither failure nor success is a determinant of organizational learning. d. Failure and success are equally potent determinants of organizational learning. e. Failure is a potent deterrent of organizational learning.
Chapter 15 59.
Which of the following organizations failed to exhibit effective learning? a. Bausch + Lomb b. Samsung c. Sears d. Canadian Tire e. Petro-Canada
60.
What is organizational learning? a. The process through which an organization acquires, develops, retains, and transfers knowledge to its stakeholders b. The process through which an organization acquires, develops, retains, and transfers knowledge into and out of the organization c. The process through which an organization acquires, develops, retains, and transfers knowledge to an organization's leadership d. The process through which an organization acquires, develops, retains, and transfers knowledge to employees e. The process through which an organization acquires, develops, retains, and transfers knowledge throughout the organization
61.
What organization's quest to become a learning organization included a new series of innovation awards? a. Bausch + Lomb b. Samsung c. Sears d. Coca-Cola e. Petro-Canada
62.
What did the results of a Coca-Cola survey reveal? a. Sixty percent of employees expected positive outcomes for taking risks. b. Eighty percent of employees expected negative outcomes for taking risks. c. Seventy percent of employees expected positive outcomes for taking risks. d. Seventy percent of employees expected negative outcomes for taking risks. e. Ninety percent of employees expected negative outcomes for taking risks.
63.
Learning organizations are almost 90 percent more likely to have higher overall levels of profitability than those organizations not rated as learning organizations. a. True b. False
64.
_______ is a planned, ongoing effort to change organizations to be more effective and more human.
65.
Organizational development places a strong emphasis on interpersonal and __________ processes.
66.
The credo of most contemporary organizational development change agents is a joint concern with both __________ and organizational performance.
67.
What is organizational development (OD) and what does it seek to do? Briefly describe four OD strategies discussed in our text.
Chapter 15 68.
What is organizational development (OD) and what are two ways that OD efforts tend to be ongoing?
69.
Which organizational development strategy focuses on continuous improvement? a. Reengineering b. Survey feedback c. TQM d. Team building e. All of the above
70.
Which organizational development technique makes extensive use of questionnaires or interviews as an integral part of its activities? a. Grid Organization Development b. Team building c. Survey feedback d. Quality circles e. Statistical process control
71.
Coca-Cola has an award that celebrates failure after a survey revealed that 70 percent of employees expected negative outcomes for taking risks. a. True b. False
72.
Coca-Cola has an award that celebrates failure after a survey revealed that 70 percent of employees expected positive outcomes for taking risks. a. True b. False
73.
Two primary methods of organizational learning are knowledge acquisition and knowledge __________ .
74.
The key dimensions of a learning organization are vision/support, culture, learning systems/dynamics, and __________ .
75.
Successful organizational change is much more likely to occur in a(n) __________ organization.
76.
Learning organizations are more likely to have higher overall levels of __________ than organizations that are not rated as learning organizations.
77.
__________ organizations have established systems and structures to acquire, code, store, and distribute important information and knowledge.
78.
Define organizational learning and describe the primary methods of organizational learning.
79.
Define a learning organization and describe the critical dimensions of a learning organization.
Chapter 15 80.
A change agent is a. an expert in diagnosing and changing organizations by applying behavioural science knowledge. b. any strategy or tactic that provokes change in an organization. c. a person who resists organizational change. d. the first person in a work group to "unfreeze" and convince his or her colleagues to do the same. e. an outside consultant hired to diagnose and correct problems in organizational structures.
81.
Diagnosis a. should be the last step in the process of organizational change. b. means the same thing as "evaluation" of organizational change. c. indicates organizational problems and suggests reasonable changes. d. is a method of team building. e. is an internal process which does not involve external stakeholders such as customers.
82.
Those people within an organization who resist change tend to have a character including all of the following EXCEPT a. being cognitively rigid. b. seeking routine. c. having a short-term focus. d. being self-efficacious. e. None of the above
83.
Which of the following is most conducive to the acceptance of change? a. A small identity gap b. A large identity gap c. A moderate identity gap d. No identity gap e. A moderate to large identity gap
84.
What helps to clarify problems, suggest what should be changed, and determine the appropriate strategy for implementing change without resistance? a. Evaluation b. Institutionalization c. Identity gap d. Diagnosis e. Feedback
85.
What do people resist? a. Unfreezing b. Diagnosis c. Change d. Unfreezing and change e. Diagnosis and change
86.
Perceived threat can be a motivator for change and prevent inertia. a. True b. False
87.
Sometimes when threat is perceived, organizations unfreeze. a. True b. False
Chapter 15 88.
Perceived threat can lead to extreme inertia. a. True b. False
89.
Inertia is most likely to occur when resources are absent and routines have been modified. a. True b. False
90.
Crises are especially likely to stimulate resistance. a. True b. False
91.
Branding involves an external organizational change. a. True b. False
92.
Branding involves an internal organizational change. a. True b. False
93.
Organizational change is more likely to occur in a learning organization. a. True b. False
94.
OD changes that use one primary technique seem to have more impact. a. True b. False
95.
Most OD studies have reported significant change. a. True b. False
96.
Many OD studies have reported no change. a. True b. False
97.
Weak methodology has sometimes plagued research evaluations of the success of OD interventions. a. True b. False
98.
Strong methodology is one of the positive factors associated with the evaluations of the success of OD interventions. a. True b. False
99.
OD seems to work better for supervisors or managers than for __________ workers.
100. Most OD techniques have a positive impact on __________ , job satisfaction, or other work attitudes.
Chapter 15 101. Weak __________ has sometimes plagued research evaluations of the success of OD interventions.
102. Does organizational development work? What are the main conclusions reached by three large-scale reviews of OD techniques?
103. Weak methodology is believed to have sometimes plagued research evaluations of the success of OD interventions. What are some of the specific problems?
104. Broadcasting design problems to a large audience of potential innovators is an example of open innovation. a. True b. False 105. Broadcasting design problems to a large audience of potential innovators is an example of closed innovation. a. True b. False 106. Extrinsic rewards that are clearly tied to creativity increase creative behaviour, especially when accompanied by autonomy and feedback. a. True b. False 107. Extrinsic rewards that are clearly tied to creativity increase creative behaviour, especially when accompanied by autonomy and support. a. True b. False 108. The "innovator's paradox" happens when organizations and investors profess to want innovation but are inclined to reject creative ideas. a. True b. False 109. The "innovator's paradox" happens when organizations and investors profess to want creativity but are inclined to not hire creative people. a. True b. False 110. Information can be extracted from the environment by hiring employees with creativity-relevant skills. a. True b. False 111.
__________ is the process of developing and implementing new ideas in organizations.
112.
__________ import information into organizations, translate it for local use, and disseminate it for project members.
Chapter 15 113.
__________ see the potential of innovative ideas and guide them through to implementation with sponsorship and support.
114.
__________ is the production of novel but potentially useful ideas.
115.
__________ organizational structures are generally thought to work best in the idea-generation and design phases of innovation.
116. The appropriate sequence of innovation is idea generation, __________ , and diffusion.
117. Money is not the only resource that spurs innovation. __________ can be an even more crucial factor for some innovations.
118.
_______ include the ability to tolerate uncertainty, withhold early judgment, see things in new ways, and be open to new and diverse experiences.
119.
__________ innovations are new forms of strategy, human resource systems, and managerial practices that facilitate organizational change and adaptation.
120. Innovations can be classified as product innovations, process innovations, or __________ innovations.
121. Job enrichment, participation, reengineering, and quality programs are examples of __________ innovations.
122. Some __________ feel compelled to engage in creative deviance.
123. Defying orders by management to stop working on a creative idea is known as __________ .
124. "Bootlegging" funds from approved projects to some other project and camouflaging one's creative work from management scrutiny are examples of __________ .
125. Innovative ideas can be extracted from the __________ environment by holding design competitions, formally using crowdsourcing, making existing product features open source, and making patents public.
Chapter 15 126. Innovative ideas can be extracted from the external __________ environment by holding design competitions, formally using __________ , making existing product features open sources, and making patents public.
127. Inviting input from a wide variety of external sources in an attempt to extract innovative ideas is called __________ innovation.
128. Innovations are especially difficult to diffuse in organizations dominated by __________ .
129. Many managers know what to do, but have considerable trouble __________ this knowledge in the form of action.
130. The only firm in Richard Walton's study on the diffusion of eight major process innovations in which substantial diffusion occurred was __________ .
131. What is diffusion? What factors affect the rate of diffusion in organizations?
132. What does the "knowing-doing gap" refer to and why does it happen?
133. What are the main findings from Richard Walton's study on the diffusion of eight major process innovations? What factors contributed to the lack of diffusion?
134.
__________ rewards that are clearly tied to creativity increase creative behaviour.
135. Extrinsic rewards that are clearly tied to creativity increase creative behaviour, especially when accompanied by __________ and feedback.
136. Extrinsic rewards that are clearly tied to creativity increase creative behaviour, especially when accompanied by autonomy and __________ .
137.
__________ motivation lies at the core of creativity.
138. Intrinsic motivation lies at the core of __________ .
139. A sense of making progress is important for __________ motivation.
Chapter 15 140. Making progress on meaningful work results in positive affect and a good mood, factors that are known to stimulate __________ .
