TEST BANK for Plunkett’s Procedures for the Medical Administrative Assistant Canadian 5th Edition by

Plunkett’s Procedures for the Medical Administrative Assistant Canadian 5th Edition Ramsay Test Bank Chapter 01: Your Future as a Medical Administrative Assistant Ramsay & Rutherford: Plunkett’s Procedures for the Medical Administrative Assistant, 5th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A routine task frequently performed by a frontline receptionist includes: a. greeting patients. b. scheduling physician events. c. assessing performance of team members. d. arranging janitorial services.

ANS: A

Frontline reception includes greeting patients, answering the telephones, responding to electronic communications, and communicating messages to patients and staff.

REF: p. 3

OBJ: 2

2. In a hospital setting the full team encompasses: a. the physician and yourself. b. nurse practitioners and nurses. c. staff working in your immediate department as well as staff in all hospital

departments. d. supporting housekeeping and maintenance staff.

ANS: C

The hospital setting is a larTgE erSeT ntB itA y;NthKeSreEfoLrL e,EaR ll . stC afO fM function as a collaborative team. In smaller settings like a private physician’s the office team consists of a smaller collaborative group such as the physician and assistant.

REF: p. 2

OBJ: 2

3. A medical office environment can be busy and have some stress-filled moments. A medical

assistant needs to present: a. a calm, professional approach. b. a priority focus. c. a hectic and occupied approach. d. a perseverance and urgent focus.

ANS: A

Patients are often stressed in a medical environment and in stress-filled moments the health care team and patients will count on your calm and professional approach to assist them in feeling less overwhelmed.

REF: p. 2

OBJ: 5

4. First impressions of an office or facility, such as a hospital or clinic, are often driven by the: a. the facility logo. b. location of the facility. c. the physician who conducts the examination or testing.

d. the medical assistant as the person who greets patients as they arrive.

ANS: D

First impressions matter, the medical assistant is the voice of a practice as the first person to greet patients as they arrive and visit a facility. While the physician and location create an impression, it is not the first impression a patient has about the care they will receive.

REF: p. 4

OBJ: 4

5. When a physician is delayed or behind schedule, and in order to manage patients as they

arrive, a client service approach would be to: a. check patient in once you know the physician can see them. b. inform patient the physician is behind schedule and there will be a delay. c. continue with your work until the physician is caught up. d. rescheduling the patient immediately.

ANS: B

If the physician is behind schedule, inform the patients when they arrive there is a delay. This will provide optimal client service as most people who visit the doctor’s office are usually under stress, and it is the role of the medical administrative assistant to do their best to put the client as ease and keep them informed.

REF: p. 4

OBJ: 4

6. The medical assistant understanding their role will display and present a calm manner with the

ability to prioritize their workload. Which would best describe the medical assistant’s behaviour? a. Professional b. Critical thinking c. Trained d. Health information ANS: A

At all times the medical assistant should display professional behaviours and these include a calm approach and the ability to prioritize workload as part of the team.

REF: p. 2

OBJ: 1

7. A specific personal quality of the medical assistant involves an understanding of how others

are feeling in the moment. This is referred to as: a. integrity. b. honesty. c. empathy. d. loyalty.

ANS: C

Empathy is the ability to process and understand what another is experiencing. In the health care environment health care providers practice empathy in order to be an effective provider and assist all patients.

REF: p. 3

OBJ: 1

8. Medical assistants are required to develop this important skill set which enables them to

complete a variety of medical reports and documents in a timely fashion: a. financial record keeping. b. speed recognition. c. basic pharmacology. d. fast and accurate keyboarding.

ANS: D

To keep pace with the volume of documentation in a medical setting the ability to utilize fast and accurate keyboarding skills is essential to manage workload. Accuracy of the documentation has implications for the care of the patient as well as legal implications surrounding the health record of the patient.

REF: p. 3

OBJ: 2

9. Consideration for professional attire should include an awareness of environmental

sensitivities people may experience. This translates to involve consideration for which known sensitivity? a. Fragrances b. Food c. Design d. Tattoos ANS: A

The use of fragrances in a medical environment should be avoided due to allergic sensitivities of patients and co-workers. When a patient is ill often, their senses intensify and their sense of smell can be greater magnified.

REF: p. 3

OBJ: 3

10. A traditional employment setting for the medical administrative assistant includes this setting: a. retail. b. hospital. c. accounting. d. school.

ANS: B

The traditional employment locations include private offices, clinics, and hospitals.

Employment opportunities exist in long-term care and community outreach service areas as well.

REF: p. 7

OBJ: 6

MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. When considering the ethical obligations of a medical practitioner as well as their staff, the

importance of how personal information is collected, used, maintained, and accessed falls under which of the following areas? (Select all that apply.) a. Management b. Confidentiality c. Privacy

d. Record keeping ANS: B, C

It is a medical assistant’s responsibility to ensure the details of a patient’s medical situation are not passed on to others without patient consent to uphold confidentiality. Privacy and confidentiality are often used interchangeably, privacy is a legal right related to how personal information is maintained and collected.

REF: pp. 4-5

OBJ: 2

2. Physicians have a legal obligation to provide patients with optimum care by avoiding: (Select

all that apply.) a. negligent. b. competence. c. quality care. d. unprofessional actions.

ANS: A, D

Physicians have guidelines that direct they provide the best care possible by avoiding negligent and unprofessional acts this includes anyone acting as an agent for the physician in their practice.

REF: p. 4

OBJ: 2

3. Confidentiality ties closely with the ability of the medical assistant to be: (Select all that

apply.) a. disclosing. b. discreet. c. private. d. open.

ANS: B, C

Confidentiality requires the medical assistant to be discreet as in their role; they will be exposed significant information about a patient and their care. The ability to handle this information with privacy is a key guiding principle.

REF: p. 4

OBJ: 1

4. In your employment as a medical assistant you will have access to patient records, if you are

not involved directly with a patient’s care, you should: (Select all that apply.) a. have no reason to view the records. b. access them as needed as all patient records are available. c. not snoop even just once. d. ask others on the team to view the records.

ANS: A, C

A medical assistant should not be accessing any records of patients is not directly involved in the patient’s care. Staff have had their employment terminated for snooping. Facilities perform audits on their records on a consistent basis.

REF: p. 5

OBJ: 2

5. Steps, a medical administrative assistant, can initiate to avoid unnecessary stress in their work

environment include: (Select all that apply.) a. performing several tasks at once. b. organizing duties. c. focus on non-urgent duties first. d. prioritizing tasks.

ANS: B, D

Organize and prioritize daily tasks helps to effectively deal with interruptions as they come along. This also helps to keep on track.

REF: p. 5

OBJ: 5

COMPLETION 1. An individual in a medical environment who produces a keyed copy of dictated medical notes

and hospital reports is referred to as a

.

ANS:

transcriptionist The team member who produces keyed copies of dictated office notes, and who has superior keyboarding and proofing skills are referred to as a medical transcriptionist.

REF: p. 1

OBJ: 6

2. Constructing a list of dailyTtaEsS kT wB hiAchNK freSeE sL upLhEeRad.C spO acMe. This list is referred to as a

.

ANS:

to-do A to-do list is a standardized way of daily urgent and non-urgent tasks, as each one is checked off it provides a level of accomplishment and can motivate performance.

REF: p. 6

OBJ: 2

3. Many employers in an effort to avoid burnout and stress of their employees offer an employee

program involving exercise, relaxation techniques and nutritious choices this is referred to as workplace .

ANS:

wellness An employee wellness program has been proven to increase employee satisfaction, reduce burnout and manage stress more effectively.

REF: p. 6

OBJ: 5

4. This department is responsible for the entry point in the hospital when a patient is placed into

a unit within in the hospital. The department is known as

.

ANS:

admission The admission department is where a patient is officially admitted and the recording documents are processed.

REF: p. 6

OBJ: 6

5. Public and private sector long-term care facilities require medical administrative assistants to

fill the role of a unit

.

ANS:

clerk Employment opportunities exist for the medical assistant as a nursing unit clerk, working directly under the supervision of nurse managers in both hospitals and long-term care facilities.

REF: p. 7

OBJ: 6

TRUE/FALSE 1. The employment turn over in the medical assistant career field is high.

ANS: F

The turnover employment T raEteSiT sB loA wNaK ndStEhL eL opEpR or.tuCnO itiMes are diverse. According to Canada Job Bank approximately 19,000 new medical jobs will be available between 2017 and 2026.

REF: p. 2

OBJ: 6

2. Maintaining confidentiality and privacy are key components when providing patient care.

ANS: T

Maintaining confidentiality and privacy are essential, as patients trust the reason for a visit will remain the knowledge of that office and within the medical facilities involved directly in their care.

REF: p. 7

OBJ: 2

3. Preparing and sending diagnostic specimens collected to the appropriate laboratory is never

handled by the medical assistant.

ANS: F

The medical assistant will perform a variety of task in the work environment including preparing and handling laboratory specimen to ensure their safe transmission.

REF: p. 3

OBJ: 2

4. Some of the non-patient clients and partners a medical assistant may encounter include

pharmaceutical representatives, colleagues, and pharmacists.

ANS: T

The physician will have many health-related touch points such as colleagues, and pharmacist seeking to clarify a prescription that has been written for a patient.

REF: p. 3

OBJ: 2

5. A social insurance number is required to secure health care services at a medical office in

Canada.

ANS: F

The SIN is not required and requires no disclosure to obtain health services in Canada. A health card is often the document requested to secure health care.

REF: p. 5

OBJ: 2

Chapter 02: Health Associations and the Law Ramsay & Rutherford: Plunkett’s Procedures for the Medical Administrative Assistant, 5th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. This individual is referred to often as the Father of Medicine: a. Herodicus. b. Apollo. c. Aesculapius. d. Hippocrates.

ANS: D

Attributed with the works completed by Hippocrates and constructing the oath which physicians continue to swear to today. Prepared the basics of a declaration of how physicians will practice medicine, despite the fact it has no legal obligation.

REF: p. 12

OBJ: 1

2. Which is not a health care–related association or organization? a. Canadian Medical Association b. Canadian Medical Protective Association c. International Medical Assistants Association d. World Health Organization.

ANS: C

Mith the IAAP also known as the This association does not eTxE isS t. T ThBiA sN isKnS otEbL eL coEnR fu.sC edOw International Association of Administrative Professionals.

REF: pp. 13-24

OBJ: 3

3. The Canadian Medical Protective Association (CMPA) can be described as a: a. mutual defense union for Canadian physicians. b. patient advocacy association. c. health care device creation association. d. medical association for compliance management.

ANS: A

The Canadian Medical Protective Association is a mutual defense union for Canadian physicians. They have a shared responsibility to each other to practice in a manner consistent with the values of the medical profession.

REF: p. 17

OBJ: 3

4. In order for a physician to practice medicine in Canada they must be licensed by: a. their provincial or territorial Canadian Medical Protective Association. b. their provincial or territorial College of Physicians and Surgeons or equivalent. c. the Canadian Medical Association. d. the university from which they complete their program of study.

ANS: B

In order to practice medicine in Canada, a doctor must be licensed by their provincial or territorial College of Physicians and Surgeons or its equivalent College des Medicines du Quebec. The profession and the college operate under clearly defined rules relevant to the profession outlining medical acts.

REF: p. 25

OBJ: 4

5. What is the mandate of the World Health Organization (WHO)? a. act as the authority guiding international health within the United Nations. b. unite physicians throughout the world. c. update physician training standards. d. act as the file management standardization of systems worldwide.

ANS: A

The World Health Organization (WHO) is the authority guiding international health within the United Nations and they collaborate with educational bodies, provincial, and federal agencies such as Health Canada and they research trends and report risks factors.

REF: p. 17

OBJ: 3

6. ARMA Canada is a division of which larger organization responsible for information

management? a. ARMA Universal b. ARMA International c. ARMA Widespread d. ARMA Comprehensive ANS: B

ARMA Canada is a division of ARMA International which is the World’s leading information management systems. The other choices listed simply do not exist.

REF: p. 22

OBJ: 3

7. This term describes a deception deliberately practiced to secure a gain that is often unlawful: a. fabrication. b. untruth. c. fraud. d. fiction ANS: C

Fraud is the deliberate deception for gain that is usually not a lawful act. The other terms reflect inappropriate behavior in the medical environment; however, they don’t meet the requirements of fraud.

REF: p. 11

OBJ: 7

8. The obligation of the physician to inform entities such as the Children’s Aid Society or

Worker’s Compensation when circumstances directly involve a patient in their care require it.

This is known as: a. courtesy reporting. b. assistive reporting. c. controlled reporting.

d. mandatory reporting.

ANS: D

Mandatory reporting is outlined in several acts, such as the Highway, Motor Vehicle, Child and Family Services acts. A physician is responsible to report to these boards and agencies in a phone call or written form advising of the circumstances.

REF: p. 26

OBJ: 6

9. Every patient has the right to expect the personal information the physician and their agent has

obtained for the purpose of health care services be kept in a manner described as: a. accessible. b. confidential. c. reviewable. d. authorized.

ANS: B

Information obtained about a patient must never be revealed to anyone except of course to the patient or third party when authorized by the patient, or required by law.

REF: p. 27

OBJ: 8

10. Record retention parameters in the medical environment include: a. the required length of time a physician must retain a patient record. b. the contemplations for record content. c. only the documents needed for continued care. d. the discretion of the physician in determining record content.

ANS: A

Record retention requirements based on the local College of Physicians and Surgeons or equivalent is set forth in terms of the length of time. Physicians can opt to maintain their records for a longer period of time if they believe this is necessary.

REF: p. 29

OBJ: 9

11. A patient decides to move their treatment and care to another physician and requests and

authorizes their records move with them to the new physician. This is referred to as: a. summary of record. b. possession of record. c. transfer of record. d. authorization of record.

ANS: C

A doctor should comply with the request of a patient transfer of record. A patient decides to transfer to another doctor’s practice; the new doctor may also request a transfer of the patient record. The physician should maintain a copy of the records for the required retention period.

REF: p. 30

OBJ: 9

12. A physician determines if a patient is competent to provide their informed consent, if there is

any doubt, the physician is required to notify the patient’s family or legal guardian. The person holding the documented legal authority to act on behalf of a patient besides the patient is referred to as: a. power of authorization. b. power of attorney. c. power of competency. d. power of attribution.

ANS: B

The POA is a specific person who has been selected to act on a patient’s behalf if the patient is unable to do so.

REF: p. 12

OBJ: 9

13. In order to release a patient record information the physician or the medical administrative

assistant should obtain from the patient a. a signed release authorizing information directed to a third party. b. a verbal release authorizing information directed to a third party. c. an email message authorizing information directed to a third party. d. an message from the spouse of the patient authorizing information directed to a third party.

