TEST BANK for Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting 4th Edition Administrative and Clinical Comp by ACADEMIAMILL

Pearsons Comprehensive Medical Assisting 4th Edition Beaman Test Bank Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting, 4e (Beaman) Chapter 1 Medical Assisting: The Profession True/False Questions 1) A physician may never delegate tasks to a medical assistant that would be viewed as a medical assistant practicing medicine. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 9 Objective: 1.6 2) The medical assistant's main responsibility is to assist the physician in providing patient care. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 6 Objective: 1.5 3) State laws can vary on who can delegate duties to a medical assistant. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 9 Objective: 1.6 4) It is important to present a confident, professional image that helps put the patient at ease. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 10 Objective: 1.7 5) More and more employers are requiring credentials as a condition for employment. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 10 Objective: 1.8 6) It is your responsibility as a medical assistant to only practice within your scope of practice. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 6 Objective: 1.5 7) A licensed medical assistant can perform the same duties as a licensed nurse. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 7 Objective: 1.5 8) The Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) issued a final ruling mandating that EVERY medical assistant is able to enter physician orders in a computerized order entry system. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 10 Objective: 1.8 1

9) The medical assistant is uniquely qualified to perform the administrative and clinical procedures associated with the responsibilities of a medical office assigned by the physician. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 7 Objective: 1.5 10) A patient navigator is the primary source of communication between the patient and their health care providers. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 14 Objective: 1.11 11) One of the goals of a patient navigator is to streamline the healthcare services that the patient receives. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 14 Objective: 1.11 12) A job in the medical records department would require general administrative skills, understanding of medical terminology, and knowledge of insurance coding. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 14 Objective: 1.10 13) The National Healthcareer Association (NHA) offers 3 medical assisting credentials, the Certified Clinical Medical Assistant (CCMA), the Certified Medical Administrative Assistant (CMAA), and the National Certified Medical Assistant (NCMA). Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 11, 12 Objective: 1.9 14) Medical assisting requires mastery of a complex body of knowledge and specialized skills requiring both formal education and practical experience. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 4 Objective: 1.2 15) A medical assistant in a diploma program should expect to be in school for 6 months to 1 year. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 5 Objective: 1.3

16) In addition to normal business hours, urgent care facilities have business hours at night and on the weekends. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 6 Objective: 1.5 17) The Medical Office Assistant (NCMOA) credential is offered by the National Center for Competency Testing (NCCT). Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 12 Objective: 1.9 18) Potential job opportunities for medical assistants may include insurance claims coder and multifunctional technician. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 13 Objective: 1.10 19) A physician's office is an example of an ambulatory care setting. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 13 Objective: 1.10 20) A medical assistant who witnesses unsafe workplace behavior has a responsibility to notify OSHA. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 13 Objective: 1.5 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following is NOT an administrative responsibility of a medical assistant? A) Greeting and receiving patients B) Giving an injection C) Handling petty cash D) Reconciling bank statements Answer: B Page Ref: 6 Objective: 1.5

2) Which of the following is NOT a clinical responsibility of a medical assistant? A) Obtaining a medical history B) Cleaning and sterilizing equipment C) Transcribing medical dictation D) Performing ECGs Answer: C Page Ref: 7 Objective: 1.5 3) Which of the following is a clinical responsibility of a medical assistant? A) Obtaining a patient's vital signs B) Maintaining employee records C) Handling insurance claims D) Managing the telephone Answer: A Page Ref: 7 Objective: 1.5 4) Which of the following is an administrative responsibility of a medical assistant? A) Filing patient records B) Venipuncture C) Collecting laboratory specimens D) Disposing of hazardous waste Answer: A Page Ref: 7 Objective: 1.5 5) Students who desire to one day advance to management position should pursue a program in the field of medical assisting. A) bachelor B) certificate C) degree D) diploma Answer: C Page Ref: 5 Objective: 1.3 6) Which of the following is an outpatient setting that offers comprehensive health care services in one convenient location? A) Clinic B) Patient-centered medical home C) Physician's office D) Urgent care facility Answer: B Page Ref: 13 Objective: 1.10 4

7) Historically, medical assistants were trained on the job by a(n) A) receptionist B) another medical assistant C) physician D) nurse Answer: C Page Ref: 3 Objective: 1.2

8) Which of the following is NOT one of the education/training programs available for the medical assistant? A) Bachelor B) Certificate C) Degree D) Diploma Answer: A Page Ref: 5 Objective: 1.3 9) The American Medical Technologists (AMT) is a certifying agency for all of the following EXCEPT . A) dental assistants B) medical assistants C) phlebotomists D) respiratory therapists Answer: D Page Ref: 11 Objective: 1.9 10) Which of the following programs, in the field of medical assisting, is approximately 8 months to 2 years in length? A) Bachelors B) Certificate C) Degree D) Diploma Answer: C Page Ref: 5 Objective: 1.3 11) In many cases, who will be the first health professional the patient will encounter? A) Physician B) Medical assistant C) Doctor D) Licensed practical nurse Answer: B Page Ref: 10 Objective: 1.7 5

12) Which of the following is NOT appropriate while working with patients nearby? A) Chewing gum B) Drinking C) Eating D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 10 Objective: 1.7 13) Which of the following is NOT an administrative responsibility? A) Inventory control—ordering and storing of supplies B) Computer skills C) Scheduling patients D) Screening nonpatients and visitors Answer: A Page Ref: 6, 8 Objective: 1.5 14) Which of the following is NOT a clinical responsibility? A) Preparing patients for X-rays B) Assisting the physician during procedures C) Coding procedures D) Performing dressing changes Answer: C Page Ref: 6, 8 Objective: 1.5 15) Which of the following is NOT a form of communication? A) Nonverbal B) Spoken/verbal C) Thought D) Written Answer: C Page Ref: 10 Objective: 1.7 16) Which of the following is an example of being proactive? A) Arriving on time to work B) Keeping skills and knowledge current C) Being friendly to patients and coworkers D) Laying supplies out before a procedure Answer: D Page Ref: 10 Objective: 1.7

17) Experienced medical assistants may find work as which of the following? A) Office managers B) Instructors of medical assistant education programs C) Medical records managers D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 14 Objective: 1.10 18) Which of the following inpatient settings best fits the following job description: Requires clinical and administrative skills to schedule and assist with patients needing special medicalattention. A) Nursing home B) Clinic C) Extended care center D) Hospital Answer: B Page Ref: 13 Objective: 1.10 19) Choose the job title that fits the following description: Requires clinical skills to draw blood samples for testing. A) Electrocardiography (ECG) technician B) Medical laboratory assistant C) Patient care technician D) Phlebotomist Answer: D Page Ref: 14 Objective: 1.10 20) indicates that a candidate has met the required education or experience criteria of a credentialing agency or professional organization. A) Certification B) Mastery C) Graduation D) Credentialing Answer: A Page Ref: 10 Objective: 1.1

21) A(n) is granted for each measured increment of training or education. A) Certified Medical Assistant (CMA) certificate B) Registered Medical Assistant RMA (AMT) credential C) Certified Postsecondary Instructors (CPI) credential D) continuing education unit (CEU) Answer: D Page Ref: 12 Objective: 1.9 22) Which of the following is NOT a job opportunity that a medical assistant should pursue? A) Clinic aide B) Data processing clerk C) Intravenous technician D) Billing or collection assistant Answer: C Page Ref: 13 Objective: 1.10 23) A streamlines the patient's healthcare experience by facilitating the patient's healthcare needs, encouraging compliance with plan of care, and helping the patient maintain or develop self-care skills. A) clinic aide B) clinical assistant C) patient navigator D) multifunctional technician Answer: C Page Ref: 14 Objective: 1.11 24) The was the first organization to place an emphasis on the educational objectives of medical assisting. A) American Association of Medical Assistants (AAMA) B) Commission on Accreditation of Allied Health Educational Programs (CAAHEP) C) National Center for Competency Testing (NCCT) D) National Healthcareer Association (NHA) Answer: A Page Ref: 4 Objective: 1.2 25) A medical assistant who uses A) discretion B) empathy C) integrity D) thoroughness Answer: A Page Ref: 9 Objective: 1.7

is able to make decisions responsibly.

26) A medical assistant with A) discretion B) empathy C) group think D) integrity

will adhere to a code of values.

Answer: D Page Ref: 9 Objective: 1.7 27) The ability to work with the sick and the infirm depends on one's ability and willingness to show . A) discretion B) emotion C) empathy D) integrity Answer: C Page Ref: 9 Objective: 1.7 28) Which of the following is one of the 4 main content areas identified by the Interprofessional Education Collaborative (ICP) for development of interprofessional competencies by the health professions students? A) Administrative Procedures B) Career Development C) Medical Laws and Ethics D) Teams and Teamwork Answer: D Page Ref: 6 Objective: 1.4 29) The Commission on Accreditation of Allied Health Education Programs (CAAHEP) state that to provide for student attainment of "Entry-Level Competencies for the Medical Assistant," the curriculum must include certain content. Which of the following is NOT required content? A) Anatomy and physiology B) Medical terminology C) Psychology D) Physics Answer: D Page Ref: 5 Objective: 1.4

30) A(n) is a required part of the medical assistant's education and involves working without payment in a physician's office, clinic, or hospital setting for, typically, 160—200 hours. A) mentorship B) residency C) externship D) job shadow Answer: C Page Ref: 6 Objective: 1.4 31) The credential is awarded to candidates who pass the American Medical Technologists (AMT) certification examination. A) Certified Medical Administrative Assistant (CMAA) B) Certified Medical Assistant (CMA) C) National Certified Medical Assistant (NCMA) D) Registered Medical Assistant (RMA) Answer: D Page Ref: 11 Objective: 1.8 32) is a voluntary review undergone by an institution to determine whether their school meets or exceeds standards set forth. A) Meditation B) Crediting C) Accreditation D) Schooling Answer: C Page Ref: 5 Objective: 1.4 33) The Accrediting Bureau of Health Education Schools (ABHES) outlines which of the following content areas as part of the medical assisting curriculum? A) Applied Mathematics B) Infection Control C) Nutrition D) Pharmacology Answer: D Page Ref: 9 Objective: 1.4

34) Confidentiality is the ability to maintain A) privacy B) empathy C) full disclosure D) integrity Answer: A Page Ref: 9 Objective: 1.7

35) Physicians began to hire medical assistant to handle both the administrative and clinical responsibilities of the medical office because for a period of time there was a shortage of . A) administrative assistants B) nursing assistants C) physician assistants D) nurses Answer: D Page Ref: 3 Objective: 1.2 36) Which of the following is NOT a quality or characteristic regularly found in good medical assistants? A) Integrity B) Empathy C) Discretion D) Humility Answer: D Page Ref: 9 Objective: 1.7 37) No information is to be disclosed without the A) oral B) trusted C) verbal D) written Answer: D Page Ref: 9 Objective: 1.7

permission of the patient.

38) For the certified medical assistant (CMA) credential to remain current, it must be revalidated every years, either by earning continuing education units (CEUs) or through reexamination. A) 1 B) 3 C) 5 D) 10 Answer: C Page Ref: 11 Objective: 1.8 39) According to the U.S. Department of Labor Statistics, "job prospects should be best for medical assistants with formal training or experience, particularly those with ." A) accreditation B) certification C) recognition D) referrals Answer: B Page Ref: 13 Objective: 1.10 40) Which ambulatory care setting below best matches the job description of caring for patients who require immediate medical treatment? A) Clinic B) Physician's office C) Rehabilitation center D) Urgent care facility Answer: D Page Ref: 13 Objective: 1.10 41) Which ambulatory care setting below best matches the job description of providing care for patients recovering from illness or injury? A) Clinic B) Free-standing facility C) Physician's office D) Rehabilitation center Answer: D Page Ref: 13 Objective: 1.10

42) Which department/specialty below best matches the job description of working with patients, third-party payers, and insurance companies to process insurance forms; claims forms; and DRG, ICD, CPT, and HCPC coding? A) Admissions B) Billing and insurance C) Medical records D) Surgery Answer: B Page Ref: 14 Objective: 1.10 43) Which department/specialty below best matches the job description of performing clinical skills to sterilize surgical instruments? A) Admissions B) ECG/EKG technician C) Phlebotomy D) Surgery Answer: D Page Ref: 14 Objective: 1.10 44) Which of the following is an example of thoroughness? A) Paying attention to the details of an assigned task B) Not disclosing patient information without the patient's permission C) Determining the most appropriate way to communicate with the patient D) Being dependable Answer: A Page Ref: 9 Objective: 1.7 45) It is the medical assistant's responsibility to become familiar with medical assistant scope of practice in his or her . A) county B) township C) state D) country Answer: C Page Ref: 7 Objective: 1.5

46) offices treat young children, adolescents, and teens. A) Gerontologic B) Pediatric C) Podiatry D) Obstetric Answer: B Page Ref: 10 Objective: 1.5 47) Due to liability issues and increased responsibilities, most modern clinics will only employ individuals who have received some type of . A) higher education B) postgraduate degree C) formal training D) vocational education Answer: C Page Ref: 3 Objective: 1.3 48) The American Association of Medical Assistants (AAMA) provides which medical assisting credential? A) Certified Medical Administrative Assistant (CMAA) B) Certified Medical Assistant (CMA) C) National Certified Medical Assistant (NCMA) D) Registered Medical Assistant (RMA) Answer: B Page Ref: 10 Objective: 1.9 49) Providing patient education falls under which examination parameter for the Registered Medical Assistant (RMA) certification examination? A) administrative B) general C) therapeutic D) clinical Answer: B Page Ref: 11 Objective: 1.9 50) Which of the following is NOT considered a characteristic required for a medical assistant? A) Thoroughness B) Punctuality C) Seriousness D) Proactivity Answer: C Page Ref: 9, 10 Objective: 1.7 14

Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting, 4e (Beaman) Chapter 2 Medical Science: History and Practice True/False Questions 1) Louis Pasteur is credited with establishing the science of bacteriology. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 21 Objective: 2.2 2) Recent advances in modern medicine allow patients' results to be available to doctors across the country. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 24 Objective: 2.7 3) Hippocrates stressed the body's healing nature, formed clinical descriptions of diseases, and discovered the ability to identify some diseases by listening to the chest. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 19 Objective: 2.3 4) A physician's license may be revoked in cases of severe misconduct, which includes unprofessional conduct, commission of a crime, or personal incapacity to perform one's duties. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 26 Objective: 2.9 5) In a partnership, one physician is still responsible for making all the administrative decisions. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 27 Objective: 2.10 6) Oncology is the study of cancer and cancer-related tumors. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 29 Objective: 2.1 7) The title "doctor" can be used verbally or in writing to address a person who has completed the highest level of education in their field. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 25 Objective: 2.8

8) A medical assistant is not likely to have much interaction with a dental hygienist. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 37 Objective: 2.14 9) A teaching hospital provides the same type of care as in a general hospital. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 32 Objective: 2.12 10) Colorectal surgery involves treatment of disorders and diseases of the chest with surgical intervention. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 31 Objective: 2.11 11) Mateurization is the process during which substances, such as milk and cheese, are heated to a certain temperature to eliminate bacteria. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 21 Objective: 2.1 12) In the last 25 years, technological discoveries have permitted medical science to advance faster than in the previous 100 years. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 24 Objective: 2.7 13) A Doctor of Osteopathy (DO) degree has educational requirements similar to those for the medical doctor (MD). Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 25 Objective: 2.8 14) The Board of Medical Examiners in each country grants a license to practice medicine. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 26 Objective: 2.9 15) Being knowledgeable about legal issues that can affect a physician's practice would be a responsibility of the medical assistant. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 27 Objective: 2.14

Multiple Choice Questions 1) The has become the recognized symbol for medicine; it depicts a healing staff with two snakes coiled around the staff. A) caduceus B) cadmium C) pices D) caduce Answer: A Page Ref: 19 Objective: 2.2 2) first theorized about blood circulation in the human body. A) Galileo B) Harvey C) Hunter D) Galen Answer: B Page Ref: 20 Objective: 2.4 3) Who is considered "The Lady with the Lamp"? A) Barb Florencewell B) Clara Barton C) Elizabeth Blackwell D) Florence Nightingale Answer: D Page Ref: 23 Objective: 2.6 4) places great emphasis on the relationship between the musculoskeletal systems and the organs of the body. A) Osteopathic medicine B) Podiatric medicine C) Optometric medicine D) Pediatric medicine Answer: A Page Ref: 26 Objective: 2.1

5) Who was the first person to observe and describe bacteria as "tiny little beasties"? A) Hippocrates B) Anton van Leeuwenhoek C) Galileo D) William Harvey Answer: B Page Ref: 21 Objective: 2.4 6) Who is called the Founder of Scientific Surgery and developed surgery and surgical pathology into a science? A) John Hunter B) Galileo C) Hippocrates D) William Harvey Answer: A Page Ref: 21 Objective: 2.5 7) , a Greek physician, stressed the value of anatomy and founded experimental physiology. A) Galileo B) John Hunter C) Hippocrates D) Galen Answer: D Page Ref: 20 Objective: 2.4 8) A major advancement in medicine was made by A) John Hunter B) Rene Laennec C) William Harvey D) Barb Florencewell Answer: B Page Ref: 21 Objective: 2.5

, who invented the stethoscope.

9) Antiseptic systems that are still used in surgery today are attributed to the work of A) Edward Jenner B) William Harvey C) Joseph Lister D) John Hunter Answer: C Page Ref: 22 Objective: 2.5 4

10) During the Civil War, she established the American Red Cross and the Federal Bureau of Records. A) Jonas Salk B) Elizabeth Blackwell C) Florence Nightingale D) Clara Barton Answer: D Page Ref: 24 Objective: 2.6 11) is considered the founder of modern nursing. A) Mary Smith B) Elizabeth Blackwell C) Florence Nightingale D) Clara Barton Answer: C Page Ref: 23 Objective: 2.6 12) was the first female physician in the United States. A) Mary Smith B) Elizabeth Blackwell C) Florence Nightingale D) Clara Barton Answer: B Page Ref: 23 Objective: 2.6 13) A(n) consist of three or more physicians who share the same facility (office or clinic) and practice medicine together. A) sole proprietorship B) partnership C) associate practice D) group practice Answer: D Page Ref: 27 Objective: 2.10 14) The is a legal arrangement in which physicians agree to share a facility and staff. A) sole proprietorship B) partnership C) associate practice D) group practice Answer: C Page Ref: 27 Objective: 2.10 5

15) A(n) treats abnormal responses or acquired hypersensitivity to substances with medical methods, including testing and desensitization. A) allergist B) cardiologist C) dermatologist D) anesthesiologist Answer: A Page Ref: 28 Objective: 2.11 16) A(n) is trained to administer both local and general drugs to induce a complete or partial loss of feeling during a surgical procedure. A) allergist B) cardiologist C) dermatologist D) anesthesiologist Answer: D Page Ref: 28 Objective: 2.11 17) A(n) is trained to treat cardiovascular disease. This physician has received special training in the diseases and disorders of the heart and blood vessels. A) allergist B) cardiologist C) dermatologist D) anesthesiologist Answer: B Page Ref: 28 Objective: 2.11 18) A(n) treats injuries, growths, and infections relating to the skin, hair, and nails. This physician may treat patients either medically or surgically. A) allergist B) cardiologist C) dermatologist D) anesthesiologist Answer: C Page Ref: 28 Objective: 2.11

19) A(n) specializes in the development and care of children from birth to maturity. A) neurologist B) pediatrician C) ophthalmologist D) orthopedist Answer: B Page Ref: 30 Objective: 2.11 20) A(n) specializes in pathology of the kidney, including disorders and diseases. A) neurologist B) nephrologist C) ophthalmologist D) orthopedist Answer: B Page Ref: 29 Objective: 2.11 21) A(n) treats disorders of the eye, which includes the diagnosis and treatment of vision problems using both medical and surgical procedures. A) neurologist B) nephrologist C) ophthalmologist D) orthopedist Answer: C Page Ref: 30 Objective: 2.11 22) A(n) specializes in the branch of medicine that deals with the prevention and correction of disorders of the musculoskeletal system. A) neurologist B) nephrologist C) ophthalmologist D) orthopedist Answer: D Page Ref: 30 Objective: 2.11 23) specializes in the medical and surgical treatment of ear, nose, and throat disorders. A) Rheumatology B) Psychiatry C) Pathology D) Otorhinolaryngology Answer: D Page Ref: 30 Objective: 2.11 7

24) A(n) specializes in diagnosing abnormal changes in tissues that are removed during a surgical operation and in postmortem examinations. A) rheumatologist B) psychiatrist C) pathologist D) orthopedist Answer: C Page Ref: 30 Objective: 2.11 25) A(n) specializes in the diagnosis and treatment of patients with mental, behavioral, or emotional disorders and is also qualified to prescribe and administer medications. A) rheumatologist B) psychiatrist C) pathologist D) radiologist Answer: B Page Ref: 30 Objective: 2.11 26) A(n) treats disorders and diseases characterized by inflammation of the joints, such as arthritis. A) rheumatologist B) psychiatrist C) pathologist D) orthopedist Answer: A Page Ref: 31 Objective: 2.11 27) A medical assistant working alongside a will most often be setting up referral services for patients who have diabetes, gastrointestinal disorders, and cancer and have special nutrition requirements. A) dental hygienist B) pharmacist C) medical laboratory professionals D) dietician Answer: D Page Ref: 37 Objective: 2.14

28) is a recent advancement in modern medicine and used routinely during certain forms of surgery. A) Aseptic technique B) Anesthesia C) Robotics D) Blood transfusions Answer: C Page Ref: 24 Objective: 2.7 29) A(n) types or enters into the computer dictation that is taken from a recording machine or tape. A) unit clerk B) medical transcriptionist C) psychiatrist D) ophthalmologist Answer: B Page Ref: 40 Objective: 2.13 30) A(n) is skilled in drawing blood from patients. A) podiatrist B) ophthalmologist C) phlebotomist D) rheumatologist Answer: C Page Ref: 39 Objective: 2.13 31) are trained in the operation of X-ray equipment such as ultrasound, computerized tomography (CT) scan, magnetic resonance imaging (CT) scan, and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) equipment. A) Diagnostic imaging technicians B) Medical laboratory technicians C) Medical technologists D) Medical transcriptionists Answer: A Page Ref: 39 Objective: 2.13

32) are skilled in testing blood, urine, lymph, and body tissues. A) Pathologists B) Medical assistants C) Medical transcriptionists D) Laboratory technicians Answer: D Page Ref: 40 Objective: 2.13 33) A(n) provides treatment to people who are physically, mentally, developmentally, or emotionally disabled. A) occupational therapist (OT) B) physical therapist (PT) C) physician's assistant (PA) D) RN Answer: A Page Ref: 36 Objective: 2.13 34) A(n) treats diseases or disabilities of the joints, bones, and nerves by massage, therapeutic exercises, and heat and cold treatments. A) occupational therapist (OT) B) physical therapist (PT) C) physician's assistant (PA) D) RN Answer: B Page Ref: 36 Objective: 2.13 35) A(n) evaluates, treats, and cares for patients with breathing problems. A) occupational therapist (OT) B) physical therapist (PT) C) respiratory therapist (RT) D) RN Answer: C Page Ref: 36 Objective: 2.13 36) The were developed to define the body of knowledge and specific skills health care workers are expected to possess for entry-level and technical-level positions. A) National Medical Level Skill Standards B) Certified Medical Skills Standards C) Health and Human Services Standards D) National Health Care Skills Standards Answer: D Page Ref: 35 Objective: 2.13 10

37) involves the issuing of a certificate and credentials by a professional organization to one who has met the educational/experience standards of that organization. A) Licensure B) Registration C) Certification D) Accreditation Answer: C Page Ref: 34 Objective: 2.13 38) A(n) offers living arrangements for the older adult in which each resident or couple has a separate apartment and pays a fixed fee to have some meals and services provided. A) skilled nursing facility B) intermediate-care facility C) extended-care facility D) assisted living facility Answer: D Page Ref: 33 Objective: 2.12 39) surgery involves the reconstruction of underlying tissues. A) Cosmetic B) Hand C) Colorectal D) Cardiovascular Answer: A Page Ref: 31 Objective: 2.11 40) is a private nonprofit organization that encourages high standards of medical care and also accredits institutions who meet strict guidelines. A) Health and Human Services B) The Joint Commission C) The Board of Medical Examiners D) The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention Answer: B Page Ref: 32 Objective: 2.12

41) The serves as a widely used ethical guide for physicians who pledge to work for the good of the patient, to do him or her no harm, to prescribe no deadly drugs, to give no advice that could cause death, and to keep confidential medical information regarding the patient. A) Medical Oath B) Code of Hammurabi C) Hypothetical Oath D) Hippocratic Oath Answer: D Page Ref: 19, 20 Objective: 2.3 42) A practices medicine, which is the science of diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of disease, and requires a minimum of nine to ten years of education and training. A) doctor (MD) B) RN C) registered medical assistant (RMA) D) LPN Answer: A Page Ref: 25 Objective: 2.8 43) maintain the requirements for licensure (granting of a license), duties of that license, grounds on which the license can be revoked or taken away, and reports that must be made to the government. A) Hospitals B) Medical examination boards C) Doctors D) Medical practice acts Answer: D Page Ref: 26 Objective: 2.9 44) It is necessary for physicians to maintain their license by periodic or biannually. A) reregistration B) retesting C) relicensing D) reciprocity Answer: A Page Ref: 26 Objective: 2.9

, either annually

45) is known as the Father of Western Medicine. A) Nightingale B) Hippocrates C) Pasteur D) Janssen Answer: B Page Ref: 19 Objective: 2.3 46) are intended for patients who require skilled nursing care around the clock. A) Skilled nursing facilities B) Intermediate-care facilities C) Extended-care facilities D) Assisted living facilities Answer: A Page Ref: 33 Objective: 2.12 47) Which of the following is NOT one of the four levels of Emergency Medical Services training? A) Emergency Level Responder (EMR) B) Emergency Level Technician (EMT) C) Emergency Level Professional (ELP) D) Paramedic Answer: C Page Ref: 37 Objective: 2.13 48) The field of deals with the ordering, maintaining, preparing, and distributing prescription medications. A) nursing B) medicine C) pharmacy D) medication Answer: C Page Ref: 38 Objective: 2.13 49) refers to the massive database known as medical records. A) Health and medical records technology B) Database C) Medical records database D) Health information technology Answer: D Page Ref: 40 Objective: 2.13 13

50) The is still considered the key resource for healthcare in the United States. A) hospital B) physician's office C) ambulance D) Medical Assistant Answer: A Page Ref: 31 Objective: 2.12 51) A patient who remains overnight in a hospital receives A) outpatient B) ambulatory C) inpatient D) emergency Answer: C Page Ref: 31 Objective: 2.1

care.

52) A patient who is severely burned would likely receive treatment at a(n) A) research B) general C) teaching D) specialty Answer: D Page Ref: 32 Objective: 2.12 53) A patient who is obese might seek treatment from a physician who specializes in A) obstetrics B) bariatrics C) oncology D) geriatrics Answer: B Page Ref: 28 Objective: 2.11

hospital.

54) In a(n) medical practice, physicians share a staff but NOT legal responsibility for each other's actions. A) solo B) associate C) group D) partner Answer: B Page Ref: 27 Objective: 2.10

55) involves the practice of one state accepting a license from another state where a physician is already licensed. A) Registration B) Licensure C) Certification D) Reciprocity Answer: D Page Ref: 26 Objective: 2.9

Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting, 4e (Beaman) Chapter 3 Medical Law and Ethics True/False Questions 1) Criminal law concerns relationships between individuals or between individuals and the government. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 45 Objective: 3.2 2) The medical assistant is not licensed to practice medicine and must make sure that he does not try to treat or diagnose a patient's condition. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 45 Objective: 3.5 3) A tort is a wrongful act that is committed against another person or property that results in harm. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 45 Objective: 3.2 4) It is easier to prevent negligence than it is to defend it. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 46 Objective: 3.4 5) Customer service etiquette asserts that the physician must provide the same knowledge, care, and skill that a similarly trained physician would provide under the same circumstances in the same locality. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 47 Objective: 3.4 6) The doctrine of res ipsa loquitur tells us that the breach (neglect) of duty is so obvious that is does not need further explanation. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 50 Objective: 3.4 7) Good citizenship laws are state laws that help protect a healthcare professional from liability while giving emergency care to an accident victim. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 51 Objective: 3.5 1

8) The statute of limitations refers to the period of time during which a patient can file a lawsuit. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 50 Objective: 3.7 9) Public humiliation is a scandalous statement about someone that can injure the person's reputation. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 51 Objective: 3.2 10) A copy of the living will should be kept with the patient's record. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 55 Objective: 3.10 11) You should always memorize testimony for a court case ahead of time. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 58 Objective: 3.12 12) A medical assistant can call herself a nurse. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 64 Objective: 3.5 13) Medical ethics refers to the moral conduct of people in medical professions. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 65 Objective: 3.15 14) The Patient Care Partnership includes information regarding what a patient should expect during a hospital stay. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 52 Objective: 3.10 15) It is a violation of HIPAA to tell a friend specific details of a patient's condition. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 70 Objective: 3.16 16) Covered entities, as defined by HIPAA, include health plans, healthcare clearinghouses, and providers who conduct certain healthcare transactions electronically. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 70 Objective: 3.16 2

17) Faxes and e-mails that contain private patient information are NOT covered by HIPAA because they are sent electronically. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 70 Objective: 3.16 18) A medical assistant should undergo HIPAA training during his orientation at a new job. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 70 Objective: 3.12 19) Patients can only find out who had access to their private health information if the medical office agrees to release that information. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 70 Objective: 3.16 20) All patients must sign an authorization to release information to a spouse or adult children. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 70 Objective: 3.16 21) A medical assistant should use caution when speaking with a patient over a speakerphone. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 71 Objective: 3.16 22) A physician cannot be held legally responsible for something the staff said to a patient. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 3.9 Objective: 3.12 23) During the hiring process, a medical assistant should share any personal, religious, or ethical beliefs that might affect her ability to participate in various procedures with a physician. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 67 Objective: 3.5 24) When signing a contract, acceptance occurs when something of value is exchanged. A physician provides the service, and the patient pays for the service. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 47 Objective: 3.3

25) Prior-acts coverage covers the physician for any claim for an incident that occurred while the insurance policy was in effect, even if the physician has different coverage when the claim is filed. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 50 Objective: 3.8 26) According to compliance reporting, physician's office is required to document the total number of cases for certain diseases over a predetermined period of time. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 60 Objective: 3.13 27) Standard of care is determined to be what a reasonable person of the same education and training would probably have done. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 72 Objective: 3.6 Multiple Choice Questions 1) is the threat of bodily harm to another. A) Assault B) Battery C) Larceny D) Intimidation Answer: A Page Ref: 46 Objective: 3.1 2) is the actual bodily harm to another person. A) Assault B) Battery C) Larceny D) Intimidation Answer: B Page Ref: 46 Objective: 3.1

3) concerns relationships between individuals or between individuals and the government. A) Criminal law B) Civil law C) International law D) Military law Answer: B Page Ref: 46 Objective: 3.1 4) laws are made to protect the public as a whole from the harmful acts of others. A) Criminal B) Civil C) International D) Military Answer: A Page Ref: 46 Objective: 3.1 5) is a deceitful practice. A) Defamation of character B) Battery C) Assault D) Fraud Answer: D Page Ref: 46 Objective: 3.1 6) A(n) results in harm. A) tort B) contract C) insult D) diatribe Answer: A Page Ref: 46 Objective: 3.1

is a wrongful act that is committed against another person or property that

7) Which of the following is NOT one of the four Ds of negligence? A) Direct cause B) Dereliction of duty C) Damages D) Defamation of character Answer: D Page Ref: 47 Objective: 3.4 5

8) The physician may be charged with of the patient if he does NOT give formal notice of withdrawal from a patient's medical care, or case. A) abandonment B) rejection C) neglect D) elimination Answer: A Page Ref: 48 Objective: 3.2 9) Ethical decisions pertaining to life issues are referred to as A) humanistic ethics B) meta-ethics C) bioethics D) biogenetic ethics Answer: C Page Ref: 67 Objective: 3.10

10) are NOT a component of HIPAA training. A) Privacy regulations B) Security regulations C) Credit standards D) Transaction standards Answer: C Page Ref: 70 Objective: 3.16 11) Punitive damages are . A) monetary penalties incurred for damages B) collected only in cases of malpractice C) meant to punish an individual's behavior D) the same as compensatory damages Answer: C Page Ref: 50 Objective: 3.7 12) The asserts that the physician must provide the same knowledge, care, and skill that a similarly trained physician would provide under the same circumstances in the same locality. A) standard of care B) ethical standards C) code of ethics D) care of atypical Answer: A Page Ref: 52 Objective: 3.5 6

13) means that the plaintiff must prove that the defendant's acts (or failure to act) directly caused the injury. A) Just cause B) Proximate cause C) Approximate cause D) Reasonable cause Answer: B Page Ref: 47 Objective: 3.7 14) The allows patients to request that life-sustaining treatments and nutritional support NOT be used to prolong their life. A) doctor's order B) spousal consent C) living will D) doctrine of informed consent Answer: C Page Ref: 55 Objective: 3.10 15) In most cases, employers carry liability insurance coverage to cover acts of their employees during the course of carrying out their duties. A) business B) general C) medical D) employer Answer: B Page Ref: 50 Objective: 3.8 16) A medical assistant who tells a patient that another physician is incompetent is an example of . A) assault B) libel C) fraud D) defamation of character Answer: D Page Ref: 46 Objective: 3.2

17) Which is NOT one of the physician's rights? A) Selecting patients she wishes to treat B) Refusing service to patients C) Taking vacations and time off D) Terminating treatment as desired Answer: D Page Ref: 51 Objective: 3.10 18) The Doctrine of Informed Consent includes all of the following, EXCEPT A) the cost of treatment B) explanation of advantages and risks to treatment C) alternatives available to the patient D) potential outcomes to the treatment Answer: A Page Ref: 52 Objective: 3.11

19) The Doctrine of Informed Consent includes all of the following, EXCEPT A) potential outcomes to the treatment B) potential outcomes of non-treatment C) the use of understandable language D) the physician's credentials Answer: D Page Ref: 52 Objective: 3.11

20) Touching someone without the person's consent is referred to as A) assault B) neglect C) battery D) negligence Answer: C Page Ref: 52 Objective: 3.2 21) Which is NOT a legal implication to consider when treating a minor? A) Minor's medical knowledge B) Right to confidentiality C) Financial responsibility D) Minor's legal guardian Answer: A Page Ref: 54 Objective: 3.10

22) The allows persons 18 years or older, and of sound mind, to make a gift of any or all parts or their body for purposes of organ transplants or medical research at the time of death. A) Uniform Commercial Code B) Anatomical Uniform Gift Act C) Uniform Anatomical Gift Act D) Anatomical Commercial Code Answer: C Page Ref: 55 Objective: 3.10 23) is a safeguard that someone will be able to act on the patient's behalf if he or she becomes physically or mentally incapacitated. A) Right to life B) Informed consent C) Reasonable person standard D) Durable power of attorney Answer: D Page Ref: 55 Objective: 3.9 24) Which of the following is NOT suggested for giving testimony in court? A) Answer all questions even if you don't fully understand. B) Be professional. C) Remain calm, dignified, and serious at all times. D) Do not memorize your testimony. Answer: A Page Ref: 58 Objective: 3.12 25) A is an adult, generally appointed by the court, who will act in court on behalf of the child. A) parent B) next of kin C) court-appointed guardian D) guardian ad litem Answer: D Page Ref: 51 Objective: 3.9

26) relates to the patient's contribution to the injury, which if proven, could release the physician as the direct cause. A) Contributory negligence B) Patient's responsibility C) Passing the buck D) Patient's self-inflection Answer: A Page Ref: 47 Objective: 3.4 27) Which is a typical job responsibility for a medical assistant? A) Diagnosing medical conditions B) Interpreting electrocardiograms C) Dispensing medication D) Maintaining patient confidentiality Answer: D Page Ref: 72 Objective: 3.5 28) A medical assistant should do all of the following, EXCEPT . A) never make promises regarding what the physician can do for the patient B) make petty cash readily available to all staff members C) relay any dissatisfied patients' comments to the physician D) log and return telephone calls promptly Answer: B Page Ref: 63 Objective: 3.14 29) When considering rules for documentation, the medical assistant should do all of the following, EXCEPT . A) sign or initial every note they make in the medical record B) type all documents C) provide all instructions to patients in writing D) document all missed appointments Answer: B Page Ref: 64 Objective: 3.14 30) Which is NOT a component of the AMA Principles of Medical Ethics? A) Human dignity B) Diversity awareness C) Freedom of choice D) Community improvement Answer: B Page Ref: 67 Objective: 3.5 10

31) Which is NOT one of principles of the American Association of Medical Assistants (AAMA) Code of Medical Ethics? A) Human dignity B) Legal considerations C) Continued study D) Honor Answer: B Page Ref: 68 Objective: 3.15 32) Obtain a parent or guardian's A) guidance B) verbal permission C) opinion D) signature Answer: D Page Ref: 54 Objective: 3.9

before any procedure is performed on a minor.

33) If you knowingly overlook a hazard that a guilty of negligence. A) reasonable person B) physician C) prudent person D) nurse Answer: A Page Ref: 65 Objective: 3.4

would report and eliminate, you can be

34) The improper use of someone else's money or assets is A) arbitration B) malpractice C) neglect D) exploitation Answer: D Page Ref: 59 Objective: 3.1 35) The medical assistant is responsible for making sure there is a A) written B) signed C) typed D) documented Answer: B Page Ref: 52 Objective: 3.11 11

_ consent form.

36) The physician-patient contract can be terminated for which action? A) failure to pay for service B) asking questions about treatment C) rescheduling an appointment D) requesting a copy of medical records Answer: A Page Ref: 48 Objective: 3.9 37) Which Latin phrase means that the physician/employer is liable for the negligent actions of anyone in their employ ("Let the master answer")? A) Res ipsa loquitur B) Respondeat superior C) Res judicata D) Guardian ad litem Answer: B Page Ref: 48 Objective: 3.9 38) Which is NOT one of the "four Ds of negligence" that must be proven when a charge of negligence is made? A) Duty B) Direct cause C) Damages D) Delegation Answer: D Page Ref: 47 Objective: 3.4 39) The termination of the contract between a physician and patient generally occurs when . A) the diagnosis has been made B) the treatment has taken effect C) the treatment has worked D) the treatment has ended and the fee has been paid Answer: D Page Ref: 48 Objective: 3.10

40) Physicians are NOT expected to expose their patients to undue risk. If the physician violates this standard of care, he is liable for . A) proximate cause B) breach of contract C) negligence D) slander Answer: C Page Ref: 47 Objective: 3.4 41) The statute of limitations may begin when the problem is discovered, which may be some time after the actual treatment was administered. This is known as . A) res ipsa loquitur B) respondeat superior C) the rule of discovery D) proximate cause Answer: C Page Ref: 51 Objective: 3.9 42) According to the Doctrine of Informed Consent, in which situation is the physician NOT required to inform the patient? A) when the doctor decides it is not necessary B) when the patient asks the physician not to disclose the risk C) when disclosure of risks may be detrimental to the patient D) when risks are commonly known Answer: D Page Ref: 54 Objective: 3.11 43) A physician who performs a lawful act, but not in a proper way, describes which form of malpractice? A) misfeasance B) nonfeasance C) dereliction D) malfeasance Answer: A Page Ref: 49 Objective: 3.7

44) is defined as diagnosing and prescribing treatment or medication. A) Prescription filling B) Practicing medicine C) Focus on prevention D) Standard of care Answer: B Page Ref: 46 Objective: 3.1 45) means that the patient is informed about the possible consequences of both having and not having certain procedures and treatments. A) Preoperational briefing B) Due diligence C) Informed consent D) Informational waiver Answer: C Page Ref: 48 Objective: 3.11 46) is a spoken, defaming statement made about another person. A) Rumor B) Misquote C) Libel D) Slander Answer: D Page Ref: 46 Objective: 3.1 47) A contract between two parties should include a(n) A) Offer B) Acceptance C) Consideration D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 47 Objective: 3.3

48) A person is considered incompetent to enter into a contract if the person A) is under the influence of drugs B) is mentally incapacitated C) is a minor child D) all of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 48 Objective: 3.3

49) Which type of insurance covers the physician only if the company that insured the physician at the time of the incident is the same company that insures the physician when the claim is made? A) Occurrence coverage B) Claims-made coverage C) Tail-coverage D) Prior-acts coverage Answer: B Page Ref: 50 Objective: 3.8 50) Which is NOT a step to compliance reporting based on public health statutes? A) Accurately filling out the "Physician Information" section of the form B) Determining if the disease requires immediate telephone reporting C) Completing the "Patient Information" section of the report form D) Mailing the original, signed report to the Department of Health Answer: A Page Ref: 63 Objective: 3.13

Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting, 4e (Beaman) Chapter 4 Medical Terminology True/False Questions 1) Medical terminology is derived mostly from Latin and Greek words. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 77 Objective: 4.2 2) A competent medical assistant must learn every possible medical term. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 76 Objective: 4.2 3) A medical dictionary and a reputable Internet site are two good resources for learning new medical terms. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 76 Objective: 4.1 4) A combining vowel is sometimes added when joining a word root with a suffix or another root. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 76 Objective: 4.1 5) A combining vowel is most often the letter "a." Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 76 Objective: 4.1 6) A combining form is a word root with an attached vowel. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 77 Objective: 4.1 7) To understand the meaning of a medical term, it is helpful to break it down into its separate parts. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 76 Objective: 4.2 8) A prefix is a word element that is placed at the end of a word to alter its meaning. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 76 Objective: 4.1 1

9) The word root coron means hand. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 78 Objective: 4.3 10) The word root aur means ear. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 77 Objective: 4.3 11) To form a medical term that means blue, you might use the word root cyan. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 78 Objective: 4.3 12) The word root for horny tissue or hard is lacrim. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 78 Objective: 4.3 13) The word root for tongue is lingu. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 79 Objective: 4.3 14) The prefix anti means against. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 81 Objective: 4.3 15) The prefix inter refers to within. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 82 Objective: 4.3 16) The prefix mal means bad. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 82 Objective: 4.3 17) Para is a suffix that means outside, beyond, or around. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 83 Objective: 4.3

18) A suffix is a word element that is added to the end of a word. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 76 Objective: 4.1 19) Both prefixes and suffixes can only have one meaning. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 82 Objective: 4.1 20) The suffix emesis means vomiting. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 83 Objective: 4.3 21) Dynia is a suffix that means pain. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 83 Objective: 4.3 22) Ptysis is a prefix that means spitting. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 97 Objective: 4.3 23) The suffix rrhaphy means to suture or stitch. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 98 Objective: 4.3 24) To create a medical term about something that is "bursting forth," you would likely use the suffix rrhagia. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 84 Objective: 4.3 25) The plural form of crisis is crises. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 85 Objective: 4.4

Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which term is a combining form? A) Abdomin B) Derm/o C) -Ectomy D) Chiro Answer: B Page Ref: 81 Objective: 4.1 2) The word root athr means A) neck B) pain C) joint D) lip Answer: C Page Ref: 77 Objective: 4.3

3) A word root that means water is A) hydr B) hidr C) lacrim D) mast Answer: A Page Ref: 78 Objective: 4.3

4) A word root that means white is A) cyan B) leuk C) erythr D) faci Answer: B Page Ref: 79 Objective: 4.3

5) The word roots hem and hemat both mean A) milk B) heart C) lobe D) blood Answer: D Page Ref: 78 Objective: 4.3

6) A word root that means speech is A) psych B) phas C) physi D) pharyng Answer: B Page Ref: 79 Objective: 4.3

7) The word root stoma means A) mouth B) stomach C) vessel D) uterus Answer: A Page Ref: 80 Objective: 4.3

8) What do the prefixes bi and bin both mean? A) Before B) Two C) Bad D) None Answer: B Page Ref: 81 Objective: 4.3 9) The prefix brady means A) fast B) against C) slow D) half Answer: C Page Ref: 81 Objective: 4.3

10) What does the word hematuria mean? A) Inflammation of the kidney B) The study of blood C) Painful urination D) Blood in the urine Answer: D Page Ref: 82 Objective: 4.2

11) A suffix that means inflammation is A) pnea B) rrhexis C) itis D) rrhagia Answer: C Page Ref: 83 Objective: 4.3

12) The commonly used medical abbreviation for by mouth is A) prn B) sl C) gm D) po Answer: D Page Ref: 86 Objective: 4.5

13) Areas that are farther from the medial or midsagittal plane are A) distal B) proximal C) horizontal D) lateral Answer: D Page Ref: 87 Objective: 4.6 14) The A) umbilical B) dorsal C) thoracic D) orthopneic Answer: A Page Ref: 89 Objective: 4.8

region describes where the navel is found.

15) A specialist who would treat arthritis is called a(n) A) nephrologist B) rheumatologist C) osteopath D) gastroenterologist Answer: B Page Ref: 93 Objective: 4.9

16) Inflammation of the heart muscle is called A) myocarditis B) fasciitis C) arteriostenosis D) atherosclerosis Answer: A Page Ref: 93 Objective: 4.2

17) The thoracic cavity contains the heart and the A) brain B) abdomen C) lungs D) spine Answer: C Page Ref: 87 Objective: 4.7

18) Entering a vein to place a catheter or medication is known as a(n) A) subcutaneous B) intramuscular C) intravenous D) venal Answer: C Page Ref: 86 Objective: 4.2 19) Fasciitis is inflammation of the A) facial muscles B) fascia C) lips D) foot Answer: B Page Ref: 93 Objective: 4.2 20) The word root A) sidro B) kin C) ortho D) later Answer: D Page Ref: 79 Objective: 4.3

means side.

procedure.

21) The word root edema means A) swelling B) secrete out of C) tissue D) menstruation Answer: A Page Ref: 78 Objective: 4.3 22) Cells in the when stained. A) immune B) circulatory C) nervous D) respiratory Answer: A Page Ref: 94 Objective: 4.9

system are sometimes named for their color, or the color they become

23) What is the suffix that means to stop? A) opsy B) mani C) stat D) non Answer: C Page Ref: 84 Objective: 4.3 24) What does the suffix ptosis mean? A) Flowing B) Above, beyond C) Formation D) Drooping; sagging; prolapse Answer: D Page Ref: 84 Objective: 4.3 25) A directional term that means the front side of the body is A) superior B) anterior C) posterior D) medial Answer: B Page Ref: 89 Objective: 4.6

Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting, 4e (Beaman) Chapter 5 Communication: Verbal and Nonverbal True/False Questions 1) Sympathy is the willingness or the ability to understand what the patient is feeling acknowledging another person's feelings or difficulties without necessarily experiencing the same thing. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 111 Objective: 5.1 2) Empathy is feeling sorry for, or pitying, the patient. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 111 Objective: 5.1 3) Active listening is listening to someone without having to reply, such as when you are a member of an audience. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 108 Objective: 5.1 4) Close-ended questions can be answered with a "yes" or "a no" response. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 110 Objective: 5.1 5) Passive listening involves paying attention to the speaker completely, concentrating on the verbal message, observing for nonverbal cues, and offering a response. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 109 Objective: 5.1 6) Open-ended questions can be useful in gaining feedback or drawing out patient information. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 110 Objective: 5.1 7) Exploratory questions are used to ask the patient for further information to more fully discuss the subject. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 110 Objective: 5.1

8) Reflecting is a directive technique in which you mirror the patient's message back to the individual to ensure that you have understood him correctly.the message correctly. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 110 Objective: 5.1 9) Restating or paraphrasing is repeating the patient's message in your own words. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 110 Objective: 5.1 10) Being aggressive means that you make a point in a positive manner by standing firm, making decisions based on your principles or values, and trusting your own ideas or instincts in the situation. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 112 Objective: 5.1, 5.6 11) Being assertive is trying to impose your point of view on others or trying to manipulate others. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 112 Objective: 5.1, 5.6 12) A defensive behavior is a reaction to a perceived threat that is usually unconscious in nature. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 117 Objective: 5.8 13) Bias results when negative generalities concerning specific characteristics of a group are applied unfairly to an entire population. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 124 Objective: 5.2 14) Stereotyping is an unfair preference or dislike of something. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 125 Objective: 5.1 15) The goal in the medical office should be to establish a sense of rapport (an environment of cooperation) with patients, coworkers, supervisors, and vendors. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 127 Objective: 5.10

16) When speaking communicating with a patient who does NOT speak English, it is useful to raise your voice. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 124-125 Objective: 5.7 17) Medical assistants and other healthcare professionals should view the patient as a consumer of healthcare. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 113 Objective: 5.6 18) Many times, the medical assistant creates a patient's first impression of a medical practice or facility. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 113 Objective: 5.6 19) Critical thinking includes the ability to creatively solve problems. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 129 Objective: 5.10 20) Ethnicity is a classification of people based on a group to which they belong. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 124 Objective: 5.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) are a set of standards a person uses to measure the worth or importance of someone or something. A) Prejudices B) Values C) Characters D) Behaviors Answer: B Page Ref: 104 Objective: 5.1

2) is the sum of the values, attitudes, and behaviors a person exhibits. A) Prejudice B) Value C) Character D) Behavior Answer: C Page Ref: 104 Objective: 5.1 3) Justifying thoughts or behaviors to avoid the truth is called _ A) regression B) introjection C) sublimation D) rationalization Answer: D Page Ref: 118 Objective: 5.8

4) All of the following are the basic units of the communication process, EXCEPT A) channel B) reception C) message D) receiver/sender Answer: B Page Ref: 104 Objective: 5.3 5) The learner is one who retains information better by hearing. A) active B) kinesthetic C) visual D) auditory Answer: D Page Ref: 104 Objective: 5.1, 5.3 6) The learner learns better by hands-on activities and movement. A) active B) kinesthetic C) visual D) auditory Answer: B Page Ref: 104 Objective: 5.1, 5.3

7) communication is the language of gesture and actions, including body language. A) Nonverbal B) Verbal C) Empathic D) Sympathetic Answer: A Page Ref: 106 Objective: 5.1, 5.4 8) communication depends on words and sounds or tones of voice. A) Nonverbal B) Verbal C) Empathetic D) Sympathetic Answer: B Page Ref: 106 Objective: 5.1, 5.4 9) is the ability to understand what the patient is feeling because you have experienced the same feelings. A) Nonverbal communication B) Verbal communication C) Empathy D) Sympathy Answer: C Page Ref: 111 Objective: 5.1 10) is feeling sorry for the patient. A) Entropy B) Sympathy C) Empathy D) Pity Answer: D Page Ref: 111 Objective: 5.1 11) involves paying attention to the speaker completely, concentrating on the verbal message, observing for nonverbal cues, and offering a response. A) Active listening B) Passive listening C) Close-ended questioning D) Open-ended questioning Answer: A Page Ref: 108-109 Objective: 5.1 5

12) is simply listening to someone without having to reply, such as when you are listening as a member of an audience. A) Active listening B) Passive listening C) Empathetic listening D) Sympathetic listening Answer: B Page Ref: 109 Objective: 5.1 13) can be answered with a yes or a no. A) Logical questions B) Strategic questions C) Close-ended questions D) Open-ended questions Answer: C Page Ref: 110 Objective: 5.1 14) are used to ask the patient for further information to more fully discuss a subject. A) Leading questions B) Exploratory questions C) Close-ended questions D) Open-ended questions Answer: B Page Ref: 110 Objective: 5.1 15) Which guideline can should be applied to display active listening? A) Avoid being distracted B) Avoid making nonverbal cues C) Stand or sit very close to the person D) Interrupt and clarify if you do not understand Answer: A Page Ref: 109 Objective: 5.5 16) is a directive technique in which you mirror the patient's message back to the individual to ensure that you have understood her correctly. A) Feedback B) Reflecting C) Restating D) Clarification Answer: B Page Ref: 110 Objective: 5.1 6

17) is repeating the patient's message to him in your own words. A) Feedback B) Reflecting C) Restating D) Clarification Answer: C Page Ref: 110 Objective: 5.1 18) is a directive technique in which the medical assistant requests more information in order to better understand what the patient has stated. A) Feedback B) Reflecting C) Restating D) Clarification Answer: D Page Ref: 110 Objective: 5.1 19) questions contain part of the answer in the question. A) Assertive B) Probing C) Defensive D) Leading Answer: D Page Ref: 110 Objective: 5.1 20) Being means that you make a point in a positive manner by standing firm, making decisions based on your principles or values, and trusting your own ideas or instincts in the situation. A) assertive B) aggressive C) defensive D) probing Answer: A Page Ref: 112 Objective: 5.1, 5.6

21) Being is trying to impose your point of view on others or trying to manipulate others. A) assertive B) aggressive C) defensive D) probing Answer: B Page Ref: 112 Objective: 5.1, 5.6 22) A person who uses _ truth. A) rationalization B) sublimation C) truncation D) probing Answer: A Page Ref: 118 Objective: 5.1, 5.8 23) A person in A) pain B) love C) denial D) sublimation Answer: C Page Ref: 118 Objective: 5.1, 5.8

will justify their thoughts or behavior in order to avoid the

_ will unconsciously avoid an unwanted feeling or situation.

24) is an unfair preference or dislike of something. A) Stereotyping B) Bias C) Ethnocentrism D) Ethnicity Answer: B Page Ref: 124 Objective: 5.1 25) is a classification of people based on a group to which they belong. A) Stereotyping B) Bias C) Ethnocentric D) Ethnicity Answer: D Page Ref: 124 Objective: 5.1 8

26) people believe their cultural background is better than any other. A) Stereotyping B) Biased C) Ethnocentric D) Ethnic Answer: C Page Ref: 124 Objective: 5.1 27) The medical assistant turned to face the patient and made appropriate eye contact when the patient started speaking. This is an example of a guideline involving . A) active listening B) assertiveness C) critical thinking D) feedback Answer: A Page Ref: 109 Objective: 5.5 28) A person demonstrates when he or she thinks imaginatively, solves problems, visualizes situations, learns new information, and thinks logically. A) conflict resolution B) risk management C) sound judgment D) critical thinking Answer: D Page Ref: 129 Objective: 5.10 29) A patient gives (NPP). A) allowance B) notice C) consent D) rapport Answer: C Page Ref: 130 Objective: 5.1

by signing a copy of a medical office's notice of privacy practices

30) Making direct eye contact when greeting a patient may be considered rude in which culture? A) Amish B) Asian C) Native American D) Jewish Answer: B Page Ref: 125 Objective: 5.9 9

31) medicine focuses on the whole patient. A) Holistic B) Ayurvedic C) Natural D) Homeopathic Answer: A Page Ref: 103 Objective: 5.1 32) is understanding oneself. A) Character B) Self-awareness C) Attitude D) Assessment Answer: B Page Ref: 104 Objective: 5.2 33) are opinions that develop from our value system. A) Attitudes B) Prejudices C) Visuals D) Assessments Answer: A Page Ref: 104 Objective: 5.1, 5.2 34) learners learn better by seeing the information. A) Holistic B) Auditory C) Visual D) Kinesthetic Answer: C Page Ref: 104 Objective: 5.1 35) A(n) employee protects and defends an employer when other employees engage in negative conversation. A) taciturn B) biased C) aggressive D) loyal Answer: D Page Ref: 129 Objective: 5.10 10

36) communication involves facial expressions, gestures, body language, eye contact, and mannerisms. A) Written B) Charted C) Verbal D) Nonverbal Answer: D Page Ref: 106 Objective: 5.1, 5.4 37) behavior is when you offer new ideas or even unwanted ideas to people in such a manner that they do NOT feel threatened. A) Assertive B) Aggressive C) Inappropriate D) Unacceptable Answer: A Page Ref: 112 Objective: 5.1, 5.6 38) Being A) negative B) pushy C) loyal D) straightforward Answer: D Page Ref: 112 Objective: 5.6

is considered an assertive behavior.

39) HIPAA designates as any facts that, if revealed, could potentially be used to identify an individual. A) confidential disclosure (CD) B) protected health information (PHI) C) privacy protected information (PPI) D) private patient material (PPM) Answer: B Page Ref: 130 Objective: 5.1, 5.11

40) A medical assistant must make an effort to avoid using patients. A) medical terminology B) assertiveness C) non verbal communication D) empathy Answer: A Page Ref: 116 Objective: 5.7

when speaking with

41) When working with a visually impaired patient, you should position yourself and speak as clearly as possible. A) facing toward B) facing away from C) across the room from D) as close as possible to Answer: A Page Ref: 121 Objective: 5.7 42) is turning back to former behavior patterns in time of stress. A) Regression B) Repression C) Rationalization D) Projection Answer: A Page Ref: 118 Objective: 5.8 43) Which cultural group believes that upset in body energy can cause disease? A) Chinese B) Native American C) Vietnamese D) Russian Answer: A Page Ref: 126 Objective: 5.9 44) A(n) presents one of the most difficult challenging communication problems. A) sick patient B) terminally ill patient C) hypochondriac patient D) angry patient Answer: D Page Ref: 117 Objective: 5.8 12

him

45) When performing touch as a form of nonverbal communication, which gesture may be considered rude? A) Touching a child's head without permission B) Performing a light-grip handshake with a patient who is Asian C) Gently touching a patient's arm who is distraught D) Offering a high-five to a Caucasian toddler when saying goodbye Answer: A Page Ref: 108 Objective: 5.2 46) Which is NOT a guideline for helping the hearing impaired? A) Select a quiet environment to communicate with the patient. B) Reduce outside noise as much as possible. C) Face the patient when speaking. D) Speak loudly and shout if necessary. Answer: D Page Ref: 120 Objective: 5.7 47) Which is NOT a guideline suggested to help the visually impaired patient? A) Give the patient some time alone. B) Face the patient and speak clearly. C) Describe the patient's surroundings. D) Explain all procedures in detail before beginning. Answer: A Page Ref: 121-122 Objective: 5.7 48) Which would be an appropriate response to a patient who asks a medical assistant's opinion on whether or not the patient should have a surgical procedure performed? A) "You are welcome to get a second opinion from another physician if you are having doubts." B) "I would look at reviews about the surgeon first." C) "Are you afraid to have surgery?" D) "I know other patients have been treated with just medication." Answer: A Page Ref: 131 Objective: 5.11 49) can be positive if it resolves issues of disagreement in an appropriate manner. A) Chastisement B) Confidence C) Conflict D) Punishment Answer: C Page Ref: 128 Objective: 5.10 13

50) Evaluating a plan and making adjustments to it, as necessary, is an important component of . A) team building B) problem solving C) critical thinking D) establishing trust Answer: B Page Ref: 129 Objective: 5.10 51) Which term may be an unprofessional way to address patients? A) Mister B) Missus (Mrs.) C) Miss D) Junior Answer: D Page Ref: 108 Objective: 5.11

Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting, 4e (Beaman) Chapter 6 The Office Environment True/False Questions 1) The federal government now requires that all clinical laboratories that test human specimens must be controlled. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 154 Objective: 6.14 2) Customer service consists of gathering and evaluating information about the services provided (as well as the results achieved) and comparing this information with an accepted standard. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 150 Objective: 6.14 3) Whenever any accident, injury, or unusual occurrence takes place, a written incident report must be completed. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 149 Objective: 6.10 4) Economics applies scientific information and data regarding human body mechanics to the design of objects and overall environments for human use. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 147 Objective: 6.13 5) Housekeeping personnel should empty biohazardous waste. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 145 Objective: 6.7 6) OSHA standards must be adhered to by every employee who has the possibility of occupational exposure to potentially infectious materials. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 142 Objective: 6.7 7) Safety is the responsibility of every member of the staff. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 136 Objective: 6.2

8) The Occupational Safety and Hazard Administration (OSHA) is a government agency responsible for the safety of all employees of companies operating throughout the world. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 135 Objective: 6.2 9) A Safety Data Sheet (SDS) offers basic information needed to ensure the safety and health of individuals exposed to a potentially hazardous product. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 140 Objective: 6.6 10) Each office should have an Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) compliance officer who is trained and aware of all the required controls for the use and storage of hazardous materials. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 140 Objective: 6.6 11) Many medical offices have adopted the acronym RACE to help employees remember what they should do in the event of a fire. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 138 Objective: 6.3 12) OSHA requires a record for each employee to be kept on file for three years after the termination of employment. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 143 Objective: 6.10 13) The OSHA Hazard Communication Standard (HCS) requires that employers disclose the existence of toxic and hazardous substances in the workplace. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 140 Objective: 6.3 14) OSHA eliminated the ergonomics section of the regulations for medical facilities, but that does not mean they are not important to the well-being and productivity of employees. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 147 Objective: 6.13 15) Eyewash stations should be checked annually to ensure that they are working properly. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 145 Objective: 6.10 2

16) During a fire emergency, it is acceptable for a medical assistant to run inside the medical office to assist a patient to safety. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 136 Objective: 6.2 17) A medical assistant should never place food in a refrigerator containing laboratory specimens or refrigerated drugs. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 136 Objective: 6.2 18) If a medical assistant is busy, he or she can wait until a more convenient time to clean up a spill. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 136 Objective: 6.2 19) A medical office should notify the local police, as well as the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA), if controlled substances have been stolen from the office. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 136 Objective: 6.2 20) A planned fire drill should occur at least every two years. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 138 Objective: 6.3 21) The OSHA standards mandate that each at-risk employee must be offered the hepatitis B (HBV) vaccine series within the first 30 days of employment and at the expense of the employer. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 142 Objective: 6.11 22) Evacuation plan guidelines should include a designation of what, if any, employees will remain after the evacuation alarm to shut down critical operations or perform other duties before evacuating. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 137 Objective: 6.4

Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following is NOT a general safety measure? A) Use handrails when using stairways. B) File cabinets should be mounted against the walls to avoid accidental tipping when a heavy top drawer is open. C) Run, never walk, in a medical office. If an emergency situation occurs, move as quickly as possible. D) Open doors carefully to avoid injuring someone on the other side. Answer: C Page Ref: 136 Objective: 6.2 2) Which of the following is NOT a guideline in handling a fire in a medical office? A) Rescue employees and patients from the fire area. B) Alert by calling 911 immediately. C) Confine the fire by closing doors and windows. D) Use the elevator and never the stairs to allow for a quicker exit. Answer: D Page Ref: 139 Objective: 6.3 3) A fire safety plan like RACE saves lives. Which of the following is NOT one of the acronyms for RACE? A) Rescue B) Alert C) Confine D) Exit Answer: D Page Ref: 138 Objective: 6.3 4) Which of the following is NOT one of the four major types of medical waste? A) Solid B) Liquid C) Chemical D) Radioactive Answer: B Page Ref: 142 Objective: 6.9

5) If an employee refuses the hepatitis B vaccine, they A) must sign a waiver B) cannot work with patients C) must have a note from the doctor D) cannot work as an administrative employee Answer: A Page Ref: 142 Objective: 6.11

6) Which of the following is NOT a personal protective equipment (PPE) recommendation issued by the U.S. Centers for Disease Control (CDC)? A) Gloves B) Respirator C) Mask D) Eye/face shield Answer: B Page Ref: 143 Objective: 6.12 7) Which is NOT a guideline to using personal protection equipment (PPE) and clothing from OSHA? A) The employee is responsible for supplying, cleaning, and disposing of the PPE. B) The clothing or other equipment must be strong enough to act as a barrier to infectious materials reaching the employee's street clothing, work clothing, eyes, mouth, or skin. C) Disposable gloves may not be reused. D) All equipment and clothing must be removed and placed in a designated container before leaving the medical office. Answer: A Page Ref: 144 Objective: 6.12 8) Which is NOT one of the principles of proper body mechanics for stooping? A) Use the large leg muscles to assist in returning to a standing position. B) Do not bend from your back. C) Stand a minimum of 6—8 inches from the object you are moving. D) Keep your feet 6—8 inches apart to create a base of support. Answer: C Page Ref: 148 Objective: 6.13

9) Which of the following is NOT information included in most incident reports? A) Names of all persons involved B) Date and time of the incident C) Names of immediate relatives D) Names of all witnesses Answer: C Page Ref: 149 Objective: 6.14 10) Which of the following is NOT one of the three divisions of laboratories in the Clinical Laboratories Improvement Amendment of 1988 (CLIA88)? A) Easy Testing B) Simple Testing C) Intermediate-Level Testing (Level II) D) Complex Testing (Level III) Answer: A Page Ref: 154 Objective: 6.14 11) A could be defined as any issue that could affect the health or safety of an employee either upon immediate exposure or in the long-term. A) workplace poison B) workplace hazard C) workplace chemical D) workplace contamination Answer: B Page Ref: 135 Objective: 6.1 12) Portable fire extinguishers should be attached to walls in areas that are no more than feet away from any employee area. A) 5 B) 25 C) 75 D) 125 Answer: C Page Ref: 137 Objective: 6.3 13) Fire drills should be held at least once a A) day B) week C) month D) year Answer: D Page Ref: 138 Objective: 6.3

with all employees present.

14) As soon as a fire is discovered, the most important action during a fire is to see that . A) the fire department is directed to the fire's location B) the fire extinguishers are being used C) the fire does not spread D) all patients and employees are safely out of danger Answer: D Page Ref: 139 Objective: 6.3 15) Each office should have an OSHAwho is trained and aware of all the required controls for the use and storage of harmful substances. A) certified technician B) compliance officer C) official inspector D) registered officer Answer: B Page Ref: 140 Objective: 6.6 16) applies scientific information and data regarding human body mechanics to the design of objects and overall environments for human use. A) Ergonomics B) Economics C) Ecology D) Body mechanics Answer: A Page Ref: 147 Objective: 6.13 17) A(n) takes place. A) medical B) official C) accident D) incident Answer: D Page Ref: 149 Objective: 6.10

report is filled out whenever any accident, injury, or unusual occurrence

18) The evaluates the quality of health plans in order to help consumers and employers make more informed decisions about their health care. A) National Consumer Board for Quality Health Assurance B) National Order for Consumers C) National Quality Health Board D) National Committee for Quality Assurance Answer: D Page Ref: 153 Objective: 6.14 19) are biological substances, such as medical waste and virus or bacteria samples that pose a threat to human beings and are potentially infectious. A) Paramecia B) Cilia C) Biohazards D) Bacilli Answer: C Page Ref: 140 Objective: 6.1 20) is concerned with any workplace hazard that may impact the safety of an employee. A) OAHS B) OSHA C) OASH D) AHSO Answer: B Page Ref: 135 Objective: 6.2 21) is the coordination of body alignment, balance, and movement. A) Body mechanics B) Chiropractic C) Ergonomic motion D) Posture Answer: A Page Ref: 147 Objective: 6.13

22) The ultimate goal of a formal is to improve the quality of care so that there is no difference between what should be done and what is actually being done. A) quality control system B) training program C) quality assurance program D) quality training assurance system Answer: C Page Ref: 152 Objective: 6.14 23) Which of the following would NOT be an issue reviewed by a quality assurance committee in a physician's office? A) Disallowed insurance claims B) Errors in dispensing medications C) Net patient profitability D) Errors in labeling of laboratory specimens Answer: C Page Ref: 152 Objective: 6.14 24) The basic components of a quality assurance program include all of the following, EXCEPT . A) establishing a quality assurance committee B) reviewing all clinical and administrative services and procedures C) limiting the number of issues D) establishing a base rate of pay for new hires Answer: D Page Ref: 152 Objective: 6.14 25) Which of the following is NOT one of the principles of proper body mechanics when lifting a heavy object? A) Rest frequently. B) Lift firmly and smoothly. C) Grasp load by using the large leg muscles. D) Keep object close to the body. Answer: A Page Ref: 148 Objective: 6.13

26) Which of the following is NOT one of the principles of proper body mechanics when pulling or pushing a load? A) Keep feet together. B) Keep the back straight. C) Keep close to the object you are moving. D) Keep feet apart. Answer: A Page Ref: 148 Objective: 6.13 27) Which of the following does NOT fall under the guidelines for housekeeping procedures from OSHA? A) Never pick up broken glass with hands. B) Replace sharps containers when completely full. C) Properly bag contaminated clothing and laundry in leak-proof labeled bags. D) Perform hand hygiene both before and after using gloves. Answer: B Page Ref: 146, 147 Objective: 6.7 28) Which of the following statements about office security is FALSE? A) Doors and windows need to have secure locks. B) Medical offices make an attractive target for a thief or addict looking for drugs. C) Only designated personnel who open and close the office will have keys to the office. D) Locks do no not need to be changed when a key is reported missing. Answer: D Page Ref: 147 Objective: 6.14 29) To prepare for a situation in which infectious material has been spilled, a simple kit can be assembled with all of the following, EXCEPT . A) plain clay kitty litter B) plain dry dog food C) a small dust pan D) a biohazard bag Answer: B Page Ref: 145 Objective: 6.7 30) An exposure control plan must include all of the following, EXCEPT A) pre-exposure B) exposure determination C) method of compliance D) post-exposure Answer: A Page Ref: 143 Objective: 6.10 10

31) OSHA requires that each medical office have a written Exposure Control Plan to assist in minimizing employee exposure to infectious materials. This plan must be reviewed by all office staff and reviewed . A) weekly B) monthly C) every year D) every two years Answer: C Page Ref: 143 Objective: 6.10 32) Being prepared for a fire emergency would include all of the following, EXCEPT A) prominently displaying telephone numbers of fire and police departments B) properly maintaining fire extinguishers that have been used C) exits and stairways that are clearly marked and free of debris D) open windows on the east side of the building if a fire breaks out Answer: D Page Ref: 137 Objective: 6.3 33) As a general safety measure, it is recommended that shoes should A) have high heels B) have ties or buckles C) have plastic soles D) cover the entire foot Answer: D Page Ref: 136 Objective: 6.2

34) Which of the following statements about controlled substances is NOT true? A) They must be stored in a locked cabinet. B) Any losses must be reported to OSHA immediately. C) Any losses must be reported to the DEA immediately. D) The local police should be notified. Answer: B Page Ref: 136 Objective: 6.2 35) Which statement is incorrect? A) Electrical shock is not a hazard in the medical office. B) Extension cords should never be used in a medical office. C) A surge protector must never be plugged into another surge protector. D) Surge protectors should be used for all electronic equipment. Answer: A Page Ref: 139 Objective: 6.5 11

36) Ergonomic workplace guidelines include all of the following, EXCEPT A) keeping computer monitors above eye level B) providing chairs with lumbar support C) limiting repetitive motions D) using wrist rests and mouse rests Answer: A Page Ref: 147 Objective: 6.13

37) has very specific regulations regarding chemical hazards. A) Drug Enforcement Administration B) Federal Drug Administration C) Centers for Disease Control D) Occupational Safety and Health Administration Answer: D Page Ref: 140 Objective: 6.6 38) Which type of medical waste includes blood and blood products? A) Solid B) Chemical C) Radioactive D) Infectious Answer: D Page Ref: 142, 143 Objective: 6.7 39) Which type of waste includes germicides, cleaning solvents, and pharmaceuticals? A) Solid B) Chemical C) Radioactive D) Infectious Answer: B Page Ref: 142 Objective: 6.7 40) Which type of waste is generated in many areas of medicine, including patient rooms and surgery suites? A) Solid B) Chemical C) Radioactive D) Infectious Answer: A Page Ref: 142 Objective: 6.7 12

41) must follow the OSHA regulations for handling contaminated materials. A) Laboratory technicians B) Patients C) Administrators D) Medical offices Answer: D Page Ref: 142 Objective: 6.7 42) Which statement regarding incident reports is NOT true? A) Reports must be completed immediately. B) Only black in should be used in reports. C) The incident should be described as simply as possible, stating facts. D) Completed reports should include subjective comments. Answer: D Page Ref: 149 Objective: 6.14 43) According to , all blood and body fluids should be treated as if they were contaminated with any blood borne pathogen. A) the Department of Labor B) the office rules C) standard precautions D) occupational exposure experts Answer: C Page Ref: 143 Objective: 6.11 44) Cat litter can be used as a spreading it. A) wetting B) drying C) cleaning D) disinfecting Answer: B Page Ref: 145 Objective: 6.7

agent to allow sweep-up of infectious material without

45) Which of the following is NOT true? A) PPE should be worn when responding to a spill. B) All infectious material should be removed from a damaged bag. C) All surfaces must be decontaminated. D) Broken glass should never be picked up. Answer: B Page Ref: 147 Objective: 6.12 13

46) Before biohazardous waste is placed in a designated landfill, it is waste disposal service. A) autoclaved B) incinerated C) sanitized D) autoclaved and incinerated Answer: D Page Ref: 147 Objective: 6.7

by a licensed

47) Puncture-proof, sealable, biohazard sharps containers are used for all of the following, EXCEPT . A) needles B) plastic probes C) razors D) glass pipettes Answer: B Page Ref: 147 Objective: 6.7 48) A medical assistant would NOT complete an incident report for which of the following incidents? A) A patient falls on a wet floor. B) A patient has an allergic reaction to a prescribed medication. C) An employee's purse is missing. D) A prescription pad is missing. Answer: B Page Ref: 149 Objective: 6.14 49) Lighting in medical offices should always be _ A) fluorescent B) as bright as possible C) appropriate for the task D) incandescent Answer: C Page Ref: 147 Objective: 6.13

50) Which incident should be reported to the police? A) A prescription pad is discovered missing. B) A patient slips and falls on the wet floor. C) A patient overhears a confidential discussion about another patient. D) A medical assistant receives a needle stick. Answer: A Page Ref: 147 Objective: 6.14 14

51) Basing a patient's treatment on skillful use of technology and the health professional's use of accepted principles of medical science is one of the American Medical Association's Eight Essentials of . A) Universal Precaution B) Quality Care C) Ergonomics D) Safety Assurance Answer: B Page Ref: 151 Objective: 6.14 52) Contaminated surfaces should be cleaned with a(n) A) ammonia solution B) 1:10 bleach/water solution C) solution of plain soap D) 10:1 bleach/water solution Answer: B Page Ref: 146 Objective: 6.7

53) When using gloves, when should a medical assistant perform hand hygiene? A) Before using gloves B) After using gloves C) Both before and after using gloves D) Hand hygiene isn't necessary when using gloves Answer: C Page Ref: 147 Objective: 6.7 54) When should a medical assistant wear a face shield? A) Routinely as a part of PPE B) Whenever possible spray with infectious materials is anticipated C) If gross contamination of clothing during a procedure is expected D) If contact with an open wound is expected Answer: B Page Ref: 143 Objective: 6.12

55) How much hazardous medical waste do hospitals, medical offices, and other health care facilities generate annually? A) Several million tons B) One million tons C) Three thousand tons D) One billion tons Answer: A Page Ref: 142 Objective: 6.7 56) Which types of medical waste is NOT always hazardous? A) Solid B) Chemical C) Radioactive D) Infectious Answer: A Page Ref: 142 Objective: 6.7 57) All of the following are examples of ways to minimize electrical hazards, EXCEPT . A) using a ground fault circuit interrupter in wet areas B) using extension cords whenever possible C) using surge protectors for all electronic equipment D) checking electrical cords for cracks or other problems Answer: B Page Ref: 139 Objective: 6.5 58) Which is NOT an example of a general safety measure? A) Report all unsafe conditions immediately. B) Mount file cabinets against a wall. C) Use handrails when on stairways. D) Keep floors clear and highly polished. Answer: D Page Ref: 136 Objective: 6.2 59) signs promote safety in a positive manner but do NOT indicate danger, for example, a first aid kit. A) Red B) Blue C) Yellow D) Green Answer: D Page Ref: 141 Objective: 6.8 16

60) Signs in the shape of a A) triangle B) circle C) square D) rectangle Answer: B Page Ref: 141 Objective: 6.8 61) Triangular signs are A) prohibitions B) informational C) warnings D) emergency Answer: C Page Ref: 141 Objective: 6.8 62) Iodine 123 is an example of A) chemical B) radioactive C) biological D) solid Answer: B Page Ref: 142 Objective: 6.9

provide prohibitions and instructions.

waste.

63) are considered biological waste. A) Paper towels B) Lab cultures C) Solvents D) All of the above Answer: B Page Ref: 142 Objective: 6.9 64) An evacuation plan should include . A) specific procedures for high-rise buildings B) a clear chain of command regarding who will order an evacuation C) specific procedures including routes and exits D) all of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 137 Objective: 6.4

Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting, 4e (Beaman) Chapter 7 Telephone Techniques True/False Questions 1) Always answer the telephone with a smile. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 159 Objective: 7.2 2) When the medical office telephone rings, it is important that you answer the telephone quickly, usually by the third ring. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 159 Objective: 7.2 3) Clarity refers to the clear articulation and pronouncement of your words. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 159 Objective: 7.1 4) Enunciation refers to the quality or state of being understandable. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 159 Objective: 7.1 5) Privacy manager is a telephone option that allows patients to block access to their home telephones. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 163 Objective: 7.4 6) It is important to screen calls from the office's suppliers. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 169 Objective: 7.6 7) An experienced medical assistant may leave a message stating test results on a patient's cell phone. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 166 Objective: 7.5

8) When taking a prescription refill message, the medical assistant should let the patient know that the pharmacist will contact them if the prescription cannot be refilled. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 170 Objective: 7.7 9) Telephone triage is an outdated system that is rarely in use today. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 171 Objective: 7.1 10) During scheduling the medical assistant will screen patients to determine the urgency for appointment scheduling. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 171 Objective: 7.8 11) When talking to a patent on the telephone the medical assistant should always speak in a monotone. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 160 Objective: 7.2 12) In the medical office, you will usually deal with a voice messaging system for both incoming and outgoing calls. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 163 Objective: 7.1 13) A call forwarding function allows for telephone owners to know who is calling each time the telephone rings. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 163 Objective: 7.1 14) When dealing with a persistent talker who calls the office, you will need to end the conversations kindly but promptly, due to your time being valuable and limited. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 168 Objective: 7.6 15) The most important thing to remember when dealing with a difficult patient is to let the patient control the situation. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 173 Objective: 7.9 2

16) Most business telephone systems allow you to make conference calls without using a telephone operator. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 174 Objective: 7.10 17) It is possible to make a long-distance call to a location within the same area code. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 174 Objective: 7.10 18) All telephone messages regarding a patient should be documented in the patient's medical record as an interaction that occurred between the office and the patient. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 163 Objective: 7.4 19) Telephone logs may be used to help track abuses of the business telephone by personal calls. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 174 Objective: 7.10 20) When a patient is on hold and the second call is an emergency, the assistant must take care of it before returning to the first call. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 162 Objective: 7.3 21) A medical assistant will typically be able to answer a patient's specific questions regarding fees. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 168 Objective: 7.6 22) If a patient refuses to identify herself on the telephone, a medical assistant may still help that person. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 160 Objective: 7.2

Multiple Choice Questions 1) If your physician is NOT present, your office should have a handle emergency calls. A) textbook B) law C) code D) policy Answer: D Page Ref: 173 Objective: 7.6

in place for how to

2) What time will a call be received in New York if it is placed at 3:00 p.m. in California? A) 2:00 p.m. B) 3:00 p.m. C) 5:00 p.m. D) 6:00 p.m. Answer: D Page Ref: 174 Objective: 7.10 3) A is made when several people from different locations wish to have a joint discussion by phone. A) direct distance call B) credit call C) collect call D) conference call Answer: D Page Ref: 174 Objective: 7.1 4) The term can also pertain to the telephone book. A) big yellow index listing B) telephone directory C) big book D) numerical information index Answer: B Page Ref: 173-174 Objective: 7.1

5) When you have a difficult patient on the telephone line, the best approach is to be while remaining in control of the situation. A) empathetic B) talkative C) casual D) pitying Answer: A Page Ref: 173 Objective: 7.9 6) With all telephone calls, the first thing you will need to find out is the patient's case you become disconnected. A) complaint B) billing address C) name and telephone number D) credit card number Answer: C Page Ref: 171 Objective: 7.6 7) Specific questions regarding fees should always be referred to the A) accountant B) nurse C) billing department D) doctor Answer: C Page Ref: 167 Objective: 7.6

, in

8) The must sign off on all prescription refill requests. A) medical assistant B) physician C) nurse D) patient's proxy Answer: B Page Ref: 170 Objective: 7.7 9) Patients may need to be placed on hold for all the following, EXCEPT A) answering another telephone line B) having an emergency that requires you to call 911 C) having a question that requires you to access their medical record D) having a billing question that requires transferring the call Answer: B Page Ref: 162, 173 Objective: 7.3 5

10) Which refers to the changes in pitch and tone when uttering words or phrases? A) Clarity B) Enunciation C) Inflection D) Pronunciation Answer: C Page Ref: 160 Objective: 7.1 11) Placing a caller on hold is another call comes in. A) unacceptable B) regrettable C) permissible D) punishable Answer: C Page Ref: 160 Objective: 7.3

when you are speaking with a caller on one line and

12) Messages taken by a medical assistant should include all of the following, EXCEPT . A) the first and last name of the caller B) the name of the person he or she is trying to reach C) a telephone number at which he or she can be reached for a callback D) the date and time of his or her last call Answer: D Page Ref: 163 Objective: 7.4 13) If a sheet of paper from a notepad used to take a message and has patient information on it, the sheet must be . A) shredded B) thrown away C) erased D) given to the patient Answer: A Page Ref: 163 Objective: 7.5 14) It is a violation of the to discard patient information into a trash can. A) patients' common courtesy rules B) Quality Assurance Act C) environmental waste rules D) HIPAA privacy rule Answer: D Page Ref: 163 Objective: 7.5 6

15) It is important to understand that a medical office may need to block the office number from showing up on the patient's . A) medical records B) caller ID C) brochures D) prescription refill request Answer: B Page Ref: 163 Objective: 7.4 16) are lines meant only for incoming calls from patients and should be left open at all times. A) Outlines B) Sidelines C) Front lines D) Back lines Answer: D Page Ref: 163 Objective: 7.4 17) When handling calls, remember to always follow your office's A) protocol B) telephone C) assessment D) assistance Answer: A Page Ref: 163 Objective: 7.5

_ manual.

18) Start every callback to the patient by identifying yourself, and then ask to speak to the patient. You should NOT indicate you are calling until you have the patient on the telephone line. A) where B) when C) who D) why Answer: D Page Ref: 166 Objective: 7.5

19) In some medical procedure rooms cell phones are NOT allowed because A) they interfere with electronic monitors B) they override telephone lines C) they can disturb other patients D) they can interfere with time management Answer: A Page Ref: 165 Objective: 7.4

20) When a medical office receives prank calls the assistant should do all the following, EXCEPT . A) hang up immediately B) inform the office manager C) report the call to the telephone company D) call the police to report the issue Answer: D Page Ref: 169 Objective: 7.6 21) When making reminder calls and doing callbacks, if a person other than the patient answers and asks you why you are calling, . A) explain that it is office protocol to not discuss such information B) nicely tell them that you don't have time to answer questions right now C) explain that it is none of their business D) explain that confidentiality laws prevent you from revealing that information to anyone other than the patient Answer: D Page Ref: 166 Objective: 7.5 22) You may be able to answer some of the patient's insurance and account questions, but most will be directed to the . A) billing department B) physician C) head nurse D) third-party collection agency Answer: A Page Ref: 167 Objective: 7.6

23) The medical assistant should have a list of the most common practice is affiliated. A) nursing homes B) collection agencies C) insurance plans D) funeral homes Answer: C Page Ref: 168 Objective: 7.6

with whom the

24) Determining the order in which to should take calls from patients is known as telephone . A) etiquette B) triage C) prioritization D) queuing Answer: B Page Ref: 171 Objective: 7.1 25) You must be aware of long-distance telephone calls. A) localized time B) calling zones C) calling hours D) time zones Answer: D Page Ref: 174 Objective: 7.9

within the United States and foreign countries when placing

26) is a critical part of managing telephone calls. A) Speaking B) Waiting C) Listening D) Sharing Answer: C Page Ref: 160 Objective: 7.2

27) When calling in a prescription refill the medical assistant should do all the following, EXCEPT . A) provide the prescription refill request information to the pharmacy technician B) state her name and the name of the doctor's office C) document the call in the patient's medical record D) provide the prescription number of the original prescription, if necessary Answer: A Page Ref: 171 Objective: 7.7 28) The telephone calls that you make in the office should be limited to A) local calls B) private calls C) business calls D) public calls Answer: C Page Ref: 160 Objective: 7.2

29) If a caller chooses to wait on hold, you will need to check on him or her approximately every . A) five minutes B) two minutes C) 30 seconds D) 10 seconds Answer: C Page Ref: 161 Objective: 7.3 30) When you start a transfer you should verify all of the following with the caller EXCEPT that he or she . A) is still sick B) is aware of your actions C) has given his or her consent D) is able to talk with the person he or she is calling Answer: A Page Ref: 162 Objective: 7.3 31) When transferring a call inform the recipient of the transfer A) how long the caller has been waiting B) the caller's name C) the caller's name and the reason for the call D) whether or not the person calling is still sick Answer: C Page Ref: 162 Objective: 7.3 10

32) When receiving or placing a cell phone call, it is recommended that you be at least feet from others and use a low voice when talking. A) three B) five C) 10 D) 20 Answer: C Page Ref: 165 Objective: 7.5 33) Make sure to A) list B) remember C) document D) pay for Answer: C Page Ref: 163 Objective: 7.5

every call that you have with a patient.

34) Many physicians have replaced their pagers with A) tablets B) laptop computers C) e-mail D) cell phones Answer: D Page Ref: 165 Objective: 7.4

35) is a process used to determine the order in which patients should be treated. A) Insurance preference B) First-come, first-served C) Queuing D) Triage Answer: D Page Ref: 171 Objective: 7.8 36) During a telephone call from a patient, you should remember to have the patient his or her name to avoid mistakes. A) spell out B) repeat C) write D) clearly state Answer: A Page Ref: 171 Objective: 7.6 11

37) The is where you will find directions for making long-distance calls, including international calls. A) employee handbook B) telephone book C) physicians' reference D) telephone log Answer: B Page Ref: 174 Objective: 7.10 38) The continental United States and parts of Canada are divided into based on their location in the country. A) two B) three C) four D) five Answer: C Page Ref: 174 Objective: 7.10

time zones

39) Even if you question whether a call is actually an emergency, you must always A) assume the best-case scenario B) investigate until you know for sure C) assume that it is and alert the physician D) try to diagnose the condition Answer: C Page Ref: 173 Objective: 7.8 40) refers to the quality or state of being understandable. A) Pitch B) Inflection C) Enunciation D) Clarity Answer: D Page Ref: 159 Objective: 7.1 41) When dealing with laboratory tests, medical assistants must never A) provide B) interpret C) document D) read Answer: B Page Ref: 166 Objective: 7.5 12

test results.

42) If it were 2 P.M. in Springfield, Missouri, what time would it be in Santa Ana, California? A) 11 A.M. B) 12 P.M. C) 1 P.M. D) 2 P.M. Answer: B Page Ref: 174 Objective: 7.10 43) Florida is in which time zone? A) Pacific B) Mountain C) Central D) Eastern Answer: D Page Ref: 174 Objective: 7.10 44) Dr. Smith is in Labadie, Missouri, and has a conference call with Dr. Baldwin, who is in Clearwater, Florida, at 12 P.M. Eastern time. What time will Dr. Smith need to be on the conference call? A) 10 A.M. B) 11 A.M. C) 12 P.M. D) 1 P.M. Answer: B Page Ref: 174 Objective: 7.10 45) Which of the following is considered a type of emergency? A) Asthma B) Broken bone C) Profuse bleeding D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 172 Objective: 7.8 46) Which of the following is NOT a type of non-patient call? A) Appointment request B) General office matters C) Physician's personal call D) Call from another physician Answer: A Page Ref: 167 Objective: 7.6 13

47) Which of the following is a type of patient call? A) Sales call B) Report from a hospital C) Prank call D) Referral request Answer: D Page Ref: 168 Objective: 7.6 48) allows for a telephone user to send calls to another telephone. A) Privacy manager B) Caller ID C) Call forwarding D) Voicemail Answer: C Page Ref: 163 Objective: 7.1 49) A queue is a A) speakerphone B) microphone C) waiting line D) conference line Answer: D Page Ref: 160 Objective: 7.1

50) The average rate of speaking is 125-150 words per minute and the average rate of listening is words per minute. A) 100-200 B) 200-300 C) 300-400 D) 400-500 Answer: D Page Ref: 160 Objective: 7.2 51) The telephone mouthpiece should be held A) less than an inch B) one to two inches C) exactly two inches D) three inches Answer: B Page Ref: 159 Objective: 7.2

from the speaker's mouth.

52) The telephone in a medical office should be answered by the A) first ring B) second ring C) third ring D) voice mail system Answer: C Page Ref: 159 Objective: 7.2 53) Many physicians accept or return calls from patients A) whenever a patient calls B) only during specific times during the day C) on a weekly basis D) only in cases of emergency Answer: B Page Ref: 162 Objective: 7.3

54) If you need to transfer a call, you should do all of the following, EXCEPT . A) inform the caller of the name of the person to whom he or she is being transferred B) hang up as soon as you have transferred the call to keep the lines open C) provide the caller with the extension number of the person to whom he or she is being transferred D) let the person to whom you are transferring the call know the caller's name and the reason for the call Answer: B Page Ref: 162 Objective: 7.3

Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting, 4e (Beaman) Chapter 8 Patient Reception True/False Questions 1) The number of patients—as well as the nature of the medical practice—will determine what duties or tasks the medical assistant performs in the role of receptionist. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 181 Objective: 8.2 2) Collating is filing all information and test results for a patient into that patient's medical record, and then sorting and organizing charts in the order in which the patients will be seen. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 186 Objective: 8.1 3) New patients will need to fill out a complete patient registration form containing demographic information and insurance information. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 189 Objective: 8.1 4) It is best to ask the patient directly for his or her insurance card. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 191 Objective: 8.6 5) In general, a 1-hour wait is accepted by most patients. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 193 Objective: 8.6 6) A patient who does not keep their appointment and does not call to reschedule is termed a "no-go" patient. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 188 Objective: 8.1 7) Allow at least 60 minutes at the end of the day to close the office. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 196 Objective: 8.7

8) Patient education often begins when the patient calls for an appointment. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 195 Objective: 8.2 9) The sign-out sheet allows the receptionist to maintain a continuous record of all patients who come into the office. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 188 Objective: 8.2 10) If the receptionist is on the telephone when a patient enters, then looking up and smiling is a good way to acknowledge the patient's presence. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 187 Objective: 8.2 11) Emergency patients or those with a contagious disease should enter the office through a private office entrance (if there is one) and be escorted directly into an examination room. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 187 Objective: 8.2 12) Medical suppliers and pharmaceutical representatives must always take precedence over patients at the office. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 187 Objective: 8.2 13) Toys from the children's area should be sanitized once a week. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 184 Objective: 8.4 14) The final task prior to opening the office is to check the answering service and/or voice mail. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 185 Objective: 8.5 15) An important but sometimes overlooked role of the medical assistant is taking care of the reception area. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 183 Objective: 8.2

16) Receptionists and other administrative personnel always wear scrubs. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 182 Objective: 8.3 17) Strong perfume should not be worn at work as it could trigger some patients' allergies. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 182 Objective: 8.3 18) Many offices require medical staff members to wear a picture ID for security reasons. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 182 Objective: 8.3 19) If the office uses paper charts, the medical assistant who opens the office must ensure that all charts are pulled and prepared for that day's patients. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 185 Objective: 8.5 20) A master list of patient appointments should be placed next to the sign-in sheet. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 185 Objective: 8.5 21) Violating a patient's confidentiality can be grounds for a lawsuit. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 187 Objective: 8.6 22) If the patient has been to the medical office before, escorting them to an examination room for their appointment is unnecessary. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 182 Objective: 8.2 Multiple Choice Questions 1) All of the following are duties of a medical receptionist, EXCEPT A) opening the office B) pulling charts for the next day's appointments C) collating patient records D) diagnosing the patients Answer: D Page Ref: 182 Objective: 8.2 3

2) Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of a medical receptionist? A) Closing the office B) Documenting patient no-shows C) Preparing an injection D) Scheduling return appointments Answer: C Page Ref: 182 Objective: 8.2 3) All of the following are duties of a medical receptionist, EXCEPT A) performing a urinalysis B) keeping the reception area clean C) helping new patients fill out new paperwork D) preparing bank deposits Answer: A Page Ref: 182 Objective: 8.2

4) Which of the following could be available in the reception area? A) Magazines B) Health brochures C) Patient education information D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 183 Objective: 8.4 5) During working hours, which of the following accessories is considered unprofessional? A) Belts B) Jewelry C) Clear nail polish D) Nose rings Answer: D Page Ref: 182 Objective: 8.3 6) The is most likely to be in charge of balancing the cash box before closing the office at the end of the day. A) nurse B) physician C) receptionist D) medical technician Answer: C Page Ref: 182 Objective: 8.8 4

7) The receptionist is often responsible for taking care of office equipment including A) copiers B) computers C) printers D) all of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 185 Objective: 8.2 8) All the following are TRUE regarding copayments, EXCEPT A) patients can pay all copayments at once B) patients must pay at the time of service C) payments can be made with cash, a credit card, or a check D) copayments cannot be billed Answer: A Page Ref: 191 Objective: 8.2

9) Which of the following is NOT something that will help a receptionist make a good first impression? A) Looking patients in the eye B) Smiling C) Touching the patient D) Speaking clearly Answer: C Page Ref: 182 Objective: 8.3 10) The A) physician B) nurse C) janitor D) receptionist Answer: D Page Ref: 182 Objective: 8.3

is the first person a patient will see upon entering the office.

11) A receptionist's shoes must be all the following, EXCEPT A) steel toe B) closed toe C) skid resistant D) clean Answer: A Page Ref: 182 Objective: 8.3

12) Office attire for receptionists may include any of the following, EXCEPT A) uniforms B) business-casual clothing C) jeans D) closed-toe shoes Answer: C Page Ref: 182 Objective: 8.3 13) Basic hygiene includes all of the following, EXCEPT A) using a mild deodorant B) good oral care C) weekly bathing D) clean clothing Answer: C Page Ref: 182 Objective: 8.3 14) The receptionist's nails should be well trimmed, and only A) black B) clear C) pink D) red Answer: B Page Ref: 182 Objective: 8.3

polish should be used.

15) An ID with a magnetic strip serves which of the following purposes? A) Clocking in B) Clocking out C) Allowing entrance to a secure area D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 182 Objective: 8.3 16) Which of the following tasks would NOT be done when opening the medical office? A) Engaging the security alarm B) Turning on lights C) Taking calls from the answering machine D) Unlocking the outer office door Answer: A Page Ref: 185 Objective: 8.5

17) Which of the following tasks would NOT be done when opening the medical office? A) Recycling any torn magazines B) Leaving the office machines off until needed C) Checking for proper operation of heating and air conditioning D) Unlocking any money to be used for the day Answer: B Page Ref: 185 Objective: 8.5 18) If a patient pays by credit or debit card, the receptionist should do all of the following, EXCEPT . A) verify that the name on the card is correct B) ask the patient if she prefers debit or credit C) ask for the patient's personal identification number (PIN) number D) ask the patient to sign electronic signature pad or paper slip Answer: C Page Ref: 193 Objective: 8.8 19) A(n) authorizes the insurance company to send payments directly to the physician. A) superbill B) encounter form C) assignment of benefits D) charge slip Answer: C Page Ref: 186 Objective: 8.1 20) The records of patients scheduled for Tuesday should be pulled and collated on A) Monday B) Tuesday C) Wednesday D) Thursday Answer: A Page Ref: 196 Objective: 8.7 21) Which of the following is NOT a typical responsibility of a medical assistant tasked with closing the office? A) Balancing the cash box B) Straightening the reception room C) Making phone calls to gather lab test information D) Leaving any instructions for nighttime cleaning personnel Answer: C Page Ref: 185, 196 Objective: 8.7 7

22) A printed appointment list is placed A) on top of the collated medical records B) on the physician's desk C) both A and B D) none of the above Answer: C Page Ref: 185 Objective: 8.5

23) Upholstered furniture in the reception area should be shampooed at least once every . A) three months. B) six months. C) 12 months. D) 24 months. Answer: C Page Ref: 183 Objective: 8.4 24) In offices that treat older adults, it is best to provide sturdy chairs and couches with seats approximately inches above the floor. A) 15 B) 20 C) 30 D) 35 Answer: B Page Ref: 184 Objective: 8.4 25) When a patient asks a question that is beyond your scope and training, you should A) guess at an answer B) give advice to the best of your ability C) explain that you are unsure but you will find out D) none of the above Answer: C Page Ref: 195 Objective: 8.2 26) Receptionists must A) have numeric skills B) pay close attention to detail C) be good spellers D) all of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 182 Objective: 8.3

27) A Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) compliant paper based signin sheet should contain all of the following, EXCEPT . A) patient's name B) time of arrival C) patient's reason for the visit D) physician's name Answer: C Page Ref: 188 Objective: 8.6 28) A(n) is a record of service for billing and for insurance processing. A) encounter form B) superbill C) charge slip D) all of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 186 Objective: 8.1 29) The physician should be informed if a patient fails to keep A) one B) two C) three D) four Answer: B Page Ref: 190 Objective: 8.2

or more appointments.

