Test Bank for Principles of Anatomy and Physiology, 15th Edition by Tortora

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: PAP15 Chapter Number: 01 Shuffle: Yes Case Sensitive: No Question type: Multiple Choice 1) Which describes the study of the functions of body structures? a) anatomy b) physiology c) endocrinology d) histology e) immunology Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 1.1 Define anatomy and physiology, and name several branches of these sciences.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.1 Anatomy and Physiology Defined Question type: Multiple Choice 2) A group of cells that work together to perform a particular function is a(n) a) tissue b) organ c) molecules d) compounds e) organism Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO1.2 Identify the locations and functions of each of the organ systems and major organs of the human body.

Learning Objective 2: LO1.2.1 Describe the body’s six levels of structural organization.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.2 Levels of Structural Organization and Body Systems.

Question type: Multiple Selection 3) What process occurs when amino acids build new proteins a) metabolism b) anabolism c) catabolism d) responsiveness e) differentiation Answer 1: a Answer 2: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO1.3.1 Define the important life processes of the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.3 Characteristics of the Living Human Organism Question type: Essay 4) How are reproduction, differentiation and growth related?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective 1: LO1.3.1 Define the important life processes of the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.3 Characteristics of the Living Human Organism Solution: Reproduction occurs through the fertilization of an ovum by a sperm cell to form a zygote, followed by repeated cell divisions and the differentiation of these cells. Growth is an increase in body size that results from an increase in the size of existing cells, an increase in the number of cells, or both.

Question type: Multiple Choice 5) The two organ systems that predominantly regulate and maintain homeostasis are the a) cardiovascular and integumentary systems. b) nervous and endocrine systems.

c) cardiovascular and respiratory systems. d) respiratory and muscular systems. e) urinary and integumentary systems.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO1.4.1 Define homeostasis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Homeostasis 6) Which body fluid fills the narrow spaces between cells and tissues? a) lymph b) blood plasma c) interstitial fluid d) intracellular fluid e) vitreous body Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO1.4.1 Define homeostasis Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Homeostasis Question type: Essay 7) Describe the differences between positive and negative feedback systems.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO1.4.2 Describe the components of a feedback system.

Learning Objective 2: LO1.4.3 Contrast the operation of negative and positive feedback systems.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Homeostasis Solution: A positive feedback system will strengthen or reinforce a change in one of the body’s controlled conditions while a negative feedback system will reverse a change in a controlled condition.

Question type: Multiple Choice

8) Hormonal or electrical signals are sent from the control center to the a) receptors b) stimulus c) afferent pathway d) effectors e) efferent pathway Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO1.4.2 Describe the components of a feedback system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Homeostasis Question type: Multiple Choice 9) A component that detects decreasing oxygen concentrations in blood would be the a) receptor b) muscle c) response d) effector Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO1.4.2 Describe the components of a feedback system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Homeostasis Question type: Multiple Choice 10) If blood concentrations of thyroid hormones increase above a certain level, Thyroid releasing hormone (TRH) neurons in the hypothalamus are inhibited and stop secreting TRH. This is an example of a) negative feedback b) positive feedback

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Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO1.4.3 Contrast the operation of negative and positive feedback systems.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Homeostasis Question type: Multiple-Selection 11) Cardiomyopathy worsens as the heart weakens. Swelling in the legs occurs and is classified as a… (Select all that apply) a) symptom. b) disorder. c) disturbance. d) disease. e) sign.

Answer 1: b Answer 2: c Answer 3: e Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1:.SO 1.4.4 Explain how homeostatic imbalances are related to disorders Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Homeostasis Question type: Essay 12) Describe the anatomical position.

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

Learning Objective 2: LO1.5.1 Describe the anatomical position.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology Solution: In the anatomical position, the subject stands erect facing the observer with the head level and the eyes facing forward. The feet are flat on the floor and directed forward and the arms are at the sides with the palms turned forward.

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Question type: Multiple Choice 13) Put the cavities in order from broadest to most specific in which the lungs are located a) thoracic, ventral ,parietal pleura, visceral pleura b) ventral, visceral pleura, thoracic, parietal pleura, c) ventral, thoracic, parietal pleura, visceral pleura d) thoracic, ventral, visceral pleura, parietal pleura Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

Learning Objective 2: LO1.5.4 Outline the major body cavities, the organs they contain, and their associated linings.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology Question type: Multiple Choice 14) Put the cavities in order from broadest to most specific in which the urinary bladder is located a) ventral, abdominopelvic, pelvic, parietal peritoneal, visceral peritoneal b) abdominopelvic, ventral. pelvic, visceral peritoneal, parietal peritoneal c) ventral, abdominopelvic, visceral peritoneal, pelvic, parietal peritoneal d) abdominopelvic, pelvic, ventral, parietal peritoneal, visceral peritoneal Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

Learning Objective 2: LO1.5.4 Outline the major body cavities, the organs they contain, and their associated linings.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology

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Question type: Multiple Choice 15) Which cavity contains the heart? a) cranial cavity b) vertebral cavity c) abdominal cavity d) pericardial cavity e) pleural cavity Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

Learning Objective 2: LO1.5.4 Outline the major body cavities, the organs they contain, and their associated linings.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology Question type: Multiple Choice 16) The function of the secretions of the pleura, is to… a) separate the thoracic and abdominal cavities. b) protect the central nervous system. c) prevent infection. d) reduce friction between neighboring organs. e) carry nervous impulses.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

Learning Objective 2: LO1.5.4 Outline the major body cavities, the organs they contain, and their associated linings.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology Question type: Multiple Choice

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17) Cutting open the chest at the sternal marking would represent a(n) a) sagittal plane b) midsagittal plane c) transverse plane d) oblique plane e) coronal plane Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

Learning Objective 2: LO1.5.3 Define the anatomical planes, anatomical sections, and directional terms used to describe the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology Question type: Multiple Choice 18) Amputation of the arm at the shoulder would be a(n) a) frontal plane b) parasagittal plane c) transverse plane d) oblique plane e) midsagittal plane Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

Learning Objective 2: LO1.5.3 Define the anatomical planes, anatomical sections, and directional terms used to describe the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology Question type: Multiple Choice

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19) Cutting the body in half at the diaphragm, would create the thoracic cavity and the abdominopelvic cavity. What plane would create these halves? a) frontal b) sagittal c) transverse d) oblique e) midsagittal Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

Learning Objective 2: LO1.5.3 Define the anatomical planes, anatomical sections, and directional terms used to describe the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology Question type: Multiple Choice 20) When holding your arms out to the side at shoulder level, your fingers are ________from your midline. a) medial b) anterior c) proximal d) posterior e) lateral Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

Learning Objective 2: LO1.5.3 Define the anatomical planes, anatomical sections, and directional terms used to describe the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology Question type: Multiple Choice

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21) When your fingers touch your shoulder, they are considered________from the shoulder? a) proximal b) contralateral c) lateral d) superficial e) distal Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

Learning Objective 2: LO1.5.3 Define the anatomical planes, anatomical sections, and directional terms used to describe the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology Question type: Multiple Choice 22) Choose the directional term that would make the following sentence correct. The heart is _____ to the liver. a) inferior b) anterior c) contralateral d) superior e) superficial Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

Learning Objective 2: LO1.5.3 Define the anatomical planes, anatomical sections, and directional terms used to describe the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology Question type: Multiple Choice

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23) Choose the directional term that would make the following sentence correct. The sternum is _____ to the heart. a) posterior b) anterior c) inferior d) superior e) lateral Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

Learning Objective 2: LO1.5.3 Define the anatomical planes, anatomical sections, and directional terms used to describe the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology Question type: Multiple Choice 24) In the figure, the ascending colon and the gallbladder are considered ________to each other

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a) ipsilateral b) contralateral c) lateral d)distal e) posterior Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

Learning Objective 2: LO1.5.4 Outline the major body cavities, the organs they contain, and their associated linings.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology Question Type: Multiple-Selection 25) Which two organs in the diagram are in the abdominal cavity? Select all that apply.

a) liver b) stomach c) lung

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d) heart e) transverse colon Answer 1: a Answer 2: b Answer 3: e Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

Learning Objective 2: LO1.5.4 Outline the major body cavities, the organs they contain, and their associated linings.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology Question Type: Multiple Choice 26) In the diagram, the femoral area is _____to the cervical area?

a) superior b) inferior c) medial d) proximal e) posterior Answer: b

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Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

Learning Objective 2: LO1.5.3 Define the anatomical planes, anatomical sections, and directional terms used to describe the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology Question Type: Multiple Choice 27) In the diagram, the calcaneal is _____to the popliteal region?

a) ipsilateral b) contralateral c) superior d) anterior e) medial Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

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Learning Objective 2: LO1.5.3 Define the anatomical planes, anatomical sections, and directional terms used to describe the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology Question Type: Multiple Choice 28) The ribs are _____ to the sternum.

a) lateral b) medial c) proximal d) distal e) superior Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

Learning Objective 2: LO1.5.3 Define the anatomical planes, anatomical sections, and directional terms used to describe the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology

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Question type: Multiple Choice 29) The stomach is _____ to the urinary bladder.

a) lateral b) medial c) distal d) inferior e) superior Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

Learning Objective 2: LO1.5.3 Define the anatomical planes, anatomical sections, and directional terms used to describe the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology Question type: Multiple Choice

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30) Which plane divides the body into unequal right and left halves?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

Learning Objective 2: LO1.5.3 Define the anatomical planes, anatomical sections, and directional terms used to describe the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology Question type: Multiple Choice

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31) Which plane would allow one to view the heart and lungs from a posterior view?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

Learning Objective 2: LO1.5.3 Define the anatomical planes, anatomical sections, and directional terms used to describe the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology Question type: Essay 32) Name the cavities of the trunk and the serous membranes that line them.

Answer:

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

Learning Objective 2: LO1.5.4 Outline the major body cavities, the organs they contain, and their associated linings.

Section Reference 3: 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology Solution: The two main cavities of the trunk are the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities. The thoracic cavity can be divided into three smaller cavities called the pericardial cavity, and two fluid-filled spaces called pleural cavities. The pericardial cavity is lined by the pericardium. The pleural cavity is lined by the pleura. The central part of the thoracic cavity is an anatomical region called the mediastinum. It is between the lungs, extending from the sternum to the vertebral column and from the first rib to the diaphragm. The abdominopelvic cavity can be divided into the abdominal and pelvic cavities, both of which are lined by the peritoneum.

Question type: Essay 33) Explain the relationship between the skeletal system and the urinary system?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective 1: LO1.2 Identify the locations and functions of each of the organ systems and major organs of the human body.

Learning Objective 2: LO1.2.2 List the 11 systems of the human body, representative organs present in each, and their general functions Section Reference 1: Sec 1.2 Levels of Structural Organization body systems.

Solution: The skeletal system supports and protects organs within the body, stores minerals.

Within the bones are the cells that produce blood cells. The urinary system helps regulate the production of red blood cells and helps maintain the body’s mineral balance.

Question type: Essay 34) Name the structural levels of the body and briefly describe each level.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Learning Objective 1: LO1.2 Identify the locations and functions of each of the organ systems and major organs of the human body.

Learning Objective 2: LO1.2.1 Describe the body’s six levels of structural organization.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.2 Levels of Structural Organization body systems.

Solution: The chemical level consists of atoms and molecules. The cellular level consists of cells which are the smallest form of life. The tissue level consists of groups of cells that work to provide a single function. The organ level consists of organs, constructed from different types of tissue that can provide several different specific functions. The organ systems consist of one or more organs that are interlinked in general functions. The organism is made up of all the organ systems, which work to provide homeostasis.

Question type: Essay 35) List and briefly describe the six basic life processes.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO1.3.1 Define the important life processes of the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.3 Characteristics of the Living Human Organism Solution: The six basic life processes include: 1) Metabolism is the sum of all chemical processes in the body. 2) Responsiveness is the body’s ability to detect and respond to internal and external stimuli. 3) Movement includes motions that range from movements within individual cells to movement of the entire body. 4) Growth means an increase in body size or an increase in the number of cells. 5) Differentiation is the process that converts a cell from unspecialized to specialized. 6) Reproduction refers to formation of new cells for growth and repair or production of a new individual.

Question type: Essay 36) Describe a feedback system and list its general components.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO1.4.2 Describe the components of a feedback system Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Homeostasis Solution: A feedback loop is a cycle of events in which the status of the body condition is monitored, evaluated and changed to maintain homeostasis. A feedback system will include a

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receptor that detects the stimuli, a control center that receives the input from the receptor and generates an output, and an effector that receives the output and produces a response.

Question type: Multiple Choice 37) Which noninvasive diagnostic techniques is an example of inspection? a) tapping and listening for an echo to detect fluid in the lungs b) feeling the abdomen to detect tender organs c) listening for crackling sounds during breathing d) examining the surface of patient’s skin for presence of a rash e) feeling the gonads to detect abnormal masses Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO1.2 Identify the locations and functions of each of the organ systems and major organs of the human body.

Learning Objective 2: LO1.2.2 List the 11 systems of the human body, representative organs present in each, and their general functions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.2 Levels of Structural Organization body systems.

Question type: Multiple Choice 38) Which subspecialty of physiology addresses pharmacology, chemistry and physiology of nervous tissue? a) endocrinology b) cardiovascular physiology c) neurophysiology d) immunology e) pathophysiology Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO1.1 Define anatomy and physiology, and name several branches of these sciences.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.1 Anatomy and Physiology Defined

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Question type: Multiple Choice 39) Which subspecialty of physiology deals with the effects of hormones control of reproduction? a) endocrinology b) cardiovascular physiology c) neurophysiology d) immunology e) pathophysiology Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO1.1 Define anatomy and physiology, and name several branches of these sciences.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.1 Anatomy and Physiology Defined

Question type: Multiple Choice 40) If one was reviewing the pattern of tissue changes associated with disease development, they would be studying a) exercise physiology b) renal physiology c) pathological anatomy d) cardiovascular physiology e) immunology Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO1.1 Define anatomy and physiology, and name several branches of these sciences.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.1 Anatomy and Physiology Defined

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Question type: Multiple Choice 41) An antigen is anything that can cause an immune response. Which subspecialty of physiology deals with the study of these responses? a) exercise physiology b) renal physiology c) pathophysiology d) cardiovascular physiology e) immunology Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO1.1 Define anatomy and physiology, and name several branches of these sciences.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.1 Anatomy and Physiology Defined

Question type: Multiple Choice 42) If a doctor listens to a gurgling noise within the gastrointestinal tract, they are performing a) inspection b) palpation c) percussion d) auscultation Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 1.2 Identify the locations and functions of each of the organ systems and major organs of the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.2 Levels of Structural Organization and Body Systems

Question type: Multiple Choice 43) If someone receives CPR, compressions will be performed on the ______area.

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a) pelvic b) umbilical c) sternal d) otic e) inguinal Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

Learning Objective 2: LO1.5.2 Relate the anatomical names and the corresponding common names for various regions of the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology

Question type: Multiple Choice 44) Blood is often drawn from the front of the elbow or the _______ marking. a) olecranal b) antecubital c) carpal d) digital e) antebrachial Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

Learning Objective 2: LO1.5.2 Relate the anatomical names and the corresponding common names for various regions of the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology Question type: Multiple Choice 45) Swimmers ear is an infection in the outer ear canal. What anatomical term refers to the area infected?

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a) otic b) orbital c) ocular d) oral e) occipital Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

Learning Objective 2: LO1.5.2 Relate the anatomical names and the corresponding common names for various regions of the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology Question type: Multiple Choice 46) Bunions are awful painful, pressure-sensitive areas that lead to displacement of the big toe.

What term refers to the big toe? a) pollex b) tarsal c) hallux d) pedal e) carpal Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

Learning Objective 2: LO1.5.2 Relate the anatomical names and the corresponding common names for various regions of the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology Question type: Multiple Choice 47) Abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis are muscles that help move what anatomical marking?

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a) pollex b) tarsal c) hallux d) volar e) carpal Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

Learning Objective 2: LO1.5.2 Relate the anatomical names and the corresponding common names for various regions of the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology Question type: Multiple Choice 48) The section shown in (C) results from cutting through a _____ plane extending through the brain?

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a) frontal b) sagittal c) oblique d) midsagittal e) transverse Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode:Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

Learning Objective 2: LO1.5.2 Relate the anatomical names and the corresponding common names for various regions of the human body .

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology Question type: Multiple Choice 49) The section shown in (B) results from cutting through a _______ plane extending through the brain?

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a) frontal b) sagittal c) oblique d) midsagittal e) transverse Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

Learning Objective 2: LO1.5.2 Relate the anatomical names and the corresponding common names for various regions of the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology Question type: Multiple Choice 50) Which cavity contains the urinary bladder?

a) (A) b) (B) c) (C)

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d) (D) e) (E) Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

Learning Objective 2: LO1.5.2 Relate the anatomical names and the corresponding common names for various regions of the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology 51) What physically separates the area labelled C from the area labeled D?

a) visceral peritoneum b) mediastinum c) meninges d) parietal pericardial e) diaphragm Answer: e Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

Learning Objective 2: LO1.5.2 Relate the anatomical names and the corresponding common names for various regions of the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology Question type: Multiple-Selection 52) Which cavity is lined by serous membranes. Select all that apply?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer 1: c Answer 2: d Answer 3: e Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Learning Objective 1: LO1.5 Describe the anatomical position and how anatomical terms are used to describe the human body.

Learning Objective 2: LO1.5.4 Outline the major body cavities, the organs they contain, and their associated linings.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology Question Type: Multiple Choice 53) Which cavity contains the main control centers in the feedback cycle?

a) (A) b) (C) c) (D) d) (E) Answer 1: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO1.5 Describe the anatomical position and how anatomical terms are used to describe the human body.

Learning Objective 2: LO1.5 4 Outline the major body cavities, the organs they contain, and their associated linings.

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Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology 54) The pericardial cavity is located inside the a) parietal pleura b) visceral pleura c) parietal periotneum d) visceral peritoneum e) mediastinum Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode:Application Learning Objective 1: LO1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

Learning Objective 2: LO1.5.4 Outline the major body cavities, the organs they contain, and their associated linings.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology 55) What cavity contains the kidneys, adrenal glands, pancreas and the duodenum? a) retroperitoneal b) visceral pleura c) parietal pericardium d) visceral peritoneum e) mediastinum Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode:Application Learning Objective 1: LO1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

Learning Objective 2: LO1.5.4 Outline the major body cavities, the organs they contain, and their associated linings.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology 56) According to the diagram, an appendectomy would be performed

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a) B b) D c) G d) H e) I Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

Learning Objective 2: LO1.5.4 Outline the major body cavities, the organs they contain, and their associated linings.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology

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57) A patient has a laparoscopic cholecystectomy (gallbladder removal). Which abdominopelvic region would the doctor perform surgery

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO1.5 Describe the anatomical position and how anatomical terms are used to describe the human body.

Learning Objective 2: LO1.5.4 Outline the major body cavities, the organs they contain, and their associated linings.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology

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58) Which radiographs were obtained using low-dose x-rays?

a) (A) and (B) b) (B) and (C) c) (C) and (D) d) (A) and (C) e) (B) and (E) Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO1.6 Describe the principles and importance of medical imaging procedures in the evaluation of organ functions and the diagnosis of disease.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.6 Medical Imaging Question type: Essay 59) Discuss the importance of body fluids and which one is considered to be the body’s internal environment.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO1.3 Define the important processes.

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Learning Objective 2 LO 1.3.2 Define homeostasis and explain its relationship to interstitial fluid.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Homeostasis Solution: An important aspect of homeostasis is maintaining the volume and composition of body fluids, which are dilute, watery solutions containing the dissolved substances needed to sustain life. The fluid within cells is intracellular fluid (ICF) and the fluid found outside of cells is extracellular fluid (ECF). The ECF consists of interstitial fluid, blood plasma, lymph, cerebrospinal fluid, synovial fluid, aqueous humor, and vitreous. The ECF called interstitial fluid, which is the fluid found in the narrow spaces between cells and tissues, is also known as the body’s internal environment. This is due to the fact that the proper functioning of body cells depends on precise regulation of the composition of the interstitial fluid surrounding them.

Question type: Multiple Choice 60) Which examples exhibit the basic life process of growth?

1. muscle contraction 2. digestion of proteins 3. lifting weights and gaining muscle mass 4. mineral deposits accumulating between bone cells to cause a bone to lengthen a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 4 only e) 3 and 4 Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO1.3 Define the important processes of the human body.

Learning Objective 2: LO1.3.1 Define the important life processes of the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.3 Characteristics of the Living Human Organism Question type: Text Drop Down 61) Feeling the presence of a mosquito biting your arm is an example of ______; Itching the mosquito bite is an example of ____________.

Dropdown choices: differentiation growth

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movement reproduction responsiveness Answer 1: responsiveness Answer 2: movement Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO1.3 Define the important life processes.

Learning Objective 2: LO1.3.1 Define the important life processes of the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.3 Characteristics of the Living Human Organism Question type: Multiple Choice 62) During a visit to your doctor, you complain about headache and anxiety. These changes in your body functions are considered a) signs. b) symptoms. c) receptors. d) controlled condition. e) responsiveness.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO1.4.4 Explain how homeostatic imbalances are related to disorders.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Homeostasis 63) _____occurs when an embryonic stem cell becomes a neuron. a) catabolism b) growth c) reproduction d) anabolism e) differentiation Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

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Learning Objective 1: LO1.3 Define the important processes of the human body Learning Objective 2: LO1.3.1 Define the important life processes of the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.3 Characteristics of the Living Human Organism Question type: Multiple-Selection 64) Which body process is controlled using a positive feedback loop? Select all that apply a) decreasing blood calcium in response to elevated blood calcium b) decreasing body temperature in response to elevated body temperature c) decreasing blood glucose in response to elevated blood glucose d) increasing strength of uterine contractions in response to cervical stretch e) decreasing heart rate in response to elevated blood pressure f) depolarization causes sodium channels to open and the opening of sodium channels causes the membrane to depolarize Answer 1: d Answer 2: f Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO1.4.3 Contrast the operation of negative and positive feedback systems.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Homeostasis Question type: Multiple Choice 65) Which organ contains the control center for the feedback system that regulates blood pressure? a) skin b) arteries c) brain d) heart e) pituitary gland Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO1.4.2 Describe the components of a feedback system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Homeostasis

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Question type: Multiple-Selection 66) What are common characteristic of a negative feedback system? Select all that apply a) regulates conditions in body that remain fairly stable over long periods b) a self-amplifying cycle where a physiological change leads to even greater change in the same direction. c) important in maintaining homeostasis d) involves control centers in the nervous or endocrine systems e) stimulates changes that reverse the direction of the stimulus f) rate of a process increases as the concentration of the product increases Answer 1: a Answer 2: c Answer 3: d Answer 4: e Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective 1: LO1.4.3 Contrast the operation of negative and positive feedback systems.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Homeostasis Question Type: Multiple Choice 67) Place the following levels of organization from the most complex to the simplest level of organization. a) chemical level, tissue level, cellular level, organismal level organ level, b) chemical level, cellular level, tissue level, organ level, organismal level c) cellular level, tissue level, organ level, chemical level, organismal level d) chemical level, organ level, cellular level, tissue level, organismal level Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO1.2 Identify the locations and functions of each of the organ systems and major organs of the human body.

Learning Objective 2: LO1.2.1 Describe the body’s six levels of structural organization.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.2 Levels of Structural Organization body systems.

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68) Which tissue will form the top layer of the skin? a) epithelial tissue b) connective tissue c) muscular tissue d) necrotic tissue e) nervous tissue Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO1.2 Identify the locations and functions of each of the organ systems and major organs of the human body.

Learning Objective 2: LO1.2.1 Describe the body’s six levels of structural organization.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.2 Levels of Structural Organization and Body Systems.

69) Based on the correct levels of organization, why is the skin considered an organ? a) chemical - cellular - tissue - organ - organ system – organism. Organs interact to form systems. b) cellular - chemical - tissue - organ - organ system – organism. Organs are a combination of cells. c) organism - organ system - organ - tissue - cellular – chemical. Organs are a combination of tissues. d) Organs are a combination of molecules.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO1.2 Identify the locations and functions of each of the organ systems and major organs of the human body.

Learning Objective 2: LO1.2.1 Describe the body’s six levels of structural organization.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.2 Levels of Structural Organization body systems.

70) Which structure or region could one clearly see when you are viewing the anterior side of an individual standing in the standard anatomical position? a) shoulder blade b) palm of the hand c) plantar surface of foot d) popliteal region of the knee e) gluteal region

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Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

Learning Objective 2: LO1.5.1 Describe the anatomical position.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology Question Type: Multiple-Selection 71) Which of the following structures or regions could you clearly see when you are viewing the posterior side of an individual standing in the standard anatomical position? Select all that apply. a) shoulder blade b) palm of the hand c) plantar surface of foot d) popliteal region of the knee e) gluteal region Answer 1: a Answer 2: d Answer 3: e Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

Learning Objective 2: LO1.5.1 Describe the anatomical position.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology Question Type: Multiple Choice 72) Measuring the movements of protons in a magnetic field is a) computed tomography b) magnetic resonance imaging c) ultrasound scanning d) radionuclide scanning e) amniocentesis

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Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO1.7 Describe the principles and importance of medical imaging procedures in the evaluation of organ functions and the diagnosis of disease.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.7 Medical Imaging

73) Mammography and bone densitometry are good examples of which medical imaging? a) computed tomography b) magnetic resonance imaging c) ultrasound scanning d) radionuclide scanning e) low-dose radiography Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 1.7 Describe the principles and importance of medical imaging procedures in the evaluation of organ functions and the diagnosis of disease.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.7 Medical Imaging 74) Mothers are able to visualize a fetus during pregnancy through a) computed tomography b) magnetic resonance imaging c) ultrasound scanning d) radionuclide scanning e) amniocentesis Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 1.7 Describe the principles and importance of medical imaging procedures in the evaluation of organ functions and the diagnosis of disease.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.7 Medical Imaging 75) Metabolism of the brain can be measured through a) computed tomography

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b) magnetic resonance imaging c) ultrasound scanning d) positron emission tomorography e) low-dose radiography Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO1.7 Describe the principles and importance of medical imaging procedures in the evaluation of organ functions and the diagnosis of disease.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.7 Medical Imaging Question Type: Text Drop Down 76) Match the serous membrane with its location Visceral pericardium: __________ Parietal peritoneum: __________ Parietal pleural: __________ Drop Down Choices: adheres to the outside of the heart lines the wall of the abdominopelvic cavity lines the wall of the chest cavity Answer 1: adheres to the outside of the heart Answer 2: lines the wall of the abdominopelvic cavity Answer 3: lines the wall of the chest cavity Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO1.5 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

Learning Objective 2: LO1.5.4 Outline the major body cavities, the organs they contain, and their associated linings.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology Question Type: Text Drop Down 77) In negative feedback, the _____ monitors the controlled condition.

Input about the controlled condition is sent to the ___________, which evaluates the information received and compares it to the controlled conditions set point.

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If needed, a(n) ______ will cause a change to the controlled condition.

Homeostasis helps maintain controlled conditions at a(n) _____, which is the ideal range.

Drop Down Choices: Control center Effector Receptor Set point Answer 1: Receptor Answer 2: Control center Answer 3: Effector Answer 4: Set point Bloomcode: Application Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO1.4.2 Describe the components of a feedback system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Homeostasis Question Type: Multiple Choice 78) Place the events in correct order A- Input about the controlled condition is sent to the control center.

B- If needed, the control center sends output to an effector.

C-The effector can produce a response that helps maintain homeostasis.

D-A receptor monitors a controlled condition E-The control center evaluates the value of the controlled condition compared to the set point. a) A, E, D, B, C b) D, A, E, B, C c) A, D, E, C, B d) D, E, B, A, C Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO1.4.2 Describe the components of a feedback system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Homeostasis Question Type: Text Drop Down 79) The nose is ____to the eyes.

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The ears are _____to the eyes.

The scapula is _____to the sternum.

The antecubital is __________to the olecranal marking.

Drop Down Choices: Anterior Lateral Medial Posterior Answer 1: Medial Answer 2: Lateral Answer 3: Posterior Answer 4: Anterior Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective 2: LO1.5.2 Relate the anatomical names and the corresponding common names for various regions of the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology

Question Type: Multiple Choice 80) During a cadaver lab, the professor requests the students to cut the head with a transverse plane a coronal plane. Describe the results. a) the student will have two halves, right and left b) the student will have two halves, superior and inferior c) the student will have two halves, anterior and posterior d) the student will have four parts; divided vertically into anterior and posterior, and superior and inferior e) the student will have four parts; divided into right and left, and anterior and posterior Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective 1: LO1.5.3 Define the anatomical planes, anatomical sections, and directional terms used to describe the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology

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81) During sexual intercourse, stimulation leads to an increase in arousal and sexual behavior.

This in turn leads to increased stimulation, until climax is reached and orgasm takes place. This is an example of a) positive feedback b) negative feedback Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO1.4.3 Contrast the operation of negative and positive feedback systems.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Homeostasis 82) Hydrochloric acid and pepsin are enzymes secreted by cells in your stomach to digest proteins. The presence of partially digested protein in the stomach triggers the secretion of more HCl and pepsin. Thus, once digestion begins, it becomes a self-accelerating process. This is an example of a) positive feedback b) negative feedback Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO1.4.3 Contrast the operation of negative and positive feedback systems.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Homeostasis Question Type: Label an Image 83) Create labels Lateral Medial Superior Inferior Proximal Distal

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Answer: (do not include with question- for reference only)

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO1.5.3 Define the anatomical planes, anatomical sections, and directional terms used to describe the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology Question Type: Text Drop Down 84) When the body is in correct anatomical position, the upper appendages are _______to the heart. The 3rd digit is __________to the 2nd and 4th digit. The 5th digit is ________to the 1st digit.

Drop Down Choices: Lateral Medial Intermediate Inferior Superficial

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Answer 1: Lateral Answer 2: Intermediate Answer 3: Medial Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective 1: LO1.5.3 Define the anatomical planes, anatomical sections, and directional terms used to describe the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Basic Anatomical Terminology Question Type: Text Entry 85) If you eat a funnel cake, the following (simplified) events will occur: Glucose from the carbohydrates is absorbed in the intestine and the level of glucose in blood rises. Blood glucose levels rise and stimulates beta cells in the pancreas to release insulin; while simultaneously inhibiting alpha cells release of glucagon. Insulin has a major effect of facilitating the movement of glucose into many cells, such as the liver; as a result, blood glucose levels fall. When blood glucose levels drop, the stimulus for insulin release disappears and insulin is no longer secreted.

What type of feedback is occurring? ______ What is the stimulus? ______ What are the receptors? ______ What is the output? ______ Answers: Negative Increased glucose levels in blood Beta cells Insulin **extra answers Positive Decreased glucose levels in blood Alpha cells Glucagon Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO1.4.3 Contrast the operation of negative and positive feedback systems.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Homeostasis

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Package Title: Testbank Course Title: PAP15 Chapter Number: 02 Shuffle: Yes Case Sensitive: No

Deleted: ¶

Question type: Multiple Choice 1) What are the four major elements found in the chemicals that comprise the human body? a) nitrogen, oxygen, calcium, sodium b) hydrogen, carbon, phosphorus, calcium c) carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and nitrogen d) oxygen, nitrogen, potassium, calcium e) potassium, phosphorus, sodium, hydrogen Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1 Describe the main chemicals of the human body and the structures of the atoms, ions, molecules, and compounds.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.1.1 Identify the main chemical elements of the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.1 How Matter is Organized 2) The three types of subatomic particles that are important for understanding chemical reactions in the human body are a) neutrons, quarks, and muons. b) protons, neutrons, and electrons. c) muons, positons, and neutrons. d) electrons, quarks, and protons. e) positons, protons, and neutrons.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1 Describe the main chemicals of the human body and the structures of the atoms, ions, molecules, and compounds.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.1.1 Identify the main chemical elements of the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.1 How Matter is Organized

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3) Which of the following subatomic particles has/have a neutral charge? a) neutron b) electron c) proton d) Both neutron and electron. e) All of these choices.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1 Describe the main chemicals of the human body and the structures of the atoms, ions, molecules, and compounds.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.1.2 Describe the structures of atoms, ions, molecules, free radicals, and compounds.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.1 How Matter is Organized 4) What region of an atom contains the protons and neutrons? a) cloud b) nucleus c) element d) ring e) shell Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1 Describe the main chemicals of the human body and the structures of the atoms, ions, molecules, and compounds.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.1.2 Describe the structures of atoms, ions, molecules, free radicals, and compounds.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.1 How Matter is Organized 5) The number of protons in an atom is represented by an element’s a) mass number. b) atomic number. c) atomic mass. d) valence number. e) None of these choices.

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Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1 Describe the main chemicals of the human body and the structures of the atoms, ions, molecules, and compounds.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.1.2 Describe the structures of atoms, ions, molecules, free radicals, and compounds.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.1 How Matter is Organized 6) The nucleus of unstable _____ of an element will decay leading to emission of radiation. a) compounds b) cations c) anions d) isotopes e) molecules Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1 Describe the main chemicals of the human body and the structures of the atoms, ions, molecules, and compounds.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.1.2 Describe the structures of atoms, ions, molecules, free radicals, and compounds.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.1 How Matter is Organized 7) This refers to a weighted average of the atomic weights of all naturally occurring isotopes of an element. a) mass number b) atomic number c) atomic mass d) ionic mass e) covalent mass Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1 Describe the main chemicals of the human body and the structures of the atoms, ions, molecules, and compounds.

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Learning Objective 2: LO 2.1.2 Describe the structures of atoms, ions, molecules, free radicals, and compounds.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.1 How Matter is Organized Question type: Essay

8) Briefly describe the octet rule.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 2.2 Explain the formation of molecules and compounds and the nature of their chemical bonds.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.2.1 Describe how valence electrons form chemical bonds.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 Chemical Bonds Solution: One atom is more likely to combine with another atom if doing so will leave both atoms with eight electrons in their valence shells.

Deleted: ¶ Learning Objective 3: LO 2.2.2 Distinguish among ionic, covalent, and hydrogen bonds.…

Question type: Multiple Choice 9) Which of the following subatomic particles are shared by two atoms to form covalent bonds?

1. neutron 2. electron 3. proton a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 2 & 3 only e) 1, 2 & 3 Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 2.2 Explain the formation of molecules and compounds and the nature of their chemical bonds.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.2.1 Describe how valence electrons form chemical bonds.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 Chemical Bonds

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Deleted: Learning Objective 3: LO 2.2.2 Distinguish among ionic, covalent, and hydrogen bonds.¶

10) What is the name given to a negatively charged atom? a) superoxide b) isotope c) catalyst d) anion e) cation Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 2.2 Explain the formation of molecules and compounds and the nature of their chemical bonds.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.2.2 Distinguish among ionic, covalent, and hydrogen bonds.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.2.1 Describe how valence electrons form chemical bonds.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 Chemical Bonds 11) A chemical that can conduct electrical current when dissolved in water is called a(n) a) isotope. b) isomer. c) compound. d) electrolyte e) valence molecule.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 2.2 Explain the formation of molecules and compounds and the nature of their chemical bonds.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.2.1 Describe how valence electrons form chemical bonds.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 Chemical Bonds 12) Which type of chemical bond involves the sharing of valence electron pairs between two atoms? a) covalent b) ionic c) hydrogen d) atomic e) electronic

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Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 2.2 Explain the formation of molecules and compounds and the nature of their chemical bonds.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.2.2 Distinguish among ionic, covalent, and hydrogen bonds.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 Chemical Bonds

Deleted: Learning Objective 2: LO 2.2.1 Describe how valence electrons form chemical bonds.¶ Deleted: 3

13) The chemical bonds formed between the oxygen and hydrogen atoms making up a water molecule are called a) nonpolar covalent bonds. b) polar covalent bonds. c) hydrogen bonds. d) ionic bonds. e) atomic bonds.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 2.2 Explain the formation of molecules and compounds and the nature of their chemical bonds.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.2.2 Distinguish among ionic, covalent, and hydrogen bonds.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 Chemical Bonds

Deleted: Learning Objective 2: LO 2.2.1 Describe how valence electrons form chemical bonds.¶ Deleted: 3

Question type: Essay 14) Describe a hydrogen bond.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 2.2 Explain the formation of molecules and compounds and the nature of their chemical bonds.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.2.2 Distinguish among ionic, covalent, and hydrogen bonds.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 Chemical Bonds Solution: Hydrogen bonds form between a hydrogen atom that has partial positive charge and another atom, like oxygen or nitrogen, carrying partial negative charge.

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Deleted: Learning Objective 2: LO 2.2.1 Describe how valence electrons form chemical bonds.¶ Deleted: 3

Question type: Multiple Choice 15) Which relatively weak type of bond helps stabilize the three dimensional structure of large molecules like proteins and DNA? a) nonpolar covalent b) polar covalent c) hydrogen d) ionic e) atomic Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 2.2 Explain the formation of molecules and compounds and the nature of their chemical bonds.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.2.2 Distinguish among ionic, covalent, and hydrogen bonds.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 Chemical Bonds

Deleted: Learning Objective 2: LO 2.2.1 Describe how valence electrons form chemical bonds.¶ Deleted: 3

16) A chemical reaction involves interactions between the _____ of two different atoms. a) neutrons b) protons c) isotopes d) valence electrons e) ions Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 2.3 Explain what happens when atoms combine with or separate from other atoms during a chemical reaction.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.3.1 Define a chemical reaction.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Chemical Reactions 17) Which term is defined as the capacity to do work?

Deleted: Learning Objective 1: LO 2.2 Explain the formation of molecules and compounds and the nature of their chemical bonds.¶ Learning Objective 2: LO 2.2.1 Describe how valence electrons form chemical bonds.¶ Learning Objective 3: LO 2.2.2 Distinguish among ionic, covalent, and hydrogen bonds.¶ Deleted: 2.2 Chemical Bonds

a) metabolism b) electrolytes c) chemical reaction

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d) concentration e) energy Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Medium Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 2.3 Explain what happens when atoms combine with or separate from other atoms during a chemical reaction.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.3.1 Define a chemical reaction.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Chemical Reactions

Deleted: Learning Objective 3: LO 2.3.2 Describe the various forms of energy.¶

Question type: Essay 18) Describe the law of conservation of energy.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 2.3 Explain what happens when atoms combine with or separate from other atoms during a chemical reaction.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.3.2 Describe the various forms of energy.

Section Reference 1: 2.3 Chemical Reactions Solution: Energy cannot be created or destroyed but it may be converted from one form to another form.

Question type: Multiple Choice 19) Which type of chemical reaction will absorb more energy than it releases? a) exergonic b) endergonic c) potential d) kinetic e) activation Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

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Deleted: Learning Objective 2: LO 2.3.1 Define a chemical reaction.¶ Deleted: 3 Deleted: 2

Learning Objective 1: LO 2.3 Explain what happens when atoms combine with or separate from other atoms during a chemical reaction.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.3.2 Describe the various forms of energy.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Chemical Reactions

Deleted: Learning Objective 2: LO 2.3.1 Define a chemical reaction.¶ Deleted: 3

20) An enzyme acts to a) raise the activation energy needed to start the reaction. b) lower the activation energy needed to start the reaction. c) convert the activation energy into potential energy. d) convert the activation energy into kinetic energy. e) stop a chemical reaction.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 2.3 Explain what happens when atoms combine with or separate from other atoms during a chemical reaction.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.3.4 Describe the role of activation energy and catalysts in chemical reactions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Chemical Reactions

Deleted: Learning Objective 2: LO 2.3.1 Define a chemical reaction.¶ Learning Objective 3: LO 2.3.2 Describe the various forms of energy.¶ Deleted: 4

Question type: Essay 21) List three factors that increase the rate of chemical reactions.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 2.3 Explain what happens when atoms combine with or separate from other atoms during a chemical reaction.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.3.4 Describe the role of activation energy and catalysts in chemical reactions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Chemical Reactions Solution: Three factors that increase reaction rates are the presence of enzymes (catalysts), increased concentration of reactants, and increased temperature.

Question type: Multiple Choice

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Deleted: Learning Objective 2: LO 2.3.1 Define a chemical reaction.¶ Learning Objective 3: LO 2.3.2 Describe the various forms of energy.¶ Deleted: 4

22) Which type of chemical reaction combines reactants to produce larger products? a) synthesis b) decomposition c) potential d) exchange e) activated Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Medium Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 2.3 Explain what happens when atoms combine with or separate from other atoms during a chemical reaction.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.3.5 Describe synthesis, decomposition, exchange, and reversible reactions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Chemical Reactions

Deleted: ¶ Learning Objective 2: LO 2.3.1 Define a chemical reaction.

Deleted: 3

23) Which type of chemical reaction breaks larger reactants into smaller products? a) synthesis b) decomposition c) potential d) exchange e) activated Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 2.3 Explain what happens when atoms combine with or separate from other atoms during a chemical reaction.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.3.5 Describe synthesis, decomposition, exchange, and reversible reactions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Chemical Reactions 24) What is the most abundant and most important inorganic compound in the body? a) water b) oxygen gas c) carbon dioxide d) glucose e) DNA

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Deleted: Learning Objective 2: LO 2.3.1 Define a chemical reaction.¶ Deleted: 3

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 2.4 Explain the importance of water, salts, acids, and bases in the functioning of the human body.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.4.1 Describe the properties of water and those of inorganic acids, bases, and salts.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.4 Inorganic Compounds and Solutions 25) A solute that readily dissolves in water is a) hydrophobic. b) hydrostatic. c) lipophilic. d) hydrophilic. e) hydrozone.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 2.4 Explain the importance of water, salts, acids, and bases in the functioning of the human body.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.4.1 Describe the properties of water and those of inorganic acids, bases, and salts.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.4 Inorganic Compounds and Solutions 26) In the body fluid compartments found in of the human body, the solvent is a) glucose. b) lipids. c) carbon dioxide. d) water. e) electrolyte.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 2.4 Explain the importance of water, salts, acids, and bases in the functioning of the human body.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.4.1 Describe the properties of water and those of inorganic acids, bases, and salts.

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Section Reference 1: Sec 2.4 Inorganic Compounds and Solutions Question type: Essay 27) Describe the functions of water in the body.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 2.4 Explain the importance of water, salts, acids, and bases in the functioning of the human body.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.4.1 Describe the properties of water and those of inorganic acids, bases, and salts.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.4 Inorganic Compounds and Solutions Solution: Water is a Solvent that allows transportation of Solutes. Water acts in hydrolysis reactions to split reactants. Water can transport heat in the body and can be used to release heat from the body as occurs in sweating. Water is used as a lubricant, particularly in serous fluids like those surrounding the lungs and on mucosal membranes like those lining the gastrointestinal tract.

Question type: Multiple Choice 28) A solution with a pH value less than 7 is a) basic. b) neutral. c) acidic. d) alkaline. e) concentrated.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 2.4 Explain the importance of water, salts, acids, and bases in the functioning of the human body.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.4.3 Define pH and explain the role of buffer systems in homeostasis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.4 Inorganic Compounds and Solutions

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29) A chemical compound that helps control the pH of a solution by adding or removing hydrogen ions is a(n) a) electrolyte. b) salt. c) cation. d) colloid. e) buffer.

Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 2.4 Explain the importance of water, salts, acids, and bases in the functioning of the human body.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.4.3 Define pH and explain the role of buffer systems in homeostasis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.4 Inorganic Compounds and Solutions 30) Which of the following is a proton donor? a) acid b) base c) salt d) organic compound e) colloid Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 2.4 Explain the importance of water, salts, acids, and bases in the functioning of the human body.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.4.1 Describe the properties of water and those of inorganic acids, bases, and salts.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.4.3 Define pH and explain the role of buffer systems in homeostasis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.4 Inorganic Compounds and Solutions 31) Specific arrangements of atoms within an organic molecule that confer characteristic chemical properties upon that molecule are called a) hydrocarbon chains. b) polymers. c) carbon skeleton. d) functional groups.

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e) isomers.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 2.5 Describe the importance of carbon and functional groups in the structure of organic molecules.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.5.1 Describe the functional groups of organic molecules.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.5 Organic Compounds 32) Which of the following is a monosaccharide that is used by cells to produce energy? a) glucose b) sucrose c) lactose d) glycogen e) maltose Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 2.6 Identify the components and functions of carbohydrates.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.6 Carbohydrates 33) Which of the following is a polysaccharide that serves as a storage form of energy in muscle and liver cells? a) cellulose b) ribose c) lipids d) glucose e) glycogen Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 2.6 Identify the components and functions of carbohydrates.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.6 Carbohydrates 34) This type of fatty acid contains more than one double bond in its hydrocarbon chain.

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a) saturated b) monounsaturated c) polyunsaturated d) volatile e) short chain Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 2.6 Identify the components and functions of carbohydrates.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.6 Carbohydrates 35) This type of lipid is the body’s primary long-term energy storage molecule. a) steroid b) phospholipid c) cholesterol d) triglyceride e) lipoprotein Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 2.7 Identify the components and functions of lipids.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.7.1 Identify the different types of lipids.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.7 Lipids 36) This lipid is used by the body as a precursor for the production of steroid hormones. a) arachidonic acid b) phospholipid c) cholesterol d) triglyceride e) lipoprotein Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 2.7 Identify the components and functions of lipids.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.7.2 Discuss the functions of lipids.

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Section Reference 1: Sec 2.7 Lipids 37) Which of the following is NOT true about phospholipids? a) They contain a glycerol backbone. b) The head group is polar. c) The molecule is an important part of cell membranes. d) The tail groups are nonpolar. e) They are a major form of energy storage.

Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 2.7 Identify the components and functions of lipids.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.7.2 Discuss the functions of lipids.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.7 Lipids Question type: Essay 38) Describe the structural characteristics of an amino acid.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 2.6 Identify the components and functions of carbohydrates.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.6 Carbohydrates Solution: Amino acids contain a central carbon atom with 1) a hydrogen atom, 2) an amino group, 3) an acidic carboxyl group, and 4) a side chain attached to it.

39) List the six major functions of proteins.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 2.8 Identify the components and functions of proteins.

Learning Objective 1: LO 2.8.2 Describe the functional roles of proteins.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.8 Proteins Solution: Proteins have 1) structural, 2) regulatory, 3) contractile, 4) immunological, 5) transport, and 6) catalytic functions.

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Question type: Multiple Choice 40) The primary structure of a protein consists of a) alpha helices. b) beta-pleated sheets. c) three dimensional folded conformation. d) a sequence of amino acids linked by peptide bonds. e) the overall folded conformation of the protein’s subunits.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 2.8 Identify the components and functions of proteins.

Learning Objective 1: LO 2.8.1 Identify the building blocks of proteins.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.8 Proteins 41) Which of the following is NOT a property of enzymes? a) Enzymes are catalytic proteins. b) Enzymes are highly specific. c) Enzymes are efficient. d) Enzymes are subject to a variety of cellular controls. e) Enzymes are irreversibly changed by the reactions that they catalyze.

Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 2.8 Identify the components and functions of proteins.

Learning Objective 1: LO 2.8.2 Describe the functional roles of proteins.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.8 Proteins Question type: Essay 42) Describe what happens to a protein’s structure and function when it is denatured.

Answer:

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Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 2.8 Identify the components and functions of proteins.

Learning Objective 1: LO 2.8.2 Describe the functional roles of proteins.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.8 Proteins Solution: During denaturation, the folded conformation of a protein unravels and loses its unique shape. Loss of that shape destroys the protein’s ability to accomplish its function.

Question type: Multiple Choice 43) Which of the following is a common function of RNA? a) produces electrical impulses b) storage of energy transfers energy for cellular metabolism c) transfer information carries genetic code needed for protein synthesis d) long-term storage of information for carries inherited genetic code that controls protein synthesis e) transports of fluids Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 2.9 Describe the structure and functions of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) and ribonucleic acid (RNA).

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.9 Nucleic Acids 44) Which of the following is the major function of DNA? a) catalyzes metabolic reactions b) storage of energy transfers energy for cellular metabolism c) transfer information carries genetic code needed for protein synthesis d) long-term storage of information for carries inherited genetic code that controls protein synthesis e) transports of electrolytes Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 2.9 Describe the structure and functions of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) and ribonucleic acid (RNA).

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.9 Nucleic Acids

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45) Which of the following describes the major function of ATP in cells? a) forms the building blocks for the synthesis of proteins. b) transfers energy for cell functions c) transfers information carries genetic code needed for protein synthesis d) stores information for carries inherited genetic code that controls protein synthesis e) transports fluids Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: Sec 2.10 Describe the functional role of adenosine triphosphate (ATP).

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.10 Adenosine Triphosphate 46) Which monomer is used to build RNA and DNA? a) fatty acid b) amino acid c) monosaccharide d) glycerol e) nucleotide Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 2.9 Describe the structure and functions of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) and ribonucleic acid (RNA).

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.9 Nucleic Acids

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47) In the diagram which particles are negatively charged?

a) A b) B c) C d) All of these choices. e) None of these choices.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1 Describe the main chemicals of the human body and the structures of atoms, ions, molecules, and compounds.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.1.2 Describe the structures of atoms, ions, molecules, free radicals, and compounds.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.1 How Matter is Organized

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48) In the diagram, removal of one or more of this type of subatomic particle would result in the formation of a cation?

a) A b) B c) C d) All of these choices. e) None of these choices.

Answer: b c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1 Describe the main chemicals of the human body and the structures of atoms, ions, molecules, and compounds.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.1.2 Describe the structures of atoms, ions, molecules, free radicals, and compounds.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.1 How Matter is Organized Question type: Essay Answer: 49) What type of molecule is shown in the diagram? Where in a human body cell would this type of molecule be commonly found? What special chemical properties does this molecule possess

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that allows it to accomplish its functions?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 2.7 Identify the components and functions of lipids.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.7.2 Discuss the functions of lipids.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.7 Lipids Solution: This is a phospholipid found in the plasma membranes of eukaryotic cells. It has a polar hydrophilic head group and a nonpolar hydrophobic tail group making it amphipathic. This chemical property allows it to form the lipid bilayer of the membrane with its polar group oriented on the surface of the membrane and its hydrophobic tails oriented away from the surrounding water in the interior of the lipid bilayer.

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50) Describe what is happening at places 1, 2 and 3 in the diagram.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 2.5 Describe the importance of carbon and functional groups in the structure of organic molecules.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.5.1 Describe the functional groups of organic molecules.

Section Reference: 1. 2.5 Organic Compounds Solution: This figure represents how an enzyme works. At number one, the enzyme and substrate come together at the active site of the enzyme forming the enzyme-substrate complex. At number two, the enzyme catalyzes the reaction and transforms the substrate into products, which are then released from the enzyme. At number three, the reaction is complete and the enzyme remains unchanged and free to catalyze the same reaction again on a new substrate.

Question type: Multiple Choice

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51) Which of the labeled structures are found in DNA but not RNA?

1A 2B 3C 4E a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 4 only e) 1 and 4 Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 2.5 Describe the importance of carbon and functional groups in the structure of organic molecules.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.5.1 Describe the functional groups of organic molecules.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.5 Organic Compounds Question type: Essay 52) What is the difference between atomic mass, mass number and atomic number?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension

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Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1 Describe the main chemicals of the human body and the structures of atoms, ions, molecules, and compounds.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.1.2 Describe the structures of atoms, ions, molecules, free radicals, and compounds.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.1 How Matter is Organized Solution: Atomic number is the number of protons found in the nucleus of an atom. Atomic mass is the weighted average mass of all naturally occurring isotopes of the atom. Mass number is the sum of protons and neutrons found in an atom.

53) In the diagram, what pH value represents an acidic Solution?

a) 12 b) 10 c) 8 d) 6 e) None of these choices.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 2.4 Explain the importance of water, salts, acids, and bases in the functioning of the human body.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.4.3 Define pH and explain the role of buffer systems in homeostasis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.4 Inorganic Compounds and Solutions

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54) In the diagram, what would happen to the concentration of C if the concentration of A increases?

a) increases b) decreases c) no change Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 2.5 Describe the importance of carbon and functional groups in the structure of organic molecules.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.5.1 Describe the functional groups of organic molecules.

Section Reference: 1. Sec 2.8 Proteins 2.5 Organic Compounds Question type: Multiple Choice 55) Which of the following describes the major significance of the element carbon in the human body? a) ionized form makes body fluids acidic b) constituent of water c) forms backbone of all organic molecules

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d) required to harden the structure of bones and teeth e) ionized form is the part of hemoglobin that carries oxygen Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1 Describe the main chemicals of the human body and the structures of atoms, ions, molecules, and compounds.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.1.1 Identify the main chemical elements of the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.1 How Matter is Organized 56) Which of the following describes the major significance of the element chlorine in the human body? a) ionized form makes body fluids acidic b) ionized form is most plentiful anion in extracellular fluid c) forms backbone of all organic molecules d) required for bone and tooth structure e) ionized form is most plentiful cation in extracellular fluid Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1 Describe the main chemicals of the human body and the structures of atoms, ions, molecules, and compounds.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.1.1 Identify the main chemical elements of the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.1 How Matter is Organized 57) Which of the following describes the major significance of the element nitrogen in the human body? a) The ionized form makes body fluids acidic. b) The ionized form is most plentiful anion in extracellular fluid. c) The ionized form is needed for action of many enzymes. d) It is a component of all proteins and nucleic acids. e) The ionized form is most plentiful cation in extracellular fluid.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension

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Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1 Describe the main chemicals of the human body and the structures of atoms, ions, molecules, and compounds.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.1.1 Identify the main chemical elements of the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.1 How Matter is Organized 58) Which of the following can lower the amount of free radicals in the body? a) x-rays b) ultraviolet radiation c) oxygen d) carbon tetrachloride e) antioxidants Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1 Describe the main chemicals of the human body and the structures of atoms, ions, molecules, and compounds.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.1.2 Describe the structures of atoms, ions, molecules, free radicals, and compounds.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.1 How Matter is Organized 59) Which of the following substances has a pH closest to 7.0? a) lye b) vaginal fluid c) gastric juice d) cerebrospinal fluid e) milk of magnesia Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 2.4 Apply the properties of water, inorganic acids, bases and salts to the properties of Solutions , colloids and suspensions and the role of pH in buffer systems.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.4.3 Define pH and explain the role of buffer systems in homeostasis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.4 Inorganic Compounds and Solutions 60) Which of the following carbohydrates is a disaccharide? a) ribose

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b) lactose c) galactose d) glycogen e) cellulose Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 2.6 Identify the components and functions of carbohydrates.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.6 Carbohydrates 61) Which of the following carbohydrates is a polysaccharide? a) ribose b) lactose c) glycogen d) maltose e) galactose Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 2.6 Identify the components and functions of carbohydrates.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.6 Carbohydrates 62) This type of lipid is used by the body for insulation. a) phospholipids b) triglycerides c) bile salts d) sex hormones e) carotenes Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 2.7 Identify the components and functions of lipids.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.7.1 Identify the different types of lipids.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.7 Lipids 63) This type of protein is involved with shortening of muscle cells to produce movement.

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a) contractile b) structural c) regulatory d) catalytic e) transport Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 2.8 Identify the components and functions of proteins.

Learning Objective 1: LO 2.8.1 Identify the building blocks of proteins.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.8 Proteins 64) This type of protein protects against pathogens. a) contractile b) immunological c) regulatory d) catalytic e) transport Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 2.8 Identify the components and functions of proteins.

Learning Objective 1: LO 2.8.1 Identify the building blocks of proteins.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.8 Proteins 65) Surface tension of an aqueous Solution is generated by the presence of _____ between water molecules. a) covalent bonds b) ionic bonds c) hydrogen bonds d) ester links e) None of these choices.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension

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Learning Objective 1: LO 2.2 Explain the formation of molecules and compounds and the nature of their chemical bonds.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.2.1 Describe how valence electrons form chemical bonds.

Learning Objective 3: LO 2.2.2 Distinguish among ionic, covalent, and hydrogen bonds.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 Chemical Bonds Question type: Essay Answer: 66) Define mixture and then distinguish between the three types of mixtures called Solutions , colloids and suspensions.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 2.4 Explain the importance of water, salts, acids, and bases in the functioning of the human body.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.4.2 Distinguish among Solutions , colloids, and suspensions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.4 Inorganic Compounds and Solutions Solution: A mixture is a combination of elements or compounds that are physically blended together but not bound by chemical bonds. A Solution is a mixture where the Solute s are evenly dispersed among the Solvent molecules. Solutions have a clear appearance. Colloids are like Solutions except the Solute s are big enough to scatter light. A colloid appears translucent or opaque. Suspensions are mixtures where the suspended material will eventually settle out.

Question type: Multiple Choice 67) A molecule with an unpaired electron in the outermost shell is called a(n) a) compound. b) free radical. c) colloid. d) molecule.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1 Describe the main chemicals of the human body and the structures of atoms, ions, molecules, and compounds.

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Learning Objective 2: LO 2.1.2 Describe the structures of atoms, ions, molecules, free radicals, and compounds Section Reference 1: Sec 2.1 How Matter is Organized Question type: Essay 68) What organic compound is lacking the human digestive system that makes it unable to digest cellulose?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 2.8 Identify the components and functions of proteins.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.8 Proteins Solution: Human digestive system lacks the enzyme to recognize the structure and break the bonds that hold this polysaccharide together.

Question type: Multiple Choice 69) A triple covalent bond is formed between atoms sharing _____ valence electrons. a) one b) two c) three d) six e) eight Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 2.2 Explain the formation of molecules and compounds and the nature of their chemical bonds.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.2.1 Describe how valence electrons form chemical bonds.

Learning Objective 3: LO 2.2.2 Distinguish among ionic, covalent, and hydrogen bonds.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 Chemical Bonds 70) In a polar covalent bond, the atom that has the most electronegativity will have a a) full negative charge (-1).

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b) full positive charge (+1). c) partial negative charge. d) partial positive charge. e) neutral charge.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 2.2 Explain how atoms form molecules and compounds, and describe the nature of the various types of bonds that join them.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.2.1 Describe how valence electrons form chemical bonds.

Learning Objective 3: LO 2.2.2 Distinguish among ionic, covalent, and hydrogen bonds.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 Chemical Bonds 71) Which of the following is a general term used to refer to the sum of all the chemical reactions occurring in the body? a) anabolism b) catabolism c) metabolism d) catalysis e) homeostasis Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 2.2. Explain the formation of molecules and compounds and the nature of their chemical bonds.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.2.1 Describe how valence electrons form chemical bonds.

Learning Objective 3: LO 2.2.2 Distinguish among ionic, covalent, and hydrogen bonds.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 Chemical Bonds 72) The energy stored in the bonds of the molecules in the foods that humans eat is 1. a form of kinetic energy.

2. a form of potential energy.

3. referred to as chemical energy. a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 2 and 3 e) All of these choices

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Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 2.2 Explain the formation of molecules and compounds and the nature of their chemical bonds.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.2.2 Distinguish among ionic, covalent, and hydrogen bonds.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Chemical Reactions 73) The initial energy “investment” needed to start a chemical reaction in a cell is called the a) energy of products. b) energy of reactants. c) potential energy. d) Gibb’s free energy. e) activation energy.

Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 2.2 Explain the formation of molecules and compounds and the nature of their chemical bonds.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.2.2 Distinguish among ionic, covalent, and hydrogen bonds.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Chemical reactions 74) All of the following are characteristics of anabolism EXCEPT: a) It involves synthesizing new biomolecules. b) It primarily involves endergonic reactions. c) It releases large amounts of energy. d) An example of anabolism is linking amino acids together to form proteins. e) An example is the formation of two ammonia molecules from one nitrogen molecule and three hydrogen molecules.

Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 2.2 Explain the formation of molecules and compounds and the nature of their chemical bonds.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.2.2 Distinguish among ionic, covalent, and hydrogen bonds.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Chemical reactions

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75) AB + CD → AD + BC is a general example of a(n) _____ reaction. a) decomposition b) synthesis c) exchange d) reversible e) catalyzed Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 2.3 Explain what happens when atoms combine with or separate from other atoms during a chemical reaction.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.3.5 Describe synthesis, decomposition, exchange, and reversible reactions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Chemical reactions 76) The characteristics listed below represent which element in the periodic table?

1. 7 valence electrons 2. easily gains an electron 3. most likely to form an anion 4. high electronegativity a) sodium b) carbon c) chlorine d) nitrogen e) oxygen Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1 Describe the main chemicals of the human body and the structures of the atoms, ions, molecules, and compounds.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.1.2 Describe the structures of atoms, ions, molecules, free radicals, and compounds.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.1 How Matter is Organized

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Question type: Multiple Text Dropdown

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77) Choose the appropriate atomic number associated with the element.

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Carbon’s atomic mass (P = 6, N = 6) is [dropdown 1]. Carbon has [dropdown 2] valence electrons. Carbon can form up to [dropdown 3] covalent bonds. Carbon 14 is a radioactive isotope and contains [dropdown 4] neutrons.

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Dropdown choices 2 4 6 7 8 12 14

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Answer 1: 12 Answer 2: 4 Answer 3: 4 Answer 4: 8 Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1 Describe the main chemicals of the human body and the structures of the atoms, ions, molecules, and compounds.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.1.2 Describe the structures of atoms, ions, molecules, free radicals, and compounds.

Section Reference: 2.1

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Question type: Multiple Selection

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78) What functional groups are present on the molecule in the diagram. Choose all that apply.

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a) Hydroxyl b) Carbonyl c) Carboxyl d) Ester e) Amino

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Answer 1: c Answer 2: d Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Evaluate Learning Objective 1: LO 2.5 Describe the importance of carbon and functional groups in the structure of organic molecules.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.5.1 Describe the functional groups of organic molecules.

Section Reference: Sec 2.5 Organic Compounds

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79) Choose which statement describes an anabolic (synthesis) reaction. Select all that apply. a) Monomers are joined together. b) Breaking a protein into amino acids. c) Cooking raw fish in acids to make ceviche d) Glucose is linked together to make glycogen. e) A molecule of water is removed to bond a galactose and glucose. f) A molecule of water is added to separate glycine from lysine. g) Using ATPase to speed up the breakdown of ATP into ADP and P.

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Answer 1: a Answer 2: d Answer 3: e Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 2.3 Explain what happens when atoms combine with or separate from other atoms during a chemical reaction.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.3.1 Define a chemical reaction.

Section Reference: Sec 2.3 Chemical Reactions

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80) If hydrogen bonding was prevented in proteins, which structure would be affected? Select all that apply.

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a) Primary b) Secondary c) Tertiary d) Quaternary

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Answer 1: b Answer 2: d Answer 3: c

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Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 2.8 Identify the components and functions of proteins.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.8.1 Identify the building blocks of proteins.

Learning Objective 3: LO 2.8.2 Describe the functional roles of proteins.

Section Reference: Sec 2.8 Proteins

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Question type: Multiple Choice

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81) If there is 24% Adenine present in a DNA helix, how much thymine would be present?

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a) 12% thymine b) 24% thymine c) 26% thymine d) 52% thymine e) 75% thymine

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Answer: b

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Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective 1: LO 2.9.2 Describe the components of a nucleotide Section Reference: Sec 2.9 Nucleic Acids

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82) Vitamin D is synthesized from cholesterol. What is true about Vitamin D?

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a) Vitamin D is water soluble b) Vitamin D is fat soluble c) Vitamin D is not soluble in fat or water

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d) Vitamin D is soluble in both fat and water

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Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 2.7 Identify the components and functions of lipids.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.7.1 Identify the different types of lipids.

Learning Objective 3: LO 2.7.2 Discuss the functions of lipids.

Section Reference: Sec 2.7 Lipids

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83) The R group of an amino acid would need to have what characteristic to be located in a cell membrane?

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a) The R group would need to be polar b) The R group would need to be nonpolar c) The R group would need to be hydrophilic d) The R group has to ionize Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO 2.8 Identify the components and functions of proteins.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.8.1 Identify the building blocks of proteins.

Learning Objective 3: LO 2.8.2 Describe the functional roles of proteins.

Section Reference: Sec 2.8 Proteins

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84) In laboratory, Sudan IV is used to test for the presence of hydrophobic substances in food.

Which organic molecule would exhibit a positive reaction with Sudan IV? a) Lipids b) Nucleic Acids c) Carbohydrates d) Globular proteins

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Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 2.7 Identify the components and functions of lipids.

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Learning Objective 2: LO 2.7.1 Identify the different types of lipids.

Learning Objective 3: LO 2.7.2 Discuss the functions of lipids.

Section Reference: Sec 2.7 Lipids

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Question type: Text Dropdown

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85) A radioactive isotope of sulfur would be trackable in [dropdown].

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Dropdown Choices: cysteine fatty acid chain glucose glycine nucleotide

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Moved (insertion) [1] Moved (insertion) [2] Deleted: F

Moved (insertion) [3] Deleted: G

Answer: cysteine

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Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO 2.1 Describe the main chemicals of the human body and the structures of the atoms, ions, molecules, and compounds.

Learning Objective 2: LO 2.1.2 Describe the structures of atoms, ions, molecules, free radicals, and compounds.

Learning Objective 3: LO 2.8 Identify the components and functions of proteins.

Learning Objective 4: LO 2.8.2 Describe the functional roles of proteins.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.1 How Matter is Organized Section Reference 2: Sec 2.8 Proteins

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Moved up [1]: cysteine¶ Moved up [3]: Glucose¶ Moved up [2]: Fatty acid chain¶

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: PAP 15 Chapter Number: 03 Shuffle: Yes Case Sensitive: No

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Question type: Multiple Choice 1) What are the three main parts of a human body cell? a) plasma membrane, organelles, cytoplasm b) plasma membrane, organelles, nucleus c) plasma membrane, cytoplasm, organelles d) plasma membrane, cytoplasm, nucleus e) plasma membrane, cytosol, organelles Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 3.1 Name and describe the three main parts of a cell.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.1 Parts of a Cell Question type: Essay 2) Briefly describe the fluid mosaic model.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2 Describe the structure and functions of the plasma membrane.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.2 The Plasma Membrane Solution: The fluid mosaic model states that the molecular arrangement of the plasma membrane resembles an ever-moving sea of fluid lipids containing a mosaic of many different proteins.

Question type: Multiple Choice 3) The three main components of the lipid bilayer portion of a plasma membrane are

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a) phospholipids, glycoproteins, and water. b) proteins, cholesterol, and fatty acids. c) cholesterol, triglycerides, and glycolipids. d) phospholipids, cholesterol, and glycolipids. e) phospholipids, cholesterol, and proteins.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2 Describe the structure and functions of the plasma membrane.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.2.2 Explain the concept of selective permeability.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.2 The Plasma Membrane 4) What are the nonpolar parts of phospholipids? a) phosphate-containing head groups b) fatty acid tail groups c) Both the head and tail groups are nonpolar. d) Neither the head nor tail groups are nonpolar.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2 Describe the structure and functions of the plasma membrane.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.2.2 Explain the concept of selective permeability.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.2 The Plasma Membrane 5) The polar portion of a cholesterol molecule, which forms hydrogen bonds with the polar heads of neighboring phospholipids and glycolipids, consists of a a) –OH group. b) –CH3 group. c) –CH4 group d) –COOH group e) None of these choices is correct.

Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2 Describe the structure and functions of the plasma membrane.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.2.2 Explain the concept of selective permeability.

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Section Reference 1: Sec 3.2 The Plasma Membrane 6) Which type of membrane protein extends across the entire lipid bilayer of the plasma membrane touching both intracellular fluid and the extracellular fluid? a) complement protein b) transmembrane protein c) peripheral protein d) lipoprotein e) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2 Describe the structure and functions of the plasma membrane.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.2.2 Explain the concept of selective permeability.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.2 The Plasma Membrane Question type: Essay 7) Describe five different functions of integral membrane proteins.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2 Describe the structure and functions of the plasma membrane.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.2.2 Explain the concept of selective permeability.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.2 The Plasma Membrane Solution: Some membrane proteins act as ion channels or carriers that transport substances across the membrane. Other membrane proteins act as receptors that allow the cell to respond to various types of ligands. Other membrane proteins are enzymes that catalyze specific chemical reactions.

Still other membrane proteins act as linker proteins that anchor cells to neighboring structures including other cells. Lastly, some membrane proteins serve as cell identity molecules.

Question type: Multiple Choice 8) This type of membrane protein enables cells to catalyze specific chemical reactions at the inner or outer surface of their plasma membrane.