ANS: A

A physician or medical assistant should never release medical information without the request in writing composed clearly with the patient signature.

REF: p. 32

OBJ: T9ESTBANKSELLER.COM

14. This term describes the alleged failure of a physician to exercise a reasonable and acceptable

standard of care: a. assault. b. negligence. c. battery. d. fraud.

ANS: B

To avoid malpractice and accusations of neglect a physician is required to provide a reasonable level of care. When a physician is found to have not acted with care, they can face this medico-legal issue.

REF: pp. 12, 26

OBJ: 7

15. Following the guidelines and by-laws set forth for physicians working in a health care facility

and can be withdrawn when a physician does not follow the guidelines. What is the name of the right to practice medicine at a specific facility known as? a. Privileges b. Contract c. Agreement d. Recommendation ANS: A

Privilege is the correct term to define the right a physician is granted to practice at a facility such as a hospital. Failure to comply with regulations and bylaws of the facility privileges can be revoke or removed.

REF: p. 26

OBJ: 4

MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. Treatment for which a patient believes they did not provide consent, they may have a claim of

which legal references? (Select all that apply.) a. Assault b. Injury c. Battery d. Consideration ANS: A, C

Patients are to provide consent for treatment they receive. If they feel they received treatment for which consent was not given, they may allege assault and battery. Case law has established consent must be provided, with the exception of the emergency rule.

REF: p. 27

OBJ: 7

2. Acts that require mandatory reporting by a physician: (Select all that apply.) a. motor vehicle. b. quality care. c. professional practice. d. highway traffic.

ANS: A, D

Mandatory reporting falls under several acts which require the physician under specific situations to notify the associated agency. For instance, if a patient is deemed unsafe to operate a motor vehicle, the physician is obligated to report this.

REF: p. 26

OBJ: 5

3. The Regulated Health Professionals Act requires a member perform the following related to

the retention of records: (Select all that apply.) a. the date of some encounters with the patient. b. the name, the address, and date of birth of the patient. c. every written report received respecting the patient from another member or health professional. d. the particulars of some of the examinations and investigations.

ANS: B, C

The physician is required to maintain the demographic identifying data of patients in their care as well as all written reports acquired from another health care practitioners.

REF: p. 29

OBJ: 9

4. Two exceptions of when a physician can release patient records involve: (Select all that

apply.)

a. b. c. d.

a court order. substantial harm of the patient. a subpoena. the interpretation of the patient.

ANS: A, C

There are exceptions when a physician is obligated to release patient records and these involve a court order to produce a patient record. The physician should maintain a copy of the court order for the file. With a subpoena the doctor may be required to bring a copy of the patient’s record and in some instances, a physician may also need to provide a copy of the patient record to the College of Physicians and Surgeons or equivalent.

REF: p. 30

OBJ: 2

5. Characteristics of informed consent involving the medical administrative assistant includes:

(Select all that apply.) a. be efficient in handling patient charts. b. notifying the physician when the patient has questions about an identified proposed procedure. c. cross-check patient charts. d. being aware of the competence of the patient to provide their consent.

ANS: B, D

The medical assistant contributes to informed consent by being aware of concerns a patient has in relation to a procedure and by being aware of a patient’s competence in terms of signing documents. The assistant should note if the patient has some unanswered questions.

REF: p. 32

OBJ: T6ESTBANKSELLER.COM

COMPLETION 1. A medical symbol that depicts two snakes encircling a staff topped with two wings is ANS:

Caduceus This is referred to as one of two universal symbols of medicine. The staff was given to the Greek god Hermes by his half-brother Apollo.

REF: p. 11

OBJ: 1

2. Established laws or rules enacted by a legislature is referred to as ANS:

Statues The entire practice of medicine is governed by laws and rules through legislated bodies to ensure quality of care is met.

REF: p. 12

OBJ: 4

3. A short form used for a national organization which unites physician members on health

matters and deals with the federal government related to these matters ANS:

CMA The CMA (Canadian Medical Association) provides ethical guidelines to physicians in Canada as well as working closely with the federal government.

REF: p. 14

OBJ: 2

4. One of the prominent works attributed to Hippocrates is the ANS:

oath Doctors swear to this oath, which is an ethical and moral declaration of how they intend to practice medicine.

REF: p. 12

OBJ: 1

5. Physician members who have completed rigorous national examinations in a medical or

surgical specialty are referred to as Royal ANS:

Fellows A Royal Fellow is the title provided to physicians who have completed the required national examinations. Physicians often display this membership on various published media such a business cards or letter head. F.R.C.P.S which means a Fellow of the Royal College of Physicians and Surgeons.

REF: p. 17

OBJ: 3

TRUE/FALSE 1. Medical assistants working under the employment of doctors are considered an agent of the

physician.

ANS: T

This is a standard, whereby the physician is responsible for acts performed under their direction of employment.

REF: p. 24

OBJ: 7

2. The National Association for Health Unit Coordinators is a recognized association providing

support and standards for health unit coordinators.

ANS: T

Some medical administrative assistants take a course in conjunction with or in addition to their program to learn the role of a health unit coordinator. This association sets the standards and certification process. This association is based in the United States but is recognized across Canada.

REF: pp. 12, 22

OBJ: 7

3. CHIMA is an organization that is not-for-profit that provides advice and assistance to

physicians.

ANS: F

The association is CMPA—Canadian Medical Protective Association which provides the advice and assistance to physicians. Resources are also provided through this association.

REF: p. 11

OBJ: 3

4. The Association of Administrative Professionals is a Canadian chartered non-profit

professional organization which is active in encouraging its members to further their education.

ANS: T

The AAP has been in existence since 1951 and is active in promoting the administrative profession. It provides educational resources, networking, as well as career opportunities.

REF: p. 21

OBJ: 3

5. All patients have the right to know what their information is used for after being collected by

a facility.

ANS: T

Protection of these rights are covered under information and protection federal acts such as PIPEDA which govern all commercial activities of information.

REF: p. 28

OBJ: 9

Chapter 03: Reception, Booking Appointments, and Clinical Responsibilities Ramsay & Rutherford: Plunkett’s Procedures for the Medical Administrative Assistant, 5th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which are not considered vital signs? a. Temperature b. Pulse c. Respiration d. Weight ANS: D

Weight is not a measurement of a vital sign. It is often measured as part of a complete physical. Vital signs include temperature, pulse, and respirations. Blood pressure is not considered a vital sign but is lumped into the classification typically.

REF: p. 47

OBJ: 5

2. Receptionist have a vital role on the health care team and are often the first point of contact

with patients in an office setting. Therefore, a receptionist should have a: a. task approach. b. clinical skills approach. c. customer service approach. d. business approach.

ANS: C

A customer service approach is essential for a medical office receptionist as a significant portion of their role is interacting with patients as they arrive, and during their visit.

REF: p. 37

OBJ: 1

3. Managing the reception area is your responsibility today, and a patient arrives while you are

on the phone with the pharmacy. What should you do? a. Acknowledge the patient by looking them and the eye and smile. b. Ignore the patient and finish the call. c. Wait until you are off the phone. d. Have another staff member acknowledge the patient when the staff member shows up.

ANS: A

If you are busy with a phone call, look at the patient, smile, or raise your hand to acknowledge their arrival. Do not simply ignore the client as it does not display a patient service approach.

REF: pp. 37-38

OBJ: 1

4. If you make an error in your role as a receptionist, what is the best way to handle the

situation? a. Continue on and move past. b. Recognize the error and acknowledge the mistake.

c. Cover the error up, so no one discovers it was you. d. Try to maintain the harmony in the office.

ANS: B

Always recognize your errors, they do occur. With a customer service approach remember to display the qualities of respect to ensure you issue an apology for your error and take steps to improve and prevent future errors.

REF: p. 37

OBJ: 1

5. Scheduling systems in today’s modern medical facilities are primarily: a. paper based. b. handwritten. c. verbal. d. computerized.

ANS: D

Scheduling systems vary from office to office and facility to facility and consist primarily of a computerized-based system. Some offices use paper-based systems.

REF: p. 38

OBJ: 2

6. The electronic collection of patient’s health information electronically and can be shared

across health platforms to support quality delivery of care is known as the: a. electronic data file. b. electronic medical record. c. electronic care plan record. d. electronic doctor’s systT em . TBANKSELLER.COM ES ANS: B

The majority of medical offices use a practice management system which stores patient health information known as the electronic medical record.

REF: pp. 35, 39

OBJ: 2

7. This type of scheduling method utilizing set periods of time for patient to arrive and be seen

on a first come, first basis arrangement. This is known as: a. wave scheduling. b. stream scheduling. c. open-hours scheduling. d. modified wave scheduling.

ANS: C

Open hours scheduling is utilized in urgent or walk-in type of environment whereby patients are seen in the order of which they arrive for health care services.

REF: p. 41

OBJ: 2

8. When a patient requests an appointment, in order to determine the length of time and

resources needed for the appointment as a practice always ask: a. the day the patient prefers. b. the best time for the physician.

c. the daily schedule of the health care team. d. the reason for the visit.

ANS: D

The reason for the visit determines the time needed for the patient to have the appropriate time with the physician is essential for work flow and for the comfort of the patient.

REF: p. 41

OBJ: 2

9. When a new patient is coming to your office the first time, as a best practice to orientate them

to the operation of the office, you should provide: a. a gown. b. office policy information. c. a private area. d. a look around.

ANS: B

New patients should receive information about office policies surrounding the office phone number, hours of operation, additional cost not covered by health care insurance, and information surrounding office visits.

REF: p. 43

OBJ: 2

10. Operating rooms in hospitals are often booked several weeks in advance and the medical

assistant may be required to book surgery. Information regarding the procedure and patient’s sociological information is required to book the procedure along with what additional information? a. The name of surgeon pT erEfoSrT mB inA g NsuKrS geEryLaLsEthRe.m CoOstMresponsible physician b. The preferences of the patient c. The referral notice d. The options for booking ANS: A

Several pieces of information are typically required to book a surgical suite in a hospital. The name of the surgeon performing the surgery is important due to privileges.

REF: p. 43

OBJ: 4

11. Sometimes a physician will order diagnostic test for patients at the conclusion of medical

examination. The medical administrative assistant maybe required to complete a: a. demand. b. endorsement. c. requisition. d. petition.

ANS: C

A diagnostic testing requisition is to be completed to demonstrate a test is ordered and through the physicians authorization. At times, a patient preparation may be required prior to the testing.

REF: p. 43

OBJ: 3

12. Along with clerical responsibilities a medical office assistant may perform additional tasks

such as measuring vital signs and obtaining a health history. These task are considered: a. clinical skills. b. administrative skills. c. reception skills. d. diagnostic skills.

ANS: A

Under the supervision of the physician a medical administrative assistant may be trained to perform non-invasive clinical skills.

REF: p. 44

OBJ: 5

13. It is 4 pm in the afternoon. How would that time be entered into a patient record following the

24-hour clock? a. 1600 hours b. 0400 hours c. 1400 hours d. 1500 hours ANS: A

The correct selection is 1600 hours.

REF: p. 44

OBJ: 2

14. SOAP is an acronym representing a charting method used to record the components of a

patient visit. What does the A represent in the acronym? a. Alert b. Assessment c. Activity d. Action ANS: B

SOAP means Subjective, O mean objective, A means assessment, and P means Plan.

REF: p. 46

OBJ: 5

15. When measuring a pulse on a patient using their wrist, it is best to use: a. your index and middle finger. b. a hard firm press. c. your thumb. d. your baby finger.

ANS: A

Your thumb has a pulse point, so it is not an accurate reading. Your index and middle finger can cover a broad scope of the wrist, and the finger tips has many nerve endings with a light touch can palpate the pulse easily.

REF: p. 47 MULTIPLE RESPONSE

OBJ: 5

1. Key considerations when looking at the design of a reception desk in a medical environment

includes: (Select all that apply.) a. height. b. facility. c. layout. d. consideration.

ANS: A, C

The height and layout matters in this context. A patient must be able to access the desk area and the layout should allow for private or confidential communication with the receptionist and patient.

REF: p. 37

OBJ: 1

2. These various factors can affect the temperature reading of a patient includes: (Select all that

apply.) a. food consumption. b. mood of patient. c. cooperation of patient. d. drink consumption.

ANS: A, D

Food and drink consumption affects a temperature reading. If a patient consumes a cold or hot beverage just prior to reading, it will be altered.

REF: p. 47

OBJ: 5

fE apSpT oiB ntAmNeK ntSsE chLeL duEliRn. gC mO etM hodologies in a medical facility 3. These are common types oT includes: (Select all that apply.) a. motion. b. wave. c. stream. d. flow.

ANS: B, C

Wave and stream are common scheduling methods; additional methods include open hour and patient self-scheduling.

REF: pp. 39-41

OBJ: 2

4. Whenever possible and receiving patient in your office, it is best to: (Select all that apply.) a. greet the patient by name. b. finish what you are doing first. c. greet the patient by a formal title. d. provide the patient with a clipboard.

ANS: A, C

A patient expects a warm friendly greeting using their name or formal title. Do not immediately assume you can address a patient by their first name without asking first.

REF: p. 38

OBJ: 1

5. Utilizing the patient self-scheduling methodology provides benefits which include: (Select all

that apply.) a. no worry over the patient schedule. b. patients choose times that work for them. c. cross check patient charts. d. reduces the amount of time it normally takes to book an appointment.

ANS: B, D

The time is reduced when patients self-book their own appointment as studies show is typically takes a receptionist about 8 minutes to book an appointment.

REF: p. 41

OBJ: 2

COMPLETION 1. Scheduling based on the average time spend with each patient within a half hour to an hour.

Three patients are typically booked at the same time per half hour, this scheduling is known as .

ANS:

wave This is a popular method of booking to have patients arrive in waves every half hour to an hour. The premise is the physician will spend 10 minutes on average with each patient.

REF: p. 36

OBJ: 2

2. The medical environment uses a time format that identifies the clock by

.

ANS:

2 Rather than dividing the day into two sections morning and afternoon, the schedule is based on all 24 hours.

REF: p. 44

OBJ: 2

3. The reception area is the first point of

.

ANS:

contact The reception area is the first and last place a patient will connect with a medical facility. A positive impression creates a strong impression for the patient on their first visit and return visits.

REF: p. 36

OBJ: 1

4. All provinces and territories provide eligible residents through the Ministry of Health a health

.

ANS:

card The health card contains a number that entitles the holder health care services in their province or territory of resident.

REF: p. 38

OBJ: 1

5. The common place to measure an adult resting pulse rate is using the

.