141. The use of web-enabled input from external sources to facilitate innovation is called __________ .
142. More intelligent people are more likely to be more __________ .
143. Intelligence is necessary but not sufficient for __________ .
144. What sets creative people apart are additional __________ skills.
145. When organizations and investors profess to want innovation but are inclined to reject creative ideas it is called the __________ .
146. Information can be extracted from the environment by hiring employees with __________ experience.
147. Online communities are used as a source of __________ ideas.
148. Explain the difference between product innovations, process innovations, and managerial innovations, and give an example of each.
149. What makes a person creative? Can people be trained to become more creative? Explain.
150. What is open innovation and what does it involve on the part of an organization?
151. Although job enrichment was successfully implemented in a firm's Toronto plant, managers of the plants in San Diego, Tulsa, and Pittsburgh chose not to enrich jobs. This is a problem of ________ change. a. institutionalization b. evaluation c. diffusion d. diagnosis e. reengineering 152. What does the knowing-doing gap refer to? a. Managers know what to do but they make mistakes when they try to implement what they know. b. Managers know what to do but don't know how to communicate it effectively. c. Managers don't know what to do and they implement change programs that inevitably fail. d. Managers know what to do but have trouble implementing knowledge in the form of action. e. Managers do not know what to do and, as a result, they do not know what programs to implement.
Chapter 15 153. Which of the following best represents reasons for the knowing-doing gap? a. Rewards for short-term talk and internal competition b. Rewards for short-term talk and punishment for action c. Poor education and lack of feedback d. Poor education and rewards for short-term talk e. Lack of experience and internal competition 154. Which of the following is an example of the knowing-doing gap? a. A group of managers went on a plant tour to learn about the highly efficient Toyota Production System and afterwards could not explain what they had learned. b. A group of managers went on a plant tour to learn about the highly efficient Toyota Production System and afterwards could not pass an exam on the system. c. A group of managers went on a plant tour to learn about the highly efficient Toyota Production System and then did a poor job implementing the system in their own organization. d. A group of managers went on a plant tour to learn about the highly efficient Toyota Production System and afterwards spent a great deal of time talking about it. e. A group of managers went on a plant tour to learn about the highly efficient Toyota Production System and afterwards were able to show others how much they had learned about the system. 155. Richard Walton studied the diffusion of eight major process innovations in several firms. He found that substantial diffusion occurred in only one firm. What firm was it? a. Alcan b. Volvo c. General Foods d. Corning e. Shell UK 156. Richard Walton came up with a principle that states, if diffusion does not occur, the pilot project and its leaders become more alone. What is this principle called? a. Diffuse or be used b. Diffuse or confuse c. Diffuse or suffer the consequences d. Diffuse or die e. Diffuse or be killed 157. Innovations are especially difficult to diffuse in organizations dominated by a. blue-collar workers. b. white-collar workers. c. skilled workers. d. uneducated workers. e. professionals. 158. Diffusion is more likely when the new idea is perceived as truly better than the one it replaces. What is this called? a. Relative advantage b. Compatibility c. Complexity d. Trialability e. Observability
Chapter 15 159. Diffusion is easier when the innovation is compatible with the values, beliefs, needs, and current practices of potential new adopters. What is this called? a. Relative advantage b. Compatibility c. Complexity d. Trialability e. Observability 160. Complex innovations that are fairly difficult to comprehend and use are less likely to diffuse. What is this called? a. Relative advantage b. Compatibility c. Complexity d. Trialability e. Observability 161. If an innovation can be given a limited trial run, its chances of diffusion will be improved. What is this called? a. Relative advantage b. Compatibility c. Complexity d. Trialability e. Observability 162. When the consequences of an innovation are more visible, diffusion will be more likely to occur. What is this called? a. Relative advantage b. Compatibility c. Complexity d. Trialability e. Observability 163. The only firm to show substantial diffusion in Richard Walton's research on diffusion of eight major process innovations was Volvo. a. True b. False 164. The only firm to show substantial diffusion in Richard Walton's research on diffusion of eight major process innovations was General Foods. a. True b. False 165. Richard Walton's principle "diffuse or die" means that if diffusion does not occur, the pilot project and its leaders become more and more isolated. a. True b. False 166. Richard Walton's principle "diffuse or die" means that if diffusion does not occur, the pilot project and its leaders will have to leave the organization. a. True b. False
Chapter 15 167. Extrinsic rewards that are clearly tied to creativity increase creative behaviour. a. True b. False 168. Extrinsic motivation lies at the core of creativity. a. True b. False 169. A sense of making progress is important for intrinsic motivation. a. True b. False 170. Innovations are especially difficult to diffuse in organizations dominated by blue-collar workers. a. True b. False 171. Diffusion is more likely when the new idea is perceived as truly better than the one it replaces. a. True b. False 172. Diffusion is easier when the innovation is compatible with the values, beliefs, needs, and current practices of potential new adopters. a. True b. False 173. Complex innovations that are fairly difficult to comprehend and use are less likely to diffuse. a. True b. False 174. If an innovation can be given a limited trial run, its chances of diffusion will be improved. a. True b. False 175. Organizations learn through knowledge acquisition and knowledge exploitation. a. True b. False 176. Learning organizations are more likely to be more profitable than other organizations. a. True b. False 177. Learning organizations are better able to retain employees than other organizations. a. True b. False 178. Learning organizations are almost 100 percent more likely to have higher overall levels of profitability than those organizations not rated as learning organizations. a. True b. False
Chapter 15 179. Organizational development places a strong emphasis on individual and group processes. a. True b. False 180. Organizational development seeks to modify cultural norms and roles. a. True b. False 181. Which of the following is NOT generally an organizational change component of TQM? a. Team building techniques b. Incentive pay systems c. Customer focus d. Enhanced supplier and customer communications e. Group skills training 182. Organizations learn the most from failure. a. True b. False 183. Organizations learn the most from success. a. True b. False 184. A learning organization is adept at unlearning outdated or superseded routines. a. True b. False 185. Organizational development has a joint concern with both people and organizational performance. a. True b. False 186. Organizational development uses the knowledge of behavioural science. a. True b. False 187. Organizational development places a strong emphasis on interpersonal and group processes. a. True b. False 188. Organizational development seeks to modify group norms and roles. a. True b. False 189. Organizational development programs extend over a long period of time. a. True b. False 190. Organizational development programs tend to be short-term interventions. a. True b. False
Chapter 15 191. Which organizational development technique is mainly about achieving small gains over a long period of time? a. Team building b. Grid OD c. Survey feedback d. Total Quality Management e. Reengineering 192. What does research on team building conclude? a. It is especially effective for affective outcomes such as cohesion and support. b. It is especially effective for affective outcomes such as cohesion and communication. c. It is especially effective for affective outcomes such as coordination and trust. d. It is especially effective for affective outcomes such as cohesion and trust. e. It is especially effective for affective outcomes such as communication and trust. 193. W. Edwards Deming is considered by many to be the father of the modern TQM movement. a. True b. False 194. It is advisable for managers, rather than consultants, to provide the feedback in survey feedback programs. a. True b. False 195. Team building is especially concerned with clarifying goals and role relationships. a. True b. False 196. Reengineering focuses on the redesign of organizational processes to achieve improvements in time, cost, quality, and service. a. True b. False 197. It is not recommended that managers report the results of survey feedback to employees because they lack credibility for this particular role. a. True b. False 198. Reengineering examines and changes organizational processes in order to streamline the organization. a. True b. False 199. Team building is defined as an OD technique that is used with groups of strangers to mold them into a cohesive team. a. True b. False 200. Reengineering is concerned with fine-tuning existing jobs, structures, technology, or human resources. a. True b. False
Chapter 15 201. The gains from reengineering will be greatest when the process is complex and cuts across a number of jobs in a particular department. a. True b. False 202. Team building usually begins with confidential interviews with team members. a. True b. False 203. The focus of survey feedback is on interpersonal processes of specific work teams. a. True b. False 204. The ideal outcome of the diagnostic session of team building is a list of the weaknesses of team members. a. True b. False 205. When using survey feedback, change agents recommend that they conduct the feedback meeting. a. True b. False 206. Surveys have the most beneficial effects when the results are reviewed with managers. a. True b. False 207. Research on team building concludes that it can be effective in the domain of goals and roles. a. True b. False 208. Research on team building concludes that it can be effective in the domain of goals and problem solving. a. True b. False 209. Research on team building concludes that it is especially effective for affective outcomes such as cohesion and trust. a. True b. False 210. Research on team building concludes that it is especially effective for affective outcomes such as communication and trust. a. True b. False 211.
__________ , customer focus, and continuous improvement are all considered key principles of TQM.
212. TQM is mainly about achieving __________ gains over a long period of time.
213.
__________ collects frequency data on the causes of errors and problems.
Chapter 15 214.
__________ is an attempt to create more effective groups by clarifying goals and roles and improving interpersonal processes.
215. Reengineering focuses on the redesign of organizational processes to achieve improvements in time, cost, __________ , or service.
216. Reengineering examines and changes __________ in order to streamline the organization.
217. The organizational development process of having organizational members fill out questionnaires and providing them with the results is called __________ .
218. The gains from reengineering will be greatest when the process is __________ and cuts across a number of jobs and departments.
219. Surveys have the most beneficial effects when the results are reviewed with __________ and when action is taken in response to the survey.