30) Which of the following would NOT be considered demographic information? A) Patient's age B) Patient's list of medications C) Patient's gender D) Patient's education Answer: B Page Ref: 189 Objective: 8.1 31) A list of daily appointments on an automated system is accessible to A) each physician B) all individuals in the back office C) medical assistants D) all of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 186 Objective: 8.1

32) Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) Allow patients to view their chart in privacy. B) Make sure electronic health recond (EHR) data is not visible to anyone who isn't working with the patient. C) Place paper charts in a slot outside the exam room. D) Ensure people walking by the exam room cannot view the patient's chart. Answer: A Page Ref: 194 Objective: 8.6 33) Which of the following information is found on an encounter form? A) Treatment given B) Diagnosis C) Charge D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 191 Objective: 8.6 34) N/C on the charge slips means A) no change B) no charge C) no classification D) no complaints Answer: B Page Ref: 195 Objective: 8.1

35) What is the most common complaint heard from patients? A) Excessive amount of time spent in the reception room B) Filthiness of the medical office C) Lack of professionalism of the staff D) Poor parking lot conditions Answer: A Page Ref: 193 Objective: 8.6 36) In general, a A) 20 B) 30 C) 40 D) 50 Answer: A Page Ref: 193 Objective: 8.6

-minute wait is accepted by most patients.

37) What should the medical assistant do if the physician is running behind in their schedule? A) Tell the patients, "It's not my fault." B) Ask if the patient wants to reschedule the appointment. C) Try not to make eye contact with the patient. D) None of the above Answer: B Page Ref: 194 Objective: 8.6 38) Which of the following should a medical assistant never do? A) Discuss patients by name to pass the time. B) Place the patient's chart on the door. C) Offer to assist them in removing clothing. D) Personally escort the patient to the examination room. Answer: A Page Ref: 187, 194 Objective: 8.2 39) Which of the following should a medical assistant always do? A) Always protect the patient's modesty. B) Assist any patient who is unable to remove his or her clothing. C) Knock before entering an examination room. D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 194 Objective: 8.2 40) If a patient becomes angry or starts speaking in a loud voice, the medical assistant should . A) call the police immediately B) keep his or her voice louder than the patient's voice C) attempt to calm the patient D) call the physician immediately Answer: C Page Ref: 194 Objective: 8.3 41) At least one portion of the reception desk should be no more than that it is accessible to those in wheelchairs. A) 20 B) 26 C) 30 D) 36 Answer: D Page Ref: 184 Objective: 8.4 11

inches high so

42) Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) Calling patients the day before their visit may lower the number of no-shows. B) The patient may be responsible to pay for the missed appointment. C) If a patient is a no-show, it should be documented in his or her medical record. D) No-show appointments are considered to be inadmissible information during a lawsuit. Answer: D Page Ref: 189 Objective: 8.6 43) Which of the following is a responsibility of the medical assistant? A) Opening the office B) Closing the office C) Taking mail to the post office D) Both A and B Answer: D Page Ref: 182, 184 Objective: 8.2 44) Activating or displaying a computerized list of electronic charts is called A) queuing up B) pulling C) collating D) all of the above Answer: A Page Ref: 186 Objective: 8.1 45) Which statement would NOT be helpful to say to an angry patient? A) "I'm sorry there's a problem." B) "Let's see how we can solve it." C) "Let's find a quiet office where we can discuss this." D) "It's not my fault." Answer: D Page Ref: 194 Objective: 8.3 46) Which of the following tasks should a receptionist be able to perform? A) Understand the needs of others. B) Handle telephone emergencies. C) Protect confidentiality. D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 181-182 Objective: 8.2

47) The performs many important administrative duties, which make the office run smoothly and efficiently. A) doctor B) nurse C) pharmacist D) receptionist Answer: D Page Ref: 181 Objective: 8.2 48) A patient's medical record, or , will contain information such as laboratory reports, radiology reports, and reports from consulting physicians. A) chart B) file C) paperwork D) folder Answer: A Page Ref: 186 Objective: 8.2 49) It is often the responsibility of the be seen the next day. A) physician B) medical technician C) medical assistant D) nurse Answer: C Page Ref: 196 Objective: 8.7

to queue up or pull records for patients who will

50) It is good practice for a receptionist to check on patients who are waiting in the reception area _. A) every few minutes B) only if the patients are complaining C) periodically D) after an hour Answer: C Page Ref: 193 Objective: 8.2

51) After escorting a patient to an examining room, the medical assistant should A) determine if the patient needs assistance in getting undressed B) explain whether a gown should be left open in the front or back C) tell the patient which articles of clothing he or she should remove D) all of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 194 Objective: 8.2

Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting, 4e (Beaman) Chapter 9 Appointment Scheduling True/False Questions 1) Wave scheduling provides built-in flexibility to accommodate unforeseen situations. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 202 Objective: 9.2 2) A "no-go" or failed appointment occurs when a patient does not show up to their scheduled appointment. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 212 Objective: 9.1 3) Ideally, before leaving the office, the patient will schedule his or her next appointment. This routine is known as advance booking. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 214 Objective: 9.2 4) Some offices have the patient complete a self-addressed postcard that is used in an appointment reminder for a system known as a tickler file. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 215 Objective: 9.1 5) Discrimination is the process of sorting or grouping patients according to the seriousness of their conditions. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 211 Objective: 9.1 6) Using time patterns is similar to matrixing off time within the schedule to allow for catch-up time or nonscheduled appointments. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 216 Objective: 9.4 7) Building a free time block into the daily office schedule at the same time each day is very important. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 216 Objective: 9.4

8) If preprinted materials are used to explain a surgical procedure, the medical assistant does not need to provide additional explanations. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 217 Objective: 9.9 9) An open office hours system is the least structured of all scheduling systems. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 204 Objective: 9.2 10) All medical offices use the same method for appointment scheduling. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 206 Objective: 9.2 11) Patients are responsible for scheduling their admissions to the hospital on their own time. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 216 Objective: 9.9 12) The physician has a legal responsibility to see patients who are actually ill or need emergency care. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 211 Objective: 9.6 13) Practice parameter systems facilitate the coordination of appropriate time segments for staff, patients, and the practice's available equipment. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 204 Objective: 9.3 14) Some medical practices still use manual appointment systems instead of computerized systems. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 206 Objective: 9.3 15) Modified wave scheduling helps avoid the possibility that any patient would have to wait 45 minutes to be seen by the physician. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 202 Objective: 9.2

16) Forming a matrix includes depicting all unavailable appointment times within a schedule. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 206 Objective: 9.4 17) In a computerized appointment schedule, the medical assistant selects the correct menu item or check-off box associated with an appointment to indicate a no-show or cancellation. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 214 Objective: 9.8 18) A receptionist should use leading questions when trying to determine why a patient needs to schedule an appointment. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 206 Objective: 9.5 19) A medical assistant may sometimes need to schedule a referral appointment for a patient. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 216 Objective: 9.9 20) It is critical to document a cancelled or no-show appointment to protect the physician from legal liability. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 211 Objective: 9.8 21) The medical assistant has a responsibility to screen a patient correctly and assess the patient's need for immediate treatment. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 211 Objective: 9.6 22) Pain or burning on urination is an example of an emergency condition. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 212 Objective: 9.6

Multiple Choice Questions 1) Patient A) classification B) history C) law D) status Answer: D Page Ref: 207 Objective: 9.1

refers to whether a patient is a new or an established patient for the office.

2) Which of the following is NOT a method of scheduling? A) Cascading wave B) Specified time C) Wave D) Open hours Answer: A Page Ref: 201 Objective: 9.2 3) The purpose of A) day B) wave C) time D) clock Answer: B Page Ref: 202 Objective: 9.2

scheduling is to begin and end each hour on time.

4) Advantages of a manual scheduling system include all the following EXCEPT A) inexpensive B) minimal training C) easy to audit changes D) quick to use Answer: C Page Ref: 205 Objective: 9.3

5) The receptionist should confirm a patient's appointment over the phone by asking the patient to repeat the of the appointment. A) date B) time C) location D) all of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 210 Objective: 9.5 4

6) Appointment files are by placing the appointment books or backup disks in a storage container or facility and keeping them for several years as backup documentation. A) stored B) maintained C) archived D) managed Answer: C Page Ref: 213 Objective: 9.1 7) All matrixing and scheduling in a manual scheduling system should be done in A) pen B) pencil C) fine-point marker D) highlighters Answer: A Page Ref: 206 Objective: 9.3

8) All of the following are professional guidelines for communicating with a patient when scheduling an appointment EXCEPT . A) use the patient's name on the telephone and in emails B) save time by not explaining if an alternate appointment time must be given C) determine patient identity when speaking on the phone D) inform the patient of office policies for cancellations Answer: B Page Ref: 210-211 Objective: 9.5 9) A(n) scheduling system allows the medical assistant to view dates, times, and open appointments with ease. A) manual B) open C) computerized D) modified Answer: C Page Ref: 204 Objective: 9.3

10) Changes to the schedule may occur due to A) malfunctioning equipment B) power outages C) physician cancellations D) all of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 212 Objective: 9.7

11) The drawback to scheduling is that some patients may not provide enough information about their medical problems at the time the appointment is scheduled. A) open hours system B) double booking C) procedure grouping D) specified time Answer: D Page Ref: 201 Objective: 9.2 12) When documenting a cancellation in a manual system, the receptionist should A) check off the cancellation box B) write (CX) on the appointment sheet C) add a note next to the original entry D) circle the cancelled appointment with red ink Answer: B Page Ref: 213 Objective: 9.8

13) Maintaining with established patients includes making follow-up appointment reminders. A) good customer service B) patience C) referrals D) repeat business Answer: A Page Ref: 208 Objective: 9.6 14) When patients arrive without appointments and are generally seen in the order of arrival, the medical office is using the hours scheduling method. A) flexible B) closed C) open D) streaming Answer: C Page Ref: 204 Objective: 9.2 6

15) time is the length of time the average patient spends in the medical office. A) Cycle B) Patient C) Average D) Rotation Answer: A Page Ref: 201 Objective: 9.1 16) Many offices build in time known as may be needed during the day. A) behind B) emergency C) catch-up D) makeup Answer: C Page Ref: 216 Objective: 9.1

time to compensate for any extra time that

17) scheduling provides built-in flexibility to accommodate unforeseen situations, such as patients who require more time with the physician, late-arriving patients, and patients who fail to keep appointments. A) Wave B) Specified time C) Procedure grouping D) Double booking Answer: A Page Ref: 202 Objective: 9.2 18) Scheduling by involves scheduling patients who require similar procedures and examinations during a particular block of time. A) specified time B) modified wave C) grouping procedures D) open hours system Answer: C Page Ref: 202 Objective: 9.2

19) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of computerized appointment systems? A) Automated patient reminders B) Auditing of records and changes C) Quick access to patient appointments D) Minimal staff training requirements Answer: D Page Ref: 205 Objective: 9.3 20) Which is a disadvantage of computerized appointment systems? A) Changes are difficult to audit. B) Systems are available to only one person at a time. C) Security breaches are possible. D) Patients are unable to self-schedule. Answer: C Page Ref: 206 Objective: 9.3 21) The medical assistant should note all unavailable times on the schedule, a process known as forming a . A) matrix B) appointment grid C) time sheet D) plan Answer: A Page Ref: 206 Objective: 9.4 22) or failed appointments occur when patients do NOT show up to keep appointments. A) Skips B) No-shows C) Misses D) No-gos Answer: B Page Ref: 212 Objective: 9.1 23) are illnesses or injuries that patients suddenly experience that require treatment but may not be life-threatening. A) Sudden injuries B) Intermediate conditions C) Acute conditions D) Minor injuries Answer: C Page Ref: 211 Objective: 9.1 8

24) When a patient is scheduled for an outpatient surgical procedure, all the following are considered required information EXCEPT . A) a copy of the surgeon's matrix B) estimated length of time for the procedure C) the physician's current diagnosis D) preoperative instructions for the patient Answer: A Page Ref: 219 Objective: 9.9 25) is the process of sorting or grouping patients according to the seriousness of their conditions. A) Filtering B) Discrimination C) Assessing D) Triage Answer: D Page Ref: 211 Objective: 9.1 26) Using is similar to matrixing off time within the schedule for catch-up time or unscheduled appointments. A) time patterns B) nonscheduled times C) catch-up time D) time shifts Answer: A Page Ref: 216 Objective: 9.4 27) When arranging a referral appointment, the receptionist should . A) verify that the practice accepts the patient's insurance B) provide the patient with directions to the referral appointment location as needed C) record the referral appointment in the patient's chart D) all of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 217 Objective: 9.9

28) Any patient who has seen the physician within the past three years is considered a(n) patient. A) established B) preferred C) recurring D) cyclical Answer: A Page Ref: 201 Objective: 9.1 29) A(n) system is the least structured of all the scheduling systems. A) specified time B) open office hours C) double booking D) procedure grouping Answer: B Page Ref: 204 Objective: 9.2 30) With scheduling, the time allocated to each patient depends upon the reason for the office visit or the type of examination or testing that is to be done. A) double booking B) wave C) modified wave D) specified time Answer: D Page Ref: 201 Objective: 9.2 31) Modified wave scheduling works best for appointments of approximately the same length. A) small B) highly organized C) busy D) heavily staffed Answer: C Page Ref: 202 Objective: 9.2

offices that tend to have many

32) scheduling can create inconvenience for the patients and the physician. A) Grouping procedures B) Computer wave C) Double booking D) Singular Answer: C Page Ref: 202 Objective: 9.2 10

33) With scheduling, all the patients are told to come in at the beginning of the hour in which they are to be seen. A) wave B) modified wave C) double booking D) grouping Answer: A Page Ref: 202 Objective: 9.2 34) is the practice of scheduling two patients to be seen during the same time slot without allowing for any additional time in the schedule. A) Wave scheduling B) Modified wave scheduling C) Open office hours D) Double booking Answer: D Page Ref: 202 Objective: 9.2 35) A(n) facilitates the coordination of appropriate time segments for staff, patients, and the practice's available equipment. A) scheduling system B) timing system C) coordination system D) organization system Answer: A Page Ref: 204 Objective: 9.1 36) When scheduling an inpatient surgical procedure, the assistant must A) categorize the procedure under urgent B) obtain preauthorization from the patient's insurance company C) provide written instructions to the patient via email D) relay the surgery information to the hospital manager Answer: B Page Ref: 218 Objective: 9.9 37) The appointment book is a(n) A) legal B) written C) computerized D) unofficial Answer: A Page Ref: 213 Objective: 9.8

document that can be subpoenaed by the court.

38) To protect the patient's identity and verify that the caller is the patient, some offices require a to ensure security. A) personal identification number B) call back from the patient C) voice recognition system D) video call using a webcam Answer: A Page Ref: 211 Objective: 9.5 39) In every medical office, policies and procedures should clearly establish when appropriate. A) underbooking B) overbooking C) staggered scheduling D) double grouping Answer: B Page Ref: 206 Objective: 9.7

40) Ideally, before leaving the office, the patient will schedule his or her next appointment. This routine is known as . A) double scheduling B) double booking C) advance scheduling D) advance booking Answer: D Page Ref: 214 Objective: 9.1 41) When a caller is experiencing an emergency and is unable to call EMS, the medical assistant should . A) alert the doctor B) arrange for an ambulance C) call the next of kin D) transfer the patient to 911 Answer: B Page Ref: 211 Objective: 9.6

42) The receptionist should advise patients to call at least an appointment. A) 72 B) 4 C) 8 D) 24 Answer: D Page Ref: 213 Objective: 9.5

hours in advance to cancel

43) Individual healthcare providers must ensure that any computerized product purchased for the medical practice addresses compliance issues. A) HIIPA B) HIPPA C) HIPAA D) HPPA Answer: C Page Ref: 204 Objective: 9.3 44) The time estimated to allot for a school physical would be A) 5 B) 10 C) 15 D) 60 Answer: C Page Ref: 208 Objective: 9.4

minutes.

45) The time estimated to allot for a prenatal checkup would be A) 5 B) 15 C) 45 D) 60 Answer: B Page Ref: 208 Objective: 9.4

minutes.

46) Which procedure would be estimated to take 60 minutes? A) Complete physical with EKG B) Cast change C) Dressing change D) Pelvic examination Answer: A Page Ref: 208 Objective: 9.4 13

47) Which condition should the assistant consider an emergency? A) Numbness after a cast application B) Unusually heavy vaginal bleeding C) Pain when urinating D) All of the above Answer: A Page Ref: 212 Objective: 9.6 48) An appointment matrix is normally created A) 1—2 months in advance B) 3—6 months in advance C) 9—12 months in advance D) 12—24 months in advance Answer: B Page Ref: 206 Objective: 9.4

49) Which of the following is an example of an acute condition? A) Earache B) Convulsions C) Laceration D) Fracture Answer: A Page Ref: 191 Objective: 9.9 50) A patient is considered "new" to a practice if . A) the patient has been seen by a different physician within the practice B) the patient cannot remember ever being a patient at the practice C) the patient has not seen a physician within the practice for more than three years D) the patient has not seen a physician within the practice for at least 12 months Answer: C Page Ref: 207 Objective: 9.1 51) Which information does the assistant need when arranging outside appointments? A) Previous discharge instructions B) Insurance information C) Referring physician's matrix D) All of the above Answer: B Page Ref: 216 Objective: 9.9

Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting, 4e (Beaman) Chapter 10 Office Facilities, Equipment, and Supplies True/False Questions 1) The medical records area should be close to the receptionist's area so that staff can quickly access charts for telephone calls. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 225 Objective: 10.3 2) Examination rooms should contain only the furnishings and equipment needed to examine a patient. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 226 Objective: 10.3 3) The medical office should be kept childproof and kid-friendly. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 224 Objective: 10.3 4) Smoking is allowed in many medical facilities. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 225 Objective: 10.3 5) Reception rooms should be painted with bright colors and have pleasing tasteful art on the walls. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 223 Objective: 10.2 6) Postage meters are being replaced by electronic postage applicators that are supplied by the United States Postal Service (USPS). Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 227 Objective: 10.5 7) Drug samples should be organized by class and new samples should be added to the front of the cabinet. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 235 Objective: 10.8

8) The first element of the office flow is the patient entrance. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 224 Objective: 10.3 9) Examination rooms should be soundproof so that conversations cannot be heard from one room to another. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 226 Objective: 10.3 10) Regular housekeeping services are usually responsible for handling hazardous waste containers. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 226 Objective: 10.3 11) An expendable supply is one that is used up quickly and is relatively inexpensive. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 230 Objective: 10.1 12) Inventory management requires constant supervision, because a medical office cannot afford to run out of supplies. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 231 Objective: 10.8 13) Many vendors will provide a discount if supplies are ordered in small quantities. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 234 Objective: 10.8 14) The price of a given product should be compared on a per unit basis across suppliers, because the prices listed by various suppliers may be for differing quantities. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 233 Objective: 10.8 15) Many offices use color-coded reorder reminder cards that are inserted into the stack of inventory items. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 231 Objective: 10.8

16) Drug samples are not intended to be distributed to patients. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 235 Objective: 10.8 17) Expired drug samples should be discarded following office policies and procedures, which should be in accordance with federal, state, and DEA regulations. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 235 Objective: 10.8 18) Highlighters, copy paper, and disposable gowns are all examples of expendable office supplies. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 230 Objective: 10.7 19) Purchase order (PO) inventory numbers allow an office to track purchase approvals and help prevent unauthorized purchases. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 234 Objective: 10.8 20) A medical office can generally obtain all of the supplies it needs from one vendor. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 230 Objective: 10.7 21) A medical office should retain all receipts and manuals related to office equipment. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 228 Objective: 10.7 22) It is beyond a medical assistant's scope of practice to perform research and compare equipment based on manufacturer, quality, size, service, price, and other determining factors. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 228 Objective: 10.7 23) One of the first considerations in planning a medical office facility is the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA). Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 223 Objective: 10.2

Multiple Choice Questions 1) When stocking supply cabinets with newly received supplies, place the newer supplies . A) towards the front of the shelf B) towards the back of the shelf C) in as separate cabinet D) on top of the cabinet Answer: B Page Ref: 234 Objective: 10.8 2) The administrative area usually includes all of the following EXCEPT A) computers B) printers C) scanners D) radiology equipment Answer: D Page Ref: 224 Objective: 10.3 3) The patient reception room should provide materials on A) religion B) politics C) exercise D) all of the above Answer: C Page Ref: 225 Objective: 10.3

4) Many states have laws that prohibit smoking immediately outside an entrance, usually within feet. A) 10 to 15 B) 15 to 20 C) 25 to 30 D) 40 to 50 Answer: C Page Ref: 225 Objective: 10.3

5) The temperature throughout the reception area and the examination rooms should be maintained around . A) 65°F B) 68°F C) 72°F D) 78°F Answer: C Page Ref: 226 Objective: 10.3 6) The instruction manual should list regularly scheduled maintenance which includes A) performance tests B) calibration C) replacement of parts D) all of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 230 Objective: 10.4 7) Medical office entranceways should include all of the following EXCEPT A) handrails B) elevators C) ramps D) floodlights Answer: D Page Ref: 224 Objective: 10.2 8) High steps should be marked with reflector tape and should include slip A) pads B) paint stripes C) contact paper D) protection sheets Answer: D Page Ref: 224 Objective: 10.3

9) One of the first considerations in planning a medical office facility is legislation that protects the rights of the disabled regarding access to employment, public buildings, transportation, housing, schools, and healthcare facilities. A) police B) ADA C) HIPAA D) federal Answer: B Page Ref: 223 Objective: 10.2 5

10) The medical office is generally organized in a way that lends itself to teamwork, time management, organized and efficient equipment usage, and patient movement. This is known as . A) office flow B) traffic flow C) medical flow D) administrative flow Answer: A Page Ref: 224 Objective: 10.3 11) time is the length of time the average patient spends in the medical office. A) Clock B) Office C) Cycle D) Patient Answer: C Page Ref: 224 Objective: 10.1 12) Patient orientation begins when the patient A) enters the examination room B) sees the nurse C) sees the physician D) enters the reception area Answer: D Page Ref: 225 Objective: 10.3

13) Keeping an office childproof and kid-friendly may include A) covering outlets B) managing cords appropriately C) placing lamps appropriately D) all of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 224 Objective: 10.3 14) Capital equipment includes all the following EXCEPT A) X-ray machines B) office furniture C) paper shredders D) examination tables Answer: C Page Ref: 227 Objective: 10.7 6

15) should be soundproof so that conversations cannot be heard from one room to another. A) Examination rooms B) Reception rooms C) Bathrooms D) Waiting rooms Answer: A Page Ref: 225 Objective: 10.3 16) refers to items that require a large dollar amount to purchase (generally over $500) and have relatively long lives. A) State equipment B) Capital equipment C) Consumable equipment D) Expendable equipment Answer: B Page Ref: 227 Objective: 10.1 17) Which is NOT a step to maintaining equipment? A) Turn off the machine during calibration. B) Access the user manual or service instructions. C) Perform maintenance before or after office hours. D) Run performance tests recommended by the manufacturer. Answer: A Page Ref: 229 Objective: 10.4 18) In many medical offices, printing. A) copy machines B) fax machines C) scanners D) color laser printers Answer: D Page Ref: 227 Objective: 10.5

are used in conjunction with a computer for letter-quality

19) Newer technologies are taking over the functions of the older ones. For example, dedicated fax machines are being replaced by . A) electronic postage applications supplied by the U.S. Postal Service B) scanners used with internet fax services or email C) smartphones with cameras D) mobile computer devices Answer: B Page Ref: 227 Objective: 10.5 20) A(n) is a guarantee in writing from the manufacturer that the product will perform correctly under normal conditions of use. A) warranty B) lemon law C) plea D) addendum Answer: A Page Ref: 228 Objective: 10.1 21) Many vendors will provide a discount on supplies if the office orders A) large quantities B) at the first of the month C) small quantities D) a certain dollar amount Answer: A Page Ref: 234 Objective: 10.4

22) Even though drug samples are small and "free," the medical office must secure and organize the samples in a supply cupboard or drawer that is . A) easily accessible B) unlocked C) closed D) locked Answer: D Page Ref: 235 Objective: 10.8 23) When storing drug samples all of the following are important EXCEPT A) classification B) brand name C) expiration date D) medication color Answer: D Page Ref: 235 Objective: 10.8 8

24) Medical offices are generally divided into two areas: A) theoretical B) departmental C) administrative D) medical Answer: C Page Ref: 224 Objective: 10.3

and clinical.

25) states that the medical records area should not be accessible to patients and that patients should not be able to read the labels of the charts. A) Common law B) HIPAA C) State law D) The medical oath Answer: B Page Ref: 225 Objective: 10.3 26) Which of the following is NOT typically found in the clinical area of a medical office? A) Restroom B) Laboratory C) Treatment room D) File storage area Answer: D Page Ref: 224 Objective: 10.3 27) The steps to performing inventory include all of the following EXCEPT A) enter the date and counts for each item into a computer spreadsheet B) schedule inventory review to occur immediately after placing an order C) review inventory data from all supply storage locations D) physically count how many supplies remain Answer: B Page Ref: 232 Objective: 10.8 28) When used in conjunction with computers, pressure and heat for letter-quality printing. A) laser B) inkjet C) bubble jet D) dot matrix Answer: A Page Ref: 227-228 Objective: 10.5

printers transfer images to paper with

29) is/are used to "read" and copy text and graphic files. A) Copy machines B) Electronic paper shredders C) Transcription equipment D) Scanners Answer: D Page Ref: 228 Objective: 10.5 30) If fish tanks are present in the reception area the assistant must A) make sure the fish are well taken care of B) place the tank high enough so that it can't be pushed over C) make sure the tank is clean D) all of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 223 Objective: 10.3

31) The reception desk should include a _ partition that can be closed for privacy so that personal medical information cannot be overheard in the waiting room. A) wood B) glass C) metal D) opaque Answer: B Page Ref: 225 Objective: 10.3 32) The office equipment may be required by the insurance company and can be subpoenaed if a patient is injured because of equipment failure. A) inventory record B) procedure manual C) maintenance log D) extended warranty Answer: C Page Ref: 230 Objective: 10.6

33) When a business determines a need for specific equipment it is wise to identify potential vendors to research. A) 1 to 2 B) 3 to 5 C) 6 to 8 D) 8 to 10 Answer: B Page Ref: 228 Objective: 10.6 34) Records relating to office equipment need to be A) shredded B) pitched C) maintained D) locked Answer: C Page Ref: 228 Objective: 10.4

35) Which is NOT considered clinical equipment? A) ECG B) Ultrasonic washer C) Specimen refrigerator D) Facsimile system Answer: D Page Ref: 230 Objective: 10.7 36) For which of the following tasks might a medical assistant be responsible? A) Reordering supplies B) Selecting vendors C) Stocking supplies D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 230 Objective: 10.8 37) A wise purchaser of supplies will develop a good working relationship with each vendor— whether in person, on the telephone, in writing, or online—before _. A) comparing prices B) checking inventory C) negotiating a contract D) selling products Answer: C Page Ref: 234 Objective: 10.4 11

38) Which of the following is NOT an example of an inventory management tool used to determine when to reorder supplies? A) Reminder cards B) Barcodes C) Visual assessment D) Just-in-time Answer: C Page Ref: 231-232 Objective: 10.8 39) Which of the following is NOT an element of medical office layout? A) Traffic flow design B) Ventilation C) Lighting D) Paint brand Answer: D Page Ref: 224 Objective: 10.3 40) Which statement regarding medical office design is FALSE? A) Hallways and walkways should be clear of obstructions. B) Posted signs should direct patients where they need to go. C) All offices must have color-coded floors and walls to meet ADA standards. D) Patients should have a direct route to the checkout desk. Answer: C Page Ref: 224-225 Objective: 10.3 41) Which piece(s) of equipment is/are found in a typical medical office? A) Copy machine B) Scanner C) Postage meter D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 227 Objective: 10.3 42) The lowest amount of a supply item the office should have before reordering is known as the . A) low mark B) replenishment point C) reorder point D) base supply level Answer: C Page Ref: 232 Objective: 10.1 12

43) Which of the following is considered an expendable clinical supply? A) Staples B) Tongue blades C) Pencils D) Appointment cards Answer: B Page Ref: 230 Objective: 10.7 44) Which of the following is NOT considered an expendable office supply? A) Highlighters B) Gloves C) CPT manual D) Table paper Answer: C Page Ref: 230 Objective: 10.7 45) Most offices maintain ongoing inventory systems that help to determine when to A) stock supplies B) solicit new patients C) schedule physicians D) reorder supplies Answer: D Page Ref: 231 Objective: 10.8 46) The clinical area usually contains all of the following EXCEPT A) treatment rooms B) supply rooms C) radiology rooms D) postage meters Answer: D Page Ref: 224 Objective: 10.3 47) Capital equipment has a A) half-life B) financial life C) life expectancy D) functional life Answer: B Page Ref: 227 Objective: 10.1

, which is referred to as the depreciation period.

48) is a loss in value of the product resulting from normal aging, use, or deterioration. A) Financial life B) Depreciation C) Functional life D) Warranty Answer: B Page Ref: 227 Objective: 10.1 49) How many examination rooms must be wheelchair accessible? A) At least one B) At least two C) At least three D) None Answer: A Page Ref: 225 Objective: 10.2 50) Which of the following is NOT true about capital equipment? A) It is intended to have a long life. B) It generally costs under $500. C) It has a financial life. D) It should be included on a master inventory list. Answer: B Page Ref: 227 Objective: 10.7

Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting, 4e (Beaman) Chapter 11 Written Communication True/False Questions 1) Medical office letters are usually typed on letterhead stationary bearing the name of the physician or practice. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 247 Objective: 11.4 2) The six-digit ZIP code was introduced in the 1960s to increase the post office's efficiency in mail handling. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 254 Objective: 11.7 3) You should rely on spell-check and grammar-check to find any errors in your documents. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 245 Objective: 11.2 4) When other documents are included along with the letter, a notation is made on the letter indicating the enclosure. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 248 Objective: 11.4 5) The body of a letter should contain a courtesy word(s), such as "Sincerely," "Sincerely yours," or "Yours truly." Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 248 Objective: 11.4 6) In a business letter, all words in the inside address (such as the street name) are spelled out fully. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 247 Objective: 11.4 7) Most business letters contain the same standard components, starting at the top of a letter and moving down to the end. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 246 Objective: 11.4

8) Unless told otherwise, you should assume that every nurse is a female and that all physicians are males. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 241 Objective: 11.2 9) "Update" would be an appropriate subject line when sending a business letter using email. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 259 Objective: 11.10 10) Even small spelling errors in correspondence, such as the omission of commas, can negatively affect the perception of the office. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 240 Objective: 11.2 11) Legal correspondence should be routed to the physician. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 257 Objective: 11.9 12) Word processing has made correspondence correction much easier. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 245 Objective: 11.6 13) To transform a sentence from the passive to active voice, make the subject of the sentence perform the action. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 243 Objective: 11.2 14) An annotation consists of a short comment in pencil to indicate the purpose of the letter and underlining critical portions of the letter. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 258 Objective: 11.9 15) Composing letters can be a simple process when an organized approach is used. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 246 Objective: 11.4

16) It would be considered more concise to use "like" instead of "along the lines of" in a letter. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 242 Objective: 11.2 17) Inflated phrases are difficult to replace without a loss of meaning. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 242 Objective: 11.2 18) The passive voice generally makes writing less interesting to read. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 242 Objective: 11.2 19) Computer software programs cannot be depended on to correct all word-usage errors. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 243 Objective: 11.2 20) The words "accept" and "except" are homophones. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 244 Objective: 11.2 21) Most spell-check software recognizes medical terminology. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 243 Objective: 11.2 22) The plural of DRG is DRG's. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 243 Objective: 11.2 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The has released a list of unapproved medical abbreviations. A) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Council B) Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) C) International Classification of Diseases (ICD-10-CM) D) Joint Commission Answer: D Page Ref: 245 Objective: 11.2

2) A(n) A) noun B) pronoun C) verb D) adjective Answer: A Page Ref: 246 Objective: 11.3

names a person, place, or thing.

3) A(n) modifies a noun or pronoun, usually answering the questions: Which one? What kind? How many? A) preposition B) adverb C) verb D) adjective Answer: D Page Ref: 246 Objective: 11.3 4) The signature line is typed name and title of the writer. A) one B) two C) three D) four Answer: D Page Ref: 248 Objective: 11.4

line(s) below the complimentary close and contains the

5) A letter-style format is spaced, from the date through the signature line, flush with the left margin. The salutation line is replaced with a subject line. A) block B) simplified C) modified block D) modified block with indented paragraphs Answer: B Page Ref: 249 Objective: 11.4 6) are generally written using a shortened format and used for interoffice communication. A) Letters B) Emails C) Memos D) Books Answer: C Page Ref: 251 Objective: 11.4 4

7) Which of the following is NOT an acceptable guideline for proofreading written documents? A) Small errors are usually not noticed by the reader. B) Check for missing and/or repeated words. C) Verify the spelling of proper names. D) Proofread at least twice. Answer: A Page Ref: 252 Objective: 11.6 8) When editing medical reports, you cannot change the meaning in any way. A) grammar B) content C) punctuation D) body Answer: B Page Ref: 252 Objective: 11.6 9) Only accepted office documentation. A) English B) insurance C) medical D) office Answer: C Page Ref: 245 Objective: 11.2

of the report or alter the

abbreviations can be used in medical reports and other medical

10) All of the following should be found in a complete medical office library EXCEPT a . A) desk dictionary B) medical dictionary C) thesaurus D) telephone directory Answer: D Page Ref: 246 Objective: 11.2

11) Letterhead stationery, which contains the name and address of the sender, comes in all three of the commonly used sizes EXCEPT . A) legal B) standard C) monarch or executive D) baronial Answer: A Page Ref: 253 Objective: 11.7 12) There are recommended methods for folding and inserting letters into envelopes so the contents can remain and be easily removed. A) folded B) confidential C) unwrinkled D) inserted Answer: B Page Ref: 253 Objective: 11.7 13) The has recommended guidelines for addressing envelopes. A) office manual B) policy and procedures manual C) U.S. Postal Service (USPS) D) American Association of Medical Assistants Answer: C Page Ref: 253 Objective: 11.7 14) On an envelope, the abbreviation, and ZIP code. A) top B) middle C) first D) last Answer: D Page Ref: 254 Objective: 11.7

line in the address must include the city, two-letter state

15) A more style of typing envelopes, with the initial letter of each word capitalized and the remaining letters of each word lowercased, is still accepted by the post office. A) professional B) traditional C) popular D) acceptable Answer: B Page Ref: 253 Objective: 11.7 16) A return address for the sender should always be placed in the the letter must be returned to the sender. A) bottom right-hand B) upper right-hand C) upper left-hand D) bottom left-hand Answer: C Page Ref: 254 Objective: 11.7

_ corner in the event

17) Which of the following is NOT one of the most common types of mail classifications? A) Package services B) Certified mail C) Priority D) First class Answer: B Page Ref: 254 Objective: 11.8 18) When sending a business letter using email, enter the email address in the "CC" field if the recipient . A) needs to reply to the email B) is the primary recipient C) is receiving it for informational purposes D) requested the email Answer: C Page Ref: 259 Objective: 11.10

19) Optimal use of the optical character recognition (OCR) scanner is achieved when addresses are typed using _. A) single spacing and all capital letters with no punctuation B) double spacing and capitalization of the first letter of each word C) single spacing and capitalization of the first letter of each word D) double spacing and all capital letters with punctuation Answer: A Page Ref: 253 Objective: 11.7 20) The last digits following a hyphen of the ZIP code identify the block of the street where the address is located. A) two B) three C) four D) five Answer: C Page Ref: 254 Objective: 11.7 21) mail is the safest way of sending first-class or priority mail. A) Insured B) Certified C) Registered D) Special Answer: C Page Ref: 255 Objective: 11.8 22) For a small fee, a(n) can be obtained at the post office. A) receipt B) ZIP code C) Certificate of Mailing D) ancillary service endorsement Answer: C Page Ref: 255 Objective: 11.8 23) If mail has been placed in a mailbox or given to a postal carrier by mistake, it can be retrieved by the sender using . A) mail recall B) tracking C) forwarding D) mail retrieval Answer: A Page Ref: 255 Objective: 11.7 8

24) A is an exact duplication of a document that is then transmitted to another location via a machine. A) Xerox; xerox B) fax (facsimile); fax C) copy; copy D) duplicate; duplication Answer: B Page Ref: 260 Objective: 11.10 25) When preparing mail for metering, separate _ A) email B) certified C) international D) personal Answer: C Page Ref: 256 Objective: 11.7

mail from domestic mail.

26) What is the maximum weight, in pounds, for priority express mail? A) 10 B) 20 C) 50 D) 70 Answer: D Page Ref: 234 Objective: 11.8 27) is used when the marital status of a woman is unknown. A) Ms. B) Mrs. C) Miss D) Mis. Answer: A Page Ref: 247 Objective: 11.4 28) GenderA) specific B) neutral C) plural D) friendly Answer: B Page Ref: 241 Objective: 11.2

terms are preferred when writing business correspondence.

29) When sorting through incoming mail, the medical assistant typically gives consultation reports to the . A) physician B) nurse C) office manager D) billing department Answer: A Page Ref: 257 Objective: 11.9 30) Whenever possible, it is preferable to avoid the personal pronoun writing. A) you B) I C) you're D) we Answer: B Page Ref: 242 Objective: 11.2

in professional

31) expressions include such terms as "each and every," "first and foremost," and "physician's patient." A) Redundant B) Inactive C) Active D) Passive Answer: A Page Ref: 242 Objective: 11.1 32) The medical professional uses reference A) signatures B) books C) initials D) notes Answer: C Page Ref: 248 Objective: 11.4

to indicate who keyed or typed a letter.

33) A letter is useful when the same letter is sent to several different people. A) copied B) medical C) personalized D) form Answer: D Page Ref: 248 Objective: 11.4 10

34) The letter-style format is spaced with the date, complimentary closing, and signature line beginning at the center and continuing toward the right margin. All other lines are flush with the left margin. A) modified block B) block C) simplified D) modified block with indented paragraphs Answer: A Page Ref: 249 Objective: 11.5 35) The areas of the letter that require personalization, such as the date, inside address, and salutation, are called the . A) constant information B) standards C) variables D) variances Answer: C Page Ref: 248, 249 Objective: 11.1 36) Letter styles vary depending on the A) sender B) office C) recipient D) purpose Answer: D Page Ref: 249 Objective: 11.5

37) , or checking for errors in content and typing, is critical to written business communication. A) Documenting B) Proofreading C) Debating D) Annotating Answer: B Page Ref: 252 Objective: 11.6

38) All of the following can be mailed as certified mail EXCEPT A) reminder notices B) contracts C) mortgages D) birth certificates Answer: A Page Ref: 255 Objective: 11.8

39) Test results received from another health provider should be stamped _ to the appropriate physician without delay. A) priority B) urgent C) with date received D) with receiving physician's name Answer: C Page Ref: 257 Objective: 11.9

and routed

40) is inappropriately indicating either male or female by the type of language used. A) Gender bias B) Discrimination C) Gender mixing D) Reclassification Answer: A Page Ref: 241 Objective: 11.1 41) , concise sentences and paragraphs are preferred in medical writing. A) Technical B) Intelligent C) Short D) Positive Answer: C Page Ref: 242 Objective: 11.2 42) are words in the English language that have similar pronunciations but very different meanings and spellings. A) Homophones B) Synonyms C) Antonyms D) Adjectives Answer: A Page Ref: 243 Objective: 11.1 12

43) Which of the following is NOT one of the basic rules for forming plurals of words? A) Abbreviations are formed into plurals by adding an s. B) Plurals of nouns can be formed by adding an s. C) Plurals of nouns can be formed by adding es. D) Abbreviations are formed into plurals by adding es. Answer: D Page Ref: 243 Objective: 11.2 44) Which of the following is NOT one of the eight parts of speech recognized by traditional grammar? A) Noun B) Pronoun C) Proverb D) Verb Answer: C Page Ref: 243 Objective: 11.3 45) Every office correspondence should have a current A) date B) signature C) font type D) response Answer: A Page Ref: 247 Objective: 11.4 46) Sentence length should never exceed A) 10 B) 15 C) 20 D) 25 Answer: C Page Ref: 242 Objective: 11.2

_ words.

47) The classifications of mail vary according to all of the following EXCEPT A) sender B) weight C) type D) destination Answer: A Page Ref: 254 Objective: 11.8

48) On an envelope, the last line cannot exceed A) 17 B) 21 C) 27 D) 32 Answer: C Page Ref: 254 Objective: 11.7

characters in length.

49) The letterhead is used for most office correspondence. A) office B) standard C) monarch or executive D) baronial Answer: B Page Ref: 253 Objective: 11.7 50) The is used to verify the correct spelling and use of drugs. A) Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) B) Roget's International Thesaurus C) Merriam Webster's Dictionary D) Physician's Desk Reference (PDR) Answer: D Page Ref: 246 Objective: 11.6 51) The ZIP code has eliminated many handling steps at USPS collection and distribution centers and has improved service. A) four-digit B) five-digit C) six-digit D) nine-digit Answer: D Page Ref: 254 Objective: 11.7 52) Advertisements are typically considered A) First Class B) Priority C) Priority Express Mail D) Standard Mail Answer: D Page Ref: 254 Objective: 11.8

53) Catalogs and merchandise are typically sent by A) Priority Express Mail B) Priority C) Package Services/Standard Post D) First Class Answer: C Page Ref: 254 Objective: 11.8 54) Which of the following does NOT require capitalization? A) A proper name B) Each item within a list or outline C) Reference initials D) A salutation and the closing of a letter Answer: C Page Ref: 243, 248, Objective: 11.2

Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting, 4e (Beaman) Chapter 12 Computers in the Medical Office True/False Questions 1) Computerized tomography (CT) can be used in a hospital to scan a patient's brain. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 265 Objective: 12.2 2) A network is two or more computers that are linked together to share resources. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 267 Objective: 12.3 3) An integrated touchpad can replace a computer mouse. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 266 Objective: 12.4 4) Operating systems perform special functions such as spreadsheets, word processing, or data management. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 272 Objective: 12.1 5) The same legal standards of confidentiality and compliance required by the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) apply to all patient records, whether on paper or on the computer. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 275 Objective: 12.6 6) Medical practice management programs often have several tiers of security, allowing one system administrator (the person in charge of the computer program) to limit access for patient records to those who need to see them. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 277 Objective: 12.6 7) When choosing a password, using the names of children or significant others is a good idea because they are easily remembered. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 277 Objective: 12.6

8) When selecting a new computer system, it is important to solicit input from as many users as possible to ensure that the best possible decision is reached. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 285 Objective: 12.10 9) Inkjet printers are faster and quieter than either dot-matrix or laser printers, and they can produce typewritten-quality work. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 272 Objective: 12.5 10) Operating system software is the basic software that allows the computer to run. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 272 Objective: 12.1 11) The computer screen should be positioned so that it can be easily seen by patients. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 276 Objective: 12.6 12) The Internet is a computer network made up of thousands of interfacing networks and millions of computers worldwide. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 280 Objective: 12.8 13) Many offices with electronic health records use digital cameras to take pictures of their patients to download into the patient's record. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 271 Objective: 12.5 14) A digital camera creates a digital image of printed paper records and converts them into a format the computer can read. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 271 Objective: 12.5 15) The terms Web and Internet, refer to the same thing. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 280-281 Objective: 12.8

16) When sitting in a desk chair, make sure that you set your hips as far back as they can go in the chair. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 285 Objective: 12.11 17) An anchoring keyboard tray allows you to adjust the angle and height of the keyboard. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 286 Objective: 12.11 18) It is a good idea to take 5-minute stretch breaks every 20 minutes to avoid muscle cramps. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 286 Objective: 12.11 19) The EHR uses electronic signatures to identify who entered each piece of information into the patient's chart. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 283 Objective: 12.8 20) Internet technology allows many medical insurance companies to offer electronic claims services, or electronic media claims (EMCs). Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 280 Objective: 12.8 21) Backing up data in case of a possible system failure, fire, or equipment theft allows the facility to retrieve the original files and restore them for use. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 277 Objective: 12.7 22) Cloud computing refers to applications and services offered through email among a shared group of users. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 282 Objective: 12.1, 12.8

Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which type of backup allows the system to be restored exactly as it existed on the original computer? A) Full B) Incremental C) Differential D) System imaging Answer: D Page Ref: 278 Objective: 12.7 2) The acronym ROM refers to A) read-only memory B) real-optimized memory C) random-output memory D) compact data read-only memory Answer: A Page Ref: 269 Objective: 12.1

3) By using in the handling of all medical records, the successful medical assistant conveys to the patient that confidentiality is of the utmost importance to the practice, thus reassuring the patient. A) computers B) personal digital assistants (PDAs) C) creativity D) discretion Answer: D Page Ref: 279 Objective: 12.6 4) Many medical offices change A) computers B) software C) passwords D) employees Answer: C Page Ref: 277 Objective: 12.6

every 30—90 days for added security.

5) Technical are electronic protections to prevent unauthorized access over networks and to encrypt all e-PHI. A) standards B) safeguards C) securities D) scorecards Answer: B Page Ref: 277 Objective: 12.1, 12.6 6) Which of the following is NOT considered an outside invader that accesses confidential information and commits identity theft? A) Employee B) Hacker C) Cracker D) Virus Answer: A Page Ref: 279 Objective: 12.6 7) involves copying all files from the computer to an external medium, such as an external hard drive or optical disc. A) Hard copy B) Cleanup C) Storage D) Backup Answer: D Page Ref: 268, 277 Objective: 12.1, 12.6 8) Computers are considered a fundamental piece of operating equipment to perform and enhance quality patient care through data collection, eliminate duplication of work, and decrease . A) typing B) information C) errors D) electrical usage Answer: C Page Ref: 265 Objective: 12.2

9) Today's medical offices are increasingly using different types of computers such as, laptops, notebooks, and _. A) supercomputers B) notepads C) word processors D) tablets Answer: D Page Ref: 266 Objective: 12.3 10) Which of the following would be a drawback to using social media in the medical office? A) Posting pages about the office's services B) Posting short news updates that patients can respond to C) Allowing users to "friend" or "follow" other users to keep in touch D) Personal information posted by employees reflecting negatively on the facility Answer: D Page Ref: 282 Objective: 12.9 11) A(n) is a programmable machine or system of hardware that responds to a specific set of instructions and performs a list of instructions in a programmed language called software. A) application program B) operating system C) computer program D) computer Answer: D Page Ref: 267 Objective: 12.1 12) A(n) computer. A) input B) output C) processing D) software Answer: A Page Ref: 270 Objective: 12.5

device, such as the keyboard and scanner, feeds instructions and data into a

13) The of a computer acts as a traffic controller, directing the computer's activities and sending electronic signals to the right place at the right time. A) RAM B) ROM C) CPU D) hard drive Answer: C Page Ref: 267 Objective: 12.1, 12.4 14) The is a small oblong device that the operator rolls over a hard, flat surface to control the movement of the cursor on the monitor. A) pointer B) scanner C) mouse D) character finder Answer: C Page Ref: 271 Objective: 12.1, 12.4 15) The time it takes for the electronic signals to come and go is measured in A) gigabits B) kilobytes C) megahertz D) megabytes Answer: C Page Ref: 269 Objective: 12.1

16) Which of the following social media sites has the benefit of employment networking? A) Pinterest B) LinkedIn C) Facebook D) Instagram Answer: B Page Ref: 281 Objective: 12.9 17) Database management applications are electronic A) cloud storage devices B) billing claims processors C) word processors D) filing systems Answer: D Page Ref: 274 Objective: 12.1 7

18) is a comprehensive software program that manages many of the administrative and business functions of a medical practice. A) Premier office management system (POMS) B) Electronic health manager (EHM) C) Practice management software (PMS) D) Health business manager (HBM) Answer: C Page Ref: 274 Objective: 12.1 19) A(n) , also known as an electronic medical record (EMR), is a computerized version of a patient's medical history. A) electronic personal record (EPR) B) electronic health record (EHR) C) health maintenance record (HMR) D) computerized medical record (CMR) Answer: B Page Ref: 274 Objective: 12.1 20) Which of the following is NOT an example of why computers are used in medicine? A) To reduce errors B) Eliminate duplicating work C) To improve ergonomics D) Data collection Answer: C Page Ref: 265 Objective: 12.2 21) A portable drive, also known as a jump drive, thumb drive, or flash drive, is a small portable storage device that can hold many gigabytes of data. A) floppy B) CD C) USB D) hard Answer: C Page Ref: 270 Objective: 12.1

22) printers are faster and quieter than dot-matrix printers, and they can produce typewritten-quality work. A) Laser B) Inkjet C) Bubble jet D) Plotter Answer: A Page Ref: 272 Objective: 12.5 23) application allow the user to manipulate data by rows and columns. A) Operating B) Word processing C) Spreadsheet D) Table Answer: C Page Ref: 273 Objective: 12.1 24) applications provide the user the ability to create, edit, store, and print things such as letters, manuscripts, transmittals, and many other professional documents. A) Word processor B) Spreadsheet C) Operating D) Print Answer: A Page Ref: 272 Objective: 12.1 25) Which type of computer is used for scheduling, accounting, medical records, and patient registration and consists of separate components, including a monitor, keyboard, mouse, and central processing unit (CPU) case with drives? A) Server B) Desktop C) Notebook D) Laptop Answer: B Page Ref: 266 Objective: 12.3

26) Resting your wrists on the wrist rest while A) typing B) resting C) writing D) reading Answer: A Page Ref: 286 Objective: 12.11

is NOT recommended.

27) While working, you should adjust the seat height so your feet are your knees are equal to, or slightly lower than, your hips. A) touching B) tip-toeing on C) off of D) flat on Answer: D Page Ref: 286 Objective: 12.11

the floor and

28) computers allow users to carry their work with them. A) Micro B) Server C) Workstation D) Laptop Answer: D Page Ref: 266 Objective: 12.3 29) means to code or scramble data to be unreadable unless you have the decoding key. A) Encrypt B) Download C) Hard copy D) Write-protect Answer: A Page Ref: 268 Objective: 12.1 30) devices, such as a display screen, printer, and other devices, enable the user to obtain data from the computer in a usable format. A) Processing B) Input C) Output D) Visual Answer: C Page Ref: 267 Objective: 12.1, 12.5 10

31) Which of the following is NOT an issue to consider when selecting a new computer system? A) How ergonomics will be established B) What software will be used C) What the hardware requirements will be D) How users will be trained and supported Answer: A Page Ref: 284—285 Objective: 12.10 32) software allows users to create things such as spreadsheets, documents, or presentations. A) Operating B) Word processing C) Windows operating D) Application Answer: D Page Ref: 272 Objective: 12.1 33) The should be positioned so that it cannot be easily seen by patients. A) monitor B) keyboard C) printer D) CPU Answer: A Page Ref: 276—277 Objective: 12.6 34) is the actual physical equipment that is used by a computer to process data. A) Software B) Hardware C) Operating system D) Application software Answer: B Page Ref: 268 Objective: 12.1, 12.4 35) If you must write your password down, keep it in a(n) it as a system password. A) visible B) vulnerable C) secure D) open Answer: C Page Ref: 277 Objective: 12.6 11

place and do NOT identify

36) When choosing a password, which of the following would be the best choice? A) Name of child B) Your birthday C) Your child's birthday D) Unique combination of letters Answer: D Page Ref: 277 Objective: 12.6 37) A is a multifunction device that may include a phone, an email reader, and an Internet browser. A) server B) desktop C) calculator D) handheld Answer: D Page Ref: 266 Objective: 12.3 38) When selecting a new computer system, which of the following should be an issue to consider regarding hardware requirements? A) Functionality and applications needed B) Training and support needed for users C) How the system will be backed up D) Number of people who will be using the system Answer: C Page Ref: 283—284 Objective: 12.10 39) The HIPAA Security Rule does NOT include A) administrative B) personal C) physical D) technical Answer: B Page Ref: 275 Objective: 12.6

safeguards.

40) Which of the following is an example of a HIPAA Security Rule technical safeguard? A) Constructing firewalls to prevent intrusion B) Proper positioning of workstations C) Conducting training programs D) Writing contingency plans Answer: A Page Ref: 277 Objective: 12.6 12

41) The is the brain of the computer. A) hard drive B) ROM C) RAM D) CPU Answer: D Page Ref: 267 Objective: 12.1, 12.4 42) A microprocessor is considered the heart of the CPU and has which three characteristics? A) Kilobytes, megabytes and, gigabytes B) Read-only memory (ROM), random-access memory (RAM), and write-information memory (WIM) C) Instruction set, bandwidth, and clock speed D) USB, internal hard disk, and local drive Answer: C Page Ref: 269 Objective: 12.4 43) is software that allows the user to speak into a microphone and translates the spoken words into commands or text. A) Voice recognition technology (VRT) B) Voice command recognition (VCR) C) Audio Translation Technology (ATT) D) Audio Translation system (ATS) Answer: A Page Ref: 271 Objective: 12.5 44) safeguards are the controls a medical office has in place to prevent unauthorized people from physically accessing patient data. A) Physical B) Technical C) Security D) Administrative Answer: A Page Ref: 276 Objective: 12.6

45) To transfer information from the computer monitor onto paper or hard copy, used. A) USB drives B) DVDs C) CDs D) printers Answer: D Page Ref: 271 Objective: 12.5

are

46) The is a computer network made up of thousands of interfacing networks worldwide. A) Internet B) mainframe C) World Wide Web D) supercomputer Answer: A Page Ref: 280 Objective: 12.1, 12.8 47) Users access the Internet through a commercial A) supercomputer B) mass storage device C) world wide web D) Internet Service Provider Answer: D Page Ref: 280 Objective: 12.1, 12.8

48) A program is software that scans the computer data to detect and disable malicious virus programs that can harm your data. A) virus protection B) malware protection C) virus selection D) firewall Answer: A Page Ref: 279 Objective: 12.1, 12.6 49) Which of the following does NOT help protect the confidentiality of medical information? A) A computer privacy screen B) A monitor facing the reception area C) A screen saver D) A secure password Answer: B Page Ref: 276 Objective: 12.6 14

50) All of the following are examples of methods used to protect computers EXCEPT A) firewalls B) defragmentation C) cookies D) antivirus programs Answer: C Page Ref: 279 Objective: 12.6 51) Practice management software (PMS) manages administrative and business functions including all of the following EXCEPT . A) appointment scheduling B) electronic claims submission C) reimbursement management D) determining patient diagnosis Answer: D Page Ref: 274 Objective: 12.1 52) A medical assistant who wanted to type a letter to a patient would likely use a program. A) spreadsheet B) word processing C) data management D) overlay Answer: B Page Ref: 272 Objective: 12.8

Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting, 4e (Beaman) Chapter 13 The Medical Record True/False Questions 1) An out guide is used to remind the medical assistant of an event or action that will take place at a future date. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 318 Objective: 13.13 2) One of the most time-consuming and frustrating activities relating to medical records is locating a "missing" file. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 318 Objective: 13.12 3) Cross-referencing refers to alerting the health worker that a file may be found under another name. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 318 Objective: 13.14 4) The consultation report describes a surgical procedure. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 311 Objective: 13.12 5) Medical records are confidential and can never be released without a patient's consent. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 300 Objective: 13.9 6) Legally, all medical records should be stored for two years from the time of the last entry. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 314 Objective: 13.15 7) All internal office problems and your opinions should be clearly documented in the patient's medical record. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 298 Objective: 13.12

8) President George W. Bush identified EHR as a priority for his administration and approved legislation to promote the widespread adoption of EHR. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 291 Objective: 13.4 9) The simplest numerical filing method is terminal-digit filing. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 317 Objective: 13.14 10) The American Medical Association recommends keeping medical records for five years. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 319 Objective: 13.15 11) Typists are medical professionals who have excellent keyboarding and grammar skills, knowledge of medical terminology, and a desire for accuracy. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 312 Objective: 13.12 12) It is unnecessary for a medical record destruction policy to be in writing. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 319 Objective: 13.15 13) If you make an error on a medical record, be sure to erase, or totally obliterate, the original error. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 302 Objective: 13.8 14) A tickler file is used to remind doctors of a scheduled procedure. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 318 Objective: 13.13 15) Filing by subject matter works best for large files. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 318 Objective: 13.14 16) When filing alphabetically, initials come after a full name. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 316 Objective: 13.14 2

17) When filing alphabetically, Mac and Mc can be filed either alphabetically as they occur or grouped together, depending on the preference of the office. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 316 Objective: 13.14 18) The key to numeric filing is to divide the names and titles into units (first, second, and third). Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 306 Objective: 13.14 19) Ambulatory care has been quicker than inpatient facilities to adopt EHR technology. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 291 Objective: 13.4 20) Paper records must be scanned and entered into the EHR system and flagged for the physician to review. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 291 Objective: 13.4 21) Per HIPAA, all computer users must have their own unique login, consisting of username and password, to access the patient medical records. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 303 Objective: 13.8 22) In a paper-based record, the file folder is divided into sections that are labeled for each type of report. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 293 Objective: 13.2 23) EHRs do not contain the same information as paper based medical records. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 292 Objective: 13.2 24) When computers first came into use, the term computer-based medical records referred to paper-based records that had been scanned, then stored on the computer rather than in file cabinets. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 291 Objective: 13.3 3

25) The term electronic medical record (EMR) was adopted to describe the ability to share computerized patient information among providers. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 291 Objective: 13.3 26) A practice management system does not store clinical information, aside from that used for billing, such as diagnostic and procedure codes. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 293 Objective: 13.6 27) Computerized physician order entry (CPOE) is the ability of providers to order tests, prescriptions, lab work, and referrals using the computer, rather than writing them on paper, mailing or faxing them, or placing a telephone call. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 320 Objective: 13.1, 13.17 28) Point of care documentation is the ability of providers to document the patient encounter in the examination room and enter information into the computer while the patient is present. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 320 Objective: 13.1, 13.16 29) It is not possible to automatically enter vital signs and diagnostic test results from computer equipment directly into the EHR. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 320 Objective: 13.16 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The -year statute of limitations begins to run at the point of discovery of the damage and the connection between that damage and the treatment. A) one B) two C) three D) four Answer: B Page Ref: 319 Objective: 13.15

2) To be absolutely safe, ideally, all medical records should be retained A) until the patient dies B) for one year C) for two years D) forever Answer: D Page Ref: 319 Objective: 13.18

3) All from tests performed on patients, such as office tests, laboratory tests, and hospital tests, should be tracked and filed in patients' records for easy accessibility should the physician need to consult them. A) results B) positive results C) negative results D) neutral results Answer: A Page Ref: 310 Objective: 13.12 4) Which of the following is NOT one of the three types of file storage systems commonly used in a physician's office? A) Vertical B) Lateral C) Movable D) Fixed Answer: D Page Ref: 314 Objective: 13.14 5) Divider A) files B) guides C) drawers D) walls Answer: B Page Ref: 314 Objective: 13.13

are used to separate files in the drawer or on the shelf.

6) systems assign a number to patients the first time they are seen or admitted to a hospital. A) Serial-numbering B) Terminal-digit filing C) Unit-number filing D) Single-digit filing Answer: C Page Ref: 316 Objective: 13.14 7) Which of the following would NOT be included in an EHR drop-down menu? A) A patient's phone number B) A list of symptoms C) A list of diagnoses D) None of the above Answer: A Page Ref: 294 Objective: 13.7 8) Due to the large number of files processed in a busy office and the confusion over surnames, of files is recommended. A) alphabetizing B) sorting C) cross-referencing D) labeling Answer: C Page Ref: 318 Objective: 13.14 9) The Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health Act (HITECH) includes for providers who adopt an EHR system and demonstrate its use in ways that can improve quality, safety, and effectiveness of care. A) financial incentives B) professional accolades C) legal safeguards D) professional training Answer: A Page Ref: 291 Objective: 13.5

10) Miniaturized photographs of records are called A) microfiche B) small pictures C) microfilm D) small photographs Answer: C Page Ref: 319 Objective: 13.15

11) For a physician to identify trends in the patient's medical history or emerging diagnoses, the system can be used. A) PRMO B) POMR C) ROMP D) MOPR Answer: B Page Ref: 305 Objective: 13.10 12) Each patient's medical record will contain essentially all information is unique to each patient. A) the same B) similar C) different D) meaningless Answer: A Page Ref: 295 Objective: 13.12

categories of material, but

13) The section of the POMR contains information about physical examinations, the patient history, and the results of baseline laboratory or diagnostic procedures. A) database B) problem list C) treatment plan D) progress notes Answer: A Page Ref: 305 Objective: 13.10

14) The medical record is a legal document, a record, and a tool used to communicate between staff members to deliver services to the patient. A) temporary B) impermanent C) permanent D) short-term Answer: C Page Ref: 297 Objective: 13.8 15) If an error is made AFTER the typing process in an electronic medical record, you should do all of the following, EXCEPT . A) draw a line through the error B) enter your initials C) enter the date D) use a commercial correction fluid Answer: D Page Ref: 302 Objective: 13.8 16) Which of the following is NOT correct about the acronym SOAP charting? A) S = Subjective B) O = Objective C) A = Administration D) P = Plan Answer: C Page Ref: 305 Objective: 13.11 17) Medical records are A) temporary B) legal C) unofficial D) fabricated Answer: B Page Ref: 301 Objective: 13.8

documents.

18) The patient _ form usually includes the patient's name, the date of the visit, as well as the patient's age, date of birth (DOB), Social Security number, driver's license number (if applicable), address, and medical insurance information. A) registration B) medical C) history D) checkup Answer: A Page Ref: 305 Objective: 13.12 19) The plan should include the physician's statement of what is wrong with the patient, the plan to care for the problem, and options presented to the patient, as well as any instructions given to the patient. A) patient correspondence and follow-up care B) patient and doctor C) diagnosis and treatment D) consultation Answer: C Page Ref: 310 Objective: 13.8 20) The summary is completed on every hospitalized patient and summarizes the hospitalization. It explains why the patient was admitted, a summary of the patient's history, and a review of what occurred during the hospitalization. A) pathology B) discharge C) consultation D) admittance Answer: B Page Ref: 276 Objective: 13.12 21) records are those of patients who have actively terminated their contract with the physician. A) Open B) Active C) Inactive D) Closed Answer: D Page Ref: 314 Objective: 13.15

22) The system is commonly used for medical records because it allows for the most privacy. A) bar coding B) numeric C) alphabetical D) Color-coding Answer: B Page Ref: 317 Objective: 13.14 23) filing method is the simplest of all numerical filing systems. A) Unit numbering B) Straight numeric C) Serial-numbering D) Middle-digit Answer: B Page Ref: 317 Objective: 13.14 24) Which of the following is NOT a rule of alphabetic filing? A) Disregard apostrophes. B) Married women are indexed using their legal names. C) Numeric characters are indexed before alpha characters. D) Hyphenated names are treated as two units. Answer: D Page Ref: 316 Objective: 13.14 25) All of the following would be listed on the patient's family and medical history form, EXCEPT . A) medications, including over-the-counter medications B) past medical history of illnesses C) current prescriptions D) patient's previous employers Answer: D Page Ref: 309 Objective: 13.12 26) Which of the following is NOT one of the rules for alphabetic filing? A) Foreign language names are indexed as one unit. B) The ZIP code is not used to index files. C) Numeric seniority terms are filed after alphabetic terms. D) Apostrophes are disregarded. Answer: C Page Ref: 316 Objective: 13.14 10

27) Filing by personnel records. A) subject matter B) numbers C) bar code D) Roman numerals Answer: A Page Ref: 318 Objective: 13.12

is used for general files, such as invoices, correspondence, resumes, and

28) Which of the following is NOT one of three sections of numbers assigned to each file in terminal-digit filing? A) Tertiary B) Thirdly C) Secondary D) Primary Answer: B Page Ref: 317 Objective: 13.14 29) Which of the following is NOT one of the suggested guidelines for locating missing files? A) Check with the transcriptionist, receptionist, coding, and billing departments. B) Look at the file folders near the location where the missing file "should" appear in the file cabinet. C) Check common areas, such as the copy machine, scanner, and fax machines. D) Ask the patients currently in the reception room. Answer: D Page Ref: 284 Objective: 13.4 30) An effective records destruction policy should do all of the following, EXCEPT A) outline the length of time records will be kept B) define which records will be kept onsite and which will be kept offsite C) designate five people to be responsible for deciding what to keep and what to purge D) provide a method of disposal that destroys all information in the record Answer: C Page Ref: 319-320 Objective: 13.15

31) As with any office policy, a medical record destruction policy should follow a(n) procedure. A) written B) verbal C) extermination D) systematic Answer: A Page Ref: 319 Objective: 13.15 32) Most states require that all patient records be retained for treatment. A) three to five B) five to seven C) two to seven D) ten to twenty Answer: C Page Ref: 319 Objective: 13.15

years after the last

33) A file is used to remind the medical assistant of an event or action that will take place at a future date. A) patient B) tickler C) medical D) reminder Answer: B Page Ref: 318 Objective: 13.13 34) One of the most time-consuming and frustrating activities relating to medical records is locating a(n) file. A) missing B) patient C) inactive D) active Answer: A Page Ref: 318 Objective: 13.14

35) To decrease the number of misfiled charts and aid in file retrieval, many medical record departments use a -coded system on their file folders. A) UPC B) color C) bar D) number Answer: B Page Ref: 315 Objective: 13.14 36) All of the following are types of numerical filing systems, EXCEPT A) straight numeric B) terminal-digit C) middle-digit D) left-digit numerical Answer: D Page Ref: 316 Objective: 13.14

filing.

37) cabinets are used to file documents such as patient records, tax records, insurance policies, and canceled checks. A) Wooden B) Metal C) Fireproof D) Waterproof Answer: C Page Ref: 316 Objective: 13.13 38) Which of the following is NOT one of the three commonly used systems for filing? A) Alphabetic B) Numeric C) UPC code D) Subject Answer: C Page Ref: 315-318 Objective: 13.14 39) The on the file folder has a main purpose of identifying what is in the file (i.e., patient's name). A) paper B) tag C) mark D) label Answer: D Page Ref: 314 Objective: 13.14 13

40) records relate to patients who have been seen in the past few years and are currently being treated. A) Active B) Inactive C) Medical D) Dormant Answer: A Page Ref: 314 Objective: 13.15 41) The report describes a surgical procedure. A) discharge B) radiology C) operative D) pathology Answer: C Page Ref: 311 Objective: 13.12 42) Medical records should be written legibly in A) erasable B) blue C) black D) red Answer: C Page Ref: 298 Objective: 13.8

ink.

43) Everything that is done during a patient's medical visit, ordered over the telephone, or discussed with a patient over the phone or e-mail must be . A) discussed B) documented C) debated D) disclosed Answer: B Page Ref: 298 Objective: 13.12 44) All documentation should be A) objective B) reactive C) projective D) biased Answer: A Page Ref: 298 Objective: 13.12

, NOT subjective.

45) Cross-referencing can be a simple, but useful, tool for finding and avoiding records. A) patient B) permanent C) changed D) lost Answer: D Page Ref: 318 Objective: 13.14 46) file storage is set up with electrically-powered or manually-controlled file units that move on tracks in the floor. A) Movable B) Lateral C) Vertical D) Fixed Answer: A Page Ref: 314 Objective: 13.13 47) records are commonly used in medical clinics. A) Retroactive medical B) Terminal digit medical C) Problem-oriented medical D) Source-oriented medical Answer: D Page Ref: 307 Objective: 13.10 48) A medical office that needs to store medical records, books, and journals would likely use files. A) vertical B) lateral C) movable D) stationary Answer: C Page Ref: 314 Objective: 13.13

49) These types of records are also referred to as archives. A) Inactive records B) Active records C) Closed records D) Static records Answer: C Page Ref: 314 Objective: 13.15 50) Which of the following would appear in quotation marks within the medical record? A) Objective data B) Patient's date of birth C) Patient's current chief complaint D) Patient's known allergies Answer: C Page Ref: 309 Objective: 13.12 51) In the alphabetic filing system, a married woman is indexed using her A) maiden name B) husband's name C) legal name D) first name Answer: C Page Ref: 300 Objective: 13.14

52) The filing system assigns the patient a new medical record number with each hospital visit. A) serial-number B) unit-number C) middle-digit D) terminal-digit Answer: A Page Ref: 316 Objective: 13.14 53) In , Congress passed legislation that made financial incentives available for EHR implementation. A) 2007 B) 2009 C) 2010 D) 2012 Answer: B Page Ref: 291 Objective: 13.3 16

54) A practice management system (PMS) manages administrative and business functions of the medical practice, including . A) appointment scheduling B) patient registration C) insurance billing D) all of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 293 Objective: 13.6 55) All new patients receive the medical office's Notice of Privacy Practices (NPP) on their first encounter and thereafter. A) weekly B) monthly C) annually D) quarterly Answer: C Page Ref: 299 Objective: 13.9 56) Which is NOT true regarding computerized physician order entries? A) Credentialed medical assistants are allowed to enter orders into the CPOE system. B) Patients must remember to take the order with them to their encounter. C) The order is automatically saved in the patient's electronic health record. D) Health care professionals can order tests using only the computer. Answer: B Page Ref: 320 Objective: 13.17 57) Many medical offices have computer terminals in each examination room, which allow medical personnel to while the patient is in the room. A) add information to the patient's EHR B) download test results C) research past medication records D) all of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 320 Objective: 13.16

Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting, 4e (Beaman) Chapter 14 Medical Insurance True/False Questions 1) The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act of 2010 allows each state to establish its own health insurance exchange or opt, instead, to allow the federal government to establish and operate its HIE for state residents. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 330 Objective: 14.2 2) Health maintenance organizations (HMOs) often do not require participants to pay deductibles. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 335 Objective: 14.6 3) Managed care is intended to reduce inefficiencies in medical care. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 329 Objective: 14.6 4) In 2010, Congress passed the Health Insurance Exchange (HIE) Act to help decrease the number of uninsured Americans. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 330 Objective: 14.2 5) Each third party payer has separate, and sometimes conflicting, rules about coding and billing. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 338 Objective: 14.12 6) Most health insurance plans cover 100 percent of the cost of care patients receive. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 331 Objective: 14.10 7) The allowed amount is the monetary amount patients must pay to the provider for healthcare services before health insurance benefits begin to pay. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 331 Objective: 14.4

8) Exclusions are rules that limit how much and when the insurance plan is required to pay health care benefits. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 332 Objective: 14.4 9) Coinsurance is a fixed percentage of charges that patients pay. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 332 Objective: 14.4 10) Under HIPAA, a pre-existing condition is covered with a waiting period when the patient has been continuously insured for the 24 months before joining the new plan. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 332 Objective: 14.4 11) Procedures that are non-emergent, but may benefit the patient, are known as elective procedures. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 334 Objective: 14.4 12) PPOs are managed care plans that cover members only when those members seek care from a list of network healthcare providers and suppliers who have contracted with the HMO. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 336 Objective: 14.6 13) An independent provider association (IPA) is a group formed by physicians, with separatelyowned practices, that contracts with managed care plans. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 336 Objective: 14.6 14) When an employer or union contracts with a private insurance company to provide group health insurance (GHI) coverage, everyone in the group pays the same amount for insurance coverage. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 338 Objective: 14.7 15) Employer-based health coverage typically begins with the next calendar month following 30, 60, or 90 days of employment. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 338 Objective: 14.7 2

16) Medicaid is a federal/state program primarily for low-income individuals. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 329 Objective: 14.7 17) Non-network providers must submit TRICARE claims within 60 days of the date care was provided. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 345 Objective: 14.3 18) For "covered services," health insurance companies are obligated to pay the amount the physician charges. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 348 Objective: 14.4 19) Medicare Part A covers such services as physician care, therapy, and laboratory testing on a fee-for-service basis. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 341 Objective: 14.7 20) Medicare Part D provides limited benefits for prescription drugs. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 342 Objective: 14.7 21) When patients carry other health insurance (OHI) in addition to Medicare, providers must determine when Medicare is obligated to pay as either the first or secondary payer. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 344 Objective: 14.3 22) In most states, Medicaid programs offer coverage on a month-to-month basis. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 344 Objective: 14.3

Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which is the most common form of property and casualty insurance encountered by medical assistants? A) Business B) Home C) Automobile D) Life Answer: C Page Ref: 346 Objective: 14.7 2) Under the 2008 Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act (GINA), which of the following statements is TRUE? A) Health plans can deny health care coverage solely based on genetic predisposition for developing disease in the future. B) Employers can fire employees based on genetic predisposition for developing disease in the future. C) Health plans can charge higher premiums to those with a genetic predisposition for developing disease in the future. D) Health plans must provide healthcare coverage to individuals with genetic predisposition for developing disease in the future. Answer: D Page Ref: 332 Objective: 14.5 3) Which is NOT a component of the resource-based relative value scale (RBRVS) formula? A) National relative value unit (RVU) B) Geographic adjustment factor (GAF) C) National uniform conversion factor (CF) D) Usual, customary, and reasonable insurance payments (UCR) Answer: D Page Ref: 348 Objective: 14.3 4) methods are those in which the healthcare provider shares responsibility for minimizing the cost of care with the insurance plan. A) Risk-based reimbursement B) Charge-based fee schedule C) Fee-based reimbursement D) Insurance plan fee schedule Answer: A Page Ref: 348 Objective: 14.7

5) determines the insurance payment amount in relation to the provider's published fee schedule. A) Risk-based reimbursement B) Fee-based reimbursement C) Per case reimbursement D) Per diem payment Answer: B Page Ref: 348 Objective: 14.3 6) What will a medical assistant obtain from the insurance company to ensure that a procedure will be covered by the patient's health care plan? A) Procedure and diagnosis code B) Name of the insured C) Authorization number D) Place where the procedure will be performed Answer: C Page Ref: 353 Objective: 14.11 7) Which is NOT true regarding electronic claims? A) Fewer claims are rejected. B) Supply and postage costs are lower. C) Medicare claims are processed more quickly. D) Payers match up electronic claims with mailed attachments. Answer: D Page Ref: 369-370 Objective: 14.3 8) Version 5010 is the set of HIPAA standards that regulates A) CMS 1500 submissions B) electronic transmission of health care transactions C) TRICARE submissions by mail D) medical office patient billing Answer: B Page Ref: 369 Objective: 14.14

9) A difference between third party liability insurance and disability income insurance is that disability income insurance . A) is only offered by private sources B) does not usually require billing the insurer for medical services C) is not offered in Texas D) often includes personal injury protection Answer: B Page Ref: 347 Objective: 14.8 5

10) To obtain a referral authorization from a managed care company, the medical assistant must first . A) call the patient's primary care provider's office, and ask for the person in charge of referrals B) obtain an authorization number from the insurance provider C) submit a CMS-1500 form to the insurance provider D) document the phone call Answer: A Page Ref: 354 Objective: 14.9 11) If a patient has health insurance coverage with more than one medical insurance plan, the medical assistant bills the secondary insurance the primary insurance. A) before B) at the same time as C) after documenting submission to D) after payment has been made by Answer: D Page Ref: 369 Objective: 14.3 12) coverage is a federal government health benefit program designed for elderly patients. A) CHAMPVA B) Medicare C) TRICARE Prime D) Medicaid Answer: B Page Ref: 329 Objective: 14.7 13) The primary policy for a child who is covered by the health insurance policies of two biological parents is the . A) custodial parent's policy B) policy of the older parent C) policy of the parent whose birthday comes first in the calendar year D) policy determined by court decree Answer: A Page Ref: 352 Objective: 14.3

14) To comply with many insurance company rules, the medical assistant must obtain from a primary care physician before a patient sees a specialist. A) an authorization B) coordination of benefits C) a referral D) eligibility Answer: C Page Ref: 334 Objective: 14.9 15) To obtain precertification for a patient to receive a prescribed procedure, the medical assistant contacts the . A) patient's primary care physician B) patient's insurance carrier C) hospital where the procedure will be performed D) office of the provider who will perform the procedure Answer: B Page Ref: 352 Objective: 14.11 16) Creating a separate medical and financial record for patients covered by worker's compensation . A) is a HIPAA requirement B) is a requirement of the Department of Labor C) helps maintain confidentiality D) is a step in filing the First Report Answer: C Page Ref: 348 Objective: 14.13 17) The services. A) 837P B) CMS-1500 C) UB-04 D) CMS-1450 Answer: B Page Ref: 370 Objective: 14.3

claim form must be used to submit paper claims to Medicare for a physician's

18) Which is NOT a type of workers' compensation insurance claim? A) Nondisability B) Temporary disability C) Permanent disability D) Personal injury protection Answer: D Page Ref: 346 Objective: 14.4 19) Disability income (DI) insurance benefits are based on A) lost wages B) the employer's annual sales C) the severity of the disability D) a percentage of the employee's wages Answer: D Page Ref: 347 Objective: 14.8

20) Errors may still occur on electronic claims, so it is very important for the medical assistant to all claims before submitting them. A) print B) fill out a paper CMS-1500 for C) contact a clearinghouse regarding D) review for accuracy and completeness Answer: D Page Ref: 371 Objective: 14.3 21) When completing the CMS-1500 form, medical assistants abstract data, meaning they to find the required information. A) use several source documents B) ask the patient C) pull data from specific electronic sources D) use a single printed source Answer: A Page Ref: 355 Objective: 14.3 22) Which is NOT found on an encounter form? A) Date of service B) Services rendered C) Future services recommended D) Treating provider Answer: C Page Ref: 355 Objective: 14.3 8

23) Which is the responsibility of the medical assistant, not the clearinghouse? A) Auditing claims B) Forwarding clean claims to insurance carrier C) Correcting claims D) Providing an audit/edit report Answer: C Page Ref: 370 Objective: 14.3 24) A medical assistant verifies a patient's insurance eligibility with an insurance company to determine all of these, EXCEPT the . A) patient's financial responsibility B) provider's participating status C) patient's employment status D) covered services Answer: C Page Ref: 352 Objective: 14.3 25) The Advance Beneficiary Notice (ABN) must be signed by patients before they can receive covered services that may be denied payment by . A) Medicaid B) Medicare C) workers' compensation insurance D) Medigap Answer: B Page Ref: 342 Objective: 14.3 26) When legally married parents have the same birthday, the primary medical insurance will be the . A) newer policy B) policy with lower deductible C) policy in force longer D) policy with the best coverage Answer: C Page Ref: 352 Objective: 14.3

27) Violating HIPAA laws that protect the privacy of patient information can result in a jail term of up to years. A) 2 B) 5 C) 7 D) 10 Answer: D Page Ref: 335 Objective: 14.14 28) are organizations that pay for health care services on behalf of the patient. A) First-party payers B) Second-party payers C) Third-party payers D) Universal payers Answer: C Page Ref: 337 Objective: 14.8 29) A list of drugs approved for coverage is known as (a) A) generic B) formulary C) preferred D) nonformulary Answer: B Page Ref: 337 Objective: 14.10

30) Supplemental riders for things such as prescription drugs, vision, and alternative care are covered under coverage. A) ancillary services B) catastrophic care C) hospital services D) preventive care Answer: A Page Ref: 337 Objective: 14.10 31) Under , all routine and sick care is paid out-of-pocket. A) the law B) hospital services C) catastrophic care D) surgical services Answer: C Page Ref: 337 Objective: 14.10 10

32) Supplemental insurance for an Alzheimer's patient would be which type of coverage? A) Ancillary services B) Disease-specific C) Catastrophic care D) Surgical services Answer: B Page Ref: 337 Objective: 14.10 33) Which is the most restrictive type of healthcare plan? A) PPO B) HMO C) FFS D) Indemnity plan Answer: B Page Ref: 335 Objective: 14.6 34) Most insurance carriers accept claims up to A) six months B) one month C) one year D) two years Answer: C Page Ref: 370 Objective: 14.3 35) During the 1950s and 1960s, A) private payer B) employee benefit C) group policy D) government Answer: D Page Ref: 329 Objective: 14.7

from the date of service.

programs began to cover healthcare costs.

36) The more complicated the medical procedure, the higher Medicare's A) premium B) RVU C) UCR D) GAF Answer: B Page Ref: 348 Objective: 14.7

37) About 60 percent of Americans have health insurance through a(n) A) individual B) employer-sponsored C) managed care D) Medicare Answer: B Page Ref: 330 Objective: 14.2

plan.

38) The requires most people to have health insurance and to pay a tax penalty if they do not. A) individual mandate B) deductible C) health insurance exchange D) employer-based coverage Answer: A Page Ref: 330 Objective: 14.2 39) Which is NOT considered an out-of-pocket expense? A) Deductible B) Copayment C) Coinsurance D) Fee for service Answer: D Page Ref: 335 Objective: 14.3 40) In industrialized countries other than the United States, the oversees the delivery system. A) patient B) government C) medical industry D) patient's employer Answer: B Page Ref: 329 Objective: 14.2 41) Another name for the Affordable Care Act (ACA) is A) Health Insurance Exchange (HIE) B) The Individual Mandate C) Obamacare D) Managed Care Answer: C Page Ref: 330 Objective: 14.2 12

finances healthcare and

42) Which does NOT fall under the category of dependents? A) Spouse or domestic partner B) Children C) Subordinates D) Stepchildren Answer: C Page Ref: 331 Objective: 14.3 43) The is a unique, ten-digit number assigned to healthcare providers by the CMS. A) national provider identifier (NPI) B) CMS-1500 C) unique provider identification number (UPIN) D) ICD-10-CM Answer: A Page Ref: 354 Objective: 14.3 44) is a contract between an insurance carrier and the insured person. A) Indemnity B) Beneficiary C) Premium D) Health insurance Answer: D Page Ref: 329 Objective: 14.4 45) is insurance specifically covers injuries that are related to work. A) Occupational hazard B) Medicaid C) Workers' compensation D) COBRA Answer: C Page Ref: 345 Objective: 14.4 46) Which is NOT true about preauthorization? A) It is the process of obtaining prior approval for medical service covered by health insurance policies. B) May be valid for limited time. C) Denials cannot be appealed. D) Some third-party payers call it precertification. Answer: C Page Ref: 353 Objective: 14.11

47) Which is NOT a commonly used term for the owner of a health insurance policy? A) Member B) User C) Subscriber D) Policyholder Answer: B Page Ref: 331 Objective: 14.1 48) Health care providers must establish a fee schedule, which lists their charge for each service they provide, and is normally organized by . A) HCPCS code B) ICD-10-CM code C) CPT code D) RVS system Answer: C Page Ref: 331 Objective: 14.3 49) Which TRICARE insurance plan is a fee-for-service plan? A) Standard B) Extra C) Premium D) Prime Answer: A Page Ref: 345 Objective: 14.3 50) is a private insurance policy that supplements Medicare coverage. A) COBRA B) Medigap (MG) C) Medicaid D) TRICARE Answer: B Page Ref: 342 Objective: 14.3 51) When employees have been covered under group insurance and leave employment, they may have the opportunity to continue the group coverage at their own expense under a policy. A) property and casualty B) workers' compensation C) COBRA D) disability income Answer: C Page Ref: 339 Objective: 14.4 14

52) Which is NOT a consideration when determining resource-based fee structures? A) Work B) Practice expense C) Malpractice D) Extent of injury Answer: D Page Ref: 347 Objective: 14.7 53) Each new patient in a medical office should complete a registration form that is verified at each visit and updated . A) annually B) each time the patient is seen C) only if the patient says his information has changed D) only if required to by the office procedure manual Answer: A Page Ref: 373 Objective: 14.3 54) Which is NOT true about the CMS-1500 form? A) used for all claims B) used for electronic claims C) used with OCR D) used for paper claims Answer: B Page Ref: 370 Objective: 14.3 55) If a patient has other coverage through payer. A) Medicaid B) State Victims of Crime Compensation C) supplemental CHAMPVA policies D) private health insurance Answer: D Page Ref: 345 Objective: 14.3

, by law, CHAMPVA is never the primary

Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting, 4e (Beaman) Chapter 15 Diagnosis Coding True/False Questions 1) ICD-10-CM is an update and major revision to the ICD-9-CM. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 378 Objective: 15.3 2) Both ICD-9-CM and ICD-10-CM use over 70,000 codes. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 379 Objective: 15.3 3) Fraud is knowingly billing for services that were never provided. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 379 Objective: 15.2 4) The purpose of the Office of the Inspector General (OIG) is to fight waste, fraud, and abuse in Medicare, Medicaid, and more than 300 other HHS programs. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 380 Objective: 15.2 5) "Conventions" in the Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting (OGCR) are specialized rules, abbreviations, formatting, and symbols that alert users to important information. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 380 Objective: 15.1 6) A multiple code uses several codes to fully describe the patient's condition. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 385 Objective: 15.1 7) When the physician gives an uncertain or qualified diagnosis, the medical assistant bills the insurance company using a code for that diagnosis. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 386 Objective: 15.2

8) The final step in ICD-10-CM coding is to locate the patient's diagnostic codes or description on the encounter form or in the chart notes. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 370 Objective: 15.7 9) In diagnostic coding, Main Terms usually do not include anatomic sites. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 387 Objective: 15.1 10) The chief complaint is a statement in the patient's own words of the reason for the visit. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 386 Objective: 15.2 11) Subterms are words indented under the boldfaced Main Term that further describe variations of the condition. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 387 Objective: 15.2 12) The Index is an alphanumerically sequenced list of all diagnosis codes, divided into 21 chapters based on cause, or etiology, and body system. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 383 Objective: 15.5 13) The Tabular List lists conditions, diseases, and reasons for seeking medical care. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 383 Objective: 15.1 14) ICD-10-CM codes may be between three and seven characters in length. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 389 Objective: 15.5 15) The medical assistant may answer patients' questions about the meaning of codes. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 378 Objective: 15.2 16) When the Main Term or Subterm is too long to fit on one line, a carryover line is used. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 387 Objective: 15.7 2

17) An example of fraud is billing for a service that has a higher reimbursement than the service actually provided. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 383 Objective: 15.1 18) The introductory material at the beginning of the ICD-10-CM includes instructions on how to use ICD-10-CM. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 380 Objective: 15.7 19) The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (PPACA) mandates compliance programs for providers who contract with Medicare and Medicaid, so they must follow government rules. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 380 Objective: 15.3 20) ICD-10-CM provides the codes that identify the diagnoses physicians give patients. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 380 Objective: 15.6 21) An expected benefit of the changeover from ICD-9-CM to ICD-10-CM is fewer coding and billing errors. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 379 Objective: 15.4 Multiple Choice Questions 1) ICD-10-CM coding assigns A) alphabetic B) numeric C) symbolic D) alphanumeric Answer: D Page Ref: 381 Objective: 15.7

codes that represent patient diagnoses.

2) The ICD-10-CM coding manual contains over A) 70,000 B) 80,000 C) 90,000 D) 100,000 Answer: A Page Ref: 380 Objective: 15.5

codes.

3) All of the following are TRUE of the ICD-10-CM, EXCEPT . A) detailed diagnosis codes reduce the need for attachments to claims B) the coding system in the United States becomes more consistent with that used in other countries C) fewer diagnosis codes are included in the ICD-10-CM than were found in ICD-9-CM D) it is expected to save time and money in the long-term Answer: C Page Ref: 379 Objective: 15.4 4) The United State began using ICD-10-CM for coding and classification of mortality data from death certificates in . A) 1994 B) 1999 C) 2009 D) 2015 Answer: B Page Ref: 378 Objective: 15.3 5) The mandates the approved code sets for all covered entities, such as a medical office, that handle claims related to healthcare services. A) Office of the Inspector General (OIG) B) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) C) National Center for Health Statistics (NCHS) D) Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (PPACA) Answer: B Page Ref: 377 Objective: 15.3 6) indicate(s) Main Terms in the Index and code titles in the Tabular list A) Boldface (heavy type) B) Brackets C) Parentheses D) Braces Answer: A Page Ref: 382 Objective: 15.5 4

7) The convention signifies that the medical record contains additional details about the condition, but there is no more specific code available for use. A) NOS B) NEC C) X D) colon Answer: B Page Ref: 382 Objective: 15.5 8) The convention in the Index tells you that it is necessary to reference another Main Term or condition to locate the correct code. A) And B) Square brackets C) See D) Code also Answer: C Page Ref: 382 Objective: 15.7 9) Which of is NOT a step in using the ICD-10-CM to identify a diagnosis? A) Find the Main Term in the Index. B) Establish a process for reporting exceptions. C) Confirm that the preliminary diagnosis code description in the Tabular List matches the chart notes. D) Identify the preliminary diagnosis code in the Subterms that are under the Main Term. Answer: B Page Ref: 390 Objective: 15.7 10) Which is NOT a use of ICD-10-CM coding? A) Compiling and reporting statistics about health trends B) Billing insurance companies for reimbursement C) Obtaining insurance preauthorizations or referrals D) Procedure coding Answer: D Page Ref: 377 Objective: 15.6

11) Historically, diagnosis coding was used to track A) incidence of medical procedures B) incidence of drug use C) the study of disease and cause of death D) incidence of medical equipment use Answer: C Page Ref: 378 Objective: 15.3

12) In 1994, the World Health Organization (WHO) published the reporting of morbidity and mortality data. A) ICD-8 B) ICD-9 C) ICD-10 D) ICD-CM/PCS Answer: C Page Ref: 378 Objective: 15.3 13) Diagnosis codes are located in the chapters based on cause and body system. A) Index to Diseases and Injuries B) Tabular List C) Table of Neoplasms D) Index to External Causes Answer: B Page Ref: 383 Objective: 15.5

for worldwide

, listed alphanumerically and divided into 21

14) Any time a medical assistant is uncertain about how to select a code, he should A) reach out to a certified coder B) select the code that makes the most sense C) ask a physician D) conduct an internet search Answer: A Page Ref: 391 Objective: 15.2

15) Introductory material in the ICD-10-CM manual contains all of the following information, EXCEPT (the) . A) instructions for how to use the ICD-10-CM B) Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting (OGCR) C) procedure codes D) Table of Drugs and Chemicals Answer: C Page Ref: 383 Objective: 15.5 6

16) Codes found in the Index must be verified in the to confirm the code description and assign additional characters, specifying details of the condition. A) Tabular List B) List of Main Terms C) Main Index D) Index to Diseases and Injuries Answer: A Page Ref: 383 Objective: 15.7 17) The ICD-10-CM manual Index to Diseases and Injuries has three additional references for specialized purposes, which do NOT include the . A) Table of Neoplasms B) Tabular List C) Table of Drugs and Chemicals D) Index to External Causes Answer: B Page Ref: 383 Objective: 15.8 18) In the code "S69.80XA Other specified injuries to the wrist, initial encounter" the "X" . A) indicates an exclusion note B) is used to expand the code length so the A appears in the seventh position as required C) appears after an incomplete form that requires one or more modifiers D) means that information to assign a more specific code is not available in the medical record Answer: B Page Ref: 383 Objective: 15.7 19) When "Excludes1" notes appear immediately under a code in the Tabular list followed by a list of other conditions, it means . A) the conditions are not mutually exclusive B) the condition excluded is not part of the condition for that code, but the patient may have both conditions at the same time C) the condition represented by the code and the condition listed as excluded are mutually exclusive and should not be coded together D) the conditions in the list should be sequenced second Answer: C Page Ref: 381 Objective: 15.7

20) The first coding manual, published in 1901, was called the A) International Classification of Diseases (ICD) B) Bertillon Classification C) ICD-9 D) ICD-9-CM Answer: A Page Ref: 378 Objective: 15.3 21) The ICD-9-CM had A) 16,000 B) 6,000 C) 160,000 D) 70,000 Answer: A Page Ref: 379 Objective: 15.3

codes.

22) A physician who knowingly bills for services that were never actually provided is committing an act of . A) compliance B) fraud C) waste D) ignorance Answer: B Page Ref: 380 Objective: 15.2 23) What type of code is "E10.339 Type 1 diabetes mellitus with moderate nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy without macular edema"? A) NOS B) Placeholder C) Not documented D) Combination Answer: D Page Ref: 386 Objective: 15.7 24) Which is NOT usually included as a Main Term? A) A condition B) Reason for a visit C) Nontechnical word similar in meaning D) An anatomic site Answer: D Page Ref: 386 Objective: 15.7 8

25) The medical assistant can find codes for "Poisoning, Accidental" in the A) Table of Neoplasma B) Table of Drugs and Chemicals C) Index to External causes D) OGCR Answer: B Page Ref: 384 Objective: 15.8

26) Which of is NOT usually seen as a Main Term? A) Eponym, a disease named after a person B) Abbreviation or acronym, such as "AIDS" C) Coexisting condition, such as "pneumonia, with influenza" D) An adjective, such as "twisted" Answer: C Page Ref: 386 Objective: 15.7 27) When coding for office-based or other outpatient services, medical assistants may refer to any of the following, EXCEPT . A) ICD-9-CM B) lab and radiology reports C) encounter forms D) operative reports for outpatient procedures Answer: A Page Ref: 386 Objective: 15.2 28) The Tabular List is a list of diagnosis codes, divided into 21 chapters, based on all of the following, EXCEPT . A) cause B) diseases and conditions C) etiology D) body system Answer: B Page Ref: 383 Objective: 15.5 29) The Index to Diseases and Injuries is organized by Main Term and Subterms that are arranged . A) alphabetically B) by body system C) by cause of disease D) in chapters Answer: A Page Ref: 383 Objective: 15.5 9

30) Examples of a seventh character of a code, reserved for special use for episodes of care, include all of these, EXCEPT . A) A — initial encounter B) T — tertiary encounter C) S — sequela D) D — subsequent encounter Answer: B Page Ref: 389 Objective: 15.7 31) Which words would NOT be used to indicate a qualified diagnosis? A) R/O B) Probable C) Suspected D) Impression Answer: D Page Ref: 386 Objective: 15.2 32) Which should NOT be used by a medical assistant for outpatient coding? A) Patient's signs B) Uncertain diagnosis C) Patient's symptoms D) Chief complaint Answer: B Page Ref: 386 Objective: 15.2 33) Which convention is NOT found in the Tabular List? A) With B) Inclusion terms C) See Also D) Code Also Answer: C Page Ref: 382 Objective: 15.5 34) ICD-10-CM codes should be between 3 and _ A) 7 B) 8 C) 9 D) 10 Answer: A Page Ref: 389 Objective: 15.5 10

characters in length.