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a) receptors b) phospholipids c) cholesterol d) enzymes e) ligands Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2 Describe the structure and functions of the plasma membrane.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.2.2 Explain the concept of selective permeability.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.2 The Plasma Membrane 9) Which of the following types of membrane proteins function by recognizing and binding to hormones and neurotransmitters? a) transporters b) receptors c) enzymes d) linkers e) cell identification markers Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2 Describe the structure and functions of the plasma membrane.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.2.2 Explain the concept of selective permeability.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.2 The Plasma Membrane 10) Which type of membrane protein anchors cells to neighboring cells and to protein filaments found outside or inside the cell? a) transporters b) receptors c) ligands d) ion channels e) linkers Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

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Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2 Describe the structure and functions of the plasma membrane.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.2.2 Explain the concept of selective permeability.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.2 The Plasma Membrane 11) Plasma membranes are _____, which means that some chemicals move easily through plasma membrane while other chemicals do not. a) selectively permeable b) concentration graded c) electrically graded d) selectively soluble e) electrical insulators Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2 Describe the plasma membrane structural and functional properties.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.2.2 Explain the concept of selective permeability.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.3 Transport across the Plasma Membrane 12) Which of the following does NOT influence the rate of diffusion of a chemical across a plasma membrane? a) concentration gradient of the chemical across the membrane b) mass of the diffusing chemical c) distance that the chemical has to diffuse d) amount of ATP available e) temperature Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Describe the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.3 Transport across the Plasma Membrane Question type: Essay 13) Briefly describe the driving force for the movement of water across plasma membranes.

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Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Describe the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.3 Transport across the Plasma Membrane Solution: Water moves across membranes by osmosis, which is driven by solute concentration differences across the membrane. Water moves from the area of low solute concentration to the area of high solute concentrations.

Question type: Multiple Choice 14) Which of the following is a measure of a solution’s ability to change the volume of cells by altering their water content? a) filtration b) normality c) tonicity d) equivalency e) facilitation Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Describe the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.3 Transport across the Plasma Membrane 15) Which of the following is the transport process by which gases, like O2 and CO2, move through a membrane? a) osmosis b) active transport c) secondary active transport d) simple diffusion e) endocytosis Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension

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Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Describe the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.3 Transport across the Plasma Membrane 16) In this type of transport process, a solute (e.g. glucose) binds to a specific carrier protein on one side of the membrane. This binding induces a conformational change in the carrier protein that results in the solute moving down its concentration gradient to the other side of the membrane. a) osmosis b) primay active transport c) secondary active transport d) facilitated diffusion e) endocytosis Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Describe the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.3 Transport across the Plasma Membrane 17) In this transport process, the energy from hydrolysis of ATP is used to drive substances across the membrane against their own concentration gradients. a) primary active transport b) secondary active transport c) facilitated diffusion d) passive diffusion e) osmosis Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Describe the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.3 Transport across the Plasma Membrane 18) If the solute concentration is greater inside of the cell than outside the cell, water will move by osmosis a) into the cell.

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b) out of the cell. c) into and out of the cell at the same rate resulting in no net water movement. d) All of these answer choices are correct. e) None of these answers are correct.

Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Describe the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.3 Transport across the Plasma Membrane 19) What transport process uses the energy stored in a Na+ or H+ concentration gradient to drive other substances across the membrane against their own concentration gradients? a) primary active transport b) secondary active transport c) facilitated diffusion d) passive diffusion e) osmosis Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Describe the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.3 Transport across the Plasma Membrane 20) Which of the following transport processes uses vesicles that fuse with the plasma membrane to secrete materials into the extracellular fluid? a) endocytosis b) exocytosis c) facilitated diffusion d) osmosis e) Both endocytosis and exocytosis.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension

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Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Describe the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.3 Transport across the Plasma Membrane 21) Which of the following transport process uses vesicles formed at the plasma membrane to take up extracellular substances and import them into the cell? a) endocytosis b) exocytosis c) facilitated diffusion d) osmosis e) Both endocytosis and exocytosis.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Describe the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.3 Transport across the Plasma Membrane Question type: Essay 22) List the steps involved in receptor-mediated endocytosis.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Describe the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.3 Transport across the Plasma Membrane Solution: The steps involved in receptor-mediated endocytosis include 1)ligand binding, 2)vesicle formation, 3)uncoating of the vesicle, 4)fusion of the vesicle with endosome, 5)recycling of receptors to the plasma membrane, and 6)degradation of the ligand in the lysosome.

Question type: Multiple Choice 23) During phagocytosis, binding of a particle to a plasma membrane receptor triggers formation of _____, which are extensions of the plasma membrane of the phagocyte that eventually surround the particle forming a phagosome.

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a) podocytes b) exterior vesicles c) interior vesicles d) pseudopods e) lysosomes Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Describe the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.3 Transport across the Plasma Membrane 24) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the cytosol? a) primarily consists of water b) ca is also known as extracellular fluid c) site of many important chemical reactions d) often contains aggregates of triglycerides that form lipid droplets e) contains the enzymes of glycolysis Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 3.4 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Cytoplasm 25) Specialized structures within a cell that have a characteristic shape and perform specific functions in cellular growth, maintenance and reproduction are called a) organelles. b) cytoskeletons. c) cytoplasm. d) cytosol. e) nuclei.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

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Learning Objective 1: LO 3.4 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Cytoplasm 26) Microfilaments, intermediate filaments and microtubules are all components of a cell’s a) cytoskeleton. b) nucleus. c) plasma membrane. d) flagella. e) ribosome.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 3.4 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Cytoplasm 27) Which cellular organelle is comprised of a pair of centrioles and the surrounding pericentriolar material. a) cytoskeleton b) cilia c) centrosome d) flagella e) peroxisomes Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 3.4 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Cytoplasm 28) A sperm cell is the only type of human cell that contains a _____, which is a whip-like structure that helps propel the sperm towards an oocyte. a) cilium b) flagellum c) mitochondria

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d) centrosome e) microvillus Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 3.4 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Cytoplasm 29) Which of the following membrane-enclosed organelles is the site of synthesis of membrane proteins and secretory proteins? a) rough endoplasmic reticulum b) smooth endoplasmic reticulum c) nucleus d) lysosome e) Golgi complex Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 3.4 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Cytoplasm 30) Which of the following membrane-enclosed organelles modifies, sorts, and packages proteins destined for other regions of the cell? a) endoplasmic reticulum b) Golgi complex c) peroxisomes d) nucleus e) proteasome Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 3.4 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Cytoplasm

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Question type: Essay 31) Briefly state the functions of the rough and smooth endoplasmic reticulum.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 3.4 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Cytoplasm Solution: The rough endoplasmic reticulum synthesizes glycoproteins, phospholipids and digestive enzymes that are transferred to other cellular organelles, inserted into the plasma membrane, secreted during exocytosis or stored in the lysosomes. The smooth endoplasmic reticulum synthesizes fatty acids and steroids, detoxifies harmful substances, removes phosphate groups from glucose-6-phosphate, and stores and releases calcium ions that trigger contractions in muscle fibers.

32) Briefly describe how proteins move through the Golgi complex.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 3.4 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Cytoplasm Solution: Proteins are packaged into transport vesicles by the rough endoplasmic reticulum membrane. These vesicles enter on the (cis) face of the Golgi complex, and the proteins move through the cisternae, from (cis) face through to exit (trans) face. Proteins will leave from the (trans) face of the Golgi complex in vesicles that will deliver the protein to plasma membrane, secretory vesicles, or to other organelles in the cell.

Question type: Multiple Choice 33) Which of the following membrane-enclosed organelles contains several oxidases that are involved in oxidation of fatty acids and amino acids during normal metabolism and in detoxification of chemicals like alcohol in the liver? a) peroxisomes b) mitochondria

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c) proteasome d) ribosomes e) lysosomes Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 3.4 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Cytoplasm 34) Which of the following membrane-enclosed organelles can engulf a worn-out organelle, digest its chemical components, and recycle those digested components? a) peroxisomes b) mitochondria c) proteasome d) ribosomes e) lysosomes Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 3.4 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Cytoplasm 35) The major function of mitochondria is to a) move the cell. b) generate ATP. c) produce proteins. d) oxidize organelles. e) synthesize glycolipids.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 3.4 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Cytoplasm

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36) Which of the following protects the contents of the nucleus? a) nucleic acids b) nuclear membrane c) centrosome d) cilia e) Golgi complex Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 3.5 Describe the structure and function of the nucleus.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.5 Nucleus 37) What is the major function of histones? a) needed for double helix formation of the DNA b) synthesis of ribosomal subunits c) help organize coiling and folding of the DNA d) degrade faulty proteins in the nucleus e) control passage of substances through nuclear envelope Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 3.5 Describe the structure and function of the nucleus.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.5 Nucleus Question type: Essay 38) Briefly explain the difference between transcription and translation.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 3.6 Describe the sequence of events in protein synthesis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.6 Protein Synthesis

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Solution: Transcription is making mRNA from DNA and it occurs in the nucleus, while translation is making a protein from the information in mRNA and happens in the cytosol of the cell.

Question type: Multiple Choice 39) Which portion of a DNA segment does not code for a protein? a) RNA b) introns c) exons d) polyribosome e) ribosome Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 3.6 Describe the sequence of events in protein synthesis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.6 Protein Synthesis Question type: Essay 40) Briefly describe alternative splicing.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 3.6 Describe the sequence of events in protein synthesis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.6 Protein Synthesis Solution: Alternative splicing of mRNA is a process in which the pre-mRNA transcribed from a gene is spliced in different ways to produce several different mRNAs. The different mRNAs are used to make different proteins.

Question type: Essay 41) Define homologous chromosomes.

Answer:

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 3.7 Explain the events and processes involved in cell division.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.7.1 Discuss the stages, events, and significance of somatic and reproductive cell division.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.7 Cell Division Solution: Homologous chromosomes contain similar genes arranged in the same (or almost the same) order.

Question type: Multiple Choice 42) During this phase of cell division, organelles duplicate and centrosome replication begins. a) interphase b) prophase c) metaphase d) anaphase e) telophase Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 3.7 Explain the events and processes involved in cell division.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.7.1 Discuss the stages, events, and significance of somatic and reproductive cell division.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.7 Cell Division 43) During this phase of cell division, the centromeres split leading to separation and subsequent migration of the two members of a chromatid pair to opposite poles of the cells. The cleavage furrow also begins to develop during this phase. a) interphase b) prophase c) metaphase d) anaphase e) telophase Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 3.7 Explain the events and processes involved in cell division.

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Learning Objective 2: LO 3.7.1 Discuss the stages, events, and significance of somatic and reproductive cell division.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.7 Cell Division 44) In the diagram, which organelle is responsible for autophagy and autolysis?

a) C b) B c) F d) J e) D Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 3.4 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Cytoplasm

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45) In the diagram, which organelle is used to modify, sort and transport proteins?

a) D b) I c) A d) J e) G Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 3.4 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Cytoplasm

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46) In the diagram, which organelle aids movement of the cell?

a) A b) G c) H d) D e) I Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 3.4 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Cytoplasm

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47) In the diagram, this structure directs cellular activities and controls cellular structure.

a) D b) F c) G d) A e) H Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 3.5 Describe the structure and function of the nucleus.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.5 Nucleus

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48) In the diagram, which one represents carrier-mediated facilitated diffusion?

a) A b) B c) C d) Both A and C e) Both B and C Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Describe the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.3 Transport across the Plasma Membrane 49) In the diagram, which one represents a hypertonic solution

a) A

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b) B c) C d) Both B and C e) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Describe the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.3 Transport across the Plasma Membrane Question type: Essay 50) Describe briefly what is occurring at each step in the figure.

Answer:

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Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective 1: LO 3.6 Describe the sequence of events in protein synthesis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.6 Protein Synthesis Solution: This figure represents protein synthesis. Step one, the initiator tRNA attaches to a start codon. In step two, the large and small ribosomal subunits join to form a functional ribosome and initiator tRNA fits into P site. In step three, the anticodon of an incoming tRNA pairs with the next mRNA codon at A site. Step four, the amino acid on the tRNA at P site forms a peptide bond with the amino acid at A site. Step five, the tRNA at the P site leaves the ribosome and the ribosome shifts down by one codon. The tRNA previously at the A site is now at the P site. Step six is when protein synthesis stops when the ribosome reaches one of three potential stop codons on the mRNA strand.

Question type: Multiple Choice 51) In the diagram, which panel shows events occurring during anaphase?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 3.7 Explain the events and processes involved in cell division.

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Learning Objective 2: LO 3.7.1 Discuss the stages, events, and significance of somatic and reproductive cell division.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.7 Cell Division 52) In the diagram, which panel shows the kinetochore of the centromeres aligning along the center of the mitotic spindle of the cell?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 3.7 Explain the events and processes involved in cell division.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.7.1 Discuss the stages, events, and significance of somatic and reproductive cell division.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.7 Cell Division

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53) In the diagram, which panel shows cells that are in interphase?

1A 2C 3F a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 1 and 3 e) 1, 2, and 3 Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 3.7 Explain the events and processes involved in cell division.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.7.1 Discuss the stages, events, and significance of somatic and reproductive cell division.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.7 Cell Division Question type: Essay 54) Compare and contrast primary and secondary active transport.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

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Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Describe the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.3 Transport across the Plasma Membrane Solution: Both are energy requiring transport processes that are capable of moving substances against their concentration gradients. Energy obtained from hydrolysis of ATP drives primary active transport, while energy stored in an ionic concentration gradient drives secondary active transport.

55) Compare mitosis to meiosis.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 3.7 Explain the events and processes involved in cell division.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.7.1 Discuss the stages, events, and significance of somatic and reproductive cell division.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.7 Cell Division Solution: Mitosis is somatic cell division that produces two identical cells with the same number (diploid) and kinds of chromosomes as the original cell. Meiosis is reproductive cell division that produces cells in which the number of chromosomes in the nucleus is reduced in half (haploid) Question type: Multiple Choice

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56) What structural component of the membrane is labeled (E) in the diagram?

a) glycoprotein b) cholesterol c) channel protein d) glycolipid e) phospholipid Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2 Describe the structure and functions of the plasma membrane.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.2 The Plasma Membrane

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57) What structural components of the membrane are labeled (C) in the diagram?

a) peripheral proteins b) cholesterol molecules c) pores d) integral proteins e) phospholipids Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2 Describe the structure and functions of the plasma membrane.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.2 The Plasma Membrane

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58) What structural component of the membrane is labeled (B) in the diagram?

a) glycoprotein b) cholesterol c) glycolipid d) channel protein e) phospholipid Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2 Describe the structure and functions of the plasma membrane.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.2 The Plasma Membrane

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58) Which of the following represents an ion channel?

a) F b) C c) D d) A e) E Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2 Describe the structure and functions of the plasma membrane.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.2 The Plasma Membrane

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59) Which of the following shows ligand binding at the cell surface?

a) B b) C c) D d) A e) E Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2 Describe the structure and functions of the plasma membrane.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.2 The Plasma Membrane

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60) Most intravenous solutions are _____ with respect to blood cells? a) tonicity b) isotonic c) hypertonic d) osmotic e) hypotonic Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Describe the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.3 Transport across the Plasma Membrane 61) Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in receptor-mediated endocytosis shown in the figure?

a) binding > degradation in lysosomes > vesicle formation > uncoating > recycling of receptors to plasma membrane > fusion with endosome

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b) degradation in lysosomes > fusion with endosome > recycling of receptors to plasma membrane > uncoating > vesicle formation > binding c) degradation in lysosomes > recycling of receptors to plasma membrane > fusion with endosome > uncoating > vesicle formation > binding d) binding > vesicle formation > uncoating > fusion with endosome > recycling of receptors to plasma membrane > degradation in lysosomes e) binding > uncoating > vesicle formation > fusion with endosome > degradation in lysosomes > recycling of receptors to plasma membrane Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Describe the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.3 Transport across the Plasma Membrane 62) Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in phagocytosis shown in the figure?

a) pseudopods surround particle > phagosome formed > fusion of lysosome and phagosome > digestion by lysosomal enzymes > residual body formed b) phagosome formed > pseudopods surround particle > fusion of lysosome and phagosome > digestion by lysosomal enzymes > residual body formed

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c) phagosome formed > pseudopods surround particle > fusion of lysosome and phagosome > residual body formed > digestion by lysosomal enzymes d) residual body formed > phagosome formed > pseudopods surround particle > fusion of lysosome and phagosome > digestion by lysosomal enzymes e) fusion of lysosome and phagosome > residual body formed > phagosome formed > pseudopods surround particle > digestion by lysosomal enzymes Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Describe the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.3 Transport across the Plasma Membrane 63) Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in bulk-phase endocytosis shown in the figure?

a) plasma membrane forms vesicle around extracellular droplets > fusion of lysosome and vesicle > vesicle formed pinches off into cytosol > digestion by enzymes > solutes released

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b) solutes released > plasma membrane forms vesicle around extracellular droplets > fusion of lysosome and vesicle > vesicle formed pinches off into cytosol > digestion by enzymes c) vesicle formed pinches off into cytosol > solutes released > plasma membrane forms vesicle around extracellular droplets > fusion of lysosome and vesicle > digestion by enzymes d) vesicle formed pinches off into cytosol > plasma membrane forms vesicle around extracellular droplets > fusion of lysosome and vesicle > digestion by enzymes > solutes released e) plasma membrane forms vesicle around extracellular droplets > vesicle formed pinches off into cytosol > fusion of lysosome and vesicle > digestion by enzymes > solutes released Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Describe the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.3 Transport across the Plasma Membrane 64) Which of the following transport processes moves substances through cells using endocytosis on one side of a cell and exocytosis on the opposite side of the cell? a) phagocytosis b) secondary active transport c) transcytosis d) osmosis e) simple diffusion Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Describe the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane Section Reference 1: Sec 3.3 Transport across the Plasma Membrane 65) Which disease below is an inherited condition characterized by the absence of a single lysosomal enzyme called Hex A? a) Tay-Sachs disease b) leukemia c) progeria d) lymphoma e) Werner syndrome Answer: a

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Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 3.4 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Cytoplasm 66) Which organelle is responsible for synthesis of steroids, phospholipids and functions as a reservoir for Ca2+ in muscle cells? a) mitochondrion b) secretory vesicle c) smooth endoplasmic reticulum d) rough endoplasmic reticulum e) lysosome Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 3.4 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Cytoplasm 67) What other organelle besides the nucleus contains DNA? a) Golgi complex b) lysosome c) ribosomes d) mitochondrion e) centrosome Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 3.4 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Cytoplasm 68) What is the site of synthesis of rRNA and assembly of rRNA and proteins into ribosomal subunits?

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a) nucleus b) nucleolus c) smooth endoplasmic reticulum d) rough endoplasmic reticulum e) Golgi complex Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 3.5 Describe the structure and function of the nucleus.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.5 Nucleus 69) A cell lacking ribosomes would be unable to make what organic compound? a) lipids b) nucleotides c) proteins d) carbohydrates e) phospholipids Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 3.4 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles.

Learning Objective 1: LO 3.6 Describe the sequence of events in protein synthesis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Cytoplasm Section Reference 1: Sec 3.6 Protein Synthesis 70) The following is a particular sequence of base triplet on a DNA molecule: ATG. What is the corresponding codon for the mRNA? a) TAC b) GUA c) GTA d) CTA e) UAC Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension

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Learning Objective 1: LO 3.6 Describe the sequence of events in protein synthesis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.6 Protein Synthesis 71) The following is a particular sequence of codon on mRNA: ACU. What is the corresponding anti-codon for the tRNA? a) UGA b) UCA c) TGA d) TCA e) AUC Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 3.6 Describe the sequence of events in protein synthesis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.6 Protein Synthesis Question type: Essay 72) Describe the difference between the cytoplasm and the cytosol.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 3.4 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Cytoplasm Solution: The cytoplasm is all the cellular material (organelles and fluid) between the plasma membrane and the nuclear membrane or envelope, while the cytosol is only the fluid portion of the cytoplasm.

Question type: Multiple Choice 73) The difference in concentration of a specific chemical, like Na+, on the inside and outside of a plasma membrane is referred as a(n) a) electrochemical potential. b) membrane potential.

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c) electrical gradient. d) concentration gradient. e) biological capacitance.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 3.2 Describe structure and functions of the plasma membrane.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.2.3 Define the electrochemical gradient and describe its components.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.2 The Plasma Membrane 74) An orderly, genetically programmed cell death is referred to as ________, while disorganized pathological cell death is referred to as ________. a) apoptosis; synapsis b) apoptosis; necrosis c) necrosis; apoptosis d) synapsis; necrosis e) necrosis; synapsis Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 3.9 Describe the cellular changes that occur with aging.

Section Reference 2: Sec 3.9 Aging and Cells 75) Which of the cells in the diagram contains structural adaptations that increase surface area for absorption?

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1B 2C 3D 4E a) 3 and 4 b) 1 only c) 2 only d) 3 only e) 4 only Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 3.8 Describe how cells differ in size and shape.

Section Reference 2: Sec 3.8 Cellular Diversity Question type: Multiple Selection 76) Which substance would cross the membrane via facilitated diffusion? Select all that apply. a) Glucose

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b) NaCl c) Proteins d) Oxygen e) Ethanol f) Water Answer 1: a Answer 2: b Answer 3: c Answer 4: f Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Describe the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.3 Transport across the Plasma Membrane Question type: Multiple Choice 77) Place the events of the sodium potassium pump in order.

1. Carrier proteins bind to sodium 2. Potassium binds to the carrier which causes protein to lose the phosphate (dephosphorylation) 3. Loss of phosphate causes potassium to be moved into the cell.

4. ATP adds a phosphate (phosphorylates) to the protein.

5. Addition of the phosphate causes the protein to move sodium out of the cell.

6. Potassium can bind to the protein. a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 b) 1, 4, 5, 6, 2, 3 c) 3, 2, 6, 5, 4, 1 d) 6, 2, 3, 1, 4, 5 Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Describe the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.3 Transport across the Plasma Membrane

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Question type: Text Dropdown 78) In the sodium glucose symporter, sodium moves [dropdown 1] its concentration gradient.

Moving glucose [dropdown 2] its concentration gradient is a form of active transport.

Dropdown Choices: against with Answer 1: with Answer 2: against Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Describe the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.3 Transport across the Plasma Membrane 79) Glycolysation is the linking of carbohydrates to polypeptides or lipids. Congential disorders of glycolysation affect the [dropdown 1]. Lack of enzymes to break down material causes an accumulation of undigested molecules in the cell. These disorders are caused by a defect within the [dropdown 2]. A specific gene that makes a protein lamin can alter regulation of DNA replication and transcription. This disorder affects the [dropdown 3].

Dropdown Choices: golgi complex lysosomes mitochondria nucleus Answer 1: Golgi complex Answer 2: lysosomes Answer 3: nucleus Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO 3.4 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles. Learning Objective 2: LO 3.5 Describe the structure and function of the nucleus.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Cytoplasm Section Reference 2: Sec 3.5 Nucleus

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80) [dropdown 1] RNA is translated by ribosomes and codes for the amino acids in the protein. [dropdown 1] RNA combines with protein to from the 2 subunits. [dropdown 1] RNA moves amino acids to the ribosomes for protein synthesis.

Dropdown Choices: messenger ribosomal transfer Answer 1: messenger Answer 2: ribosomal Answer 3: transfer Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 3.6 Describe the sequence of events in protein synthesis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.6 Protein Synthesis Solution: Transcription is making mRNA from DNA and it occurs in the nucleus, while translation is making a protein from the information in mRNA and happens in the cytosol of the cell.

81) transfer RNA is released from the [dropdown 1] site. A ribosome moves down a codon when the bond forms between the peptide in the [dropdown 2] site and the amino acid in the [dropdown 3] site.

Dropdown Choices: A E P Answer 1: E Answer 2: P Answer 3: A Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 3.6 Describe the sequence of events in protein synthesis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.6 Protein Synthesis Solution: Transcription is making mRNA from DNA and it occurs in the nucleus, while translation is making a protein from the information in mRNA and happens in the cytosol of the cell.

Question type: Multiple Selection

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82) Choose the events that occur only in mitosis. Select all that apply. a) Single nuclear division b) Crossing over occurs c) Daughter cells are identical to mother cell d) Sister chromatids separate during the first nuclear division e) Chromosome number is reduced f) Independent assortment occurs g) 92 chromatids or 46 chromosomes are present Answer 1: a Answer 2: c Answer 3: d Answer 4: g Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 3.7 Explain the events and processes involved in cell division.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.7.1 Discuss the stages, events, and significance of somatic and reproductive cell division.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.7 Cell Division Question type: Text Dropdown 83) If there are 23 pairs of chromosomes in a human cell, [dropdown 1] chromosomes will be present in each cell during prophase I of meiosis. [dropdown 2] chromosomes will be present in each cell during prophase II. Dropdown Choices: 23 46 92 Answer 1: 46 Answer 2: 23 Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective 1: LO 3.7 Explain the events and processes involved in cell division.

Learning Objective 2: LO 3.7.1 Discuss the stages, events, and significance of somatic and reproductive cell division.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.7 Cell Division

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84) Drugs that are large in size are not able to cross a membrane. [dropdown 1] involves engulfment of a drug by the cell membrane and transports it inside the cell by pinching off the filled vesicle. Vitamin B12 is transported this way. Many neurotransmitters, like norepinephrine, are stored in vesicles and released to the outside of the cell by [dropdown 1].

Dropdown Choices: Endocytosis Exocytosis Facilitated diffusion Osmosis Simple diffusion Answer 1: enodcytosis Answer 2: exocytosis Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Describe the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.3 Transport across the Plasma Membrane 85) Red blood cells are in osmotic equilibrium when they are in a 0.9% NaCl solution. Rapid osmotic efflux of water will occur if a cell is placed in a [dropdown 1] NaCl solution. Rapid osmotic influx of water will occur if a cell is placed in a [dropdown 2] NaCl solution.

Dropdown Choices: 0.9% 0.5% 1.5% Answer 1: 1.5% Answer 2: 0.5% Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 3.3 Describe the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.3 Transport across the Plasma Membrane

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Package Title: Testbank Course Title: PAP 15 Chapter Number: 04 Shuffle: Yes Case Sensitive: No Question type: Multiple-Selection 1) Which tissue is found in the stomach? Select all that apply. a) epithelial b) connective c) muscle d) nervous Answer 1: a Answer 2:b Answer 3:c Answer 4: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO 4.1 Name the four basic types of tissues that make up the human body, and state the characteristics of each.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Types of Tissues Question Type: Multiple Choice 2) These types of cell junctions anchor adjacent cells together and resist their separation during contractile activities. a) tight junctions and hemidesmosomes b) gap junctions and tight junctions c) adherens junctions and desmosomes d) desmosomes and gap junctions e) hemidesmosome and tight junctions Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

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Learning Objective 1: LO 4.2 Describe the structure and functions of the five main types of cell junctions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Cell Junctions Question Type: Multiple-Selection 3) Which statements describe the functions of the basement membrane? Select all that apply. a) The basal lamina is a specialized type of extracellular material only secreted by connective tissue cells. b) Blood vessels in connective tissue do not penetrate the basement membrane, requiring nutrients to diffuse to the epithelium tissue. c) Hemidesmosomes connect the reticular lamina to the connective tissue. d) Epithelial cells produce the laminin which attach to the integrins in hemidesmosomes. e) Basement membrane helps support and guide cells in migration during tissue repair.

Answer 1: b Answer 2: d Answer 3: e Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 4.3 State the main differences between epithelial and connective tissues.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.3 Comparison between epithelial and connective tissue Question Type: Text Drop Down 4) [dropdown 1]covers and protects surfaces inside and outside of the body. [dropdown 2] help secure most of the epidermal cells together through intermediate filaments, while [dropdown 3]allow communication among the epidermal cells. This tissue will have a [dropdown 4]surface that is at the superficial layer, and a [dropdown 5]surface that is attached to the basement membrane by [dropdown 6].

Dropdown choices for 1 Connective tissue Epithelial tissue Muscular tissue Nervous tissue Dropdown choices for 2 Adherens junctions

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Desmosome junctions Gap junctions Hemidesmosome junctions Tight junctions Dropdown choices for 3 Adherens junctions Desmosome junctions Gap junctions Hemidesmosome junctions Tight junctions Dropdown choices for 4 Apical Basal Lateral Dropdown choices for 5 Apical Basal Lateral Dropdown choices for 6 Adherens junctions Desmosome junctions Gap junctions Hemidesmosome junctions Tight junctions Answer 1: epithelial Answer 2: desmosomes Answer 3: gap Answer 4: apical Answer 5: basal Answer 6: hemidesmosomes Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.4.1 Describe the general features of epithelial tissues.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.4 Epithelial Tissue Question type: Essay 5) Name and briefly describe the different categories of epithelial tissues based on cell shape and number of layers of cells found in the tissue.

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Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.4.1 Describe the general features of epithelial tissues.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.4 Epithelial Tissue Solution: Based on cell shape, epithelial tissues can be divided into four categories including: 1)squamous which are thin and flat, 2)cuboidal which are similar in width and height, 3)columnar are taller than they are wide and 4)transitional which can change shape from cuboidal to squamous and back again. Epithelial tissues can also be categorized based on the number of layers of cells found in the tissue. These categories include: 1)simple which means a single layer of cells, 2)stratified which is two or more layers of cells and 3)pseudostratified which is one layer of cells that appears multi-layered due to the arrangement of the nuclei in the cells.

Question type: Multiple Choice 6) Which epithelial tissue is found lining the kidney glomerulus, and performs blood filtration? a) Simple squamous epithelium b) Simple cuboidal epithelium c) Stratified squamous epithelium d) Stratified cuboidal epithelium e) Simple columnar epithelium Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissues.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.4 Epithelial Tissue 7) Which epithelial tissue forms the most superficial layer of the skin? a) Simple squamous epithelium b) Simple cuboidal epithelium c) Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium d) Stratified cuboidal epithelium e) Simple columnar epithelium

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Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcde: Anaylsis Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissues.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.4 Epithelial Tissue 8) Which epithelial tissue lines the ducts of sweat glands and oil glands? a) Simple squamous epithelium b) Pseudostratified columnar epithelium c) Stratified squamous epithelium d) Stratified cuboidal epithelium e) Transitional epithelium Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissues.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.4 Epithelial Tissue Question Type: Multiple Choice 9) Which epithelial tissue lines most bronchioles and fallopian tubes and moves mucus and oocytes? Select the best answer. a) Ciliated pseudostratified columnar b) Ciliated simple columnar epithelium c) Stratified columnar epithelium d) Nonciliated pseudostratified epithelium e) Nonciliated simple columnar epithelium Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues.

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Learning Objective 2: LO 4.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissues.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.4 Epithelial Tissue Question Type: Multiple Choice 10) In which area would transitional epithelial cells be found? a) Lining of the esophagus b) Outer layer of skin c) Lining of the urinary bladder d) On the surface of the heart e) Covering the kidneys Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissues.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.4 Epithelial Tissue Question Type: Text Dropdown 11) [___] glands are categorized by whether their ducts are branched or unbranched.

Dropdown Choices: Multicellular exocrine Unicellular endocrine Unicellular exocrine Answer: Multicellular exocrine Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissues.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.4 Epithelial Tissue

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12) Sebaceous glands are classified as _________and are functionally classified as _________ ? a) Simple coiled tubular gland; merocrine b) Simple branched acinar gland; holocrine c) Simple branched tubular gland; apocrine d) Simple branched acinar gland; apocrine e) Simple branched tubular gland; holocrine Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissues.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.4 Epithelial Tissue 13) Functional classification of exocrine glands is based on a) shape of the gland. b) size of the gland. c) how the gland release its secretory product. d) how the gland synthesizes its secretory product.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissues.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.4 Epithelial Tissue Question Type: Text Drop Down 14) Due to the entire cell being secreted, [___] glands will produce the most viscous secretion.

Dropdown Choices: apocrine exocrine holocrine

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Answer: holocrine Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissues.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.4 Epithelial Tissue 15) The extracellular matrix of connective tissue consists of a) enzymes and membranous organelles. b) plasma membranes and ground substance. c) keratinized cells and protein fibers. d) calcified crystals of minerals and enzymes. e) protein fibers and ground substance.

Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 4.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissue.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.5.1 Describe the general features of connective tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.5 Connective Tissue 16) Mesenchyme will differentiate into all EXCEPT… a) osteoblasts b) Erythrocytes c) chondroblasts d) fibroblasts e) keratinocytes Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO 4.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissue.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.5.2 Describe the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.5 Connective Tissue 17) The _______ component of connective tissue is found between the cells and fibers, and functions to support and bind cells in the tissue together?

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a) matrix b) formed elements c) ground substance d) basement membrane Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 4.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissue.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.5.1 Describe the general features of connective tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.5 Connective Tissue 18) Which polysaccharide is commonly found in the ground substance of connective tissues? a) Hyaluronic acid b) Melanin c) Cholesterol d) Glycogen e) Starch Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 4.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissue.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.5.1 Describe the general features of connective tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.5 Connective Tissue Question Type: Text Dropdown 19) Match the appropriate fiber with its function. [dropdown 1]: modified collagen fibers used for reinforcement [dropdown 2]:strongest and most abundant protein [dropdown 3]:allow extensibility, usually without breaking Dropdown Choices: collagen elastic reticular Answer 1: Reticular Answer 2: Collagen

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Answer 3: Elastic Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO 4.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissue.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.5.1 Describe the general features of connective tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.5 Connective Tissue20) The__________is formed from reticular fibers that support soft organs such as the spleen and lymph nodes a) matrix. b) ground substance. c) basement membrane. d) stroma. e) glycosaminoglycans.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 4.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissue.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.5.1 Describe the general features of connective tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.5 Connective Tissue Question Type: Text Dropdown 21) Match the type of tissue to its classification Loose connective tissue: [dropdown 1] Dense connective tissue: [dropdown 2] Supporting Connective tissue: [dropdown 3] Liquid connective tissue: [dropdown 4] Dropdown choices: cartilage elastic connective tissue lymph reticular connective tissue Answer 1: reticular connective tissue Answer 2: elastic connective tissue Answer 3: cartilage Answer 4: lymph Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 4.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissues.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.5.2 Describe the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissues.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.5 Connective Tissue Question Type: Multiple Selection 22) Which is a location where adipose tissue is commonly found? Select all that apply. a) Subcutaneous layer deep to the skin b) Lining the chambers of the heart c) Surrounding the brain d) Inside the epidermis e) In the articular cartilage of joints Answer 1: a Answer 2: b Answer 3: e Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 4.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissues.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.5.2 Describe the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissues.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.5 Connective Tissue 23) Anne suffers from Ehlers-Danlos, a rare inherited disorder of connective tissue, specifically affecting collagen fibers. Because many connective tissues contain collagen throughout the body, she has issues with many tissues, joints, and skin.The ligaments and tendons are loose and heal poorly when stretched too much. Her kneecap pops out of the groove a lot. What specific connective tissue is being affected? a) hyaline cartilage b) elastic connective tissue c) dense regular connective tissue d) Areolar connective tissue e) reticular connective tissue Answer 1: a Answer 2: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis

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Learning Objective 1: LO 4.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissues.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.5.2 Describe the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissues.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.5 Connective Tissue 24) The pubic symphysis and intervertebral discs are composed of a) hyaline cartilage b) elastic cartilage c) fibrocartilage d) dense irregular connective tissue e) dense regular connective tissue Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 4.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissues.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.5.2 Describe the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissues.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.5 Connective Tissue Question type: Essay 25) Name and briefly describe the two types of growth seen in cartilage.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO 4.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissues.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.5.2 Describe the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissues.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.5 Connective Tissue Solution: Growth of cartilage can be classified as interstitial or appositional. In interstitial growth, the cartilage increases rapidly in size due to the division of existing chondrocytes and the continuous deposition of increasing amounts of matrix by the chondrocytes. In appositional growth, activity of the cells in the inner chondrogenic layer of the perichondrium leads to growth. Deeper layers divide and cells mature resulting in the matrix accumulating beneath the perichondrium on the outer surface of the cartilage causing it to grow in width.

Question type: Multiple Choice

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26) What is the basic structural unit of compact bone tissue? a) osteon b) stroma c) lamellae d) chromosome e) lacunae Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 4.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissues.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.5.2 Describe the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissues.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.5 Connective Tissue 27) Spongy bone tissue lacks a) lamellae. b) lacunae. c) osteocytes. d) haversian canals. e) canaliculi.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 4.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissues.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.5.2 Describe the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissues.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.5 Connective Tissue Question Type: Text Dropdown 28) Match the matrix with the correct connective tissue Blood: [dropdown 1] Cartilage: [dropdown 2] Dense regular: [dropdown 3]

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Dropdown choices: chondroitin sulfate collagen plasma Answer 1: plasma Answer 2: chondroitin sulfate Answer 3: collagen Difficulty: Medium\ Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 4.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissues.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.5.2 Describe the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissues.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.5 Connective Tissue Question Type: Multiple Choice 29) Which membrane lines freely moveable joints? a) Mucous membrane b) Serous membrane c) Cutaneous membrane d) Synovial membrane Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 4.6 Describe the properties of various types of membranes.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.6.2 Describe the classification of membranes.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.6 Membranes 30) Which membrane reduces friction between organs? a) Cutaneous membrane b) Serous membrane c) Mucous membrane d) Basement membrane e) Synovial membrane

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Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 4.6 Describe the properties of various types of membranes.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.6.2 Describe the classification of membranes.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.6 Membranes 31) Immature, undifferentiated cells that can divide to replace lost or damaged cells are called a) stem cells. b) parenchymal cells. c) fibroblast cells d) granulocytes. e) agranulocytes.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 4.10 Describe the role of tissue repair in restoring homeostasis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.10 Tissue Repair: Restoring Homeostasis 32) In the diagram shown below, which cell junction uses keratin reinforce the stability of the cell?

a) A

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b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 4.2 Describe the structure and functions of the five main types of cell junctions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Cell Junctions 33) In the diagram shown below, which cellular junction will prevent acidic stomach fluid from seeping into the connective tissue?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: a Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 4.2 Describe the structure and functions of the five main types of cell junctions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Cell Junctions 34) In the diagram shown below, where would cilia be present?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.4.1 Describe the general features of epithelial tissues.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.4 Epithelial Tissue

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35) In the diagram shown below, which area would contain gap junctions, tight junctions and desmosomes?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.4.1 Describe the general features of epithelial tissues.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.4 Epithelial Tissue

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36) Which of the light micrographs in the figure below can be found in serous membranes?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissues.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.4 Epithelial Tissue Question Type: Multiple Selection

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37) Which of the light micrographs in the figure below can be located in salivary glands? Check all that supply.

a) B b) C c) D d) E e) F d) A Answer 1: e Answer 2: f Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissues.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.4 Epithelial Tissue Question Type: Text Dropdown

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38) Light micrograph [___] produces mucous and moves mucous out of the respiratory tract.

Dropdown choices: A B C D E F Answer:D Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissues.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.4 Epithelial Tissue

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39) In the figure shown, light micrograph [___] shows cartilage that is located in the epiphyseal plate.

Dropdown choices: A B C D E F G H I J Answer:G Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO 4.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissues.

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Learning Objective 2: LO 4.5.2 Describe the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissues.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.5 Connective Tissue 40) In the figure shown, light micrograph [___] tissue is the binding material of the body.

Dropdown choices: A B C D E F G H I J Answer A Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Learning Objective 1: LO 4.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissues.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.5.2 Describe the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissues.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.5 Connective Tissue 41) In the figure shown, light micrograph [___] will be located in red bone marrow and in the spleen to help with filtering.

Dropdown choices: A B C D E F G H I J Answer: C

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 4.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissues.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.5.2 Describe the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissues.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.5 Connective Tissues 42) In the figure shown, light micrograph [___] represents the strongest cartilage and lacks a perichondrium.

Dropdown choices: A B C D E F G H I J

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Answer: H Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 4.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissues.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.5.2 Describe the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissues.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.5 Connective Tissue 43) In the figure shown, light micrograph [___] shows the tissues that attach muscle to bone and bone to bone.

Dropdown choices: A B C D E F G H I

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J Answer: D Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 4.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissues.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.5.2 Describe the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissues.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.5 Connective Tissue 44) In the figure shown, light micrograph ___ shows the tissue produced in red bone marrow?

Dropdown choices: A B C D E F G H I

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J Answer: J Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 4.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissues.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.5.2 Describe the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissues.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.5 Connective Tissue 45) In the figure shown, light micrograph ___ shows the type of tissue that contains the blood forming tissue?

Dropdown choices: A B C D E F G

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H I J Answer: I Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 4.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissues.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.5.2 Describe the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissues.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.5 Connective Tissue Question Type: Multiple Choice 46) In the figure shown, which light micrograph shows a muscle tissue that is under involuntary control?

a) A only b) B only c) C only d) A and B e) A and C Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 4.7 Contrast the properties of the different types of muscle tissue.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.7.2 Contrast the structure, location, and mode of control of skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscle tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.7 Muscular Tissue

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47) In the figure shown, which light micrograph contains autorhytmic cells?

a) A b) B c) C Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 4.7 Contrast the properties of the different types of muscle tissue.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.7.2 Contrast the structure, location, and mode of control of skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscle tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.7 Muscular Tissue Question type: Essay 48) Briefly describe the four parts of an osteon and compare it to trabeculae.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO 4.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissues.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.5.2 Describe the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissues.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.5 Connective Tissue Solution: Each osteon includes lamellae, lacunae, canaliculi and a Haversian canal. The lamellae are concentric rings of matrix that consist of mineral salts and collagen fibers. Lacunae are small spaces between lamellae that contain mature bone cells called osteocytes. Projecting from the lacunae are canaliculi, which are networks of minute canals containing the processes of osteocytes. Canaliculi provide routes for nutrients to reach osteocytes and for wastes to leave

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them. A central Haversian canal contains blood vessels and nerves. Trabeculae of spongy bone have similar components but lack the haversian system. Trabeculae still contain lamellaem osteocytes, lacunae, and canaliculi. The spaces within the trabeculae are filled with red bone marrow.

49) Name and describe the types of cells commonly found in connective tissue.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO 4.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissues.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.5.1 Describe the general features of connective tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.5 Connective Tissue Solution: Connective tissue can contain fibroblasts, which are large, flat cells with branching projections that secrete the fibers and ground substance of the matrix. Macrophages develop from monocytes and are irregular shaped with short branching projections and are capable of engulfing bacteria and cellular debris by phagocytosis. Plasma cells secrete antibodies that attack or neutralize foreign substances in the body. Mast cells produce histamine that dilates small blood vessels. Adipocytes store triglycerides. White blood cells migrate from blood to connective tissue in response to certain immune system conditions.

Question type: Multiple Choice 50) In the light micrograph, which two tissues contain gap junctions?

a) A b) B c) C d) A and B e) A and C

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Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 4.7 Contrast the properties of the different types of muscle tissue.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.7.2 Contrast the structure, location, and mode of control of skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscle tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.7 Muscular Tissue Question Type: Text Dropdown 51) [_______] tissue moves food through the digestive tract?

Dropdown choices: cardiac muscle skeletal muscle smooth muscle Answer: smooth muscle Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 4.7 Contrast the properties of the different types of muscle tissue.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.7.1 Describe the general features of muscular tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.7 Muscular Tissue 52) ___________muscle pumps blood through the body and ________is located in the wall of blood vessels ? a) Skeletal muscle; smooth muscle b) Smooth muscle; cardiac muscle c) Cardiac muscle; smooth muscle d) Cardiac muscle; skeletal muscle e) Smooth muscle; smooth muscle Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 4.7 Contrast the properties of the different types of muscle tissue.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.7.1 Describe the general features of muscular tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.7 Muscular Tissue

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Question type: Essay 53) Compare and contrast the functional and structural characteristics of the three types of muscle tissue.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 4.7 Contrast the properties of the different types of muscle tissue.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.7.1 Describe the general features of muscular tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.7 Muscular Tissue Solution: Both cardiac and skeletal muscle tissues are striated and smooth muscle is not, hence its name. Skeletal muscle cells have more than one nucleus and are large and run parallel to each other. Cardiac muscle cells usually have only one nucleus and are branched. They also are connected to each other via gap junctions and desmosomes. This area is known as the intercalated discs. Smooth muscle cells are small spindle-shaped cells that form thick layers around the hollow organs. Like cardiac muscle cells, some smooth muscle cells communicate via gap junctions. Skeletal muscle is voluntarily controlled while both cardiac and smooth muscle tissue are involuntary.

Question type: Multiple Choice 54) Which cells are considered excitable cells because they are able to produce electrical signals? a) neuroglial cells and muscle cells b) muscle cells and fibroblasts c) neuroglial cells and neurons d) neurons and gap junctions e) muscle cells and neurons Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 4.9 Explain the concept of electrical excitability.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.9 Excitable Cells

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55) Which of the light micrographs in the figure below shows the type of epithelial tissue whose functions include filtration, diffusion, osmosis, and secretion in serous membranes?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissues.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.4 Epithelial Tissue

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56) Which of the light micrographs shows epithelial tissue that forms thyroid gland and secretes hormones?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO1.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissues.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.4 Epithelial Tissue

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Question Type: Multiple Selection 57) Which of the following figures shows tissue whose functions are secretion? Select all that apply.

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E f) F g) G h) H Answer 1: a

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Answer 2: b Answer 3:c Answer 4:d Answer 5:e Answer 6: f Answer 7:g Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissues.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.4 Epithelial Tissue 58) Which of the light micrographs in the following figure shows a type of epithelial tissue whose functions include movement of mucus over their apical surface by ciliary action?

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1B 2C 3E a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 2 and 3 only e) 1, 2, 3 Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissues.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.4 Epithelial Tissue Question Type: Multiple Selection

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59) Which of the light micrographs in the following figure shows epithelial tissue that is multiple layers? Select all that apply.

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E f) F g) G h) H Answer 1: d Answer 2: e Answer 3: f Answer 4:g Answer 5: h

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissues.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.4 Epithelial Tissue Question Type: Multiple Choice 60) Which of the light micrographs in the following figure shows the type of epithelial tissue whose structure allows it to be stretched or distended?

a) A b) D c) E d) G

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e) H Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissues.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.4 Epithelial Tissue 61) Which of the light micrographs in the following figure shows the type of epithelial tissue that lines the inside of urinary bladder walls and the outside of the urinary bladder?

a) G; A b) A; D c) A; H

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d) D; A e) H; A Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissues.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.4 Epithelial Tissue 62) Which figure shows tissue found along the developing bones of the embryo?

a) A b) B c) C d) E

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e) F Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 4.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissues.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.5.2 Describe the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissues.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.5 Connective Tissue 63) Which figure shows collagen fibers running in a uniformed pattern?

a) B b) C c) D d) E e) F

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Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 4.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissues.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.5.2 Describe the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissues.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.5 Connective Tissue 64) Which figure shows tissue that is found in the trachea?

a) B b) C c) E d) F e) G

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Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 4.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissues.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.5.2 Describe the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissues.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.5 Connective Tissue 65) Which is a function of the tissue shown in diagram A?

a) heat production b) pumping of blood c) propulsion of food d) contraction of bladder e) conduct nerve impulses to muscle fibers Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Learning Objective 1: LO 4.7 Contrast the properties of the different types of muscle tissue.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.7.2 Contrast the structure, location, and mode of control of skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscle tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.7 Muscular Tissue 66) Which is a function of the tissue shown in diagram D?

a) heat production b) pumping of blood c) propulsion of food d) contraction of bladder e) conduct nerve impulses to muscle fibers Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 4.8 Describe the structural features and functions of nervous tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.8 Nervous Tissue

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67) _______ are abnormal joining of tissues resulting from the formation of scar tissue at a previous site of inflammation or surgical repair. a) Adhesions b) Fibrosis c) Cysts d) Granulations e) Dehiscence Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 4.10 Describe the role of tissue repair in restoring homeostasis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.10 Tissue Repair: Restoring Homeostasis 68) An individual that becomes sedentary due to an ACL operation, will experience muscle ______ due to lack of physical activity. a) atrophy b) hyperplasia c) hypertrophy d) adhesion e) anorexia Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 4.11 Describe the effects of aging on tissues.

Learning Objective 1: LO 4.12 Describe the disorders that affect the human body at the tissue level of organization.

Section Reference 1: Sec11 Aging and Tissues Section Reference 1: Sec Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect Tissues Question type: Essay 69) Discuss how a damaged tissue is repaired.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

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Learning Objective 1: LO 4.10 Describe the role of tissue repair in restoring homeostasis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.10 Tissue Repair: Restoring Homeostasis Solution: In order to replace the worn-out, damaged or dead cells, new cells arise from stroma, supporting connective tissue, or the parenchyma for replacement. In some cases stem cells, which are the immature and undifferentiated cells, will divide to replace the lost or damaged cells.

Question type: Essay 70) Discuss the difference(s) between an endocrine and an exocrine gland.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissues.

Section Reference 4: 4.4 Epithelial Tissue Solution: The secretory product (hormones) of endocrine glands enters the interstitial fluid and then diffuses into the blood without going through a duct. Exocrine glands secrete their products into ducts that empty onto the surface of a covering or the lumen of a hollow organ. Sweat, oil, earwax, saliva and digestive enzymes are typical exocrine gland secretions.

Question type: Multiple Choice 71) A tissue has these characteristic: apical surface, single layer of tall narrow cells, brush border, goblet cells. What descriptors can define those characteristic?

1. secretion 2. absorption 3. simple epithelium 4. stratified epithelium 5. squamous cells 6. columnar cells 7. cuboidal cells 8. movement a) 1, 2, 4, 7, 8 b) 1, 2, 3, 6 c) 2, 4, 7, 8 d) 1, 3, 6, 8 e) 2, 3, 5, 8

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Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO 4.3 State the main differences between epithelial and connective tissues.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.3 Comparison between epithelial and connective tissue Question Type: Text Dropdown 72)Mucous membranes consist of epithelial tissue that sits on areolar connective tissue within the lamina propria: [dropdown 1] All mucous membranes contain goblet cells: [dropdown 2] Serous membranes consist of two layers, visceral and parietal: [dropdown 3] All membranes contain epithelial tissue: [dropdown 4] Dropdown choices: True False Answer 1:True Answer 2:False Answer 3:True Answer 4:False Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 4.6 Describe the properties of the various types of membranes.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.6.2 Describe the classification of membranes.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.6 Membranes Question Type: Multiple Choice 73) Support electrical excitable cells fround in the nervous system? a) neuroglial cells b) neurons. c) axon d) muscle cells e) dendrites

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Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 4.8 Describe the structural features and functions of nervous tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.8 Nervous Tissue 74) Electrical signals called _____ travel along the plasma membrane of a neuron and stimulate the release of chemicals called _____ that are then used to communicate with other cells. a) action potentials; neurotransmitters b) action potentials; hormones c) action potentials; cytokines d) threshold potentials; cytokines e) threshold potentials; neurotransmitters Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 4.9 Explain the concept of electrical excitability.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.9 Excitable Cells Question type: Essay 75) Discuss the three functional classifications of exocrine glands secretions.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO 4.2 Describe the structure and functions of the five main types of cell junctions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Connective Tissue Solution: The classification is based on how their secretion is released. Merocrine gland secretions are packaged into a secretary vesicle and released via exocytosis. Apocrine glands accumulate their secretory product at the apical surface of the cell and the upper portion of the cell pinches off from the rest of the cell to release the products. Holocrine glands accumulate their product in their cytosol and after the cell matures, ruptures and releases the product.

Question Type: Multiple Selection

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76) Anne suffers from Ehlers-Danlos, a rare inherited disorder of connective tissue, specifically affecting collagen fibers. Because many connective tissues contain collagen throughout the body, she has issues with many tissues, joints, and skin.

She has thin translucent skin that is stretchy. Scars appear abnormal and bruising and skin tear easily. What connective tissues are being damaged? Select all that apply a) Dense irregular connective tissue b) Elastic connective tissue c) Dense regular connective tissue d) Areolar connective tissue e) Blood connective tissue Answer 1: a Answer 2: d Answer 3: e Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective 1: LO 4.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissues.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.5.2 Describe the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissues.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.5 Connective Tissue Question Type: Essay 77) Anne suffers from Ehlers-Danlos, a rare inherited disorder of connective tissue, specifically affecting collagen fibers. Because many connective tissues contain collagen throughout the body, she has issues with many tissues, joints, and skin.Name 4 tissues that would be affected and where in the body would the damage be seen.

Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective 1: LO 4.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissues.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.5.2 Describe the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissues.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.5 Connective Tissue Solution: Areolar connective tissue in the papillary region of the dermis and the subcutaneous region of the body. Reticular connective tissue’s reticular fibers would be affected due to them being modified collagen. The stromas would not be as supportive. Dense regular in ligaments and tendons. Dermis, sclera and the periosteum and perichondrium’s dense irregular would be affected. Elastic

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connective tissue located in lungs and blood vessels. Fibrocartilage located in the meniscus and intervertebral discs. Bone would lose much of its strength.

Question Type: Multiple Choice

78) An infant has a genetic disorder that affects the thermogenic gene in brown fat. What may be an outcome of this disorder? a)difficulty absorbing nutrients from the intestines b) difficulty regulating body temperature c) difficulty protecting organs d) difficulty in reserving energy e) difficulty in repairing tissue Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 4.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissues.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.5.2 Describe the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissues.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.5 Connective Tissue 79) What connective tissue is replaced by bone in the epiphyseal plates? a) elastic connective tissue b) dense regular connective tissue c) hyaline cartilage d) fibrocartilage e) dense irregular connective tissue Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 4.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissues.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.5.2 Describe the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissues.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.5 Connective Tissue Question Type: Text Dropdown

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80) Match the membrane with the appropriate description [dropdown 1]: lines structures that open to the outside of the body. Composed of stratified squamous, nonciliated simple columnar and ciliated pseudostratified columnar. [dropdown 2]: reduces friction but does not contain glands. Composed of simple squamous. [dropdown 3]: protects against external factors. Composed of keratinized stratified squamous.

Dropdown Choices: cutaneous mucous serous Answer 1: mucous Answer 2: serous Answer 3: cutaneous Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 4.6 Describe the properties of various types of membranes.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.6.2 Describe the classification of membranes.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.6 Membranes Question Type: Multiple Choice 81) Vitamin C is needed for healthy collagen fibers. What tissue will not be as affected if vitamin C was absent or present in low amounts? a) Denser regular connective tissue b) Fibrocartilage tissue c) Bone tissue d) Elastic tissue e) Transitional tissue Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 4.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissues.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.5.2 Describe the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissues.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.5 Connective Tissue Question Type: Text Dropdown

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82) Fibrosis occurs if parenchymal cells repair the injury: [dropdown 1] Granulation tissue is actively growing tissue which can kill bacteria and form a framework for new epithelial tissues: [dropdown 2] Muscular tissue can proliferate very rapidly: [dropdown 3] Bone can replenish dead and damaged cells because of its ample blood supply: [dropdown 4] Answer 1: False Answer 2: True Answer 3: False Answer 4: True Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 4.10 Describe the role of tissue repair in restoring homeostasis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.10 Tissue Repair: Restoring Homeostasis Question Type: Multiple Selection

83) Mucous membranes line many passages. Select all that apply. a) digestive b) respiratory c) urinary d) reproductive e) auditory Answer 1: a Answer 2: b Answer 3: c Answer 4: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 4.6 Describe the properties of various types of membranes.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.6.2 Describe the classification of membranes.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.6 Membranes Question Type: Text Dropdown

84) Place the events in correct order.

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[dropdown 1]: A blood clot forms[dropdown 2]: An injury cuts through the skin, epithelial and connective tissue. [dropdown 3]: Epithelial tissue has a framework to migrate across [dropdown 4]: Granulation tissue is replaced by new connective tissue [dropdown 5]: Parenchymal cells and fibroblasts form granulation tissue Dropdown choices: 1 2 3 4 5 Answer 1: 2 Answer 2: 1 Answer 3: 4 Answer 4: 5 Answer 5: 3 Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective 1: LO 4.10 Describe the role of tissue repair in restoring homeostasis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.10 Tissue Repair: Restoring Homeostasis Question Type: Multiple Choice 85. Nutrients reach the epidermis by a) absorbing material applied to the surface layer of the skin. b) utilizing the products of merocrine glands to nourish the epidermis. c) the outer layer of the skin does not require nutrients because the external layer of cells is not living. d) diffusing through the tissue fluid from blood vessels in the dermis Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 4.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissues.

Learning Objective 2: LO 4.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissues.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.4 Epithelial Tissue

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Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pap15 Chapter Number: 05 Shuffle: Yes Case Sensitive: No Question type: Multiple Choice 1) The subcutaneous layer is also known as the a) dermis b) epidermis c) stratum corneum d) stratum basale e) hypodermis Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin 2) Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium composes the a) epidermis. b) dermis. c) hypodermis. d) subcutaneous layer. e) superficial fascia.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Shuffle: Yes Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

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3) Choose the following statements that describe keratin.

1. Keratin is a tough, fibrous protein.

2. Keratin is used for pigmenting skin.

3. Keratin helps protect the skin.

4. Keratin participates in immune responses.

5. Keratin protects the skin from UV light. a) 1 and 3 b) 1, 3, 4, 5 c) 2, 4, 5 d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 e) 3 and 5 Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Shuffle: Yes Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin 4) Which pigment secreted by specialized cells in the skin is capable of absorbing ultraviolet light? a) Keratin b) Melanin c) Melatonin d) Carotene e) Hemoglobin Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Shuffle: Yes Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

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5) In a skin infection, which cell will take up and process microbial antigens? a) Intraepidermal macrophages (Langerhans cells) b) Melanocytes c) Tactile epithelial cells (Merkel cells) d) Stem Cells Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin 6) This layer is attached to the basement membrane by hemidesmosomes and to other cells by desmosomes. a) Stratum basale b) Stratum spinosum c) Stratum granulosum d) Stratum lucidum e) Stratum corneum Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin 7) Apoptosis of cells occurs within the a) stratum basale b) stratum spinosum c) stratum granulosum d) stratum lucidum e) stratum corneum

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Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin 8) Which statements are true?

1. The majority of the skin does not contain stratum lucidum.

2. Stratum lucidum is found in areas of high friction, such as the palms and soles.

3. Live keratinocytes are located in the stratum lucidum.

4. Friction will cause the stratum lucidum to form calluses. a) 1, 2, 3, 4 b) 1 and 4 c) 2, 3, 4 d) 1 and 2 e) 3 and 4 Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin 9) Tactile epithelial cells are located in the a) stratum basale. b) stratum spinosum. c) stratum granulosum. d) stratum lucidum. e) stratum corneum.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

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Shuffle: Yes Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin Question type: Multiple Choice 10) Put the events of keratinization in order.

A. Accumulate keratohyalin granules B. Cells increase in size, some retain ability to divide C. Cell membrane thickens. Cells imbedded in lipid matrix.

D. Cells within this layer proliferate a) d,b,c,a b) a,b,d,c c) b,d,a,c d) d,b,a,c Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Shuffle: Yes Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin 11) Dense irregular connective tissue will be found in the a) hypodermis. b) basement membrane. c) epidermis. d) dermis. e) subcutaneous (subQ) layer.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Shuffle: Yes Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

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Learning Objective 2: LO 5.1.2 Compare the composition of the papillary and reticular regions of the dermis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin Question type: Essay 12) Describe how fingerprints are formed and what they are used for.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.1.2 Compare the composition of the papillary and reticular regions of the dermis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin Solution: Epidermal ridges develop during the third or fourth fetal month as the epidermis conforms to the contours of the underlying dermal papillae of the papillary region. The ridges increase the surface area of the epidermis and thus increase the grip of the hand or foot by increasing friction. Because the ducts of sweat glands open on the tops of the epidermal ridges as sweat pores, the sweat and ridges form fingerprints upon touching a smooth object. The epidermal ridge pattern is genetically determined and is unique for each individual allowing these patterns to be used to identify individuals.

Question type: Multiple Choice 13) Albinism is the inherited inability to produce a) melanin. b) carotene. c) both melanin and carotene. d) keratin. e) melanocytes.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.1.3 Explain the basis for different skin colors.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

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Question type: Multiple-Selection 14) Which of the following are characteristics of thick skin? Select all that apply. a) Found in the palms, soles of the feet and fingertips. b) Does not contain hair follicles. c) Contains more sweat glands than thin skin. d) Contain epidermal ridges. e) Lacking stratum lucidum f) Contains fewer corpuscles of touch than thin skin g) Stratum corneum has fewer layers in thick than thin.

Answer 1: a Answer 2: b Answer 3: c Answer 4: d Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3 Compare structural and functional differences in thin and thick skin.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.3 Types of Skin Question type: Multiple Choice 15) Which structure found in the skin plays an important role in thermoregulation? a) Melanocytes b) Sebaceous glands c) Sweat glands d) Stratum lucidum e) Epidermal ridges Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Shuffle: Yes Learning Objective 1: LO 5.4 Describe how the skin contributes to the regulation of body temperature, storage of blood, protection, sensation, excretion and absorption, and synthesis of vitamin D. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.4 Functions of the Skin Question type: Multiple-Selection

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16) Which of the following structures found in the skin help prevent water loss and inhibit bacterial growth on the surface of the skin? Select all that apply. a) Arrector pili b) Epidermal ridges c) Sweat glands d) Eponychium e) Oil glands f) Lamellar granules Answer 1: e Answer 2: f Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 5.4 Describe how the skin contributes to the regulation of body temperature, storage of blood, protection, sensation, excretion and absorption, and synthesis of vitamin D. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.4 Functions of the Skin Question type: Essay 17) Describe the structure and function of arrector pili.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Learning Objective 2: SO 5.1.2 Compare the composition of the papillary and reticular regions of the dermis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin Section Reference 2: Sec5.2 Accessory structures of the Skin Solution: Arrector pili are smooth muscles that extend from the superficial dermis of the skin to the dermal root sheath around the side of the hair follicle. In its normal position, hair emerges at an angle to the surface of the skin. Under physiological or emotional stress, such as cold or fright, autonomic nerve endings stimulate the arrector pili muscle to contract, which pulls the hair shafts perpendicular to the skin surface. This action causes “goose bumps” because the skin around the shaft forms slight elevations.

Question type: Multiple Choice

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18) Anorexia may cause adults to develop fine, unpigmented hairs to help with warmth and insulation. Which type of hair is described? a) Terminal b) Vellus c) Lanugo d) Papilla Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin 19) This type of exocrine gland undergoes a higher rate of mitosis due to its holocrine secretion. a) Sebaceous gland b) Eccrine gland c) Apocrine gland d) Eccrine and apocrine glands e) Sebaceous and Eccrine glands Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Shuffle: Yes Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin 20) Secretion mixture of fats, sterols, proteins and salts, that prevent water loss and can inhibit the growth of some bacteria. a) Sweat b) Cerumen c) Sebum d) Mucus

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Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin 21) Which exocrine gland is primarily used for thermoregulation? a) Sebaceous gland b) Eccrine sweat gland c) Apocrine sweat gland d) Ceruminous gland Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin Question type: Essay 22) List and briefly describe the major functions of the skin.

Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 5.4 Describe how the skin contributes to the regulation of body temperature, storage of blood, protection, sensation, excretion and absorption, and synthesis of vitamin D. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.4 Functions of the Skin Solution: The functions of the skin include: 1) Thermoregulation: The skin thermoregulates in response to increased temperature by secreting sweat onto its surface and then increasing blood flow to the surface leading to cooling of the blood. In response to low temperatures, production of sweat is decreased and blood flow is diverted from surface to conserve heat. 2) The skin contains 8-10% of the blood and thus serves as a blood reservoir. 3) The skin covers the body and provides protection using keratin, lipids, secretions like oil and sweat, and immunological

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defenses. 4) The skin can detect and respond to cutaneous sensations. 5) The skin helps in excretion and absorption. 6) The skin also can synthesize vitamin D. 23) Briefly describe the steps in epidermal wound healing.

Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 5.5 Explain how epidermal wounds and deep wounds heal.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.5 Maintaining Homeostasis: Skin Wound Healing Solution: In response to an epidermal injury, basal cells of the epidermis surrounding the wound break contact with the basement membrane. The cells then enlarge and migrate across the wound. The cells appear to migrate as a sheet. When epidermal cells encounter each other they stop migrating due to contact inhibition. Migration of the epidermal cells stops completely when each is finally in contact with other epidermal cells on all sides. Epidermal growth factor is also secreted to stimulate the basal stem cells to divide and replace the ones that have moved into the wound. Epidermal cell division eventually regenerates the strata of the epidermis.

24) Briefly describe the steps in deep wound healing Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 5.5 Explain how epidermal wounds and deep wounds heal.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.5 Maintaining Homeostasis: Skin Wound Healing Solution: In deep wound healing, a blood clot forms during the inflammatory response and loosely unites the wound edges. Then in the migratory phase the clot becomes a scab and epithelial cells migrate beneath the scab to bridge the wound. Fibroblasts migrate along fibrin threads and begin synthesizing scar tissue and damaged blood vessels begin to regrow. During this phase, the tissue filling the wound is called granulation tissue. The proliferative phase is characterized by extensive growth of epithelial cells beneath the scab, deposition by fibroblasts of collagen fibers in random patterns, and continued growth of blood vessels. During the maturation phase, the scab sloughs off once the epidermis has been restored to normal thickness.

Collagen fibers become more organized, fibroblasts decrease in number and blood vessels are restored to normal.

Question type: Multiple Choice 25) A raised scar that extends into previously normal tissue is a(n) a) hypertrophic scar b) keloid scar c) granulation scar

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d) epidermal scar Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Shuffle: Yes Learning Objective 1: LO 5.5 Explain how epidermal wounds and deep wounds heal.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.5 Maintaining Homeostasis: Skin Wound Healing Question type: Multiple-Selection 26) In the diagram of skin shown below, which structures are composed of stratified cuboidal tissue? Select all that apply.

a) A b) B c) C

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d) D e) E f) F g) G h) H Answer 1: c Answer 2: e Answer 3: f Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Evaluation Synthesis Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin 27) In the diagram of skin shown below, which structure illustrates that thin skin is present?

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a) C b) D c) E d) F e) H Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin 28) In the diagram of skin shown below, which labeled structure generates fingerprints?

a) A b) B

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c) G d) D Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Shuffle: Yes Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin 29) In the diagram of skin shown below, which area is primarily composed of areolar connective tissue?

a) E b) F

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c) G d) H e) A Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1Describe the general structure of skin.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin 30) In the diagram of skin shown below, where is smooth muscle found?

a) C b) D c) E

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d) F e) G Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin 31) In the photomicrograph shown below, which layer will contain melanocyte projections, keratinocytes and intraepidermal macrophages (Langerhan cells)?

a) A b) B c) C

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d) D e) E Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1 Describe the general structure of the skin.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin 32) In the photomicrograph shown below, which layer is only seen in thick skin?

a) A b) B c) C d) D

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e) E Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1 Describe the general structure of the skin.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin 33) In the photomicrograph shown below, which layer do new cells arise?

a) A b) B c) D d) E e) F

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Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1 Describe the general structure of the skin.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin Question type: Multiple-Selection 34) In the diagram of a hair root shown, where does melanin get deposited? Select all that apply.

a) A b) B c) C d) D

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e) E Answer 1: a Answer 2: b Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin Multiple Choice: 35) In the diagram of a hair root shown, which area is composed of dense connective tissue?

a) C b) D

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c) E d) F e) G Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin 36) In the diagram of a hair root shown, which area may be missing in thinner hair?

a) A b) B c) C d) D

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e) E Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin 37) In the figure of a sagittal section of a fingernail shown, a hangnail is associated with drying of what area?

a) A b) B c) E d) F e) G Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin

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38) In the figure of a sagittal section of a fingernail shown, the area that lacks the stratum granulosum is primarily protected by

a) B b) C c) D d) F e) G Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Shuffle: Yes Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin

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39) In the figure of a sagittal section of a fingernail shown below, which area acts similar to stratum basale, with mitotic cells?

a) A b) C c) E d) F e) G Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin

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Question type: Multiple-Selection 40) In the figure of a sagittal section of a fingernail shown below, which area is avascular? Select all that apply.

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E f) F g) G Answer 1: a Answer 2: c Answer 3: e Answer 4: f Answer 5: g Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin Question Type: Multiple Choice

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41) In the figure of a sagittal section of a fingernail shown, which area is comparable to the stratum corneum with visible vascular tissue beneath?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Shuffle: Yes Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin

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42) Which of the following best describes the events occurring at point B in the diagram of deep wound healing shown below?

a) Blood clot is forming. b) New collagen fibers are forming. c) Damaged blood vessels are being repaired. d) Epithelium is migrating across wound. e) Scar tissue is forming.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 5.5 Explain how epidermal wounds and deep wounds heal.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.5 Maintaining Homeostasis: Skin Wound Healing

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43) Which of the labeled cells in the diagram of deep wound healing shown below create the framework of fibers that new tissue is built?

a) B b) C c) E d) F Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Shuffle: Yes Learning Objective 1: LO 5.5 Explain how epidermal wounds and deep wounds heal.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.5 Maintaining Homeostasis: Skin Wound Healing

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44) Which of the following areas in the diagram below gives the wound temporary integrity from external factors, like microbes?

a) A b) B c) D d) H Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO 5.5 Explain how epidermal wounds and deep wounds heal.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.5 Maintaining Homeostasis: Skin Wound Healing Question type: Essay 45) Describe the structural characteristics of the epidermis that contribute to its ability to protect the surface of an animal.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin Solution: Multiple layers of cells in stratified squamous epithelium help resist friction. Keratin of intermediate filaments provides strength to tissue by binding cells tightly together and to underlying tissue, thus creating a barrier to microbes. Lamellar granules of keratinocytes produce a lipid-rich, water-repellent (sealant) to protect from dehydration and entry of foreign materials.

Melanin, produced by melanocytes, protects underlying tissue from UV light. Sebum secreted onto the surface helps protect from dehydration and microbial invasion. Intraepidermal macrophages (Langerhans cells) participate in immune response to microbial invasion.