220. Many change agents prefer that the __________ of the working unit conduct the feedback meeting.
221. Research on team building concludes that it can be effective in the domain of goals and __________ .
222. Research on team building concludes that it is especially effective for __________ outcomes such as cohesion and trust.
223. What is total quality management (TQM)? What are some of the tools used in TQM to diagnose and solve quality problems? Do TQM programs always work for organizations? Explain.
224. What is reengineering? What kinds of industries have benefited most from reengineering? Describe some of the key practices which facilitate reengineering efforts in organizations.
225. As a new member of the human resources department of ACME Insurance Company, Ramona has been asked to help the organization learn how to use survey feedback. This is something that is very new to the organization and Ramona has to explain to management what survey feedback involves, and the critical decisions that must be made by the organization before data are collected. What should Ramona tell management about survey feedback and the critical decisions that need to be made?
Chapter 15 226. The Bouncy Ball Toy Company recently began using teams in the production of its bouncy balls. At first things seemed to be working, but then a number of problems began to arise. Team members were not always sure what they were supposed to be doing and they were having trouble coordinating their efforts. As a result, the balls were not as bouncy as they were supposed to be and many of them had to be scrapped. The company has decided to contact an OD consultant to help them with team building. As the consultant, what will you tell the company about team building and the team building process?
227. The text defined innovation as a. any change that occurs in an organization. b. the production of novel but potentially useful ideas. c. creating something completely new. d. developing and implementing new ideas. e. the radical redesign of organizational processes. 228. The text defined creativity as a. creating something completely new. b. any change that occurs in an organization. c. the production of novel but potentially useful ideas. d. developing and implementing new ideas. e. the radical redesign of organizational processes. 229. Louis is a gatekeeper in his organization. This means that he a. communicates technical information to his peers. b. resists change in the organization. c. heads a quality circle. d. frequently has disputes with idea champions. e. prevents the diffusion of innovations. 230. As an idea champion, Alice a. opposes innovation. b. heads a quality circle. c. could not be an intrapreneur. d. promotes a particular innovation. e. wins awards for her creative ideas. 231. Which of the following is most accurate about the relationship between intelligence and creativity? a. Intelligence is not necessary for creativity. b. Intelligence is the most important factor for creativity. c. Intelligence is necessary but not sufficient for creativity. d. Intelligence is necessary and sufficient for creativity. e. There is no relationship between intelligence and creativity. 232. Which of the following is NOT an example of a process innovation? a. A manufacturing firm adopts a new technology. b. A paint company markets a new nonfading paint. c. A mortgage company creates a completely new management structure. d. An insurance firm implements a radical job enrichment program. e. An airline implements a new service quality program.
Chapter 15 233. A survey of research scientists described in the text found that ________ were most often mentioned as leading to creativity. a. extrinsic rewards b. feedback and recognition c. freedom and autonomy d. intrinsic rewards e. constructive criticism and support 234. Although ________ may help promote idea generation, ________ may be better for idea implementation. a. diffusion; freedom and autonomy b. idea champions; gatekeepers c. extrinsic rewards; intrinsic rewards d. organic structures; more mechanistic structures e. mechanistic structures; more organic structures 235. Gatekeepers a. import technical information into their organizations. b. oppose innovations advocated by idea champions. c. perform poorly as boundary spanners. d. serve as devil's advocates against ideas that are creative but impractical. e. resist change in the organization. 236. Idea champions a. specialize in thinking up a large volume of creative ideas. b. import technical information into their organizations. c. help guide innovative ideas towards implementation. d. are change agents in large scale OD efforts. e. reduce the diffusion of innovations. 237. Research and development teams that have been together ________ engage in the most effective communication. a. a long period of time b. a medium period of time c. a short period of time d. a long or short period of time e. since the members were very young in age 238. The usual sequence of innovation is a. implementation, diffusion, and evaluation. b. generation, diffusion, and implementation. c. generation, implementation, and diffusion. d. generation, evaluation, and implementation. e. generation, implementation, and evaluation. 239. What does innovation depend on? a. Individual factors, group factors, and organizational factors b. Time factors, social factors, and resource factors c. Individual factors, group factors, and social factors d. Individual factors, social factors, and organizational factors e. Social factors, group factors, and organizational factors
Chapter 15 240. What is an example of a creativity-relevant skill? a. Transformational leadership b. Tolerance for ambiguity c. Extrinsic motivation d. Intelligence e. Diffusion 241. What lies at the core of creativity? a. Extrinsic motivation b. Intrinsic motivation c. Extrinsic and intrinsic motivation d. Rewards e. Recognition 242. Idea champions are also referred to as ________ within larger organizational settings. a. product champion b. intrapreneurs c. project champion d. corporate entrepreneurs e. all of the above 243. What company gives bonuses to managers that are contingent on 25 percent of their revenues from products that are less than five years old? a. Raytheon b. Polaroid c. Sony d. 3M e. Xerox 244. Which of the following companies is NOT noted for managerial innovations? a. Visa b. GE c. DuPont d. Procter & Gamble e. 3M 245. The Stinky Cheese Company is planning to implement a job enrichment program. What kind of innovation is this? a. Process innovation b. Product innovation c. Employee innovation d. Managerial innovation e. Organization innovation 246. What are the three types of innovations described in the text? a. Product, process, and employee b. Product, process, and organization c. Product, process, and managerial d. Product, process, and service e. Generation, implementation, and diffusion
Chapter 15 247. What is a managerial innovation? a. An innovation developed by the management of an organization b. An innovation designed to develop the managers in an organization c. New forms of strategy, structure, human resource systems, and managerial practices that facilitate organizational change and adaptation d. New forms of strategy, structure, human resource systems, and managerial practices that improve the way products and services are designed e. New forms of strategy, structure, human resource systems, and managerial practices that result in new products and services 248. What two companies engage in extensive creativity training? a. Frito-Lay and Dupont b. Frito-Lay and 3M c. Google and 3M d. Volvo and Dupont e. 3M and Volvo 249. Who is most likely to engage in creative deviance? a. Change agents b. Gate keepers c. Idea champions d. Employees e. Transformational leaders 250. Defying orders by management to stop working on a creative idea is known as a. change. b. gate keeping. c. diffusion. d. creative change. e. creative deviance. 251. Juan works at the Stinky Cheese Company and he is working on a project which he believes will result in the world's stinkiest limburger cheese. His manager has told him to stop working on the project and focus on other projects that are more likely to be successful. However, whenever Juan's boss is out of sight, Juan continues to work on the world's stinkiest limburger cheese. How would you describe Juan's behaviour? a. Change agent b. Gatekeeper c. Creative deviance d. Resistance e. Transformational leader 252. When innovative ideas are extracted from the external environment by holding design competitions and/or using crowdsourcing to broadcast design problems to a large audience of potential innovators it is often called a. free innovation. b. crowd innovation. c. open innovation. d. environmental innovation. e. modern innovation.
Chapter 15 253. Which of the following best represents open innovation? a. Inviting input from all areas of an organization b. Inviting input from a wide variety of external sources c. Inviting input from experts in other organizations d. Inviting input from organizations in the same industry e. Inviting input from organizations in different industries 254. When an organization invites input from a wide variety of external sources for innovative ideas, what is this called? a. Modern innovation b. External innovation c. Broadcast innovation d. New innovation e. Open innovation 255. The Stinky Cheese Company is trying to develop the world's smelliest cheese but has been struggling. As a result, it has decided to invite input from a wide variety of external sources. What is this called? a. External input b. External innovation c. Open input d. Open innovation e. Survey feedback 256. Research evidence indicates that extrinsic rewards that are clearly tied to creativity increase creative behaviour, especially when accompanied by a. autonomy and feedback. b. autonomy. c. feedback. d. support. e. autonomy and support. 257. The Stinky Cheese Company is trying to develop the world's smelliest cheese but has been struggling. As a result, it has decided to provide employees with extrinsic rewards to increase their creative behaviour. What else do they need to do to increase creative behaviour? a. Provide autonomy and resources b. Provide feedback and resources c. Provide autonomy and support d. Provide feedback and support e. Provide autonomy and feedback 258. What is Deepak Chopra a good example of? a. Creative deviance b. Idea champion c. Gatekeeper d. Open innovation e. Diffusion 259. To be successful, what does open innovation require? a. Rewards and recognition b. Strong organizational identity c. An identity shift d. Idea champions e. An open door policy
Chapter 15 260. R&D in an organization and creative employees need to become less concerned about secrecy and more involved in intensive collaboration with external parties to be successful when it comes to a. creative deviance. b. diffusion. c. creativity. d. open innovation. e. process innovations. 261. The use of web-enabled input from external sources to facilitate innovation is called a. modern innovation. b. external innovation. c. broadcast innovation. d. new innovation. e. open innovation. 262. What is open innovation? a. The use of web-enabled input from external sources to facilitate innovation b. The use of web-enabled input from internal sources to facilitate innovation c. The use of web-enabled input from external sources to facilitate creativity d. The use of web-enabled input from internal sources to facilitate creativity e. The use of web-enabled input from internal and external sources to facilitate innovation 263. What is Arthur Fry famous for? a. Inventing intermittent windshield wipers b. Inventing the cell phone c. Inventing the internet d. Inventing Post-It Notes e. Inventing insulin 264. Salma was thrilled to be offered a job that hundreds of people had applied for. She was curious to know why she got the job. She was told it was because of her ability to tolerate ambiguity, withhold early judgment, and see things in new ways. What is another way of describing why Salma got the job? a. She has creativity-relevant skills. b. She has creative deviance. c. She is an idea champion. d. She is creative. e. She is very intelligent. 265. When organizations and investors profess to want innovation but are inclined to reject creative ideas what is it called? a. Innovation resistance b. The knowing-doing gap c. The creativity paradox d. The innovator's paradox e. The innovation paradox 266. Information can be extracted from the environment by hiring employees with a. communication skills. b. multicultural experience. c. gatekeeping experience. d. creative deviance. e. creativity-relevant skills.