ANS:

wrist Several locations throughout the body can be used for a pulse measurement. This wrist is often used as it is an exposed area on the body, the pulse is easily felt in this location as well.

REF: p. 47

OBJ: 5

TRUE/FALSE 1. The most responsible physician is the physician who assumes primary care for a patient.

ANS: T

The MRP is the responsible physician who oversees the care of the patient during a hospital stay. The MRP may change over the course of a hospital stay for various reasons.

REF: p. 35

OBJ: 1

2. A non-invasive clinical skill is a procedure whereby introduction into a body cavity beyond a

natural opening is permitted.

ANS: F

A non-invasive clinical skills is one that allows no break in the skin and no introduction into a body cavity beyond a natural opening.

REF: p. 46

OBJ: 5

3. A work up of the appointment schedule with categories defined and times identified available

for booking is known as a matrix.

ANS: T

A scheduling matrix identifies available times or blocked off times once the physician determines availability or unavailability.

REF: pp. 39-40

OBJ: 2

4. Triage means to sort patients into categories.

ANS: F

To triage is to assess the urgency or non-urgency a patient needs to be seen based on chief complaint.

REF: p. 41

OBJ: 2

5. Medical asepsis is the state of toxic micro-organism in the environment.

ANS: F

Medical asepsis is the state of reducing or being free of micro-organisms. Standard precautions are essential for reducing the spread on infection in the health office environment.

REF: p. 49

OBJ: 5

Chapter 04: Patient Records Management Ramsay & Rutherford: Plunkett’s Procedures for the Medical Administrative Assistant, 5th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Record keeping policies for patient charts is outlined by the: a. College of Physicians and Surgeons. b. Canadian Medical Association. c. Canadian Medical Protective Association. d. Physicians Medical Group.

ANS: A

In terms of policies for record keeping the procedures developed by the College of Physicians and Surgeons are followed. The CMA and CMPA will have recommendations available, not direct policies.

REF: p. 54

OBJ: 2

2. If working with paper-based charts in a medical office at what point in the day are charts used

on that day filed? a. As soon as you use them b. The next day after use c. At the end of the day d. By the end of each week ANS: C

It is a best practice to stay on top of patient filing. It can quickly become disruptive when it is not completed on a daily basis.

REF: p. 54

OBJ: 1

3. A rule for alphabetical files requires hyphenated names be treated when filing as: a. two distinct filing units. b. three filing units. c. four filing units. d. one full unit.

ANS: D

Hyphenated names whether they are first, last, or middle are all considered one unit; therefore, the hyphenation is ignored during the filing process. The hyphen is considered removed for filing purposes.

REF: p. 60

OBJ: 3

4. The last indexing unit when two people have the identical name and live in the same city. You

can use the following: a. degree designation. b. title designation. c. nickname.

d. seniority designation.

ANS: D

Seniority designations are considered as the last indexing unit and only used when two people have identical names. The designations are represented as 1st, 2nd, and 3rd.

REF: p. 60

OBJ: 3

5. A variety of filing systems are used in a medical office such as alphabetical and numerical and

this additional type utilizes a main topic to file business records and is known as: a. colour-coded filing. b. subject filing. c. general correspondence filing. d. geographic filing.

ANS: B

In a subject filing system the main subject or topic is used and identified on a divider tab.

Items are grouped under a specific topic and filed in alphabetical order.

REF: p. 61

OBJ: 4

6. This system is implemented as a reminder system to help keep the medical administrative

assistant organized. What is this system called? a. Tickler b. Soundex c. Numerical d. Subject ANS: A

A tickler system has been used extensively as a form of a reminder system. Some admins use calendars or mobile technologies tools to instill reminders. At times, information or a task is time sensitive and missing a deadline could have an impact.

REF: pp. 62-63

OBJ: 4

7. One of the benefits of using colour-coded filing involves: a. the appearance of the files is pleasing. b. the space available for filing miscellaneous information. c. the ability to quickly notice misfiled out of order files. d. the way the files can be purged easily.

ANS: C

The use of colour-coded files is efficient for identifying file folders used extensively in the medical environment and misplaced files are noticed quickly to be out of order by visual inspection.

REF: p. 54

OBJ: 5

8. This filing methodology employs the use of a card put in place of a file when it is removed

from its original location. The card includes the patient’s name and who removed the file.

This is the system known as: a. cross-reference.

b. Kardex. c. out-folder. d. charge-out.

ANS: D

A charge-out system uses a heavy cardboard-like card inserted into the place where a file has been removed. The patient name, the date the file was removed, who removed it and the location of the file is included on the charge-out card.

REF: p. 63

OBJ: 4

9. Smith would be filed in alphabetical order before Smithson. This is an example of the filing

rule known as: a. nothing comes before something. b. nicknames are not used. c. prefixes are not used. d. suffixes are not used.

ANS: A

The rule nothing comes before something is a standard guideline when determining the order of filing alphabetically.

REF: pp. 59-60

OBJ: 3

10. A best practice to guard confidentiality when handling patient files includes: a. ensuring files are filed by end of day. b. ensuring patient files are not available to be seen in open view. c. ensuring patient files cT onEtaSinTrBeA leN vaKnS t iEnL foL rm EaRti.onC.OM d. ensuring files have charge-out cards inserted in place.

ANS: B

Guarding against breeches in confidentiality is an acutely prevalent when handling patient files, this includes practices that reduce or eliminate the ability for others to view patient records.

REF: p. 54

OBJ: 2

MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. Cabinet styles used for filing medical patient charts, include: (Select all that apply.) a. management. b. open-shelf. c. drawer. d. record keeping.

ANS: B, C

Open-style is the most popular style used in a medical office for ease of use, the ability to cover and lock the patient charts is a key benefit. Drawer style is also used too, as the ability to use a hanging file structure permits some ease of access for the MOA. REF: p. 55

OBJ: 2

2. A typical paper patient chart in a family medicine practice may include: (Select all that apply.) a. progress notes. b. advertisements. c. quality care. d. consult notes.

ANS: A, D

Progress notes record the activity of the patient encounter on a set date and time. Consultation notes from other physicians also can form a component of the patient file record.

REF: p. 55

OBJ: 2

3. File folder tab projections should be the following size choices (Select all that apply.) a. 1/4 b. 1/5 c. 1/2 d. 1/10 ANS: B, C

These sizes are used best in file drawers, it allows room enough to include the patient name clearly identified on the tab for ease of readability.

REF: p. 55

OBJ: 1

4. When using numerical filing in hospitals and larger group practices, many adopt a terminal

digit filing system. This means: (Select all that apply.) a. the first four numbers of the patient health number. b. the computer generatesTfE ouSrTnB um AbNeKrsS. ELLER.COM c. the last four numbers of the patient health number. d. any four numbers are chosen at random.

ANS: A, C

Typically terminal digit filing involves using the last four digits of a patient health number in some instances the first four digits are used. It is easy using this system for cross-referencing the patient file.

REF: p. 62

OBJ: 1

5. Common types of file folders used in a medical practice include: (Select all that apply.) a. clip style. b. bar style. c. ball style. d. fastener.

ANS: B, D

Bar and fastener style are most frequently the styles used in a medical practice. The fastener style prevents documents from falling out of a chart by mistake.

REF: p. 55 COMPLETION

OBJ: 2

1. Removal of patient files who have moved out of town from the active file cabinets to a storage

unit is known as

.

ANS:

purging Purging records is routinely performed to manage an efficient filing system. It is necessary to perform periodic purging of records to ensure active files contain current patients within easy reach.

REF: p. 64

OBJ: 6

2. These are visual marker that lead the filer to a specific location in the file drawer. These are

known as

.

ANS:

guides Letter guides highlight the start of the new section and the end of the previous section. A guide provides a starting point in a section so the filer can pinpoint a starting point of a section.

REF: p. 53

OBJ: 1

3. Heavy duty manila material make up the material found in the paper file

.

ANS:

folders Heavy duty material is used to ensure the resilience of the paper file folder. It will be handled several times throughout the course of a patient treatment.

REF: p. 55

OBJ: 5

4. This is the process of arranging information so that it can be easily accessed and efficiently

used. This process is referred to as

.

ANS:

filing Filing is a fundamental activity conducted in a medical office. The timely availability of information in a locatable fashion is essential for smooth operational objectives.

REF: pp. 55, 59

OBJ: 4

5. This filing system is used to overcome the problem of names that sound similar but are

spelled in many different ways. This system is referred to as ANS:

soundex

.

Soundex filing is generally enabled when possible spellings of names that sound the same but are vastly differently. Many EMR’s have this capability as a built in function.

REF: p. 62

OBJ: 4

TRUE/FALSE 1. The patient chart is a legal document.

ANS: T

Maintenance of the patient record is essential for quality care and it is a legal document. Each entry is part of the record. If you need to modify or edit an entry, the original entry also is retained.

REF: p. 55

OBJ: 1

2. Open-shelf file cabinets often save floor space and provide quicker access then drawer style

cabinets.

ANS: T

The ease of use when comparing both cabinet styles favours the open-shelf style for the economy of space, easier access, and covers that can pull down at will.

REF: p. 55

OBJ: 2

3. You can use a patient nickT naEmSeTwBhA enNpKrS ocEeL ssL inEgRfi. liC ngOoMf patient records.

ANS: F

Always use the patient’s proper name, not a nickname. A nickname can be denoted on the chart, but not considered for filing and indexing.

REF: p. 60

OBJ: 2

4. A medical practice is considered a business and must maintain records other than patient

charts.

ANS: T

Many types of records need to be maintained by all businesses and a medical practice is considered a business.

REF: p. 60

OBJ: 4

5. When removing file folders from a shelf or drawer, grip the file by the tab.

ANS: F

A best practice is to grip the file folder at the side or centre, never the tab as it will eventually wear the tab out or pull it off.

REF: p. 65

OBJ: 6

Chapter 05: The Telephone and eCommunication Tools Ramsay & Rutherford: Plunkett’s Procedures for the Medical Administrative Assistant, 5th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. This general practitioner acts as patient’s first point of contact with the health care system.

Under what title is the physician referred? a. Telehealth b. Specialist c. Nurse d. Primary care physician ANS: D

The PCP is the medical professional who accepts the responsibility for the care of routine, non-emergency, and chronic illnesses.

REF: p. 85

OBJ: 6

2. When answering a call and you need to place it on hold for a moment, it is best to receive

what from a caller before placing them on hold? a. Silence b. A question c. A response acknowledging your request d. A return phone number ANS: C

Always secure an acknowledgment from the caller as an agreement to place them on hold.

You may miss an emergency situation if you do not secure this acknowledgement.

REF: pp. 86-87

OBJ: 1

3. When recording requests and inquiries in the form of a message, it is recommended to provide

the caller with: a. an approximate time when their message will be returned. b. a consult with other team members. c. encouragement. d. no further action.

ANS: A

It helps to provide approximate times for callers to reduce their anxiety. If the call can’t be returned at the stated time, call the caller back and provide an update. This will reduce repeated incoming calls.

REF: p. 87

OBJ: 2

4. One of the primary functions of the medical administrative assistant in relation to telephone

management involves: a. instructions for patients. b. screening calls.

c. preparing exam rooms. d. monitoring vital signs.

ANS: B

In terms of the telephone context a medical administrative assistant’s primary function is to screen and manage the incoming and outgoing calls.

REF: p. 88

OBJ: 1

5. When booking appointments, the first consideration in determining an appropriate time

involves: a. how much time the patient has. b. how much time the physician has. c. the preference of the patient. d. the reason for the visit.

ANS: D

An appropriate length of time ensures the physician will have the necessary time for the patient. It also considers booking appropriately so as not to disrupt the schedule and patient daily flow.

REF: p. 90

OBJ: 2

6. Try to handle the majority of patient phone requests on the first: a. ring. b. incoming call. c. visit. d. test ANS: B

To satisfy the patients concerns and decrease your outgoing calling be sure to attempt to handle the patients request on the first incoming call.

REF: p. 93

OBJ: 2

7. Office supply management falls under the responsibility of the medical administrative

assistant. Before calling a supplier to place an order be sure to have a: a. unit available. b. samples. c. accurate list of supplies needed. d. guideline.

ANS: C

An accurate list of what is needed would ensure an efficient ordering process. There will be times you will contact a supplier with questions as well.

REF: p. 93

OBJ: 6

8. Medical facilities continue to use fax machines and a primary focus should be placed upon

what consideration? a. Equipment b. Phone numbers

c. The daily schedule of the health care team d. Confidentiality ANS: D

Confidentiality integrity should always be the first consideration when sending information electronically. A confidentiality statement is often included with the fax coversheet.

REF: p. 95

OBJ: 5

9. Texting in a medical office is a method best considered: a. questionable. b. unsecure. c. private. d. acceptable.

ANS: B

Texting is an uncertain methodology for communication and the use of unencrypted text messages to patients should be avoided.

REF: p. 101

OBJ: 5

10. Groups of trained professionals working in health care to provide services outside of nursing,

dentistry, and the medical profession are considered by which classification? a. Allied health professionals b. Outlier health professional c. Insider health professional d. Group of health professionals ANS: A

Examples of allied health professionals include physiotherapists, occupational therapists and dietitians. The other groups listed in question do not exist.

REF: p. 85

OBJ: 6

11. After gathering information and to ease time constraints of searching for regularly dialed

numbers a medical administrative assistant could create their own telephone: a. system. b. endorsement. c. directory. d. petition.

ANS: C

A telephone directory provides easy access to pharmacies, hospitals, laboratories, and other doctors. Some of these numbers can be preprogrammed into the phone system being used by the office.

REF: p. 94

OBJ: 3

12. When professional callers such as the physicians’ colleagues call typically, they have

questions that are considered: a. beyond a medical assistants scope. b. friendly and informative.

c. inquiring for you to answer. d. diagnostic information for recording.

ANS: A

These callers frequently have specific details that are best managed and received by the physician to act upon.

REF: p. 92

OBJ: 6

13. The use of eCommunication tools and associated procedures to deliver health care services is

referred to as: a. telemedicine. b. allied medicine. c. distance medicine. d. extended medicine.

ANS: A

Telemedicine is usually operational from the provincial and territorial governments designed to provide health services utilizing eCommunication tools.

REF: p. 97

OBJ: 1

14. It is recommended to avoid stating consistently the doctor is busy when patients call, as it

leaves the impression that: a. the physician can’t manage their workload. b. the physician doesn’t want to speak with the caller. c. the physician is not interested in their practice. d. the physician hasn’t prT ovEidSeT d BpA erN mK isS siE onLtLoEtaRlk.w CiOthMpatients.