46) Describe the major differences between thin skin and thick skin.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 5.3 Compare structural and functional differences in thin and thick skin.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.3 Types of Skin Solution: Thick skin is found on palms, palmar surfaces of digits, and soles, while thin skin is found in all other areas. Thick skin is 4-5× thicker than thin skin. The stratum lucidum is present exclusively in thick skin. Also, the stratum spinosum and stratum corneum are thicker in thick skin. Thick skin exhibits epidermal ridges, more sweat glands and a higher density of sensory receptors. Thin skin has hair follicles and sebaceous glands, while thick skin does not.

47) John has just been brought into the emergency room following a fiery explosion at a chemical plant. He is diagnosed with third degree burns over the anterior surfaces of his arms and trunk. What specific structural damage has occurred to his skin? What risks to John's life have resulted from this damage?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO 5.5 Explain how epidermal wounds and deep wounds heal.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.5 Maintaining Homeostasis: Skin Wound Healing Solution: John has lost approximately 27% of his skin's surface area (according to the Rule of Nines), which leads to severe systemic effects. The epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous layer and associated structures have been destroyed. Sensory function is lost. Loss of epidermis (and so, lost keratin and Langerhans cells) makes John susceptible to microbial invasion. Loss of keratinized structures and lamellar granules allows for extreme loss of water, plasma, and plasma

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proteins, which causes shock; leading to dehydration, reduced blood volume and circulation, decreased urine output and diminished immune responses.

Question type: Multiple Choice 48) Which structure is primarily responsible for thermoregulation?

a) A b) F c) G d) H e) I Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

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Shuffle: Yes Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Learning Objective 1: LO 5.4 Describe how skin contributes to the regulation of body temperature, storage of blood, protection, sensation, excretion and absorption, and synthesis of vitamin D. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin Section Reference 1: Sec 5.4 Functions of Skin 49) Which structures house Meissner’s corpuscles, free nerve endings and capillary loops?

a) A b) F c) G d) H e) I

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Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Shuffle: Yes Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin 50) Which area stores approximately half of the body’s lipid, secures the skin to underlying structures and consists of adipose and areolar connective tissue?

a) B b) D c) C d) E Answer: e

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Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 5.4 Describe how the skin contributes to the regulation o body temperature, storage of blood, protection, sensation, excretion and absorption, and synthesis of vitamin D. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin Section Reference 2: Sec 5.4 Functions of Skin 51) Which structure would recognize pulling of the skin during stiches even after a doctor anesthetizes the area?

a) A b) H c) G d) I e) F

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Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Shuffle: Yes Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin Question type: Multiple-Selection 52) Which area contains areolar connective tissue? Select all that apply.

a) B b) D c) C d) E

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e) G f) J Answer 1: b Answer 2: d Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin Question Type: Multiple Choice 53) Which structures in the figure are sensitive to warmth, coolness and itching?

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a) A b) G c) F d) H e) J Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.4 Describe how skin contributes to the regulation of body temperature, storage of blood, protection, sensation, excretion and absorption, and synthesis of vitamin D. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin Section Reference 2: Sec 5.4 Functions of Skin 54) Which structure in the figure detects touch sensations?

a) A

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b) B c) C d) D e) G Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 5.4 Describe how skin contributes to the regulation of body temperature, storage of blood, protection, sensation, excretion and absorption, and synthesis of vitamin D. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.4 Functions of Skin 55) Which structure in the figure produces a protein that helps protect the skin and underlying tissues from heat, microbes and chemicals?

a) A b) B c) C d) D

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Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.1.1Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them.

Learning Objective 3: LO 5.4 Describe how the skin contributes to the regulation o body temperature, storage of blood, protection, sensation, excretion and absorption, and synthesis of vitamin D. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin Section Reference 2: Sec 5.4 Functions of Skin 56) Which structure in the figure produces a pigment that contributes to skin color and absorbs UV radiation?

a) A b) B c) C d) D

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e) G Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 5.4 Describe how the skin contributes to the regulation o body temperature, storage of blood, protection, sensation, excretion and absorption, and synthesis of vitamin D. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.4 Functions of Skin 57) In the diagram, where does apoptosis occur?

a) E b) F c) G d) H e) I Answer: c

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Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin 58) Which statement best describes why the diagram represents thick skin? Choose the best answer.

a) Thick skin lacks melanocytes. b) Thick skin contains five stratums. c) Thick skin epithelia is vascular. d) Thick skin epithelia is avascular. e) Thick skin contains stem cells.

Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Evaluation

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Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.1.1Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin 59) In the diagram, which area is composed of areolar connective tissue?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis

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Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin 60) In the diagram, where are actively dividing cells located?

a) A b) B c) E d) F e) G Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

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Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin 61) In the diagram, which is the papilla of the hair?

a) A b) C c) E d) F e) G Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Shuffle: Yes Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin

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62) The buildup of bilirubin in an infant’s blood can occur if the liver does not remove the chemical. This condition is a) cyanosis b) pallor c) jaundice d) alopecia e) erythema Answer: c Difficulty: easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.1.3 Explain the basis for different skin colors.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin 63) Without enzymatic action of tyrosinase, what pathway is blocked in the body pertaining to skin? a) carotene production b) melanin production c) tyrosine production d) hemoglobin production e) keratin production Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.1.3 Explain the basis for different skin colors.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin 64) Which condition results from androgens inhibiting hair growth in genetically predisposed adults? a) hirsutism b) pallor c) jaundice d) male-pattern baldness

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e) erythema Answer: d Difficulty: medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin 65) A child is examined for chronic, pruritic (itching), plaques that appear red in the flexural areas of the body. What condition is the child most likely presenting? a) hemangioma b) keratosis c) hives d) eczema Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 5.8 Describe the homeostatic imbalances that affect the integumentary system.

Section Reference 1: Sec Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Integumentary System 66) A ballet dancer may form hardened areas over their toe joints due to constant pressure and friction from their point shoes. What skin condition most likely developed on their toe joints? a) callus b) blister c) wart d) corn e) cyst Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Shuffle: Yes

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Learning Objective 1: LO 5.8 Describe the homeostatic imbalances that affect the integumentary Section Reference 1: Sec Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Integumentary System 67) Sutures are required to close up a tear in the skin. What term best describes this injury? a) abrasion b) blister c) keloid d) laceration e) cyst Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Shuffle: Yes Learning Objective 1: LO 5.8 Describe the homeostatic imbalances that affect the integumentary Section Reference 1: Sec Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Integumentary System 68) An individual allergic to peanut butter eats a snack containing trace amounts. While the reaction is not severe, the individual shows signs of elevated patches all over their skin. These patches are a) urticaria b) contusions c) papules d) cysts e) calluses Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 5.8 Describe the homeostatic imbalances that affect the integumentary Section Reference 1: Sec Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Integumentary System Question type: Multiple Choice 69) Which statements describe sebaceous glands?

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1. oil producing 2. merocrine 3. holocrine 4. thermoregulation 5. sebum 6. apocrine a) 1, 3, 5 b) 2, 4, 6 c) 1, 2, 4, 6 d) 1, 2, 5 e) 3, 5, 6 Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Shuffle: Yes Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin 70) You stepped on a nail. List the sequential strata of the epidermis that the nail penetrated through to reach the dermis. a) basale, spinosum, granulosom, corneum b) granulosom, spinosum, lucidum, corneum, basale c) corneum, lucidum, granulosom, spinosum, basale d) corneum, granulosom, spinosum, basale e) corneum, granulosom, lucidum, spinosum, basale Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Shuffle: Yes Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.Learning Objective 2: LO 5.1.1 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin 71) How do nutrients reach the epidermis? a) absorbing material applied to the surface layer of the skin. b) utilizing the products of merocrine glands to nourish the epidermis.

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c) the outer layer of the skin does not require nutrients because the external layer of cells is not living. d) diffusing through the tissue fluid from blood vessels in the dermis.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 5.8 Describe how the integumentary system contributes to homeostasis.

Section Reference 1: Sec Focus on Homeostasis: The Integumentary System.

Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1 Describe the composition of the epidermis and dermis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin 72) “Goose bumps” are caused by a) contraction of arrector pili muscles. b) secretions from the sudoriferous glands. c) contraction of dermal papillae. d) stimulation of hair root plexus. e) secretions from the sebaceous gland.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Shuffle: Yes Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin Question type: Essay 73) Describe the structure and function of the different types of exocrine glands found in the skin Answer: Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin

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Solution: Sebaceous glands are oil glands. They are connected to hair follicles (with few exceptions). The secreting portion lies in the dermis and opens into the neck of a hair follicle.

They are absent in the palms and soles. The secretory product of sebaceous gland is known as sebum. Sebum prevents the hair from drying and becoming brittle. Sudoriferous glands are sweat glands. They release sweat into hair follicles or onto the skin surface through pores. There are two types of sweat glands: Eccrine and Apocrine. Eccrine sweat glands are distributed throughout the skin including the palm and the soles. The sweat produced by these glands contains water, ions, urea, uric acid, ammonia, amino acids, glucose and lactic acid. The main function of eccrine glands is to regulate body temperature. Apocrine sweat glands are predominantly found in the skin of the axilla, groin, areolae and the bearded region of the face.

The sweat produced by apocrine glands is lightly viscous and appears milky or yellowish in color. They contain similar type of material found in eccrine glands with an addition of lipids and proteins. Upon interaction with bacteria on the surface of the skin, the components are metabolized causing the distinct body odor. Ceruminous glands are modified sweat glands found in the external ear. They produce the ear wax knows as cerumen which is a combined secretion of ceruminous and sebaceous glands.

Question type: Multiple Choice 74) Most adipose tissue in the body is considered ‘white fat’. Why is the subcutaneous layer often yellowish-orange? a) The pigment carotene is stored there. b) The pigment hemoglobin is stored there. c) The pigment pheomelanin is stored there. d) The pigment eumelanin is stored there. e) The pigment keratin is stored there.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.1.3 Explain the basis for different skin colors.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin 75) From which of the primary germ layers of the embryo does the epidermis of the skin develop? a) Endoderm b) Ectoderm c) Mesoderm

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d) Both endoderm and ectoderm.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 5.6 Describe the development of and the effects of aging on the integumentary system.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.6.1 Describe the development of the epidermis, its accessory structures, and the dermis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.6 Development of the Integumentary System 76) Which statements describing vitamin D are true.

1. The skin produces Vitamin D when exposed to UV light.

2. When the skin is exposed to UV light, it begins the reaction to convert the precursor molecule to calcitriol in the liver than kidneys.

3. Vitamin D supplements can be taken if individuals are not exposed to UV light.

4. Vitamin D stimulates the uptake of calcium from the intestines.

5. Vitamin D inhibits the function of phagocytes in immunity. a) 1, 2, 3 b) 2, 3, 4 c) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 d) 2, 4, 5 e) 2 and 4 Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO 5.4 Describe how the skin contributes to the regulation of body temperature, storage of blood, protection, sensation, excretion and absorption, and synthesis of vitamin D. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.4 Functions of the Skin 77) Vitamin C is important for collagen synthesis. Which area of the skin would be most affected if there is a deficiency in vitamin c? a) Papillary region of the dermis b) Reticular region of the dermis c) Subcutaneous layer d) Hypodermis

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e) Epidermis Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Shuffle: Yes Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.1.2 Compare the composition of the papillary and reticular regions of the dermis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin Question type: Text Drop Down 78) When you are hot, blood vessels in the dermis_[dropdown 1] to maintain homeostasis.

When you are cold, blood vessels in the dermis [dropdown 2] to maintain homeostasis.

Heat loss from the body will[dropdown 3], when blood vessels in the dermis dilate.

Heat loss from the body will [dropdown 4] when blood vessels in the dermis constrict.

Drop Down Choices: constrict, decrease, dilate increase Answer 1: dilate Answer 2: constrict Answer 3: increase Answer 4: decrease Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.8 Describe how the integumentary system contributes to homeostasis.

Section Reference 1: Sec Focus on Homeostasis: The Integumentary System.

Question type: Multiple-Selection 79) Why does the skin feel hot on individuals with a fever? Select all that apply. a) Blood vessels dilate to allow increased blood flow from the deeper layers of the skin. b) Blood vessels constrict to decrease blood flow from the deeper layers of the skin.

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c) Vasoconstriction of the vessels decreases heat loss from the skin. d) Vasodilation increases heat loss from the skin. e) Blood flow from the dermis is decreased while blood flow to the epidermis is increased.

Answer 1: a Answer 2: d Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 5.8 Describe how the integumentary system contributes to homeostasis.

Section Reference 1: Sec Focus on Homeostasis: The Integumentary System.

80) Which statements describe the function and structure of the skin?

1. Collagen is the strongest fiber in the skin.

2. Blood vessels in the dermis supply the epidermis with nutrients.

3. The arrangement of epidermal ridges, mixed with sweat create fingerprints.

4. The papillary layer is the strongest portion of the dermis.

5. The reticular layer promotes stretching of the skin. a) 1, 2, 5 b) 1, 2, 4, 5 c) 1, 2, 3, 5 d) 3, 4, 5 e) 1 and 5 Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.1.2 Compare the composition of the papillary and reticular regions of the dermis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin Question type: Text Drop Down 81) Match the term with the best description Physical portion of hair that is visible and extends above the surface of skin: [dropdown 1] Central area of hair: [dropdown 2]

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Consists of hardened cells containing keratin; bulk portion of hair: [dropdown 3] Actively dividing cells within hair; Contains pigmenting producing cells: [dropdown 4] Consists of hardened cells containing keratin; outer layer of hair: [dropdown 5] Drop Down Choices: Cortex cuticle hair shaft matrix medulla Answer 1: hair shaft Answer 2: medulla Answer 3: cortex Anseer 4: matrix Answer 5: cuticle Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin Question type: Text Drop Down 82) Match the term with the best description [dropdown 1]: Actively dividing cells of the nails. [dropdown 2]: Hardened epithelial tissue above the hypnychium. [dropdown 3]: Crescent shaped area that appears white due to thickened epithelial. [dropdown 4]: Portion of the stratum corneum that grows onto the nail body.

Drop Down Choices: cuticle lunula nail bed nail matrix Answer 1: nail matrix Answer 2: nail bed Answer 3: lunula Anseer 4: cuticle Difficulty: Medium

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Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 5.2 Contrast the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin Question type: Multiple Choice 83) The skin is known as the _________membrane. a) Cutaneous b) Mucous c) Synovial d) Serous e) Subcutaneous Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.1.2 Compare the composition of the papillary and reticular regions of the dermis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin 84) In the elderly, blood supply to the dermis is reduced and sweat glands are less active. This combination of factors would most affect a) the ability to thermoregulate b) the ability to grow hair c) the ability to feel sensations d) the ability to produce vitamin D Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 5.4 Describe how the skin contributes to the regulation of body temperature, storage of blood, protection, sensation, excretion and absorption, and synthesis of vitamin D. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.4 Functions of the Skin

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85) A pair of scissors slips while you are cutting paper. You slice through your forearm and blood appears. What is the order of the skin you cut from superficial to deep.

1. dermis 2. Stratum spinosum 3. Stratum granulosum 4. Stratum corneum 5. Stratum basale 6. Stratum lucidum a) 1, 5, 2, 3, 6, 4 b) 1, 5, 2, 3, 4 c) 4, 3, 2, 5, 1 d) 4, 6, 3, 2, 5, 1 Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Learning Objective 2: LO 5.1.2 Compare the composition of the papillary and reticular regions of the dermis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

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Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pap15 Chapter Number: 06 Shuffle: Yes Case Sensitive: No Question type: Multiple-Selection 1) Which of the following are functions of the skeletal system? Select all that apply. a) Support b) Protection c) Thermoregulation d) Vitamin D production e) Assistance in movement f) Mineral homeostasis g) Blood cell production h) Osmotic balance i) Triglyceride storage j) Communication Answer 1: a Answer 2:b Answer 3:e Answer 4:f Answer 5:g Answer 6:i Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1 Describe the six main functions of the skeletal system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.1 Functions of Bone and the Skeletal System Question Type: Multiple Choice 2) Which region of a long bone articulates with other bones? a) diaphysis b) epiphysis

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c) proximal metaphysis d) epiphyseal plate e) distal metaphysis Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2 Describe the structure and functions of each part of a long bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.2 Structure of Bone 3) The shaft of a long bone is the a) diaphysis. b) epiphysis. c) metaphysis. d) periosteum. e) medullary cavity.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2 Describe the structure and functions of each part of a long bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.2 Structure of Bone 4) The ______is composed of hyaline cartilage and reduces friction between bones involved in a joint. a) periosteum b) distal epiphysis c) epiphyseal line d) articular cartilage e) epiphyseal plate Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2 Describe the structure and functions of each part of a long bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.2 Structure of Bone

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5) The ______is composed of hyaline cartilage and allows the diaphysis to grow in length. a) periosteum b) distal epiphysis c) epiphyseal line d) articular cartilage e) epiphyseal plate Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 6.5 Describe the processes and purposes of bone growth and remodeling.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.5.2 Explain how bone grows in length and thickness.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.2 Structure of Bone 6) The _______ is the region of long bone that contains hyaline cartilage used for growth in length. a) epiphyseal plate b) epiphyseal line c) metaphysis d) diaphyseal e) articular cartilage Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2 Describe the structure and functions of each part of a long bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.2 Structure of Bone 7) What area of long bone is composed of dense irregular connective tissue and osteogenic cells? a) periosteum b) endosteum c) medullary cavity d) epiphyseal plate e) articular cartilage

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Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2 Describe the structure and functions of each part of a long bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.2 Structure of Bone 8) Which of following selections lists bone cells in the order from unspecialized stem cell to highly specialized mature bone cell? a) osteoprogenitor cells, osteoclasts, osteocytes b) osteoclasts, osteoprogenitor cells, osteoblasts, osteocytes c) osteoprogenitor cells, osteocytes, osteoblasts d) osteoblasts, osteoprogenitor cells, osteocytes e) osteoprogenitor cells, osteoblasts, osteocytes, osteoclasts Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 6.3 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.3.2 Describe the cellular composition of bone tissue and the functions of each type of cell.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Histology of Bone Tissue 9) The cells active in fracture repair during the production of the hard (spongy bone) callus. a) fibroblasts b) osteoclasts c) osteocytes d) osteoblasts e) chondroblasts Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 6.3 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.3.2 Describe the cellular composition of bone tissue and the functions of each type of cell.

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Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Histology of Bone Tissue 10) Cells active when cartilage needs to be removed so new bone can be produced. a) osteoprogenitor cells b) osteoclasts c) osteocytes d) osteoblasts e) chondroblasts Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 6.5 Describe the processes and purposes of bone growth and remodeling.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Bone Formation 11) This cell is active once the matrix of bone calcifies. The cells sits in a lacunae. a) osteoprogenitor cells b) osteoclasts c) osteocytes d) osteoblasts e) chondroblasts Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 6.3 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.3.2 Describe the cellular composition of bone tissue and the functions of each type of cell.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Histology of Bone Tissue 12) What are the extracellular fluid filled extensions of the lacunae called? a) interosteonic (perforating) canals b) osteonic (Haversian) canals c) concentric lamellae d) canaliculi

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e) perforating (Sharpey’s) fibers Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 6.3 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.3.2 Describe the cellular composition of bone tissue and the functions of each type of cell.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Histology of Bone Tissue 13) How are osteons in compact bone tissue aligned? How does the osteon arrangement affect bone strength? a) horizontal to the metaphysis; the epiphyseal plate resists tearing due to the arrangement of osteons. b) parallel to the epiphysis; the spongy bone follows the alignment of the osteons increasing the strength of the bone ends. c) parallel to the length of the diaphysis; the shaft resists bending even when stresses are applied in certain directions. d) randomly between the epiphyseal plates; the random arrangement of osteons makes the shaft strong no matter what direction the bone is stressed. e) parallel to the perforating canals; the osteons running adjacent to the canals protects the vessels and nerves from becoming damaged.

Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO 6.3 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.3.3 Compare the structural and functional differences between compact and spongy bone tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Histology of Bone Tissue Question Type: Multiple-Selection 14) What statements describe bone remodeling.

1. It occurs throughout your lifetime.

2. It involves bone resorption.

3. It involves bone deposition.

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4. It occurs at different rates at different locations.

5. It occurs at a faster rate in compact bone than spongy bone.

6. Osteoclasts and osteoblasts will be working on the same tunnel simultaneously.

7. Osteoclasts place calcium and phosphorus directly into the bloodstream.

Answer 1: 1 Answer 2: 2 Answer 3: 3 Answer 5: 4 Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 6.5 Describe the processes and purposes of bone growth and remodeling.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.5.3 Describe the process involved in bone remodeling.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Bone Formation.

Question Type: Multiple Choice 15) Why would running and jumping have a larger effect on bone health than walking? a) Osteoblasts are less active and osteoclast are more active when there is mechanical stress placed on bones. b) Osteoblasts are more active and osteoclast maintain normal activity when there is mechanical stress placed on bones. c) Mechanical stress does not have an influence on osteoblast and osteoclast activity. d) Running and jumping will prevent demineralization over time.

Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective 1: LO 6.8 Describe how exercise and mechanical stress affect bone tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.8 Exercise and Bone Tissue.

Question type: Essay 16) Briefly describe the steps in bone deposition.

Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 6.5 Describe the processes and purposes of bone growth and remodeling.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.5.3 Describe the process involved in bone remodeling.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Bone Formation.

Solution: during bone deposition, osteogenic (osteoprogenitor) cells develop into osteoblasts.

The osteoblasts secrete collagen fibers and other organic substances to begin formation of matrix. Within the spaces between fibers, calcification occurs to form a solid matrix that eventually surrounds the osteoblast and some extracellular fluid. The osteoblast in its new lacuna is isolated and becomes an osteocyte. The osteocyte continues to secrete matrix but at a lower level.

17) Briefly describe the steps in bone resorption.

Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 6.5 Describe the processes and purposes of bone growth and remodeling.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.5.3 Describe the process involved in bone remodeling.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Bone Formation.

Solution: during bone resorption, an osteoclast attaches tightly to the endosteum or periosteum of the bone and forms a leak proof seal at the edges. Then it releases protein-digesting lysosomal enzymes and several amino acids into the sealed pocket. The enzymes digest collagen fibers and other organic substances while the acids dissolve the bone materials. Working together several osteoclasts carve out a small tunnel in the old bone. The degraded bone proteins and extracellular matrix minerals enter an osteoclast by endocytosis, cross the cell in vesicles, and undergo exocytosis on the side opposite the ruffled border. Now in the interstitial fluid, the products of bone resorption diffuse into nearby blood capillaries. Once a small area of bone has been resorbed, osteoclasts depart and osteoblasts move in to rebuild bone in that area.

Question type: Multiple Choice 18) Which two minerals are needed in large quantities when bones are growing? a) calcium and chlorine b) magnesium and sulfur c) calcium and phosphorous d) manganese and sulfur e) potassium and phosphorous Answer: c Difficulty: Easy

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Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 6.5 Describe the processes and purposes of bone growth and remodeling.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.5.3 Describe the process involved in bone remodeling.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Bone Formation.

Question Type: Multiple Choice 19) List the order of the zones in an epiphyseal plate from the diaphyseal region to the distal epiphysis.

A: Zone of calcified cartilage B: Zone of hypertrophic cartilage C: Zone of proliferating cartilage D: Zone of resting cartilage a) a,c,d,b b) b,a,c,d c) a,b,d,c d) a,b,c,d Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 6.5 Describe the processes and purposes of bone growth and remodeling.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.5.2 Explain how bone grows in length and thickness.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Bone Formation.

20) In endochondral ossification, what is the original source of osteoblasts? a) endoderm b) mesenchyme c) mucus connective tissue d) osteoprogenitor cells e) ectoderm Answer: d Difficulty: Hard

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Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective 1: LO 6.5 Describe the processes and purposes of bone growth and remodeling.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.5.1 Describe the steps of intramembranous and endochondral ossification.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Bone Formation.

21) Which type of fracture is considered a partial fracture and is only seen in children? a) open b) comminuted c) impacted d) greenstick e) stress Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 6.6 Describe common types of fractures and the process of fracture repair.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.6.1 Describe several common types of fractures.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.6 Fracture and Repair of Bone.

22) Mary, an avid runner, was complaining that her lower leg hurt. After going to the doctor, they did not see anything on x-rays of her tibia or fibula. The doctor ordered a bone scan and saw tiny fissures throughout her tibia without any other tissue damage. What is Mary’s likely diagnosis? a) Pott fracture b) Colles fracture c) Impacted fracture d) Comminuted fracture e) Stress fracture Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 6.6 Describe common types of fractures and the process of fracture repair.

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Learning Objective 2: LO 6.6.1 Describe several common types of fractures.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.6 Fracture and Repair of Bone.

23) Bone mass reduction is promoted by which hormone? a) calcitriol b) calcitonin c) human growth hormone d) parathyroid hormone e) insulin Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 6.7 Describe the importance and regulation of calcium in the body.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.7.2 Explain how blood calcium level is regulated.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.7 Bone’s Role in Calcium Homeostasis 24) What hormone(s) is/are released from the control center when the control center receives cAMP input; also important in increasing blood calcium serum levels. Choose the best answer. a) calcitriol and parathyroid hormone b) parathyroid c) calcitonin d) parathyroid hormone and insulinlike growth factors e) human growth hormone and estrogen Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO 6.7 Describe the importance and regulation of calcium in the body.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.7.2 Explain how blood calcium level is regulated.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.7 Bone’s Role in Calcium Homeostasis.

Question type: Essay 25) Describe the steps in bone repair.

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 6.6 Describe common types of fractures and the process of fracture repair.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.6.2 Describe the sequence of events involved in fracture repair.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.6 Fracture and Repair of Bone Solution: after the break in the bone occurs, blood vessels in that area are damaged and blood surrounds the fracture. The blood solidifies to form a clot, which reduces bleeding. White blood cells migrate into the area to remove bacteria and damaged cells. Osteoclasts migrate in to remove dead bone matrix. Secondly, fibroblasts migrate into the fracture to form a plate of cartilage to prevent further movement and damage at the fracture site. Thirdly, osteoblasts invade to replace the cartilage with bone matrix in the form of spongy bone. Lastly, the bone matrix will be remodeled as compact bone replaces spongy bone.

26) Briefly describe the processes by which bone increases in length and diameter.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 6.5 Describe the processes and purposes of bone growth and remodeling.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.5.2 Explain how bone grows in length and thickness.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Bone Formation.

Solution: The only means by which bone can increase in length (interstitial growth) is by activity at the epiphyseal plate. Until full height is reached, the plate consists of layers of chondrocytes, which generate matrix that is then calcified and replaced by bone matrix secreted by osteoblasts on the diaphyseal side of the plate. Around ages 18-20 the cartilage is replaced completely by bone and no more lengthwise growth can occur. Bone increases in diameter via appositional growth as new bone matrix is laid down by osteoblasts in the periosteum.

27) Jamie has a tumor of the parathyroid glands that causes a hypersecretion of PTH from these glands. Predict the effect this hypersecretion would have on the skeletal system and on the secretion of calcitonin from the thyroid gland.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO 6.7 Describe the importance and regulation of calcium in the body.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.7.2 Explain how blood calcium level is regulated.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.7 Bone’s Role in Calcium Homeostasis Solution: High levels of PTH would cause high levels of osteoclast activity, thus removing calcium from bones. Bones would become weak and soft. Excess phosphate would be lost from

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the kidneys. High levels of calcium ions in blood may disrupt nerve and muscle function.

Calcitonin levels would probably be high, trying to restore homeostasis by increasing deposition of calcium into bone.

28) An archeologist and an anthropologist are studying two skeletons from an ancient tomb that had apparently been looted in an earlier time. Both skeletons are females and both are approximately the same height. However, the anthropologist is absolutely certain that one skeleton is the remains of someone from the privileged class while the other skeleton is the remains of a servant or slave.

How could the anthropologist be so sure of the economic status of the individuals based solely on their skeletal remains?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO 6.8 Describe how exercise and mechanical stress affect bone tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.8 Exercise and Bone Tissue.

Solution: A person who is from the privileged class probably has better nutrition but doesn’t have to do as much physical labor (exercise) as a person from the servant or slave class. The anthropologist probably notes a difference in bone density in the two skeletons—especially on parts of bones where muscles attached. The skeleton of the servant probably has more density than the skeleton of the privileged class at those points. It is also possible that the servant suffered from malnutrition during life. If so, her skeleton might show evidence of rickets or osteopenia.

29) Describe the signs and symptoms of osteoporosis and describe the risk factors for developing osteoporosis.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 6.9 Describe the effects of aging on bone tissue.

Learning Objective 1: LO 6.10 Describe the disorders that affect bone tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.9 Aging and Bone Tissue Section Reference 1: Sec Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect Bone Tissue Solution: In osteoporosis, bone resorption outpaces bone deposition so that bone mass is depleted, sometimes to the point of spontaneous fracture. Pain and height loss may occur as vertebrae shrink. Postmenopausal women are especially at risk due to dramatically reduced estrogen levels after menopause. Family history may play a role, as does ethnicity (white and Asian women have a higher rate of disease), inactivity, cigarette smoking, excessive alcohol consumption, and a diet low in calcium and vitamin D.

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Question type: Multiple Choice 30) Which hormone is the MOST important for Ca2+ regulation? a) parathyroid hormone b) calcitriol c) thyroid hormone d) calcitonin e) aldosterone Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 6.7 Describe the importance and regulation of calcium in the body.

Section Reference: 1: 6.7 Bone’s Role in Calcium Homeostasis 31) In which region of the diagram would yellow bone marrow be located?

a) A b) B c) C

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d) D e) E Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2 Describe the structure and functions of each part of a long bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.2 Structure of Bone 32) Where in the diagram can you find red bone marrow in an adult?

a) A b) A and B c) A and C d) C Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2 Describe the structure and functions of each part of a long bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.2 Structure of Bone

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Question type: Multiple-Selection 33) Where in the diagram is hyaline cartilage located? Select all that apply.

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer 1: a Answer 2: e Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: 6.2 Describe the structure and functions of each part of a long bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.2 Structure of Bone Question Type: Multiple Choice

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34) What area in the diagram would the primary ossification center be formed?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2 Describe the structure and functions of each part of a long bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.2 Structure of Bone Learning Objective 2: LO 6.5 Describe the processes and purposes of bone growth and remodeling.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.5.1 Describe the steps of intramembranous and endochondral ossification.

Section Reference 2: Sec 6.5 Bone Formation.

35) What type of bone cell secretes hydroxyapatite and collagen fibers?

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a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 6.3 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.3.2 Describe the cellular composition of bone tissue and the functions of each type of cell.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Histology of Bone Tissue.

36) Which bone cell in the diagram below is an osteoclast?

a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: d

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Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective 1: LO 6.3 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.3.2 Describe the cellular composition of bone tissue and the functions of each type of cell.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Histology of Bone Tissue.

37) Which bone cell in the diagram below transports nutrients and wastes through tiny canals radiating from the lacunae?

a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 6.3 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.3.2 Describe the cellular composition of bone tissue and the functions of each type of cell.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Histology of Bone Tissue.

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38) Which bone cell in the diagram is located in the inner layer of the periosteum, the endosteum, and perforating and Haversian canals?

a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 6.3 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.3.2 Describe the cellular composition of bone tissue and the functions of each type of cell.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Histology of Bone Tissue.

Question type: Multiple-Selection 39) In the diagram, in what areas are osteoprogenitor cells located? Select all that apply

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a) C b) A c) E d) F e) D f) B Answer 1: c Answer 2: d Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 6.3 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.3.3 Compare the structural and functional differences between compact and spongy bone tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Histology of Bone Tissue.

Question Type: Multiple Choice

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40) In the diagram, what bone is considered the strongest?

a) A b) C c) D d) E e) F Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 6.3 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.3.3 Compare the structural and functional differences between compact and spongy bone tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Histology of Bone Tissue.

Learning Objective 3: LO 6.5 Describe the processes and purposes of bone growth and remodeling.

Learning Objective 4: LO 6.5.3 Describe the process involved in bone remodeling.

Section Reference 2: Sec 6.5 Bone Formation.

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41) In the diagram, what area allows communication from the outermost region to the innermost region of bone?

a) B b) C c) D d) E e) F Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 6.3 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.3.3 Compare the structural and functional differences between compact and spongy bone tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Histology of Bone Tissue.

Question type: Multiple-Selection

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42) In the diagram, what structures supply the red bone marrow? Select all that apply.

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) G f) H Answer 1: a Answer 2:c Answer 3:h Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 6.4 Describe the blood and nerve supply of bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.4 Blood and Nerve Supply of Bone.

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Question type: Multiple Choice 43) In the diagram, which is the first blood vessel that enters the bone model in endochondral ossification?

a) D b) E c) F d) G e) H Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 6.4 Describe the blood and nerve supply of bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.4 Blood and Nerve Supply of Bone.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.5 Describe the processes and purposes of bone growth and remodeling.

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Learning Objective 3: LO 6.5.1 Describe the steps of intramembranous and endochondral ossification.

Section Reference 2: Sec 6.5 Bone Formation.

Question type: Essay 44) Briefly describe what is happening in each of the numbered stages of intramembranous ossification as observed in a child’s skull shown in the diagram below.

Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 6.5 Describe the processes and purposes of bone growth and remodeling.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.5.1 Describe the steps of intramembranous and endochondral ossification.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Bone Formation.

Solution: The diagram is depicting intramembranous ossification in a child’s skull. Stage1 involves the development of an ossification center. During stage 2, calcification begins. In stage 3, trabeculae begin to form. Finally, in stage 4, the periosteum develops.

Question type: Multiple Choice

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45) In the diagram, where do cells lose the ability to divide and increase in size?

a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 6.5 Describe the processes and purposes of bone growth and remodeling.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.5.2 Explain how bone grows in length and thickness.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Bone Formation.

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46) In the diagram, where is the zone of resting cartilage and does it demonstrate a proximal epiphysis or a distal epiphysis?

a) A; proximal epiphysis b) A; distal epiphysis c) D; proximal epiphysis d) D; distal epiphysis Answer: c Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.5 Describe the processes and purposes of bone growth and remodeling.

Learning Objective 2:LO 6.5.2 Explain how bone grows in length and thickness.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Bone Formation.

Question type: Essay

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47) Briefly describe what is happening in each step of fracture repair shown in the diagram.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 6.6 Describe common types of fractures and the process of fracture repair.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.6.2 Describe the sequence of events involved in fracture repair.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.6 Fracture and Repair of Bone.

Solution: The diagram illustrates repair of a bone fracture. In step one, there is formation of a fracture hematoma. In step two, a fibrocartilaginous callus is formed. In step three, a bony callus is formed. In step four, bone remodeling begins.

Question type: Multiple Choice

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48) Which of the following labeled structures in the diagram is a site of red blood cell production in adult bones?

a) A b) B c) E d) F e) G Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2 Describe the structure and functions of each part of a long bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.2 Structure of Bone.

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49) Where would reticular connective tissue be located in the diagram below?

a) A b) D c) E d) F e) G Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2 Describe the structure and functions of each part of a long bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.2 Structure of Bone.

Question type: Multiple-Selection

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50) Which of the labeled structures in the diagram would house osteoprogenitor cells? Select all that apply.

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E f) F G) g Answer 1: e Answer 2:f Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2 Describe the structure and functions of each part of a long bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.2 Structure of Bone.

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Question type: Multiple Choice 51) Where in the diagram does the secondary ossification center form?

a) A b) B c) D d) G e) G Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2 Describe the structure and functions of each part of a long bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.2 Structure of Bone.

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Learning Objective 2: LO 6.5 Describe the processes and purposes of bone growth and remodeling.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.5.1 Describe the steps of intramembranous and endochondral ossification.

Section Reference 2: Sec 6.5 Bone Formation.

Question type: Multiple-Selection 52) What areas in the diagram lack a perichondrium? Select all that apply.

a) A b) B c) D d) E e) F f) G Answer 1: b

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Answer 2: d Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2 Describe the structure and functions of each part of a long bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.2 Structure of Bone.

Question type: Multiple Choice 53) Where in the diagram is dense irregular connective tissue located?

a) B b) C c) D d) E e) F

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Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 6.2 Describe the structure and functions of each part of a long bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.2 Structure of Bone.

54) Which of the labeled structures in the diagram are fragments of older osteons that have been partially destroyed during bone rebuilding or growth?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Applicaiton Learning Objective 1: LO 6.3 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.3.3 Compare the structural and functional differences between compact and spongy bone tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Histology of Bone Tissue.

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55) Which of the labeled structures in the diagram are composed of trabeculae, which are bony structures that lack osteons?

a) B b) C c) D d) F e) G Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 6.3 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.3.3 Compare the structural and functional differences between compact and spongy bone tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Histology of Bone Tissue.

Question type: Multiple-Selection

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56) Which of the following labeled structures in the diagram are built during appositional growth? Select all that apply.

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) G Answer 1: b Answer 2: c Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 6.3 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.3.3 Compare the structural and functional differences between compact and spongy bone tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Histology of Bone Tissue.

Learning Objective 3: LO 6.5 Describe the processes and purposes of bone growth and remodeling.

Learning Objective 4: LO 6.5.2 Explain how bone grows in length and thickness.

Section Reference 2: Sec 6.5 Bone Formation.

Question type: Multiple Choice

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57) Which of the labeled structures in the diagram secure dense irregular and osteogenic layers to the bone matrix?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 6.3 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.3.3 Compare the structural and functional differences between compact and spongy bone tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Histology of Bone Tissue.

58) PTH will increase _______activity while Calcitonin will decrease __________activity. a) Osteoblast; osteoclast b) Osteoclast; osteoblast c) Osteoblast; osteoblast d) Osteoclast; osteoclast Answer: d

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Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 6.7 Describe the importance and regulation of calcium in the body.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.7.2 Explain how blood calcium level is regulated.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.7 Bone’s Role in Calcium Homeostasis 59) During fracture repair, what area will have mesenchymal cells that differentiate into fibroblasts, chondroblasts and osteoblasts?

a) A b) B c) D d) E e) G Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 6.3 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.3.3 Compare the structural and functional differences between compact and spongy bone tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Histology of Bone Tissue.

Learning Objective 3: LO 6.6 Describe common types of fractures and the process of fracture repair.

Learning Objective 4: LO 6.6.2 Describe the sequence of events involved in fracture repair.

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Section Reference 2: Sec 6.6 Fracture and Repair of Bone 60) Which labeled structures in the figure are lamellae?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 6.3 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.3.3 Compare the structural and functional differences between compact and spongy bone tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Histology of Bone Tissue.

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61) Which labeled structures in the figure are canaliculi?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 6.3 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.3.3 Compare the structural and functional differences between compact and spongy bone tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Histology of Bone Tissue.

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62) Which labeled structure in the figure was once an osteoprogenitor cell?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 6.3 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.3.3 Compare the structural and functional differences between compact and spongy bone tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Histology of Bone Tissue.

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63) Which illustration and radiograph in the figure shows a Pott’s fracture?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 6.6 Describe common types of fractures and the process of fracture repair.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.6.1 Describe several common types of fractures.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.6 Fracture and Repair of Bone.

64) Which of the following is the correct sequence of steps in the repair of a bone fracture? a) fracture hematoma, bony callus formation, fibrocartilaginous callus formation, bone remodeling b) fibrocartilaginous callus formation, bony callus formation, fracture hematoma, bone remodeling c) bony callus formation, fracture hematoma, fibrocartilaginous callus formation, bone remodeling

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d) bone remodeling, fracture hematoma, fibrocartilaginous callus formation, bony callus formation e) fracture hematoma, fibrocartilaginous callus formation, bony callus formation, bone remodeling Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 6.6 Describe the common types of fractures and the process of fracture repair.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.6.2 Describe the sequence of events involved in fracture repair.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.6 Fracture and Repair of Bone.

65) Osteoporosis is most common in elderly women because of the lack of __, which would inhibit ___. a) hGH; osteoclast activity b) estrogen; osteoclast activity c) IGFs; chondrocyte activity d) PTH; osteoblast activity e) Calcitonin; osteoclast activity Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 6.9 Describe the disorders that affect bone tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect Bone Tissue.

Question type: Essay 66) Briefly, explain how blood calcium level is regulated.

Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective 1: LO 6.7 Describe the importance and regulation of calcium in the body.

Learning Objective 2:LO 6.7.2 Explain how blood calcium level is regulated.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.7 Bone’s Role in Calcium Homeostasis Solution: When blood Ca2+ levels drop, PTH is secreted from the parathyroid glands. PTH increases the activity of osteoclasts to increase bone resorption, which ultimately increases Ca2+ in blood. PTH also acts on the kidneys to prevent Ca2+ loss in the urine. PTH also stimulates the production of calcitriol, which acts on the GI tract to increase absorption of Ca2+ from the

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intestinal lining. When blood Ca2+ level increases, it causes the synthesis and release of calcitonin from the thyroid gland. Calcitonin, inhibits osteoclasts and stimulates osteoblastic activity to increase Ca2+ deposition into bones which promotes bone formation.

Question type: Multiple Choice 67) If collagen is removed from bone, what happens to the bone? Choose the best answer. a) The bone becomes stiff and brittle. b) The bone becomes soft and flexible. c) The bone shows no noticeable difference. d) The bone will break into numerous pieces.

Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO 6.3 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.3.2 Describe the cellular composition of bone tissue and the functions of each type of cell.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Histology of Bone Tissue Question type: Essay 68) List and briefly describe the six main functions of the skeletal system.

Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1 Describe the six main functions of the skeletal system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.1 Functions of Bone and the Skeletal System.

Solution: The skeletal system is used for support for the soft tissues of the body and as attachment sites for tendons of most skeletal muscles. The skeletal system also functions in protection for the internal organs. The skeletal system assists in movement working together with the muscle system. Skeletal system aids in mineral (calcium and phosphorus) homeostasis by storing several minerals and releasing them into the bloodstream on demand. Within some bones is red bone marrow that produces blood cells. Bones also contain yellow bone marrow which is a storage site for energy in the form of triglycerides.

69) Briefly describe the major differences between compact and spongy bone.

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 6.3 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.3.3 Compare the structural and functional differences between compact and spongy bone tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Histology of Bone Tissue.

Solution: Spongy bone is light, which reduces the overall weight of a bone so that it moves more readily when pulled by a skeletal muscle. The trabeculae of spongy bone tissue support and protect the red bone marrow. Compact bone, usually found in the exterior of bone, is heavy and dense and made up of osteons. Its function is to resist breakage and provide support of the body.

Question type: Multiple Choice 70) Which of the following selections correctly lists the sequence of events that occur during intramembranous ossification? a) Ossification center develops > Calcification > Formation of trabeculae > Development of new periosteum. b) Calcification > Ossification center develops > Formation of trabeculae > Development of new periosteum. c) Ossification center develops > Formation of trabeculae > Calcification > Development of new periosteum. d) Development of new periosteum > Ossification center develops > Calcification > Formation of trabeculae. e) Ossification center develops > Calcification > Development of new periosteum > Formation of trabeculae.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 6.5 Describe the processes and purposes of bone growth and remodeling.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.5.1 Describe the steps of intramembranous and endochondral ossification.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Bone Formation.

71) During endochondral ossification in a fetus, bones initially develop as a cartilage model that was formed from a) periosteum.

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b) endosteum. c) perichondrium. d) mesenchyme. e) mucous connectivetissue.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 6.5 Describe the processes and purposes of bone growth and remodeling.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.5.1 Describe the steps of intramembranous and endochondral ossification.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Bone Formation.

72) If bone is analogous to a bank, calcium is analogous to ______. a) deposits b) withdrawals c) money d) bank teller e) automatic teller machine Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 6.1 Describe the six main functions of the skeletal system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.1 Functions of Bone and the Skeletal System.

73) Which of the following hormones are more important post-puberty for bone growth? a) insulinlike growth factors b) thyroid hormones c) human growth hormone d) insulin e) sex hormones Answer: e Difficulty: Medium

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Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 6.5 Describe the processes and purposes of bone growth and remodeling.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.5.2 Explain how bone grows in length and thickness Section Reference 1: Sec 6.1 Functions of Bone and the Skeletal System.

74) Which of the following tissues are part of bone?

1. epithelial tissues 2. muscular tissues 3. nervous tissues 4. connective tissues a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 2, 4 c) 1 and 4 d) 1, 3, 4 3) 1, 2, 3, 4 Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 6.3 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.3.1 Explain why bone tissue is classified as a connective tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Histology of Bone Tissue.

Question type: Multiple-Selection 75) Which of the following important body functions is calcium involved? Select all that apply. a) blood clotting. b) nervous cell stability. c) muscle cell stability d) acting as a cofactor in some enzymatic reactions. e) being the primary cation that regulates osmotic balance in cells.

Answer 1: a Answer 2:b Answer 3:c Answer 4:d

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Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 6.7 Describe the importance and regulation of calcium in the body.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.7.1 Describe the importance of calcium in the body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.7 Bone’s Role in Calcium Homeostasis.

Question Type: Multiple Choice 76) Why do greenstick fractures commonly occur in children? a) Their bones contain higher amounts of collagen. b) Their bones contain higher amounts of hydroxyapatite. c) Their bones are still composed of hyaline cartilage. d) Their bones are still composed of mesenchymal tissue.

Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO 6.6 Describe common types of fractures and the process of fracture repair.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.6.1 Describe several common types of fractures.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.6 Fracture and Repair of Bone.

Question type: Text Drop Down 77) Match the term with the best description [dropdown 1]: Proliferation of osteoclasts, which leads to rapid bone remodeling, and weakening the bones. [dropdown 2]: Severe bone density loss. [dropdown 3]: Bone fails to calcify when remodeled. [dropdown 4]: Bacterial infection causing inflammation, pain and rigid muscles. [dropdown 5]: Bone cancer primarily affecting osteoblasts.

Drop Down Choices: Osteomalacia Osteomyelitis Osteoporosis Osteosarcoma

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Paget’s disease Answer 1: Paget’s disease Answer 2: Osteoporosis Answer 3: Osteomalacia Answer 4: Osteomyelitis Answer 5: Osteosarcoma Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 6.10 Describe the disorders that affect bone tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect Bone Tissue Question type: Text Drop Down 78) Complete the sentence with the best term.

Dropdown Options: Build new bone Calcitriol Cyclic AMP Decrease absorption of calcium Decrease reabsorption of calcium GI tract and osteoclasts Increase absorption of calcium Increase reabsorption of calcium Kidney cells Osteoclasts Osteoclasts and kidney cells Parathyroid hormone PT gland cells Release calcium to enter blood [dropdown 1] the receptors, respond to low blood calcium levels. [dropdown 2] input activates the control center when blood calcium is low. [dropdown 3] is/are the effector(s) of PTH. Osteoclasts [dropdown 4] in response to PTH: The kidney [dropdown 5] in response to PTH: [dropdown 6] is secreted in response to PTHs effects on the kidney.

Answer 1: PT gland cells Answer 2: Cyclic AMP

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Answer 3: Osteoclasts and kidney cells Answer 4: Release calcium to enter blood Answer 5: Increase reabsorption of calcium Answer 6: Calcitriol Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: No Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective 1: LO 6.7 Describe the importance and regulation of calcium in the body.

Learning Objective 2:LO 6.7.2 Explain how blood calcium level is regulated.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.7 Bone’s Role in Calcium Homeostasis Question Type: Text Drop Down 79) Complete the sentence with the best term. [dropdown 1] is an increase in blood calcium levels. [dropdown 2] respond when there is an increase in blood calcium levels. [dropdown 3] is the output in response to high blood calcium levels.

In response to the output when blood calcium levels are high, a(n) [dropdown 4] in bone deposition occurs.

In response to the output when the blood calcium levels are high, there is a decrease in [dropdown 5] activity.

Dropdown Choices: Calcitonin Calcitriol Chief cells Decrease Hypercalcemia Hypocalcemia Increase Osteoblast Osteoclast Parafollicular cells PT gland cells PTH Answer 1: Hypercalcemia Answer 2: Parafollicular cells Answer 3: Calcitonin Answer 4: Increase Answer 5: Osteoclast

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Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: No Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective 1: LO 6.7 Describe the importance and regulation of calcium in the body.

Learning Objective 2:LO 6.7.2 Explain how blood calcium level is regulated.

Question Type: Multiple Choice 80) Which statement describes blood calcium levels accurately? a) Blood calcium levels increase when bone breaks down, and decreases when bone is built. b) Blood calcium levels decrease when bone breaks down, and increases when bone is built. c) Blood calcium levels remain constant regardless of whether bone is built or broken down.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 6.7 Describe the importance and regulation of calcium in the body.

Learning Objective 2:LO 6.7.2 Explain how blood calcium level is regulated.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.7 Bone’s Role in Calcium Homeostasis 81) Which statements describe spongy bone?

1. Composed of trabeculae.

2. Made up of osteons 3. Found in higher amounts in the diaphysis.

4. Found lining the superficial regions of all bones.

5. Arranged along lines of force that are encountered.

6. Gaps filled with marrow.

7. Maintains strength with light weight.

8. Has the same purpose structurally as compact bone.

9. Has lamellae, osteocytes, lacunae and canaliculi.

10. Has lamellae, osteocytes, lacunae, canaliculi, and central canals. a) 1, 5, 6, 7, 9 b) 2, 3, 4, 10 c) 1, 3, 5, 7, 9 d) 4, 6, 7, 8, 10 e) 1, 2, 4, 6, 8 Answer: a

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Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO 6.3 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.3.3 Compare the structural and functional differences between compact and spongy bone tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Histology of Bone Tissue.

Question Type: Multiple-Selection 82) What statements describe osteoblasts? Select all that apply. a) Bone resorbing cells b) Bone building cells c) Active when blood calcium levels are high d) PTH causes these cells to become more active e) Made from ~50 fused monocytes f) Differentiates from osteoprogenitor g) Stem cells h) Over activity can contribute to hypocalcemia Answer 1: b Answer 2: c Answer 3: f Answer 4: h Answer 5: d Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 6.7 Describe the importance and regulation of calcium in the body.

Learning Objective 2:LO 6.7.2 Explain how blood calcium level is regulated.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.7 Bone’s Role in Calcium Homeostasis Question type: Multiple Choice 83) Place the events of a fracture repair in order.

A: A hematoma will form and will form a temporary connection between the ends of the bones.

B: Fibroblasts and chondroblasts migrate from the periosteum and begin to produce fibrocartilage to connect the ends of the bones.

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C: Osteoclasts resorb dead portions of the new bony area, and compact bone replaces spongy bone.

D:Osteoprogenitor cells differentiate into osteoblasts and produce spongy bone.

E: Phagocytes and osteoclasts begin to remove dead and damaged tissue. a) A, B, E, C, D b) A, E, B, D, C c) E, A, B, D, C d) A, E, D, B, C Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 6.6 Describe the common types of fractures and the process of fracture repair.

Learning Objective 2: LO 6.6.2 Describe the sequence of events involved in fracture repair.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.6 Fracture and Repair of Bone.

Question type: Text Drop Down 84) Aging affects bone in two major ways. The tensile strength of bone [dropdown 1] because [dropdown 2] protein synthesis is reduced. Because of this, the inorganic minerals [dropdown 3] in the matrix. The bones become brittle and [dropdown 4] their susceptibility to fracture. Bone also [dropdown 5] (loses calcium salts), which can lead to poor ossification, known as [dropdown 6].

Dropdown chocies for 1, 3, 4 Decreases Increases Dropdown choices for 2 Osteoblasts Osteoclasts Osteocytes Dropdown options for 5 Calcifies Demineralizes Ossifies Dropdown options for 6 Osteopenia

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Osteoporosis Osteomalacia Rickets Answer 1 : Decreases Answer 2: Osteoblasts Answer 3: Increase Answer 4: Increase Answer 5: Demineralizes Answer 6: Osteopenia Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective 1: LO 6.9 Describe the effects of aging on bone tissue.

Learning Objective 1: LO 6.10 Describe the disorders that affect bone tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.9 Aging and Bone Tissue Section Reference 1: Sec Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect Bone Tissue 85) Mechanical stress [dropdown 1] osteoblast activity in bone, and removal of mechanical stress [dropdown 2] osteoblast activity in bone.

Optional answers for dropdown Decreases Increases Maintains Answer 1: Increases Answer 2: Decreases Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 6.8 Describe how exercise and mechanical stress affect bone tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.8 Exercise and Bone Tissue.

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Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pap15 Chapter Number: 07 Shuffle: Yes Case Sensitive: No Question type: Multiple Choice 1) The branch of medicine that deals with correction of disorders of the musculoskeletal system is called a) rheumatics b) podiatry c) orthopedics d) cardiology e) dermatology Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO7.1 Describe how the skeleton is divided into axial and appendicular divisions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.1 Divisions of the Skeletal System 2) Which of the following statements is NOT true? a) The axial skeleton has 80 bones. b) The appendicular skeleton has 126 bones. c) The axial skeleton is composed of the bones that run through the axis of the body. d) Children have more bones than adults. e) The appendicular skeleton does not include the pelvic and pectoral girdles.

Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO7.1 Describe how the skeleton is divided into axial and appendicular divisions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.1 Divisions of the Skeletal System 3) Which of the following bones is NOT part of the axial skeleton?

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a) hyoid b) ribs c) vertebrae d) carpals e) sternum Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO7.1 Describe how the skeleton is divided into axial and appendicular divisions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.1 Divisions of the Skeletal System 4) Which of the following bones is part of the axial skeleton? a) tarsals b) tibia c) sphenoid d) scapula e) clavicle Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO7.1 Describe how the skeleton is divided into axial and appendicular divisions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.1 Divisions of the Skeletal System Question type: Essay 5) Briefly describe the five categories of bones found in the human body based on the shape of the bones.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO7.2 Classify bones based on their shape or location.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Types of Bones

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Solution: The human body contains five types of bones based on shape. Long bones have greater length than width and consist of a shaft and a variable number of extremities. Short bones are somewhat cube-shaped because they are nearly equal in length and width. Flat bones are generally thin and composed of two nearly parallel plates of compact bones tissue enclosing a layer of spongy bone tissue. Irregular bones have complex shapes and cannot be grouped into any of the previous categories. Sesamoid bones develop in certain tendons where there is considerable friction, tension and physical stress and are shaped similarly to a sesame seed.

Question type: Multiple Choice 6) Which of the following types of bone is the occipital bone? a) long bone b) short bone c) flat bone d) irregular bone e) sesamoid bone Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO7.2 Classify bones based on their shape or location.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Types of Bones 7) Which of the following is NOT true of surface markings on bone? a) They allow the passage of nerves and blood vessels. b) They provide sites of attachment for muscles. c) They allow bones to shorten or lengthen. d) They help form joints. e) They can be depressions or projections.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO7.3 Describe the principal surface markings on bones and the functions of each.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.3 Bone Surface Markings

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8) An opening or hole in a bone through which blood vessels, nerves and ligaments pass is called a a) fissure. b) foramen. c) fossa. d) meatus. e) sulcus.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO7.3 Describe the principal surface markings on bones and the functions of each.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.3 Bone Surface Markings 9) A rounded articular projection supported on a constricted portion (neck) of a bone is called a a) foramen. b) condyle. c) tuberosity. d) head. e) trochanter.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO7.3 Describe the principal surface markings on bones and the functions of each.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.3 Bone Surface Markings 10) A prominent ridge or elongated projection on a bone is called a a) crest. b) trochanter. c) sulcus. d) fossa. e) tubercle.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO7.3 Describe the principal surface markings on bones and the functions of each.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.3 Bone Surface Markings 11) Bones in the following area protect the brain. a) cranium b) vertebral column c) sacrum d) facial e) ribcage Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO7.4 Name the cranial and facial bones and indicate whether they are paired or single.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Skull: An Overview 12) Which of following facial bones is a single (unpaired) bone in the human skull? a) maxilla b) nasal c) lacrimal d) mandible e) zygomatic Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO7.4 Name the cranial and facial bones and indicate whether they are paired or single.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Skull: An Overview 13) Which of the following is NOT a facial bone? a) parietal b) nasal c) maxillae d) zygomatic

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e) palatine Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO7.4 Name the cranial and facial bones and indicate whether they are paired or single.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Skull: An Overview 14) Which of the following statements is NOT true with regard to bones of the skull? a) Some skull bone cavities are covered with a mucous membrane. b) The only movable bone in the skull is the mandible. c) The bones of the skull contain foramina but no fissures. d) The facial bones provide support for the entrance of the digestive system. e) Some bones of the skull contain sinus cavities.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO7.4 Name the cranial and facial bones and indicate whether they are paired or single.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Skull: An Overview 15) Which of the following cranial bones forms the inferior lateral aspects of the cranium and part of the cranial floor? a) frontal b) temporal c) parietal d) occipital e) ethmoid Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO7.5 Describe the following cranial bones and their main features: frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital, sphenoid, and ethmoid Learning Objective 2: LO7.5.1 Identify the location and surface features of the frontal bone.

Learning Objective 3: LO7.5.2 Identify the location and surface features of the parietal bones.

Learning Objective 4: LO7.5.3 Identify the location and surface features of the temporal bones.

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Learning Objective 5: LO7.5.4 Identify the location and surface features of the occipital bone.

Learning Objective 6: LO7.5.6 Identify the location and surface features of the ethmoid bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec. 7.5 Cranial Bones

16) Which of the following cranial bones contains the organs of hearing and balance, and articulate with the mandible? a) frontal b) temporal c) parietal d) occipital e) sphenoid Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO7.5 Describe the following cranial bones and their main features: frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital, sphenoid, and ethmoid.

Learning Objective 2: LO7.5.1 Identify the location and surface features of the frontal bone.

Learning Objective 3: LO7.5.2 Identify the location and surface features of the parietal bones.

Learning Objective 4: LO7.5.3 Identify the location and surface features of the temporal bones.

Learning Objective 5: LO7.5.4 Identify the location and surface features of the occipital bone.

Learning Objective 6: LO7.5.5 Identify the location and surface features of the sphenoid bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec. 7.5 Cranial Bones

17) Which cranial bone is called the “keystone” of the cranial floor because it articulates with every other cranial bone? a) occipital b) frontal c) ethmoid d) parietal e) sphenoid Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

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Learning Objective 1: LO7.5 Describe the following cranial bones and their main features: frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital, sphenoid, and ethmoid.

Learning Objective 2: LO7.5.1 Identify the location and surface features of the frontal bone.

Learning Objective 3: LO7.5.2 Identify the location and surface features of the parietal bones.

Learning Objective 4: LO7.5.4 Identify the location and surface features of the occipital bone.

Learning Objective 5: LO7.5.5 Identify the location and surface features of the sphenoid bone.

Learning Objective 6: LO7.5.6 Identify the location and surface features of the ethmoid bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec. 7.5 Cranial Bones

18) Which of the following is a cranial bone that is located anterior to the sphenoid and posterior to the nasal bones and contains foramina for the olfactory cranial nerve? a) ethmoid b) frontal c) palatine d) maxilla e) temporal Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO7.5 Describe the following cranial bones and their main features: frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital, sphenoid, and ethmoid.

Learning Objective 2: LO7.5.1 Identify the location and surface features of the frontal bone.

Learning Objective 3: LO7.5.3 Identify the location and surface features of the temporal bones.

Learning Objective 4: LO7.5.6 Identify the location and surface features of the ethmoid bone.

Learning Objective 5: LO7.6 Identify the location and surface features of the following bones: nasal, lacrimal, palatine, inferior nasal conchae, vomer, maxillae, zygomatic, and mandible.

Section Reference 1: Sec. 7.5 Cranial Bones

19) Which facial bone articulates with teeth? a) lacrimal b) palatine c) vomer d) maxillae e) nasal Answer: d

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO7.6 Identify the location and surface features of the following bones: nasal, lacrimal, palatine, inferior nasal conchae, vomer, maxillae, zygomatic, and mandible.

Section Reference 1: Sec. 7.6 Facial Bones

20) Which of the following is NOT a facial bone? a) vomer b) palatine c) lacrimal d) occipital e) mandible Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO7.5 Describe the following cranial bones and their main features: frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital, sphenoid, and ethmoid.

Learning Objective 2: LO7.5.4 Identify the location and surface features of the occipital bone.

Learning Objective 3: LO7.6 Identify the location and surface features of the following bones: nasal, lacrimal, palatine, inferior nasal conchae, vomer, maxillae, zygomatic, and mandible.

Section Reference 1: Sec. 7.5 Cranial Bones Section Reference 2: Sec. 7.6 Facial Bones

Question type: Essay 21) Briefly describe the bones that make up the orbit of the eye. Include a description of the portion of the orbit formed by each bone.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO7.5 Describe the following cranial bones and their main features: frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital, sphenoid, and ethmoid.

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Learning Objective 2: LO7.5.1 Identify the location and surface features of the frontal bone.

Learning Objective 4: LO7.6 Identify the location and surface features of the following bones: nasal, lacrimal, palatine, inferior nasal conchae, vomer, maxillae, zygomatic, and mandible.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.5 Cranial Bones Section Reference 2: Sec 7.6 Facial Bones Solution: Parts of the frontal and sphenoid bones comprise the roof of the orbit. Parts of the zygomatic and sphenoid bones form the lateral wall of the orbit. Parts of the maxilla, zygomatic and palatine bones make up the floor of the orbit. Parts of the maxilla, lacrimal, ethmoid, and sphenoid bones form the medial wall of the orbit.

22) Briefly describe the location of the four most prominent sutures of the skull including the articulating bones.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO7.7 Describe the following special features of the skull: sutures, paranasal sinuses, and fontanels.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.7 Special Features of the Skull Solution: The coronal suture unites the frontal bone and both parietal bones. The sagittal suture unites the two parietal bones on the superior midline of the skull. The lambdoid suture unites the two parietal bones to the occipital bone. The squamous sutures unite the parietal and temporal bones on the lateral aspects of the skull.

23) Briefly describe the function of the fontanels.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO7.4 Name the cranial and facial bones and indicate whether they are paired or single.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Skull: An Overview Solution: The fontanels are important in allowing flexibility during childbirth and allow brain growth after birth.

24) Briefly describe the function of the paranasal sinuses.

Answer:

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO7.7 Describe the following special features of the skull: sutures, paranasal sinuses, and fontanels.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.7 Special Features of the Skull Solution: The sinuses lighten the skull and contain a mucous membrane lining that helps moisten and clean inspired air. The sinus also aid in enhancing the quality of the voice by acting as resonating chambers 25) Briefly describe the six fontanels of the infant skull including their location, shape and time of closure.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO7.7 Describe the following special features of the skull: sutures, paranasal sinuses, and fontanels.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.7 Special Features of the Skull Solution: The unpaired anterior fontanel is located at the midline between the two parietal bones and the frontal bone. It is roughly diamond shaped and is the largest fontanel. It usually closes 18–24 months after birth. The unpaired posterior fontanel is located at the midline between the two parietal bones and the occipital bone. It is smaller than the anterior fontanel and closes about 2 months after birth. The paired anterolateral fontanels are located laterally between the frontal, parietal, temporal and sphenoid bones and are smaller in shape. They close about 3 months after birth. The paired posterolateral fontanels are located laterally between the parietal, occipital and temporal bones and are irregularly shaped. They begin to close 1 to 2 months after birth, but closure is not complete until 12 months.

Question type: Multiple Choice 26) Which bone of the axial skeleton does NOT articulate with any other bone? a) vertebrae b) ethmoid c) sternum d) hyoid e) ilium Answer: d Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO7.8 Describe the relationship of the hyoid bon to the skull.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.8 Hyoid Bone

27) The hyoid bone is suspended by ligaments and muscle that extend from the _____ of the temporal bone. a) mastoid process b) styloid process c) occipital condyle d) zygomatic process e) superior nuchal line Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: Describe the relationship of the hyoid bone to the skull.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.8 Hyoid Bone 28) Joe was found dead. His hyoid bone was broken. What was the most likely cause of death? a) natural causes b) cardiac arrest c) gun shot d) strangulation e) choking Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO7.8 Describe the relationship of the hyoid bone to the skull.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.8 Hyoid Bone Question type: Essay 29) List and describe the number of bones found in all the regions of the adult vertebral column.

Answer:

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO7.9 Identify the regions and normal curves of the vertebral column and describe its structural and functional features.

Learning Objective 2: LO7.9.2 Describe the structural and functional features of the bones in various regions of the vertebral column.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.9 Vertebral Column Solution: There are seven cervical vertebrae in the neck region. There are twelve thoracic vertebrae posterior to the thoracic cavity. The five lumbar vertebrae support the lower back.

There is one sacrum consisting of five fused sacral vertebrae. There is one coccyx (tail bone) consisting of four fused coccygeal vertebrae.

Question type: Multiple Choice 30) Ribs that have costal cartilage that attaches directly to the sternum are called a) floating ribs. b) vertebrochondral ribs. c) false ribs. d) true ribs. e) separated ribs.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 7.11 Identify the bones of the thorax, including sternum and ribs, and their functions.

Learning Objective 2: LO 7.11.3 Identify the location and surface features of the ribs.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.11 Thorax 31) The tubercle found on the neck of a rib articulates with a facet found on the a) spinous process of a thoracic vertebra. b) spinous process of a lumbar vertebra. c) transverse process of a thoracic vertebra. d) xiphoid process of the sternum. e) manubrium of the sternum.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension

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Learning Objective 1: LO 7.11 Identify the bones of the thorax, including sternum and ribs, and their functions.

Learning Objective 2: LO7.11.3 Identify the location and surface features of the ribs.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.11 Thorax 32) What is the function of the intervertebral discs? a) compress the vertebral bones b) help absorb vertical shock to the spinal column c) store calcium d) act as a spinal fluid reservoir e) provide muscle attachment Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO7.9 Identify the regions and normal curves of the vertebral column and describe its structural and functional features.

Learning Objective 2: LO7.9.2 Describe the structural and functional features of the bones in various regions of the vertebral column.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.9 Vertebral Column 33) The two primary curves of the adult vertebral column are the a) thoracic and sacral curves. b) lumbar and sacral curves. c) cervical and lumbar curves. d) cervical and thoracic curves. e) cervical and sacral curves.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO7.9 Identify the regions and normal curves of the vertebral column and describe its structural and functional features.

Learning Objective 2: LO7.9.1 Identify the regions and normal curves of the vertebral column Section Reference 1: Sec 7.9 Vertebral Column 34) What bone marking found on the second cervical vertebra projects superiorly into the anterior portion of the vertebral foramen of the atlas?

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a) primary projection b) occular process c) odontoid process d) cervical projection e) transverse process Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: Learning Objective 1: LO7.10 Identify the locations and surface features of the cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal vertebrae.

Study Objective 2: Learning Objective 1: LO7.10.1 Identify the location and surface features of the cervical vertebrae.

Section Reference 1: Sec. 7.10 Vertebral Regions

35) Which of the vertebrae listed below would be the largest and strongest vertebra in adult humans? a) C5 b) L4 c) T4 d) C7 e) T12 Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO7.10 Identify the locations and surface features of the cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal vertebrae.

Learning Objective 2: LO7.10.3 Identify the location and surface features of the lumbar vertebrae.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.10 Vertebral Regions 36) Which gender shows the coccyx pointed inferiorly? a) females

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b) males c) Both genders d) The coccyx does not point inferiorly in either gender.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO7.10 Identify the locations and surface features of the cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal vertebrae..

Learning Objective 2: LO7.10.4 Identify the location and surface features of the sacral and coccygeal vertebrae.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.10 Vertebral Regions 37) Inflammation of one or more costal cartilages can mimic chest pain associated with a heart attack. What is this condition called? a) costochondritis b) arthritis c) cartilaginous distension d) otitis e) intercostal space distension Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO7.11 Identify the bones of the thorax, including sternum and ribs, and their functions.

Learning Objective 2: LO7.11.3 Identify the location and surface features of the ribs.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.11 Thorax

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38) In the diagram, which bone would be classified as the flat bone?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO7.2 Classify bones based on their shape or location.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Types of Bones

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39) In the diagram, which bone would be classified as the short bone?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO7.2 Classify bones based on their shape or location.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Types of Bones

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40) In the diagram, which is the lacrimal bone?

a) E b) F c) G d) H e) I Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO7.6 Identify the location and surface features of the following bones: nasal, lacrimal, palatine, inferior nasal conchae, vomer, maxillae, zygomatic, and mandible.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.6 Facial Bones

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41) In the diagram, which bone articulates with every other bone of the face except the mandible?

a) F b) G c) H d) I e) J Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO7.6 Identify the location and surface features of the following bones: nasal, lacrimal, palatine, inferior nasal conchae, vomer, maxillae, zygomatic, and mandible.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.6 Facial Bones

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42) In the diagram, which is the zygomatic bone?

a) G b) H c) I d) J e) Not labeled on the diagram.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO7.6 Identify the location and surface features of the following bones: nasal, lacrimal, palatine, inferior nasal conchae, vomer, maxillae, zygomatic, and mandible.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.6 Facial Bones

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43) In the diagram, which bone is considered the keystone of the cranial floor?

a) E b) B c) G d) H e) I Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO7.5 Describe the following cranial bones and their main features: frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital, sphenoid, and ethmoid.