Chapter 15 267. R&D groups whose members have been together a medium length of time communicate better than new groups or more mature groups. a. True b. False 268. An engineer who brings new information back to the firm from a trade show is probably a gatekeeper. a. True b. False 269. Research into OD efforts a. shows that quality circles are invariably successful. b. is among the most rigorous research in organizational behaviour. c. shows that many have a positive impact on productivity. d. occurs in almost every OD intervention. e. suggests that OD works better for blue-collar workers than managers. 270. Which statement is most accurate about the effects of OD efforts? a. OD seems to work better for blue-collar workers than for supervisors. b. OD seems to work better for supervisors than managers. c. OD seems to work better for blue-collar workers than for managers. d. OD seems to work better for supervisors or managers than for blue-collar workers. e. OD seems to work equally well for blue-collar workers as well as supervisors and managers 271. Which statement is most accurate about the effects of OD efforts? a. Most OD techniques have a positive impact on productivity but no impact on job satisfaction, or other work attitudes. b. Most OD techniques have no impact on productivity but have a positive impact on job satisfaction, or other work attitudes. c. Most OD techniques do not have an impact on productivity, job satisfaction, or other work attitudes. d. Most OD techniques have a negative impact on productivity, job satisfaction, or other work attitudes. e. Most OD techniques have a positive impact on productivity, job satisfaction, or other work attitudes. 272. Research studies on the impact of OD efforts have examined the effects of all of the following EXCEPT for a. organization system factors. b. physical setting. c. technology. d. social factors. e. organizing arrangements. 273. Which statement is most accurate about the effects of OD efforts? a. Changes that involve the whole organization rather than one part seem to have more impact. b. Changes that happen quickly and involve more people seem to have more impact. c. Changes that occur over a long period of time seem to have more impact. d. Changes that use one primary technique seem to have more impact. e. Changes that use more than one technique seem to have more impact. 274. Incentive pay systems are a critical organizational change component of TQM. a. True b. False 275. Complex innovations that are fairly difficult to comprehend and use are more likely to diffuse. a. True b. False
Chapter 15 276. Innovations often have to be custom-tailored to diffuse effectively. a. True b. False 277. The process by which innovations move across an organization is called __________ .
278. What variables should be included in a thorough evaluation of an organizational change program?
279. Inviting input from a wide variety of external sources in an attempt to extract innovative ideas is called open __________ .
280. Extrinsic __________ that are clearly tied to creativity increase creative behaviour.
281. What is innovation and what are the stages of the innovation process?
282. The diffusion of an innovation may be difficult to accomplish because a. it lacks the support and commitment of top management. b. the setting of the pilot project may differ significantly from other units in the organization. c. union resistance. d. management reward systems tend to concentrate on traditional performance measures. e. All of the above 283. Which factor does NOT stimulate the diffusion of an innovation? a. Relative advantage b. Trialability c. Complexity d. Observability of consequences e. Compatibility 284. Diffusion refers to a. the importation of technical ideas into an organization. b. the process of moving an innovation from concept to implementation. c. the process by which innovations move through an organization. d. the extent to which a change effort becomes a permanent part of the organizational culture. e. the process which leads to reduced enthusiasm for innovations. 285. If the results of a pilot change program are adopted by other parts of the organization, diffusion is said to have occurred. a. True b. False 286. Less complex innovations are more likely to diffuse than more complex innovations. a. True b. False
Chapter 15 287. The knowing-doing gap refers to managers who do not know what to do and when they need to take action. a. True b. False 288. Innovations are especially difficult to diffuse in organizations dominated by professionals. a. True b. False 289. Coca-Cola's quest to become a learning organization included a new series of innovation rewards. a. True b. False 290. Coca-Cola's quest to become a learning organization included a new series of training rewards. a. True b. False 291. At what stage are defence mechanisms activated? a. Unfreezing stage b. Diagnosis stage c. Change stage d. Institutionalization stage e. Evaluation stage 292. According to a survey by the American Psychological Association, organizational change is associated with a number of indicators of a. positive job attitudes. b. negative job attitudes. c. positive well-being. d. negative well-being. e. negative job attitudes and negative well-being. 293. Which of the following statements is most accurate about resistance to change? a. People who are very committed to an organization often resist any change. b. People who are not very committed to an organization often resist any change. c. People who identify very strongly with an organization often resist any change. d. People who do not identify very strongly with an organization often resist any change. e. People who identify very strongly with an organization and are very committed to an organization often resist any change. 294. Which one of the following is NOT one of the types of people associated with reactions to change over time? a. Champions b. Converts c. Doubters d. Believers e. Defectors
Chapter 15 295. Olivia's organization is undergoing a major change. She welcomes the change and supports it over time. However, her co-worker Mika has resisted the change from the start and has continued to resist it throughout the process. How would you describe Olivia's and Mika's reactions to change? a. Olivia is a champion and Mika is a convert. b. Olivia is a champion and Mika is a defector. c. Olivia is a convert and Mika is a doubter. d. Olivia is a champion and Mika is a doubter. e. Olivia is a convert and Mika is a defector. 296. Olivia's organization is undergoing a major change. She was resistant at first but over time came to see the value in the change. However, her co-worker Mika was at first supportive of the change but became resistant over time. How would you describe Olivia's and Mika's reactions to change? a. Olivia is a champion and Mika is a convert. b. Olivia is a champion and Mika is a defector. c. Olivia is a convert and Mika is a doubter. d. Olivia is a champion and Mika is a doubter. e. Olivia is a convert and Mika is a defector. 297. Acme Limited had quality teams for three years, but they gradually lapsed into disuse and were finally abandoned. This is a problem of a. diffusion. b. evaluation. c. unfreezing. d. institutionalization. e. reengineering. 298. The text pointed out a quality that was 1) useful for overcoming resistance to change and 2) a common characteristic of idea or project champions. What is this quality? a. Creativity-relevant skill b. Modesty c. Transformational leadership d. Intelligence e. Tolerance for ambiguity 299. Transformational leaders can be especially effective when it comes to a. overcoming resistance to change and survey feedback. b. overcoming resistance to change and reengineering. c. unfreezing and reengineering. d. refreezing and reengineering. e. overcoming resistance to change and institutionalization. 300. If misunderstanding, lack of trust, or different assessments are provoking resistance, what is a good strategy to overcome resistance? a. Evaluation b. Good coordination c. Involving the people who are the target of change d. Good communication e. Co-opting the reluctant
Chapter 15 301. What kind of leader is particularly adept at overcoming resistance to change? a. Transactional b. Transformational c. Change agent d. Developmental e. Authentic 302. Which of the following is NOT a variable used for a thorough evaluation of a change program? a. Reactions b. Outcomes c. Behaviour d. Resistance e. Learning 303. When it comes to evaluating change programs, many evaluation efforts never go beyond the measurement of a. reactions. b. outcomes. c. behaviour. d. resistance. e. learning. 304. If the outcome of a change program is evaluated favourably, what will an organization want to do? a. Begin a new change program b. Institutionalize the change c. Improve the change program d. Reward those involved in the change program e. All of the above 305. What does it mean to institutionalize a change program? a. The change becomes a permanent part of the organizational system. b. The change process becomes a permanent part of the organizational system. c. Change becomes an on-going and continuous part of the organizational system. d. The way that change is implemented becomes a permanent part of the change process. e. All of the above 306. Multiple change initiatives that are disconnected and viewed as inconsistent or contradictory can result in resistance being multiplied by a. rejection. b. confusion. c. fear. d. cynicism. e. skepticism. 307. Change agents are the first organizational members to change after an OD intervention occurs. a. True b. False 308. A large identity gap is most conducive to increased acceptance of change. a. True b. False
Chapter 15 309. Organizational change is associated with a number of indicators of negative performance. a. True b. False 310. People who identify very strongly with an organization often resist any change. a. True b. False 311. People who identify very strongly with an organization seldom resist change. a. True b. False 312. A moderate identity gap is most conducive to increased acceptance of change. a. True b. False 313. Champions of change welcome it from the beginning but become resistant over time. a. True b. False 314. Converts of change are resistant at first but come to see the value of change over time. a. True b. False 315. Defectors of change have initial change-supportive perceptions but become resistant over time. a. True b. False 316. Doubters of change are resistant at first but come to see the value of change over time. a. True b. False 317. Institutionalization is said to have occurred when a change is made truly permanent. a. True b. False 318. Transformational leaders are particularly likely to be the victims of resistance to change. a. True b. False 319. Transformational leaders are particularly adept at overcoming resistance to change. a. True b. False 320. Transactional leaders are particularly adept at overcoming resistance to change. a. True b. False 321. Many evaluations of change efforts never go beyond the measure of reactions. a. True b. False
Chapter 15 322. Many evaluations of change efforts never go beyond the measurement of learning. a. True b. False 323. Telly is an expert at applying behavioural science knowledge to organizational change. In other words, he's a(n) __________ .