ANS: B

As part of the screening process, it is inappropriate to indicate the physician is always busy. It gives the appearance of the physician not wanting to speak to a specific patient.

REF: p. 90

OBJ: 5

15. Medical administrative assistants should use discretion when relaying test results over the

phone. Always secure: a. authorization from the physician to release the results. b. a verbal report from the lab. c. more information. d. the patient chart.

ANS: A

Before releasing any test results over the phone it is imperative you first receive direction from the physician. The medical assistant could be viewed as practicing medicine without a license to do so without this direction.

REF: p. 92 MULTIPLE RESPONSE

OBJ: 2

1. A good personal demeanor when handling incoming and outgoing phone calls is witnessed by

displaying (Select all that apply.) a. Sympathy b. Indifference c. Empathy d. Inquiry ANS: A, C

Dealing with people who are experiencing medical problem involves an approach inclusive of sympathy and empathy to foster a positive personal demeanor in a medical office.

REF: p. 87

OBJ: 7

2. When a patient calls, you should record: (Select all that apply.) a. patient name. b. mood of patient. c. cooperation of patient. d. date and time.

ANS: A, D

The patients’ name as well as the date and time of call is an essential component of recording needed information to act upon the message or for follow-up purposes.

REF: p. 88

OBJ: 1

3. Pharmaceutical representatives may call to secure an appointment with the physician to

present: (Select all that apply.) a. and see the office. b. new products. c. samples. d. a disruption to the office flow.

ANS: B, C

Pharmaceutical representatives request to meet with the physician for a variety of reasons which include showcasing new products, providing samples, and asking for feedback from the physician. Book as per instructions from physician.

REF: p. 92

OBJ: 6

4. When receiving an incoming call at the doctor’s office, you should always: (Select all that

apply.) a. identify the office. b. finish what you are doing first. c. identify yourself. d. provide the patient with information.

ANS: A, C

Identify the office therefore patients know they have reached the intended location. Identify yourself so patients know who they are speaking with.

REF: p. 87

OBJ: 6

5. Examples of reasons a patient may need follow-up testing or appointment prior to a

medication renewal: (Select all that apply.) a. dosage number. b. thyroid medication regulation. c. pharmacy inquiry. d. blood coagulation assessment.

ANS: B, D

Specific testing is based around the function of the medication a patient is taking. This will often require blood testing to assess if the medication is working or needs to be adjusted.

Thyroid and blood coagulation are commonly tested to assess medical effectiveness.

REF: p. 91

OBJ: 2

COMPLETION 1. A best practice for phone management is to always answer the phone within this number of

rings

.

ANS:

three Studies show a patient waiting on the line beyond the third ring has their anxiety and frustration grow. Attempt to always answer by the third ring if possible.

REF: p. 86

OBJ: 1

2. The practice of concentrating and listening intently by what is being said by a caller is known

as

.

ANS:

active Active listening is the process of concentrating what the caller is saying. You will be able to ask the appropriate questions and provide feedback correctly.

REF: p. 87

OBJ: 1

3. If a patient calls to cancel an appointment, it is recommended you offer another

.

ANS:

appointment The patient obviously had a reason to contact the office with a medical need. The medical assistant should offer an alternative appointment so the patient is seen.

REF: p. 91

OBJ: 2

4. In some provinces and territories prescription renewals are not covered by health insurance

and is referred to as an service that is billable meaning it is

.

ANS:

uninsured In some provinces telephone prescription renewal is an uninsured service; this means the physician will not be paid to provide this service. They can pass the cost on to the patient as a fee.

REF: p. 91

OBJ: 2

5. This service provides a way for calls to be managed by a person outside of the office when

staff are unavailable to process the call. This service is known as

.

ANS:

answering Some offices contract the services of an answering service to process calls by an outside agency. The service often can reach the physician in an emergency situation to address concerns.

REF: p. 93

OBJ: 2

TRUE/FALSE 1. The CMPA recommends a medical assistant not give any medical advice at any time.

ANS: T

Phone advice can be provided through provincial health advice services, where a patient can speak directly with a registered nurse or nurse practitioner. This skill set is not under the scope of the medical administrative assistant.

REF: p. 90

OBJ: 2

2. In terms of phone equipment PBX stands for private booth exchange.

ANS: F

It stands for private branch exchange used by larger facilities.

REF: p. 94

OBJ: 4

3. eCommunications include communication through email, videoconferencing, social media

platforms, and texting.

ANS: T

All these tools function under the umbrella of eCommunications. Be aware of policies in the office in terms of the use surrounding these tools.

REF: p. 97

OBJ: 5

4. Videoconferencing is a tool widely used in medical offices today.

ANS: F

Videoconferencing is a tool that should be used with caution and under special considerations.

Seek guidance from the College of Physicians and Surgeons in this regard.

REF: p. 97

OBJ: 5

5. In order to avoid medico-legal issues that may arise the CMPA recommends using a consent

form for any form of email communication with patients.

ANS: T

The CMPA recommendations help to curtain any medico-legal issues by being transparent with a patient and obtaining their consent in advance.

REF: p. 97

OBJ: 5

Chapter 06: Office Correspondence: Mail Memos Letters and Envelopes Ramsay & Rutherford: Plunkett’s Procedures for the Medical Administrative Assistant, 5th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The process of organizing mail by perceived priority and urgency is known as: a. sorting. b. discarding. c. collecting. d. recycling.

ANS: A

Sorting is a key part of the incoming mail handling procedures. The physician should be presented with the most urgent mail available to review first and foremost.

REF: p. 106

OBJ: 1

2. When receiving a postal service document in the office, the return address does not appear on

the document. What can you check to locate the return address? a. Postal delivery person b. Contact the patient c. Envelope d. Call the hospital ANS: C

It is a best practice to alwaT ysEcShT ecBkAthNeKeS nvEeL loLpE eR fo. rC aO reM turn address. Some offices do not use letterhead containing all the details, but do use pre-printed envelopes.

REF: p. 106

OBJ: 1

3. When preparing outgoing reports, be sure to retain: a. a mail pack. b. an enclosure. c. a postage meter. d. a dated copy.

ANS: D

A dated copy is essential for record keeping and follow-up procedures. Historical documentation allows for future decision-making as well.

REF: p. 107

OBJ: 2

4. If you are sending an important letter from your office, the physician indicates overnight

delivery is best. What service from Canada Post provides for overnight delivery? a. First class mail b. Third class mail c. Second class mail d. Priority post ANS: D

Priority post is the fastest service for time-sensitive documents and parcels. Delivers to every residential and business address in Canada, and guarantee next-business day delivery between major urban centres. Signature collection and on-demand pickup are included at no extra charge.

REF: p. 107

OBJ: 4

5. This type of documentation is considered and informal type of written communication,

includes: a. report. b. memo. c. discharge summary. d. admission record.

ANS: B

A memo is a short form of written communication and is considered a means of informal communication.

REF: p. 109

OBJ: 5

6. The following is not a style of memo: a. left tab. b. full-block. c. right tab. d. adjacent heading.

ANS: A

Full-block, right tab, and aT djE acSeT ntBhAeN adKinSgEaL reLaE llRv. alC idOm Memo styles. The left tab style has never been a recognized style.

REF: pp. 109-112

OBJ: 5

7. This style of letter is the easiest to remember format and the most commonly used style as

well and is known as: a. modified block style. b. the space available for filing miscellaneous information. c. full-block style. d. modified block with indented paragraphs.

ANS: C

Full-block style is easy to remember and frequently chosen as the document style in medical offices. Everything is flush with the margin.

REF: p. 112

OBJ: 5

8. Spacing is an important consideration when setting up a letter for readability. It should

resemble a: a. formatting marking. b. vertical scene. c. out-folder. d. picture in a frame.

ANS: D

The picture frame effect is achieved by using proper line lengths and correct spacing between parts of the letter.

REF: p. 112

OBJ: 7

9. The modified block letter style is challenging as it is more difficult to format. The key

differences involve formatting at the centre of the page the following parts, the date line, complementary closing, and the: a. writer’s name. b. inside address. c. salutation. d. body.

ANS: A

The modified block letter style is popular, but is more difficult as it requires that specific parts are flush with left margin, which includes the body, inside address, and salutation.

REF: p. 112

OBJ: 7

10. If a letter must be sent to other people than the addressee, a notation is included. This notation

is referred to as: a. enclosure. b. copy. c. salutation. d. post script.

ANS: B

Guarding against breeches in confidentiality is a acutely prevalent when handling patient files, this includes practices that reduce or eliminate the ability for others to view patient records.

REF: p. 127

OBJ: 7

MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. Mixed punctuation style means that punctuation is used in following places: (Select all that

apply.) a. date-line. b. complimentary closing. c. salutation. d. subject notation.

ANS: B, C

Mixed punctuation style means there is punctuation used following the salutation and the complimentary closing. A colon is placed after the salutation and the complimentary closing.

REF: p. 115

OBJ: 8

2. Styles of envelopes typically used in business: (Select all that apply.) a. No. 8. b. No. 6.

c. No.7. d. No.10.

ANS: A, D

The two sizes of envelopes most commonly used are No. 8 and No. 10. It allows for satisfactory positioning for the receiver address and fits most document and letter styles.

REF: p. 127

OBJ: 9

3. Common types of documents compiled in a medical environment, include: (Select all that

apply.) a. postcards. b. letters. c. statement of adjustment. d. memos.

ANS: B, D

Both letters and memos are the most common types of documents prepared in a medical office. Understanding formatting steps is critical for professional practice.

REF: pp. 108-109

OBJ: 1

4. It is a good practice for offices to be consistent when creating documentation. This includes:

(Select all that apply.) a. font size. b. number of pages. c. font type. d. random choices.

ANS: A, C

It is a good practice for offices to have standard consistent methods for preparing letters and other documents.

REF: p. 112

OBJ: 6

5. After a physician reads the mail the following should be completed: (Select all that apply.) a. file immediately. b. physician’s initials. c. call patient. d. action indicated.

ANS: B, D

The physician should initial it as it indicates it has been read as well often action is required for the letter or it may need to be filed, the physician should indicate this action. These steps are important safeguards.

REF: p. 106

OBJ: 1

COMPLETION 1. Some clinics have a designated person who distributes the internal mail to each department,

this role is referred to as the mail

.

ANS:

porter The mail porter is assigned as their primary focus is mail handling, they often transfer laboratory and other diagnostics samples to hospitals.

REF: p. 107

OBJ: 4

2. Most memos for speed and distribution purposes are sent by

.

ANS:

email In today’s medical office environment, most memos are created and distributed by email. It is faster and more efficient.

REF: p. 109

OBJ: 5

3. A provincial code is added to the inside address when properly addressed. This consists of a

short letter code with the correct number of letters

.

ANS:

two Two letter provincial codes are standard on an inside address rather than keying it out.

REF: p. 115

OBJ: T6ESTBANKSELLER.COM

4. You use this line below the salutation, and it is used to indicate you are referring to a person.

It is called

.

ANS:

subject A subject line is keyed in a letter when you place a special reference to a person. A re is used to reference a file number or number of some description.

REF: p. 124

OBJ: 7

5. The spacing for the body of a letter is generally

.

ANS:

single Word-processing systems typically default to 1.15 spacing which is considered single spaced and this is the guideline for the body of the letter.

REF: p. 124 TRUE/FALSE

OBJ: 4

1. In a medical office the majority of mail arrives electronically.

ANS: T

With the variety of electronic choices of mail delivery the traditional postal delivery methodology is now a secondary source of conveyance.

REF: p. 106

OBJ: 1

2. All incoming mail with the exception of envelopes marked confidential or personal should not

be opened by the medical administrative assistant.

ANS: F

All mail with the exception of those marked confidential and personal should be opened by the medical administrative assistant. Confidential mail should only be opened by the person who the mail is addressed to.

REF: p. 106

OBJ: 1

3. Transcribing the physician’s outgoing dictated and letters can be a responsibility of the

medical administrative assistant.

ANS: T

In many setting the medical administrative assistant will transcribe the physician’s reports and other documentation. Some physicians also use speech recognition software, and the assistant reviews and edits documents to mail ready standards.

REF: p. 107

OBJ: T2ESTBANKSELLER.COM

4. Using a courier service to send packages allows the sender to trace the location of the

package.

ANS: T

When sending a courier package, an identification number is generated as is information for tracking your package location and delivery status. Use this service for important time-sensitive documents.

REF: p. 107

OBJ: 4

5. An electronic health record (EHR) is not widely available and is an idea for the future.

ANS: F

Many hospitals in Canada have implemented an EHR system. The system allows for management of the patient health record, reports, and various other electronic documentation.

REF: p. 108

OBJ: 6

Chapter 07: Health Insurance Plans Ramsay & Rutherford: Plunkett’s Procedures for the Medical Administrative Assistant, 5th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Each province and territory has its own sponsored plan, this sponsorship originates from: a. government. b. private insurance. c. world health organization. d. health Canada.

ANS: A

Every province and territory in Canada has its own government-sponsored plan. The Medical Care Act introduced this policy initiative in 1966/67.

REF: p. 133

OBJ: 1

2. Which person from this list may be excluded from provincial or territorial health coverage as

they have a different plan provided by a Canadian federal governing body? a. Transient b. Tourist c. Federal judge d. Visitor ANS: C

First nations living on reseT rvEesS, T mBeA mN beKrsSoEfLthLeERRC.MCPO, M federal public service employees, and federal judges are all provided health care coverage by a federal governing body. Visitors and tourist also don’t have coverage, but they have no coverage offered by the federal governing body.

REF: p. 135

OBJ: 1

3. Government-sponsored health care is designed to cover basic medical needs. Some employers

offer additional coverage. This coverage is known as: a. grant insurance. b. reciprocal insurance. c. shadow insurance. d. extended health insurance.

ANS: D

Coverage beyond basics through an employer is referred to as extended health insurance.

Often it is the combination of contributions from payroll deductions and funded partly through the employer as well.

REF: p. 136

OBJ: 1

4. The interprovincial agreement in place with all provinces and territories with the exception of

Quebec provides for medical coverage when visiting outside of your province or territory in Canada. This coverage is billed as:

a. b. c. d.

coordinated medical billing. outside medical billing. third party medical billing. reciprocal medical billing.

ANS: D

RMB provides for medical services to be billed with the expectation coverage will be provided by home province or territory with the exception of Quebec for medical services needed.

REF: p. 137

OBJ: 2

5. Privacy laws govern how personal health information is collected, disclosed, and: a. sorted. b. kept confidential. c. filed. d. presented.

ANS: B

The Office of the Privacy Commissioner of Canada provides detailed information concerning all provincial and territorial privacy laws. Confidentiality of health information is a foundational principle within the Canadian health care landscape.