35) To determine a diagnosis code for a benign tumor, the medical assistant will use all of these, EXCEPT . A) Table of Drugs and Chemicals B) Index (Main Term) C) Index of External Causes D) Table of Neoplasms Answer: C Page Ref: 391 Objective: 15.7 36) Coding of procedures and diagnoses must be supported by A) insurance B) the patient's medical record C) codes D) references Answer: B Page Ref: 383 Objective: 15.2

37) codes describe services performed for patients. A) Diagnosis B) Procedure C) Compliance D) ICD-10_CM Answer: B Page Ref: 377 Objective: 15.1 38) The United States Congress passed legislation authorizing Medicare and Medicaid, and ICDA-8 was published for clinicians in . A) 1948 B) 1965 C) 1979 D) 1994 Answer: B Page Ref: 378 Objective: 15.3 39) On what date do updated ICD-10-CM codes take effect each year? A) January 1 B) April 1 C) July 1 D) October 1 Answer: D Page Ref: 380 Objective: 15.5 11

40) means that the condition excluded from the diagnosis is NOT part of the condition represented by the code, but the patient may have both conditions at the same time. A) Excludes2 B) Excludes1 C) Code Also D) See Also Answer: A Page Ref: 381 Objective: 15.7 41) When coding a patient's diagnosis, medical assistants should use the version of ICD-10-CM that . A) is the newest version B) is available in the medical office C) was in effect on the patient's date of service D) is in effect when the medical assistant does the coding Answer: C Page Ref: 380 Objective: 15.7 42) Which is NOT included in the three basic steps of coding? A) If the medical record is incomplete, start by identifying a preliminary code. B) Identify the first listed diagnosis. C) Research the diagnosis in the index. D) Verify the code(s) in the Tabular List. Answer: A Page Ref: 384 Objective: 15.2 43) Etiology is another word for A) diagnosis B) body system C) cause D) history Answer: C Page Ref: 388 Objective: 15.7

44) coding refers to reporting several codes to fully describe a condition. A) Combination B) Special C) Multiple D) Procedure Answer: C Page Ref: 385 Objective: 15.7 12

45) The main reason for the services provided is known as the A) qualified B) first-listed C) working D) SOAP Answer: B Page Ref: 386 Objective: 15.2 46) In 2009, the United States passed legislation requiring the use of 2013. A) Bertillon Classification B) ICD-9-CM C) ICD-10 D) ICD-10-CM Answer: D Page Ref: 378 Objective: 15.3

diagnosis.

on October 1,

47) The overall process to plan for, implement, and monitor the ICD-10-CM transition required approximately years. A) two B) five C) ten D) fifteen Answer: B Page Ref: 379 Objective: 15.3 48) ICD-10-CM codes are updated A) annually B) biennially C) every five years D) monthly Answer: A Page Ref: 380 Objective: 15.5

49) The first step in assigning an ICD-10-CM code is to . A) locate the code in the Tabular List B) match the code description in the Tabular List with the diagnosis in the patient's medical record C) identify the first-listed diagnosis D) list all diagnosis codes (up to four) on the insurance claim form Answer: C Page Ref: 384 Objective: 15.7 50) According to ICD-10-CM conventions, NOS means . A) the medical record contains additional details about the condition, but there is no more specific code available for use B) information to assign a more specific code is not available in the medical record C) none of the codes appearing after this term should be used with the original code itself D) more than one code may be required to fully describe the condition Answer: B Page Ref: 382 Objective: 15.7

Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting, 4e (Beaman) Chapter 16 Procedure Coding True/False Questions 1) Each procedure code must be reported in conjunction with a diagnosis code that identifies the reason the procedure was performed. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 396 Objective: 16.2 2) Current Procedural Terminology (CPT), Fifth Edition, is a listing of two-character alphabetical codes and descriptions used to report outpatient medical services and procedures. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 396 Objective: 16.1 3) In 1992, the U.S. Congress developed a system that assigned a relational value unit (RVU) to every health care diagnosis. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 397 Objective: 16.3 4) CPT codes must be used on the CMS-1500 claim form and its electronic equivalent, the 837P. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 397 Objective: 16.3 5) Upselling refers to coding for a higher level of service than what was actually provided in order to obtain higher reimbursement. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 399 Objective: 16.6 6) Billing for separate services that are included in a single procedure code is known as downcoding. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 399 Objective: 16.5 7) Billing for services never documented is an example of fraud. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 399 Objective: 16.5

8) Situations involving multiple CPT codes or complex operative procedures may require the assistance of a certified coder. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 400 Objective: 16.5 9) Inside the cover of most CPT manuals is an Index. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 401 Objective: 16.7 10) The Tabular List includes a complete description of modifiers applicable to the current year codes. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 401 Objective: 16.7 11) The Tabular List is a numerical listing of all CPT codes, divided into Category I, Category II, and Category III. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 401-403 Objective: 16.7 12) Category II codes compose the bulk of the CPT. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 403 Objective: 16.7 13) Category II codes are optional codes used to collect and track data for performance measurement. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 403 Objective: 16.7 14) Using Category I codes reduces the amount of time spent by the medical office auditing charts to collect information. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 401-403 Objective: 16.7 15) As Evaluation and Management (E&M) codes are the most frequently used codes and are used by all medical specialties, they are placed first in the CPT. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 403 Objective: 16.7

16) Category II codes are used to track the use of emerging technology, services, and procedures. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 403 Objective: 16.7 17) When performing procedure coding, medical assistants may bill for services ordered to be completed in the future. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 404 Objective: 16.8 18) The Main Terms in the CPT Index include organs and anatomic sites. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 406 Objective: 16.8 19) In the CPT Index, the Main Term is always italicized. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 406 Objective: 16.8 20) In the CPT Index, the Main Terms rarely provide the exact code needed. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 406 Objective: 16.8 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Procedure coding is the act of assigning physicians provide to patients. A) letters B) numbers C) letters and numbers D) special characters Answer: B Page Ref: 396 Objective: 16.1

to the procedures and services that

2) CPT, Fourth Edition (CPT-4) is a listing of five-character used to report outpatient medical services and procedures. A) alphabetic B) numeric C) alphanumeric D) procedural Answer: C Page Ref: 396 Objective: 16.3 3

codes and descriptions

3) All of the following are among the most common forms of fraud EXCEPT A) billing insurance companies for services not furnished B) misrepresenting the diagnosis to justify payment C) soliciting, offering, or receiving a kickback D) stealing a patient's identity Answer: D Page Ref: 399 Objective: 16.5

4) The CMS offers consumers and patients the necessary information to encourage them to identify and report fraud. A) manual B) website C) help center D) fraud and abuse hotline Answer: B Page Ref: 399 Objective: 16.5 5) CPT Appendix provides a list of codes in which moderate sedation by the surgeon is an inherent part of the procedure. A) G B) A C) E D) B Answer: A Page Ref: 402 Objective: 16.7 6) The is a numerical listing of all CPT codes, divided into Category I, Category II, and Category III. A) Index B) Tabular List C) Summary of Codes D) CPT Code Book Answer: B Page Ref: 401 Objective: 16.7

7) Category measurement. A) I B) III C) II D) IV Answer: C Page Ref: 403 Objective: 16.7

codes are optional codes used to collect and track data for performance

8) Each Category II Code consists of A) one B) two C) three D) four Answer: D Page Ref: 403 Objective: 16.7 9) Category FDA. A) I B) II C) III D) IV Answer: A Page Ref: 403 Objective: 16.7

number(s), followed by the letter F.

codes describe widely used services and procedures approved by the

10) is the act of intentionally billing for services that were never provided or billing for a service that has a higher reimbursement than the services actually provided. A) Fraud B) Medical coding C) Symbols D) Compliance plan Answer: A Page Ref: 399 Objective: 16.5

11) A(n) is a financial incentive provided by another physician, laboratory, hospital, or pharmaceutical representative for using their services. A) professional incentive B) kickback C) upgrade D) upcode Answer: B Page Ref: 400 Objective: 16.5 12) Category codes are temporary codes for data collection and for tracking the use of emerging technology, services, and procedures. A) I B) II C) III D) IV Answer: C Page Ref: 403 Objective: 16.7 13) The procedure and service codes are located in the A) Current Procedural Terminology B) Current Services Terminology C) Current Procedure and Services Terminology D) Current Codes Terminology Answer: A Page Ref: 396 Objective: 16.3 14) The passage of electronic transactions. A) HCPCS B) RVU C) CMS D) HIPAA Answer: D Page Ref: 397 Objective: 16.3

listing.

in 1996 required that uniform standards be established for

15) The Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) manual lists over A) 4,000 B) 9,000 C) 10,500 D) 2,300 Answer: B Page Ref: 397 Objective: 16.3 6

procedure codes.

16) Improper behavior and billing practices that result in improper financial gain, but are NOT fraudulent, are known as . A) misdemeanors B) abuse C) fraud D) larceny Answer: B Page Ref: 399 Objective: 16.5 17) After finding potential codes in the A) Tabular List B) Index C) medical record D) patient's file Answer: A Page Ref: 401 Objective: 16.7

, users will then need to verify them.

18) The word you look up in the CPT index to find the code(s) is the A) Main Term B) primary procedure C) diagnosis D) eponym Answer: A Page Ref: 404 Objective: 16.7 19) CPT Main Terms are always A) italicized B) underlined C) boldfaced D) highlighted Answer: C Page Ref: 406 Objective: 16.8

, with each word beginning with a capital letter.

20) When the Main Term or the modifying term is too long to fit on one line, a used. A) service B) blank C) double D) carryover Answer: D Page Ref: 406 Objective: 16.8 7

line is

21) Codes next to the Main Term may be any of the following EXCEPT A) a single code B) a range of codes C) nonsequential codes D) unified codes Answer: D Page Ref: 407 Objective: 16.8 22) The Tabular List contains A) five B) six C) 10 D) 20 Answer: B Page Ref: 408 Objective: 16.8

sections.

23) CPT codes do NOT have decimal point and the description is found _ A) to the left B) to the right C) below D) above Answer: B Page Ref: 408 Objective: 16.8

24) In the Tabular list, the code, or parent code, is the one whose description is leftjustified and begins with a capital letter. A) standalone B) unique C) main D) primary Answer: A Page Ref: 409 Objective: 16.8 25) Which of the following is NOT a type of narrative instruction in the CPT manual? A) guidelines B) special instructions C) redlines D) instructional notes Answer: C Page Ref: 409 Objective: 16.8 8

26) codes are the most frequently used codes in most medical offices. A) Evaluation and Management B) Surgery C) Radiology D) Medicine Answer: A Page Ref: 413 Objective: 16.9 27) When coding, medical assistants must first search for a code in the A) Tabular List B) Index C) Introductory Matter D) CPT Index Answer: B Page Ref: 405 Objective: 16.7

28) A code is used in circumstances to further describe a circumstance. A) procedure B) practice C) modifier D) description Answer: C Page Ref: 404 Objective: 16.7 29) Codes not in strict numerical order are known as A) punched B) shuffled C) resequenced D) standalone Answer: C Page Ref: 408 Objective: 16.8

codes.

30) The CMS website has information to help you better understand insurance A) fraud B) reimbursement C) premiums D) abuse Answer: A Page Ref: 400 Objective: 16.5

31) Which of the following is NOT one of the four types of medical decision-making (MDM)? A) Straightforward B) Low complexity C) Comprehensive D) High complexity Answer: C Page Ref: 415 Objective: 16.9 32) Which of the following is NOT a recognized way to classify the complexity of an examination? A) Detailed B) Comprehensive C) Expanded problem focused D) Initial consult Answer: D Page Ref: 416 Objective: 16.9 33) A provider's discussion with the patient and/or family concerning the patient's diagnosis, test results, impressions, prognosis, and expected risks and benefits is known as . A) presenting the problem B) counseling C) coordination of care D) quality care Answer: B Page Ref: 415 Objective: 16.10 34) The main reason a patient is seeing a provider is also known as the A) presenting problem B) chief issue C) chief diagnosis D) primary diagnosis Answer: A Page Ref: 415 Objective: 16.10

35) If a problem has a low risk of causing the patient's death without treatment, and full recovery is expected, it is known as . A) moderate severity B) low severity C) high severity D) minimal Answer: B Page Ref: 415 Objective: 16.10 10

36) Working with other providers or agencies to provide the patient with needed care, such as referrals to home health care, is known as _. A) medical team cooperation. B) community care. C) coordination of care. D) cooperative assistance. Answer: C Page Ref: 415 Objective: 16.10 37) Coding of procedures and diagnoses must be supported by the record. A) insurance B) documentation C) codes D) references Answer: B Page Ref: 416 Objective: 16.10

in the patient

38) Which of the following information would a medical assistant need to report suspected insurance fraud? A) Patient's name B) Patient's insurance number C) Date of service D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 399-400 Objective: 16.5 39) Which of the following is NOT a service included in an E&M code? A) Discussing the current problem with patients and their families B) Ordering services and tests C) Scheduling procedures D) Performing in-office laboratory testing Answer: D Page Ref: 416 Objective: 16.9

40) Surgical procedures may be performed in all of the following EXCEPT a(n) A) medical office B) hospital C) ambulatory surgery center D) laboratory Answer: D Page Ref: 417 Objective: 16.10 41) Medicare defines postoperative follow-up periods of 0, 10, or type of procedure. A) 30 B) 60 C) 90 D) 100 Answer: C Page Ref: 418 Objective: 16.10

_ days, based on the

42) Which is a form of cancer treatment that uses high-energy ionizing radiation to shrink or kill tumors? A) Chemotherapy B) Radiation therapy C) X-ray D) Fluoroscopy Answer: B Page Ref: 418-419 Objective: 16.10 43) The section of the CPT provides codes for organ or disease-oriented panels 8004780076 series. A) Radiology B) Surgery C) Pathology and Laboratory D) Pharmaceuticals Answer: C Page Ref: 420 Objective: 16.10 44) The section of the CPT is the largest, divided into 14 subsections by body system. A) Surgery B) Radiology C) Pathology and Laboratory D) Medicine Answer: A Page Ref: 417 Objective: 16.10 12

45) codes identify billable services provided to patients. A) Diagnosis B) Procedure C) Patient D) Information Answer: B Page Ref: 398 Objective: 16.3 46) Diagnosis codes are required to explain the A) medical necessity B) procedural code C) billable coding D) health equipment Answer: A Page Ref: 398 Objective: 16.4

for the services provided.

47) The Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System (HCPCS) is a set of codes developed and maintained by for the reporting of professional services, non-physician services, supplies, durable medical equipment, and injectable drugs. A) CMS B) HIPAA C) DME D) WHO Answer: A Page Ref: 422 Objective: 16.11 48) When professionals refer to "HCPCS codes," they are typically referring to Level codes. A) I B) II C) III D) IV Answer: B Page Ref: 422 Objective: 16.11

49) Which of the following is NOT typically covered under Level II codes? A) Drugs B) Durable medical equipment C) Hearing services D) Major surgery Answer: D Page Ref: 422 Objective: 16.11 50) is the visual examination of body structures or tissue, with or without a microscope. A) Pathology B) Hematology C) Chemistry D) Microbiology Answer: A Page Ref: 420 Objective: 16.10 51) is a real-time, moving X-ray image, usually viewed on a monitor. A) X-ray B) MRI C) Fluoroscopy D) Mammography Answer: C Page Ref: 419 Objective: 16.10 52) A qualified physician's review of imaging results and documentation of findings is known as the component of a radiology code. A) technical B) professional C) key D) chief Answer: B Page Ref: 419 Objective: 16.10 53) The period refers to the number of days surrounding a surgical procedure during which all services relating to the procedure are considered part of the surgical package. A) bundled B) global C) verification D) codified Answer: B Page Ref: 418 Objective: 16.10 14

54) Which of the following services would NOT be included in an E&M code? A) Writing prescriptions B) Scheduling procedures C) Physical examinations D) Performing surgery Answer: D Page Ref: 414-415 Objective: 16.9 55) If a problem may not require the presence of a physician, but service is provided under the physician's supervision, the problem is coded as . A) minimal B) self-limited or minor C) moderate severity D) low severity Answer: A Page Ref: 415 Objective: 16.9

Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting, 4e (Beaman) Chapter 17 Patient Billing and Collections True/False Questions 1) A patient account is a record of the charges and payments for a specific patient. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 427 Objective: 17.1 2) Accounts payable (AP) is money owed to a business by customers in exchange for goods and services that have already been provided. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 427 Objective: 17.1 3) A charge is the monetary cost for services or supplies that increases the account balance. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 428 Objective: 17.1 4) Receipt of money that decreases the account balance is known as an adjustment. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 428 Objective: 17.1 5) A day sheet is a running total of all patient account transactions each day and is an important tracking and monitoring tool. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 429 Objective: 17.1 6) The patient ledger is a chronological record of the charges, adjustments, payments, and current balance for a specific patient. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 430 Objective: 17.1 7) Patients' financial records are maintained together with their medical records. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 431 Objective: 17.5 8) Patient accounting software is referred to as a practice management system (PMS). Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 431 Objective: 17.1 1

9) The pegboard system is a manual bookkeeping system for patient accounting. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 431-432 Objective: 17.5 10) "Days in AR" means the average number of days that money has been owed to the patient. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 436 Objective: 17.5 11) The pegboard system permits entering charges, payments, and adjustments onto three different forms at the same time. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 432 Objective: 17.5 12) Accounts less than 90 days old are considered current and are of minimal cause for concern. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 436 Objective: 17.6 13) An AR aging analysis is a report that categorizes a company's accounts receivable according to the length of time since it has been billed. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 436 Objective: 17.6 14) Mutual understanding of financial arrangements helps to minimize problems of collection for delinquent accounts. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 437 Objective: 17.2 15) All medical offices display a sign addressing fee policy. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 438 Objective: 17.2 16) A copayment is a fixed amount that patients' insurance policies may require them to pay for certain types of visits. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 438 Objective: 17.1

17) Providers always have the option of waiving copayment obligations and telling patients they will simply accept whatever the insurance plan is paying. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 438 Objective: 17.2 18) A medical assistant should always act demanding and authoritative when asking patients for payment. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 438 Objective: 17.2 19) An internal control is a procedure that helps ensure all financial matters are handled properly and discourages unethical workers from stealing. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 439 Objective: 17.1 20) Cash payments never carry the risk of being fraudulent. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 439 Objective: 17.8 21) Remark codes are used by insurance carriers to identify reasons for payment adjustments and denials. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 441 Objective: 17.9 22) A bulk remittance statement creates additional paperwork. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 439 Objective: 17.9 23) Cycle billing is a labor-intensive process that may require several days of full-time work. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 448 Objective: 17.11 24) When patients do not have health insurance the medical office can offer a reasonable discount to patients who pay in full at the time of service. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 451 Objective: 17.12

25) A patient's account may become delinquent because he or she believes that the insurance will cover the bill. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 453 Objective: 17.13 26) The Equal Credit Opportunity Act of 1975 provides guidelines for collecting an individual's credit information. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 455 Objective: 17.14 27) Once a patient's account is in the hands of a collection agency, most offices terminate the physician—patient relationship. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 455 Objective: 17.15 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The requires a full, written disclosure concerning the payment of any fee that will be collected in more than four installments. A) Fair Debt Collection Practices Act of 1978 B) Equal Credit Opportunity Act of 1975 C) Fair Credit Reporting Act of 1971 D) Truth in Lending Act of 1969 Answer: D Page Ref: 455 Objective: 17.14 2) refers to a patient's inability to pay. A) Financial hardship B) Personal delinquency C) Nonpayment of benefits D) Patient hardship Answer: A Page Ref: 451 Objective: 17.1

3) When using a computerized billing system to post charges, the medical assistant should do all the following EXCEPT . A) enter or verify the ICD-10-CM diagnosis code B) access the menu item for entering new payments C) enter the date of service and CPT procedure code(s) D) verify that the ICD-10-CM code matches the encounter form Answer: B Page Ref: 433 Objective: 17.5 4) A is a collection problem that requires immediate action because this individual has a balance due and has moved without leaving a forwarding address. A) trip B) jump C) skip D) move Answer: C Page Ref: 458 Objective: 17.6 5) What must be considered when referring an account to a collection agency? A) The patient must be notified. B) Diagnosis must not be included. C) Medical information must not be included. D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 457 Objective: 17.15 6) Which of the following is NOT a typical accounts receivable (AR) transaction? A) Charge B) Payment C) Adjustment D) Reduction Answer: D Page Ref: 428 Objective: 17.3 7) A is a carryover from the days of manual billing. A) pencil B) scorecard C) ledger card D) punch card Answer: C Page Ref: 430 Objective: 17.1 5

8) What is included in a patient billing record? A) Name and address B) Marital status C) Employer D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 430 Objective: 17.4 9) In order to prevent a claim from being denied or rejected submit an insurance claim within days of the date of the procedure. A) 20 B) 30 C) 40 D) 50 Answer: B Page Ref: 446 Objective: 17.10 10) The provides a guide for determining the fair collections practices for creditors. A) Fair Credit Reporting Act of 1971 B) Truth in Lending Act of 1960 C) Fair Debt Collection Practices Act of 1978 D) Notice on Fair Use Answer: C Page Ref: 455 Objective: 17.14 11) is a discount that physicians may opt to offer to other physicians, staff, family members, or clergy. A) Professional courtesy (PC) B) Cash break C) Professional Medical Discount (PMD) D) Friends and Family Courtesy (FFC) Answer: A Page Ref: 451 Objective: 17.12 12) Which of the following is NOT one of the usual collection techniques? A) Reminder notices B) Collections letters C) Collection agency D) Telephone calls to the local police Answer: D Page Ref: 454 Objective: 17.6 6

13) Which of the following is NOT considered an adjustment? A) Discount B) Write-off C) Contractual allowance D) Debit Answer: D Page Ref: 442 Objective: 17.3 14) The pegboard system is an effective method of documenting patient bills and payment. This system is also called the method. A) write-it-once B) text C) board D) peg Answer: A Page Ref: 431 Objective: 17.5 15) To ensure security when accepting a credit card payment, the assistant should do all the following EXCEPT . A) make sure the name on the card matches the patient's name B) check to ensure that the expiration date is later than the current date C) keep the patient's credit card number on file D) write down the last four digits of the card number Answer: C Page Ref: 440 Objective: 17.8 16) To make sure the accounts and entries are correct, the day sheets need to be end of the day. A) reconciled B) corrected C) recorded D) entered Answer: A Page Ref: 429 Objective: 17.3 17) The RA/EOB lists all the following EXCEPT A) the amount billed B) the amount allowed C) the amount paid D) the amount past due Answer: D Page Ref: 439 Objective: 17.9 7

at the

18) The prevailing fee is referred to by insurance companies as the A) reasonable B) customary C) usual D) normal Answer: B Page Ref: 438 Objective: 17.1

fee.

19) information regarding payment policies and fees helps patients become aware of office procedures. A) Billing B) Credit C) Collection D) Posted Answer: D Page Ref: 437 Objective: 17.2 20) contracts may require that the copayment be paid at the time of the visit and may not allow providers to bill patients at a later time. A) Managed care B) Fee-for-service C) PPO D) PMS Answer: A Page Ref: 438 Objective: 17.2 21) Which of the following is NOT listed on the Explanation of Benefits (EOB) form? A) Name of the patient B) Name of the insured C) Amount paid D) Medical history of the patient Answer: D Page Ref: 439 Objective: 17.9 22) are NOT responsible for bills unless they are declared emancipated. A) Patients B) Physicians C) Immigrants D) Minors Answer: D Page Ref: 448 Objective: 17.7 8

23) Collection agencies charge A) 10-15 B) 15-20 C) 25-50 D) 30-70 Answer: C Page Ref: 457 Objective: 17.15

percent of the amount collected.

24) Which type of information should patients be given regarding financial obligations? A) Charges for services B) Participating insurance plans C) Payment plans for the uninsured. D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 437 Objective: 17.7 25) The medical assistant should be able to quote the cost of services from the A) matrix B) pegboard C) fee schedule D) cost manual Answer: C Page Ref: 438 Objective: 17.2

26) The provides guidelines for collecting an individual's credit information. A) Fair Credit Reporting Act B) HIPAA C) Fair Debt Collection Practices Act D) Equal Credit Opportunity Act Answer: A Page Ref: 455 Objective: 17.14 27) If the patient should contact the office after the account has been turned over for collection, the patient should be referred to the agency. A) legal B) insurance C) billing D) collection Answer: D Page Ref: 455 Objective: 17.15 9

28) Prenumbered and carbonless copy receipts are examples of a(n) A) line item posting B) internal control C) proof of purchase D) adjustment Answer: B Page Ref: 438-439 Objective: 17.2

29) Which of the following are reasons that a bill becomes delinquent? A) The patient is unable to pay. B) The patient has a misunderstanding about the fee. C) The patient does not feel that the bill is important. D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 453 Objective: 17.13 30) Which of the following is NOT included on an office day sheet? A) Charges for patient services B) Patient payments received in the mail C) Insurance payments received in the mail D) Patient's diagnosis Answer: D Page Ref: 429 Objective: 17.3 31) Changes made that affect the patient's balance but are NOT a new charge or payment are called . A) charges B) payments C) fines D) adjustments Answer: D Page Ref: 429 Objective: 17.3 32) At the end of the day, which of the following does NOT have to be reconciled to a day sheet? A) Individual encounter forms B) Bank deposits C) Total charges from encounter forms D) Patient ledgers Answer: D Page Ref: 429-430 Objective: 17.3

33) Which of the following is NOT a typical component of a patient management system (PMS)? A) Coding and charge entry B) Patient registration C) Billing and claims processing D) New patient solicitation Answer: D Page Ref: 432 Objective: 17.5 34) When using the pegboard system medical offices make a photocopy of the mail it in place of patient billing statements. A) explanation of benefits B) claim form C) ledger card D) punch card Answer: C Page Ref: 451 Objective: 17.5 35) Accounts less than concern. A) 60 B) 30 C) 90 D) 120 Answer: B Page Ref: 436 Objective: 17.6 36) Insurance A) reason B) error C) problem D) denial Answer: A Page Ref: 441 Objective: 17.9

and

days old are considered current and of minimal cause for

codes are used on the EOB to explain payment adjustments and denials.

37) A claim is one that is never accepted into the payer's computer system because of invalid information, such as an incorrect patient identification number. A) rejected B) denied C) pending D) dirty Answer: A Page Ref: 441 Objective: 17.1 38) Before choosing a collection agency the medical office should A) interview the agency B) check the Better Business Bureau C) ask other medical offices to recommend an agency D) all of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 456 Objective: 17.15

39) Medicare states that the number one reason for rejected claims is A) invalid claim numbers B) outdated patient addresses C) invalid patient identification numbers D) falsified patient information Answer: C Page Ref: 436 Objective: 17.10 40) In accounting terms, a payment is also referred to as a A) lien B) credit C) allowance D) charge Answer: B Page Ref: 428 Objective: 17.1

41) tend to arrive in the mail in one large wave, requiring extra time to post payments. A) Monthly billing payments B) Cycle billing payments C) Quarterly billing payments D) Yearly billing payments Answer: A Page Ref: 448 Objective: 17.11

42) In cycle billing, approximately 25 percent of patient accounts are billed each A) day B) week C) month D) quarter Answer: B Page Ref: 448 Objective: 17.11

43) Which of the following is NOT one of the four components of the pegboard system of bookkeeping? A) Day sheets B) Double-entries C) Ledger cards D) Encounter forms Answer: B Page Ref: 432 Objective: 17.5 44) The average number of days that money has been owed to the practice is known as days in . A) AR B) arrears C) AP D) delinquency Answer: A Page Ref: 436 Objective: 17.2 45) Which of the following is NOT a typical reason for a denied claim? A) Past timely filing limits B) Information on the claim is missing. C) Diagnosis code does not match procedure performed. D) Procedure was performed on the wrong person. Answer: D Page Ref: 446 Objective: 17.10 46) When a provider is contracted with an insurance company the amount disallowed by the insurer is the . A) discount B) trace disallowance C) bargain D) contractual allowance Answer: D Page Ref: 446 Objective: 17.12 13

47) When a patient dies, a bill should be sent to the estate of the A) spouse B) lawyer C) deceased D) next of kin Answer: C Page Ref: 458 Objective: 17.2

48) refers to the monetary cost for services or supplies that increases the account balance. A) Credit B) Debit C) Adjustment D) Posting Answer: B Page Ref: 428 Objective: 17.1 49) Most adjustments are A) credits B) allowances C) excesses D) copayments Answer: A Page Ref: 429 Objective: 17.3

that are subtracted from the account balance.

50) What is the first thing you must do when using a computerized billing system? A) Access the appropriate patient account. B) Complete the transaction. C) Reconcile the ledger. D) Log in with your username and password. Answer: D Page Ref: 433 Objective: 17.5 51) A practice that generally receives Medicare payments within 14-21 days should investigate any outstanding Medicare accounts over _ days old. A) 24 B) 30 C) 60 D) 90 Answer: B Page Ref: 436 Objective: 17.6 14

52) A medical assistant should NOT . A) treat all patients courteously B) make assumptions about the relationships between patients C) use neutral language to avoid awkward situations D) allow a patient to provide information relating to a minor Answer: B Page Ref: 438 Objective: 17.2

Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting, 4e (Beaman) Chapter 18 Banking and Practice Finances True/False Questions 1) The purchase order, packing slip, and invoice should be stapled or scanned together with the check stub and filed appropriately. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 465 Objective: 18.3 2) In some offices, the office manager is designated to sign checks for the physician. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 478 Objective: 18.2 3) Checks can be written in blue ink, black ink, or pencil. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 476 Objective: 18.5 4) A third-party check is a check written by a party unknown to the payee. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 470 Objective: 18.1 5) The check stub can be used as a permanent record of the date, amount, payee, and purpose of the check. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 478 Objective: 18.5 6) In a medical office it is common practice to endorse checks at the time they are received. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 471 Objective: 18.7 7) It is recommended to pay bills on the day they arrive. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 476 Objective: 18.9 8) Rent and utilities are common recurring monthly expenses for a medical office. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 476 Objective: 18.9 1

9) A medical office often prefers new patients to make a payment using checks from banks outside of the local area. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 471 Objective: 18.6 10) The final step of manually reconciling a bank statement is comparing deposits noted on the statement against the office's records or receipts by making a check mark next to each correct number. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 483 Objective: 18.10 11) A negotiable instrument is one that permits the transfer of money to another person. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 452 Objective: 18.1 12) To ensure fiscal control, the person who reconciles the bank statement should be the same person who prepares the checks and makes the deposits. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 468 Objective: 18.4 13) Cash should be checked with a counterfeit detection device. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 475 Objective: 18.4 14) Net pay is the money withheld from an employee's paycheck. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 486 Objective: 18.1 15) Petty cash is a small amount of cash kept in the office for incidental purchases that require cash. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 479 Objective: 18.1 16) Petty cash is usually handled by all of the front office staff. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 481 Objective: 18.4

17) Many medical offices contract with an independent payroll company to process payroll. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 485 Objective: 18.12 18) Employees who are paid on a semimonthly basis have 26 pay periods each year. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 483 Objective: 18.13 19) A salaried employee is usually NOT entitled to overtime. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 484 Objective: 18.11 20) FICA, state, and city taxes are withheld from the paycheck of every employee. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 487 Objective: 18.13 21) The IRS requires employees to complete W-5 forms. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 487 Objective: 18.13 22) FUTA is the sole responsibility of the employer. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 489 Objective: 18.13 23) The FLSA classifies employees as exempt or nonexempt from earning overtime pay for hours worked in excess of 50 hours per week. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 483 Objective: 18.11 24) A blank endorsement is when the payee signs the check over to another person. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 472 Objective: 18.7 25) The banking procedures of a medical office include working with checks to accept payments, make deposits, and pay bills. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 463 Objective: 18.2 3

26) When making a deposit use a calculator to add the total amount of the cash and the checks being deposited. List the total on the back of the deposit slip. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 474 Objective: 18.8 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The American Bankers Association (ABA) number is always located in the printed check. A) upper right corner B) lower left corner C) middle D) upper middle Answer: A Page Ref: 469 Objective: 18.5

of a

2) Which of the following is NOT considered standard information found on all checks? A) Payer's phone number B) Name of the bank on which the check is drawn C) American Bank Association (ABA) number D) Printed sequence number of the check Answer: A Page Ref: 468 Objective: 18.5 3) The system is based on the use of a check with a carbon strip on the back that allows a record of the check to be made when the check is written. A) check copy B) check C) carbon copy D) write-it-once Answer: D Page Ref: 468 Objective: 18.2 4) are checks that are drawn up by a bank against funds (money) that are deposited in its account at another bank. A) Bank drafts B) Limited checks C) Money orders D) Traveler's checks Answer: A Page Ref: 470 Objective: 18.6 4

5) Having large amounts of cash in an office poses a security risk and also offers the potential for of funds. A) increase B) embezzlement C) enhancement D) refuge Answer: B Page Ref: 475 Objective: 18.4 6) Which of the following is NOT a type of transaction account? A) Asset account (resources) B) Liability account (debts) C) Equity account (earnings) D) Escrow account (savings) Answer: D Page Ref: 464 Objective: 18.2 7) Payment by A) mail B) cash C) check D) air Answer: C Page Ref: 475 Objective: 18.2

provides a permanent document for proof of payment and tax purposes.

8) A medical office's monthly expenses may include A) waste removal B) medical supplies C) laundry D) all of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 476 Objective: 18.9 9) The medical assistant acts as the physician's procedures for the medical office. A) personal assistant B) agent C) accountant D) banker Answer: B Page Ref: 463 Objective: 18.3

when performing the banking

10) pay is another term for take-home pay. A) Gross B) Net C) Withheld D) Allowable Answer: B Page Ref: 486 Objective: 18.1 11) , state, and city taxes are withheld from employee pay. A) Net income B) Personal property C) Local D) Federal Answer: D Page Ref: 487 Objective: 18.13 12) Employees can choose to have A) disability insurance B) union dues C) pension plan contributions D) all of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 489 Objective: 18.13

withheld from their checks.

13) Each statement about FUTA is true EXCEPT A) Deposits are calculated quarterly B) It is based on the employee's gross income C) It is deducted from the employee's wage D) An annual report must be filed each year Answer: C Page Ref: 489 Objective: 18.13

14) accounts are NOT usually interest-bearing accounts. A) Checking B) Savings C) Money market D) Medical Answer: A Page Ref: 465 Objective: 18.2

15) Every time funds (money) are moved from one account to another or used as cash, the transaction must be handled in a systematic manner and accurately . A) counted B) cashed C) documented D) spent Answer: C Page Ref: 465 Objective: 18.2 16) banking lets customers reconcile their accounts, pay bills, see which checks have been processed, and check the balances in their accounts 24 hours a day, seven days a week. A) Cyclic B) Modern C) Credit card D) Online Answer: D Page Ref: 466 Objective: 18.2 17) All of the following are characteristics of negotiable instruments EXCEPT A) written and signed by an authorized payer B) payable on demand or at a fixed date in the future C) written on encoded paper D) payable to the holder (payee) of the item Answer: C Page Ref: 468 Objective: 18.5

18) combines characters and numbers and is located at the bottom left side of checks and deposit slips. A) Magnetic Ink Character Recognition B) Black Ink Character Recognition C) Magnetic Ink Check Recognition D) Magnetic Information Character Recognition Answer: A Page Ref: 469 Objective: 18.1

19) Some patients may have a financial the patient's check on his or her behalf. A) servant B) signature C) agent D) replacement Answer: C Page Ref: 470 Objective: 18.1

, another individual who is authorized to sign

20) checks are prepaid checks from an authorized agent that can be used in place of cash. A) Voucher B) Limited C) Traveler's D) Bank Answer: C Page Ref: 470 Objective: 18.1 21) Endorsements are regulated by the A) federal government B) American Medical Association C) Uniform Negotiable Instrument Act D) Banking Endorsement Act Answer: C Page Ref: 471 Objective: 18.7

22) A endorsement is considered the safest type of endorsement. A) blank B) full C) signed D) restrictive Answer: D Page Ref: 472 Objective: 18.7 23) One component of business insurance is a fidelity bond, or employee A) honesty B) dishonesty C) surety D) reconciliations Answer: B Page Ref: 467 Objective: 18.1 8

coverage.

24) All of the following are steps to reconciling a bank statement EXCEPT . A) compare the beginning balance of the current statement with the ending balance of the previous statement B) write the current ending balance in the appropriate space on the reverse side of the bank statement C) add the ending balance to the total of deposits not already included and write this amount on the TOTAL line D) add the total figure for checks outstanding from the previous total on the back of the statement to determine the current balance Answer: D Page Ref: 483 Objective: 18.10 25) cash must be tracked and recorded in a daily financial log. A) Pity B) Patient C) Petty D) Physician Answer: C Page Ref: 480 Objective: 18.4 26) The determines the type of pay period the office will use. A) medical assistant B) patient C) physician D) accountant Answer: C Page Ref: 483 Objective: 18.12 27) Government regulations require that records must be maintained for each employee relating to all of the following payroll items EXCEPT . A) amount of gross pay B) Social Security number C) number of exemptions D) number of sick and vacation days Answer: D Page Ref: 487 Objective: 18.12

28) The advantage of using the method for calculating payroll checks is that all or most of the payroll record can be accomplished with a single entry. A) pegboard B) computer C) manual D) payroll record Answer: A Page Ref: 486 Objective: 18.12 29) The federal government requires, all of the following taxes be paid EXCEPT A) Social Security B) Medicare C) federal income tax D) state income tax Answer: D Page Ref: 487 Objective: 18.13 30) All of the following are advantages of using checks EXCEPT A) safety of funds B) convenience C) ease of maintaining a record of money transfer D) inability to be stolen Answer: D Page Ref: 469 Objective: 18.6 31) If there is a major error on a check, draw a line through it and write letters on the face of the check. A) VOID B) CANCELED C) INVALID D) DO NOT CASH Answer: A Page Ref: 479 Objective: 18.4

in ink in large

32) There are some checks that most medical offices consider risky and avoid cashing. These include all of the following EXCEPT . A) second-party checks B) third-party checks C) checks drawn on out-of-town banks D) "paid in full" checks Answer: A Page Ref: 470-471 Objective: 18.6 10

33) may be attached to deposited funds that must "clear" so that the bank knows the funds are present prior to the deposited money being used. A) Insufficient Funds B) Uncollected Funds Hold C) Not Yet Cleared D) Hold for Inadequate Funds Answer: B Page Ref: 471 Objective: 18.6 34) Processed checks will be listed by number. Any checks that are listed in non-consecutive order may be indicated with a(n) . A) period B) asterisk C) quotation mark D) red number Answer: B Page Ref: 482 Objective: 18.10 35) Payroll checks are generally issued in any of the following time increments EXCEPT . A) annually B) weekly C) biweekly D) monthly Answer: A Page Ref: 483 Objective: 18.12 36) are NOT actually negotiable checks. They are statements issued to indicate that a debt should be paid. A) Money orders B) Certified checks C) Warrants D) Voucher checks Answer: C Page Ref: 470 Objective: 18.6

37) are prepaid payment orders that can be purchased from banks. A) Cashier's checks B) Voucher checks C) Limited checks D) Money orders Answer: D Page Ref: 470 Objective: 18.6 38) The A) banker B) investor C) payer D) financier Answer: C Page Ref: 468 Objective: 18.1

is the person signing the check.

39) It is common procedure in a medical office to A) transfer B) file C) cash D) endorse Answer: D Page Ref: 471 Objective: 18.7

checks at the time they are received.

40) are cash, checks, and money orders placed into a bank account after being received. A) Collections B) Deposits C) Adjustments D) Reconciliations Answer: B Page Ref: 472 Objective: 18.1 41) should NOT be sent in the mail. A) Cash B) Checks C) Money orders D) Bills Answer: A Page Ref: 474 Objective: 18.4

42) Business expenses are subject to auditing by the A) ethics council B) local police C) IRS D) FBI Answer: C Page Ref: 475 Objective: 18.2

43) An employee's payroll check is calculated by first calculating the any withholdings are taken out. A) net wage B) remaining wage C) disposable wage D) gross wage Answer: D Page Ref: 486 Objective: 18.12

before taxes and

44) Money is withheld from an employee's paycheck depending on the taxes that must be paid by the employee and employer. This is referred to as . A) tax withholding B) tax credits C) tax requirements D) tax standards Answer: A Page Ref: 487 Objective: 18.1 45) Payment of bills in the medical office is referred to as A) accounts receivable B) accounts payable C) cash disbursement D) reconciliation Answer: B Page Ref: 464 Objective: 18.1

46) forms for the previous calendar year must be delivered to each employee by January 31st of the present year. A) 1040 B) 1040EZ C) W-4 D) W-2 Answer: D Page Ref: 489 Objective: 18.13 13

47) checks can be cashed by anyone, so it is recommended that they be stored in a securely locked location. A) Restrictive B) Full C) Blank D) Signed Answer: C Page Ref: 472 Objective: 18.4 48) Checks drawn on a/(an) A) patient B) employer C) in-town D) out-of-town Answer: D Page Ref: 471 Objective: 18.6

bank are generally NOT accepted for payment.

49) An older adult, who is physically unable, may require the assistance of a(n) write a check. A) medical assistant B) physician C) agent D) accountant Answer: C Page Ref: 471 Objective: 18.6

50) If a patient writes "paid in full" on a check, it means that . A) the medical office will not be paid for any additional costs not covered by the original check B) the patient is not obligated to pay for any additional costs associated with that visit C) the medical office will have some difficulty collecting any further payments from the patient for that visit D) the bank will stop payment from the patient's account Answer: C Page Ref: 471 Objective: 18.6

51) Which of the following is NOT a consideration when mailing a check for the payment of a bill? A) Make sure the check amount is not visible through the envelope. B) Staple the check to an invoice or letter so it does not get lost. C) Use a special security envelope. D) Include a stub from the invoice being paid along with the check. Answer: B Page Ref: 479 Objective: 18.6 52) If a check is NOT presented for payment within the time suggested on the check, it is considered a check. A) cashed B) voided C) stale D) returned Answer: C Page Ref: 471 Objective: 18.1

Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting, 4e (Beaman) Chapter 19 Medical Office Management True/False Questions 1) Management philosophy currently does NOT recommend a systematic approach for management of medical offices. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 494 Objective: 19.2 2) When marketing a medical office, one of the first things to consider is the targeted market of the physician(s). Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 517 Objective: 19.10 3) The personnel policy manual is often the last piece of office literature that a new employee is asked to read. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 515 Objective: 19.8 4) It is important to maintain accurate records and never trust anything to memory in a medical office. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 497 Objective: 19.4 5) In the interest of maintaining a positive team atmosphere, it is important to consider personality as well as experience when screening job applicants. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 506 Objective: 19.3 6) An office manager can often gain a great deal of loyalty from his or her employees by showing empathy. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 500 Objective: 19.3 7) The office manager's time is generally spent on patient-related issues. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 496 Objective: 19.2

8) The office manager will often consult with the physician regarding salary increases for staff members. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 496 Objective: 19.2 9) The clinical component of managing an office can be considered a system by itself. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 495 Objective: 19.2 10) The law requires that certain records be maintained for every employee. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 495 Objective: 19.2 11) The office manager is often responsible for creating and updating the physician's calendar. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 498 Objective: 19.3 12) Respect from management is a basic need of all employees. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 498 Objective: 19.3 13) A downfall of reward power is that the employees can become reliant upon rewards. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 501 Objective: 19.3 14) A medical office that is solvent is incapable of paying its bills and salaries. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 495 Objective: 19.1 15) The subject of Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) compliance training should be addressed during employee orientation. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 507 Objective: 19.7 16) Always book a non-smoking hotel room for the physician when he or she travels out of town. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 517 Objective: 19.9 2

17) The physician may ask the office manager to create a computer presentation for an out of town business meeting. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 517 Objective: 19.9 18) Multilingual ability is often a deciding factor if two candidates are otherwise equally qualified for a position in a medical office. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 506 Objective: 19.3 19) The Office Policies and Procedures Manual contains general information about office policies related to dress and behavior codes, punctuality, office safety, and the role of the employee in an emergency such as a fire. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 515-516 Objective: 19.8 20) It is illegal for an employer to ask an applicant if he or she needs accommodation to perform a specific job duty. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 505 Objective: 19.6 21) In some situations it is acceptable for an employer to ask an applicant about his or herreligious preferences. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 505 Objective: 19.6 22) Asking a female job applicant if she plans to start a family soon is considered discriminatory. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 505 Objective: 19.6 23) As tasks come to the office manager's attention, each item is assigned a priority designation of 1, 2, or 3 depending on how critical the item is to completion of goals. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 497 Objective: 19.4 24) Procedures for maintaining quality control over all laboratory tests and procedures can be found in the Office Policies and Procedures Manual. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 516 Objective: 19.8 3

25) Information about the physician's work preferences should be included during employee orientation. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 507 Objective: 19.7 Multiple Choice Questions 1) All of the following are included in financial management EXCEPT A) banking B) billing C) collections D) salary review Answer: D Page Ref: 494 Objective: 19.2

2) Along with knowledge of the clinical skills needed to run an efficient medical office, an office manager needs effective administrative and skills. A) political B) police C) diagnostic D) communication Answer: D Page Ref: 495 Objective: 19.2 3) According to a typical time management system, items designated priority 3 A) should be done first B) should not be delegated to someone else C) should be done last D) should be completed once a month Answer: C Page Ref: 497 Objective: 19.4

4) employees is vital to maintaining a positive working environment and efficiently running a medical office. A) Motivating B) Correcting C) Disciplining D) Penalizing Answer: A Page Ref: 498 Objective: 19.3 4

5) leaders tend to be very direct. A) Authoritarian B) Democratic C) Permissive D) Bureaucratic Answer: A Page Ref: 500 Objective: 19.5 6) In situations where employees are NOT performing up to the standard set for them, a/an may satisfy the legal requirements for documentation needed for rightful termination. A) interview B) employee meeting C) performance evaluation D) verbal warning Answer: C Page Ref: 513 Objective: 19.3 7) All of the following are likely to lead to immediate termination EXCEPT A) a medication error B) drug use C) sleeping on the job D) intoxication Answer: A Page Ref: 514 Objective: 19.3

8) Documentation of any employee incident must include all of the following EXCEPT . A) the time of the incident B) the employee's social security number C) the date of incident D) an objective statement regarding what happened Answer: B Page Ref: 514 Objective: 19.3 9) According to a typical time management system, the ordering of supplies that are running low would be assigned a priority of . A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: A Page Ref: 497 Objective: 19.4 5

10) Which interview question(s) is/are acceptable? A) Can you work on Saturdays? B) What is your religious affiliation? C) Have you ever been convicted of a crime? D) None of the above Answer: A Page Ref: 505 Objective: 19.6 11) All of the following topics can be found in the personnel policy manual EXCEPT A) health benefits B) probationary period C) work hours D) emergency procedures Answer: D Page Ref: 515-516 Objective: 19.8 12) What should be covered during new hire orientation? A) office layout B) dress code C) fire safety D) all of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 507 Objective: 19.7 13) New hire orientation should include all of the following EXCEPT A) the manager's work preferences B) OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens Standards C) the employee's job description D) lunch and break times and locations Answer: A Page Ref: 507 Objective: 19.7

14) Which of the following is NOT appropriate instruction for putting together a patient information booklet? A) Use large print for the benefit of older adults. B) Write the booklet with the typical reader in mind. C) Provide a list of regular office hours. D) Include long paragraphs of information. Answer: D Page Ref: 518 Objective: 19.10 6

15) Before establishing a time management system, the office manager should define the office with the physician. A) goals B) budget C) time D) reimbursements Answer: A Page Ref: 497 Objective: 19.4 16) Some offices require that the in-basket of the day's mail and incoming laboratory reports be before the end of the day. A) half-empty B) restocked C) emptied D) shredded Answer: C Page Ref: 497 Objective: 19.4 17) A good can reduce the number of questions the office receives by telephone from patients, enhance the office's image, and reduce the number of patients who fail to follow instructions. A) service manager B) patient information booklet C) marketing campaign D) answering service Answer: B Page Ref: 517 Objective: 19.10 18) All of the following are the office managers' responsibilities to the employees and physician/employer EXCEPT . A) arranging work schedules B) hiring/terminating C) conducting performance evaluations D) selecting new patients for the office Answer: D Page Ref: 496 Objective: 19.3

19) The abuse or overuse of managerial power can lead to A) distrust B) acceptance C) openness D) overthrow Answer: A Page Ref: 501 Objective: 19.5

of the manager.

20) leadership can lead to disorganization and even hazardous conditions. A) Democratic B) Bureaucratic C) Permissive D) Authoritarian Answer: C Page Ref: 500 Objective: 19.5 21) When managers use rewards to exact better productivity from their employees, they are exercising a form of over their employees. A) power B) need C) manipulation D) indoctrination Answer: A Page Ref: 501 Objective: 19.5 22) leaders work best in times of great stress and crisis situations. A) Permissive B) Bureaucratic C) Authoritarian D) Democratic Answer: C Page Ref: 500 Objective: 19.5 23) Physicians typically use A) assistants B) administrative aides C) office managers D) attorneys Answer: D Page Ref: 495 Objective: 19.2

to handle legal documents and issues.

24) leaders are very open with their staff. A) Authoritarian B) Democratic C) Permissive D) Bureaucratic Answer: C Page Ref: 500 Objective: 19.5 25) Which interview question(s) is/are illegal to ask an applicant? A) Do you have a disability? B) Do you currently use illegal drugs? C) Are you an immigrant? D) All of the above Answer: A Page Ref: 505 Objective: 19.6 26) The size of a group can A) not affect B) minimally affect C) somewhat affect D) greatly affect Answer: D Page Ref: 501 Objective: 19.3

the dynamics of how it will work.

27) A trial period for new employees is called a A) test period B) probationary period C) disciplinary period D) performance period Answer: B Page Ref: 507 Objective: 19.1

28) All of the following are suggested ways to advertise for open positions EXCEPT A) placing newspaper and trade journal ads B) utilizing employment agencies C) using word of mouth by informing patients D) utilizing the Internet Answer: C Page Ref: 503 Objective: 19.3

29) The roles filled by team members may include the harmonizer, the compromiser, and the follower. A) nurturing B) task-oriented C) neglectful D) information seeking Answer: A Page Ref: 502 Objective: 19.3 30) The office manager acts as the A) instigator B) delegator C) lawyer D) coordinator Answer: D Page Ref: 519 Objective: 19.2

for the business activities conducted in the office.

31) Rate of compliance with decisions is higher when participate in the decision-making process. A) physicians B) office managers C) employees D) lawyers Answer: C Page Ref: 496 Objective: 19.5

have had the opportunity to

32) Which of the following is NOT a typical responsibility of an office manager? A) Increasing the efficiency of the office B) Managing the physician's calendar C) Assisting with meetings D) Helping to diagnose illnesses Answer: D Page Ref: 495-496 Objective: 19.3 33) Seniority refers to status gained by being the individual who has A) achieved the best performance evaluation rating B) worked for the physician the longest C) been employed by the office for the least amount of time D) earned the highest salary Answer: B Page Ref: 496 Objective: 19.1 10

34) All of the following are attributes of a good leader EXCEPT A) having the ability to make appropriate judgment calls B) being willing to learn new ideas C) being lenient with rules and policies D) staying calm during stressful situations Answer: C Page Ref: 500 Objective: 19.4

35) means that a contractual relationship does NOT exist between the employer and employee and the company is free to terminate the employment relationship without just cause. A) Free-will employment B) At-will employment C) Solvent employment D) Probationary employment Answer: B Page Ref: 511 Objective: 19.1 36) Prejudicial treatment is A) discriminatory B) racist C) tolerable D) chauvinistic Answer: A Page Ref: 511 Objective: 19.1

37) The Personnel Policy Manual is also known as the A) patient booklet B) employee handbook C) office policies manual D) office procedures book Answer: B Page Ref: 515 Objective: 19.1

38) Information regarding termination of employment can be found in the A) office policies and procedures manual B) personnel policy manual C) manager's handbook D) information booklet Answer: B Page Ref: 515 Objective: 19.8

39) One of the best ways to promote a practice is through free. A) word of mouth B) public relations C) the Internet D) newspaper ads Answer: A Page Ref: 518 Objective: 19.10

, which is/are completely

40) Managing the clinical aspect of a medical office includes which of the following duties? A) Training any new clinical personnel B) Keeping track of medical supplies C) Making sure proper procedures are followed D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 495 Objective: 19.2 41) For time saving purposes, telephone messages should be A) detailed B) short C) infrequent D) frequent Answer: A Page Ref: 497 Objective: 19.4

42) More so than other types of leaders, a(n) leader concentrates on the relations between staff members and emphasizes teamwork within the office. A) permissive B) democratic C) bureaucratic D) authoritarian Answer: B Page Ref: 500 Objective: 19.5 43) power is given out of high regard and respect. A) Legitimate B) Expert C) Referent D) Informative Answer: C Page Ref: 501 Objective: 19.5 12

44) It is acceptable to ask during an interview. A) if the applicant has children B) what religious holidays the applicant observes C) if the applicant has reliable transportation D) if the applicant is an alcoholic Answer: D Page Ref: 505 Objective: 19.6 45) When making travel arrangements for the physician, the medical assistant should A) make reservations only on business class flights B) book nonsmoking rooms only C) make plans for the physician because he or she is usually too busy D) find out the physician's preferences before making any plans Answer: D Page Ref: 517 Objective: 19.9

46) The kinds of services the medical practice offers can affect the physician's office A) location B) demeanor C) politics D) privacy Answer: A Page Ref: 517 Objective: 19.10

47) leaders are very strong rule enforcers. A) Authoritarian B) Democratic C) Permissive D) Bureaucratic Answer: D Page Ref: 500 Objective: 19.5 48) A(n) is the key to a productive staff meeting. A) concise agenda B) open forum with no set agenda C) flexible schedule D) single-topic agenda Answer: A Page Ref: 498 Objective: 19.4

49) An office procedures manual would contain all of the following EXCEPT A) the grievance process B) emergency procedures C) special procedures D) OSHA compliance information Answer: A Page Ref: 515-516 Objective: 19.8

50) Which activity would be beyond the scope of practice for a medical assistant who is helping a physician prepare for a speaking engagement? A) Assisting with research B) Creating handouts C) Deciding what materials the physician should present D) Creating a computer presentation Answer: C Page Ref: 517 Objective: 19.9 51) All of the following should be part of website planning EXCEPT A) determining the site's main objective B) choosing a web server C) considering the site's compliance with HIPAA laws D) making assumptions about how it will be maintained Answer: D Page Ref: 519 Objective: 19.10

Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting, 4e (Beaman) Chapter 20 Body Structure and Function True/False Questions 1) The mitochondria are known as the "powerhouse" of the cell due to their ability to produce energy. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 528 Objective: 20.3 2) Flagella are tail-like structures that allow organisms to move. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 526 Objective: 20.1, 20.3 3) Genetic information and familial characteristics are carried within the Golgi apparatus. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 528 Objective: 20.3 4) Each person's DNA and genetic makeup are inherited from the person's parents and other ancestors. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 534 Objective: 20.10 5) Mitosis is usually followed immediately by cytokinesis. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 529 Objective: 20.4 6) The lysosome is considered the "heart" of the cell. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 528 Objective: 20.1, 20.3 7) Meiosis is the cell division process that yields gametes, reproductive cells with half the number of chromosomes of the parent cells. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 529 Objective: 20.1, 20.4 8) Sickle cell anemia is a congenital neural tube defect. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 537 Objective: 20.1, 20.11 1

9) Talipes is a congenital disorder affecting eyesight. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 537 Objective: 20.1, 20.11 10) Cleft palate is a congenital defect in the roof of the mouth that occurs when the palatine bones in the skull do not close properly. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 535 Objective: 20.1, 20.11 11) Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD), a disorder that may be caused by genetic factors, is characterized by difficulty focusing attention and organizing and completing tasks. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 535 Objective: 20.1, 20.11 12) Structures within the nervous system include the brain, spinal cord and nerves. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 533 Objective: 20.7 13) Active transport is a method in which cellular energy is used so that cells can obtain what they need from tissue fluid. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 533-534 Objective: 20.1, 20.9 14) Osmosis is a form of diffusion whereby water is pulled through a membrane, moving from areas of lesser concentration to areas of greater concentration. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 533 Objective: 20.1, 20.9 15) Nerve tissue has two main properties, excitability and conductivity. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 530 Objective: 20.5 16) Sweat that results from heavy exercise increases the concentration of electrolytes in the body. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 534 Objective: 20.8

17) DNA provides the cell's blueprint, or genetic makeup. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 528 Objective: 20.10 18) The brain, stomach, and kidneys are all examples of body systems. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 533 Objective: 20.6 19) Fe is the chemical symbol for iron. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 526 Objective: 20.9 20) The nucleus is the control center of the cell. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 526 Objective: 20.3 21) The muscular system produces movement, maintains posture, and produces heat. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 532 Objective: 20.8 22) Every cell has three components: a cell membrane, cytoplasm, and a nucleus. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 526 Objective: 20.3 23) The ovaries and testes are structures within the reproductive and the endocrine systems. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 533 Objective: 20.7 24) The symbol for sodium is S. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 526 (Tbl 20-1) Objective: 20.2 25) The formation of a zygote is the earliest stage of an embryo. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 529 Objective: 20.4

26) Fat is also called adipose tissue, which is a type of loose connective tissue. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 530 Objective: 20.5 27) Everyone's DNA has the same chemical structure. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 534 Objective: 20.10 Multiple Choice Questions 1) is the study of the structures of an organism. A) Physiology B) Anatomy C) Pathophysiology D) Homeostasis Answer: B Page Ref: 525 Objective: 20.1 2) is the study of the function of an organism. A) Physiology B) Anatomy C) Pathophysiology D) Homeostasis Answer: A Page Ref: 525 Objective: 20.1 3) is the study of diseases and disorders that affect organisms. A) Physiology B) Anatomy C) Pathophysiology D) Homeostasis Answer: C Page Ref: 525 Objective: 20.1 4) The most basic level of the body's structure is the A) atom B) molecule C) organelle D) cell Answer: A Page Ref: 526 Objective: 20.2 4

5) The is one of the most basic units of life and is often described as the basic building block of the human body. A) atom B) molecule C) organelle D) cell Answer: D Page Ref: 526 Objective: 20.2 6) Each cell has an outer covering called the , which allows some substances passage into or out of the cell and denies passage to other substances. A) organelle B) nucleus C) DNA D) cell membrane Answer: D Page Ref: 526 Objective: 20.3 7) are organelles that aid in the digestion of nutrients and other materials. A) Cytoplasms B) Lysosomes C) Mitochondria D) Ribosomes Answer: B Page Ref: 528 Objective: 20.3 8) are paired organelles that are found lying at 90-degree angles near the nucleus. A) Mitochondria B) Endoplasmic reticula C) Centrioles D) Golgi apparatus Answer: C Page Ref: 528 Objective: 20.3

9) The is a saclike membranous structure that sorts, modifies, and transports various proteins throughout the cell. A) mitochondrion B) endoplasmic reticulum C) centriole D) Golgi apparatus Answer: D Page Ref: 528 Objective: 20.3 10) The is a network of tubules that can be rough or smooth. It is attached to the nuclear membrane. A) mitochondrion B) endoplasmic reticulum C) centriole D) Golgi apparatus Answer: B Page Ref: 528 Objective: 20.3 11) Small, hair-like projections called increase the surface area of a cell and propel substances along the cell's surface, increasing the cell's absorption ability. A) cilia B) mitosis C) cytokinesis D) kinetochores Answer: A Page Ref: 526 Objective: 20.3 12) is the two-part cell division process in sexually reproducing organisms that yields gametes, reproductive cells with half the number of chromosomes of the parent cells. A) Meiosis B) Telophase C) Anaphase D) Metaphase Answer: A Page Ref: 529 Objective: 20.4

13) Specialized cells with the same function and purpose group together to form A) tissues B) organs C) systems D) other cells Answer: A Page Ref: 530 Objective: 20.5

14) or involuntary muscle tissue is found in the viscera (walls of hallow organs). A) Rough B) Cardiac C) Skeletal D) Smooth Answer: D Page Ref: 530 Objective: 20.5 15) In , the cell engulfs a solid particle, such as a bacterium. A) phagocytosis B) pinocytosis C) genetics D) mitosis Answer: A Page Ref: 534 Objective: 20.9 16) Color usually involves difficulty distinguishing between reds and greens and is an inherited, sex-linked disorder, usually passed from mother to son. A) deficiency B) absence C) sightlessness D) blindness Answer: A Page Ref: 536 Objective: 20.11 17) A mother who gives birth after age Down syndrome. A) 20 B) 30 C) 40 D) 50 Answer: C Page Ref: 536 Objective: 20.11

has a higher risk of delivering an infant with

18) Molecules are closest together and move most slowly when they are in a(n) A) solid B) liquid C) gaseous D) altered Answer: A Page Ref: 526 Objective: 20.2

state.

19) The , which is known as the control center of the cell, contains genetic information packaged in the form of chromosomes. A) neutron B) proton C) nucleus D) electron Answer: C Page Ref: 526 Objective: 20.3 20) Which of the following is NOT one of the four types of tissue found in the human body? A) epithelial B) connective C) muscle D) restrictive Answer: D Page Ref: 530 Objective: 20.5 21) are important because cells, especially those in the nerves, heart, and muscles, use them to carry electrical impulses (nerve impulses, muscle contractions) across themselves and to other cells. A) Electric currents B) Electronics C) Electrolytes D) Enzymes Answer: C Page Ref: 534 Objective: 20.9 22) is the study of the hereditary makeup of animals or plants. A) Phagocytosis B) Pinocytosis C) Genetics D) DNA Answer: C Page Ref: 534 Objective: 20.1 8

23) engineering involves changing an organism's existing DNA. A) Genetic B) Reverse C) Biological D) Chemical Answer: A Page Ref: 534 Objective: 20.10 24) is the transfer of genetic traits from parent to child. A) DNA B) Disease C) Inheritance D) Heredity Answer: D Page Ref: 535 Objective: 20.10 25) A(n) is a medical condition caused by mutations in a gene or set of genes. A) anabolic process B) disease C) genetic disorder D) catabolic process Answer: C Page Ref: 535 Objective: 20.11 26) is a recessive gene mutation that causes hereditary lack of pigment in the skin, hair, and eyes. A) Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) B) Color deficiency C) Albinism D) Autism Answer: C Page Ref: 535 Objective: 20.11 27) Hemochromatosis is an inherited disorder characterized by excessive accumulation of iron in the body that affects nearly 4 in individuals of European ancestry. A) 10 B) 100 C) 1,000 D) 10,000 Answer: B Page Ref: 536 Objective: 20.11 9

28) Most children with Tay-Sachs disease (TSD) die before their A) third B) fifth C) seventh D) tenth Answer: B Page Ref: 538 Objective: 20.11 29) Tissues with similar functions form A) skin B) organs C) systems D) cells Answer: B Page Ref: 538 Objective: 20.5

_ birthday.

30) is achieved when systems work together to maintain balance or equilibrium, adjusting to constant changes. A) Homeostasis B) Homeopathology C) Homogenization D) Homeoplasticity Answer: A Page Ref: 525 Objective: 20.1 31) During the new daughter chromosomes, which are termed chromatids, begin to move to the opposite ends of the cell and away from each other. A) anaphase B) metaphase C) prometaphase D) telophase Answer: A Page Ref: 530 Objective: 20.4

32) The body's fluids—including blood, plasma, and interstitial fluid—contain high concentrations of . A) potassium B) sodium chloride C) iron D) sulfate Answer: B Page Ref: 534 Objective: 20.9 33) A(n) A) cation B) anion C) neutron D) molecule Answer: A Page Ref: 526 Objective: 20.9

is an ion that is positively charged.

34) tissue is a flat arrangement of cells that forms the skin, lines and covers the organs, lines the walls of cavities, and forms tubes, ducts, and some glands. A) Epithelial B) Connective C) Muscle D) Nerve Answer: A Page Ref: 530 Objective: 20.5 35) tissue is the most abundant type of tissue in the human body. A) Connective B) Epithelial C) Muscle D) Nerve Answer: A Page Ref: 530 Objective: 20.5 36) Which of the following is NOT one of the four functions of epithelial tissue? A) Connection B) Protection C) Absorption D) Secretion Answer: A Page Ref: 530 Objective: 20.5 11

37) The method by which a cell "drinks" the fluid it requires is known as _ A) phagocytosis B) pinocytosis C) anabolism D) catabolism Answer: B Page Ref: 534 Objective: 20.9

38) muscle tissue is found only in the heart. A) Rough B) Cardiac C) Skeletal D) Smooth Answer: B Page Ref: 530 Objective: 20.5 39) Mitosis has A) two B) three C) four D) five Answer: D Page Ref: 529 Objective: 20.4

stages.

40) tissue includes blood and lymph. A) Epithelial B) Connective C) Muscle D) Nerve Answer: B Page Ref: 530 Objective: 20.5 41) tissue is conductive and acts as the functional unit of the nervous system. A) Epithelial B) Connective C) Muscle D) Nerve Answer: D Page Ref: 530 Objective: 20.5

42) tissue forms skeletal muscles. A) Epithelial B) Connective C) Striated muscle D) Smooth muscle Answer: C Page Ref: 530 Objective: 20.5 43) tissue is controlled by the autonomic nervous system. A) Epithelial B) Connective C) Striated muscle D) Smooth muscle Answer: D Page Ref: 530 Objective: 20.5 44) A person cannot willfully control A) voluntary B) involuntary C) mandatory D) selective Answer: B Page Ref: 530 Objective: 20.5 45) The stomach is lined with A) epithelial B) connective C) muscle D) nerve Answer: A Page Ref: 531 (Fig 20.5) Objective: 20.5

muscle.

tissue.

46) Temperature regulation is a main function of the A) integumentary B) skeletal C) nervous D) cardiovascular Answer: A Page Ref: 532 (Fig 20-6) Objective: 20.6 20.8

system.

47) The system helps a person maintain posture. A) integumentary B) muscular C) nervous D) cardiovascular Answer: B Page Ref: 532 (Fig 20-6) Objective: 20.6, 20.8 48) The system helps to maintain the acid—base balance of the body. A) cardiovascular B) digestive C) urinary D) reproductive Answer: C Page Ref: 532 (Fig 20-6) Objective: 20.6 20.8 49) Which of the following is NOT an electrolyte found in the body? A) Sodium B) Potassium C) Zinc D) Magnesium Answer: C Page Ref: 534 Objective: 20.9 50) Which of the following is NOT part of the digestive system? A) Gallbladder B) Pancreas C) Urethra D) Appendix Answer: C Page Ref: 533 Objective: 20.7 51) The chemical process that creates molecules out of smaller components with the help of energy is . A) catabolism B) active transport C) anabolism D) mitochondria Answer: C Page Ref: 534 Objective: 20.1

52) The system stimulates the body's immune response to protect the body. A) lymphatic B) endocrine C) digestive D) integumentary Answer: A Page Ref: 532 (Fig 20-6) Objective: 20.5 53) involves the movement of dissolved particles from an area of greater concentration to an area of lesser concentration. A) Diffusion B) Osmosis C) Active transport D) Filtration Answer: A Page Ref: 533 Objective: 20.1, 20.9 54) occurs when digestion of food takes place. A) Anabolism B) Catabolism C) Phagocytosis D) Pinocytosis Answer: B Page Ref: 534 Objective: 20.9

Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting, 4e (Beaman) Chapter 21 The Integumentary System True/False Questions 1) A wart is a contagious disorder of the skin caused by a very small, wingless insect or mite. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 557 Objective: 21.8 2) Scabies is a chronic and potentially life-disruptive disorder primarily of the facial skin, often characterized by flare-ups and remissions. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 555 Objective: 21.1, 21.8 3) Psoriasis is characterized by episodes of redness, itching, and dry scales on the skin, which are typically silvery and thick. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 555 Objective: 21.1, 21.8 4) Pediculosis is an infestation of the head, body, or genitals with nits or lice. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 554 Objective: 21.1, 21.8 5) Herpes simplex is a skin infection caused by bacteria. It is most common in children and is contagious. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 552 Objective: 21.1, 21.8 6) Impetigo is an infection that primarily affects the hands, feet, or genital area. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 553 Objective: 21.1, 21.8 7) Herpes zoster, also known as shingles, is a viral infection that causes a painful rash. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 553 Objective: 21.1, 21.8 8) Folliculitis is an inflammation or infection of hair follicles. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 552 Objective: 21.1, 21.8 1

9) Eczema is a chronic skin condition caused by an allergic-type reaction on the skin that is characterized by scaling, itching, and rashes. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 551 Objective: 21.1, 21.8 10) Decubitus ulcers, also called pressure sores or bedsores, refer to an area of skin and tissue that breaks down. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 551 Objective: 21.8 11) Cellulitis is an allergic reaction of the skin caused by irritating substances contacting it. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 550 Objective: 21.1, 21.8 12) Alopecia is baldness or loss of hair. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 549 Objective: 21.1, 21.8 13) Acne vulgaris, or simply acne, is a common skin condition that occurs when oil and dead skin cells clog the skin's pores. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 549 Objective: 21.1, 21.8 14) Malignant melanoma is a type of cancer arising from the melanocyte cells of the skin. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 548 Objective: 21.1, 21.6 15) Contact dermatitis is an acute spreading bacterial infection below the surface of the skin characterized by redness (erythema), warmth, swelling, and pain. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 550 Objective: 21.1, 21.8 16) The integumentary system has five main functions. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 542 Objective: 21.2

17) Intact skin serves as a protective barrier to the internal structures and compartments of the body. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 542 Objective: 21.2 18) Matrix is another name for the nail bed. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 545 Objective: 21.5 19) When the temperature of the body drops, the blood vessels in the skin dilate. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 542 Objective: 21.2 20) Nerve endings are specialized, each providing a specific type of sensory reaction. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 543 Objective: 21.2 21) One function of the skin is to absorb substances. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 543 Objective: 21.2 22) The growth of bacteria found in perspiration causes body odor. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 543 Objective: 21.2 23) The stratum granulosum contains several layers of living cells that are still capable of mitosis, or cell division. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 544 Objective: 21.4 24) The stratum lucidum is a translucent layer lying directly beneath the stratum corneum. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 544 Objective: 21.3 25) The reticular layer is the thin upper layer of the dermis adjacent to, or attached to, the bottom part of the epidermis. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 544 Objective: 21.3 3

Multiple Choice Questions 1) By age A) 40 B) 50 C) 70 D) 80 Answer: B Page Ref: 548 Objective: 21.7

, approximately half of adults have some gray hair.

2) Tinea corporis is caused by a(n) A) worm B) bacterium C) increase in sebum D) fungus Answer: D Page Ref: 556 Objective: 21.8

3) Rosacea primarily affects the A) palms of the hands B) facial skin C) knees and elbows D) skin in the genital area Answer: B Page Ref: 555 Objective: 21.8

4) Sebum protects the skin from A) discoloration B) sunburns C) wrinkles D) dehydration Answer: D Page Ref: 543, 545 Objective: 21.5

5) Impetigo is caused by A) fungus B) bacteria C) a virus D) lice Answer: B Page Ref: 553 Objective: 21.8

6) Symptoms of herpes simplex include all of the following EXCEPT A) nausea. B) mouth sores. C) fever blisters. D) fever. Answer: A Page Ref: 553 Objective: 21.8

7) According to the National Pressure Ulcer Advisory Panel, which stage of decubitus ulcers is described as a reddened area on the skin that does NOT blanch (turn white) when pressed? A) I B) II C) III D) IV Answer: A Page Ref: 551 Objective: 21.8 8) As a person ages, the papillae grow less dense and the skin becomes A) tighter B) looser C) thicker D) thinner Answer: B Page Ref: 548 Objective: 21.7 9) There are at least A) 20 B) 40 C) 60 D) 80 Answer: C Page Ref: 557 Objective: 21.8

types of human papillomaviruses (HPVs).

10) is a protein that works to strengthen and firm the skin. A) Melanin B) Keratin C) Corneum D) Stratum Answer: B Page Ref: 544 Objective: 21.1, 21.4 5

11) Although other means are possible, crab lice are most often transmitted through contact. A) skin-to-skin B) physical C) head-to-head D) sexual Answer: D Page Ref: 554 Objective: 21.8 12) All of the following are TRUE about a fetus whose mother has herpes simplex virus type-2 (HSV-2) EXCEPT . A) the virus can cause congenital abnormalities B) a newborn can contract the virus from his or her mother C) the baby should be born via Cesarean section D) it is best if the baby is born vaginally Answer: D Page Ref: 552 Objective: 21.8 13) Leukoderma is another name for pigmentation to form on the skin. A) ringworm B) herpes zoster C) hives D) vitiligo Answer: D Page Ref: 556 Objective: 21.1, 21.8

, a disorder that causes large areas of decreased

14) Common sites of folliculitis include all of the following EXCEPT A) face B) scalp C) armpits D) arms Answer: D Page Ref: 552 Objective: 21.8 15) Which of the following is NOT true about cellulitis? A) It is contagious. B) Diabetes is a risk factor. C) It occurs below the surface of the skin. D) It is an acute spreading bacterial infection. Answer: A Page Ref: 550 Objective: 21.8 6

16) Melanin protects the skin from A) harmful bacteria B) breakdown C) the sun's harmful rays D) dehydration Answer: C Page Ref: 542 Objective: 21.2

17) The is the middle layer of skin. A) dermis B) epidermis C) subcutaneous tissue D) subcutaneous fat Answer: A Page Ref: 543 Objective: 21.3 18) The subcutaneous tissue provides the skin with all the following EXCEPT A) support B) cushion C) moisture D) insulation Answer: C Page Ref: 544 Objective: 21.4 19) The sudoriferous glands secrete A) perspiration B) oils C) sebum D) keratin Answer: A Page Ref: 545 Objective: 21.5

20) of sensory receptors (nerves) are in the skin for the sensations of pain, touch, heat, cold, and pressure. A) Hundreds B) Thousands C) Millions D) Trillions Answer: C Page Ref: 543 Objective: 21.2 7

21) Vitamin A) A B) B C) C D) D Answer: D Page Ref: 542 Objective: 21.2

is produced by the skin.

22) A lost fingernail may take A) 3 to 5 months

to regrow.

B) 6 to 8 months C) 6 to 8 weeks D) 3 to 5 weeks Answer: A Page Ref: 545 Objective: 21.5 23) Which of the following is NOT one of the four layers or strata of the epidermis? A) Stratum corneum B) Stratum lucidum C) Stratum granulosum D) Stratum keratin Answer: D Page Ref: 543, 544 Objective: 21.3 24) Perspiration is mostly A) water B) oil C) toxins D) minerals Answer: A Page Ref: 543 Objective: 21.2

with a small amount of salt and other chemical compounds.

25) A lost toenail may take as long as A) 3 to 5 months B) 6 to 8 months C) 9 to 10 months D) 11 to 12 months Answer: B Page Ref: 545 Objective: 21.5

to regrow.

26) Which of the following is NOT one of the three major types of skin cancer? A) Basal cell B) Squamous cell C) Melanoma D) Rosacea Answer: D Page Ref: 545 Objective: 21.6 27) Which of the following is the most common place for basal cell carcinoma? A) Nose B) Head C) Neck D) Back Answer: A Page Ref: 546 Objective: 21.6 28) Basal cell carcinoma is a slow growing cancer that is usually detected and treated in the of development. A) prestages B) early stages C) middle stages D) late stages Answer: B Page Ref: 546 Objective: 21.6 29) Skin cancers are more common in those who have one or more of the following EXCEPT . A) light-colored skin B) blue or green eyes C) blonde hair D) brown hair Answer: D Page Ref: 545, 547 Objective: 21.8 30) Acne most often affects teens due to A) diet B) sports C) hormonal changes D) stress Answer: C Page Ref: 548, 549 Objective: 21.7

31) The following are all common locations for a decubitus ulcer, EXCEPT A) wrists B) coccyx C) heels D) shoulders Answer: A Page Ref: 551 Objective: 21.8

32) is characterized by oozing and honey-color crusted blisters that grow larger day by day. A) Acne B) Urticaria C) Folliculitis D) Impetigo Answer: D Page Ref: 553 Objective: 21.8 33) may become louse-infested under suitable conditions. A) Children B) The elderly C) Anyone D) Dirty people Answer: C Page Ref: 554 Objective: 21.8 34) The A) shaft B) root C) bulb D) follicle Answer: A Page Ref: 544 Objective: 21.5

is the visible portion of the hair.

35) Contraction of the pilomotor "standing on end." A) nerve B) muscle C) skin D) vein Answer: B Page Ref: 544, 545 Objective: 21.5

causes "goose bumps" or the sensation of the hair

36) The hairs around all of the following EXCEPT the particles and prevent their entrance to the sensory organs. A) eyes B) ears C) nose D) mouth Answer: D Page Ref: 545 Objective: 21.5 37) The nail consists of all the following EXCEPT A) the heading. B) the matrix. C) the root. D) the body. Answer: A Page Ref: 545 Objective: 21.5

serve to filter out foreign

38) Which of the following can be TRUE of a newborn's skin? A) Milia are present. B) Papillae are more dense. C) Collagen is decreased. D) Fewer elastic fibers are present. Answer: A Page Ref: 548 Objective: 21.7 39) Cystic lesions are A) cuts B) follicles C) pimples D) warts Answer: C Page Ref: 549 Objective: 21.8

that are large and deep.

40) The ABCDEs of melanoma changes in a mole include all of the following EXCEPT . A) asymmetry B) border C) crusting D) diameter Answer: C Page Ref: 548 Objective: 21.6 11

41) Verrucae is another name for A) lesions B) warts C) cysts D) scars Answer: B Page Ref: 557 Objective: 21.8

42) Which of the following is NOT a side effect of Botox treatments? A) Headache B) Bruising C) Darkening of the skin D) Eyelid drooping Answer: C Page Ref: 557 Objective: 21.9 43) A precancerous lesion can be removed with a A) light chemical peel B) deep chemical peel C) Botox treatment D) microdermabrasion Answer: B Page Ref: 557 Objective: 21.9

44) Which treatment uses acid concentrations to remove damages layers of skin? A) Chemical peel B) Mohs surgery C) Microdermabrasion D) Laser resurfacing Answer: A Page Ref: 557 Objective: 21.9 45) Of the following treatments to refresh the skin and make it look younger, this treatment is the least aggressive and invasive. A) Deep chemical peel B) Light chemical peel C) Botox D) Microdermabrasion Answer: D Page Ref: 557, 558 Objective: 21.9

46) How long does a full-face laser resurfacing generally take? A) 10—15 minutes B) 20—30 minutes C) 40—50 minutes D) 1—2 hours Answer: D Page Ref: 529 Objective: 21.9 47) Lunula is defined as . A) the smooth surface of the nail B) the white area of the nail beyond the fingertips C) the skin that is covered by the nail D) the crescent shaped white area at the base of the nail Answer: D Page Ref: 545 Objective: 21.1 48) Vitiligo has been linked with all of the following EXCEPT A) Addison's disease B) thyroid disorders C) leukemia D) pernicious anemia Answer: C Page Ref: 556 Objective: 21.8

49) have been known to produce keloids. A) Surgeries B) Piercings C) Burns D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 554 Objective: 21.8 50) This generally presents itself in the form of a ring, with red, scaly patches. A) Scabies B) Tinea corporis C) Seborrheic dermatitis D) Urticaria Answer: B Page Ref: 556 Objective: 21.8

51) The medical term for "jock itch" is A) tinea cruris B) tinea pedis C) tinea capitis D) tinea corporis Answer: A Page Ref: 556 Objective: 21.8

52) Severe itching due to an acute hypersensitivity to medications or environmental stimuli is known as . A) seborrheic dermatitis B) contact dermatitis C) psoriasis D) urticaria Answer: D Page Ref: 555 Objective: 21.8 53) The is most responsible for the regeneration of the epidermis. A) stratum lucidum B) stratum granulosum C) stratum germinativum D) subcutaneous layer Answer: C Page Ref: 544 Objective: 21.4

Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting, 4e (Beaman) Chapter 22 The Skeletal System True/False Questions 1) Hemopoiesis is an important function of the bones that occurs in the bone marrow. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 562 Objective: 22.3 2) Bones are classified according to density. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 561 Objective: 22.2 3) Epiphyses are the ends of developing bones. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 563 Objective: 22.1 4) Diaphyses are membranes that cover bones, except at their articular surfaces. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 563 Objective: 22.1 5) Compact bone is the dense, hard layer of bone tissue. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 564 Objective: 22.1 6) A joint, also called an articulation, is where two bones connect. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 564 Objective: 22.1 7) A joint that produces no movement is called an amphiarthrotic joint. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 565 Objective: 22.1, 22.5 8) Abduction is the movement of a body part away from the midline. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 565 Objective: 22.1

9) Inversion is the process of turning outward. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 565 Objective: 22.1 10) Arthritis is the inflammation of one or more joints. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 572 Objective: 22.1, 22.9 11) Osteoarthritis, the most common type of arthritis, results from years of wear and tear on joints. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 572 Objective: 22.1, 22.9 12) Bursitis is a disease caused by the formation of crystals in the joints, which leads to inflammation. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 573 Objective: 22.1, 22.9 13) Gout is inflammation of the bursa, a small sac of fluid that cushions and lubricates an area where joint-related tissues, including bones, tendons, ligaments, muscles, or skin, rub against one another. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 573 Objective: 22.1, 22.9 14) The ribs protect the body's internal organs. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 562 Objective: 22.3 15) Diaphysis is a function of bone that allows movement. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 563 Objective: 22.3 16) The condition called hammertoe is caused by an abnormal flexion of the proximal interphalangeal joint. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 576 Objective: 22.1, 22.9

17) Rickets is called osteomalacia in adult patients. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 576 Objective: 22.1, 22.9 18) Another name for a corn is hallux valgus. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 576 Objective: 22.1, 22.9 19) The carpal tunnel protects the median nerve of the hand and nine tendons. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 573 Objective: 22.9 20) Morning joint stiffness is common with rheumatoid arthritis. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 572 Objective: 22.9 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Bone serves as a storage place for all of the following EXCEPT A) mineral salts B) calcium C) phosphorus D) potassium Answer: D Page Ref: 562 Objective: 22.3 2) Osteoporosis affects more than 70 years of age. A) 5 B) 10 C) 15 D) 25 Answer: D Page Ref: 575 Objective: 22.9

million Americans, mostly women between 50 and

3) is characterized by the progression of loss of bone density and the thinning of bone tissue. A) Osteoporotic B) Osteoporosis C) Osteopenia D) Osteopetrosis Answer: B Page Ref: 575 Objective: 22.9 4) are usually caused by a sudden impact to the joint. A) Scars B) Fractures C) Lesions D) Dislocations Answer: D Page Ref: 575 Objective: 22.9 5) Joints are areas where A) one B) two C) three D) four Answer: B Page Ref: 564 Objective: 22.5

bone(s) come(s) together.

6) A(n) fracture is commonly seen in children in areas where the matrix is undergoing calcification and the chondrocytes are dying. A) epiphyseal B) compression C) Pott D) Colles Answer: A Page Ref: 575 Objective: 22.9 7) A(n) fracture occurs in the vertebrae after severe stress, such as when someone falls and lands with a significant amount of force. A) epiphyseal B) compression C) Pott D) Colles Answer: B Page Ref: 575 Objective: 22.9 4

8) A(n) and fibula). A) epiphyseal B) compression C) Pott's D) Colles' Answer: C Page Ref: 575 Objective: 22.9

fracture occurs in the ankle and affects both bones of the lower leg (the tibia

9) A(n) fracture is the result of reaching forward to stop or cushion a fall and is most frequently seen in children and the elderly. A) epiphyseal B) compression C) Pott's D) Colles' Answer: D Page Ref: 575 Objective: 22.9 10) Babies are born with 270 bones; as they grow into adults, they will only have 206 bones. Which of the following explains why babies have more bones? A) Many of the small bones in the hands and feet will form cartilage to allow for more movement as an adult. B) Smaller bones in babies turn into red blood cells as the baby grows to accommodate the circulatory system. C) The bones in the babies head and spinal column will eventually fuse together. D) Babies lose bone mass during the aging process. Answer: C Page Ref: 565 Objective: 22.6 11) The axial skeleton consists of all of the following EXCEPT A) vertebrae B) pelvic girdle C) skull D) coccyx Answer: B Page Ref: 565 Objective: 22.7

12) The appendicular skeleton consists of all of the following EXCEPT A) upper and lower extremities B) clavicles C) ribs D) scapula Answer: C Page Ref: 566 Objective: 22.8 13) Bones are classified according to A) shape B) function C) color D) size Answer: A Page Ref: 561 Objective: 22.2

14) The end of a developing bone is called A) epiphysis B) diaphysis C) periosteum D) compact bone Answer: A Page Ref: 563 Objective: 22.1, 22.4

15) The dense, hard layer of bone tissue is called _ A) epiphysis B) diaphysis C) periosteum D) compact bone Answer: D Page Ref: 564 Objective: 22.1, 22.4 16) The shaft of the long bone is called A) epiphysis B) diaphysis C) periosteum D) compact bone Answer: B Page Ref: 564 Objective: 22.1, 22.4

17) is the membrane that forms the covering of bones, EXCEPT at their articular surfaces. A) Epiphysis B) Diaphysis C) Periosteum D) Compact bone Answer: C Page Ref: 563 Objective: 22.1, 22.4 18) The is the narrow space or cavity throughout the length of the diaphysis. A) medullary canal B) endosteum C) cancellous D) periosteum Answer: A Page Ref: 564 Objective: 22.1, 22.4 19) The is the tough, connective tissue membrane lining the medullary canal and containing the bone marrow. A) medullary canal B) endosteum C) cancellous D) periosteum Answer: B Page Ref: 564 Objective: 22.1, 22.4 20) The is the reticular tissue that makes up most of the volume of bone. A) medullary canal B) endosteum C) cancellous bone D) periosteum Answer: C Page Ref: 564 Objective: 22.1, 22.4 21) As children grow, bones become harder as more A) vitamins B) minerals C) markings D) cancellous Answer: B Page Ref: 565 Objective: 22.6 7

are deposited into the bone.

22) A(n) A) joint B) agreement C) canal D) furrow Answer: A Page Ref: 564 Objective: 22.5

, also called an articulation, is located at the place where two bones connect.

23) Which joint produces no movement? A) Synarthrotic B) Amphiarthrotic C) Diarthrotic D) Biarthortic Answer: A Page Ref: 564 Objective: 22.5 24) Which joint allows for free movement in a variety of directions? A) Synarthrotic B) Amphiarthrotic C) Diarthrotic D) Biarthortic Answer: C Page Ref: 565 Objective: 22.5 25) Which joint permits very slight movement? A) Synarthrotic B) Amphiarthrotic C) Diarthrotic D) Biarthortic Answer: B Page Ref: 565 Objective: 22.5 26) What is TRUE about skeletal system changes? A) Skeletal system changes mostly occur from changes in cartilage during the aging process. B) Children grow taller as the compact bone expands during the aging process. C) Cartilage becomes soft and spongy as a person ages. D) Bone healing slows as a person ages. Answer: D Page Ref: 565 Objective: 22.3

27) Which of the following is NOT one of the symptoms of arthritis? A) Joint pain and swelling B) Morning stiffness C) Warmth and redness around a joint D) Bloodshot or red eyes Answer: D Page Ref: 572 Objective: 22.9 28) , sometimes referred to as "hump back," is a result of the normal thoracic curvature becoming exaggerated. A) Kyphosis B) Scoliosis C) Lordosis D) Lyphosis Answer: A Page Ref: 567 Objective: 22.9 29) The onset of joint disease is more likely to occur during aging, as evidenced by which indication? A) Less joint movement B) Less bone marrow production C) Hardening of bones from an increase of mineral deposits D) Functioning of osteoblasts slows down Answer: A Page Ref: 565 Objective: 22.6 30) Which statement is NOT true when comparing the female pelvis with the male pelvis? A) The female pelvis is more suited for running. B) The male pelvis is stronger. C) The male pelvis is heavier. D) The female pelvis is shaped more like a basin. Answer: A Page Ref: 566 Objective: 22.8 31) Which of the following is NOT an example of a diarthrotic joint? A) Elbow B) Wrist C) Vertebrae D) Knee Answer: C Page Ref: 564 Objective: 22.5 9

32) Which of the following is NOT one of the six main functions of the skeletal system? A) Formation of arterial plaque B) Providing the shape, support, and framework of the body C) Providing protection for the body's internal organs D) Serving as a storage place for mineral salts, calcium, and phosphorus Answer: A Page Ref: 562-563 Objective: 22.3 33) Which description is NOT one of the six common bone shapes? A) Flat B) Long C) Short D) Square Answer: D Page Ref: 561 Objective: 22.2 34) Fractures are classified based on all of the following EXCEPT A) break in the skin B) site C) nature of the crack or break D) color Answer: D Page Ref: 574 Objective: 22.9

35) Treatment for bursitis usually involves all of the following EXCEPT A) antibiotics B) pain medication C) exercise D) steroid injection Answer: C Page Ref: 573 Objective: 22.9 36) All of the following can be used for the treatment of gout EXCEPT A) caffeine B) diet rich in colorful vegetables C) diet rich in cooked vegetables D) medications Answer: A Page Ref: 573 Objective: 22.9

37) , also known as "swayback," is a condition in which the abdomen and buttocks protrude because of an exaggerated lumbar curvature. A) Kyphosis B) Lordosis C) Cyphosis D) Mordosis Answer: B Page Ref: 567-568 Objective: 22.1, 22.9 38) The A) distal B) appendicular C) medial D) axial Answer: D Page Ref: 565 Objective: 22.7

skeleton is the central portion of the skeleton.

39) The medullary canal contains A) blue B) yellow C) green D) red Answer: B Page Ref: 564 Objective: 22.4

bone marrow, which is made of fat cells.

40) The spongy bone contains bone marrow, which manufactures most of the red blood cells found in the body and is found in the long bone. A) blue B) yellow C) green D) red Answer: D Page Ref: 564 Objective: 22.4 41) is/are a primary component(s) of the skeletal system, which consist of 50% water and 50% solid matter. A) bones B) blood C) tendons D) ligaments Answer: A Page Ref: 561 Objective: 22.3 11

42) Joints are always classified according to the type of A) lubrication B) pain C) movement D) noise Answer: C Page Ref: 564—565 Objective: 22.5 43) Also known as a simple fracture, a(n) skin. This type of fracture is completely internal. A) closed B) open C) comminuted D) transverse Answer: A Page Ref: 574 Objective: 22.9 44) In a(n) A) closed B) open C) comminuted D) transverse Answer: C Page Ref: 574 Objective: 22.9

they provide.

fracture does NOT involve a break in the

fracture, part of the bone is shattered into a multitude of bony fragments.

45) fractures are spread along the length of a bone and are produced by twisting stresses. A) Spiral B) Greenstick C) Transverse D) Comminuted Answer: A Page Ref: 575 Objective: 22.9 46) A fracture usually occurs in young children whose bones are still relatively soft. A) spiral B) greenstick C) transverse D) comminuted Answer: B Page Ref: 574 Objective: 22.9 12

47) A fracture breaks the shaft of the bone across its longitudinal access. A) spiral B) greenstick C) transverse D) comminuted Answer: C Page Ref: 574 Objective: 22.9 48) A fracture occurs when the bone has broken through the skin. A) spiral B) greenstick C) transverse D) compound Answer: D Page Ref: 574 Objective: 22.9 49) The metatarsals and phalanges can be identified as which section(s) of the appendicular skeleton? A) Pelvic girdle B) Female pelvis C) Upper and lower extremities D) Clavicles and scapula Answer: C Page Ref: 566 Objective: 22.8 50) Cartilage-forming cells are called A) osteocytes B) melanocytes C) hemocytes D) chondrocytes Answer: D Page Ref: 575 Objective: 22.1

51) How did greenstick fractures get their name? A) They occur mainly in children. B) The broken bone has a greenish appearance. C) The unbroken side of the bone shaft is bent like a plant stick. D) They heal rapidly. Answer: C Page Ref: 574-575 Objective: 22.9 13

52) Which of the following is NOT a sign of a dislocation? A) Stooped posture B) Intense pain C) Bruising D) Discoloration Answer: A Page Ref: 575 Objective: 22.9 53) A woman who experiences menopause early may be at risk for A) osteoporosis B) gout C) osteomalacia D) hallux valgus Answer: A Page Ref: 575 Objective: 22.9 54) Which of the following is NOT considered a cause of rickets? A) vitamin D deficiency B) calcium deficiency C) vitamin C deficiency D) genetics Answer: C Page Ref: 576 Objective: 22.9 55) Who has the lowest risk for developing osteoporosis? A) Obese men B) Slender Asian women C) Caucasian women D) Obese African-American women Answer: A Page Ref: 575 Objective: 22.9

Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting, 4e (Beaman) Chapter 23 The Muscular System True/False Questions 1) Muscles are composed of muscle fibers. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 551 Objective: 23.2 2) Muscles make up about 24 percent of a person's total body weight. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 580 Objective: 23.8 3) Skeletal muscle has a striped appearance, which is the reason skeletal muscle is also known as striated muscle. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 582 Objective: 23.3 4) The cure for muscular dystrophy was discovered in the late 1990s. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 590 Objective: 23.8 5) There is no specific treatment for any of the forms of muscular dystrophy. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 590 Objective: 23.8 6) Fibromyalgia is a widespread musculoskeletal pain and fatigue disorder that generally affects men more than women. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 589 Objective: 23.8 7) Although sprains can occur in both the upper and lower parts of the body, the most common site is the wrist. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 591 Objective: 23.8 8) Muscle fibers are made of different lengths and shapes. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 580 Objective: 23.2 1

9) It is NOT necessary for muscle to be supplied with oxygen to perform properly. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 581 Objective: 23.2 10) Tonicity is what helps to maintain posture through a continual partial contract of skeletal muscles. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 580 Objective: 23.1 11) When skeletal muscles are used for more than a minute or two, a condition called oxygen debt may occur. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 583 Objective: 23.5 12) The amount of oxygen "owed" to the body to recover is called the oxygen recovery. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 583 Objective: 23.5 13) Duchenne is a form of muscular dystrophy. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 590 Objective: 23.8 14) Ganglion cysts usually develop over a joint or tendon. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 589 Objective: 23.8 15) Ganglion cysts are never painful. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 589 Objective: 23.8 16) Fibromyalgia is characterized by 18 tender points. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 589 Objective: 23.8 17) Some forms of muscular dystrophy also have associated cardiac problems. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 590 Objective: 23.8 2

18) One single traumatic injury will NOT cause a rotator cuff tear. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 590-591 Objective: 23.8 19) Improper conditioning of the leg muscles can cause shin splints. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 591 Objective: 23.8 20) Severe rotator cuff tears may require steroid injections and possibly surgery. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 590-591 Objective: 23.8 21) Muscular injections to children are usually given in the vastus lateralis. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 592 Objective: 23.8 22) Surgery is the most common treatment for shin splints. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 561 Objective: 23.8 23) Although the movements of a newborn are uncoordinated and random, muscular development continues to proceed from head to toe and from the center of the body to the periphery. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 582 Objective: 23.4 24) A preschool child will see a decrease in muscle strength, endurance, range of motion, coordination, elasticity, and flexibility of connective tissue. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 582 Objective: 23.4 25) The head and neck muscles are the first muscles that can be controlled, so a baby will hold his or her head upright before being able to sit up. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 582 Objective: 23.4

Multiple Choice Questions 1) Muscles make up about A) 17 B) 24 C) 42 D) 71 Answer: C Page Ref: 580 Objective: 23.2

percent of a person's total body weight.

2) Which is NOT one of the three different types of muscle cells? A) Connective B) Skeletal C) Smooth D) Cardiac Answer: A Page Ref: 582 Objective: 23.3 3) The system is well permeated by vessels from the circulatory and lymphatic systems. A) cardiovascular B) circulatory C) muscular D) skeletal Answer: C Page Ref: 580 Objective: 23.2 4) The muscle pulls the corners of the mouth upward. A) zygomaticus B) orbicularis oculi C) orbicularis oris D) frontalis Answer: A Page Ref: 585 Objective: 23.7 5) The muscle provides for extension, adduction, and rotation of the arm inward. A) pectoralis major B) latissimus dorsi C) deltoid D) subscapularis Answer: B Page Ref: 585 Objective: 23.7 4

6) The muscle flexes the forearm at the elbow. A) infraspinatus B) biceps brachii C) brachialis D) brachioradialis Answer: D Page Ref: 586 Objective: 23.7 7) The muscle rotates the forearm medially. A) triceps brachii B) supinator C) pronator teres D) pectoralis major Answer: C Page Ref: 586 Objective: 23.7 8) The muscle(s) flex(es) the distal joints of the fingers, but NOT the thumb. A) flexor carpi radialis and flexor carpi ulnaris B) extensor carpi ulnaris C) extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis D) flexor digitorum profundus Answer: D Page Ref: 586 Objective: 23.7 9) The muscle flexes the vertebral column and compresses the abdominal wall. A) external oblique B) internal oblique C) transverse abdominis D) rectus abdominis Answer: D Page Ref: 586 Objective: 23.7 10) The muscle(s) evert(s) the foot and helps bring about plantar flexion. A) gastrocnemius B) tibialis anterior C) peroneus D) flexor and extensor digitorum longus Answer: C Page Ref: 588 Objective: 23.7

11) The muscle(s) extend(s) the thigh. A) gluteus maximus B) psoas major C) iliacus D) external and internal intercostals Answer: A Page Ref: 587 Objective: 23.7 12) Systemic disorders account for more than A) one-eighth B) one-fourth C) one-third D) one-half Answer: D Page Ref: 588 Objective: 23.8

of muscular complaints.