324. The process of __________ can show that an organizational problem exists and can suggest what changes should be implemented.
325. At the __________ stage, defence mechanisms might be activated to deny or rationalize the signals that change is needed.
326.
__________ is the systematic collection of information relevant to impending organizational change.
327. People may resist both __________ and change.
328. Organizational change is associated with a number of indicators of negative __________ .
329. People who __________ very strongly with an organization often resist change.
330. A(n) __________ identity gap is most conducive to increased acceptance of change.
331. Some people are __________ of change, welcoming it from the beginning and maintaining changesupportive perceptions over time.
332. Some people are __________ resisting change from the get-go and persisting in their resistance over time.
333. Some people are __________ who are resistant to change at first but come to see the value of change over time.
334. Some people are __________ who have initial change-supportive perceptions but become resistant over time.
335.
__________ leaders are especially skilled at overcoming resistance to change.
Chapter 15 336. Many evaluations of change efforts never go beyond the measurement of __________ .
337. If the outcome of change is evaluated favourably, the organization will want to __________ the change.
338. What can managers do to try to overcome and deal with resistance to change?
339. The Stinky Cheese Company has just undergone a major and complex change effort that will require employees to work in self-managing teams. The VP of Human Resources is concerned that the institutionalization of the change will be difficult. You have been hired as a consultant to inform the VP of Human Resources of the factors that can inhibit institutionalization. What will you recommend be done to ensure that the change is institutionalized?
340. Why do organizational members often resist change?
341. What are the differences in how people react to change over time? What are the implications of this research for organizational change?
342. Which of the following statements concerning organizational development is FALSE? a. OD is a planned effort to change organizations. b. OD recognizes that all organizational change affects members and is implemented with their cooperation. c. OD had its roots in the disciplines of engineering and accounting. d. OD uses the knowledge of behavioural science to foster a culture of organizational self-examination. e. OD techniques generally have a positive impact on productivity and job satisfaction. 343. Organizational development gives recognition to the critical link between a. personal processes and group outcomes. b. personal processes and organizational outcomes. c. individual outcomes and group outcomes. d. group outcomes and organizational outcomes. e. personal processes and individual outcomes. 344. What does organizational development seek to modify? a. Organizational strategy and cultural norms b. Cultural norms and roles c. Group processes and cultural norms d. Cultural norms and organizational performance e. Group norms and roles 345. Where does the knowledge come from that is used for organizational development? a. Engineering b. Accounting c. Behavioural science d. Social science e. Organization science
Chapter 15 346. What kind of culture is fostered by organizational development? a. A culture of individual self-examination and readiness for change b. A culture of organizational self-examination and readiness for change c. A culture of organizational renewal and readiness for change d. A culture of organizational development and readiness for change e. A culture of individual and organizational development and readiness for change 347. What does organizational development place a strong emphasis on? a. Interpersonal and individual processes b. Communication and group processes c. Group and organizational processes d. Interpersonal and group processes e. Individual and group processes 348. What is the credo of most contemporary OD change agents? a. A joint concern with both organizational development and performance b. A joint concern with both group and organizational performance c. A joint concern with both individual and group performance d. A joint concern with both individuals and groups e. A joint concern with both people and organizational performance 349. Which of the following is considered to be a "quality guru"? a. W. Edwards Deming b. Kun-Hee Lee c. Perkin Elmer d. Bill Gates e. Ray Kroc 350. Because of your great knowledge of TQM, you have been asked to help coordinate your company's TQM efforts. One of the TQM project teams has come to you with a problem. They would like to clarify the relationship between each of the facets of the problem and how the facets relate to each other. Which tool should you teach them to use? a. Flowchart b. Pareto analysis c. Fishbone diagram d. Statistical process control tools e. Survey feedback 351. What is the data gathered by statistical process control tools about? a. The steps of a particular task b. The structure of problems c. Performance output and variations d. Feedback from organizational members about quality problems e. The rate of diffusion of a particular innovation 352. Compared to team building, survey feedback places ________ emphasis on the collection of valid data and ________ emphasis on the interpersonal processes of specific work teams. a. more; more b. more; less c. less; more d. less; less e. more; the same
Chapter 15 353. Reengineering examines and changes ________ in order to streamline the organization. a. survey feedback b. debt structure c. organizational processes d. total quality e. statistical process controls 354. Who should feed back the results of organizational surveys to employees? a. The company president b. Change agents c. External consultants d. Local managers e. Human resource managers 355. Unlike some other organizational change initiatives, TQM is a. fast and continuous. b. slow and continuous. c. fast and episodic. d. slow and episodic. e. fast and sporadic. 356. What organization is considered to be a pioneer in employee surveys? a. Ford Motor Company b. 3M c. Boeing d. IBM e. Microsoft 357. If the CEO of an organization is asking, "What business are we really in?" what OD strategy is being considered? a. TQM b. Reengineering c. Team building d. Survey feedback e. Goals and strategies 358. The CEO of the Smelly Cheese Company felt that the company needed to embark on a major organizational development program. For months the CEO had been walking around the company asking the company's managers, "If we were creating this organization today, what would it look like?" What OD strategy do you think the CEO should consider? a. Goals and strategies b. Survey feedback c. TQM d. Team building e. Reengineering 359. Activities or work that the organization must accomplish to create outputs that customers value are referred to as a. job titles. b. organization departments. c. outcomes. d. processes. e. small gains.
Chapter 15 360. When will the gains from reengineering be greatest? a. When the process is complex and limited to a particular job or department b. When the process is simple and cuts across a number of jobs and departments c. When the process is simple and limited to a particular job or department d. When the process is complex and cuts across a number of jobs and departments e. When the process is complex and cuts across a number of jobs in a particular department 361. Which of the following represents a contrast between TQM and reengineering? a. TQM seeks incremental improvements in existing processes; reengineering seeks radical revisions of processes. b. TQM seeks incremental improvements in existing processes; reengineering seeks incremental improvements in new processes. c. TQM seeks radical revisions of processes; reengineering seeks incremental improvements in existing processes. d. TQM seeks radical revisions of old and new processes; reengineering seeks radical revisions of old processes. e. TQM seeks incremental improvements in existing processes; reengineering seeks incremental improvements in old processes. 362. The problem of "creeping bureaucracy" prompted interest in what OD strategy? a. TQM b. Team building c. Survey feedback d. Job enrichment e. Reengineering 363. What is IBM noted for when it comes to organizational development? a. Being one of the pioneers in employee surveys b. Being one of the pioneers in TQM c. Being one of the pioneers in team building d. Being one of the pioneers in reengineering e. Being one of the pioneers in organizational change 364. What company was one of the first to use computerized surveying with integrated data collection and data processing? a. Hewlett-Packard b. IBM c. Dupont d. Frito-Lay e. 3M Company 365. Survey research conducted by IBM has been able to validate a. links from employee performance to client satisfaction to business performance. b. links from employee job satisfaction to client satisfaction to business performance. c. links from employee performance to unit performance to business performance. d. links from employee job satisfaction to employee performance to business performance. e. links from employee job satisfaction to employee performance to customer satisfaction.