Learning Objective 2: LO7.5.5 Identify the location and surface features of the sphenoid bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.5 Cranial Bones

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44) In the diagram, which is the styloid process?

a) J b) K c) G d) H e) I Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO7.5 Describe the following cranial bones and their main features: frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital, sphenoid, and ethmoid.

Learning Objective 2: LO 7.5.3 Identify the location and surface features of the temporal bones.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.5 Cranial Bones

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45) In the diagram, which is the mastoid process?

a) J b) K c) G d) H e) I Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO7.5 Describe the following cranial bones and their main features: frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital, sphenoid, and ethmoid.

Learning Objective 2: LO 7.5.3 Identify the location and surface features of the temporal bones.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.5 Cranial Bones

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46) In the diagram, which is the palatine bone?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO7.6 Identify the location and surface features of the following bones: nasal, lacrimal, palatine, inferior nasal conchae, vomer, maxillae, zygomatic, and mandible.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.6 Facial Bones

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47) In the diagram, which is the nasal bone?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO7.6 Identify the location and surface features of the following bones: nasal, lacrimal, palatine, inferior nasal conchae, vomer, maxillae, zygomatic, and mandible.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.6 Facial Bones

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48) In the diagram, which is the mastoid process?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) G Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO7.5 Describe the following cranial bones and their main features: frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital, sphenoid, and ethmoid.

Learning Objective 2: LO 7.5.3 Identify the location and surface features of the temporal bones.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.5 Cranial Bones

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49) In the diagram, which is the foramen ovale?

a) C b) D c) E d) F e) G Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO7.5 Describe the following cranial bones and their main features: frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital, sphenoid, and ethmoid.

Study Objective 2: SO7.5.5 Identify the location and surface features of the sphenoid bones.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.5 Cranial Bones

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50) In the diagram, which is the cribriform plate?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) F Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO7.5 Describe the following cranial bones and their main features: frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital, sphenoid, and ethmoid.

Learning Objective 2: LO7.5.6 Identify the location and surface features of the ethmoid bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.5 Cranial Bones

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51) In the diagram, which is the foramen ovale?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO7.5 Describe the following cranial bones and their main features: frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital, sphenoid, and ethmoid.

Learning Objective 2: LO7.5.4 Identify the location and surface features of the occipital bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.5 Cranial Bones

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52) In the diagram, which is the crista galli of the ethmoid bone?

a) C b) A c) B d) E e) G Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO7.5 Describe the following cranial bones and their main features: frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital, sphenoid, and ethmoid.

Learning Objective 2: LO7.5.6 Identify the location and surface features of the ethmoid bones.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.5 Cranial Bones

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53) In the diagram, which is the vomer bone?

a) A b) B c) E d) D e) C Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO7.6 Identify the location and surface features of the following bones: nasal, lacrimal, palatine, inferior nasal conchae, vomer, maxillae, zygomatic, and mandible.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.6 Facial Bones

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54) In the diagram, which is the perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone?

a) A b) B c) C d) E e) D Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO7.5 Describe the following cranial bones and their main features: frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital, sphenoid, and ethmoid.

Learning Objective 2: LO7.5.6 Identify the location and surface features of the ethmoid bones.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.5 Cranial Bones

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55) In the diagram, which is the mental foramen?

a) C b) D c) E d) F e) Not labeled on the diagram.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO7.6 Identify the location and surface features of the following bones: nasal, lacrimal, palatine, inferior nasal conchae, vomer, maxillae, zygomatic, and mandible.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.6 Facial Bones 56) In the diagram, which fontanel usually closes within 18 to 24 months after birth.

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a) A b) B c) C d) D e) Both A and C Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO7.7 Describe the following special features of the skull: sutures, paranasal sinuses, and fontanels.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.7 Special Features of the Skull 57) In the diagram, which is largest fontanel in size at birth.

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) Both A and D Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO7.7 Describe the following special features of the skull: sutures, paranasal sinuses, and fontanels.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.7 Special Features of the Skull

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58) In the diagram, which is the spinous process in the diagram?

a) B b) C c) D d) E e) F Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO7.9 Identify the regions and normal curves of the vertebral column and describe its structural and functional features.

Learning Objective 2: LO7.9.2 Describe the structural and functional features of the bones in various regions of the vertebral column.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.9 Vertebral Column

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59) In the diagram, which of the cervical vertebrae contains a unique process that is responsible for the ability to move your head from side to side signifying “no”?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO7.10 Identify the locations and surface features of the cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal vertebrae.

Learning Objective 2: LO7.10.1 Identify the location and surface features of the cervical vertebrae.

Section Reference 2: Sec 7.10 Vertebral Regions

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60) In the diagram, which of the cervical vertebrae contains the articular surface that permits the movement of the head seen when saying “yes”?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO7.10 Identify the locations and surface features of the cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal vertebrae.

Learning Objective 2: LO7.10.1 Identify the location and surface features of the cervical vertebrae.

Section Reference 2: Sec 7.10 Vertebral Regions

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61) In the diagram, which part is the vertebral body?

a) C b) D c) H d) I e) J Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO7.9 Identify the regions and normal curves of the vertebral column and describe its structural and functional features.

Learning Objective 2: LO7.9.2 Describe the structural and functional features of the bones in various regions of the vertebral column.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.9 Vertebral Column

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62) In the diagram, which part is often broken during CPR due to incorrect positioning of hands?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO7.11 Identify the bones of the thorax, including sternum and ribs, and their functions.

Learning Objective 2: LO7.11.2 Identify the location and surface features of the sternum Section Reference 1: Sec 7.11 Thorax

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63) In the diagram, which is the clavicular notch?

a) A b) C c) D d) B e) F Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO7.11 Identify the bones of the thorax, including sternum and ribs, and their functions.

Learning Objective 2: LO7.11.2 Identify the location and surface features of the sternum Section Reference 1: Sec 7.11 Thorax

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64) Which of the following structures passes through the opening labeled 2 in the diagram?

a) internal carotid artery b) mental nerve c) cranial nerve XI (accessory) d) branch of the occipital artery e) cranial nerve VII (facial) Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO7.5 Describe the following cranial bones and their main features: frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital, sphenoid, and ethmoid.

Learning Objective 2: LO7.5.4 Identify the location and surface features of the occipital bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.5 Cranial Bones

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65) In the diagram, which structure allows for passage of nerves and blood vessels?

a) B b) C c) D d) E e) F Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO7.10 Identify the locations and surface features of the cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal vertebrae.

Learning Objective 2: LO7.10.4 Identify the location and surface features of the sacral and coccygeal vertebrae.

Section Reference 2: Sec 7.10 Vertebral Regions

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66) In the diagram, which structure in the diagram is the coccyx?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO7.10 Identify the locations and surface features of the cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal vertebrae.

Learning Objective 2: LO7.10.4 Identify the location and surface features of the sacral and coccygeal vertebrae.

Section Reference 2: Sec 7.10 Vertebral Regions 67) Which condition is characterized by an increase or exaggeration of the lumbar curve of the vertebral column? a) lumbar stenosis b) scoliosis c) kyphosis d) lordosis

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e) spina bifida Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO7.12 Describe the homeostatic imbalances that affect the axial skeleton Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Axial Skeleton 68) Which condition is also called “hunchback” due to an increase in the thoracic curve of the vertebral column? a) herniated disc b) scoliosis c) kyphosis d) lordosis e) spina bifida Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO7.12 Describe the homeostatic imbalances that affect the axial skeleton Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Axial Skeleton 69) Which condition is characterized by a lateral bending of the vertebral column in the thoracic region? a) herniated disc b) scoliosis c) kyphosis d) lordosis e) spina bifida Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO7.12 Describe the homeostatic imbalances that affect the axial skeleton Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Axial Skeleton 70) Which condition is the protrusion of the nucleus pulposus posteriorly or into one of the adjacent vertebral bodies in the vertebral column?

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a) herniated disc b) scoliosis c) kyphosis d) lordosis e) spina bifida Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO7.12 Describe the homeostatic imbalances that affect the axial skeleton Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Axial Skeleton 71) Which of the following bones houses a sac that collects tears and passes them into the nasal cavity? a) maxilla b) sphenoid c) nasal d) ethmoid e) lacrimal Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO7.6 Identify the location and surface features of the following bones: nasal, lacrimal, palatine, inferior nasal conchae, vomer, maxillae, zygomatic, and mandible.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.6 Facial Bones 72) Which bone forms the zygomatic arch with the zygomatic bone? a) temporal b) sphenoid c) mandible d) frontal e) parietal Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension

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Learning Objective 1: LO7.5 Describe the following cranial bones and their main features: frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital, sphenoid, and ethmoid.

Learning Objective 2: LO 7.5.3 Identify the location and surface features of the temporal bones.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.5 Cranial Bones 73) Which are the three components of the nasal septum? a) inferior nasal concha, vomer and lacrimal bone b) vomer, superior nasal concha, and septal cartilage c) inferior nasal concha, septal cartilage, perpendicular plate of ethmoid d) vomer, septal cartilage, and perpendicular plate of ethmoid e) vomer, septal cartilage, and crista galli of ethmoid Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO7.6 Identify the location and surface features of the following bones: nasal, lacrimal, palatine, inferior nasal conchae, vomer, maxillae, zygomatic, and mandible.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.6 Facial Bones 74) The sella turcica is a bony depression found in which cranial bone? a) sphenoid b) frontal c) temporal d) ethmoid e) 0ccipital Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO7.5 Describe the following cranial bones and their main features: frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital, sphenoid, and ethmoid.

Learning Objective 2: LO7.5.5 Identify the location and surface features of the sphenoid bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.5 Cranial Bones 75) The pituitary gland is contained in a depression found in which cranial bone? a) ethmoid b) sphenoid c) lacrimal

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d) yemporal e) parietal Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO7.5 Describe the following cranial bones and their main features: frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital, sphenoid, and ethmoid.

Learning Objective 2: LO7.5.5 Identify the location and surface features of the sphenoid bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.5 Cranial Bones Question type: Text Dropdown 76) If cerebrospinal fluid was in the nasal cavity, this would indicate damage to the [dropdown 1] bone. If cerebrospinal fluid was found in the ear, this would indicate damage to the [dropdown 2] bone.

Dropdown choices: ethmoid frontal nasal sphenoid temporal Answer 1: ethmoid Answer 2: sphenoid Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Evaluate Learning Objective: LO 7.5 Describe the following cranial bones and their main features: frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital, sphenoid, and ethmoid.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.5 Cranial Bones Question type: Multiple Selection 77) Craniosyntosis occurs when bones in an infant skull fuse too early causing a misshapen head.

What bones would be involved in craniosyntosis? Select all that apply. a) frontal b) mandible c) maxillae

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d) nasal e) occipital f) palatine g) parietal h) temporal i) sphenoid j) vomer k) zygomatic Answer 1: a Answer 2: e Answer 3: g Answer 4: h Answer 5: i Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: LO 7.5 Describe the following cranial bones and their main features: frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital, sphenoid, and ethmoid.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.5 Cranial Bones Question type: Text Dropdown 78) The vertebral column is composed of [dropdown 1]vertebrae during development. There are [dropdown 2] [dropdown 3] vertebrae which contain transverse foramen. There are [dropdown 4] [dropdown 5] vertebrae with long spinous processes. The largest vertebral body is seen in the [dropdown 6] [dropdown 7] vertebrae. There are [dropdown 8] fused [dropdown 9] vertebrae found between the hips and 4 coccyx.

Dropdown 1,2,4,6,8 Choices: 1 4 5 10 12 26 33 Dropdown 3,5,7,9 Choices: Cervical Coccyx Lumbar Sacral Thoracic

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Answers: Answer 1: 33 Answer 2: 7 Answer 3: cervical Answer 4: 12 Answer 5: thoracic Answer 6: 5 Answer 7: lumbar Answer 8: 4 Answer 9: sacral Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective: LO 7.9 Identify the regions and normal curves of the vertebral column and describe its structural and functional features.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.9 Vertebral Column Question type: Multiple Selection 79) Craniodiaphysial dysplasia is a bone disorder that causes calcium to accumulate in the skull.

These deposits of calcium decrease the foramina size in the skull. What would be an effect of smaller foramina? Select all that apply. a) Compression on cranial nerves may occur b) Compression on spinal nerves may occur c) Inadequate blood flow to structures in the skull d) Intracranial hypertension (high blood pressure) e) Brain displacement within the brain Answer 1 : a Answer 2: c Answer 3: d Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective: LO 7.3 Describe the principal surface markings on bones and the functions of each.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.3 Bone Surface Markings

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80) Hyaline cartilage is associated with numerous structures in the skeletal system. Which bones and structures of the axial skeletal area associated with hyaline cartilage? Select all that apply. a) Costal cartilage b) Xiphoid process c) Septal cartilage d) Annulus fibrosus e) Laminae f) Epiphyseal plate Answer 1: a Answer 2: b Answer 3: c Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO7.3 Describe the principal surface markings on bones and the functions of each.

Learning Objective 2: LO7.7 Describe the following special features of the skull: sutures, paranasal sinuses, and fontanels.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.3 Bone Surface Markings Section Reference 2: Sec 7.7 Special Features of the Skull 81) Which bone borders the orbit and the cranial cavity? Select all that apply. a) Sphenoid b) Occipital c) Parietal d) Temporal e) Ethmoid f) Lacrimal g) Frontal h) Zygomatic i) Maxilla Answer 1: a Answer 2: e Answer 3: g Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO7.4 Name the cranial and facial bones and indicate whether they are paired or single.

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Learning Objective 2: LO7.5 Describe the following cranial bones and their main features: frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital, sphenoid, and ethmoid.

Learning Objective 3: LO7.6 Identify the location and surface features of the following bones: nasal, lacrimal, palatine, inferior nasal conchae, vomer, maxillae, zygomatic, and mandible.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Skull: An Overview Section Reference 2: Sec 7.5 Cranial Bones Section Reference 3: Sec 7.6 Facial Bones Question type: Multiple Choice 82) In infants, hydrocephalus, water on the brain, causes bulging and swelling in the head. The head appears larger than expected. What structure in the axial skeletal system will bulge? a) Sinuses b) Intervertebral discs c) Fontanelles d) Sutures e) Foramen Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO7.7 Describe the following special features of the skull: sutures, paranasal sinuses, and fontanels.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.7 Special Features of the Skull 83) The lateral walls of your nasal cavity are formed by 1) ethmoid` 2) sphenoid` 3) maxillae` 4) inferior nasal conchae` 5) palatine bones` 6) lacrimal bones 7) temporal bones a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 c) 1, 3, 4, 5, 6 d) 2, 3, 4, 5 e) 2, 4, 5, 6, 7 Answer: b

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Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective 1: LO7.4 Name the cranial and facial bones and indicate whether they are paired or single.

Learning Objective 2: LO7.5 Describe the following cranial bones and their main features: frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital, sphenoid, and ethmoid.

Learning Objective 3: LO7.6 Identify the location and surface features of the following bones: nasal, lacrimal, palatine, inferior nasal conchae, vomer, maxillae, zygomatic, and mandible.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Skull: An Overview Section Reference 2: Sec 7.5 Cranial Bones Section Reference 3: Sec 7.6 Facial Bones 84) A vertebrae with no vertebral body, transverse foramina and a potential bifid process would describe a) Sacral vertebrae b) Coccyx vertebrae c) Cervical vertebrae d) Lumbar vertebrae e) Thoracic vertebra Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO7.9 Identify the regions and normal curves of the vertebral column and describe its structural and functional features.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.9 Vertebral Column 85) The ___ suture articulates with the most bones in the skull. a) Coronal b) Frontal c) Sagittal d) Squamous e) Lambdoid Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis

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Learning Objective 1: LO7.7 Describe the following special features of the skull: sutures, paranasal Section Reference 1: Sec 7.7 Special Features of the Skull

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Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pap14 Chapter Number: 08 Shuffle: Yes Case Sensitive: No

Deleted: ¶

Question type: Multiple Choice 1) Which of the following bones is the anterior bone that articulates with the manubrium of the sternum at the sternoclavicular joint? a) scapula b) clavicle c) xiphoid d) rib e) thoracic vertebra Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Identify the bones of the pectoral (shoulder) girdle, their functions, and their principal markings.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.1 Describe the location and surface features of the clavicle.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.1 Pectoral (Shoulder) Girdle 2) Which of the following bones articulates with the scapula? a) thoracic vertebra b) humerus c) sacrum d) tibia e) sternum Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Identify the bones of the pectoral (shoulder) girdle, their functions, and their principal markings.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.2 Describe the location and surface features of the scapula.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.1 Pectoral (Shoulder) Girdle

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3) Why does a fracture of the clavicle usually occur in the mid-region of the bone? a) Due to the medial pressure from the inflated lungs b) Due to the ligament-reinforced strength of the acromial joint c) Due to weakness at the junction of the two curves of clavicle d) Due to position of the clavicle relative to the humerus e) Due to fusion of the ends of the clavicle to the sternum and scapula Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Identify the bones of the pectoral (shoulder) girdle, their functions, and their principal markings.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.1 Describe the location and surface features of the clavicle.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.1 Pectoral (Shoulder) Girdle 4) In the diagram, which part of the clavicle articulates with the manubrium?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) Not labeled on the diagram.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension

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Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Identify the bones of the pectoral (shoulder) girdle, their functions, and their principal markings.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.1 Describe the location and surface features of the clavicle.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.1 Pectoral (Shoulder) Girdle 5) In the diagram, which is the only part of the clavicle that articulates with the scapula?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) Not labeled in the diagram.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Identify the bones of the pectoral (shoulder) girdle, their functions, and their principal markings.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.1 Describe the location and surface features of the clavicle.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.1 Pectoral (Shoulder) Girdle

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6) In the diagram, which site is considered the weakest point of the clavicle?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) Not labeled in the diagram.

Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Identify the bones of the pectoral (shoulder) girdle, their functions, and their principal markings.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.1 Describe the location and surface features of the clavicle.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.1 Pectoral (Shoulder) Girdle 7) Which of the following bones is located in the posterior thorax between the levels of second and seventh vertebrae? a) sternum b) clavicle c) pelvis d) scapula e) sacrum Answer: d Difficulty: Hard

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Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Identify the bones of the pectoral (shoulder) girdle, their functions, and their principal markings.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.2 Describe the location and surface features of the scapula.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.1 Pectoral (Shoulder) Girdle 8) Which bone articulates with the scapula at the glenoid cavity? a) ileum b) thoracic vertebra c) sternum d) clavicle e) humerus Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Identify the bones of the upper limb and their principal markings.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.2 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the humerus.

Section Reference 2: Sec 8.2 Upper Limb (Extremity) 9) This is the thick edge of the scapula that is closer to the arm. a) axillary border b) mMedial border c) infraspinous fossa d) coracoid process e) acromion Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Identify the bones of the pectoral (shoulder) girdle, their functions, and their principal markings.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.2 Describe the location and surface features of the scapula.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.1 Pectoral (Shoulder) Girdle 10) Which of the following bone markings on the scapula is an indentation into which the head of the humerus fits? a) coracoid process b) glenoid cavity

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c) acromion d) scapular notch e) supraspinous fossa Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Identify the bones of the pectoral (shoulder) girdle, their functions, and their principal markings.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.2 Describe the location and surface features of the scapula.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.1 Pectoral (Shoulder) Girdle 11) Which of the following statements is TRUE with regard to the human hand? a) There are 5 carpals, 8 metacarpals and 14 phalanges. b) There are 8 carpals, 6 metacarpals and 14 phalanges c) There are 8 carpals, 5 metacarpals and 15 phalanges d) There are 8 carpals, 5 metacarpals and 14 phalanges e) There are 5 carpals, 8 metacarpals and 15 phalanges Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Identify the bones of the upper limb and their principal markings.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.3 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the bones of the hand.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Upper Limb (Extremity) 12) The glenohumeral joint is formed by articulation of the a) humerus, radius and ulna. b) humerus and radius. c) humerus and clavicle. d) humerus and ulna. e) humerus and scapula.

Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Identify the bones of the upper limb and their principal markings.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.1 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the humerus.

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Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Upper Limb (Extremity) 13) The former epiphyseal (growth) plate on the proximal end of the adult humerus is found in the a) anatomical neck. b) greater tubercle. c) intertubercular sulcus. d) surgical neck. e) olecranon fossa.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Identify the bones of the upper limb and their principal markings.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.1 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the humerus.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Upper Limb (Extremity) 14) The capitulum of the humerus articulates with the a) radius. b) ulna. c) scapula. d) carpal bones. e) clavicle.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Identify the bones of the upper limb and their principal markings.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.1 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the humerus.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Upper Limb (Extremity) 15) Which is a spool-shaped process on distal end of the humerus that is found medial to the capitulum and articulates with the ulna? a) coronoid fossa b) trochlea c) medial epicondyle d) lateral epicondyle e) lesser tubercle Answer: b

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Identify the bones of the upper limb and their principal markings.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.1 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the humerus.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Upper Limb (Extremity) 16) The medial and lateral epicondyles are found on the distal end of the humerus and are used for a) formation of the elbow joint. b) tendon attachment. c) passage of nerves and blood vessels through the bone into the marrow cavity. d) Both formation of the elbow joint and tendon attachment. e) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Identify the bones of the upper limb and their principal markings.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.1 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the humerus.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Upper Limb (Extremity) 17) Which of the following structures on the ulna receives the trochlea of the humerus? a) olecranon fossa b) coronoid process c) trochlear notch d) radial notch e) capitulum Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Identify the bones of the upper limb and their principal markings.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.2 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the ulna and radius.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Upper Limb (Extremity) 18) What is the function of the interosseous membrane between the ulna and radius? a) joins the shafts of two bones b) tendon attachment for deep forearm muscles

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c) site of bone repair d) Both joins the shafts of two bones and tendon attachment for deep forearm muscles e) Both joins the shafts of two bones and site of bone repair Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Identify the bones of the upper limb and their principal markings.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.2 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the ulna and radius.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Upper Limb (Extremity) 19) The distal end of the radius articulates with how many bones of the wrist? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) 5 Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Identify the bones of the upper limb and their principal markings.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.2 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the ulna and radius.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Upper Limb (Extremity) 20) Which of the following carpal bones is named for its large hook-shaped projection on its anterior surface? a) lunate b) scaphoid c) triquetrum d) hamate e) pisiform Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Identify the bones of the upper limb and their principal markings.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.3 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the bones of the hand.

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Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Upper Limb (Extremity) 21) The carpal tunnel consists of which of the following? a) pisiform b) trapezium c) flexor retinaculum d) Both pisiform and trapezium. e) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Identify the bones of the upper limb and their principal markings.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.3 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the bones of the hand.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Upper Limb (Extremity) 22) The carpometacarpal joint consists of the a) base of metacarpal bones and distal row of carpal bones. b) base of metacarpal bones and proximal row of carpal bones. c) head of metacarpal bones and distal row of carpal bones. d) head of metacarpal bones and proximal row of carpal bones. e) None of these choices are correct.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Identify the bones of the upper limb and their principal markings.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.3 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the bones of the hand.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Upper Limb (Extremity) 23) How many phalanges are in each hand? a) 10 b) 12 c) 14 d) 16 e) 20

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Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Identify the bones of the upper limb and their principal markings.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.3 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the bones of the hand.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Upper Limb (Extremity) 24) The coxal bones unite anteriorly at a joint called the a) pubic symphysis. b) sacroiliac joint. c) hip. d) acetabulum. e) None of these choices are correct.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.3 Identify the bones of the pelvic girdle and their principal markings.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.3.1 Identify the locations and surface features of the three components of the hip bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.3 Pelvic (Hip) Girdle 25) What is the function of the pelvic girdle? a) support for vertebral column b) attachment site for lower limbs c) attachment site for large pectoral muscles. d) attachment site for lower limbs and for large pectoral muscles. e) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 8.3 Identify the bones of the pelvic girdle and their principal markings.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.3 Pelvic (Hip) Girdle 26) In the standard anatomical position, the _____ is the bone of the pelvis found the most superior.

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a) ilium b) pubis c) ischium d) Both ilium and ischium. e) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.3 Identify the bones of the pelvic girdle and their principal markings.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.3.1 Identify the locations and surface features of the three components of the hip bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.3 Pelvic (Hip) Girdle 27) Which of the following is the largest foramen in the human skeleton? a) acetabulum b) obturator foramen c) vertebral foramen d) mental foramen e) foramen magnum Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 8.3 Identify the bones of the pelvic girdle and their principal markings.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.3.1 Identify the locations and surface features of the three components of the hip bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.3 Pelvic (Hip) Girdle 28) Which raised line extends superiorly and laterally along the superior ramus of the pubis eventually merging with the arcuate line of the ilium? a) pectineal line b) ischial tuberosity c) anterior gluteal line d) inferior gluteal line e) greater sciatic notch Answer: a Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.3 Identify the bones of the pelvic girdle and their principal markings.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.3.1 Identify the locations and surface features of the three components of the hip bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.3 Pelvic (Hip) Girdle 29) The hip joint is the joint found between a) the femur and tibia. b) the pelvis and sacrum. c) the pelvis and tibia. d) the femur and patella. e) the pelvis and femur.

Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 8.3 Identify the bones of the pelvic girdle and their principal markings.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.3 Pelvic (Hip) Girdle 30) The portion of the bony pelvis that is found inferior to the pelvic brim is called a) the false pelvis. b) the greater pelvis. c) the true pelvis. d) both the false pelvis and the greater pelvis. e) all of these choices are correct.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.4 Distinguish between the false and true pelves, explaining their clinical importance, Study Objective 2: SO 8.4.1 Distinguish between the false and true pelves.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.4 False and True Pelves 31) In comparison to the male pelvis, the female pelvis is NOT a) wider. b) shallower. c) larger in the pelvic inlet. d) larger in the pelvic outlet.

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e) larger in the acetabulum.

Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 8.5. Compare the principal differences between female and male pelves.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.5 Comparison of Female and Male Pelves 32) Each lower limb has a) 30 bones found in 3 locations. b) 30 bones found in 4 locations. c) 32 bones found in 3 locations. d) 32 bones found in 4 locations. e) 34 bones found in 4 locations.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 8.6 Identify the bones of the lower limb and their principal markings.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.6 Lower Limb (Extremity) 33) Which process on the femur serves as an attachment point for tendons of several thigh muscles? a) gluteal tuberosity b) linea aspera c) medial epicondyle d) Both gluteal tuberosity and linea aspera e) Both linea aspera and medial epicondyle Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 8.6 Identify the bones of the lower limb and their principal markings.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.6.1 Identify the location and surface features of the femur and patella.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.6 Lower Limb (Extremity) 34) Which of the following markings is located on the medial side of the femur? a) lesser trochanter

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b) greater trochanter c) head d) Both head and lesser trochanter e) Both head and greater trochanter Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 8.6 Identify the bones of the lower limb and their principal markings.

Study Objective 3: SO 8.6.1 Identify the location and surface features of the femur and patella.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.6 Lower Limb (Extremity) 35) Which sesamoid bone develops in the tendon of the quadriceps femoris muscle and articulates with medial and lateral condyles of femur? a) ischium b) ilium c) pubis d) patella e) fibula Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 8.6 Identify the bones of the lower limb and their principal markings.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.6.1 Identify the location and surface features of the femur and patella.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.6 Lower Limb (Extremity) 36) The medial and lateral condyles of the femur fit into what part of the patella? a) articular facets b) base of the patella c) tibiofemoral crest d) apex of the patella e) None of these choices are correct.

Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 8.6 Identify the bones of the lower limb and their principal markings.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.6.1 Identify the location and surface features of the femur and patella.

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Section Reference 1: Sec 8.6 Lower Limb (Extremity) 37) Which of the structures listed below is NOT part of the knee joint? a) lateral condyle of the femur b) medial condyle of the femur c) lateral malleolus of the fibula d) condyles of the tibia e) patella Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 8.6 Identify the bones of the lower limb and their principal markings.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.6.1 Identify the location and surface features of the femur and patella.

Study Objective 3: SO 8.6.2 Identify the location and surface features of the tibia and fibula.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.6 Lower Limb (Extremity) 38) The hard sharp ridge of the shin that can easily be felt below the skin is the a) anterior border (crest) of the tibia. b) tibial tuberosity. c) medial condyle of the tibia. d) tibiofemoral joint. e) intercondylar eminence.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.6 Identify the bones of the lower limb and their principal markings.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.6.2 Identify the location and surface features of the tibia and fibula.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.6 Lower Limb (Extremity) 39) The lateral malleolus is found on the distal end of what bone? a) tibia b) fibula c) talus d) metatarsals e) femur Answer: b

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Objective 1: SO 8.6 Identify the bones of the lower limb and their principal markings.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.6.2 Identify the location and surface features of the tibia and fibula.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.6 Lower Limb (Extremity) 40) Which of following bones is NOT a tarsal bone? a) talus b) calcaneus c) navicular d) cuneiform e) capitate Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 8.6 Identify the bones of the lower limb and their principal markings.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.6.3 Identify the location and surface features of the bones of the foot.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.6 Lower Limb (Extremity) 41) Which of the followings structures is not found in the foot? a) pollex b) hallux c) talus d) longitudinal arch e) transverse arch Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 8.6 Identify the bones of the lower limb and their principal markings.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.6.3 Identify the location and surface features of the bones of the foot.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.6 Lower Limb (Extremity)

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42) In the diagram, which of the labeled structures serve as attachment sites for tendons of the shoulder muscles?

a) A, B b) B, C, D c) A, B, C, d) A, B, C, D e) A, C, D, E Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Identify the bones of the pectoral (shoulder) girdle, their functions, and their principal markings.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.2 Describe the location and surface features of the scapula.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.1 Pectoral (Shoulder) Girdle

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43) In the diagram, which of the labeled structures is the coracoid process?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Identify the bones of the pectoral (shoulder) girdle, their functions, and their principal markings.

Study Objective 3: SO 8.1.2 Describe the location and surface features of the scapula.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.1 Pectoral (Shoulder) Girdle

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44) In the diagram, which of the labeled structures is the supraspinous fossa?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Identify the bones of the pectoral (shoulder) girdle, their functions, and their principal markings.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.2 Describe the location and surface features of the scapula.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.1 Pectoral (Shoulder) Girdle

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45) In the diagram, which is the lateral epicondyle of the humerus?

a) A b) B c) F d) G e) H Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Identify the bones of the upper limb and their principal markings.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.1 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the humerus.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Upper Limb (Extremity)

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46) In the diagram, which structure on the humerus receives the head of the radius when the forearm is flexed.

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) F Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Identify the bones of the upper limb and their principal markings.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.1 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the humerus.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.1 Pectoral (Shoulder) Girdle

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47) In the diagram, where is the olecranon fossa?

a) A b) B c) C d) F e) Not labeled on the diagram Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Identify the bones of the upper limb and their principal markings.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.1 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the humerus.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.1 Pectoral (Shoulder) Girdle

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48) In the diagram, where is the trochlea?

a) B b) C c) D d) E e) Not labeled on the diagram.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Identify the bones of the upper limb and their principal markings.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.1 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the humerus.

Section Reference 1: Sec Identify the bones of the upper limb and their principal markings.

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49) In the diagram, where is the styloid process of the radius?

a) A b) B c) E d) F e) Not labeled on the diagram.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Identify the bones of the upper limb and their principal markings.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.2 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the ulna and radius.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Upper Limb (Extremity)

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50) In the diagram, where is the radial tuberosity?

a) A b) B c) E d) F e) Not labeled on the diagram.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Identify the bones of the upper limb and their principal markings.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.2 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the ulna and radius.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Upper Limb (Extremity)

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51) In the diagram of the wrist and hand, where is the capitate bone?

a) D b) E c) F d) G e) H Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Identify the bones of the upper limb and their principal markings.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.3 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the bones of the hand.

Section Reference 1: Sec Identify the bones of the upper limb and their principal markings.

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52) In the diagram of the wrist and hand, where is the trapezoid bone?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Identify the bones of the upper limb and their principal markings.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.3 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the bones of the hand.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Upper Limb (Extremity)

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53) In the diagram of the pelvis, which structure is where the longest nerve in the body passes?

a) C b) D c) F d) G e) Not labeled on the diagram Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.3 Identify the bones of the pelvic girdle and their principal markings.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.3.1 Identify the locations and surface features of the three components of the hip bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.3 Pelvic (Hip) Girdle

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54) In the diagram of the pelvis, where is the ischial tuberosity?

a) E b) F c) G d) H e) Not labeled in the diagram.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.3 Identify the bones of the pelvic girdle and their principal markings.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.3.1 Identify the locations and surface features of the three components of the hip bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.3 Pelvic (Hip) Girdle

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55) In the diagram of the pelvis, which labeled structure terminates anteriorly as the anterior superior iliac spine?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) H Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.3 Identify the bones of the pelvic girdle and their principal markings.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.3.1 Identify the locations and surface features of the three components of the hip bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.3 Pelvic (Hip) Girdle

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56) In the diagram, which of the labeled structures on the femur serve as points of attachment for the tendons of thigh and buttocks muscles?

a) A, B b) A, B, C c) A, D d) A, B, M e) D, M, L Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 8.6 Identify the bones of the lower limb and their principal markings.

Study Objective 3: SO 8.6.1 Identify the location and surface features of the femur and patella.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.6 Lower Limb (Extremity)

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57) In the diagram, where is the medial condyle on the femur?

a) I b) H c) J d) K e) Not labeled on the diagram.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.6 Identify the bones of the lower limb and their principal markings.

Study Objective 3: SO 8.6.1 Identify the location and surface features of the femur and patella.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.6 Lower Limb (Extremity)

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58) In the diagram, where is the tibial tuberosity?

a) B b) C c) E d) F e) G Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.6 Identify the bones of the lower limb and their principal markings.

Study Objective 3: SO 8.6.2 Identify the location and surface features of the tibia and fibula.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.6 Lower Limb (Extremity)

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59) In the diagram of the tibia and fibula, which structure(s) articulate(s) with the talus and forms a protrusion on the medial surface of the ankle?

a) A b) E c) F d) Both E and F e) Not labeled on the diagram.

Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 8.6 Identify the bones of the lower limb and their principal markings.

Study Objective 3: SO 8.6.2 Identify the location and surface features of the tibia and fibula.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.6 Lower Limb (Extremity)

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60) In the diagram of the foot, where is the navicular?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.6 Identify the bones of the lower limb and their principal markings.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.6.3 Identify the location and surface features of the bones of the foot.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.6 Lower Limb (Extremity)

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61) In the diagram of the foot, which labeled bone is the largest and strongest tarsal bone?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.6 Identify the bones of the lower limb and their principal markings.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.6.3 Identify the location and surface features of the bones of the foot.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.6 Lower Limb (Extremity)

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62) In the diagram, which labeled bone is the only bone of the foot that articulates with the fibula and tibia?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.6 Identify the bones of the lower limb and their principal markings.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.6.3 Identify the location and surface features of the bones of the foot.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.6 Lower Limb (Extremity) Question type: Essay 63) Compare and contrast the male and female pelvis.

Answer:

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 8.5 Compare the principal differences between female and male pelves.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.5 Comparison of Female and Male Pelves Solution: Male pelvis is heavier with a deeper false pelvis, a smaller pelvic inlet, a rounder obturator foramen, and a pubic arch less than 90 degrees. The female pelvis is lighter with a shallower false pelvis, oval shaped pelvic inlet, and a pubic arch of over 90 degrees.

64) Name the bones that are included in each lower limb.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.6 Identify the bones of the lower limb and their principal markings.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.6 Lower Limb (Extremity) Solution: 30 bones: femur, patella, tibia, fibula, seven tarsals, 5 metatarsals and 14 phalanges.

65) Name the bones that are included in each upper limb.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Identify the bones of the upper limb and their principal markings.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Upper Limb (Extremity) Solution: 30 bones; humerus, ulna, radius, 8 carpals, 5 metacarpals and 14 phalanges.

Question type: Multiple Choice

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66) In the diagram, the pectoral girdle consists of 2 bones labeled _____ and _____.

a) A and B b) A and G c) C and F d) F and H e) E and F Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Identify the bones of the pectoral (shoulder) girdle, their functions, and their principal markings.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.1 Pectoral (Shoulder) Girdle

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67) In the diagram of the hand, which labeled bone is a metacarpal bone?

a) A b) B c) D d) E e) I Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Identify the bones of the upper limb and their principal markings.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.3 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the bones of the hand.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Upper Limb (Extremity) 68) Which of the following is a common condition experienced by runners, which is caused by the kneecap tracking laterally as well as inferiorly and superiorly. a) patellofemoral stress syndrome b) metatarsal microfracture c) genu valgum (knock-knee) d) hallux valgus

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e) plantar fasciitis Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 8.6 Identify the bones of the lower limb and their principal markings.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.6.1 Identify the location and surface features of the femur and patella.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.6 Lower Limb (Extremity) Clinical Connection 69) Which of the following is a condition where the medial longitudinal arch of the foot is decreased, resulting in fallen arches? a) patellofemoral stress syndrome b) bunions c) flatfoot d) clawfoot e) clubfoot Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 8.6 Identify the structural components of the lower limb.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.4.4 Identify the location and surface features of the bones of the foot.

Section Reference 1: Section 8.6 Lower Limb (Extremity) Clinical Connection 70) Which of the following is a condition where the foot is twisted inferiorly and medially, and the angle of the arch is increased? a) patellofemoral stress syndrome b) bunions c) flatfoot d) clawfoot e) clubfoot Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 8.9 Describe the disorders that affect the appendicular skeleton.

Section Reference 1: Section 8.6 Lower Limb (Extremity) Clinical Connection 71) During embryonic and fetal develop, most skeletal tissues arise from

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a) the neurocranium. b) the notochord. c) mesenchymal cells. d) endoderm. e) none of these choices are correct.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 8.7 Describe the development of the skeletal system.

Section Reference 1: Sec LO 8.7 Development of the Skeletal System 72) The neurocranium gives rise to bones of the a) upper limbs. b) lower limbs. c) face. d) ribcage. e) skull.

Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.7 Describe the development of the skeletal system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.7 Development of the Skeletal System 73) Which pelvis in the diagram shows the characteristics of a female pelvis?

a) A b) B

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c) Both are male Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 8.5 Compare the principal differences between female and male pelves.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.5 Comparison of Female and Male Pelves 74) The boundary between the true pelvis and the false pelvis is the a) pelvic axis. b) pubic symphysis. c) pelvic outlet. d) pelvic brim. e) pectineal line.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.4 Distinguish between the false and true pelves, explaining their clinical importance.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.4 False and True Pelves 75) Which of the following is NOT a way that the skeletal system contributes to homeostasis? a) provides support and protection for internal organs b) stores and releases sodium ions c) houses blood forming tissue d) protects the brain and spinal cord e) serves as attachment and leverage points for muscles Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 8.8 Describe how the skeletal system contributes to homeostasis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.8 Focus on Homeostasis: The Skeletal System Question type: Text Dropdown

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76) Absorption of calcium and phosphate from the [dropdown 1] system provide minerals for bone formation. Hormones, like estrogen, from the [dropdown 2] system influence growth of long bones in the appendicular system. Vitamin Ds active form is finalized in the kidneys of the [dropdown 3] system, which helps promote calcium absorption. The tuberosities on long bones provide attachment sites for tendons in the [dropdown 4] system. White blood cells, which are formed in marrow of long bones, contribute to the [dropdown 5] systems function.

Dropdown Choices: cardiovascular digestive integumentary lymphatic muscular reproduction respiratory urinary Answer 1: digestive Answer 2: reproductive Answer 3: urinary Answer 4: muscular Answer 5: lymphatic Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Evaluate Study Objective: SO 8.8 Describe how the skeletal system contributes to homeostasis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.8 Focus on Homeostasis: The Skeletal System 77) The first digit in the upper extremity is [dropdown 1] in position. The first digit in the lower extremity is [dropdown 2] in position.

Dropdown Choices: anterior contralateral ipsilateral lateral medial posterior Answer 1: lateral Answer 2: medial Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes

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Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Identify the bones of the upper limb and their principal markings.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.6 Identify the bones of the lower limb and their principal markings.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Upper Limb (Extremity) Section Reference 2: Sec 8.6 Lower Limb (Extremity) Question type: Multiple Choice 78) The radius is to the___________, as the ____________is to the femur. a) ulna; tibia b) humerus; tibia c) fibula; humerus d) tibia; humerus e) femur; ulna Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Identify the bones of the upper limb and their principal markings.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.6 Identify the bones of the lower limb and their principal markings.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Upper Limb (Extremity) Section Reference 2: Sec 8.6 Lower Limb (Extremity) Question type: Multiple Selection 79) Which bone in the appendicular system has a lateral and medial epicondyle, a neck and a head? Select all that apply. a) Radius b) Ulna c) Tibia d) Fibula e) Femur f) Humerus Answer 1: e Answer 2: f Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes

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Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Identify the bones of the upper limb and their principal markings.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.6 Identify the bones of the lower limb and their principal markings.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Upper Limb (Extremity) Section Reference 2: Sec 8.6 Lower Limb (Extremity) 80) Investigators found a skeleton in the woods. They need to determine the sex of the skeleton.

Which statement will help indicate that the bones found belong to a female adult? Select all that apply. a) larger more robust bones and joint surfaces b) more bone development at muscle attachment sites c) broader sciatic notch d) wider angle where the pubic bones meet e) heart shaped pelvic inlet f) coccyx is less curved anteriorly Answer 1: c Answer 2: d Answer 3: f Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 8.11 Compare the principal differences between female and male pelves.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.11 Comparison of Female and Male Pelves Question type: Multiple Choice 81) Shoulder (glenohumeral) dislocations are very common in emergency care. Which statement best describes an anterior shoulder dislocation? a) Humeral head is in front of the glenoid cavity b) Humeral head is below the acromion process c) Humeral head is above the coracoid process d) Humeral head is below the glenoid cavity Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Evaluate

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Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Identify the bones of the pectoral (shoulder) girdle, their functions, and their principal markings.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.2 Identify the bones of the upper limb and their principal markings.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.1 Pectoral (Shoulder) Girdle Section Reference 2: Sec 8.2 Upper Limb (Extremity) 82) The bones of the vertebrae are from the mesenchymal cells from a) endoderm b) mesoderm c) mucous d) ectoderm Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective: SO 8.7 Describe the development of the skeletal system.

Section Reference: 8.7 Development of the Skeletal System 83) Damage to the talus would cause… a) achilles tendinitis. b) bunions. c) inability to perform weight bearing activities. d) flatfeet. e) claw foot.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 8.6 Identify the bones of the lower limb and their principal markings.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.6.3 Identify the location and surface features of the bones of the foot.

Section Reference: 8.6 Lower Limb (Extremity) 84) When you are seated, what area bears most of your body’s weight? a) Iliac crest b) Sacrum c) Ischial tuberosity d) Pubic arch

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e) Pelvic brim Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 8.3 Identify the bones of the pelvic girdle and their principal markings.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.3.1 Identify the locations and surface features of the three components of the hip bone.

Question type: Multiple Selection 85) Which statement describes the function or location of the interosseous membrane. Select all that apply. a) The interosseous membrane provides attachment points for muscles. b) The interosseous membrane distributes the force and load each bone receives. c) The interosseous membrane connects the bones held together to the femur or humerus. d) The interosseous membrane is only located in paired bones of the appendages. e) The interosseuous membrane connects the epiphyses of bones.

Answer 1: a Answer 2: b Answer 3: d Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Evaluate Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Identify the bones of the pectoral (shoulder) girdle, their functions, and their principal markings.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.2 Identify the bones of the upper limb and their principal markings.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.1 Pectoral (Shoulder) Girdle Section Reference 2: Sec 8.2 8.2 Upper Limb (Extremity)

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Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pap15 Chapter Number: 09 Shuffle: Yes Case Sensitive: No Question type: Essay 1) List the three structural categories of joints and briefly describe the criteria used for structural classification of joints.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 9.1 Describe the structural and functional classifications of joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.1 Joint Classifications Solution: The structural types of joints include: 1) fibrous joints, 2) cartilaginous joints, and 3) synovial joints. Joints can be classified structurally based on two criteria: 1) the presence or absence of a space between the articulating bones, called a synovial cavity and 2) the type of connective tissue that binds the bones together.

Question type: Multiple Choice 2) Which type(s) of joint(s) lack(s) a joint cavity and is(are) held together by a fibrous connective tissue?

1. Fibrous joints 2. Cartilaginous joints 3. Synovial joints a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 1 and 2 e) 1, 2, and 3 Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 9.1 Describe the structural and functional classifications of joints.

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Section Reference 1: Sec 9.1 Joint Classifications 3) Which type(s) of joint(s) lack(s) a synovial cavity?

1. Fibrous joints 2. Cartilaginous joints 3. Synovial joints a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 1 and 2 e) 1, 2, and 3 Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 9.1 Describe the structural and functional classifications of joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.1 Joint Classifications Question type: Essay 4) List the three functional classifications of joints, and briefly describe the basis for the functional classification of joints.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 9.1 Describe the structural and functional classifications of joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.1 Joint Classifications Solution: The functional classification joint is based on the degree of movement that they allow.

The three functional classes are: 1) synarthroses, which are totally immovable, 2) amphiarthroses, which have slight movement, and 3) diarthroses, which are freely moveable joints.

Question type: Multiple Choice 5) Which functional class(es) of joint(s) allow(s) movement?

1. Synarthrosis

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2. Amphiarthrosis 3. Diarthrosis a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) Both 2 and 3 e) 1, 2, and 3 Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 9.1 Describe the structural and functional classifications of joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.1 Joint Classifications 6) Dense irregular connective tissue is located in 1. Syndesmosis 2. Gomphosis 3. Suture a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) Both 1 and 2 e) 1, 2, and 3 Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 9.2 Describe the structure and functions of the three types of fibrous joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.2 Fibrous Joints Question type: Multiple Dropdown 7) A suture is structurally classified as [dropdown 1]and functionally classified as [dropdown 2] in an adult.

Dropdown 1 choices: Synovial Fibrous

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Cartilaginous Dropdown 2 choices: Diarthrosis Amphiarthrosis Synarthrosis Answer 1: fibrous; Answer 2: synarthrosis Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 9.2 Describe the structure and functions of the three types of fibrous joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.2 Fibrous Joints Question type: Multiple choice 8) The epiphyseal plate in a growing long bone is an example of a a) gomphosis b) suture c) symphysis d) synostosis e) synchondrosis Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 9.3 Describe the structure and functions of the three types of cartilaginous joints Section Reference 1: Sec 9.3 Cartilaginous Joints Question type: Multiple Selection 9) The joint between the first rib and the manubrium of the sternum can be described by which term(s)? Select all that apply. a) a synchondrosis b) a synarthrosis c) a cartilaginous joint

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d) a synovial joint e) a diarthrosis Answer 1: a Answer 2: b Answer 3: c Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 9.3 Describe the structure and functions of the three types of cartilaginous joints Section Reference 1: Sec 9.3 Cartilaginous Joints 10) Which characteristic(s) describes all synovial joints? Select all that apply. a) Contain a joint cavity b) Are freely moveable c) Articulating bones are covered with hyaline cartilage d) Include fibrocartilage e) Include bursae f) Contain a labrum Answer 1: a Answer 2: b Answer 3: c Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 9.4 Describe the properties of synovial joints and their accessory structures.

Study Objective 2: SO 9.4.1 Describe the structure of synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.4 Synovial Joints 11) Which is made from dense regular connective tissue? a) Ligaments b) Articular cartilage c) Articular fat pads d) Synovial membrane e) Menisci Answer: a

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Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 9.4 Describe the properties of synovial joints and their accessory structures.

Study Objective 2: SO 9.4.1 Describe the structure of synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.4 Synovial Joints Question type: Essay 12) What unique characteristics would a person who is "double-jointed” possess?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 9.4 Describe the properties of synovial joints and their accessory structures.

Study Objective 2: SO 9.4.1 Describe the structure of synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.4 Synovial Joints Solution: Double-jointed people do not have extra joints. They have greater flexibility in their articular capsules and ligaments. The resulting increase in the range of motion allows them to do such moves as touching their thumbs to their wrists and putting their ankles or elbows behind their necks. Unfortunately, such flexible joints are structurally less stable and are more easily dislocated.

13) Briefly describe the functions of synovial fluid.

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 9.4 Describe the properties of synovial joints and their accessory structures.

Study Objective 2: SO 9.4.1 Describe the structure of synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.4 Synovial Joints Solution: Synovial fluid reduces friction, absorbs shock and supplying oxygen and nutrients to and removing carbon dioxide and metabolic wastes from the chondrocytes within articular cartilage.

14) Briefly describe what is happening when a person “cracks their knuckles”.

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Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 9.4 Describe the properties of synovial joints and their accessory structures.

Study Objective 2: SO 9.4.1 Describe the structure of synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.4 Synovial Joints Solution: When the synovial cavity expands, the pressure of the synovial fluid decreases, creating a partial vacuum. The suction draws carbon dioxide and oxygen out of the blood vessels in the synovial membrane, forming bubbles in the fluid. When the bubbles are forced to burst, as when the fingers are hyperflexed, the cracking or popping sound is heard as the gases are driven back into solution.

Question type: Multiple Selection 15) Which statement describes the fibular and tibial collateral ligaments? Select all that apply. a) The ligaments are intracapsule ligaments. b) The ligaments are part of the synovial cavity. c) The ligaments are composed of dense regular connective tissue. d) The ligaments are extracapsular ligaments e) The ligaments alleviate friction in the joint. f) The ligaments are associated with the knee joint. g) The ligaments strengthen the sides of the joint.

Answer 1: c Answer 2: d Answer 3: f Answer 4: g Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Evaluation Study Objective 1: SO 9.4 Describe the properties of synovial joints and their accessory structures.

Study Objective 2: SO 9.4.1 Describe the structure of synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.4 Synovial Joints Question type: Multiple Choice

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16) Which statement describes the function of a meniscus? a) They are located within the knee. b) It is composed of fibrocartilage. c) It helps absorb shock and distributes weight. d) It reduces friction between adjacent parts of a joint. e) It supplies nutrients and removes wastes.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 9.4 Describe the properties of synovial joints and their accessory structures.

Study Objective 2: SO 9.4.1 Describe the structure of synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.4 Synovial Joints 17) Articular discs 1. maintain the stability of a joint.

2. direct flow of the synovial fluid to areas of greatest friction.

3. are made of hyaline cartilage.

4. are only found in the vertebral column. a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 4 only e) 1 and 2 Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.4 Describe the properties of synovial joints and their accessory structures.

Study Objective 2: SO 9.4.1 Describe the structure of synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.4 Synovial Joints 18) Which of the following structures is used to reduce friction in joints?

1. Bursae 2. Synovial fluid 3. Accessory ligaments 4. Labrum

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a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 4 only e) 1 and 2 Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 9.4 Describe the properties of synovial joints and their accessory structures.

Study Objective 2: SO 9.4.2 Describe the structure and function of bursae and tendon sheaths.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.4 Synovial Joints 19) Gliding occurs between a) flat bones or slightly curved bones. b) a rounded bone and a ring. c) an oval shaped projection and an oval shaped depression. d) a ball like surface and a cuplike depression. e) a convex surface and a concave surface.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints 20) When a body builder flexes their biceps brachii, what motion is occurring? a) an increased angle between articulating bones b) a decreased angle between articulating bones c) movement away from midline d) movement in a circle e) a superior movement Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes

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Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints 21) Bending over and touching your toes describes what movement in reference to your intervertebral discs? a) flexion b) extension c) lateral flexion d) hyperextension e) rotation Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints 22) Whenflexing your torso laterally, the movement occurs along what body plane? a) Frontal b) Transverse c) Sagittal d) Oblique Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints 23) Moving the humerus laterally at the shoulder joint is an example of which type of movement? a) Lateral flexion b) Hyperextension c) Adduction

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d) Abduction e) Gliding Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints 24) A fast-pitch softball player releases the ball after a windmill motion. What movements occur doing the windmill motion? Select all that apply. a) Gliding b) Flexion c) Hyperextension d) Depression e) Elevation f) Abduction g) Adduction h) Rotation Answer: bfgh Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints 25) To peer over a fence, the calf muscles help you stand on your toes. What movement is being performed? a) eversion b) flexion c) plantar flexion d) dorsiflexion e) inversion Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints.

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Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints 26) When you cross your right arm across your body to shake an individual’s left hand, what motion does the joint between your scapula and clavicle perform? a) Protraction b) Retraction c) Inversion d) Eversion e) Supination Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints 27) Forming a fist, requires the fingers to perform what motion? a) Opposition b) Extension c) Dorsiflexion d) Flexion e) Rotation Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints 28) When you snap your thumb against your middle and forefinger, what motion is being performed? a) Pronation b) Supination c) Eversion d) Retraction e) Opposition

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Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints

Question type: Multiple Selection 29) Which structural category of a synovial joint allows movement within a single axis? Select all that apply. a) Planar b) Hinge c) Condyloid d) Suture e) Saddle f) Ball and socket Answer 1: a Answer 2: b Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 9.6 Describe the six subtypes of synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.6 Types of Synovial Joints Question type: Multiple Choice 30) The radial head articulating with the radial notch of the ulna represents what type of synovial joint? a) Pivot joint b) Planar joint c) Hinge joint d) Ball-and-socket joint e) Saddle joint Answer: a

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Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 9.6 Describe the six subtypes of synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.6 Types of Synovial Joints Question type: Multiple Selection 31) Which characteristics describe a condyloid joint? Select all that apply. a) It is located between the trapezium and metacarpal I. b) It is considered to be biaxial. c) It allows both flexion–extension and elevation-depression of the joint. d) It can be found in the wrist. e) It has limited circumduction.

Answer 1: b Answer 2: d Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Evaluate Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 9.6 Describe the six subtypes of synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.6 Types of Synovial Joints Question type: Multiple Choice 32) Studies have shown that ACL tears occur most frequently during the ovulatory phase in menstruating women. This example illustrates which factor affecting range of motion of a synovial joint? a) structure of articulating bones b) arrangement of the muscles c) hormones d) disuse e) contact of soft parts Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes

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Bloomcode: Evaluation Study Objective 1: SO 9.7 Describe six factors that influence the type of movement and range of motion possible at a synovial joint.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.7 Factors Affecting Contact and Range of Motion at Synovial Joints 33) What two non-synovial joints are seen in the picture?

a) suture and synostosis b) syndesmosis and interosseous membrane c) symphysis and gomphosis d) syndesmosis and gomphosis e) synovial and interosseous membrane Answer: b Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Evaluate Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 9.2 Describe the structure and functions of the three types of fibrous joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.2 Fibrous Joints

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34) What is the functional and structural classification of the joint in the picture?

a) synarthrosis and Suture b) synarthrosis and Synostosis c) smphiarthrosis and Symphysis d) smphiarthrosis and Syndesmosis e) synarthrosis and Gomophosis Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 9.2 Describe the structure and functions of the three types of fibrous joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.2 Fibrous Joints

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35) In the figure, what type of joint represents the atlanto-axial joint?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: c Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Evaluate Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 9.6 Describe the six subtypes of synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.6 Types of Synovial Joints

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36) In the diagram, what represents a joint that allows the motion of ‘nodding yes’?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E f) F Answer: d Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Evaluate Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 9.6 Describe the six subtypes of synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.6 Types of Synovial Joints

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37) The glenohumeral joint is multiaxial. Which picture represents this specific type of synovial joint?

a) B b) C c) D d) E e) F Answer: e Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.6 Describe the six subtypes of synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.6 Types of Synovial Joints

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38) Which type of synovial joint will have more movement at the expense of stability?

a) B b) C c) D d) E e) F Answer: e Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Evaluation Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 9.6 Describe the six subtypes of synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.6 Types of Synovial Joints

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39) Which of the joints exhibits flexion and extension and is uniaxial?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) B and C Answer: b Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.6 Describe the six subtypes of synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.6 Types of Synovial Joints Question type: Multiple selection

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40) ? What movement does the forearm make when twisting a door knob back and forth? Select all that apply. a) supination b) retraction c) dorsiflexion d) pronation e) circumduction Answer 1: a Answer 2: d Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.6 Describe the six subtypes of synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.6 Types of Synovial Joints

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41) Which joint can perform only flexion, extension and abduction, adduction and circumduction? Select all that apply.

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E f) F Answer: de Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.6 Describe the six subtypes of synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.6 Types of Synovial Joints

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42) The joint between the hamate and the capitate represent a _______ joint. a) condyloid b) saddle c) plane d) pivot e) hinge Answer: c Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.6 Describe the six subtypes of synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.6 Types of Synovial Joints 43) Which combination of statements accurately describes the joint highlighted in the picture?

1. synovial joint 2. cartilaginous joint 3. fibrous joint 4. joint permits gliding 5. joint permits flexion/extension 6. joint is uniaxial 7. joint is biaxial

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8. diarthrosis 9. amphiarthrosis a) 1 and 8 b) 1, 4, 6 and 9 c) 3, 5 and 6 d) 1, 4, 7 and 8 e) 3, 6 and 9 Answer: d Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Evaluation Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints Question type: Multiple Selection 44) Which of the panels in the figure shows a joint that allows circumduction? Select all that apply.

a) B b) F

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c) G d) D e) C f) A g) E Answer 1: a Answer 2: d Answer 3: e Answer 4: f Answer 5: g Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints Question type: Essay 45) Describe the general effects that aging has on joints.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.14 Explain the effects of aging on joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.9 Aging and Joints Solution: changes in joints due to aging include: production of synovial fluid decreases; articular cartilage thins; ligaments shorten and lose flexibility; osteoarthritis develops from wear and tear; bone becomes exposed at joints, and spurs form and the synovial membrane becomes inflamed.

These changes lead to decreases in the range of motion of joints.

46) List and briefly describe the three common types of arthritis.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.16 Describe the disorders that affect joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect Joints Solution: 1. Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease in which the immune system attacks cartilage and joint linings, causing swelling, pain, and loss of function. Bones may fuse, making them immovable. 2. Osteoarthritis results from deterioration of articular cartilage due to wear and tear. Bone spurs are often formed leading to restricted movement of the joint. 3. Gouty

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arthritis occurs due to deposition of uric acid crystals in soft tissues of joints, which irritates and erodes cartilage causing painful inflammation.

Question type: Multiple Selection 47) Which joint, in the diagrams, can perform rotation? Select all that apply.

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E f) H Answer: bdf Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints

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48) Which of the following labeled panels in the figure can perform rotation, adduction, abduction, flexion, extension and hyperextension? Select all that apply.

a) C b) E c) F d) G e) H f) A Answer: cd Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints

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49) Which joint in the diagram allows gliding movement?

a) A b) B c) C Answer: a Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints 50) Rotation of the forearm occurs at [dropdown 1] and includes these [dropdown 2] special movements.

Dropdown 1 choices: acromioclavicular carpometacarpal glenohumeral radioulnar

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radiocarpal Dropdown 2 choices: Dorsiflexion and plantar flexion Elevation and depression Eversion and inversion Pronation and supination Protraction and retraction Answer 1: radioulnar Answer 2: pronation and supination Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Synthesis Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints 51) Abduction is represented in which two panels?

a) A and B b) B and D c) D and E d) F and A e) B and F

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Answer: e Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints 52) Which movement involves rotation, adduction, extension, abduction and flexion?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) F Answer: c Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: comprehensive Difficulty: easy Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints

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53) Which panels show the movement you would use when shrugging your shoulders superiorly and inferiorly?

a) A and B b) C and D c) E and F d) H and I e) E, F and G Answer: a Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints Quesiton type: Multiple selection

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54) The talus bone is involved in the movements shown in which panel(s)? Select all that apply.

a) A and B b) C and D c) E and F d) G e) H and I Answer 1: c Answer 2: d Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints

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Question type: Text dropdown 55) Lateral displacement of the jaw is prevented by [dropdown 1] ligament, and occurs in the [dropdown 2] compartment of the synovial cavity, during movement shown in [dropdown 3] panel.

Dropdown 1 Choices: lateral sphenomandibular stylomandibular Dropdown 2 Choices: inferior superior Dropdown 3 Choices: A C E F Answer 1: lateral ligament Answer 2: superior Answer 3: C : Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Synthesis

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Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints.

Study Objective 2: S) 9.9 Describe the anatomical components of the temporomandibular joint and explain the movements that can occur at this joint.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints Section Reference 2: 9.9 Temporomandibular Joint 56) Panel [dropdown 1] shows [dropdown 2] movement that would be impaired by a dislocation of the radial head.

Dropdown 1 choices: B D E G H Dropdown 2 choices: pronation and supination dorsiflexion and plantar flexion eversion and inversion protraction and retraction elevation and depression Answer 1: H Answer 2: pronation and supination Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Difficulty: Medium

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Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints 57) Panel [dropdown 1] shows a joint that can perform opposition, circumduction, abduction and adduction at the [dropdown 2] joint.

Dropdown 1 choices: E F G H I Dropdown 2 choices carpometacarpal intercarpal metacarpophalangeal radiocarpal Answer 1: I Answer 2: carpometacarpal Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints Question Type: Multiple Choice

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58) Which is a degenerative joint disease in which joint cartilage is gradually lost due to a combination of aging, obesity, wear and abrasion of the joints? a) gouty arthritis b) Lyme disease c) bursitis d) osteoarthritis e) synovitis Answer: d Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Knowledge Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 9.16 Describe the disorders that affect joints.

Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect Joints 59) Which is an autoimmune disease that affects the joints? a) gouty arthritis b) Lyme disease c) arthroplasty d) osteoarthritis e) rheumatoid arthritis Answer: e Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Knowledge Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 9.16 Describe the disorders that affect joints.

Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect Joints 60) Which diseases is characterized by sodium urate crystals being deposited in the soft tissues of joints? a) gouty arthritis b) Lyme disease c) ankylosing spondylitis d) osteoarthritis e) rheumatoid arthritis Answer: a

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Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Knowledge Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 9.16 Describe the disorders that affect joints.

Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect Joints 61) Which is a correct description of arthroplasty? a) resurfacing of cartilage in a joint b) reshaping of the ends of the bones in a joint c) surgically replacing a joint with an artificial joint d) injection of synovial fluid into the joint Answer: c Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Knowledge Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 9.15 Explain the procedures involved in arthroplasty, and describe how a total hip replacement is performed.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.10 Arthroplasty Question type: Multiple Selection 62) Gout signs are usually seen in [dropdown 1]; rheumatoid arthritis is often seen in the [dropdown 2]; while osteoarthritis is most common in [dropdown 3].

Dropdown choices:big toe hand knee neck Answer 1: big toe Answer 2: hand Answer 3: knee Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.16 Describe the disorders that affect joints.

Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect Joints Question type: Multiple Choice

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63) A partially torn quadriceps femoris tendon would be classified as a) bursitis. b) a sprain. c) a strain. d) a dislocation. e) an arthrosis.

Answer: c Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.16 Describe the disorders that affect joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect Joints 64) Hyperflexion occurs when the femur is displaced anteriorly and the tibia is displaced posteriorly. Which ligament should help prevent this movement? a) Fibular collateral ligament b) Anterior cruciate ligament c) Posterior cruciate ligament d) Patellar ligament e) Arcuate popliteal ligament Answer: C Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Evaluation Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 9.13 Describe the main anatomical components of the knee and explain the movements that can occur at this joint.

Section Reference 1: 9.13 Knee Joint 65) The maxillae bones usually completely fuse into one bone before birth. This joint is known as a a) synchondrosis. b) syndesmosis. c) symphysis. d) diarthrosis. e) synostosis.

Answer: e

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Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.2 Describe the structure and functions of the three types of fibrous joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.2 Fibrous Joints Question type: Text Dropdown 66) The olecranon bursae are associated with the - [dropdown 1] joint. Bursae function to [dropdown 2].

Dropdown 1 choices: Coxal Elbow Glenohumeral Talocrural Tibiofemoral Dropdown 2 choices: Absorb shock and help bones fit together better Distribute weight over a great contact surface Reduce friction between muscles and bones Wrap around tendons to reduce friction Answer 1: Elbow Answer 2: Reduce friction between muscles and bones Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.11 Describe the anatomical components of the elbow joint and the movement that can occur at this joint.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.11 Elbow Joint Question type: Multiple Choice 67) Bursae are saclike structures that are commonly found between bone and a) skin. b) muscle. c) ligaments. d) tendons.

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Deleted: Exhibit 9.C Elbow Joint

e) all the other answer selections.

Answer: e Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Difficulty: easy Study Objective 1: SO 9.4 Describe the structural and functional properties of synovial joints and their accessory structures.

Study Objective 2: SO 9.4.2 Describe the structure and function of bursae and tendon sheaths.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.4 Synovial Joints 68) The hormone relaxin stimulates changes that lead to increased range of motion in the a) shoulder joint. b) pubic symphysis. c) temporomandibular joint d) knee joint. e) coronal suture.

Answer: b Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 9.7 Describe six factors that influence the type of movement and range of motion possible at a synovial joint.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.7 Factors Affecting Contact and Range of Motion at Synovial Joints Question type: Text Dropdown 69) Inflammation of the synovial membrane is a common [dropdown 1] in [dropdown 2]. Due to the chronic pain, it could lead to [dropdown 3].

Dropdown 1 choices: Sign Symptom Dropdown 2 choices: Gouty arthritis Lyme disease Osteoarthritis Rheumatoid arthritis

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Dropdown 3 choices: decreased range of motion increased deposition of urate crystals increased range of motion loosening of the tendons muscle hypertrophy Answer 1: symptom Answer 2: rheumatoid arthritis Answer 3: decreased range of motion Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Hard Difficulty: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 9.7 Describe six factors that influence the type of movement and range of motion possible at a synovial joint.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.7 Factors Affecting Contact and Range of Motion at Synovial Joints Section Reference 2: Sec 9.10 Shoulder Joint Question type: Multiple Choice 70) When the knee is flexed, the posterior cruciate ligament is loose and the anterior cruciate ligament is taut. This example illustrates which factor affecting the range of motion at a synovial joint? a) structure of the articulating bones b) strength and tension of the joint ligaments c) disuse d) contact of soft parts e) hormones.

Answer: b Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.7 Describe six factors that influence the type of movement and range of motion possible at a synovial joint.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.7 Factors Affecting Contact and Range of Motion at Synovial Joints 71) Which feature(s) of ball and socket joints are composed of fibrocartilage? Select all that apply. a) menisci b) labrums

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Deleted: Exhibit 9.B Shoulder Joint

c) ligaments d) tendons e) articular cartilage Answer 1: a Answer 2: b Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.13 Describe the main anatomical components of the knee joint and explain the movements that can occur at this joint.

Section Reference 1: 9.13 Knee Joint 72) The line is pointing to the ligament which

a) limits hyperextension b) prevents anterior sliding of the femur on the tibia c) strengthens the lateral aspect of the joint d) strengthens the medial aspect of the joint Answer: a Shuffle: Yes

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Bloomcode: Application Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.13 Describe the main anatomical components of the knee joint and explain the movements that can occur at this joint.

Section Reference 1: 9.13 Knee Joint 73) The structure that the line is pointing to is attached to which other potion of this synovial joint?

a) synovial membrane b) fibrous capsule c) posterior cruciate ligament d) tibial collateral ligament Answer: b Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Evaluation Difficulty: Hard Study Objective 1: SO 9.13 Describe the main anatomical components of the knee joint and explain the movements that can occur at this joint.

Section Reference 1: 9.13 Knee Joint

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74) The function of the ligament the line is pointing to is

a) strengthens superior part of the articular capsule b) joint mobilization c) secures the long head of the biceps brachii d) helps enlarge the glenoid cavity Answer: a Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.10 Describe the anatomical components of the shoulder joint and the movements that can occur at this joint.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.10 Shoulder Joint

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Deleted: Exhibit 9.B Shoulder Joint

75) The function of the ligament the line is pointing to is

a) strengthens superior part of the articular capsule b) joint stabilization when present c) secures the long head of the biceps brachii d) helps enlarge the glenoid cavity Answer: b Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.10 Describe the anatomical components of the shoulder joint and the movements that can occur at this joint.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.10 Shoulder Joint Question Type: Essay 76. Explain why the shoulder joint is both more mobile and weaker than the hip joint.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard

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Deleted: Exhibit 9.B Shoulder Joint

Bloomcode: Evaluation Study Objective 1: SO 9.4 Describe the properties of synovial joints and their accessory structures.

Study Objective 2: SO 9.4.1 Describe the structure of synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.4 Synovial Joints Solution: The shoulder joint has a shallow socket (the glenoid fossa) into which the head of the humerus fits, and the labrum only slightly deepens the socket. The head of the humerus is larger in relation to the socket. It is deepened by a number of ligaments, but because of its structure, tends to be weaker than the hip joint. It is highly movable and can rotate easily. The hip joint has a deeper socket (acetabulum) into which the head of the femur inserts, and is also strengthened by ligaments. Because of the angle at which the femur fits into its socket, along with the depth of the socket, the hip is a stronger, less mobile joint, made to support the weight of the body.