REF: p. 140

OBJ: 7

6. This schedule developed individually by each province and territory outlines the rules and

payment amount made to physicians for services provided: a. physician fee scheduleT . ESTBANKSELLER.COM b. medical fee schedule. c. billable fee schedule. d. registration fee schedule.

ANS: A

The physician fee schedule is a document outlining all billing rules and requirements in each province and territory. Divided into distinct sections for ease of use and functionality.

REF: p. 141

OBJ: 3

7. In order for a physician to bill for services provided to patients, a physician must become

eligible to do so. This involves securing from the local Ministry of Health (MoH) a: a. physician endorsement number. b. physician claim number. c. physician registration number. d. physician shadow number.

ANS: C

Only the Ministry of Health can assign a physician registration number for billing purposes.

The number remains unique to the province or territory of practice. If a physician travels to another province to set up practice, a registration number from the new province or territory is required.

REF: p. 141

OBJ: 3

8. All of the following are required for a physician to submit a claim for medical services to the

MoH with the exception of which item? a. Health registration number b. Accounting number c. Payment program d. Driver’s license number ANS: D

Several sections are required for a medical billing claim; however, a driver’s license number is not and has never been a requirement for receiving medical services in Canada.

REF: p. 142

OBJ: 4

9. Fee codes are numeric or alpha numeric in composition and are assigned to represent a service

or set of services provided by a physician and these codes are correctly referred to as: a. service codes. b. diagnostic codes. c. submission codes. d. program codes.

ANS: A

The correct term is a service code as it represents an understanding and financial payment for the service provided between the physician and MoH. REF: p. 143

OBJ: 4

10. This specific service code T reE flS ecTtsBaAbNriK efSoEffLicLeEvR is. it C anOdMis known as: a. general assessment. b. minor assessment. c. intermediate assessment. d. reassessment assessment.

ANS: B

In this instance, the diagnosis is fairly simple and less time consuming than for an intermediate assessment.

REF: p. 144

OBJ: 4

11. These are specialized service codes that denote a diagnostic testing or a therapeutic act was

performed with a patient. These codes are referred to as: a. health codes. b. procedural codes. c. rule codes. d. invasive codes.

ANS: B

Procedural codes are a specialized type of fee or service code. It indicates the procedure performed on the patient from a diagnostic to a therapeutic purpose.

REF: p. 144

OBJ: 4

12. When a physician works outside of their normal office hours, such as a house call at 2:00 am,

in this case, the physician can prepare a service code as well as using a specialized code which recognizes the off hour visit. These codes are referred to as: a. special. b. premium. c. outstanding. d. after hour.

ANS: B

A premium code is leveraged and available for a physician to use when a circumstance meets specific guidelines as set out in the preamble of the physician fee schedule. They include after hour visits, detentions, as well as holiday and emergency situations.

REF: pp. 145-146

OBJ: 4

13. Certain services require additional information and consideration to support the claim or

request for a health care service. It is often reviewed manually by a medical consultant prior to approval. This is referred to as: a. independent consideration. b. flagged consideration. c. service consideration. d. diagnostic consideration.

ANS: A

An independent consideration must include supporting documentation for the coverage or part coverage of a proposed methodology of treatment not currently listed in the fee schedule.

REF: p. 146

OBJ: T4ESTBANKSELLER.COM

14. An itemized statement detailing individual payments made by the MoH for insured services.

This report often can be viewed from or printed from the EMR system along with reconciling the claims submitted and paid. What is the name of this statement? a. Statement advice b. Auditing advice c. Remittance advice d. Header advice ANS: C

The remittance advice (RA) is a critical report in the claim reconciliation process.

Reconciliation between what has been billed and what has been paid is an essential operational process. It denotes claims not paid and provides a code indicating reason for rejection of a claim for follow-up.

REF: p. 152

OBJ: 5

15. The local MoH provides a listing of error codes to compare against claims rejected as found

on the remittance advice and the error codes are also known as: a. explanatory codes. b. decoding codes. c. amount paid codes. d. documentation codes.

ANS: A

Error or explanatory codes are used to explain why a claim has not been accepted or paid in full. It must be reviewed monthly and followed up as claims have an expiry window for correction, resubmission, and payment.

REF: p. 153

OBJ: 6

MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. In order to submit a claim for health care services the claim will often need to contain: (Select

all that apply.) a. visit code. b. service code. c. diagnostic code. d. subject code.

ANS: B, C

While additional components are also required for the billing. Service codes and diagnostic codes are essential from the perspective of the MoH in order to process it.

REF: p. 143

OBJ: 3

2. Personal health information is protected by laws and can be found through the Office of the

Privacy Commission of Canada. These laws protect: (Select all that apply.) a. privacy. b. No. 6. c. No.7. d. confidentiality.

ANS: A, D

Personal health information is protected and is amongst the more sensitive of personal information. Patients need to know their information is protected both from a privacy and confidential standpoint.

REF: p. 140

OBJ: 2

3. Patients securing health services outside of their province may experience: (Select all that

apply.) a. physician’s office will see the patient with no fee. b. physician’s office direct bills their MoH. c. physician’s office invoices the patient directly. d. physician’s office sends the patient away with no service.

ANS: B, C

Completing a reciprocal medical billing is standard procedure when a patient outside of your province presents a health card from another province or territory for health care. The patient can also be billed directly then submit the invoice to their local MoH upon return to their province or territory.

REF: p. 137

OBJ: 4

4. The physician fee schedule outlines: (Select all that apply.) a. insurable claims. b. number of pages. c. rules to follow for claim submission. d. all physician registration numbers.

ANS: A, C

The fee schedule outlines service fees, items considered insurable services, as well as rules surrounding claim policy and more.

REF: p. 141

OBJ: 3

5. When handling a WCB claim, the medical assistant’s responsibilities include: (Select all that

apply.) a. notification of employer. b. establish reason for visit. c. call patient. d. health professional’s report is submitted within 48 hours.

ANS: B, D

In order to determine the payment program for claim submission the medical assistant needs to know the reason to ensure it is documented as a WCB claim. Additionally a physician will complete a report and the office will submit it to WCB, it is time sensitive and 48 hours is the requirement for the health report.

REF: p. 156

OBJ: 7

olB loAwNinKgSsE ituLaL tiE onRs. : (C SeOleMct all that apply.)

6. Time units are specified inTthEeSfT a. intermediate assessment. b. psychotherapy lasting 45 minutes. c. annual health examination. d. psychotherapy lasting 1 hour.

ANS: B, D

Specific reasons for a visit are known to take considerable variations in time, psychotherapy is a prime example of per unit billings ranging in approximately 15 minutes sequences.

REF: p. 145

OBJ: 3

7. These are examples of common types of service visits in a general practice, include: (Select

all that apply.) a. general assessment. b. complicated assessment. c. easy assessment. d. well baby care.

ANS: A, D

Both general and well baby care are recognized as common visit determinates in most provinces and territories.

REF: p. 144

OBJ: 1

8. The remittance advice RA contains the following information: (Select all that apply.) a. EMR information. b. claim information. c. payment information. d. auditing information.

ANS: B, C

It contains both claim details and total payment information under three parts; header, claim, and payment.

REF: p. 152

OBJ: 5

9. The MoH may audit claims from time to time. The audit is a random process and may

involve: (Select all that apply.) a. an MoH representative visiting the office. b. a subpoena served. c. court officer. d. letter sent to random patients confirming a visit.

ANS: A, D

When an audit is being conducted, a representative may visit the provider’s office requesting information regarding specific billing on a certain day or group of days. Sometimes the Ministry will send letters as well to establish with a patient directly if they received services on a specific date.

REF: pp. 151-152

OBJ: 4

laB imAtNoKthSeEM clC udOeM : (Select all that apply.)

10. Most methods of submittinTgEaScT LoLHEiRn. a. courier transfer. b. electronic data transfer. c. electronic claim submission. d. mail transmission.

ANS: B, C

With electronic billing systems used widely in offices throughout Canada electronic transfer of billing claims are readily accepted 24 hours a day, 7 days a week.

REF: p. 148

OBJ: 4

COMPLETION 1. A typed or generated sheet listing the patients being seen in the office on a specific date is a

.

ANS:

day A day sheet lists all the patients for tracking purposes, sometimes billing and diagnostic code assignment as well.

REF: p. 132

OBJ: 1

2. A service with supporting documentation is used by physician when a service they wish to

claim is not part of the physicians schedule indicating it requires a unique case by case consideration .

ANS:

independent This service may be considered uninsured, but under special circumstances and with supporting documentation, the MoH may grant special independent consideration.

REF: p. 132

OBJ: 4

3. The short form representing the plan program for injured workers to receive health care and

employment income replacement when injured on the job is

.

ANS:

WCB Workers compensation board is the billing payment program. Each province and territory WCB may vary in official name the program falls under the WCB umbrella for billing.

REF: p. 154

OBJ: 7

4. The worker’s compensation program is funded by

.

ANS:

employers Employers who pay WCB premiums are protected from lawsuits in exchange for financing the provincial or territorial program.

REF: p. 156

OBJ: 7

5. The public may wish to carry additional insurance sourced on their own through a private

insurance company known as

.

ANS:

third-party Additional insurance can be purchased by a private insurance company and pay the premiums themselves. Not all employers offer extended health benefits.

REF: p. 157

OBJ: 9

TRUE/FALSE 1. The diagnostic code indicates the therapeutic procedure performed on a patient.

ANS: F

A diagnostic code relates to a diagnosis, not a procedure.

REF: p. 143

OBJ: 5

2. Canada’s health care plan includes several foundational elements consisting of accessibility,

universality, portability, and comprehensiveness.

ANS: T

All four descriptors cover the goals of the Canadian Health care system. It ensures a consistent Canada wide approach.

REF: p. 132

OBJ: 1

3. Each province and territory is required to set up their own health care system based on the

rules established by the Canada Health Act. ANS: T

Each province or territory has their own government-sponsored plan and most features of the individual plans are similar in nature and delivery.

REF: p. 133

OBJ: 2

4. Required information to submit a claim for health services includes the physician registration

number, health registration number of patient, date of birth, and claim number.

ANS: T

These components along with others are required for the MoH to accept a claim for processing. Strict guidelines are identified in the preamble of the Physician Fee schedule.

REF: pp. 142-143

OBJ: 4

5. RCB is an example of a payment program for health care claim submission in Canada.

ANS: F

Claim submission processing requires knowledge of payment program coding. RMB means reciprocal medical billing. RCB doesn’t exist as a payment program.

REF: p. 137

OBJ: 4

Chapter 08: Financial Records Ramsay & Rutherford: Plunkett’s Procedures for the Medical Administrative Assistant, 5th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. This is a document which provides an itemized statement of patient charges for uninsured

services. What is the correct accounting name of this document? a. Invoice b. Purchase order c. Remittance d. Transaction ANS: A

An invoice provides an itemized list of charges owed. Third-party billing could necessitate the generation of an invoice as does an uninsured service.

REF: p. 169

OBJ: 1

2. Identify the technology that permits the act of taking an image of a cheque to transmit it to the

bank for deposit into the business account. a. Remote bank transfer b. Remote bank withdrawal c. Remote deposit capture d. Remote invoice generator ANS: C

This technology RDC, allows for remote deposit capture through financial institutions. It allows for a deposit of a cheque anytime from the office with a computer, mobile device, or compatible scanner. An image of the cheque transmits to the bank and the cheque is deposited into the account.

REF: p. 174

OBJ: 4

3. A business with compensated employees is required to open a payroll account with which

government agency? a. Health Canada Agency b. Canada Pension Agency c. Employment Agency d. Canada Revenue Agency ANS: D

Processing payroll is an important function of any business. Mandatory deductions are made which requires the business to open a payroll account with the Canada Revenue Agency (CRA).

REF: p. 177

OBJ: 5

4. When handling petty cash, a petty cash receipt is created to show each individual

disbursement. This receipt is also correctly identified as a:

a. b. c. d.

slip. invoice. statement. voucher.

ANS: D

A petty cash voucher is the correct reference and is a standard record for each withdrawal or disbursement of funds from petty cash. See Figure 8.5.

REF: p. 173

OBJ: 3

5. A best practice to determine when to use petty and when to issue a formal payment for an

expenditure should be based around: a. willingness to purchase item. b. withdrawal limit policy. c. petty cash log. d. other withdrawals.

ANS: B

Establish a withdrawal limit policy to ensure sound management of the fund as intended.

Some organizations set a benchmark of $30-$40.

REF: p. 173

OBJ: 3

6. This federal payroll form completed by an employee and it establishes mandatory deduction

amounts from gross income. The form name is: a. TD1. b. RD1. c. DT1. d. TD3.

ANS: A

The TDI form is completed by a new employee to determine taxation levels and requirements to be deducted from gross income.

REF: p. 177

OBJ: 5

7. From a payroll perspective the short form CPP, stands for: a. Certified Pension Plan. b. Canada Retirement Pension. c. Canada Pension Plan. d. Collection Pension Plan.

ANS: C

CPP stands for Canada Pension Plan. All provinces and territories are involved in the system with the exception of Quebec. Quebec utilizes the Quebec Pension Plan.

REF: p. 177

OBJ: 6

8. An employer’s contribution for EI amounts to a higher amount than the employee deduction.

This amount equates to: a. 2 times employee contribution.

b. 1.6 times employee contribution. c. 3 times employee contribution. d. 1.4 times employee contribution.

ANS: D

The employer’s contribution is 1.4 times of the employee. These combined contributions support the system when individuals become unemployed.

REF: p. 177

OBJ: 7

9. As part of the payroll process an employer is required to submit monthly to the Receiver

General all of the following deductions except: a. extended health benefits. b. CP. c. income tax. d. EI. ANS: A

An employer is required to submit monies deducted including both the employee and employer contribution to the Receiver General using a pre-printed form known as the Statement of Account for Source Deductions.

REF: p. 177

OBJ: 6

10. This coverage ensures an employee could still receive a percentage of their income in the

event of a health issue preventing them for working: a. employer loan. b. long- or short-term disaTbE ilS ityT.BANKSELLER.COM c. union dues. d. life insurance.

ANS: B

Long- and short-term disability ensure employees could still receive a percentage of their salary in the event of a health issue. Many times an employee contributes through deductions to enable this coverage.

REF: p. 181

OBJ: 6

MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. Computerized accounting systems perform a variety of tasks which include: (Select all that

apply.) a. prepare procedure manual. b. inventory tracking. c. cheque preparation. d. prepare medical projections.

ANS: B, C

Small business accounting systems perform many functions including; payroll, cheque preparation, bank reconciliation, and tracking inventory.