13) is essential for muscle contraction, nerve transmission, and blood clotting. A) Aldolase B) Creatine phosphatase C) Calcium D) Lactic dehydrogenase Answer: C Page Ref: 588 Objective: 23.8 14) The composition of muscles includes A) water B) lipids C) salts D) all of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 582 Objective: 23.2

15) There are different skeletal muscles that are responsible for the movement of the body through contractility, extensibility, and elasticity. A) 300 B) 600 C) 800 D) 1,000 Answer: B Page Ref: 583 Objective: 23.2

16) Which facial muscle raises the eyebrows? A) Frontalis B) Zygomaticus C) Platysma D) Masseter Answer: A Page Ref: 585 Objective: 23.7 17) The rotates the arm laterally. A) triceps brachii B) infraspinatus C) latissimus dorsi D) pectoralis major Answer: B Page Ref: 585 Objective: 23.7 18) The rotates the forearm medially. A) triceps brachii B) subscapularis C) latissimus dorsi D) pronator teres Answer: D Page Ref: 586 Objective: 23.7 19) The extends the arm at the elbow. A) triceps brachii B) subscapularis C) latissimus dorsi D) pronator teres Answer: A Page Ref: 586 Objective: 23.7 20) Which muscle provides for extension, adduction, and rotation of the arm inward? A) Triceps brachii B) Subscapularis C) Latissimus dorsi D) Pronator teres Answer: C Page Ref: 586 Objective: 23.7

21) The separates the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity, and its contraction causes the process of inspiration. A) diaphragm B) internal intercostals C) external intercostals D) obliques Answer: A Page Ref: 586 Objective: 23.7 22) Which is NOT a type of muscular dystrophy? A) Becker B) Proximal C) Limb-girdle D) Congenital Answer: B Page Ref: 590 Objective: 23.8 23) Which is NOT a treatment for rotator cuff tear? A) Splinting B) Avoiding exercise C) Surgery D) Pain medication Answer: B Page Ref: 591 Objective: 23.8 24) The flexes the foot and aids in pushing the body forward. A) gastrocnemius B) tibialis anterior C) peroneus D) extensor digitorum longus Answer: A Page Ref: 587 Objective: 23.7 25) The causes dorsiflexion and inversion of the foot. A) gastrocnemius B) tibialis anterior C) peroneus D) extensor digitorum longus Answer: B Page Ref: 587 Objective: 23.7

26) All children should be immunized against tetanus by receiving a full series of DPT vaccinations ("baby shots"), which generally start at two months and end at about years. A) three B) five C) seven D) nine Answer: B Page Ref: 592 Objective: 23.4 27) The most common symptom associated with tetanus is A) headache B) low temperature C) knee pain D) lock jaw Answer: D Page Ref: 592 Objective: 23.8 28) The adult patient should receive a Tdap booster booster? A) two B) one C) five D) ten Answer: A Page Ref: 592 Objective: 23.8

years after receiving the Td

29) are the most common injuries in the United States and are common among athletes. A) Broken arms B) Wrist sprains C) Ankle sprains D) Broken legs Answer: C Page Ref: 591 Objective: 23.8

30) exercise uses active muscle contractions performed against stable resistance. A) Isometric B) Symmetric C) Resistance D) Endurance Answer: A Page Ref: 588 Objective: 23.2 31) The American College of Rheumatology (ACR) states that a patient must show pain at trigger points to be considered for a diagnosis of fibromyalgia. A) 3 to 5 B) 6 to 10 C) 11 of 18 D) 19 of 25 Answer: C Page Ref: 589 Objective: 23.8 32) Signs and symptoms of muscular dystrophy include A) difficulty walking B) delayed development of motor skills C) formation of a claw hand D) all of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 590 Objective: 23.8

33) Signs and symptoms of Lyme disease include all of the following, EXCEPT A) a round bull's-eye rash B) involuntary movement of facial muscles C) headache D) fatigue Answer: B Page Ref: 589-590 Objective: 23.8 34) The muscles that move the lower extremity include all of the following, EXCEPT A) psoas major B) iliacus C) gluteus maximus D) pectoralis minor Answer: D Page Ref: 587 Objective: 23.7

35) The muscles of the abdominal wall include all of the following, EXCEPT A) diaphragm B) external and internal obliques C) transverse abdominis D) rectus abdominis Answer: A Page Ref: 586 Objective: 23.7

36) Muscles that move the wrist, hand, and fingers include all of the following, EXCEPT . A) palmaris longus B) flexor digitorum profundus C) brachioradialis D) extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis Answer: C Page Ref: 586 Objective: 23.7 37) Muscles that move the arm and forearm include all of the following, EXCEPT A) pectoralis major B) latissimus dorsi C) deltoid D) splenius capitis Answer: D Page Ref: 585 Objective: 23.7

38) Which is NOT one of the muscles that provide for facial expression? A) Sternocleidomastoid B) Frontalis C) Orbicularis oris D) Orbicularis oculi Answer: A Page Ref: 585 Objective: 23.7 39) The muscles of the head include those that move the and move the head. A) jaw B) shoulders C) arms D) chest Answer: A Page Ref: 585 Objective: 23.7 11

, create facial expressions,

40) When describing the major skeletal muscles, it is important to remember that these muscles are often identified according to all of the following, EXCEPT . A) location B) size C) action D) function Answer: D Page Ref: 584-585 Objective: 23.7 41) Which is NOT one of the three types of skeletal muscle units? A) Antagonist B) Prime mover C) Striated D) Synergist Answer: C Page Ref: 555 Objective: 23.6 42) Which is a type of chemical energy needed for sustained or repeated muscular contractions? A) ADE B) ATR C) ADT D) ATP Answer: D Page Ref: 583 Objective: 23.5 43) Muscles are composed of about A) 25 B) 50 C) 75 D) 90 Answer: C Page Ref: 582 Objective: 23.6

percent water and 20 percent protein.

44) muscle cells are roughly quadrangular in shape and have a single, central nucleus. A) Smooth B) Skeletal C) Cardiac D) Connective Answer: C Page Ref: 582 Objective: 23.3

45) muscles allow movement by being attached to bones in the body. A) Smooth B) Skeletal C) Cardiac D) Connective Answer: B Page Ref: 582 Objective: 23.3 46) muscles are composed of elongated, spindle-shaped cells, and are commonly involved in involuntary motions. A) Smooth B) Skeletal C) Cardiac D) Connective Answer: A Page Ref: 582 Objective: 23.3 47) muscle is sometimes referred to as voluntary. A) Skeletal B) Cardiac C) Smooth D) Nervous Answer: A Page Ref: 582 Objective: 23.3 48) is a fibrous sheath that holds connective tissue together. A) Muscle B) Fascia C) Membrane D) Smooth muscle Answer: B Page Ref: 583 Objective: 23.6 49) is caused by the Borrelia burgdorferi bacterium. A) Fibromyalgia B) Tetanus C) Ganglion cyst D) Lyme disease Answer: D Page Ref: 589-590 Objective: 23.8

50) The is a thin, sheet-like tendon that connects muscle to muscle. A) epimysium B) perimysium C) aponeurosis D) tendon Answer: C Page Ref: 584 Objective: 23.1, 23.6 51) Aspiration is often used in the treatment of which disorder? A) Lyme disease B) Muscular dystrophy C) Atrophy D) Ganglion cyst Answer: D Page Ref: 589 Objective: 23.8 52) Blood serum levels of is increased in muscular dystrophy, after damage to skeletal muscles, after pulmonary embolism, and during skeletal muscle malignancy. A) lactic dehydrogenase B) aldolase C) creatine phosphatase D) calcium Answer: A Page Ref: 588 Objective: 23.8 53) Which is NOT an area normally associated with tendonitis? A) Elbow and wrist B) Neck C) Biceps and shoulder D) Achilles tendon Answer: B Page Ref: 592 Objective: 23.8 54) If an injection is viscous, the preferred injection site is usually the A) vastus lateralis B) clostridium tetani C) ventrogluteal D) peroneus longus Answer: C Page Ref: 592 Objective: 23.8

55) or agonist is a muscle that is the primary actor in a given movement. A) prime mover B) synergist C) antagonist D) endomysium Answer: A Page Ref: 584 Objective: 23.1 56) The body can only use anaerobic energy for about A) 30 seconds B) 60 seconds C) 2 minutes D) 5 minutes Answer: B Page Ref: 583 Objective: 23.5

, depending on the individual.

Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting, 4e (Beaman) Chapter 24 The Nervous System True/False Questions 1) The nervous system is the body's information gatherer, interpreter, and storage center. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 596 Objective: 24.3 2) Dendrites and axons receive information for the neuron. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 598 Objective: 24.6 3) Groups of nerve fibers in the central nervous system are called tracts. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 599 Objective: 24.4 4) A receptor is the point at which stimulation of the nerve occurs. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 600 Objective: 24.6 5) The outer covering of the cerebrum is called the cerebral cortex. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 601 Objective: 24.4 6) The medulla oblongata connects the brain and the spinal cord. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 602 Objective: 24.4 7) Cerebrospinal fluid is colorless and is often considered the "blood" of the nervous system. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 602 Objective: 24.4 8) Alzheimer's disease is a progressively degenerative disease that attacks the brain and its cognitive function. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 606 Objective: 24.10

9) Unlike migraines, which primarily affect men, cluster headaches mainly affect women. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 609 Objective: 24.10 10) Parkinson's disease typically presents as a tremor of a limb, especially when the body is at rest. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 612 Objective: 24.10 11) Another name for stroke is cerebrovascular accident (CVA). Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 613 Objective: 24.10 12) The nervous system is made up of neurons, or nerve cells, and supporting structures called neuroglia. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 597 Objective: 24.4 13) Bell's palsy, also called facial palsy, is named for Dr. Charles Bell of Edinburgh, Scotland. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 607 Objective: 24.10 14) Headaches account for fewer than a million visits to a physician per year, even though they are a common disorder. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 608 Objective: 24.10 15) Intense bursts of electrical activity in the brain and recurring seizures are symptoms of a migraine. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 608 Objective: 24.10 16) Posttraumatic headaches are caused by stress or fatigue. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 609 Objective: 24.10

17) Another name for Huntington's disease is Huntington's chorea. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 610 Objective: 24.10 18) Meningitis is caused exclusively by a virus. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 610 Objective: 24.10 19) The pain associated with neuralgia is usually brief, but may be severe. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 612 Objective: 24.10 20) The most common symptom associated with sciatica is a dull, throbbing pain that runs from the neck down the arm. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 612 Objective: 24.10 21) Quadriplegia refers to paralysis from approximately the shoulders down. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 612 Objective: 24.10 22) Multiple sclerosis, and autoimmune disease, can be cured if treated properly. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 610 Objective: 24.10 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The average length of the spinal cord in adults is A) 3 to 5 B) 13 to 15 C) 17 to 18 D) 33 to 36 Answer: C Page Ref: 602 Objective: 24.4

inches.

2) Interneurons, also known as system. A) associative B) motor C) sensory D) glia Answer: A Page Ref: 598 Objective: 24.4 3) A nerve fiber is a A) single B) double C) triple D) quadruple Answer: A Page Ref: 599 Objective: 24.4

neurons, are housed entirely within the central nervous

-elongated process, usually an axon or a peripheral process.

4) Damage to nerve cells without myelin sheaths is permanent, because regeneration of nerve cells can only happen when cells are present. A) Bell B) Parkinson C) Alzheimer D) Schwann Answer: D Page Ref: 599 Objective: 24.3 5) A nerve is a bundled unit of nerve fibers found A) enclosed by B) inside C) outside D) distant from Answer: C Page Ref: 599 Objective: 24.4

of the central nervous system.

6) Receptors are typically specialized to react to specific stimulation by initiating a change. A) weight B) color C) length D) chemical Answer: D Page Ref: 600 Objective: 24.6 4

7) The synapse of a nerve axon where the impulse is transmitted is A) pear B) circular C) knob D) ovoid Answer: C Page Ref: 600 Objective: 24.4 8) Both the brain and the spinal cord are divided into gray matter and A) yellow B) white C) red D) colorless Answer: B Page Ref: 600 Objective: 24.4

-shaped.

matter.

9) Which of the following is NOT one of the three types of neuron? A) Motor B) Sensory C) Inter D) Pia Answer: D Page Ref: 598 Objective: 24.4 10) Motor neurons are called , meaning that they carry messages away from the central nervous system to the muscles and organs. A) afferent B) receptor C) efferent D) sensory Answer: C Page Ref: 598 Objective: 24.1 11) A receptor is the point at which a A) concussion B) fissure C) stimulation D) seizure Answer: C Page Ref: 599 Objective: 24.6

of the nerve occurs.

12) Very complex sensory receptors in the sight. A) retina B) conjunctiva C) pupil D) socket Answer: A Page Ref: 599 Objective: 24.4

of the eye collect all the input necessary for

13) The central nervous system is composed solely of the brain and the A) synaptic knob B) myelin sheath C) spinal cord D) peripheral nerves Answer: C Page Ref: 600 Objective: 24.4

14) The is the largest mass of nervous tissue in the body, weighing about three pounds in males and slightly less in females. A) spinal chord B) peripheral nervous system C) brain D) sympathetic nervous system Answer: C Page Ref: 600 Objective: 24.4 15) The cerebrum, which is composed of A) gray and white B) white and black C) white D) gray Answer: A Page Ref: 601 Objective: 24.4 16) The cerebrum is divided in A) fifths B) quarters C) thirds D) half Answer: D Page Ref: 601 Objective: 24.4

_ matter, is the largest part of the mature brain.

, equally.

17) With normal aging, the number of nerve cells in the brain A) increases B) stays the same C) varies D) decreases Answer: D Page Ref: 599 Objective: 24.5

18) From age 20 or 30 to age 90, brain weight declines about percent, and the area of the cerebral ventricles relative to the entire brain may increase three to four times. A) 5 B) 10 C) 15 D) 20 Answer: B Page Ref: 599 Objective: 24.5 19) In individuals who do NOT have neurological disease, intellectual performance tends to be maintained until at least age . A) 60 B) 70 C) 80 D) 90 Answer: C Page Ref: 599 Objective: 24.5 20) Verbal skills are well-maintained until age persons gradually develop reductions in vocabulary. A) 60 B) 70 C) 80 D) 90 Answer: B Page Ref: 599 Objective: 24.5

, after which some healthy elderly

21) The development of the unborn child's nervous system begins at about A) two B) four C) six D) eight Answer: C Page Ref: 599 Objective: 24.5 7

weeks.

22) When a person hears a fire alarm and sees smoke, the triggers a response that gives a rush of adrenaline and causes heart rate, respiration, and blood pressure to increase. A) conus medullaris B) sympathetic nervous system C) phrenic nerve D) parasympathetic nervous system Answer: B Page Ref: 605 Objective: 24.9 23) The brainstem consists of the midbrain, medulla oblongata, and the A) sulcus B) gyri C) pons D) fissure Answer: C Page Ref: 601 Objective: 24.4 24) Patients with Alzheimer's disease may be prescribed medications A) for life B) temporarily C) to increase sensory reception D) for episodes of discomfort Answer: A Page Ref: 606 Objective: 24.10 25) Treatments that may reduce the risk of cessation, and lowering blood pressure. A) Parkinson's disease B) transient ischemic attack C) multiple sclerosis D) Huntington's disease Answer: B Page Ref: 613 Objective: 24.10

include taking anticoagulants, smoking

26) When blood supply to the brain is impaired, _ A) hemiplegia B) oxygen C) neuralgia D) meninges Answer: B Page Ref: 613 Objective: 24.3 8

decreases and brain cells can die.

27) A stroke, also known as a cerebrovascular accident (CVA), is the death in the United States. A) first B) second C) third D) fourth Answer: C Page Ref: 613 Objective: 24.10

leading cause of

28) The sympathetic nervous system's stimulation response is balanced by the parasympathetic nervous system's response. A) bradykinesia B) demyelination C) rest and digest D) akinesia Answer: C Page Ref: 605 Objective: 24.9 29) Sciatica usually occurs on A) both sides B) one side C) the left side D) the right side Answer: B Page Ref: 612 Objective: 24.10

of the body.

30) Paraplegia refers to paralysis that begins at the A) shoulders B) waist C) neck D) knees Answer: B Page Ref: 612 Objective: 24.10 31) Who is most likely to suffer from cluster headaches? A) Individuals who don't smoke B) Individuals who drink alcohol occasionally C) Men who smoke or drink alcohol excessively D) Women who smoke or drink alcohol in moderation Answer: C Page Ref: 609 Objective: 24.10 9

32) Which of is a type of headache that is associated with a TBI? A) Migraine B) Tension C) Cluster D) Posttraumatic Answer: D Page Ref: 609 Objective: 24.10 33) Encephalitis is an inflammation of the A) somatic nervous system B) brain C) peripheral nervous system D) spinal cord Answer: B Page Ref: 608 Objective: 24.10

34) The nervous system is responsible for controlling involuntary bodily functions, such as heart rate and sweating. A) sympathetic B) parasympathetic C) somatic D) autonomic Answer: D Page Ref: 605 Objective: 24.8 35) There are A) two B) four C) six D) eight Answer: D Page Ref: 603 Objective: 24.4

pairs of cervical spinal nerves.

36) There are A) three B) five C) seven D) nine Answer: B Page Ref: 603 Objective: 24.4

pairs of lumbar spinal nerves.

37) Which of the following is NOT one of the neurotransmitters found in cerebrospinal fluid? A) Monoamines B) Acetylcholine C) Neuropeptides D) Epinephrine Answer: D Page Ref: 602 Objective: 24.6 38) The spinal cord extends from the base of the medulla oblongata to the junction between the lumbar vertebrae. A) first and second B) second and third C) third and fourth D) fourth and fifth Answer: A Page Ref: 602 Objective: 24.4 39) The hypothalamus is important for regulating all of the following, EXCEPT A) body temperature B) hair growth C) hunger D) thirst Answer: B Page Ref: 602 Objective: 24.7 40) The cerebral cortex contains A) 25 B) 50 C) 75 D) 90 Answer: C Page Ref: 601 Objective: 24.4

percent of all neurons in the nervous system.

41) Which of the following is NOT one of the four lobes in the cerebrum? A) Parietal B) Temporal C) Occipital D) Lateral Answer: D Page Ref: 602 Objective: 24.4

42) The nerves of the peripheral nervous system connect the central nervous system to . A) sensory organs B) arterial blood pressure C) glandular secretion D) smooth muscle tissue Answer: A Page Ref: 603 Objective: 24.8 43) When fully developed, the brain fills the cranial cavity and is enclosed by the meninges, which include all of these, EXCEPT . A) dura mater B) pia mater C) synaptic space D) arachnoid mater Answer: C Page Ref: 600 Objective: 24.4 44) The axon is the nerve projection that A) receives B) encompasses C) transmits D) contacts Answer: C Page Ref: 600 Objective: 24.6

impulses.

45) Nerve fibers that are housed within the same nerve tract have all of the following things in common, EXCEPT . A) origin B) neurilemma C) function D) termination Answer: B Page Ref: 599 Objective: 24.3

46) Each of the following is a portion of the brain's diencephalon or brain stem, EXCEPT . A) cerebrum B) medulla oblongata C) thalamus D) pons Answer: A Page Ref: 601 Objective: 24.2 47) When a disease, such as MS, destroys the myelin sheath that protects nerves, the result is . A) hydrocephalus B) myelinated nerve fibers C) difficulty with movement D) encephalitis Answer: C Page Ref: 610 Objective: 24.1 48) Testing a child's nervous system development includes all of the following, EXCEPT . A) reflexes B) motor function C) balance D) growth rate Answer: D Page Ref: 599 Objective: 24.5 49) The largest portion of a mature brain is the A) cerebrum B) brainstem C) cerebellum D) pons Answer: A Page Ref: 601 Objective: 24.2

50) What is the name of the structure that connects the two hemispheres of the brain? A) Gyri B) Fissure C) Sulcus D) Corpus callosum Answer: D Page Ref: 599 Objective: 24.2 13

Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting, 4e (Beaman) Chapter 25 The Special Senses True/False Questions 1) The eye is a gas-filled and spherical-shaped organ composed of special anatomic structures that work together to facilitate sight. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 617 Objective: 25.2 2) Light passes through the eye's retina, pupil, lens, and vitreous body to stimulate sensory receptors on the eyelid. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 617-618 Objective: 25.3 3) Ectropion is a disorder that causes the lower eyelid to turn inward. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 621 Objective: 25.1 4) The surface of the eyeball is composed of five separate layers. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 618 Objective: 25.2 5) The middle layer of the eye includes the ciliary body. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 618 Objective: 25.2 6) The iris contains the pigment or eye color. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 618 Objective: 25.2 7) Each eyeball has both a front, or anterior, cavity that is filled with a watery fluid called the aqueous humor. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 618 Objective: 25.2 8) The third, or inner, layer of the eye is the iris. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 618 Objective: 25.2 1

9) The eyelids close over the eyeball, protecting the eye from intense light, foreign matter, and impact. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 619 Objective: 25.3 10) The superior and inferior and palpebrae meet at the conjunctiva. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 619 Objective: 25.3 11) The palpebral fissure, also known as the corner of the eye, is where the tear production occurs. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 619 Objective: 25.2 12) The tissue on the underside of the eyelid and the anterior, or front, portion of the eyeball is a mucous membrane called the conjunctiva. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 619 Objective: 25.2 13) The pupil acts as a protective covering for the exposed surface of the eyeball. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 618 Objective: 25.2 14) The lacrimal apparatus acts as a protective covering for the exposed surface of the eyeball. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 619 Objective: 25.2 15) The function of the lens is to sharpen the focus of the light rays onto the retina. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 618 Objective: 25.3 16) The eighth cranial nerve connects the structures of the ear to the brain. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 624 Objective: 25.5 17) The pinna funnels sound waves into the auditory canal. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 624 Objective: 25.6 2

18) The ossicles are contained in the external ear. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 624 Objective: 25.5 19) Conductive hearing loss is temporary. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 625 Objective: 25.7 20) The fluid inside the inner ear is called perilymph. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 625 Objective: 25.5 21) During the embryonic stage of fetal development, special sense organs develop. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 628 Objective: 25.12 22) As a person ages, taste and smell receptors become stronger. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 628 Objective: 25.12 23) The apex is part of the ears. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 628 Objective: 25.5 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Cataract removal is one of the safest and most effective surgeries, with a cure rate of percent. A) 70 B) 80 C) 90 D) 100 Answer: C Page Ref: 622 Objective: 25.4

2) Which condition is a common refractive error? A) Myopia B) Hyperopia C) Presbyopia D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 619 Objective: 25.4 3) The most common indications of pink eye include the following symptoms EXCEPT . A) redness in the sclera of the eye B) decreased sensitivity to light C) increase in the amount of tears D) thick, yellow discharge that crusts the eyelashes Answer: B Page Ref: 621 Objective: 25.4 4) Strabismus is also known as A) crossed eyes B) wandering eyes C) lazy eyes D) all of the above Answer: A Page Ref: 620 Objective: 25.1 5) When untreated, the _ resulting in blindness. A) pressure B) bacterium C) virus D) organism Answer: A Page Ref: 623 Objective: 25.4

associated with glaucoma can damage the optic nerve,

6) Glaucoma affects . A) older adults B) younger adults C) older females D) people of all ages and all races Answer: D Page Ref: 623 Objective: 25.4 4

7) About A) 10,000 B) 30,000 C) 50,000 D) 80,000 Answer: D Page Ref: 623 Objective: 25.4

people are totally blind from glaucoma.

8) Macular degeneration is considered one of the leading causes of blindness in Americans over age . A) 15 B) 35 C) 55 D) 75 Answer: C Page Ref: 622 Objective: 25.4 9) There is (are) A) one B) two C) no D) several Answer: C Page Ref: 623 Objective: 25.4

_ known treatment/s or cure/s for dry macular degeneration.

10) Treatment for strabismus includes A) surgery B) eye exercises C) eye patches D) all of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 620 Objective: 25.4

11) Signs and symptoms of corneal abrasion include A) excessive tearing B) gritty feeling C) blurred vision D) all of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 623 Objective: 25.4

12) react to dim light and are used in night vision. A) Rods B) Cones C) Orbits D) Discs Answer: A Page Ref: 618 Objective: 25.3 13) If the corneal abrasion becomes infected, treatment generally consists of A) antibiotics in the form of drops or ointment B) corrective lenses C) laser surgery D) mild analgesics Answer: A Page Ref: 623 Objective: 25.4

14) is a disorder that causes the bulging, bug-like appearance of one or both eyes. A) Exophthalmos B) Entropion C) Ectropion D) Blepharoptosis Answer: A Page Ref: 621 Objective: 25.1 15) There are specialized anatomic structures that receive the vibration of sound, as well as being sensitive to gravity and the movements of the head. These structures are connected to the cranial nerve by special nerve fibers. A) second B) fourth C) sixth D) eighth Answer: D Page Ref: 624 Objective: 25.6 16) Which of the following is NOT one the ear's three distinct sections? A) External B) Middle C) Inner D) Outer Answer: D Page Ref: 624 Objective: 25.6 6

17) An inner ear infection may result in A) conductive B) chronic C) sensorineural D) presbycusis Answer: A Page Ref: 625 Objective: 25.7

hearing loss.

18) Which of the following is NOT one of the functions of the middle ear? A) Transmitting sound vibrations B) Equalizing air pressure on both sides of the tympanic membrane C) Collecting sound waves and directing them through the auditory canal to the tympanic membrane D) Protecting the ear from potentially damaging loud noise Answer: C Page Ref: 624 Objective: 25.6 19) There are tiny (balance). A) hair B) single C) sensory D) nuclear Answer: A Page Ref: 625 Objective: 25.6

cells that function as the receptors for hearing and equilibrium

20) The cochlea is a spiral-shaped, bony structure that resembles a(n) A) turtle B) crab C) oyster D) snail Answer: D Page Ref: 625 Objective: 25.5

shell.

21) can be caused by viral or bacterial infections, some are related to sore throats or colds. A) Otitis media B) Otosclerosis C) Ménière's disease D) Presbycusis Answer: A Page Ref: 626 Objective: 25.8 7

22) Hordeolums are also known as A) bumps B) pink eyes C) sties D) lazy eyes Answer: C Page Ref: 621 Objective: 25.1

23) When occurs, the overgrowth of the tissue prevents the stapes from transmitting sound vibrations to the inner ear. A) otitis media B) otosclerosis C) Ménière's disease D) presbycusis Answer: B Page Ref: 627 Objective: 25.8 24) Symptoms of of the inner ear. A) otitis media B) otosclerosis C) Ménière's disease D) presbycusis Answer: C Page Ref: 627 Objective: 25.8

are associated with a change in fluid volume in the labyrinth portion

25) Although there is no known cure for _, symptoms of the disease can be controlled by reducing the body's retention of fluids, using a low-salt diet, avoiding caffeine and alcohol, and possibly taking diuretic drugs. A) otitis media B) otosclerosis C) Ménière's disease D) presbycusis Answer: C Page Ref: 627 Objective: 25.8

26) , which is most common in older adults, causes patients to have problems hearing high-pitched tones as well as normal verbal sounds during conversations. A) Otitis media B) Otosclerosis C) Ménière's disease D) Presbycusis Answer: D Page Ref: 627-628 Objective: 25.7 27) is frequently caused by hearing loss, loud noises, medicines, and other health problems, such as allergies, tumors, and problems arising from the cardiovascular system. A) Tinnitus B) Cerumen C) Tetanus D) Amblyopia Answer: A Page Ref: 596 Objective: 25.8 28) is a complex mixture of lipids that include waxy compounds. A) Lacrimal B) Cerumen C) Stapes D) Epithelial Answer: B Page Ref: 626 Objective: 25.1 29) hearing loss may be treated with cochlear implants. A) Conductive B) Temporary C) Sensorineural D) Vestibular Answer: C Page Ref: 625 Objective: 25.7 30) In actuality, part of what we refer to as smell is really A) sight B) sound C) touch D) taste Answer: D Page Ref: 628 Objective: 25.10, 11 9

31) are microscopic bumps on the tongue. A) Pock-marks B) Ossicles C) Mumps D) Taste buds Answer: D Page Ref: 628 Objective: 25.11 32) There are A) four B) three C) seven D) ten Answer: A Page Ref: 628 Objective: 25.11

commonly accepted types of taste cells.

33) is the last sense we lose before death. A) Taste B) Touch C) Sound D) Sight Answer: B Page Ref: 628 Objective: 25.12 34) The sense of A) taste B) vision C) touch D) hearing Answer: C Page Ref: 628 Objective: 25.12

is present even before birth.

35) During which trimester can a maternal infection cause visual abnormalities, as well as ear problems, including sensorineural hearing loss? A) First B) Second C) Third D) All of the above Answer: A Page Ref: 628 Objective: 25.12

36) is a condition caused by an increase in the amount of pressure being built up in the eye, brought on by an excessive amount of aqueous humor. A) Glaucoma B) Conjunctivitis C) Cataract D) Astigmatism Answer: A Page Ref: 623 Objective: 25.4 37) , or "lazy eye," is a disorder often seen in children that is caused by the eye muscles being weaker in one eye. A) Hyperopia B) Presbyopia C) Strabismus D) Amblyopia Answer: D Page Ref: 623 Objective: 25.1 38) Otitis externa, also known as A) cauliflower B) sailor's C) swimmer's D) corn Answer: C Page Ref: 626 Objective: 25.1

ear, is an inflammation of the outer ear.

39) is a frequent occurrence in which the wax becomes so hard it obstructs the auditory canal. A) Impacted cerumen B) Clogged iris C) Obstructed ear canal D) Impacted incus Answer: A Page Ref: 626 Objective: 25.1

40) Treatment for hearing loss caused by the gradual deterioration of the sensory receptors in the cochlea include . A) hearing aids B) diuretic drugs C) oral antibiotics D) all of the above Answer: A Page Ref: 628 Objective: 25.7 41) The eardrum is also called the A) pinna B) auditory canal C) auricle D) tympanic membrane Answer: D Page Ref: 626 Objective: 25.1 42) The organ of sound vibrations. A) Corti B) pinna C) incus D) auricle Answer: A Page Ref: 625 Objective: 25.5

is located in the cochlear duct and contains nerve endings to transmit

43) , ringing in the ears, is a symptom that is linked to both hearing loss and other ailments. A) Tinnitus B) Impaction C) Otitis D) Ménière's Answer: A Page Ref: 627 Objective: 25.7

44) Many of the disorders inherent to the inner ear are often accompanied by all of the following, EXCEPT . A) severe dizziness B) ringing in the ears C) loss of balance D) vomiting Answer: D Page Ref: 627 Objective: 25.8 45) Which is an alternative therapy for tinnitus? A) relaxation techniques B) hypnosis C) acupuncture D) all of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 627 Objective: 25.7 46) Our sense of A) smell B) sight C) touch D) taste Answer: A Page Ref: 628 Objective: 25.10

depends on olfactory cells located high in the roof of the nasal cavity.

47) suffer from otitis media more frequently. A) Adults B) Children C) Males D) Females Answer: B Page Ref: 626 Objective: 25.8 48) The shape of the auditory canal is A) square B) circular C) slightly curved D) jagged Answer: C Page Ref: 624 Objective: 25.5

49) is an inflammation of the eyelid. A) Nystaxis B) Retinopathy C) Blepharitis D) Glaucoma Answer: C Page Ref: 620 Objective: 25.4 50) is characterized by involuntary, repetitive, and rhythmic eye movements. A) Nystaxis B) Diabetic retinopathy C) Ectropian D) Glaucoma Answer: A Page Ref: 624 Objective: 25.4 51) The fifth taste cell, umami, was recognized as a A) salty B) savory C) bitter D) sweet Answer: B Page Ref: 628 Objective: 25.11

taste receptor.

52) Which disorder is associated with the outer ear? A) tinnitus B) ruptured tympanic membrane C) hearing loss D) otosclerosis Answer: B Page Ref: 626 Objective: 25.8 53) is a procedure in which a small incision is made and a drainage tube inserted through the tympanic membrane to drain fluid and reduce inner ear pressure. A) Hyperopia B) Myringotomy C) Radial keratotomy D) Lasik Answer: B Page Ref: 627 Objective: 25.1

54) is also known as nearsightedness. A) Myopia B) Hyperopia C) Presbyopia D) Diplopia Answer: A Page Ref: 620 Objective: 25.1 55) is poor depth perception and double vision. A) Hyperopia B) Diplopia C) Biplopia D) Presbyopia Answer: B Page Ref: 620 Objective: 25.1 56) All the following are part of the nose, EXCEPT A) external nares B) dorsum nasi C) alar cartilage D) anterior chamber Answer: D Page Ref: 628 Objective: 25.9

57) Once a smell receptor is activated, it sends the information to the brain via the olfactory nerves or . A) dorphos nerve B) cranial nerve I C) optic nerve D) fovea nerve II Answer: B Page Ref: 628 Objective: 25.10

Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting, 4e (Beaman) Chapter 26 The Circulatory System True/False Questions 1) The digestive system consists of the heart, the blood vessels, the blood, and the structures that make up the lymphatic system. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 632 Objective: 26.2 2) The contractions of the heart are controlled by the autonomic nervous system. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 633 Objective: 26.3 3) The heart is about the size of a fist and weighs approximately 9 ounces. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 632 Objective: 26.2 4) The left and right sides of the heart are separated by a wall called the septum. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 633 Objective: 26.2 5) The right atrium is the smallest chamber of the heart and has the thinnest wall. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 637 Objective: 26.2 6) After passing through the bicuspid valve, the blood is in the powerhouse chamber, the right ventricle. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 638 Objective: 26.3 7) Heart rates initiated by the SA node are typically 60 to 80 beats per minute in a healthy adult at rest. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 639 Objective: 26.3 8) The cardiac cycle includes all the events that occur during one complete heartbeat. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 639 Objective: 26.3 1

9) The arteries are the vessels that carry blood away from the heart. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 634 Objective: 26.3 10) The vessels that transport blood from peripheral tissues to the heart are the veins. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 635 Objective: 26.3 11) Blood pressure is defined as the measurement of the force exerted by the blood against the inner walls of the arteries. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 641 Objective: 26.1 12) The average resting blood pressure for a young adult is 80/120. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 641 Objective: 26.3 13) Pulse pressure is the difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressures. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 641 Objective: 26.6 14) Blood is a type of connective tissue made up of cells and plasma. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 641 Objective: 26.1 15) Three large veins comprise the vena cava. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 637 Objective: 26.3 16) Erythrocytes are white blood cells. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 642 Objective: 26.7 17) Capillaries are microscopic blood vessels located in the tissues. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 635 Objective: 26.3 2

18) The brachial artery is located in the lateral wrist, just proximal to the thumb. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 635 Objective: 26.2 19) The newborn's circulation begins to function immediately after birth. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 639 Objective: 26.4 20) The heart has its own vascular system. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 635 Objective: 26.3 21) With normal aging, the heart changes: heart valves toughen and become stiffer, and the cells within the heart may begin to slowly degenerate. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 639 Objective: 26.4 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The heart is a A) two B) three C) four D) five Answer: C Page Ref: 632 Objective: 26.1

-chambered muscular pump.

2) The heart is a muscular pump lying just A) right B) above C) beneath D) left Answer: D Page Ref: 632 Objective: 26.2

of the midline of the chest (mediastinum).

3) Which of the following is NOT one of the three linings of the heart? A) Outer, or pericardium B) Middle, or myocardium C) Innermost, or endocardium D) Topmost, or procardium Answer: D Page Ref: 632-633 Objective: 26.2 4) The major percentage of the heart is automaticity. A) cardiac B) smooth C) rough D) hard Answer: A Page Ref: 633 Objective: 26.3

muscle, which is the only muscle with

5) Which of the following is NOT a blood vessel? A) Artery B) Arteriole C) Venule D) Vesicle Answer: D Page Ref: 634-635 Objective: 26.2 6) Plasma is the A) cellular B) lipid C) protein D) fluid Answer: D Page Ref: 641 Objective: 26.7

portion of the blood.

7) , or high blood pressure, is a term used to describe a blood pressure that is higher than 140/90. A) Hypotension B) Dehydration C) Osmosis D) Hypertension Answer: D Page Ref: 653 Objective: 26.6 4

8) Blood pressure is usually measured in the A) brachial B) femoral C) radial D) carotid Answer: A Page Ref: 641 Objective: 26.6

artery with a sphygmomanometer.

9) blood pressure is measured during ventricular contraction, when the pressure is highest in the arteries. A) Diastolic B) Systolic C) Triastolic D) Monostolic Answer: B Page Ref: 641 Objective: 26.6 10) A normal platelet count is between A) 60 and 130,000 B) 150,000 and 400,000 C) 360,000 and 630,000 D) 630,000 and 3,600,000 Answer: B Page Ref: 642 Objective: 26.7

platelets per cubic millimeter of blood.

11) Which of the following is NOT one of the three major functions of blood? A) Transportation B) Defense C) Regulation D) Homeostasis Answer: D Page Ref: 643 Objective: 26.8 12) Blood is determined by the presence or absence of type A antigen and type B antigen, located on the surface of red blood cells. A) count B) type C) pressure D) color Answer: B Page Ref: 643-644 Objective: 26.8 5

13) Considered one of the leading causes of death in the United States for both men and women, at least two people per in the United States experience coronary artery disease (CAD)related events, according to the American Heart Association. A) minute B) hour C) day D) week Answer: A Page Ref: 650-651 Objective: 26.9 14) Coronary artery disease (CAD) affects people of all races and can be caused by A) stress B) lack of exercise C) unhealthy diet choices D) all of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 651 Objective: 26.9 15) The most common symptom of myocardial infarction is A) bloodshot eyes B) heavy breathing C) chest pain D) excessive thirst Answer: C Page Ref: 651 Objective: 26.9 16) The most important key for heart attack survival is A) covering with a blanket B) immediate intervention C) drinking plenty of fluids D) remaining calm Answer: B Page Ref: 652 Objective: 26.9

17) is often caused by prolonged inactivity, such as sitting during a long period of travel in an airplane or automobile, trauma, or lengthy bed rest following surgery. A) Thrombophilia B) Thrombophlebitis C) Thrombocytopenia D) Thrombopoiesis Answer: B Page Ref: 654 Objective: 26.9 6

18) Anemia is a condition involving the A) lining of the arteries B) white blood cells C) red blood cells D) platelets Answer: C Page Ref: 645 Objective: 26.9

19) The average adult body contains approximately A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6 Answer: C Page Ref: 642 Objective: 26.7 20) Hemoglobin is a red pigment that contains itself. A) hydrogen B) iron C) magnesium D) vitamin D Answer: B Page Ref: 642 Objective: 26.7

liters of blood.

. It has the ability to bind oxygen to

21) The is responsible for initiating the heartbeat. A) SA node B) AV node C) brachial node D) radial node Answer: A Page Ref: 639 Objective: 26.3 22) The cardiac cycle includes all the events that occur during one complete A) contraction B) circulation C) heartbeat D) rhythm Answer: C Page Ref: 639 Objective: 26.3 7

23) Phase of the cardiac cycle is called ventricular systole. During this phase, both ventricles are completing their contractions while the atria are relaxed. A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: D Page Ref: 640 Objective: 26.3 24) The A) radial B) brachial C) carotid D) temporal Answer: A Page Ref: 635 Objective: 26.2

artery is found in the lateral wrist, just proximal to the thumb.

25) The pulse is found in the groin. A) anterior tibial B) dorsalis pedis C) popliteal D) femoral Answer: D Page Ref: 635 Objective: 26.2 26) are more superficial than arteries and are used as phlebotomy sites for obtaining blood specimens and as sites to administer intravenous (IV) medications. A) Capillaries B) Veins C) Bronchioles D) Arterioles Answer: B Page Ref: 635 Objective: 26.2 27) Oxygenated blood travels through the arterioles to capillaries to the tissue cells, where the oxygen is deposited and material is picked up. A) oxygenated B) blood C) waste D) hemolytic Answer: C Page Ref: 635 Objective: 26.2 8

28) A(n) is an instrument used to measure blood pressure. A) sphygmomanometer B) otoscope C) endoscope D) spictomanometer Answer: A Page Ref: 641 Objective: 26.3 29) Normal pulse pressure is A) 10 to 30 B) 30 to 50 C) 50 to 70 D) 70 to 90 Answer: B Page Ref: 641 Objective: 26.6

points.

30) The formation of blood cells (hematopoiesis) in adults primarily occurs in the A) heart B) bone marrow C) liver D) brain Answer: B Page Ref: 642 Objective: 26.7 31) Plasma accounts for about A) 35 B) 55 C) 75 D) 95 Answer: B Page Ref: 643 Objective: 26.7

percent of the total volume of whole blood.

32) The function of hemoglobin is to carry A) plasma B) waste C) red blood cells D) oxygen Answer: D Page Ref: 642 Objective: 26.8

from the lungs throughout the body.

33) defend the body against infection. A) Erythrocytes B) Prokaryotes C) Leukocytes D) Eukaryotes Answer: C Page Ref: 642 Objective: 26.8 34) Someone with type blood has no antigens on the surface of the red blood cells. People with type blood are referred to as universal donors because their blood can be administered to most people regardless of the recipients' blood types. A) A; A B) B; B C) AB; AB D) O; O Answer: D Page Ref: 644 Objective: 26.8 35) Arteriosclerosis occurs over many years, during which the arteries of the circulatory system develop areas that become hard and brittle due to deposits of on the walls. A) calcium B) magnesium C) blood clots D) iron Answer: A Page Ref: 648 Objective: 26.9 36) The common symptoms of anemia include all of the following EXCEPT A) fatigue B) weakness C) fainting D) sight loss Answer: D Page Ref: 645 Objective: 26.9

37) There are three major approaches to treating leukemia, depending on the severity and phase of the disease. These include all of the following EXCEPT . A) partial lung removal B) bone marrow transplantation C) radiation D) chemotherapy Answer: A Page Ref: 654 Objective: 26.9 38) A new classification of hypertension is . This diagnosis is used on individuals who are over 18 with a blood pressure that ranges from 120/80 to 139/89 mmHg. A) posthypertension B) meningitis C) prehypertension D) endocarditis Answer: C Page Ref: 653 Objective: 26.9 39) Which suggestion is NOT a recommended lifestyle change for individuals with prehypertension? A) Reducing dietary fat B) Increasing exercise C) Increasing sodium D) Limiting alcohol consumption Answer: C Page Ref: 653 Objective: 26.9 40) A cerebrovascular accident (CVA), or , occurs when the blood supply to part of the brain is suddenly interrupted by an occlusion of a blood vessel (ischemia or embolism) or a ruptured blood vessel (hemorrhage) in the brain. A) unconsciousness B) affixation C) heart attack D) stroke Answer: D Page Ref: 654 Objective: 26.9

41) Which of the following is the cause of aneurysms? A) Hereditary B) Lifestyle C) Unknown D) Environment Answer: C Page Ref: 647 Objective: 26.9 42) veins are gnarled and enlarged. They are usually dilated and twisted, usually involving the superficial veins in the leg. A) Varicose B) Valvular C) Varices D) Ventricular Answer: A Page Ref: 656 Objective: 26.9 43) Steps to high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol and decrease total cholesterol include daily aerobic exercise, dietary increase of vegetables and grain products, weight loss, and smoking cessation. A) decrease B) increase C) normalize D) maintain Answer: B Page Ref: 651 Objective: 26.9 44) , or low blood pressure, is an abnormal condition in which a person's blood pressure is much lower than usual, generally below 90/60 mmHg. A) Hypotension B) Anemia C) Diabetes D) Hypertension Answer: A Page Ref: 653 Objective: 26.9

45) A person diagnosed with prehypertension is _ as those with lower blood pressure. A) three times B) twice C) four times D) not Answer: B Page Ref: 653 Objective: 26.9

as likely to progress to hypertension

46) Which of the following is TRUE of type O blood? A) It has neither A nor B surface antigens. B) It has only A surface antigens. C) It has A and B surface antigens. D) It has only B surface antigens. Answer: A Page Ref: 644 Objective: 26.7 47) Which of the following groups is most likely to be diagnosed with sickle-cell anemia? A) African Americans B) Native Americans C) Caucasians D) Asian Americans Answer: A Page Ref: 645 Objective: 26.9 48) If an Rh-negative female conceives a child with an Rh-positive male, what is the chance their fetus will be Rh-positive? A) 10 percent B) 30 percent C) 50 percent D) 75 percent Answer: C Page Ref: 645 Objective: 26.8 49) The drug RhoGAM is used to prevent A) erythroblastosis fetalis B) anemia C) leukemia D) hemolysis Answer: A Page Ref: 645 Objective: 26.8

50) is an indication of the tone of arterial walls and is helpful when assessing risk profiles for heart disease in patients. A) Pulse pressure B) Systemic circulation C) Pulmonary circulation D) Blood pressure Answer: A Page Ref: 641 Objective: 26.5 51) is recorded as a fraction; A) Blood pressure; pulse pressure B) Pulmonary circulation; systemic circulation C) Hemoglobin; a platelet fragment D) Rh factor; blood type Answer: A Page Ref: 641 Objective: 26.5 52) A child's blood pressure is A) lower; higher B) higher; lower C) slightly lower; the same D) higher; the same Answer: A Page Ref: 639 Objective: 26.4

is recorded as points.

than that of an adult; but the pulse rate is

Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting, 4e (Beaman) Chapter 27 The Immune System True/False Questions 1) The immune system consists of the tissues, organs, and physiologic processes used by the body to identify abnormal cells, foreign substances, and foreign tissues such as transplants, and defend against those substances that might be harmful to the body. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 660 Objective: 27.3 2) Between birth and puberty, the thymus gland is responsible for producing and maturing T cells for the body's defense. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 663 Objective: 27.4 3) The thymus gland is located in front of the sternum, in the anterior mediastinum. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 663 Objective: 27.2 4) The thymus manufactures infection-fighting X cells and helps distinguish normal Y cells from those that attack the body's tissues. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 663 Objective: 27.2 5) Multiple sclerosis is an autoimmune disease that attacks the skeletal system. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 665 Objective: 27.7 6) All lymph nodes are bean-shaped and about 3 inches long. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 661 Objective: 27.2 7) Located in the upper-left quadrant of the abdomen, the spleen produces antibodies to specific invading antigens. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 662 Objective: 27.2

8) Helper T cells are able to recall antigens that previously invaded the body. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 664 Objective: 27.5 9) Antibodies can both recognize and destroy antigens without any additional help from other cells. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 664 Objective: 27.3 10) Everyone is born with innate, or natural, immunity. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 665 Objective: 27.6 11) Passive immunity is "borrowed" from another source and only lasts for a short time. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 665 Objective: 27.6 12) An allergy is an abnormal response or hypersensitivity to a substance that does not normally cause a reaction in most people. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 666 Objective: 27.1 13) There are three sets of tonsils which include the palatine, the pharyngeal (adenoids) and the lingual. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 662 Objective: 27.2 14) Killer T cells lock onto the antigens that were targeted by helper T cells and destroy them. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 664 Objective: 27.5 15) Both normal cells and cancer cells die over time. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 667 Objective: 27.7 16) Cancer cells may clump together to form a benign tumor. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 667 Objective: 27.7 2

17) A growing tumor can cause the destruction of normal body cells around it. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 667 Objective: 27.7 18) A cancer patient's sense of smell sometimes changes while receiving chemotherapy. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 668 Objective: 27.7 19) Radiation therapy is a cancer treatment that involves creating mutated defense cells that are "programmed" to specifically target cancer cells. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 668 Objective: 27.1 20) Chronic fatigue syndrome may be associated with a person's age and emotional life. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 669 Objective: 27.7 21) There is only one known form of lymphedema. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 669 Objective: 27.7 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Asymptomatic means A) mild symptoms B) severe symptoms C) no symptoms D) few symptoms Answer: C Page Ref: 666 Objective: 27.1

2) Through a series of steps called the response, the immune system attacks the organisms and substances that invade body systems and cause disease. A) immune B) vaccine C) antigen D) antibody Answer: A Page Ref: 663 Objective: 27.5 3

3) Some authorities believe is a condition shared by many different underlying diseases rather than an entity unto itself. A) acute fatigue syndrome B) chronic fatigue syndrome C) acute fatigue disease D) chronic fatigue disease Answer: B Page Ref: 669 Objective: 27.7 4) People with a family history of chronic rheumatoid arthritis are develop the disease than other people. A) four B) three C) seven D) ten Answer: A Page Ref: 670 Objective: 27.7 5) The bone marrow contains stem cells that develop into A) red blood cells B) white blood cells C) cells of the immune system D) all of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 663 Objective: 27.2 6) The thymus gland A) grows B) shrinks C) remains the same D) disappears Answer: A Page Ref: 663 Objective: 27.4

_ times more likely to

during childhood.

7) The lymphatic system consists of all of the following, EXCEPT A) lungs B) lymph nodes C) spleen D) tonsils Answer: A Page Ref: 661,662 Objective: 27.2 4

8) The germinal centers of the lymph nodes are the primary locations where lymphocytes reproduce quite prolifically. A) A B) B C) C D) D Answer: B Page Ref: 662 Objective: 27.2

9) B lymphocytes that produce antibodies that will attract scavenger cells to antigens. A) filter B) digest C) unleash D) host Answer: B Page Ref: 662 Objective: 27.3

enemy

10) The function of the tonsils is to cells. A) produce B) increase C) filter D) assist Answer: C Page Ref: 662 Objective: 27.3

bacteria and aid in the formation of white blood

11) Which of the following is NOT one of the three types of immunity? A) Innate B) Active C) Passive D) Reactive Answer: D Page Ref: 665 Objective: 27.6

12) An example of breast milk. A) innate B) active C) passive D) reactive Answer: C Page Ref: 665 Objective: 27.6

immunity occurs when antibodies are passed to an infant through

13) Innate immunity consists of the physical barriers to foreign invaders, which include all of the following, EXCEPT . A) skin B) mucous membranes C) tears D) blood Answer: D Page Ref: 665 Objective: 27.6 14) active immunity occurs when the person is exposed to a live pathogen, develops the disease, and becomes immune as a result of the primary immune response. A) Obtained B) Acquired C) Inherited D) Expired Answer: B Page Ref: 665 Objective: 27.6 15) Immune system disorders occur when the immune response is A) inappropriate B) excessive C) absent D) all of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 665 Objective: 27.7

16) is a form of adrenaline that surges through the body causing an increase in blood pressure that counteracts the effects of an allergic reaction. A) Diphenhydramine B) Epinephrine C) Oncogenes D) Neutrophils Answer: B Page Ref: 667 Objective: 27.1 17) All of the following are associated with chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS), EXCEPT . A) gender B) food allergies C) yeast infections D) toxic chemical exposure Answer: A Page Ref: 669 Objective: 27.7 18) Infectious mononucleosis is commonly called A) nuke B) hugging disease C) nucleo D) mono Answer: D Page Ref: 669 Objective: 27.1

19) If neglected, infectious mononucleosis can lead to all of the following, EXCEPT A) liver inflammation B) hepatitis C) enlargement of the spleen D) heart attack Answer: D Page Ref: 669 Objective: 27.7 20) One of the most common signs seen in half of people diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a . A) lump B) tumor C) rash D) growth Answer: C Page Ref: 671 Objective: 27.7 7

21) Glomerulonephritis is an autoimmune disease of the A) urinary B) digestive C) nervous D) skeletal Answer: A Page Ref: 665 Objective: 27.1

system.

22) By age , the thymus gland is practically completely reduced in size and is composed only of fatty tissue. A) 12 B) 40 C) 75 D) 90 Answer: C Page Ref: 663 Objective: 27.4 23) Secondary lymphedema can be caused by A) frostbite B) burns C) allergies D) tumor growth Answer: B Page Ref: 670 Objective: 27.7

24) is an example of an autoimmune diseases. A) Systematic lupus erythematosus B) Lupus system exposure C) Erythematosus skin disease D) Chronic lupus inflammation Answer: A Page Ref: 670 Objective: 27.1 25) What is another name for a disease-causing organism? A) Biogen B) Bug C) Virogen D) Pathogen Answer: D Page Ref: 662 Objective: 27.1 8

26) Bone marrow produces A) B B) P C) T D) R Answer: A Page Ref: 663 Objective: 27.3

-cells.

27) Leukocytes are also called A) blood waste cells (BWCs) B) red blood cells (RBCs) C) white blood cells (WBCs) D) immune suppressed cells (ISCs) Answer: C Page Ref: 664 Objective: 27.1

28) Symptoms of infectious mononucleosis include all of the following, EXCEPT A) fever B) fatigue C) sore throat D) persistent cough Answer: D Page Ref: 669 Objective: 27.7 29) Anaphylaxis is an extreme and life-threatening A) autoimmune disease B) allergic response C) cancer D) birth defect Answer: B Page Ref: 667 Objective: 27.1 30) Leukocytes are A) white B) red C) yellow D) pink Answer: A Page Ref: 664 Objective: 27.1

blood cells.

31) percent of patients with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) are women. A) Sixty B) Seventy C) Eighty D) Ninety Answer: D Page Ref: 670 Objective: 27.7 32) Normal body cells grow and divide through A) division B) cytokinesis C) meiosis D) mitosis Answer: D Page Ref: 662 Objective: 27.3

33) Treatment for lymphedema aims to . A) slow the flow of lymphatic fluid B) increase the production of lymphatic fluid C) increase the flow of lymphatic fluid D) increase the accumulation of lymphatic fluid in the limbs Answer: C Page Ref: 670 Objective: 27.7 34) is an autoimmune disease of the digestive system. A) Lupus B) Arthritis C) Crohn's disease D) Multiple sclerosis Answer: C Page Ref: 665 Objective: 27.1 35) Most autoimmune diseases . A) have no cure B) can be cured if detected and treated in early stages C) reverse spontaneously, even without treatment D) affect the skeletal system Answer: A Page Ref: 671 Objective: 27.7

36) People stricken with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) can be without symptoms for up to . A) six months B) 24 months C) five years D) 10 years Answer: D Page Ref: 666 Objective: 27.7 37) There are A) five; IV B) four; IV C) five; I D) seven; VII Answer: B Page Ref: 668 Objective: 27.7

stages of cancer, with stage

being the most advanced.

38) Sometimes, cancer cells break away from the original tumor and travel to other areas of the body where they keep growing and can go on to form new tumors. This process is known as . A) metaphysis B) metamorphosis C) metabolism D) metastasis Answer: D Page Ref: 667 Objective: 27.1 39) Signs and symptoms of mononucleosis develop after the A) 1- to 2B) 3- to 6C) 4- to 8D) 10- to 12Answer: C Page Ref: 669 Objective: 27.7

week incubation period.

40) Certain risk factors may make a person predisposed to cancer. These include the presence of all of the following, EXCEPT . A) radiation B) tobacco C) chemicals D) high blood pressure Answer: D Page Ref: 668 Objective: 27.7 41) Cancer cells usually group or clump to form _ A) nuclei B) neurons C) tumors D) lymph nodes Answer: C Page Ref: 667 Objective: 27.7

42) The terms and immunoglobulin are often used interchangeably. They are found in the blood and tissue fluids, as well as many secretions. A) pathogen B) carcinogenic C) hemorrhoids D) antibody Answer: D Page Ref: 664 Objective: 27.1 43) A receptor on the cell of a foreign substance that invades the body is called a(n) A) invader B) antibody C) enhancer D) antigen Answer: D Page Ref: 662 Objective: 27.1 44) The pharynx. A) liver B) lungs C) tonsils D) spleen Answer: C Page Ref: 662 Objective: 27.2

is (are) located in the depressions of the mucous membranes of the throat and

45) The purpose of macrophages is to A) create and foster B) engulf and digest C) expel and destroy D) increase and multiply Answer: B Page Ref: 662 Objective: 27.3

pathogens in the lymph.

46) The immunoglobin found in all body fluids, can pass the placenta from mother to fetus, and is the most abundant in the body. A) igA B) igE C) igG D) igM Answer: C Page Ref: 664 Objective: 27.5 47) An inherited immunity to certain diseases is called A) natural B) active C) associative D) artificial Answer: A Page Ref: 665 Objective: 27.6

immunity.

48) The progression to full-blown Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS) is diagnosed when a T lymphocyte count is below . A) 500 B) 400 C) 300 D) 200 Answer: D Page Ref: 666 Objective: 27.1 49) Another name for A) lymphosarcoma B) Hodgkin's disease C) strep throat D) peritonsillar abscess Answer: D Page Ref: 666 Objective: 27.1

is quinsy sore throat.

50) This form of treatment causes cancer tumors to shrink. A) Radiation therapy B) Chemotherapy C) Immunotherapy D) Acupressure Answer: A Page Ref: 669 Objective: 27.7 51) Chemotherapy is most often administered A) orally B) intravenously C) subcutaneously D) buccally Answer: B Page Ref: 668 Objective: 27.7

52) Which of the following is described as malignant disease of lymphatic tissue? A) Lymphadenitis B) Lymphoma C) Lymphosarcoma D) Lymphangioma Answer: C Page Ref: 666 Objective: 27.7 53) One cause of secondary lymphedema is A) systemic lupus erythematosus B) smoking C) infectious mononucleosis D) removal of lymph nodes for cancer treatment Answer: D Page Ref: 670 Objective: 27.7

54) An autoimmune disorder of the central nervous system in which the myelin sheath of the nerves is attacked is . A) multiple sclerosis B) Hodgkin's disease C) lymphangioma D) sarcoidosis Answer: A Page Ref: 666 Objective: 27.7 14

Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting, 4e (Beaman) Chapter 28 The Respiratory System True/False Questions 1) The respiratory system is responsible for delivering oxygen to the cells of the body. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 674 Objective: 28.2 2) When we breathe, we inhale carbon dioxide and exhale oxygen. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 675 Objective: 28.2 3) The diaphragm is a dome-shaped muscle that separates the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 680 Objective: 28.3 4) The organs of the respiratory system extend from the nose to the lungs and are divided into the upper and lower respiratory tracts. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 689 Objective: 28.3 5) The nose is the organ of smell and is part of the apparatus of respiration and voice. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 676 Objective: 28.3 6) The nasal openings that bring air into the nose are called nares. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 676 Objective: 28.1 7) The septum is a wall of cartilage. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 676 Objective: 28.1 8) Each side of the nose has three conchae (inferior, middle, and superior). Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 676 Objective: 28.3 1

9) Turbinates form a "maze" for air to move around, allowing for cooling of the air and removal of foreign particles by the mucus produced from the mucous membranes. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 676 Objective: 28.2 10) The lower respiratory tract consists of the nose, pharynx, and throat. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 689 Objective: 28.3 11) The nose is separated from the mouth by the palatine bones of the skull. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 676 Objective: 28.3 12) The nose drains five pairs of paranasal sinuses. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 677 Objective: 28.2 13) The maxillary sinuses are located over the eyebrows, whereas the frontal sinuses are found over the medial portion of the cheekbones. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 677 Objective: 28.3 14) The paranasal sinuses drain fluid from the nose. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 676 Objective: 28.2 15) The larynx is the Adam's apple. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 677 Objective: 28.1 16) The respiratory rate of a healthy adult is 15 to 20 breaths per minute. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 679 Objective: 28.4 17) The bronchi are the two main branches from the nose to the trachea. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 678 Objective: 28.3 2

18) Inhalation elongates the thorax. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 681 Objective: 28.5 19) Respiratory rates increase as a child grows and develops. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 679 Objective: 28.4 20) Due to the skeletal changes that come with aging, breathing in older adults is often diaphragm-based rather than rib-based. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 679 Objective: 28.4 21) The common cold is a bacterial infection of the upper respiratory tract. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 683 Objective: 28.6 22) Pollinosis is another name for hay fever. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 684 Objective: 28.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Respiration is achieved through all of the following, EXCEPT A) mouth B) nose C) trachea D) heart Answer: D Page Ref: 675 Objective: 28.3 2) The average adult's lungs contain about A) 6 B) 60 C) 600 D) 900 Answer: C Page Ref: 679 Objective: 28.3

million alveoli surrounded by capillaries.

3) The cells of the alveoli produce a fatty substance known as A) mucous B) orthopnea C) surfactant D) pleura Answer: C Page Ref: 679 Objective: 28.1

4) In addition to being the organ of smell, the nose is responsible for performing all of the following functions, EXCEPT . A) being a passageway to move air B) warming and moistening inhaled air C) trapping dust and pollen D) containing dust, pollen, and air Answer: D Page Ref: 676 Objective: 28.2 5) The nasal mucosa produces about 1 A) ounce B) cup C) quart D) gallon Answer: C Page Ref: 676 Objective: 28.3

per day of mucus.

6) Which of the following is NOT one of the three parts of the pharynx? A) Nasopharynx B) Oropharynx C) Laryngopharynx D) Opharynx Answer: D Page Ref: 677 Objective: 28.3 7) The thyroid cartilage, the largest of the cartilage structures, is also known as the A) wind pipe B) air sacs C) voice box D) Adam's apple Answer: D Page Ref: 677 Objective: 28.1

8) The are the two main branches of the trachea that stretch between the trachea and the lungs. A) radiuses B) brachioles C) bronchi D) alveoli Answer: C Page Ref: 678 Objective: 28.3 9) The are small air sacs that support a network of capillaries used for oxygen and carbon dioxide transfer. A) trachea B) alveoli C) bronchi D) bronchioles Answer: B Page Ref: 678-679 Objective: 28.1 10) At birth, the lungs are gray. A) bluish B) reddish C) pinkish D) greenish Answer: C Page Ref: 679 Objective: 28.4

, but as adulthood approaches, the lungs turn a dark slate

11) A newborn has a respiratory rate of A) 30 to 80 B) 20 to 40 C) 15 to 20 D) 20 to 25 Answer: A Page Ref: 679 Objective: 28.4

_ breaths per minute.

12) When the vocal cords are long and relaxed A) low B) high-pitched C) loud D) soft Answer: A Page Ref: 677 Objective: 28.2

sounds are produced.

13) The nose drains the _ A) four B) three C) six D) five Answer: A Page Ref: 677 Objective: 28.2

pairs of paranasal sinuses.

14) A 5-year-old takes _ A) 10 to 15 B) 20 to 25 C) 8 to 12 D) 15 to 20 Answer: B Page Ref: 679 Objective: 28.4

breaths per minute.

15) Most individuals with asthma carry a/an pirbuterol. A) exhaler B) injection C) capsule D) inhaler Answer: D Page Ref: 682 Objective: 28.6 16) Smoking is responsible for (COPD) in United States. A) 60 to 65 B) 75 to 80 C) 80 to 85 D) 85 to 90 Answer: D Page Ref: 682 Objective: 28.6

of a beta-2 medication called albuterol or

percent of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

17) Chronic bronchitis is found in higher-than-normal rates among all of the following, EXCEPT . A) coal miners B) grain handlers C) metal molders D) postal workers Answer: D Page Ref: 683 Objective: 28.6 18) Symptoms of acute bronchitis include all of the following, EXCEPT A) headaches B) fever and chills C) yellow, white, or green phlegm D) hacking cough Answer: A Page Ref: 683 Objective: 28.6

19) Which of the following is a cause of lung cancer? A) Exposure to asbestos B) Passive smoking C) Smoking D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 685 Objective: 28.6 20) is by far the most common reason people develop emphysema, and it is also the most preventable cause. A) Tobacco smoking B) Heredity C) Obesity D) Depression Answer: A Page Ref: 683 Objective: 28.6 21) is the most common symptom of emphysema. A) Shortness of breath B) Coughing C) Bloodshot eyes D) Blotting Answer: A Page Ref: 683 Objective: 28.6 7

22) More than A) 22 B) 20 C) 200 D) 2,000 Answer: C Page Ref: 683 Objective: 28.6

viruses can cause a common cold and symptoms tend to vary greatly.

23) The common-sense precautions to help slow the spread of cold viruses include all of the following, EXCEPT . A) hand washing B) scrubbing shared items C) taking antibiotics D) using tissues to sneeze and cough into Answer: C Page Ref: 684 Objective: 28.6 24) Most people who get the flu recover completely in one to two , but some develop serious and potentially life-threatening medical complications, such as pneumonia. A) hours B) days C) weeks D) months Answer: C Page Ref: 684 Objective: 28.6 25) Symptoms of Legionnaires' disease generally start infected. A) 2 to 10 B) 12 to 20 C) one to three D) 7 to 10 Answer: A Page Ref: 685 Objective: 28.6 26) About A) 25 B) 45 C) 65 D) 90 Answer: D Page Ref: 685 Objective: 28.6

days after a person has been

percent of lung cancers occur in smokers or former smokers.

27) The most widely used therapies for lung cancer are all of the following, EXCEPT A) physical therapy B) surgery C) chemotherapy D) radiation therapy Answer: A Page Ref: 685 Objective: 28.6 28) Pertussis, or A) asthma B) croup C) sinusitis D) whooping cough Answer: D Page Ref: 685 Objective: 28.1

, is a bacterial infection of the upper respiratory tract.

29) Which of the following is a symptom of tuberculosis? A) hemoptysis B) night sweats C) fatigue D) all of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 689 Objective: 28.6 30) Treatment of pneumonia includes all of the following, EXCEPT A) fluids B) rest C) antibiotics D) exercise Answer: D Page Ref: 686 Objective: 28.6

31) Early symptoms of pulmonary edema include all of the following. EXCEPT A) shortness of breath upon exertion B) sneezing C) difficulty breathing in positions other than sitting upright D) leg swelling Answer: B Page Ref: 687 Objective: 28.6

32) Treatment of tuberculosis usually takes A) two to four B) three to five C) six to eight D) 9 to 12 Answer: D Page Ref: 689 Objective: 28.6

months to eradicate the bacteria.

33) A pulmonary embolism (PE) is a blood clot in the A) heart B) liver C) lung D) stomach Answer: C Page Ref: 687 Objective: 28.1

34) The steps involved in inhalation include all the following, EXCEPT A) air is pushed out of the lungs B) rib cage moves up and out C) diaphragm contracts and moves down D) pressure in the lungs decrease Answer: A Page Ref: 680 Objective: 28.5 35) With A) chronic B) acute C) mute D) remote Answer: A Page Ref: 688 Objective: 28.6

sinusitis, infection or inflammation may last for three months or longer.

36) Tuberculosis bacteria can grow anywhere in the body, but are most common in the . A) liver B) lungs C) heart D) kidneys Answer: B Page Ref: 688 Objective: 28.6

37) All of the following are individuals who are immunosuppressed and are most at risk for developing tuberculosis, EXCEPT . A) teenagers B) diabetics C) infants D) the elderly Answer: A Page Ref: 688 Objective: 28.6 38) Hair-like projections, called , trap dust, pollens, and other foreign matter and prevent it from entering the nasal cavity. A) cells B) follicles C) cilia D) projectiles Answer: C Page Ref: 676 Objective: 28.1 39) is a chronic, inflammatory disease typically caused when allergens or other irritating substances cause swelling in the lining of the trachea and bronchial tubes, aggravating sensitive tissues. A) Emphysema B) Alzheimer's C) Asthma D) Autism Answer: C Page Ref: 681 Objective: 28.1 40) is a disease that attacks the structure of the alveoli in the lungs causing permanent holes to develop in the alveolar walls, making them unable to hold their shape properly on exhalation. A) Emphysema B) Bronchitis C) Pleurisy D) Tuberculosis Answer: A Page Ref: 683 Objective: 28.6

41) All the following are steps in exhalation EXCEPT A) rib cage moves down and in B) diaphragm contracts and moves down C) pressure in the lungs increase D) air is pushed out Answer: B Page Ref: 680 Objective: 28.5 42) Hemoptysis means _ A) to cough up blood B) to have blood in the urine C) to suffocate D) to have a lack of oxygen Answer: A Page Ref: 683 Objective: 28.1

43) cancer is the leading cause of cancer deaths in both women and men in the United States and throughout the world. A) Throat B) Colon C) Pancreatic D) Lung Answer: D Page Ref: 685 Objective: 28.6 44) The symptoms of a common cold usually appear about cold virus. A) one to three B) three to five C) five to seven D) seven to nine Answer: A Page Ref: 683 Objective: 28.6

days after exposure to a

45) Conventional treatment for acute bronchitis may consist of all of the following simple measures, EXCEPT . A) plenty of rest B) aspirin C) avoiding smoke and fumes D) abundant fluids Answer: B Page Ref: 683 Objective: 28.6 12

46) Which of the following is a risk factor for emphysema? A) Male gender B) Air pollution C) Heredity D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 683 Objective: 28.6 47) The lungs are A) C-shaped B) spongy C) rigid D) all of the above Answer: B Page Ref: 679 Objective: 28.3

48) After age A) 25 B) 35 C) 45 D) 65 Answer: B Page Ref: 679 Objective: 28.4

lung function begins to decline.

49) The A) larynx B) uvula C) epiglottis D) pleura Answer: C Page Ref: 677 Objective: 28.3

covers the trachea when swallowing.

50) The outer surface of the lungs is covered by the A) hilum B) uvula C) epiglottis D) pleura Answer: D Page Ref: 679 Objective: 28.3

51) The area on the central portion of each lung where the primary bronchus, arteries, veins, and nerves enter and exit the lung is called a _. A) hilum B) uvula C) apex D) pleura Answer: A Page Ref: 679 Objective: 28.3 52) Older adults are more prone to respiratory infections for all of the following reasons EXCEPT . A) cilia function less effectively B) mucous membranes produce more mucus C) less foreign matter is trapped before entering the lungs D) lungs lose their flexibility Answer: B Page Ref: 679 Objective: 28.4 53) The cartilage rings in the trachea are A) L B) H C) T D) C Answer: D Page Ref: 677 Objective: 28.3

_-shaped.

54) What are the two processes of ventilation? A) Inhalation and inspiration B) Dyspnea and apnea C) Inhalation and exhalation D) Expiration and exhalation Answer: C Page Ref: 680 Objective: 28.5

55) All the following are TRUE regarding severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS), EXCEPT . A) the virus had been found in a catlike wild animal eaten in China B) the virus can remain alive for up to 24 hours after airborne droplets make contact with a surface C) people with SARS are placed in isolation during treatment D) approximately one out of every ten people who contract the disease are unable to survive Answer: B Page Ref: 688 Objective: 28.6

Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting, 4e (Beaman) Chapter 29 The Digestive System True/False Questions 1) The digestive system contains the organs that are responsible for getting oxygen into and out of the body. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 692 Objective: 29.2 2) The main part of the digestive system is the gastrointestinal tract. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 692 Objective: 29.3 3) The gastrointestinal tract is like a long tube; in adults, it is some 29 feet long. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 692 Objective: 29.3 4) The three main functions of the digestive system are digestion, absorption, and elimination. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 692 Objective: 29.2 5) In the mouth, stomach, and small intestine, the mucosa contains antibiotic juices that help digest food. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 694 Objective: 29.3 6) The gingivae is the cavity formed by the hard and soft palates, lips, and cheeks. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 694 Objective: 29.3 7) Humans have two sets of teeth. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 694 Objective: 29.3 8) The permanent set of teeth includes eight incisors, four canines (cuspids), and eight molars. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 695 Objective: 29.3 1

9) The deciduous teeth are also known as the cuspids. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 694 Objective: 29.1 10) The deciduous teeth are larger than the permanent teeth but generally resemble the permanent teeth. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 694 Objective: 29.3 11) The enamel is the hardest and most compact part of the tooth. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 695 Objective: 29.3 12) Deciduous teeth start to erupt from the gums when a child is about six months old and finish erupting when the child is about two years old. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 695 Objective: 29.3 13) The upper canines, also known as the "stomach teeth," are larger than the lower canines. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 695 Objective: 29.3 14) The act of chewing is called mastication. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 693 Objective: 29.1 15) Both air and food pass through the pharynx. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 696 Objective: 29.4 16) The gingivae, or gums, hold the teeth in place. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 694 Objective: 29.1, 29.4 17) The presence of gallstones in the gallbladder is called cholelithiasis. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 698 Objective: 29.1 2

18) Bile is a digestive juice that emulsifies fats. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 698 Objective: 29.1 19) Anyone who has not had an appendectomy can get appendicitis. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 698 Objective: 29.7 20) Changes in taste and food preferences are common as individuals age. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 702 Objective: 29.8 21) Possible causes of cirrhosis include long-term excessive consumption of alcohol, obesity, and hepatitis B or C. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 701 Objective: 29.7 22) The collection or accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity is called enteritis. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 699 Objective: 29.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The digestive system contains all of the following organs EXCEPT the _ A) intestines B) mouth C) esophagus D) lungs Answer: D Page Ref: 693 Objective: 29.3 2) All of the following are pairs of salivary glands EXCEPT A) sublingual B) parotid C) submandibular D) bilingual Answer: D Page Ref: 697 Objective: 29.5

3) Humans have A) 18 B) 20 C) 48 D) 82 Answer: B Page Ref: 694 Objective: 29.3

deciduous (baby) teeth.

4) Which is NOT considered one of the three main parts of a tooth? A) Cementum B) Crown C) Root D) Neck Answer: A Page Ref: 695 Objective: 29.3 5) Risk factors for hiatal hernia include A) obesity B) frequent bending over C) frequent coughing D) all of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 705 Objective: 29.7

6) A(n) is an abnormal protrusion of an organ or part of an organ through the wall of the body cavity where it is located. A) hernia B) hemorrhoid C) ulcer D) pimple Answer: A Page Ref: 705 Objective: 29.1 7) A(n) is a condition in which the upper portion of the stomach protrudes into the chest cavity through an opening of the diaphragm called the esophageal hiatus. A) ulcer B) hemorrhoid C) hiatal hernia D) pimple Answer: C Page Ref: 705 Objective: 29.1 4

8) The first 12 inches of the small intestine are the A) duodenum B) jejunum C) anonym D) ileum Answer: A Page Ref: 696 Objective: 29.3

9) The second 8 feet of the small intestine are called the A) duodenum B) jejunum C) anonym D) ileum Answer: B Page Ref: 696 Objective: 29.3 10) The last 12 feet of the small intestine are called the A) duodenum B) jejunum C) anonym D) ileum Answer: D Page Ref: 696 Objective: 29.3

11) The colon makes up the bulk of the large intestine and is divided into all of the following parts EXCEPT the colon. A) ascending B) transverse C) descending D) reverse Answer: D Page Ref: 697 Objective: 29.3 12) The accessory organs of digestion include all of the following EXCEPT the A) salivary glands B) gallbladder C) stomach D) pancreas Answer: C Page Ref: 697 Objective: 29.5

13) The glands are located in or near the mouth and produce saliva in response to the sight, smell, taste, or mental image of food. A) parathyroid B) thyroid C) salivary D) pineal Answer: C Page Ref: 697 Objective: 29.5 14) The liver stores all of the following EXCEPT A) vitamin A B) vitamin B12 C) vitamin C D) vitamin D Answer: C Page Ref: 698 Objective: 29.6 15) The small intestine is A) 12 B) 21 C) 32 D) 43 Answer: B Page Ref: 696 Objective: 29.3 16) The A) liver B) lungs C) kidneys D) pancreas Answer: A Page Ref: 698 Objective: 29.3

feet long and about 1 inch in diameter.

is (are) the largest glandular organ(s) and weigh(s) about 3.5 lbs.

17) emulsifies fats before the products of fat metabolism are released into the bloodstream. A) Stomach acid B) Bile C) Insulin D) Heparin Answer: B Page Ref: 698 Objective: 29.6 6

18) is essential for blood clotting. A) Bile B) Fibrinogen C) Heparin D) Blood proteins Answer: B Page Ref: 698 Objective: 29.6 19) The liver plays an essential role in the metabolism of A) carbohydrates B) fats C) proteins D) all of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 698 Objective: 29.6 20) The stomach can hold about A) 0.5 to 1 B) 1 to 1.5 C) 3 to 3.3 D) 4 to 4.5 Answer: B Page Ref: 696 Objective: 29.3 21) Salivary glands secrete A) pus B) blood C) saliva D) bile Answer: C Page Ref: 697 Objective: 29.6

liter(s) of food and fluid.

through openings into the mouth.

22) Which permanent teeth on the upper dental arch erupt when a child is age 10 to 11? A) First premolars B) Lateral incisors C) Central incisors D) First molars Answer: A Page Ref: 695 Objective: 29.3

23) Which permanent teeth on the upper dental arch erupt when a child is age 10 to 12? A) Third molars B) Second molars C) Second premolars D) Canines Answer: C Page Ref: 695 Objective: 29.3 24) Nutrients are absorbed into tiny capillaries and lymph vessels located in the walls of the small intestine and transmitted to the body cells via the system. A) respiratory B) digestive C) circulatory D) nervous Answer: C Page Ref: 696-697 Objective: 29.3 25) Approximately A) 5 B) 10 C) 25 D) 50 Answer: C Page Ref: 702 Objective: 29.8

percent of adults aged 60 and older wear full dentures.

26) Colitis is a(n) A) inflammation B) parasitic invasion C) tumor D) tear Answer: A Page Ref: 702 Objective: 29.1

of the large intestine.

27) prevents the clotting of blood. A) Bile B) Fibrinogen C) Heparin D) Blood protein Answer: C Page Ref: 698 Objective: 29.6

28) Infants may suffer from digestive system disorders such as GERD and A) pyloric stenosis B) diverticulosis C) colitis D) irritable bowel syndrome Answer: A Page Ref: 702 Objective: 29.8

29) Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) occurs when the muscle connecting the esophagus to the does not close completely or tightly. A) stomach B) liver C) gallbladder D) pancreas Answer: A Page Ref: 704 Objective: 29.7 30) The most frequent location for peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is the the small intestine. A) rectum B) stomach C) liver D) duodenum Answer: D Page Ref: 708 Objective: 29.7 31) Of patients with pancreatic cancer, removed at the time of diagnosis. A) 5 to 10 B) 15 to 20 C) 25 to 30 D) 35 to 40 Answer: B Page Ref: 708 Objective: 29.7

_, the upper part of

percent can have the disease surgically

32) is (are) the only treatment and cure for inguinal hernia. A) Radiation therapy B) Surgery C) Chemotherapy D) Steroid medications Answer: B Page Ref: 706 Objective: 29.7 9

33) The incidence of diverticulosis increases with A) weight B) consumption of red meat C) smoking D) age Answer: D Page Ref: 703-704 Objective: 29.7

34) Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for developing GERD? A) Heredity B) Smoking C) Obesity D) Hiatal hernia Answer: A Page Ref: 704 Objective: 29.7 35) A patient who is constipated has the time. A) fewer than six B) four to five C) three to four D) two or fewer Answer: D Page Ref: 699 Objective: 29.7

bowel movements per week at least 25 percent of

36) Cirrhosis may be caused by a condition in which too much is stored in the liver or by inflammation and blockage of the ducts that carry bile out of the liver. A) fat B) protein C) water D) blood Answer: A Page Ref: 701 Objective: 29.7 37) Anyone can get appendicitis, but it occurs most often between ages A) 5 and 10 B) 10 and 30 C) 30 and 65 D) 65 and 85 Answer: B Page Ref: 698 Objective: 29.7 10

38) The appendix is located in the A) lower right B) upper left C) lower left D) upper right Answer: A Page Ref: 693, 701 Objective: 29.3 39) Any bile stored in the gallbladder is by the liver. A) five to six B) six to 10 C) 10 to 15 D) 15 to 20 Answer: B Page Ref: 698 Objective: 29.6

portion of the large intestine.

_ times more concentrated than bile produced

40) The best way to avoid diverticulosis is to eat a diet high in A) protein B) fiber C) fish D) fruit Answer: B Page Ref: 704 Objective: 29.7 41) When medications and basic treatments do not work for GERD, the cardiac sphincter and its surrounding tissues, can be performed. A) angiogram B) gastric bypass C) fundoplication D) colonoscopy Answer: C Page Ref: 705 Objective: 29.7

, which tightens

42) A(n) is a dilated, or enlarged, vein in the walls of the anus or rectum that is usually caused by untreated constipation but occasionally is associated with chronic diarrhea. A) hemorrhoid B) ulcer C) inguinal hernia D) hiatal hernia Answer: A Page Ref: 705 Objective: 29.1 43) With an inguinal hernia, males may have swelling in the A) thigh B) stomach C) scrotum D) neck Answer: C Page Ref: 706 Objective: 29.7

44) About people have hernia repairs each year. A) 750 to 1,000 B) 7,500 to 10,000 C) 75,000 to 100,000 D) 750,000 to 1 million Answer: D Page Ref: 707 Objective: 29.7 45) The pancreas has cells that secrete the hormones insulin and glucagon, which glucose levels in the blood. A) raise and lower B) eliminate C) store D) imbalance Answer: A Page Ref: 698 Objective: 29.6 46) The is a large, saclike organ that converts food into chyme. A) liver B) pancreas C) stomach D) small intestine Answer: C Page Ref: 696 Objective: 29.1 12

47) The esophagus, a collapsible tube about 10 inches long, starts at the pharynx and ends at the . A) stomach B) small intestine C) large intestine D) anus Answer: A Page Ref: 696 Objective: 29.3 48) Humans have A) 23 B) 32 C) 45 D) 54 Answer: B Page Ref: 694 Objective: 29.3

permanent teeth.

49) Which of the following is NOT a type of taste bud? A) Chewy B) Sweet C) Salty D) Sour Answer: A Page Ref: 694 Objective: 29.3 50) The function of the large intestine is to complete digestion and A) ingestion B) absorption C) contortion D) mastication Answer: B Page Ref: 697 Objective: 29.2 51) All of the following are digestive enzymes EXCEPT A) protease. B) alveolus. C) amylase. D) lipase. Answer: B Page Ref: 693 Objective: 29.2

52) In older adults (the) becomes weaker, slowing the movement of food and waste throughout the digestive system. A) peristalsis B) pyloric sphincter C) chyme D) mastication Answer: A Page Ref: 702 Objective: 29.8 53) is an eating disorder that is characterized by recurrent binge eating followed by purging of the food with laxatives and vomiting. A) Anorexia B) Bulimia C) Crohn's disease D) Dyspepsia Answer: B Page Ref: 699 Objective: 29.1 54) Vomiting with force is known as A) bulimia B) dyspepsia C) emesis D) dyspnea Answer: C Page Ref: 699 Objective: 29.1

Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting, 4e (Beaman) Chapter 30 The Urinary System True/False Questions 1) The urinary system consists of organs that produce, filter, and excrete urine from the body. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 713 Objective: 30.2 2) Ureters transport urine from the kidneys to the urinary bladder. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 713, 714 Objective: 30.2 3) The kidneys are a pair of bean-shaped organs located at the back of the abdominal cavity, against the muscles of the back, and on either side of the spinal column. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 713-714 Objective: 30.3 4) The urinary meatus is a temporary reservoir for urine. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 715 Objective: 30.3 5) The renal fascia is a smooth, fibrous, connective membrane that loosely adheres to the surface of the kidney. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 714 Objective: 30.3 6) The adipose capsule is a sheath of fibrous tissue that anchors the kidney to the surrounding structures and ensures that normal organ position is maintained. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 714 Objective: 30.2, 30.3 7) There are two urethras in the human urinary system. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 713, 715 Objective: 30.3 8) The urinary bladder is a muscular sac that is located in the pelvic cavity. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 715 Objective: 30.3 1

9) When the bladder is empty, the walls of the bladder feel firm because they are thin. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 715 Objective: 30.3 10) In males, the urethra transports both urine and semen. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 715 Objective: 30.3 11) During filtration, blood enters the nephron through the walls of the glomerular capillaries and Bowman's capsule. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 716 Objective: 30.5 12) Urine consists of 5 percent water and 95 percent solid substances. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 715 Objective: 30.6 13) The wall of the urinary bladder consists of two layers. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 715 Objective: 30.3 14) The average adult needs to void when the bladder contains 600 to 650 mL of urine. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 715 Objective: 30.2 15) In females, the urethra is about 3 cm long and is only responsible for the transport of urine. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 715 Objective: 30.3 16) Hydrogen ions and uric acid are waste products found in urine. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 716 Objective: 30.5 17) Dehydration may occur more quickly in an older adult because the ability to conserve water and sodium decreases with age. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 716 Objective: 30.4 2

18) The kidneys of a fetus begin forming urine at the fifteenth week of gestation. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 716 Objective: 30.4 19) Wearing a wet diaper can make a child more susceptible to a urinary tract infection. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 716 Objective: 30.7 20) Painful or difficult urination is called enuresis. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 717 Objective: 30.7 21) In a patient with cystitis, a urinalysis will most likely reveal the presence of a bacterial infection. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 717 Objective: 30.7 22) Stress incontinence is the least common form of incontinence. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 718 Objective: 30.7 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Urine flows from the kidneys through two long, thin tubes called A) tubules B) urethras C) capillaries D) ureters Answer: D Page Ref: 715 Objective: 30.3 2) The normal adult bladder can store up to A) 250 B) 500 C) 750 D) 1000 Answer: B Page Ref: 715 Objective: 30.3

milliliters of urine.

3) All of the following are components of the urinary system EXCEPT A) the ureters B) the kidneys C) the urethra D) the pancreas Answer: D Page Ref: 713 (Fig 30-1) Objective: 30.3

4) help the body to maintain fluid balance by regulating the amount of fluid and electrolytes reabsorbed into the blood and the amount excreted in the urine. A) Ureters B) Hormones C) Nephrons D) Neutrons Answer: C Page Ref: 714 Objective: 30.3 5) Which of the following is NOT one of the three layers of the ureter wall? A) Inner coat of mucous membrane B) Middle coat of smooth muscle C) Outer layer of fibrous tissue D) Upper layer of smooth mucous tissue Answer: D Page Ref: 715 Objective: 30.3 6) The formation of urine involves all of the following processes EXCEPT A) digestion B) filtration C) reabsorption D) tubular secretion Answer: A Page Ref: 716 Objective: 30.5 7) Dialysis is the use of an external cases of acute or chronic renal failure. A) neutralizer B) filter C) bladder D) oscillator Answer: B Page Ref: 721 Objective: 30.7

to remove toxins and maintain water balance in

8) Ascites is . A) fluid in the abdomen B) protein in the urine C) fluid retention D) excessive urination Answer: A Page Ref: 720 Objective: 30.1, 30.7 9) Most cases of pyelonephritis are caused by A) calcium kidney stones B) viruses C) parasites D) Escherichia coli (E. coli) Answer: D Page Ref: 720 Objective: 30.7

10) Urinary tract infections are especially common in sexually active women age they can affect anyone. A) 15 to 20 B) 20 to 50 C) 50 to 65 D) 65 to 80 Answer: B Page Ref: 717 Objective: 30.4, 30.7

, but

11) Which of the following increase(s) women's susceptibility to urinary tract infections (UTIs)? A) Short length of the urethra B) Poor hygiene C) Anatomy of the perineum D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 717 Objective: 30.7 12) Which of the following is NOT a symptom of cystitis? A) Inability to urinate B) Frequent urge to urinate C) Urgent need to urinate D) Painful urination Answer: A Page Ref: 717 Objective: 30.7

13) Glomerulonephritis can lead to A) kidney B) liver C) heart D) intestinal Answer: A Page Ref: 718 Objective: 30.7 14) Kidney stones affect about A) 10 B) 20 C) 30 D) 40 Answer: A Page Ref: 719 Objective: 30.7

failure.

percent of the people in the United States.

15) All of the following substances are linked to the formation of kidney stones EXCEPT . A) vitamin D B) calcium C) oxalate D) phosphate Answer: A Page Ref: 719 Objective: 30.7 16) Most kidney stones are made of A) rock B) salt C) carbon D) calcium Answer: D Page Ref: 719 Objective: 30.7

and oxalate.

17) Patients who are prone to kidney stones caused by oxalate should be aware that all of the foods listed contain oxalate EXCEPT . A) beets B) chocolate C) tea D) blueberries Answer: D Page Ref: 719 Objective: 30.7 6

18) To prevent kidney stone formation, individuals should drink enough fluid to produce at least quart(s) of urine each day. A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: B Page Ref: 719 Objective: 30.7 19) There are two types of lithotripsy; both involve passing the kidney stone to break down. A) electricity B) sound waves C) shock waves D) wires Answer: C Page Ref: 719 Objective: 30.7 20) Cysts are round, noncancerous (benign) sacs of A) water B) blood C) pus D) calcium Answer: A Page Ref: 719-720 Objective: 30.7

through the body to cause

-like fluid.

21) Signs and symptoms of polycystic kidney disease may include all of the following EXCEPT . A) high blood pressure B) back or side pain C) abdominal pain D) nasal discharge Answer: D Page Ref: 720 Objective: 30.7 22) Which of the following is (are) affected by chronic renal failure? A) Blood pressure B) Red blood cell production C) Bone health D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 721 Objective: 30.7 7

23) A kidney transplant is a(n) A) experimental B) discontinued C) common D) rare Answer: C Page Ref: 722 Objective: 30.7

type of transplant performed in the United States.

24) The is (are) the final passageway for the flow of urine. A) ureters B) kidneys C) urethra D) urinary bladder Answer: C Page Ref: 715 Objective: 30.2, 30.3 25) About A) 25 B) 50 C) 75 D) 99 Answer: D Page Ref: 716 Objective: 30.5

percent of water is reabsorbed by the tubules during urine formation.

26) incontinence is the most common type of incontinence; it often happens when an individual sneezes, laughs, or exercises, creating extra pressure within the abdominal cavity that in turn places excess pressure on the urinary bladder. A) Involuntary B) Voluntary C) Constant D) Stress Answer: D Page Ref: 718 Objective: 30.7 27) At about A) 5 B) 10 C) 15 D) 20 Answer: B Page Ref: 716 Objective: 30.4

weeks' gestation, the kidneys of a fetus begin forming urine.

28) As humans age, bladder capacity is reduced by as much as frequent trips to the bathroom. A) 20 B) 35 C) 50 D) 65 Answer: C Page Ref: 716 Objective: 30.4 29) Normal urine has an acidic pH of about A) 3 B) 6 C) 9 D) 12 Answer: B Page Ref: 716 Objective: 30.6

percent, causing more

30) is the need to void immediately. A) Urgency B) Frequency C) Dysuria D) Variability Answer: A Page Ref: 717 Objective: 30.1, 30.7 31) incontinence happens when a blockage, nerve damage, or weakened bladder muscles prohibit normal voiding. A) Overflow B) Leakage C) Stress D) Constant Answer: A Page Ref: 718 Objective: 30.1, 30.7 32) Treatment for glomerulonephritis may include all the following EXCEPT A) diuretics. B) increased protein intake. C) corticosteroids. D) treatment to lower blood pressure. Answer: B Page Ref: 718 Objective: 30.7 9

33) The greatest risk for people with polycystic kidney disease is A) high blood pressure B) kidney stones C) liver disease D) gingivitis Answer: A Page Ref: 720 Objective: 30.7 34) Polycystic kidney disease affects more than A) 2 B) 7 C) 12 D) 17 Answer: C Page Ref: 720 Objective: 30.7

million people worldwide.

35) are used to treat pyelonephritis. If pyelonephritis is left untreated, scarring may result in permanent kidney damage. A) Radiation sources B) Vitamins and minerals C) Antibiotics D) Radiologic isotopes Answer: C Page Ref: 720 Objective: 30.7 36) Incontinence is diagnosed by a family physician or a medications, surgery, and pelvic floor exercises. A) biologist B) cardiologist C) neurologist D) urologist Answer: D Page Ref: 718 Objective: 30.7

, and treatment may include

37) Symptoms of chronic renal failure may be mild or nonexistent until at least percent of kidney function is lost. A) 10 B) 20 C) 25 D) 30 Answer: A Page Ref: 721 Objective: 30.7 38) If a patient presents with a chief complaint of dysuria and urgency, office protocols may allow the medical assistant to perform a routine without a physician's order. A) bladder palpitation B) laboratory draw C) urinalysis D) irrigation Answer: C Page Ref: 721 Objective: 30.7 39) Patients receiving hemodialysis must go to a special center to three hours at a time. A) one B) two C) three D) four Answer: C Page Ref: 722 Objective: 30.7

time(s) a week for two

40) Kidney transplant patients must take antirejection drugs for transplanted kidney. A) a month B) the rest of their lives C) six weeks D) four months Answer: B Page Ref: 722 Objective: 30.7

to live with the

41) Normal urine has a specific gravity of A) 1.000 B) 1.003 C) 1.015 D) 1.023 Answer: B Page Ref: 716 Objective: 30.6

to 1.030.

42) A patient with a history of calcium kidney stones should be aware of the calcium content in all of the foods listed EXCEPT . A) dairy products. B) leafy dark green vegetables. C) sardines. D) wheat bran. Answer: D Page Ref: 719 Objective: 30.7 43) In each kidney, there are about one A) hundred B) thousand C) million D) billion Answer: C Page Ref: 714 Objective: 30.3

nephrons.

44) Which of the following is NOT one of the three capsules that surround each kidney? A) True capsule B) Adipose capsule C) Renal fascia D) Parietal capsule Answer: D Page Ref: 714 Objective: 30.3 45) All of the following are found in the renal cortex EXCEPT A) tubules. B) veins. C) glomeruli. D) capillaries. Answer: D Page Ref: 714 Objective: 30.3

46) The is a reservoir for urine. A) ureter B) kidney C) urethra D) urinary bladder Answer: D Page Ref: 715 Objective: 30.3 47) The final stage of urine production is A) filtration B) reabsorption C) secretion D) dilation Answer: C Page Ref: 716 Objective: 30.5

48) When happens at night, it is called bed-wetting. A) anuria B) enuresis C) hematuria D) pyuria Answer: B Page Ref: 717 (Tbl 30-2) Objective: 30.1 49) refers to the presence of pus in the urine. A) Anuria B) Enuresis C) Hematuria D) Pyuria Answer: D Page Ref: 717 (Tbl 30-2) Objective: 30.7 50) refers to the presence of blood in the urine. A) Anuria B) Enuresis C) Hematuria D) Pyuria Answer: C Page Ref: 717 (Tbl 30-2) Objective: 30.1, 30.7

51) The medical term for urination is A) micturition B) nocturia C) defecation D) ascitation Answer: A Page Ref: 715 Objective: 30.1

52) A patient receiving peritoneal dialysis has fluid administered into the abdomen to dissolved substances and fluids from the blood. A) drain B) filter C) eliminate D) void Answer: B Page Ref: 722 Objective: 30.7

Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting, 4e (Beaman) Chapter 31 The Endocrine System True/False Questions 1) The endocrine system is made up of glands and the hormones they secrete. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 725 Objective: 31.2 2) A vital function of the endocrine system is the production and regulation of white blood cells. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 726 Objective: 31.2 3) Hormones are the chemical messengers that regulate sexual function in both males and females. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 726 Objective: 31.4 4) The nervous system works closely with the endocrine system in the maintenance of homeostasis. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 726 Objective: 31.2 5) Hypersecretion of the growth hormone leads to gigantism during early life and acromegaly in adults. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 727, 729 Objective: 31.6 6) In the male, luteinizing hormone is responsible for the production of testosterone. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 729 Objective: 31.4 7) Oxytocin is responsible for stimulating the uterus to contract during labor and childbirth. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 727 Objective: 31.4 8) The pineal gland secretes melatonin. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 729 Objective: 31.4 1

9) The posterior lobe of the pituitary gland is also known as the neurohypophysis. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 729 Objective: 31.3 10) Located in the liver, the thyroid gland is responsible for metabolism. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 729 Objective: 31.3 11) Thyroxine is essential for the maintenance and regulation of the basal metabolic rate (BMR). Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 729 Objective: 31.4 12) Calcitonin influences bone and calcium metabolism. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 729 Objective: 31.4 13) Myxedema results from the hyposecretion of calcitonin, thyroxine (T4), and triiodothyronine (T3). Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 729, 730 Objective: 31.6 14) The hypothalamus, which is located in the lower central part of the brain, is the link between the endocrine and nervous systems. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 727 Objective: 31.3 15) In individuals who do NOT produce enough insulin, a synthetic insulin can be injected subcutaneously to help control the blood sugar. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 7310 Objective: 31.6 16) Patients with type 1 diabetes are dependent on insulin injections for the duration of their lives. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 737 Objective: 31.6

17) Type 2 diabetes is related to pregnancy. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 737 Objective: 31.6 18) There is no cure for achondroplasia. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 7387 Objective: 31.6 19) In hyperthyroidism, the thyroid produces inadequate amounts of the thyroid hormones. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 738 Objective: 31.6 20) Acidosis is an excessive acidity of bodily fluids resulting from the accumulation of acids, as in diabetic acidosis. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 734 Objective: 31.6 21) Female secondary sex characteristics include sexual desire, a deepening voice, and breast development. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 732 Objective: 31.4 22) Most of the structures and glands of the endocrine system develop during the first three months of pregnancy. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 732 Objective: 31.5 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Negative feedback means that the body acts to reverse the direction of change in order to . A) increase levels B) regain homeostasis C) decrease levels D) remove harmful stimuli Answer: B Page Ref: 726 Objective: 31.1

2) The antidiuretic hormone is responsible for A) increasing absorption of water in the blood B) decreasing absorption of water in the blood C) increasing urinary output D) increasing absorption of water in the intestines Answer: A Page Ref: 727 Objective: 31.4

3) controls skin pigmentation in the epidermis. A) Prolactin B) Luteinizing hormone C) Melanocyte-stimulating hormone D) All of the above Answer: C Page Ref: 729 Objective: 31.4 4) The thyroid has A) three B) two C) four D) six Answer: B Page Ref: 729 Objective: 31.3

lobes.