77) Craniosacral therapy occurs when an individual manipulates the joints in the skull. What are the functional and structural classifications of the joints in the adult skull? Based on your knowledge of the joints in the adult skull, explain why it is not plausible that this manipulation would move the skull bones to influence the flow of cerebrospinal fluid around the brain.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Study Objective 1: SO 9.2 Describe the structure and functions of the three types of fibrous joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.2 Fibrous Joints Solution: Sutures in the skull are structurally classified as fibrous joints and are functionally classified as synarthrosis. Sutures form when the bones of the skull come in contact during development. In infants and children they are slightly movable, but in adults, sutures are immovable. Some sutures will fuse together and are known as a synostosis.

Question Type: Multiple Choice 78) Bending over and touching your toes describes what functional movement in reference to your intervertebral discs? a) synarthrosis b) amphiarthrosis c) diarthrosis Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes

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Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 9.1 Describe the structural and functional classifications of joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.1 Joint Classifications Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints 79) A torn iliofemoral ligament would be classified as a) bursitis. b) a sprain. c) a strain. d) a dislocation. e) an arthrosis.

Answer: b Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.16 Describe the disorders that affect joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect Joints Question type: Text Dropdown 80) The joints between the first pair of ribs and the sternum are structurally classified as [dropdown 1]. The sternocostal joints for the second through seventh pair of ribs are functionally classified as [dropdown 2].

Dropdown 1 choices: cartilaginous fibrous synovial Dropdown 2 choices: amphiarthrosis diarthrosis synarthrosis Answer 1:cartilaginous Answer 2: diarthrosis Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Difficulty: Medium

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Study Objective 1: SO 9.1 Describe the structural and functional classifications of joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.1 Joint Classifications Study Objective 1: SO 9.3 Describe the structure and functions of the three types of cartilaginous joints Section Reference 1: Sec 9.3 Cartilaginous Joints 81) The joints between the first pair of ribs and the manubrium of the sternum are are functionally classified as [dropdown 1], while the joint between the manubrium and body of the sternum is functionally classified as [dropdown 2].

Dropdown choices: amphiarthrosis diarthrosis synarthrosis Answer1: synarthrosis Answer 2: amphiarthrosis Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.1 Describe the structural and functional classifications of joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.1 Joint Classifications Study Objective 1: SO 9.3 Describe the structure and functions of the three types of cartilaginous joints Section Reference 1: Sec 9.3 Cartilaginous Joints 82) Nodding your head yes to answer a question occurs at the [dropdown 1] joint. Shaking your head no to answer a question occurs at the [dropdown 2]. Both movements are occurring at a functionally classified [dropdown 3] joint.

Dropdown 1 & 2 choices: atlanto-occipital atlanto-axial vertebrocostalsutural sternocostal Dropdown 3 choices: amphiarthrosis diarthrosis synarthrosis Answer 1: atlanto-occipital Answer 2: atlanto-axial

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Answer 3: diarthrosis Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.1 Describe the structural and functional classifications of joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.1 Joint Classifications Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Study Objective 1: SO 9.6 Describe the six subtypes of synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.6 Types of Synovial Joints Question type: Multiple Choice 83) Arrange the ligaments in order from superior to inferior location in an anterior view of the shoulder joint.

1. coracoacromial ligament 2. coracohumeral ligament 3. glenohumeral ligament 4. acromioclavicular ligament a) 1, 2, 3, 4 b) 2, 4, 3, 1 c) 3, 2, 4, 1 d) 1, 3, 4, 2 e) 4, 1, 2, 3 Answer: e Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.10 Describe the anatomical components of the shoulder joint and the movements that can occur at this joint.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.10 Shoulder Joint Question type: Text Dropdown 84) The most commonly dislocated synovial joint in adults is the [dropdown 1], while the most vulnerable synovial joint to damage is [dropdown 2].

Dropdown choices: acromioclavicular coxal

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Deleted: Exhibit 9.B Shoulder Joint

elbow glenohumeral patellofemoral tibiofemoral Answer 1: glenohumeral Answer 2: tibiofemoral Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Difficulty: Medium Study Objective 1: SO 9.10 Describe the anatomical components of the shoulder joint and the movements that can occur at this joint.

Study Objective 1: SO 9.13 Describe the main anatomical components of the knee joint and explain the movements that can occur at this joint.

Section Reference 1: 9.10 Shoulder Joint Section Reference 1: 9.13 Knee Joint Question type: Multiple choice 85) The acetabular labrum is an anatomical component of the ______ joint and the glenoid labrum is an anatomical component of the _____ joint. a) Elbow; Tibiofemoral b) Tibiofemoral; Humeroscapular c) Elbow; coxal d) Coxal; Glenohumeral e) Coxal; Tibiofemoral Answer: d Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Difficulty: Easy Study Objective 1: SO 9.10 Describe the anatomical components of the shoulder joint and the movements that can occur at this joint.

Study Objective 1: SO 9.12 Describe the main anatomical components of the hip joint and explain the movements that can occur at this joint.

Section Reference 1: 9.10 Shoulder Joint Section Reference 1: 9.12 Hip Joint

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Package Title: Testbank Course Title: PAP 15e Chapter Number: 10 Shuffle: Yes Case Sensitive: No Question type: Essay 1) Compare and contrast the structural characteristics of the three different types of muscular tissue.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO 10.1 Compare the structure and properties of the three types of muscular tissue.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.1.1 Explain the structural differences among the three types of muscular tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.1 Overview of Muscular Tissue Solution: Both cardiac and skeletal muscle tissues are striated and smooth muscle is not, hence its name. Skeletal muscle cells have more than one nucleus, are large and run parallel to each other. Cardiac muscle cells usually have only one, sometimes two, centrally located nuclei and are branched. They also are connected to each other via gap junctions. Smooth muscle cells are small but form thick layers of hollow organs. Like cardiac muscle cells, some smooth muscle cells communicate via gap junctions. Skeletal muscle is voluntarily controlled while both cardiac and smooth muscle tissue are involuntary and autorhythmic.

Question type: Multiple Choice 2) Which characteristics describe both skeletal and cardiac muscle? a) striations b) autorhymicity c) cell shape d) autonomic control e) somatic control Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Learning Objective 1: LO 10.1 Compare the structure and properties of the three types of muscular tissue.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.1.1 Explain the structural differences among the three types of muscular tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.1 Overview of Muscular Tissue Question type: Multiple Choice 3) Which function do all three muscles perform? a) moving and storing material throughout the body b) generating heat through contractions c) stabilizing the movement of joints d) promoting movement of body structures Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 10.1 Compare the structure and properties of the three types of muscular tissue.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.1.2 Compare the functions and special properties of the three types of muscular tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.1 Overview of Muscular Tissue Question type: Multiple Choice 4) Which property of muscle gives it the ability to stretch without damage? a) electrical excitability b) contractility c) extensibility d) elasticity Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 10.1 Compare the structure and properties of the three types of muscular tissue.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.1.2 Compare the functions and special properties of the three types of muscular tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.1 Overview of Muscular Tissue

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Question type: Multiple Choice 5) The opening of ligand gates on the sarcolemma is directly caused by a) acetylcholine attachment. b) calcium influx into the motor neuron . c) sodium influx into the muscle fiber. d) acetylcholinesterase activity e) all choices are correct Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 10.3 Investigate the origination of muscle action potentials at the neuromuscular junction and the steps involved in the sliding filament mechanism of muscle contraction.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.3.2 Describe how muscle action potentials arise at the neuromuscular junction.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.3 Contraction and Relaxation of Skeletal Muscle Fibers Question type: Multiple Choice 6) The outermost layer of connective tissue surrounding a skeletal muscle is the a) tendon b) ligament c) endomysium d) epimysium e) perimysium Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.2.1 Explain the importance of connective tissue components, blood vessels, and nerves to skeletal muscles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue

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Question type: Multiple Choice 7) Contraction of myofibrils within a muscle fiber begins when a) sodium enters the muscle fiber b) acetylcholine binds to ligand gates c) calcium is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum d) an action potential travels t-tubules e) calcium is moved into the sarcoplasmic reticulum Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Question type: Multiple Choice 8) After the fusion of myoblasts, the muscle fiber loses its ability to a) grow b) lengthen c) contract d) go through mitosis Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.2.2 Describe the microscopic anatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Question type: Multiple Choice

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9) Which correctly lists the sequence of structures that action potentials must move through to excite skeletal muscle contraction? a) sarcolemma, axon of neuron, T tubules b) T tubules, sarcolemma, myofilament c) muscle fiber, axon of neuron, myofibrils d) axon of neuron, sarcolemma, T tubules e) myofibrils, myofilaments, mitochondria Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 10.3 Investigate the origination of muscle action potentials at the neuromuscular junction and the steps involved in the sliding filament mechanism of muscle contraction.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.3.2 Describe how muscle action potentials arise at the neuromuscular junction.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.3 Contraction and Relaxation of Skeletal Muscle Fibers Question type: Text Drop Down 10) The contractile organelles of a skeletal muscle fiber are _________, which are composed of repeating units called ________.

Answer 1 choices: myocytes sarcomeres myofibrils fascicles Answer 1: myofibrilis Answer 2 choices: fascicles myofibrils sarcomeres myocytes Answer 2: sarcomeres

Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.2.2 Describe the microscopic anatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Question type: Multiple Choice 11). Skeletal muscle contraction is triggered to begin when calcium is released from a) myofibrils b) mitochondria c) terminal cisterns of sarcoplasmic reticulum d) T-tubules Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.2.2 Describe the microscopic anatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Question type: Multiple Choice 12) Place the muscle tissue type in order from least to most ability to regenerate. a) smooth, skeletal, cardiac b) skeletal, cardiac, smooth c) cardiac, smooth, skeletal d) skeletal, smooth, cardiac e) cardiac, skeletal, smooth Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 10.10 Explain how muscle fibers regenerate.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.10 Regeneration of Muscular Tissue

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Question type: Multiple Choice

13) Which region of a sarcomere contain thin filaments? a) I band b) A band c) H zone d) Both I band and A band.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Learning Objective 2: SO10.2.3 Distinguish thick filaments from thin filaments.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Question type: Multiple Choice 14) Which regions of the sarcomere contain thick filaments? Select all that apply. a) zone of overlap b) A band c) H zone d) I band Answer 1: a Answer 2: b Answer 3: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.2.3 Distinguish thick filaments from thin filaments.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Question type: Multiple-Selection

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15) Myofibrils contain what type of proteins? Select all that apply. a) contractile proteins. b) regulatory proteins. c) structural proteins. d) tensile proteins Answer 1: a Answer 2: b Answer 3: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.2.4 Describe the functions of skeletal muscle proteins.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Question type: Multiple Choice 16) Which functions as a motor protein in all three types of muscle tissue? a) actin b) myosin c) troponin d) titin e) tropomyosin Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.2.4 Describe the functions of skeletal muscle proteins.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Question type: Multiple-Selection 17) What proteins are found in thin filaments of skeletal muscle fibers? Select all that apply

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a) troponin b) tropomyosin c) myosin d) titin e) actin f) nebulin g) dystrophin Answer1: a Answer 2: b Answer 3: c Answer 4: e Answer 5: f Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.2.4 Describe the functions of skeletal muscle proteins.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Question type: Multiple Choice 18) Which of the regions of a sarcomere contain titin? a) the A band only b) the H zone only c) the zone of overlap only d) from M line to Z disc e) the I band only Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.2.4 Describe the functions of skeletal muscle proteins.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Question type: Multiple Choice

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19) Which protein is used to reinforce the sarcolemma and help transmit the tension generated by the sarcomeres to the tendons? a) troponin b) tropomyosin c) myosin d) actin e) dystrophin Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.2.4 Describe the functions of skeletal muscle proteins.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Question type: Multiple Choice 20) During muscle contractions , thin filaments are pulled towards the a) Z disc. b) H zone. c) M line. d) A band. e) I band.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 10.3 Investigate the origination of muscle action potentials at the neuromuscular junction and the steps involved in the sliding filament mechanism of muscle contraction.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.3.1 Outline the steps involved in the sliding filament mechanism of muscle contraction.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.3 Contraction and Relaxation of Skeletal Muscle Fibers Question type: Multiple-Selection

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21) For crossbridges to occur, what events must happen? Select all that apply. a) ATPase breaks down ATP. b) calcium ions be present in the sarcoplasm. c) myosin binding sites be exposed. d) high amounts of sodium be present in the synaptic cleft e) Acetylcholine be present in the synaptic cleft Answer 1: a Answer 2: b Answer 3: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO 10.3 Investigate the origination of muscle action potentials at the neuromuscular junction and the steps involved in the sliding filament mechanism of muscle contraction.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.3.1 Outline the steps involved in the sliding filament mechanism of muscle contraction.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.3 Contraction and Relaxation of Skeletal Muscle Fibers Question type: Multiple Choice 22) What energizes the myosin head? a) acetylcholine b) calcium ions c) Phosphate release d) ATP hydrolysis reaction e) ADP synthesis Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 10.3 Investigate the origination of muscle action potentials at the neuromuscular junction and the steps involved in the sliding filament mechanism of muscle contraction.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.3.1 Outline the steps involved in the sliding filament mechanism of muscle contraction.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.3 Contraction and Relaxation of Skeletal Muscle Fibers

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Question type: Multiple-Selection 23) For the muscle to contract and relax, what must be present (choose all that apply)? a) ATP b) calcium ions c) ACh d) sodium ions Answer 1: a Answer 2: b Answer 3: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 10.3 Investigate the origination of muscle action potentials at the neuromuscular junction and the steps involved in the sliding filament mechanism of muscle contraction.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.3.1 Outline the steps involved in the sliding filament mechanism of muscle contraction.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.3 Contraction and Relaxation of Skeletal Muscle Fibers Question type: Multiple Choice 24) At the neuromuscular junction, _______must enter the synaptic end bulb to stimulate the release of ____________, which binds to ligand gates so ________can enter the muscle fiber. a) calcium ions; ACh, sodium ions b) sodium ions, calcium ions, ACh c) ACh, calcium ions, sodium ions d) sodium ions, ACh, calcium ions e) calcium ions, sodium ions, ACh Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO 10.3 Investigate the origination of muscle action potentials at the neuromuscular junction and the steps involved in the sliding filament mechanism of muscle contraction Learning Objective 2: LO 10.3.2 Describe how muscle action potentials arise at the neuromuscular junction.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.3 Contraction and Relaxation of Skeletal Muscle Fibers

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25) Which ATP production would be sufficient to run in place for one minute? a) creatine phosphate b) anaerobic cellular respiration c) aerobic cellular respiration Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 10.4 Compare anaerobic and aerobic cellular respiration processes and the factors that contribute to muscle fatigue.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.4.1 Describe the reactions by which muscle fibers produce ATP. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.4 Muscle Metabolism 26) In skeletal muscles, the combined amounts of creatine phosphate and ATP provide enough energy for the muscle to contract maximally for approximately a) 15 seconds. b) 15 minutes. c) 1.5 minutes. d) 5 seconds. e) one minute.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 10.4 Compare anaerobic and aerobic cellular respiration processes and the factors that contribute to muscle fatigue.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.4.1 Describe the reactions by which muscle fibers produce ATP. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.4 Muscle Metabolism Question type: Essay 27) Describe the factors that lead to muscle fatigue.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Learning Objective 1: LO 10.4 Compare anaerobic and aerobic cellular respiration processes and the factors that contribute to muscle fatigue.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.4.1 Describe the reactions by which muscle fibers produce ATP. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.4 Muscle Metabolism Solution: Although the precise mechanisms that cause muscle fatigue are still not clear, several factors are thought to contribute. One is inadequate release of calcium ions from the SR, resulting in a decline of Ca2+ concentration in the sarcoplasm. Depletion of creatine phosphate also is associated with fatigue, but surprisingly, the ATP levels in fatigued muscle often are not much lower than those in resting muscle. Other factors that contribute to muscle fatigue include insufficient oxygen, depletion of glycogen and other nutrients, buildup of lactic acid and ADP, and failure of action potentials in the motor neuron to release enough acetylcholine.

Question type: Multiple Choice 28) Which term describes a somatic motor neuron and all the skeletal muscle fibers it stimulates? a) synapse b) motor unit c) neuromuscular junction d) motor end plate Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 10.5 Describe the structures and processes that affect muscle tension.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.5.1 Describe the structure and function of a motor unit, and define motor unit recruitment.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.5 Control of Muscle Tension 29) A brief contraction of all muscle fibers in a motor unit in response to a single action potential moving down the somatic motor neuron is known as a) unfused tetanus. b) fused tetanus c) wave summation. d) refractory period. e) twitch contraction.

Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 10.5 Describe the structures and processes that affect muscle tension.

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Learning Objective 2: LO 10.5.2 Explain the phases of a twitch contraction.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.5 Control of Muscle Tension Question type: Multiple Choice 30) Why would cardiac muscles have longer refractory periods than skeletal muscles. Choose the best answer? a) to preserve the normal rhythm of the heart and prevent fatigue b) the muscle types contain different contractile proteins c) skeletal muscle is autorhythmic d) skeletal muscles have prolonged calcium influx e) cardiac muscle is not dependent on aerobic respiration to produce ATP Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO 10.8 Describe the main structural and functional characteristics of cardiac muscle tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.8 Cardiac Muscle Tissue Question type: Multiple Choice 31) Motor unit recruitment occurs when there is a(n) [increase] in the number of active motor units within a skeletal muscle. a) increase b) decrease c) no change Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 10.5 Describe the structures and processes that affect muscle tension.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.5.3 Describe how frequency of stimulation affects muscle tension, and how muscle tone is produced.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.5 Control of Muscle Tension Question type: Multiple Choice

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32) World class shot-putters will have a higher percentage of ______in their arm muscles. a) slow oxidative fibers b) fast oxidative fibers c) fast glycolytic fibers Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 10.6 Compare the structure and function of the three types of skeletal muscle fibers.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.6 Types of Skeletal Muscle Fibers Question type: Multiple Choice 33) Which microscopic structure is found only in the cardiac muscle tissue? a) myosin b) tropomyosin c) sarcomeres d) intercalated discs e) striations Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 10.8 Describe the main structural and functional characteristics of cardiac muscle tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.8 Cardiac Muscle Tissue Question type: Multiple Choice 34) Which type of muscle tissue contracts when excited by their own autorhythmic muscle fibers? a) cardiac muscle b) slow twitch oxidative skeletal muscle

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c) multi-unit smooth muscle d) fast twitch glycolytic skeletal muscle Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode:Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 10.1 Compare the structure and properties of the three types of muscular tissue.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.8 Describe the main structural and functional characteristics of cardiac muscle tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.1 Overview of Muscular Tissue and Cardiac Muscle Tissue Section Reference 2: Sec 10.8 Cardiac Muscle Tissue Question type: Multiple Choice 35) Smooth muscle tone is maintained by the prolonged presence of [_____] in the muscle cell’s cytosol? a) ATP b) calcium ions c) sodium ions d) acetylcholine e) oxygen Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 10.9 Describe the main structural and functional characteristics of smooth muscle tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.9 Smooth Muscle Tissue Question type: Multiple Choice 36) On the diagram, which layer is composed of dense irregular and surrounds a muscle?

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a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.2.1 Explain the importance of connective tissue components, blood vessels, and nerves to skeletal muscles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Question type: Multiple Choice

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37) On the diagram, what structure is composed of the three connective tissue layers that extend past the muscle?

a) A b) B c) E d) G e) H Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

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Learning Objective 2: LO 10.2.1 Explain the importance of connective tissue components, blood vessels, and nerves to skeletal muscles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Question type: Multiple Choice 38) On the diagram, a tendon is formed by the merging of which structures?

] a) C, D, and H b) D and E c) H and C d) C and D e) answers a-d are all correct

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Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.2.1 Explain the importance of connective tissue components, blood vessels, and nerves to skeletal muscles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Question type: Multiple Choice 39) Which of the following structures are made of dense regular connective tissue?

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a) F b) A c) I d) Both F and I Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.2.1 Explain the importance of connective tissue components, blood vessels, and nerves to skeletal muscles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Question type: Multiple Choice 40) In the diagram, calcium ions will rush into this area.

a) B b) C c) D Answer: a Difficulty: Hard

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Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO 10.3 Investigate the origination of muscle action potentials at the neuromuscular junction and the steps involved in the sliding filament mechanism of muscle contraction.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.3.2 Describe how muscle action potentials arise at the neuromuscular junction.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.3 Contraction and Relaxation of Skeletal Muscle Fibers

Question type: Multiple Choice 41) In the diagram, acetylcholine is released from ____ and diffuses to _____.

a) A; B b) B; E c) C; A d) D; C e) E; B Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO 10.3 Investigate the origination of muscle action potentials at the neuromuscular junction and the steps involved in the sliding filament mechanism of muscle contraction.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.3.2 Describe how muscle action potentials arise at the neuromuscular junction.

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Section Reference 1: Sec 10.3 Contraction and Relaxation of Skeletal Muscle Fibers Question type: Multiple Choice 42) In the diagram, where would you find stored Ca2+?

a) B b) D c) G d) F e) K Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

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Learning Objective 2: LO 10.2.2 Describe the microscopic anatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Question type: Multiple Choice 43) In the diagram, how do action potentials penetrate the outside of the muscle fiber? .

a) D b) E c) L d) K e) A Answer: A Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.2.2 Describe the microscopic anatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Question type: Multiple Choice 44) In the diagram, what area contains both thick and thin filaments?

a) G b) I c) H d) Both B and C Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.2.2 Describe the microscopic anatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue

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Question type: Multiple Choice 45) In the diagram, which structure helps return a stretched sarcomere to its resting length?

a) B b) C c) E d) Both B and C e) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.2.4 Describe the functions of skeletal muscle proteins.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Question type: Multiple Choice

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46) In the diagram, what structure contains motor proteins that convert the energy in ATP into mechanical movements?

a) C b) A c) E d) D Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.2.4 Describe the functions of skeletal muscle proteins.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Question type: Multiple Choice

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47) In the diagram, where are troponin, tropomyosin and nebulin located?

a) B b) C c) S d) E e) D Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.2.2 Describe the microscopic anatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Question type: Multiple Choice

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48) In the diagram, which structure(s) moves towards the center of the sarcomere (closer together) when the fiber contracts?

a) A b) C c) J d) Both A and C Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.2.2 Describe the microscopic anatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Question type: Multiple Choice

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49) In the diagram, what area is composed of only thick filaments?

a) C b) E c) A d) B e) D Answer: E Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.2.3 Distinguish thick filaments from thin filaments.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Question type: Essay 50) List the four steps of the contraction cycle in order of occurrence. What is needed for these steps to continuously repeat?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 10.3 Investigate the origination of muscle action potentials at the neuromuscular junction and the steps involved in the sliding filament mechanism of muscle contraction.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.3.1 Outline the steps involved in the sliding filament mechanism of muscle contraction.

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Section Reference 1: Sec 10.3 Contraction and Relaxation of Skeletal Muscle Fibers Solution: ATP hydrolysis, attachment of myosin to actin forming crossbridges, the power stroke, then detachment of myosin from actin. The cycle will continue as long as ATP and calcium ions are available.

Question type: Essay 51) How does a nerve impulse elicit a muscle action potential?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 10.3 Investigate the origination of muscle action potentials at the neuromuscular junction and the steps involved in the sliding filament mechanism of muscle contraction.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.3.2 Describe how muscle action potentials arise at the neuromuscular junction.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.3 Contraction and Relaxation of Skeletal Muscle Fibers Solution: A nerve impulse reaches the synaptic end bulb and causes the release of acetylcholine, which diffuses across the synaptic cleft and binds to and activates acetylcholine receptors on the motor end plate. Binding of acetylcholine opens an ion channel in the acetylcholine receptors allowing Na+ to flow into the cell, which generates an action potential in the muscle cell.

Question type: Essay 52) What are the three ways that ATP can be produced in muscle fibers?

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: SO10.4 Compare anaerobic and aerobic cellular respiration processes and the factors that contribute to muscle fatigue.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.4.1 Describe the reactions by which muscle fibers produce ATP. Section Reference 1: Sec 10.4 Muscle Metabolism Solution: ATP can be produced from creatine phosphate, by anaerobic cellular respiration, and by aerobic cellular respiration.

Question type: Essay

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53) What is the major difference between the two types of smooth muscle tissue?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 10.9 Describe the main structural and functional characteristics of smooth muscle tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.9 Smooth Muscle Tissue Solution: In single-unit smooth muscle tissue, action potentials are initiated in response to neurotransmitters, hormones, or an autorhythmic signal. The action potential spreads throughout the tissue by moving through gap junctions that connect all the muscle cells together within the tissue. It is found in the skin and in tubular arrangements that form part of the walls of small arteries and veins and of hollow organs such as the stomach, intestines, uterus, and urinary bladder. In multiunit smooth muscle tissue, muscle cells have few gap junctions with neighboring cells and thus must be excited by their own motor neuron terminal. It is found in the walls of large arteries, in airways to the lungs, in the arrector pili muscles that attach to hair follicles, in the muscles of the iris that adjust pupil diameter, and in the ciliary body that adjusts focus of the lens in the eye.

Question type: Essay 54) In embryonic muscle development, what happens to the somites?

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 10.11 Describe the development of muscles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.11 Development of Muscle Solution: Somite cells differentiate into myotome, dermatome, and sclerotome.

Question type: Multiple Choice 55) Which disorder occurs when little to no proteins are produced to support the sarcolemma? a) muscular hypertrophy b) muscular atrophy c) fibromyalgia d) myasthenia gravis

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e) muscular dystrophy Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 10.13 Describe the disorders that affect the muscular tissues.

Section Reference 1: Disorders - Homeostatic Imbalances Question type: Multiple Choice 56) Which portion of this myogram shows a single twitch of the muscle?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) none of these choices Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 10.5 Describe the structures and processes that affect muscle tension.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.5.3 Describe how frequency of stimulation affects muscle tension, and how muscle tone is produced.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.5 Control of Muscle Tension Question type: Multiple Choice

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57) All of the muscle fibers within the muscle are fully contracted in

a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: D Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 10.5 Describe the structures and processes that affect muscle tension.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.5.3 Describe how frequency of stimulation affects muscle tension, and how muscle tone is produced.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.5 Control of Muscle Tension Question type: Multiple Choice 58) Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker, reducing free intracellular calcium. What stage of the myogram would be affected immediately?

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a) Latent period b) Contraction period c) Relaxation period d) All myogram stages are affected Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO 10.5 Describe the structures and processes that affect muscle tension.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.5.3 Describe how frequency of stimulation affects muscle tension, and how muscle tone is produced.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.5 Control of Muscle Tension Question type: Multiple Choice 59) Thapsigargin is a potent calcium ATPase pump inhibitors. What state of the myogram would be affected immediately?

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a) Latent period b) Contraction period c) Relaxation period d) All myogram stages are affected Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO 10.5 Describe the structures and processes that affect muscle tension.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.5.3 Describe how frequency of stimulation affects muscle tension, and how muscle tone is produced.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.5 Control of Muscle Tension Question type: Multiple Choice 60) When an athlete performs a pull up (raising their chin to a bar while their body hangs), the process of pulling the body up so the chin can touch the bar is a) Concentric b) Eccentric c) Isometric Answer: a

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 10.5 Describe the structures and processes that affect muscle tension.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.5.4 Distinguish between isotonic and isometric contractions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.5 Control of Muscle Tension Question type: Multiple Choice 61) When an athlete performs a pull up (raising their chin to a bar while their body hangs), the process of lowering the body down is a) Concentric b) Eccentric c) Isometric Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 10.5 Describe the structures and processes that affect muscle tension.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.5.4 Distinguish between isotonic and isometric contractions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.5 Control of Muscle Tension Question type: Multiple Choice 62) When an athlete is preparing to perform a pull up, they hang from the bar. At this point, they are performing what type of contractions? a) Concentric b) Eccentric c) Isometric Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 10.5 Describe the structures and processes that affect muscle tension.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.5.4 Distinguish between isotonic and isometric contractions.

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Section Reference 1: Sec 10.5 Control of Muscle Tension Question type: Multiple Choice 63) Strength training would result in a) atrophy of fast oxidative-glycolytic fibers b) hypertrophy of fast oxidative-glycolytic fibers c) hyperplasia of fast oxidative-glycolytic fibers d) conversion of slow oxidative fibers to fast oxidative-glycolytic fibers Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 10.7 Describe the effects of exercise on different types of skeletal muscle fibers.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.7 Exercise and Skeletal Muscle Tissue Question type: Multiple Choice 64) The relaxation phase of a muscle contraction is often prolonged in a fatigued muscle, raising the likelihood of fused summation of action potentials causing painful disturbances to a skeletal muscle. What disturbance is being described? a) fasciculation b) tremor c) fibrillation d) cramp Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 10.13 Describe the disorders that affect the muscular tissues.

Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances Question type: Multiple Choice

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65) Which age group would be most susceptible to an increase in slow oxidative muscle fibers? a) pre-teens (9-12 years old) b) teenagers (13-19 years old) c) 20-29 years old d) 30+ years Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 10.12 Explain the effects of aging on skeletal muscle Section Reference 1: Sec 10.12 Aging and Muscular Tissue Question type: Multiple Choice 66) Mitochondrial activity in skeletal muscle cells are usually efficient, but can have limited ATP production if a) there is pyruvic acid accumulation. b) there is limited O2 availability c) CO2 is produced as a waste product.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 10.4 Compare anaerobic and aerobic cellular respiration processes and the factors that contribute to muscle fatigue.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.4.2 Distinguish between anaerobic and aerobic cellular respiration.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.4 Muscle Metabolism Question type: Multiple Choice 67) After prolonged strenuous exercise has stopped, heavy breathing will often continue for several minutes in order to provide the oxygen needed to a) convert the lactic acid produced during exercise back into glycogen. b) resynthesize creatine phosphate. c) replace oxygen displaced from muscle myoglobin. d) all of these choices are correct

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Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 10.4 Compare anaerobic and aerobic cellular respiration processes and the factors that contribute to muscle fatigue.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.4.2 Distinguish between anaerobic glycolysis and aerobic respiration.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.4 Muscle Metabolism Question type: Multiple Choice 68) Which type of muscle tissue is capable of undergoing the stress-relaxation response when stretched? a) cardiac muscle fibers b) fast glycolytic fibers c) fast oxidative-glycolytic fibers d) multiunit smooth muscle fibers e) single-unit smooth muscle fibers Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 10.9 Describe the main structural and functional characteristics of smooth muscle tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.9 Smooth Muscle Tissue Question type: Multiple Choice 69). Cross bridges are formed during muscle contraction when _____ binds to _____. a) myosin; troponin b) actin; troponin c) myosin; actin d) actin; myosin e) actin; tropomyosin Answer: c Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 10.3 Investigate the origination of muscle action potentials at the neuromuscular junction and the steps involved in the sliding filament mechanism of muscle contraction.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.3.1 Outline the steps involved in the sliding filament mechanism of muscle contraction.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.3 Contraction and Relaxation of Skeletal Muscle Fibers Question type: Multiple Choice 70) In a neuromuscular junction, the effect of acetylcholine (ACh) binding to receptors on the motor end plate lasts only briefly due to a) rapid uptake of the ACh into the myofiber. b) endocytosis of the ACh receptor into the myofiber. c) rapid destruction of ACh in the synaptic cleft by acetylcholinesterase. d) rapid destruction of ACh in the synaptic cleft by monoamine oxidase. e) diffusion of the ACh out of the synaptic cleft.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 10.3 Investigate the origination of muscle action potentials at the neuromuscular junction and the steps involved in the sliding filament mechanism of muscle contraction.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.3.2 Describe how muscle action potentials arise at the neuromuscular junction.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.3 Contraction and Relaxation of Skeletal Muscle Fibers Question type: Multiple Choice 71) The zone of overlap increases during the a) latent period b) contraction period c) relaxation period d) absolute refractory period e) relative refractory period Answer: b

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 10.5 Describe the structures and processes that affect muscle tension.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.5.2 Explain the phases of a twitch contraction.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.5 Control of Muscle Tension Question type: Multiple Choice 72) Muscle damage can be indicated by… a) myoglobin found in blood. b) few mitochondria located in muscle fibers. c) low concentration of creatine kinase in the sarcoplasm. d) slow myosin ATPase. e) high amount of glycogen in the sarcoplasm.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.2.2 Describe the microscopic anatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Question type: Multiple Choice 73) Myasthenia Gravis is an autoimmune disorder that targets the ACh receptors at the NMJ and ultimately reduces the number of available receptors. Predict what happens if you treat the patient with a drug that inhibits the activity of acetylcholinesterase? a) The drug will prevent contraction. b) The drug will cause a weak contraction. c) The drug will increase contraction. d) The drug will cause spasm. .

Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO 10.13 Describe the disorders that affect the muscular tissues.

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Section Reference 1: Disorders - Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect Muscular Tissue Question type: Multiple Choice 74) Leg muscles are predominantly composed of which type of muscle fiber? a) slow oxidative b) fast glycolytic c) fast oxidative-glycolytic d) slow glycolytic e) fast oxidative Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 10.6 Compare the structure and function of the three types of skeletal muscle fibers.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.6 Types of Skeletal Muscle Fibers Question type: Essay Answer: 75) Discuss the steps involved in contraction of smooth muscle and explain why smooth muscle has a slower contraction cycle.

Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO 10.9 Describe the main structural and functional characteristics of smooth muscle tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.9 Smooth Muscle Tissue Solution: Upon neural stimulation of the muscle, Ca2+ stored in the caveolae start to flow into the cell. Calmodulin, the regulatory protein in smooth muscles, will bind with the Ca++ which will activate the enzyme myosin light chain kinase (MLCK). This enzyme will use ATP to add a phosphate to the myosin head so that it can bind to actin so that the contraction can occur. The sliding of the actin and myosin is similar to the skeletal muscle. The slowness of the process is due to slow influx of Ca++ from caveolae into the cells (smooth muscles have a poor SR system, therefore, there is very little intercellular Ca++ storage). Also, the enzyme MLCK works very slowly which in turn causes the muscle to contract slowly.

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Question type: Multiple Choice 76) Writer’s cramp can occur in Anatomy and Physiology lecture class. What factor would most likely contribute to the muscles not being able to relax? a) oxygen being delivered by myoglobin and hemoglobin b) a deficit of ATP keeping myosin from detaching c) calcium being pumped into the sarcoplasmic reticulum d) ACh being degraded by AChE Answer: B Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO 10.4 Compare anaerobic and aerobic cellular respiration processes and the factors that contribute to muscle fatigue.

Learning Objective 2: Describe the factors that contribute to muscle fatigue.

Section Reference 1: Compare anaerobic and aerobic cellular respiration processes and the factors that contribute to muscle fatigue.

Question type: Text Drop Down 77) An action potential depolarizes the synaptic end bulb, which causes openings of _____. The influx of _______ causes exocytosis of _______. The neurotransmitter attaches to _________.

Opening of the channel allows an influx of _____________.

Drop down choices (in correct order) Acetylcholine Calcium ions Ligand gates Sodium ions Voltage gates Voltage gates Ligand gates Sodium ions Answer 1: Voltage gates Answer 2: Calcium ions Answer 3 :Acetylcholine Answer 4: Ligand gates Answer 5: Sodium ions

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 10.3 Investigate the origination of muscle action potentials at the neuromuscular junction and the steps involved in the sliding filament mechanism of muscle contraction.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.3.2 Describe how muscle action potentials arise at the neuromuscular junction.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.3 Contraction and Relaxation of Skeletal Muscle Fibers Question Type: Multiple Choice 78) Which statement explains the sarcomere appearance change during a muscle contraction? a) The light A bands remain at a constant length. b) The I bands lengthen. c) The I bands will only consist of thin filament. d) The h zone shortens as actin filaments slide towards the m-line.

Answer: A Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 10.3 Investigate the origination of muscle action potentials at the neuromuscular junction and the steps involved in the sliding filament mechanism of muscle contraction.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.3.2 Describe how muscle action potentials arise at the neuromuscular junction.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.3 Contraction and Relaxation of Skeletal Muscle Fibers Question Type: Multiple Choice 79) What is the result of acetylcholine attaching to the ligand gates of the motor end plate? a) the sarcolemma increases permeability to sodium b) the positive charge of the sarcolemma decreases c) calcium ions will be actively transported into the SR d) calcium voltage gates on the neurolemma are inactive

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Answer: A Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 10.3 Investigate the origination of muscle action potentials at the neuromuscular junction and the steps involved in the sliding filament mechanism of muscle contraction.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.3.2 Describe how muscle action potentials arise at the neuromuscular junction.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.3 Contraction and Relaxation of Skeletal Muscle Fibers Question Type: Text Entry 80) The drug dantrolene inhibits release of calcium into the sarcoplasm. Dantrolene affects the ____ _____.

Answer 1: terminal Answer 2: cistern Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation

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Learning Objective 1: LO 10.3 Investigate the origination of muscle action potentials at the neuromuscular junction and the steps involved in the sliding filament mechanism of muscle contraction.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.3.1 Outline the steps involved in the sliding filament mechanism of muscle contraction.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.3 Contraction and Relaxation of Skeletal Muscle Fibers Question Type: Label an Image (text) 81) Lidocain inhibits the ion movement required to initiate and conduct impulses on a muscle cell. What area does lidocaine affect (place your answer in the box below)?

Answer: motor end plates Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 10.3 Investigate the origination of muscle action potentials at the neuromuscular junction and the steps involved in the sliding filament mechanism of muscle contraction.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.3.2 Describe how muscle action potentials arise at the neuromuscular junction.

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Section Reference 1: Sec 10.3 Contraction and Relaxation of Skeletal Muscle Fibers Question Type: Text Drop Down 82) Match the terms to their actions.

Which of the following wraps around groups of muscles? _________:wraps around groups of muscles _________:encircles muscle _________:encircles fascicles _________:separates muscle fibers Drop Down Choices: Endomysium Epimysium Fascia Perimysium Answer 1: Fascia Answer 2: Epimysium Answer 3: Perimysium Answer 4: Endomysium Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.2.1 Explain the importance of connective tissue components, blood vessels, and nerves to skeletal muscles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Question Type: Multiple Choice 83) Why will and individual who lifts weights build larger muscles? a) skeletal muscles are hyperplasic and respond to stress b) skeletal muscle myofibrils and cells increase in number c) skeletal muscles increase number of myofibrils but not number of cells d) skeletal muscles signal satellite cells to increase number of cells Answer: c

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 10.7 Describe the effects of exercise on different types of skeletal muscle fibers.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.7 Exercise and Skeletal Muscle Tissue Question Type: Label Drag and Drop 84) Drag and drop terms to their correct classification.

Word bank: Auto rhythmic Calmodulin Involuntary Myosin and actin Striated Well developed SR Answers: Blank 1: Auto rhythmic Blank 2: Involuntary Blank 3: Calmodulin

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Blank 4: Myosin and actin Blank 5: Striated Blank 6: Well developed SR Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective 1: LO 10.1 Compare the structure and properties of the three types of muscular tissue.

Learning Objective 2: LO 10.1.1 Explain the structural differences among the three types of muscular tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.1 Overview of Muscular Tissue Question Type: Text Dropdown 85) Choose the correct term based on the feature Answers: ___________: Resists fatigue ___________: Uses aerobic and anaerobic ___________: Lowest myoglobin content Choices: Fast Glycolytic Fast Oxidative Glycolytic Slow oxidative Answer 1: Slow oxidative Answer 2: Fast Oxidative Glycolytic Answer 3: Fast Glycolytic Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 10.6 Compare the structure and function of the three types of skeletal muscle fibers.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.6 Types of Skeletal Muscle Fibers

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Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pap15 Chapter Number: 12 Shuffle: Yes Case Sensitive: No Question type: Multiple Selection 1) Which is a function of the nervous system? Select all that apply. a) Sensory function b) Integrative function c) Motor function d) Contractility e) Elasticity Answer 1: a Answer 2: b Answer 3: c Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO12.1 Describe the structures and functions of the nervous system.

Learning Objective 2: LO12.1.2 Describe the three basic functions of the nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.1 Overview of the Nervous System Question type: Multiple Choice 2) Which division of the peripheral nervous system only innervates the gastrointestinal tract’s wall? a) Somatic nervous system b) Autonomic nervous system c) Enteric nervous system d) Parasympathetic nervous system e) Sympathetic nervous system Answer: c Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO12.1 Describe the structures and functions of the nervous system.

Learning Objective 2: LO12.1.1 Describe the organization of the nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.1 Overview of the Nervous System 3) The motor portion of the autonomic nervous system can be divided into a) somatic and sympathetic divisions. b) somatic and parasympathetic divisions. c) enteric and somatic divisions. d) sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions. e) voluntary and involuntary divisions.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO12.1 Describe the structures and functions of the nervous system.

Learning Objective 2: LO12.1.1 Describe the organization of the nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.1 Overview of the Nervous System Question type: Multiple Selection 4) Electrical excitability is seen in which cell? Select all that apply. a) Muscle cells b) Neurons c) Microglial cell d) Ependymal cell e) Satellite Cell Answer 1: a Answer 2: b Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO12.2 Compare the structures and functions of nervous system components.

Learning Objective 2: LO12.2.1 Contrast the histological characteristics and the functions of neurons and neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.2 Histology and Functions of Neurons

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5) Which organelle is a common site of protein synthesis in neurons? a) mitochondria b) nucleus c) Nissl body d) Golgi apparatus e) nucleolus Answer: c Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO12.2 Compare the structures and functions of nervous system components.

Learning Objective 2: LO12.2.1 Contrast the histological characteristics and the functions of neurons and neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.2 Histology and Functions of Neurons Question type: Multiple Selection 6) With respect to neurons, the term “nerve fiber” refers to what structure? Select all that apply. a) an axon b) a dendrite c) a Nissl body d) microtubules e) neurofibrils Answer: ab Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO12.2 Compare the structures and functions of nervous system components.

Learning Objective 2: LO12.2.1 Contrast the histological characteristics and the functions of neurons and neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.2 Histology and Functions of Neurons 7) This type of neuron has one dendrite and one axon emerging from the cell body.

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a) Multipolar neuron b) Bipolar neuron c) Unipolar neuron d) Purkinje cell e) Pyramidal cell Answer: b Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2 Compare the structures and functions of nervous system components.

Learning Objective 2: LO12.2.1 Contrast the histological characteristics and the functions of neurons and neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.2 Histology and Functions of Neurons 8) After birth Schwanncells a) form myelin sheaths around axons in the central nervous system. b) stop myelinating neurons in the peripheral nervous system. c) lose their ability to regenerate neurons. d) increase their presence and amount of myelination in the peripheral nervous system. e) wrap around multiple parts of several axons forming nodes of Ranvier Answer: d Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2 Compare the structures and functions of nervous system components.

Learning Objective 2: LO12.2.1 Contrast the histological characteristics and the functions of neurons and neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.2 Histology and Functions of Neurons 9) Which type of central nervous system tissue contains neuronal cell bodies, dendrites, unmyelinated axons, axon terminals, and neuroglial cells? a) Gray matter b) White matter c) Nissl bodies d) Ganglia

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Answer: a Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2 Compare the structures and functions of nervous system components.

Learning Objective 2: LO12.2.2 Distinguish between gray matter and white matter Section Reference 1: Sec 12.2 Histology and Functions of Neurons Question Type: Multiple Selection 10) Which ion channelsare used in the production of electrical signals in neurons? Select all that apply a) Leak channel b) Voltage-gated channel c) Ligand-gated channel d) Mechanically gated channel e) Enzymatic channel f) Cell recognition channel Answer 1: a Answer 2: b Answer 3: c Answer 4: d Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO12.3 Describe the types of electrical signals that permit communication among neurons.

Learning Objective 2: LO12.3.2 Compare the basic types of ion channels, and explain how they relate to graded potentials and action potentials.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.3 Electrical Signals in Neurons: An Overview 11) All of the following statements are true for which type of cell?

• has a charge imbalance across its membrane.

• includes most cells of the body.

• exhibits a membrane potential. inside is more negative relative to outside. a) Nonpolarized cell b) Polarized cell

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c) Neutral cell d) Electrogenic cell Answer: b Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO12.4 Describe the factors that maintain a resting membrane potential.

Section Reference 1: 12.4 Resting Membrane Potential 12) Na+/K+–ATPase is considered to be an electrogenic pump because a) it contributes to the negativity of the resting membrane potential. b) the sodium ions are negatively charged. c) it exhibits low permeability. d) it hydrolyzes ADP into ATP. e) destroys the resting membrane potential.

Answer: a Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO12.4 Describe the factors that maintain a resting membrane potential.

Section Reference 1: 12.4 Resting Membrane Potential 13) A depolarizing graded potential a) makes the membrane more polarized. b) makes the membrane less polarized. c) occurs when chloride enters the cytosol. d) occurs when acetylcholine enters the cytosol. e) occurs on the axon.

Answer: b Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Medium (H if needed) Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO12.5 Describe how a graded potential is generated. .

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.5 Graded Potentials

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14) When a graded potential summates to threshold at the axon hillock, a) ligand-gated Ca+2 channels close rapidly. b) voltage-gated Ca+2 channels open rapidly. c) ligand-gated Na+ channels close rapidly. d) voltage-gated Na+ channels open rapidly. e) ligand-gated K+ channels open rapidly.

Answer: d Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO12.6 Describe the phases and propagation of an action potential..

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.6 Action Potentials 15) During the resting state of a voltage-gated Na+ channel, 1. the inactivation gate is open.

2. the activation gate is closed.

3. the channel is permeable to Na+. a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) both 1 and 2 are true. e) all of these choices are true.

Answer: d Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO12.6 Describe the phases and propagation of an action potential.

Learning Objective 2: LO12.6.1 Describe the phases of an action potential Section Reference 1: Sec 12.6 Action Potentials 16) These statements describe what part of an action potential?

• Sodium activation gates are closed • Sodium inactivation gates are open • Potassium gates are open • Repolarization is occurring a) Latent period

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b) Absolute refractory period c) Relative refractory period d) depolarizing phase e) repolarizing phase Answer: c Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO12.6 Describe the phases and propagation of an action potential.

Learning Objective 2: LO12.6.1 Describe the phases of an action potential.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.6 Action Potentials 17) Saltatory conduction is described by which statements?

1) current passes through the entire unmyelinated axon membrane 2) current passes through a myelinated axon only at the nodes of Ranvier 3) current occurs at faster rates 4) voltage-gated channels are concentrated in unmyelinated regions 5) More energy is used to increase speed of conduction a) 1, 3, 4 b) 2, 4, 5 c) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 d) 1, 5 e) 2, 3, 4 Answer: e Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO12.6 Describe the phases and propagation of an action potential.

Learning Objective 2: LO12.6.2 Discuss how action potentials are propagated.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.6 Action Potentials 18) The nervous system can distinguish between a light touch and a heavier touch because a) weak stimuli generate action potentials more often than strong stimuli. b) all action potentials are alike regardless of stimulus intensity. c) the frequency of impulses sent to sensory centers is changing. d) the threshold is lower for different sensations. e) the length of the refractory period is modified.

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Answer: c Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO12.6 Describe the phases and propagation of an action potential.

Learning Objective 2: LO12.6.2 Discuss how action potentials are propagated.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.6 Action Potentials 19) Faster communication and synchronization are two advantages of a) chemical synapses b) electrical synapses c) graded potentials d) action potentials e) Na+-K+ ATPases Answer: b Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO12.7 Describe signal transmission and the effects of summation and neurotransmitters on synapses..

Learning Objective 2: LO12.7.1 Explain the events of signal transmission at electrical and chemical synapses.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.7 Signal Transmission at Synapses 20) An excitatory neurotransmitter _____ the postsynaptic membrane. a) depolarizes b) repolarizes c) hyperpolarizes d) does not affect the polarity of e) creates a synaptic delay at Answer: a Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO12.7 Describe signal transmission and the effects of summation and neurotransmitters on synapses..

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Learning Objective 2: LO12.7.3 Give examples of excitatory and inhibitory neurotransmitters, and describe how they act.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.7 Signal Transmission at Synapses 21) Diffusion, enzymatic degradation, and uptake by cells are all ways to a) remove a neurotransmitter b) stop a spatial summation c) continue a temporal summation d) inhibit a presynaptic potential e) excite a presynaptic potential Answer: a Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO12.7 Describe signal transmission and the effects of summation and neurotransmitters on synapses..

Learning Objective 2: LO12.7.1 Explain the events of signal transmission at electrical and chemical synapses.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.7 Signal Transmission at Synapses

Question type: Multiple Selection 22) What events must occur for the creation of an action potential? Select all that apply. a) Neurotransmitters must be released into the synaptic cleft. b) Summation of depolarizing graded potential. c) Threshold at the trigger zone. d) Summation of hyperpolarizing graded potential. e) Glycine attaches to a ligand gate.

Answer 1: b Anwer 2: c Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesize Learning Objective 1: LO12.6 Describe the phases and propagation of an action potential..

Learning Objective 2: LO12.6. Describe the phases of an action potential.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.6 Action Potentials

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23) A postsynaptic neuron responds to acetylcholine neurotransmitter by creating a) EPSP b) IPSP c) either EPSP or IPSP d) neither EPSP or IPSP Answer: c Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO12.7 Describe signal transmission at a chemical synapse, summation, and excitatory and inhibitory neurotransmitters.

Learning Objective 2: LO12.7.3 Give examples of excitatory and inhibitory neurotransmitters, and describe how they act..

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.7 Signal Transmission at Synapses 24) This type of neural circuit consists of a single presynaptic neuron synapsing with several postsynaptic neurons. a) Diverging circuit b) Converging circuit c) Reverberating circuit d) Parallel after-discharge circuit e) Simple series circuit Answer: a Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO12.9 Identify the various types of neural circuits in the nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.9 Neural Circuits 25) Plasticity means the ability to a) regenerate after being damaged. b) communicate by hormones c) convert stimulus into an action potential. d) change based on experience. e) stretch and recoil without damage.

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Answer: d Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO12.10 Explain the events involved in regeneration and repair of nervous tissue.

Learning Objective 2: LO12.10.1 Define plasticity and neurogenesis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.10 Regeneration and Repair of Nervous Tissue Question type: Essay 26) What factors limit neurogenesis in the CNS of adults?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO12.10 Explain the events involved in regeneration and repair of nervous tissue.

Learning Objective 2: LO12.10.1 Define plasticity and neurogenesis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.10 Regeneration and Repair of Nervous Tissue Solution: Neurogenesis in adults is limited by: 1) Inhibitory influences from neuroglia, mainly from oligodendrocytes, and 2) the absence of growth-stimulating cues present during fetal development.

27) Describe four ways drugs can modify the effects of neurotransmitters.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO12.8 Describe the classes and functions of neurotransmitters.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.8 Neurotransmitters Solution: Drugs can modify neurotransmitter effects by: 1) stimulating or inhibiting their synthesis, 2) enhancing or blocking their release, 3) activating or blocking their receptor, and 4) stimulating or inhibiting their removal.

28) List the three ways that neurotransmitters can be removed from a synapse.

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Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO12.8 Describe the classes and functions of neurotransmitters.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.8 Neurotransmitters Solution: Neurotransmitters can be removed by: 1) diffusion, 2) enzymatic degradation or 3) uptake by cells.

29) List the three major factors that contribute to the creation of the resting membrane potential in excitable cells.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO12.4 Describe the factors that maintain a resting membrane potential..

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.4 Resting Membrane Potential Solution: The major factors that lead to creation of resting potential are: 1) unequal distribution of ions across the plasma membrane, 2) inability of most anions to leave the cell, and 3) the electrogenic nature of the Na+, K+ -ATPase.

30) Describe the events that occur with the voltage-gated sodium channel during the depolarizing phase of an action potential.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 2: LO12.6 Describe the phases and propagation of an action potential..

Study Objective 3: 12.6.1 SO Describe the phases of an action potential.

Section Reference 1: 12.6 Action Potentials Solution: At resting, the inactivation gate of the sodium voltage gate is open and the activation gate is closed. Voltage-gated Na+ channels activation gate opens rapidly allowing Na+ to rush into the cell driven by both the electrical and chemical gradient. The inward rush of Na+ causes the membrane potential to become less negative, resulting in depolarization.

Question type: Multiple Selection

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31) Which part of the neuron in this diagram would be called a nerve fiber? Select all that apply.

a) A b) B c) D d) E e) I Answer 1: a Answer 2: c Answer 3: d Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2 Compare the structures and functions of nervous system components.

Learning Objective 2: LO12.2.1 Contrast the histological characteristics and the functions of neurons and neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.2 Histology and Functions of Neurons

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Question Type: Multiple Choice 32) Which part of the neuron in this diagram produces proteins that can regenerate damaged axons in the PNS?

a) A b) B c) C d) E e) Both A and B Answer: b Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2 Compare the structures and functions of nervous system components.

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Learning Objective 2: LO12.2.1 Contrast the histological characteristics and the functions of neurons and neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.2 Histology and Functions of Neurons 33) Which part of the neuron in this diagram will contain voltage-gated ion channels?

a) A b) B c) E d) F e) G Answer: e Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: 12.3 Describe the types of electrical signals that permit communication among neurons.

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Learning Objective 2: LO 12.3.2 Compare the basic types of ion channels, and explain how they relate to graded potentials and action potentials.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.3 Electrical Signals in Neurons: An Overview Question Type: Multiple Selection 34) In the diagram, where do graded potentials occur? Select all that apply?.

a) A b) B c) C d)D e) E f) F g) G h) H i) I

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Answer 1: a Answer 2: b Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: 12.5 Describe how a graded potential is generated.Section Reference 2: Sec 12.5 Graded Potentials 35) Which of the neurons is located deep in the dermis or hypodermis and detect deep pressure? a) corpuscle of touch b) nociceptor c) pacinian Corpuscle d) tactile epithelial cell Answer: c Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO12.2 Compare the structures and functions of nervous system components.12.2 Compare the structures and functions of nervous system components.

Learning Objective 2: LO12.2.1 Contrast the histological characteristics and the functions of neurons and neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.2 Histology and Functions of Neurons

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36) In this diagram, which structure electrically insulates the axon of a neuron to increase the speed of nerve impulse conduction?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: e Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2 Compare the structures and functions of nervous system components.

Learning Objective 2: LO12.2.1 Contrast the histological characteristics and the functions of neurons and neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.2 Histology and Functions of Neurons

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37) In this diagram, where is a node of Ranvier?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: b Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO1 2.2 Compare the structures and functions of nervous system components.

Learning Objective 2: LO12.2.1 Contrast the histological characteristics and the functions of neurons and neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.2 Histology and Functions of Neurons

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38) In this diagram, which structure would be produced by oligodendrocytes in the central nervous system?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: e Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2 Compare the structures and functions of nervous system components.

Learning Objective 2: LO12.2.1 Contrast the histological characteristics and the functions of neurons and neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.2 Histology and Functions of Neurons

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39) In this diagram, which of these types of channels represents a gate that opens to a depolarizing event?

a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: d Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO12.3 Describe the types of electrical signals that permit communication among neurons.

Learning Objective 2: LO12.3.2 Compare the basic types of ion channels, and explain how they relate to graded potentials and action potentials.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.3 Electrical Signals in Neurons: An Overview

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40) In this diagram, which of these types of channels contributes to more potassium diffusing down their concentration gradient compared to sodium?

a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: a Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO12.3 Describe the types of electrical signals that permit communication among neurons.

Learning Objective 2: LO12.3.2 Compare the basic types of ion channels, and explain how they relate to graded potentials and action potentials.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.3 Electrical Signals in Neurons: An Overview

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41) In this diagram,which of the channels is predominantly located on sensory neurons somas and dendrites and responds to vibration, touch, and stretch?

a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: c Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO12.3 Describe the types of electrical signals that permit communication among neurons.

Learning Objective 2: LO12.3.2 Compare the basic types of ion channels, and explain how they relate to graded potentials and action potentials.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.3 Electrical Signals in Neurons: An Overview

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42) Which diagram represents a circuit that helps coordinated muscular activities, breathing, and short-term memory?

a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: c Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO12.9 Identify the various types of neural circuits in the nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.9 Neural Circuits

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43) Which diagram represents the type of circuit commonly used to send sensory signals to multiple areas of the brain?

a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: a Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO12.9 Identify the various types of neural circuits in the nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.9 Neural Circuits

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44) Which diagram represents the type of circuit used to solve algorithms and geometry?

a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: d Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO12.9 Identify the various types of neural circuits in the nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.9 Neural Circuits

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45) Which diagram represents the type of circuit involved in controlling the movement of the biceps brachii and triceps brachii skeletal muscles?

a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: b Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO12.6 Identify the various types of neural circuits in the nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.6 Neural Circuits

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46) The cell body of what neuron(s) in this diagram is/are found in gray matter of the spinal cord?

a) A b) B c) unipolar neuron d) A & B e) A & C Answer: a Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2 Compare the structures and functions of nervous system components.

Learning Objective 2: LO12.2.2 Distinguish between gray matter and white matter.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.2 Histology and Functions of Neurons 47) The neuron labeled B in this diagram would be classified as what type of functional neuron?

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a) somatic sensory neuron b) special senses neuron c) motor neuron d) association neuron Answer: b Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2 Compare the structures and functions of nervous system components.

Learning Objective 2: LO12.2.1 Contrast the histological characteristics and the functions of neurons and neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.2 Histology and Functions of Neurons 48) Which of the following structures is labeled A in the diagram?

a) axon terminal b) trigger zone c) cell body d) peripheral process e) dendrites

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Answer: e Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO12.2 Compare the structures and functions of nervous system components.12.2 Compare the structures and functions of nervous system components.

Learning Objective 2: LO12.2.1 Contrast the histological characteristics and the functions of neurons and neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.2 Histology and Functions of Neurons 49) Which of the structures in this diagram would be included in a ganglion?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: c Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2 Compare the structures and functions of nervous system components.

Learning Objective 2: LO12.2.1 Contrast the histological characteristics and the functions of neurons and neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.2 Histology and Functions of Neurons 50) Which of the structures in this diagram contains a higher amount of voltage-gated sodium channels where action potentials are propagated?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: b Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2 Compare the structures and functions of nervous system components.

Learning Objective 2: LO12.2.1 Contrast the histological characteristics and the functions of neurons and neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.2 Histology and Functions of Neurons

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Question Type: Text Dropdown 51) Mechanically-gated channels are located at letter [dropdown 1] in this diagram and will be involved with the formation of [dropdown 2].

Dropdown 1 choices: A B D E Dropdown 2 choices: an action potential a graded potential Answer 1: A Answer 2: a graded potential Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO12.3 Describe the types of electrical signals that permit communication among neurons.

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Learning Objective 2: LO12.3.2 Compare the basic types of ion channels, and explain how they relate to graded potentials and action potentials.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12. 3 Electrical Signals in Neurons: An Overview

52) Sodium and potassium voltage gates are located at letter [dropdown 1] and will be involved with forming [dropdown 2] .

Dropdown 1 choices: A B C D Dropdown 2 choices: an action potential a graded potential Answer 1: b Answer 2: an action potential Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

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Learning Objective 1: LO12.3 Describe the types of electrical signals that permit communication among neurons.

Learning Objective 2: LO12.3.2 Compare the basic types of ion channels, and explain how they relate to graded potentials and action potentials.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12. 3 Electrical Signals in Neurons: An Overview 53) Which of the following types of neurons is the most common type of neuron found in the brain and spinal cord? a) bipolar neuron b) multipolar neuron c) unipolar neuron d) pseudounipolar Answer: b Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2 Compare the structures and functions of nervous system components.

Learning Objective 2: LO12.2.1 Contrast the histological characteristics and the functions of neurons and neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.2 Histology and Functions of Neurons 54) Integration of information will occur in the [dropdown 1] of the spinal cord and brain, and is performed by unmyelinated [dropdown 2] neurons.

Dropdown 1 choices: gray matter white matter Dropdown 2 choices: bipolar multipolar pseudounipolar unipolar Answer 1: gray matter Answer 2: multipolar Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluate

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Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2 Compare the structures and functions of nervous system components.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.2.2 Distinguish between gray matter and white matter.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.2 Histology and Functions of Neurons Question type: Multiple Choice 55) Which of the following types of neurons is exclusively found in the cerebellum? a) bipolar neuron b) multipolar neuron c) Purkinje cells d) unipolar neuron e) pyramidal cells Answer: c Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO.12.2 Compare the structures and functions of nervous system components.

Learning Objective 2: LO12.2.1 Contrast the histological characteristics and the functions of neurons and neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.2 Histology and Functions of Neurons 56) What specific type of unipolar neuron detects a sharp pain? a) tactile epithelial cells (Merkel disc) b) corpuscle of touch (Meissner corpuscle) c) lamellated (Pacinian) corpuscle d) nociceptor Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2 Compare the structures and functions of nervous system components.

Learning Objective 2: LO12.2.1 Contrast the histological characteristics and the functions of neurons and neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.2 Histology and Functions of Neurons

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57) Which of the cells in this diagram sends electrical signals to glands, muscles and other neurons?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) F Answer: c Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2 Compare the structures and functions of nervous system components.

Learning Objective 2: LO12.2.1 Contrast the histological characteristics and the functions of neurons and neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.2 Histology and Functions of Neurons

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58) Which of the cells in the diagram produces a myelin sheath but lacks a neurolemma?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) F Answer: a Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 12.2 Compare the structures and functions of nervous system components.

Learning Objective 2: LO12.2.1 Contrast the histological characteristics and the functions of neurons and neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.2 Histology and Functions of Neurons

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59) Which of the labeled cells in the diagram is a neuroglial cell that can be found in gray or white matter and makes contact with blood capillaries, neurons and pia mater of brain and spinal cord?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) F Answer: a Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO12.2 Compare the structures and functions of nervous system components.

Learning Objective 2: LO12.2.1 Contrast the histological characteristics and the functions of neurons and neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.2 Histology and Functions of Neurons

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60) Which of the labeled cells in the diagram is a neuroglial cell that removes debris and acts as a phagocyte?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) F Answer: b Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO12.2 Compare the structures and functions of nervous system components.

Learning Objective 2: LO12.2.1 Contrast the histological characteristics and the functions of neurons and neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.2 Histology and Functions of Neurons

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61) Which of the labeled cells in the diagram is a neuroglial cell that produces and assists in the circulation of cerebrospinal fluid?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) F Answer: e Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO12.2 Compare the structures and functions of nervous system components.

Learning Objective 2: LO12.2.1 Contrast the histological characteristics and the functions of neurons and neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.2 Histology and Functions of Neurons

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62) Which of these allows more potassium to exit the neuron and helps in maintaining the resting membrane potential? a) leak channel b) ligand-gated channel c) mechanically gated channel d) voltage-gated channel Answer: a Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO12.3 Describe the types of electrical signals that permit communication among neurons.

Learning Objective 2: LO12.3.2 Compare the basic types of ion channels, and explain how they relate to graded potentials and action potentials.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.3 Electrical Signals in Neurons: An Overview Question type: Multiple Selection 63) Which types of membrane channels can cause an IPSP on a neuron when acetylcholine binds to the receptor? Select all that apply. a) leakchannel b) ionotropic ligand-gated channels c) mechanically gated channels d) voltage-gated channels e) metabotropic ligand-gated channels Answer 1: b Answer 2: e Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluate Learning Objective 3: LO12. 7 Describe signal transmission and the effects of summation and neurotransmitters on synapses.

Learning Objective 4: LO12.7.3 Give examples of excitatory and inhibitory neurotransmitters, and describe how they act.

Section Reference 2: 12.7 Signal Transmissions at Synapses

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Question type: Multiple Choice 64) __________open and close in response to physical deformation of receptors. a) Leak channels b) Ligand-gated channels c) Mechanically gated channels d) Voltage-gated channels Answer: c Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO12.3 Describe the types of electrical signals that permit communication among neurons.

Learning Objective 2: LO12.3.2 Compare the basic types of ion channels, and explain how they relate to graded potentials and action potentials.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.3 Electrical Signals in Neurons: An Overview Question type: Text Dropdown 65) [dropdown 1] open in response to changes in membrane potential and are located in axolemma of all types of neurons. [dropdown 2] are only located in the membrane of synaptic end bulbs.

Dropdown 1 choices: Leak channel Ligand-gated channels Mechanically gated channels Voltage-gated channels Dropdown 2 choices: Voltage-gated calcium channels Voltage-gated chloride channels Voltage-gated potassium channels Voltage-gated sodium channels Answer 1: voltage-gated channels Answer 2: Calcium voltage-gated channels Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 12.7 Describe signal transmission and the effects of summation and neurotransmitters on synapses.

Learning Objective 2: LO12.7.1 Explain the events of signal transmission at electrical and chemical synapses.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.7 Signal Transmissions at Synapses Question Type: Multiple choice 66) Chromatolysis refers to a) break up of lysosomes after neural injury. b) Wallerian degeneration after neural injury. c) plasticity of neuron. d) break up of Nissl bodies after neural injury. e) none of these choices Answer: d Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO12.10 Explain the events involved in regeneration and repair of nervous tissue. Learning Objective 2: LO12.10.2 Describe the events involved in damage and repair of peripheral nerves.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.10 Regeneration and Repair of Nervous Tissue 67) Wallerian degeneration refers to a) degeneration of the proximal end of axon and myelin sheath after neural injury. b) degeneration of the distal end of axon and myelin sheath after neural injury. c) break of Nissl bodies after neural injury. d) plasticity of neuron.

Answer: b Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO12.10 Explain the events involved in regeneration and repair of nervous tissue.

Learning Objective 2: LO12.10.2 Describe the events involved in damage and repair of peripheral nerves.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.10 Regeneration and Repair of Nervous Tissue

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Question type: Essay 68) Describe the difference between spatial and temporal summation in a postsynaptic neuron.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO12.7 Describe signal transmission and the effects of summation and neurotransmitters on synapses..

Learning Objective 2: LO12.7.2 Distinguish between spatial and temporal summation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.7 Signal Transmission at Synapses Solution: Spatial summation is summation of postsynaptic potentials in response to stimuli that occur at different locations in the membrane of a postsynaptic cell at the same time. This typically occurs when multiple presynaptic neurons synapse with one postsynaptic neuron and fire simultaneously. Temporal summation is summation of postsynaptic potentials in response to stimuli that occur at the same location in the membrane of the postsynaptic cell but at different times. This typically occurs when one presynaptic neuron fires in rapid succession leading to a summing of the resulting EPSPs, which then triggers the generation of action potentials in the postsynaptic neuron as it moves above threshold.

Question type: Multiple Choice 69) Hearing your cell phone ring in an quiet lecture hall is an example of which nervous system functions? a) Sensory function b) Integrative function c) Motor function d) More than one of the types of nervous system functions Answer: a Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO12.1 Describe the structures and functions of the nervous system.

Learning Objective 2: LO12.1.2 Describe the three basic functions of the nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.1 Overview of the Nervous System

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70) Which electrical signal can allow for rapid long-distance communication within the nervous system? a) resting potential b) nerve action potential c) muscle action potential d) graded potential Answer: b Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO12.3 Describe the types of electrical signals that permit communication among neurons.

Learning Objective 2: LO12.3.1 Describe the cellular properties that permit communication among neurons and effectors.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.3 Electrical Signals in Neurons: An Overview 71) In an action potential, the electric current that flows is generated by the movement of _____ across the membrane. a) electrons b) protons c) ions d) chemicals e) neutrons Answer: c Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO12.3 Describe the types of electrical signals that permit communication among neurons.

Learning Objective 2: LO12.3.1 Describe the cellular properties that permit communication among neurons and effectors.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.3 Electrical Signals in Neurons: An Overview 72) In the process of spatial summation, _____ are added together and _____ are subtracted from that total to determine whether _____ will be created at the trigger zone of the postsynaptic neuron. a) EPSPs; IPSPs; action potentials

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b) IPSPs; EPSPs; action potentials c) EPSPs; IPSPs; graded potentials d) IPSPs; action potentials; EPSPs e) EPSPs; action potentials; IPSPs Answer: a Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective 1: LO12.7 Describe signal transmission and the effects of summation and neurotransmitters on synapses..

Learning Objective 2: LO12.7.2 Distinguish between spatial and temporal summation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.7 Signal Transmission at Synapses 73) In temporal summation, a single presynaptic neuron stimulates the creation of action potentials in a postsynaptic neuron when it a) stops firing long enough to allow the postsynaptic neuron to recover. b) fires at a fast enough rate that the sum of EPSPs in the postsynaptic neuron moves above threshold. c) fires at a steady rate that allows the postsynaptic neuron to return to resting potential. d) recruits other presynaptic neurons to begin to fire.

Answer: b Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO12.7 Describe signal transmission and the effects of summation and neurotransmitters on synapses..

Learning Objective 2: LO12.7.2 Distinguish between spatial and temporal summation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.7 Signal Transmission at Synapses 74) Which neurotransmitters are used in virtually all of the inhibitory synapses found in the spinal cord? a) gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA) and acetylcholine b) gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA) and glycine c) epinephrine and norepinephrine d) serotonin and melatonin e) glutamate and aspartate

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Answer: b Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO12.8 Describe the classes and functions of neurotransmitters.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.8 Sec Neurotransmitters 75) Manic-depressive illness is associated with a) major depression. b) dysthymia. c) bipolar disorder. d) seasonal affective disorder. e) all of these disorders.

Answer: c Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO12.11 Describe the disorders that affect nervous tissue.

Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect Nervous Tissue Question Type: Text Dropdown 76) Sensory receptors such as corpuscle of touch and tactile epithelial cells would be associated with neurons that are classified functionally as [dropdown 1] and structurally as [dropdown 2].

Dropdown 1 and 2 choices: bipolar interneuron motor multipolar sensory unipolar Answer 1: sensory Answer 2: unipolar Shuffle: Yes

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Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesize Learning Objective 1: LO12.2 Compare the structures and functions of nervous system components.12.2 Compare the structures and functions of nervous system components.

Learning Objective 2: LO12.2.1 Contrast the histological characteristics and the functions of neurons and neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.2 Histology and Functions of Neurons 77) Excitatory postsynaptic potentials can occur if there is an influx of [dropdown 1] ions.

Inhibitory postsynaptic potentials can occur if there is an influx of [dropdown 2 ] ions or an efflux of [dropdown 3] ions.

Dropdown 1, 2 & 3 choices: phosphate chloride potassium sodium Answer 1: sodium Answer 2: chloride Answer 3: potassium Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective 1: LO12.7 Describe signal transmission and the effects of summation and neurotransmitters on synapses.

Learning Objective 2: LO 12.7.1 Explain the events of signal transmission at electrical and chemical synapses.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.7 Signal Transmissions at Synapses 78) Depolarization is represented by [dropdown 1]. Repolarization is represented by [dropdown 2]. After-hyperpolarization is represented by [dropdown 3 ].

Dropdown 1, 2, & 3 choices: -70mV à -90mV -55mV à +30mV +30mV à -70mV Answer 1: -55mV à +30mV Answer 2: +30mV à -70mV Answer 3: -70mV à -90mV Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO12.6 Describe the phases and propagation of an action potential.

Learning Objective 2: LO12.6.1 Describe the phases of an action potential Section Reference 1: Sec 12.6 Action Potentials 79) [dropdown 1] occur on unmyelinated axons. [dropdown 2] occur on cell bodies and dendrites. [dropdown 3] occur over short or long distances on myelinated axons. [dropdown 4] occur when ligand or mechanically-gated channels open.

Dropdown 1, 2, 3&4 choices: Action potentials Graded potentials Answer 1: Action potentials Answer 2: Graded potentials Answer 3: Action potentials Answer 4: Graded potentials Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 2: LO12.6 Describe the phases and propagation of an action potential.

Section Reference 2: Sec 12.6 Action Potentials 80) Once the membrane potential reaches a threshold voltage, hundreds of voltage-gated [dropdown 1] channels in that region of the membrane to open briefly. [dropdown 2] ions flood into the cell, completely [dropdown 3] the membrane.

Dropdown 1choices: calcium chloride potassium sodium Dropdown 2 choices Calcium Chloride Potassium Sodium Dropdown 3 choices: depolarizing hyperpolarizing repolarizing

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Answer 1: sodium Answer 2: Sodium Answer 3: depolarizing Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Study Objective 1 SO 12.6 Describe the phases and propagation of an action potential.

Learning Objective 2: LO12.6.1 Describe the phases of an action potential Section Reference 1: Sec 12.6 Action Potentials 80) As the action potential nears its peak, the voltage-gated [dropdown 1] channels close, and voltage-gated [dropdown 2] channels open, allowing cations to flow out of the cell to restore the resting membrane potential.

Dropdown 1& 2 choices: calcium chloride potassium sodium Answer 1: sodium Answer 2: potassium Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1 SO 12.6 Describe the phases and propagation of an action potential.

Learning Objective 2: LO12.6.1 Describe the phases of an action potential Section Reference 1: Sec 12.6 Action Potentials Question type: Multiple Choice 81) During an action potential’s ___________, a second stimulus will not produce a second action potential (no matter how strong that stimulus is). This event corresponds to the period when the __________ remain open and the sodium inactivation gates have not reopened. a) absolute refractory period; voltage-gated sodium channels b) absolute refractory period; voltage-gated potassium channels c) relative refractory period; voltage-gated sodium channels d) relative refractory period; voltage-gated potassium channels

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Answer: b Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1 SO 12.6 Describe the phases and propagation of an action potential.

Learning Objective 2: LO12.6.1 Describe the phases of an action potential Section Reference 1: Sec 12.6 Action Potentials 82) During an action potential’s ___________, a second stimulus can be produced only if the stimulus is greater than the threshold stimulus. This event corresponds to the period when the __________ remain open and sodium inactivation gates have reopened. a) absolute refractory period; sodium voltage-gated channels b) absolute refractory period; potassium voltage-gated channels c) relative refractory period; sodium voltage-gated channels d) relative refractory period; potassium voltage-gated channels Answer: d Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1 SO 12.6 Describe the phases and propagation of an action potential.

Learning Objective 2: LO12.6.1 Describe the phases of an action potential Section Reference 1: Sec 12.6 Action Potentials Question type: Text Dropdown 83) When an impulse arrives at the synaptic end bulb, the membrane becomes more permeable to [dropdown 1]. The ion movement into the synaptic end bulbs causes [dropdown 2] of [dropdown 3] into the synaptic cleft.

Dropdown 1 choices: calcium chloride potassium sodium Dropdown 2 choices: endocytosis exocytosis Dropdown 3 choices:

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electrons ions neurotransmitters protons Answer 1: calcium Answer 2: exocytosis Answer 3: neurotransmitters Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO12.7 Describe signal transmission and the effects of summation and neurotransmitters on synapses..

Learning Objective 2: LO12.7.1 Explain the events of signal transmission at electrical and chemical synapses.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.7 Signal Transmission at Synapses Question type: Multiple choice 84) ____ is a neurotransmitter that is made on demand and can be used for microbial defense. _____is a neurotransmitter that is made on demand and is used for vasodilation and special sensory recognition. a) nitric oxide, enkephalins b) carbon monoxide, nitric oxide c) serotonin; carbon monoxide d) nitric oxide; carbon monoxide e) enkephalins; serotonin Answer: d Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO12.8 Describe the classes and functions of neurotransmitters.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.8 Neurotransmitters 85) Acetylcholine is _________at the neuromuscular junctions and ________ at cardiac muscle in the parasympathetic pathway. a) excitatory; inhibitory b) excitatory; excitatory c) inhibitory; excitatory d) inhibitory; inhibitory

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Answer: a Shuffle: Yes Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO12.8 Describe the classes and functions of neurotransmitters.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.8 Neurotransmitters

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Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pap15 Chapter Number: 13 Shuffle: Yes Case Sensitive: No Question type: Multiple Choice 1) Which spinal meninges is composed of collagen fibers arranged in an irregular pattern that is very strong? a) Arachnoid mater b) Dura mater epineurium d) Pia mater Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy 2) Which structure listed contains cerebrospinal fluid? a) epidural space b) subarachnoid space c) subdural space d) foramen magnum e) posterior median sulcus Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy Question type: Text Dropdown

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3) Denticulate ligaments are thickenings of [dropdown 1] that extend and fuse with the [dropdown 2] and inner surface of the [dropdown 3] Dropdown choices: arachnoid mater dura mater pia mater Answer 1: pia mater Answer 2: arachnoid mater Answer 3: dura mater Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy Question type: Multiple Choice 4) The nerves that supply the thigh and calf of leg emerge from the a) lumbar enlargement b) filum terminale c) cauda equina d) conus medullaris e) cervical enlargement Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy 5) If these structures were severed, the nerve impulses from pain and stretch receptors would not reach the CNS.

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a) white columns b) gray horns c) anterior root of spinal nerves d) posterior root of spinal nerves e) rami communicantes Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Describe the components, covering and distribution of spinal nerves Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Spinal nerves 6) Which layer of protective connective tissue covers a nerve and fuses with the outer menix layer? a) dura mater b) pia mater c) endoneurium d) perineurium e) epineurium Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Describe the components of a spinal nerve, the distribution of nerves of the plexuses, and the clinical significance of dermatomes.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Spinal Nerves 7) What parts of a neuron within a nerve is/are wrapped in a protective endoneurium?

1. Myelinated axon 2. Unmyelinated axon 3. Dendrites a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) Both 1 and 2 e) 1, 2 and 3

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Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Describe the components, coverings, and distribution of spinal nerves..

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Spinal Nerves 8) Spinal nerves 1. Are part of the PNS. 2. connect the CNS to sensory receptors and effectors in all parts of the body.

3. are named according to the region of the vertebral column from which they emerge.

4. are mixed nerves.

5. only transmit sensory information.

6. only transmit motor information. a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 2, 3, 4 c) 1, 3, 6 d) 1 and 3 e) 1, 2, 3, 4 Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Describe the components, coverings, and distribution of spinal nerves.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Spinal Nerves Question type: Multiple selection 9) Intercostal nerves can be described by what statements below? Select all that apply a) are also known as thoracic nerves b) do not enter into a plexus c) extend through the sacrum d) are formed from the posterior rami e) directly connect to the structures they supply f) are important in controlling the diaphragm Answer 1: a Answer 2: b

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Answer 3: e Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Describe the components, coverings, and distribution of spinal nerves.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Spinal Nerves Question type: Multiple Choice 10) In the 400 meter relay, runners handoff the baton to the person in front of them. The second runner in the relay team had to be replaced . They were unable to pronate their forearm to reach behind for the baton because of injury to their brachial plexus. What is the most likely site of their injury? a) Dorsal scapular nerve b) Intercostal nerve c) Phrenic nerve d) Median nerve e) Radial nerve Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 13.4 Describe the origin, distribution, and effects of damage to the brachial plexus. .

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.4 Brachial Plexus 11) Which region of the spinal cord allows a dancer to be aware of their movements and body position? a) Posterior white column b) Anterior gray horn c) Anterior white column d) Lateral white column e) Gray commissure Answer: a Difficulty: Hard

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Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 13.7 Explain how the sensory tracts, motor tracts, and reflex arcs help accomplish the functions of the spinal cord.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.7.1 Describe the functions of the major sensory and motor tracts of the spinal cord.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.7 Spinal Cord Physiology 12) Sensory information travels to the brain via a) Ascending tracts b) Descending tracts c) Integration tracts d) Anterior roots e) Direct motor pathways Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 13.7 Explain how the sensory tracts, motor tracts, and reflex arcs help accomplish the functions of the spinal cord.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.7.1 Describe the functions of the major sensory and motor tracts of the spinal cord.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.7 Spinal Cord Physiology 13) Which type of descending motor pathway conveys nerve impulses that originate in the cerebral cortex and allows you to use your fingers for sewing and sign language? a) vestibulospinal tract b) corticospinal tract c) reticulospinal tract d) spinothalamic tract e) gracile fasciculus Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Shuffle: Yes Study Objective 1: SO 13.7 Explain how the sensory tracts, motor tracts, and reflex arcs help accomplish the functions of the spinal cord.

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Study Objective 2: SO 13.7.1 Describe the functions of the major sensory and motor tracts of the spinal cord.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.7 Spinal Cord Physiology 14) Which type of descending motor pathway excites antigravity muscles in order to exert control over postural changes necessary to compensate for tilts and movements of the body.? a) vestibulospinal tract b) corticospinal tract c) corticobulbar tract d) spinothalamic tract e) gracile fasciculus Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 13.7 Explain how the sensory tracts, motor tracts, and reflex arcs help accomplish the functions of the spinal cord.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.7.1 Describe the functions of the major sensory and motor tracts of the spinal cord.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.7 Spinal Cord Physiology 15) Which of the following parts of a reflex arc monitors the rectus femoris muscle stretching? a) Sensory receptor b) Integrating center c) Motor neuron d) Effector e) Interneuron Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 13.7 Explain how the sensory tracts, motor tracts, and reflex arcs help accomplish the functions of the spinal cord..

Study Objective 2: SO 13.7.2 Describe the functional components of a reflex arc and the ways reflexes maintain homeostasis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.7 Spinal Cord Physiology

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16) Which of the following parts of a reflex arc can be monosynaptic or polysynaptic? a) Sensory receptor b) Sensory neuron c) Motor neuron d) Effector e) Integrating center Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 13.7 Explain how the sensory tracts, motor tracts, and reflex arcs help accomplish the functions of the spinal cord..

Study Objective 2: SO 13.7.2 Describe the functional components of a reflex arc and the ways reflexes maintain homeostasis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.7 Spinal Cord Physiology 17) Which of the following parts of a reflex arc would be represented by the contraction of the gastrocnemius muscle or the radial iris muscles? a) Sensory receptor b) Sensory neuron c) Motor neuron d) Effector e) Integrating center Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 13.7 Explain how the sensory tracts, motor tracts, and reflex arcs help accomplish the functions of the spinal cord..

Study Objective 2: SO 13.7.2 Describe the functional components of a reflex arc and the ways reflexes maintain homeostasis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.7 Spinal Cord Physiology 18) Which of the following parts of a reflex arc would involve the posterior root ganglion? a) Integrating center b) Sensory neuron c) Motor neuron d) Effector

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e) Interneuron Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 13.7 Explain how the sensory tracts, motor tracts, and reflex arcs help accomplish the functions of the spinal cord..

Study Objective 2: SO 13.7.2 Describe the functional components of a reflex arc and the ways reflexes maintain homeostasis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.7 Spinal Cord Physiology 19) A nerve impulse initiated at a muscle spindle has to travel through which of the following structures to enter the integrating center? a) Anterior root of spinal nerve b) Posterior root of spinal nerve c) Tectospinal tract d) Gray commissure e) Lateral reticulospinal tract Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 13.7 Explain how the sensory tracts, motor tracts, and reflex arcs help accomplish the functions of the spinal cord..

Study Objective 2: SO 13.7.2 Describe the functional components of a reflex arc and the ways reflexes maintain homeostasis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.7 Spinal Cord Physiology 20) In response to a muscle being stretched, a muscle spindle initiates a somatic spinal reflex that causes 1. contraction of the effector muscle.

2. relaxation of the antagonist muscle.

3. contraction of the antagonist muscle.

4. relaxation of the effector muscle. a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 4 only

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e) 1 and 2 f) 1 and 3 g) 2 and 4 Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 13.7 Explain how the sensory tracts, motor tracts, and reflex arcs help accomplish the functions of the spinal cord..

Study Objective 2: SO 13.7.2 Describe the functional components of a reflex arc and the ways reflexes maintain homeostasis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.7 Spinal Cord Physiology 21) In response to a tendon being stretched excessively, a tendon organ initiates a somatic spinal reflex that causes 1. contraction of the effector muscle.

2. relaxation of the antagonist muscle.

3. contraction of the antagonist muscle.

4. relaxation of the effector muscle. a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 4 only e) 3 and 4 f) 1 and 2 Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 13.7 Explain how the sensory tracts, motor tracts, and reflex arcs help accomplish the functions of the spinal cord..

Study Objective 2: SO 13.7.2 Describe the functional components of a reflex arc and the ways reflexes maintain homeostasis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.7 Spinal Cord Physiology 22) Excitation of the quadriceps femoris group and inhibition of the hamstring group is termed _______ innervation.

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a) antagonist-effector b) ipsilateral c) crossed-extensor d) reciprocal e) Intersegmental Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 13.7 Explain how the sensory tracts, motor tracts, and reflex arcs help accomplish the functions of the spinal cord..

Study Objective 2: SO 13.7.2 Describe the functional components of a reflex arc and the ways reflexes maintain homeostasis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.7 Spinal Cord Physiology Question type: Multiple Selection 23) Which are functions of the spinal reflexes that use muscle spindles and tendon organs as sensors? Select all that apply. a) Awareness of muscle tension in body b) Prevention of damage to muscles c) Awareness of muscle length d) Prevention of damage to tendons e) Maintenance of muscle tone f) Maintenance of balance g) Avoidance of moving away from a painful stimulus Answer: abcde Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 13.7 Explain how the sensory tracts, motor tracts, and reflex arcs help accomplish the functions of the spinal cord..

Study Objective 2: SO 13.7.2 Describe the functional components of a reflex arc and the ways reflexes maintain homeostasis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.7 Spinal Cord Physiology 24) A typical spinal nerve has how many connections to the spinal cord? a) 1

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b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) 5 Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the anatomy of the spinal cord and associated structures.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy 25) Which branch of a spinal nerve serves the deep muscles and skin of the posterior surface of the trunk? a) Meningeal branch b) Rami communicantes c) Intercostal nerve d) Posterior ramus e) Anterior ramus Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Describe the components, coverings, and distribution of spinal nerves.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Spinal Nerves 26) A child was in a diving accident. When brought into the emergency room, the doctor used sharp and blunt objects to determine if there was any sensation on the bottom of the foot and the lateral aspect of their palm. The child stated they could not feel the stimulus in either area. What nerves were most likely damaged?

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a) L3 and C8. b) L5 and C6 c) S2 and T1 d) C7 and L4 e) S1 and C6 Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Describe the components, coverings, and distribution of spinal nerves..

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Spinal Nerves

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27) In this diagram, where is the space that contains a buoyant liquid to form a hydraulic cushion that absorbs shock?

a) E b) F c) G d) H e) I Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the anatomy of the spinal cord and associated structures.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy

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28) In this diagram, where is the space that contains interstitial fluid?

a) E b) F c) G d) H e) I Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the anatomy of the spinal cord and associated structures.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy

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29) In this diagram, where is the avascular structure located between the subdural and subarachnoid space?

a) E b) F c) G d) H e) I Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the anatomy of the spinal cord and associated structures.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy

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30) In this diagram, where is the structure that adheres to the spinal cord and brain?

a) E b) F c) G d) H e) I Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the anatomy of the spinal cord and associated structures.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy

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31) In this diagram, which layer is the thickest protective covering?

a) E b) F c) G d) H e) I Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the anatomy of the spinal cord and associated structures.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy Question type: Multiple selection

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32) Which of the labeled structures contains both sensory and motor axons? Select all that apply.

a) D b) B c) C d) G e) H Answer: de Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Describe the components, coverings, and distribution of spinal nerves.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Spinal Nerves Question type: Multiple choice

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33) Which of the labeled structures allows doctors to safely introduce antibiotics or anesthetics and measure CSF pressure ?

a) A b) E c) D d) A e) H Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the anatomy of the spinal cord and associated structures.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy

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34) Which of the labeled structures would receive injections to cause loss of sensation to control pain in childbirth?

a) B b) C c) F d) G e) H Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 13.8 Describe the disorders that affect the spinal cord.Section Reference 1: Sec Homeostatic Imbalances that affect the spinal cord and spinal nerves

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35) Which of the labeled structures is composed of squamous to cuboidal cells and is very vascular?

a) D b) E c) F d) G e) H Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode:Application Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the anatomy of the spinal cord and associated structures.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy

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36) If you had a rash on the anterior surface of your trunk, what labeled structure would serve the muscles and skin of that area?

a) B b) C c) G d) H e) F Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Describe the components, coverings, and distribution of spinal nerves.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Spinal Nerves

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37) On what labeled structure would a ganglion be found?

a) B b) C c) E d) F e) G Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Describe the components, coverings, and distribution of spinal nerves.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Spinal Nerves

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38) In this diagram, where would the axons of unipolar neurons be located?

a) B b) C c) D d) E Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Describe the components, coverings, and distribution of spinal nerves.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Spinal Nerves Question type: Multiple selection

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39) In this diagram where are tracts located? Select all that apply.

a) B b) C c) D d) E e) F f) H g) I Answer: acg Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 13.7 Explain how the sensory tracts, motor tracts, and reflex arcs help accomplish the functions of the spinal cord.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.7 Spinal cord physiology Question type: Multiple choice

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40) In this diagram which area is continuous with the 4th ventricle of the brain?

a) A b) B c) G d) J e) I Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the anatomy of the spinal cord and associated structures.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy

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41) In this diagram where would somatic motor nuclei be located?

a) B b) C c) E d) F e) H Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the anatomy of the spinal cord and associated structures.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy

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42) In this diagram where would the medial reticulospinal tract be located?

a) B b) C c) H d) I e) F Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 3: SO 13.7 Explain how the sensory tracts, motor tracts, and reflex arcs help accomplish the functions of the spinal cord.

Study Objective 3: SO 13.7.1 Describe the functions of the major sensory and motor tracts of the spinal cord.

Section Reference 1: 13.7 Spinal Cord Physiology

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43) In this diagram which portion of the spinal cord contains cell bodies and axons of interneurons as well as incoming axons of sensory neurons?

a) B b) C c) D d) H e) I Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the anatomy of the spinal cord and associated structures.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy

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44) In this diagram which portion of the spinal cord contains cell bodies that regulate cardiac muscle, smooth muscle and glands?

a) B b) C c) D d) F e) H Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the anatomy of the spinal cord and associated structures.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy Question type: Essay 45) Describe the cross-sectional anatomy of the spinal cord.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension

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Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the anatomy of the spinal cord and associated structures.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy Solution: The spinal cord is slightly flattened in its anterior-posterior dimension. It has two grooves: anterior median fissure and shallower posterior median sulcus. The central canal contains CSF. The gray commissure surrounds the central canal, and forms the cross bar of the H. It contains the axons that connect the two sides of the gray horns (anterior, posterior, lateral).

White matter surrounds the gray and is subdivided into columns (anterior, posterior, lateral). The anterior white commissure is anterior to the gray commissure.

46) Describe the gross external anatomy of the spinal cord.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the anatomy of the spinal cord and associated structures.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy Solution: The spinal cord is roughly cylindrical, but slightly flattened anterior/posterior. It extends from the medulla to the superior border of L2. The length ranges from 42-45 cm and is approximately 2 cm in diameter. There is a cervical enlargement from C4-T1 and a lumbar enlargement from T9-T12. The conus medullaris is the tapered inferior end. The filum terminale is an extension of the pia mater that anchors the cord to the coccyx. The cauda equina is the roots of spinal nerves angling inferiorly in the vertebral canal from the end of the spinal cord. 31 pairs of spinal nerves leave the cord at regular intervals through the intervertebral foramina.

47) Name and describe the locations of the four major plexuses of spinal nerves.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Define plexus, and identify the principal plexuses of spinal nerves.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Spinal Nerves Solution: 1. Cervical: alongside C1 through C4; 2. Brachial: inferior and lateral to C4 through T1 and superior to rib, posterior to clavicle; 3. Lumbar: lateral to L1 through L4 passing obliquely posterior to psoas major and anterior to quadratus lumborum; 4. Sacral: L4-S3; anterior to sacrum.

48) Identify and describe the function of each of the components of a spinal reflex arc.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension

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Study Objective 1: SO 13.7 Explain how the sensory tracts, motor tracts, and reflex arcs help accomplish the functions of the spinal cord.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.7 Spinal Cord Physiology Solution: 1. Receptor: responds to specific changes in body conditions by producing graded potential; 2. Sensory neuron: conducts impulse from receptor to integrating center in gray matter of spinal cord; 3. Integrating center: site of synapse between sensory and other neurons; decision-making area in gray matter of spinal cord; 4. Motor neuron: conducts impulse from integrating center to effector; 5. Effector: is the structure that promotes change in body conditions by responding to motor nerve impulse, such as a muscle or a gland.

Question type: Multiple Choice 49) Which plexus arises from the structure labeled B in the diagram?

a) cervical plexus b) brachial plexus c) thoracic nerves d) lumbar plexus

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e) sacral plexus Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 2: SO 13.3 Describe the origin and distribution of the cervical plexus.

Section Reference 2: Sec 13.3 Cervical Plexus 50) Which of the following structures travels from the area labeled D in the diagram?

a) obturator nerve b) phrenic nerve c) long thoracic nerve d) thoracodorsal nerve e) lesser occipital nerve Answer: a

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Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 2: SO 13.5 Describe the origin and distribution of the lumbar plexus.

Section Reference 2: Sec 13.5 Lumbar Plexus 51) In the diagram which structure contains nerve roots that arise from the lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal region of the spinal cord?

a) C b) D c) E d) F e) G Answer:e Difficulty: Medium

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Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the anatomy of the spinal cord and associated structures.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy 52) In this diagram, respiratory distress can occur if damage occurs to which group of spinal nerves?

a) A b) C c) E d) F e) H Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application

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Study Objective 2: SO 13.3 Describe the origin and distribution of the cervical plexus.

Section Reference 2: Sec 13.3 Cervical Plexus 53) A gymnast has damaged their hip flexor muscles. The nerve that innervates these muscles arise from which group of spinal nerves in this diagram?

a) A b) C c) F d) H e) I Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 2: SO 13.5 Describe the origin and distribution of the lumbar plexus.

Section Reference 2: Sec 13.5 Lumbar Plexus

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54) In this diagram which structure is the conus medullaris?

a) E b) F c) G d) H e) I Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the anatomy of the spinal cord and associated structures.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy

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55) Christopher Reeve, a famous actor and competitive equestrian, suffered fractures to the top two vertebra and could not breathe without the help of a respirator. Which of the nerves in this diagram were likely damaged?

a) A b) C c) D d) E e) G Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 2: SO 13.3 Describe the origin and distribution of the cervical plexus.

Section Reference 2: Sec 13.3 Cervical Plexus

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56) Which of the nerves in this diagram would be involved with ‘flexing’ the chest wall to bring the ribs together?

a) A b) C c) D d) E e) G Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Describe the components, coverings, and distribution of spinal nerves.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Spinal nerves

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57) Which of the nerves in this diagram innervates muscles that extend the toes and if damaged results in foot drop (plantar flexion)?

a) A b) C c) F d) E e) G Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 2: SO 13.6 Describe the origin and distribution of the sacral and coccygeal plexuses.

Section Reference 2: Sec 13.6 Sacral and Coccygeal Plexuses

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58) Which nerve innervates the muscle that abducts the arm at the shoulder and the skin overlying the deltoid? a) phrenic nerve b) axillary nerve c) intercostal nerve d) ulnar nerve e) common fibular nerve Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 2: SO 13.4 Describe the origin and distribution of the brachial plexus.

Section Reference 2: Sec 13.4 Brachial Plexus Question type: Text Dropdown 59) Inability to abduct or adduct fingers or loss of sensation in the pinky finger would occur from damage to the [___].

Dropdown choices: brachial plexus cervical plexus coccygeal plexus lumbar plexus sacral plexus Answer : brachial plexus Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 2: SO 13.4 Describe the origin and distribution of the brachial plexus.

Section Reference 2: Sec 13.4 Brachial Plexus 60) The ___nerve would be involved with a dancer performing pointe (standing on their toes).

Select all that apply a) femoral nerve b) obturator nerve

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c) tibial nerve d) common fibular nerve e) intercostal nerve Answer 1: b Answer 2: c Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 2: SO 13.6 Describe the origin and distribution of the sacral and coccygeal plexuses.

Section Reference 2: Sec 13.6 Sacral and Coccygeal Plexuses

Question type: Multiple choice 61) Which of the nerves in this diagram only have anterior and posterior rami branches and do not form plexuses?

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a) A b) B c) D d) E e) G Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Describe the components, coverings, and distribution of spinal nerves.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Spinal Nerves Question type: Text Dropdown 62) The largest nerve in the lumbar plexus is the [___]. common fibular femoral nerve obturator nerve sciatic nerve tibial nerve Answer: femoral nerve Difficulty:Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 2: SO 13.5 Describe the origin and distribution of the lumbar plexus.

Section Reference 2: Sec 13.5 Lumbar Plexus 63) An individual with shingles presents with pain and lesions in the mouth, ears, and pharynx.

Which dermatomal region would be sending the afferent signals? a) C2 b) C3 c) C1 d) trigeminal e) facial Answer: d

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Difficulty:Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SP 13.2 Describe the components, coverings, and distribution of spinal nerves.

Section Reference 1 : 13.2 Spinal Nerves 64) An individual suffers a stroke and looses control over their left arm. The individual is affected with__________paralysis. a) diplegia b) monoplegia c) paraplegia d) hemiplegia e) quadriplegia Answer: b Difficulty:Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: Describe the disorders that affect the spinal cord Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatice Imbalances Question type: Essay 65) Describe the basic anatomy of a spinal nerve plexus.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Describe the components, coverings, and distribution of spinal nerves..

Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.2 Define plexus, and identify the principal plexuses of spinal nerves.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Spinal Nerves Solution: Axons from the anterior rami of spinal nerves do not go directly to the body structures they supply. Instead, they form networks called plexuses on both the left and right sides of the body by joining with various numbers of axons from anterior rami of adjacent spinal nerves.

Thus, the nerves that emerge from a plexus and innervate body organs contain nerve fibers from multiple spinal nerves.

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Question type: Multiple Choice 66) The spinal cord ends a) between L1 and L2 b) at T12 c) at S5 d) at L5 e) between T9 and T10 Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy 67) The area of the skin that provides sensory input to the CNS via one pair of spinal nerves is called a) a dermatome. b) a microtome. c) perineurium. d) a fascicle. e) an epitome.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Describe the components, coverings, and distribution of spinal nerves.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Spinal Nerves Question type: Essay 68) Discuss the clinical significance of dermatomes.

Answer:

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Describe the components, coverings, and distribution of spinal nerves.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Spinal Nerves Solution: Knowing which spinal cord segments supply each dermatome makes it possible to locate damaged regions of the spinal cord. If the skin in a particular region is stimulated but the sensation is not perceived, the nerves supplying that dermatome are probably damaged.

Question type: Multiple Choice 69) A severed obturator nerve will lead into paralysis of which region of the body? a) Cervical b) Thoracic c) Lumbar d) Thigh e) Arms Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 13.5 Describe the origin and distribution of the lumbar plexus.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.5 Lumbar Plexus 70) Why is a spinal tap performed below L2 of the spinal cord? a) The spinal cord is present ensuring there will be a subarachnoid space present. b) The spinal meninges and spinal cord are not present, ensuring no damage to the nervous system. c) The spinal meninges and spaces extend passed the proper spinal cord, allowing fluid to be withdrawn with a minimal risk of damage to the spinal cord. d) There is more space between the vertebrae in a flexed position below L2. e) The supracristal line is the only way to determine placement of the needle in spinal taps.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application

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Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy

71) Which of the following spinal nerves does not travel through an intervertebral foramen to reach its destination? a) cervical spinal nerve 1 b) thoracic spinal nerve 12 c) lumbar spinal nerve 2 d) sacral spinal nerve 1 e) cervical spinal nerve 7 Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Describe the components, coverings, and distribution of spinal nerves.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Spinal Nerves Question Type: Text Dropdown 72) The cell bodies of the neurons that carry information from the periphery to the spinal cord are structurally classified as [dropdown 1] and functionally classified as [dropdown 2] and their cell bodies are located in [dropdown 3].

Dropdown 1 & 2 choices: Sensory Motor Integrative Dropdown 3choices: anterior gray horn anterior root dorsal root ganglion lateral gray horn posterior gray horn Answer 1: sensory Answer 2: sensory Answer 3: dorsal root ganglion

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Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the protective structures and the external and internal anatomy of the spinal cord.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy 73) Which of the following lists the connective tissue coverings of the axons, fascicles, and entire nerve in the correct order? a) endoneurium, perineurium, epineurium b) endoneurium, epineurium, perineurium c) perineurium, epineurium, endoneurium d) epineurium, endoneurium, perineurium Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Describe the components, coverings, and distribution of spinal nerves.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Spinal Nerves Question type: Multiple selection 74) Which statements describe dermatomes? Select all that apply. a) Can be used clinically to determine area of spinal cord damage b) Complete anesthesia of a single dermatome often requires blocking three adjacent spinal nerves c) Indicate which muscles are innervated by each spinal d) The dermatome serving the face is supplied by the trigeminal cranial nerve e) Are used to check for motor function f) nerve Dermatomes are designated based on the cranial or spinal nerve that serves that area of the skin Answer 1: a Answer 2: b Answer 3: d Answer 4: f Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application

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Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Describe the components, coverings, and distribution of spinal nerves.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Spinal Nerves 75) Which statements describe the spinothalamic tract? Select all that apply a) Begins in the spinal cord b) Terminates in the thalamus c) Found in the gray matter of the spinal cord d) Carries motor information down the cord e) Carries information for pain, temperature and tickle Answer 1: a Answer 2: b Answer 3: e Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 13.7 Explain how the sensory tracts, motor tracts, and reflex arcs help accomplish the functions of the spinal cord.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.7.1 Describe the functions of the major sensory and motor tracts of the spinal cord.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.7 Spinal Cord Physiology Question type: Multiple Choice 76) Place the reflex arc components in order from detecting a stimulus to response.

1. motor neuron 2. effector 3. sensory neuron 4. integration center 5. sensory receptor a) 5, 1, 2, 4, 3 b) 3, 5, 1, 2, 4 c) 3, 5, 4, 1, 2 d) 5, 3, 4, 1, 2 e) 2, 1, 4, 3, 5 Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension

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Study Objective 1: SO 13.7 Explain how the sensory tracts, motor tracts, and reflex arcs help accomplish the functions of the spinal cord..

Study Objective 2: SO 13.7.2 Describe the functional components of a reflex arc and the ways reflexes maintain homeostasis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.7 Spinal Cord Physiology 77) In reciprocal innervation of the tendon reflex stimulation of afferent fibers causes a) inhibition of effector muscles b) inhibition of antagonist muscles c) excitation of effector muscles d) excitation of antagonist muscles e) excitation of muscles on the contralateral side Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 13.7 Explain how the sensory tracts, motor tracts, and reflex arcs help accomplish the functions of the spinal cord..

Study Objective 2: SO 13.7.2 Describe the functional components of a reflex arc and the ways reflexes maintain homeostasis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.7 Spinal Cord Physiology Question type:Text Dropdown 78) When an individual sits for a period of time, their leg may ‘fall asleep’. This sensation is usually a result of [___] nerve compression.

Dropdown choices: ilionguinal femoral medial obturator sciatic Answer : sciatic Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application

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Study Objective 2: SO 13.6 Describe the origin and distribution of the sacral and coccygeal plexuses.

Section Reference 2: Sec 13.6 Sacral and Coccygeal Plexuses 79) In an episiotomy, a surgical cut at the opening of the vagina, during childbirth, anesthetization to the [___] nerve may occur.

Answer options femoral obturator perforating cutaneous pudendal sciatic Answer: pudenal Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Synthesize Study Objective 2: SO 13.6 Describe the origin and distribution of the sacral and coccygeal plexuses.

Section Reference 2: Sec 13.6 Sacral and Coccygeal Plexuses Question type: Text Dropdown 80) The crossed-extensor reflex integrating center is [dropdown 1] since several sensory neurons synapse with interneurons that synapse with motor neurons. The interneurons excite motor neurons in several segments which is known as a [dropdown 2] reflex. This is a [dropdown 3] since the motor information exits the opposite side of the body from the sensory input. At the neuromuscular junction, [dropdown 4] is released to [dropdown 5] the muscle that will extend.

Dropdown 1 choices: polysynaptic monosynaptic Dropdown 2 choices: reciprocal innervation intersegmental reflex arc Dropdown 3 choices: contralateral reflex arc ipsilateral reflex arc Dropdown 4 choices: acetylcholine

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norepinephrine Dropdown 5 choices: inhibit excite Answer 1: polysynaptic Answer 2: intersegmental reflex arc Answer 3: contralateral reflex arc Answer 4: acetylcholine Answer : excite Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 13.7 Explain how the sensory tracts, motor tracts, and reflex arcs help accomplish the functions of the spinal cord.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.7 Spinal Cord Physiology 81) In a stretch reflex, [dropdown 1] detect the muscle stretch. A somatic sensory neuron sends signals to [dropdown 2] in the anterior gray horn and to inhibitory [dropdown 3] in the integrating center. This stretch reflex primary motor path would be classified as [dropdown 4].

This primary pathway [dropdown 5] the effector muscle and [dropdown 6] the antagonist muscle.

Dropdown 1 choices: muscle spindles tendon organs nociceptors Dropdown 2&3 choices: interneuron motor neuron Dropdown 4 choices: ipsilateral contralateral Dropdown 5 choices: and f Inhibits Excites Answer 1: muscle spindles Answer 2: motor neuron Answer 3: interneuron

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Answer 4:ipsilateral Answer 5: excites Answer 6: inhibits Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 13.7 Explain how the sensory tracts, motor tracts, and reflex arcs help accomplish the functions of the spinal cord.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.7 Spinal Cord Physiology Question type: Multiple Choice 82) A pupillary reflex is integrated in the brain stem so it is classified as a ________reflex. The smooth muscle of the iris is the effector, so this is classified as a(n) ___________. a) Spinal; somatic b) Spinal; autonomic c) Cranial; somatic d) Cranial; autonomic e) Spinal; visceral Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 13.7 Explain how the sensory tracts, motor tracts, and reflex arcs help accomplish the functions of the spinal cord.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.7 Spinal Cord Physiology 83) A patient is being examined for muscle weakness. To assess their condition, the doctor tests their knee-jerk reflex by tapping the patella tendon with a reflex hammer and tapping his lower jaw with your finger. Both pathways are considered monosynaptic. What do they have in common? a) They are both autonomic, cranial reflexes b) They both a two neuron pathway, sensory to motor c) They are both somatic, autonomic reflexes d) The sensory neurons exit the same segment of the spinal cord.

Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes

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Bloomcode: Evaluation Study Objective 1: SO 13.7 Explain how the sensory tracts, motor tracts, and reflex arcs help accomplish the functions of the spinal cord.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.7 Spinal Cord Physiology 84) When the quadriceps muscle extends the lower leg in the patella reflex, what is occurring in the motor neuron to produce an action potential? a) Influx of sodium and efflux of potassium b) Influx of sodium and efflux of calcium c) Influx of potassium and efflux of sodium d) Influx of both sodium and potassium e) Efflux of both sodium and potassium Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 13.7 Explain how the sensory tracts, motor tracts, and reflex arcs help accomplish the functions of the spinal cord.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.7 Spinal Cord Physiology 85) A patient who has loss of pin prick sensation starting at the level of the nipple and downward on the right side would have a lesion in the spinal cord at which level? a) C7-C8 b) T4-T5 c) T6-T7 d) T10-T12 e) S1-S2 Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Describe the components of a spinal nerve, the distribution of nerves of the plexuses, and the clinical significance of dermatomes.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Spinal Nerves

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Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pap15 Chapter Number: 14 Shuffle: Yes Case Sensitive: No Question type: Multiple Choice 1) The brain and spinal cord develop from the _____ neural tube. a) mesodermal b) endodermal c) ectodermal Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 14.19 Describe how the parts of the brain develop.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.19 Development of the Nervous System Question type: Text dropdown 2) During development,the [dropdown 1] gives rise to the midbrain and aqueduct of midbrain, the [dropdown 2] gives rise to the thalamus, hypothalamus, and third ventricle and the [dropdown 3] forms the medulla oblongata Answer options diencephalon mesencephalon metencephalon myelencephalon telencephalon Answer 1:mesenchephalon Answer 2: diencephalon Answer 3: myelencephalon Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension

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Study Objective 1: SO 14.1Identify the major parts of the brain and explain how the brain is protected and nourished.

Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Identify the major parts of the brain.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Brain Organization, Protection, and Blood Supply Question type: Multiple choice 3) The adult brain consists of what four major regions? Select all that apply. a) brainstem b) cerebellum c) mesencephalon d) diencephalon e) cerebrum f) fhombencephalon Answer 1: a Answer 2: b Answer 3: d Answer 4: e Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Identify the major parts of the brain and explain how the brain is protected.

Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.1 Identify the major parts of the brain.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Brain Organization, Protection, and Blood Supply 4) Which of the following brain structures consists of the medulla oblongata, pons and midbrain? a) Brainstem b) Cerebrum c) Cerebellum d) Diencephalon e) Dura mater Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Identify the major parts of the brain and explain how the brain is protected.

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Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.1 Identify the major parts of the brain.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Brain Organization, Protection, and Blood Supply 5) Which of the following brain structures consists of the thalamus, hypothalamus and epithalamus? a) Cerebellum b) Brain stem c) Cerebrum d) Diencephalon e) Dura mater Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Identify the major parts of the brain and explain how the brain is protected.

Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.1 Identify the major parts of the brain.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Brain Organization, Protection, and Blood Supply 6) The periosteal and meningeal layer are part of the a) Spinal dura mater b) Cranial dura mater c) Spinal arachnoid mater d) Cranial arachnoid mater e) Cranial pia mater Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Identify the major parts of the brain and explain how the brain is protected.

Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.2 Describe how the brain is protected.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Brain Organization, Protection, and Blood Supply Question type: Text dropdown 7) The [dropdown 1] separates the two hemispheres of the cerebrum along the [dropdown 2] section or plane.

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Dropdown 1 choices: falx cerebri falx cerebelli tentorium cerebelli tentorium cerebri Dropdown 2 choices: sagittal frontal coronal transverse oblique Answer 1: falx cerebri Answer 2: sagittal Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode:Application Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Identify the major parts of the brain and explain how the brain is protected.

Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.2 Describe how the brain is protected.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Brain Organization, Protection, and Blood Supply 8) The blood brain barrier (BBB) is formed from processes of many [dropdown 1]. Many substances cannot enter the BBB due to the [dropdown 2].

Dropdown 1 choices: astrocytes ependymal cells oligodendrocytes Schwann cells Dropdown 2 choices: Gap junctions Tight junctions Desmosomes Adherens Answer 1: astrocytes Answer 2: tight junctions Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes

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Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Identify the major parts of the brain and explain how the brain is protected.

Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.2 Describe how the brain is protected.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Brain Organization, Protection, and Blood Supply 9) Cerebrospinal fluid exits the brain through a single [dropdown 1] aperture and paired [dropdown 2] apertures in the roof of the [dropdown 3] ventricle.

Dropdown 1&2 choices: medial lateral interventricular Dropdown 3 choices: Lateral Third Fourth Answer 1: medial Answer 2: lateral Answer 3: fourth Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 14.2 Explain the formation and circulation of cerebrospinal fluid.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.2 Cerebrospinal Fluid 10) Which portion of the ventricular system is located in the cerebral hemisphere? a) Lateral ventricle b) aqueduct of the midbrain c) Fourth ventricle d) Third ventricle Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 14.2 Explain the formation and circulation of cerebrospinal fluid.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.2 Cerebrospinal Fluid

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11) Cerebrospinal fluid passes through what structure in the midbrain as it moves from the third to the fourth ventricle? a) Lateral ventricle b) Septum pellucidum c) Third ventricle d) Fourth ventricle e) Aqueduct of the midbrain Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 14.2 Explain the formation and circulation of cerebrospinal fluid.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.2 Cerebrospinal Fluid 12) Which of the following describes a function of cerebrospinal fluid?

1. Maintain optimum ionic environment 2. Maintain pH homeostasis 3. Provide circulation for exchange of nutrients/wastes 4. Serve as a shock absorbing fluid system of spinal cord 5. Provide buoyancy of the brain a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 4, 5 c) 1, 3, 5 d) 2, 3, 4, 5 e) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 14.2 Explain the formation and circulation of cerebrospinal fluid.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.2 Cerebrospinal Fluid Question Type: Text Dropdown

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13) The [dropdown 1]are networks of capillaries that produce cerebrospinal fluid and are found in the walls of the ventricles of the brain. They are surrounded by [dropdown 2] with tight junctions.

Dropdown 1 choices: Choroid plexuses Lateral apertures Interventricular foramina Secondary brain vesicles Dropdown 2 choices: Arachnoid villi Ependymal cells Astrocytes Arachnoid granulations Answer 1: choroid plexuses Answer 2]: ependymal cells Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 14.2 Explain the formation and circulation of cerebrospinal fluid.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.2 Cerebrospinal Fluid Question type: Multiple choice 14) What are the fingerlike projections extending into the dural venous sinuses that reabsorb cerebrospinal fluid into the blood? a) Choroid plexuses b) Microvilli c) Arachnoid villi d) Astrocytes e) Aperatures Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 14.2 Explain the formation and circulation of cerebrospinal fluid.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.2 Cerebrospinal Fluid

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15) A stroke patient has a lesion on their trigeminal ophthalmic branch. Which symptom would the patient exhibit? a) loss of smell b) loss of pain, temperature and touch sesnsation c) loss of sensation on posterior part of tongue d) loss of sensation on anterior 2/3 of tongue e) paralysis of tongue muscles Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 14. 12 Identify the origin of the trigeminal (V) nerve in the brain, describe the foramina through which each of its three major branches exits the skull, and explain the function of each branch.

Section Reference 1: 14.12 Trigeminal (V) Nerve 16) A lesion on which structure would affect the acoustic “startle reflex” ? a) Superior colliculus b) Inferior colliculus c) Pontine nucleus d) Medial lemniscus e) Inferior olivary nucleus Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 14.3 Describe the structures and functions of the brain stem and reticular formation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.3 The Brain Stem and Reticular Formation 17) Which region of the brain contains the pontine respiratory group that help control breathing? a) Medulla oblongata b) Midbrain c) Pons d) Thalamus e) Cerebellum Answer: c

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Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 14.3 Describe the structures and functions of the brain stem and reticular formation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.3 The Brain Stem and Reticular Formation Question type: Text dropdown 18) Pyramids are [dropdown 1] protrusions found on the [dropdown 2] and contain [dropdown 3] tracts.

Dropdown 1 choices: gray matter white matter Dropdown 2 choices: medulla oblongata midbrain pons Dropdown 3 choices: ascending motor ascending sensory descending motor descending sensory Answer 1: white matter Answer 2: medulla oblongata Answer 3: descending motor Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 14.3 Describe the structures and functions of the brain stem and reticular formation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.3 The Brain Stem and Reticular Formation Question type: Multiple Selection 19) A gymnast on a balance beam would activate what areas of the medulla oblongata? Select all that apply.

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a) inferior olivary nucleus b) gracile nucleus c) Pyramids d) deglutition center e) vomiting center f) gustatory nucleus g) vestibular nuclei Answer 1: a Anwer 2: b Answer 3: c Answer 4: g Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Synthesize Study Objective 1: SO 14.3 Describe the structures and functions of the brain stem and reticular formation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.3 The Brain Stem and Reticular Formation Question type: Multiple Selection 20) Which of the following branches of the trigeminal (V) nerve terminate in the nuclei of the pons? a) motor branches of Opthalmic nerve b) motor branches of Maxillary nerve c) motor branches of Mandibular nerve d) sensory branches of Opthalmic nerve e) sensory branches of Maxillary nerve f) sensory branches of Mandibular nerve Answer 1: d Answer 2: e Answer 3: f Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Evaluate Study Objective 1: SO 14. 12 Identify the origin of the trigeminal (V) nerve in the brain, describe the foramina through which each of its three major branches exits the skull, and explain the function of each branch.

Section Reference 1: 14.12 Trigeminal (V) Nerve

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Question type: Text Dropdown 21) [___] is found in the medulla oblongata and receives sensory information associated with touch, pressure and vibration.

Dropdown choices: Gracile nucleus Inferior olivary nucleus Pontine nucleus Red nucleus Substantia nigra Answer: Gracile nucleus Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 14.3 Describe the structures and functions of the brain stem and reticular formation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.3 The Brain Stem and Reticular Formation Question type: Text dropdown 22) The [dropdown 1] releases the neurotransmitter [dropdown 2], which is active in pleasurable experiences and regulation of muscle tone. dropdown 1choices: substantia nigra inferior olivary nucleus cuneate nucleus gracile nucleus dropdown 2 choices: epinephrine acetylcholine norepinephrine gABA dopamine Answer 1: substantia nigra [dropdown 2]Answer 2: dopamine Difficulty: Medium

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Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 14.3 Describe the structures and functions of the brain stem and reticular formation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.3 The Brain Stem and Reticular Formation Question type: Multiple Choice 23) Which portion of the cerebellum contributes to equilibrium and balance? a) Tentorium cerebelli b) Anterior lobe c) Posterior lobe d) Flocculonodular lobe e) Transverse fissure Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 14.4 Describe the structure and functions of the cerebellum.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.4 The Cerebellum 24) Folia are to ___ , as arbor vitae are to ___. a) gyri; tracts b) nuclei; lobes c) sulci; septum pellucidum d) fissures; ventricles e) lobes; hemispheres Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 14.4 Describe the structure and functions of the cerebellum.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.4 The Cerebellum 25) Spinocerebellar tract axons carry sensory information into the cerebellum by the a) Inferior cerebellar peduncle

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b) Middle cerebellar peduncle c) Superior cerebellar peduncle d) Anterior lobe e) Posterior lobe Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 14.4 Describe the structure and functions of the cerebellum.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.4 The Cerebellum 26) Which region of the brain is separated by the third ventricle and projects most sensory information to the cerebral cortex from the spinal cord and brain stem? a) Thalamus b) Hypothalamus c) Epithalamus d) Pons e) Midbrain Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 14.5 Describe the components and functions of the diencephalon (thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus).

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.5 The Diencephalon Question type: Multiple selection 27) The hypothalamus affects which functions in the body? Select all that apply. a) Hunger and thirst b) Reflexes related to smell c) Maintenance of consciousness d) Emotional behavior e) Body temperature f) Control of the sympathetic and parasympathetic system g) Vomiting h) Respiration rate

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Answer: abdef Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 14.5 Describe the components and functions of the diencephalon (thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus).

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.5 The Diencephalon Question type: Text Dropdown 28) Arousal and attention are influenced by the [dropdown 1], that receives input from all sensory stimuli except [dropdown 2].

Dropdown 1 choices: Reticular activating system Substantia nigra Superior colliculi Inferior colliculi Cerebral peduncles Dropdown 2 choices Olfactory Gustatory Visual Auditory Answer 1: reticular formation Answer 2: olfactory Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 14.3 Describe the structures and functions of the brain stem and reticular formation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.3 The Brain Stem and Reticular Formation 29) The pineal gland is located in the [dropdown 1] but the release of melatonin is controlled by the [dropdown 2] which is part of the [dropdown 3]. dropdown 1and dropdown 3 choices: thalamus hypothalamus

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epithalamus dropdown 2 choices: suprachiasmatic nucleus habenular nuclei midline nucleus reticular nucleus Answer 1:epithalamus Answer 2: suprachiasmatic nucleus [ Answer 3: hypothalamus Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 14.5 Describe the components and functions of the diencephalon (thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus).

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.5 The Diencephalon Question type: Multiple choice 30) During brain development, the gyri of the cerebrum are formed because a) the white matter enlarges faster than the overlying gray matter. b) the cerebral cortex folds to fit within the cranium. c) the tracts must be fully formed before gray matter can develop d) the gray matter grows faster than the underlying white matter. e) the oligodendrocytes cannot myelinate neurons quickly Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 14.6 Describe the features of the cerebrum including their locations and functions.

Study Objective 2: SO 14.6.1 Describe the cortex, gyri, fissures, and sulci of the cerebrum.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.6 The Cerebrum 31) Which of the following conducts nerve impulses between the two different hemispheres of the cerebrum? a) Association tracts b) Basal nuclei

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c) Projection tracts d) Septum pellucidum e) Commissural tracts Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 14.6 Describe the features of the cerebrum including their locations and functions.

Study Objective 2: SO 14.6.3 Describe the tracts that compose the cerebral white matter.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.6 The Cerebrum Question Type: Multiple Selection 32) The basal nuclei are formed from which masses of gray matter? Select all that apply. a) globus pallidus b) putamen c) lateral dorsal nucleus d) corpus callosum e) caudate nucleus f) ventral anterior nucleus Answer: abe Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 14.6 Describe the features of the cerebrum including their locations and functions.

Study Objective 2: SO 14.6.4 Describe the nuclei that compose the basal nuclei.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.6 The Cerebrum 33) Which functional area of the cerebrum is responsible for perception of touch, coldness and warmth? a) Broca’s area b) Primary visual area c) Common integrative area d) Prefrontal cortex area e) Primary somatosensory area

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Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 14.7 Explain the functional organization of the cerebral cortex.

Study Objective 2: SO 14.7.1 Describe the locations and functions of the sensory, association, and motor areas of the cerebral cortex.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.7 Functional Organization of the Cerebral Cortex 34) Which functional area of the cerebrum is responsible for the ability to form words? a) Broca’s area b) Primary visual area c) Common integrative area d) Primary olfactory area e) Primary somatosensory area Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 14.7 Explain the functional organization of the cerebral cortex.

Study Objective 2: SO 14.7.1 Describe the locations and functions of the sensory, association, and motor areas of the cerebral cortex.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.7 Functional Organization of the Cerebral Cortex Question type: Multiple Selection 35) Which area of the cerebrum is matched correctly with its function? Select all that apply. a) Broca’s area – interprets meaning of speech by recognizing spoken words b) Primary visual area – relates present and past visual experience and allows recognition c) Somatosensory association area – facial recognition d) Primary motor area – voluntary muscle contraction e) Primary somatosensory area – proprioception, pressure, tickle and pain Answer: de Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 14.7 Explain the functional organization of the cerebral cortex.

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Study Objective 2: SO 14.7.1 Describe the locations and functions of the sensory, association, and motor areas of the cerebral cortex.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.7 Functional Organization of the Cerebral Cortex Question type: Multiple choice 36) Frontal lobe damage left an individual unable to speak. What area was specifically damaged? a) Broca’s area b) Primary gustatory area c) Common integrative area d) Prefrontal cortex area e) Wernicke’s area Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 14.7 Explain the functional organization of the cerebral cortex Study Objective 2: SO 14.7.1 Describe the locations and functions of the sensory, association, and motor areas of the cerebral cortex.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.7 Functional Organization of the Cerebral Cortex Question type: Multiple Selection 37) Which cranial nerves innervate only one eye muscle? Select all that apply. a) oculomotor (III) nerve b) trigeminal (V) nerve c) abducens (VI) nerve d) vestibulocochlear (VIII) nerve e) trochlear (IV) nerve Answer: ce Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 14.11 Identify the origins of the oculomotor (III), trochlear (IV), and abducens (VI) nerves in the brain, the foramen through which each exits the skull, and their functions.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.11 Oculomotor (III), Trochlear (IV), and Abducens (VI) Nerves

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38) Which cranial nerves control movements of the eyeball? a) optic (II) nerve, oculomotor (III) nerve, and trochlear (IV) nerve b) olfactory (I) nerve, trigeminal (V) nerve, and vagus (X) nerve c) oculomotor (III) nerve, glossopharyngeal (IX) nerve, and trigeminal (V) nerve d) oculomotor (III) nerve, trochlear (IV) nerve, and abducens (VI) nerve e) vagus (X) nerve, accessory (XI) nerve, and hypoglossal (XII) nerve Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 14.11 Identify the origins of the oculomotor (III), trochlear (IV), and abducens (VI) nerves in the brain, the foramen through which each exits the skull, and their functions.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.11 Oculomotor (III), Trochlear (IV), and Abducens (VI) Nerves 39) All of the cranial nerves listed exit the cranium by bony openings in front of the petrous portion. a) trochlear b) abducens c) trigeminal d) facial e) oculomotor Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Evaluate Study Objective 1: SO 14.13Identify the origins of the facial (VII) nerve in the brain, the foramen through which it exits the skull, and its function. Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.13 Facial (VII) Nerve 40) Damaging which cranial nerve could decrease gastrointestinal secretions? a) Oculomotor b) Trigeminal c) Spinal accessory d) Facial e) Vagus

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Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 14.16 Identify the origin of the vagus (X) nerve in the brain, the foramen through which it exits the skull, and its function.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.16 Vagus (X) Nerve 41) A baseball player is hit by a line drive on the temporal area of his skull. At the hospital the doctors give a CT scan which shows an accumulation of blood between the dura mater and arachnoid mater, creating pressure on the cerebrum. The hemorrhage from the fracture would be located in which space? a) epidural space b) subdural space c) subarachnoid space d) nasal sinus e) straight sinus Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Identify the major parts of the brain and explain how the brain is protected.

Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.2 Describe how the brain is protected.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Brain Organization, Protection, and Blood Supply

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42) In this diagram injury to which area would affect sensory impulses reaching the cerebral cortex?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 14.5 Describe the components and functions of the diencephalon (thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus).

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.5 The Diencephalon

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43) Which of the labeled structures in the diagram contains centers that control heart rate and blood pressure?

a) A b) B c) D d) E e) F Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 14.3 Describe the structures and functions of the brain stem and reticular formation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.3 The Brain Stem and Reticular Formation

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44) In this diagram which major portion of the brain is used to monitor movements initiated by the motor areas of the cerebrum?

a) B b) E c) F d) C e) A Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 14.4 Describe the structure and functions of the cerebellum.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.4 The Cerebellum Question type: Essay 45) In 1848, a railroad worker named Phineas Gage was seriously injured during an explosion on the job. A tapered metal rod ranging from 0.25 inches to 1.25 inches in diameter and over 3 feet long entered his skull just under his left cheek bone and exited through the top of his skull. The rod was found over twenty feet away. Amazingly, Gage lived even though he suffered massive damage to the left front of his brain. His personality and intellectual abilities changed, however.

Before the accident, he was respected as a smart, capable and even-tempered man. After the accident, he was foul-mouthed and bad-tempered and could not make up his mind. In the years

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immediately preceding his death, he began to have epileptic seizures. Explain the changes observed in Mr. Gage based on your knowledge of the functional areas of the brain.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesize Study Objective 1: SO 14.7 Explain the functional organization of the cerebral cortex.

Study Objective 2: SO 14.7.1 Describe the locations and functions of the sensory, association, and motor areas of the cerebral cortex.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.7 Functional Organization of the Cerebral Cortex Solution: The accident apparently damaged the frontal lobe and specifically the prefrontal cortex of the left side of Mr. Gage’s brain. The frontal lobe is involved in memory and intellect. The prefrontal cortex is involved in judgment, ethics, and conscious. The changes Mr. Gage experienced indicate that the right side of his brain could not compensate for the losses on the left side of the brain. It is remarkable that the story doesn’t mention that Mr. Gage lost some motor function on his right side since it is controlled by the primary motor region on left side of the brain. There is also no mention of loss of speech, which is largely processed on the left side of the brain. Perhaps the iron rod just missed those areas. As far as the epileptic seizures are concerned, it is possible that the accident damaged the basal ganglia to some degree. As he aged and lost connections between neurons that damage might have become more evident as the basal ganglia could no longer communicate effectively with the rest of the brain.

46) Describe the structural and functional relationship between the hypothalamus and the pituitary gland.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesize Study Objective 1: SO 14.5 Describe the components and functions of the diencephalon (thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus).

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.5 The Diencephalon Solution: The hypothalamus releases regulatory hormones into the capillary networks in the median eminence to increase or decrease hormone production and secretion from the anterior pituitary. Axons from the paraventricular and supraoptic nuclei extend through the infundibulum to the posterior pituitary. Their cell bodies produce oxytocin or antidiuretic hormone, which through axonal transport these hormones are moved into the posterior pituitary where they are stored and released from the axon terminals.

Question type: Multiple Choice

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47) Anosmia may result from head injuries in which the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone is fractured. This condition results in impaired function of which cranial nerve in the diagram?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 14.9 Identify the termination of the olfactory nerve (I) in the brain, the foramen through which it passes, and its function.

Section Reference 1: 14.9 Olfactory (I) Nerve 48) Infections may spread from the nasal cavity to the meninges along olfactory nerves. These fibers travel from the mucosa of the nasal cavity to the olfactory bulb through the a) cribiform plate. b) crista galli. c) superior orbital fissue. d) inferior oribital fissure.

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e) optic foramen.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 14.9 Identify the termination of the olfactory (I) nerve in the brain, the foramen through which it passes, and its function..

Section Reference 1: 14.9 Olfactory (III) Nerve 49) Which cranial nerve in the diagram has a somatic motor function primarily involved in moving the upper eyelid and eyeball and an autonomic function involved in iris muscle contraction?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) F Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes

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Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 14.11 Identify the origins of the oculomotor (III), trochlear (IV), and abducens (IV) nerves in the brain, the foramen through which each exits the skull, and their functions.

Section Reference 1: 14.11 Oculomotor (III), Trochlear (IV), and Abducens (VI) Nerves 50) Left side face paralysis could result from damage to which nerve in the diagram?

a) C b) D c) E d) F e) G Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 14.13 Identify the origins of the facial (VII) nerve in the brain, the foramen through which it exits the skull, and its function.

Section Reference 1: 14.13 Facial (VII) Nerve Question type: Multiple Selection

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51) Damage to which of the cranial nerves in the diagram would result in strabismus? Select all that apply

a) A b) B c) C d)D e)E f) F g) G Answer 1: c Answer 2: d Answer 3: f Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 14.11 Identify the origins of the oculomotor (III), trochlear (IV), and abducens (VI) nerves in the brain, the foramen through which each exits the skull, and their functions.

Section Reference 1: 14.11 Oculomotor (III), Trochlear (IV), and Abducens (VI) Nerves

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Question type: Multiple Choice 52) During a firework celebration, a firework exploded next to a technician’s ear, resulting in hearing loss. What nerve was damaged?

a) E b) G c) H d) I e) J Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 14.14 Identify the origin of the vestibulocochlear (VIII) nerve in the brain, the foramen through which it exits the skull, and the functions of each of its branches.

Section Reference 1: 14.14 Vestibulocochlear (VIII) Nerve

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53) The maxillary branch of which cranial nerve in the diagram would be anesthetized by dentists for upper jaw work?

a) E b) G c) H d) I e) J Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 14.12 Identify the origin of the trigeminal (V) nerve in the brain, describe the foramina through which each of its three major branches exits the skull, and explain the function of each branch.

Section Reference 1: 14.12 Trigeminal (V) Nerve

Question type: Multiple selection

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54) You smell fresh baked cookies, and your mouth begins to salivate. Which cranial nerves are involved? Select all that apply

a) B b) I c) D d) E e) F f) A g) G h) H i) K j) J Answer 1: b Answer 2: f Answer 3: g Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 14.8 Cranial nerves an overview Section Reference 1: 14.9 Olfactory (I) Nerve Section Reference 2: 14.13 Facial (VII) Nerve Section Reference 3: 14.15 Glossopharyngeal (IX) Nerve

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Question type: Multiple choice 55) Damage to which cranial nerve in the diagram will cause the inability of an eyeball to move laterally beyond the midpoint?

a) B b) C c) D d) E e) F Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 14.11 Identify the origins of the oculomotor (III), trochlear (IV), and abducens (VI) nerves in the brain, the foramen through which each exits the skull, and their functions.

Section Reference 1: 14.11 Oculomotor (III), Trochlear (IV), and Abducens (VI) Nerves

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56) Facial movement is primarily controlled by ____nerve, while sensation from the face is primarily determined by ____nerve. a) facial; trigeminal b) trigeminal; facial c) glossopharyngeal; trigeminal d) glossopharyngeal; facial e) accessory; facial Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 14.8 Cranial nerves an overview Section Reference 1: 14.13facial (VII) Nerve Section Reference 2: 14.12 Trigeminal (V) Nerve

57) A patient shows no effect when a light shines in the right eye, but shining a light into the left eye causes both pupils (right and left) to constrict. This could be caused by a lesion on the ______ nerve. a) optic b) trochlear c) trigeminal d) facial Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 14.10 Identify the termination of the optic (II) nerve in the brain, the foramen through which it exits the skull, and its function..

Section Reference 1: 14.10 Optic (II) Nerve 58) Damage to which cranial nerve may result in death? a) glossopharyngeal b) vagus c) vestibulocochlear

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d) oculomotor e) facial Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 14.15 Identify the origin of the vagus (X) nerve in the brain, the foramen through which it exits the skull, and its function.

Section Reference 1: 14.16 Vagus (X) Nerve Question type: Multiple selection 59) Which cranial nerves in the diagram innervate the tongue? Select all that apply

a) H b) I c) J d) K e) L f) D g) E h) F i) G

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Answer: bdig Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 14.8 Cranial nerves an overview Section Reference 1: 14.12 Trigeminal (V) Nerve Section Reference 1: 14.13 Facial (VII) Nerve Section Reference 1: 14.15 Glossopharyngeal (IX) Nerve Section Reference 1: 14.18 Hypoglossal (XII) Nerve 60) Which cranial nerve in the diagram is involved with speech and swallowing and has a purely motor function?

a) H b) I c) J d) K e) L Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension

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Study Objective 1: SO 14.18 Identify the origin of the hypoglossal (XII) nerve in the brain, the foramen through which it exits the skull, and its function.

Section Reference 1: 14.18 Hypoglossal (XII) Nerve 61) Hand preference when writing or throwing is an example of a) cranial nerve damage. b) hemispheric lateralization. c) damage to the olfactory nerve. d) damage to Broca’s area.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 14.7 Explain the functional organization of the cerebral cortex.

Study Objective 2: SO 14.7.2 Explain the significance of hemispheric lateralization.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.7 Functional Organization of the Cerebral Cortex Question type: Multiple selection 62) The right hemisphere exhibits greater activity for which functions? Select all that apply. a) facial recognition. b) odor identification. c) writing. d) reasoning. e) aphasia.

Answer: ab Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 14.7 Explain the functional organization of the cerebral cortex.

Study Objective 2: SO 14.7.2 Explain the significance of hemispheric lateralization.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.7 Functional Organization of the Cerebral Cortex 63) An electroencephalogram (EEG) measures brain waves primarily generated by a) neurons in the pons. b) neurons in the medulla oblongata.

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c) neurons in the thalamus. d) neurons in the cerebral cortex. e) neurons in the cerebellum.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 14.7 Explain the functional organization of the cerebral cortex Study Objective 2: SO 14.7.3 Define brain waves and indicate their significance.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.7 Functional Organization of the Cerebral Cortex 64) Which type of brain wave occurs at regular intervals when a person is awake but not when a person is sleeping? a) Alpha waves b) Beta waves c) Theta waves d) Delta waves. e) All of the selections are correct Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 14.7 Explain the functional organization of the cerebral cortex Study Objective 2: SO 14.7.3 Define brain waves and indicate their significance.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.7 Functional Organization of the Cerebral Cortex 65) Brain waves that generally appear during periods of sensory input and mental activity are called a) alpha waves. b) beta waves. c) theta waves. d) delta waves. e) P waves.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes

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Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 14.7 Explain the functional organization of the cerebral cortex Study Objective 2: SO 14.7.3 Define brain waves and indicate their significance.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.7 Functional Organization of the Cerebral Cortex 66) Brain waves that appear during deep sleep are called a) alpha waves. b) beta waves. c) theta waves. d) delta waves. e) P waves.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 14.7 Explain the functional organization of the cerebral cortex Study Objective 2: SO 14.7.3 Define brain waves and indicate their significance.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.7 Functional Organization of the Cerebral Cortex 67) Blood flows to the brain through the _____ arteries and away from the brain through the _____ veins. a) internal carotid and vertebral; internal jugular b) external carotid and vertebral; external jugular c) internal jugular and vertebral; internal carotid d) internal carotid and axillary; internal jugular e) external jugular and axillary; external jugular Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Identify the major parts of the brain and explain how the brain is protected and nourished.

Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.3 Describe the blood supply of the brain.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Brain Organization, Protection, and Blood Supply 68) Which of the following statements best describes the structure of the blood-brain barrier that provides its functional characteristics?

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a) Processes of astrocytes wrap tightly around capillaries in the brain. b) Tight junctions tightly seal endothelial cells of capillaries in the brain. c) Gap junctions tightly seal endothelial cells of capillaries in the brain. d) Spot desmosomes tightly link capillary endothelial cells together. e) The basement membrane of capillaries in the brain contains extremely small pores.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Identify the major parts of the brain and explain how the brain is protected and nourished.

Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.3 Describe the blood supply of the brain.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Brain Organization, Protection, and Blood Supply 69) Damage to this nucleus would affect input from the limbic system, superior colliculi and cerebral cortex affecting the ability to express emotions. a) lateral geniculate nucleus b) medial geniculate nucleus c) ventral posterior nucleus d) lateral dorsal nucleus – e) ventral lateral nucleus Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 14.5 Describe the components and functions of the diencephalon (thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus).

Section Reference 1: 14.5 The Diencephalon 70) The central sulcus of the cerebrum separates the_____, and the lateral fissure separates the _____. a) two cerebral hemispheres; frontal lobe from parietal lobe b) frontal lobe from the parietal lobe; temporal lobe from frontal lobe c) frontal lobe from the temporal lobe; occipital lobe from parietal lobe d) parietal lobe from the temporal lobe; parietal lobe from frontal lobe e) temporal lobe from the occipital lobe; temporal lobe from parietal lobe

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Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 14.6 Describe the features, locations, and functions of the components of the cerebrum.

Study Objective 2: SO 14.6.2 List and locate the lobes of the cerebrum.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.6 The Cerebrum 71) Which lobe of the cerebrum is found deep to the other four lobes and thus cannot be observed from the surface? a) occipital b) temporal c) parietal d) insula e) frontal Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 14.6 Describe the features, locations, and functions of the components of the cerebrum.

Study Objective 2: SO 14.6.2 List and locate the lobes of the cerebrum.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.6 The Cerebrum Question type: Dropdown 72) [___] are used to conduct nerve impulses between gyri within the same cerebral hemisphere?

Dropdown chocies: Association tracts Commissural tracts Projection tracts Answer : association tracts Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 14.6 Describe the features, locations, and functions of the components of the cerebrum.

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Study Objective 2: SO 14.6.3 Describe the tracts that compose the cerebral white matter.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.6 The Cerebrum Question type: Multiple Choice 73) Which are areas of gray matter found in each cerebral hemisphere that are important in helping to control the initiation and termination of skeletal muscle movements? a) red nuclei b) vestibular nuclei c) lateral olivary nuclei d) basal nuclei e) substantia nigra Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 14.6 Describe the features, locations, and functions of the components of the cerebrum.