REF: p. 170

OBJ: 1

2. The employee payroll statement issue with each pay period includes these pieces of

information: (Select all that apply.) a. hours worked. b. invoicing. c. cash disbursements. d. deductions.

ANS: A, D

The payroll statement includes hours worked, deductions, gross, and net income.

REF: p. 179

OBJ: 9

3. Banking responsibilities of the medical administrative assistant includes: (Select all that

apply.) a. payroll. b. making deposits. c. reconciliation of bank statement. d. invoicing.

ANS: B, C

Banking procedures encompasses making deposits, reconciling monthly bank statement, and cheque preparation.

REF: p. 174

OBJ: 4

4. Other payroll deductions can include: (Select all that apply.) a. life insurance. b. business cards. c. pension. d. petty cash.

ANS: A, C

Apart from standard deductions, additional deductions may be prevalent with specific employers. They would be part of the payroll process. Deductions such as added life insurance and private pension plans.

REF: p. 181

OBJ: 5

5. Outstanding billing accounts should be reviewed on a monthly basis and a statement prepared.

The statement should include: (Select all that apply.) a. voucher number. b. name of statement. c. reduction of fees. d. explanation of service.

ANS: B, D

Several pieces of information should be included on a medical services statement and it includes, name of statement, date of issue, the name of debtor, and detailed explanation of the service.

REF: p. 173

OBJ: 2

COMPLETION 1. Medical offices should maintain this small fund to purchase items like stamps, coffee

supplies, and other various items. This cash fund is known as

.

ANS:

petty The petty cash fund is used for minor office incidentals such as stamps, coffee, and pens.

REF: p. 173

OBJ: 3

2. Provides an itemized list of charges and fees owed

.

ANS:

invoice An invoice provides the record of the itemized list of charges and fees owed. It differs from a statement, as a statement provides for past monies owed and usually issued when an invoice for payment is past due.

REF: p. 169

OBJ: 1

3. The money owed to an office is referred to as account

.

ANS:

receivable The money owed by the office is accounts payable while the money owed to the office is accounts receivable.

REF: p. 170

OBJ: 2

4. The short form for the technology that permits a capture of a cheque and can be used to

submit the cheque for deposit remotely

.

ANS:

RDC Remote deposit capture is offered by financial institution for the deposit of a cheque at any time through web based or mobile technology.

REF: p. 174

OBJ: 4

5. A multicolumn journal and entry system used to track expenditures is known as a

.

ANS:

disbursement

The disbursement journal is the foundational component and record for tracking expenditures in the office.

REF: p. 170

OBJ: 1

TRUE/FALSE 1. A cash disbursement journal is a multicolumn record used as a method to track all

expenditures.

ANS: T

In a single-entry bookkeeping system a cash disbursement journal is maintained to record all expenditures. It shows where the money is spent.

REF: p. 170

OBJ: 1

2. Monies owed to the medical facility is considered accounts payable.

ANS: F

Accounts receivable is the correct term reflective of monies owed to a business. Accounts payable is the monies own by the business.

REF: p. 170

OBJ: 2

3. Petty cash is a fund used to purchase minor office supplies.

ANS: T

Depending on the size of the medical environment, funds kept on hand typically range from $50.00 to $100.00 for minor office supplies.

REF: p. 173

OBJ: 3

4. EMV technology features payments tool which includes an embedded micro-processing chips

that store and protect cardholder data.

ANS: T

Europay, MasterCard and Visa (EMV) is globally popular for accepting payments. This technology is often found on bank cards for point of sale purchases and payments.

REF: p. 174

OBJ: 4

5. The goal of business bank account reconciliation is to determine how much is owing on a

business loan.

ANS: F

Bank account reconciliation is designed to compare the bank statement to the cheque book balance to ensure accuracy. When compared, they should both balance.

REF: p. 174

OBJ: 4

Chapter 09: Managing Office Supplies Ramsay & Rutherford: Plunkett’s Procedures for the Medical Administrative Assistant, 5th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. This is an important function from an operational perspective for managing goods and office

materials. This is known as: a. supply management. b. supervisor management. c. office management. d. physician management.

ANS: A

Supply management is designed to ensure supplies are on hand when needed and tracking systems are put into place while managing inventory, costs, and remittance of payments.

REF: p. 186

OBJ: 1

2. This process is described as the flow of goods and services in all aspects from acquisition of

the material to the point of consumption. This is referred to as: a. reordering management. b. remote consumption. c. supply chain management. d. financial costing management.

ANS: C

Medical practices used technology to automate the supply process. Acquiring supplies from the material to the point of consumption is supply chain management.

REF: p. 186

OBJ: 2

3. Which of the following is not a stage of the supply chain management (SCM) process? a. Order processing b. Order reconciliation c. Supply procurement d. Disposal of supplies ANS: D

Disposal of expired product or used products does include a protocol surrounding discarding steps; however, it is not part of the stages of supply chain management. These include all other options listed in the answer section.

REF: p. 186

OBJ: 2

4. All of the following are typical operational supplies found in a medical office with the

exception of: a. surgical gloves. b. tongue depressors. c. thermometers.

d. spare parts for exam tables.

ANS: D

Parts for examination tables would require a special order and would not typically be part of day to day operational supplies and therefore rarely kept on hand like surgical gloves, tongue depressors, and thermometers.

REF: pp. 186-187

OBJ: 2

5. Available through the local public health unit these items provide immunization against

specific diseases such as measles: a. drops. b. vaccinations. c. lotions. d. ointments.

ANS: B

Vaccinations are ordered through the local public health unit following strict guidelines and handling procedures. Immunity to specific disease is provided through the vaccination process.

REF: p. 188

OBJ: 3

6. When a pharmaceutical representative provides medication samples to the physician, they are

known as: a. clinical evaluation packets. b. financial replacement supplements. c. cautionary sample packTeE tsS . TBANKSELLER.COM d. training medication supplements.

ANS: A

Physicians receive clinical evaluation packets from pharmaceutical representatives. The patient and physician can determine the effectiveness of the medication prior to issuing a full prescription of the medication.

REF: p. 188

OBJ: 3

7. The practice of checking the right supplies are received, the right cost charged, is considered

what process? a. Order processing b. Supplier procurement c. Reconciliation of order d. Availability of supply ANS: C

Order reconciliation requires the practice of ensuring the right supplies ordered and received based on the purchase agreements in place.

REF: p. 186

OBJ: 2

8. All of these are examples of materials covered under WHIMIS with the exception of: a. liquid hand soap.

b. bleach cleaner. c. toilet bowl cleaner. d. paper towels.

ANS: D

Most liquid materials have hazardous components associated with them and WHIMIS identifies this.

REF: p. 190

OBJ: 4

9. Medications kept on the premises including clinical evaluations packets should be stored: a. away from public access in one location. b. scattered in private locations through the office. c. in a publically accessible location in the office. d. do not keep any medications on site.

ANS: A

A best practice ensures the medications are stored away from a publically accessible location known only to the physicians and the health care team for safety and quality control.

REF: p. 188

OBJ: 3

10. When working with a medical supplier, placing an order and for relationship management it is

ideal to: a. know the competition. b. know the name of the sales person. c. know you can cancel the order. d. know the order isn’t urT geEnS t.TBANKSELLER.COM ANS: B

The best practice for relationship and follow-up procedures is to know the name of the sales person. They are a key point of contact, especially if any issue occurs related to the order.

They can follow up on their end when issues arise.

REF: p. 192

OBJ: 2

MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. Laboratory specimen containers ordered for a medical office can include: (Select all that

apply.) a. x-rays. b. blood collection tubes. c. stool collection containers. d. MRI. ANS: B, C

Medical offices routinely collect specimens and collection containers are ordered directly from the laboratory that processes the specimen. Blood and urine collection containers are quite commonly ordered items.

REF: p. 189

OBJ: 3

2. Expired or outdated medications are best handled by the following methodologies for safe

disposal: (Select all that apply.) a. incineration. b. flushing. c. toss in garbage. d. drug company picks them up.

ANS: A, D

Medications should never be flushed as they can enter the water system, nor tossed in the garbage where they could also cause environmental damage. Expired medications must be incinerated for destruction and many pharmaceutical companies will pick up expired medications to ensure their safe handling.

REF: p. 189

OBJ: 3

3. Most offices do not stock these classifications of medications because of the inherit risk

assigned: (Select all that apply.) a. creams. b. narcotics. c. controlled drugs. d. ointments.

ANS: B, C

A narcotic is a substance deemed to have a high potential for abuse and controlled substances also have a higher than average risk of abuse attached to them. If an effort to avoid drug-seeking individuals from searching the office for these substances, they typically are not kept on hand.

REF: p. 189

OBJ: 4

4. The harmonized sales tax (HST) is a combination of taxes they include: (Select all that apply.) a. goods and services tax (GST). b. supply sales tax (SST). c. regional provincial sales tax (PST). d. medical consumption tax (MST).

ANS: A, C

The supply sales tax or the medical consumption tax does not exist. The combination is goods and services tax and provincial sales tax.

REF: p. 193

OBJ: 6

5. Credit terms 2/10/n/30 and 3/15/n/30 translate to mean: (Select all that apply.) a. two percent can be deducted if paid in 15 days, otherwise net in 40 days. b. two percent can be deducted if paid in 10 days, otherwise net in 30 days. c. three percent can be deducted if paid in 10 days, otherwise net in 30 days. d. three percent can be deducted if paid in 15 days, otherwise net in 30 days.

ANS: B, D

Two percent can be deducted if paid in 10 days, otherwise net in 30 days reflects the first example, and three percent can be deducted if paid in 15 days, otherwise net in 30 days for the second credit term.

REF: p. 193

OBJ: 6

COMPLETION 1. The short form that represents supply chain management is

.

ANS:

SCM Supply chain management is more frequently known by the short-form SCM. Many elements comprise the vital office function. Supplier acquisition, product quality, inventory tracking, and control.

REF: p. 186

OBJ: 2

2. A substance deemed to have a high potential for abuse, many offices refuse to keep such a

substance on hand due to potential break-ins. This substance is known as a .

ANS:

narcotic Narcotics have a high potential for misuse and abuse. Offices frequently keep a minimal supply or no supply at all of narcotics. Physicians will sometimes order single use supply of a narcotic for their office.

REF: p. 189

OBJ: 4

3. A container which uses high pressures and temperatures for steam sterilization of instruments

in a medical office. This container is properly known as a

.

ANS:

autoclave An autoclave is designed to sterilize instruments using an intense level of heat to destroy any micro-organisms still living on the instruments from a prior usage.

REF: p. 189

OBJ: 4

4. This system is designed to identify hazardous materials and inform of proper handling

procedures. This system is recognized but the acronym short-form as

.

ANS:

WHMIS Workplace hazardous materials information system (WHMIS) is a material identification and handling initiative to inform employees about specific risks with materials and education in the safe usage of the material.

REF: p. 189 5. A

OBJ: 4

is a statement of the amount owed for goods shipped by the supplier.

ANS:

invoice The invoice outlines the amount of the items purchased as well as the quantities purchased, it should match the purchase order.

REF: p. 192

OBJ: 5

TRUE/FALSE 1. Cold chain refers to how vaccinations are stored at optimal cold temperatures.

ANS: T

Vaccinations are compromised when not stored at the required cold temperature as set forth by the public health unit. This is referred to as the cold chain. Recent changes and studies are underway to find alternative storage protocols.

REF: p. 188

OBJ: 4

2. Suppliers do not need to provide a packing ship when shipping an order to the office.

ANS: F

It is a standard process from lieNrKtoSiE ncLlud acOkM ing slip as the slip identifies items and TEaSsuTpBpA LEeRa.pC quantities shipped it should always be compared with the items contained in the shipment to ensure both the packing slip and items received match.

REF: p. 192

OBJ: 5

3. Suppliers sometimes offer incentive discounts for payment of the invoice known as a cash

discount.

ANS: T

Cash discounts are offered to encourage prompt payment, this is often referred to as credit terms. Most suppliers disclose their terms at the time of an order submission. Terms can also be negotiated with targeted suppliers.

REF: p. 193

OBJ: 6

4. It is a recommended best practice to appoint an order processing person in your facility to

have a consistent approach.

ANS: T

A designated supply person will be able to develop quality control measures to prevent supply deficits and duplication of orders.

REF: p. 186

OBJ: 1

5. Most offices have a generous supply of narcotics and controlled substances kept on site.

ANS: F

These substances have a high potential for abuse and misuse and limited supply is kept on hand in most offices. The risk of potential break-ins are a deterrent for management these supplies in house.

REF: p. 189

OBJ: 4

Chapter 10: The Procedures Manual Ramsay & Rutherford: Plunkett’s Procedures for the Medical Administrative Assistant, 5th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. This guidebook provides an outline of instructions and policies that assist with the overall

operation of the health care facility includes: a. procedures manual. b. solutions manual. c. instructions manual. d. physician manual.

ANS: A

The procedures manual provide an outlines of instructions, procedures, and policies essential to the flow of work in a facility.

REF: p. 196

OBJ: 1

2. SOPs are standard systemic sets of instructions outlined by the organization to guide workers

through routine activities day to day. SOPs translate in full to mean: a. standard operating activities. b. standard observing protocol. c. standard operating procedures. d. standard succession proposals.

ANS: C

Standard operating procedures (SOPs) are the set of instructions within an organization. They have been agreed to by the team or the organization as the routine protocol. It provides clear guidance for new employees as well.

REF: p. 196

OBJ: 1

3. This planning process identifies the opportunity to develop employees who may assume a

leadership role of an employee who could be promoted from their current role within the organization. Which planning process correctly identifies this? a. Emergency planning b. Temporary staff planning c. Time management planning d. Succession planning ANS: D

Succession planning is an important consideration in a facility or organization, employees receive promotions and vacate their current position. Planning ahead for this transition is a key aspect of succession planning.

REF: p. 196

OBJ: 1

4. In the development of the procedures manual, how will you gather your information? a. Look up the office procedures online.

b. Guess the intended outcome. c. Imagine ideal practices. d. Interview, observe, and collaborate with team members.

ANS: D

The information gathering piece is of critical importance to ensure you have a full understanding of the procedures performed in the environment. It should be a collaborative initiative where interviewing and observing can provide an added value.

REF: p. 196

OBJ: 2

5. A procedures manual highlights when roles and responsibilities overlap and this can create: a. uncertainty. b. duplication. c. hostility. d. frustration.

ANS: B

Duplication is a waste of resources and human energy and leads to significant confusion.

Evaluating procedures routinely removes or reduces duplicated processes.