Chapter 15 366. What two companies featured in the text conduct comprehensive surveys? a. IBM and Hewlett-Packard b. IBM and Harley-Davidson c. Hewlett-Packard and Harley-Davidson d. IBM and Ford Motor Company e. Ford Motor Company and Harley-Davidson 367. Results from Ford Motor Company's Pulse survey found that branches with higher Pulse scores had a. higher customer satisfaction, market share, and business volume, and lower employee turnover. b. higher customer satisfaction, market share, and business volume, and lower employee absenteeism. c. higher customer satisfaction, market share, and business volume, and lower employee theft. d. higher customer satisfaction, market share, and business volume, and lower employee tardiness. e. higher customer satisfaction, market share, and business volume, and lower customer theft. 368. Team building usually begins with a. problem solving. b. confidential interviews with team members. c. role playing exercises. d. development exercises. e. a diagnostic session. 369. What is the ideal outcome of a team building diagnostic session? a. A list of team problems b. A list of team strengths and weaknesses c. A list of needed changes to improve team functioning d. A list of needed changes to improve team members e. An agreement to have more meetings 370. With respect to survey feedback, change agents prefer that __________ conduct the feedback meeting. a. they (the change agent) b. employees who participated in the survey c. senior management d. the manager of the working unit e. human resources staff 371. Team building usually begins with a diagnostic session that is usually held a. in the workplace. b. in the team leader's office. c. away from the workplace. d. wherever the team usually holds its meetings. e. at the change agent's office. 372. When do surveys have the most beneficial effects? a. When they are repeated on an annual basis b. When the results are reviewed with employees c. When action is taken in response to the survey d. When they are repeated on an annual basis and the results are reviewed with employees e. When the results are reviewed with employees and action is taken in response to the survey
Chapter 15 373. Ford is a member of a consortium of over 40 large premier companies known as the a. Sunflower Group. b. Survey Group. c. Mayflower Group. d. Sundance Group. e. Sunshine Group. 374. What does the Mayflower Group do? a. Total quality management b. Teambuilding c. Reengineering d. Survey feedback e. Innovation 375. What does research on team building conclude? a. It can be effective in the domain of goals and roles. b. It can be effective in the domain of goals and norms. c. It can be effective in the domain of roles and norms. d. It can be effective in the domain of goals and problem solving. e. It can be effective in the domain of goals and interpersonal processes. 376. Defence mechanisms might be activated during the change stage. a. True b. False 377. Many firms imitate the change programs of their competitors. a. True b. False 378. People may resist both unfreezing and change. a. True b. False 379. Organizational change is associated with a number of indicators of negative well-being. a. True b. False 380. Low tolerance for change is mainly an individual matter. a. True b. False 381. Organizational development has its roots in the disciplines of finance and accounting. a. True b. False 382. Statistical process control tools are regularly used to diagram a process. a. True b. False 383. Unlike other organizational change initiatives, TQM is fast and episodic. a. True b. False
Chapter 15 384. Reengineering is usually applied to an entire organization. a. True b. False 385. Reengineering requires transformational leadership qualities. a. True b. False 386. "Creeping bureaucracy" prompted interest in TQM. a. True b. False 387. "Creeping bureaucracy" is especially common in large new firms. a. True b. False 388. A TQM effort usually requires transformational leadership. a. True b. False 389. Gatekeepers are individuals who oppose the innovations advocated by idea champions. a. True b. False 390. Gatekeepers are sometimes compelled to engage in creative deviance. a. True b. False 391. Innovative ideas can be extracted from the external environment. a. True b. False 392. Crowdsourcing can be used for innovative ideas. a. True b. False 393. Open innovation involves finding new people to innovate in an organization. a. True b. False 394. OD seems to work better for blue-collar workers than for supervisors or managers. a. True b. False 395. OD seems to work better for supervisors or managers than for blue-collar workers. a. True b. False 396. Most OD techniques have a positive impact on productivity, job satisfaction, or other attitudes. a. True b. False
Chapter 15 397. Most OD techniques have a positive impact on job satisfaction or other attitudes but not on productivity. a. True b. False 398. OD changes that use more than one technique seem to have more impact. a. True b. False 399. More intelligent people are more likely to be more creative. a. True b. False 400. Creative people generally tend to have a rather weak technical understanding of their domain. a. True b. False 401. An OD intervention would be an example of a managerial innovation. a. True b. False 402. Innovation is defined in the text as the production of novel but potentially useful ideas. a. True b. False 403. Intrinsic motivation lies at the core of creativity. a. True b. False 404. A mechanistic structure is used to generate innovative ideas and an organic structure to implement innovations. a. True b. False 405. The appropriate sequence of innovation is idea generation, implementation, and diffusion. a. True b. False 406. A gatekeeper is a boundary spanner. a. True b. False 407. Training can improve creativity. a. True b. False 408. An idea champion is a person who imports technical information into an organization from the external environment. a. True b. False
Chapter 15 409. Creative people tend to be socially skilled and higher than average in need for social approval. a. True b. False 410. Information can be extracted from the environment by hiring employees with multicultural experience. a. True b. False 411. Online communities are used as a source of innovative ideas. a. True b. False 412. An innovation in how to design products, make products, or deliver services would be classed as a(n) __________ innovation.
413. Open innovation involves inviting input from a wide variety of external sources. a. True b. False 414. Crowdsourcing is an example of open innovation. a. True b. False 415. Survey feedback is an example of open innovation. a. True b. False 416. When the consequences of an innovation are more visible, diffusion will be more likely to occur. a. True b. False 417. When the consequences of an innovation are less visible, diffusion will be more likely to occur. a. True b. False 418. Designing a new product is a process innovation. a. True b. False 419. Job enrichment is an example of a process innovation. a. True b. False 420. Job enrichment is an example of a managerial innovation. a. True b. False 421. Managerial innovations are new ways of designing products, making products, or delivering services. a. True b. False
Chapter 15 422. Managerial innovations are innovations that have been developed by an organization's managers. a. True b. False 423. Creative people are intelligent but they have a poor technical understanding of their domain. a. True b. False 424. Creative deviance refers to employees who sabotage new innovations. a. True b. False 425. An example of creative deviance is when an employee refuses to work on a creative project. a. True b. False 426. Idea champions are sometimes compelled to engage in creative deviance. a. True b. False 427. A sense of making progress is important for extrinsic motivation. a. True b. False 428. Making progress on meaningful work results in positive affect and a good mood. a. True b. False 429. Making progress on routine work results in positive affect and a good mood. a. True b. False 430. Extrinsic motivation is irrelevant to innovation. a. True b. False 431. To be successful, open innovation requires an identity shift by in-house R&D and creative employees. a. True b. False 432. To be successful, open innovation requires an identity shift by management. a. True b. False 433. Intelligence is necessary but not sufficient for creativity. a. True b. False 434. Intelligence is necessary and it is sufficient for creativity. a. True b. False
Chapter 15 435. Creative people tend to be socially skilled but lower than average in need for social approval. a. True b. False
Chapter 15
Test Name: 1.
a.dynamic; stable
2.
b.is the first step in the organizational change process.
3.
a.people
4.
c.Dynamic environments require a fairly high degree of organizational change if the organization is to be effective.
5.
b.hyperturbulent.
6.
c.learning
7.
c.The failure to change the organization's culture
8.
c.Motivator for change and extreme inertia
9.
d.Perceived threat
10.
d.When there is a lack of resources and routines and processes are not modified
11.
d.Routines and processes were not modified
12.
a.Perception of threat
13.
d.capability and the opportunity and the motivation to change.
14.
a.motivation
15.
b.revising routines and processes to actually execute such change.
16.
e.Branding
17.
e.A clear and compelling vision
18.
b.When it appeals to a variety of organizational stakeholders
19.
a.True
20.
a.True
21.
b.False
22.
b.False
23.
a.True
24.
b.False
25.
a.True
26.
a.True
Chapter 15 27.
b.False
28.
a.True
29.
b.False
30.
a.True
31.
b.False
32.
change
33.
disseminate
34.
culture
35.
culture
36.
motivator
37.
inertia
38.
resources
39.
routines
40.
Crises
41.
culture
42.
unfreezing
43.
motivation
44.
opportunity
45.
brand
46.
vision
47.
unfreezing
48.
shared
49.
1) unfreezing—the recognition that some current state of affairs is unsatisfactory; 2) change—the implementation of a program or plan to move the organization to a more satisfactory state; 3) refreezing— making newly developed behaviours, attitudes, or structures an enduring part of the organization.
50.
A hyperturbulent environment is one in which constant, unpredictable, and non-linear change is the norm. Typically, we can see this type of environment in the technology, nanotechnology, and biotechnology industries (as well as in some others). Organizations in hyperturbulent environments face special challenges that require them to continuously acquire, assimilate, and disseminate information so that they are ready for rapid change.
Chapter 15 51.
The text describes the following factors that organizations can change: goals and strategies, technology, job design, structure, processes, culture, branding, and people. Culture change is one of the most important changes that an organization can make. In fact, culture change is so critical that the main reason reported for the failure of organizational change programs is the failure to change an organization's culture. Furthermore, because organizational culture is known to be a major factor in providing an organization with a competitive advantage and long-term effectiveness, changing an organization's culture is considered to be a fundamental aspect of organizational change.
52.
Organizations can change goals and strategies, technology, job design, structure, processes, culture, branding, and people. Two important points about the various areas in which organizations can introduce change are as follows: First, a change in one area very often calls for changes in others. Failure to recognize this systemic nature of change can lead to severe problems. Second, changes in goals, strategies, technology, structure, process, job design, and culture almost always require that organizations give serious attention to people changes. Necessary skills and favourable attitudes should be fostered before these changes are introduced.
53.
Sometimes, when threat is perceived, organizations "unfreeze," scan the environment for solutions, and use the threat as a motivator for change. Other times, organizations seem paralyzed by threat and behave rigidly, and exhibit extreme inertia. Inertia is likely to occur in the absence of some investment of resources and some modification of routines and processes.
54.
The three factors are capability, opportunity, and motivation to change. That is, in order for change to occur, people must have the capability and the opportunity and the motivation to change. Some degree of all three factors must be present for successful change. For example, if the Stinky Cheese Company is making a cultural change to make the company more innovative and entrepreneurial, this might require creativity training to enhance the capability of key employees. In addition, opportunities for innovation must be presented to employees. For example, idea fairs and design competitions might be instituted to signal openness to new ideas. For motivation, incentive systems should be aligned to reward innovative ideas and avoid punishment for the inevitable failures that accompany innovation.
55.
d.Knowledge acquisition and knowledge development
56.
e.Vision/support; culture; learning systems/dynamics; knowledge management/infrastructure
57.
c.Learning organizations are almost 50 percent more likely to have higher overall levels of profitability.
58.
a.Failure is a more potent determinant of organizational learning than success.
59.
c.Sears
60.
e.The process through which an organization acquires, develops, retains, and transfers knowledge throughout the organization
61.
d.Coca-Cola
62.
d.Seventy percent of employees expected negative outcomes for taking risks.
63.
b.False
64.
Organizational development
65.
group
66.
people
Chapter 15 67.