5) A normal fasting blood glucose level is A) 10—30 B) above 100 C) below 100 D) 110—150 Answer: C Page Ref: 737 Objective: 31.4

mg/dL.

6) If hypothyroidism goes untreated, there is an associated risk of low-density lipoproteins (LDL or bad cholesterol). A) heart disease B) cancer C) liver damage D) bladder infection Answer: A Page Ref: 739 Objective: 31.6

_ due to high levels of

7) Cardiomegaly is a(n) A) enlarged heart. B) shrunken liver. C) type of cancer. D) irregularly beating heart. Answer: A Page Ref: 739 Objective: 31.1

8) is a rare, life-threatening condition that is a result of long-term, untreated hypothyroidism. A) Myxedema B) Edema C) Acromegaly D) Gigantism Answer: A Page Ref: 739 Objective: 31.6 9) influence(s) cellular energy production, protein synthesis, and the repair of damaged tissue. A) Tri-iodothyronine B) Thyroxine C) Both A and B D) None of the above Answer: C Page Ref: 729 Objective: 31.4 10) Graves' disease is the A) most common form B) most deadly form C) rarest type D) quickest spreading type Answer: A Page Ref: 738 Objective: 31.6

of hyperthyroidism.

11) The adrenal glands are located on the A) bottom B) right C) left D) top Answer: D Page Ref: 731 Objective: 31.3

_ of each kidney.

12) Which gland is called the "master gland" because it regulates all the other endocrine glands? A) Adrenal gland B) Parathyroid gland C) Pituitary gland D) Thyroid gland Answer: C Page Ref: 728 Objective: 31.2 13) Insulin is a(n) glucose from the blood. A) vitamin B) organ C) hormone D) carbohydrate Answer: C Page Ref: 730 Objective: 31.4

that lowers blood sugar by allowing the body's cells to absorb

14) The most common form of diabetes is A) gestational diabetes B) type 1 diabetes C) type 2 diabetes D) diabetes insipidus Answer: C Page Ref: 737 Objective: 31.6

15) Which of the following is NOT one of the classic symptoms of diabetes? A) Weight gain B) Frequent urination C) Excessive thirst D) Excessive hunger Answer: A Page Ref: 737 Objective: 31.6 16) Type diabetes is ideally treated with diet and exercise, along with the administration of oral hypoglycemic medications to help control the blood sugar levels. A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: B Page Ref: 737 Objective: 31.6 6

17) Which hormone stimulates the mammary glands to produce milk after childbirth? A) Prolactin B) Cortisol C) Growth hormone D) Oxytocin Answer: A Page Ref: 72938 Objective: 31.4 18) Complications of hypothyroidism include all of the following EXCEPT A) rapid heart rate B) atrial fibrillation C) increased concentration D) sensitivity to light Answer: C Page Ref: 738 Objective: 31.6

19) Typical treatment for hypothyroidism involves the daily use of a synthetic thyroid hormone called . A) levtrorine B) livoroxine C) lioxine D) levothyroxine Answer: D Page Ref: 7398 Objective: 31.6 20) Which of the following is NOT one of the symptoms of elevated thyroid levels? A) Nervousness B) Weight gain C) Heart palpitations D) Frequent bowel movements Answer: B Page Ref: 738 Objective: 31.6 21) Most of the structures and glands of the endocrine system develop during the first months of pregnancy. A) five B) three C) two D) seven Answer: B Page Ref: 732 Objective: 31.5 7

22) Melatonin is called the "body clock" because it helps regulate A) sleep B) circadian C) respiratory D) cardiac Answer: B Page Ref: 729 Objective: 31.4

_ rhythm.

23) Which of the following hormones is responsible for the maturation process in the ovarian follicles and for stimulating the development of the corpus luteum in a female? A) Luteinizing B) Follicle-stimulating C) Prolactin D) Thyroid-stimulating Answer: A Page Ref: 729 Objective: 31.4 24) Which of the following hormones stimulates the adrenal cortex to produce its hormones? A) Adrenocorticotropic hormone B) Corticotropin-releasing hormone C) Melanocyte-stimulating hormone D) Prolactin hormone Answer: A Page Ref: 7298 Objective: 31.4 25) The thyroid gland is responsible for secreting all of the following hormones EXCEPT . A) thyroxine B) tri-iodothyronine C) calcitonin D) dioxin Answer: D Page Ref: 729 Objective: 31.4 26) disease is defined as a disease in which the cortex of the adrenal gland is damaged, decreasing the production of adrenocortical hormones. A) Addison's B) Cushing's C) Grave's D) Hashimoto's Answer: A Page Ref: 734 Objective: 31.1 8

27) Which of the following is NOT one of the signs of Cushing's syndrome? A) Weight gain B) Skin changes C) Weight loss D) Fatigue Answer: C Page Ref: 736 Objective: 31.6 28) The parathyroid hormone helps regulate A) red blood cells B) calcium C) thyroxine D) magnesium Answer: B Page Ref: 730 Objective: 31.4

29) , which is secreted by the adrenal glands, dilates bronchial tubes. A) Dopamine B) Epinephrine C) Norepinephrine D) Corticosterone Answer: B Page Ref: 731 Objective: 31.4 30) Which hormone aids in the digestion of fatty acids? A) Gastrin B) Secretin C) Cholecystokinin D) Enterogastrone Answer: C Page Ref: 732 Objective: 31.4 31) Thyroid supplementation is a A) routine B) lifelong C) neither of the above D) both A and B Answer: B Page Ref: 739 Objective: 31.6

therapy for hypothyroidism.

32) Hormones are the chemical transmitters that provide regulation for all of the following EXCEPT . A) mood B) growth C) development D) speech Answer: D Page Ref: 726 Objective: 31.4 33) Lipolysis is defined as the destruction of A) carbohydrates B) fats C) protein D) sugar Answer: B Page Ref: 729 Objective: 31.1

34) Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of Addison's disease? A) Weight gain B) Loss of appetite C) Chronic nausea D) Mouth lesions Answer: A Page Ref: 734 Objective: 31.6 35) The thymus gland is actually composed of lymphoid tissue and is located in the mediastinal cavity, in front of and above the . A) lungs B) pancreas C) heart D) small intestines Answer: C Page Ref: 733 Objective: 31.3 36) The pyloric area between the A) stomach B) gallbladder C) pancreas D) colon Answer: A Page Ref: 732 Objective: 31.3

and the small intestine secretes the hormone gastrin.

37) Present only during pregnancy, the (hCG) hormone, estrogen, and progesterone. A) fallopian tube B) ovary C) placenta D) fetus Answer: C Page Ref: 732 Objective: 31.3

produces human chorionic gonadotropin

38) The testes are located in the male scrotum and produce the male hormone is essential for the normal growth and development of the male accessory sex organs. A) secretin B) estrogen C) prolactin D) testosterone Answer: D Page Ref: 732 Objective: 31.4 39) The A) kidneys B) livers C) ovaries D) pancreases Answer: C Page Ref: 732 Objective: 31.3

, which

produce estrogen and progesterone.

40) Epinephrine, also known as adrenaline, is responsible for the A) hit-or-run B) punch-or-kick C) stop-or-go D) fight-or-flight Answer: D Page Ref: 731 Objective: 31.4

_ response.

41) Androgens are hormones that promote the development of A) dwarfism B) female C) male D) gigantism Answer: C Page Ref: 731 Objective: 31.4

characteristics.

42) Aldosterone is essential for regulating electrolyte and sodium and chloride retention and potassium excretion. A) water B) hormone C) blood sugar D) chemical Answer: A Page Ref: 731 Objective: 31.4 43) Cortisol is a(n) A) androgen B) fluid C) steroid D) none of the above Answer: C Page Ref: 731 Objective: 31.4 44) Each adrenal gland is inner portion (medulla). A) oval B) triangle C) square D) circular Answer: B Page Ref: 731 Objective: 31.3

balance by promoting

secreted by the adrenal cortex.

-shaped and consists of an outer portion (cortex) and an

45) Which of the following is NOT a disorder resulting from hypersecretion of T3 and T4? A) Graves' disease B) Exophthalmic goiter C) Toxic goiter D) Cushing's disease Answer: D Page Ref: 727, 729 Objective: 31.6 46) Hypersecretion of the parathyroid glands may result in hyperparathyroidism, which can result in all of the following EXCEPT . A) osteoporosis. B) kidney stones. C) hypercalcemia. D) gallbladder disease. Answer: D Page Ref: 730 Objective: 31.6 12

47) Which of the following is NOT one of the three types of cells making up the islets of Langerhans? A) Alpha B) Beta C) Epsilon D) Delta Answer: C Page Ref: 730 Objective: 31.3 48) The thymus functions as an endocrine gland but is also part of the A) digestive B) reproductive C) lymphatic D) skeletal Answer: C Page Ref: 7332 Objective: 31.4

system.

49) is essential for the growth and development of bones, muscles, and other organs in children. A) Growth hormone B) Adrenocorticotropin I C) Thyroid-stimulating hormone D) Follicle-stimulating hormone Answer: A Page Ref: 7289 Objective: 31.4 50) Which of the following is NOT one of the primary glands of the endocrine system? A) Pituitary B) Thyroid C) Parathyroid D) Salivary Answer: D Page Ref: 725 Objective: 31.3 51) A glandular tumor is called a(n) A) adenoma B) glioma C) goiter D) thymoma Answer: A Page Ref: 734 Objective: 31.6

52) Which of the following is NOT an age-related change that may affect an older adult? A) A decrease in the number of tissue receptors B) An increase in lean muscle C) The size of the pituitary gland decreases D) An increased risk of heart disease and osteoporosis Answer: B Page Ref: 732 Objective: 31.5 53) The gastrointestinal mucosa produces A) secretin B) cholecystokinin C) gastrin D) all of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 732 Objective: 31.4

54) The condition of having an excessive amount of glucose (sugar) in the blood is called . A) hyperthyroidism B) hyperkalemia C) hyperglycemia D) Hashimoto's disease Answer: C Page Ref: 734 Objective: 31.6 55) Which of the following is NOT true about patients with diabetes? A) They may not be allowed to drive a school bus. B) They may face certain occupational restrictions, depending on the state in which they live. C) They are prohibited from working in the public sector. D) They may need assistance from a medical assistant with record maintenance. Answer: C Page Ref: 736 Objective: 31.6

Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting, 4e (Beaman) Chapter 32 The Reproductive System True/False Questions 1) The vital function of the female reproductive system is to perpetuate the species through sexual reproduction. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 743 Objective: 32.2 2) The luteal phase of the menstrual cycle causes swelling and thickening of the endometrium. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 747 Objective: 32.3 3) The growing embryo develops into a fetus during the second trimester of pregnancy. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 747 Objective: 32.4 4) The symphysis tubes, also called the uterine tubes or oviducts, extend laterally from either side of the uterus near each ovary. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 745 Objective: 32.2 5) Progesterone is the female sex hormone secreted by the follicles. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 744 Objective: 32.2 6) Organs form and begin to function during the first trimester of pregnancy. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 748 Objective: 32.4 7) Fetal movements begin to be felt during the third trimester. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 748 Objective: 32.4 8) The breasts, or mammary glands, are rounded structures consisting of 12—15 distinct tissue lobes separated by connecting tissue that allows milk to flow to the infant during lactation. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 746-747 Objective: 32.2 1

9) The sex of the baby can be identified during the second trimester of pregnancy. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 748-749 Objective: 32.4 10) The vital function of the male reproductive system is to provide the sperm cells necessary to fertilize the ovum, thereby perpetuating the species. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 760 Objective: 32.7 11) The penis is a pouch-like structure, located behind the scrotum. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 760 Objective: 32.1 12) The erectile state in the penis occurs when sexual stimulation causes large quantities of blood from dilated arteries supplying the penis to fill the cavernous spaces in the erectile tissue. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 761 Objective: 32.7 13) Estrogen is a steroid hormone secreted by the corpus luteum. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 747 Objective: 32.2 14) The functions of the ovaries are to produce ova (eggs, or reproductive cells) and to produce hormones. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 743 Objective: 32.2 15) The function of the fallopian tubes is to serve as ducts to move sperm from the ovary to the uterus and to move the ovum from the uterus toward the ovary. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 745 Objective: 32.2 16) Contractions are 15—20 minutes apart during the latent phase of the birthing process. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 749 Objective: 32.5

17) During the expulsion phase of the birthing process strong, forceful contractions cause the fetus to begin traveling from the uterus into the vagina. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 750 Objective: 32.5 18) A fibroid tumor is a benign tumor or growth that contains fiber-like tissue. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 752 Objective: 32.6 19) Hormonal changes mark clear changes to the female reproductive system as it ages. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 761 Objective: 32.8 20) The female can no longer conceive once the body stops ovulating. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 761 Objective: 32.8 21) Cervicitis is inflammation of the fallopian tubes. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 754 Objective: 32.1, 32.6 22) The function of the male urethra is to expel urine and semen from the body. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 762 Objective: 32.7 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The uterus is a hollow, -shaped, muscular organ located in the anterior portion of the pelvic cavity, between the sacrum and the symphysis pubis, above the bladder and in front of the rectum. A) orange B) banana C) pear D) peanut Answer: C Page Ref: 744 Objective: 32.1

2) Each month, a Graafian follicle ruptures on the ovarian cortex, and an ovum releases into the pelvic cavity and into the fallopian tube. This process is known as _. A) copulation B) permutation C) ovulation D) mutilation Answer: C Page Ref: 747 Objective: 32.3 3) A milestone that occurs in the third trimester would be which of the following? A) The baby can make facial expressions. B) Taste buds are developed. C) The lungs become fully developed. D) The baby can hear the mother's heartbeat. Answer: C Page Ref: 749 Objective: 32.4 4) Which of the following is NOT one of the three basic functions of the vagina? A) Production and storage of sperm B) Organ of female copulation C) Passageway for the discharge of menstruation D) Passageway for the birth of the fetus Answer: A Page Ref: 746 Objective: 32.2 5) All of the following develop during the first trimester EXCEPT A) the umbilical cord B) the amnion C) the placenta D) the lanugo Answer: D Page Ref: 748 Objective: 32.4

6) Which of the following is the longest stage of the birthing process and allows the fetus to pass through the birth canal? A) Transitioning B) Placental C) Expulsion D) Dilation Answer: D Page Ref: 749 Objective: 32.5 4

7) Which of the following occurs during the expulsion phase of the birthing process? A) The actual birth of the baby B) The third and final stage of childbirth begins C) The breaking of the amniotic sac D) The cervix dilates between 4 and 8 cm Answer: A Page Ref: 750 Objective: 32.5 8) Which of the following is TRUE about the placental stage of the birthing process? A) The length of this stage can last from several minutes to several hours. B) The mother will experience strong urges to bear down. C) This phase is also known as effacement. D) Contractions are mild during this phase. Answer: D Page Ref: 750 Objective: 32.5 9) Tiny ducts in the breasts transport milk to the nipple. These ducts are where of breast cancers occur. A) 20 B) 40 C) 60 D) 80 Answer: D Page Ref: 753 Objective: 32.6 10) Which of the following is NOT one of the most common places for breast cancer to metastasize? A) Lymph nodes B) Pancreas C) Liver D) Brain Answer: B Page Ref: 753 Objective: 32.6 11) All of the following can lead to a higher risk of developing breast cancer EXCEPT . A) early menopause B) family history C) hormonal influence D) late menopause Answer: A Page Ref: 753 Objective: 32.6 5

percent

12) All of the following factors may play a role in causing cervical cancer EXCEPT A) sexual activity with multiple partners B) frequent sexual intercourse with the same partner C) sexual intercourse at an early age D) sexual intercourse with a partner who has had risky sexual activity Answer: B Page Ref: 753 Objective: 32.6

13) Which of the following is NOT one of the symptoms of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)? A) Lower abdominal pain B) Abnormal vaginal discharge C) Pain in the upper abdomen D) Painful intercourse Answer: C Page Ref: 756 Objective: 32.6 14) Which of the following is the most drastic life-span change for females? A) Ovulation B) Pregnancy C) Puberty D) Menopause Answer: D Page Ref: 761 Objective: 32.8 15) Breast cancer is cancer arising in breast tissue. Although it is primarily a disease of women, about percent occurs in men. A) 1 B) 3 C) 5 D) 10 Answer: A Page Ref: 752-753 Objective: 32.1, 32.6 16) Menopause generally occurs in females after the age of A) 40 B) 45 C) 60 D) 65 Answer: B Page Ref: 761 Objective: 32.8 6

17) The vital function of the male reproductive system is to provide the sperm cells necessary to fertilize the , thereby perpetuating the species. A) female B) vagina C) ovum D) male Answer: C Page Ref: 760 Objective: 32.7 18) The erectile state in the penis occurs when sexual stimulation causes large quantities of from dilated arteries supplying the penis to fill the cavernous spaces in the erectile tissue. A) blood B) water C) bile D) sperm Answer: A Page Ref: 761 Objective: 32.7 19) is an inflammation of the cervix that is usually caused by sexually transmitted diseases A) Ovarian cyst B) Cervicitis C) Ovarian cancer D) Endometriosis Answer: B Page Ref: 754 Objective: 32.6 20) is performed to prevent tearing of the perineum during childbirth. A) Dysmenorrhea B) Myomectomy C) Episiotomy D) Gingivitis Answer: C Page Ref: 746 Objective: 32.1

21) Amenorrhea is an absence of menstruation, which can be the result of A) pregnancy B) menopause C) dieting D) all of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 752 Objective: 32.6

22) Which of the following is TRUE regarding changes of the reproductive system for males? A) Testosterone levels decrease with age. B) Fertility changes with aging. C) Sperm production remains unchanged. D) By age 75, the size of the testes has decreased. Answer: A Page Ref: 761 Objective: 32.8 23) A lump located under the arm or above the collarbone that does NOT go away may be an indication of the presence of cancer. A) chest B) armpit C) collarbone D) breast Answer: D Page Ref: 753 Objective: 32.6, 32.9 24) Generally, labor lasts for A) more than 25 B) 5—10 C) 48 D) 12—24 Answer: D Page Ref: 749 Objective: 32.5

hours.

25) Which of the following disorders can result in the male being sterile? A) Cryptorchidism B) Aspermia C) Epispadias D) Phimosis Answer: A Page Ref: 763 Objective: 32.9

26) Which of the following disorders of the male reproductive system is described as a congenital absence of one or both testes? A) Azoospermia B) Varicocele C) Balanitis D) Anorchism Answer: D Page Ref: 763 Objective: 32.9 27) Which of the following is TRUE regarding erectile dysfunction (ED)? A) Thyroid disease is a risk factor for ED. B) ED does not occur before the age of 58. C) Erections occur simply through brain function. D) The chances of ED occurring with age drastically increases. Answer: A Page Ref: 764 Objective: 32.9 28) All of the following are TRUE regarding prostate cancer EXCEPT . A) prostate cancer is the leading cause of cancer-related death in men aged 75 and over B) a diet high in animal fats is a risk factor for prostate cancer C) the risk of developing prostate cancer increases with age D) prostate cancer is a benign tumor Answer: D Page Ref: 764 Objective: 32.9 29) All of the following are signs and symptoms of hydrocele EXCEPT . A) a painless, swollen groin area B) a translucent appearance of the scrotum C) swelling that is usually worse in the morning and gradually decreases throughout the day D) a bluish tinge to the scrotum Answer: C Page Ref: 764 Objective: 32.9 30) Which of the following is TRUE regarding benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)? A) By age 75, more than half of all men will have experienced some signs and symptoms related to BPH. B) The etiology of BPH was discovered in 1968. C) Most of the symptoms attributed to BPH relate to ejaculation changes. D) Surgery is usually the first line of treatment for BPH. Answer: A Page Ref: 762-763 Objective: 32.9 9

31) Which of the following is NOT a symptom of BPH? A) Increased nocturia B) Acute urinary retention C) Easy start of the urine stream D) Need to urinate often Answer: C Page Ref: 763 Objective: 32.9 32) A hysterectomy is the removal of the A) uterus B) ovaries C) fallopian tubes D) all of the above Answer: A Page Ref: 754 Objective: 32.1

33) is defined as the onset of menstrual cycles and occurs at the age of puberty. A) Menopause B) Menarche C) Ovulation D) Flagella Answer: B Page Ref: 747 Objective: 32.1 34) Which of the following is the presence of painful cramps during menstruation that is caused by muscular uterine contractions? A) Dysmenorrhea B) Crampitis C) Euphoria D) Dementia Answer: A Page Ref: 754 Objective: 32.6 35) Functional ovarian cysts generally disappear within A) 30 B) 60 C) 90 D) 120 Answer: B Page Ref: 756 Objective: 32.6

days without treatment.

36) Which of the following is the correct definition of sexually transmitted disease (STD)? A) Symptoms that affect the reproductive organs that were transmitted through sexual contact B) Infections that are only transmitted through sexual intercourse C) Symptoms that occur immediately after sexual contact with a person who has similar symptoms D) Infections that are transmitted through the exchange of blood, semen, and other body fluids during sexual contact Answer: D Page Ref: 758 Objective: 32.1 37) Scar-like tissue that forms between two membranous structures and causes pain defines which of the following? A) Endometriosis B) Adhesions C) Cervicitis D) Dysmenorrhea Answer: B Page Ref: 755 Objective: 32.1 38) Which of the following is NOT usually a symptom associated with premenstrual syndrome (PMS)? A) Constipation B) Diarrhea C) Decisiveness D) Anorexia Answer: C Page Ref: 757 Objective: 32.6 39) The incidence of fibrocystic breast disease is estimated to be over women. A) 30 B) 40 C) 50 D) 60 Answer: D Page Ref: 755 Objective: 32.6

percent in all

40) Symptoms of endometriosis include all of the following EXCEPT A) nausea and vomiting B) light or no menstrual bleeding C) heavy menstrual bleeding D) infertility Answer: B Page Ref: 755 Objective: 32.6

41) All of the following are TRUE regarding the bulbourethral glands EXCEPT A) the bulbourethral glands are also known as the Cowper's glands B) the bulbourethral glands are part of the female reproductive system C) a tiny duct connects the bulbourethral glands with the wall of the urethra D) two small, peas-sized glands make up the bulbourethral glands Answer: B Page Ref: 762 Objective: 32.7

42) Which of the following is NOT one of the four phases of the menstrual cycle? A) Menstruation B) Follicular C) Ovulation D) Post-menstruation Answer: D Page Ref: 747 Objective: 32.3 43) Typically, the menstrual cycle lasts about to the uterine tissue, breasts, and vagina. A) 82 B) 10 C) 38 D) 28 Answer: D Page Ref: 747 Objective: 32.3

days, with a cycle of repetitive changes

44) The onset of the menstrual cycle, called menarche, occurs at the age of puberty, and the cessation is called . A) ovarian cyst B) vaginitis C) menopause D) dysmenorrhea Answer: C Page Ref: 747 Objective: 32.3 12

45) The inability to copulate is called A) varicocele B) balanitis C) hypospadias D) impotence Answer: D Page Ref: 763 Objective: 32.9

46) , also called pregnancy, begins with conception and ends with the birthing process. A) Menarche B) The fetal period C) The embryonic period D) Gestation Answer: D Page Ref: 747 Objective: 32.1 47) Which of the following is NOT one the three primary functions of the uterus? A) Shedding of the endometrium B) Providing nourishment and protection to the fetus during pregnancy C) Contracting to expel the fetus during labor D) Providing a pathway for menstrual discharge Answer: D Page Ref: 745 Objective: 32.2 48) A hernia or outpouching of the bladder that protrudes into the vagina is known as A) salpingitis B) myometrium C) cystocele D) menorrhagia Answer: C Page Ref: 752 Objective: 32.6 49) Which of the following is defined as a rare type of cancer of the uterus that may occur following a normal pregnancy or abortion? A) Endometrial cancer B) Fibroid tumor C) Choriocarcinoma D) Carcinoma in situ Answer: C Page Ref: 752 Objective: 32.6

50) The first eight weeks of pregnancy is called the A) ovarian B) zygotic C) fetal D) embryonic Answer: D Page Ref: 747-748 Objective: 32.1

period.

51) Which of the following develops atrophic changes because of decreased levels of estrogen during aging? A) Fundus B) Isthmus C) Cervix D) Uterus Answer: D Page Ref: 761 Objective: 32.8 52) The is an external organ of the male reproduction system related to the production of sperm. A) scrotum B) epididymis C) ductus deferens D) prostate gland Answer: A Page Ref: 760 Objective: 32.7 53) During the trimester of pregnancy, fetal movements begin to be detectable, and there are noticeable periods when the fetus is awake or asleep. A) first B) second C) third D) fourth Answer: B Page Ref: 748 Objective: 32.4 54) The function of the prostate gland is to . A) secrete mucus B) produce male sex hormones C) aid in maintaining the viability of the spermatozoa D) facilitate erection of the penis Answer: C Page Ref: 762 Objective: 32.7 14

55) Puberty is triggered when the A) pituitary gland B) frontal lobe of the brain C) urethra D) internal reproductive organs Answer: A Page Ref: 761 Objective: 32.8

signal(s) the body to release hormones.

Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting, 4e (Beaman) Chapter 33 Infection Control True/False Questions 1) Microorganisms are larger, living organisms that can be seen with the naked eye. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 769 Objective: 33.1 2) The largest natural barrier to infection is the intact skin. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 773 Objective: 33.5 3) Mucous membranes lining the body's orifices and respiratory, digestive, reproductive, and urinary tracts assist in attracting microorganisms. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 773 Objective: 33.5 4) During the inflammatory process, blood vessels dilate to increase blood flow, watery fluids are produced, and neutrophils invade the site of injury. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 773 Objective: 33.5 5) Antibodies have the ability to neutralize antigens. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 773-774 Objective: 33.5 6) Innate immunity involves antibodies that are passed from a mother to an infant through breast milk. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 774 Objective: 33.5 7) The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention's (CDC) Universal Precautions are used in hospitals, whereas Standard Precautions are used in the medical office. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 774 Objective: 33.7

8) Ordinary hygiene habits of everyday life are a form of medical asepsis. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 779 Objective: 33.7 9) Frequent and diligent hand washing provides the first defense against the spread of disease and should be done often. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 779, 781 Objective: 33.4 10) The CDC guidelines suggest that alcohol-based hand rubs can be used at the times usually required for hand washing. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 782 Objective: 33.7 11) When removing personal protective equipment (PPE), the gloves are removed last to prevent contamination. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 784 Objective: 33.9 12) Although NOT effective for viruses (such as hepatitis) or for destroying spores, boiling water can be used as a means of disinfection. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 789 Objective: 33.10 13) Autoclaving is steam under pressure that destroys organisms by causing their cells to explode. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 789 Objective: 33.8 14) The first and most important tier, or level, of the CDC guidelines is focused on the patients who are either suspected of carrying an infectious disease or already infected. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 777 Objective: 33.7 15) Active immunity provides only temporary immunity because the body produces its own antibodies. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 774 Objective: 33.5 2

16) Infants, especially those under three months of age, and the elderly are more prone to infection than other age groups. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 775 Objective: 33.5 17) A medical assistant may use his or her bare hands to remove unwrapped cleaned instruments from an autoclave. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 793 Objective: 33.8 18) Before an instrument may be chemically sterilized, it must first be sanitized properly. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 794 Objective: 33.8 19) Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is an infection that is highly resistant to antimicrobial drugs. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 770 Objective: 33.2 20) A serious MRSA infection is generally treated with one strong antibiotic. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 770-771 Objective: 33.2 21) A MRSA infection can occur through cuts, sores, catheters, and breathing tubes. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 771 Objective: 33.2 22) Good hygiene practices are the best way to avoid contracting or spreading MRSA infection. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 771 Objective: 33.2

Multiple Choice Questions 1) Where is normal flora located? A) In the respiratory tract B) On the skin C) In the urinary and gastrointestinal tract D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 770 Objective: 33.2 2) A micrometer is one _ A) hundredth B) thousandth C) millionth D) billionth Answer: C Page Ref: 769 Objective: 33.1

part of a meter.

3) Which is the study of fungi? A) Bacteriology B) Mycology C) Protozoology D) Virology Answer: B Page Ref: 770 Objective: 33.2 4) Microorganisms occur everywhere in nature and have several requirements in order to grow. Which is one of those requirements? A) Food B) Moisture and darkness C) Suitable temperature D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 770 Objective: 33.2 5) is the destruction of all microorganisms, both pathogenic and nonpathogenic. A) Disinfection B) Sterilization C) Sanitization D) Friction Answer: B Page Ref: 789 Objective: 33.8 4

6) Hepatitis A) A B) B C) C D) D Answer: A Page Ref: 775 Objective: 33.2

is transmitted by fecal waste contamination of food and the water supply.

7) The incubation period for HIV and AIDS can vary by individual and can be A) up to 6 months B) up to 8 months C) up to 18 months D) many years Answer: D Page Ref: 775 Objective: 33.2

8) Which is NOT one of the symptoms of HIV? A) Headache B) Loss of appetite C) Swelling of lymph glands D) Diarrhea Answer: A Page Ref: 775 Objective: 33.2 9) In order to keep the skin free of harmful organisms, there must be frequent hand washing using all of the following, EXCEPT . A) cold distilled water B) disinfectant soap C) friction D) warm running water Answer: A Page Ref: 782 Objective: 33.10 10) Which can the process of disinfection destroy or inhibit its activity? A) All spores B) All viruses C) Spore-forming bacteria D) Disease-causing organisms Answer: D Page Ref: 787 Objective: 33.10 5

11) Chemical disinfectants used for soaking and wiping include all of the following, EXCEPT . A) phenol B) alcohol C) baking soda D) soap Answer: C Page Ref: 788 Objective: 33.8 12) The incubation period for hepatitis C is A) 2 to 4 B) 4 to 6 C) 6 to 10 D) 10 to 15 Answer: C Page Ref: 775 Objective: 33.2

weeks.

13) Caregivers of a person with AIDS may do which of the following? A) Call on clergy, counselors, and other health care professionals to help cope with feelings of frustration and stress. B) Be comfortable touching the patient. C) Encourage the patient to become involved in his or her own care. D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 776 Objective: 33.2 14) Standard precautions issued by the CDC involve all of the following, EXCEPT A) dietary restrictions B) hand hygiene C) personal protective equipment D) respiratory hygiene/cough etiquette Answer: A Page Ref: 776-777 Objective: 33.10 15) Personal protective equipment includes A) gloves B) face masks C) protective eyewear D) all of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 776 Objective: 33.7

16) A(n) uses steam and pressure, dry heat, dry gas, or radiation for sterilization. A) incubator B) microwave oven C) echo chamber D) autoclave Answer: D Page Ref: 789 Objective: 33.8 17) The sterilization time for unassembled syringes, individually wrapped in gauze or glass tubes, is . A) 15 minutes B) 30 minutes C) one hour D) three hours Answer: A Page Ref: 790 Objective: 33.10 18) When wrapping and labeling instruments for autoclaving, the medical assistant should place the sterility indicator strip . A) next to the packet B) under the packet. C) in the center of the packet D) on the top of the packet Answer: C Page Ref: 791 Objective: 33.10 19) After use, non-sterile gloves that have come in contact with blood or bodily fluid should be disposed of in a _. A) biohazard container B) recycle bin C) laundry hamper D) trash can Answer: A Page Ref: 777 Objective: 33.7 20) Which provides barrier protection for caregivers to prevent the spread of infectious disease? A) Sterile gloves B) Nonsterile gloves C) Gowns D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 783 Objective: 33.7 7

21) All of the following are methods of surgical asepsis, EXCEPT A) incubation B) disinfection C) sterilization D) sanitization Answer: A Page Ref: 786-789 Objective: 33.10

22) What is the required sterilization time requirements for metal instruments on an open tray? A) 15 minutes B) 20 minutes C) 30 minutes D) 60 minutes Answer: A Page Ref: 790 Objective: 33.8 23) Infants are especially susceptible to infection because A) their immune systems are underdeveloped B) they are unable to practice personal hygiene C) their small size makes them vulnerable D) their dirty diapers contain pathogens Answer: A Page Ref: 775 Objective: 33.5

24) Which can cause contamination? A) Excessive jewelry B) Long fingernails C) Long hair D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 777 Objective: 33.3 25) All of the following are pathogens, EXCEPT A) mosquitos B) fungi C) bacteria D) viruses Answer: A Page Ref: 769 Objective: 33.2

26) Pathogens that are capable of producing disease grow best at a temperature of A) 50.5 B) 98.6 C) 77.7 D) 104.3 Answer: B Page Ref: 770 Objective: 33.3 27) Low temperatures of A) 23 B) 32 C) 43 D) 54 Answer: B Page Ref: 770 Objective: 33.4

°F and below retard, but do not kill bacterial growth.

28) The body's largest natural barrier to infection is A) the respiratory system B) the intestines C) membranes D) intact skin Answer: D Page Ref: 773 Objective: 33.5 29) Infections acquired in a health care facility are called A) acute B) chronic C) opportunistic D) nosocomial Answer: D Page Ref: 771 Objective: 33.2

infections.

30) Which is the first link in the chain of infection that harbors and nourishes a pathogen? A) Reservoir host B) Means of transmission C) Portal of entry D) Portal of exit Answer: A Page Ref: 771 Objective: 33.4

°F.

31) The first mild signs and symptoms of an infection begin to appear in the A) incubation B) acute C) prodromal D) chronic Answer: C Page Ref: 772 Objective: 33.2

period.

32) is the most effective practice for preventing the spread of microorganisms in a health care facility or at home. A) Wearing a facial mask B) Disinfecting equipment C) Sterilizing equipment D) Hand sanitizing Answer: D Page Ref: 772 Objective: 33.10 33) The incubation period for a hepatitis B liver infection is A) 15 to 30 B) 30 to 60 C) 60 to 90 D) 90 to 120 Answer: C Page Ref: 775 Objective: 33.2 34) Which type of hepatitis is transmitted via the fecal or oral route? A) A B) B C) C D) F Answer: A Page Ref: 775 Objective: 33.2 35) is an infection of the liver. A) Cancer B) HIV C) Hepatitis D) AIDS Answer: C Page Ref: 775 Objective: 33.2

days.

36) Instruments are considered sterile for A) 3 to 12 B) 12 to 21 C) 21 to 30 D) 30 to 39 Answer: C Page Ref: 793 Objective: 33.8

_ days.

37) Which is NOT a condition of sterility? A) Correct temperature B) Correct time C) Exposure to moisture D) Correct color Answer: D Page Ref: 791 Objective: 33.8 38) Which is NOT considered wrapping material when dealing with an autoclave? A) Aluminum foil B) Heavy paper C) Plastic D) Stainless steel containers Answer: A Page Ref: 790 Objective: 33.8 39) Regardless of the model, which gauge is NOT on an autoclave? A) Jacket pressure B) Chamber pressure C) Radiation D) Temperature Answer: C Page Ref: 789 Objective: 33.8 40) Which is NOT one of the types of autoclaving? A) Steam under pressure B) Wet gas C) Dry heat (320°F for one hour) D) Radiation Answer: B Page Ref: 789 Objective: 33.8

41) Moist heat in an autoclave of A) 150—170 B) 250—270 C) 350—370 D) more than 400 Answer: B Page Ref: 789 Objective: 33.8

°F will kill most diseases that are airborne.

42) Which is NOT one of the chemical disinfectants used for soaking and wiping? A) soap B) alcohol C) bicarbonate D) chlorine Answer: C Page Ref: 788 Objective: 33.8 43) Which disinfection method is used for broad spectrum of microorganisms but has a corrosive effect? A) Alcohol B) Formaldehyde C) Glutaraldehyde D) Chlorine Answer: D Page Ref: 788 Objective: 33.10 44) The second tier of infection control requires extra precautions in addition to the Standard Precautions and is known as transmission-based precautions. It includes all of the following categories, EXCEPT precautions. A) touch B) airborne C) droplet D) contact Answer: A Page Ref: 777-778 Objective: 33.7 45) Which is NOT one of the four cardinal signs of inflammation? A) cold B) redness C) swelling D) pain Answer: A Page Ref: 773 Objective: 33.5 12

46) Which natural barrier to infection plays a key preventive and protective role by producing antibodies? A) The skin B) The gastrointestinal tract C) The mucous membranes D) The lymphatic system Answer: D Page Ref: 773 Objective: 33.5 47) Microorganisms that are capable of producing disease (pathogens) grow best at a body temperature of °C. A) 26 B) 37 C) 89.9 D) 98.6 Answer: D Page Ref: 770 Objective: 33.3 48) Which natural barrier to infection contains hydrochloric acid? A) Mucous membranes B) Respiratory tract C) Skin surfaces D) Gastrointestinal tract Answer: D Page Ref: 773 Objective: 33.5 49) Which of statement about MRSA is TRUE? A) It can be treated easily with antibiotics. B) It is one of the most common agents responsible for nosocomial infections. C) It occurs only in health care facilities. D) It can only be transmitted through saliva. Answer: B Page Ref: 770-771 Objective: 33.2 50) An infection is classified as being caused by MRSA if it A) comes from bacteria found in the groin B) grows in the presence of vancomycin C) does not grow in the presence methicillin D) grows in the presence of methicillin Answer: D Page Ref: 771 Objective: 33.2 13

51) What is a good way to avoid MRSA infection? A) Perform hand hygiene. B) Use an antiseptic cream and bandage to cover cuts. C) Wear gloves and other personal protective equipment. D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 771 Objective: 33.2 52) For which disease that can be airborne is the use of a special mask recommended? A) Tuberculosis B) Hepatitis C) MRSA D) HIV Answer: A Page Ref: 777 Objective: 33.2 53) Which procedure should be practiced when disposing of infectious waste? A) Line the infectious waste container with a brown paper bag. B) Label glass that is being disposed of in an infectious waste bag. C) Make sure that all liquid waste is already contained in a closable device or container before putting it into the infectious waste container. D) Recap needles and syringes before placing them in an infectious waste container. Answer: C Page Ref: 780 Objective: 33.10 54) Which is a correct technique when performing hand washing? A) Vigorously shake excess water off hands. B) Avoid using any hand lotion. C) Keep hands pointed down below the elbow level. D) Wash both sides of hands for 10—15 seconds. Answer: C Page Ref: 782 Objective: 33.10 55) When wearing more than one piece of personal protective equipment (PPE), which is removed last? A) Gown B) Gloves C) Goggles D) Mask Answer: D Page Ref: 784 Objective: 33.7 14

Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting, 4e (Beaman) Chapter 34 Vital Signs True/False Questions 1) Body heat is a byproduct of metabolism. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 801 Objective: 34.3 2) The axillary method for taking a temperature is the most commonly used method. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 804 Objective: 34.5 3) When an individual breathes, heat is released from the body through the evaporation process. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 801 Objective: 34.3 4) Vital signs include temperature, pulse, respiration, and height. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 801 Objective: 34.1 5) A patient who weighs 64 kilograms weighs about 141 pounds. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 799 Objective: 34.2 6) Patients with fluid retention often require frequent weight monitoring. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 798 Objective: 34.2 7) Patients' height and weight are measured with their shoes on. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 799 Objective: 34.2 8) Slight changes in body temperature are normal, but greater changes may be the first sign of illness. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 802 Objective: 34.3

9) To convert Fahrenheit (F) to Celsius (C), add 32 and then multiply by 9/5. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 803 Objective: 34.4 10) A normal oral temperature is 37.0 degrees Celsius. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 803 Objective: 34.4 11) The American Hospital Association eliminated mercury thermometers from the health environment because of the danger of breakage and exposure to mercury, a toxic substance. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 805 Objective: 34.6 12) The axillary method of taking temperature is the least accurate. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 805 Objective: 34.5 13) Electronic thermometers are accurate, sanitary, and fast, some are battery powered, and some have digital windows for easy viewing and reading. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 805 Objective: 34.6 14) Temperature is an anthropometric measurement. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 798 Objective: 34.1 15) The aural method of temperature measurement calculates body temperature from data based on heat waves in the ear canal. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 804 Objective: 34.6 16) The rectal method of measuring body temperature is NOT recommended for an active child. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 804 Objective: 34.5 17) Caffeine and nicotine can increase the heart rate in some people. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 812 Objective: 34.7 2

18) As a person's age increases, his or her rate decreases. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 812 Objective: 34.8 19) Thyroid disease decreases the pulse rate. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 812 Objective: 34.7 20) A chemical disposable thermometer changes color to indicate body temperature. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 809 Objective: 34.6 21) Axillary temperature is generally about two degrees higher than oral temperature. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 804 Objective: 34.3 22) Pulse rate is a measurement of the number of times the heart beats per minute. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 812 Objective: 34.7 Multiple Choice Questions 1) All of the following are considered a clinical sign of hypothermia, EXCEPT A) increased pulse B) decreased respirations C) pale, waxy, cool skin D) lack of muscle coordination Answer: A Page Ref: 803 Objective: 34.7 2) Which is the most accurate and reliable means of taking body temperature? A) oral B) aural or tympanic C) axillary D) rectal Answer: D Page Ref: 805 Objective: 34.5

3) The average pulse rate of an older adult is A) 50—65 bpm B) 60—80 bpm C) 80—100 bpm D) 120—160 bpm Answer: A Page Ref: 812 Objective: 34.8

4) Heat can be lost from the body by all of these processes, EXCEPT A) radiation B) convection C) pyrexia D) conduction Answer: C Page Ref: 801 Objective: 34.1 5) When converting pounds to kilograms, A) multiply the number of pounds by 2.2 B) divide the number of pounds by .45 C) divide the number of pounds by 2.2 D) multiply the number of pounds by 0.45 Answer: D Page Ref: 799 Objective: 34.2

6) The is able to adjust the body temperature by either increasing or decreasing heat production during the day. A) hypothalamus B) eupnea C) frenulum linguae D) tympanic membrane Answer: A Page Ref: 801 Objective: 34.3 7) The average body temperature of a healthy person is 98.6°F (37°C) and may increase or decrease by degree(s) Fahrenheit throughout the day. A) .5—1 B) 1—1.5 C) 1—2 D) 1—2.5 Answer: C Page Ref: 802 Objective: 34.3 4

8) Which is NOT a cause of lowered blood pressure? A) Middle pregnancy B) Diuretics C) Smoking D) Anemia Answer: C Page Ref: 822 Objective: 34.14 9) Which is NOT one of the physiological factors affecting blood pressure? A) Korotkoff sounds B) Volume or amount of blood in the arteries C) Peripheral resistance of the vessels D) Condition of the heart muscle Answer: A Page Ref: 821 Objective: 34.14 10) A resting pulse rate above 100 BPM is known as A) tachycardia B) bradycardia C) tachypnea D) bradypnea Answer: A Page Ref: 812 Objective: 34.7 11) There are A) three B) five C) seven D) nine Answer: D Page Ref: 813 Objective: 34.9

areas in the body where the pulse can be easily measured.

12) All of the following respiratory rates would be considered a serious problem for an adult, EXCEPT . A) 10 B) 15 C) 25 D) 30 Answer: B Page Ref: 817-818 Objective: 34.11

13) Cyanosis is a condition in which a patient is unable to take in enough oxygen during inhalation, and the skin around the mouth and the nail beds of the hands and feet may appear in color. A) bluish B) reddish C) pale D) yellowish Answer: A Page Ref: 818 Objective: 34.10 14) refers to deep rapid respiration. A) Apnea B) Hypoventilation C) Eupnea D) Hyperventilation Answer: D Page Ref: 818 Objective: 34.10 15) is a term for noisy breathing sounds, similar to those heard in snoring. A) Stridor B) Stertor C) Rhonchi D) Cheyne-Stokes Answer: B Page Ref: 818 Objective: 34.10 16) While taking blood pressure, the crisp tapping sound as blood flow moves easily through the artery is phase of Korotkoff sounds. A) I B) II C) III D) IV Answer: C Page Ref: 821 Objective: 34.12

17) The average normal blood pressure reading for an individual who is 10—15 years of age is . A) 90/55 B) 100/65 C) 118/76 D) 119/78 Answer: B Page Ref: 821 Objective: 34.13 18) The popliteal pulse site is located . A) at the side of head just above the ear B) at the inner aspect of the elbow C) on the medial surface of the ankle near the ankle bone D) behind the knee Answer: D Page Ref: 813 Objective: 34.9 19) Which factor influences the pulse rate to be lower? A) Being female B) Being in good physical condition C) Having a smaller body D) Having a fever Answer: B Page Ref: 812 Objective: 34.7 20) The characteristic that refers to the strength of the pulse when the heart contracts is . A) rhythm B) rate C) volume D) condition Answer: C Page Ref: 812 Objective: 34.7 21) The characteristic that refers to the regularity of the beats of the pulse is A) rate B) rhythm C) volume D) force Answer: B Page Ref: 813 Objective: 34.7 7

22) A blood pressure reading of A) 110/90 B) 119/79 C) 130/80 D) 140/90 Answer: B Page Ref: 820 Objective: 34.13

is considered to be normal for an adult.

23) is a procedural error that may cause an error in a blood pressure reading. A) Air leaks in the bladder B) Sphygmomanometer not properly calibrated C) Failure to locate the brachial pulse D) Worn Velcro on the cuff that does not hold Answer: C Page Ref: 827 Objective: 34.14 24) Which is a patient-related error that may cause an error in a blood pressure reading? A) Deflation occurs too rapidly to accurately determine the sounds. B) Part of the stethoscope tubing touches the blood pressure cuff while reading is taken. C) Patient's arm is covered so the reading is taken through clothing. D) Patient's arm is too large for accurate reading with available equipment. Answer: D Page Ref: 827 Objective: 34.14 25) While taking blood pressure, the phase of Korotkoff sounds when a faint sound is heard as the cuff is deflated is phase . A) I B) II C) III D) V Answer: A Page Ref: 821 Objective: 34.12 26) While taking blood pressure, the phase of Korotkoff sounds in which the sound has a swishing quality is phase . A) I B) II C) III D) IV Answer: B Page Ref: 821 Objective: 34.12 8

27) All of the following are causes of errors in blood pressure reading, EXCEPT A) a cuff that is too large B) a cuff that is too loose C) the patient's arm being covered D) the valve on the bulb being completely closed before air is pumped into the cuff Answer: D Page Ref: 827 Objective: 34.14 28) Secondary hypertension (HTN) may result from any of the following, EXCEPT A) kidney disease B) no clear known cause C) pregnancy D) endocrine disorders Answer: B Page Ref: 820 Objective: 34.14 29) All of the following, EXCEPT A) eating B) anger C) fasting D) ovulation Answer: C Page Ref: 802 Objective: 34.3

, may cause an increase in body temperature.

30) Hypothermia is defined as a body temperature below 95 degrees Fahrenheit, or degrees Celsius. A) 35 B) 36 C) 37 D) 38 Answer: A Page Ref: 803 Objective: 34.3 31) During which phase of Korotkoff sounds does the sound fade and become muffled? A) I B) II C) IV D) V Answer: C Page Ref: 821 Objective: 34.12

32) During which phase of Korotkoff sounds does the sound disappear? A) I B) II C) III D) V Answer: D Page Ref: 821 Objective: 34.12 33) An average of blood pressure reading of A) 75/55 B) 90/55 C) 100/65 D) 118/76 Answer: A Page Ref: 821 Objective: 34.13

is normal for a newborn.

34) To provide each patient with a new and sanitary thermometer, the electronic thermometer is . A) fitted with a disposable probe cover B) disinfected after each use C) fitted with a disposable probe D) discarded after use Answer: A Page Ref: 805 Objective: 34.6 35) The axillary method of taking temperature is advisable for A) small children B) patients with underarm rash C) patients perspiring excessively D) patients who cannot form an airtight seal Answer: A Page Ref: 804 Objective: 34.5 36) A rectal thermometer is advisable for taking the temperature of A) fragile newborns B) active children C) unconscious patients D) patients suffering from diarrhea Answer: C Page Ref: 804 Objective: 34.5

37) The pulse rate is a very accurate heart rate that is most often used as the pulse measurement for infants and young children. A) temporal B) radial C) apical D) carotid Answer: C Page Ref: 813, 815 Objective: 34.9 38) A tympanic thermometer is advisable for taking the temperature of A) patients with earaches B) small children C) patients with in-the-ear hearing aids D) patients with impacted cerumen Answer: B Page Ref: 804 Objective: 34.5 39) A respiratory rate below 12 in an adult is called _ A) apnea B) tachypnea C) eupnea D) bradypnea Answer: D Page Ref: 817 Objective: 34.10

40) Respiratory rate relates to age in that it . A) decreases from infancy to adulthood B) increases with age C) decreases from infancy through childhood and then increases D) remains the same throughout the lifespan Answer: A Page Ref: 818 Objective: 34.11 41) The average number of heart beats per minute for an adult is A) 40—60 B) 50—70 C) 60—80 D) 70—90 Answer: C Page Ref: 812 Objective: 34.7

42) Which is NOT considered one of the vital signs? A) Temperature B) Pulse C) Respiration D) Body mass index Answer: D Page Ref: 801 Objective: 34.1 43) What is an average normal blood pressure reading for a child 6—9 years of age? A) 90/55 B) 100/65 C) 118/76 D) 119/78 Answer: A Page Ref: 821 Objective: 34.13 44) An individual with severe hyperthermia may have which of these symptoms? A) Decreased respirations B) Inability to sweat C) Decreased pulse D) Pale, waxy skin Answer: B Page Ref: 803 Objective: 34.3 45) Clinical signs of fever include all of the following, EXCEPT A) decreased heart rate B) increased respiratory rate C) shivering D) chills and sweating Answer: A Page Ref: 803 Objective: 34.3

46) If the Celsius temperature is 38.5 degrees, what is the equivalent Fahrenheit temperature? A) 100.4 B) 101.3 C) 101.5 D) 102.5 Answer: B Page Ref: 803 Objective: 34.4

47) The radial pulse site is located . A) at the side of the neck between the larynx and the sternocleidomastoid muscle B) in the groin where the femoral artery passes to the leg C) at the thumb side of the wrist about one inch below the base of the thumb D) on top of the foot slightly lateral to midline Answer: C Page Ref: 813 Objective: 34.9 48) Which is NOT true of a child's body temperature? A) A child has a normally higher body temperature than an adult. B) Crying can cause a decrease in body temperature. C) A child has immature heat regulation. D) A child tends to spike a fever late the day. Answer: B Page Ref: 802 Objective: 34.3 49) The pulse site that helps assess adequate blood circulation to the foot is the A) carotid B) temporal C) brachial D) dorsalis pedis Answer: D Page Ref: 813 Objective: 34.9 50) The apical pulse site is located . A) on the thumb side of the wrist about one inch below the base of the thumb B) at the left of the sternum, 4th or 5th intercostal space below the nipple C) behind the knee D) at the inner aspect of the elbow Answer: B Page Ref: 813 Objective: 34.9 51) A pulse oximeter is used to determine A) blood pressure B) temperature C) oxygen saturation D) heart rate Answer: C Page Ref: 825 Objective: 34.15

site.

52) A type of hypotension involving a temporary fall in blood pressure that occurs when a patient moves rapidly from a lying to a standing position is known as . A) orthostatic B) benign C) malignant D) essential Answer: A Page Ref: 822 Objective: 34.14 53) A pulse oximeter can measure blood oxygenation even before clinical signs of present in body tissue. A) hyperpyrexia B) hypoxia C) hyperventilation D) hypotension Answer: B Page Ref: 825 Objective: 34.15 54) All of the following may cause errors in blood pressure readings, EXCEPT A) the cuff is the wrong size for the patient B) the patient's arm is at the same level as the heart C) deflation occurs too rapidly to accurately determine the sounds D) there isn't a wait of 1—2 minutes before taking a second reading Answer: B Page Ref: 827 Objective: 34.14

are

Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting, 4e (Beaman) Chapter 35 Assisting with Physical Examinations True/False Questions 1) The medical assistant is responsible for cleaning and preparing the room for each patient. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 833 Objective: 35.9 2) Immediately after the patient leaves the room, the used gown should be rolled up into a ball shape and placed in the laundry receptacle. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 833 Objective: 35.9 3) There should be no evidence of any other patient's presence when a new patient is taken into an exam room. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 834 Objective: 35.9 4) When using disinfectant to clean the examination room, it is not necessary to perform hand hygiene and put on disposable gloves. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 834 Objective: 35.9 5) Examination rooms must follow the standards required by the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA). Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 835 Objective: 35.2 6) If a medical assistant witnesses any unsafe situation, he or she should take care of the situation immediately. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 835 Objective: 35.2 7) The medical assistant should NOT enter without knocking and receiving permission from the patient to enter. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 835 Objective: 35.3

8) Supplies are the disposable items used for patient examination and treatment. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 845 Objective: 35.2 9) Palpation is performed with the hands to feel the skin and assess underlying organs for anything unusual. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 846 Objective: 35.8 10) Inspection refers to using the fingertips to tap the body lightly but sharply to gain information about the position and size of the underlying body parts. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 846 Objective: 35.8 11) The physician can observe the subjective symptoms that are part of the patient's chief complaint. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 837 Objective: 35.5 12) During a physical examination, it is the medical assistant's responsibility to diagnose a condition. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 848 Objective: 35.9 13) Objective signs that may be part of a patient’s chief complaint include experiences like dizziness, pain, or feelings of anxiety. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 837 Objective: 35.5 14) After the patient describes the pain and its duration, the medical assistant decides if the pain is chronic or acute and records that in the medical record. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 841 Objective: 35.9 15) Drapes are sheets used to protect patient privacy and keep the patient warm. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 850 Objective: 35.7

16) During the physical exam, the medical assistant may need to document and label specimens. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 848 Objective: 35.9 17) A sphygmomanometer is used to measure blood pressure, and is typically found in examination rooms. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 845 Objective: 35.7 18) Auscultation is the method of examination the physician uses when examining the breasts. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 847 Objective: 35.8 19) A medical assistant does NOT need to be concerned with cultural norms while assisting the physician with a physical exam. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 850 Objective: 35.9 20) When in the dorsal recumbent position, the patient lies flat on the back, with knees bent, and feet flat on the examination table. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 850 Objective: 35.10 21) When in the lithotomy position, the patient sits on the examination table with the head of the table raised to a 90-degree angle. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 852 Objective: 35.10 22) Every entry in a patient's chart must be dated and initialed by the person writing in the record. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 863 Objective: 35.9

Multiple Choice Questions 1) is the use of special tools to measure the body or specific parts. A) Manipulation B) Inspection C) Percussion D) Mensuration Answer: D Page Ref: 847 Objective: 35.8 2) A is used to measure range of motion of a joint. A) pinwheel B) sphygmomanometer C) goniometer D) otoscope Answer: C Page Ref: 847 Objective: 35.7 3) is passively assessing the range of motion of a joint. A) Mensuration B) Manipulation C) Inspection D) Auscultation Answer: B Page Ref: 847 Objective: 35.8 4) The physician uses a vaginal A) speculum B) otoscope C) goniometer D) opthalmoscope Answer: A Page Ref: 845 Objective: 35.7

to expand the vaginal opening and view the cervix.

5) refers to the resistance of the skin when grasped between fingers. A) Edema B) Turgor C) Symmetry D) Intractable Answer: B Page Ref: 860 Objective: 35.1 4

6) An observation of loss. A) hirsutism B) tinnitus C) alopecia D) oliguria Answer: C Page Ref: 862 Objective: 35.11

during a review of systems means the patient has unusual hair

7) An observation of blood. A) dyspnea B) hemoptysis C) orthopnea D) apnea Answer: B Page Ref: 862 Objective: 35.11

during a review of systems means the patient is coughing up

8) An observation of leukoplakia would be observed in the systems. A) eyes B) genitourinary system C) mouth D) cardiovascular system Answer: C Page Ref: 862 Objective: 35.11

during a review of

9) The is used to examine internal and external structures of the eye. A) ophthalmoscope B) otoscope C) stethoscope D) sphygmomanometer Answer: A Page Ref: 849, 861 Objective: 35.11

10) During auscultation, sounds made by the heart, lungs, stomach, and bowel are assessed for all of these, EXCEPT . A) strength B) size C) presence or absence of sounds D) rhythm Answer: B Page Ref: 847 Objective: 35.8 11) The dental mirror is a small mirror attached to a long handle and used to visualize the . A) eardrum B) rectum C) larynx D) nose Answer: C Page Ref: 843 Objective: 35.7 12) The semi-Fowler's position is similar to the Fowler's position with the head of the table at a -degree angle. A) 30 B) 45 C) 60 D) 90 Answer: B Page Ref: 853 Objective: 35.10 13) A patient in the position is on their left side with the right leg sharply bent upward, the left leg slightly bent, and the right arm flexed next to the head for support. A) Trendelenburg B) knee-chest C) Sims D) prone Answer: C Page Ref: 854 Objective: 35.10

14) is a typical examination room supply used to preserve slides. A) Alcohol wipes B) Fixative spray C) Betadine D) Lubricant Answer: B Page Ref: 845 Objective: 35.7 15) A patient in the supine position is lying on his A) back B) right side C) stomach D) left side Answer: A Page Ref: 850 Objective: 35.10

16) The position requires the patient to lie face down, flat on the stomach, head turned to the side, and arms alongside the body or crossed under the head. A) decubitus B) prone C) lateral recumbent D) lithotomy Answer: B Page Ref: 854 Objective: 35.10 17) The position is ideal for auscultation of the heart and lungs during the physical examination. A) sitting B) Trendelenburg C) prone D) Sims Answer: A Page Ref: 857 Objective: 35.10 18) pain is felt at a site away from the injured or diseased body part. A) Phantom B) Intractable C) Referred D) Radiating Answer: C Page Ref: 841 Objective: 35.6 7

19) The position is used for examination of the rectum, sigmoid colon, or vagina. A) knee-chest B) Fowler's C) supine D) Semi-Fowler's Answer: A Page Ref: 856 Objective: 35.10 20) The should be reported in the medical record in the patient's own words with quotation marks around them. A) chief complaint B) description of present illness C) assessment of body systems D) family medical history Answer: A Page Ref: 838 Objective: 35.4 21) When taking a history, the description of the "present illness" that describes the "chief complaint" should include all of the following EXCEPT . A) onset. B) duration. C) intensity. D) lifestyle habits. Answer: D Page Ref: 841 Objective: 35.4 22) The medical assistant's role in the physical exam includes all of these EXCEPT A) preparing the exam room before the patient's visit B) taking the patient's medical history C) doing a review of systems D) documenting information in the patient's medical record Answer: C Page Ref: 833 Objective: 35.9 23) The blood relatives. A) social B) past medical C) family D) psychiatric Answer: C Page Ref: 842 Objective: 35.4

aspect of the history includes asking the patient about the causes of death of

24) A(n) is used to examine the ears. A) ophthalmoscope B) otoscope C) stethoscope D) proctoscope Answer: B Page Ref: 843 Objective: 35.7 25) Information on the patient's chart that is the patient's primary reason for making the office visit is the . A) present illness B) chief complaint C) social history D) assessment of body systems Answer: B Page Ref: 837 Objective: 34.4 26) All of this information is included in the patient's "past medical history," EXCEPT . A) immunizations B) sexual preferences C) surgeries D) current medications Answer: B Page Ref: 841 Objective: 35.4 27) The medical assistant tests the patient's distance vision using a(n) A) Jaeger B) Snellen C) Sims D) Ishihara Answer: B Page Ref: 861 Objective: 35.7 28) The physician auscultates the sounds of the heart using (a) A) palpation B) percussion hammer C) percussion D) stethoscope Answer: D Page Ref: 849 Objective: 35.8 9

chart.

29) The position where the patient lies flat on the back with hands at the sides is A) dorsal recumbent B) decubitus C) horizontal recumbent D) prone Answer: C Page Ref: 850 Objective: 35.10

30) Which is NOT part of a patient's social history? A) Use of tobacco, alcohol, or recreational drugs B) Marital status C) Past medications D) Frequency of exercise Answer: C Page Ref: 842-843 Objective: 35.4 31) In the Fowler's position, the patient sits on the examination table with the head of the table raised to a -degree angle. A) 30 B) 60 C) 90 D) 120 Answer: C Page Ref: 852-853 Objective: 35.10 32) Which position is not normally used in a physician's office, except in cases of shock or hypotension? A) Dorsal recumbent B) Sims C) Lithotomy D) Trendelenburg Answer: D Page Ref: 857 Objective: 35.10

33) The first step in setting up efficient and effective communication with a patient is to . A) make the patient feel as comfortable as possible B) greet the patient by name and introduce yourself C) maintain a professional and friendly demeanor D) review the patient record Answer: D Page Ref: 836 Objective: 35.3 34) The special tools used in mensuration include all of the following, EXCEPT A) pinwheel B) scale C) tape measure D) calipers Answer: A Page Ref: 847 Objective: 35.8

35) Physicians use palpation to determine irregularities in organs and other body parts in all of the following areas EXCEPT . A) tenderness B) size C) symmetry D) shape Answer: C Page Ref: 846 Objective: 35.8 36) Which is NOT one of the six commonly used methods of physical examination? A) Inspection B) Duration C) Manipulation D) Mensuration Answer: B Page Ref: 846 Objective: 35.8 37) A is a metal instrument that has two prongs extending from the handle designed to vibrate at a specific frequency. A) tuning fork B) percussion hammer C) speculum D) reflex hammer Answer: A Page Ref: 843 Objective: 35.7 11

38) Acute pain is pain that begins suddenly and lasts A) 3—6 hours B) 3—6 days C) 3—6 weeks D) 3—6 months Answer: D Page Ref: 841 Objective: 35.6

39) Which of the following would be considered a patient’s symptom, rather than a sign? A) dizziness B) rash C) fever D) weight loss Answer: A Page Ref: 837 Objective: 35.5 40) The medical assistant is responsible for making sure the health history form A) assesses the patient's general well-being B) is filled out before the physician sees the patient C) includes a diagnosis D) provides a treatment plan Answer: B Page Ref: 837 Objective: 35.9

41) A is a subjective experience of the patient that cannot be observed by anyone else. A) sign B) symptom C) diagnosis D) prognosis Answer: B Page Ref: 837 Objective: 35.5 42) The first step in assisting with a complete physical examination of a patient is to A) obtain the patient's vital signs and measurements B) greet and identify the patient C) assemble all equipment in the examining room D) perform hand hygiene Answer: D Page Ref: 859 Objective: 35.9

43) A childhood disease would be considered part of an adult patient's A) family history B) social history C) review of systems D) past medical history Answer: D Page Ref: 841 Objective: 35.4

44) To effectively gather information about the patient's chief complaint, a medical assistant asks questions. A) "yes" or "no" B) objective C) open-ended D) subjective Answer: C Page Ref: 840 Objective: 35.3 45) Overwhelming, difficult-to-relieve, or all-consuming pain is described as A) radiating B) phantom C) intractable D) referred Answer: C Page Ref: 841 Objective: 35.6 46) The A) abdomen B) head C) arms D) mouth Answer: B Page Ref: 860 Objective: 35.8

is assessed for shape, size, and symmetry during a physical exam.

pain.

Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting, 4e (Beaman) Chapter 36 Assisting with Medical Specialties True/False Questions 1) Medical assistants working for immunologists should have a working knowledge of some common types of allergies. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 868 Objective: 36.2 2) The scratch method of allergy testing is usually performed using an intradermal injection. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 868 Objective: 36.3 3) To prepare for a fecal occult blood test, a patient should fast except for eating turnips, broccoli, cauliflower, and melons. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 881 Objective: 36.10 4) Not all tumors are cancerous. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 872 Objective: 36.5 5) A cardiologist is a physician specialist who is trained in the diagnosis, treatment, and management of cardiovascular diseases and disorders. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 873 Objective: 36.1 6) Angina is an irregular heartbeat. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 874 Objective: 36.1 7) Colonoscopy allows the physician to see more of the large intestine than sigmoidoscopy. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 882 Objective: 36.1 8) A patient may collect stool samples during menses. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 880 Objective: 36.10 1

9) When documenting pain in the patient's medical records, carefully note the location of the pain and ask the patient to quantify it on a scale of 0 to 100, with 100 being the greatest amount of pain. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 884 Objective: 36.11 10) Rheumatologists specialize in managing patients with joint inflammations or autoimmune disorders such as rheumatoid arthritis and lupus. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 883 Objective: 36.1 11) Hematochezia, also called bedsores, is a condition characterized by open sores caused by pressure at points of bony prominences on the body, resulting from a lack of blood flow. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 880 Objective: 36.1 12) Dermatofibroma is the removal of a fibrous tumor of the skin. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 872 Objective: 36.1 13) A malignant neoplasm is cancerous. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 872 Objective: 36.1 14) The use of surgery to remove dead tissue is called chemobrasion. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 873 Objective: 36.1 15) A patient with multiple risk factors for cardiovascular disease may also be at risk for stroke as well as for heart attack. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 874 Objective: 36.7 16) Edema, or swelling, particularly of the extremities, is one of the most common symptoms of cardiovascular disorders. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 874 Objective: 36.1

17) Obesity, smoking, and lack of exercise do NOT contribute to cardiovascular disease. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 874 Objective: 36.7 18) A medical assistant working for an endocrinologist may perform venipuncture frequently. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 875 Objective: 36.8 19) If diabetes goes untreated it can lead to stroke, cardiovascular disease, and loss of limbs due to infection and amputation. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 876 Objective: 36.8 20) Synthetic thyroid hormones are not used in the treatment of disorders of the thyroid. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 875 Objective: 36.8 21) A medical assistant assisting a gastroenterologist should have a patient who is in pain show him or her where the pain is located. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 880 Objective: 36.9 22) A condition associated with the liver may involve referred pain in the right shoulder. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 880 Objective: 36.9 Multiple Choice Questions 1) What is one cause of urticaria? A) Scratches B) Plant exposure C) Sun exposure D) Stress Answer: D Page Ref: 869 Objective: 36.2

2) All of the following are allergic conditions, EXCEPT A) eczema B) keratosis C) bronchial asthma D) urticaria Answer: B Page Ref: 869 Objective: 36.2

3) allergy testing is performed by injecting 0.01 to 0.02 mL of the allergen extract into the anterior surface of the forearm. A) Intradermal B) Scratch C) Patch D) Anaphylactic Answer: A Page Ref: 869 Objective: 36.3 4) Surgery performed to remove cancerous skin lesions and surrounding layers of skin is called . A) dermatoplasty B) dermabrasion C) Mohs surgery D) cauterization Answer: C Page Ref: 871 Objective: 36.2 5) All of the following are malignant (cancerous) neoplasms EXCEPT A) dermatofibroma B) basal cell carcinoma C) Kaposi's sarcoma D) squamous cell carcinoma Answer: A Page Ref: 872 Objective: 36.5 6) Which of the following procedures is the surgical removal of dead tissue? A) Biopsy B) Debridement C) Cauterization D) Dermabrasion Answer: B Page Ref: 873 Objective: 36.4 4

7) Which of the following is NOT considered one of the symptoms of cardiovascular disorders? A) Edema B) Cyanosis C) Urticaria D) Chest pain Answer: C Page Ref: 874 Objective: 36.6 8) One of the most common endocrine system disorders the medical assistant will encounter is . A) cellulitis B) hormonal imbalance C) endocrinology D) diabetes mellitus Answer: D Page Ref: 876 Objective: 36.8 9) Which of the following is NOT regulated by hormones? A) Growth B) Sexual development C) Eye color D) Mood Answer: C Page Ref: 875 Objective: 36.8 10) The test consists of placing a small amount of allergen onto the anterior forearm and then covering this with a protective wrap. A) patch B) intradermal C) scratch D) poke Answer: A Page Ref: 869 Objective: 36.3 11) The mouth and accessory organs such as the liver, gallbladder, and pancreas are parts of the system. A) digestive B) endocrine C) circulatory D) integumentary Answer: A Page Ref: 877 Objective: 36.9 5

12) surgery is the removal of cancerous skin lesions and the surrounding layers of skin. A) Mohs B) Curettage C) Debridement D) Cauterization Answer: A Page Ref: 871 Objective: 36.4 13) is a superficial dermatitis accompanied by papules, vesicles, and crusting. The condition can be acute or chronic. A) Eczema B) Urticaria C) Contact dermatitis D) Allergic rhinitis Answer: A Page Ref: 869 Objective: 36.4 14) A(n) A) vesicle B) pustule C) polyp D) wheal Answer: D Page Ref: 868 Objective: 36.1

is a small, round, raised area on the skin that may be accompanied by itching.

15) A(n) test is a measurement of antibody levels to particular antigens in the blood. A) intradermal B) radioallergosorbent C) scratch D) allergen Answer: B Page Ref: 870 Objective: 36.3

16) Which of the following is a type of hormone that can be produced synthetically and is used as an antiinflammatory agent to fight disease? A) Insulin B) Thyroid hormones C) Steroids D) All of the above Answer: C Page Ref: 875 Objective: 36.8 17) The medical assistant may perform a _ on a patient because many endocrine system diseases are diagnosed and treated based on monitoring hormone levels through blood tests. A) glucose tolerance test B) basal metabolic rate C) urine drug screen D) venipuncture Answer: D Page Ref: 875 Objective: 36.8 18) pain may be felt in the upper right back or shoulder, not necessarily in the abdomen. A) Gallbladder B) Abdominal C) Kidney D) Appendix Answer: A Page Ref: 880 Objective: 36.9 19) Psoriasis is not contagious and is thought to be a(n) A) cancerous B) autoimmune C) acute D) incurable Answer: B Page Ref: 873 Objective: 36.4

disease.

20) A medical assistant may perform a (an) reconstruction of a joint. A) arthrodesis B) X-ray C) arthroplasty D) colonoscopy Answer: B Page Ref: 883 Objective: 36.11

for a patient needing a surgical

21) The medical assistant for an orthopedist may evaluate the whether it is equal on both sides of the body. A) glandular function B) muscle strength C) circulation D) allergic response Answer: B Page Ref: 884 Objective: 36.11 22) A normal pupil exam is documented as A) PERRLA B) PERPAO C) PEARLA D) PEARAP Answer: A Page Ref: 885 Objective: 36.12

of a patient to determine

in the patient's medical record.

23) When removing a patient's wound dressing, the medical assistant should note the and type of exudate. A) amount B) color C) consistency D) texture Answer: A Page Ref: 871 Objective: 36.4

24) is a common test that medical assistants perform in a cardiologist's office that records and monitors the heart's electric activity. A) ECG B) Angiography C) Angiogram D) None of the above Answer: A Page Ref: 873 Objective: 36.6 25) A(n) is a specialist who the medical assistant helps with the management of allergies. A) cardiologist B) immunologist C) endocrinologist D) none of the above Answer: B Page Ref: 868 Objective: 36.2 26) Research indicates that the more a person likely that person is to have a heart attack. A) increases B) lowers C) maintains D) eats Answer: B Page Ref: 874 Objective: 36.7

low-density lipids (LDLs), the less

27) The medical assistant acts as a to help patients reduce or eliminate their risk factors for cardiovascular disease and promote good cardiac health. A) "patient educator" B) "good listener" C) "patient coach" D) "great advocator" Answer: C Page Ref: 874 Objective: 36.6

28) When assisting with a sigmoidoscopy, the medical assist will need a(n) included in the equipment and supplies. A) basin of cold water B) Holter monitor C) electrocardiogram (ECG) machine D) insufflator Answer: D Page Ref: 878 Objective: 36.9

to be

29) All the following are considered benign (noncancerous) neoplasms, EXCEPT A) a nevus B) lipoma C) leukoplakia D) malignant melanoma Answer: D Page Ref: 872 Objective: 36.5 30) Another term for a birthmark is A) nevus B) keloid C) lipoma D) dermatofibroma Answer: A Page Ref: 872 Objective: 36.5

31) A benign tumor of dilated vessels is called a _ A) nevus B) keloid C) lipoma D) hemangioma Answer: D Page Ref: 872 Objective: 36.5

32) A small sample of tissue taken during a colonoscopy is called a(n) A) curettage B) biopsy C) dermatoplasty D) adipectomy Answer: B Page Ref: 883 Objective: 36.9

33) A medical assistant assisting with a neurologic examination would NOT A) assemble equipment on the Mayo tray B) clean the examination room after the patient leaves C) perform a visual acuity test if ordered D) request that the patient undress Answer: D Page Ref: 886 Objective: 36.12

34) Which of the following is NOT a component of a pupil check? A) Ask the patient to look straight ahead. B) Hold open the eyes by gently separating the eyelids. C) Move a pen back and forth in front of the patient's nose. D) Warmly greet and identify the patient. Answer: C Page Ref: 885 Objective: 36.12 35) A Holter monitor is a small, portable device that the patient typically wears for that records the heart's activity while the patient is performing daily activities. A) 24 to 48 hours B) 24 to 48 days C) two to four weeks D) two to four years Answer: A Page Ref: 874 Objective: 36.6 36) A periodic test for risk factors. A) blood cultures B) RAST C) allergens D) blood lipid levels Answer: D Page Ref: 874 Objective: 36.6

may be recommended to monitor for cardiovascular disease

37) Evidence indicates that cardiac changes that were once associated with aging and thus thought to be unavoidable can be modified by and personal habits. A) dialysis B) lifestyle habits C) medications D) surgery Answer: C Page Ref: 874 Objective: 36.7 11

38) Which of the following statements about heart disease is TRUE? A) Changes in lifestyle and personal habits do little to reverse a person's chances of developing cardiovascular diseases. B) A person with heart disease has little chance of having a stroke. C) All patients with heart disease follow the same treatment plan. D) A person with moderate cardiac risk should have an LDL below 130 mg/dL. Answer: D Page Ref: 874 Objective: 36.7 39) The under- or overproduction of a small amount of a hormone A) usually does not affect a person negatively B) is a rare situation that affects very few people C) can have drastic consequences D) is impossible to treat Answer: C Page Ref: 875 Objective: 36.8

40) At least how many people in the United States are living with diabetes mellitus? A) 29 million B) 1 million C) 2 billion D) 500,000 Answer: A Page Ref: 876 Objective: 36.8 41) For endocrine system-related diseases and disorders, the medical assistant should provide based on the treatment protocol established by the physician? A) a diagnosis B) patient education and support C) a prescribed regimen D) a review of systems Answer: B Page Ref: 875 Objective: 36.8 42) Some examinations associated with the embarrassing to patients. A) skeletal B) nervous C) digestive D) muscular Answer: C Page Ref: 880 Objective: 36.9

system are uncomfortable and

43) A patient with hemorrhoids may complain about A) hematochezia B) diarrhea C) vomiting D) abdominal pain Answer: A Page Ref: 880 Objective: 36.9 44) A sigmoidoscopy is also called a A) proctoscopic exam B) proctoplasty exam C) colonoscopy D) jejunostomy Answer: A Page Ref: 881 Objective: 36.9

45) Alzheimer's disease is a progressive, A) acute B) asymptomatic C) chronic D) musculoskeletal Answer: C Page Ref: 887 Objective: 36.12

_ disorder.

46) The pupils of the eyes are checked for because they often display signs of the functioning of the brain and nervous system. A) equal size B) equal dilation in both eyes in darkness or dim light C) equal reaction to light D) all the above Answer: D Page Ref: 885 Objective: 36.12 47) Muscles account for approximately A) 50 B) 60 C) 75 D) 80 Answer: A Page Ref: 883 Objective: 36.11

percent of body weight.

48) When performing a stool sample test, a negative result will have A) a blue color B) a brown color C) a yellow color D) no color change Answer: D Page Ref: 878 Objective: 36.10 49) An occult blood culture tests feces for A) large amounts of blood B) blood and protein in the stool C) invisible amounts of blood D) blood and glucose Answer: C Page Ref: 881 Objective: 36.10

50) Patient preparation for collecting stool samples at home should include instructions for how to collect separate stool samples. A) two B) three C) four D) five Answer: B Page Ref: 881 Objective: 36.10

Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting, 4e (Beaman) Chapter 37 Assisting with Reproductive Specialties True/False Questions 1) Gynecology is the branch of medicine that deals with disorders and diseases of the female reproductive system. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 891 Objective: 37.1 2) Individuals infected with a sexually transmitted infection may NOT have any symptoms at all. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 909 Objective: 37.7 3) Prostate cancer is a fast-growing malignant tumor of the prostate gland. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 906 Objective: 37.6 4) Quickening is the total number of pregnancies. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 899 Objective: 37.1 5) Congenital syphilis may be transmitted to a newborn by an infected mother during pregnancy. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 913 Objective: 37.8 6) Trichomoniasis causes a white or yellow foamy vaginal discharge in females and a foul odor during urination in males. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 913 Objective: 37.8 7) An important job responsibility of the medical assistant is to take a thorough patient history to identify the patient's problems and provide information to aid the physician with diagnosis and treatment. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 892 Objective: 37.2

8) The PSA test checks for a protein released by the penis. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 906 Objective: 37.6 9) When assisting with a pap test, the medical assistant should place the contaminated speculum into the receptacle. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 897 Objective: 37.2 10) During the puerperium, the patient should be encouraged to eat balanced meals, continue taking vitamins, and avoid lifting heavy objects. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 902 Objective: 37.4 11) Some studies have found that circumcision may decrease sensitivity during sex and may reduce a male's overall sexual satisfaction. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 907 Objective: 37.6 12) Sexually transmitted infections (STIs) only affect men. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 909 Objective: 37.7 13) One of the more common procedures uses the Plastibell, which is a plastic device slipped between the penis and the foreskin, to circumcise a male. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 907 Objective: 37.6 14) Use of oral contraceptives is advisable for women of any age. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 904 Objective: 37.5 15) During a pap test the medical assistant must place lubricant onto the speculum as the physician holds it. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 897 Objective: 37.2

16) Some men in the early stages of testicular cancer may experience symptoms that make them seek medical attention, such as a lump on the testicle. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 907 Objective: 37.6 17) As men age, the prostate gland becomes smaller, which can restrict the flow of urine. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 906 Objective: 37.6 18) If the patient feels more comfortable viewing sexually transmitted infections (STI) brochures at home rather than in the medical office, the medical assistant should follow up afterward and see if the patient has any questions. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 910 Objective: 37.7 Multiple Choice Questions 1) A medical assistant will assist the physician with the breast and examination to determine the condition of both the external and internal organs of reproduction. A) pelvic B) lumbar C) pupil D) cerebral Answer: A Page Ref: 891 Objective: 37.2 2) When instructing a patient to perform a breast examination, the medical assistant should state all the following, EXCEPT . A) "Complete a breast exam once a week" B) "Raise the right arm, and use the left hand to examine the right breast" C) "Flatten the fingertips and check the breast tissue for lumps or thickening" D) "Gently squeeze both nipples and look for any discharge" Answer: A Page Ref: 892-893 Objective: 37.2

3) The first prenatal visit usually takes place after the patient has missed her period. A) first B) second C) third D) fourth Answer: B Page Ref: 899 Objective: 37.3

menstrual

4) A history includes recording the menstrual history, including the age of onset of menstruation, menstrual interval cycle, duration of period, amount of flow, any menstrual cycle problems, and any types of contraception the patient is currently using or has previously used. A) prenatal B) parental C) menstruation D) menstrual Answer: A Page Ref: 899 Objective: 37.3 5) Labor involves three stages and is triggered by the release of the hormone A) progesterone B) estrogen C) testosterone D) oxytocin Answer: D Page Ref: 902 Objective: 37.1 6) is the visual examination of the cervix and vagina. A) Colposcopy B) Conization C) Cryosurgery D) Culdoscopy Answer: A Page Ref: 898 Objective: 37.1

7) Persons with chlamydia should abstain from sexual activity for days after singledose antibiotics or until completion of a seven-day course to prevent spreading the infection. A) three B) five C) seven D) 10 Answer: C Page Ref: 910-911 Objective: 37.8 8) All of the following fall under the barrier method of contraception, EXCEPT A) male condoms. B) female condoms. C) birth control pills. D) diaphragms. Answer: C Page Ref: 904 Objective: 37.5

9) Testicular cancer is largely a disease of young and middle-aged men, with the average age of at the time of diagnosis. A) 27 B) 33 C) 45 D) 53 Answer: B Page Ref: 907 Objective: 37.6 10) Treating and preventing the spread of sexually transmitted infections (STIs) depends on and the identification of sexual partners who may have been exposed. A) education B) biology C) genes D) genetics Answer: A Page Ref: 910 Objective: 37.7 11) During a pelvic exam, the medical assistant should do all the following, EXCEPT A) apply lubricant to the physician's gloved finger in preparation for the manual examination B) take the patient's feet out of the stirrups and help them to a sitting position C) collect the pap specimen and smear each one of the slides D) spray fixative from about 6 inches away from the slide Answer: C Page Ref: 897-898 Objective: 37.2 5

12) The medical assistant's role in follow-up prenatal visits includes A) setting up the exam room B) obtaining a urine specimen C) taking the patient's blood pressure D) all of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 900 Objective: 37.3

13) Before scheduling a patient for a pap test, the medical assistant should advise her A) not to douche for 72 hours prior to the exam B) avoid sexual intercourse for at least 48 hours prior to the exam C) not to drink alcohol 24 hours prior to the exam D) all of the above Answer: B Page Ref: 897 Objective: 37.2 14) The normal fetal heart tone (FHT) is 12 weeks using a Doppler fetal pulse detector. A) 10 to 40 B) 40 to 80 C) 80 to 120 D) 120 to 160 Answer: D Page Ref: 900 Objective: 37.3

beats per minute and can be detected at 10 to

15) is used to determine the age, growth rate, and position of the fetus, as well as obvious birth defects. It is generally performed at 16 to 20 weeks and is generally painless. A) Ultrasound B) Cardiogram C) X-ray D) Amniocentesis Answer: A Page Ref: 901 Objective: 37.3

16) Instruments are inserted through the laparoscope to seal the fallopian tubes by cauterizing (burning) or closing them with clips or rings in a procedure known as . A) polypectomy B) tubal ligation C) pregnanediol D) pelvimetry Answer: B Page Ref: 906 Objective: 37.5 17) is the absence of menstrual periods. A) Dysplasia B) Chancre C) Amenorrhea D) Eclampsia Answer: C Page Ref: 897 Objective: 37.1 18) A postpartum visit should be scheduled approximately evaluate overall health status of the patient. A) one B) two C) four D) six Answer: D Page Ref: 902 Objective: 37.4

weeks after childbirth to

19) is a procedure in which a small sample of cells is taken from the placenta and examined for chromosomal abnormalities. A) Amniocentesis B) Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) test C) Chorionic villus sampling (CVS) D) Nuchal translucency screening Answer: C Page Ref: 901 Objective: 37.1 20) is the withdrawal of the man's penis before ejaculation in the vagina. A) Penis withholdment B) Coitus interruptus C) Penis envy D) Coitus withdrawal Answer: B Page Ref: 904 Objective: 37.5 7

21) The average woman in the United States is fertile for A) her entire lifetime B) about 40 years of her adult life C) about 20 years D) a quarter of her life Answer: B Page Ref: 905 Objective: 37.5

22) Vaginal discharge from the uterus following labor and childbirth is called A) puerperium B) menstrual fluid C) lochia D) pus Answer: C Page Ref: 902 Objective: 37.1 23) The second stage of labor is characterized by A) dilation of two cm. B) puerperium C) pushing D) placental expulsion Answer: C Page Ref: 902 Objective: 37.3

24) is the thinning of the cervical walls. A) Effacement B) Expulsion C) Dilation D) Lochia Answer: A Page Ref: 902 Objective: 37.1 25) Implanon, an implantable, matchstick-size contraceptive device, may be left in place for up to years. A) two B) three C) four D) five Answer: B Page Ref: 905 Objective: 37.5 8

26) Women who develop gestational diabetes are . A) at higher risk of developing diabetes later in life. B) likely to transfer the condition to the developing fetus. C) advised to remain on bed rest for the duration of the pregnancy. D) also likely to have Group B Streptococcus. Answer: A Page Ref: 902 Objective: 37.3 27) Ultrasound can be used to determine the fetus's sex, usually by the A) 5th B) 16th C) 20th D) 30th Answer: C Page Ref: 901 Objective: 37.3

week.

28) If partially blocked, a fertilized ovum may begin to grow in the fallopian tube rather than in the uterus, causing a(n) _ pregnancy. A) nocturia B) ectopic C) para D) eclampsia Answer: B Page Ref: 912 Objective: 37.1 29) The postpartum visit includes . A) testing hemoglobin and hematocrit levels B) performing pelvic examination C) a rectal examination for hemorrhoids D) all of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 902 Objective: 37.4 30) During the postpartum period, menstruation should resume after about eight weeks in the nonnursing mother and after in the nursing mother. A) 10 weeks B) 25 weeks C) six months D) 12 months Answer: C Page Ref: 902-903 Objective: 37.4 9

31) Which of the following is NOT true of gonorrhea? A) Males may develop a thick, milky discharge. B) Woman may develop a yellowish-green discharge. C) If left untreated, it can spread to the blood and joints. D) The rate of infection is approximately 120 in 10,000 people. Answer: D Page Ref: 911 Objective: 37.8 32) The term gravida means the number of A) births after 20 weeks gestation B) total pregnancies C) months the woman has been trying to conceive D) fetuses that did not reach the age of viability Answer: B Page Ref: 899 Objective: 37.1

33) A woman who delivered a single child and had one miscarriage would be charted as . A) gravida I, para I, abs 0 B) gravida II, para II, abs I C) gravida I, para 0, abs I D) gravida II, para I, abs I Answer: D Page Ref: 899 Objective: 37.3 34) Health care providers recommend that expectant mothers refrain from all of the following, EXCEPT . A) exercising B) smoking C) drinking alcohol D) taking any illicit drugs Answer: A Page Ref: 899 Objective: 37.3 35) Sores from genital herpes usually appear as one or more blisters on or around which of the following locations? A) Genitals B) Rectum C) Mouth D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 911 Objective: 37.8 10

36) Under what condition do physicians allow pregnant women to take some medications? A) The women does not want to stop using the medication. B) The medication is sold over-the-counter. C) Failure to take the prescribed treatment would hinder the health of the mother. D) The woman has been taking the medication for more than a year. Answer: C Page Ref: 899 Objective: 37.3 37) Folic acid before conception and during pregnancy helps prevent A) delivering a premature newborn B) dysplasia C) amenorrhea D) birth defects to the baby's brain or spine Answer: D Page Ref: 899 Objective: 37.3

38) A Pap specimen that receives a grade of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) III is . A) mildly dysplastic B) indicative of carcinoma in situ C) severely dysplastic D) benign Answer: B Page Ref: 898 Objective: 37.4 39) All of the following are true about genital herpes, EXCEPT A) treatment includes large doses of penicillin B) lesions may reoccur during stressful situations C) the initial outbreak may be accompanied by flu-like symptoms D) the blisters may break and leave sores that may take weeks to heal Answer: A Page Ref: 911 Objective: 37.8

40) Hormonal methods of birth control include all the following, EXCEPT A) birth control pills B) the skin patch C) the vaginal ring D) the shield Answer: D Page Ref: 904-905 Objective: 37.5 11

41) A medical assistant who suspects a patient may be experiencing physical abuse should . A) bring his or her concerns to the physician at once B) call the police immediately C) speak to the patient's family members to find out more information D) maintain a professional demeanor and not become involved Answer: A Page Ref: 896 Objective: 37.2 42) The Gardasil vaccine is given to prevent infection from A) herpes simplex B) Staphylococcus aureus C) candidiasis D) infection from the four types of human papillomavirus (HPV) Answer: D Page Ref: 896 Objective: 37.8 43) The only foolproof means of preventing STIs is A) to wear a condom B) abstinence from sexual activity C) commitment to a monogamous relationship D) to know your partner's sexual history Answer: B Page Ref: 910 Objective: 37.7 44) Treatment for genital warts includes A) removal with freezing B) metronidazole C) penicillin D) all of the above Answer: A Page Ref: 911 Objective: 37.8

45) Symptoms of prostate cancer include all the following, EXCEPT A) back pain B) blood in the urine C) foul smelling urine D) erectile dysfunction Answer: C Page Ref: 906 Objective: 37.6

46) During the ulcers) occur. A) first B) second C) third D) fourth Answer: A Page Ref: 912 Objective: 37.8

stage of syphilis, a single or sometimes multiple chancres (sores or

47) Swelling of the face or hands and sudden weight gain in pregnant women may be symptoms of . A) abruptio placentae B) preeclampsia C) low blood pressure D) kidney stones Answer: B Page Ref: 903 Objective: 37.3 48) All of the following are reportable STIs in most states, EXCEPT A) HIV/AIDS B) syphilis C) gonorrhea D) genital herpes Answer: D Page Ref: 910 Objective: 37.7 49) The A) parturition B) menarche C) fundus D) quickening Answer: C Page Ref: 899 Objective: 37.1

is the top of the uterus.

50) During a pap test the medical assistant must mark the slides with a letter designation such as . A) C for cervical B) V for vaginal C) E for endocervical D) all of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 897 Objective: 37.2 13

Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting, 4e (Beaman) Chapter 38 Assisting in Eye and Ear Care True/False Questions 1) Normal visual acuity, or clearness of vision, is referred to as 20/20 vision, which means the eye should see an object 20 feet away clearly. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 918 Objective: 38.1 2) The electronystagmograph (ENG) is used to measure pressure in the middle ear. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 930 Objective: 38.1 3) Contrast sensitivity measures the patient's ability to distinguish faint differences in shades of gray. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 922 Objective: 38.1 4) Irrigation, or lavage, of the eye is necessary to remove foreign substances or chemicals. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 923 Objective: 38.1 5) The study of hearing is known as audiology. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 926 Objective: 38.1 6) During ear irrigation, pour the warmed solution into a sterile basin and fill the syringe with 75 mL of solution. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 927 Objective: 38.6 7) A medical assistant may be asked to interpret the results of an audiometer test. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 930 Objective: 38.7 8) Presbycusis of the ear is necessary to remove impacted earwax or foreign matter from the ear. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 932 Objective: 38.1 1

9) The Vistech Consultant system is used to test for contrast sensitivity. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 922 Objective: 38.2 10) Myopia, or nearsightedness, means that the eye sees distant objects well, but near objects appear blurry. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 918 Objective: 38.1 11) Strabismus is an eye disorder caused by weakness in the external eye muscles that often results in the eyes looking in different directions. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 918 Objective: 38.1 12) Nearness acuity is measured using the Snellen eye chart only for patients who can read and do NOT have a language barrier. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 918 Objective: 38.2 13) The abbreviation for the right eye is OS, for the left eye is OD, and for both eyes is OO. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 918 Objective: 38.2 14) Testing for near-vision acuity is done by having the patient read the Jaeger card held at normal reading distance (14 to 16 inches). Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 921 Objective: 38.2 15) During eye irrigation, place a towel over the patient's shoulder. If both eyes are to be irrigated, then two separate sets of equipment must be used to prevent cross-infection. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 924 Objective: 38.3 16) During eye irrigation, gently irrigate from outer to inner canthus, aiming at the upper conjunctiva. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 924 Objective: 38.3 2

17) When assisting a visually impaired person, the assistant should ask if the person needs assistance and offer her arm to the patient. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 926 Objective: 38.5 18) When assisting a visually impaired person, the assistant should never bring the patient his coat and belongings. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 926 Objective: 38.5 19) Instilling ear medication is beyond the scope of practice for medical assistants. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 926 Objective: 38.6 20) Conduction hearing loss is due to obstruction of sound waves. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 929 Objective: 38.1 21) An audiometer is an electronic instrument that measures the frequencies or the number of fluctuations per second of energy in the form of sound waves. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 929 Objective: 38.1, 38.7 22) Physicians review an audiogram to evaluate a patient's hearing. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 929 Objective: 38.7 Multiple Choice Questions 1) A(n) is a doctor of optometry (not a medical doctor) who can perform eye examinations, prescribe medications needed for an eye examination, and write prescriptions for eyeglasses and contact lenses. A) chiropractor B) gynecologist C) ophthalmologist D) optometrist Answer: D Page Ref: 918 Objective: 38.1

2) The is used to view inner parts of the eye. A) microscope B) telescope C) ophthalmoscope D) otoscope Answer: C Page Ref: 917 Objective: 38.1 3) Errors of occur when the eyeball is either too long or too short, the lens loses its elasticity, or the lens or cornea has an irregular curvature. A) retraction B) refraction C) renunciation D) retrusion Answer: B Page Ref: 918 Objective: 38.2 4) The is the clear, transparent covering of the eye. A) cornea B) iris C) pupil D) eyelid Answer: A Page Ref: 918 Objective: 38.1 5) When assisting with audiometry, the assistant should do all the following, EXCEPT . A) establish signal response if no automatic button is available B) place headphones over the patient's ears C) begin with high frequency, gradually going down D) document the procedure appropriately Answer: C Page Ref: 931 Objective: 38.7 6) The ability to distinguish colors depends on the cones of the retina, which react to light and permit us to see shades of red, green, and _ . A) yellow B) black C) blue D) white Answer: C Page Ref: 921 Objective: 38.2 4

7) The lens of the eye loses its A) hardness B) elasticity C) shape D) memory Answer: B Page Ref: 921 Objective: 38.2 8) An eye exam every vision. A) six months B) year C) one to two years D) four to five years Answer: C Page Ref: 924 Objective: 38.2

with age, which impairs the ability to focus.

is important to monitor changing conditions in the patient's

9) Physicians who specialize in the ear are known as all of the following EXCEPT A) otologists B) orthodontists C) otorhinolaryngologists D) ENT (ear, nose, and throat) doctors Answer: B Page Ref: 926 Objective: 38.1

10) Which accommodations should be made to assist hearing impaired patients? A) Have telephones with hearing amplifiers. B) Cover your mouth when speaking. C) Speak in a loud voice. D) all of the above Answer: A Page Ref: 932-933 Objective: 38.8 11) Children with appear "cross-eyed" and may need to wear a patch over the "good" eye to strengthen the weaker eye. A) strabismus B) astigmatism C) hyperopia D) myopia Answer: A Page Ref: 918 Objective: 38.2 5

12) The myopic eye requires a A) concave B) convex C) congruent D) convoluted Answer: A Page Ref: 918 Objective: 38.2

lens to correct vision.

13) Testing for _ vision acuity should be done if the patient complains of difficulty reading or performing other close-range tasks. A) near B) distant C) isolated D) secluded Answer: A Page Ref: 920 Objective: 38.2 14) The test is printed in either card or booklet form with a single color-dot illustration containing a number or curved lines and shapes. A) Ishihara B) Kroll C) Moyer D) Rines Answer: A Page Ref: 921 Objective: 38.2 15) Which of the following are acceptable established responses when giving an audiometry test that does not have automatic buttons? A) Nodding B) Holding up a finger C) Raising a hand D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 931 Objective: 38.7

16) A is any instrument that holds open a body cavity to permit inspection. A) radial keratotomy B) tonometry C) vitrectomy D) speculum Answer: D Page Ref: 917 Objective: 38.1 17) All of the following are changes in the structure and function of the eye with age, EXCEPT . A) eyelids drooping because of a decrease in the amount of fatty tissue in the lids B) tears decreasing both in quality and quantity C) diminishing depth vision D) conjunctiva becoming thicker and wetter Answer: D Page Ref: 925 Objective: 38.2 18) If someone splashes chemicals in his eye, he should flood the eye with water for minutes and seek immediate medical attention. A) 5 B) 10 C) 15 D) 20 Answer: D Page Ref: 924 Objective: 38.3 19) When instilling ear medications, the assistant should do all the following, EXCEPT . A) make sure the medication is cool B) pull the adult earlobe up and back C) place the dropper in the ear without touching the sides of the canal D) perform proper hand hygiene Answer: A Page Ref: 928 Objective: 38.6

20) Hearing is considered to be within normal limits if the patient hears sounds up to decibels, depending on environmental noise. A) five B) 10 C) 15 D) 20 Answer: C Page Ref: 929 Objective: 38.7 21) To assist the visually impaired, the medical assistant should A) keep a service animal in the office B) offer to drive the patient home C) describe the procedure and how long it will take D) all of the above Answer: C Page Ref: 926 Objective: 38.5

22) When irrigating the ear, repeat the process until the return from the ear is A) absent B) clear C) increased D) opaque Answer: C Page Ref: 927 Objective: 38.6

23) An is a technician who specializes in grinding lenses and preparing eyeglasses and contact lenses. A) optician B) ophthalmologist C) optometrist D) ophthalmic Answer: A Page Ref: 918 Objective: 38.1

24) Before testing with the Snellen E chart, have the patient demonstrate by pointing his or her finger in the direction the is pointing so as to determine whether the patient can follow your instructions. A) G B) C C) F D) E Answer: D Page Ref: 918, 920 Objective: 38.2 25) Which of the following is NOT a valid cause of defects in color vision? A) excessive sleeping B) heredity C) disease D) injury Answer: A Page Ref: 921 Objective: 38.2 26) Intraocular pressure is measured through tonometry in millimeters of A) copper B) magnesium C) mercury D) zinc Answer: C Page Ref: 922 Objective: 38.2

(mm Hg).