REF: p. 197

OBJ: 3

MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. A procedures manual should contain: (Select all that apply.) a. local restaurant information. b. billing procedures and T syEsS teT mB s.ANKSELLER.COM c. daily activity routine. d. professional development certificates.

ANS: B, C

Billing procedures and daily activity routines are essential in the procedures manual.

Restaurants have no place embedded into the procedure manual and professional development certificates are helpful information but it doesn’t support a universal development of a procedures manual.

REF: p. 197

OBJ: 2

2. The common setups for employee access to the procedures manual include: (Select all that

apply.) a. paper-based. b. index cards. c. flash cards. d. web-based.

ANS: A, D

When considering procedures manual format, the deployment is critical for access and ease of usage. Both paper-based and web-based systems offer a systemic approach for addressing the access and ease of usage. Many flash cards and index cards would be needed for each procedure, therefore, not practical.

REF: pp. 197-198

OBJ: 2

3. These are helpful as preset components within a document as well as a guided step by step

worksheet for following a workplace process: (Select all that apply.) a. structures. b. checklists. c. templates. d. quick notes.

ANS: B, C

Templates have pre-completed components like a header and calculation formulas. Checklists are a step by set worksheet to follow each step without missing a step.

REF: p. 198

OBJ: 3

4. When creating a digital version of the procedure manual, files names should be: (Select all

that apply.) a. short. b. anything. c. descriptive. d. long.

ANS: A, C

Always consider ease of use when designing the procedures manual digitally, therefore, having short descriptive names will allow team members to use the manual and find quickly the information being sought.

REF: p. 198

OBJ: 3

5. A procedures manual helps to reduce material waste and the investment in extended training

periods. Both benefits can be described as: (Select all that apply.) a. inefficient. b. cost saving. c. unproductive. d. time management.

ANS: B, D

The cost savings benefits of a procedure manual as the information does not require constant restatement or training to learn. It is one stop place for information, thus saving considerable time involved in the training process.

REF: p. 197

OBJ: 2

COMPLETION 1. This is an add-on to a procedure outline designed for users to check off each step as it is

completed. This is known as a ANS:

checklist

.

A checklist is a tool which assists and reminds the user about the stages of the procedure. It also helps to prevent missing a step in the procedure.

REF: p. 198

OBJ: 3

2. A

is a sample document which contains specific parts already pre-filled or already outlined using building blocks. This allows for reuse over and over.

ANS:

template A template includes standard headings and permit ease of use with specific components already completed. It ensures consistency with documentation created within the facility.

REF: p. 198

OBJ: 3

3. A specific rule of the organization is considered to be a

.

ANS:

policy A policy outlines the rule of an organization. Policies are developed to provide structure and guidelines for the health care team to follow.

REF: p. 196 4. A

OBJ: 1

dT enEoSteTs B aA spNeK ciS fiE cL acLtiE onRt. oCtaOkM e.

ANS:

procedure A detailed procedure provides the step by step guidance for the completion of a task or group of tasks.

REF: p. 196

OBJ: 1

5. If hosting a web-based procedures manual for your team and to restrict access from others

outside of the organization, it is best that is it protected by a

.

ANS:

password Online composition allows for ease of use and access; however, everyone outside of the team should not have access to the sensitive parts of the manual. A password protected manual prevents full disclosure in this case.

REF: p. 198 TRUE/FALSE

OBJ: 2

1. The procedures manual should outline job descriptions or position profiles.

ANS: T

Having job descriptions and position profiles included in the procedures manual delineates a clear division of work and acquaints employees with roles and responsibilities.

REF: p. 196

OBJ: 1

2. Emergency procedures are not included in a procedure manual.

ANS: F

All procedures performed in an office should be documented in the procedures manual to ensure it is completed with all the key components outlined.

REF: p. 196

OBJ: 2

3. Once the procedures manual is completed, it should be routinely reviewed and updated

accordingly.

ANS: T

A procedure manual is only as effective as it is maintained in terms of accuracy and that accuracy involves frequent updates.

REF: p. 197

OBJ: 2

4. A procedures manual should include appointment schedule protocol, dress code, and hourly

pay rates concerning employees.

ANS: F

Privacy laws prevent the disclosure of hourly rate information of employees that should be kept confidential at all time. Dress code and appointment schedule information should be included in a procedures manual.

REF: p. 196

OBJ: 1

5. In facilities of small to medium setup a new employee handbook is often integrated into the

procedures manual.

ANS: T

In larger organizations and departments a customized employee handbook is a separate document. In small to medium organizational structures it is integrated into the procedures manual.

REF: p. 196

OBJ: 1

Chapter 11: Meeting Organization Ramsay & Rutherford: Plunkett’s Procedures for the Medical Administrative Assistant, 5th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. An agenda is an effective tool for helping to keep an office team meeting: a. organized. b. fitting. c. varied. d. different.

ANS: A

An agenda guides the flow of the meeting and identifies the allotment of time for each item on the agenda and maintains organization if used effectively.

REF: p. 203

OBJ: 3

2. A meeting style that is not pre-planned and has less structure is referred to as: a. formal. b. inappropriate. c. informal. d. administrative.

ANS: C

Informal meetings are by design not pre-planned or structured to allow for communication EaSlTpB streams, not guided by a foTrm roAceNsK sS orEfL orL mEalRa.gC enOdM a.

REF: p. 202

OBJ: 1

3. Event planning is often part of the administrative role. This type of event involves larger

groups of people with a specific focus. The meeting is known as a: a. symposium. b. webinar. c. convention. d. conference.

ANS: D

A conference is a large event with many people populated with a variety of workshops and meetings. It differs from a convention in that participants are members of an association.

REF: p. 205

OBJ: 4

4. This is the correct title of the document created after a meeting has been held to capture the

key discussions, motions, and resolutions occurring during the meeting, include: a. notice of meeting. b. agenda. c. proxy. d. minutes of meeting.

ANS: D

The minutes of the meeting is the documentation of the meeting. It provides a historical record and for future planning initiatives.

REF: p. 209

OBJ: 5

5. This is a type of seminar occurrence which is hosted online. It is best described as a: a. conference. b. webinar. c. symposium. d. event.

ANS: B

A webinar is an online seminar. Usually it has a one-way form of communication. The presenter hosts and provides the information for the seminar attendees.

REF: p. 205

OBJ: 4

6. A meeting type whereby the health care team (HCT) members meet to discuss matters directly

affecting workflow: a. staff. b. committee. c. probing. d. symposium.

ANS: A

A staff or team meeting allows for the HCT gather to discuss matters affecting the day to day flow of work. This is the most common type of meeting in the medical environment.

REF: p. 202

OBJ: 1

7. When recording the minutes of the meeting, only record discussions which relate directly to

what type of discussions? a. All conversations b. Comments and personal opinions c. Business only matters d. Any deviations from the agenda ANS: C

Minutes are to represent the business discussed at meetings. Informal discussions where personal opinions come into play should not be recorded as they often go off track.

REF: p. 209

OBJ: 5

8. A means of making a formal decision at a meeting: a. motion. b. quorum. c. proxy. d. resolution.

ANS: D

A resolution is a formal decision. A proxy involves voting rights and a motion carries a decision forward.

REF: p. 201

OBJ: 5

9. A committee formed to achieve a specific goal and is disbanded after the goal is

accomplished: a. adhoc. b. team. c. staff. d. focused.

ANS: A

An adhoc committee is selected or elected to perform a specific objective, once achieved the committee is separated.

REF: p. 202

OBJ: 1

10. A set of rules set forth by an association and often remains in effect for the duration or life of

the association: a. convention. b. constitution. c. committee. d. adhoc.

ANS: B

Associations develop guidelines which are adopted and followed as standards overseeing all activity undertaking. Associations refer to the rules as a constitution.

REF: p. 202

OBJ: T1ESTBANKSELLER.COM

MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. An effectively constructed agenda helps to eliminate: (Select all that apply.) a. facilitation. b. confusion. c. wasting time. d. call to order.

ANS: B, C

The design of the agenda eliminates confusion as the agenda outlines the discussion points and avoids common time wasters that arise when a structure is not present.

REF: p. 203

OBJ: 3

2. Ground rules are designed to avoid dysfunction during a meetings. Strategies which support

this include: (Select all that apply.) a. starting on time. b. allow input only when asked. c. ending early. d. stay on point.

ANS: A, D

Starting on time supports structure for the meeting as many items for discussion are timed on the agenda. Staying on point ensures meetings meet their intended goals and conclude on time.

REF: pp. 203-205

OBJ: 3

3. Formats of meeting structure include: (Select all that apply.) a. event. b. formal. c. informal. d. staff.

ANS: B, C

Meeting structure consists of two key aspects formal and informal. An event and staff meeting as an example are the types of meetings which can be either formal or informal.

REF: p. 202

OBJ: 1

4. Decision-making meetings involve these components, which include: (Select all that apply.) a. information gathering. b. committee. c. brain storming. d. convention.

ANS: A, C

A decision-making meeting is by design responsible for suggesting solutions to a problem. In order to achieve this objective information gathering and brain storming are examples of best practices.

REF: p. 202

OBJ: 1

5. A medical administrative assistant may be responsible for planning an event. Some

considerations when planning this event includes: (Select all that apply.) a. abstaining. b. venue. c. voters. d. arranging speakers.

ANS: B, D

Planning an event involves consideration around the venue, guest speakers, accommodations, and travel arrangement.

REF: p. 205

OBJ: 4

COMPLETION 1. A committee formed for the purpose of achieving a specific goal is known as a

.

ANS:

adhoc

The adhoc committee format is such that is seeks to achieve a goal. The committee is often disbanded after the goal is achieved.

REF: p. 202

OBJ: 1

2. The type of conference usually hosted by an association

.

ANS:

convention A convention is a type of conference organized by an association or professional body involving their membership as participants.

REF: p. 205

OBJ: 4

3. The individual who presides over or leads a meeting or event is known as the

.

ANS:

chairperson A chair or chairperson is responsible to oversee the meeting or an event. They often form the agenda or participate in the creation of the agenda.

REF: p. 201

OBJ: 1

4. When a vote is schedule anTdEaSvT oB tinAgNmKeSmEbL erLcE anRn.oC t bOeMpresent, they can vote by this method

known as a

.

ANS:

proxy The proxy methodology allows for an absentee member to still cast a vote in a decision-making meeting. The member must identify the voting party who will cast a ballot for them in their absence.

REF: p. 201 5. A

OBJ: 3

is a formal decision made at a meeting. It permits a movement

forward.

ANS:

resolution The resolution provides for a means of making a decision in a formal meeting.

REF: p. 201 TRUE/FALSE

OBJ: 3

1. A meeting can consist of two or more people gathered together with an objective in mind.

ANS: T

A gathering of two people can be considered a meeting when a purpose is identified. Most meetings are more formal in structure; however, two people are sufficient to consider it a meeting.

REF: p. 202

OBJ: 1

2. Following the guidelines outlined in Robert’s Rules of Order has no impact in a formal

meeting.

ANS: F

Format meetings are often guided by the guidelines provided in Robert’s Rules of Order.

These procedures help to direct the procedures and decision-making requirements often needed in the formal meeting setting.

REF: p. 202

OBJ: 1

3. A proxy is providing written permission for a member to vote in place of an absent member to

ensure their vote is counted and recorded.

ANS: T

A proxy is sometimes used in extenuating circumstances when a voting member will be absent and an important vote will take place at the meeting. It is a methodology that ensures their vote counts and is recorded.

REF: p. 203

OBJ: T2ESTBANKSELLER.COM

4. An agenda is a document that outlines the items or matters to be covered in the course of a

meeting.

ANS: T

The agenda is a critical component of the meeting process. It outlines all items and the order in which they will be covered in the meeting. It also helps with the formation of meeting minutes.

REF: p. 203

OBJ: 3

5. A notice of a meeting is issued to invite participants to a meeting. It identifies the purpose of

the meeting and the location. Often requiring a response indicating attendance.

ANS: T

The construction of a notice of meeting is essential to inform participants the purpose of a meeting. It should be issued at least 10 to 15 days prior to the meeting for planning purposes.

REF: p. 203

OBJ: 2

Chapter 12: Hospital Records, Requisitions, and Reports Ramsay & Rutherford: Plunkett’s Procedures for the Medical Administrative Assistant, 5th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The original diagnosis made by a physician in a hospital setting referred to as the reason for

admission. The proper name for this diagnosis is: a. objective. b. subjective. c. impartial. d. provisional.

ANS: D

The provisional diagnosis is a term used to describe the reason for the hospital admission. It is included on the admission note documentation.

REF: p. 216

OBJ: 1

2. Which accommodation type is provided by the provincial or territorial health insurance plan? a. Private b. Semi-private c. Standard d. Isolated ANS: C

The three types of accommToE daStiToB nA inN clK udSeEpLriL vaEtR e,.1CbO edMin room; semi-private, 2 beds in a room; and standard, with 4 beds in a room. Most provincial and territory coverage extends to standard room coverage.

REF: p. 217

OBJ: 3

3. This is defined as the key reason a patient seeks out a physician in a hospital setting, includes: a. chief complaint. b. provisional diagnosis. c. family history. d. past history.

ANS: A

A chief complaint is the term that defines and establishes the originating reason as patient would seek care in a health care setting.

REF: p. 221

OBJ: 9

4. This term refers to the physician who has the overall accountability for directing and

coordinating the care management of a patient at a specific point includes: a. hospitalist. b. most responsible physician. c. surgeon. d. utmost accountable physician.

ANS: B

The most responsible physician or practitioner denotes the main physician responsible for the care of the patient. Often referred to as the MRP. REF: p. 218

OBJ: 1

5. Electronic health records systems allow for the physician to electronically issue directions for

patient care. Which is the correct term? a. Computerized history and physical b. Computerized admission notes c. Computerized SOAP charting d. Computerized physician order entry ANS: D

The computerized physician order entry system is designed to electronically post a physician’s order which covers all facets of patient care as an inpatient.

REF: p. 222

OBJ: 8

6. This document must be initiated often by the unit clerk to ensure a diagnostic test is conducted

in a hospital setting includes: a. diagnosis. b. requisition. c. report. d. billing.

ANS: B

A requisition is generated T inEthSeThBoA spN itK alStoEsLigLnEalRa.dCiaOgM nostic test has been ordered by the physician.

REF: p. 228

OBJ: 6

7. Advances in health care now permits diagnostic testing in the hospital to take place at the

bedside offering immediate results: a. bedside testing. b. conduction testing. c. point-of-care testing. d. portable testing.

ANS: C

Point-of-care testing permits immediate testing and test results. It enables portable testing devices are employed to accomplish this objective.