Organizational development is a planned, ongoing effort to change organizations to be more effective and more human. OD seeks to modify cultural norms and roles so that the organization remains prepared for adaptation. Several OD strategies are presented in the chapter including team building, survey feedback, TQM, and reengineering. Additional OD strategies which were introduced in earlier chapters include job enrichment, management by objectives, the building of self-managed teams, and empowerment.
68.
Organizational development is a planned, ongoing effort to change organizations to be more effective and more human. OD efforts tend to be ongoing in at least two senses. First, many OD programs extend over a long period of time, involving several distinct phases of activities. Second, if OD becomes institutionalized, continual re-examination and readiness for further change become permanent parts of the culture.
69.
c.TQM
70.
c.Survey feedback
71.
a.True
72.
b.False
73.
development
74.
knowledge management
75.
learning
76.
profitability
77.
Learning
78.
Organizational learning refers to the process through which organizations acquire, develop, retain, and transfer knowledge throughout the organization. There are two primary methods of organizational learning. Knowledge acquisition involves the acquisition, distribution, and interpretation of knowledge that already exists, but which is external to the organization. Knowledge development involves the development of new knowledge that occurs in an organization primarily through dialogue and experience.
79.
A learning organization is an organization that has systems and processes for creating, acquiring, retaining, and transferring knowledge to modify and change its behaviour to reflect new knowledge and insights. The four key dimensions that are critical for a learning organization are: vision/support; culture; learning systems/dynamics; and knowledge management/infrastructure.
80.
a.an expert in diagnosing and changing organizations by applying behavioural science knowledge.
81.
c.indicates organizational problems and suggests reasonable changes.
82.
d.being self-efficacious.
83.
c.A moderate identity gap
84.
d.Diagnosis
85.
d.Unfreezing and change
86.
b.False
87.
a.True
Chapter 15 88.
a.True
89.
b.False
90.
b.False
91.
a.True
92.
b.False
93.
a.True
94.
b.False
95.
b.False
96.
a.True
97.
a.True
98.
b.False
99.
blue-collar
100. productivity 101. methodology 102. Three large-scale reviews reached the following conclusions: Most OD techniques have a positive impact on productivity, job satisfaction, or other work attitudes. OD seems to work better for supervisors or managers than for blue-collar workers. Changes that use more than one technique seem to have more impact. Furthermore, there are great differences across sites in the success of OD interventions. It is also worth noting that, while many studies have reported positive changes following an OD effort, many studies have also reported no change. 103. OD efforts involve a complex series of changes, and so there is little evidence of exactly which of these changes produce changes in processes or outcomes. Novelty effects or the fact that participants receive special treatment might produce short-term gains that really do not persist over time. Self-reports of changes after OD might involve unconscious attempts to please the change agent, and organizations may be reluctant to publicize failures. 104. a.True 105. b.False 106. a.True 107. b.False 108. a.True 109. b.False 110. b.False
Chapter 15 111. Innovation 112. Gatekeepers 113. Idea champions 114. Creativity 115. Organic 116. implementation 117. Time 118. Creativity-relevant skills 119. Managerial 120. managerial 121. managerial 122. idea champions 123. creative deviance 124. creative deviance 125. external 126. crowdsourcing 127. open 128. professionals 129. implementing 130. Volvo 131. Diffusion is the process by which innovations move through an organization. Factors that determine the rate of diffusion in organizations include relative advantage, compatibility, complexity, trialability, and observability. Adaptability is also important since innovations often have to be custom-tailored to diffuse effectively. In combination, this suggests that there is considerable advantage to thinking about how innovations are "packaged" and "sold" so as to increase their chances of more widespread adoption. 132. It refers to the finding that many managers know what to do but have considerable trouble implementing this knowledge in the form of action. It happens for a number of reasons including the tendency for some organizational cultures to reward short-term talk rather than long-term action. Thus, meetings, presentations, documentation, and mission statements take precedence over action and experimentation. This is reinforced when mistrust permeates a firm, and employees fear reprisals for mistakes. Many changes require cooperation between organizational units, but many organizations foster internal competition that is not conducive to such cooperation. When managers do manage to make changes, these changes sometimes fail because techniques are adopted without understanding their underlying philosophy.
Chapter 15 133. All the pilot projects were initially judged successful, and each received substantial publicity, a factor that often contributes to increased commitment to further change. Despite this, substantial diffusion occurred in only one firm—Volvo. The following factors contributed to the lack of diffusion: lack of support and commitment from top management; significant differences between the technology or setting of the pilot project and those of other units in the organization, raising arguments that "it won't work here"; attempts to diffuse particular techniques rather than goals that could be tailored to other situations; management reward systems that concentrate on traditional performance measures while ignoring success at implementing innovation; union resistance to extending the negotiated "exceptions" in the pilot project; fears that pilot projects begun in non-unionized locations could not be implemented in unionized portions of the firm; and conflict between the pilot project and the bureaucratic structures in the rest of the firm (e.g., pay policies and staffing requirements). Because of these problems, Walton raises the depressing spectre of a "diffuse or die" principle. That is, if diffusion does not occur, the pilot project and its leaders become more and more isolated from the mainstream of the organization and less and less able to proceed alone. 134. Extrinsic 135. autonomy 136. feedback 137. Intrinsic 138. creativity 139. intrinsic 140. creativity 141. open innovation 142. creative 143. creativity 144. creativity-relevant 145. innovator's paradox 146. multicultural 147. innovative 148. Product innovations have a direct impact on the cost, quality, style, or availability of a product or service. Examples include the iPod, Post-It Notes, and the iPhone. Process innovations are new ways of designing products, making products, or delivering services. Some examples are the COVID-19 mRNA vaccines, TQM, and flexible manufacturing. Managerial innovations are new forms of strategy, structure, human resource systems, and managerial practices that facilitate organizational change and adaptation. Examples include job enrichment, participation, reengineering, and quality programs.
Chapter 15 149. Research indicates that creative people possess the following qualities: 1) an excellent technical understanding of their domain; 2) creativity-relevant skills including a tolerance for ambiguity, the ability to withhold early judgment, and an openness to new ideas and experiences; and 3) generally good social skills but a below average need for social approval. More intelligent people are more likely to be more creative, however, intelligence is necessary but not sufficient for creativity. Many creativity-related skills can be improved through training techniques which improve divergent thinking (e.g., improvisation) and to withhold early evaluation of ideas. 150. Open innovation involves the use of web-enabled input from external sources to facilitate innovation. Innovative ideas can be extracted from the external environment by holding design competitions, formally using crowdsourcing, making existing product features open source, and making patents public. These tactics broadcast design problems to a large audience of potential innovators. Such strategies eschew the secrecy frequently associated with the process and invite input from a wide variety of external sources. For example, the App Store facilitates access to external software developers in order to come up with innovative new applications. Amazon Studios' original TV shows are based on a crowdsourcing platform that attracts hopeful scriptwriters. Tesla made hundreds of patents pertinent to electric vehicles public, reasoning that its real competition is the dominant gasoline car and that innovations in electric would only help its own cause. 151. c.diffusion 152. d.Managers know what to do but have trouble implementing knowledge in the form of action. 153. a.Rewards for short-term talk and internal competition 154. c.A group of managers went on a plant tour to learn about the highly efficient Toyota Production System and then did a poor job implementing the system in their own organization. 155. b.Volvo 156. d.Diffuse or die 157. e.professionals. 158. a.Relative advantage 159. b.Compatibility 160. c.Complexity 161. d.Trialability 162. e.Observability 163. a.True 164. b.False 165. a.True 166. b.False 167. a.True 168. b.False
Chapter 15 169. a.True 170. b.False 171. a.True 172. a.True 173. a.True 174. a.True 175. b.False 176. a.True 177. a.True 178. b.False 179. b.False 180. a.True 181. b.Incentive pay systems 182. a.True 183. b.False 184. a.True 185. a.True 186. a.True 187. a.True 188. b.False 189. a.True 190. b.False 191. d.Total Quality Management 192. d.It is especially effective for affective outcomes such as cohesion and trust. 193. a.True 194. a.True 195. a.True 196. a.True
Chapter 15 197. b.False 198. a.True 199. b.False 200. b.False 201. b.False 202. b.False 203. b.False 204. b.False 205. b.False 206. b.False 207. a.True 208. b.False 209. a.True 210. b.False 211. Teamwork 212. small 213. Pareto analysis 214. Team building 215. quality 216. organizational processes 217. survey feedback 218. complex 219. employees 220. manager 221. roles 222. affective
Chapter 15 223. TQM is a systematic attempt to achieve continuous improvement in the quality of an organization's products and/or services. Some of the main tools used in TQM include flowcharts of work processes, Pareto analysis, fishbone diagrams, and statistical process control. While TQM efforts have been highly successful in some organizations, they have been met with resistance and ultimate failure in others. One reason why TQM might not work is that the long-term focus of TQM can be hard to maintain, especially if managers and employees expect radical improvements in a short period of time. Another reason has to do with the timing of the TQM program implementation. A number of organizations have tried to implement TQM programs while they were engaged in radical restructuring or downsizing, and employees are less likely to be receptive to calls for initiative and innovation when they are insecure about their jobs. 224. Reengineering is the radical redesign of organizational processes to achieve major improvements in factors such as time, cost, quality, or service. Reengineering has been most beneficial and used most extensively in industries where: 1) much creeping bureaucracy had set in; 2) large gains were available with advanced technology; and 3) deregulation had led to increased competition. Examples include insurance, banking, brokerage, and telecommunications industries. Some of the key practices which facilitate reengineering efforts include redesigning and enriching jobs, increasing use of teamwork, assigning work to the most logical people, removing unnecessary controls, and exploiting advanced technology. 225. She should first tell them that survey feedback involves the collection of data from organizational members and the provision of feedback about the results. In terms of the critical decisions that must be made, she should mention the following: -First, who should participate in the survey? It could be restricted to particular departments, jobs, or organizational levels where problems exist, or it could cover the entire organization. -Second, what questions should the survey ask? A pre-packaged standardized survey or a custom-tailored survey can be used. Pre-packaged standardized surveys are carefully constructed and permit comparisons with other organizations in which the survey has been conducted, but there is some danger that pre-packaged surveys might neglect critical areas for specific consideration. -Finally, Ramona has to tell them how to provide feedback to employees. She should tell them that feedback is most effective when it is presented to natural working units in face-to-face meetings, and that change agents tend to prefer that the manager of the working unit conduct the feedback meeting. This demonstrates management commitment and acceptance of the data. The change agent attends the meeting and helps facilitate discussion of the data and plans for change. Ramona might also mention that surveys have the most beneficial effects when the results are reviewed with employees, and when action is taken in response to the survey. 226. You should tell them that team building is an effort to increase the effectiveness of work teams by improving interpersonal processes, problem solving, and goal and role clarification. In terms of the team building process, you should tell them that the process begins with a diagnostic session, often away from the workplace, in which the team explores its current level of functioning. The goal of this stage is to identify the current strengths and weaknesses of the team, and the ideal outcome is a list of needed changes to improve team functioning. Subsequent sessions focus on how to implement the changes and on problem solving by subgroups. As the OD consultant, you might hold confidential interviews with team members to anticipate implementation problems. Ideally, team building is a continuing process that involves regular diagnostic sessions and further developmental exercises as needed. 227. d.developing and implementing new ideas. 228. c.the production of novel but potentially useful ideas. 229. a.communicates technical information to his peers. 230. d.promotes a particular innovation. 231. c.Intelligence is necessary but not sufficient for creativity.