Study Objective 2: SO 14.6.4 Describe the nuclei that compose the basal nuclei.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.6 The Cerebrum 74) Damage to which portion of the limbic system results in loss of memory of recent events and difficulty committing anything new to memory? a) amygdala b) dentate gyrus c) cingulate gyrus d) hippocampus e) septal nuclei Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 14.6 Describe the features, locations, and functions of the components of the cerebrum.

Study Objective 2: SO 14.6.5 List the structures and describe the functions of the limbic system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.6 The Cerebrum

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75) A common type of disabling senile dementia that results in progressive loss of intellectual ability, is called a) agnosia. b) prosopagnosia. c) Alzheimer disease. d) transient ischemic attack syndrome. e) amylotrophic lateral sclerosis.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 14.20 Describe the effects of aging on the nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.20 Aging and the Nervous System Question type: Text Dropdown 76) The midbrain contains nuclei associated with cranial nerves [dropdown 1] and the pons contains nuclei associated with cranial nerves [dropdown 2].

Dropdown Choices: II and III III and IV IV, V, VI V, VI, VII, VIII VI, VII, VIII VII , X, XII VIII, IX, X, XI Answer 1: III and IV Answer 2: V, VI, VII, VIII Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 14.3 Describe the structures and functions of the brain stem and reticular formation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.3 The Brain Stem and Reticular Formation Question type: Multiple choice 77) Which cranial nerve is associated with nuclei in both the medulla oblongata and pons?

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a) V b) VI c) VII d) VIII e) IX Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 14.3 Describe the structures and functions of the brain stem and reticular formation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.3 The Brain Stem and Reticular Formation Question type: Multiple choice 78) A child riding a bike falls and hits their head. The child was not wearing a helmet. In the emergency room, cerebrospinal fluid taken during a spinal tap reveals blood. The doctors diagnosed the child had torn cerebral veins as they pass to the superior sagittal sinus. What area of the body was the fluid taken? a) Epidural space b) Subarachnoid space c) Subdural space d) Superior sagittal sinus e) Lateral ventricles Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Evaluate Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Identify the major parts of the brain and explain how the brain is protected.

Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.2 Describe how the brain is protected.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Brain Organization, Protection, and Blood Supply 79) An infant has hydrocephalus. The CSF could not get out of the third ventricle. What passage was blocked ? a) central canal b) aqueduct of midbrain c) interventricular foramen d) lateral aperture e) median aperture

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Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 14.2 Explain the formation and circulation of cerebrospinal fluid.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.2 Cerebrospinal Fluid 80) Blockage of cerebrospinal fluid within the aqueduct of midbrain would result in the swelling of all ventricular spaces EXCEPT the a) Lateral ventricle b) Third ventricle c) Fourth ventricle d) Interventricular foramen e) Right and left ventricles Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 14.2 Explain the formation and circulation of cerebrospinal fluid.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.2 Cerebrospinal Fluid 81) Eating disorders may lead to extreme thirst and temperature variations. These symptoms may describe a dysfunction in the a) Thalamus b) Medulla oblongata c) Hypothalamus d) Pons e) Tectum Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 14.5 Describe the components and functions of the diencephalon (thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus).

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.5 The Diencephalon

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82) An individual cannot feel tactile sensation on the right side of the face. A lesion could be in which brainstem region? a) Medulla oblongata b) Pons c) Midbrain d) Tectum Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 14.3 Describe the structures and functions of the brain stem and reticular formation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.3 The Brain Stem and Reticular Formation 83) A patient with Wernicke’s aphasia would exhibit what issues upon examination? a) Slow, non-fluent speech devoid of meaning b) Can understand what is being said, but unable to repeat the words c) Difficulty pronouncing multisyllabic words d) No expression of fear or emotions e) Unable to recognize faces Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 14.7 Explain the functional organization of the cerebral cortex Study Objective 2: SO 14.7.1 Describe the locations and functions of the sensory, association, and motor areas of the cerebral cortex.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.7 Functional Organization of the Cerebral Cortex 84) A boy has been reported to lack fear and not show any stress in dangerous situations. These symptoms suggest issues with which area of the brain? a) Parietal lobe b) Frontal lobe c) Occipital lobe d) Amygdala e) Midbrain

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Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 14.6 Describe the features, locations, and functions of the components of the cerebrum.

Study Objective 2: SO 14.6.5 List the structures and describe the functions of the limbic system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.6 The Cerebrum 85) The left cerebellar hemisphere receives information from the ___cerebral hemisphere. This type of input is considered _____. a) Right; ipsilateral b) Right contralateral c) Left; ipsilateral d) Left; contralateral Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 14.4 Describe the structure and functions of the cerebellum.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.4 The Cerebellum

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Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pap15 Chapter Number: 15 Shuffle: Yes Case Sensitive: No Question type: Multiple Selection 1) Interoceptors can detect what sensation? Select all that apply. a) blood gas levels b) stretch of organ walls c) grilled steak aroma d) taste of chocolate e) pain Answer: abe Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Compare the structural and functional differences between the somatic and autonomic parts of the nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Comparison of Somatic and Autonomic Nervous Systems Question type: Multiple Choice 2) Autonomic motor neurons regulate visceral activities by 1. increasing activities in effector tissue.

2. decreasing activities in effector tissue.

3. allowing bidirectional conduction across synapses. a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 1 and 2 e) 1, 2, and 3 Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes

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Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Compare the structural and functional differences between the somatic and autonomic parts of the nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Comparison of Somatic and Autonomic Nervous Systems Question type: Multiple Selection 3) The autonomic nervous system is involved in controlling what effectors? Select all that apply. a) exocrine glands. b) skeletal muscle. c) cardiac muscle. d) smooth muscle. e) endocrine glands.

Answer: acde Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Compare the structural and functional differences between the somatic and autonomic parts of the nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Comparison of Somatic and Autonomic Nervous Systems 4) Which statements describe a preganglionic neuron? Select all that apply a) Has axons that exit the CNS in a cranial or spinal nerve. b) Has mostly myelinated axons. c) Forms the first part of an autonomic motor pathway. d) Has its cell body in the brain or spinal cord. e) Forms gap junctions with postganglionic neurons in autonomic ganglia. f) Has unmyelinated axons g) Releases acetylcholine h) pathway will lead to skeletal muscle Answer: abcdg Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system.

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Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways Question type: Multiple Choice 5) A postganglionic neuron in the ANS a) releases neurotransmitter that binds to the effector cell. b) is the first part of an autonomic motor pathway. c) has its cell body in the brain or spinal cord. d) has its axons exiting the CNS through cranial nerves. e) carries information into the sympathetic chain ganglia.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways Question type: Multiple Selection 6) Which neurons would normally have the shortest axons? Select all that apply a) Somatic motor neurons b) Preganglionic parasympathetic neurons c) Postganglionic sympathetic neurons d) Preganglionic sympathetic neurons e) Postganglionic parasympathetic neurons Answer 1: d Answer 2: e Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways

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7) Which of the following describes the sympathetic division of the ANS? Select all that apply. a) Ganglia primarily found in the head b) Stimulates sweat glands c) Synapses with smooth muscle in blood vessel walls d) Short preganglionic neurons e) Craniosacral output f) Always releases acetylcholine g) Releases hormones h) Increases digestive glands Answer 1: b Answer 2: c Answer 3: d Answer 4: g Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways 8) Which of the following describes the parasympathetic division of the ANS? Select all that apply. a) Short preganglionic neurons b) Synapses with smooth muscle in blood vessels walls c) Vagus nerve output d) Ganglia found near visceral effectors e) Sacral spinal cord output f) Only releases acetylcholine g) Four cranial nerves involved h) Releases norepinephrine to effectors Answer 1: c Answer 2: d Answer 3: e Answer 4: f Answer 5: g Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis

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Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways Question type: Multiple Choice 9) Which structure is dually innervated? a) radial iris muscle b) spleen c) adipose tissue d) most blood vessels e) stomach Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 2: SO 15.4 Describe the major responses of the body to stimulation by the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the ANS. Section Reference 2: Sec 15.4 Physiology of the ANS 10) Place the events in order of sympathetic motor pathway.

1. postganglionic neuron depolarizes 2. acetylcholine binds to sweat gland’s muscarinic receptor 3. postganglionic neuron releases acetylcholine 4. neuron exits lumbar segment of spinal cord 5. acetylcholine binds to nicotinic receptor 6. neuron releases acetylcholine a) 2, 3, 1, 4, 6, 5 b) 4, 6, 5, 1, 3, 2 c) 6, 4, 5, 3, 2, 1 d) 4, 5, 6, 1, 3, 2 e) 5, 3, 4, 1, 2, 6 Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Synthesize Study Objective 1: SO 15.3 Describe the neurotransmitters and receptors involved in autonomic responses.

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Section Reference 1: Sec 15.3 ANS Neurotransmitters and receptors 11) Which parasympathetic terminal ganglion is associated with the parotid salivary gland? a) Ciliary ganglion b) Pterygopalatine ganglion c) Submandibular ganglion d) Otic ganglion e) both otic and submandibular Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways 12) The largest autonomic plexus is called the a) superior mesenteric plexus. b) renal plexus. c) cardiac plexus. d) celiac plexus. e) hypogastric plexus.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways Question type: Multiple Selection 13) Which autonomic plexuses serve the large intestine? Select all that apply. a) Inferior mesenteric plexus b) Renal plexus c) Celiac plexus

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d) Hypogastric plexus e) Superior mesenteric plexus f) Pulmonary plexus g) Cardiac plexus Answer: ae Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways 14) The ______contains sympathetic preganglionic axons and connects the anterior ramus of the spinal nerve with the sympathetic trunk ganglia. a) autonomic plexus b) Greater splanchnic nerve c) meningeal branch d) White rami communicanes e) Gray rami communicanes Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system..

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways Question type: Text dropdown 15) [dropdown 1] rami communicantes contain [dropdown 2] axons and only are present in the thoracic and L1-3 region. The rami are formed from [dropdown 3] neurons.

Dropdown 1 choices: White Gray Dropdown 2 choices: Myelinated Unmyelinated

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Dropdown 3 choices: Preganglionic sympathetic Preganglionic parasympathetic Postganglionic sympathetic Postganglionic parasympathetic Answer 1: white Answer 2: myelinated Answer 3: Preganglionic sympathetic Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways Question type: Multiple Choice 16) The two main neurotransmitters of the autonomic nervous system are a) noradrenaline and adrenaline. b) adrenaline and acetylcholine. c) norepinephrine and dopamine. d) norepinephrine and acetylcholine. e) acetylcholine and dopamine.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 15.3 Describe the neurotransmitters and receptors involved in autonomic responses.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.3 ANS Neurotransmitters and Receptors 17) Acetylcholine is always released by _____ postganglionic neurons and is removed from the synaptic cleft at a _____ rate than norepinephrine. a) sympathetic; slower b) sympathetic; faster c) parasympathetic; slower d) parasympathetic; faster e) both parasympathetic and sympathetic; slower

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Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 15.3 Describe the neurotransmitters and receptors involved in autonomic responses.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.3 ANS Neurotransmitters and Receptors 18) Cholinergic receptors include a) nicotinic and adrenergic receptors b) muscarinic, alpha, and beta receptors c) adrenergic and nicotinic receptors d) nicotinic and muscarinic receptors e) alpha, beta, and nicotinic receptors Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 15.3 Describe the neurotransmitters and receptors involved in autonomic responses.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.3 ANS Neurotransmitters and Receptors 19) Autonomic tone is regulated by the a) medulla oblongata. b) cerebellum. c) cerebrum. d) vermis. e) hypothalamus.

Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 15.4 Describe the major responses of the body to stimulation by the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the ANS.

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Section Reference 1: Sec 15.4 Physiology of the ANS 20) Jennifer is at a stoplight and begins to accelerate into traffic when the light turns green. She stops suddenly as a truck runs the red light and is only a few inches away from her front bumper.

Which effect would you NOT expect to see in Jennifer's body? a) Increased heart rate b) Airway dilation c) Increased pupil diameter d) Increased secretion of digestive juices e) Increased secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Evaluate Study Objective 1: SO 15.4 Describe the major responses of the body to stimulation by the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the ANS. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.4 Physiology of the ANS Question type: Multiple Selection 21) Which contributes to the longer lasting and more widespread effects observed with sympathetic activation versus parasympathetic activation? a) Norepinephrine is more slowly removed from synapses than ACh. b) Additional norepinephrine is released from the adrenal gland. c) Greater divergence occurs in sympathetic neural pathways. d) Blood flow to the hypothalamus is decreased when sympathetic activation occurs. e) The hypothalamus only increases one system’s tone at a time. f) All parts of the hypothalamus affect the sympathetic system, while only the anterior and medial parts control the parasympathetic.

Answer 1: a Answer 2: b Answer 3: c Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Evaluate Study Objective 1: SO 15.4 Describe the major responses of the body to stimulation by the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the ANS.

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Section Reference 1: Sec 15.4 Physiology of the ANS Question type: Text Dropdown 22) [dropdown 1 innervates sweat glands over the entire body. [dropdown 2] stimulates urination and defecation. [dropdown 3] innervates the sex organs. [dropdown 4] increases gastric motility.

Dropdown choices: Sympathetic system Parasympathetic system Both sympathetic and parasympathetic systems Answer 1: Sympathetic system Answer 2: Parasympathetic system Answer 3: Both sympathetic and parasympathetic systems Answer 4: Parasympathetic Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 15.4 Describe the major responses of the body to stimulation by the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the ANS. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.4 Physiology of the ANS Question Type: Multiple Selection 23)What statements support that this diagram represents a somatic motor pathway and not an autonomic motor pathway? Select all that apply.

a) neuron cell body is in anterior root b) there is one motor neuron in the pathway c) because the motor neuron is myelinated d) because the effector is a skeletal muscle e) the neuron exits the anterior root Answer 1: b Answer 2: d

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Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Evaluate Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Compare the structural and functional differences between the somatic and autonomic parts of the nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Comparison of Somatic and Autonomic Nervous Systems

Question type: Multiple Choice 24) _____ is the neurotransmitter used by the pathway shown in the diagram and it causes ____.

a) Norepinephrine; depolarization b) Acetylcholine; depolarization c) Epinephrine; depolarization d) Norepinephrine; hyperpolarization e) Acetylcholine; hyperpolarization Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 15.3 Describe the neurotransmitters and receptors involved in autonomic responses.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.3 ANS Neurotransmitters and Receptors Question type: Multiple selection 25) Neurons leaving the superior cervical ganglion primarily serve what regions? Select all that apply a) Abdominal b) Pelvic c) Heart d) Head

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e) Lungs Answer 1: c Answer 2: d Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways 26) Which sympathetic ganglion supplies the stomach with postganglionic neurons? a) Renal ganglion b) Superior cervical ganglion c) Celiac ganglion d) Inferior mesenteric ganglion e) Ciliary ganglion Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways 27) Which nerve supplies the inferior mesenteric ganglion with preganglionic neurons? a) Lumbar splanchnic nerve b) Lesser splanchnic nerve c) Greater splanchnic nerve d) Cardiac accelerator e) Phrenic nerve Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension

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Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways Question type: Multiple Selection 28) The heart receives autonomic nervous input from which structures? Select all that apply. a) superior cervical ganglia b) middle cervical ganglia c) inferior cervical ganglia d) celiac ganglia e) aorticorneal ganglia f) otic ganglia g) vagus pathway Answer 1: a Answer 2: b Answer 3: c Answer 4:g Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways 29) Which cranial nerves contain preganglionic neurons for the parasympathetic motor pathway to the salivary glands? Select all that apply. a) Oculomotor (III) nerve b) Facial (VII) nerve c) Glossopharyngeal (IX) nerve d) Vagus (X) nerve Answer 1: b Answer 2:c Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways

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Question type: Multiple Choice 30) Postganglionic neurons from the otic ganglion supply the ____, and release ____. a) parotid gland; acetylcholine b) parotid gland; norepinephrine c) sublingual gland; acetylcholine. d) sublingual gland; norepinephrine. e) submandibular gland; acetylcholine f) submandibular gland; norepinephrine.

Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways Question type: Multiple Selection 31) Which of the following structures provides innervation for the external genitals? Select all that apply. a) Oculomotor (III) nerve b) Facial (VII) nerve c) Glossopharyngeal (IX) nerve d) Vagus (X) nerve e) Pelvic splanchnic nerve f) Hypogastric plexus g) Greater splanchnic nerve Answer 1: e Answer 2: f Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis

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Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways Question type: Multiple Choice 32) Parasympathetic innervation of the liver occurs through a) oculomotor (III) nerve b) facial (VII) nerve c) glossopharyngeal (IX) nerve d) vagus (X) nerve e) pelvic splanchnic nerve.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways 33) The sympathetic system supplies the heart and lungs when preganglionic neurons synapse with postganglionic neurons between ____. a) T1-T4 trunk ganglion b) T5-T9 trunk ganglion c) T10-T11 trunk ganglion d) three cervical ganglion e) L1-L4 ganglion Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways

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34) A doctor makes an injection of medication to relieve upper abdominal pain due to chronic pancreatitis. What area in the diagram is the nerve block targeting?

a) B b) C c) D d) M e) F Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Synthesize Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways

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35) Stimulation of the fibers associated with which plexus in the diagram can dramatically alter the pace and force of heart contraction?.

a) A b) B c) H d) I e) J Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways Question type: Multiple Selection

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36) In Hirschsprung’s disease, the baby is missing nerve cells that would innervate the large intestine. In the diagram, failure to innervate from which plexus would be the main cause of the disease?

a) K b) L c) M d) F e) N Answer 1: b Answer 2: c Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Evaluate Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways

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Question type: Multiple Selection 37) Postganglionic neurons in lumbar splanchnic nerves will extend to which plexuses in the diagram? Select all that apply.

a) J b) K c) D d) F e) N f) M g) G Answer: ef Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes

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Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways Question type: Essay 38) Describe the possible ways in which the axon of a sympathetic preganglionic neuron connects with postganglionic neurons after it reaches the sympathetic trunk ganglia.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways Solution: The axon may 1) synapse with postganglionic neurons in the first ganglion it reaches, 2) ascend or descend to higher or lower ganglia via sympathetic chains, or 3) continue without synapsing through sympathetic trunk ganglia to end at a prevertebral ganglion and synapse with postganglionic neurons there. 4) also pass, without synapsing, through the sympathetic trunk ganglion and a prevertebral ganglion and then extend to chromaffin cells of the adrenal medullae that are functionally similar to sympathetic postganglionic neurons.

39) Explain why the sympathetic division of the ANS has more widespread and longer-lasting effects than the parasympathetic division.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1 SO 15.3 Describe the neurotransmitters and receptors involved in autonomic responses.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.3 ANS Neurotransmitters and Receptors Solution: A single sympathetic preganglionic fiber has many axon collaterals (branches) and synapses with 20 or more postganglionic neurons, whereas a parasympathetic preganglionic neurons synapses with only 4 or 5 postganglionic neurons. The sympathetic neurotransmitter, norepinephrine is broken down more slowly than acetylcholine, so postganglionic cells are stimulated longer. The sympathetic division also stimulates release of catecholamines (mostly epinephrine) from the adrenal medulla, thus enhancing the sympathetic effects via the endocrine system. Also, more visceral effectors have receptors for catecholamines (norepinephrine and epinephrine) than for acetylcholine.

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40) Identify which ANS motor neurons are cholinergic and describe the potential roles that these neurons perform in the ANS. Be sure to describe the location of various postsynaptic effector cells including the type of receptor that could be potentially activated by acetylcholine.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesize Study Objective 1: SO 15.3 Describe the neurotransmitters and receptors involved in autonomic responses.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.3 ANS Neurotransmitters and Receptors Solution: The neuron could be a preganglionic neuron in either division of the ANS, a parasympathetic postganglionic neuron, or one of a few sympathetic postganglionic neurons (innervating sweat glands). The postsynaptic cell must possess either nicotinic or muscarinic receptors in order to respond to acetylcholine. This effector cell could be a postganglionic neuron of either division, a parasympathetic visceral effector, or one of the few sympathetic effectors stimulated by cholinergic neurons.

41) A patient with chronic skeletal muscle spasms was placed on an anticholinergic medication.

After taking the medication, the patient’s muscle spasms ceased, but now the patient reports a loss of muscle strength. In addition, the patient’s resting heart rate had increased. the doctor changed the medication to a lower dose and a type that specifically targets only nicotinic receptors. Explain how this could alleviate the side-effects of the first medication the patient received.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesize Study Objective 1: SO 15.3 Describe the neurotransmitters and receptors involved in autonomic responses.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.3 ANS Neurotransmitters and Receptors Solution: Medications that block the action of acetylcholine are described as anticholinergic.

Since ACh stimulates skeletal muscles to contract, blocking ACh should help reduce muscle spasms. In high enough doses, the medication might prevent the normal contraction of skeletal muscles and could, perhaps, cause a flaccid paralysis. Finding the right dose is needed to reduce spasms without this side effect. Heart rate increases because ACh usually slows heart rate so a drug that blocks ACh’s effect would lead to increased heart rate. Perhaps a medication that specifically blocked nicotinic receptors would eliminate the skeletal muscle spasms without causing increased heart rate, since the cardiac muscle has muscarinic receptors.

42) Explain how blood flow to different tissues throughout the body changes during the fight-orflight response.

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Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 15.4 Describe the major responses of the body to stimulation by the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the ANS. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.4 Physiology of the ANS Solution: During the fight-or-flight response, vasodilation occurs in those vessels serving the heart and skeletal muscles crucial to fight or flight. In contrast, vasoconstriction occurs in those vessels serving areas less vital to fighting/fleeing like skin, digestive organs, and the urinary system. The changes in blood vessel diameter are induced by activation of the sympathetic division of the ANS. 43) Compare and contrast the overall responses of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions, including specific effects at various visceral effectors.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 15.4 Describe the major responses of the body to stimulation by the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the ANS. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.4 Physiology of the ANS Solution: The sympathetic division acts to prepare the body for maximal skeletal muscle activity to either fight or flee a perceived threat. Some of the changes stimulated by sympathetic activation include: 1) increased heart rate and contractions, 2) shunting blood away from the digestive organs to the lungs, liver, heart and skeletal muscles allowing these organs to increase function, 3) bronchodilation leads to increased O2 exchange with the blood, and 4) liver also releases more glucose. These changes increase blood oxygen and glucose to provide the body cells with the ability to increase ATP production. The parasympathetic system tends to return the body to normality, and to prepare the body to acquire energy. For instance, the parasympathetic division stimulates increased blood flow to digestive, reproductive and urinary organs. More digestion and defecation occurs, sexual activity can be supported, and urine production is increased. Decreased heart rate and blood pressure also occur.

Question type: Multiple Selection

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44) What statements correctly describe the autonomic pathway shown in the diagram? Select all that apply.

a) There are two neurons in the motor pathway b) The neuron’s cell body is located in the anterior gray horn c) The neuron’s cell body is located in the lateral gray horn d) The two neurons synapse at a ganglion e) The effectors are involuntary f) The effectors are voluntary g) Both ACh and NE are released h) ACh is released at the effector Answer: acdeg Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways Question type: Multiple Choice 45) In a sympathetic division motor pathway, which neurotransmitter is released at the kidney? a) Norepinephrine b) Acetylcholine c) Epinephrine d) Dopamine e) Serotonin Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Compare the structural and functional differences between the somatic and autonomic parts of the nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Comparison of Somatic and Autonomic Nervous Systems

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46) Which neurotransmitter is released at the autonomic ganglion by the preganglionic neuron? a) Norepinephrine b) Acetylcholine c) Epinephrine d) Dopamine e) Serotonin Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Compare the structural and functional differences between the somatic and autonomic parts of the nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Comparison of Somatic and Autonomic Nervous Systems 47) Which neurotransmitter is released at the adrenal gland by the preganglionic neuron in the sympathetic pathway? a) Norepinephrine b) Acetylcholine c) Epinephrine d) Dopamine e) Serotonin Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Compare the structural and functional differences between the somatic and autonomic parts of the nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Comparison of Somatic and Autonomic Nervous Systems 48) In a parasympathetic division motor pathway, which neurotransmitter is released at the effector? a) Norepinephrine b) Acetylcholine

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c) Epinephrine d) Dopamine e) Serotonin Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Compare the structural and functional differences between the somatic and autonomic parts of the nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Comparison of Somatic and Autonomic Nervous Systems Question type: Multiple Selection 49) What statements support that this diagrams represents only one specific division of the autonomic nervous system? Select all that apply.

a) Only sympathetic division has two motor neurons in the pathway. b) Parasympathetic division only releases ACh and sympathetic releases ACh and NE c) Parasympathetic has a long preganglionic neuron and sympathethic has a short preganglionic neuron. d) Effectors in both divisions are involuntary. e) The preganglionic neuron axon in both exits the anterior root. f) Parasympathetic has a short preganglionic neuron and sympathethic has a long preganglionic neuron. g) Both divisions always release ACh at the autonomic ganglia and the effectors.

Answer 1: b Answer 2: c Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Evaluate

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Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Compare the structural and functional differences between the somatic and autonomic parts of the nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 Comparison of Somatic and Autonomic Nervous Systems Question type: Multiple Choice 50) Which structure carries 80% of the parasympathetic outflow??

a) A b) C c) D d) F e) G Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes

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Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways 51) Splanchnic nerves are primarily a) sympathetic pregagnlionic fibers b) parasympathetic pregagnlionic fibers c) sympathetic postgagnlionic fibers d) parasympathetic postgagnlionic fibers Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways Question type: Multiple Selection 52) Which ganglia are associated with thoracolumbar outflow? Select all that apply. a) paravertebral ganglia b) prevertebral ganglia c) intramural ganglia d) terminal ganglia e) postvertebral ganglia Answer 1: a Answer 2: b Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways 53) The renal plexus contains [dropdown 1], but only the [dropdown 2] innervates the kidney.

Dropdown choices: sympathetic neurons

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parasympathetic neurons both sympathetic and parasympathetic neurons Answer 1: both sympathetic and parasympathetic neurons Answer 2: sympathetic neurons Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Evaluate Study Objective 1: SO 15.4 Describe the major responses of the body to stimulation by the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the ANS. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.4 Physiology of the ANS Question type: Multiple Choice 54) Cholinergic neurons release ___ and adrenergic neurons release___. a) ACh; NE b) ACh; ACh c) NE; ACh d) NE; NE e) Epinephrine; ACh Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 15.3 Describe the neurotransmitters and receptors involved in autonomic responses.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.3 ANS Neurotransmitters and Receptors Question type: Text Dropdown 55) Muscarinic receptors are associated with [dropdown 1]. Nicotinic receptors are associated with [dropdown 2]. Beta receptors are associated with [dropdown 3].

Dropdown choices: sympathetic nervous system parasympathetic nervous system both sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system

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Answer [a]: both sympathetic and parasympathetic neurons Answer [b]: both sympathetic and parasympathetic neurons Answer [c]: sympathetic nervous system Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 15.3 Describe the neurotransmitters and receptors involved in autonomic responses.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.3 ANS Neurotransmitters and Receptors 56) [dropdown 1] receptors are always found on the membrane of the postganglionic cell body. [dropdown 2] receptors are only found in brown adipose tissue used for thermogenesis. [dropdown 3] receptors are located on the sweat gland cells of only the palms and soles.

Answer options Alpha 1 Alpha 2 Beta 1 Beta 2 Beta 3 Muscarinic Nicotinic Answer [a]: Nicotinic Answer [b]: Beta 3 Answer [c]: Alpha 1 Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 15.3 Describe the neurotransmitters and receptors involved in autonomic responses.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.3 ANS Neurotransmitters and Receptors 57) [dropdown 1] receptors cause excitation in cardiac muscle. [dropdown 2] receptors cause vasodilation in blood vessels to the heart. [dropdown 3] receptors stimulate chromaffin cells to release epinephrine and norepinephrine.

Answer options: Alpha 1 Alpha 2 Beta 1 Beta 2

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Beta 3 Muscarinic Nicotinic Answer 1: Beta 1 Answer 2: Beta 2 Answer 3: Nicotinic Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 15.3 Describe the neurotransmitters and receptors involved in autonomic responses.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.3 ANS Neurotransmitters and Receptors 58) Which plexus shown in the diagram supplies the bronchial tree?

a) A

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b) B c) C d) D e) F Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways 59) Identify the structure labeled 2 in the diagram.

a) somatic motor neuron b) parasympathetic preganglionic neuron c) parasympathetic postganglionic neuron d) sympathetic preganglionic neuron e) sympathetic postganglionic neuron Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes

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Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways 60) Identify the structure labeled 3 in the diagram.

a) somatic motor neuron. b) parasympathetic preganglionic neuron. c) parasympathetic postganglionic neuron. d) sympathetic preganglionic neuron. e) sympathetic postganglionic neuron Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways

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61) Where do the structures labeled 1 and 3 in the diagram meet?

a) paravertebral ganglia b) prevertebral ganglia c) terminal ganglia d) trunk ganglia e) chain ganglia Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways 62) ___ is characterized by an exaggerated response of the sympathetic division of the ANS that occurs in most individuals with spinal cord injury at or above T6. a) Raynaud’s phenomenon b) Autonomic dysreflexia c) Reflex sympathetic dystrophy d) Diabetic neuropathy e) Horner’s Syndrome

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Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 15.7 Describe the disorders that affect the autonomic nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Nervous System 63) Which disorder is a type of neuropathy often caused by long term diabetes mellitus? a) Raynaud’s phenomenon b) Autonomic dysreflexia c) Reflex sympathetic dystrophy d) Diabetic neuropathy e) Horner’s Syndrome Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 15.7 Describe the disorders that affect the autonomic nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Nervous System 64) Which disorder involves the loss of sympathetic innervation to one side of the face due to inherited mutation, injury or disease? a) Raynaud’s phenomenon b) Autonomic dysreflexia c) Reflex sympathetic dystrophy d) Diabetic neuropathy e) Horner’s Syndrome Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 15.7 Describe the disorders that affect the autonomic nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Nervous System Question type: Essay

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65) Based on your knowledge of ANS receptors, explain how beta blockers are able to manage conditions such as hypertension (high blood pressure)?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesize Study Objective 1: SO 15.3 Describe the neurotransmitters and receptors involved in autonomic responses.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.3 ANS Neurotransmitters and Receptors Solution: Norepinephrine and epinephrine binds to beta adrenergic receptors on heart muscle cells and stimulate an increase in heart rate and force of contraction. Beta blockers are antagonists of norepinephrine and epinephrine meaning that beta blockers can bind and block their effects, leading to a decrease in heart rate and force of contraction and lowering of blood pressure.

Question type: Multiple Choice 66) Thoracolumbar is another name for which division of ANS? a) Parasympathetic nervous system b) Sympathetic nervous system c) Somatic nervous system d) Peripheral nervous system e) Central nervous system Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways Question type: Text Dropdown 67) Increased activity of [dropdown 1] decreases heart rate. Dilation of air passageways during exercise is a result of the [dropdown 2]. Vasoconstriction of salivary gland arterioles is caused by the [dropdown 3].

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Dropdown choices: parasympathetic system sympathetic system both parasympathetic and sympathetic system Answer 1: parasympathetic system Answer 2: sympathetic system Answer 3: sympathetic system Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 15.4 Describe the major responses of the body to stimulation by the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the ANS. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.4 Physiology of the ANS 68) The [dropdown 1] endocrine gland is directly innervated by sympathetic preganglionic axons. The [dropdown 2] cells act like [dropdown 3] and are excited by [dropdown 4].

Dropdown 1 choices: pituitary pineal gland pancreas adrenal thyroid Dropdown 2 choices: chromaffin cells ciliary cells splanchnic cells medullae cells Dropdown 3 choices: preganglionic neurons postganglionic neurons Dropdown 4 choices: acetylcholine epinephrine norepinephrine dopamine Answer 1: adrenal Answer 2: chromaffin cells Answer 3: postganglionic neurons

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Answer 4: acetylcholine Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways Question type: Multiple Choice 69) Which of the following types of adrenergic receptors are only found in brown adipose tissue where their activation stimulates heat production? a) α1-adrenergic b) α2-adrenergic c) β1-adrenergic d) β2-adrenergic e) β3-adrenergic Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 15.3 Describe the neurotransmitters and receptors involved in autonomic responses.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.3 ANS Neurotransmitters and Receptors Question type: Text Dropdown 70) Dilation of the pupil occurs by stimulation of [dropdown 1] and constriction of the pupil occurs by stimulation of [dropdown 2]. α1-adrenergic α2-adrenergic β1-adrenergic β2-adrenergic β3-adrenergic nicotinic muscarinic

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Answer 1: α1-adrenergic Answer 2: muscarinic Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 15.4 Describe the major responses of the body to stimulation by the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the ANS. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.4 Physiology of the ANS Question type: Multiple choice 71) The chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla possess what type of receptor that makes them responsive to the ACh released by preganglionic sympathetic neurons? a) muscarinic receptors b) nicotinic receptors c) β1-adrenergic d) β2-adrenergic e) β3-adrenergic Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 15.3 Describe the neurotransmitters and receptors involved in autonomic responses.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.3 ANS Neurotransmitters and Receptors 72) Which of the following statements describes a common response of an autonomic effector during the “fight-or-flight” response? a) Gastric motility and secretory activity increases. b) Blood vessels serving skeletal muscles constrict. c) Adipose tissues stores away triglycerides for later use. d) The pupils of the eyes dilate. e) Blood vessels serving the kidneys and digestive organs dilate.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension

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Study Objective 1: SO 15.4 Describe the major responses of the body to stimulation by the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the ANS. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.4 Physiology of the ANS 73) Which of the following lists the components of an autonomic reflex arc in the proper sequence of activation? a) receptor – sensory neuron – integrating center – motor neuron – effector b) receptor – motor neuron – integrating center – sensory neuron – effector c) effector – sensory neuron – integrating center – motor neuron – receptor d) integrating center – receptor – sensory neuron – motor neuron – effector e) receptor – sensory neuron – motor neuron – effector – integrating center Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 15.5 Describe the components of an autonomic (visceral) reflex.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.5.1 Describe the components of an autonomic reflex.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.5 Integration and Control of Autonomic Functions 74) One of the main differences between a somatic reflex and autonomic reflex is the type of effectors that are activated. The effectors in somatic reflexes are _____, while the effectors in autonomic reflexes are _____. a) skeletal muscles; smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands b) striated muscles; smooth muscle and glands c) skeletal muscles and glands; smooth muscle and cardiac muscle d) glands; skeletal muscles, smooth muscle, and cardiac muscle e) smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands; skeletal muscles Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 15.5 Describe the components of an autonomic (visceral) reflex Study Objective 2: SO 15.5.1 Describe the components of an autonomic reflex.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.5 Integration and Control of Autonomic Functions 75) Which the following regions of the brain serve as the major control and integration center of the ANS?

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a) cerebrum b) cerebellulum c) thalamus d) hypothalamus e) pituitary Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 15.5 Describe the components of an autonomic (visceral) reflex Study Objective 2: SO 15.5.2 Explain the relationship of the hypothalamus to the ANS. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.5 Integration and Control of Autonomic Functions 76) In order for sympathetic preganglionic axons to reach prevertebral (collateral) ganglia, they must travel through a) White rami communicantes b) Gray rami communicantes c) Splanchnic nerve d) Terminal ganglia e) Cephalic periarterial nerves Answer:c Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Compare the anatomical components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways 77) Which neuron is most likely to be adrenergic? a) Sympathetic preganglionic b) Sympathetic postganglionic c) Parasympathetic preganglionic d) Parasympathetic postganglionic e) Both Sympathetic and parasympathetic preganglionic Answer: b Difficulty: Medium

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Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 15.3 Describe the neurotransmitters and receptors involved in autonomic responses.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.3 ANS Neurotransmitters and Receptors Question type: Text dropdown 78) When acetylcholine binds to [dropdown 1] receptors on postganglionic neurons or chromaffin cells it is always [dropdown 2].

Dropdown 1 choices: muscarinic receptors nicotinic receptors β1-adrenergic β2-adrenergic β3-adrenergic Dropdown 2 choices: Inhibitory Excitatory Answer 1: nicotinic Answer 2:excitatory Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 15.3 Describe the neurotransmitters and receptors involved in autonomic responses.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.3 ANS Neurotransmitters and Receptors Question type: Multiple choice 79) Beta blockers are used to a) prevent a rise in heart rate. b) prevent a drop in heart rate. c) dilate pupils. d) prevent sweating . e) decrease dry eye syndrome.

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Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 15.3 Describe the neurotransmitters and receptors involved in autonomic responses.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.3 ANS Neurotransmitters and Receptors 80. The two divisions of the autonomic nervous system have antagonistic effects on all of the following effector structures EXCEPT a) iris muscles b) gastrointestinal tract c) bronchioles d) blood vessels in skeletal muscles e) liver Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 15.4 Describe the major responses of the body to stimulation by the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the ANS. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.4 Physiology of the ANS 81) If a doctor administers atropine IV, a muscarinic antagonist, followed by a high dose of ACh, you still see an increase in heart rate. Where is the ACh acting? a) Nicotinic receptors of the postganglionic sympathetic neuron causing NE release to the heart, increasing heartrate. b) Nicotinic receptors of the postganglionic parasympathetic neuron causing ACh release to the heart, increasing heartrate c) Nicotinic receptors of the postganglionic parasympathetic neuron preventing ACh release to the heart, increasing heartrate d) Muscarinic receptors of the postganglionic sympathetic neuron causing NE release to the heart, increasing heartrate.

Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Evaluate

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Study Objective 1: SO 15.4 Describe the major responses of the body to stimulation by the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the ANS. Section Reference 2: Sec 15.4 Physiology of the ANS 82) You are just about to perform a clinical procedure for the first time and your palms begin to sweat. This is due to a) increased sympathetic stimulation of sweat glands possessing alpha 1 receptors. b) increased sympathetic stimulation of sweat glands possessing beta 2 receptors. c) increased parasympathetic stimulation of sweat glands possessing nicotinic receptors. d) increased parasympathetic stimulation of sweat glands possessing muscarinic receptors. e) increased sympathetic stimulation of sweat glands possessing muscarinic receptors.

Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 15.3 Describe the neurotransmitters and receptors involved in autonomic responses.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.4 Describe the major responses of the body to stimulation by the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the ANS. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.3 ANS Neurotransmitters and Receptors Section Reference 2: Sec 15.4 Physiology of the ANS Question type: Text dropdown 83) To decrease heart rate, the [dropdown 1] division causes a release of [dropdown 2] to [dropdown 3] receptors.

Dropdown 1 choices: parasympathetic sympathetic Dropdown 2 choices: acetylcholine norepinephrine Dropdown 3 choices: α1-adrenergic α2-adrenergic β1-adrenergic β2-adrenergic β3-adrenergic nicotinic muscarinic

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Answer 1: parasympathetic Answer 2: acetylcholine Answer 3: muscarinic Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 15.3 Describe the neurotransmitters and receptors involved in autonomic responses.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.4 Describe the major responses of the body to stimulation by the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the ANS. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.3 ANS Neurotransmitters and Receptors Section Reference 2: Sec 15.4 Physiology of the ANS 84) To decrease urine volume, the [dropdown 1] division causes a release of [dropdown 2] to [dropdown 3] receptors causing vasoconstriction of the kidney arterioles involved in filtration.

Dropdown 1 choices: parasympathetic sympathetic Dropdown 2 choices: acetylcholine norepinephrine Dropdown 3 choices: α1-adrenergic α2-adrenergic β1-adrenergic β2-adrenergic β3-adrenergic nicotinic muscarinic Answer 1: sympathetic Answer 2: norepinephrine Answer 3: α1-adrenergic Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 15.3 Describe the neurotransmitters and receptors involved in autonomic responses.

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Study Objective 2: SO 15.4 Describe the major responses of the body to stimulation by the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the ANS. Section Reference 1: Sec 15.3 ANS Neurotransmitters and Receptors Section Reference 2: Sec 15.4 Physiology of the ANS Question type: Multiple choice 85) Which statements about receptors and the neurotransmitters are true?

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

Nicotinic and muscarinic receptors respond to NE Adrenergic receptors respond to ACh ACh binding to nicotinic receptors is excitatory Adrenergic receptors are located on postganglionic neuron cell bodies NE can cause an excitatory or inhibitory effect on effectors Nicotine can mimic ACh

a) 1, 3, 4, 6 b) 1, 3, 5, 6 c) 3, 5, 6 d) 2, 4, 5 e) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 15.3 Describe the neurotransmitters and receptors involved in autonomic responses.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.3 ANS Neurotransmitters and Receptors

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Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pap15 Chapter Number: 16 Shuffle: Yes Case Sensitive: No Question type: Multiple Choice 1) How many sensory modalities can a single sensory neuron have? a) One b) Dozens c) Hundreds d) Thousands e) Two Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe sensations and the classification of sensory receptors.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.1 Define sensation, and discuss the components of sensation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Sensation 2) Place the events in order for the process of sensation?

1. Stimulation of sensory receptors 2. Generation of impulses 3. Integration of sensory input 4.Transduction of the stimulus a) 1, 2, 3, 4 b) 2, 1, 4, 3 c) 1, 4, 2, 3 d) 4, 2, 3, 1 e) 3, 2,4, 1 Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe sensations and the classification of sensory receptors.

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Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.2 Describe the different ways to classify sensory receptors.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Sensation 3) ______ are sensory receptors located in blood vessels and visceral organs, whose signals are not usually consciously perceived. a) Exteroreceptors b) Interoceptors c) Proprioceptors d) Nociceptors e) Thermoreceptors Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe sensations and the classification of sensory receptors.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.2 Describe the different ways to classify sensory receptors.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Sensation 4) ____ would detect irritation on the skin if you didn’t wear gloves while cleaning with bleach. a) Photoreceptors b) Mechanoreceptors c) Proprioceptors d) Nociceptors e) Thermoreceptors Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe sensations and the classification of sensory receptors.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.2 Describe the different ways to classify sensory receptors.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Sensation 5) After initially detecting the perfume on your partner, over time you would cease to notice it due to

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a) selectivity. b) adaptation. c) perception. d) modality. e) transduction.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe sensations and the classification of sensory receptors.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.2 Describe the different ways to classify sensory receptors.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Sensation Question type: Multiple Selection 6) Which receptor fires continuously as long as a stimulation is applied? Select all that apply. a) Corpuscle of touch (Meissner corpuscle) b) Type I cutaneous mechanoreceptor (Merkel disc) c) Lamellated (Pacinian) corpuscle d) Hair root receptor e) Photoreceptor f) Type II cutaneous mechanoreceptor (Ruffini corpuscle) g) thermoreceptor h) muscle spindles Answer: bfgh Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the locations and functions of receptors for the somatic sensations.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Describe the location and function of the somatic sensory receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Somatic 7) Which receptors fire at the onset and the offset of stimulation? Select all that apply. a) Corpuscle of touch (Meissner corpuscle) b) Type 1 cutaneous mechanoreceptor (Merkel disc)

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c) Lamellated (Pacinian) corpuscle d)Type II cutaneous mechanoreceptor (Ruffini corpuscle) e) Hair root plexus f) Joint kinesthetic receptors g) Tendon organ Answer: acef Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the locations and functions of receptors for the somatic sensations.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Describe the location and function of the somatic sensory receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Somatic Sensations Question type: Text dropdown 8) The [dropdown 1] contains the cold thermoreceptors and the [dropdown 2] contains warm thermoreceptors.

Dropdown choices: dermis stratum basale stratum corneum stratum granulosum stratum lucidum Answer 1: stratum basale Answer 2: dermis Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the locations and functions of receptors for the somatic sensations.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Describe the location and function of the somatic sensory receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Somatic Sensations Question type: Multiple Selection

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9) Which proteins can activate free nerve endings, such as itch receptors and nociceptors? Select all that apply. a) kinins b) antigens c) histamines d) potassium ions e) prostaglandins f) acetylcholine g) glucose Answer 1: a Answer 2: b Answer 3: c Answer 4: d Answer 5: e Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the locations and functions of receptors for the somatic sensations.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Describe the location and function of the somatic sensory receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Somatic Sensations 10) Which statements describe proprioception? Select all that apply. a) Proprioceptive sensations allow us to estimate the weight of certain objects. b) Proprioceptors are slowly adapting receptors. c) Proprioceptors are embedded in muscles and tendons d) Proprioceptive sensations allow us to determine position of body structures relative to each other. e) Proprioceptive sensations are used to activate the nervous system in response to threatening situations. f) Proprioceptive sensations only allow you to know the positon of body parts when looking at the part.

Answer: abcd Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis

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Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the locations and functions of receptors for the somatic sensations.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.2 Identify the receptors for proprioception and describe their functions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Somatic Sensations 11) Which of the following are correct about muscle spindles? Select all that apply. a) detect tension applied to a tendon b) detect changes in muscle tension c) perceive cutaneous sensations d) detect changes in muscle length e) monitor muscle fatigue f) participate in stretch reflexes Answer 1: d Answer 2: f Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the locations and functions of receptors for the somatic sensations.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.2 Identify the receptors for proprioception and describe their functions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Somatic Sensations Question type: Multiple Choice 12) Which proprioceptors are found in the articular capsules of synovial joints? a) Tendon organs b) Gamma motor neurons c) Muscle spindles d) Kinesthetic receptors e) Tactile receptors Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension

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Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the locations and functions of receptors for the somatic sensations.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.2 Identify the receptors for proprioception and describe their functions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Somatic Sensations 13) The postcentral gyri of the parietal lobes of the cerebral cortex a) are considered the primary gustatory area. b) receives primary somatic sensory information. c) controls voluntary body movements. d) receives visual information. e) provides the ability to move the eyeballs.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Describe the neuronal components and functions of the somatic sensory pathways.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.3.1 Describe the general components of a sensory pathway.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways Question type: Text Dropdown 14) [dropdown 1] carry afferent signals from the sensory receptor to the CNS. [dropdown 2] carry afferent signals from the thalamus to the cerebral cortex. [dropdown 3] carry sensory information from the CNS to the thalamus.

Dropdown choices: First order neurons Second order neurons Third order neurons Preganglionic neurons Motor neurons Postganglionic neurons Efferent neurons Answer 1: First order neurons Answer 2: Third order neurons Answer 3: Second order neurons

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Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Describe the neuronal components and functions of the somatic sensory pathways.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.3.1 Describe the general components of a sensory pathway.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways 15) After the sensory neurons of a somatosensory pathway enter the dorsal root, the [dropdown 1] extend from the posterior gray horn of the spinal cord and synapse with [dropdown 2] in the thalamus.

Dropdown choices: first order neurons second order neurons third order neurons preganglionic neurons motor neurons postganglionic neurons efferent neurons Answer 1: Second order neurons Answer 2: Third order neurons Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Describe the neuronal components and functions of the somatic sensory pathways.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.3.1 Describe the general components of a sensory pathway.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways Question type: Multiple choice 16) ______ convey impulses from lamellated corpuscles and synapse with another neuron in the posterior gray horn of the spinal cord. a) First order neurons b) Second order neurons c) Third order neurons d) Efferent neurons e) Motor neurons Answer: a

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Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Describe the neuronal components and functions of the somatic sensory pathways.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.3.1 Describe the general components of a sensory pathway.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways 17) Dancers being aware of their body position when they are in the air is a) visual acuity. b) thermoregulation. c) kinesthesia. d) proprioception. e) adaptation.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the locations and functions of receptors for the somatic sensations.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.2 Identify the receptors for proprioception and describe their functions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Somatic Sensations 18) If an individual decided to perform a back flip, which area organizes the necessary motor functions? a) direct motor pathways b) primary motor area c) premotor area d) primary somatosensory area e) visual association area Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 16.4 Describe the components and functions of somatic motor pathways.

Study Objective 1: SO 16.4.1 Identify the locations and functions of the different types of neurons in the somatic motor pathways.

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Section Reference 1: Sec 16.4 Somatic Motor Pathways 19) The descending pathway a) controls sensory functions. b) consists of upper and lower motor neurons. c) consists of neurons located completely within the spinal cord. d) begins in the spinal cord and ends in the brain. e) is only involved with involuntary muscle movements.

Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 16.4 Describe the components and functions of somatic motor pathways.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.4.1 Compare the locations and functions of the direct and indirect motor pathways.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.4 Somatic Motor Pathways 20) Which of the neurons in the diagram would most likely pick up an itch sensation?

a) A b) B c) C d) Both A and B e) A, B, C

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Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe sensations and the classification of sensory receptors.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.2 Describe the different ways to classify sensory receptors.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Somatic Sensations 21) Which of the neurons in the diagram is modified in a manner that helps enhance the sensitivity of the receptor?

a) A b) B c) C d) A and C e) A, B, and C Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe sensations and the classification of sensory receptors.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.2 Describe the different ways to classify sensory receptors.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Sensation

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22) Which structure in the diagram detects a needle puncture or a cut to the skin?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the locations and functions of receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations, and for proprioception.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Describe the location and function of the somatic sensory receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Sensation

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23) Which structure in the diagram is a multilayer membrane that adapts rapidly to high frequency vibrations?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the locations and functions of receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations, and for proprioception.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Describe the location and function of the somatic sensory receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Somatic Sensations

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24) Which structure in the diagram is sensitive to low vibrational frequencies and typically located in areas that lack hair?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the locations and functions of receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations, and for proprioception.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Describe the location and function of the somatic sensory receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Somatic Sensations

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25) Which structure monitors the stretching of skin during a physical therapy session?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the locations and functions of receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations, and for proprioception.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Describe the location and function of the somatic sensory receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Somatic Sensations 26) A rapid breeze causes your hairs to shift on your arms and legs. Which sensory receptor is stimulated? a) nociceptors b) Type I cutaneous mechanoreceptors

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c) Type II cutaneous mechanoreceptors d) Lamellated corpuscle e) Hair root plexus Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the locations and functions of receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations, and for proprioception.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Describe the location and function of the somatic sensory receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Somatic Sensations 27) What do the colored regions on the body’s surface in the diagram represent?

a) Dermatomes b) Areas of referred pain c) Regions of nociceptors d) Areas supplied by the primary somatosensory area e) Motor nuclei Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the locations and functions of receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations, and for proprioception.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Describe the location and function of the somatic sensory receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations.

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Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Somatic Sensations Question type: Text Dropdown 28) In this diagram neuron [dropdown 1] is a third order neuron and conducts impulses from the [dropdown 2] to the [dropdown 3].

Dropdown 1 choices: A B C Dropdown 2 choices: thalamus peripheral somatic receptors brain and spinal cord Dropdown 3 choices: primary somatosensory area of the cerebral cortex brain or spinal cord thalamus

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Answer 1: C Answer 2: thalamus Answer 3: primary somatosensory area of the cerebral cortex Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Describe the neuronal components and functions of the somatic sensory pathways.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.3.2 Describe the neuronal components and functions of the posterior column-medial lemniscus, anterolateral, trigeminothalamic, and spinocerebellar pathways.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways 29) In this diagram neuron [dropdown 1] is a first-order neuron and conducts impulses from the [dropdown 2] to the [dropdown 3].

Dropdown 1 choices: A B

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C Dropdown 2 choices: thalamus peripheral somatic receptors brain and spinal cord Dropdown 3 choices: primary somatosensory area of the cerebral cortex brain or spinal cord thalamus Answer 1: A Answer 2]: peripheral somatic receptors Answer 3: brain or spinal cord Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Describe the neuronal components and functions of the somatic sensory pathways.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.3.2 Describe the neuronal components and functions of the posterior column-medial lemniscus, anterolateral, trigeminothalamic, and spinocerebellar pathways.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways Question type: Multiple Selection

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30) Why would neuron B in the diagram be considered a second-order neuron? Select all that apply.

a) Decussation occurs b) Second-order neurons relay information from the thalamus to the cerebral cortex c) Second order neurons detect stimuli such as touch, vibration, and proprioreception. d) Second-order neurons travel in white matter pathways e) Second order neurons end in the thalamus. f) Second order neurons connect somatic receptors with the spinal cord g) Cell bodies of the second order neurons are located in the gray matter of spinal cord Answer 1: a Answer 2: d Answer 3: e Answer 4: g Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Synthesize Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Describe the neuronal components and functions of the somatic sensory pathways.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.3.2 Describe the neuronal components and functions of the posterior column-medial lemniscus, anterolateral, trigeminothalamic, and spinocerebellar pathways.

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Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways Question type: Multiple choice 31) Which of the structures in the diagram of the trigeminothalamic pathway is the trigeminothalamic tract?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application

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Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Describe the neuronal components and functions of the somatic sensory pathways.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.3.2 Describe the neuronal components and functions of the posterior column-medial lemniscus, anterolateral, trigeminothalamic, and spinocerebellar pathways.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways 32) In the trigeminothalamic pathway, first-order neuron’s cell bodies are located in the a) posterior root ganglia b) trigeminal ganglia c) pons d) posterior gray horn e) ventral posterior nucleus of the thalamus Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Describe the neuronal components and functions of the somatic sensory pathways.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.3.2 Describe the neuronal components and functions of the posterior column-medial lemniscus, anterolateral, trigeminothalamic, and spinocerebellar pathways.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways 33) The first-order neurons in the trigeminothalamic pathway synapse with second-order neurons in the ____. a) pons and medulla oblongata b) pons and midbrain c) medulla oblongata and midbrain d) thalamus and medulla oblongata e) pons and thalamus Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Describe the neuronal components and functions of the somatic sensory pathways.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.3.2 Describe the neuronal components and functions of the posterior column-medial lemniscus, anterolateral, trigeminothalamic, and spinocerebellar pathways.

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Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways 34) A first-order neuron of the posterior column-medial lemniscus pathway from the arm joins other axons to form the posterior column in the spinal column. It would synapse with secondorder neuron cell bodies located in the _____. a) gracile fasciculus b) cuneate fasciculus c) dorsal gray horn d) cuneate nucleus e) gracile nucleus Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Describe the neuronal components and functions of the somatic sensory pathways.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.3.2 Describe the neuronal components and functions of the posterior column-medial lemniscus, anterolateral, trigeminothalamic, and spinocerebellar pathways.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways 35) When distinguishing among the somatic pathways based on its name, one that begins with “spino-“, will a) start in the spinal cord and terminate in the brain, carrying motor information. b) start in the brain and terminate in the spinal cord, carrying sensory information. c) start in the brain and terminate in the spinal cord, carrying motor information. d) start in the spinal cord and terminate in the brain, carrying sensory information.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Describe the neuronal components and functions of the somatic sensory pathways.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.3.1 Describe the general components of a sensory pathway.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways Question type: Text dropdown

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36) Corticospinal pathways that decussate in the [dropdown 1] form the [dropdown 2].

Corticospinal pathways that do not decussate form the [dropdown 3]?

Dropdown 1 choices: Medulla oblongata Pons Thalamus Midbrain Dropdown 2&3 choices: Anterior corticospinal tract Indirect motor pathway Lateral corticospinal tract Answer 1: Medulla oblongata Answer 2: Lateral corticospinal tract Answer 3: Anterior corticospinal tract Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 16.4 Describe the components and functions of somatic motor pathways.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.4.2 Compare the locations and functions of the direct and indirect motor pathways.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.4 Somatic Motor Pathways Question type: Multiple Choice 37) A disorder that affects the basal nuclei would have what affect? a) loss of memory b) total loss of muscle tone c) shaking of hands d) loss of sensation e) loss of speech Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 16.4 Describe the components and functions of somatic motor pathways.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.4.3 Explain how the basal nuclei, brain stem, and cerebellum contribute to movements.

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Section Reference 1: Sec 16.4 Somatic Motor Pathways 38) You are presented with this information for a clinical case study. These statements describe what stage of sleep?

1. Decreased heart rate.

2. Decreased blood pressure.

3. Skeletal muscle tone decreases. . a) Stage 1 NREM b) Stage 2 NREM c) Stage 3 NREM d) Stage 4 NREM e) REM Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.5 Assess wakefulness, sleep, learning, and memory as integrative functions of the cerebrum.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.5.2 Describe the four stages of sleep.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.5 Integrative Functions of the Cerebrum Question type: Essay 39) You are sitting on a sunny Florida beach experiencing the sensation of warmth. Describe the anatomical structures and physiological events that allow you to perceive the warmth of the sun.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesize Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Describe the neuronal components and functions of the somatic sensory pathways.

Study Objective 2: 16.3.3 Explain the basis for mapping the primary somatosensory area.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Somatic Sensations Section Reference 2: Sec 16.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways Solution: Thermoreceptors, which are distributed throughout the skin, must be present to sense the thermal stimuli. The warmth from the sun stimulates the warm thermoreceptors to become

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activated by warming the receptive field of thermoreceptors and stimulating the production of graded potentials. When the graded potentials reach threshold, they trigger nerve impulses in the themoreceptor, which serves as a first-order neuron that transmits the information to the CNS where a second order neuron conducts impulses via neurons of the spinothalamic tract to the thalamus. From the thalamus, third order neurons conduct impulses to the primary somatosensory area of the cerebral cortex where the impulses are perceived as a feeling of warmth.

40) Synesthesia is a condition in which stimulation of one sensory modality results in perception of another. One man reportedly tastes shapes. Many synesthetic people hear colors. Based on what you know about sensation, propose a physiological mechanism that explains the phenomenon of synesthesia.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesize Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe sensations and the classification of sensory receptors.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.6 Describe the disorders that affect the sensory, motor and integrative systems.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.2 Describe the different ways to classify sensory receptors.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Sensation Section Reference 2: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Sensory, Motor and Integrative Systems.

Solution: Usually a given receptor can only convey a single type of sensory modality. For instance, photoreceptors can usually only relay impulses related to light intensity. Some receptors can relay different modalities based on the type of stimulus received. Lamellated corpuscles relay information about pressure in response to low frequency stimulation but relay information about vibration in response to higher frequency stimulation. Perhaps some types of synesthesia result from anomalous receptors that can send very different information in response to different frequency or intensity of stimulation. A stronger explanation for the phenomenon may be related to the fact that sensations are interpreted based on which part of the cerebral cortex receives the impulses from the 3rd order neuron in the sensory pathway. Synesthetic patients may have unusual distributions of neurons to the cerebral cortex. Most people would sense the taste “sweet” because their 3rd order neuron carrying those impulses terminated in the gustatory area. The man who tastes shapes may have a “sweet” neuron that terminates in the “shape” area of the visual cortex.

41) A viral infection has damaged a patient’s tectospinal tract. What signs of this damage probably helped the physicians diagnose the problem?

Answer:

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Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesize Study Objective 1: SO 16.4 Describe the components and functions of somatic motor pathways.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.4.2 Compare the locations and functions of the direct and indirect motor pathways.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.4 Somatic Motor Pathways Solution: The tectospinal tract is an extrapyramidal, or indirect, motor pathway. It conveys nerve impulses from the superior colliculus to contralateral skeletal muscles that move the head and eyes in response to visual stimuli. One sign of such damage would be the inability of the patient to turn his head toward a flashing light. The patient would also be unable to follow movements of the physician’s finger with his eyes. The patient would probably be unable to read words scrolling across a screen. Each of these deficits relates to the inability to move the head or eyes in response to visual stimuli and would alert the physician to damage of the tectospinal tract.

42) Describe the role of the reticular activating system in sleep, arousal, and consciousness.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 16.5 Assess wakefulness, sleep, learning, and memory as integrative functions of the cerebrum.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.5.1 Compare the integrative cerebral functions of wakefulness and sleep coma, and learning and memory, and language.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.5 Integrative Functions of the Cerebrum Solution: A variety of sensory stimuli feed into the RAS, which feeds into the thalamus and cerebral cortex to increase neuronal activity, causing arousal from sleep and maintaining consciousness. During periods of high ATP use, adenosine accumulates and binds to A1 receptors, inhibiting cholinergic neurons in the RAS, and inducing sleep.

43) Compare short-term memory versus long-term memory with regard to specific changes that are thought to occur in the brain.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 16.5 Assess wakefulness, sleep, learning, and memory as integrative functions of the cerebrum.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.5.3 Explain the factors that contribute to memory.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.5 Integrative Functions of the Cerebrum Solution: Short-term memory depends more on electrical and chemical events in the brain than on structural changes, such as forming new synapses. Long-term memory is thought to involve high-frequency stimulation within the hippocampus at glutamate synapses. Nitric oxide and other

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neurotransmitters may also be involved. For long term memory, neurons develop new presynaptic terminals, larger synaptic end bulbs, and more dendritic branches.

Question type: Multiple Choice 44) The sensory homunculus appears distorted in the face and hands because it is a representation of the amount of a) motor neurons for those body areas b) sensory neurons for those body areas c) prefrontal cortex dedicated to those body areas d) precentral gyrus dedicated to those body areas Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Describe the neuronal components and functions of the somatic sensory pathways.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways 45) Loss of dopamine production in the caudate nucleus is associated with a) Parkinson’s disease b) Aphasia c) Cerebral Palsy d) Narcolepsy e) Amnesia Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 16.6 Describe the disorders that affect the sensory, motor and integrative systems.

Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Sensory, Motor and Integrative Systems.

46) At the start of a concert, the pyrotechnics startle you. By the end of the concert, you cannot recall how many times there were fire displays. This lack of awareness is termed

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a) habituation b) associative learning c) sensitization d) reflexive learning e) short term memory Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 16.5 Assess wakefulness, sleep, learning, and memory as integrative functions of the cerebrum.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.5.3 Explain the factors that contribute to memory.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.5 Integrative Functions of the Cerebrum 47) A soccer ball was hit your way. You see the area you want to kick it to at the same time you are preparing to plant your foot and kick the ball. What area allows you to compare intended movement with the actual movement? a) cerebral cortex b) medulla oblongata c) midbrain d) cerebellum e) thalamus Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 16.4 Describe the components and functions of somatic motor pathways.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.4.3 Explain how the basal nuclei, brain stem, and cerebellum contribute to movements.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.4 Somatic Motor Pathways 48) When fluids are pulled into capillaries, what type of receptor will detect the resulting pressure? a) photoreceptor b) mechanoreceptor c) thermoreceptor d) chemoreceptor

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e) osmoreceptor Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe sensations and the classification of sensory receptors.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.2 Describe the different ways to classify sensory receptors.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Sensation 49) An individual with damage to their hippocampus may struggle with a) explicit memory. b) implicit memory. c) long term memory. d) memory consolidation. e) short term memory.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.5 Assess wakefulness, sleep, learning, and memory as integrative functions of the cerebrum.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.5.3 Explain the factors that contribute to memory.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.5 Integrative Functions of the Cerebrum 50) Which of the following types of stimuli is sensed using encapsulated nerve endings? a) pain b) tickle c) temperature d) itch e) vibration Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe sensations and the classification of sensory receptors.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.2 Describe the different ways to classify sensory receptors.

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Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Sensation 51) The cerebellum, premotor cortex and basal nuclei are involved in a) explicit memory b) implicit memory c) long term memory d) memory consolidation e) short term memory Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.5 Assess wakefulness, sleep, learning, and memory as integrative functions of the cerebrum.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.5.3 Explain the factors that contribute to memory.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.5 Integrative Functions of the Cerebrum 52) A patient has asthma and struggles to breathe at times. Referred pain associated with this patient would be located where on the diagram?

a) A b) B c) C d) G e) H Answer: a

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Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the locations and functions of receptors for the somatic sensations.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Describe the location and function of the somatic sensory receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Somatic Sensations 53) Pain associated with chronic cirrhosis of the liver is referred to which location on the diagram?

a) B b) G c) H d) F e) D Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the locations and functions of receptors for the somatic sensations.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Describe the location and function of the somatic sensory receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Somatic Sensations

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54) To determine if there is pain referral to a tooth versus pain arising in a tooth, a local anesthetic to the jaw can be given. If the pain persists despite the anesthetic this could be a sign of

a) stomach issues. b) liver issues. c) lung and diaphragm issues. d) kidney issues. e) heart issues.

Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the locations and functions of receptors for the somatic sensations.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Describe the location and function of the somatic sensory receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Somatic Sensations Question type: Multiple Selection 55) Sharp pains occurring at the tip of the xiphoid process of the sternum can be an indication of visceral pain in what organs? Select all that apply. a) heart

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b) pancreas c) gallbladder d) liver e) ovary f) small intestine g) stomach Answer: bcg Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the locations and functions of receptors for the somatic sensations.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Describe the location and function of the somatic sensory receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Somatic Sensations Question type: Multiple choice

56) An individual with ovarian cysts, will have referred pain around their a) lumbar marking b) umbilical marking c) areolar marking d) axillary marking e) inguinal marking Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the locations and functions of receptors for the somatic sensations.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Describe the location and function of the somatic sensory receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Somatic Sensations Question type: Text dropdown

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57) As you extend your arm, two tracts work together to maintain posture and muscle tone.

Muscles in your proximal limb will be excited by the [dropdown 1 and inhibited by the [dropdown 2].

Dropdown choices: corticobulbar tract lateral reticulosppinal tract medial reticulospinal tract rubrospinal tract tectospinal tract vestibulospinal tract Answer 1: medial reticulospinal tract Answer 2: Lateral reticulospinal tract Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 16.4 Describe the components and functions of somatic motor pathways.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.4.3 Compare the locations and functions of the direct and indirect motor pathways.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.4 Somatic Motor Pathways 58) Choose the correct sequence of events for the control of body movement.

1. stimulation of upper motor neurons 2. descending tracts 3. beginning of voluntary movement 4. skeletal muscle contraction 5. stimulation of lower motor neurons 6. cerebral cortex’s premotor areas a) 3, 6, 1, 2, 5, 4 b) 4, 5, 2, 1, 6, 3 c) 2, 3, 1, 5, 6, 4 d) 3, 1, 6, 5, 2, 4 e) 1, 3, 4, 2, 6, 5 Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Synthesize Study Objective 1: SO 16.4 Describe the components and functions of somatic motor pathways.

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Study Objective 2: SO 16.4.3 Compare the locations and functions of the direct and indirect motor pathways.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.4 Somatic Motor Pathways 59) The [dropdown 1] conveys impulses for pain, temperature, tickle and itch. The [dropdown 2] conveys impulses for conscious proprioception, pressure and vibration from the lower half of the body, while the [dropdown 3] conveys the same impulses from the upper half of the body. The [dropdown 4] conveys impulses for subconscious proprioception.

Dropdown choices: cuneate fasciculus gracile fasciculus spinothalamic tract spinoreticular tract spinocerebellar tract trigeminothalamic tract Answer 1: spinothalamic Answer 2: gracile fasciculus Answer 3: cuneate fasciculus Answer 4: spinocerebellar Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 3: SO 16.3 Describe the neuronal components and functions of the somatic sensory pathways.

Study Objective 4: 16.3.3 Explain the basis for mapping the primary somatosensory area.

Section Reference 2: Sec 16.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways 60) Which disorder is characterized by difficulty in falling asleep and staying asleep? a) narcolepsy b) insomnia c) sleep apnea d) coma e) amnesia Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: knowledge

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Study Objective 1: SO 16.5 Assess wakefulness, sleep, learning, and memory as integrative functions of the cerebrum.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.5.1 Compare the integrative cerebral functions of wakefulness and sleep coma, and learning and memory, and language.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.5 Integrative Functions of the Cerebrum 61) Which disorder is characterized by involuntary periods of sleep that occur throughout the day? a) narcolepsy b) insomnia c) sleep apnea d) coma e) amnesia Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 16.5 Assess wakefulness, sleep, learning, and memory as integrative functions of the cerebrum.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.5.1 Compare the integrative cerebral functions of wakefulness and sleep, and learning and memory.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.5 Integrative Functions of the Cerebrum 62) Which disorder is characterized by a person’s breathing repeatedly stopping for 10 or more seconds while sleeping? a) narcolepsy b) insomnia c) sleep apnea d) coma e) amnesia Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 16.5 Assess wakefulness, sleep, learning, and memory as integrative functions of the cerebrum.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.5.1 Compare the integrative cerebral functions of wakefulness and sleep coma, and learning and memory, and language.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.5 Integrative Functions of the Cerebrum

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63) Which condition is a state of unconsciousness in which a person’s responses to stimuli are reduced or absent? a) narcolepsy b) insomnia c) sleep apnea d) coma e) amnesia Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 16.5 Assess wakefulness, sleep, learning, and memory as integrative functions of the cerebrum.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.5.1 Compare the integrative cerebral functions of wakefulness and sleep coma, and learning and memory, and language.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.5 Integrative Functions of the Cerebrum 64) Which condition is characterized by a lack of memory for events occurring after the trauma or disease that caused the condition? a) narcolepsy b) retrograde amnesia c) sleep apnea d) coma e) anterograde amnesia Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 16.5 Assess wakefulness, sleep, learning, and memory as integrative functions of the cerebrum.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.5.1 Compare the integrative cerebral functions of wakefulness and sleep coma, and learning and memory, and language.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.5 Integrative Functions of the Cerebrum Question type: Essay

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65) Classify the three types of sensory receptors categorized based on their location, identify the origin of stimuli that activate them, and describe the nature of the stimuli that cause their excitation.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe sensations and the classification of sensory receptors.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.2 Describe the different ways to classify sensory receptors.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Sensation Solution: (1) Exteroceptors are sensitive to stimuli originating outside the body and provide information about the external environment such as hearing, vision, smell, taste, touch, pressure and temperature. (2) Interoceptors monitor conditions in the internal environment such as blood pressure. The sensations are usually not consciously perceived. (3) Proprioceptors are located in muscles, joints, tendons and the inner ear. They provide information about body position by detecting muscle tension, the position and movement of the joints.