27) For the Ishihara test, the patient is shown 14 color plates or pages and must correctly identify to be considered to have color vision within normal limits. A) seven B) 10 C) 12 D) 14 Answer: B Page Ref: 922 Objective: 38.2

28) When assessing distance vision acuity using a Snellen Chart, the assistant should begin with the line. A) 20/10 B) 20/20 C) 20/50 D) 20/70 Answer: D Page Ref: 920 Objective: 38.2 29) The organ of Corti, located in the cochlea (a part of the inner ear), contains that convert the waves of sound that travel through the ear. A) hairlike B) stringy C) waxy D) skinlike Answer: A Page Ref: 929 Objective: 38.1

fibers

30) is a refractive disorder in which irregularities in the curvature of the cornea cause light not to focus on the retina but to spread out over an area, causing overall blurring of vision. A) Astigmatism B) Myopia C) Presbyopia D) Strabismus Answer: A Page Ref: 918 Objective: 38.1 31) The abbreviations AD for right ear, AS for left ear, and used when charting results involving ears. A) AE B) AU C) AO D) AI Answer: B Page Ref: 929 Objective: 38.6

for both ears should be

32) , or farsightedness, means that the eyes see distant objects well, but close objects appear blurred. A) Presbyopia B) Hyperopia C) Myopic D) Myopia Answer: B Page Ref: 918 Objective: 38.1 33) The are the number of fluctuations per second of energy in the form of sound waves. A) frequencies B) inhalations C) inhibitions D) reverberations Answer: A Page Ref: 929 Objective: 38.1 34) Otitis media a(n) ear infection is the most frequent ear problem in the pediatric patient, particularly those under six years of age. A) outer B) inner C) middle D) upper Answer: C Page Ref: 927 Objective: 38.1 35) When irrigating the ear, ask the patient to hold the emesis basin against run-off fluid. A) the chest below the chin B) the back below the neck C) the head above the ear D) the neck below the ear Answer: D Page Ref: 927 Objective: 38.6

to catch

36) is essential in the process of learning to talk because speech is based on imitating sounds and mimicking the way words are used to communicate. A) Seeing B) Believing C) Knowing D) Hearing Answer: D Page Ref: 929 Objective: 38.7 37) Patients need to understand the connection between repetitive exposure to loud noise and . A) blindness B) deafness C) pain D) blood pressure Answer: B Page Ref: 928 Objective: 38.6 38) hearing loss results from damage to the organ of Corti or damage to the auditory nerve. A) Tympanum B) Sensorineural C) Conduction D) Lavage Answer: B Page Ref: 929 Objective: 38.1 39) A(n) is a lighted instrument used to examine the tympanic membrane. A) otoscope B) stethoscope C) ophthalmoscope D) microscope Answer: A Page Ref: 917 Objective: 38.1 40) Using the Jaeger card, paragraph A) J1 B) J2 C) J3 D) J4 Answer: B Page Ref: 921 Objective: 38.2

represents 20/20 vision.

41) When irrigating the eye, hold the syringe A) 1/4 B) 1/2 C) 3/4 D) 1 Answer: B Page Ref: 924 Objective: 38.3

inch from the eye.

42) The Ishihara booklet or cards should be stored out of plates. A) sight B) direct light C) indirect light D) reach Answer: B Page Ref: 922 Objective: 38.2

to prevent fading of the color

43) Contrast sensitivity measures the patient's ability to distinguish faint differences in shades of . A) black B) white C) gray D) color Answer: C Page Ref: 922 Objective: 38.2 44) of the ear is necessary to remove impacted earwax or foreign matter from the ear. A) Irrigation B) Removal C) Tubular litigation D) Impaction Answer: A Page Ref: 926 Objective: 38.6 45) A is used to test for contrast sensitivity. A) Pelli-Robson chart B) Jaeger card C) Ishihara test D) Snellen chart Answer: A Page Ref: 922 Objective: 38.2 13

46) Visual field tests, known as vision. A) stapedectomy B) tympanometry C) perimetry D) Weber Answer: C Page Ref: 923 Objective: 38.2

tests, measure the patient's central and peripheral

47) A(n) is a special examination that evaluates balance through measurement of the movement of the eyes. A) electrocochleogram B) audiometric test C) electronystagmograph D) myringoplasty Answer: C Page Ref: 930 Objective: 38.1 48) A result of 20/20 vision means that a person with normal distance acuity could read a line from a Snellen eye chart at a distance of _ feet. A) 10 B) 20 C) 30 D) 40 Answer: B Page Ref: 918 Objective: 38.2 49) Prolonged exposure to loud noise over hearing loss. A) 25 B) 45 C) 65 D) 85 Answer: D Page Ref: 930 Objective: 38.7

decibels can cause temporary or permanent

50) An is a medical doctor who can perform eye examinations and eye surgery, and prescribe medications, eyeglasses, and contact lenses. A) ophthalmologist B) optometrist C) otologist D) entomologist Answer: A Page Ref: 918 Objective: 38.1 51) When instilling eye medication, do all of the following EXCEPT A) perform hand hygiene B) dry the area around the eye with sterile gauze C) touch the dropper or ointment tube to the eye D) pull down the lower eyelid to expose the conjunctiva Answer: C Page Ref: 924 Objective: 38.4 52) When irrigating a 2-year-old child's ear, the medical assistant should A) pull the earlobe up and back B) pull the earlobe toward the face C) cover the earlobe with gauze D) pull the earlobe down and back Answer: D Page Ref: 927 Objective: 38.6

53) How many times should a medical assistant check the label on an irrigating solution to make sure it has the right name, expiration date, and concentration? A) Once B) Twice C) Three times D) Four times Answer: C Page Ref: 927 Objective: 38.3 54) Which of the following has a higher decibel level than a motorcycle? A) Washing machine B) Freight train C) Snow blower D) Library Answer: C Page Ref: 930 (Fig 38-1) Objective: 38.7 15

55) Involuntary rapid eye movement in response to stimuli is called A) strabismus B) nystagmus C) stigmatism D) presbycusis Answer: B Page Ref: 930 Objective: 38.1

Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting, 4e (Beaman) Chapter 39 Assisting with Life Span Specialties: Pediatrics True/False Questions 1) Two days after birth, the newborn is assessed using the Apgar scoring system. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 942 Objective: 39.6 2) Gaining insufficient height as specified by standardized baby growth charts is called failure to thrive (FTT). Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 942 Objective: 39.1 3) In children under two years of age, the apical pulse should be measured by placing the stethoscope on the right side of the chest to the left of the nipple and counting for one full minute. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 944 Objective: 39.6 4) When a caregiver brings in a child who is ill, the infected child should be put immediately in an examination room to reduce the risk of spreading infection among the vulnerable population of the office reception room. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 949 Objective: 39.3 5) The common cold is caused by over 200 varieties of rhinovirus, is highly contagious, and is usually self-limiting after about a week. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 952 Objective: 39.8 6) Croup is an infection of the middle ear caused by cold, allergies, or other respiratory infections. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 953 Objective: 39.1 7) Otitis media is an inflammation of the larynx and trachea that leads to a distinctive barking cough and hoarseness. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 952 Objective: 39.8 1

8) Asthma is the most common chronic disease in children; it affects one out of seven children, usually before age 4. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 953 Objective: 39.8 9) Colic is severe gastrointestinal pain that can occur in both breast-fed and bottle-fed infants. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 954 Objective: 39.8 10) Adolescence marks the transition between early childhood and puberty. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 955 Objective: 39.1 11) Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS) is a leading cause of death in children within the first year of life. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 954 Objective: 39.8 12) Peer pressure to use drugs, have sex, and drink alcohol increases during puberty. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 955 Objective: 39.9 13) Early adolescence includes young adults who are between the ages of 11 and 15 years. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 955 Objective: 39.9 14) Suicide is the second leading cause of death in teenagers and young adults. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 957 Objective: 39.9 15) Girls are physically mature during early adolescence. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 956 Objective: 39.9 16) Eating disorders frequently appear in adolescence or in young adulthood. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 956 Objective: 39.10 2

17) Eating disorders affect males more often than females. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 956 Objective: 39.10 18) Worn enamel on teeth in an adolescent is a symptom of bulimia nervosa. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 957 Objective: 39.10 19) Parents of teenagers should be encouraged to talk about sex and drugs with their teenagers and really listen. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 956 Objective: 39.9 20) If Fifth disease is contracted during pregnancy, the fetus may suffer damage or die in utero. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 955 Objective: 39.8 21) Adolescents exhibit greater independence and a greater interest in the same gender. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 956 Objective: 39.9 22) Role-playing is a tool that medical assistants can use to prepare to deal with situations wherein pediatric patients may be upset and resistant to care. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 939 Objective: 39.2 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The reception room in a pediatric office needs to be all of the following EXCEPT A) bright B) welcoming C) interesting D) dark Answer: D Page Ref: 940 Objective: 39.3

2) The average infant weighs about A) 5 B) 7 C) 9 D) 11 Answer: B Page Ref: 942 Objective: 39.5

pounds at birth.

3) If a child is toilet trained and over 2 to 3 years of age, it is recommended that the collect a urine specimen. A) pediatrician B) medical assistant C) parent or caregiver D) all of the above Answer: C Page Ref: 949 Objective: 39.7 4) In children under years of age, temperature should be measured with tympanic, temporal, or axillary thermometers. A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 Answer: D Page Ref: 945 Objective: 39.6 5) Strep throat is treated with A) vitamins B) surgery C) antibiotics D) herbal supplements Answer: C Page Ref: 952 Objective: 39.8

6) Which of the following is NOT one of the signs of dehydration in infants? A) Decrease in urine output B) Weakness and lethargy C) Dry, pale skin with loss of elasticity D) High fever Answer: D Page Ref: 954 Objective: 39.8 4

7) The BRAT diet consists of all of the following EXCEPT A) banana B) rice C) apricots D) toast Answer: C Page Ref: 953 Objective: 39.1

8) Autism is more frequent in males and is noticeable by the age of A) 3 B) 6 C) 8 D) 9 Answer: A Page Ref: 954 Objective: 39.8 9) All of the following are symptoms of autism EXCEPT A) failing to make eye contact B) preferring group activities C) engaging in repetitive behavior D) being upset by changes in routine Answer: B Page Ref: 954 Objective: 39.8 10) Hand, foot, and mouth disease is a mild the mouth and on the hands and feet. A) bacterial B) parasite C) allergen D) viral Answer: D Page Ref: 955 Objective: 39.8

infection that causes blisters to appear in

11) A medical assistant may gain children's confidence by when addressing them, speaking to them at their level and in simple terms, or taking a few minutes to interact or play with them. A) talking animatedly B) smiling C) wearing bright colors D) making eye contact Answer: B Page Ref: 938 Objective: 39.2 5

12) The normal (average) body temperature obtained using the oral method is A) 98.6°F B) 97.6°F C) 99.6°F D) 96.6°F Answer: A Page Ref: 945 Objective: 39.6 13) The normal (average) pulse for infants is A) 60 to 90 B) 75 to 100 C) 80 to 110 D) 100 to 160 Answer: D Page Ref: 945 Objective: 39.6

14) A(n) specializes in the branch of medicine dealing with the care and development of children and the diagnosis and treatment of childhood illnesses. A) pediatrician B) orthopedist C) obstetrician D) geriatrist Answer: A Page Ref: 938 Objective: 39.1 15) Once a child enters the medical office, his or her primary concern. A) parents B) symptoms C) safety D) health Answer: C Page Ref: 940 Objective: 39.3 16) Stridor is a A) booming B) high-pitched C) normal D) sporadic Answer: B Page Ref: 953 Objective: 39.1

is (are) the medical assistant's

sound heard during respiration caused by obstruction of the airway.

17) is caused by group A betahemolytic Streptococcus pyogenes. A) Croup B) Strep throat C) Pneumonia D) Whooping cough Answer: B Page Ref: 952 Objective: 39.8 18) is an infection of the middle ear caused by cold, allergies, or other respiratory infections. A) Otitis media B) Bronchiolitis C) Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) D) Strep throat Answer: A Page Ref: 952 Objective: 39.1 19) When applying a pediatric urine collection device, the assistant should do all of the following EXCEPT . A) ask the parent or caregiver to place the infant on the exam table B) gently clean the genitalia with alcohol wipes C) make sure the genital area is dry before applying the device D) suggest that the parent try to get the infant to drink fluids Answer: B Page Ref: 951 Objective: 39.7 20) When collecting a child's urine sample, which question(s) should the assistant ask the parent or caregiver? A) "Does the child complain of burning, itching, or pain during urination?" B) "Does the child have persistent diaper rash?" C) "Has the child reverted to bed-wetting or loss of bladder control?" D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 952 Objective: 39.7

21) At what age should an infant be able to sit steadily for five minutes? A) Four to five months B) Five to six months C) Six to seven months D) Seven to eight months Answer: D Page Ref: 941 Objective: 39.4 22) At months, an infant should be able to reach for and hold objects. A) four to five B) six to seven C) seven to eight D) eight to nine Answer: A Page Ref: 941 Objective: 39.4 23) At years of age, a child should be able to catch a tossed ball. A) one to two B) two to three C) three to four D) four to five Answer: D Page Ref: 941 Objective: 39.4 24) Rapid growth of the head may indicate A) encephaly B) microencephaly C) hydrocephalus D) macroencephaly Answer: C Page Ref: 945 Objective: 39.5 25) Infants are weighed A) without diapers B) without shoes C) on a baby scale D) all of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 945-946 Objective: 39.5

26) Which of the following is the normal (average) pulse rate for a preschooler? A) 60 to 100 B) 75 to 120 C) 80 to 139 D) 90 to 150 Answer: C Page Ref: 945 Objective: 39.6 27) Which of the following is the correct respiration rate for a preschooler? A) 22 to 34 B) 24 to 40 C) 18 to 30 D) 12 to 16 Answer: A Page Ref: 945 Objective: 39.6 28) Normal head circumference at birth should be between A) 10.5 and 12.5 B) 11.5 and 13.5 C) 12.5 and 14.5 D) 13.5 and 15.5 Answer: C Page Ref: 945 Objective: 39.6

inches.

29) The normal (average) body temperature obtained using the rectal method is A) 98.6°F B) 97.6°F C) 99.6°F D) 96.6°F Answer: C Page Ref: 945 Objective: 39.6 30) Toys in the office reception room should be sanitized A) every day B) once a week C) twice a week D) once a month Answer: A Page Ref: 940 Objective: 39.3

31) Ideally, how many people should measure the length of an infant? A) One B) Two C) Three D) Four Answer: B Page Ref: 946 Objective: 39.5 32) Why should a medical assistant talk to an infant when performing various procedures? A) To identify the patient B) To explain the procedure C) To check the patient's hearing D) To gain trust Answer: D Page Ref: 948 Objective: 39.2 33) Which of the following is NOT true about chest circumference measurement in an infant? A) It may help detect an over- or underdevelopment of the heart or lungs. B) It requires a non-elastic measuring tape. C) It is performed at every visit. D) It is done with the infant in a supine position. Answer: C Page Ref: 947-948 Objective: 39.5 34) A distinctive, barking cough is a characteristic of A) rhinovirus B) croup C) bronchiolitis D) asthma Answer: B Page Ref: 953 Objective: 39.8

35) According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, how many children in the United States are affected by an autism spectrum disorder? A) 1 in 500 B) 1 in 125 C) 1 in 95 D) 1 in 68 Answer: D Page Ref: 954 Objective: 39.8

36) There is no specific treatment for A) diarrhea B) strep throat C) colic D) otitis media Answer: C Page Ref: 954 Objective: 39.8

37) Delayed language skills and indifference to people may be signs of A) meningitis B) excoriation C) asthma D) autism Answer: D Page Ref: 954 Objective: 39.8

38) Which of the following may contribute to obesity in children? A) Genetic tendencies B) Family pattern of overeating C) Poor food choices D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 955 Objective: 39.8 39) The term meatus refers to the A) urinary tract opening B) vagina C) rectum D) testicles Answer: A Page Ref: 951 Objective: 39.1

40) The disorder characterized by binge eating episodes followed by self-induced vomiting or the use of laxatives or diuretics to rid the body of the large amount of calories consumed is known as . A) anorexia nervosa B) bulimia nervosa C) an eating disorder not otherwise specified D) depression Answer: B Page Ref: 957 Objective: 39.10 11

41) Extreme weight loss, excessively dry skin and brittle hair, and fatigue may all be signs of . A) anorexia nervosa B) bulimia nervosa C) an eating disorder not otherwise specified D) depression Answer: A Page Ref: 956 Objective: 39.10 42) Patients with are often secretive about their condition and deny problems with food. A) anorexia nervosa B) bulimia nervosa C) eating disorders not otherwise specified D) depression Answer: B Page Ref: 957 Objective: 39.10 43) Males account for A) 5 to 15 B) 15 to 20 C) 20 to 25 D) 25 to 35 Answer: A Page Ref: 956 Objective: 39.10

percent of all patients with eating disorders.

44) The common early childhood viral infection characterized by a sudden high fever that is followed by a rash of tiny pink spots on the head and trunk is called . A) Fifth disease B) roseola C) hand, foot, and mouth disease D) meningitis Answer: B Page Ref: 955 Objective: 39.1

45) is (are) characterized by jerking of the arms and legs, loss of consciousness, and stiffening of the child's body. A) Fifth disease B) Roseola C) Hand, foot, and mouth disease D) Febrile seizures Answer: D Page Ref: 955 Objective: 39.10 46) At what age should a child be able to build a tower with blocks? A) 6 to 7 months B) 10 to 12 months C) 15 to 18 months D) 18 months to 2 years Answer: C Page Ref: 941 Objective: 39.4 47) Which of the following statements about SIDS is FALSE? A) The highest number of deaths occurs between one and four months of age. B) It is more common in boys than in girls. C) SIDS happens more frequently in summer. D) It usually occurs during sleep. Answer: C Page Ref: 954 Objective: 39.8 48) Which position(s) is (are) appropriate to use when carrying an infant? A) The cradle hold B) The football hold C) The shoulder hold D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 940 Objective: 39.3

Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting, 4e (Beaman) Chapter 40 Assisting in Life Span Specialties: Geriatrics True/False Questions 1) Pediatrics, a relatively new area of medical practice, is the study of the process of aging and the effects of aging on people. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 961 Objective: 40.1 2) Ageism is prejudice or discrimination against an individual because of his or her age. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 966 Objective: 40.1 3) Dementia is a progressive syndrome marked by decline in mental abilities and loss of memory. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 975 Objective: 40.5 4) Alzheimer's disease (AD) is a progressive disorder of the central nervous system. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 976 Objective: 40.5 5) Having difficulty coming up with the right words or substituting unusual words during conversations can be an early warning sign of Alzheimer's disease. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 976 (Box 40-3) Objective: 40.5 6) A person with Alzheimer's disease will experience a progressive loss of memory. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 976 Objective: 40.5 7) Medical assistants can assist individuals or families who are caring for patients with Alzheimer's disease or other chronic illnesses by helping them obtain relief through respite care services. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 978 Objective: 40.1

8) The medical assistant can use tactics such as diversion or distraction when caring for a tense patient diagnosed with dementia. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 975 Objective: 40.2 9) An advance directive or living will is a legal document that details what medical treatments a person does or does not want to receive in the event that he or she becomes unable to make his or her wishes known. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 978 Objective: 40.1 10) To gain information about conditions that affect the geriatric population, the medical assistant should obtain material published by reputable sources such as the Centers for Disease Control (CDC) or National Institutes of Health (NIH). Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 982 Objective: 40.6 11) HIPAA requires that a patient's health information and records must be kept private. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 979 Objective: 40.6 12) Rooms with a lot of furniture and clutter increase a patient's risk of falling. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 982 Objective: 40.7 13) A durable power of attorney (DPOA) is a legal document that names an agent who can make medical decisions and carry out the instructions in the patient's advance directive. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 979 Objective: 40.6 14) More than 7 percent of people over the age of 65 are diagnosed with dementia. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 975 Objective: 40.3 15) Urinary tract infections are the most common cause of acute-onset confusion in older adults. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 974 Objective: 40.4

Multiple Choice Questions 1) refers to a dilation of the wall of the aorta that can rupture and lead to death if left untreated. A) Alzheimer's disease B) Aortic aneurysm C) Atrophic urethritis D) Benign prostatic hyperplasia Answer: B Page Ref: 968 (Tbl 40-3) Objective: 40.4 2) A patient who lies in bed for several hours out of the day is at risk for down of skin from prolonged pressure on the area. A) decubitus ulcers B) cataracts C) chronic lymphocytic leukemia D) stroke Answer: A Page Ref: 968 Objective: 40.4

, the breaking

3) is elevation of the pressure in one of the chambers of the eye that can decrease vision and lead to blindness. A) Glaucoma B) Hypothyroidism C) Osteoarthritis D) Osteoporosis Answer: A Page Ref: 968 Objective: 40.4 4) is a reawakening of the dormant chicken pox virus that causes skin rash and can lead to prolonged pain. A) Parkinson's disease B) Prostate cancer C) Shingles D) Stroke Answer: C Page Ref: 968 Objective: 40.4

5) is (are) a blockage or bleeding of a blood vessel in the brain that leads to weakness, loss of sensation, difficulty talking, and other neurological problems. A) Glaucoma B) Cataracts C) Stroke D) Urinary incontinence Answer: C Page Ref: 968 Objective: 40.4 6) Which of the following is an environmental risk factor for older adults? A) Removal of area rugs B) Polishing of floors C) Use of several small area lights D) Installation of grab bars by toilets Answer: B Page Ref: 982 Objective: 40.7 7) The abbreviation DNR stands for A) Do Not Recover B) Do Not Resuscitate C) Do Not Reinstate D) Do Not Retract Answer: B Page Ref: 979 Objective: 40.6

8) All of the following are common causes of dementia EXCEPT A) stroke B) Parkinson's disease C) brain tumor D) diabetes mellitus Answer: D Page Ref: 975 Objective: 40.5

9) Forgetting the name of someone a patient just met at an event is an example of what type of memory loss? A) Short-term B) Long-term C) Sensory D) Concise Answer: A Page Ref: 973 Objective: 40.4 4

10) tended to have fewer children and to start their families later than the previous generation. A) Millennials B) Hippies C) GenXers D) Baby boomers Answer: D Page Ref: 966 Objective: 40.3 11) facilities are designed for residents who cannot live independently but who do not require 24-hour care. A) Assisted-living B) Extended-care C) Palliative care D) Hospice Answer: A Page Ref: 966 Objective: 40.3 12) It is estimated that in 2050 older adults will make up A) 10 B) 20 C) 25 D) 30 Answer: B Page Ref: 965 Objective: 40.3

percent of the population.

13) Changes that occur in the cardiovascular system with aging may cause orthostatic hypotension, a mmHg drop in blood pressure that occurs when an individual changes positions. A) 10 to 20 B) 20 to 30 C) 30 to 40 D) 40 to 50 Answer: B Page Ref: 971 Objective: 40.4

14) Which of the following procedures should be conducted to rule out other causes of dementia when a person is suspected of having Alzheimer's disease? A) MRI B) PET scan C) Blood profile D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 977-978 Objective: 40.5 15) The average life expectancy for an individual born in 1900 was approximately years. A) 79 B) 75 C) 68 D) 47 Answer: D Page Ref: 965 (Tbl 40-1) Objective: 40.3 16) Patients diagnosed with or dementia who live in extended-care facilities are usually on a locked or secured unit for safety. A) Alzheimer's disease B) shingles C) delirium D) hepatitis Answer: A Page Ref: 966 Objective: 40.3 17) Older adults have A) more severe B) fewer C) more D) less severe Answer: B Page Ref: 961 Objective: 40.3

acute illnesses than younger adults.

18) The term geriatric generally refers to a person who is A) 55 B) 60 C) 65 D) 70 Answer: C Page Ref: 961 Objective: 40.1 6

years of age or older.

19) is a sensory disorder associated with aging that is characterized by impairment of hearing, especially inability to hear high-pitched sounds. A) Presbycusis B) Pertussis C) Presbyopia D) Proboscis Answer: A Page Ref: 969 Objective: 40.4 20) In a person with , a condition that can lead to complications such as anemia, heart failure, and increased mental confusion, the thyroid gland is underactive. A) hyperthyroidism B) hypothyroidism C) hypogonadism D) hypotrophism Answer: B Page Ref: 968 (Tbl 40-3) Objective: 40.4 21) A Medigap policy helps offset some of the health care costs that Medicare does not cover such as . A) copayments B) coinsurance C) deductibles D) all of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 964 Objective: 40.6 22) The medical assistant should not view the traditions of other ethnic groups as A) wrong B) ridiculous C) misguided D) all of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 965 Objective: 40.3

23) Baby boomers are also sometimes referred to as A) millennials B) the hippie generation C) Gen Xers D) the sandwich generation Answer: D Page Ref: 966 Objective: 40.3

24) Which of the following is an example of ageism? A) Treating an older adult patient respectfully B) Assuming an older adult patient who is forgetful has Alzheimer's disease C) Finding out information about an older adult patient's life D) Making sure an older adult patient fully understands instructions Answer: B Page Ref: 966—967 Objective: 40.1 25) Decrease in cardiac output and circulation are age-related A) cardiovascular B) digestive C) integumentary D) respiratory Answer: A Page Ref: 967 (Tbl 40-2) Objective: 40.4

changes.

26) Which of the following changes associated with aging is related to the nervous system? A) Decreased muscle strength B) Problems with balance C) Slower movements D) Decreased estrogen Answer: B Page Ref: 967 (Tbl 40-2) Objective: 40.4 27) An older adult patient diagnosed with diabetes mellitus should be observed closely for signs of . A) infection B) kidney stones C) increased physical activity D) hot flashes Answer: A Page Ref: 967 Objective: 40.4

28) Which of the following should a medical assistant avoid when communicating with an older adult patient? A) Providing the patient with plenty of time to respond to questions B) Finishing sentences for the patient C) Looking directly at the patient when speaking to him or her D) Speaking clearly in a normal tone of voice Answer: B Page Ref: 962 Objective: 40.2 29) Which of the following is an age-related visual impairment associated with inability to focus on near objects? A) Presbyopia B) Myopia C) Presbycusis D) Otitis media Answer: A Page Ref: 969 Objective: 40.4 30) What percentage of people over the age of 80 have reported major loss or impairment of the sense of smell, resulting in decreased appetite and interest in food? A) 25 percent B) 30 percent C) 50 percent D) 75 percent Answer: D Page Ref: 969 Objective: 40.4 31) Why are older adult patients sometimes called "tea and toasters"? A) They enjoy social gatherings with other seniors. B) They are only able to digest tea and toast. C) They belong to a generation that enjoyed afternoon tea time. D) They may eat only small meals of tea and toast or crackers throughout the day. Answer: D Page Ref: 969 Objective: 40.4 32) Older adults may have fragmented sleep, which means A) they wake up often in the middle of the night B) they take fewer naps during the day C) they feel well-rested D) they are in deep REM sleep cycle Answer: A Page Ref: 968 Objective: 40.4 9

33) Clouding in the lens of the eye that impacts vision is called A) cataracts B) aortic aneurysm C) glaucoma D) hypothyroidism Answer: A Page Ref: 968 (Tbl 40-3) Objective: 40.4

34) , a disorder common among older adult patients, is characterized by loss of calcium from the bones and often results in bone fractures. A) Osteoarthritis B) Malnutrition C) Osteoporosis D) Lymphocytic leukemia Answer: C Page Ref: 968 (Tbl 40-2) Objective: 40.4 35) Which of the following can help strengthen respiratory muscles and prevent respiratory infection in older adult patients? A) Deep breathing exercises B) Activities that increase endurance C) Both A and B D) None of the above Answer: C Page Ref: 971 Objective: 40.4 36) Which of the following is NOT a common urinary system problem experienced by older adult patients? A) Incomplete bladder emptying B) Frequent urination at night C) Increased urinary urgency D) Decreased urinary frequency Answer: D Page Ref: 971 Objective: 40.4

37) To cope with urinary urgency, older adult patients may decrease their fluid intake. However, this may lead to . A) increased risk of constipation B) electrolyte imbalance C) increased risk of urinary tract infections D) all of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 971 Objective: 40.4 38) All of the following are digestive system changes associated with aging EXCEPT A) increased absorption of drugs and alcohol B) decreased absorption of minerals and vitamins C) increased flatulence D) increased chance of aspiration Answer: A Page Ref: 971 Objective: 40.4 39) Which statement about older adults and sex is TRUE? A) Older adults often lose their desire for sex as they age. B) Older adults often become more interested in sex as they age. C) Older adults are often more open to discussing sex than younger adults. D) Patterns of sexual interest exhibited by older adults mirror lifelong patterns. Answer: D Page Ref: 972 Objective: 40.4 40) Cognitive ability may be altered by all of the following EXCEPT A) health status B) normal aging C) genetics D) physical activity Answer: B Page Ref: 972 Objective: 40.5

41) memory is information gained through the senses that lasts a few seconds. A) Sensory B) Short-term C) Long-term D) Second Answer: A Page Ref: 973 Objective: 40.5

42) Which of the following can increase medication compliance in the geriatric population? A) Providing a pill organizer B) Providing a printed list of the medications C) Explaining why the medications are necessary D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 973-974 Objective: 40.3 43) Which of the following statements about aging is TRUE? A) As adults age they are certain to lose their memories. B) Older adults are better with age at separating fact from fiction. C) Retrieval of information from long-term memory may be slower in older adults. D) It becomes easier for older adults as they age to process new information. Answer: C Page Ref: 973 Objective: 40.5 44) Which of the following is NOT true of aging and memory? A) Getting enough sleep helps improve the brain's response time. B) Physical exercise helps improve memory function. C) Knitting and crocheting stimulate the brain. D) Keeping the brain active with crossword puzzles does little to aid memory function. Answer: D Page Ref: 973 Objective: 40.5 45) Which of the following is NOT a common area of struggle for patients with dementia? A) Forgetting the correct words for everyday objects B) Failing to repeat questions C) Failing to maintain concentration on tasks D) Losing interest in favorite activities Answer: B Page Ref: 976 Objective: 40.5 46) The loss of a life partner may cause A) systemic B) mechanical C) familial D) psychosocial/environmental Answer: D Page Ref: 974 Objective: 40.5

confusion.

47) When calling patients to the examination room, the medical assistant should A) call the patient by their first name B) use a formal means of address C) employ pet names such as honey or dear D) all of the above Answer: B Page Ref: 962 Objective: 40.2

48) A form of confusion characterized by symptoms that last longer than three months is . A) systemic confusion B) acute confusion C) mechanical confusion D) chronic confusion Answer: D Page Ref: 974 Objective: 40.5 49) Which of the following is a way to relieve sundowner syndrome? A) Surround the patient with familiar objects. B) Establish a routine. C) Control the noise level. D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 974 Objective: 40.5 50) Which of the following may be TRUE of a patient with Alzheimer's disease-related memory changes? A) The patient is still able to perform familiar tasks easily. B) The patient solves abstract problems more easily. C) The patient's judgment remains unimpaired. D) The patient becomes disoriented as to time and place. Answer: D Page Ref: 976 Objective: 40.5

Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting, 4e (Beaman) Chapter 41 Assisting with Minor Surgery True/False Questions 1) The medical assistant is expected to set up the sterile field, including instruments and equipment needed for the surgical procedure. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 986 Objective: 41.10 2) The most common tool for dissecting or cutting tissue is a scalpel. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 994 Objective: 41.5 3) Care must be taken to autoclave instruments that are reusable. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1000 Objective: 41.7 4) Materials can be handled with nonsterile gloves when performing medical asepsis. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 987 Objective: 41.4 5) The purpose of personal protective equipment (PPE) is to protect the healthcare worker from injury while using the surgical instruments. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 988 Objective: 41.3 6) During a surgical scrub, hands should be pointed upward with elbows below the hands when under the running water. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 989 Objective: 41.3 7) If a sterile glove is punctured during a surgical procedure, the ONLY step to take before promptly returning to the surgical procedure is to immediately put on another pair of sterile gloves. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 990 Objective: 41.3

8) Topical and other local anesthetics take effect either immediately or within a few minutes. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1006 Objective: 41.8 9) Medical assistants are never permitted to remove sutures. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1011 Objective: 41.10 10) A dressing is the application of a sterile covering over a surgical site or wound using surgical asepsis. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1011 Objective: 41.3, 41.9 11) Electrocautery, or cautery, is the use of high-frequency, alternating electric current to destroy, cut, or remove tissue. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1014 Objective: 41.10 12) Cryosurgery is the use of heat to destroy tissue. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1014 Objective: 41.10 13) An endoscope is an instrument used to look into a hollow organ or body cavity. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1015 Objective: 41.10 14) An endometrial biopsy (EMB) consists of using a curette or suction tool to remove uterine tissue for testing. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1015 Objective: 41.10 15) Once opened, the inside of a sterile package is considered the sterile field. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 990 Objective: 41.3 16) It is important to always remember that an item is either sterile or nonsterile. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 986 Objective: 41.3 2

17) In order to keep instruments with ratchets in good condition, they should be closed when stored. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1000 Objective: 41.7 18) Sterile technique results in the killing of all microorganisms and spores. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 987 Objective: 41.3 19) It is acceptable to wear nonsterile scrub suits home. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 988 Objective: 41.3 20) Medical asepsis uses clean instruments and supplies. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 987 Objective: 41.4 21) In surgical asepsis, a sterile item can only touch another sterile item. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 988 Objective: 41.3 22) Sterile packets may not be touched on the outside with bare hands. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 988 Objective: 41.3 Multiple Choice Questions 1) surgery is considered medically necessary but can be performed when the patient wishes. A) Elective B) Emergency C) Optional D) Urgent Answer: A Page Ref: 987 Objective: 41.2

2) Both medical asepsis and surgical asepsis are similar in their overall purpose of decreasing the risk of . A) lawsuits B) health C) surgery D) infection Answer: D Page Ref: 987 Objective: 41.4 3) surgery, with its emphasis on surgical procedures performed outside the hospital setting, has resulted in cost savings for the consumer and for the insurer. A) Ambulatory B) Hospital C) Optional D) Inpatient Answer: A Page Ref: 987 Objective: 41.2 4) The general classification of instruments is based on their A) inventor B) name C) use D) shape Answer: C Page Ref: 992 Objective: 41.5

5) A is an unlighted instrument with movable parts that, when inserted into a cavity, can be spread apart for ease of visualization, allowing a tissue sample to be removed. A) scope B) speculum C) probe D) trocar Answer: B Page Ref: 996 Objective: 41.5

6) In order to become competent as a scrub assistant, practice reaching for an instrument with . A) flash cards B) both hands C) one hand D) your eyes closed Answer: D Page Ref: 1000 Objective: 41.7, 41.10 7) The physician must provide the patient with an honest, thorough explanation of the surgical procedure, including the benefits and . A) risks B) steps C) profit D) payback Answer: A Page Ref: 1003 Objective: 41.8 8) Local anesthesia takes about hours. A) 5—15 B) 15—25 C) 25—35 D) 35—45 Answer: A Page Ref: 1004 Objective: 41.8

minutes to become effective and lasts from 1 to 3

9) In some situations, the physician may order the surgical site to be shaved, because can reside in the hair. A) bacteria B) DNA C) sweat glands D) oil Answer: A Page Ref: 1005 Objective: 41.8

10) Each of the following is one of the four types of wound classification EXCEPT A) abrasion B) incision C) laceration D) proliferation Answer: D Page Ref: 1007 Objective: 41.9

11) Which of the following is NOT one of the three phases wounds go through before healing or restoration of structure and function take place? A) Infection phase B) Inflammatory phase C) Proliferating phase D) Maturation phase Answer: A Page Ref: 1007 Objective: 41.9 12) Wound complications include all of the following EXCEPT A) infection B) hemorrhage C) dehiscence D) fracture Answer: D Page Ref: 1007 Objective: 41.9

13) Which of the following is NOT a type of current used in electrosurgery? A) Electrocoagulation B) Electrodessication C) Electrofulguration D) Electrocardiogram Answer: D Page Ref: 1014 Objective: 41.10 14) Performing _ is the number one way to prevent spreading infections. A) ambulatory surgery B) hand hygiene C) sutures with sterile gauze D) preparation of the sterile field with disinfectant Answer: B Page Ref: 988 Objective: 41.4

15) forceps are used to grasp foreign bodies. A) Tissue B) Thumb C) Splinter D) Needle holder Answer: C Page Ref: 995 Objective: 41.5 16) suture, although the most expensive, is also considered the most dependable and is widely used. A) Silk B) Nylon C) Polyester D) Steel Answer: A Page Ref: 998 Objective: 41.6 17) Which of the following suture material sizes would be considered the thickest? A) 2-0 B) 5-0 C) 6-0 D) 0 Answer: D Page Ref: 998 Objective: 41.6 18) Which of the following is NOT one of the three shapes of suture needles? A) Straight B) Curved C) Pointed D) Swaged Answer: C Page Ref: 999 Objective: 41.6 19) There are about programs for surgical technologists recognized by the Committee on Accreditation of Allied Health Education Programs (CAAHEP). A) 13 B) 30 C) 50 D) 130 Answer: D Page Ref: 1017 Objective: 41.10 7

20) The assistant must maintain an accurate if absorbent sponges are used to clean out the wound site during surgery to ensure that all sponges are removed before the patient's wound is closed. A) moisture content B) position C) count D) technique Answer: C Page Ref: 1000 Objective: 41.10 21) Instruments should be passed to the physician A) quietly B) firmly C) gently D) smoothly Answer: B Page Ref: 1000 Objective: 41.7, 41.10

and by the handle first.

22) Which of the following would NOT be included in a surgical setup for a typical minor surgical procedure? A) Local anesthetic material B) Sterile tape C) Alcohol sponges D) Tissue forceps Answer: B Page Ref: 986—987 Objective: 41.10 23) Preoperative and postoperative instructions must be reinforced through A) telephone reminders B) one-on-one discussion C) videotapes D) brochures Answer: A Page Ref: 1003 Objective: 41.8 24) Which of the following is NOT a type of local anesthesia? A) topical infiltration B) nerve block C) inhaled anesthesia D) epidural Answer: C Page Ref: 1004 Objective: 41.8 8

25) A surgical A) soaking B) bath C) shower D) scrub Answer: D Page Ref: 988 Objective: 41.3

removes microorganisms more effectively than regular hand washing.

26) All of the following are precautions to be taken before administering a general anesthetic EXCEPT . A) ensuring that patients have avoided strenuous activity prior to administration B) administering the anesthetic only when the patient has an empty stomach C) cautioning patients not to drive for 12—24 hours D) advising patients to avoid alcohol and depressant drugs 2—3 days before the surgery and one day after the surgery Answer: A Page Ref: 1004 Objective: 41.8 27) anesthetic is injected directly into the tissue that will be operated on. A) Local infiltration B) Nerve block C) Regional block D) Regional infiltration Answer: A Page Ref: 1004 Objective: 41.8 28) surgery is generally limited to procedures requiring less than 60 minutes to perform. A) Urgent B) Outpatient C) Optional D) Emergency Answer: B Page Ref: 987 Objective: 41.1, 41.2

29) Infections can cause all of the following EXCEPT A) a delay in the healing process B) permanent harm to the patient C) increase in medical costs D) early discharge from the surgical facility Answer: D Page Ref: 987 Objective: 41.3

30) A(n) is the type of wound where the edges are torn in an irregular shape and can cause profuse bleeding and scarring. A) abrasion B) incision C) laceration D) puncture Answer: C Page Ref: 1007 Objective: 41.9 31) needles allow the surgeon to go in and out of a tissue when there is not enough room to maneuver a straight needle. A) Curved B) Swaged C) Thick D) Thin Answer: A Page Ref: 999 Objective: 41.6 32) Staples are made of stainless steel and applied with a A) staple gun B) surgical stapler C) speculum D) forceps Answer: B Page Ref: 1000 Objective: 41.6

33) Any invasive procedure involving a scalpel, scissors, or other device requires the patient. A) oral permission B) notice C) approval D) written permission Answer: D Page Ref: 1003 Objective: 41.8 10

from

34) is medication that causes the partial or complete loss of sensation and is used to block the pain of surgery. A) Anesthesia B) Aspirin C) Antiseptic D) Electrocution Answer: A Page Ref: 1004 Objective: 41.1, 41.8 35) Some patients are requires emergency treatment. A) addicted B) sensitive C) allergic D) benign Answer: C Page Ref: 1006 Objective: 41.9 36) The A) ears B) nose C) hair D) skin Answer: D Page Ref: 1007 Objective: 41.9

to anesthetics and may slip into anaphylactic shock, which

act(s) as a protective barrier and is (are) the body's first line of defense.

37) A wound must be A) healed B) cleaned C) bleeding D) open Answer: B Page Ref: 1008 Objective: 41.9

before a sterile dressing can be applied.

38) wound drainage is thick puslike drainage that is green, yellow, or brown. A) Serous B) Sanguineous C) Serosanguineous D) Purulent Answer: D Page Ref: 1007 Objective: 41.9 11

39) is (are) inserted by the surgeon at the end of a procedure to hold tissues in alignment during the healing process. A) Needles B) Bandages C) Sutures D) Gauze Answer: C Page Ref: 1008 Objective: 41.6, 41.9 40) are used to make incisions, which are surgical cuts into tissue. A) Retractors B) Forceps C) Scissors D) Scalpels Answer: D Page Ref: 994 Objective: 41.5 41) surgery has the advantage of promoting quick healing and not destroying surrounding tissue. A) Laser B) Plastic C) Oral D) Invasive Answer: A Page Ref: 1014 Objective: 41.10 42) A(n) A) colposcope B) endoscope C) cryoscope D) laser Answer: A Page Ref: 1014 Objective: 41.10

is an instrument used to examine the vagina and cervix.

43) Which of the following is NOT considered a growth? A) Tumor B) Wart C) Cyst D) Abrasion Answer: D Page Ref: 1016 Objective: 41.10 12

44) A(n) A) vasectomy B) autonomy C) lobotomy D) matrimony Answer: A Page Ref: 1016 Objective: 41.10

provides a permanent form of birth control for the male.

45) surgery is performed on a person who is admitted and discharged from a surgical facility on the same day. A) Elective B) Ambulatory C) Urgent D) Emergency Answer: B Page Ref: 987 Objective: 41.1, 41.2 46) are used to grasp tissue or objects. A) Scopes B) Probes C) Forceps D) Scissors Answer: C Page Ref: 995 Objective: 41.5 47) anesthetics provide a loss of sensation in a particular area of the body without overall loss of consciousness. A) Local B) Foreign C) General D) Distant Answer: A Page Ref: 1004 Objective: 41.8

48) is a vasoconstrictor that causes superficial blood vessels to narrow and is often added to the local anesthetic when the physician is operating on the face and head. A) Ephedrine B) Excedrin C) Epinephrine D) Exocrine Answer: C Page Ref: 1004 Objective: 41.8 49) forceps are two-pronged with serrated tips to hold tissue. A) Needle holder B) Splinter C) Thumb D) Sponge Answer: C Page Ref: 995 Objective: 41.5 50) Which category of surgery is to be performed as soon as possible but is NOT an immediate or acute emergency? A) Urgent B) Outpatient C) Optional D) Emergency Answer: A Page Ref: 987 Objective: 41.2 51) All of the following are characteristics of surgical asepsis EXCEPT A) absence of microorganisms. B) basic hand hygiene procedure used. C) sterile field. D) sterile equipment and supplies required. Answer: B Page Ref: 987 Objective: 41.3, 41.4 52) Which of the following is NOT considered an invasive procedure? A) Administering an injection B) Working with an open wound C) Applying a topical ointment D) Making a surgical incision Answer: C Page Ref: 987 Objective: 41.1, 41.3 14

53) Which of the following statements about surgical asepsis is TRUE? A) If you cannot see an item, it is contaminated. B) It is acceptable to place sterile fields in a draft. C) If you leave a sterile field unattended, it is only contaminated if you are gone for longer than 5 minutes. D) The date on a sterile packet has nothing to do with contamination of its contents. Answer: A Page Ref: 988 Objective: 41.3 54) The edges of a sterile field are A) sterile B) part of the sterile field C) contaminated D) unimportant Answer: C Page Ref: 988 Objective: 41.3

55) How does a medical assistant place instruments and supplies onto a sterile field? A) Using transfer forceps B) Using two fingers C) Using bare hands D) Using thumb forceps Answer: A Page Ref: 991-93, 1000-02 Objective: 41.3, 41.7, 41.10

Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting, 4e (Beaman) Chapter 42 Assisting with Medical Emergencies and Emergency Preparedness True/False Questions 1) Every encounter between a patient and a medical professional begins with a few simple questions and a basic patient examination called the primary assessment. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1023 Objective: 42.1 2) Critical care centers are appropriate for individuals with serious, but not life-threatening, conditions. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1021 Objective: 42.2 3) Paramedics are not trained to intubate patients. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1022 Objective: 42.2 4) An emergency medical responder (EMR) can provide immediate basic life-saving care while awaiting response from a higher-level emergency medical services (EMS) practitioner. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1021 Objective: 42.2 5) The best way to gather the patient's past medical history is to use a checklist, whether mental or written. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1024 Objective: 42.3 6) Circulation, Airway, Breathing (CAB) is the sequence that should be followed for providing cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1027 Objective: 42.5 7) Triage means to assess and prioritize care needed by patients in emergency situations. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1023 Objective: 42.1

8) Epinephrine is one of the items commonly stocked in an emergency medical box. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1025 Objective: 42.4 9) It is good practice to check for warning tags and medical-alert jewelry during a patient examination, even if a patient denies having any allergies. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1024-1025 Objective: 42.3 10) Hyperglycemia is also known as high blood sugar and can result in an altered level of consciousness. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1040-1041 Objective: 42.1 11) Step 2 of a primary assessment would include recognizing that a severe eye injury in a patient is life threatening and therefore requires immediate intervention. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1024 Objective: 42.3 12) A patient with a total obstructed airway will be unable to speak or cough. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1032 Objective: 42.6 13) For a very obese patient or a visibly pregnant woman who is choking, perform abdominal thrusts while standing in front of the patient. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1036 Objective: 42.6 14) An algorithm is a sequence of actions to perform tasks and is often used to determine which drugs are appropriate for the practice. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1025 Objective: 42.1 15) The first step in providing first aid to a person with a diabetic emergency is to check the patient's vital signs. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1042 Objective: 42.9

16) When performing CPR on an unconscious patient, a medical assistant should use chest compressions. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1036 Objective: 42.6 17) Step 2 of a primary assessment would include recognizing that any individual experiencing shortness of breath (SOB) should be monitored but does NOT require immediate intervention. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1024 Objective: 42.3 18) When controlling bleeding, the affected part of the body should be elevated if possible. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1045 Objective: 42.10 19) Treatment for anaphylactic shock is intubation and immediate transport to the emergency room. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1039-1040 Objective: 42.8 20) The Rule of Nines is a tool used to estimate the depth of the burn on the patient's body. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1046 Objective: 42.1 21) When providing first aid to a person having a seizure, all loose clothing should be tightened to avoid the person being tangled and causing injury. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1048 Objective: 42.14 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Hypothermia is a state of body temperature lower than A) 35 B) 55 C) 75 D) 95 Answer: D Page Ref: 1047-1048 Objective: 42.1

°F.

2) When providing first aid to a person who is bleeding and the blood seeps through the first bandage, the correct action would be to do all of the following EXCEPT . A) reinforce the bandage by applying more dressings over the original dressing B) replace the original bandage with a thicker bandage C) apply more direct pressure D) apply a pressure bandage over the original bandage Answer: B Page Ref: 1041 Objective: 42.10 3) Patients with A) superficial B) full thickness C) upper airway D) chemical Answer: D Page Ref: 1046 Objective: 42.12

burns should have the area irrigated with large amounts of water.

4) Treatment for superficial burns involving less than includes pain relief by means of cool water. A) 10 B) 20 C) 30 D) 40 Answer: A Page Ref: 1047 Objective: 42.12

percent of the body surface

5) When providing first aid to a person with a wound, a figure-eight bandage is used for all of the following EXCEPT . A) holding a dressing in place B) bandaging joints C) covering body parts such as the forehead D) providing immobilization of the area Answer: C Page Ref: 1044 Objective: 42.11

6) is an extreme fatigue caused by heat and occurs as the result of sodium and water depletion from the body. A) Heat exhaustion B) Full-thickness burn C) Hyperthermia D) Shock Answer: A Page Ref: 1047 Objective: 42.1 7) During CPR, A) two B) three C) four D) five Answer: A Page Ref: 1027 Objective: 42.6

fingers are adequate to compress the sternum of an infant.

8) If heat stroke is suspected, the medical assistant should do which of the following after providing initial first aid to a person with hyperthermia? A) Check the patient's vital signs. B) Contact EMS to transport the patient to an emergency facility. C) Perform a primary assessment. D) Prepare to perform CPR. Answer: B Page Ref: 1047 Objective: 42.13 9) All of the following can be included when providing first aid to a person with hypothermia EXCEPT . A) applying heat packs directly to the patient's skin. B) removing any cold, wet clothing. C) wrapping the patient in warm blankets. D) offering sips of warm liquid if the patient is conscious. Answer: A Page Ref: 1048 Objective: 42.13

10) After providing initial treatment to a patient with syncope, the medical assistant may need to assess and treat the patient for which of the following possible causes of syncope? A) Crush injury B) Avulsion C) Hypoglycemia D) Epistaxis Answer: C Page Ref: 1049 Objective: 42.15 11) A(n) is treated by cleansing the wound, approximating the edges of the wound, and holding the edges together with a small dressing such as a Band-Aid. A) avulsion B) ablation C) abrasion D) laceration Answer: D Page Ref: 1043 Objective: 42.11 12) Which of the following types of injuries only require cold application and elevating the body part above the heart as first aid? A) Bleeding injuries B) Abrasions C) Soft-tissue injuries D) Amputation Answer: C Page Ref: 1044 Objective: 42.11 13) Ice should be applied for A) 25 minutes B) 12 hours C) 24 hours D) 20 minutes Answer: D Page Ref: 1050 Objective: 42.16

as part of the treatment for fractures.

14) Hospital emergency departments are usually open A) 24 hours a day, except weekends B) 24 hours a day, except holidays C) 24 hours a day, seven days a week D) 14 hours a day, seven days a week Answer: C Page Ref: 1021 Objective: 42.2 6

15) A patient with full thickness burns would require care in a(n) A) medical office B) critical care center C) urgent care center D) freestanding clinic Answer: B Page Ref: 1021 Objective: 42.2

16) Which of the following is the best action to take when a person has a spinal column injury that was not caused by sudden acceleration or deceleration? A) Try to locate the exact area of injury. B) Check the circulation in the hands and feet. C) Call 911. D) Assist the person into a supine position. Answer: C Page Ref: 1050 Objective: 42.16 17) Inserting a tube into the trachea is called A) resuscitation B) intubation C) evacuation D) triage Answer: B Page Ref: 1022 Objective: 42.1

18) A(n) who may provide basic life-saving care while awaiting response from a higher-level EMS practitioner is now called the EMR and is often a policeman or firefighter trained as an EMR. A) first responder B) Emergency Medical Technician C) Advanced Emergency Medical Technician D) Paramedic Answer: A Page Ref: 1022 Objective: 42.1

19) All of the following are steps to providing first aid to a person with a fracture EXCEPT . A) identifying the patient and introducing yourself B) wrapping a bone that has broken through the skin with gauze and applying pressure C) assessing circulation proximal to the wound D) obtaining vital signs Answer: C Page Ref: 1050 Objective: 42.16 20) Medical assistants will likely encounter the greatest number of emergency situations . A) near the doctor's office B) in the office setting C) in the hospital D) on the telephone Answer: D Page Ref: 1023 Objective: 42.2 21) Which of the following should be considered a life-threatening condition when performing step 2 of a primary assessment? A) Decreased level of consciousness B) Seizure C) Simple fracture D) Head injury Answer: D Page Ref: 1024 Objective: 42.3 22) When performing step 2 of a primary assessment, which of the following is considered a condition that requires immediate intervention but is not life-threatening? A) Decreased level of consciousness B) Cardiac arrest C) Simple fracture D) Head injury Answer: A Page Ref: 1024 Objective: 42.3

23) All of the following should be included when creating an emergency plan EXCEPT . A) requesting permission from the physician to create a medical emergency plan for the office B) developing an emergency kit and explain what each supply might be used for in an emergency C) documenting a policy that covers the actions needed for each type of emergency D) determining which location would be best to store the medical emergency policy and kit Answer: A Page Ref: 1052 Objective: 42.17 24) Participating in mock exposure events is important for which of the following reasons? A) Pretending to assist in first aid during a mock event will decrease anxiety during a real emergency. B) Mock events show the medical assistant how to allocate and dispatch emergency resources. C) Mock events train the medical assistant in how to set up a command and control center to direct the emergency response. D) Mock events provide real-life scenarios and situations that may occur in a disaster. Answer: D Page Ref: 1056 Objective: 42.18 25) Which of the following is NOT true of a crash cart? A) All supplies must be checked regularly on a crash cart. B) Only items that are within a medical assistant's scope of practice to use will be found in a crash cart. C) A crash cart must be restocked after every use. D) A crash cart resembles a large roll-around toolbox. Answer: B Page Ref: 1025-1026 Objective: 42.4 26) Which of the following is NOT commonly stocked in an emergency medical box? A) Ativan B) Activated charcoal C) Normal saline D) Lidocaine Answer: A Page Ref: 1025 Objective: 42.4

27) The term stat refers to which of the following? A) Indefinite B) Necessary C) Stop D) Immediate Answer: D Page Ref: 1042 Objective: 42.1 28) Which of the following would be appropriate first aid for a patient having a seizure? A) Calling 911 if the seizure lasts more than one full minute B) Placing a mouth guard into the patient's mouth to prevent injury C) Placing the patient on the right side for secretions to drain D) Paying attention to what the patient experiences and being able to describe it later Answer: D Page Ref: 1048 Objective: 42.14 29) All of the following are appropriate to offer a patient experiencing a diabetic emergency EXCEPT . A) sugary soda B) milk C) fruit juice D) water Answer: D Page Ref: 1042 Objective: 42.9 30) All of the following types of shock require immediate transport to the emergency department EXCEPT . A) cardiogenic B) insulin C) hemorrhagic D) sepsis Answer: B Page Ref: 1041 Objective: 42.8 31) All of the following are symptoms of pulmonary edema EXCEPT A) distended neck veins B) cyanosis C) slow heartbeat D) wheezing sounds Answer: C Page Ref: 1039 Objective: 42.7 10

32) A patient with an airway obstruction who is conscious, capable of moving air through the upper airway, and can produce a strong cough likely has a . A) partial airway obstruction with poor air exchange B) total airway obstruction C) partial airway obstruction with good air exchange D) total obstructed airway with poor air exchange Answer: C Page Ref: 1035 Objective: 42.6 33) All of the following are appropriate first aid by the medical assistant for a person experiencing shock EXCEPT . A) administering IV dopamine B) ensuring the patient has an open airway C) encouraging the patient to lie down D) monitoring the patient's vital signs Answer: A Page Ref: 1040 Objective: 42.8 34) To assist someone who is choking, stand behind the patient and put your arms around his or her abdomen, between the xiphoid process and the . A) tip B) navel C) pelvic bone D) zygote process Answer: B Page Ref: 1036 Objective: 42.6 35) Tachypnea is characterized by more than A) 12 B) 18 C) 24 D) 30 Answer: C Page Ref: 1038 Objective: 42.7

breaths per minute.

36) Which of the following actions would be appropriate during a diabetic emergency if it is unknown whether the patient has hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia? A) Continue to monitor the patient's vital signs until EMS arrive. B) Call EMS and wait for a blood glucose monitor. C) Administer glucose immediately. D) Keep the patient cool and loosen tight clothing. Answer: C Page Ref: 1041 Objective: 42.9 37) A patient who is or cardiac palpitations. A) cyanotic B) hyperventilating C) hallucinating D) hyperthermic Answer: B Page Ref: 1038 Objective: 42.7

may experience chest tightness, deep sighing breaths, rapid pulse,

38) Respiratory shock requires . A) intubation and immediate transport to the emergency department B) sugar ingestion C) IV dopamine and fluids D) epinephrine and a warm shower Answer: A Page Ref: 1041 Objective: 42.8 39) The term patent refers to which of the following? A) Flat B) Rapid C) Unobstructed D) Tightness Answer: C Page Ref: 1038 Objective: 42.1 40) presents with coughing, wheezing, shortness of breath, and chest tightness. A) Asthma B) Hyperventilation C) Smoke inhalation D) Shock Answer: A Page Ref: 1038 Objective: 42.7 12

Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting, 4e (Beaman) Chapter 43 The Clinical Laboratory True/False Questions 1) Various tests require different types of patient preparation. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1065 Objective: 43.4 2) An improperly labeled specimen should still be tested. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1067 Objective: 43.6 3) A fasting specimen means that the patient must NOT take in any food for a prescribed number of days before the collection of the specimen. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1065 Objective: 43.4 4) Flow sheets are charts that indicate when a patient's office visits are scheduled. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1065 Objective: 43.1 5) A requisition is sent to an outside laboratory, along with the specimen that the lab is testing. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1063 Objective: 43.4 6) Microscopes are robust instruments that require no maintenance for many years. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1073 Objective: 43.11 7) The magnification of an object is calculated by multiplying the objective magnification by the eyepiece magnification. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1073 Objective: 43.11 8) Differential smears categorize types of white cells in a sample. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1072 Objective: 43.11 1

9) A written record of the maintenance performed on laboratory equipment must be readily available. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1068 Objective: 43.6 10) In order to determine that testing equipment is working correctly, control solutions that produce an expected result are tested instead of patients' specimens. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1068 Objective: 43.6 11) A biohazard waste receptacle and a sharps container should be within easy reach in a physician's office laboratory. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1062 Objective: 43.7 12) All medical assistants are trained to diagnose and to have basic knowledge of laboratory testing. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1062 Objective: 43.4 13) The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) develops specific guidelines governing particular fields to ensure that all employees are provided a safe work environment. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1070 Objective: 43.7 14) In a reference laboratory, test results are stored anonymously so that physicians can use them to compare to results on their own patients. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1062 Objective: 43.3 15) A qualitative test analyzes a specimen for the presence of a substance and the amount of the substance present. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1061 Objective: 43.1 16) A reference laboratory handles more complex tests than an outside laboratory as well as tests that are infrequently requested. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1062 Objective: 43.3 2

17) Many Certificate of Waiver Tests have been approved by the FDA for home use. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1071 Objective: 43.8 18) The only requirement for performing waived testing is to follow the manufacturer's instructions. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1071 Objective: 43.6 19) The centrifuge is an instrument that measures light intensity. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1072 Objective: 43.1 20) Laboratory personnel should avoid hand-to-mouth contact or hands touching the eyes, nose, or ears while in the lab. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1072 Objective: 43.7 Multiple Choice Questions 1) A test analyzes a specimen for the presence of a substance and the amount of the substance present. A) qualitative B) quantitative C) questionable D) problematic Answer: B Page Ref: 1061 Objective: 43.1 2) The laboratory handles specimens collected from many types of facilities and performs tests ranging from simple to very complex. A) hospital B) physician office C) reference D) outside Answer: D Page Ref: 1062 Objective: 43.3

3) The laboratory may be associated with a specific teaching hospital or medical school, or it may be independently owned. A) hospital B) physician office C) reference D) outside Answer: C Page Ref: 1062 Objective: 43.3 4) A(n) laboratory is one in which some of the tests the physician orders are performed in the office and some are sent to outside or reference labs. A) hospital B) physician's office C) reference D) outside Answer: B Page Ref: 1062 Objective: 43.3 5) time is the length of time it takes for a test to be performed and for results to be generated, sent back for physician review, and added to the patient's chart. A) Testing B) Review C) Waiting D) Turnaround Answer: D Page Ref: 1062 Objective: 43.3 6) In 1988, Congress enacted the in response to widespread concern over the accuracy of laboratory tests. A) Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments B) Clinical Laboratory Improvements Law C) Clinical Safety Improvement Law D) Clinical Improvements Amendments Answer: A Page Ref: 1070 Objective: 43.6

7) solutions are chemicals that produce a specific result. A) Mixed B) Absolute C) Control D) Occluded Answer: C Page Ref: 1068 Objective: 43.1 8) A(n) is a small or handheld machine that processes a specimen with single-use reagent test strips or cassettes. A) manually-operated analyzer B) automated analyzer C) specimen bottle D) control solution Answer: B Page Ref: 1071 Objective: 43.9 9) What would be the best action for the medical assistant to take if the physician has determined that a patient had abnormal laboratory results? A) Mail a letter to the patient detailing the results. B) Instruct the patient call the laboratory for the results. C) Wait until the patient's next appointment to discuss results. D) Contact the patient to make an appointment with the practitioner. Answer: D Page Ref: 1066 Objective: 43.4 10) Level tests include those that are highly complex and any tests involved in cytology, histopathology, histocompatibility. A) I B) II C) III D) IV Answer: B Page Ref: 1070 Objective: 43.8

11) Two programs of standards under the OSHA umbrella particularly affect the clinical laboratory, pertaining to chemical hazards and . A) emergency preparedness B) hazmat response C) standard precautions D) bloodborne pathogens Answer: D Page Ref: 1070 Objective: 43.7 12) Which test data would NOT be collected on a laboratory flow sheet monitoring a patient's progress and response to treatment? A) Glucose levels B) Liver panels C) Coumadin/warfarin panels D) Pregnancy tests Answer: D Page Ref: 1065 Objective: 43.5 13) When preparing a geriatric patient for a laboratory test, which is the best action for the medical assistant to take? A) Remind the patient to eat breakfast before the test. B) Tell the patient to stop taking all medications. C) Cover the information in a short time. D) Provide instructions in writing. Answer: D Page Ref: 1066 Objective: 43.4 14) According to the CLIA standards, how often are employee training and competency assessment documented after the first year? A) Monthly B) Yearly C) Every 3 years D) Every 5 years Answer: B Page Ref: 1069-1070 Objective: 43.6

15) If no specific OSHA guidelines for a particular field exist, then employers A) are free to develop their own standards B) are not required to maintain safety to any particular standard C) must follow the "general duty clause" for a safe work environment D) must submit a workplace safety plan to OSHA for approval Answer: C Page Ref: 1070 Objective: 43.7 16) The CLIA 1992 standards require the clinical laboratory to ensure reliable and results. A) uniform B) accurate C) prompt D) exceptional Answer: C Page Ref: 1069 Objective: 43.6

_ test

17) Each facility must have in place a(n) _, which is a written program that includes, among other requirements, mechanisms to evaluate laboratory procedures and policies and to identify and correct problems. A) employee safety handbook B) quality assurance program C) laboratory safety protocol D) emergency response plan Answer: B Page Ref: 1068 Objective: 43.6 18) A(n) A) autoclave B) incubator C) photometer D) centrifuge Answer: D Page Ref: 1072 Objective: 43.9

is used for separating specimens into component layers.

19) Which microscope settings would be used to view epithelial cells, such as skin scrapings? A) 10 B) 40 C) 70 D) 100 Answer: A Page Ref: 1073 Objective: 43.11 7

20) Any laboratory that wishes to perform Performed Microscopy. A) Level I B) Level II C) Certificate of Waiver D) Level III Answer: A Page Ref: 1070-1071 Objective: 43.8 21) A(n) A) photometer B) centrifuge C) incubator D) autoclave Answer: C Page Ref: 1072 Objective: 43.9

testing must have a Certificate of Provider-

is used to maintain a specific temperature to achieve a specific result.

22) Which CLIA-waived test would be ordered for a client with a gastric ulcer? A) Helicobacter pylori B) HCG C) Prothrombin time D) HDL Answer: A Page Ref: 1071 Objective: 43.8 23) An LDL test is a CLIA-waived test for A) lipidemia B) influenza infection C) clotting disorders D) HIV Answer: A Page Ref: 1071 Objective: 43.8

24) The laboratory temperature of the refrigerator should be checked A) daily B) twice a week C) weekly D) biweekly Answer: A Page Ref: 1068 Objective: 43.6

25) A glucometer is a type of A) incubator B) autoclave C) handheld photometer D) disposable specimen container Answer: C Page Ref: 1072 Objective: 43.9

used to test glucose levels in patients.

26) Clean the eyepieces and objectives of a microscope with A) a sterile sponge B) soap and water C) lens paper D) spray solution Answer: C Page Ref: 1075 Objective: 43.11

27) The of a microscope is used to hold slides. A) condenser B) mechanical stage C) base D) arm Answer: B Page Ref: 1072 Objective: 43.10 28) The safety rule for storage of caustic material is NOT to store it A) below eye level B) above eye level C) in the lab refrigerator D) within 10 feet of the autoclave Answer: B Page Ref: 1072 Objective: 43.7

29) The of a microscope refers to the ability to distinguish clearly between two adjacent, but distinct, objects. A) height B) power C) magnification D) resolution Answer: D Page Ref: 1072 Objective: 43.11

30) tests are moderately complex and include analysis of specimens in the areas of chemistry and hematology. A) Level I B) Level II C) Certificate of Waiver D) Level III Answer: A Page Ref: 1070 Objective: 43.8 31) Microscopes are frequently used in the medical office to examine urine sediment, vaginal and bacteriological smears, and differential smears, which categorize types of cells in a sample. A) white B) red C) skin D) blood Answer: A Page Ref: 1072 Objective: 43.9 32) Which piece of laboratory equipment would be used to encourage growth of throat cultures? A) Microscope B) Photometer C) Incubator D) Centrifuge Answer: C Page Ref: 1072 Objective: 43.9 33) A(n) A) incubator B) photometer C) electrometer D) electrolysis Answer: B Page Ref: 1072 Objective: 43.9

is used to measure light intensity.

34) Which laboratory equipment would be used to separate whole blood from plasma for testing? A) Macro centrifuge B) Micro centrifuge C) Incubator D) Photometer Answer: B Page Ref: 1072 Objective: 43.9 10

35) tests are the least complex and will have the least risk if they are performed incorrectly. A) Level II B) Level I C) Certificate of Waiver D) Level III Answer: C Page Ref: 1071 Objective: 43.8 36) Which CLIA-waived test would be ordered for a patient with a clotting disorder? A) Prothrombin time B) LDL C) Helicobacter pylori D) HCG Answer: A Page Ref: 1071 Objective: 43.8 37) Control solutions are usually purchased from a accompanying value sheet. A) clinic B) hospital C) manufacturer D) pharmacy Answer: C Page Ref: 1068 Objective: 43.6

, and each batch has an

38) To maintain CLIA-waived status, which of the following would be required by the facility? A) Financial audits B) Interviews with laboratory staff C) On-site inspections D) Extensive training records Answer: C Page Ref: 1071 Objective: 43.6 39) Which would NOT be acceptable professional appearance in the laboratory? A) Closed-toe shoes B) Fingernails short, well-manicured C) Hair pulled back D) Open-toed, non-skid shoes Answer: D Page Ref: 1072 Objective: 43.7 11

40) Which category does not fall under the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)? A) Waived B) Simple complexity C) Moderate complexity D) High complexity Answer: B Page Ref: 1070 Objective: 43.8 41) Which test is categorized as a Level II? A) Fecal occult B) Rapid Streptococcus C) Cytogenetics D) Hematology Answer: C Page Ref: 1070 Objective: 43.8 42) Which is NOT a role of the clinical laboratory? A) Screening for diseases B) Establishing baseline levels C) Ruling out a condition D) Determining prognosis Answer: D Page Ref: 1061 Objective: 43.2 43) The A) incubator B) autoclave C) centrifuge D) photometer Answer: B Page Ref: 1071 Objective: 43.9

is used for sterilizing equipment and instruments used on patients.

44) The following pieces of equipment are commonly found in the medical laboratory, EXCEPT a(n) . A) autoclave B) Bunsen burner C) centrifuge D) refrigerator Answer: B Page Ref: 1071 Objective: 43.9 12

45) All of the following are items of personal protective equipment that are essential in a physician's office laboratory, EXCEPT . A) masks B) gloves C) gowns D) caps Answer: D Page Ref: 1062 Objective: 43.7 46) Which is an example of a qualitative test? A) HCG B) HDL C) Prothrombin time D) Glucose Answer: A Page Ref: 1061 Objective: 43.2 47) Which of the following could be directions for collecting a postprandial specimen collection? A) Patient is to fast for 8 hours before collection. B) Collect specimen 30 minutes before the patient eats. C) Patient is to fast for 12 hours before collection. D) Collect specimen 2 hours after the patient eats. Answer: D Page Ref: 1065 Objective: 43.4 48) Which is a medical assistant NOT responsible for when working in a physician office laboratory (POL)? A) Record management B) Patient preparation C) Specimen management D) Result interpretation Answer: D Page Ref: 1062 Objective: 43.4 49) Normal reference ranges A) may vary B) do not vary C) are qualitative D) are CLIA determined Answer: A Page Ref: 1061 Objective: 43.2

from book to book and lab to lab.

50) This type of laboratory is typically a separate room or workspace within a practice that must be well-lighted and adequately ventilated. A) Reference laboratory B) Physician's office laboratory C) Outside laboratory D) Hospital laboratory Answer: B Page Ref: 1062 Objective: 43.6 51) All of the following are safety guidelines that should be followed by medical assistants working in physician's office laboratories, EXCEPT . A) do not draw material up through a pipette using suction from the mouth B) keep a first-aid manual and supplies available C) place a pen or pencil behind the ear when not in use D) be sure hands are dry when transferring reagent bottles Answer: C Page Ref: 1072 Objective: 43.7 52) Test strips or cartridges designed to produce a predetermined result are called A) control solutions B) calibration devices C) specimens D) reliable samples Answer: B Page Ref: 1068 Objective: 43.1 53) If a test result seems incongruous, it should be A) reported B) documented C) retested D) flagged Answer: C Page Ref: 1068 Objective: 43.4

54) Which is not a safety guideline in the workplace? A) Wear appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE) in and outside the lab. B) Avoid hand-to-mouth contact or hands touching the eyes, nose, or ears while in the lab. C) No pens or pencils should be placed in the mouth or behind the ears. D) No food or drink should be in the lab or the lab refrigerator. Answer: A Page Ref: 1072 Objective: 43.7 14

55) The is the lens system on the microscope that is used to increase light for sharper focus. A) objectives B) adjustment knobs C) condenser D) iris diaphragm Answer: C Page Ref: 1072 Objective: 43.10 56) For many tests, the fasting period is at least A) 6 hours B) 8 hours C) 24 hours D) 48 hours Answer: B Page Ref: 1065 Objective: 43.4

before specimen collection.

Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting, 4e (Beaman) Chapter 44 Microbiology True/False Questions 1) Normal flora on our bodies are beneficial bacteria that help us resist pathogens. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1079 Objective: 44.1 2) A stain is a dye used in coloring microorganisms to allow for visibility under a microscope. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1080 Objective: 44.6 3) Bacteria that are harmless in one area may be pathogenic in another, especially in an area that is normally sterile. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1079 Objective: 44.4 4) A Gram-negative bacterium has the violet-blue color of the counterstain used in Gram's method of staining microorganisms. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1080 Objective: 44.3 5) Colonies of bacteria can be grown on any media. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1096 Objective: 44.8 6) One of the most frequently requested specimens in a physician's office laboratory (POL) is the throat swab or culture. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1091 Objective: 44.7 7) Sterile swabs are used to obtain a specimen from a wound, abscess, or incision to test for pathogenic microorganisms. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1094 Objective: 44.7

8) Cerebrospinal fluid is always treated as a stat procedure. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1095 Objective: 44.6 9) Tetanus is a severe, possibly fatal form of food poisoning caused by the powerful neurotoxin produced by the anaerobe c. botulinum. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1084 Objective: 44.4 10) A virus is parasitic, that is, it depends on living cells of other organisms for growth. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1086 Objective: 44.4 11) Penicillin is now synthetically produced. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1087 Objective: 44.4 12) Single-celled fungi that reproduce by budding are known as yeast. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1087 Objective: 44.4 13) The first step in specimen collection is confirming the identity of the patient. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1090 Objective: 44.2 14) Streptococcal organisms are part of the normal flora of the upper respiratory tract and skin. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1083 Objective: 44.4 15) A bacterium is smaller than a virus, and is the smallest known infectious organism. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1086 Objective: 44.4 16) Successful culturing requires an understanding of the oxygen requirements of bacteria. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1080-1081 Objective: 44.3

17) Cocci are rod-shaped bacteria that are arranged in various configurations. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1082 Objective: 44.4 18) Protozoa are multi-celled parasites. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1082 Objective: 44.4 19) S. aureus can cause toxic shock syndrome. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1083 Objective: 44.4 20) Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is a form of E. coli. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1083 Objective: 44.1 21) Spirochetes are spiral-shaped or corkscrew-shaped organisms. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1085 Objective: 44.4 22) A virus may be seen under a standard microscope. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1082 Objective: 44.4 Multiple Choice Questions 1) are bacteria that die in the presence of oxygen. A) Aerobes B) Organelles C) Facultative anaerobes D) Anaerobes Answer: D Page Ref: 1080 Objective: 44.4

2) Bacilli are responsible for a wide variety of illnesses including enteritis, also known as . A) tuberculosis B) food poisoning C) urinary tract infection D) whooping cough Answer: B Page Ref: 1083 Objective: 44.1 3) S. pyogenes is responsible for , a severe infection due to destruction of subcutaneous tissue that has a 30 percent mortality rate. A) trichomoniasis B) steatorrhea C) necrotizing fasciitis D) MRSA (methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus) Answer: C Page Ref: 1083 Objective: 44.1 4) A(n) is a thick-walled reproductive cell produced by some organisms that is capable of withstanding unfavorable environmental conditions. A) agar B) colony C) spore D) culture Answer: C Page Ref: 1084 Objective: 44.1 5) The study of fungi is known as A) morphology B) mycology C) microbiology D) serology Answer: B Page Ref: 1087 Objective: 44.1

6) Sequela, or long-lasting effects of Lyme disease may be all, EXCEPT A) arthritis B) Bell's palsy C) scabies D) aseptic meningitis Answer: C Page Ref: 1088 Objective: 44.1 4

7) The is a disposable, clear plastic tube that contains a sterile cotton-tipped applicator swab and a sealed plastic vial of medium. A) sterile container B) Culturette TM system C) collection container D) specimen container Answer: B Page Ref: 1090 Objective: 44.1 8) A basic rule of specimen collection is that specimens should be collected A) after antibiotic treatment B) if there is an insufficient quality of material C) before beginning antibiotic treatment D) if the patient did not follow pretest preparation Answer: C Page Ref: 1090 Objective: 44.6

9) A is a thin layer of microorganisms spread on a glass slide for identification purposes. A) culture B) smear C) wet mount D) swab Answer: B Page Ref: 1090 Objective: 44.1 10) A specimen of contains wound drainage material made of serum, white blood cells, and fibrin, and may be collected in a Culturette unit. A) sputum B) occult blood C) cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) D) exudate Answer: D Page Ref: 1090 Objective: 44.7

11) The causative agent of the sexually transmitted disease syphilis is the spirochete A) Borrelia burgdorferi B) Treponema pallidum C) Streptococcus pyogenes D) Trichomonas vaginalis Answer: B Page Ref: 1085-1086 Objective: 44.4

12) A preparation involves taking a specimen, placing it on a slide, and adding a drop of sterile normal saline and a cover so the physician can observe the motility of microbes. A) direct smear B) Culturette C) wet mount D) Petri dish Answer: C Page Ref: 1098 Objective: 44.9 13) One step of the method for preparing a specimen for microscopic examination involves passing the clear underneath part of the slide through an open flame or flooding the slide with methanol and letting it dry. A) fixed B) direct smear C) acid fast stain D) frosted slide Answer: B Page Ref: 1097-1098 Objective: 44.9 14) Sputum is the mucous substance expelled by A) coughing or clearing the bronchi B) waste produced from the bowel C) drainage from a wound D) discharge from the vagina Answer: A Page Ref: 1092 Objective: 44.1

15) Which of these specimens would a medical assistant NOT collect? A) Stool B) Urine C) Cerebrospinal fluid D) Exudate Answer: C Page Ref: 1079 Objective: 44.2 6

16) Fecal specimens collected by the medical assistant must be free of all these, EXCEPT . A) toilet tissue B) fat C) toilet water D) urine Answer: B Page Ref: 1093 Objective: 44.6 17) is the study of antigen and antibody reactions of the body's immune system. A) Serology B) Microbiology C) Morphology D) Pathology Answer: A Page Ref: 1101 Objective: 44.1 18) _The medical assistant may be asked to perform a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)-waived Group A Strep Screen test, which produces _ , a clumping of cells. A) candidiasis B) agglutination C) moniliasis D) steatorrhea Answer: B Page Ref: 1102 Objective: 44.7 19) Which of these conditions or diseases is caused by a virus? A) Vaginitis B) Lice C) Lyme disease D) Genital herpes Answer: D Page Ref: 1089 Objective: 44.4

20) When growing cultures, the agar is from colonies of normal flora. A) fixed B) collected C) inoculated D) agglutinated Answer: C Page Ref: 1096 Objective: 44.8

to separate pathogenic colonies of organisms

21) Which of these diseases or conditions is caused by a parasite? A) Pneumonia B) Malaria C) Shingles D) Rheumatic heart disease Answer: B Page Ref: 1082 Objective: 44.4 22) A common cause of nosocomial infections is A) Staphylococcus aureus B) Streptococcus pyogenes C) Borrelia burgdorferi D) Escherichia coli Answer: A Page Ref: 1083 Objective: 44.4

23) After Gram staining, a Gram-positive bacterium retains the in the staining of the microorganism. A) pink B) white C) violet D) green Answer: C Page Ref: 1080 Objective: 44.3

color of the stain used

24) are round, gram-positive bacteria arranged in chains, some of which are nonpathogenic, whereas others are dangerous to humans. A) Bacteria B) Viruses C) Streptococci D) Protozoa Answer: C Page Ref: 1083 Objective: 44.4 8

25) Today, because of increased reliance on treatment with antibiotics to treat lowlevel infections, various microorganisms are mutating to resist treatment, producing all of thefollowing, EXCEPT . A) vancomycin-resistant enterococci (VRE) B) methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) C) smallpox virus D) carbapenem-resistant enterobacteriaceae (CRE) Answer: C Page Ref: 1083 Objective: 44.4 26) Diplococci A) are unicellular B) form pairs of cells C) are spiral-shaped D) can move with cilia Answer: B Page Ref: 1082 Objective: 44.4

27) The causative agent of chickenpox is A) Streptococcus pyogenes B) Candida albicans C) Escherichia coli D) Varicella zoster virus Answer: D Page Ref: 1089 Objective: 44.4

28) It was discovered that H. pylori is the causative agent of malignancy in some infected persons. A) heart attacks B) heart disease C) cancer D) peptic ulcers Answer: D Page Ref: 1084 Objective: 44.4

and a risk factor in gastric

29) Clostridium tetani produces . A) the flu B) an extremely toxic neurotoxin C) scarlet fever D) the pink safranine color after a Gram stain Answer: B Page Ref: 1084 Objective: 44.4 30) is (are) an instrument that is used for quadrant streaking to isolate pathogenic colonies of organisms from normal flora in a culture grown in a Petri dish. A) A needle B) Incineration equipment C) A wire inoculating loop D) Culture media Answer: C Page Ref: 1096 Objective: 44.8 31) The test that checks for the susceptibility of a pathogen to specific antibiotics is A) Gram-stain B) sensitivity testing C) direct examination D) KOH mount Answer: B Page Ref: 1097 Objective: 44.5 32) The collection of specimens of the parasite Enterobius vermicularis is done using a . A) stool test B) loop C) piece of sticky tape D) needle Answer: C Page Ref: 1094 Objective: 44.7 33) are curved or spiral rods that can be arranged singly or in strands. A) Diplococci B) Staphylococci C) Spirilla D) Streptococci Answer: C Page Ref: 1101 Objective: 44.4 10

34) After using a sterile swab to obtain a specimen from a wound, the medical assistant should NEXT . A) confirm the identity of the patient B) select the proper container for collection C) fill out the requisition form for the reference lab D) screen the patient for proper pretest preparation Answer: B Page Ref: 1090 Objective: 44.6 35) bacteria cause Rocky Mountain spotted fever. A) Vibrios B) Spirilla C) Rickettsia D) Bacilli Answer: C Page Ref: 1082 Objective: 44.4 36) forms grapelike clusters of pus-producing organisms and is the causative agent of boils, pimples, acne, and osteomyelitis. A) Streptococci B) Staphylococci C) Bacilli D) Diplococci Answer: B Page Ref: 1082 Objective: 44.4 37) is a sexually transmitted bacterial infection that must invade living cells to reproduce, and it may be a silent inhabitant of the vagina or cause mild burning sensations and discharge. A) Trichomonas vaginalis B) Candida albicans C) Chlamydia trachomatis D) Mycoplasma Answer: C Page Ref: 1086 Objective: 44.4

38) is the causative agent of urinary tract infection. A) Escherichia coli B) Chlamydia trachomatis C) Candida albicans D) Herpes simplex Answer: A Page Ref: 1089 Objective: 44.4 39) are rod-shaped bacteria that are the causative agent of diphtheria. A) Rickettsia B) Vibrios C) Bacilli D) Cocci Answer: C Page Ref: 1082 Objective: 44.4 40) Which of these is caused by a virus? A) Tetanus B) Cholera C) Botulism D) Warts Answer: D Page Ref: 1086 Objective: 44.4 41) is a severe, possibly fatal form of food poisoning caused by the powerful neurotoxin produced by the anaerobe Clostridium botulinum. A) Tetanus B) Botulism C) Trichomoniasis D) Hepatitis Answer: B Page Ref: 1084 Objective: 44.4 42) The A) lungs B) liver C) skin D) larynx Answer: C Page Ref: 1081 Objective: 44.4

is (are) a common site of infection by Staphylococcus aureus.

43) are small, unicellular microorganisms that are capable of rapid reproduction. A) Bacteria B) Viruses C) Fungi D) Protozoa Answer: A Page Ref: 1081 Objective: 44.4 44) are responsible for the whip-like movements of the protozoan Trichomonas vaginalis seen on wet mount slides under a microscope. A) Cilia B) Rods C) Flagella D) Spirals Answer: C Page Ref: 1081 Objective: 44.4 45) The tests for diagnosing Helicobacter pylori require collecting all of these specimens, EXCEPT . A) breath B) blood C) stool D) sputum Answer: D Page Ref: 1102 Objective: 44.7 46) A transparent ring around a colony of Streptococci in a culture medium that contains blood is the result of . A) hemolysis B) moniliasis C) candidiasis D) pertussis Answer: A Page Ref: 1096 Objective: 44.8 47) is a common culture medium for fecal microorganisms. A) Blood agar B) Chocolate agar C) Eosin-methylene blue (EMB) D) Gram-negative broth Answer: D Page Ref: 1096 Objective: 44.9 13

48) Which of these is caused by a fungus? A) Trichomoniasis B) Gonorrhea C) Yeast infection D) Osteomyelitis Answer: C Page Ref: 1082 Objective: 44.4 49) The causative agent of athlete's foot is A) Histoplasma capsulatum B) Tinea pedis C) Candida albicans D) Tinea spp. Answer: B Page Ref: 1082 Objective: 44.4

50) A microbiologist grows and observes a culture for the ultimate purpose of A) growing a colony of microorganisms B) observing microorganisms using a microscope C) identification and diagnosis D) inoculation Answer: C Page Ref: 1095 Objective: 44.5 51) A(n) of others. A) differential B) selective C) enrichment D) supportive Answer: B Page Ref: 1095 Objective: 44.8

medium encourages the growth of some organisms and restricts the growth

52) Ringworm is caused by a A) fungus B) virus C) bacterium D) protozoan Answer: A Page Ref: 1082 Objective: 44.4

53) is the study of living organisms too small to be seen with the naked eye. A) Mycology B) Biology C) Microbiology D) Morphology Answer: C Page Ref: 1079 Objective: 44.1 54) Morphology refers to the characteristic A) movement B) shape C) reactions to stains D) use of oxygen Answer: B Page Ref: 1081 Objective: 44.1

of microorganisms on a slide.

Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting, 4e (Beaman) Chapter 45 Urinalysis True/False Questions 1) Timed specimens are necessary for quantitative analysis of substances, such as protein, creatinine, or glucose in urine. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1109 Objective: 45.4 2) Refrigeration of a specimen stops the growth of bacteria and specimen deterioration. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1111 Objective: 45.4 3) Renal threshold is the concentration at which a substance such as glucose excreted by the kidneys begins to appear in the urine. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1111 Objective: 45.1 4) Catheterization is used to collect a sterile urine specimen–the ideal urine specimen because it is free of contamination. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1113 Objective: 45.2 5) Clean-catch midstream urine specimens are used to detect urinary tract infection and other dysfunctions. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1111 Objective: 45.3 6) A clear urine specimen is caused by a number of factors, including bacterial infection; white, red, or epithelial cells; yeast; or vaginal contaminants. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1116 Objective: 45.6 7) It is important to remember to observe the appearance of the specimen before it begins to cool, because crystals can form during the cooling process, changing the appearance of the sample. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1116 Objective: 45.6

8) The normal color of urine is dark gold. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1116 Objective: 45.6 9) Occasionally, urine will appear a reddish-brown color, which may indicate bleeding either in the urinary tract or from menstruation. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1116-1117 Objective: 45.6 10) The dipstick method is the most commonly used method of measuring specific gravity, the kidney's ability to concentrate or dilute urine. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1118 Objective: 45.7 11) The pH is measured on a scale of 0 to 14, with 14 being the most acidic and 7 being neutral. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1120 Objective: 45.7 12) The potential hydrogen ion concentration (pH) of a solution indicates acidity and alkalinity. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1120 Objective: 45.7 13) The dipstick method of measuring specific gravity uses light, a prism, and a calibrated scale to measure the concentration level of the specimen. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1118 Objective: 45.5 14) Individuals testing positive for ketones (from fat metabolism) may have a "fruity" odor to their urine. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1117 Objective: 45.7 15) Large quantities of B vitamins can cause the urine to appear bright orange. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1117 Objective: 45.6

16) Protein is normally NOT found in the urine of healthy individuals. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1120 Objective: 45.7 17) Normal urine contains glucose. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1120 Objective: 45.7 18) Hematuria is abnormal unless it is a contamination from menses. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1122 Objective: 45.7 19) The presence of bilirubin is usually indicative of a urinary tract infection (UTI). Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1122 Objective: 45.7 20) The cause of protein in the urine should always be investigated. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1120 Objective: 45.7 21) Automated chemical analyzers identify the type and approximate number of organisms present in a urine specimen. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1123 Objective: 45.7 22) The sediment is the solid material remaining in urine after the supernatant is poured off. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1123 Objective: 45.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The measurement of _ A) occult blood B) glucose C) ketones D) specific gravity Answer: D Page Ref: 1118 Objective: 45.4

compares the density of urine to the density of water.

2) A is the type of urine specimen most commonly collected. A) 24-hour specimen B) random sample C) first void D) timed specimen Answer: B Page Ref: 1108 Objective: 45.5 3) A(n) A) evening B) morning C) afternoon D) night Answer: B Page Ref: 1109 Objective: 45.6

specimen is the most concentrated urine.

4) The three components of routine urinalysis do NOT include A) physical B) human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) C) chemical D) microscopic Answer: B Page Ref: 1116 Objective: 45.8

analysis.

5) There are several methods of testing urine's specific gravity. Which is NOT one of those methods? A) Dipstick or reagent strip method B) Refractometer method C) Reaction pH method D) Urinometer method Answer: C Page Ref: 1118 Objective: 45.6 6) Normally, urine is slightly acidic, with a pH range of urine is tested. A) 1.6 B) 2.6 C) 3.6 D) 4.6 Answer: D Page Ref: 1120 Objective: 45.7 4

to 7.9, depending on when the

7) Automated chemical analyzers use _ photometry to test the strips and eliminate human error associated with color recognition. A) liquid B) biological C) chemical D) light Answer: D Page Ref: 1123 Objective: 45.7 8) in urine may be one of the first signs of liver disease. A) Nitrites B) Bilirubin C) Ketones D) Leukocytes Answer: B Page Ref: 1122 Objective: 45.9 9) Hyaline casts in large numbers may indicate A) lung B) heart C) liver D) kidney Answer: D Page Ref: 1127 Objective: 45.9 10) Turbidity refers to the A) color B) specific gravity C) cloudiness D) quantity Answer: C Page Ref: 1116 Objective: 45.6

disease.

of urine.

11) Pregnancy testing is based on the detection of A) spermatozoa B) crystals C) human chorionic gonadotropin D) casts Answer: C Page Ref: 1127 Objective: 45.10

in the urine.

12) Checking the expiration of any test before it is used to make sure it is not expired is a measure. A) chain of custody B) culture and sensitivity C) quality control D) clean-catch Answer: C Page Ref: 1131 Objective: 45.12 13) In routine urinalysis, all of these are physical properties of urine, EXCEPT A) glucose B) clarity C) color D) odor Answer: A Page Ref: 1116 Objective: 45.6 14) At least A) 5 B) 10 C) 15 D) 20 Answer: B Page Ref: 1108 Objective: 45.3

mL of urine is usually needed for testing, depending on the test ordered.

15) Which of the following is NOT a standard precaution the medical assistant must take when working in an aseptic environment to perform urinalysis? A) Avoiding contaminating any equipment with urine B) Collecting a random urine specimen C) Maintaining good handwashing principles D) Wearing nonsterile gloves Answer: B Page Ref: 1107-1108 Objective: 45.1 16) A specimen is collected by inserting a sterile needle into the patient's bladder through the abdominal wall. A) catheterized B) suprapubic C) clean-catch D) pediatric Answer: B Page Ref: 1115 Objective: 45.5 6

17) The presence of many red blood cells in the urine during a microscopic examination is known as . A) oliguria B) proteinuria C) pyuria D) hematuria Answer: D Page Ref: 1122 Objective: 45.1 18) A 24-hour urine specimen should measure between A) 70—100 mL B) 250—2,500 mL C) 500—700 mL D) 700—2,000 mL Answer: D Page Ref: 1117 Objective: 45.5 19) A 24-hour urine test is used to determine the A) specific gravity B) glomerular filtration rate C) micturition D) renal threshold Answer: B Page Ref: 1109 Objective: 45.5 20) The presence of pus in the urine is referred to as A) bacteriuria B) pyuria C) polyuria D) anuria Answer: B Page Ref: 1116 Objective: 45.1

of the kidneys.

21) If a specimen is found to have large quantities of bilirubin, then it should be stored away from , which causes the breakdown of bilirubin, until further testing. A) heat B) light C) cold D) air Answer: B Page Ref: 1122 Objective: 45.12 7

22) False positives for the presence of nitrites can happen if the specimen is long. A) exposed to light B) exposed to cold C) at room temperature D) left uncovered Answer: C Page Ref: 1122 Objective: 45.12

for too

23) All of the following may be found in urine sediment during microscopic examination, EXCEPT . A) epithelial cells B) red blood cells C) supernatant D) white blood cells Answer: C Page Ref: 1123 Objective: 45.1 24) When using microscopic examination for urinalysis, casts are counted under the low-power field (LPF) of the microscope and are identified under magnification. A) low-powered B) reduced-light C) moderate D) high-powered Answer: D Page Ref: 1125 Objective: 45.9 25) Using microscopic urinalysis, casts may be identified as all of these, EXCEPT A) hyaline B) cellular C) turbid D) granular Answer: C Page Ref: 1125, 1127 Objective: 45.9

26) The medical assistant can prevent tampering with a chain of custody drug test by doing all of the following, EXCEPT . A) having same-sex personnel monitor the collection B) placing bluing tablets in the toilet water C) using an unlabeled, clean, dry cup for collection D) turning off the water inlet in the bathroom Answer: C Page Ref: 1130-1131 Objective: 45.11 27) All of these are quality control measures, EXCEPT A) documenting, cleaning, and maintaining instruments B) testing on a routine schedule C) screening with a CLIA-waived test D) training new employees to perform urine tests Answer: C Page Ref: 1131-1132 Objective: 45.12

28) Which of the following is NOT considered a time-specific urine specimen? A) Random specimen B) Suprapubic specimen C) Morning specimen D) 24-hour specimen Answer: B Page Ref: 1108 Objective: 45.3 29) Oliguria means urine. A) decreased production of B) no production of C) increased production of D) blood in the Answer: A Page Ref: 1118 Objective: 45.1 30) Which is NOT a specialized standard category urine test? A) Random sample B) Catheterized specimen C) Clean-catch midstream D) Pediatric specimen Answer: A Page Ref: 1108 Objective: 45.5

31) Instructions to the patient for collecting a 24-hour specimen should be given A) in writing B) orally C) both orally and in writing D) only by the physician Answer: C Page Ref: 1109 Objective: 45.3

32) When patients are given 24-hour urine collection containers with or without preservative, they should be instructed to do all of the following, EXCEPT . A) not to discard or handle preservatives B) urinate into the 24-hour container C) store the specimen in a refrigerator or keep on ice D) deliver the specimen to the physician's office as soon as possible Answer: B Page Ref: 1111 Objective: 45.4 33) Typically, a A) medical assistant B) nurse C) physician D) patient Answer: B Page Ref: 1113 Objective: 45.3

_ will perform the catheterization procedure to collect a urine specimen.

34) Collecting urine from a pediatric patient can be a challenge, so the method of choice is often . A) catheterization B) an adhesive urine specimen bag C) clean-catch midstream D) a 24-hour specimen Answer: B Page Ref: 1115 Objective: 45.5 35) Individuals testing positive for ketones may have a "fruity" odor to their urine. This can be indicative of uncontrolled . A) bladder disease B) diabetes C) cancer D) liver disease Answer: B Page Ref: 1117 Objective: 45.7 10

36) may indicate diabetes. A) Anuria B) Pyuria C) Oliguria D) Polyuria Answer: D Page Ref: 1117-1118 Objective: 45.1 37) A refractometer uses all of the following EXCEPT level of the specimen. A) light B) chemicals C) a prism D) a calibrated scale Answer: B Page Ref: 1118 Objective: 45.6

to measure the concentration

38) All of the following can make a higher urinary pH reading, EXCEPT A) urinary tract infection B) diets high in dairy C) diets high in vitamin C D) diets high in protein Answer: D Page Ref: 1120 Objective: 45.7 39) A(n) in a urine sample is an indicator of a possible UTI. A) elevated amount of hCG B) pH greater than 7.5 C) pH lower than 7 D) elevated glucose Answer: B Page Ref: 1120 Objective: 45.7 40) Red cells in the urine may be an indication of A) osteoporosis B) liver disease C) breast cancer D) menstruation Answer: D Page Ref: 1116-1117 Objective: 45.7 11

in female patients.