REF: p. 231

OBJ: 6

8. Which is a type of hospital or medical report which outlines several factors about the patient

as obtained through an examination of body systems and interview conducted by the physician? a. Physician’s order b. Discharge summary c. Progress note d. History and Physical

ANS: D

The history and physical outlines the examination and the interview of a patient. The report touches upon the chief complaint, past and family history, and review of body systems.

REF: p. 218

OBJ: 5

9. Hospitals are utilizing structured systems which permit a patient to view portions of their

electronic record. Which best describes this system? a. Personal self-governing portal b. Personal health record portal c. Personal digital solutions portal d. Personal non-urgent portal ANS: B

The personal health record portal allows for a patient to review results and information within part of their health record. This encourages a collaborative approach with greater focus on involving patients in their own care.

REF: p. 214

OBJ: 2

10. In the medical environment this short formed physician order means complete it immediately: a. STAT. b. POCT. c. MRP. d. PHR. ANS: A

A STAT order means urgent or immediately. It comes from the Latin term STATIM which means instantly or immediately.

REF: p. 228

OBJ: 6

11. This physician could work part-time or full-time in a hospital setting with a goal to provide

in-hospital medical services to patients and their family who do not have a family physician: a. most responsible physician. b. admitting physician. c. hospitalist. d. surgeon.

ANS: C

Hospitalist are physicians who provide in-patient health care and at times provides care to patients on a short-term basis after discharge, especially if the patient does not have a family physician.

REF: p. 222

OBJ: 3

12. A medical administrative assistant can assume this employment title which involves

assignment on a ward in a hospital providing support to the health care team: a. unit clerk. b. hospitalist. c. clinic manager.

d. transcriptionist.

ANS: A

A unit clerk or ward secretary provides administrative support in the hospital setting to a unit or ward. This role requires differing skills and task performance as compared to the role of the medical administrative assistant in an office setting.

REF: p. 222

OBJ: 4

13. This department is responsible for reviewing the patient chart after discharge to ensure the

health record is complete and indexed according to quality standards: a. health records. b. file records. c. business records. d. patient records.

ANS: A

The health records department scans, indexes, and reviews the patient record upon discharge to ensure quality standards are evaluated. Compliancy in documentation and records management is evaluated in this department.

REF: p. 221

OBJ: 3

14. Who is the professional in a hospital setting responsible for the coding and abstracting of

records related to health information? a. Record management professional (RMP) b. Health information management professional (HIM) c. Personal information mTaE naSgT em enNt K prSoE feL ssL ioEnR al.(PCIO MM) BA d. Special information management professional (SIM) ANS: B

Found located in the Health Records department, a professional with a designation of Health Information Management (HIM) oversees the coding and abstracting of personal health records in a hospital setting.

REF: p. 231

OBJ: 7

15. All of the following are hospital departments with the exception of: a. physician licensing. b. emergency. c. diagnostic imaging. d. logistics.

ANS: A

Licensing for physicians is not conducted in a hospital setting and is governed by an external body.

REF: p. 215

OBJ: 3

MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. Typical information found within a patient hospital record includes: (Select all that apply.)

a. b. c. d.

medical history. bioethics. physicians orders. social insurance number.

ANS: A, C

The patient health record can contain an assortment of information involving the care and treatment of patients. Medical history and physicians orders are a key part of the hospital patient record.

REF: p. 214

OBJ: 1

2. Common departments within a hospital setting include: (Select all that apply.) a. admission department. b. order entry department. c. deduction department. d. laboratory medicine.

ANS: A, D

The admission and laboratory medicine departments are common departments as are emergency, nuclear medicine and surgical. A department called order entry would not exist, it is a function, not a department.

REF: p. 215

OBJ: 3

3. Canada Health Infoway a self-governing federally funded association and is responsible for

the following: (Select all that apply.) a. hospital management. b. integrated digital solutions. c. privacy and security standards. d. patient management.

ANS: B, C

Data encryption and privacy standards surrounding integrated medical records solutions fall under the responsibility of Canada Health Infoway.

REF: p. 214

OBJ: 2

4. These are examples of medical reports prepared in a hospital setting include (Select all that

apply.) a. history and physical. b. physician’s findings. c. discharge summary. d. collaborative summary.

ANS: A, C

A history and physical is a common document which details the gathering of information concerning the patient as well as the examination and findings. A discharge summary is prepared upon discharge of a patient. A physician’s finding is part of a report but not an entire report.

REF: pp. 218, 231

OBJ: 8

5. The SOAP charting method encompasses: (Select all that apply.) a. unbiased. b. objective. c. idea. d. plan.

ANS: B, D

SOAP charting by translation means subjective, objective, assessment, and plan.

REF: p. 222

OBJ: 5

COMPLETION 1. Commonly, medical administrative assistants are assigned to a unit in the hospital setting, and

their role title is a unit ANS:

clerk The unit clerk is a vital role in managing the flow of information on a hospital unit. It is a fast paced every changing role.

REF: p. 222 2.

OBJ: 4

means that an admission or procedure is not considered or an emergency can be pre-booT keEdS . TBANKSELLER.COM ANS:

elective Elective admissions can be arranged for a variety of reasons as it is considered non-urgent.

Procedures and tests may be a deciding factor for admission, not urgency.

REF: p. 216

OBJ: 1

3. This short form denotes digital information listed and stored concerning patients in a hospital

setting ANS:

EHR The electronic health record system maintains a collection of medical records concerning patients who visit or are admitted to a hospital-seeking care.

REF: p. 214

OBJ: 1

4. This department is responsible for processing patients when they are confined to the hospital

for care and/or treatment ANS:

.

admitting Admissions are processed by the admitting department. In some instances the emergency department will process the admission. Data is entered into the hospital electronic health record system.

REF: p. 216

OBJ: 3

5. This type of physician provides care for patients who require hospital care but do not have a

physician to oversee their care are known as a

.

ANS:

hospitalist The hospitalist serves a vital role in the hospital providing care for patient who do not have a physician or who have a physician who currently does not have admitting privileges.

REF: p. 218

OBJ: 5

TRUE/FALSE 1. Hospital staff not directly involved in a patient’s care should not be accessing the patient

health record.

ANS: T

Confidentiality and privacy clearly regulates and specifies only health care staff directly involved in the patient’s caTreEsShT ouBldAN beKaScE ceL ssLinEgRth.eCrO ecMord, otherwise, it is considered a data breech.

REF: p. 231

OBJ: 7

2. Patients who are admitted for surgery have the most responsible physician listed as the

admitting physician on the admission report.

ANS: T

The MRP is responsible for a surgical admission as they are often the surgeon involved in the procedure.

REF: p. 218

OBJ: 9

3. If the unit clerk suspects a confidentiality or data breach has occurred, it should be reported

immediately.

ANS: T

All staff have an obligation to notify a supervisor if they suspect a data breach. The protection of the patient information is paramount and a guiding principle.

REF: p. 231

OBJ: 7

4. The provisional diagnosis listed in the electronic patient record can be identified by an

acceptable short form.

ANS: F

This is one instance where a medical short form is not accepted with respect to the provisional diagnosis since the physician is not 100% certain this is the diagnosis at this time. More tests and/or assessment are needed.

REF: p. 216

OBJ: 9

5. Medication orders are included in the physician’s order form.

ANS: T

Since all areas of the patient care are included in the physicians order, the medication orders would naturally be included in the document.

REF: p. 228

OBJ: 5

Chapter 13: Your Job Search Ramsay & Rutherford: Plunkett’s Procedures for the Medical Administrative Assistant, 5th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Entry-level positions in the field provide an opportunity to develop and practice your skills.

Which title describes an entry-level position? a. Receptionist b. Manager c. Director d. Senior administrator ANS: A

Many entry-level positions exist whereby they enable the gaining of experience these can include file clerk and receptionist. In this role the opportunity to observe and learn activities is crucial for development.

REF: p. 236

OBJ: 1

2. Employment documents for a job search consist of all of these with the exception of: a. resume. b. cover letter. c. LinkedIn. d. reference list.

ANS: C

LinkedIn is not a document, it is a social media platform for professional connections and can be sourced for job search initiatives.

REF: p. 236

OBJ: 2

3. When applying directly from a job posting and to avoid the risk of being screened out, it is

critical to follow: a. location. b. references. c. networking. d. instructions.

ANS: D

An applicant could be screened out of an employment opportunity if they don’t follow the instructions outlined as stated in the job posting. Employers view this as potentially problematic in terms of attention to detail.

REF: p. 237

OBJ: 2

4. One of the benefits of a training and a career in the administrative field is the opportunity to

move from location to location. Which best describes the ability to move from location to location? a. Allusion

b. Inquisitive c. Resolve d. Portability ANS: D

Administrative skills are portable traveling from job to job and location to location. Every business needs administrative task functions completed.

REF: p. 238

OBJ: 2

5. This most common type of resume details career progress in a straight-forward timeline.

Which option describes this resume style? a. Functional b. Chronological c. Chronological-functional d. Useful ANS: B

Chronological resume are the most common of all types and this style permits a potential employer to see your career progress in a straight-forward timeline or chronological order.

REF: p. 239

OBJ: 3

6. To showcase your word processing skills in the development of your résumé, it is best to

avoid using preformatted: a. templates. b. varying-widths. c. proportional. d. personalization.

ANS: A

Templates do not allow for the word processing skill set to show through to a potential employer. Templates are rigid and typically do not allow for editing of the format.

REF: p. 245

OBJ: 4

7. Before an interview and to develop a greater understanding of the position or facility, the

applicant should try to do this: a. be pleasant. b. dress professionally. c. research employer. d. arrive on time.

ANS: C

Researching an employer provides significant insight into the institution and enhances the applicants understanding of the role they are interviewing for.

REF: p. 249

OBJ: 5

8. A recommended font size to be used in résumé creation is: a. 13 or 14 point. b. 15 or 16 point.

c. 9 or 10 point. d. 11 or 12 point.

ANS: D

For ease of scanning and readability a recommended font size is between 11 and 12 point range. Heading should be larger for visual appeal and to stand out.

REF: p. 245

OBJ: 4

9. This document list names of people an applicant can provide to an interested employer in

order to confirm an applicant’s suitability for a position, include: a. references. b. cover letter. c. résumé. d. summary.

ANS: A

A reference list is a formal employment seeking document whereby individuals have provided consent to the applicant and who can discuss the character of an individual and the suitability of the applicant for a position.

REF: p. 246

OBJ: 3

10. To ensure résumé versions are easily accessible a best practice is to save the original

electronic version of the résumé as a: a. leading file. b. master file. c. dominant file. d. governing file.

ANS: B

The master or original résumé will allow for created of unique or variations of the original without removing the integrity of the original version résumé.

REF: p. 245

OBJ: 3

MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. Most popular résumé styles include: (Select all that apply.) a. efficient. b. chronological. c. functional. d. sequential.

ANS: B, C

Chronological and functional are the two most common styles to showcase and highlight an applicant’s skill set. In some instances applicants use a combined version.

REF: p. 239

OBJ: 4

2. These factors are evaluated by an interviewer regarding an interviewee during the interview:

(Select all that apply.)

a. b. c. d.

appearance. financial status. family history. attitude.

ANS: A, D

Personal boundaries are protected by legislation and are not part of the interview process; these include both financial status and family history, as they have no relevancy about the suitability of a job seeker.

REF: p. 249

OBJ: 5

3. These are headings typically found on a résumé: (Select all that apply.) a. event management. b. volunteer experience. c. education. d. staff.

ANS: B, C

Several headings are used in a résumé some of these include education, employment, volunteer experience, certification, interests, and memberships.

REF: p. 239

OBJ: 3

4. Pre-employment testing can consist of the following: (Select all that apply.) a. keyboarding speed and accuracy. b. hire select. c. medical terminology. d. talent click.

ANS: A, C

Hire select and talent click are platforms used for pre-employment testing. Keyboarding speed and accuracy is a commonly tested skill, as is knowledge surrounding medical terminology.

Both areas are essential skills in order for medical assistants to function within the demand of their employment role.

REF: p. 237

OBJ: 1

5. Personal networks are able to support an employment search and can consist of: (Select all

that apply.) a. electors. b. friends. c. voters. d. family.

ANS: B, D

Friends and family are examples of a personal network and they may provide support for a job search. They may inform the job seeker of opportunities they have become aware of.

REF: p. 235 COMPLETION

OBJ: 1

1. Joining a professional

can enhance job search opportunities and refine

your skill development.

ANS:

associations Professional associations provide many benefits to their members, which include networking, learning workshops, as well as knowledge and skill development.

REF: p. 238

OBJ: 1

2. Functional résumés take the focus off your

.

ANS:

timeline Compared to the chronological résumé, functional résumés remove the focus on the timeline by focusing on the educational aspect of the summary.

REF: p. 239

OBJ: 4

3. The first item on a résumé should be the personalized

_

ANS:

letterhead The personalized letterheaT dE isSeT ssB enAtiN alKfS orEiL deLnE tifRy. inC g OthMe applicant on the résumé and other employment documents such as the cover letter.

REF: p. 239

OBJ: 3

4. It is a generally accepted principle to maintain the page length of a résumé to a maximum of

.

ANS:

two Your résumé should be kept to a no more than two pages. It permits the potential employer to scan your résumé easily for key words matching the employment opportunity posted.

REF: p. 245

OBJ: 4

5. Many application forms are available in an online electronic ANS:

fillable The fillable format allows for a standardization of the application information.

REF: p. 249

OBJ: 4

format.

TRUE/FALSE 1. Federal government job opportunities are found on the Public Service Commission of Canada

at GC Jobs.

ANS: T

Individuals interested in securing a federal government appointment should search through the Public Service Commission of Canada at GC Jobs.

REF: p. 236

OBJ: 2

2. Networking is not a productive methodology of securing a job.

ANS: F

Networking provides an excellent opportunity for job searching. Using your personal network to assist you in making employment connections is an example of beneficial networking.

REF: pp. 236-238

OBJ: 2

3. When arriving for an interview appointment, it is best to arrive 10 to 15 minutes prior to the

appointment time.

ANS: T

Arriving early demonstrates a respect for the time frame granted to you for the interview.

Employers are seeking punctual and reliable employee REF: p. 249

OBJ: 5

4. A résumé is considered to be a summary of work and educational experiences.

ANS: T

A résumé provides a summary to a potential employer. Listed in the summary or résumé is work, education, and related experiences.

REF: p. 235

OBJ: 3

5. Once you create a standard résumé, there is no need to revise it.

ANS: F

It is important to tailor the résumé to profile the knowledge, skills, and abilities highlighted in the job posting. Several versions of a résumé are often standard for a job seeker.

REF: p. 239

OBJ: 3