Chapter 15 232. b.A paint company markets a new nonfading paint. 233. c.freedom and autonomy 234. d.organic structures; more mechanistic structures 235. a.import technical information into their organizations. 236. c.help guide innovative ideas towards implementation. 237. b.a medium period of time 238. c.generation, implementation, and diffusion. 239. d.Individual factors, social factors, and organizational factors 240. b.Tolerance for ambiguity 241. b.Intrinsic motivation 242. e.all of the above 243. d.3M 244. e.3M 245. d.Managerial innovation 246. c.Product, process, and managerial 247. c.New forms of strategy, structure, human resource systems, and managerial practices that facilitate organizational change and adaptation 248. a.Frito-Lay and Dupont 249. c.Idea champions 250. e.creative deviance. 251. c.Creative deviance 252. c.open innovation. 253. b.Inviting input from a wide variety of external sources 254. e.Open innovation 255. d.Open innovation 256. a.autonomy and feedback. 257. e.Provide autonomy and feedback 258. b.Idea champion
Chapter 15 259. c.An identity shift 260. d.open innovation. 261. e.open innovation. 262. a.The use of web-enabled input from external sources to facilitate innovation 263. d.Inventing Post-It Notes 264. a.She has creativity-relevant skills. 265. d.The innovator's paradox 266. b.multicultural experience. 267. a.True 268. a.True 269. c.shows that many have a positive impact on productivity. 270. d.OD seems to work better for supervisors or managers than for blue-collar workers. 271. e.Most OD techniques have a positive impact on productivity, job satisfaction, or other work attitudes. 272. a.organization system factors. 273. e.Changes that use more than one technique seem to have more impact. 274. b.False 275. b.False 276. a.True 277. diffusion 278. Reactions, learning, behaviour, and outcomes. 279. innovation 280. rewards 281. Innovation is the process of developing and implementing new ideas in an organization. The stages of the innovation process are idea generation, idea implementation, and idea diffusion. 282. e.All of the above 283. c.Complexity 284. c.the process by which innovations move through an organization. 285. a.True
Chapter 15 286. a.True 287. b.False 288. a.True 289. a.True 290. b.False 291. a.Unfreezing stage 292. d.negative well-being. 293. c.People who identify very strongly with an organization often resist any change. 294. d.Believers 295. d.Olivia is a champion and Mika is a doubter. 296. e.Olivia is a convert and Mika is a defector. 297. d.institutionalization. 298. c.Transformational leadership 299. b.overcoming resistance to change and reengineering. 300. d.Good communication 301. b.Transformational 302. d.Resistance 303. a.reactions. 304. b.Institutionalize the change 305. a.The change becomes a permanent part of the organizational system. 306. d.cynicism. 307. b.False 308. b.False 309. b.False 310. a.True 311. b.False 312. a.True 313. b.False
Chapter 15 314. a.True 315. a.True 316. b.False 317. a.True 318. b.False 319. a.True 320. b.False 321. a.True 322. b.False 323. change agent 324. diagnosis 325. unfreezing 326. Diagnosis 327. unfreezing 328. well-being 329. identify 330. moderate 331. champions 332. doubters 333. converts 334. defectors 335. Transformational 336. reactions 337. institutionalize 338. Management strategies which can help deal with resistance include adopting a more supportive supervision style, co-opting reluctant subordinates with desirable roles in the change process, offering special incentives for change, improving communication to overcome misunderstandings, increasing employee involvement in the change process to build commitment, and using transformational leadership.
Chapter 15 339. The factors that can inhibit institutionalization include the following: Promised extrinsic rewards might not be developed to accompany changes. Failure to develop such rewards to accompany change can inhibit institutionalization. Similarly, intrinsic rewards that might have accompanied initial changes might have created higher expectations and these expectations need to be fulfilled. Institutionalization can also be damaged if new hires are not carefully socialized to understand the unique environment of the changed organization. Thus, they need to be socialized accordingly. The change effort might backslide as turnover occurs and key management supporters of the change effort might resign or be transferred. Environmental pressures such as decreased sales or profits can cause management to regress to more familiar behaviours and abandon change efforts. Many of these problems can be overcome by careful planning and goal setting during the diagnostic stage. It also suggests that continued efforts and attention to the change program are required during the institutionalization process. 340. Common reasons for resistance to change include politics and self-interest, low individual tolerance for change, misunderstanding, lack of trust, different assessments of the situation, strong emotions, strong organizational identification, the presence of a resistant organizational culture, and multiple incompatible changes. 341. Some people are "champions" of change, welcoming it from the beginning and maintaining change-supportive perceptions over time. Others are "doubters," resisting change from the get-go and persisting in their resistance. Some employees are "converts" who are resistant at first but come to see the value of change. Finally, "defectors" have initial change-supportive perceptions but become resistant over time. The research supporting this model suggests that it is critical to foster positive perceptions for change early and sustain them over time because champions have more momentum for change than converts, and defectors actually exhibit less momentum than people who were doubters all along. 342. c.OD had its roots in the disciplines of engineering and accounting. 343. b.personal processes and organizational outcomes. 344. b.Cultural norms and roles 345. c.Behavioural science 346. b.A culture of organizational self-examination and readiness for change 347. d.Interpersonal and group processes 348. e.A joint concern with both people and organizational performance 349. a.W. Edwards Deming 350. b.Pareto analysis 351. c.Performance output and variations 352. b.more; less 353. c.organizational processes 354. d.Local managers 355. b.slow and continuous. 356. d.IBM
Chapter 15 357. b.Reengineering 358. e.Reengineering 359. d.processes. 360. d.When the process is complex and cuts across a number of jobs and departments 361. a.TQM seeks incremental improvements in existing processes; reengineering seeks radical revisions of processes. 362. e.Reengineering 363. a.Being one of the pioneers in employee surveys 364. b.IBM 365. b.links from employee job satisfaction to client satisfaction to business performance. 366. d.IBM and Ford Motor Company 367. a.higher customer satisfaction, market share, and business volume, and lower employee turnover. 368. e.a diagnostic session. 369. c.A list of needed changes to improve team functioning 370. d.the manager of the working unit 371. c.away from the workplace. 372. e.When the results are reviewed with employees and action is taken in response to the survey 373. c.Mayflower Group. 374. d.Survey feedback 375. a.It can be effective in the domain of goals and roles. 376. b.False 377. a.True 378. a.True 379. a.True 380. a.True 381. b.False 382. b.False 383. b.False
Chapter 15 384. b.False 385. a.True 386. b.False 387. b.False 388. b.False 389. b.False 390. b.False 391. a.True 392. a.True 393. b.False 394. b.False 395. a.True 396. a.True 397. b.False 398. a.True 399. a.True 400. b.False 401. a.True 402. b.False 403. a.True 404. b.False 405. a.True 406. a.True 407. a.True 408. b.False 409. b.False 410. a.True 411. a.True
Chapter 15 412. process 413. a.True 414. a.True 415. b.False 416. a.True 417. b.False 418. a.True 419. b.False 420. a.True 421. b.False 422. b.False 423. b.False 424. b.False 425. b.False 426. a.True 427. b.False 428. a.True 429. b.False 430. b.False 431. a.True 432. b.False 433. a.True 434. b.False 435. a.True