41) With regard to microscopic examination of urine specimens, medical assistants must be able to . A) perform tests without further training if the facility already has a provider-performed microscopy (PPM) certificate B) perform microscopic examinations C) evaluate urine for microscopic analysis D) prepare a urine specimen for microscopic examination Answer: D Page Ref: 1123 Objective: 45.8 42) The presence of syndrome. A) ketones B) glucose C) nitrites D) leukocytes Answer: B Page Ref: 1120-1121 Objective: 45.7

in the urine may indicate diabetes, stress, infection, or Cushing's

43) All of the following are some causes of low pH urine, EXCEPT A) renal tuberculosis B) diets high in protein C) diabetes mellitus D) diets high in vegetables Answer: D Page Ref: 1120 Objective: 45.7 44) Oliguria can be indicative of all of the following, EXCEPT A) cardiovascular disease. B) dehydration. C) renal obstruction. D) kidney disease. Answer: C Page Ref: 1118 Objective: 45.6

45) When a urinary tract infection is suspected, it is important to see consistent test results that include all of these, EXCEPT . A) a negative protein test B) an elevated pH C) the presence of bacteria D) a positive leukocyte esterase test Answer: A Page Ref: 1123 Objective: 45.7 46) Anuria means . A) too much urine produced B) bladder infection C) no urine production D) kidney stones Answer: C Page Ref: 1118 Objective: 45.1 47) Levels of hCG may be detectable in urine as early as taken place. A) 4—6 B) 6—8 C) 8—10 D) 10—12 Answer: B Page Ref: 1127 Objective: 45.10

days after fertilization has

48) During catheterization, the medical assistant should be prepared to do all of these, EXCEPT . A) assemble necessary equipment and supplies B) position the patient C) insert the catheter into the urethra D) collect the urine in a sterile cup Answer: C Page Ref: 1114-1115 Objective: 45.5 49) To achieve the condition of asepsis, the medical assistant A) maintains a log B) conducts testing on a routine schedule C) checks the expiration date on testing products D) considers all body fluids to be potentially infectious Answer: D Page Ref: 1107 Objective: 45.2 13

50) If a patient has moniliasis, what may be present in her urine? A) Yeast B) Crystals C) Parasites D) Casts Answer: A Page Ref: 1127 Objective: 45.9 51) If a patient has cystitis, which of these may be observed? A) High levels of urobilinogen B) Presence of nitrites C) Low pH D) Anuria Answer: B Page Ref: 1122 Objective: 45.9 52) Normal specific gravity ranges between A) 1.001 and 1.003 B) 0.001 and 0.003 C) 1.010 and 1.030 D) 1.100 and 1.300 Answer: C Page Ref: 1118 Objective: 45.6

53) Urine specimens that are identified and measured using reagent strips involve analysis. A) microscopic B) physical C) chemical D) volume Answer: C Page Ref: 1118 Objective: 45.7 54) Which type of urine specimen is collected following a meal? A) Morning specimen B) Pediatric specimen C) Two-hour postprandial specimen D) Random sample Answer: C Page Ref: 1109 Objective: 45.3 14

Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting, 4e (Beaman) Chapter 46 Phlebotomy and Blood Collection True/False Questions 1) Venipuncture cannot be done in the medical office but must be performed in an outside laboratory. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1140 Objective: 46.9 2) When a physician orders a blood test, the medical assistant draws the patient's blood, ensures proper specimen labeling, and ensures that the blood is stored correctly. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1135 Objective: 46.9 3) Veins act as a bridge between capillaries and arteries. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1136 Objective: 46.2 4) The heart sends returned blood to the lungs, where oxygen is exhaled and carbon dioxide is inhaled. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1136 Objective: 46.2 5) Capillary walls are only one cell thick, so oxygen can pass out of the blood, and waste material can pass into the blood. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1136 Objective: 46.2 6) When the body is cool, capillaries dilate to retain heat. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1137 Objective: 46.2 7) Point of care testing commonly uses blood drawn from capillaries. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1136 Objective: 46.3

8) Veins carry blood toward the heart, and arteries carry blood away from the heart. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1136 Objective: 46.3 9) Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) set standards to which all laboratories must adhere. These standards include training of personnel and testing and transport of specimens. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1137 Objective: 46.9 10) Plasma, the liquid component of blood, is mostly water. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1137 Objective: 46.1 11) The formed elements of blood are the red and white blood cells and platelets. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1137 Objective: 46.2 12) Hemoglobin in the white blood cells transports oxygen. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1137 Objective: 46.2 13) Arteries have one-way valves that prevent the backflow of blood. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1137 Objective: 46.2 14) Fibrinogens are minerals found in blood serum. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1137 Objective: 46.2 15) The most common capillary puncture site for adults is the palm of the hand. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1138 Objective: 46.3 16) Capillary blood collection tubes that contain heparin (to prevent clotting) are identified by a red mark. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1140 Objective: 46.3 2

17) A tourniquet should be left in place for the duration of the blood draw, for at least a minute. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1143 Objective: 46.7 18) The most common method of venipuncture is the syringe and needle method. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1141 Objective: 46.6 19) Following the Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI) order of draw, blue Vacutainers are drawn first. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1145 Objective: 46.8 20) It is appropriate to control the filling of an evacuated blood-collection tube manually. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1145 Objective: 46.9 21) The antecubital space is the most commonly used site for venipuncture. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1140 Objective: 46.4 22) If a patient shows signs of fainting, first complete the draw, and then have the patient lie down. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1148 Objective: 46.9 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The role of the medical assistant in collecting blood specimens requires knowledge of each of the following EXCEPT . A) asepsis B) basic circulatory anatomy C) vascular surgery D) phlebotomy equipment Answer: C Page Ref: 1135 Objective: 46.3

2) The first step in performing manual capillary puncture is to A) assemble the equipment B) explain the procedure to the patient C) wipe the site of the puncture with alcohol D) perform hand hygiene Answer: D Page Ref: 1139 Objective: 46.3

3) The last step in performing manual capillary puncture is to A) remove the gloves B) perform hand hygiene C) apply a bandage over clean gauze at the puncture site D) record the procedure in the patient's medical record Answer: D Page Ref: 1139 Objective: 46.3

4) Red blood cells carry A) plasma B) fibrinogen C) heparin D) hemoglobin Answer: D Page Ref: 1137 Objective: 46.2 5) Fibrinogens are A) vitamins B) minerals C) oxides D) proteins Answer: D Page Ref: 1137 Objective: 46.1

molecules.

involved in clotting.

6) Arteries because of the high pumping pressure they receive from the heart. A) stiffen B) make a hissing sound C) expand D) pulsate Answer: D Page Ref: 1136 Objective: 46.2

7) The medical assistant performing a venipuncture for a human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) test must . A) wash hands thoroughly B) maintain temperature at a certain level C) tell the patient to fast for 8 hours prior D) take the blood sample while the patient is lying down Answer: B Page Ref: 1149 Objective: 46.10 8) The blood carried in the arteries contains A) ammonia B) carbon monoxide C) oxygen D) bile Answer: C Page Ref: 1136 Objective: 46.2

9) When the body is cold, the capillaries increases the body temperature. A) dilate B) disintegrate C) constrict D) explode Answer: C Page Ref: 1137 Objective: 46.2

, allowing for less blood flow, which

10) Which of the following is NOT one of the three methods of venipuncture? A) Vacuum tube method B) Caterpillar method C) Syringe and needle method D) Butterfly method Answer: B Page Ref: 1141 Objective: 46.6 11) Vacuum blood tubes come in all of the following sizes, EXCEPT A) 7 mL B) 10 mL C) 15 mL D) 20 mL Answer: D Page Ref: 1145 Objective: 46.7 5

12) When drawing blood by the Vacutainer method, it is important to fill the tubes in the recommended order. Which one of the following tubes would be filled first? A) Lavender B) Blue C) Red D) Yellow Answer: D Page Ref: 1145 Objective: 46.8 13) When using the vacuum container method, it is important to use a(n) _ A) small vein B) large vein C) large artery D) arteriole Answer: B Page Ref: 1141 Objective: 46.6 14) One drawback to performing the butterfly method is the A) cost B) mortality rate C) pain D) availability Answer: A Page Ref: 1142-1143 Objective: 46.6

15) Which vein(s) is/are a commonly used site for venipunctures? A) Cephalic B) Basilic C) Median cubital D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 1140 Objective: 46.4 16) Which of the following sites are commonly used for manual capillary puncture? A) Middle finger B) Ring finger C) Heel of the foot on an infant D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 1138 Objective: 46.3

17) A patient cannot be forced to undergo a blood draw procedure unless there is . A) documented evidence that the medical assistant explained the need for the procedure B) a signed statement from the physician that the procedure is necessary C) a signed court order that specifically overrides the right to refuse to have the procedure done D) a state law allowing the health care facility the authority to force the patient to undergo the procedure Answer: C Page Ref: 1153 Objective: 46.11 18) If a patient is allergic to latex, a A) cotton B) paper C) rubber D) spandex Answer: C Page Ref: 1143 Objective: 46.7

tourniquet can be used.

19) Needles used for blood draws are A) made of copper B) hollow C) reusable D) rounded at the tip Answer: B Page Ref: 1144 Objective: 46.7

20) The smaller the gauge number of the venipuncture needle, the A) flatter B) rounder C) smaller D) larger Answer: D Page Ref: 1144 Objective: 46.7 21) The tip of the venipuncture needle is A) pointed B) beveled C) flat D) round Answer: B Page Ref: 1144 Objective: 46.7

_ the hole within.

22) General phlebotomy needles are A) 12- to 15B) 20- to 21C) 22- to 25D) 25- to 30Answer: B Page Ref: 1144 Objective: 46.7

gauge.

23) When should venipuncture be avoided? A) In patients with syncope B) On dry skin C) In the antecubital space D) On sites with tattoos Answer: D Page Ref: 1154 Objective: 46.5 24) The preferred finger for capillary puncture is the A) thumb B) pinky finger C) index finger D) middle or ring finger Answer: D Page Ref: 1138 Objective: 46.3

of the non-dominant hand.

25) Which method of venipuncture is limited in the amount of blood that can be drawn by the size of the equipment used? A) Vacuum tube B) Syringe and needle C) Butterfly D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 1141 Objective: 46.6 26) Capillary puncture is used for blood tests for all of the following, EXCEPT A) glucose levels B) cholesterol levels C) plasma studies D) hematocrit levels Answer: C Page Ref: 1138 Objective: 46.3

27) The initials POC stand for A) physician on call B) phlebotomist on call C) patient's overall condition D) point of care Answer: D Page Ref: 1136 Objective: 46.1

28) It is important to maintain the correct order of draw to . A) ensure the correct amount of blood is drawn B) maintain the drawn blood at the correct temperature C) ensure that the tubes are labeled with the name of the correct patient D) prevent contamination of a sample with chemicals from another tube Answer: D Page Ref: 1145 Objective: 46.8 29) To prevent the backflow of blood, veins are closed by A) lumens B) arteries C) valves D) capillaries Answer: C Page Ref: 1137 Objective: 46.2

30) is the destruction of red blood cells with the release of hemoglobin into the plasma. A) Hematocrit B) Hemolysis C) Hematoma D) Hematology Answer: B Page Ref: 1142 Objective: 46.1 31) A synonym for fainting or loss of consciousness is A) palpate B) cannula C) hematoma D) syncope Answer: D Page Ref: 1148 Objective: 46.1

32) When preparing to collect blood from a dialysis patient with a fistula, the phlebotomist must . A) wait until the dialysis is completed B) wait three minutes after dialysis is completed C) avoid the fistula site D) use a large vein, such as the subclavian Answer: C Page Ref: 1154 Objective: 46.5 33) Before inserting the needle, the medical assistant should do all of the following, EXCEPT . A) make sure the patient understands the procedure B) have the patient sit upright for two minutes C) ask the patient about allergies and other possible complications D) clean the puncture site with an alcohol wipe Answer: B Page Ref: 1150-1151 Objective: 46.9 34) There is a higher incidence of injury and contamination when using which venipuncture method? A) Sterile syringe and needle method B) Vacuum container method C) Butterfly needle method D) Evacuated tube method Answer: A Page Ref: 1141 Objective: 46.6 35) When using laboratory requisition forms to transport specimens, the forms should be . A) attached to the patient's identification label B) filled out with the patient's name and address C) completely filled out and attached to the specimen D) filled out before the blood is collected Answer: C Page Ref: 1149, 1153 Objective: 46.10

36) After a lancet is used, it should immediately be placed in a(n) needlesticks. A) biohazard container B) trash can C) sharps container D) any of the above Answer: C Page Ref: 1138 Objective: 46.7

_ to prevent

37) When responding to a patient with hypoglycemia, the phlebotomist should A) get a court order to proceed with the venipuncture B) have the patient drink cold water to reduce discomfort C) ask the patient about any anticoagulant therapies D) give the patient sugar by any means tolerated and call the physician Answer: D Page Ref: 1153 Objective: 47.11 38) Venous blood is A) lighter in color B) lighter in weight C) darker D) heavier Answer: C Page Ref: 1136 Objective: 46.2

than arterial blood.

39) Which test requires stat processing? A) Hemoglobin B) Warfarin level C) Calcium D) PT INR Answer: D Page Ref: 1153 Objective: 46.10 40) The discomfort and swelling from a hematoma with significant swelling formed after a venipuncture can by reduced by . A) heat B) using ibuprofen C) cold compress D) pressure dressing Answer: C Page Ref: 1153 Objective: 46.11 11

41) Which of the following is NOT a way to make a vein stand out? A) Having the patient drink lots of fluids before the procedure B) Having the patient gently squeeze a rubber ball C) Applying a warm cloth over the site D) Applying a cold compress Answer: D Page Ref: 1135 Objective: 46.7 42) When performing a venipuncture on a diabetic patient who has not eaten, the medical assistance knows the patient is at risk for _ and may . A) a spike in the glucose level of the blood; vomit B) dehydration; pass out C) insulin shock; convulse D) all the above Answer: C Page Ref: 1153 Objective: 46.11 43) Patients are required to fast for level test. A) 8 to 10 B) 10 to 12 C) 12 to 14 D) 14 to 16 Answer: C Page Ref: 1148 Objective: 46.5 44) A patient being wellA) nourished B) rested C) hydrated D) none of the above Answer: C Page Ref: 1135 Objective: 46.5

hours for a glucose tolerance, cholesterol, or lipid

is helpful for finding veins.

45) If the wrong tube is used to draw blood for venipuncture, then . A) it may not be possible to perform a particular test B) the phlebotomist must go before the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) C) the specimen must be relabeled D) the blood must be hemolyzed Answer: A Page Ref: 1154 Objective: 46.10 12

46) If the patient does not speak English, and you enlist the help of someone other than the patient to explain the blood draw procedure in the patient's native language, you must have the patient's permission because . A) the patient's confidential medical information may be disclosed B) you cannot verify that the translation is accurate C) you can explain the procedure better by speaking slowly and showing examples D) the patient may not want an explanation at all Answer: A Page Ref: 1148 Objective: 46.5 47) For patients who have bleeding disorders, the medical assistant A) may need to apply a pressure dressing after venipuncture B) must ensure that the patient takes aspirin before venipuncture C) should ask the physician to draw the blood sample D) should give the patient a cold compress to constrict the blood vessels Answer: A Page Ref: 1154 Objective: 47.11

48) For each tube being filled with blood, the phlebotomist must invert the tube A) six to eight times gently B) then shake vigorously C) to release any excess plasma D) for 20 minutes Answer: A Page Ref: 1145 Objective: 46.8

49) A beveled needle is cut at a slant and . A) inserted into the vein facing down B) allows blood to flow easily C) penetrates the vein easily with minimal damage D) inhibits valves from closing when inserted Answer: C Page Ref: 1144 Objective: 47.11 50) Failure to obtain blood because the needle was not inserted deeply enough can be remedied by . A) advancing the needle slightly forward B) withdrawing the needle and trying again with a thinner gauge needle C) withdrawing the needle and trying again with a thicker gauge needle D) withdrawing the needle and reinserting it Answer: A Page Ref: 1153-1154 Objective: 47.11 13

51) Which color Vacutainer tube comes fourth in the order of blood draw? A) Yellow B) Light blue C) Red marbled D) Green Answer: C Page Ref: 1145 Objective: 46.8 52) Which color Vacutainer tube comes seventh in the order of blood draw? A) Green B) Lavender C) Light green D) Pink Answer: B Page Ref: 1145 Objective: 46.8 53) A -topped Vacutainer is used for cultures on blood or body fluid. A) red B) yellow C) gray D) dark blue Answer: B Page Ref: 1145 Objective: 46.7 54) What additive does a red-stoppered plastic Vacutainer tube contain? A) Lithium heparin B) Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) C) Sodium citrate D) Clot activator Answer: D Page Ref: 1146 Objective: 46.7 55) A glucose tolerance test would require which color Vacutainer tube? A) Gray B) Red C) Light blue D) Lavender Answer: A Page Ref: 1146 Objective: 46.7

Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting, 4e (Beaman) Chapter 47 Hematology True/False Questions 1) Hematology is the study of the muscles involved in blood production. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1158 Objective: 47.1 2) Knowing normal blood values and understanding what test results reveal enable the medical assistant to educate patients properly. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1158 Objective: 47.2 3) Hematopoiesis ends at the stem cell level during fetal development. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1160 Objective: 47.3 4) When carrying carbon dioxide (a waste product) from the body back to the lungs where it can be expelled with exhalation, hemoglobin is called oxyhemoglobin. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1161 Objective: 47.3 5) White blood cells are larger than red blood cells, and their principal function is to defend against infection. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1166 Objective: 47.3 6) Nonsegmented neutrophils have a nucleus that is divided into multiple segments connected by small, thin threads. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1168 Objective: 47.3 7) An elevation in the number of stabs is nicknamed a "shift to the right" and indicates a late WBC response. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1170 Objective: 47.5

8) Neutrophils are named so because the granules are neutral in color on the laboratory-stained slide. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1168 Objective: 47.3 9) If a large number of eosinophils are detected, this can indicate a parasitic condition or the presence of certain allergic conditions. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1170 Objective: 47.5 10) The primary function of lymphocytes is to produce antibodies against foreign substances such as bacteria, viruses, and pollens. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1170 Objective: 47.3 11) Phagocytosis is the process in which the neutrophils surround, swallow, and digest the bacteria. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1168 Objective: 47.3 12) White blood cells, also known as leukocytes, are produced in the stomach and are divided into several different types. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1166 Objective: 47.3 13) The formation of red blood cells is controlled somewhat by erythropoietin, which is secreted by the liver in an adult and by the kidneys in a fetus. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1161 Objective: 47.3 14) Venous blood has a higher concentration of oxygen, which explains its bright red color. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1161 Objective: 47.3 15) When hemoglobin is carrying oxygen, it is called carboxyhemoglobin. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1161 Objective: 47.1

16) The liquid component of blood is called plasma. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1159 Objective: 47.1 17) The main functions of blood are protection and procreation. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1159 Objective: 47.3 18) Red blood cells are also called erythrocytes. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1160 Objective: 47.1 19) The formed elements of blood are the red and white blood cells and platelets. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1160 Objective: 47.1 20) The solutes in plasma include the plasma proteins: albumin, globulin, and hydrogen. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1159 Objective: 47.3 21) Critical values are also called panic values because they could indicate a threat to the patient's life, and they should be reported immediately to the physician or other health care professional responsible for the patient. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1161 Objective: 47.2 22) Heparin is a substance in eosinophils that promotes blood clotting. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1170 Objective: 47.1 23) During phlebotomy, leaving a tourniquet in place for more than 60 seconds before drawing blood may falsely increase the RBC count as well as hemoglobin and hematocrit results. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1162 Objective: 47.2

24) To help diagnose diabetes, insulin resistance, and reactive hypoglycemia, the physician will often order a glycosylated hemoglobin (HbgA1C) test to determine how quickly the body is able to filter glucose. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1174 Objective: 47.8 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following are granular leukocytes? A) Neutrophils B) Eosinophils C) Basophils D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 1160 Objective: 47.3 2) Lymphocytes, one of the types of A) red B) blue C) green D) white Answer: D Page Ref: 1161 Objective: 47.3

blood cells, are produced in the lymph nodes.

3) Which is NOT one of the five types of white blood cells? A) Neutrophils B) Lymphocytes C) Monocytes D) Triocytes Answer: D Page Ref: 1161-1162 Objective: 47.3 4) Plasma is about and other substances. A) 25 B) 35 C) 45 D) 55 Answer: D Page Ref: 1159 Objective: 47.3

percent of the composition of blood and carries cellular elements

5) percent of plasma is water. A) Sixty B) Seventy C) Eighty D) Ninety Answer: D Page Ref: 1159 Objective: 47.3 6) The functions of the blood include each of the following EXCEPT A) transportation B) temperature regulation C) elimination of waste D) glandular regulation Answer: D Page Ref: 1159 Objective: 47.3

7) The blood carries waste products to all of the following places for elimination, EXCEPT the . A) liver B) intestines C) kidneys D) skin Answer: B Page Ref: 1159 Objective: 47.3 8) Erythrocytes transport oxygen and A) helium B) hydrogen C) carbon dioxide D) nitrogen Answer: C Page Ref: 1160 Objective: 47.1

9) Erythropoietin is a glycoprotein hormone that controls A) RBC B) WBC C) platelet D) plasma Answer: C Page Ref: 1161 Objective: 47.3

production.

10) Reticulocytes generally mature within A) 36 hours B) 48 hours C) one week D) one month Answer: B Page Ref: 1161 Objective: 47.3

11) Red blood cells typically last about A) two weeks B) four weeks C) two months D) four months Answer: D Page Ref: 1162 Objective: 47.3

12) Polycythemia is a condition in which the blood has an abnormally A) low level of platelets B) low level of white blood cells C) high level of white blood cells D) high level of red blood cells Answer: D Page Ref: 1162 Objective: 47.1 13) Which would NOT be included in a lipid panel test? A) Cholesterol B) Alanine aminotransferase (SGPT) C) Triglycerides D) High-density lipoproteins Answer: B Page Ref: 1179 Objective: 47.7 14) A molecule of hemoglobin contains four atoms of A) iron B) potassium C) vitamin C D) sodium Answer: A Page Ref: 1162 Objective: 47.3

15) patients monitor their blood sugars by the use of a portable machine called a glucometer. A) Cancer B) Alzheimer's disease C) Diabetic D) Parkinson's disease Answer: C Page Ref: 1176 Objective: 47.8 16) The biconcave disk shape of healthy red blood cells provides increased surface area for . A) contact with plasma B) exposure of iron molecules C) gas exchange D) contact with platelets Answer: C Page Ref: 1161 Objective: 47.3 17) Which test helps to differentiate the type of anemia present? A) Prothrombin time (PT) B) Hematocrit (Hct) C) Erythrocyte indices D) Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) Answer: C Page Ref: 1165 Objective: 47.4 18) A protime for an adult that shows clotting above A) 10 B) 20 C) 30 D) 40 Answer: D Page Ref: 1171 Objective: 47.6 19) A range of A) 60 to 130 B) 130 to 200 C) 200 to 270 D) none of the above Answer: B Page Ref: 1173 Objective: 47.7

seconds is considered critical.

mg/dL would be considered normal lab values for total cholesterol.

20) An individual's erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) may be elevated for which of the following reasons? A) Menstruation B) Inflammation C) Pregnancy D) All the above Answer: D Page Ref: 1166 Objective: 47.4 21) When performing a hemoglobin A1C test using an automated analyzer, the assistant should do all the following, EXCEPT . A) check for allergies B) perform capillary puncture C) hold the cartridge with the barcode facing left D) pull the foil tab completely out of the cartridge Answer: C Page Ref: 1177 Objective: 47.2, 47.8 22) are formed in the bone marrow from stem cells. A) Lymphocytes B) Monocytes C) Basophils D) Eosinophils Answer: B Page Ref: 1171 Objective: 47.3 23) Eosinophils have granules that produce a(n) _ A) orange B) purple C) pink D) red Answer: D Page Ref: 1170 Objective: 47.5

color on laboratory-stained slides.

24) An increase in monocytes is seen in patients who have certain diseases, such as A) tuberculosis B) typhoid C) Rocky Mountain spotted fever D) all of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 1171 Objective: 47.5 8

25) The test is commonly used to determine the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy such as Coumadin and heparin. A) prothrombin time B) partial thromboplastin time C) comprehensive metabolic panel D) mean corpuscular hemoglobin Answer: B Page Ref: 1172 Objective: 47.6 26) Monocytes are the largest white blood cell (WBC) and have a distinct kidney-bean-shaped nucleus. The cytoplasm is abundant and clear, and it stains a grayish . A) red B) white C) blue D) green Answer: C Page Ref: 1160 Objective: 47.5 27) There are five types of white blood cells (WBCs). The most common WBCs are neutrophils, and the normal values for adults are percent. A) 40 to 50 B) 80 to 90 C) 20 to 35 D) 50 to 70 Answer: D Page Ref: 1160, 1168 Objective: 47.5 28) A differential white blood cell count ("diff") determines the percentages of each type of . A) plasma B) erythrocyte C) platelet D) leukocyte Answer: D Page Ref: 1167 Objective: 47.5

29) There are platelets per cubic millimeter of blood in an adult. A) 150 to 400 B) 1,500 to 4,000 C) 15,000 to 40,000 D) 150,000 to 400,000 Answer: D Page Ref: 1171 Objective: 47.3 30) A differential white blood cell count ("diff") is done using a microscope with a bright light and × magnification with an oil immersion slide. A) 10 B) 100 C) 1,000 D) 10,000 Answer: B Page Ref: 1167 Objective: 47.5 31) If a medical assistant performs tests that are not Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) waived without proof of further training, . A) the doctor's license may be revoked B) the medical office could be closed C) severe fines may be assessed D) all of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 1171 Objective: 47.2 32) Monocytes make up from A) 15 to 20 B) 10 to 15 C) 3 to 7 D) 2 to 5 Answer: C Page Ref: 1171 Objective: 47.3

percent of white blood cells in the typical adult.

33) A normal finding of the partial thromboplastic test (PTT) test is A) 40—50 B) 60—70 C) 70—80 D) 90—100 Answer: B Page Ref: 1172 Objective: 47.6 10

seconds.

34) A low hematocrit may indicate A) anemia B) dehydration C) viral infection D) polycythemia Answer: A Page Ref: 1164 Objective: 47.4

35) The physician will often order a glycosylated hemoglobin (HbgA1C) test to test the longterm control of . A) cancer B) leukemia C) diabetes D) all of the above Answer: C Page Ref: 1176 Objective: 47.8 36) When performing a mono test, blood will be taken from the A) arm B) leg C) finger D) heel Answer: C Page Ref: 1178 Objective: 47.10

37) Physicians frequently order a complete blood count (CBC), which typically measures . A) hematocrit B) hemoglobin C) red blood cell indices D) all the above Answer: D Page Ref: 1161 Objective: 47.1 38) A low white blood count (WBC) count may indicate a(n) A) viral infection B) autoimmune deficiency C) bacterial infection D) all of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 1167 Objective: 47.5 11

39) In the adult male, a normal red blood count (RBC) count is about A) 4,500 to 6,000 B) 45,000 to 60,000 C) 450,000 to 600,000 D) 4,500,000 to 6,000,000 Answer: D Page Ref: 1161 Objective: 47.4

/mm3.

40) When the Wintrobe method is used, the normal erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) in an adult female is 0 to 20 mm/hr and in an adult male is mm/hr. A) 0 to 9 B) 20 to 40 C) 40 to 60 D) 60 to 80 Answer: A Page Ref: 1166 Objective: 47.4 41) The is related to the condition of the red blood cells and the amount of the fibrinogen in the plasma. A) bleed rate B) seed rate C) blood rate D) sed rate Answer: D Page Ref: 1166 Objective: 47.4 42) is a congenital disease caused by a defect in the metabolism of the amino acid phenylalanine. The unmetabolized protein accumulates in the bloodstream. If undetected and untreated, it will result in mental retardation. A) Microhematocrit B) Polycythemia C) Phenylketonuria D) Neutrophil Answer: C Page Ref: 1176 Objective: 47.1

43) If a comprehensive metabolic panel reveals any abnormality, it is recommended that patients fast for hours before more specific testing. A) 8 B) 10 C) 12 D) 14 Answer: C Page Ref: 1173 Objective: 47.7 44) The purpose of cholesterol testing is to determine atherosclerosis and other diseases. A) liver B) renal C) cardiac D) gallbladder Answer: C Page Ref: 1174 Objective: 47.7 45) The typical A1C result for a nondiabetic adult is A) 2.5 to 4 B) 4.5 to 7 C) 3.5 to 6 D) 6.5 to 8 Answer: C Page Ref: 1176 Objective: 47.8

percent.

46) The range of lab values that would be considered normal for triglycerides is mg/dL. A) 30 to 150 B) 150 to 240 C) 240 to 330 D) 330 to 420 Answer: A Page Ref: 1174 Objective: 47.7

47) is a liver protein that helps maintain fluid balance and assists with movement of small molecules through the blood. A) Albumin B) Bilirubin C) Sodium D) Calcium Answer: A Page Ref: 1176 Objective: 47.7 48) Calcium is important for blood A) coagulation B) oxygen levels C) protein levels D) circulation Answer: A Page Ref: 1175 Objective: 47.7 49) A synonym for platelets is A) monocytes B) leucocytes C) thrombocytes D) lymphocytes Answer: C Page Ref: 1161 Objective: 47.1

50) When determining hemoglobin using the hemoglobinometer, mix blood with the hemolysis applicator until the blood becomes . A) thin B) blue C) clear D) thick Answer: C Page Ref: 1164 Objective: 47.4 51) When determining the results for a microhematocrit, use the Hct card by placing the sealing clay just below the line on both tubes. A) zero B) one C) 10 D) 100 Answer: A Page Ref: 1165 Objective: 47.2, 47.4 14

52) A test is used to measure the amount of nitrogen in the blood, indicating renal function. A) blood urea nitrogen B) thyroxine C) uric acid D) creatinine Answer: A Page Ref: 1174 Objective: 47.7 53) Decreased erythropoietin production by the kidneys or impaired bone marrow function can lead to . A) polycythemia B) anemia C) hypoglycemia D) hyperglycemia Answer: B Page Ref: 1161-1162 Objective: 47.3 54) Normal lab values for blood specimens vary, depending on A) whether the specimen is venous or capillary blood B) the lab that is analyzing the specimen C) the equipment used for the test D) all of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 1161 Objective: 47.2

55) originate from the hematopoietic stem cell. A) Red blood cells B) White blood cells C) Platelets D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 1160 Objective: 47.3 56) A glucose tolerance test is commonly used to detect A) Type I diabetes B) Type II diabetes C) pregnancy-induced diabetes D) long-term control of diabetes Answer: C Page Ref: 1176 Objective: 47.8 15

57) During a glucose tolerance test the patient is given an oral carbohydrate solution to drink, and blood is redrawn to detect the response after 30 minutes and every hour thereafter for up to hours. A) three B) four C) five D) six Answer: C Page Ref: 1176 Objective: 47.8 58) A mono test is primarily ordered when an adolescent patient has all the following symptoms, EXCEPT . A) fever B) swollen glands C) fatigue D) blood in urine Answer: D Page Ref: 1179 Objective: 47.10 59) The physician may order a repeat a mono test in a week or so to see if antibodies have developed or may order Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) antibodies to help confirm or rule out the presence of a current EBV infection. A) heterophile B) alkaline C) bilirubin D) globulin Answer: A Page Ref: 1179 Objective: 47.10 60) A test may be ordered with the mono test. A) glucose B) strep C) phenylketonuria (PKU) D) HbgA1C Answer: B Page Ref: 1176 Objective: 47.10

61) The phenylketonuria (PKU) test is always performed on of the unmetabolized protein phenylalanine. A) newborns B) pregnant women C) diabetes patients D) preschool children Answer: A Page Ref: 1176 Objective: 47.9

to determine the presence

62) When performing a PKU test, the lateral portion of the sterile, disposable lancet. A) arm B) heel C) leg D) buttock Answer: B Page Ref: 1178 Objective: 47.2, 47.9

will be punctured with a

63) All of the following should be done when performing a PKU, EXCEPT A) wiping away the first drop of blood B) allowing a large blood droplet to form C) touching the blood droplet to the center of the circle D) squeezing the heel enough to ensure collecting tissue fluid mixes with blood Answer: D Page Ref: 1178 Objective: 47.2, 47.9 64) A PKU test should be placed in the state-provided envelope and mailed within hours. A) 24 B) 36 C) 48 D) 72 Answer: C Page Ref: 1178 Objective: 47.2, 47.9

Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting, 4e (Beaman) Chapter 48 Radiology True/False Questions 1) X-ray images, or radiographs, are produced by projecting X-rays through organs or structures of the body onto photographic film. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1184 Objective: 48.1, 48.2 2) Radiographic procedures often call for an all-solid diet on the day before the test. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1187 Objective: 48.6 3) Because X-rays are invisible and produce no sound or smell, precautions must be taken to protect patients and employees from unnecessary exposure. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1184 Objective: 48.3 4) When multiple procedures need to be scheduled, it is important to consider the sequence of scheduling. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1187 Objective: 48.5 5) An upper gastrointestinal (upper GI) series is the administration of a barium enema, which outlines the colon and rectum on a radiographic picture. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1190 Objective: 48.7 6) A cholecystogram is a radiologic examination of the gallbladder using a contrast medium, usually iodine. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1191 Objective: 48.7 7) Myelography is a fluoroscopic procedure of the brain. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1192 Objective: 48.7

8) Arthrography is the radiologic examination of the soft tissue of the breast to provide identification of benign and malignant neoplasms (tumors). Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1192 Objective: 48.1, 48.7 9) Mammography is a diagnostic procedure used to produce an arthrogram, or image inside a joint. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1192 Objective: 48.8 10) Angiography is the X-ray visualization of the internal anatomy of blood vessels after a radiopaque material has been injected into the blood vessels. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1192 Objective: 48.1, 48.7 11) A computed tomography (CT) scan is useful when there is conflicting information about the cause of the patient's condition or when defining exactly where radiation therapy must be directed for tumor masses. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1194 Objective: 48.8 12) Patient preparation for the ultrasound examination requires, among other preparations, three Dulcolax tablets or 2 oz. castor oil at 4:00 p.m. the day before. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1186 Objective: 48.6 13) There are two methods for administering radiation: external radiation therapy (ERT) and internal radiation therapy (IRT). Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1198 Objective: 48.9 14) Medical assistants are not authorized to answer patients' questions about radiation procedures and exposure to radiation. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1201 Objective: 48.5

15) The medical assistant is frequently called upon to explain the ownership of film to the patient. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1201 Objective: 48.5, 48.11 16) Many young and elderly patients will need assistance disrobing and getting into the proper drapes. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1201 Objective: 48.5 17) X-ray film should be kept in a warm, dry place within a sealed package. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1200 Objective: 48.11 18) The medical assistant is often responsible for providing and reviewing written instructions for radiologic procedures. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1185 Objective: 48.5 19) X-ray tables have side rails. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1185 Objective: 48.5 20) Iodine compounds should NOT be used if the patient is allergic to seafood. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1185 Objective: 48.4 21) Positive contrast media will appear dark on X-ray images. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1185 Objective: 48.4 22) X-rays can destroy body cells and be used to kill cancer cells. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1184 Objective: 48.3

Multiple Choice Questions 1) A is a physician specializing in radiology. A) radiologist B) radiographer C) radiologic technologist D) radiology technician Answer: A Page Ref: 1183 Objective: 48.1 2) compounds are employed for thyroid studies, pyelograms, angiograms, and cholecystograms. A) Iodine B) Barium sulfate C) Iron D) Aluminum Answer: A Page Ref: 1185 Objective: 48.4 3) Mammography is the radiologic examination of the soft tissue of the breast to identify . A) density of the breast tissue B) neoplasms (tumors) C) milk ducts D) changes due to pregnancy Answer: B Page Ref: 1192 Objective: 48.8 4) A(n) , or abdominal flat plate, is used to assess the size, shape, and location of the organs of the urinary tract and to detect kidney stones and diseases of the urinary tract. A) DK B) BaE C) IVP D) KUB Answer: D Page Ref: 1193 Objective: 48.8

5) Computed A) momography B) totography C) tomography D) motography Answer: C Page Ref: 1194 Objective: 48.8

combines radiography with computer analysis of tissue density.

6) has no known risk, and there is no ionizing radiation used. A) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) B) Remote medical Imaging (RMI) C) Image resonance method (IRM D) Medical imaging review (MIR) Answer: A Page Ref: 1195 Objective: 48.8 7) A rad, which stands for , is the unit used to measure the amount of ionizing radiation absorbed during an X-ray procedure. A) radiation all distributed B) radiation amount disbursed C) radiation about destroyed D) radiation absorbed dose Answer: D Page Ref: 1198 Objective: 48.9 8) Half-life is the time it takes for half of the A) contrast medium B) isotope C) radiogram D) X-ray Answer: B Page Ref: 1199 Objective: 48.10

to decay.

9) are produced in a vacuum tube when electrons traveling at the speed of light (186,000 miles per second) collide into a target made of specific materials, such as tungsten. A) MRIs B) X-rays C) Electrical currents D) Ultrasounds Answer: B Page Ref: 1183 Objective: 48.2 5

10) The test uses X-rays to detect osteopenia or osteoporosis. A) MRI B) bone densitometry C) computed topography D) sonography Answer: B Page Ref: 1197 Objective: 48.8 11) With the A) anteroposterior B) posteroanterior C) oblique D) lateral Answer: A Page Ref: 1186 Objective: 48.5

radiology position, the X-ray beam is directed from front to back.

12) The is used to diagnose breast tumors, abscesses, and fibrocystic disease. A) mammography B) myelography C) thermograph D) radiation therapy Answer: C Page Ref: 1189 (Tbl 48-3 Objective: 48.8 13) The intravenous A) urogram B) pentagram C) pyelogram D) hexogram Answer: C Page Ref: 1190 Objective: 48.7

is a radiologic examination of the kidneys, ureters, and bladder.

14) A(n) is performed by injecting air instead of contrast media after some cerebral spinal fluid has been removed. A) angiograph B) pneumoencephalograph C) angioplasty D) mammography Answer: B Page Ref: 1192 Objective: 48.7

15) A(n) A) stethoscope B) endoscope C) fluoroscope D) telescope Answer: C Page Ref: 1192 Objective: 48.7

is used to evaluate the function of the joint.

16) In angiography, contrast medium is injected into a(n) threaded through the vessel until it reaches the correct site. A) artery B) vein C) either A or B D) neither A nor B Answer: C Page Ref: 1192 Objective: 48.7 17) Before a CT scan, the patient should have nothing by mouth ray if contrast media is used. A) four B) six C) eight D) 10 Answer: A Page Ref: 1186 Objective: 48.6 18) An MRI scan can give the viewer a body in total or as slices. A) one B) two C) three D) uni Answer: C Page Ref: 1195 Objective: 48.8 19) An MRI takes A) 2 to 10 B) 10 to 20 C) 20 to 60 D) 60 to 90 Answer: C Page Ref: 1196 Objective: 48.8

by way of a catheter and

hours before the X-

-dimensional view of tissues or organs of the

minutes, depending on the amount of the body to be scanned.

20) Preparations for an intravenous pyelogram (IVP) include oz. of castor oil at 4:00 p.m. the day before the x-ray. A) one B) two C) three D) four Answer: C Page Ref: 1186 Objective: 48.6

dulcolax tablet(s) or 2

21) Which of the following is the least likely side effect of radiation therapy? A) Hair loss B) Disfigurement C) Nausea D) Diarrhea Answer: B Page Ref: 1198 Objective: 48.9 22) The test is used to diagnose or treat conditions of the joints. A) arthrography B) barium enema C) barium swallow D) cholangiography Answer: A Page Ref: 1189 Objective: 48.7 23) radiation involves introducing a liquid form of a radioactive substance into the patient by mouth, through the bloodstream, or through instillation into a body cavity. A) Open B) Closed C) Sealed D) Unsealed Answer: D Page Ref: 1198 Objective: 48.9

24) A(n) badge or dosimeter is worn on the outer clothing of all personnel working with or near radiologic equipment. A) metal B) plastic C) identification D) film Answer: D Page Ref: 1199 Objective: 48.10 25) has been proven to be an effective barrier to an X-ray beam. A) Iron B) Cotton C) Lead D) Steel Answer: C Page Ref: 1198 Objective: 48.10 26) Which of the following is NOT a negative contrast medium? A) Air B) Carbon dioxide C) Gases D) Iodine Answer: D Page Ref: 1185 Objective: 48.4 27) Contrast media are available in which of the following forms? A) Liquids B) Powders C) Gases D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 1185 Objective: 48.4 28) are often used during fluoroscopic procedures to better visualize organ function and abnormalities. A) Goggles B) Contrast media C) Microscopes D) Magnifying glasses Answer: B Page Ref: 1190 Objective: 48.7 9

29) A(n) series is a fluoroscopic study of the digestive tract using contrast media to detect abnormalities such as tumors, ulcers, polyps, and diverticulosis. A) gastrointestinal B) abdominal C) cancer D) digestive Answer: A Page Ref: 1190 Objective: 48.7 30) involves inserting a catheter into the urinary tract through the bladder into the ureters. A) A cholecystogram B) A hysterectomy C) Retrograde pyelography D) A barium enema Answer: C Page Ref: 1191 Objective: 48.7 31) is a fluoroscopic procedure of the spinal cord. A) Myelography B) Angiography C) Arthrography D) Mammography Answer: A Page Ref: 1192 Objective: 48.7 32) The test is used to diagnose or treat conditions of breast cancer, abscesses, lesions, and calcifications. A) ultrasound B) thermograph C) xeroradiography D) stereoscopy Answer: C Page Ref: 1189 Objective: 48.8

33) A scan is a valuable diagnostic tool for detecting tumors, hematomas, childhood cancers, and abdominal masses. A) physical computer (PC) B) computerized physiology (CP) C) procedural tomography (PT) D) computed tomography (CT) Answer: D Page Ref: 1194 Objective: 48.8 34) To minimize the discomfort of the compression of a mammogram, the procedure should be scheduled during the . A) patient's menstrual period B) week before the patient's menstrual period is due C) second week following the patient's menstrual cycle D) week following the patient's menstrual cycle Answer: D Page Ref: 1194 Objective: 48.5 35) If the patient is female, the -day rule about the possibility of pregnancy should apply before being exposed to radiation. A) three B) five C) ten D) fifteen Answer: C Page Ref: 1199 Objective: 48.10 36) All radiographic equipment should be checked on a regular basis to ensure it is in good working condition and to check for . A) accuracy B) radiation leakage C) oil levels D) water levels Answer: B Page Ref: 1199 Objective: 48.10

37) Which of the following X-ray procedures may require a full bladder or laxatives? A) Ultrasound B) Retrograde pyelogram C) Myelogram D) Intravenous pyelogram Answer: A Page Ref: 1186 Objective: 48.6 38) NPO means _. A) nothing presently open B) no physician's orders C) not previously ordered D) nothing by mouth Answer: D Page Ref: 1186 Objective: 48.1 39) A(n) gastrointestinal series is the administration of a barium enema, which outlines the colon and rectum on a radiographic picture. A) upper B) lower C) large D) small Answer: B Page Ref: 1190 Objective: 48.7 40) A(n) X-ray is a flat plate used for suspected tumors, hematomas, enlarged organs, or abscesses. A) paranasal sinuses B) chest C) bone D) abdominal Answer: D Page Ref: 1193 (Tbl 48-4) Objective: 48.8 41) Gonad shields should be used by both patients and workers who are age A) 70 B) 65 C) 60 D) 55 Answer: D Page Ref: 1199 Objective: 48.10 12

or under.

42) is a computerized radiographic method that uses radioactive substances to examine the metabolic activity within the body. A) Position emission tomography (PET) B) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) C) Computer tomography (CT) D) Magnetic tomography (MT) Answer: A Page Ref: 1195 Objective: 48.8 43) The space inside a closed MRI machine is A) much larger B) only slightly larger C) only slightly smaller D) much smaller Answer: B Page Ref: 1195 Objective: 48.8

than the average patient.

44) Each film has an identification number that includes A) the physician's name B) the date C) the patient's name D) all of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 1200 Objective: 48.11

45) Which of the following X-ray procedures requires no breakfast (if a morning examination) or lunch (if an afternoon examination)? A) barium meal B) barium enema C) angiogram D) bronchogram Answer: C Page Ref: 1186 (Tbl 48-1) Objective: 48.6 46) Periodic A) urine B) psychiatric C) blood D) all of the above Answer: C Page Ref: 1201 Objective: 48.10

tests may be required by facilities for personnel who work with radiation.

47) Excessive to embryonic cells causes spontaneous abortion, retardation, genetic abnormalities, and increased risk of leukemia and other cancers. A) pressure B) moisture C) noise D) radiation Answer: D Page Ref: 1199 Objective: 48.10 48) Which safety precaution should be taken when working with radiation? A) Wear a lead shield over the badge. B) Wear lead-lined rubber gloves. C) Support the patient during radiologic procedures. D) All of the above. Answer: B Page Ref: 1201 Objective: 48.10 49) The X-ray beam is directed toward one side of the body with the position. A) axial B) lateral C) oblique D) posteroanterior Answer: B Page Ref: 1186 (Tbl 48-2) Objective: 48.5

radiology

50) Procedures that require use of a(n) should be performed after those that do not to avoid the possibility of interference with other tests. A) negative ray B) contrast medium C) MRI D) films of bones Answer: B Page Ref: 1187 Objective: 48.5 51) Films generally remain . A) with the patient B) in the original office or hospital C) in a special film facility D) with the patient's primary care physician Answer: B Page Ref: 1201 Objective: 48.11 14

52) Which of the following items would a patient NOT need to remove for an Xray? A) Dentures B) Earrings C) Hearing aid D) Plastic barrette Answer: D Page Ref: 1185 Objective: 48.5 53) is a technique that allows the radiologist to have immediate images that can be used to assess function of an organ or to view a process. A) Lower gastrointestinal (GI) series B) Intravenous pyelogram C) Myelography D) Fluoroscopy Answer: D Page Ref: 1190 Objective: 48.7 54) A patient who is extremely claustrophobic and anxious may be given a(n) A) closed B) private C) open D) rapid Answer: C Page Ref: 1195 Objective: 48.8 55) Which of the following is NOT a type of ray used in radiation therapy? A) Alpha B) Delta C) Beta D) Gamma Answer: B Page Ref: 1197 Objective: 48.9

MRI.

Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting, 4e (Beaman) Chapter 49 Electrocardiography True/False Questions 1) The leading cause of death for both men and women in the United States is coronary artery disease. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1205 Objective: 49.1 2) The ECG (or EKG) represents both the electrical activity and actual mechanical performance of the heart. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1205 Objective: 49.1 3) The QRS complex and the T wave typically point in the same direction, and T waves that are opposite in direction from the QRS may indicate a problem in the heart or its electrical system. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1207 Objective: 49.3 4) There are many types of ECG machines in use, but all should be calibrated to align with the international standard. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1209 Objective: 49.5 5) Most ECG machines are computerized and can switch from one lead to another in rapid succession. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1209 Objective: 49.5 6) Heart rate is the same as beats per second. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1209 Objective: 49.1 7) To obtain an estimated heart rate of either the ventricular or the atrial contractions, use the tensecond method. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1209 Objective: 49.4

8) Computerized electrocardiographs no longer need to be monitored for artifacts or errors. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1211 Objective: 49.5 9) Many computerized electrocardiographs can record from more than one lead at once to save time. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1210 Objective: 49.5 10) If the patient has a pacemaker or a dialysis catheter, notify the physician that the leads are not in the usual position, because the pacemaker may be close to the usual lead positioning. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1214 Objective: 49.7 11) A normal sinus rhythm means that each heartbeat has four distinct waves. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1217 Objective: 49.9 12) Loose or broken lead wires cause the stylus to thrash erratically and go off the page. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1217 Objective: 49.8 13) Loose or broken wires should only be replaced or repaired by a specialized technician. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1217 Objective: 49.8 14) Proper placement of the electrode sensors is imperative to ensure accuracy. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1214 Objective: 49.6 15) It is NOT necessary to remove metal jewelry for an ECG. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1214 Objective: 49.7 16) Ventricular rhythm is determined by measuring the distance between QRS complexes. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1209 Objective: 49.4 2

17) Many patients have elevated blood pressure readings just from being in a medical environment; this is known as "black coat" syndrome. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1211 Objective: 49.8 18) Limb leads are placed over the fleshy part of the inner aspect of both lower legs and either both upper arms or both forearms, avoiding the bony prominences. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1212 Objective: 49.6 19) There are as many as 350 irregular P waves and 130—150 irregular QRS complexes per minute with atrial flutter. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1219 Objective: 49.10 20) While wearing a Holter monitor, the patient must avoid areas of high voltage because it could interfere with the recording. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1222 Objective: 49.12 21) In a normal rhythm, the beats come at regular intervals, indicating that the impulse originates in the SA node. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1217 Objective: 49.9 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Movement away from the baseline is called a deflection or A) voltage B) inflection C) polarization D) wave Answer: D Page Ref: 1205 Objective: 49.1

2) The cells of the heart are A) neutralized B) polarized C) negative D) positive Answer: B Page Ref: 1206 Objective: 49.2

when they are in a resting phase.

3) One cycle of depolarization and repolarization of the myocardial cells represents A) one contraction of the myocardium B) one relaxation of the myocardium C) one minute of heart activity D) one heartbeat Answer: D Page Ref: 1206 Objective: 49.2

4) When a myocardial cell is polarized, it has . A) a negative internal charge and positive external charge. B) a negative external charge and positive internal charge. C) positive internal and external charges. D) negative internal and external charges. Answer: A Page Ref: 1206 Objective: 49.2 5) A normal heart rate that is neither abnormally slow nor fast is between _ minute. A) 20 and 30 B) 40 and 60 C) 60 and 100 D) 100 and 120 Answer: C Page Ref: 1209 Objective: 49.4

beats per

6) The wave represents atrial depolarization, which manifests as an atrial contraction that originates in the SA node. A) T B) Q C) P D) Z Answer: C Page Ref: 1207 Objective: 49.3 4

7) Which of the following is NOT part of the control panel of an ECG machine? A) Record switch B) Back lead C) Sensitivity control D) Stylus control Answer: B Page Ref: 1211 Objective: 49.5 8) Any area that has been treated with talcum powder or skin lotion must be rubbed with to remove the residue and facilitate the adherence of the leads. A) soap B) alcohol C) water D) petroleum jelly Answer: B Page Ref: 1214 Objective: 49.7 9) The complex represents ventricular depolarization. A) QRS B) SRQ C) QSR D) RSQ Answer: A Page Ref: 1206 Objective: 49.3 10) is a pictorial guide to the placement of leads. A) Holter's triangle B) Holter's circle C) Einthoven's triangle D) Einthoven's circle Answer: C Page Ref: 1213 Objective: 49.1 11) Holter monitor electrodes should be placed in all of the following locations EXCEPT . A) the third intercostal space 2—3 inches to the left of the sternum B) the sixth intercostal space at the right anterior axillary line C) the sixth intercostal space at the left anterior axillary line D) the fifth intercostal space 1—2 inches to the right of the sternum margin Answer: D Page Ref: 1223 Objective: 49.12 5

12) All of the following are causes of artifacts EXCEPT A) incorrect pipe shielding B) somatic tremor C) wandering baseline D) AC (alternating current) interference Answer: A Page Ref: 1216 Objective: 49.8

13) A test or treadmill test involves an evaluation of the heart's response during moderate exercise while a 12-lead ECG is performed. A) Holter monitor B) stress C) thallium D) MUGA Answer: B Page Ref: 1218 Objective: 49.11 14) A rhythm strip is run on for 20 seconds at the physician's request or, in some instances, if the medical assistant sees anything that appears abnormal on the tracing. A) lead I B) lead II C) lead III D) lead IV Answer: B Page Ref: 1218 Objective: 49.1 15) While wearing a Holter monitor, a patient can carry out all daily activities EXCEPT . A) sex B) showering C) climbing D) running Answer: B Page Ref: 1222 Objective: 49.12

16) In preparation for a stress test, a female patient should do all of the following EXCEPT . A) wear loose-fitting clothing B) wear a bra C) eat a large meal not more than four hours before the test D) take her normal medications unless instructed otherwise Answer: C Page Ref: 1222 Objective: 49.11 17) The ECG represents the heart's A) electrical activity B) mechanical performance C) both A and B D) none of the above Answer: A Page Ref: 1205 Objective: 49.1

18) An alternative abbreviation for electrocardiogram besides ECG is A) EKG B) ELG C) ELK D) ELC Answer: A Page Ref: 1205 Objective: 49.1

19) A Holter monitor records cardiac activity while a patient is ambulatory for at least a period. A) 24-hour B) 48-hour C) 30-day D) 60-day Answer: A Page Ref: 1222 Objective: 49.12 20) An exact calculation of ventricular heart rate is achieved by counting the mm boxes between two QRS complexes and then 1500. A) subtracting from that number B) adding to that number C) multiplying that number by D) dividing that number into Answer: D Page Ref: 1209 Objective: 49.4 7

21) With a multichannel ECG, all A) 4 B) 8 C) 12 D) 21 Answer: C Page Ref: 1210 Objective: 49.5

leads are recorded simultaneously.

22) The small squares on all electrocardiogram paper are 1 mm square and represent 0.1 mV of voltage in the height and seconds' time in the width. A) 0.004 B) 0.04 C) 0.4 D) 4.0 Answer: B Page Ref: 1211 Objective: 49.5 23) The "time" markers printed on all electrocardiogram paper are referred to as threemarkers. A) second B) minute C) hour D) day Answer: A Page Ref: 1211 Objective: 49.5 24) On an ECG machine that meets the international standard, the paper moves at A) 25 mm/second B) 10 mm/second C) 25 mm/minute D) 10 cm/minute Answer: A Page Ref: 1209 Objective: 49.5

25) Standardization of ECG machines is a means of verifying that each machine deflects 10 in response to 1 mV of electricity in sensitivity. A) inches B) centimeters C) millimeters D) feet Answer: C Page Ref: 1209 Objective: 49.5 26) On an ECG, the axis (line) represents time; a slower heart rate will have more space between the PQRST complexes. A) horizontal B) vertical C) diagonal D) crossing Answer: A Page Ref: 1206 Objective: 49.5 27) Sometimes a small U wave follows the T wave. This represents A) a rapid heartbeat B) a slow heartbeat C) further relaxation of the ventricles D) further contraction of the ventricles Answer: C Page Ref: 1207 Objective: 49.3 28) _... is the marking code for A) Lead III B) AVL C) AVF D) Chest Lead V3 Answer: D Page Ref: 1213 Objective: 49.6 29) If the heart muscle is A) perfused B) ischemic C) depolarized D) precordial Answer: B Page Ref: 1222 Objective: 49.1

, it is receiving less than the normal amount of blood flow.

30) During a stress test, the patient exercises on a bicycle or treadmill because these actions stress the heart and require more for the heart muscle cells. A) helium B) hydrogen C) carbon dioxide D) oxygen Answer: D Page Ref: 1221 Objective: 49.11 31) is sometimes injected into the patient's vein during a stress test and used as a marker that shows blood flow to the myocardium. A) Thallium B) Iodine C) Talcum D) Air Answer: A Page Ref: 1222 Objective: 49.11 32) An inspiration strip is run on lead II for 10 seconds with the patient holding his or her . A) chest B) index finger C) left arm D) breath Answer: D Page Ref: 1218 Objective: 49.1 33) Which lead should be placed from the left arm to the left leg? A) Lead I B) Lead II C) Lead III D) Limb Leads II Answer: C Page Ref: 1213 Objective: 49.6

34) Normally, the P-R interval (time from the beginning of P to the middle of QRS) is between seconds (three to five small boxes on the ECG graph paper). A) 0.012 and 0.12 B) 0.12 and 0.20 C) 0.20 and 0.32 D) 0.32 and 0.43 Answer: B Page Ref: 1206 Objective: 49.3 35) The A) P wave B) S wave C) T wave D) Q wave Answer: C Page Ref: 12076 Objective: 49.3

is where the cells begin their resting phase before the process restarts.

36) When the heart skips a beat, there is a A) short B) short flat C) long flat D) dashed Answer: C Page Ref: 1206 Objective: 49.3

line between PQRSTs.

37) Recordings are made from a variety of perspectives or angles known as A) leads B) artifacts C) polarities D) waves Answer: A Page Ref: 1206 Objective: 49.1 38) The waves on an electrocardiograph represent A) time B) amplitude or voltage C) the amount of blood flow D) the size of the heart Answer: B Page Ref: 1205 Objective: 49.3

39) As cells in the ventricles A) stabilize B) repolarize C) depolarize D) rest Answer: C Page Ref: 1206 Objective: 49.2

, the atria and ventricles contract.

40) Which lead should be placed left of the anterior axillary fold? A) V2 B) V3 C) V5 D) V6 Answer: C Page Ref: 1213 Objective: 49.6 41) What might make performing an ECG on an older adult more difficult? A) Older adults may have balance problems. B) Older adults may have more anxiety. C) Older adults may have fragile skin. D) Older adults may have less space available for leads. Answer: C Page Ref: 1209 Objective: 49.6 42) Where do precordial leads record from? A) The thorax B) The extremities C) The legs D) The midpoint between two limb sensors Answer: A Page Ref: 1211 Objective: 49.6 43) Where are leads marked with the letter V and numbers from 1 through 6 placed? A) On the left leg B) On the right leg C) On the arms D) On the chest Answer: D Page Ref: 1212 Objective: 49.6

44) Patients receiving an ECG should be in the A) prone B) supine C) Trendelenburg D) dorsal recumbent Answer: B Page Ref: 1213 Objective: 49.7 45) Bradycardia is a(n) A) faster than normal B) slower than normal C) irregular D) normal Answer: B Page Ref: 1209 Objective: 49.10

position.

heart rate.

46) How can a medical assistant correct somatic tremors when performing an ECG? A) Have the patient place his or her hands over the head. B) Have the patient sit up. C) Have the patient place his or her hands palm-side down under the hips. D) Encourage the patient to talk during the procedure to relieve anxiety. Answer: C Page Ref: 1216 Objective: 49.8 47) What is the cause of a wandering baseline? A) Improper grounding B) Loose or broken lead wires C) Poor sensor contact with the skin D) Muscle tremors Answer: C Page Ref: 1216 Objective: 49.8 48) A satisfactory ECG recording should have A) a swaying baseline and only a few artifacts B) artifacts that are easy to detect C) small regular spikes D) a consistently horizontal baseline Answer: D Page Ref: 1216 Objective: 49.9

49) With , there are no visible P waves, because they are hidden by the T wave of the previous cycle. The atrial rate is 140—250 per minute. A) paroxysmal atrial tachycardia (PAT) B) premature atrial contractions (PACs) C) sinus arrhythmia D) sinus tachycardia Answer: A Page Ref: 1220 Objective: 49.10 50) With , the waves are irregular and rounded and the contractions are uncoordinated. Death may occur in as little as four minutes. A) ventricular tachycardia B) ventricular fibrillation C) sinus tachycardia D) premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) Answer: B Page Ref: 1221 Objective: 49.10 51) With sinus tachycardia, there are more than A) 60 B) 80 C) 100 D) 120 Answer: C Page Ref: 1220 Objective: 49.10

beats per minute; cycles are normal.

52) When wearing a Holter monitor, the patient indicates that he or she is experiencing cardiac symptoms such as chest pain, shortness of breath, or palpitations by recording the symptoms in a diary or by depressing a(n) " " button. A) emergency B) incident C) medical alert D) event Answer: D Page Ref: 1222 Objective: 49.12

53) With a(n) , there are as many as 350 irregular P waves and 130—150 irregular QRS complexes per minute. A) junctional arrhythmia B) AV heart block C) atrial flutter D) atrial fibrillation Answer: D Page Ref: 1219 Objective: 49.10

Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting, 4e (Beaman) Chapter 50 Pulmonary Function True/False Questions 1) Residual volume is the amount of air that can be forcibly inspired after a normal inhale. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1233 Objective: 50.1, 50.4 2) Total lung capacity, or TLC, is the maximum amount of air that can fill the lungs. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1233 Objective: 50.1, 50.4 3) Tidal volume is the amount of air remaining in the lungs after a normal expiration. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1233 Objective: 50.1, 50.4 4) Inspiratory reserve volume is the volume of air left in the lungs at the end of an exhalation (around 1,200 mL). Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1233 Objective: 50.1, 50.4 5) Spirometry is a noninvasive test that measures the ability of the lungs to exhale effectively and quickly. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1232 Objective: 50.2 6) The medical assistant should instruct the patient not to use a nebulizer or bronchodilator for six hours before spirometry testing. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1235 Objective: 50.5 7) The medical assistant should explain to the patient preparing for spirometry testing that there are no dietary restrictions associated with the test. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1235 Objective: 50.5

8) The medical assistant is not allowed to release any outcomes or results of completed spirometry tests. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1236 Objective: 50.5 9) The maximum amount of air that can be exhaled after a maximum inspiration is called the expiratory reserve volume (ERV). Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1233 Objective: 50.1, 50.4 10) Spirometry testing can be used to evaluate the effectiveness of a bronchodilator medication that has been prescribed to treat a patient's respiratory condition. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1235 Objective: 50.2 11) A medical assistant should act as a cheerleader and coach to induce the patient to give his or her peak performance during spirometry testing. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1234 Objective: 50.5 12) A nose clip is an optional accessory that can be used during nebulizer treatments. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1239 Objective: 50.8 13) Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder characterized by thick and sticky secretions that obstruct the lungs. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1231 Objective: 50.3 14) Hay fever is a rapidly-spreading viral infection of the nose, throat, and lungs that causes nasal congestion, runny nose, and sneezing. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1231 Objective: 50.3 15) Medical assistants may have to teach patients how to correctly and safely use nebulizers and inhalers at home. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1242 Objective: 50.8 2

Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following is the maximum volume of air that can be expelled when the patient exhales as forcibly and as quickly as possible following one maximum inhalation? A) Forced vital capacity (FVC) B) Forced expiratory volume (FEV) C) Inspiratory capacity (IC) D) Expiratory reserve volume (ERV) Answer: A Page Ref: 1233 Objective: 50.1, 50.4 2) Inspiratory reserve volume, or IRV, is the amount of air that can be forcibly inspired after a normal . A) inhalation B) measurement C) exhalation D) ventilation Answer: A Page Ref: 1233 Objective: 50.1, 50.4 3) Which is NOT a step the medical assistant would take when administering a nebulizer treatment in the medical office? A) Perform hand hygiene. B) Measure the correct dose. C) Document upon completion. D) Wash the tubing and mouthpiece for future use. Answer: D Page Ref: 1240 Objective: 50.8 4) What is the best patient body position for peak flow measurement? A) Lying B) Sitting C) Standing D) Semi-Fowler's Answer: C Page Ref: 1237 (Proc 50-2) Objective: 50.6

5) Which of the following is NOT a type of inhaler? A) Metered dose B) Delayed reaction C) Dry powder D) Soft mist Answer: B Page Ref: 1239 Objective: 50.8 6) is inflammation or fluid that fills the alveoli in the lungs due to infection caused by virus, bacteria, or fungus. A) Pharyngitis B) Cystic fibrosis C) Acute rhinitis D) Pneumonia Answer: D Page Ref: 1231 (Tbl 50-1) Objective: 50.3 7) Spirometry results reflect all of the following EXCEPT A) the patient's ability to breathe air into the lungs. B) the elasticity of the patient's lungs. C) the patient's ability to blow air out of the lungs. D) the strength of the patient's respiratory muscles. Answer: A Page Ref: 1232 Objective: 50.2

8) is a highly contagious bacterial infection characterized by fever, fatigue, a mucusproducing cough, and night sweats. A) Emphysema B) Tuberculosis (TB) C) Hay fever D) Pneumothorax Answer: B Page Ref: 1231 Objective: 50.3 9) Which is the most commonly-used type of oxygen delivery system? A) Oxygen pressurized cylinders B) Oxygen concentrator C) Liquid oxygen system D) High-flow system Answer: A Page Ref: 1241 (Tbl 50-3) Objective: 50.8 4

10) Because oxygen is considered a drug, a patient who needs continuous oxygen therapy is best managed by a . A) urologist B) nephrologist C) pulmonologist D) hematologist Answer: C Page Ref: 1241 Objective: 50.8 11) Results for spirometry testing are considered normal if the patient's best result is of pretest calculated values. A) 60 percent B) 70 percent C) 80 percent D) 90 percent Answer: C Page Ref: 1235 Objective: 50.4 12) Which of the following is the volume of air that can be forcefully exhaled in one breath? A) Forced vital capacity B) Forced expiratory volume C) Maximal midexpiratory flow D) Expiratory reserve volume Answer: B Page Ref: 1233 Objective: 50.1, 50.4 13) reduce inflammation or relax smooth muscle to improve air flow and are used to treat obstructive lung diseases such as asthma. A) Aspirin B) Ibuprofen C) Acetaminophen D) Bronchodilators Answer: D Page Ref: 1238 Objective: 50.8

14) Who or what is responsible for performing the calculations associated with the results of spirometry testing? A) A computer system B) The medical assistant performing the test C) A respiratory therapist D) The physician Answer: A Page Ref: 1235 Objective: 50.5 15) A medical assistant should demonstrate the use of a metered-dose inhaler A) after the patient has tried to use it unsuccessfully B) only if the patient requests the demonstration C) first and then have the patient repeat the demonstration D) only if the physician requests the demonstration Answer: C Page Ref: 1239 Objective: 50.5

16) Two of the most common pulmonary function tests that a medical assistant has to perform are spirometry and . A) arterial blood gases (ABG) B) diffusion capacity C) peak flow measurement D) cardiopulmonary exercise Answer: C Page Ref: 1242 Objective: 50.2 17) Wheezing or squeaking sounds heard when listening to the chest are known as A) hemoptysis B) rhonchus C) bronchitis D) laryngitis Answer: B Page Ref: 1230 Objective: 50.3 18) A blue color around the lips from a lack of oxygen in the tissues is called A) cyanosis B) rhonchus C) stridor D) hemoptysis Answer: A Page Ref: 1229 Objective: 50.3 6

19) An example of a(n) bacteria, or fungus. A) lower respiratory condition B) infectious disease C) mechanical injury D) general respiratory condition Answer: D Page Ref: 1231 (Tbl 50-1) Objective: 50.3

is sinusitis, an inflammation of the sinuses caused by a virus,

20) Pleuritis, also called pleurisy, is considered a(n) A) lower respiratory condition B) infectious condition C) mechanical injury D) malignancy Answer: B Page Ref: 1231 (Tbl 50-1) Objective: 50.3

21) A hemothorax, or collection of blood in the pleural space, is most commonly caused by . A) COPD B) bacterial infection C) trauma D) malignancy Answer: C Page Ref: 1231 (Tbl 50-1) Objective: 50.3 22) A physician who specializes in lung diseases is called a(n) A) respiratory therapist B) allergist C) pulmonologist D) cardiologist Answer: C Page Ref: 1229 Objective: 50.1

23) Which instruction by the medical assistant would be most appropriate when he or she is explaining peak flow testing to a child? A) "Exhale to your full expiratory reserve volume." B) "Expire forcefully until I tell you to cease." C) "Blow really hard into the tube." D) "Blow air into the mouthpiece at your maximum capacity." Answer: C Page Ref: 1234 Objective: 50.5 7

24) Which of the following is TRUE about a baby who is born to a mother who smokes? A) The baby is not likely to survive. B) The baby may have a low birth weight. C) The baby will also become a smoker as an adult. D) The baby will have cancer. Answer: B Page Ref: 1232 Objective: 50.3 25) Which of the following is TRUE of older adult patients who are undergoing pulmonary function testing? A) They do not require any special treatment. B) They may need multiple attempts to perform the test correctly. C) They may be uncooperative. D) They may not be able to perform multiple efforts. Answer: D Page Ref: 1234 Objective: 50.5 26) Harsh or high-pitched breath sounds are known as A) rales B) stridor C) rhonchus D) wheezing Answer: B Page Ref: 1230 Objective: 50.3

27) Crackling breath sounds heard when listening to the chest are known as A) rales B) stridor C) rhonchus D) wheezing Answer: A Page Ref: 1230 Objective: 50.3 28) Coughing up blood or blood in the mucus is called A) hemoptysis B) hemophilia C) hemoglobin D) bloody discharge Answer: A Page Ref: 1230 Objective: 50.3 8

29) About A) 50 percent B) 70 percent C) 80 percent D) 90 percent Answer: C Page Ref: 1232 Objective: 50.3

of all deaths from COPD are caused by smoking.

30) An FEV/FVC ratio of less than percent may indicate a patient who suffers from chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). A) 100 B) 90 C) 80 D) 70 Answer: D Page Ref: 1233 Objective: 50.3 31) Which of the following is NOT a good way for a medical assistant to stay current and aware of health advances? A) Special classes B) Seminars C) Manufacturer representatives D) Wikipedia Answer: D Page Ref: 1236 Objective: 50.5 32) What is vital capacity? A) The volume of the lungs at peak inspiration B) The amount of air that can be inhaled after normal expiration C) The amount of air remaining in the lungs after a normal expiration D) The amount of air that can be exhaled following forced inspiration, including maximum expiration Answer: D Page Ref: 1234 Objective: 50.1, 50.4

33) What is functional residual capacity? A) The volume of the lungs at peak inspiration B) The amount of air that can be inhaled after normal expiration C) The amount of air remaining in the lungs after a normal expiration D) The amount of air that can be exhaled following forced inspiration, including maximum expiration Answer: C Page Ref: 1234 Objective: 50.1, 50.4 34) Total lung capacity is the sum of tidal volume, expiratory reserve volume, inspiratory reserve volume, and . A) residual volume B) forced vital capacity C) inspiratory capacity D) forced expiratory volume Answer: A Page Ref: 1233 Objective: 50.1, 50.4 35) Which of the following does the medical assistant NOT need to collect or assess before spirometry testing? A) Blood pressure from the last visit B) Temperature C) Height D) Weight Answer: A Page Ref: 1235 Objective: 50.5 36) Clinical status refers to the patient's A) emotional state B) physical condition C) weight D) resting heart rate Answer: B Page Ref: 1233 Objective: 50.1

at the time of the spirometry test.

37) Before spirometry testing the medical assistant should inform the patient with asthma that the test will need to be successfully repeated . A) once B) twice C) three times D) until the patient wants to stop Answer: C Page Ref: 1235 (Proc 50-1) Objective: 50.5 38) Which of the following could affect pulmonary test results? A) Scoliosis B) Poor night's sleep C) Fever D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 1233 Objective: 50.2 39) The medical assistant should be aware that which of the following is NOT true of smokers? A) Smokers are unable to carry pregnancies to term. B) Smokers are at higher risk of death from all causes. C) Smokers have a higher risk of developing certain cancers. D) Smokers are at two to four times higher risk for stroke. Answer: A Page Ref: 1232 Objective: 50.3 40) A metered-dose inhaler (MDI) holds about pressurized container with an attached mouthpiece. A) 50 B) 100 C) 200 D) 600 Answer: C Page Ref: 1239 Objective: 50.8

doses of the prescribed medication in a

41) A patient receiving a nebulizer treatment should be in a A) supine B) prone C) semi-Fowler's D) standing Answer: C Page Ref: 1239 Objective: 50.8 11

position.

42) Which of the following is NOT necessary during spirometer testing? A) Head and chin should be elevated. B) Dentures should be removed. C) Clothing should be tight. D) Feet should be flat on the floor. Answer: C Page Ref: 1235 Objective: 50.5 43) Which test accurately measures the levels of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the blood as well as the pH? A) Peak flow measurement B) Spirometry C) Pulse oximetry D) Arterial blood gases (ABG) Answer: D Page Ref: 1238 Objective: 50.7 44) The pH of the blood must be stable in the range of A) 7.35 to 7.45 B) 8.15 to 8.65 C) 7.62 to 7.72 D) 4.5 to 6.0 Answer: A Page Ref: 1238 Objective: 50.7

45) Which statement about nebulizer treatments is TRUE? A) The equipment should be cleaned before each use. B) The treatment is ready when the mist is created. C) The patient should take quick, shallow breaths. D) The patient should not hold his or her breath. Answer: B Page Ref: 1240 (Proc 50-3) Objective: 50.8 46) Why is a mouthpiece usually preferable over a mask for delivery of nebulizer treatments? A) A mouthpiece has more flexibility than a mask. B) Medication can deposit on the patient's face when a mask is used. C) The patient may receive too much medication when a mask is used. D) A mouthpiece gives the patient more independence than a mask. Answer: B Page Ref: 1238 Objective: 50.8

47) A nebulizer treatment administered in a medical office ends when A) the patient can breathe on his or her own B) 10 minutes have passed C) it becomes uncomfortable for the patient D) the aerosol stops flowing Answer: D Page Ref: 1239 Objective: 50.8

48) What is the purpose of a spacer or extender used with a metered-dose inhaler? A) It improves the speed of the inhaler. B) It delays the absorption of the medication. C) It decreases the amount of medication delivered over one minute. D) It improves the delivery and facilitates the absorption of the medication. Answer: D Page Ref: 1239 Objective: 50.8 49) When treating a patient of descent it is important for the medical assistant to understand that the patient's culture traditionally has a holistic approach to health care. A) Asian B) European C) Mexican D) American Answer: A Page Ref: 1241 Objective: 50.5 50) Which of the following is NOT a likely site for drawing arterial blood for an ABG test? A) Wrist B) Groin C) Arm D) Buttocks Answer: D Page Ref: 1238 Objective: 50.7

Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting, 4e (Beaman) Chapter 51 Physical Therapy and Rehabilitation True/False Questions 1) Ultraviolet radiation uses rays from natural sources, such as the sun, and artificial sources, such as sun lamps, for healing purposes. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1258-1259 Objective: 51.6 2) Ultrasound is the therapeutic use of high-frequency current that induces an electrical field within a portion of the body. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1260 Objective: 51.6 3) Canes are used by patients who have muscle or bone weakness on one side or need assistance with balance. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1264 Objective: 51.8 4) Walkers are assistive devices made of aluminum that provide a base of support for patients who need help with balance and walking. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1266 Objective: 51.8 5) Range of motion (ROM) is the degree of movement that can be achieved in a specific joint until slight pain is felt. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1251 Objective: 51.1 6) Traction is a method of pulling or stretching in two directions as a means to immobilize fractures, correct deformities, and reduce compression of the vertebrae or other musculoskeletal conditions. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1271 Objective: 51.8 7) An athletic trainer is considered part of the rehabilitation team. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1247 Objective: 51.2 1

8) A strain is described as pain and disability caused by trauma to a joint. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1251 Objective: 51.5 9) Cerebral palsy is a disease of the blood vessels and heart. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1251 Objective: 51.5 10) When transferring a patient with hemiplegia from the wheelchair to bed, the patient should pivot using his or her stronger leg. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1268 Objective: 51.8 11) Effective exercise programs can help improve circulation. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1250 Objective: 51.6 12) The application of heat to a body part causes dilation of blood vessels and allows more blood to circulate to injured tissues. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1252 Objective: 51.6 13) Hot soaks involve having the patient put the affected part of the body into a container of water with or without medication for 15 minutes. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1254 Objective: 51.6 14) Crutches allow the patient to walk without placing weight on the part of the leg that needs to heal. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1260 Objective: 51.8 15) Asymmetrical posture may indicate a curvature of the spine resulting in uneven muscle development. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1248 Objective: 51.4

16) The physician should specify the temperature required for the dry heat treatment. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1257 Objective: 51.6 17) Holistic medicine focuses on treating the disease or injury and does not address the patient's emotional or spiritual needs. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1247 Objective: 51.1 18) Before applying a heating pad to a patient, perform a preliminary check without bending it to determine that the wires are in good condition. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1257 Objective: 51.6 19) A formal rehabilitation program begins upon admission for an acute illness. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1248 Objective: 51.3 20) Ultraviolet rays are NOT capable of killing bacteria. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1259 Objective: 51.6 21) A long-term goal for a patient receiving rehabilitation following cardiac surgery may be to confidently perform activities of daily living as independently as possible. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1248 Objective: 51.3 22) Diathermy is useful in treating muscular disorders. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1259-1260 Objective: 51.6

Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following is the proper terminology for a massage described as a light stroking movement that may be performed in a circular pattern? A) Effleurage B) Friction C) Petrissage D) Tapotement Answer: A Page Ref: 1272 Objective: 51.7 2) Which of the following types of exercises strengthens the cardiopulmonary system? A) Aerobic B) Isotonic C) Isometric D) Stretching Answer: A Page Ref: 1250 Objective: 51.6 3) The -point gait is used when one leg is stronger than the other or when there is no weight bearing on one leg. A) one B) two C) three D) four Answer: C Page Ref: 1262 Objective: 51.8 4) Prolonged use of a brace may weaken A) bone B) muscle C) skin D) ligaments Answer: B Page Ref: 1270 Objective: 51.8

5) Surgical removal of a limb or part of a limb is known as A) abduction B) adduction C) amputation D) circumduction Answer: C Page Ref: 1271 Objective: 51.5

6) All the following duties may be within the scope of practice for a medical assistant EXCEPT . A) recommending a course of treatment to a patient B) applying cold compresses on a patient C) educating a patient on how to use heat applications D) educating a patient on how to use a cane Answer: A Page Ref: 1246 Objective: 51.2 7) Range of motion is measured with a special type of protractor called a _ A) contracture B) spectrometer C) goniometer D) orthotist Answer: C Page Ref: 1251 Objective: 51.6 8) Paralysis of the lower portion of the body is called A) paraplegia B) Parkinson's disease C) poliomyelitis D) quadriplegia Answer: A Page Ref: 1251 Objective: 51.5

9) Which of the following is known as a wasting disease of the muscles? A) Bursitis B) Rheumatoid arthritis C) Multiple sclerosis D) Muscular dystrophy Answer: D Page Ref: 1251 Objective: 51.5

10) A regular exercise program, at least recommended for normal adults. A) one B) two C) three D) four Answer: C Page Ref: 1250 Objective: 51.6

time(s) a week for 20- to 30-minute periods, is

11) Rehabilitation programs are useful for patients with all the following conditions EXCEPT . A) recent hip replacement B) inactivity for 2 weeks due to a broken bone C) recent stroke D) recent biopsy of a skin lesion Answer: D Page Ref: 1248 Objective: 51.3 12) Which of the following is known as the process of turning, as if on an axis or pivot? A) Circumduction B) Pronation C) Rotation D) Supination Answer: C Page Ref: 1253 Objective: 51.6 13) Which of the following is NOT known as a dry heat that does not produce moisture? A) Electric heating pads B) Heat hydrotherapy C) Hot water bottles D) Infrared radiation (heat lamps) Answer: B Page Ref: 1257 Objective: 51.6 14) Which of the following statements about an ultrasound applicator head is TRUE? A) It must be placed on dry skin during treatments. B) It must be in contact with skin during treatments. C) It should be held in place to stimulate tissue. D) It creates waves that travel through the air. Answer: B Page Ref: 1260 Objective: 51.6 6

15) Before prescribing rehabilitation treatments, the physiatrist will evaluate all of the following EXCEPT . A) temperature B) gait C) muscle flexibility D) muscle strength Answer: A Page Ref: 1248 Objective: 51.4 16) A(n) is most often performed when a patient complains of muscle weakness or numbness. A) brainstem auditory evoked response (BAER) study B) electromyography (EMG) C) nerve conduction study (NCS) D) somatosensory evoked potential (SEP) study Answer: B Page Ref: 1271 Objective: 51.9 17) A(n) specializes in designing and fitting supportive devices, such as braces and splints. A) orthotist B) physiatrist C) physical therapist D) prosthetist Answer: A Page Ref: 1246 Objective: 51.1, 51.2 18) Which of the following is used during an assessment to safely hold up a weak patient while standing, walking, and transferring? A) Brace B) Cast C) Gait belt D) Prosthetic Answer: C Page Ref: 1249 Objective: 51.4

19) When an EMG is conducted, the patient may experience electric current. A) dizziness B) a headache C) nausea D) pain Answer: D Page Ref: 1271 Objective: 51.9

when stimulated by the

20) Which of the following means that the patient is able to perform the ROM exercises on all extremities without assistance? A) Active range of motion B) Passive range of motion C) Active assist range of motion D) Passive assist range of motion Answer: A Page Ref: 1251 Objective: 51.6 21) A condition of congested with blood. A) erythema B) psoriasis C) bruising D) contusion Answer: A Page Ref: 1252 Objective: 51.1

, or redness of the skin, is caused when the capillaries become

22) is kneading or applying pressure by hands to a part of the patient's body to promote muscle relaxation, improve blood circulation, and reduce tension. A) Acupuncture B) Biofeedback C) Massage D) Reiki Answer: C Page Ref: 1272 Objective: 51.1, 51.7

23) can be impaired if either hot or cold applications remain on a body part for too long. A) Constriction B) Circulation C) Dilation D) Movement Answer: B Page Ref: 1252 Objective: 51.6 24) is movement that brings a limb into or toward a straight condition. A) Flexion B) Eversion C) Extension D) Inversion Answer: C Page Ref: 1253 Objective: 51.6 25) is the movement in a circular direction from a central point. A) Circumduction B) Dorsiflexion C) Eversion D) Extension Answer: A Page Ref: 1253 Objective: 51.6 26) is the ability to move the thumb into contact with other fingers. A) Inversion B) Opposition C) Plantar flexion D) Supination Answer: B Page Ref: 1253 Objective: 51.6 27) uses cold for therapeutic purposes. A) Acupuncture B) Aromatherapy C) Cryotherapy D) Diathermy Answer: C Page Ref: 1258 Objective: 51.1, 51.6

28) is the therapeutic use of high-frequency current that induces an electrical field within a portion of the body. A) Acupuncture B) Aromatherapy C) Cryotherapy D) Diathermy Answer: D Page Ref: 1259 Objective: 51.1, 51.6 29) are made of plaster, plastic, or fiberglass and are used to hold a bone in place after reduction of a fracture. A) Braces B) Brackets C) Casts D) Splints Answer: C Page Ref: 1270 Objective: 51.8 30) A is a type of orthotic used to support weakened body parts, correct deformities, and prevent joint movement. A) brace B) splint C) bracket D) shunt Answer: A Page Ref: 1268 Objective: 51.8 31) Skeletal traction is applied by the physician to the patient's A) bone by inserting a pin through the bone B) skin by attaching bandages to the skin C) whole body using a stretching device D) extremities using a weighted pulley Answer: A Page Ref: 1271 Objective: 51.8

32) Which of the following statements about a prosthesis is FALSE? A) It is most beneficial for a patient to be fitted immediately for a prosthesis. B) Prosthetics come in standard sizes. C) Stump conditioning is needed when there is a delay in fitting. D) Sometimes a patient is fitted for a prosthesis before leaving the operating room. Answer: B Page Ref: 1271 Objective: 51.8 10

33) Which of the following is NOT a result of constriction of blood vessels? A) Pain reduction B) Increase in tissue metabolism C) Control of bleeding D) Prevention of or decrease in swelling Answer: B Page Ref: 1258 Objective: 51.6 34) is an inflammatory disease of the central nervous system. A) Bursitis B) Cerebral palsy C) Multiple sclerosis D) Muscular dystrophy Answer: C Page Ref: 1251 Objective: 51.5 35) is the condition of paralysis of all four extremities of the body. A) Paraplegia B) Parkinson's disease C) Poliomyelitis D) Quadriplegia Answer: D Page Ref: 1251 Objective: 51.5 36) is the process of bringing a patient back as close as possible to his or her normal physical condition after injury or disease. A) Medication B) Palliation C) Rehabilitation D) Surgery Answer: C Page Ref: 1246 Objective: 51.1 37) Evoked potential studies examine responses within the light, sound, and touch. A) brain B) integumentary system C) nervous system D) spinal column Answer: A Page Ref: 1272 Objective: 51.9 11

to external stimuli such as

38) is an inflammation of a joint that is usually accompanied by pain and swelling. A) Arthritis B) Bursitis C) Sprain D) Strain Answer: A Page Ref: 1251 Objective: 51.5 39) Which of the following is NOT a member of a typical therapeutic health care team for a patient in need of rehabilitation? A) Occupational therapist B) Physical therapist C) Psychotherapist D) Recreation specialist Answer: C Page Ref: 1247 Objective: 51.2 40) is a decrease or wasting away of muscle tissue and occurs rapidly in an inactive patient. A) Atrophy B) Cerebral palsy C) Contracture D) Osteoporosis Answer: A Page Ref: 1250 Objective: 51.1, 51.5 41) is trauma to a muscle from excessive stretching or pulling. A) Strain B) Sprain C) Fracture D) Splint Answer: A Page Ref: 1251 Objective: 51.5 42) Suppuration is the internal buildup of A) a blood clot B) scar tissue C) exudate D) pus formation Answer: D Page Ref: 1252 Objective: 51.1

43) Brainstem auditory evoked response (BAER) is useful in diagnosing A) auditory tumors B) hearing loss C) a ruptured ear drum D) vestibular dysfunction Answer: A Page Ref: 1272 Objective: 51.9

44) is an abnormal rounding of the thoracic spine (upper back) that becomes exaggerated and produces a "humpback" appearance. A) Kyphosis B) Lordosis C) Osteoporosis D) Scoliosis Answer: A Page Ref: 1248 Objective: 51.4 45) Ultrasound therapy is used for all the following EXCEPT A) breaking up calcium deposits B) decreasing circulation C) relaxing muscle spasms D) relieving pain Answer: B Page Ref: 1260 Objective: 51.6

46) Which of the following is known as movement toward the midline of the body? A) Abduction B) Adduction C) Dorsiflexion D) Eversion Answer: B Page Ref: 1253 Objective: 51.6 47) The gait is faster moving than the four-point gait and is used by patients who can bear some weight on both feet and have good balance. A) swing-to B) swing-through C) two-point D) three-point Answer: C Page Ref: 1263 Objective: 51.8 13

48) Which of the following types of exercise results in muscle elongation? A) Aerobic B) Isotonic C) Isometric D) Stretching Answer: D Page Ref: 1250 Objective: 51.6 49) Which of the following is the proper terminology for a kneading or a rolling method of massage that requires pressing the muscles? A) Effleurage B) Friction C) Petrissage D) Tapotement Answer: C Page Ref: 1272 Objective: 51.7 50) Which of the following would be considered a short-term goal in a rehabilitation program? A) Learning how to walk with crutches B) Remaining free from infections after surgery C) Being able to return to work full time D) All of the above Answer: A Page Ref: 1248 Objective: 51.3 51) Which type of massage stimulates blood circulation in the soft tissue? A) Deep tissue B) Reiki C) Swedish or traditional D) Trigger point Answer: C Page Ref: 1272 Objective: 51.7 52) What is a disadvantage of having a surface electromyogram (SEMG) over an EMG? A) Results are less conclusive. B) Testing lasts longer. C) Testing is more painful. D) Testing is more invasive. Answer: A Page Ref: 1271 Objective: 51.9

53) Why should certain acupressure points be avoided in pregnant women? A) They may cause a miscarriage. B) They may cause a decrease in amniotic fluid. C) They may cause a decrease in blood circulation to the fetus. D) They may induce contractions. Answer: D Page Ref: 1273 Objective: 51.7 54) Backward bending of a hand or foot is known as A) dorsiflexion B) flexion C) pronation D) supination Answer: A Page Ref: 1253 Objective: 51.6

55) The temperature of the solution for a hot soak should be between A) 105° and 110°F B) 110° and 115°F C) 90° and 95°F D) 95° and 100°F Answer: A Page Ref: 1256 Objective: 51.6

Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting, 4e (Beaman) Chapter 52 Math for Pharmacology True/False Questions 1) The two systems of weights and measures used to calculate medication doses are the apothecary system and the metric system. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1280 Objective: 52.1 2) Pharmacology is the study of medications and drugs, including their forms, intentions for use, and effects. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1277 Objective: 52.1 3) Some common household measurements, such as the ounce, pint, quart, and gallon, are based on the metric system. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1281 Objective: 52.3 4) The leading zero rule means to place a 0 in front of the decimal when writing a number that is less than 1. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1280 Objective: 52.1 5) Metric conversions are accomplished simply by multiplying or dividing by 10. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1282 Objective: 52.4 6) Roman numerals are used when numbering in the metric system. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1281 Objective: 52.3 7) Fluid measurements are the minims (m), fluid dram (fl dr), fluid ounce (fl oz), pint (pt), quart (qt), and gallon (gal). Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1281 Objective: 52.3

8) When dividing fractions you must first add all numerators across and all denominators across. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1278 Objective: 52.2 9) Multiplying by 1,000 would be the same as moving the decimal point three places to the right. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1282 Objective: 52.4 10) The common units of measure for the metric system are the liter (volume), the gram (weight), and meter (length). Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1282 Objective: 52.3 11) There are many factors in calculating the correct dose of drugs, including the patient's age, weight, and current state of health. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1285 Objective: 52.5 12) 1/2 is the same as 0.5 and the ratio of 1:2. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1280 Objective: 52.4 13) Dividing by 1,000 would mean that the decimal point moves three places to the left. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1282 Objective: 52.4 14)

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1278 Objective: 52.2 15) One fluid ounce is equal to 30 mL. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1284 Objective: 52.4

16) When converting from one system to another, it is important to remember that the equivalents may be only approximate. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1282 Objective: 52.4 17) Fried's law is applied to children under the age of 3 years. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1289 Objective: 52.7 18) To convert drams to grams, multiply by 4. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1285 Objective: 52.4 19) Teaspoon can also be written as T. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1281 Objective: 52.8 20) The ratio method of dosage calculation requires the medical assistant to compare the amount of drug prescribed to the amount that is available. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1285 Objective: 52.5 21) If the prescribed amount is 25 mg and the available amount is 250 g, the medical assistant should first convert the 25 mg to 0.025 g. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1282, 1285 Objective: 52.4 22) West's nomogram is only used on infants. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1289 Objective: 52.7

Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following is one of the measurements for volume under the metric system? A) Pint B) Liter C) Quart D) Gallon Answer: B Page Ref: 1282 Objective: 52.3 2) Under the apothecary system, three-fourths of a grain would be A) 3/4 gr B) gr 3/4 C) 3/4 gn D) gn 3/4 Answer: B Page Ref: 1281 Objective: 52.8

3) To write an apothecary notation accurately, the following rule should be adhered to: Use roman numerals to express whole numbers 1 through 10, 15, 20, and 30. A) lowercase B) uppercase C) no D) italicized and bolded Answer: A Page Ref: 1281 Objective: 52.8 4) Converting 1,000 mg to 1 gram would require moving the decimal place the left. A) one B) two C) three D) four Answer: C Page Ref: 1282 Objective: 52.4

places to

5) All of the following are units of measure under the household system EXCEPT A) teaspoon B) microgram C) pound D) drop Answer: B Page Ref: 1283 Objective: 52.3

6) Which of the following rules for pediatric dosages equals a child's weight in pounds times an adult dose divided by 150 pounds? A) West's nomogram B) Young's rule C) Fried's law D) Clark's rule Answer: D Page Ref: 1289 Objective: 52.7 7) The doctor prescribed 100 mg, available is 1,000 mcg/0.5 mL. How many mL should be administered to the patient? A) 50 B) 500 C) 5 D) 5,000 Answer: A Page Ref: 1285-1288 Objective: 52.6 8) Which of the following is a method of drug calculation? A) Ratio method B) Proportion method C) Value method D) Fractional method Answer: A Page Ref: 1285 Objective: 52.5 9) In the metric system, the dosage is written as a A) prime B) whole C) decimal D) negative Answer: C Page Ref: 1282 Objective: 52.3 5

number first.

10) The proportion 10:20 is read as 10 A) multiplied by B) divided by C) subtracted from D) added to Answer: B Page Ref: 1285 Objective: 52.8

20.

11) What would be the correct answer for x when solving the equation 10x = 20? A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 5 Answer: B Page Ref: 1285 Objective: 52.2 12) The doctor prescribed 80 mg of Lasix. The medication is available as 40 mg in one cc of Lasix. How many cc of Lasix are required to get 80 mg? A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 Answer: A Page Ref: 1286 Objective: 52.6 13) 10,000 mcg would be equivalent to A) 1 B) 10 C) 100 D) 1,000 Answer: B Page Ref: 1282 Objective: 52.4

mg.

14) The physician prescribed penicillin 250 mg. The bottle from the supply cabinet is labeled, "Penicillin 500 mg per cc." The correct amount to administer would be cc. A) 0.25 B) 0.5 C) 0.75 D) 5.0 Answer: B Page Ref: 1288 Objective: 52.6 6

15) Which of the following is a rule or "law" for the calculations of medications for pediatrics? A) Clark's rule B) Fried's law C) Young's rule D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 1289 Objective: 52.1 16) Which of the following is correct for Young's rule? A) Divide the child's age in years by 12, and then multiply this number by the adult dose to determine the correct pediatric dosage. B) Divide the child's age in years by 12, and then subtract this number by the adult dose to determine the correct pediatric dosage. C) Multiply the child's age in years by 12, and then multiply this number by the adult dose to determine the correct pediatric dosage. D) Divide the child's age in years by the same number plus 12, and then multiply this number by the adult dose to determine the correct pediatric dosage. Answer: D Page Ref: 1289 Objective: 52.7 17) Which of the following is the preferred method for pediatric dosage calculation, particularly for oncology and critical care patients and underweight children? A) Fried's law B) Young's rule C) West's nomogram D) None of the above Answer: C Page Ref: 1289 Objective: 52.7 18) is calculated using height and weight and is expressed as m2 (meters squared). A) Young's rule B) Clark's rule C) Body surface area (BSA) D) Fried's law Answer: C Page Ref: 1289 Objective: 52.1

19) The body weight method uses calculations based on the patient's weight in A) pounds B) grams C) kilograms D) ounces Answer: C Page Ref: 1290 Objective: 52.7

20) Using the body weight method, calculate the correct dosage for a child who weighs 68 pounds. The doctor prescribed 8 mg/kg/day of a medication. A) 544 B) 248 C) 247.3 D) 18.7 Answer: C Page Ref: 1291 Objective: 52.6 21) 3.5 g equals A) 0.035 B) 350 C) 0.35 D) 3,500 Answer: D Page Ref: 1282 Objective: 52.4

_ mg.

22) The doctor prescribed 3 mg/kg twice daily for 5 days. The child weighs 35 pounds and the medication is available as 50 mg/mL. How many mL should be administered to the child for each dose? Round the answer to the hundredth place. A) 0.955 B) 0.9 C) 0.95 D) 1 Answer: C Page Ref: 1291 Objective: 52.6 23) Given that 1 kg = 2.2 lb, 77 lb is equivalent to A) 35 B) 135.6 C) 169.4 D) 0.03 Answer: A Page Ref: 1284 Objective: 52.4 8

kg.

24) The doctor prescribed 500 mg, and available is 1,000 mg/cc vial. How many cc should be administered? A) 0.5 B) 5.0 C) 0.05 D) 0.005 Answer: A Page Ref: 1288 Objective: 52.6 25) Using Clark's rule, calculate the pediatric dose for a child who weighs 40 pounds if the average dose for an adult is 240 mg. How many mg should the child receive? A) 63.9 B) 25.5 C) 25 D) 64 Answer: D Page Ref: 1289 Objective: 52.6 26) Which of the following is the correct apothecary notation for three and one-half pints? A) iii 1/2 pt B) pt iiiss C) pt iii 1/2 D) iiiss pt Answer: B Page Ref: 1281 Objective: 52.8 27) Using Young's rule, calculate the correct dose for a 5-year-old child if the adult dose is 75 mg. How many mg should the child receive? A) 15 B) 22.06 C) 3 D) 23 Answer: B Page Ref: 1289 Objective: 52.6

28) Calculate the sum of 1.06 and 0.84. A) 2 B) 1.9 C) 85.06 D) 0.98 Answer: B Page Ref: 1279 Objective: 52.2 29) To write an apothecary notation accurately, the following rule should be adhered to: The symbol is used to designate the fraction 1/2. A) tt B) xx C) ss D) cc Answer: C Page Ref: 1281 Objective: 52.8 30) West's nomogram chart can be used for both infants and children. This chart is preferred over the other forms of pediatric dosage calculations for which of the following reasons? A) The chart is found in medical textbooks, pediatric offices, and dictionaries. B) The chart uses kilograms as the weight measurement. C) The formula used to calculate the dose is simple and fast. D) The child's BSA is considered in the calculation. Answer: D Page Ref: 1289 Objective: 52.7 31) The West's nomogram chart has A) three B) five C) seven D) nine Answer: A Page Ref: 1289 Objective: 52.7

columns.

32) Penicillin is prescribed for a child weighing 35 pounds. The average dose for an adult is 360 mg. Using Clark's rule, the child should receive mg. A) 39 B) 54 C) 84 D) 98 Answer: C Page Ref: 1289 Objective: 52.6 10

33) All of the following ratios are equivalent to the ratio of 1:2 EXCEPT A) 2:4 B) 5:10 C) 10:20 D) 15:25 Answer: D Page Ref: 1285 Objective: 52.2 34) 2,500 mg converts to A) 0.025 B) 0.052 C) 2.5 D) 5.2 Answer: C Page Ref: 1282 Objective: 52.4

35) The is considered to be the oldest system of measurement. A) metric system B) American system C) apothecary system D) household system Answer: C Page Ref: 1281 Objective: 52.1 36) is the most common calculation of drug dosage for children, especially because the weight of different children of the same age can vary significantly. A) Clark's rule B) Fried's law C) Young's rule D) Lowe's rule Answer: A Page Ref: 1289 Objective: 52.7 37) Young's rule is used for children who are A) over 1 year of age B) under 1 year of age C) over 35 pounds D) under 35 pounds Answer: A Page Ref: 1289 Objective: 52.7

38) Which of the following abbreviations means cubic centimeter? A) C B) cub C) Ccm D) cc Answer: D Page Ref: 1283 Objective: 52.8 39) Given that 1 grain = 65 mg, 50 grains is equivalent to A) 0.77 B) 3250 C) 1.3 D) 3.25 Answer: B Page Ref: 1284 Objective: 52.4

mg.

40) To calculate the child's body surface area (BSA) using West's nomogram, a straight line is drawn from the patient's height in inches or across the columns to the patient's weight in or kilograms. A) feet; grams B) meters; micrograms C) centimeters; pounds D) micrometers; micrograms Answer: C Page Ref: 1289-1290 Objective: 52.7 41) Fried's law uses A) 15 B) 50 C) 115 D) 150 Answer: D Page Ref: 1289 Objective: 52.7

months in the denominator.

42) To determine the amount of a drug needed using the formula method, which of the following formulas should you use? A) D × H × Q B) D/H × Q C) H/D × Q D) H/D/Q Answer: B Page Ref: 1288 Objective: 52.5 12

43) Which of the following is the correct abbreviation for drop? A) D B) dp C) dr D) gtt Answer: D Page Ref: 1283 Objective: 52.8 44) 1/2 is equal to 0.50, which is also equal to A) 0.50 B) 5.0 C) 50 D) 20 Answer: C Page Ref: 1280 Objective: 52.4

percent.

45) The doctor prescribed 300 mg of a medication. Available is 0.3 g/tablet. How many tablets should be administered to the patient? A) 0.1 B) 10 C) 0.5 D) 1 Answer: D Page Ref: 1285-1288 Objective: 52.6 46) Fried's assumption is that a -year-old child could take an adult dose, and that a fraction of that is taken to figure dosages for a younger child. A) 4 B) 8 C) 12 D) 16 Answer: C Page Ref: 1289 Objective: 52.7

47) Which method or rule utilizes desired dose, dose on hand, and quantity or unit of the on-hand dose to calculate a dosage? A) Young's rule B) Clark's rule C) Ratio method D) Formula method Answer: D Page Ref: 1288 Objective: 52.5 48) Clark's rule is based on the A) weight B) height C) age D) all the above Answer: A Page Ref: 1289 Objective: 52.7

of the child.

49) The doctor prescribed 10 grains of medication, and available is 2.5 grains per tablet. How many tablets should be administered to the patient? A) Two B) Four C) Six D) Eight Answer: B Page Ref: 1288 Objective: 52.6 50) All of the following are abbreviations for liquid measure EXCEPT A) tsp B) mL C) dr D) fl oz Answer: C Page Ref: 1281, 1284 Objective: 52.8 51) Which of the following means one-thousandth of a unit? A) 0.1 B) 0.01 C) 0.001 D) 0.0001 Answer: C Page Ref: 1282 Objective: 52.2 14

52) In the metric system, how much does a hecto represent? A) 1,000 of a unit B) 100 of a unit C) 10 of a unit D) A base unit of 1 Answer: B Page Ref: 1282 Objective: 52.3 53) Using the metric system, a A) kilo B) hecto C) deka D) base number Answer: C Page Ref: 1282 Objective: 52.3

is 10 of a unit.

54) Two pounds equals how many grams? A) 45 B) 450 C) 750 D) 900 Answer: D Page Ref: 1284 Objective: 52.4 55) One gram is equal to how many grains? A) 10 B) 15 C) 20 D) 25 Answer: B Page Ref: 1284 Objective: 52.4

Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting, 4e (Beaman) Chapter 53 Pharmacology True/False Questions 1) The vast majority of drugs used in medicine today are minerals, created in a laboratory by artificial means. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1298 Objective: 53.1 2) Brand name drugs are typically priced lower than drugs with trade names, and generally are bioequivalent. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1299 Objective: 53.2 3) Generic drugs are just as closely monitored as the brand name drugs, so their effectiveness will always be equivalent to the brand name drugs. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1299 Objective: 53.2 4) All physicians are required to register with the DEA in order to prescribe, dispense, or administer controlled substances. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1299 Objective: 53.3 5) The Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938 stipulates the actual control of drugs. This law was enacted to ensure the safety of food, drugs, and cosmetics that are sold within U.S. borders. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1299 Objective: 53.3 6) The pink section in the Physicians' Desk Reference (PDR) is the manufacturer's index with company names, addresses, phone numbers, emergency contacts, and lists of products. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1299 Objective: 53.4 7) The United States Pharmacopeia-National Formulary (USP-NF) lists all medicines, dosage forms, drug substances, and dietary supplements authorized for use in the United States. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1299 Objective: 53.4 1

8) There are many online references available, including Web MD and Medline, but the medical assistant must be sure to use recognized, reliable resources when searching the Internet for medical information. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1300 Objective: 53.4 9) The Controlled Substances Act of 1970 regulates the manufacture and distribution of drugs that are capable of causing dependencies. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1308 Objective: 53.3 10) It is important that the medical assistant have all the available medications memorized to ensure that the patients receive the correct drugs. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1299 Objective: 53.4 11) Drugs are classified based on color and size. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1301 Objective: 53.6 12) The drug resource most commonly available is the Physicians' Desk Reference. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1299 Objective: 53.4 13) The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is the specific department within the Federal Department of Health and Human Services responsible for ensuring that human drugs are safe and effective and that these products are honestly, accurately, and informatively represented to the public. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1299 Objective: 53.3 14) E-prescriptions are computer generated and sent via computer through secure and private computer connections. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1318 Objective: 53.12 15) E-prescriptions tend to cause more errors than regular prescriptions. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1318 Objective: 53.12 2

16) The abbreviation U for unit is on The Joint Commission "Do Not Use" List. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1320 Objective: 53.13 17) Only physicians and nurses are permitted to sign prescriptions. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1317 Objective: 53.9 18) Very few drugs are considered safe for use during pregnancy. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1315 Objective: 53.11 19) Abdominal cramping can be an indication of intolerance to a medication. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1306 Objective: 53.7 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which is one of the sources of drugs? A) Plants B) Animals C) Synthetics D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 1298 Objective: 53.1 2) Which is NOT one of the three names used to describe drugs? A) Genetic B) Generic C) Brand D) Chemical Answer: A Page Ref: 1298 Objective: 53.2

3) Nonprescription drugs are also known as A) under-the-counter B) over-the-counter C) prescription D) addiction Answer: B Page Ref: 1300 Objective: 53.5

drugs.

4) should NOT be taken with Coumadin (an anticlotting medication) because of the potential for uncontrolled bleeding. A) Food B) Vitamins C) Aspirin D) Minerals Answer: C Page Ref: 1301 Objective: 53.8 5) When distributing a medication to a patient, all of the following is entered into a logbook by the medical assistant, EXCEPT . A) quantity B) patient's name C) date and time of distribution D) the physician's initials Answer: D Page Ref: 1307 Objective: 53.9 6) Physicians are required to register with the DEA in order to prescribe, dispense, or administer controlled substances. A special form, DEA 224, must be completed and submitted to the DEA. Renewal is required every year(s), using Form 224a. A) one B) two C) three D) four Answer: C Page Ref: 1309 Objective: 53.4

7) The schedule identification number for any controlled substance is written as a Roman numeral inside a capital letter . A) A B) B C) C D) D Answer: C Page Ref: 1309 Objective: 53.9 8) Which is NOT one of the commonly-controlled substances? A) Chloral hydrate B) Butabarbital C) Diazepam D) Nicotine Answer: D Page Ref: 1309 Objective: 53.9 9) medications are any medications given outside the digestive tract, such as injections. They usually require a skin puncture. A) Parenteral B) Sublingual C) Periodontal D) Bilingual Answer: A Page Ref: 1313 Objective: 53.10 10) is a life-threatening adverse reaction to a drug, food, or insect bite. A) Anaphylactic shock B) Drug tolerance C) Habituation D) Idiosyncratic Answer: A Page Ref: 1301 Objective: 53.1 11) Before prescribing a drug for any female, the date of her last to ensure that she is not pregnant. A) marriage B) pregnancy C) menstrual cycle D) physical Answer: C Page Ref: 1316 Objective: 53.11 5

_ should be ascertained

12) All of the following would be considered one of the several medications that are contraindicated in nursing mothers, EXCEPT . A) tetracyclines B) vitamins C) chloramphenicol D) sulfonamides Answer: B Page Ref: 1316 Objective: 53.11 13) Which would NOT be found on a patient's prescription? A) Name B) Address C) Gender D) Age Answer: C Page Ref: 1317 Objective: 53.12 14) Signa (Sig.) means _ A) item B) two C) label D) three Answer: C Page Ref: 1317 Objective: 53.13

15) drugs are held under the tongue, where they are absorbed through the tissues and into the bloodstream for distribution to the body. A) Oral B) Sublingual C) Both A and B D) Neither A nor B Answer: B Page Ref: 1313 Objective: 53.10

16) The name of a drug, also known as the proprietary name, is typically noted in uppercase letters and is the name given by the specific manufacturer. A) biological B) chemical C) generic D) brand Answer: D Page Ref: 1298 Objective: 53.2 17) are specially trained and licensed professionals who specialize in the preparation and dispensation of drugs. A) Pharmacists B) Physicians C) Medical assistants D) Pharmacy assistants Answer: A Page Ref: 1299 Objective: 53.1 18) antibiotics are effective against a large range of microorganisms, making the treatment of specific illnesses easier. A) Industrial strength B) Broad-spectrum C) Maximum strength D) Narrow-spectrum Answer: B Page Ref: 1313, 1315 Objective: 53.6 19) Which schedule level for controlled substances has a description of a moderate-to-low potential for addiction and abuse? A) I B) II C) III D) IV Answer: C Page Ref: 1308 Objective: 53.9

20) Which is NOT considered necessary and important enough to keep secure in the medical office? A) Syringes B) Needles C) Prescription pads D) Alcohol wipes Answer: D Page Ref: 1310 Objective: 53.9 21) The female hormone estrogen can be administered orally in the form of a pill or the form of a skin patch. A) buccally B) sublingually C) topically D) verbally Answer: C Page Ref: 1313 Objective: 53.10 22) All of the following commonly used drugs would be typed as an illegal drug, EXCEPT . A) heroin B) methamphetamine C) opium D) cocaine Answer: C Page Ref: 1308 Objective: 53.9 23) Some drugs can become A) efficacious B) contraindicated C) controlled substances D) toxic Answer: D Page Ref: 1306 Objective: 53.1

, or harmful, in excessive amounts.

24) Elderly patients may be exposed to medications simultaneously. A) hyperpharma B) polypharmacy C) maximed D) hypertoxicity Answer: B Page Ref: 1316 Objective: 53.8

, which refers to taking five or more

25) The PDR is reprinted and is a relatively easy-to-read reference published by a private company and purchased by medical offices and hospitals. A) weekly B) monthly C) quarterly D) annually Answer: D Page Ref: 1299 Objective: 53.4 26) The A) gray B) pink C) white D) blue Answer: D Page Ref: 1299 Objective: 53.4

section of the PDR lists drugs grouped by therapeutic classes.

27) Which drug classification relieves pain without loss of consciousness and may be either narcotic or nonnarcotic? A) Analgesic B) Anticoagulant C) Antidepressant D) Antidiabetic Answer: A Page Ref: 1302 Objective: 53.6 28) On a prescription, DAW means to A) destroy all waste B) dispose of all ways C) dispense as written D) deliver all waste Answer: C Page Ref: 1299 Objective: 53.13

29) Eventually, all patient health records will be A) transcribed B) phoned in C) electronic D) dictated Answer: C Page Ref: 1318 Objective: 53.12

30) In August of 2013, the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) ruled that medical assistants are allowed to enter orders into the electronic health record (EHR). A) licensed B) full-time C) educated D) credentialed Answer: D Page Ref: 1318 Objective: 53.12 31) A single prescription is usually written as such that it may be refilled no more than times. A) two B) four C) six D) eight Answer: C Page Ref: 1317 Objective: 53.12 32) The name of a medication, its actual ingredients, and its dosage are included in the of a prescription. A) inscription B) subscription C) signa D) superscription Answer: D Page Ref: 1317 Objective: 53.12

33) The symbol Rx from the Latin term recipe, meaning prescription form. A) take now B) take thou C) required dose D) mixed batches done Answer: B Page Ref: 1317 Objective: 53.13 34) The classification of drugs is based on their _ A) relative effectiveness B) level of potential habituation C) availability D) action in the body Answer: D Page Ref: 1301 Objective: 53.6

, is usually preprinted on the

35) Which is a form of hormone? A) Tetracycline B) Aspirin C) Estrace D) Tylenol Answer: C Page Ref: 1305 Objective: 53.6 36) Sometimes, prn is written on a prescription. It means _ A) patient registration needed B) prescription can be refilled as needed C) physician's report is necessary D) patient's registered nurse Answer: B Page Ref: 1317 Objective: 53.13

37) All of the following would be part of a prescription, EXCEPT the A) Social Security Number B) Name C) DEA number D) Address Answer: A Page Ref: 1317 Objective: 53.12

38) Drug , also known as drug sensitivity, is a lower threshold to the normal pharmacologic action of a drug. A) tolerance B) intolerance C) habituation D) dependence Answer: B Page Ref: 1306 Objective: 53.7 39) Usually, if a medication is administered in the office, the patient is asked to wait at least before leaving the office in case of any adverse reaction. A) 10 minutes B) 30 minutes C) 1 hour D) 2 hours Answer: B Page Ref: 1306 Objective: 53.7 40) The federal Controlled Substances Act (CSA) has set forth guidelines for controlled substances and divided them into sections, or schedules, according to their potentially addictive level of abuse. A) three B) five C) seven D) nine Answer: B Page Ref: 1308 Objective: 53.9 41) Nitroglycerin is commonly administered called angina. A) orally B) sublingually C) parenterally D) periodontally Answer: B Page Ref: 1313 Objective: 53.10

when it is used for treating heart pains,

42) An FDA pregnancy classification of would mean that controlled studies showed no demonstrated risk to the fetus in any trimester. A) A B) B C) D D) X Answer: A Page Ref: 1316 Objective: 53.11 43) Which of the following is NOT one of the symptoms of anaphylactic shock? A) Respiratory distress B) Edema (swelling) in the mouth and throat C) Convulsions D) Increased level of consciousness Answer: D Page Ref: 1301 Objective: 53.7 44) Geriatric and pediatric patients, in particular, are susceptible to the effects of medications and will usually require doses. A) varying B) higher C) the same D) lower Answer: D Page Ref: 1305 Objective: 53.7 45) Which is a factor that contributes to a patient's reaction to a medication? A) Age B) Weight C) Method of administration D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 1305 Objective: 53.7 46) is a decrease in the effectiveness of a drug as the body gets used to having the drug in the system. A) Dependence B) Tolerance C) Habituation D) Intolerance Answer: B Page Ref: 1306 Objective: 53.7 13

47) Which of the following relates to the right patient right of medication administration? A) The medical assistant verifies from the label that the medication is correct. B) The medical assistant checks the correct dosage as indicated in the prescription. C) The medical assistant ensures enough time has passed since the last dose of the medication the patient received. D) The medical assistant identifies the patient before administering the prescribed medication. Answer: D Page Ref: 1310 Objective: 53.10 48) The abbreviation A) alt dieb B) bid C) qod D) tid Answer: B Page Ref: 1319 Objective: 53.13

means twice a day.

49) Individuals with risk of bleeding. A) heart disease B) headaches C) cancer D) stomach ulcers Answer: D Page Ref: 1301 Objective: 53.7

should NOT take aspirin or ibuprofen because of the increased

50) The A) gray B) white C) blue D) pink Answer: D Page Ref: 1299 Objective: 53.4

section in the PDR is an alphabetical listing of generic and brand drug names.

51) Heroin is an example of a Schedule A) I B) II C) III D) IV Answer: A Page Ref: 1308 Objective: 53.9

drug.

52) Diazepam is an example of a Schedule A) I B) II C) III D) IV Answer: D Page Ref: 1308 Objective: 53.9

drug.

53) Despite their low potential for addiction and abuse, inventory records must be maintained on Schedule drugs. A) II B) III C) IV D) V Answer: D Page Ref: 1308 Objective: 53.9 54) Drug dependency is using a drug A) illegally B) improperly C) for psychological support D) to treat a chronic condition Answer: C Page Ref: 1309 Objective: 53.9

55) Drugs in this class destroy or prohibit the growth of microorganisms. A) Antibiotics B) Adrenergics C) Anesthetics D) Analgesics Answer: A Page Ref: 1302 Objective: 53.6

Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting, 4e (Beaman) Chapter 54 Administering Medications True/False Questions 1) A subcutaneous injection is given in the back of the arms, the abdomen, or thighs. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1339 Objective: 54.8 2) Hepatitis B is caused by the hepatitis B virus (HBV) and is transmitted by contaminated serum in blood transfusions or through the use of contaminated needles or instruments. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1353 Objective: 54.5 3) It is recommended that all children receive the polio vaccine by injection. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1355 Objective: 54.5 4) The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) recommends that children aged 6 months up to 19 years receive the influenza vaccine. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1351 Objective: 54.11 5) Vials are small, sealed metal canisters containing a single dose of medication. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1331 Objective: 54.1 6) There are two types of polio vaccines: inactivated polio vaccine (IPV) and live oral polio vaccine (OPV). Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1355 Objective: 54.11 7) Administration of blood products is within the scope of practice of a medical assistant. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1348 Objective: 54.10

8) The pneumococcal vaccine was NOT, until very recently, licensed for children under the age of 2. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1355 Objective: 54.11 9) The polio vaccine has been available since 1955, which has resulted in the disappearance of the disease in the United States. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1355 Objective: 54.11 10) The intradermal injection, in which a minute amount of material is injected within the top layer of skin to determine a patient's sensitivity to it, is commonly used for allergy testing. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1344 Objective: 54.9 11) Inhaled medication delivered by nebulizer treatment must be administered in a physician's office. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1328 Objective: 54.3 12) Once a child is given the measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine, he or she is protected from those diseases for life. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1355 Objective: 54.11 13) The medical assistant and the physician are liable for all medications that are administered to the patient. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1325 Objective: 54.5 14) Parenteral medications are administered inside the gastrointestinal tract, usually by injection. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1330 Objective: 54.1 15) The viscosity of the medication being given helps determines the gauge of the needle. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1331 Objective: 54.4

16) The tuberculin skin test is administered intradermally. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1344 Objective: 54.9 17) Concerns related to a needlestick injury include exposure to human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1335 Objective: 54.5 18) Employees are responsible for providing their own medical evaluation and treatment for exposure to contaminated sharps or needles while at work. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1335 Objective: 54.5 19) Medical offices must have a puncture-proof, rigid, locked container labeled with an international biohazard sticker for the disposal of sharps. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1335 Objective: 54.5 20) Chemotherapy medications are NOT administered using IV therapy. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1348 Objective: 54.10 21) An insulin injection is done subcutaneously, typically in the arm, abdomen, or thigh. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1330 Objective: 54.8 22) Any time the medical assistant has the potential to come into contact with body fluids, gloves must be worn. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1335 Objective: 54.5

Multiple Choice Questions 1) Intramuscular injections (IM) are given in one of four sites. These sites include all of the following muscles, EXCEPT the . A) deltoid B) subscapular C) vastus lateralis D) dorsogluteal Answer: B Page Ref: 1336 Objective: 54.7 2) A nebulizer dispenses medication into the A) mucous membranes B) respiratory tract C) skin D) muscles Answer: B Page Ref: 1328 Objective: 54.3

3) All of these are types of oral medication administration, EXCEPT A) liquid. B) transdermal. C) buccal. D) sublingual. Answer: B Page Ref: 1324-1325 Objective: 54.2

4) During a tuberculin skin test, the skin where the test is done should be cleansed with and allowed to dry. A) cool water B) warm water C) an alcohol wipe D) disinfectant Answer: C Page Ref: 1344 Objective: 54.9

5) The medical assistant's scope of practice includes administration of medication by all of these routes, EXCEPT . A) subcutaneously B) intramuscularly C) intravenously D) intradermally Answer: C Page Ref: 1324 Objective: 54.10 6) Medication must be checked A) two B) three C) four D) five Answer: B Page Ref: 1325 Objective: 54.3

times before administration.

7) The safest and preferred site for intramuscular injections on a toddler is the A) vastus lateralis B) deltoid C) dorsogluteal D) ventrogluteal Answer: A Page Ref: 1337 Objective: 54.5 8) The smallest gauge needles are used for A) intravenous lines B) intramuscular injections C) subcutaneous injections D) intradermal injections Answer: D Page Ref: 1331 Objective: 54.4

muscle.

9) To administer medication by subcutaneous injection, the medical assistant does all of these, EXCEPT . A) grasp the skin at the injection site B) form a small mass of tissue C) grasp the syringe like a dart D) insert the needle in one swift movement at a 90-degree angle Answer: D Page Ref: 1343 Objective: 54.8 5

10) Larger syringes are calibrated in 2-mL, 3-mL, 5-mL, 10-mL, and larger sizes, up to 60 mL. The most commonly used size is the syringe, because it is the most accurate with small doses of medication. A) 2-mL B) 3-mL C) 5-mL D) 10-mL Answer: B Page Ref: 1330 Objective: 54.4 11) The length of needle required for medication administration varies from 3/8 inch to inches. A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 Answer: C Page Ref: 1331 Objective: 54.4 12) All needles and syringes should be placed in a used. A) cover B) Safety-Lock C) red sharps container D) sheath Answer: C Page Ref: 1331 Objective: 54.5 13) To prevent needlesticks, A) safety B) unsheathed C) recapped D) disinfected used Answer: A Page Ref: 1331 Objective: 54.5

, needle down, as soon as they are

needles and syringes should be used.

14) The A) lumen B) shaft C) hub D) flange Answer: C Page Ref: 1330 Objective: 54.4

connects the needle to the syringe.

15) The vaccine guards against chickenpox. A) RV1 B) IPV C) 2vHPV D) varicella Answer: D Page Ref: 1355 Objective: 54.11 16) Intramuscular injections are always given at a A) 30 B) 45 C) 90 D) 120 Answer: C Page Ref: 1336 Objective: 54.7

-degree angle.

17) The subcutaneous injection is given just under the skin in the fat (adipose) tissue. This method is used for small doses of non-irritating medications for all of the following, EXCEPT . A) immunizations B) antibiotics C) insulin D) heparin Answer: B Page Ref: 1339 Objective: 54.8 18) The intradermal injection is given at a A) 5—10 B) 10—15 C) 15—20 D) 20—25 Answer: B Page Ref: 1337, 1344 Objective: 54.9

-degree angle to the skin surface.

19) Patients receiving allergy injections should remain in the office after their injection, per the office protocol, usually minutes, to ensure that the patient is not having any type of allergic reaction. A) 2 to 3 B) 5 to 10 C) 10 to 20 D) 20 to 30 Answer: D Page Ref: 1339 Objective: 54.5 20) Up to A) 1 B) 1.5 C) 2 D) 2.5 Answer: C Page Ref: 1337 Objective: 54.7

mL can be safely injected into a large adult's deltoid muscle.

21) Up to A) 1 B) 1.5 C) 2 D) 2.5 Answer: D Page Ref: 1338 Objective: 54.7

mL can be safely injected into a large adult's ventrogluteal muscle.

22) Up to A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 Answer: D Page Ref: 1337 Objective: 54.7

mL can be safely injected into a large adult's vastus lateralis muscle.

23) Up to A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 Answer: C Page Ref: 1338 Objective: 54.7

mL can be safely injected into a dorsogluteal muscle.

24) The recommended immunization schedule for persons aged 0 through 18 years includes the recommendation that an infant receive the "first dose" of the vaccine at birth. A) DTaP B) MMR C) HepB D) PCV13 Answer: C Page Ref: 1352 (Fig 54-16) Objective: 54.11 25) A(n) recommended childhood and adolescent immunization schedule is issued by the American Academy of Pediatrics, the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices of the CDC, and the American Academy of Family Physicians. A) monthly B) quarterly C) annual D) biannual Answer: C Page Ref: 1351 Objective: 54.11 26) In the first six months of life, it is recommended that infants be vaccinated for all of these, EXCEPT . A) rotavirus B) human papillomavirus C) diphtheria D) acellular pertussis Answer: B Page Ref: 1352 (Fig 54-16) Objective: 54.11 27) A child should receive a total of A) one B) two C) three D) four Answer: D Page Ref: 1354 Objective: 54.11

dose(s) of the hepatitis B vaccine.

28) The fifth dose of diphtheria vaccine is given to children between the ages of A) 2 and 4 B) 4 and 6 C) 6 and 8 D) 8 and 10 Answer: B Page Ref: 1351 Objective: 54.11

years.

29) The MMR vaccine to protect children from developing measles, mumps, and rubella is given in dose(s). A) one B) two C) three D) four Answer: B Page Ref: 1352 (Fig 54-16) Objective: 54.11 30) The smaller the bore, or lumen, of the hollow syringe needle, the A) lower B) smaller C) longer D) higher Answer: D Page Ref: 1330 Objective: 54.4

the gauge.

31) The vaccine is indicated only for adults. A) influenza B) shingles C) pneumoccocal D) hepatitis A Answer: B Page Ref: 1355 Objective: 54.12 32) When children receive a vaccine for tetanus, it is usually injected in combination with vaccines for and diphtheria. A) measles B) pertussis C) rubella D) mumps Answer: B Page Ref: 1352 (Fig 54-16) Objective: 54.11 10

33) The Haemophilus influenzae type b disease vaccine protects individuals from Hib disease, an infection that can cause _ . A) measles B) influenza C) meningitis D) hepatitis Answer: C Page Ref: 1352-1353 Objective: 54.1 34) The medical assistant charts the medication administration on the patient record, including all of these, EXCEPT . A) route of administration B) dosage C) needle gauge D) medical assistant's name Answer: C Page Ref: 1336 Objective: 54.6 35) Medical assistants should NOT administer medication with A) verbal orders B) patient consent C) strict procedures D) signed physician orders Answer: A Page Ref: 1325 Objective: 54.6

36) The vaccine guards against whooping cough. A) MMR B) DTaP C) Hib D) RV Answer: B Page Ref: 1351 Objective: 54.11 37) In addition to the influenza vaccination, adults receive the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPV). A) 35 B) 45 C) 55 D) 65 Answer: D Page Ref: 1355 Objective: 54.12 11

years of age and older should

38) The A) hub B) shaft C) barrel D) flange Answer: C Page Ref: 1330 Objective: 54.4

holds the liquid in the syringe.

39) The medical assistant's role in intravenous therapy includes all of these, EXCEPT A) documenting the procedure for the IV tray set up B) reassuring the patient during the procedure C) recognizing possible side effects D) documenting the IV procedure Answer: D Page Ref: 1350 Objective: 54.10

40) Which is NOT a common site for intradermal injections? A) anterior forearm B) upper chest C) upper back D) abdomen Answer: D Page Ref: 1344 Objective: 54.9 41) The purified protein derivative (PPD) test for tuberculosis is administered by A) subcutaneous injection B) inhalation C) intradermal injection D) intramuscular injection Answer: C Page Ref: 1344 Objective: 54.8

42) What should be the first step in the method for correctly withdrawing medication from a single-dose or multiple-dose vial? A) Select the syringe and needle based on the type of medication and location for the injection site. B) Compare the medication vial (bottle) against the physician's order. C) Thoroughly wash hands with soap and running water. D) Remove the needle from the vial. Answer: B Page Ref: 1332 Objective: 54.5 12

43) The MMR vaccine prevents damage, deafness, or death. A) diphtheria B) chickenpox C) measles D) scarlet fever Answer: C Page Ref: 1355 Objective: 54.11

, a disease that can result in birth defects, brain

44) Because of the high incidence of Hepatitis A, it is recommended that children be vaccinated with Hepatitis A vaccine in all of these states, EXCEPT . A) Alaska B) Arizona C) California D) Oregon Answer: C Page Ref: 1353 Objective: 54.11 45) The MMR vaccine prevents mumps, which can result in all of the following, EXCEPT . A) meningitis B) liver damage C) deafness D) encephalitis Answer: B Page Ref: 1355 Objective: 54.11 46) When administering a Z-Track injection, it is critically important to A) insert the needle and then pull the skin B) withdraw the needle after releasing the skin C) withdraw the needle before releasing the skin D) inject the medication and then pull the skin Answer: C Page Ref: 1339 Objective: 54.8

47) The availability of the Hib vaccine has caused incidents of Hib to A) dramatically increase B) dramatically decrease C) slightly increase D) slightly decrease Answer: B Page Ref: 1353 Objective: 54.11

since 1985.

48) DTaP shots are required to fully protect a child. The last booster is given to children between the ages of 4 and 6. A) Three B) Five C) Seven D) Nine Answer: B Page Ref: 1352 Objective: 54.11 49) Only infants whose mothers have negative hepatitis B surface antigens (HBsAg) may be given the first dose of hepatitis B vaccine by age instead of soon after birth. A) four weeks B) six weeks C) two months D) three months Answer: C Page Ref: 1354 Objective: 54.11 50) Human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine can be given to females as young as 9 through years of age. A) 14 B) 20 C) 26 D) 32 Answer: C Page Ref: 1354 Objective: 54.11 51) Allergy tests are administered by A) inhalation B) intradermal injection C) subcutaneous injection D) intramuscular injection Answer: B Page Ref: 1344 Objective: 54.9

52) Which of the following statements about outpatient IV therapy is FALSE? A) It prevents hospital admissions. B) It is less cost effective for patients without insurance. C) It allows patients to spend more time with family. D) It enables earlier discharge for patients. Answer: B Page Ref: 1348 Objective: 54.10 14

53) IV therapy is indicated for all of the following, EXCEPT A) rheumatoid arthritis medications B) replacing lost fluids C) administering hemoglobin D) administering medications into the respiratory tract Answer: D Page Ref: 1348 Objective: 54.10

54) Bolus, IV push, and scheduled intermittent administration are all examples of dosage. A) analgesic B) unit C) port D) sublingual Answer: B Page Ref: 1348 Objective: 54.10 55) The most common side effect of intravenous therapy is A) phlebitis B) infiltration C) inflammation of the vein D) infection at the site of the needle Answer: B Page Ref: 1350 Objective: 54.10

Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting, 4e (Beaman) Chapter 55 Patient Education True/False Questions 1) Adult learning is a passive process, and adults prefer to participate passively. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1363 Objective: 55.5 2) To be effective, learning for adults must be self-directed. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1363 Objective: 55.5 3) The adult often prefers an individual learning atmosphere. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1363 Objective: 55.5 4) For learning to be effective, it must be reinforced. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1363 Objective: 55.5 5) The adult learner learns more rapidly when he or she is made aware of progress. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1363 Objective: 55.5 6) To enhance the learning experience, it is recommended that one teaching method or technique be used for patient education. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1363 Objective: 55.5 7) Using language and communication skills that are NOT suited to the learner creates roadblocks to effective patient learning. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1365 Objective: 55.7 8) Culture influences learning and can affect readiness, values, feelings of inclusion, what aspect of learning patients choose, and how they apply it in their own homes. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1364 Objective: 55.9 1

9) To be effective, patient education should be modified to the appropriate developmental age of each child. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1366 Objective: 55.6 10) Patient education sessions begin with criticism about what the patient is doing wrong. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1364 Objective: 55.5 11) Activities and techniques that call for participation, such as role-playing, will help the patient learn faster than those that do not. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1363 Objective: 55.5 12) Use of personal space, distances maintained, facial expressions, body movements, gestures, and expressions can be misinterpreted across cultures and need to be considered when educating a patient. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1364 Objective: 55.9 13) Referring a patient directly to a community resource that can help meet the patient's needs is an example of how the medical assistant works as a patient navigator. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1372 Objective: 55.10 14) Most of the patients the medical assistant will be teaching will be children. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1363 Objective: 55.5 15) Warnings about negative health consequences are an effective method of coaching patients. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1364 Objective: 55.5 16) Compliance with the treatment plan refers to the patient's ability to follow through on all suggestions and orders from the physician. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1360 Objective: 55.1

17) Patients who are hearing impaired usually know sign language but usually do not read lips. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1366 Objective: 55.7 18) Many communities have programs for alcoholics and drug addicts and their families. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1370 Objective: 55.10 19) Before a medical assistant gives patient education information to a patient, it must be approved by a physician or other licensed health care provider. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1359 Objective: 55.5 20) Written patient instructions should contain specialized vocabulary, such as medical abbreviations. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1364 Objective: 55.5 21) To provide effective health instruction to patients, the medical assistant should equate intelligence and ability to learn with education level. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1364 Objective: 55.5 22) When a patient has difficulty with reading and writing, it is common for these patients to say they forgot their reading glasses and would like the medical assistant to read something for them. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1368 Objective: 55.7 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Giving demonstrations, showing videos to a group of patients, and providing instructional brochures are all examples of . A) adult learning requirements B) hospital-based patient education C) patient teaching methods D) patient self-teaching Answer: C Page Ref: 1363 Objective: 55.5

2) All of these are roadblocks to creating a good learning environment when coaching a patient, EXCEPT . A) judging B) moralizing C) using age-appropriate speech D) warning or threatening Answer: C Page Ref: 1364 Objective: 55.5 3) Al of these are examples of appropriate patient education for an older adult, EXCEPT . A) advising an overweight older patient who uses a walker to walk for an hour a day B) providing encouragement for understanding of a new concept C) reinforcing old ways of doing things instead of introducing new behavior D) providing written instructions so the patient can process instructions more slowly later Answer: A Page Ref: 1368-1369 Objective: 55.8 4) All these are examples of modifying patient education to the appropriate developmental stage to reach each child, EXCEPT . A) teaching concepts through coloring books B) allowing the child to touch equipment that will be used on them C) directing patient education to both the child and the caregiver D) treating them as small adults Answer: D Page Ref: 1366 Objective: 55.6 5) Patients are more likely to be compliant with the treatment plan if the coach helps them understand all of these, EXCEPT . A) why the treatment plan is necessary for health and wellness B) why financial struggles cannot impact compliance C) how to take medications properly D) what the follow-up plan is Answer: B Page Ref: 1360-1362 Objective: 55.4

6) The medical assistant provides effective health maintenance coaching by doing all of these, EXCEPT . A) discussing wellness guidelines B) role-modeling healthy behaviors C) positively reinforcing a patient who performs D) recording the patient's data and achievements using a free app Answer: D Page Ref: 1360 Objective: 55.2 7) Which of these is NOT a wellness guideline that promotes disease prevention? A) Learning to breathe deeply B) Thinking happy thoughts C) Disregarding auto safety measures D) Challenging your mind Answer: C Page Ref: 1360 Objective: 55.2 8) is an indication of noncompliance with a treatment plan. A) Taking medication as ordered B) Missing follow-up appointments C) Practicing dietary changes D) Following an exercise program Answer: B Page Ref: 1361 Objective: 55.4 9) Which is NOT an example of a community resource or service? A) Local food pantry B) Grief support group C) Local banking services D) Domestic violence shelter Answer: C Page Ref: 1370 Objective: 55.10 10) Health maintenance centers on the idea of a patient's overall A) health history B) exercise program C) desire to be healthy D) wellness Answer: D Page Ref: 1359 Objective: 55.2

11) When teaching older adults, the medical assistant should keep in mind that they do NOT have . A) increased anxiety about new situations B) increased dexterity C) decreased short-term memory D) slowed processing time Answer: B Page Ref: 1368 Objective: 55.8 12) An example of teaching activities and techniques that call for participation and will achieve more and faster learning is . A) handouts B) diagrams C) instructional videos D) demonstrating use of a glucometer Answer: D Page Ref: 1363 Objective: 55.5 13) Commending a sedentary heart patient for doing even a few minutes of exercise is an example of . A) assessment B) reinforcement C) evaluation D) compliance Answer: B Page Ref: 1363 Objective: 55.2 14) One advantage of the group teaching method is that it A) provides mutual support B) allows for individual pacing C) is based on the preferences of the learner D) adapts communication to the learner's level Answer: A Page Ref: 1363 Objective: 55.5

15) Failure to take medication as ordered is an example of A) noncompliance B) following through C) disease prevention D) treatment plan compliance Answer: A Page Ref: 1361 Objective: 55.4

16) A medical assistant who creates a community resources brochure may include all of this information, EXCEPT . A) names of resources B) locations and phone numbers of resources C) insurance plans the medical office accepts D) services offered by resources Answer: C Page Ref: 1371 Objective: 55.10 17) Risk factors are habits or characteristics that increase the probability of developing a disease. All of the following are controllable risk factors, EXCEPT . A) unhealthy body mass index (BMI) B) cigarette smoking C) lack of immunizations D) family history Answer: D Page Ref: 1360 Objective: 55.3 18) All of the following are tips for clear writing, EXCEPT using . A) boldface, italics, or underlining to emphasize important words and ideas B) polysyllabic words C) active, rather than passive, voice D) one important idea per paragraph Answer: B Page Ref: 1363 Objective: 55.5 19) Examples of patient education by a medical assistant in the patient coach role include all, EXCEPT . A) explaining to a patient that a pedometer is an easy method of recording daily exercise B) referring a newly-diagnosed obstetric patient to community resources C) preparing the examination room for a patient D) providing an injection procedure demonstration for a newly-diagnosed diabetic patient Answer: C Page Ref: 1363 Objective: 55.2

20) All of these are basic guidelines in health maintenance coaching, EXCEPT A) watch your sugar intake B) maintain a high stress level C) rinse vegetables before eating D) soothe your fears Answer: B Page Ref: 1360 Objective: 55.2

21) may take longer to process new information. A) Children B) Middle-aged men C) Older adults D) Pregnant women Answer: C Page Ref: 1368 Objective: 55.8 22) may need to see a treatment or procedure performed on a doll before tolerating it. A) Older adults B) Hearing-impaired patients C) Patients who are illiterate D) Children Answer: D Page Ref: 1366 Objective: 55.6 23) Disapproval of seeing pictures of actual body parts and excluding men from childbirth are examples of that can impact a patient's health care. A) risk factors B) noncompliance C) cultural beliefs D) assessment Answer: C Page Ref: 1370 Objective: 55.9 24) Refusing blood products and fasting are examples of health care. A) compliance B) religious beliefs C) special needs D) evaluation Answer: B Page Ref: 1370 Objective: 55.9 8

that can impact the patient's

25) is an example of adapting patient education for a hearing-impaired patient. A) Providing written instructions in very large type B) Removing a face mask when speaking C) Interacting with the caregiver instead of the patient D) Filling out a form for a patient Answer: B Page Ref: 1367 Objective: 55.7 26) Patient-centered education begins with A) documentation B) evaluation C) assessment of needs D) implementation Answer: C Page Ref: 1362 Objective: 55.1

27) is an example of adapting patient education for a patient who has developmental delays. A) Exploring past experiences using concrete examples B) Giving the patient simplified, pictorial directions C) Prodding the memory D) Reinforcing old ways of doing things Answer: B Page Ref: 1368 Objective: 55.7 28) Cultural beliefs that can impact a patient's health include all of these, EXCEPT A) patients feel they have little control over their health B) patients feel they have lots of control over balance in health C) patients are unaware of local resources and services that provide help D) family members can be an important part of the treatment team Answer: C Page Ref: 1370 Objective: 55.9

29) When reviewing a patient's risk factors, the medical assistant is acting as a patient coach in relation to . A) disease prevention B) treatment plan noncompliance C) health maintenance D) treatment plan compliance Answer: A Page Ref: 1360 Objective: 55.3 9

30) A provides support, explains things that might be difficult to understand, serves as a source of encouragement and help, and educates patients on a variety of topics. A) medical assistant B) patient navigator C) patient coach D) referral coordinator Answer: C Page Ref: 1359 Objective: 55.1 31) The patient's ability to follow through on all orders and suggestions as given by the physician requires all of these EXCEPT . A) tools to comply with the plan B) understanding of all the plan components C) the patient achieving 50 percent compliance D) understanding of why the plan is necessary for health and wellness Answer: C Page Ref: 1360 Objective: 55.4 32) A medical assistant working in the patient navigator role does all of these EXCEPT . A) displaying compassion, empathy, and confidentiality B) helping the patient streamline services to meet healthcare needs C) helping the patient improve communication in the world of medicine D) providing patient education that has been approved by the physician Answer: D Page Ref: 1372 Objective: 55.10 33) One of the vital tasks of a medical assistant is to provide programs and services that improve the quality of life of an individual by providing help, information, and assistance. These are known as . A) coaching B) a treatment plan C) wellness guidelines D) a community resources Answer: D Page Ref: 1370 Objective: 55.1

34) If the medical office does not hire a medical assistant or physician with good foreign language skills that are common to its patient demographics, they will need to pay a(n) to ensure patient understanding and compliance. A) interpreter B) patient coach C) patient navigator D) community resource program Answer: A Page Ref: 1370 Objective: 55.7 35) Preaching can be a(n) A) encouragement B) reinforcement C) component D) roadblock Answer: D Page Ref: 1364 Objective: 55.5

to effective patient learning.

36) As a guideline to effective health instruction, always assume the patient can A) learn B) hear C) understand what you are saying D) read Answer: A Page Ref: 1364 Objective: 55.5 37) Many of the medical offices that use information via e-mail. A) coaches B) medical assistants C) patient navigators D) electronic health records Answer: D Page Ref: 1365 Objective: 55.5 38) Noncompliance is defined as A) following physician's orders B) following exercise recommendations C) not following physician's orders D) following dietary recommendations Answer: C Page Ref: 1361 Objective: 55.1

send out targeted patient education

39) The patient education process follows assessment of the patient's needs with development of a(n) . A) document of the teaching administered B) evaluation of the patient's understanding C) plan for how to begin the task of teaching D) preparation of written instructions Answer: C Page Ref: 1362 Objective: 55.5 40) Noncompliance with instructions is a problem for all age groups, but least problem if they have assistance. A) adults B) teenagers C) children D) the elderly Answer: C Page Ref: 1361 Objective: 55.6

have the

41) Patients with cystic fibrosis, a serious disease causing respiratory problems and failure, were found to be more than percent compliant with their medication regimen. A) 60 B) 70 C) 80 D) 90 Answer: C Page Ref: 1361 Objective: 55.4 42) Decreased mobility and dexterity are factors in teaching A) children B) older adults C) special needs patients D) visually-impaired patients Answer: B Page Ref: 1369 Objective: 55.8

43) For older adults with decreased short-term memory, new information in the treatment plan should be linked to . A) demonstrations B) well-known past experiences C) handouts D) diagrams Answer: B Page Ref: 1369 Objective: 55.8 44) A new learning situation may create A) passivity B) compliance C) slowed processing time D) anxiety Answer: D Page Ref: 1369 Objective: 55.8

in patients, especially older adults.

45) The best way for the medical assistant to find out about a patient's culture is to A) read the medical chart B) be sensitive to cultural considerations C) ask the patient D) accept the patient for who he or she is Answer: C Page Ref: 1369 Objective: 55.9 46) Which is the best method for teaching a teenager about an upcoming surgery? A) Give him a coloring book that shows the procedure. B) Give her a sticker for asking questions. C) Let him hold the stethoscope. D) Include her in discussions and answer her questions. Answer: D Page Ref: 1366 Objective: 55.6 47) Which adaptations may NOT be required to teach a patient who is hearing-impaired? A) Use a microphone to boost the volume of your voice. B) Clear clutter from the office and hallways. C) Hire an interpreter. D) Safeguard the patient's right to privacy. Answer: B Page Ref: 1367 Objective: 55.7

48) All of the following are guidelines for effective health instruction, EXCEPT A) reemphasizing the correct information B) establishing a nonthreatening atmosphere C) teaching by performing the procedure over and over for the patient D) defining necessary medical terms for patients using simple explanations Answer: C Page Ref: 1364 Objective: 55.5 49) Providing audio-recorded instructions would best serve which type of patient? A) Hearing-impaired patient B) Older adult patient C) Visually-impaired patient D) Young child Answer: C Page Ref: 1367 Objective: 55.7 50) Which is NOT a key to patient compliance? A) Provide an alternative diet plan the patient can afford. B) Insist that a patient must do everything necessary to pay for necessary treatments. C) Arrange transportation for patients who require it. D) Encourage the patient to share information regarding financial concerns. Answer: B Page Ref: 1361 Objective: 55.4

Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting, 4e (Beaman) Chapter 56 Nutrition True/False Questions 1) Scurvy is one possible result of vitamin C deficiency. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1385 Objective: 56.6 2) A quiet, calm atmosphere at meal time can disrupt the digestive process. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1380 Objective: 56.4 3) Eating and drinking the wrong foods can negatively affect metabolism by slowing it down. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1380 Objective: 56.5 4) Nutrients must be consumed in a diet on a daily basis. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1380 Objective: 56.6 5) The main source of energy from foods is carbohydrates. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1381 Objective: 56.6 6) Carbohydrates are stored in the body as glycogen in virtually all tissues, but mainly in the stomach and fat. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1381 Objective: 56.6 7) Most carbohydrates are found mainly in plants. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1381 Objective: 56.6 8) Complex carbohydrates are considered ideal foods for a healthy diet, because they are generally low in fat, high in fiber, and a good source for vitamins and minerals. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1381 Objective: 56.6 1

9) Fats are called the building blocks of the body because they form the base of every living cell. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1381 Objective: 56.6 10) Twenty-nine amino acids, referred to as essential amino acids, can be produced by the body. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1381 Objective: 56.6 11) When mixed together, fats will dissolve in water. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1382 Objective: 56.6 12) Some fat is necessary in the diet because the fat-soluble vitamins A, D, E, and K are all carried into the bloodstream by way of fats. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1382 Objective: 56.6 13) When eaten moderately, trans fat is important for proper growth, development, and maintenance of good health. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1383 Objective: 56.6 14) Essential amino acids are only found in complete proteins, which include proteins from animal sources, such as meat, cheese, eggs, fish, and milk, as well as soy and quinoa. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1381 Objective: 56.6 15) Fructose, a combination of glucose and galactose, is found in animal milk. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1381 Objective: 56.6 16) Vitamins are sources of energy and are required for health. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1384 Objective: 56.6 17) Taking mega doses of fat-soluble vitamins like A, D, E, and K can cause vitamin toxicity. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1387 Objective: 56.7 2

18) B3 folacin is found in liver, poultry, enriched cereals, tuna, and peanuts. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1378 Objective: 56.8 19) Vitamins can be destroyed in foods through improper storage and prolonged cooking. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1384 Objective: 56.6 20) The macrominerals include calcium, magnesium, phosphorus, sodium, potassium, chlorine, and sulfur. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1384, 1387 Objective: 56.6 21) Minerals are necessary for physiological processes, such as heart contraction and hormonal action. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1387 Objective: 56.6 22) Animal sources of cholesterol provide unsaturated fat. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1388 Objective: 56.6 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following is a symptom of vitamin B1 deficiency? A) Dermatosis B) Night blindness C) Anemia D) Beriberi Answer: D Page Ref: 1385 Objective: 56.7 2) Which of the following is not a suggested component of MyPlate®? A) Avoid drinks that contain additional sugars. B) Choose lean cuts of poultry and meat. C) Switch to skim or low-fat milk. D) When eating grains, eat only whole-grain foods. Answer: D Page Ref: 1390 Objective: 56.8 3

3) A recommended portion of pasta should be about the size of a A) melon B) tennis ball C) golf ball D) die Answer: B Page Ref: 1389 Objective: 56.8

4) The diet is often recommended to both children and adults with gastrointestinal upset. A) BRAT B) full liquid C) high-protein D) clear liquid Answer: A Page Ref: 1398 Objective: 56.9 5) All the following are considered accessory organs that provide essential enzymes for digestion through their secretions EXCEPT . A) the salivary glands B) the liver C) the gallbladder D) the stomach Answer: D Page Ref: 1379 Objective: 56.4 6) The average adult stomach holds about A) 0.5 to 1 B) 1 to 1.5 C) 1.5 to 2 D) 2 to 2.5 Answer: B Page Ref: 1380 Objective: 56.4

quart(s) of food and liquid.

7) The stomach will reach a peak in the digestive process take three to five hours to empty into the small intestine. A) two B) three C) four D) five Answer: A Page Ref: 1380 Objective: 56.4

hours after a meal and may

8) All the following are specific enzymes that are required to maintain metabolism EXCEPT . A) amino acids B) carbohydrates C) vitamins D) fats Answer: D Page Ref: 1380 Objective: 56.5 9) Approximately percent of the energy created by cell metabolism is used by the body to carry on its normal functions, such as respiration, digestion, reproduction, muscular movement, circulation, and cellular regrowth. A) 13 B) 25 C) 32 D) 43 Answer: B Page Ref: 1380 Objective: 56.5 10) All the following nutrients provide energy EXCEPT A) carbohydrates B) vitamins C) fats D) proteins Answer: B Page Ref: 1380 Objective: 56.6

11) A registered dietitian . A) may or may not be a qualified health care provider B) distributes dietary information under the direction of a physician C) completes referrals with health insurance plans D) is a member of the health care team Answer: D Page Ref: 1376 Objective: 56.2 12) Fiber, a form of carbohydrate, is often referred to as A) starch B) roughage C) incomplete D) sugar Answer: B Page Ref: 1381 Objective: 56.1 13) All of the following are a type of simple sugar EXCEPT A) lactose B) fructose C) galactose D) glucose Answer: A Page Ref: 1381 Objective: 56.6 14) Carbohydrates provide A) 4 B) 7 C) 10 D) 14 Answer: A Page Ref: 1381 Objective: 56.6

calories of energy for every gram of carbohydrate.

15) All of the following are sources of complex carbohydrates (starches) EXCEPT A) vegetables B) natural sugar in fruits and vegetables C) citrus fruits D) whole grains Answer: B Page Ref: 1381 Objective: 56.8

16) Dieticians recommend that no more than should come from refined sugar. A) 10 B) 15 C) 20 D) 25 Answer: A Page Ref: 1381 Objective: 56.8

percent of the body's daily caloric intake

17) A protein is linked together, much like a chain, with 20 amino acids, be produced by the body. A) 7 B) 11 C) 13 D) 17 Answer: B Page Ref: 1381 Objective: 56.6 18) Proteins are necessary for all the following, EXCEPT A) producing energy B) promoting growth and repair of tissues C) providing the framework for bones, muscles, and blood D) aiding in digestion Answer: D Page Ref: 1382 Objective: 56.6 19) Hydrogenation turns liquid unsaturated fat into A) low-density lipids B) solid fat C) cholesterol D) saturated fat Answer: B Page Ref: 1383 Objective: 56.1 20) Monounsaturated fats include all the following, EXCEPT A) coconut oil B) canola oil C) olive oil D) peanut oil Answer: A Page Ref: 1383 Objective: 56.1 7

by adding hydrogen.

of which can

21) fat is made when manufacturers add hydrogen to vegetable oil–a process called hydrogenation. A) Animal B) Monounsaturated C) Saturated D) Trans Answer: D Page Ref: 1383 Objective: 56.1 22) The recommended daily amount of water to be ingested is A) two to four B) four to six C) six to eight D) eight to ten Answer: C Page Ref: 1384 Objective: 56.6

8-ounce glasses.

23) Water intake is kept in balance with fluid output through all the following EXCEPT . A) the skin B) the lungs C) feces D) the stomach Answer: D Page Ref: 1384 Objective: 56.4 24) are considered nutritionists, but A) Most medical assistants; not all medical assistants B) All registered dietitians; not all nutritionists C) All medical assistants; not all nutritionists D) All registered assistants; not all nutritionists Answer: B Page Ref: 1376 Objective: 56.2 25) Vitamin A) A B) B C) C D) D Answer: A Page Ref: 1384 Objective: 56.6

are registered dietitians.

, which is formed from carotene, can be formed in the body.

26) Night blindness is a symptom of A) vitamin B1 B) niacin C) folacin D) vitamin A Answer: D Page Ref: 1385 Objective: 56.6

deficiency.

27) All the following are a type of trace mineral EXCEPT A) iodine B) iron C) zinc D) sulfur Answer: D Page Ref: 1387 Objective: 56.6 28) LDLs are bad because they carry most of the cholesterol ( bloodstream. A) 30 to 40 B) 40 to 50 C) 50 to 60 D) 60 to 70 Answer: D Page Ref: 1388 Objective: 56.8

percent) into the

29) The definition of a _ is the amount of heat (energy) required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of water by 1 degree Celsius (C). A) lipid B) protein C) fat D) calorie Answer: D Page Ref: 1390 Objective: 56.1 30) Which of the following foods (when eaten) would generate the most energy (i.e., calories)? A) Proteins B) Carbohydrates C) Fats D) Sugars Answer: C Page Ref: 1381-1382 Objective: 56.4 9

31) Under normal disease-free conditions, the average person should observe the following dietary guidelines EXCEPT . A) eat a balanced diet that is rich in a variety of foods B) be mindful of portion sizes C) try adding salt to food D) fill half your plate with fruits and vegetables Answer: C Page Ref: 1388, 1390 Objective: 56.8 32) A contains no seasonings or fibers that are irritating. This diet is prescribed for patients who have gastrointestinal problems and allergies. A) clear liquid diet B) full liquid diet C) mechanical soft diet D) bland diet Answer: D Page Ref: 1397 Objective: 56.9 33) A BRAT diet would include all the following foods EXCEPT A) bananas B) raisins C) applesauce D) toast Answer: B Page Ref: 1398 Objective: 56.9 34) A highA) fat B) fruit C) protein D) vegetable Answer: C Page Ref: 1395 Objective: 56.9

diet is recommended for patients who are overweight.

35) are inorganic elements that are of neither animal nor plant origin. They are found throughout the body but mainly in bones and teeth and compose 5 percent of the body. A) Vitamins B) Minerals C) Proteins D) Fats Answer: B Page Ref: 1384 Objective: 56.1 10

36) Patients who have celiac disease will eventually develop a deficiency in A) macrominerals B) fat-soluble vitamins C) cholesterol D) trans fats Answer: B Page Ref: 1384 Objective: 56.7

37) It is more common for a medical assistant employed by a registered dietitian to A) counsel patients on billing through health insurance plans B) complete a four-year bachelor's degree program in medical nutrition C) assist in researching and creating patient nutrition education programs D) provide patients with information about and create diet plans to help treat disease Answer: C Page Ref: 1379 Objective: 56.3 38) The medical assistant acts as the patient's disease prevention. A) liaison B) power of attorney (POA) C) coach D) guardian ad litem Answer: C Page Ref: 1379 Objective: 56.3

in regard to health maintenance and

39) For a patient with borderline hypertension, a medical assistant may A) write an order for medical nutrition therapy B) create a plan for medical nutrition therapy C) provide information about a reduced sodium diet D) monitor the success of medical nutrition therapy Answer: C Page Ref: 1379 Objective: 56.3 40) Trans fat is frequently found in all the following, EXCEPT A) real butter B) vegetable shortenings C) snack foods D) foods made with or fried in partially hydrogenated oils Answer: A Page Ref: 1383 Objective: 56.8 11

41) It is important for all patients to be able to A) increase their intake of all types of fat B) adapt a healthy diet into their cultural system C) avoid certain fruits and vegetables D) incorporate processed meats Answer: B Page Ref: 1388 Objective: 56.8

42) Which of the following is NOT one of the sources of simple carbohydrates (simple sugars)? A) Honey B) Refined table sugar C) Citrus fruit D) Natural sugar in fruits and vegetables Answer: C Page Ref: 1381 Objective: 56.8 43) All the following are a type of complex sugar, EXCEPT A) sucrose B) lactose C) fructose D) maltose Answer: C Page Ref: 1381 Objective: 56.6 44) It takes A) 20 B) 30 C) 40 D) 50 Answer: A Page Ref: 1380 Objective: 56.4

minutes for the brain to register that food has entered the system.

45) All the following nutrients are essential to the metabolic process EXCEPT A) water B) electrolytes C) proteins D) minerals Answer: C Page Ref: 1381 Objective: 56.5

46) Eating slowly, in a quiet, calm manner prevents patients from A) developing diabetes B) storing fat in the body C) ingesting too many nutrients D) consuming excess food and calories Answer: D Page Ref: 1380 Objective: 56.4 47) The nutrition process includes all the following EXCEPT A) ingestion. B) absorption. C) excretion. D) metabolism. Answer: C Page Ref: 1379 Objective: 56.4

48) MyPlate® suggestions include which of the following? A) Three fourths of your plate should be filled with fruits and vegetables. B) One fourth of your plate should be filled with whole grains. C) Drink 100 percent all-natural fruit juice. D) Drink only water or fruit juice. Answer: C Page Ref: 1390 Objective: 56.8 49) Which method is recommended to help measure percentage body fat in order to help maintain optimal health through ideal weight and diet? A) Skinfold test B) Body memory index C) Special scales D) Water weight Answer: A Page Ref: 1391 Objective: 56.8 50) A -calorie diet using a balance of the five food groups and low-fat foods will result in weight loss. A) 1,500 B) 1,200 C) 2,000 D) 1,800 Answer: B Page Ref: 1395 Objective: 56.9 13

51) The key to a healthy lifestyle is eating a A) balanced B) fat-free C) high-fiber D) low-sodium Answer: A Page Ref: 1388 Objective: 56.8

diet.

52) Calcium is used for all of the following EXCEPT A) bone and tooth formation B) energy release from carbohydrates and fats C) blood coagulation D) myocardial conduction Answer: B Page Ref: 1386 Objective: 56.6 53) Maintaining a healthy diet and lifestyle includes A) drinking more fruit juice instead of sodas B) eating more dairy and trans fats C) choosing dried beans, peas, and lentils D) avoiding fresh fruit canned in natural juices Answer: C Page Ref: 1388, 1390 Objective: 56.8 54) All the following provide a source of vitamin D EXCEPT A) sunlight B) liver C) fortified milk D) dried legumes Answer: D Page Ref: 1385 Objective: 56.7

Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting, 4e (Beaman) Chapter 57 Mental Health True/False Questions 1) Psychotherapy relates to the study of the effects of drugs on the mind and brain and, in particular, on the use of drugs in treating mental disorders. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1410 Objective: 57.1, 57.3 2) The first period of child development is infancy. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1412 Objective: 57.4 3) Adulthood is divided into early, middle, and late. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1413 Objective: 57.4 4) Adolescence occurs between childhood and adulthood. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1413 Objective: 57.4 5) A living will is a legal document given by a physician telling her not to resuscitate a patient who has gone into pulmonary or cardiac arrest. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1418 Objective: 57.1 6) The medical assistant can be most helpful by being as sensitive as possible to the state of emotion of all those who are dealing with the terminally ill patient's death. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1417 Objective: 57.7 7) The grieving patient may become withdrawn during the depression stage of grief. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1417 Objective: 57.8 8) Stress is the body's reaction to the world around it. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1414 Objective: 57.1, 57.6 1

9) Erikson believed that during late adolescence children form their identities and select their roles. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1413 Objective: 57.4 10) During middle childhood, children want more independence from their parents, and they start to form companionships with their friends. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1413 Objective: 57.4 11) A terminal illness is one that is NOT expected to end in death. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1416 Objective: 57.1 12) When there is no hope of recovery and death is expected within a year, the medical assistant may be instructed by family members to refer the patient to the services of Hospice. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1416 Objective: 57.7 13) The second period of child development is the prenatal period. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1412 Objective: 57.4 14) Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a procedure occasionally used for cases of prolonged major depression. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1411 Objective: 57.3 15) According to Kübler-Ross, all those involved with the dying process may go through the five stages. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1416 Objective: 57.8 16) Older adults usually have greater fear of death than younger people. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1416 Objective: 57.7

17) Some cultures consider death a normal end to the life process, and it is therefore accepted with peace. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1416 Objective: 57.7 18) Alcohol is the most abused drug in the United States. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1410 Objective: 57.2 19) Sexual performance (lack of orgasm, premature ejaculation, or lack of sexual desire) or unhappiness with assigned gender is categorized as a dissociative disorder. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1405 Objective: 57.2 20) Social phobia is the fear of being embarrassed or humiliated in front of others or in a public place or fear of being the center of attention. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1406 Objective: 57.2 21) Difficulty falling or staying asleep may be symptoms of stress. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1415 Objective: 57.6 22) Post-traumatic stress disorder may cause patients to have flashbacks. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1415 Objective: 57.6 Multiple Choice Questions 1) A is defined as any behavior or emotional state that causes an individual great suffering or worry, is self-defeating or self-destructive, or disrupts the person's day-to-day relationships. A) physical disorder B) normal behavior C) mental disorder D) mental behavior Answer: C Page Ref: 1405 Objective: 57.2

2) Antipsychotic drugs are the major tranquilizers, which include all of the following EXCEPT . A) chlorpromazine B) diazepam C) haloperidol D) clozapine Answer: B Page Ref: 1411 Objective: 57.3 3) There are predisposing factors that create a tendency toward or susceptibility to becoming stressed. These include all of the following EXCEPT . A) attitudes and feelings B) health habits C) economic and social resources D) gender Answer: D Page Ref: 1414 Objective: 57.6 4) A person under stress may be any of the following EXCEPT A) energized B) motivated C) exhausted D) relaxed Answer: D Page Ref: 1414 Objective: 57.6

5) Shame and doubt may occur during which stage of Erikson's life cycle? A) Toddlerhood B) Early childhood C) Middle childhood D) Early adolescence. Answer: B Page Ref: 1412 Objective: 57.4

6) During if basic needs are not met, the child will develop a view of the world that caregivers cannot be trusted, which can affect later life decisions. A) infancy B) early childhood C) middle childhood D) adolescence Answer: A Page Ref: 1412 Objective: 57.4 7) Which of the following is NOT a recommendation for coping with stress? A) Eat nutritious meals. B) Participate in physical exercise, such as walking and biking. C) Try to see the humor in situations. D) Participate in as many activities as possible. Answer: D Page Ref: 1415 Objective: 57.6 8) is the fear of death. A) Agoraphobia B) Thanatophobia C) Xenophobia D) Claustrophobia Answer: B Page Ref: 1406 Objective: 57.2 9) Professionalism mandates that the medical assistant and other staff members patient's right to embrace his or her own religious beliefs. A) recognize B) support C) both A and B D) neither A nor B Answer: C Page Ref: 1416 Objective: 57.7 10) According to Erikson, late adulthood occurs from age A) 40 B) 50 C) 60 D) 70 Answer: C Page Ref: 1413 Objective: 57.4 5

until death.

the

11) Kübler-Ross's five stages of grief include all the following EXCEPT A) denial B) fear C) anger D) bargaining Answer: B Page Ref: 1417 Objective: 57.8

12) During which of Dr. Kübler-Ross's five stages of grief is the patient most likely to indicate a need to talk? A) Bargaining B) Denial C) Acceptance D) Depression Answer: A Page Ref: 1417 Objective: 57.8 13) Phobias, panic attacks, and compulsive rituals are all examples of which category of mental disorder? A) Anxiety B) Cognitive C) Dissociative D) Impulse control Answer: A Page Ref: 1405 Objective: 57.2 14) Inability to resist an impulse to perform some act that is harmful to oneself or others, such as pathological gambling, stealing (kleptomania), setting fires (pyromania), or having violent rages, is an example of which category of mental disorder? A) Personality disorder B) Mood disorder C) Impulse control disorder D) Schizophrenia Answer: C Page Ref: 1405 Objective: 57.2

15) Which of the following is the last stage of Dr. Kübler-Ross's five stages of grief? A) Anger B) Acceptance C) Bargaining D) Depression Answer: B Page Ref: 1417 Objective: 57.8 16) Delirium and dementia are considered A) anxiety disorders B) factitious disorders C) cognitive disorders D) mood disorders Answer: C Page Ref: 1405 Objective: 57.2

17) In Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which level includes self-esteem and having a sense of selfworth and pride? A) Level I B) Level II C) Level III D) Level IV Answer: D Page Ref: 1414 Objective: 57.5 18) is a disorder in which the person is preoccupied with fears of contracting, or with the idea that he has, a serious disease, based on a misinterpretation of one or more bodily signs or symptoms. A) Anxiety B) Hypochondriasis C) Compulsion D) Hysteria Answer: B Page Ref: 1407 Objective: 57.2 19) is a fixed false belief. A) Depression B) A delusion C) A hallucination D) A manic-depressive state Answer: B Page Ref: 1408 Objective: 57.1 7

20) personality disorder is characterized by patient self-centeredness. A) Antisocial B) Narcissistic C) Paranoid D) Histrionic Answer: B Page Ref: 1408 Objective: 57.1, 57.2 21) is a noninvasive procedure that causes depolarization or hyperpolarization in the neurons of the brain. A) Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) B) Psychopharmacology C) Transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) D) Electromagnetic transmutation (EMT) Answer: C Page Ref: 1411-1412 Objective: 57.1, 57.3 22) All of the following are main classes of drugs for the treatment of mental disorders EXCEPT . A) antidepressant drugs B) antipsychotic drugs C) lithium D) opiates Answer: D Page Ref: 1411 Objective: 57.3 23) Antidepressant drugs include all of the following EXCEPT A) Ativan B) Zoloft C) Paxil D) Effexor Answer: A Page Ref: 1411 Objective: 57.3

24) One of the side effects of antipsychotic drugs is involuntary muscle movements, which approximately of all adults who take the drugs develop. A) one-eighth B) one-fourth C) half D) three-fourths Answer: B Page Ref: 1411 Objective: 57.3 25) Tricyclic antidepressants are nonaddictive, but they can produce unpleasant side effects, such as all of the following EXCEPT . A) weight loss B) dry mouth C) blurred vision D) nausea Answer: A Page Ref: 1411 Objective: 57.3 26) In Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which level includes social needs such as having a sense of belonging to a group and the need for social interaction? A) Level I B) Level II C) Level III D) Level IV Answer: C Page Ref: 1414 Objective: 57.5 27) A(n) A) trauma B) catastrophe C) emergency D) stressor Answer: D Page Ref: 1414 Objective: 57.1

is a real or imaginary event that causes stress.

28) are the documents used in advance care planning; they fall into two categories: instructions for future medical care and designation of a health care proxy. A) Living wills B) Advance directives C) Advance care planning D) Durable powers of attorney Answer: B Page Ref: 1418 Objective: 57.7 29) A medical assistant who is assisting a terminally ill patient should do all the following EXCEPT . A) position herself so that she is at eye level with the patient B) place a box of tissues within reach of the patient or family members C) reassure the patient and family that everything will be okay D) ask if the patient has immediate questions or concerns Answer: C Page Ref: 1418 Objective: 57.7 30) "Good stress" is known as A) distress B) eustress C) prostress D) megastress Answer: B Page Ref: 1414 Objective: 57.1

31) The second period of child development is A) prenatal B) infancy C) childhood D) adolescence Answer: B Page Ref: 1412 Objective: 57.4

32) is a special category of drug. It is used successfully to calm patients who suffer from bipolar disorder (depression alternating with manic excitement). A) An alkaline B) Nickel metal hydride C) Lithium D) Iodine Answer: C Page Ref: 1411 Objective: 57.3 10

33) In therapy the therapist places minimal emphasis on the patient's past history and places a strong emphasis on having the patient state his or her goals and then find a way to achieve them. A) humanistic B) family and group C) cognitive behavioral D) psychoanalytic Answer: B Page Ref: 1410 Objective: 57.3 34) Excessive energy, flights of ideas and enthusiasms, weight loss, and lack of cognitive focus are all common symptoms of . A) adrenal disorder B) psychoses C) neuroses D) mania Answer: D Page Ref: 1408 Objective: 57.2 35) is a psychotic disorder marked by a variety of symptoms, which can include delusions, hallucinations, disorganized and incoherent speech, severe emotional abnormalities, and a withdrawal into an inner world. A) Bipolar disorder B) Personality disorder C) Schizophrenia D) Hallucination Answer: C Page Ref: 1408 Objective: 57.2 36) In Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which level includes physical safety and security relating to employment? A) Level I B) Level II C) Level III D) Level IV Answer: B Page Ref: 1414 Objective: 57.5

37) is the science of behavior and the human thought process. A) Psychology B) Physiology C) Sociology D) Anatomy Answer: A Page Ref: 1404 Objective: 57.1 38) In general, are the class of drugs preferred for treating anxiety disorders. A) antidepressants B) antipsychotics C) "minor" tranquilizers D) depressants Answer: A Page Ref: 1411 Objective: 57.3 39) Maslow said that he believed a person could NOT move to a higher level until the basic at a lower level were met. A) desires B) wants C) needs D) requests Answer: C Page Ref: 1414 Objective: 57.5 40) disorders are severe mental disorders that interfere with individuals' perceptions of reality and their ability to cope with the demands of daily living. A) Physical B) Psychotic C) Emotional D) Logical Answer: B Page Ref: 1408 Objective: 57.1

41) The guide for terminology and classifications relating to psychiatric disorders is the and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition, Text Revision (DSM-5TR), which is published by the American Psychiatric Association. A) Distinguished B) Drug C) Diagnostic D) Index Answer: C Page Ref: 1405 Objective: 57.1 42) An individual with a(n) disorder will fabricate physical and/or psychologic symptoms that he or she knows are not real. A) mood B) impulse control C) olfactory D) factitious Answer: D Page Ref: 1405 Objective: 57.2 43) Substance-related disorders include excessive use of or withdrawal from A) cocaine B) nicotine C) caffeine D) all of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 1405 Objective: 57.2 44) is a false sensory perception. A) Bipolar disorder B) Schizophrenia C) Hallucination D) Manic depression Answer: C Page Ref: 1408 Objective: 57.1

45) Amnesia (resulting from brain damage or the effects of toxic substances or drugs) and degenerative disorders such as Alzheimer's are examples of which category of mental disorder? A) Anxiety B) Cognitive C) Dissociative D) Impulse control Answer: B Page Ref: 1405 Objective: 57.2 46) In Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which level includes physiological needs such as food, water, and shelter? A) Level I B) Level II C) Level III D) Level IV Answer: A Page Ref: 1414 Objective: 57.5 47) Many patients with a major illness go through a period of A) elation B) depression C) rehabilitation D) hypochondria Answer: B Page Ref: 1414 Objective: 57.6 48) is a fear of germs. A) Agoraphobia B) Microphobia C) Xenophobia D) Acrophobia Answer: B Page Ref: 1406 Objective: 57.2 49) are repetitive acts performed to relieve anxiety. A) Compensations B) Compulsions C) Obsessions D) Introjections Answer: B Page Ref: 1406 Objective: 57.1 14

50) When caring for a terminally ill patient the medical assistant must not appear must be calm, relaxed, and empathetic. A) attentive B) methodical C) rushed D) focused Answer: C Page Ref: 1418 Objective: 57.7

and

51) Erikson's period of "giving back to others" occurs in which stage of the life cycle? A) Late adolescence B) Early adulthood C) Middle adulthood D) Late adulthood Answer: C Page Ref: 1413 Objective: 57.4 52) A drug that is both habituating and addicting and has a solid link to cancer is A) marijuana B) cocaine C) alcohol D) nicotine Answer: D Page Ref: 1410 Objective: 57.2

Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting, 4e (Beaman) Chapter 58 Professionalism True/False Questions 1) The workplace is the testing arena for professional soft skills. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1423 Objective: 58.2 2) Reflective skills are behaviors that come from feelings and emotions and are truly important in the medical office. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1423 Objective: 58.2 3) The physician-employer expects the employee to be competent in performing procedures. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1423 Objective: 58.2 4) Patients will form an impression of the medical practice based on how the medical assistant communicates with them. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1424 Objective: 58.3 5) It is important for the medical assistant to clarify the expectations in the office early in the work relationship. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1424 Objective: 58.2 6) Truthfulness is very important in the medical office. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1424 Objective: 58.2 7) A health care professional should enter every conversation in order to ensure her point of view is accepted by everyone else as correct. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1425 Objective: 58.3

8) Taking the time to explain something well once will save time in re-explanations later. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1425 Objective: 58.3 9) A medical assistant must possess diplomacy, which is calm, serious, and controlled behavior that makes people respect you. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1424 Objective: 58.1, 58.2 10) Professional communication is the same as social communication. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1425 Objective: 58.3 11) Communication that is clear and complete is essential for patient understanding and to avoid confusion or incorrect assumptions on the part of the patient. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1425 Objective: 58.3 12) Encounter notes should be as short as possible. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1425 Objective: 58.3 13) Critical thinking is mainly only involved in routine decision making. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1425 Objective: 58.4 14) Teamwork is critical, even in a small medical office. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1426 Objective: 58.5 15) It is in everyone's best interest that biases, stereotypes, and prejudices be put aside. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1427 Objective: 58.5 16) Guided imagery enables a person to imagine being in some relaxing place. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1428 Objective: 58.1 2

Multiple Choice Questions 1) Soft skills are . A) based on knowledge B) based on coordinating the mind and body C) tested in school D) people skills that display the professionalism of the employee Answer: D Page Ref: 1423 Objective: 58.2 2) A medical assistant who lacks the capacity to learn soft skills will A) learn them through training B) need to return to school C) likely be terminated D) get along without them Answer: C Page Ref: 1423 Objective: 58.2

3) skills are behaviors that come from feelings and emotions. A) Reflexive B) Affective C) Cognitive D) Emotive Answer: B Page Ref: 1423 Objective: 58.1 4) Which of the following is NOT among the expectations of a physician who hires a medical assistant? A) The medical assistant will be competent in performing procedures. B) The medical assistant will understand anatomy and physiology. C) The medical assistant will arrive at work on time. D) The medical assistant will help diagnose patients. Answer: D Page Ref: 1423, 1426 Objective: 58.2 5) A frequent reason why patients sue medical offices is . A) poor treatment by office personnel B) medical errors made by nurses C) physicians make them wait too long for appointments D) medical assistants are unable to think critically and solve problems Answer: A Page Ref: 1423 Objective: 58.2 3

6) Professional qualities of a medical assistant include all the following EXCEPT A) tact B) diplomacy C) integrity D) arrogance Answer: D Page Ref: 1423-1424 Objective: 58.2

7) means variety. A) equality B) race C) diversity D) culture Answer: C Page Ref: 1426 Objective: 58.1 8) A team that has failed to work together successfully should do all of the following EXCEPT . A) self-evaluate B) construct ways to function more effectively C) assign one person to be the leader all the time D) assume group responsibility Answer: C Page Ref: 1424, 1426 Objective: 58.5 9) Medical assistants who work in a small office . A) do not require soft skills B) can create their own procedures without input from anyone C) must clarify the expectations in the office D) have numerous colleagues and managers Answer: C Page Ref: 1424 Objective: 58.2 10) Which of the following is a characteristic of active listening? A) Making assumptions about what the speaker is saying B) Thinking of other things while someone else is speaking C) Focusing on the speaker D) Completing another person's sentences Answer: C Page Ref: 1425 Objective: 58.3 4

11) According to Stephen Covey, when should we seek to understand? A) After we have been understood B) Only if we do not know something C) Before seeking to be understood D) When we are asked Answer: C Page Ref: 1425 Objective: 58.3 12) uses pleasant smells such as lavender that have been shown to decrease stress. A) Guided imagery B) Aromatherapy C) Hypnosis D) Relaxing Answer: B Page Ref: 1428 Objective: 58.1 13) A medical assistant who is polite in her attitude and behavior toward others is displaying . A) respect B) dignity C) courtesy D) integrity Answer: C Page Ref: 1424 Objective: 58.2 14) When does a medical assistant represent the office? A) Only when put in charge by a physician B) Twenty-four hours a day C) With every communication D) Only when he or she serves as the office manager Answer: C Page Ref: 1424 Objective: 58.3 15) is sensitivity in dealing with others or with difficult issues. A) Tact B) Diplomacy C) Integrity D) Dignity Answer: A Page Ref: 1423 Objective: 58.1

16) When it comes to professional written communications, which of the following is TRUE? A) Being short and succinct is always best. B) Try to put things in language patients will understand, including street language. C) E-mail has made proper punctuation and grammar obsolete. D) Accuracy is more important than brevity. Answer: D Page Ref: 1425 Objective: 58.3 17) The wise medical assistant will . A) speak the same way to everyone regardless of age or background B) use verbal shorthand as often as possible C) address physicians and peers with respect D) only speak when spoken to first Answer: C Page Ref: 1425 Objective: 58.3 18) If lab results do not seem consistent with the patient's presentation, the medical assistant should do all of the following, EXCEPT . A) diagnose the patient based on research and evidence B) bring the abnormal results to the physician C) gather numerous facts and add them to how the patient presents D) take all information into consideration before forming a conclusion Answer: A Page Ref: 1426 Objective: 58.4 19) Many decisions a medical assistant makes on a daily basis will involve A) routine B) letting the patient decide C) critical thinking D) asking the physician's advice Answer: C Page Ref: 1425 Objective: 58.4 20) Critical thinking involves differentiating fact from A) fiction B) hyperbole C) values D) opinion Answer: D Page Ref: 1426 Objective: 58.4

21) Discerning whether a patient's description of the chief complaint and the medical assistant's own observations support the beliefs of the patient about what is wrong is an example of . A) identifying confusion in a patient's perceptions B) differentiating fact from opinion C) convincing a patient to accept the assistant's judgment D) determining that the patient is lying Answer: B Page Ref: 1426 Objective: 58.4 22) A medical assistant who knows that a peer is overwhelmed at work should A) pitch in to help B) focus on his or her own tasks C) expect the peer to pull his or her own weight D) report the problem to the physician Answer: A Page Ref: 1426 Objective: 58.5

23) Which law or agency helps protect the confidentiality of personally identifiable health information? A) Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) B) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) C) Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) D) Food and Drug Administration (FDA) Answer: B Page Ref: 1424 Objective: 58.3 24) Setting a priority level for a patient visit should be based on A) how long the person has been a patient of the medical office B) whether or not the patient has health insurance C) how much the doctor likes the patient D) the chief complaint Answer: D Page Ref: 1426 Objective: 58.4

25) Which of the following is an example of using critical thinking to solve a problem? A) Doing something because it is a routine B) Assuming something about a patient without supporting facts C) Jumping to conclusions based on what seems true D) Considering everything that may be affecting a patient Answer: D Page Ref: 1426 Objective: 58.4 7

26) Employees who smoke must . A) not smoke anywhere near the medical office B) not work around patients while smelling of smoke C) take a smoking cessation course D) all of the above Answer: B Page Ref: 1430 Objective: 58.7 27) Medical assistants who believe in stereotypes about other cultures A) respect diversity B) harm their chances of being successful team members C) are following office policy D) are easy to work with Answer: B Page Ref: 1427 Objective: 58.5

28) What is the first step in conflict resolution? A) Alerting the supervisor B) Trying to understand the situation C) Escalating the conflict D) Apologizing immediately Answer: B Page Ref: 1427 Objective: 58.5 29) When two medical assistants have a conflict they cannot resolve together, what is the best course of action? A) Involving another medical assistant to help solve the problem B) Leaving the issue unresolved and simply avoiding one another C) Asking to be scheduled on different shifts D) Asking a manager to help them come up with a solution Answer: D Page Ref: 1427 Objective: 58.5 30) What is the best response to criticism? A) "I will do my best to apply that suggestion." B) "What's wrong with the way I do it now?" C) "I would never do that." D) "What do you mean by that?" Answer: A Page Ref: 1427 Objective: 58.5 8

31) Which form of stress management uses biological information about a person? A) Aromatherapy B) Guided imagery C) Biofeedback D) Water therapy Answer: C Page Ref: 1428 Objective: 58.6 32) A hobby is an example of which form of stress management? A) Distraction B) Guided imagery C) Biofeedback D) Water therapy Answer: A Page Ref: 1428 Objective: 58.6 33) The ability to laugh easily at oneself goes a long way in reducing A) pain B) stress C) insecurity D) fatigue Answer: B Page Ref: 1428 Objective: 58.6

34) Which is the most efficient way for a medical assistant to spend his or her time? A) Sticking to the original plan no matter what B) Multitasking to get several tasks finished at once C) Focusing on one task at a time D) Waiting to be told what to do Answer: C Page Ref: 1428 Objective: 58.6 35) A tickler file system is used for tasks _. A) that will be enjoyable, such as planning a holiday party B) that have been completed C) the medical assistant requires help from others to complete D) a medical assistant needs to remember to complete Answer: D Page Ref: 1428 Objective: 58.6

36) When should a medical assistant accept personal calls in the medical office? A) When the office is slow B) No more than once a day C) Only in an emergency D) Whenever a manager is not present Answer: C Page Ref: 1428 Objective: 58.6 37) When is the best time to perform inventory in a medical office? A) When the office is busy B) At the end of the day C) Only after hours D) When the physician is absent Answer: D Page Ref: 1428 Objective: 58.6 38) All of the following can reduce or distract the brain from pain, EXCEPT A) heat B) cold C) applying pressure D) deep breathing Answer: D Page Ref: 1428-1429 Objective: 58.6

39) Which are responsibilities of a medical assistant? A) Opening the mail B) Typing a convention speech C) Dealing with pharmaceutical reps D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 1429 Objective: 58.6 40) In an effective time management system, ordering supplies that are running out would be assigned a number . A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: A Page Ref: 1429 Objective: 58.6

41) When using a time management system, when should priorities be set? A) Once goals have been established B) After all goals have been met C) Before goals have been established D) When requested by the physician Answer: A Page Ref: 1429 Objective: 58.6 42) is the quality of being able to stay on task longer than the usual time when necessary, even after others might have given up. A) Tactfulness B) Persistence C) Diplomacy D) Trepidation Answer: B Page Ref: 1429 Objective: 58.1 43) How should a medical assistant dress for work? A) In the same style as her coworkers B) In his own style to stand out C) In the same way she did in college D) In clean, pressed, professional clothing Answer: D Page Ref: 1430 Objective: 58.7 44) While on the job, medical assistants who have multiple facial piercings should A) remove all jewelry B) conceal them while working C) assume the office should allow them to wear whatever jewelry they choose D) check what the office policy states in regard to piercings and jewelry Answer: D Page Ref: 1430 Objective: 58.7 45) Which of the following is NOT an example of lifelong learning? A) Returning to school to take additional classes B) Referring to medical websites such as Wikipedia C) Receiving specialized training while on the job D) Reading professional journals during non-work hours Answer: B Page Ref: 1431 Objective: 58.8

46) Lifelong learning in medicine is . A) a daily event B) nice if you have the time C) unnecessary for medical assistants D) only required when continuing education credits are needed Answer: A Page Ref: 1431 Objective: 58.8 47) Lifelong learning is the responsibility of A) a person's manager B) a person's parents C) the individual D) the local college Answer: C Page Ref: 1431 Objective: 58.8

48) Which of the following is an example of applying persistence in problem solving? A) Accepting that an insurance company cannot resolve a claim B) Becoming frustrated when being placed on hold for too long C) Explaining to a patient that you simply cannot help them D) Performing research until the solution to a problem is found Answer: D Page Ref: 1429 Objective: 58.6 49) Weighing an infant during a well check-up is an example of what type of skill? A) Soft B) Cognitive C) Psychomotor D) Affective Answer: C Page Ref: 1423 Objective: 58.1, 58.2 50) Which of the following is NOT appropriate dress for a medical office? A) Hair pulled back in a barrette B) Navy blue stockings C) Dangling necklace D) Closed-toed shoes Answer: C Page Ref: 1430 Objective: 58.7

Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting, 4e (Beaman) Chapter 59 Externship and Career Opportunities True/False Questions 1) An externship site may require a medical assistant to carry malpractice insurance. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1436 Objective: 59.2 2) Often schools have affiliation agreements with externship sites that are kept on file at the schools. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1437 Objective: 59.2 3) An individual who is searching for a job must be organized. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1440 Objective: 59.3 4) Salary information should be included on a résumé. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1443 Objective: 59.4 5) A cover letter is usually most effective when it is long and descriptive. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1444 Objective: 59.4 6) Names and addresses of references should be included on a résumé. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1444 Objective: 59.4 7) The reasons for leaving previous positions should be included on a résumé. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1443 Objective: 59.4 8) On a separate piece of paper, the applicant should prepare a list of at least three references that includes the address and telephone number of each reference. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1444 Objective: 59.4 1

9) The name(s) of the applicant's spouse and/or children should be included on a résumé. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1443 Objective: 59.4 10) The applicant should obtain permission before using a person's name as a reference. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1444 Objective: 59.4 11) Marital status should be included on a résumé. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1443 Objective: 59.4 12) Parents and spouses do NOT generally serve as references. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1444 Objective: 59.4 13) It is acceptable for the applicant to add handwritten comments or additional information to his or her printed cover letter. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1444 Objective: 59.4 14) The applicant's photograph and general health condition should be included on a résumé. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1443 Objective: 59.4 15) If the medical assistant is a few minutes late starting the day during his or her externship, it will most likely be overlooked. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1436 Objective: 59.2 16) Keeping a journal throughout an externship is useful for self-evaluation. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1441 Objective: 59.2 17) Internet websites should NOT be used for a job search. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1438 Objective: 59.3 2

18) It is a good idea for the applicant to practice interview skills with his or her instructors or in front of a mirror. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1440 Objective: 59.5 19) During a job search the applicant needs access to a dictionary, a thesaurus, a calendar, and a telephone. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1440 Objective: 59.3 20) The applicant should NOT include a cell phone number in the heading of a résumé. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1443 Objective: 59.4 21) The student may ask the externship site supervisor to write a letter of recommendation to assist with the job search. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 1438 Objective: 59.3 22) It is NOT appropriate for the applicant to include information about fluency in foreign languages on a résumé. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 1443 Objective: 59.4 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Employers prefer employees who are A) problem solvers B) team players C) dependable D) all of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 1450 Objective: 59.6

2) Which of the following is NOT one of the six most common job search mistakes? A) Having no clear plan B) Failing to inform others of the job search C) Spending too little time answering classified ads D) Looking for the perfect job Answer: C Page Ref: 1438 Objective: 59.3 3) Searching for a job is NOT easy, but an applicant who in finding a job. A) stays focused and organized B) sticks to his or her plan C) performs a self-assessment D) all of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 1441 Objective: 59.3

will eventually be successful

4) Which of the following statements about a cover letter is FALSE? A) It should not contain proofing errors. B) It should be brief. C) It should state clearly the position that interests you. D) It should restate everything included in the résumé. Answer: D Page Ref: 1444 Objective: 59.4 5) should not be included on a résumé. A) Age B) Professional organizations C) Career objective D) Education Answer: A Page Ref: 1443 Objective: 59.4 6) Which common mistake(s) should be avoided when writing a cover letter? A) Not addressing the letter to a specific person in the organization B) Failing to sign the letter if it is not being sent electronically C) Sending a cover letter that is too long D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 1445 Objective: 59.4

7) Which of the following is NOT a way that career service offices provide assistance? A) By helping applicants develop cover letters and résumés B) By hosting job fairs C) By conducting a mock interview with the applicant D) By offering the applicant a job Answer: D Page Ref: 1446 Objective: 59.3 8) Which of the following questions is/are typical during an employment interview? A) What goals do you want to accomplish in the next five years? B) What is one of your weaknesses? C) How do you qualify for this position? D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 1446 Objective: 59.5 9) On the day of the interview, the job applicant should present a conservative, well-groomed, professional appearance by doing all of the following EXCEPT . A) wearing little or no jewelry B) avoiding showy hairstyles and heavy perfume C) avoiding bright nail polish and clothing D) wearing lots of bright colors Answer: D Page Ref: 1447 Objective: 59.5 10) Which question topic is acceptable for an employer who is interviewing a potential employee? A) Age B) Place of birth C) Marital status D) Employment history Answer: D Page Ref: 1448 Objective: 59.5 11) Salary and benefits are NOT generally discussed in the A) first B) second C) third D) fourth Answer: A Page Ref: 1448 Objective: 59.5 5

interview.

12) Which of the following is NOT one of the ten most common mistakes made in interviews? A) Failing to establish good eye contact B) Talking too much C) Arriving late D) Arriving early Answer: D Page Ref: 1448-1449 Objective: 59.5 13) Because an application is usually completed at the time of the interview, the applicant should bring along a folder containing all of his or her documentation, including . A) an updated résumé with an extra copy for the interviewer B) a list of three references that includes their addresses and telephone numbers C) a chronological list of all previous work experience D) all of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 1449 Objective: 59.5 14) Following the interview, a thank you letter should be sent A) the same B) within five C) within 10 D) within 15 Answer: A Page Ref: 1449 Objective: 59.5

day(s).

15) To be successful, a medical assistant must master which of the following basic skills? A) Reading B) Writing C) Listening D) All of the above Answer: C Page Ref: 1450 Objective: 59.6 16) Which of the following is NOT a skill typically sought and valued by an employer? A) Initiative B) Perfectionism C) Enthusiasm D) Flexibility Answer: B Page Ref: 1450-1451 Objective: 59.6

17) The externship experience should provide the medical assistant with ample experience in skills. A) administrative B) clinical C) both administrative and clinical D) none of the above Answer: C Page Ref: 1435 Objective: 59.2 18) During an externship, which area(s) of the medical assistant's performance and behavior is/are carefully observed and evaluated by the supervisor at the externship site? A) Empathy for patients B) Ethical standards C) Enthusiasm D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 1436 Objective: 59.2 19) The most popular résumé format or style is A) chronological B) functional C) educational D) linear Answer: A Page Ref: 1441 Objective: 59.4

20) Because some of the mandatory immunizations require several months to complete, it is wise for the medical assistant to begin the immunization process months before his or her expected externship. A) two to three B) four to five C) six to seven D) eight to nine Answer: D Page Ref: 1436 Objective: 59.2

21) In many cases, when medical office errors are handled immediately, they can be A) dismissed B) corrected C) hidden D) ignored Answer: B Page Ref: 1437 Objective: 59.2 22) Discussion of information regarding patients or regarding the physician's practice with anyone outside of the facility is allowed. A) never B) seldom C) occasionally D) randomly Answer: A Page Ref: 1437 Objective: 59.2 23) The externship experience is meant to A) be a learning experience B) provide higher education C) help pay the bills D) guarantee the assistant a job Answer: A Page Ref: 1437 Objective: 59.2

24) Some facilities require the student to receive a(n) with patients. A) hepatitis B) tetanus C) HPV D) both A and B Answer: D Page Ref: 1436 Objective: 59.2

immunization before working

25) Which documentation may be required before a student can begin an externship? A) Recent physical exam B) TB test results C) HIV test results D) All of the above Answer: A Page Ref: 1436 Objective: 59.2 8

26) The certification examination to become a certified medical assistant is only available to medical assistants who have completed a Council on of Allied Health Education Programs (CAAHEP) or Accrediting Bureau of Health Education Schools (ABHES)-accredited program in medical assisting. A) Analysis B) Accreditation C) Assistance D) Assessment Answer: B Page Ref: 1435 Objective: 59.2 27) An externship may also be called a A) preceptor B) practicum C) clinical D) certification Answer: B Page Ref: 1435 Objective: 59.1

28) In a typical interview, about how long does the applicant have to convince the potential employer to hire him or her? A) One hour B) Five minutes C) 20 minutes D) 45 minutes Answer: C Page Ref: 1446 Objective: 59.5 29) A(n) refers to a situation in which one leaves the confines of the classroom and works without payment in a health care setting using newly-acquired medical assisting skills under the supervision of someone at the site. A) mentorship B) job C) externship D) temp position Answer: C Page Ref: 1435 Objective: 59.1

30) A(n) provides additional instruction and guidance for a student by observing the performance of particular skills during the externship. A) preceptor B) coordinator C) instructor D) physician Answer: A Page Ref: 1437 Objective: 59.1 31) Before moving ahead with a job search, it is a good idea for the applicant to perform a personal assessment of his or her . A) spirituality B) strengths C) weaknesses D) both B and C Answer: D Page Ref: 1438 Objective: 59.3 32) The is a summary of the applicant's qualifications, including his or her employment history, experience, training, and education. A) application B) reference sheet C) résumé D) cover sheet Answer: C Page Ref: 1441 Objective: 59.1 33) The applicant should arrive A) 2 to 3 B) 5 to 10 C) 10 to 15 D) 15 to 20 Answer: B Page Ref: 1447 Objective: 59.5

minutes before the scheduled interview.

34) All of the following are characteristics of a quality completed résumé EXCEPT A) it should be printed on 8 × 11 paper

B) it should be printed on good-quality paper C) it should be neatly typed and error-free D) it should be printed on brightly-colored paper Answer: D Page Ref: 1442 Objective: 59.4 35) On a résumé the objective is typically A) one or two sentences B) one or two paragraphs C) one or two pages D) none of the above Answer: A Page Ref: 1443 Objective: 59.4

36) Once the résumé is neat and error-free, the applicant should print at least that he or she always has several copies available for distribution. A) three B) five C) seven D) ten Answer: D Page Ref: 1442 Objective: 59.4

copies so

37) A(n) is the statement of someone who has either worked with the applicant or known the applicant for a period of time. A) mentorship B) preceptor reference C) professional reference D) affidavit Answer: C Page Ref: 1443 Objective: 59.1

38) An externship course can be as short as school. A) one B) two C) three D) four Answer: D Page Ref: 1435 Objective: 59.2

week(s) or as long as one semester of

39) A professional reference would NOT be provided by which of the following? A) A teacher or professor B) An externship supervisor C) A friend or neighbor D) An externship coworker Answer: C Page Ref: 1444 Objective: 59.4 40) A(n) is intended to introduce the applicant to the recipient. A) résumé B) cover letter C) application D) none of the above Answer: B Page Ref: 1444 Objective: 59.1 41) A(n) A) hidden B) blind C) secret D) unidentified Answer: B Page Ref: 1445 Objective: 59.1

ad does NOT identify the institution or facility that placed the ad.

42) According to interviewers, which of the following is a common mistake made in interviews? A) Use of improper grammar B) Poor posture C) Lack of enthusiasm D) All the above Answer: D Page Ref: 1448-1449 Objective: 59.5

43) If the applicant is offered a position, he or she should do all of the following EXCEPT . A) clearly state the offer that he or she is accepting B) express thanks for the offer C) complete any requested paperwork within ten days D) be gracious in accepting the offer Answer: C Page Ref: 1449 Objective: 59.5 44) A résumé should be proofread to make sure it is error free. Which of the following is a correct suggested technique for proofreading? A) Ask a friend or close family member to proofread the résumé. B) Proofread the résumé on the computer screen. C) Proofread the résumé after printing it. D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 1442 Objective: 59.4 45) Which of the following is not a standard item on a résumé? A) Employment B) Objective C) Education D) Health Answer: D Page Ref: 1443 Objective: 59.4 46) Schools that are accredited by the Council on Accreditation of Allied Health Education Programs (CAAHEP) or the Accrediting Bureau of Health Education Schools (ABHES) require an externship of a minimum of hours. A) 40 B) 80 C) 120 D) 160 Answer: D Page Ref: 1435 Objective: 59.2

47) Which of the following mistakes is/are commonly made in interviews? A) Projecting an overconfident attitude B) Speaking critically of previous employers C) Failing to ask questions about the organization D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 1448-1449 Objective: 59.5 48) Which of the following job-hunting resources would likely be provided by the local public library? A) Classified ads B) Various publications C) Newsletters D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 1440 Objective: 59.3 49) Which of the following should be included on a résumé? A) Credentials B) Photograph C) Salary information D) None of the above Answer: A Page Ref: 1443 Objective: 59.4 50) A typical student externship form has a rating between one and A) four B) six C) eight D) ten Answer: A Page Ref: 1439 Objective: 59.2

51) A typical student externship form may include all the following evaluation areas EXCEPT . A) recognizes emergencies B) projects a positive attitude C) performs skills beyond their scope of training D) practices principles of aseptic technique Answer: C Page Ref: 1439 Objective: 59.2 14

52) Questions that the applicant should ask the interviewer include all the following EXCEPT . A) Why is the position open? B) How long is the probationary period? C) What type of medical insurance is offered? D) How many patients are seen in the office every day? Answer: C Page Ref: 1447 Objective: 59.5 53) A medical assistant who readily admits to a mistake displays what quality? A) Dependability B) Enthusiasm C) Honesty D) Flexibility Answer: C Page Ref: 1450 Objective: 59.6 54) If a job application includes questions about an applicant's ethnicity, the applicant should . A) answer the questions B) alert a supervisor immediately C) politely explain that they do not wish to answer D) refuse the job if it is offered Answer: C Page Ref: 1448 Objective: 59.5 55) Which of the following is NOT necessary when an applicant is preparing for an interview? A) Social Security number B) Updated résumé C) Driver's license and/or photo ID D) Copy of high school diploma Answer: D Page Ref: 1449 Objective: 59.5