66) List the six types of sensory receptors classified based on the type of stimulus they detect and describe the types of stimuli that each type can detect.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe sensations and the classification of sensory receptors.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.2 Describe the different ways to classify sensory receptors.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Sensation Solution: (1) Mechanoceptors: detect mechanical stimuli such as touch, pressure, and stretch. (2) Thermoreceptors: detect changes in temperature. (3) Nociceptors: respond to painful stimuli. (4) Photoreceptors: detect light. (5) Chemoreceptors: detect chemicals in the mouth (taste), nose (smell) and body fluids. (6) Osmoreceptors: detects osmotic pressure of body fluids.

67) Describe what phantom limb sensation is and explain why the patient experiences these sensations.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the locations and functions of receptors for the somatic sensations.

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Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Describe the location and function of the somatic sensory receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Somatic Sensations Solution: When a limb has been amputated, the patient still feels the sensations of itch, pressure, tingling or pain as if the limb is still there. It is believed that the cerebral cortex interprets impulses arising in the proximal portions of sensory neurons that previously carried impulses from the limb as coming from the non-existing limb. Another possible explanation is that the brain contains networks of neurons that generate sensations of body awareness and functional reorganization allows it to respond to stimuli from another body part, giving a false sense of perception from the missing limb.

Question type: Text Dropdown 68) Sensory neurons in the muscle spindle are activated during muscle [dropdown 1]. Activation of gamma motor neurons in the muscle spindle cause [dropdown 2] of intrafusal muscle fibers.

Dropdown choices: muscle contraction muscle stretch Answer 1: muscle stretch Answer 2]: muscle contraction Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the locations and functions of receptors for the somatic sensations.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.2 Identify the receptors for proprioception and describe their functions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Somatic Sensations 69) [dropdown 1] motor neurons innervate [dropdown 2] muscle fibers, which surround muscle spindles.

Dropdown 1 choices: Alpha Beta Gamma Delta Dropdown 2 choices: intrafusal

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extrafusal Answer 1: alpha Answer 2: extrafusal Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the locations and functions of receptors for the somatic sensations.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.2 Identify the receptors for proprioception and describe their functions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Somatic Sensations Question type: Multiple Choice 70) The integration centers for sensations that are consciously perceived (like vision, smell, taste, and pain) are found in the a) cerebellum. b) basal nuclei. c) pontine nuclei. d) cerebral cortex. e) thalamus.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe sensations and the classification of sensory receptors.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.1 Define sensation, and discuss the components of sensation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 71) The cell bodies for _____ are found in the anterior gray horns and cranial nerve nuclei of the brainstem. The cell bodies for _____ are found in the cerebral cortex. a) lower motor neurons; upper motor neurons. b) upper motor neurons; lower motor neurons c) upper motor neurons; middle motor neurons d) middle motor neurons; upper motor neurons e)lower motor neurons; middle motor neurons Answer: a

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Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 16.4 Describe the components and functions of somatic motor pathways.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.4.1 Identify the locations and functions of the different types of neurons in the somatic motor pathways.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.4 Somatic Motor Pathways 72) All of the following result from some form of malfunction by the basal nuclei EXCEPT a) Huntington’s disease. b) Parkinson’s disease. c) Tourette’s syndrome. d) Obsessive-compulsive disorder. e) Synesthesia.

Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 16.4 Describe the components and functions of somatic motor pathways.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.4.3 Explain how the basal nuclei, brain stem, and cerebellum contribute to movements.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.4 Somatic Motor Pathways 73) Infants spend approximately 50% of their sleeping time in a) stage one NREM sleep. b) stage two NREM sleep. c) stage three NREM sleep. d) stage four NREM sleep. e) REM sleep.

Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 16.5 Assess wakefulness, sleep, learning, and memory as integrative functions of the cerebrum.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.5.2 Describe the four stages of sleep.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.5 Integrative Functions of the Cerebrum

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74) Which of the following stages of non-rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep is considered the deepest level of sleep? a) Stage one b) Stage two c) Stage three d) Stage four Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 16.5 Assess wakefulness, sleep, learning, and memory as integrative functions of the cerebrum.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.5.2 Describe the four stages of sleep.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.5 Integrative Functions of the Cerebrum 75) During the process of learning, the brain shows a characteristic called _____, which is the ability to change in response to intensive usage for a particular task like memorizing a page of physiology notes. a) habituation b) desensitization c) plasticity d) reflexes e) palsy Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.5 Assess wakefulness, sleep, learning, and memory as integrative functions of the cerebrum.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.5.3 Explain the factors that contribute to memory.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.5 Integrative Functions of the Cerebrum Question type: Essay

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76) Why is pain related to myocardial ischemia, a disorder resulting in reduced oxygen delivery to the heart, often referred?

Answer: Cardiac pain is often referred to areas of the body which have sensory impulses being served by the same segment of the spinal cord that receive cardiac sensation, especially on the left side.

The sensory nerves from the heart and blood vessels travel through the cardiac plexus to the dorsal roots and ganglia of T1-T4. The common sites of referred pain include neck, chest, jaw, and left shoulder and arm.

Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesize Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the locations and functions of receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations, and for proprioception.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Describe the location and function of the somatic sensory receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Somatic Sensations 77) [dropdown 1] motor neurons innervate [dropdown 2] muscle fibers, which are specialized muscle fibers within a muscle spindle necessary for fine motor control.

Dropdown 1 choices: Alpha Beta Gamma Delta Dropdown 2 choices: extrafusal intrafusal Answer 1: gamma Answer 2: intrafusal Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the locations and functions of receptors for the somatic sensations.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.2 Identify the receptors for proprioception and describe their functions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Somatic Sensations

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78) A loud noise startles you during an exam so you turn to look in the direction from which it originated. The ______receives input for visual stimuli and input for auditory stimuli via connections to the _____ before sending action potentials along the ______tract. a) superior colliculus; inferior colliculus; tectospinal tract b) inferior colliculus; superior colliculus; tectospinal tract c) superior colliculus; inferior colliculus; rubrospinal tract d) inferior colliculus; superior colliculus; rubrospinal tract Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 16.4 Describe the components and functions of somatic motor pathways.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.4.3 Explain how the basal nuclei, brain stem, and cerebellum contribute to movements.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.4 Somatic Motor Pathways 79) The red nucleus sends signals along the ______tract, which activates _____movements of skeletal muscles in the distal parts of only the upper limbs. a) Rubrospinal tract; precise b) Tectospinal tract; precise c) Corticospinal tract; precise d) Rubrospinal tract; broad e) Corticospinal tract; broad Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 16.4 Describe the components and functions of somatic motor pathways.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.4.3 Explain how the basal nuclei, brain stem, and cerebellum contribute to movements.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.4 Somatic Motor Pathways Question type: Multiple selection 80) The corticobulbar pathway synapses with lower motor neurons in nuclei of which cranial nerves? Select all that apply.

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a) II b) III c) IV d) V e) VI f) VII g) VIII h) IX i) XI j) XII Answer 1: b Answer 2: Answer 3: c Answer 4: d Answer 5: e Answer 6:f Answer 7: h Answer 8: i Answer 9: j Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 16.4 Describe the components and functions of somatic motor pathways.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.4.2 Compare the locations and functions of the direct and indirecmotor pathways.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.4 Somatic Motor Pathways Question type: Text Dropdown 81) The [dropdown 1] pathway is important for movements on opposite sides of the body for distal and proximal portions of the limbs. The [dropdown 2] pathway conveys nerve impulses for precise movements of the head and neck. The [dropdown 3] pathway conveys impulses from the red nucleus that help with precise movements of distal portions of upper limbs. The [dropdown 4] pathway relays information for ipsilateral movements pertaining to posture and balance relating to the head. The [dropdown 5] pathway relays impulses to ipsilateral muscles to maintain posture and muscle tone in relationship to walking.

Dropdown choices: corticobulbar corticospinal reticulospinal rubrospinal

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tectospinal vestibulospinal Answer 1: corticospinal Answer 2: corticobulbar Answer 3: rubrospinal Answer 4: vestibulospinal Answer 5: reticulospinal Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 16.4 Describe the components and functions of somatic motor pathways.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.4.2 Compare the locations and functions of the direct and indirect motor pathways.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.4 Somatic Motor Pathways 82) [dropdown 1] are activated by an increase in tendon tension. [dropdown 2] detect deep pressure and vibration. [dropdown 3] are activated by low frequency vibrations.

Dropdown choices: Corpuscle of touch Lamellated corpuscle Merkel cell Muscle spindle Tendon organ Answer 1: Tendon organs Answer 2: Lamellated corpuscles Answer 3: Corpuscle of touch Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the locations and functions of receptors for the somatic sensations.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Describe the location and function of the somatic sensory receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations.

Study Objective 3: SO 16.2.2 Identify the receptors for proprioception and describe their functions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Somatic Question type: Multiple Choice

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83) You have a pillow in one hand and are about to pick up your Anatomy and Physiology textbook. What receptor will help determine the muscular effort needed for these two objects? a) proprioceptors b) nociceptors c) mechanoreceptors d) chemoreceptors e) Type II cutaneous mechanoreceptors Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the locations and functions of receptors for the somatic sensations.

Study Objective 3: SO 16.2.2 Identify the receptors for proprioception and describe their functions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Somatic 84) You are playing outside in -9° C (15° F). Why do you feel sharp pains in your hands when you grab material. a) Cold receptors are found throughout the entire dermis. b) Pain receptors are stimulated by extreme temperatures. c) Cold receptors only work between 30-45° C. d) Pain and cold receptors are the same free nerve ending. e) Cold receptors halt sending signals after the initial stimulus.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the locations and functions of receptors for the somatic sensations.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Describe the location and function of the somatic sensory receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Somatic 85) If spinal cord injury occurred to the spinothalamic tract, a) Ipsilateral cutaneous sensations would be lost b) Contralateral cutaneous sensations would be lost c) Ipsilateral proprioception sensations would be lost

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d) Contralateral proprioception sensations would be lost Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Describe the neuronal components and functions of the somatic sensory pathways.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.3.2 Describe the neuronal components and functions of the posterior column-medial lemniscus, anterolateral, trigeminothalamic, and spinocerebellar pathways.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways

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Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pap15 Chapter Number: 17 Shuffle: Yes Case Sensitive: No Question type: Multiple Choice 1) Olfactory epithelium is found a) throughout the nasal cavity. b) only in the superior portion of the nasal cavity. c) only in the inferior portion of the nasal cavity. d) from the vestibule to the pharynx. e) only in the mid-nasal ridges.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the olfactory receptors and the neural pathway for olfaction.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.1 Describe the structure of the olfactory receptors and other cells involved in olfaction.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Olfaction: Sense of Smell 2) _____ bind the odorants and begin signal transduction. a) Olfactory cilia b) Supporting cells c) Basal stem cells d) Bowman’s glands e) Gustatory receptor cells Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the olfactory receptors and the neural pathway for olfaction.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.1 Describe the structure of the olfactory receptors and other cells involved in olfaction.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Olfaction: Sense of Smell

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Question type: Text dropdown 3) Olfaction has a [dropdown 1] threshold, and adaptation of the olfactory sense to the continued presentation of an odorant [dropdown 2].

Dropdown 1 choices: high low no Dropdown 2 choices: does not occur enhances gustation increases sensitivity to that odorant occurs rapidly occurs slowly Answer 1: low Answer 2: occurs rapidly Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the olfactory receptors and the neural pathway for olfaction.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.1 Describe the structure of the olfactory receptors and other cells involved in 4olfaction.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Olfaction: Sense of Smell Question type: Multiple choice 4) In the olfactory pathway, axons of the mitral cells form the _________. The axons project to the _________. a) olfactory tract; thalamus and cerebral cortex b) olfactory tract; cerebral cortex and limbic system c) olfactory bulbs; thalamus and cerebral cortex d) olfactory bulbs; temporal lobe and cerebral cortex e) glomeruli; cerebral cortex and limbic system.

Answer: b

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Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the olfactory receptors and the neural pathway for olfaction.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.2 Outline the neural pathway for olfaction.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Olfaction: Sense of Smell Question Type: Text Dropdown 5) [___] provide for the sense of taste.

Dropdown choices: Basal stem cells Hair cells Gustatory cells Olfactory cilia Photoreceptors Answer: Gustatory cells Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 17.2 Describe the structure of gustatory receptors and the neural pathway for gustation.

Study Objective 1: SO 17.2 .1 Identify the five primary tastes.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.2 Gustation: Sense of Taste Question type: Multiple Selection 6) Which areas will contain taste buds in adults? Select all that apply. a) epiglottis b) vallate papilla c) filiform papilla d) foliate papilla e) fungiform papilla f) soft palate g) pharynx h) hard palate

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Answer 1: a Answer 2: b Answer 3: e Answer 4: f Answer 5: g Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 17.2 Describe the structure of gustatory receptors and the neural pathway for gustation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.2 Gustation: Sense of Taste Question type: Multiple Choice 7) Which papillae increase surface area but do not aid in direct gustation? a) Vallate b) Fungiform c) Foliate d) Filiform e) Circumvallate Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 17.2 Describe the structure of gustatory receptors and the neural pathway for gustation.

Study Objective 1: SO 17.2 .1 Identify the five primary tastes.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.2 Gustation: Sense of Taste Question type: Multiple Selection 8) Which of the following nerves conducts impulses associated with the sense of gustation? a) Vestibulocochlear b) Oculomotor c) Vagus d) Trigeminal

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e) Facial f) Glossopharyngeal g) Hypoglossal h) Abducens Answer 1: c Answer 2: e Answer 3: f Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 17.2 Describe the structure of gustatory receptors and the neural pathway for gustation.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.2 .3 Describe the gustatory pathway to the brain.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.2 Gustation: Sense of Taste Question type: Multiple Choice 9) After staying up all night to study, your eyes are bloodshot. The vasculature in what area is congested and dilated? a) cornea b) lacrimal puncta c) palpebral conjunctiva d) bulbar conjunctiva e) retina Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 17.4 Identify the accessory structures of the eye.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.4 Accessory Structures of the eye Question type: Multiple Selection 10) Sebaceous glands are located in what areas of the eye? Select all that apply. a) Palpebral conjunctiva b) Levator palpebrae

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c) Lacrimal caruncle d) Tarsal plate e) Bulbar conjunctiva f) Base of eyelashes Answer 1: c Answer 2: d Answer 3: f Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 17.3 Describe the structural and functional components of the eye and those of the vision pathway.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.4 Identify the accessory structures of the eye.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.3 Vision Section Reference 2: Sec 17.4 Accessory Structures of the Eye 11) Pink eye is an infection of the thin mucous membrane that protects the inner aspect of the eyelids and the anterior portion of the sclera. What membrane is involved? a) Palpebral fissure b) Conjunctiva c) Lateral commissure d) Cornea e) Choroid Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 17.3 Describe the structural and functional components of the eye and those of the vision pathway.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.4 Identify the accessory structures of the eye.SO 17.4 Identify the accessory structures of the eye.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.3 Vision 12) Infection of a sebaceous ciliary gland can result in a) blood shot eyes. b) inhibition of tear production. c) a sty. d) glaucoma.

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e) blindness.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 17.3 Describe the structural and functional components of the eye and those of the vision pathway.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.4 Identify the accessory structures of the eye.SO 17.4 Identify the accessory structures of the eye.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.3 Vision Question type: Essay 13) List the structures, spaces, and fluids that light must pass through to reach the retina, and the cells in the retina to reach the photoreceptor cells.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 175 Explain the structure and function of each component of the eyeball.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.5.1 Identify the components of the eye.

Section Reference 1: 17.5 Anatomy of the Eyeball Solution: Cornea, Aqueous humor, Pupil, Lens, Vitreous humor, Ganglion cells, Bipolar cells, Photoreceptor cells.

Question type: Multiple Choice 14) Place the flow of tears in correct order.

1. lacrimal gland 2.lacrimal sac 3.lacrimal duct 4. superior or inferior lacrimal canal 5. nasolacrimal duct 6. nasal cavity

a) 6, 5, 2, 4, 3, 1 b) 2, 5, 3, 4, 1, 6

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c) 3, 1, 4, 2, 5, 6 d) 1, 3, 4, 2, 5, 6 e) 2, 5, 6, 1, 3, 4 Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 17.4 Identify the accessory structures of the eye.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.4 Accessory Structures of the eye 15) How many extrinsic eye muscles are responsible for moving each eye? a) 10 b) 12 c) 6 d) 4 e) 20 Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 17.4 Identify the accessory structures of the eye.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.4 Accessory Structures of the eye 16) Which is the transparent layer on the anterior of the eyeball through which the iris can be observed? a) Retina b) Choroid c) Sclera d) Ciliary body e) Cornea Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 175 Explain the structure and function of each component of the eyeball.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.5.1 Identify the components of the eye.

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Section Reference 1: 17.5 Anatomy of the Eyeball 17) The ______ regulates the amount of light entering the eyeball through the pupil. a) retina b) cornea c) iris d) lens e) fovea centralis Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 175 Explain the structure and function of each component of the eyeball.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.5.1 Identify the components of the eye.

Section Reference 1: 17.5 Anatomy of the Eyeball 18) ______are proteins that make up the refractive portion of the lens. a) Collagen b) Ciliary bodies c) Crystallins d) Elastin e) Keratin Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 17.5 Explain the structure and function of each component of the eyeball.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.5.1 Identify the components of the eye.

Section Reference 1: 17.5 Anatomy of the Eyeball 19) What lies between the lens and the retina? a) Vitreous chamber b) Anterior chamber c) Anterior cavity d) Cornea e) Aqueous humor Answer: a

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 17.3 Describe the structural and functional components of the eye and those of the vision pathway.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.4 Identify the accessory structures of the eye.SO 17.4 Identify the accessory structures of the eye.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.4 Accessory Structures of the Eye

Question type: Text dropdown 20) Circular muscles of the iris are controlled by the [dropdown 1] nervous system and cause the pupil to [dropdown 2]. Radial muscles of the iris are controlled by the [dropdown 3] nervous system and cause the pupil to [dropdown 4]. The circular muscles are controlled specifically by the [dropdown 5] cranial nerve.

Dropodwn 1&3 choices: central enteric parasympathetic sympathetic Dropodwn 2&4 choices: constrict dilate Dropodwn 5 choices: Optic abducens oculomotor trochlear Answer 1: parasympathetic Answer 2: constrict Answer 3: sympathetic Answer 4: dilate Answer 5: oculomotor Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 17.5 Explain the structure and function of each component of the eyeball.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.5.2 Discuss the functions of the components of the eye.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.5 Anatomy of the Eyeball

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21) Individuals that have osteogenesis imperfecta have malformed collagen fibers. The [dropdown 1] is thinner, affecting the eye’s strength. Due to this, the whites of the eyes often appear grayish-blue, because the dark pigmented [dropdown 2] layer is seen.

Dropdown choices: choroid conjunctiva iris retina sclera Answer 1:sclera Answer 2: choroid Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 17.5 Explain the structure and function of each component of the eyeball.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.5.1 Identify the components of the eye.

Study Objective 3: SO 17.5.2 Discuss the functions of the components of the eye.

Section Reference 1: 17.5 Anatomy of the Eyeball Question type: Multiple choice 22) ______ receptors are primarily used for detecting light rays under bright light conditions. a) Basal cell b) Rods c) Cones d) Ganglion e) Amacrine cell Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 17.5 Explain the structure and function of each component of the eyeball.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.5.2 Discuss the functions of the components of the eye.

Section Reference 1: 17.5 Anatomy of the Eyeball 23) The first step in the visual transduction process that occurs in the retina is a) activation of amacrine cells. b) absorption of scattered light by the pigmented epithelium.

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c) interruption of the dark current. d) absorption of light by photopigments. e) generation of action potentials in the optic nerve.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 17.6 Explain how visual stimuli are received and transmitted to the brain.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.6.1 Discuss how an image is formed by the eye.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.6 Physiology of Vision 24) Light enters the retina through the layers of neural retina in this order ______; however information is processed through this order _______ in the retina 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Photoreceptor cell layer Bipolar cell layer Inner synaptic layer Outer synaptic layer Ganglion cell layer

a) 1, 4, 2, 3, 5 / 5, 3, 2, 4, 1 b) 5, 3, 2, 4, 1 / 1, 4, 2, 3, 5 c) 4, 1, 3, 2, 5 / 5, 2, 3, 1, 4 d) 5, 2, 1, 3, 4 / 4, 3, 1, 2, 5 e) 3, 4, 5, 2, 1 / 1, 2, 5, 4, 3 Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 17.5 Explain the structure and function of each component of the eyeball.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.5.2 Discuss the functions of the components of the eye.

Section Reference 1: 17.5 Anatomy of the Eyeball 25) What ear structure vibrates back and forth when sound waves strike? a) cochlea b) pinna c) tympanic membrane d) spiral organ e) vestibulocochlear nerve

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Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 17.7 Explain how auditory sensations are received and transmitted to the brain.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.7.1 Describe the anatomy of the structures in the three main regions of the ear.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.7 Hearing Question type: Text dropdown 26) Pressure waves in endolymph cause the [dropdown 1] to vibrate, which moves hair cells of the [dropdown 2]. The hair cells touch the [dropdown 3] which bends the seterocilia and generates nerve impulses in first-order neurons.

Dropdown 1&3 choices: basilar membrane tectorial membrane vestibular membrane Dropdown 2 choices: helicotrema oval window round window spiral organ Answer 1: basilar membrane Answer 2: spiral organ Answer 3: tectorial membrane Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 17.7 Explain how auditory sensations are received and transmitted to the brain.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.7.2 List the major events in the physiology of hearing.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.7 Hearing 27) Place the events of sound transduction in order.

1. Exocytosis of neurotransmitters occurs

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2. Mechanically-gated channels fully open allowing K+ to enter 3. Calcium voltage-gated channels open 4. stereocilia of hair cells bend 5. Higher frequency of action potentials in first-order neurons 6. Cations entering cause depolarization a) 5, 1, 3, 2, 6, 4 b) 2, 6, 3, 4, 1, 5 c) 4, 1, 6, 3, 2, 5 d) 6, 4, 2, 3, 5, 1 e) 4, 2, 6, 3, 1, 5 Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 17.7 Explain how auditory sensations are received and transmitted to the brain.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.7.2 List the major events in the physiology of hearing.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.7 Hearing 28) Dynamic equilibrium is maintained by the a) cochlea. b) semicircular canals. c) vestibule. d) spiral organ. e) utricle and saccule.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 17.8 Explain how equilibrium sensations are received and transmitted to the brain.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.8.1 Explain the function of each of the receptor organs for equilibrium.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.8Equilibrium

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29) Sweet, salty, bitter, sour, and umami can be detected on which tastebud in the diagram?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) A and B f) A, B and C g) A, B, C, and D Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 17.2 Describe the structure of gustatory receptors and the neural pathway for gustation.

Study Objective 1: SO 17.2.1 Identify the five primary tastes.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.2 Gustation: Sense of Taste 30) ___________are the thin protective mucous membranes composed of stratified squamous epithelium with numerous goblet cells. a) bulbar and palpebral conjunctiva b) palpebral conjunctiva and cornea c) scleral venous sinus and bulbar conjunctiva

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d) cornea and scleral venous sinus e) tarsal glands and palpebral conjunctiva Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 17.4 Identify the accessory structures of the eye.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.4 Accessory Structures of the Eye 31) In the diagram, which is a modified sebaceous gland that keeps the eyelids from sticking to each other ?

a) D b) E c) F d) G e) C Answer: b

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Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 17.4 Identify the accessory structures of the eye.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.4 Accessory Structures of the Eye 32) The lens accommodates when contraction of _______ pulls on _______. a) ciliary processes; ciliary muscle b) ciliary muscle; zonular fibers c) suspensory ligaments; zonular fibers d) zonular fibers; ciliary muscles e) ora seratta; suspensory ligaments Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 17.5 Explain the structure and function of each component of the eyeball.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.5.1 Identify the components of the eye.

Study Objective 3: SO 17.5,2 Discuss the functions of the components of the eye.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.4 Accessory Structures of the Eye Question type: Text Dropdown

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33) In the diagram G represents the [dropdown 1] which is filled with [dropdown 2] that is made by the [dropdown 3]

Dropdown 1 choices: anterior cavity anterior chamber posterior chamber vitrios chamber Dropdown 2 choices: aqueous humor endolymph vitreous humor perilymph Dropdown 3 choices: ciliary processes crystallins lens zonular fibers Answer 1: anterior cavity Answer 2: aqueous humor Answer 3: ciliary processes

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Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 17.5 Explain the structure and function of each component of the eyeball.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.5.2 Discuss the functions of the components of the eye.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.5 Anatomy of the Eyeball Question type: Multiple Choice 34) In the diagram what structure is primarily composed of dense connective tissue with high amounts of collagen fibers and fibroblasts?

a) F b) E c) D d) A e) H Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes

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Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 17.5 Explain the structure and function of each component of the eyeball.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.5.1 Identify the components of the eye.

Study Objective3: SO 17.5.2 Discuss the functions of the components of the eye.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.5 Anatomy of the Eyeball 35) Why is the optic disc known as the blind spot? a) Rods and cones are inactive in that area. b) There is no retinal layer so there are no cones and rods. c) The macula degenerated over the optic disc d) The neural circuits lack amacrine and horizontal cells. e) layer of bipolar and ganglion cells do not cover the cones in this area.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 17.5 Explain the structure and function of each component of the eyeball.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.5.1 Identify the components of the eye.

Study Objective3: SO 17.5.2 Discuss the functions of the components of the eye.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.5 Anatomy of the Eyeball 36) Ciliary bodies are composed of a) striated muscle. b) cardiac muscle c) skeletal muscle d) radial smooth muscle e) circular smooth muscle Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 17.5 Explain the structure and function of each component of the eyeball.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.5.1 Identify the components of the eye.

Study Objective3: SO 17.5.2 Discuss the functions of the components of the eye.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.5 Anatomy of the Eyeball

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37) In the diagram which area contains only cones?

a) A b) B c) C d) G e) H Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 17.5 Explain the structure and function of each component of the eyeball.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.5.1 Identify the components of the eye.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.5 Anatomy of the Eyeball

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38) In the retina diagram, where is the bipolar cell layer?

a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 17.5 Explain the structure and function of each component of the eyeball.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.5.1 Identify the components of the eye.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.5 Anatomy of the Eyeball 39) Cones and rods synapse with bipolar cells in the ______ layer. a) ganglion cell b) inner synaptic c) bipolar cell d) outer synaptic e) amacrine cell

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Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 17.5 Explain the structure and function of each component of the eyeball.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.5.1 Identify the components of the eye.

Study Objective3: SO 17.5.2 Discuss the functions of the components of the eye.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.5 Anatomy of the Eyeball 40) An uncorrected hyperopic eye is seen in which diagram?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: d

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Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 17.6 Explain how visual stimuli are received and transmitted to the brain.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.6.1 Discuss how an image is formed by the eye.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.6 Physiology of Vision 41) An uncorrected myopic eye is seen in which diagram?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: b Difficulty: Easy

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Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 17.6 Explain how visual stimuli are received and transmitted to the brain.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.6.1 Discuss how an image is formed by the eye.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.6 Physiology of Vision 42) Which labeled step(s) represents cis-retinal binding to opsin, regenerating a photopigment that is functional?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) Both 1 and 3 Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes

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Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 17.6 Explain how visual stimuli are received and transmitted to the brain.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.6.2 Describe the processing of visual signals in the retina and the neural pathway for vision.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.6 Physiology of Vision 43) Opsin looks colorless when trans-retinal is separated from opsin. This is termed a) isomerization b) conversion c) regeneration d) bleaching e) transition Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 17.6 Explain how visual stimuli are received and transmitted to the brain.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.6.2 Describe the processing of visual signals in the retina and the neural pathway for vision.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.6 Physiology of Vision

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44) In this diagram which structure composed of bone and cartilage, helps equalize pressure between middle ear and the atmosphere?

a) C b) D c) E d) F e) H Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 17.7 Explain how auditory sensations are received and transmitted to the brain.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.7.1 Describe the anatomy of the structures in the three main regions of the ear.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.7 Hearing Question type: Multiple selection

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45) What parts of the nervous system receive information from structure E in the diagram?

Select all that apply.

a) thalamus b) abducens c) trochlear d) hypothalamus e) optic nerve f) vestibulospinal tract g) occulomotor h) trigeminal i) accessory j) medulla oblongata k) pons l) cerebellum Answer: abcfgijkl Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Blooomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 17.8 Explain how equilibrium sensations are received and transmitted to the brain.

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Study Objective 2: SO 17.8.1 Explain the function of each of the receptor organs for equilibrium.

Study Objective 3: SO 17.8.2 Describe the equilibrium pathway to the brain.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.8 Equilibrium 46) Identify the malleus, incus, and stapes in the diagram.

a) A, B, C b) A, C, G c) A, B, J d) J, C, G e) C, D, G Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 17.7 Explain how auditory sensations are received and transmitted to the brain.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.7.1 Describe the anatomy of the structures in the three main regions of the ear.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.7 Hearing

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47) Which structures contain endolymph? a) saccule, utricle and cochlear duct b) scala vestibule, scala tympani, and bony labyrinth c) membranous and bony labyrinth d) scala vestibule, scala tympani, and cochlear duct e) cochlear duct, vestibule and semicircular canals Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 17.7 Explain how auditory sensations are received and transmitted to the brain.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.7.1 Describe the anatomy of the structures in the three main regions of the ear.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.7 Hearing Question type: Essay 48) Explain the process by which smell sensations are sensed and perceived.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the olfactory receptors and the neural pathway for olfaction.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.2 Outline the neural pathway for olfaction.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Olfaction: Sense of Smell Solution: Odorant molecules dissolve in mucus secreted by the olfactory epithelium and bind to receptors on olfactory hairs, triggering a generator potential in the olfactory receptor cells. In some cases the binding activates a G protein in the plasma membrane that activates adenylate cyclase that opens sodium ion channels. If the generator potential is above threshold, action potentials are generated in the axons of the olfactory receptor cells (first-order neurons). These axons transmit impulses via cranial nerve I through the olfactory foramina of the cribiform plate and terminate in the olfactory bulbs, where they synapse with second-order neurons. Axons from these neurons form the olfactory tracts, which transmit impulses to the olfactory area in the temporal lobe. Other important brain areas that receive impulses from the olfactory tracts include the limbic system, the hypothalamus, and the orbitofrontal area.

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49) Emily was very ill with an upper respiratory infection. Her roommate gave her some chicken soup to make her feel better. Neither Emily nor her roommate realized that the soup was too hot to eat until after Emily put a spoonful in her mouth. Now Emily says she can’t taste anything.

Why? When will she be able to taste again?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 17.2 Describe the structure of gustatory receptors and the neural pathway for gustation.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.2.2 Explain the process of taste transduction.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.2 Gustation: Sense of Taste Solution: Emily probably already had trouble smelling her food because of her infection. The hot soup probably damaged her taste buds, especially the ones on the front and sides of her tongue.

Those taste buds are more sensitive to sweet, sour and salty tastes. The ones at the back of the tongue are sensitive to bitter tastes, and the ones in the throat are sensitive to umami tastes. The taste buds are epithelial tissues and should heal in a few days or so. When they do, Emily will be able to taste again.

50) List and briefly describe the three processes that are used by the eye to form a clear image of object on the retina.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 17.6 Explain how visual stimuli are received and transmitted to the brain.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.6.1 Discuss how an image is formed by the eye.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.6 Physiology of Vision Solution: 1) Refraction involves bending light rays as they move through different media in the eye to eventually form a focused inverted image on the central fovea, 2) Accommodation of the lens for near/distance vision involves changing the shape of lens using the ciliary muscle to help focus light rays on retina, and 3) Constriction of pupil involves an ANS reflex that helps prevent scattering of light through edges of lens.

51) Deafness can occur for many reasons. Use your knowledge of the structure of the ear and the process of detecting sound, to propose a mechanism for how arthritis could cause deafness.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesize

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Study Objective 1: SO 17.7 Explain how auditory sensations are received and transmitted to the brain.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.7.1 Describe the anatomy of the structures in the three main regions of the ear.

Study Objective 3: SO 17.7. 2 List the major events in the physiology of hearing.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.7 Hearing Solution: Arthritis results when synovial joints are damaged and can no longer move freely. The joints between the ossicles, found in the middle ear, are synovial joints. If they became stiff from arthritis and their movements were limited, sound waves striking the tympanic membrane would not be efficiently transferred to the oval window of the cochlea. Without that transmission, the fluid in the cochlea cannot move the hair cells on the spiral organ (of Corti). If those hair cells do not move, no impulses relaying information about sound can be generated.

52) Differentiate between linear and rotational acceleration and deceleration. Describe the inner ear structures involved in receiving and transducing sensations involved in maintaining both types of equilibria.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Blooomcode: Synthesize Study Objective 1: SO 17.8 Explain how equilibrium sensations are received and transmitted to the brain.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.8.1 Explain the function of each of the receptor organs for equilibrium.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.8 Equilibrium Solution: The maculae of the utricle and saccule are perpendicular to one another. When the head is in an upright position, the macula of the utricle is oriented horizontally and the macula of the saccule is oriented vertically. Because of these orientations, the utricle and saccule have different functional roles. The utricle responds to linear acceleration or deceleration that occurs in a horizontal direction, such as when the body is being moved in a car that is speeding up or slowing down. The utricle also responds when the head tilts forward or backward. The saccule responds to linear acceleration or deceleration that occurs in a vertical direction, such as when the body is being moved up or down in an elevator.

Question type: Multiple Choice

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53) The second order neurons of the olfactory pathway are located in which region of the diagram?

a) A b) B c) C d) K e) I Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Blooomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the olfactory receptors and the neural pathway for olfaction.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.1 Describe the structure of the olfactory receptors and other cells involved in olfaction.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Olfaction: Sense of Smell

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54) Which structure in this diagram produces the material that dissolves odorants so transduction can occur?

a) C b) D c) F d) G e) I Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Blooomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the olfactory receptors and the neural pathway for olfaction.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.1 Describe the structure of the olfactory receptors and other cells involved in olfaction.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Olfaction: Sense of Smell

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Question type: Multiple Selection 55) What cranial nerves are associated with olfactory glands? Select all that apply. a) olfactory b) trigeminal c) facial d) oculomotor e) glossopharyngeal Answer 1: a Answer 2: c Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Blooomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the olfactory receptors and the neural pathway for olfaction.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.1 Describe the structure of the olfactory receptors and other cells involved in olfaction.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Olfaction: Sense of Smell 56) Which cells are part of the olfactory epithelium? Select all that apply. a) supporting cells b) mitral cells c) glomeruli d) basal cell e) olfactory receptor cells f) olfactory nerve g) nasal conchae Answer: ade Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Blooomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the olfactory receptors and the neural pathway for olfaction.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.1 Describe the structure of the olfactory receptors and other cells involved in olfaction.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Olfaction: Sense of Smell

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Question type: Multiple Choice 57) Tastants make contact with which portion in the diagram?

a) E b) B c) C d) D e) G Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Blooomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 17.2 Describe the structure of gustatory receptors and the neural pathway for gustation.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.2.2 Explain the process of taste transduction.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.2 Gustation: Sense of Taste

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58) Which cell in the diagram is replaced every 10 days?

a) F b) H c) D d) C e) G Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Blooomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 17.2 Describe the structure of gustatory receptors and the neural pathway for gustation.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.2.2 Explain the process of taste transduction.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.2 Gustation: Sense of Taste 59) From which of the following layers of the developing embryo do the eyes develop? a) endoderm b) mesoderm c) ectoderm d) ectoderm and mesoderm e) ectoderm and endoderm Answer: c

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Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Blooomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 17.9 Describe the development of the eyes and the ears.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.9 Development of the Eyes and Ears 60) How many days after fertilization do the eyes begin to develop? a) 5 b) 150 c) 10 d) 22 e) 55 Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Blooomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 17.9 Describe the development of the eyes and the ears.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.9 Development of the Eyes and Ears 61) During embryonic development, the lens of the eye develops directly from an invagination of the lens placodes called the a) optic groove. b) optic vesicle. c) optic stalk. d) prosencephalon. e) lens vesicle.

Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Blooomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 17.9 Describe the development of the eyes and the ears.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.9 Development of the Eyes and Ears 62) During embryonic development, the first portion of the ear to develop is the a) middle ear.

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b) internal ear. c) external ear. d) bony labyrinth. e) membranous labyrinth.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Blooomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 17.9 Describe the development of the eyes and the ears.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.9 Development of the Eyes and Ears 63) How many days after fertilization do the ears begin to develop? a) 5 b) 150 c) 10 d) 22 e) 55 Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Blooomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 17.9 Describe the development of the eyes and the ears.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.9 Development of the Eyes and Ears 64) During embryonic development, the middle ear develops from a structure called the first a) pharyngeal pouch. b) pharyngeal cleft. c) otic placodes. d) otic vesicle. e) rhombencephalon.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Blooomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 17.9 Describe the development of the eyes and the ears.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.9 Development of the Eyes and Ears

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65) During embryonic development, the external ear develops from a structure called the first a) pharyngeal pouch. b) pharyngeal cleft. c) otic placodes. d) otic vesicle. e) rhombencephalon.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Blooomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 17.9 Describe the development of the eyes and the ears.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.9 Development of the Eyes and Ears 66) Presbycusis refers to age-associated a) progressive loss of hearing in one ear. b) progressive loss of hearing in both ears. c) progressive loss of vision. d) otitis media. e) vertigo.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Shuffle: Yes Blooomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 17. 10 Describe the age-related changes that occur in the eyes and ears.

Section Reference 1: 17.10 Aging and the Special Senses 67) Cataract leads to blindness due to a) loss of transparency of the lens. b) a high intraocular pressure. c) photophobia. d) scotoma. e) trachoma.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy

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Shuffle: Yes Blooomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 17.11 Describe the disorders that affect the special senses.

Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homoeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Special Senses 68) Which molecule detects light rays that strike the photopigments in the retina? a) cGMP b) opsin portion of rhodopsin c) cis-retinal d) melanin e) retinal isomerase Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 17.6 Explain how visual sensations are received and transmitted to the brain.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.6.2 Describe the processing of visual signals in the retina and the neural pathway for vision.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.6 Physiology of Vision 69) Which statement accurately describes the changes in the membrane potential of a photoreceptor cell when light rays strike its photopigments? a) The photoreceptor cell undergoes rapid depolarization. b) The photoreceptor cell undergoes hyperpolarization. c) A graded potential proportional to the intensity of the light stimulus occurs in the photoreceptor cell. d) No changes in the membrane potential occur. e) The photoreceptor cell creates action potentials at a frequency proportional to the intensity of the light stimulus.

Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 17.6 Explain how visual sensations are received and transmitted to the brain.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.6.2 Describe the processing of visual signals in the retina and the neural pathway for vision.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.6 Physiology of Vision

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70) The axons of the ganglion neurons of the retina terminate in the a) optic disk. b) optic chiasm. c) visual cortex of cerebrum. d) lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus. e) primary somatosensory area of cerebral cortex.

Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 17.6 Explain how visual sensations are received and transmitted to the brain.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.6.2 Describe the processing of visual signals in the retina and the neural pathway for vision.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.6 Physiology of Vision 71) Which sensory structure in the inner ear is capable of sensing rapid rotation of your head to the left? a) macula of the saccule b) macule of the utricle c) crista of the horizontal semicircular duct d) spiral organ e) crista of the posterior semicircular duct Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Blooomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 17.8 Explain how equilibrium sensations are received and transmitted to the brain.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.8.1 Explain the function of each of the receptor organs for equilibrium.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.8 Equilibrium Question type: Multiple Selection 72) Which structures are associated with equilibrium? Select all that apply.

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a) vestibule b) saccule c) cochlear duct d) semicircular ducts e) Cochlea f) ampullae Answer 1: a Answer 2 :b Answer 3: d Answer 4: f Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Blooomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 17.8 Explain how equilibrium sensations are received and transmitted to the brain.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.8.1 Explain the function of each of the receptor organs for equilibrium.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.8 Equilibrium Question type: Multiple choice 73) Otoliths are located in the a) macula of the saccule b) cupula of the crista c) tectorial membrane of the spiral organ d) basilar membrane of the cochlear duct e) hair cells and supporting cells of semicircular ducts Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Blooomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 17.8 Explain how equilibrium sensations are received and transmitted to the brain.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.8.1 Explain the function of each of the receptor organs for equilibrium.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.8 Equilibrium Question type: Multiple Selection

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74) The vestibular nuclei of the brainstem that control equilibrium receives sensory information from what structures? Select all that apply. a) utricle and saccule. b) semicircular ducts. c) eyes d) proprioceptors in the neck muscles. e) nociceptors in the distal limbs. f) spiral organ g) tympanic membrane h) auditory tube Answer: abcd Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Blooomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 17.8 Explain how equilibrium sensations are received and transmitted to the brain.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.8.2 Describe the equilibrium pathway to the brain.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.8 Equilibrium Question type: Multiple Choice 75) Nerve impulses for the sense of hearing are initiated in the spiral organ (organ of Corti) and then travel through the _____ to the cochlear nuclei in the _____. a) cochlear branch of cranial nerve VIII; pons b) cochlear branch of cranial nerve VIII; medulla oblongata c) vestibular branch of cranial nerve VIII; pons d) vestibular branch of cranial nerve VIII; medulla oblongata Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 17.7 Explain how auditory sensations are received and transmitted to the brain.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.7.2 List the major events in the physiology of hearing.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.7 Hearing

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Question type: Essay 76) Explain how the inhibitory neurotransmitter prevents visual signals from being sent to the brain.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesize Study Objective 1: SO 17.6 Explain how visual sensations are received and transmitted to the brain.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.6.2 Describe the processing of visual signals in the retina and the neural pathway for vision.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.6 Physiology of Vision Solution: In the outer synaptic layer a rod synapses with a bipolar cell. When it is dark, an inhibitory neurotransmitter called glutamate is continually released at the synapse, which causes hyperpolarization of the bipolar cells so they stay inactive and no visual information is sent to the brain.

Question type: Text Dropdown 77) The superior oblique is innervated by [dropdown 1] nerve and the lateral rectus is innervated by [dropdown 2] nerve. All other extrinsic eye muscles are innervated by [dropdown 3] nerve.

Dropdown choices: abducens facial optic oculomotor trochlear Answer 1: trochlear Answer 2: abducens Answer 3: oculomotor Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 17.4 Identify the accessory structures of the eye.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.4 Accessory Structures of the eye

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Question type: Essay 78) Explain what happens when rods are exposed to light.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesize Study Objective 1: SO 17.6 Explain how visual sensations are received and transmitted to the brain.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.6.2 Describe the processing of visual signals in the retina and the neural pathway for vision.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.6 Physiology of Vision Solution: Transducin is produced when cis-retinal undergoes isomerization to trans-retinal.

Transducin activates a cGMP phosphodiesterase which breaks down cGMP, lowering the concentration of cGMP in the cytosol. The cGMP gated channels that are open reduces, reducing the amount of Na+ influxing, which causes a hyperpolarizing receptor potential. This hyperpolarizing event spreads to the synaptic terminal, causing a decrease in open voltage-gated Ca++ channels. The less calcium present decreases the release of glutamate. Light excites the bipolar cells that synapse with rods by turning off the release of glutamate.

Question type: Multiple Choice 79) Choose the sequence of events in order for how gustation is conveyed from beginning to end.

1. Taste bud detects tastant on anterior two third of tongue 2. Information travels to limbic system and hypothalamus, and to the thalamus 3. Gustatory nucleus in medulla receives information 4. First order neuron from facial nerve carries impulse 5. First order neuron from vagus nerve carries impulse 6. First order neuron from glossopharyngeal nerve carries impulse 7. Conscious perception of taste 8. Information is sent to the insula of the cerebral cortex a) 1, 4, 3, 2, 8, 7 b) 7, 8, 2, 3, 6, 1 c) 7,1,5, 3, 2, 8 d) 1, 4, 5, 5, 3 ,4 , 8, 7 e) 4, 1, 2, 3, 7, 8 Answer: a Difficulty: Hard

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Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Synthesize Study Objective 1: SO 17.2 Describe the structure of gustatory receptors and the neural pathway for gustation.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.2 .3 Describe the gustatory pathway to the brain.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.2 Gustation: Sense of Taste Question type: Multiple Selection 80) What structures play a major role in visual acuity? Select all that apply. a) Cones b) Macula lutea c) Optic disc d) Blind spot e) Fovea centralis f) Rods Answer 1: a Answer 2: b Answer 3: e Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 17.5 Explain the structure and function of each component of the eyeball.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.5.1 Identify the components of the eye.

Study Objective3: SO 17.5.2 Discuss the functions of the components of the eye.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.5 Anatomy of the Eyeball 81) Select the correct order for the neural pathway from the inner ear to the brain.

1. inferior colliculus 2. cochlear branch nerve fibers of cranial nerve VIII 3. superior olivary nucleus in pons 4. hair cells in spiral organ 5. medial geniculate nucleus in thalamus 6. primary auditory cerebral cortex 7. cochlear nuclei in medulla oblongata a) 6,5, 1, 3, 7, 2, 4 b) 2, 4, 7, 1, 5, 3, 7 c) 4, 2, 7, 3, 1, 5, 6 d) 5, 1, 3, 7, 4, 2, 6

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e) 4, 6, 2, 5, 1, 7, 3 Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 17.7 Explain how auditory sensations are received and transmitted to the brain.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.7.3 Describe the auditory pathway to the brain.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.7 Hearing 82) When you inhale slowly and deeply, this helps identify odors. Why? a) The receptors need more air to the odors. b) The threshold for odor detection is high. c) More odorants are brought into contact with the olfactory epithelium. d) Adaptation to odors is slow. e) Olfactory transduction can only occur if a certain level of odorant concentration is available.

Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the olfactory receptors and the neural pathway for olfaction.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.1 Describe the structure of the olfactory receptors and other cells involved in olfaction.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Olfaction: Sense of Smell 83) Select the sequence of events for the olfactory pathway 1. a second messenger opens cation channels (Na+ and Ca+2) 2. depolarization of olfactory receptor cells occurs 3. odorant binds to olfactory receptor protein 4. G protein activates cyclic adenosine monophosphate a) 1, 2, 3, 4 b) 4, 2, 1, 3 c) 3, 4, 1, 2 d) 2, 1, 4, 3 e) 3, 1, 2, 4 Answer: c

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Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the olfactory receptors and the neural pathway for olfaction.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.2 Outline the neural pathway for olfaction.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Olfaction: Sense of Smell 84) Night blindness can be caused by a) Toxic levels of vitamin A b) Lack of rhodopsin c) Lack of cones d) Too low concentration of cAMP e) Too high concentration of cAMP Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 17.6 Explain how visual sensations are received and transmitted to the brain.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.6.2 Describe the processing of visual signals in the retina and the neural pathway for vision.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.6 Physiology of Vision Question type: Multiple Selection 85) Light refracts as it passes through what portions of the eye? Select all that apply. a) sclera b) iris c) choroid d) lens e) cornea f) aqueous humor g) vitreous humor h) pupil Answer 1: d Answer 2: e Answer 3: f Answer 4: g

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Difficulty: Medium Shuffle: Yes Bloomcode: Application Study Objective 1: SO 17.5 Explain the structure and function of each component of the eyeball.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.5.1 Identify the components of the eye.

Study Objective 3: SO 17.5.2 Discuss the functions of the components of the eye.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.5 Anatomy of the Eyeball

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Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pap15 Chapter Number: 18 Shuffle: Yes Case Sensitive: No Question type: Multiple Choice 1) Which of the following is NOT a function of a hormone? a) Regulates chemical composition and volume of the internal environment b) Regulates metabolism c) Regulates glandular secretions d) Produces electrolytes e) Controls growth and development Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 18.1 Compare control of body functions by the nervous system and endocrine system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.1 Comparison of Control by the Nervous and Endocrine Systems Question type: Multiple Choice 2) When a hormone is present in excessive levels, the number of target-cell receptors may decrease. This is called a) receptor recognition. b) sensory adaptation. c) paracrine regulation. d) up-regulation. e) down-regulation.

Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 18.3 Describe how the various classes of hormones interact with target-cell receptors.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.3.1 Compare the two classes of hormones based on their solubility.

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Section Reference 1: Sec 18.3 Hormone Activity

Question type: Multiple Choice 3) Differences between endocrine and exocrine glands include a) endocrine glands secrete hormones while exocrine glands secrete non-hormonal substances b) exocrine glands secrete their contents into ducts; endocrine glands have no ducts c) products of exocrine glands work at sites distant from the actual glands d) choices a and b e) choices b and c Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 18.2 Distinguish between exocrine and endocrine glands Section Reference 1: Sec 18.2 Endocrine Glands Question type: Multiple Choice 4) Which of the choices below is a type of hormone that acts on neighboring cells without entering the bloodstream?

1. Local hormone 2. Paracrine 3. Autocrine 4. Circulating hormone a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 4 only e) Both 1 and 2 Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 18.3 Describe how the various classes of hormones interact with target-cell receptors.

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Learning Objective 2: LO 18.3.2 Compare the two chemical classes of hormones based on their solubility.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.3 Hormone Activity Question type: Multiple Selection 5) Which of the following is a group of lipid-soluble hormones derived from cholesterol? Select all that apply. a) Steroids b) Thyroid hormones c) Eicosanoid hormones d) Amine hormones e) Peptide hormones Answer 1: a Answer 2: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 18.3 Describe how the various classes of hormones interact with target-cell receptors.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.3.2 Compare the two chemical classes of hormones based on their solubility.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.3 Hormone Activity Question type: Multiple Choice 6) Which of the following is an eicosanoid?

1. Prostaglandin 2. Leukotriene 3. Glycoprotein a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) Both 1and 2 e) All of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 18.3 Describe how the various classes of hormones interact with target-cell receptors.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.3.1 Describe how hormones interact with target-cell receptors.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.3 Hormone Activity Question type: Multiple Choice 7) An individual with a deficiency in fatty acid intake might have difficulty producing which type of hormones? a) Amine hormones b) Peptide hormones c) Thyroid hormones d) Steroid hormones e) Eicosanoid hormones Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 18.3 Describe how the various classes of hormones interact with target-cell receptors.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.3.2 Compare the two chemical classes of hormones based on their solubility.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.3 Hormone Activity Question type: Multiple Choice 8) Which of the following statements correctly compares water-soluble hormones with lipidsoluble hormones? a) Both types of hormones are carried in the blood attached to a carrier protein. b) Both types of hormone almost always stimulate increases in mRNA transcription. c) Only water-soluble hormones use second messengers. d) Only water-soluble hormones require a receptor. e) Lipid-soluble hormones are not found in the bloodstream.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension

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Learning Objective 1: LO 18.4 Describe the two general mechanisms of hormone action.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.4 Mechanisms of Hormone Action

Question type: Multiple Choice 9) When one hormone opposes the action of another hormone, it is called a(n) a) synergistic effect. b) permissive effect. c) antagonistic effect. d) circulating effect. e) local effect.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 18.4 Describe the two general mechanisms of hormone action.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.4 Mechanisms of Hormone Action Question type: Multiple Choice 10) Which of the following is NOT a common method of stimulating hormone secretion from an endocrine cell? a) Signals from the nervous system b) Chemical changes in the blood c) Mechanical stretching of the endocrine cell d) Releasing hormones. e) Both Signals from the nervous system and Chemical changes in the blood Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 18.5 Describe the mechanisms of control on hormone secretion.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.5 Control of Hormone SecretionQuestion type: Multiple Choice 11) What controls hormone release from the anterior pituitary gland?

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a) Muscle contraction b) The peripheral nervous system c) Hormones released from the hypothalamus d) Action potentials from the thalamus e) Chemical changes in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 18.6 Describe the properties of the hypothalamus and pituitary gland and the relationships between them.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.6.2 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the anterior and posterior pituitary.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.6 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland Question type: Multiple Choice 12) How are most hormones released? a) On a continuous, low-level basis b) In short bursts with little or no secretion between bursts. c) In a gradually increasing then decreasing pattern d) Continuously at high levels e) It depends on the immediate needs of the body Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 18.5 Describe the mechanisms of control of hormone secretion Section Reference 1: Section 18.5 Control of Hormone Secretion Question type: Multiple Choice 13) Which of the following anterior pituitary hormones stimulates general body growth? a) Somatotropin b) Prolactin c) Thyrotropin d) Luteinizing hormone e) Adrenocorticotropic hormone

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Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 18.6 Describe the locations of and relationships between the hypothalamus and pituitary gland.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.6.2 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the anterior and posterior pituitary.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.6 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland Question type: Text Drop Down 14) Human growth hormone is secreted by [dropdown 1] in the anterior pituitary gland, while follicle stimulating hormone is secreted by [dropdown 2] .

Dropdown 1choices: corticotrophs gonadotrophs somatotrophs thyrotrophs Answer 1: somatotrophs Dropdown 2 choices: corticotrophs gonadotrophs somatotrophs thyrotrophs Answer 2: gonadotrophs Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 18.6 Describe the locations of and relationships between the hypothalamus and pituitary gland Learning Objective 2: LO 18.6.2 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the anterior and posterior pituitary.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.6 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland Question type: Multiple Choice

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15) Which of the following anterior pituitary hormones stimulates milk production? a) Luteinizing hormone b) Prolactin c) Thyrotropin d) Melanocyte stimulating hormone e) Adrenocorticotropic hormone Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 18.6 Describe the properties of the hypothalamus and pituitary gland and the relationships between them.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.6.2 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the anterior and posterior pituitary.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.6 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland Question type: Multiple Choice 16) Which of the following anterior pituitary hormones stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete cortisol? a) Luteinizing hormone b) Prolactin c) Insulin-like growth factors d) Melanocyte-stimulating hormone e) Adrenocorticotropic hormone Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 18.6 Describe the properties of the hypothalamus and pituitary gland and the relationships between them.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.6.1 Describe the locations of and relationships between the hypothalamus and pituitary gland.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.6 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland Question type: Multiple Choice

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17) Which of the following anterior pituitary hormones stimulates the gonads to secrete progesterone and/or testosterone? a) Luteinizing hormone b) TSH c) Corticotropin d) Melanocyte-stimulating hormone e) Growth hormone Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 18.6 Describe the properties of the hypothalamus and pituitary gland and the relationships between them.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.6.1 Describe the locations of and relationships between the hypothalamus and pituitary gland.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.6 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland Question type: Essay 18) Explain the mechanism by which a deficiency of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRh) will lead to infertility in both a male and a female.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO 18.6 Describe the locations of and relationships between the hypothalamus and pituitary gland Learning Objective 2: LO 18.6.2 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the anterior and posterior pituitary.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.6 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland Solution: GnRh stimulates gonadotrophs to produce follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) in both males and females. FSH in women initiates the development of several ovarian follicles each month and stimulates follicular cells to secrete estrogens. In men, FSH stimulates sperm production in the testes. In females, LH triggers ovulation of the ripened secondary oocyte and, after ovulation, stimulates the formation of the corpus luteum which secretes progesterone. In addition, LH stimulates the secretion of estrogens. These hormones prepare the uterus for implantation of the developing embryo. In males, LH stimulates the cells in the testes that secrete testosterone. An imbalance of these hormones, due to reduced or no secretion, will lead to an inability to conceive due to any number of different functions associated with reproduction that are being interfered with.

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Question type: Multiple Choice 19) Which type of anterior pituitary cell secretes melanocyte stimulating hormone (MSH)? a) Thyrotrophs b) Gonadotrophs c) Somatotrophs d) Lactotrophs e) Corticotrophs Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 18.6 Describe the properties of the hypothalamus and pituitary gland and the relationships between them.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.6.2 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the anterior and posterior pituitary.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.6 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland Question type: Multiple Choice 20) Which of the following pairs of hormones are released by the posterior pituitary gland? a) Prolactin and growth hormone b) Melatonin-stimulating hormone and oxytocin c) Oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone d) Follicle-stimulating hormone and thyroid-stimulating hormone e) Prolactin and ACTH Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 18.6 Describe the locations of and relationships between the hypothalamus and pituitary gland.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.6.2 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the anterior and posterior pituitary.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.6 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland

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Question type: Multiple Choice 21) The amount of ADH that is released by the posterior pituitary glands varies with a) blood osmotic pressure. b) blood calcium levels. c) blood oxygen levels. d) blood glucose levels. e) all choices are correct .

Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO 18.6 Describe the properties of the hypothalamus and pituitary gland and the relationships between them.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.6.2 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the anterior and posterior pituitary.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.6 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland Question type: Multiple Select 22) In addition to increasing growth of bones and soft tissues, somatotropin a) enhances lipolysis b) decreases glucose uptake by cells c) stimulates liver cells to release glucose d) increases cellular uptake of glucose Answer 1: a Answer 2:b Answer 3: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 18.6 Describe the properties of the hypothalamus and pituitary gland and the relationships between them.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.6.2 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the anterior and posterior pituitary.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.6 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland Question type: Multiple Choice

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23) Which of the following hormones opposes the action of parathyroid hormone? a) Thyroid-stimulating hormone b) Testosterone c) Insulin d) Calcitonin e) Calcitriol Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 18.8 Describe the location, histology, hormone, and functions of the parathyroid glands.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.8 Parathyroid Glands Question type: Multiple Choice 24) Which of the following statements does NOT describe a step in the synthesis and secretion of T3 and T4? a) Iodide trapping b) Oxidation of iodide c) Coupling of T1 and T2 d) Synthesis of parathyroid hormone e) Iodination of tyrosine Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 18.7 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid gland.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.7 Thyroid Gland Question type: Multiple Choice 25) Parathyroid hormone is the major regulator of the plasma concentration of which of the following ions?

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a) Calcium b) Sodium c) Potassium d) Chloride e) Manganese Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 18.8 Describe the location, histology, hormone, and functions of the parathyroid glands.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.8 Parathyroid Glands Question type: Multiple Choice 26) Which endocrine gland stores its hormonal product for approximately 100 days? a) parathyroid b) adrenal c) pituitary d) hypothalamus e) thyroid Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 18.7 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid gland.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.7 Thyroid Gland Question type: Multiple Selection 27) Thyroid hormone functions include: a) increasing the basal metabolic rate b) enhancing entry of amino acids into cells c) enhancing actions of catecholamines d) regulating development of nervous tissue and bones Answer 1: a

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Answer 2: c Answer 3: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 18.7 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid gland.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.7 Thyroid Gland Question type: Multiple Choice 28) Which of the following conditions would result from hyposecretion of aldosterone? a) Decreased heart rate b) Decreased airway dilation c) Dehydration d) Decreased oxygen delivery to the brain e) Metabolic acidosis Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO 18.9 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the adrenal glands.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.9 Adrenal Glands Question type: Multiple Choice 29) Which of the following is NOT a common effect of glucocorticoid stimulation? a) Protein and fat breakdown b) Glucose formation c) Depression of immune responses d) Reduction of inflammation e) Increased production of all types of blood cells Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

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Learning Objective 1: LO 18.9 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the adrenal glands.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.9 Adrenal Glands Question type: Multiple Choice 30) Which blood glucose-lowering hormone is produced by the pancreatic islet cells? a) Insulin b) Glucagon c) Somatostatin d) Thyroid hormones e) Calcitonin Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 18.10 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the pancreatic islets.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.10 Pancreatic Islets Question type: Multiple Choice 31) Which of the following hormones promotes increases in the basal metabolic rate (BMR)? a) Insulin b) Adrenocorticotropic hormone c) Glucagon d) Thyroid hormone e) Calcitonin Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 18.7 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid gland.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.7 Thyroid Gland Question type: Multiple Choice

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32) Which of the following hormones are released in response to decreases in blood glucose concentration? a) Insulin b) Luteinizing hormone c) Glucagon d) Parathyroid hormone e) Calcitonin Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 18.10 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the pancreatic islets.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.10 Pancreatic Islets 33) Which of the following hormones plays key regulatory roles in the body’s long-term response to stress? a) Insulin, Glucagon, Thyroid hormone b) hGH, Insulin, Aldosterone c) Cortisol, hGH, Thyroid hormone d) Parathyroid hormone, Cortisol, hGH e) Calcitonin, Thyroid hormone, Insulin Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 18.14 Describe how the body responds to stress.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.14 The Stress Response Question type: Multiple Choice 34) Which of the following is NOT a common response of the body to long-term stress? a) Increased lipolysis b) Increased glycogenesis c) Increased gluconeogenesis d) Increased digestive activities

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e) Increased breakdown of proteins Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 18.14 Describe how the body responds to stress.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.14 The Stress Response Question type: Multiple Choice 35) Which of the labeled endocrine glands secretes hGH, TSH, FSH and other hormones?

a) A b) B c) C d) I e) D Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension

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Learning Objective 1: LO 18.6 Describe the properties of the hypothalamus and pituitary gland and the relationships between them.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.6.1 Describe the locations of and relationships between the hypothalamus and pituitary gland.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.6 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland Question type: Multiple Choice 36) Which of the labeled endocrine glands secretes hormones that regulate the basal metabolic rate (BMR)?

a) C b) D c) A d) G e) I Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 18.7 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid gland.

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Section Reference 1: Sec 18.7 Thyroid Gland

Question type: Multiple Choice 37) Which of the following labeled endocrine glands secretes hormones that regulate blood calcium levels?

a) B b) A c) H d) D e) I Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 18.8 Describe the location, histology, hormone, and functions of the parathyroid glands.

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Section Reference 1: Sec 18.8 Parathyroid Glands

Question type: Multiple Choice 38) Which of the labeled endocrine glands secretes steroid hormones in response to long-term stress?

a) D b) G c) H d) I e) F Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 18.9 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the adrenal glands.

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Section Reference 1: Sec 18.9 Adrenal Glands

Question type: Multiple Choice 39) Which of the following is NOT an endocrine gland aging effect? a) Rise in the blood levels of PTH b) Less cortisol and aldosterone production c) Decreased levels of gonadotropins d) Decreased levels of calcitriol and calcitonin e) Increase in thymus size Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 18.16 Describe the effects of aging on the endocrine system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.16 Aging and the Endocrine SystemQuestion type: Multiple Choice

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40) Which zone of the adrenal gland secretes aldosterone?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) None of the zones Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 18.9 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the adrenal glands.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.9 Adrenal Glands Question type: Multiple Choice

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41) Which zone of the adrenal gland secretes androgens?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) None of the zones Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 18.9 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the adrenal glands.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.9 Adrenal Glands Question type: Multiple Choice

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42) Which labeled structure in the diagram secretes glucagon?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 18.10 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the pancreatic islets.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.10 Pancreatic Islets Question type: Multiple Choice

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43) Which labeled structure in the diagram secretes a hormone that stimulates events that lower blood glucose concentration?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 18.10 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the pancreatic islets.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.10 Pancreatic Islets Question type: Multiple Choice 44) Which of the following is an incorrect pairing of a body system and an endocrine contribution to that system? a) Thyroid hormones promote normal development and growth of the skeleton.

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b) Erythropoietin regulates the amount of oxygen carried in blood by adjusting the number of red blood cells. c) Leptin enhances appetite. d) Glucocorticoids depress inflammation and immune responses. e) Epinephrine depresses the activity of the digestive system.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 18:17 Describe how the endocrine system contributes to homeostasis.

Section Reference 1: Focus on Homeostasis: The Endocrine System Question type: Essay 45) Compare and contrast the mechanisms of action of lipid-soluble versus water-soluble hormones.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 18.4 Describe the two general mechanisms of hormone action.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.4 Mechanisms of Hormone Action Solution: Upon reaching their target cells, lipid-soluble hormones diffuse across the phospholipid bilayer of the target cell membrane and bind to receptors in the cytosol or nucleus. The activated receptor usually acts by turning transcription of genes either on or off, thus regulating synthesis of a protein. Water-soluble hormones bind to membrane receptors, which activate intracellular signaling pathways that lead to changes in the cell’s metabolic activity.

Question type: Essay 46) Describe the role of the hypothalamus in the regulation of hormone release from the pituitary gland.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium

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Learning Objective 1: LO 18.6 Describe the properties of the hypothalamus and pituitary gland and the relationships between them.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.6.2 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the anterior and posterior pituitary.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.6 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland Solution: The hypothalamus is the integrating center for much sensory input. It secretes releasing and inhibiting hormones which diffuse into the hypophyseal portal system to regulate secretion of all hormones from the anterior pituitary gland. The hypothalamus also contains receptors that monitor blood osmotic pressure and neural input from reproductive structures. Integration of this input leads to production of ADH and OT by neurosecretory cells of the hypothalamus. These hormones are then transported through the hypothalamic-hypophyseal tract to be released by exocytosis from the posterior pituitary gland in response to nerve impulses.

Question type: Essay 47) Enuresis, or bedwetting, may be caused by psychological, anatomical or physiological factors. In the latter case, vasopressin is often prescribed and is a very effective treatment. What is vasopressin? How can it prevent enuresis?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 18.6 Describe the properties of the hypothalamus and pituitary gland and the relationships between them.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.6.2 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the anterior and posterior pituitary.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.6 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland Solution: Vasopressin is also called antidiuretic hormone or ADH. In addition to its vasoconstrictive effects, ADH causes the kidneys to reabsorb more water. Someone who does not make enough ADH may not be able to contain all of the urine produced while they are sleeping. If they are not awakened by the pressure in their urinary bladder, they may wet the bed instead of getting up and going to the toilet. Since vasopressin helps the body reabsorb more water, a person’s bladder should not get so full that they end up wetting the bed while sleeping.

Question type: Essay 48) What is a goiter? Explain how goiters can develop in both hyposecretion and hypersecretion disorders. In these hyposecretion and hypersecretion disorders, would you expect the levels of other regulatory hormones involved in control of thyroid hormone secretion to be high or low?

Why? Answer:

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO Describe the disorders that affect the endocrine system.

Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances Solution: A goiter is an enlarged thyroid gland. Hyposecretion goiters are usually due to insufficient iodide in the diet. Resulting low levels of thyroid hormones cause increased TRH and TSH until adequate thyroid activity is restored. Graves' disease causes hyperthyroidism by producing an antibody that mimics TSH. Thyroid enlargement occurs, and production of thyroid hormones increases. TRH and natural TSH remain low due to negative feedback, but TSHmimicking antibody stimulates increased thyroid hormone production and secretion.

Question type: Essay 49) Compare the metabolic changes that occur during starvation with those that occur in diabetes mellitus.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO Describe the disorders that affect the endocrine system.

Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances Solution: A starving person is lacking energy-providing nutrient sources, and so, must use structural components of the body as energy sources. The diabetic consumes adequate nutrients, but due to the lack of insulin, is unable to move glucose into cells, and so, cannot use the glucose as an energy source. In both cases, energy generation becomes dependent on non-glucose sources, such as fatty acids and amino acids. Mobilization and metabolism of fats and proteins for energy production purposes leads to ketoacidosis, weight loss, and hunger.

Question type: Text Drop Down 50) Benign tumors of chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla cause [dropdown 1]The only treatment for this is [dropdown 2].

Dropdown1 choices acromegaly goiter myxedema

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pheochromocytoma Answer 1: pheochromocytoma Dropdown 2 choices growth hormone supplementation radiation surgery thyroid hormone supplementation Answer 2: surgery Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO Describe the disorders that affect the endocrine system.

Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances 51) Which of the following hormones is produced in the zone of the adrenal gland labeled B?

a) cortisol b) epinephrine

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c) norepinephrine d) glucagon e) androgens Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO 18.9 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the adrenal glands.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.9 Adrenal Glands 52) Which of the following describes a function of a hormone produced in the zone of the adrenal gland labeled B?

a) enables body to resist stressors and also increases blood glucose b) intensifies sympathetic responses in other parts of the body c) accelerates formation of glucose from glycogen (glycogenolysis) d) stimulates growth of axillary and pubic hair e) stimulates breast development and milk secretion

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Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO 18.9 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the adrenal glands.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.9 Adrenal Glands 53) Which of the following conditions could potentially result from hyposecretion of a hormone released by the portion of the marked gland in the diagram?

a) tetany b) acromegaly c) diabetes insipidus d) goiter e) Cushing’s syndrome Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO Describe the disorders that affect the endocrine system.

Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances

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54) Identify the stalk-like structure labeled A in the diagram.

a) hypothalamus b) anterior pituitary c) posterior pituitary d) infundibulum e) hypophyseal fossa Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 18.6 Describe the properties of the hypothalamus and pituitary gland and the relationships between them.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.6.1 Describe the locations of and relationships between the hypothalamus and pituitary gland.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.6 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland

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55) The endocrine gland shown in the diagram is found in a depression in the sphenoid bone (marked in the diagram) called the

a) maxilla. b) infundibulum. c) primary plexus. d) cribiform plate. e) hypophyseal fossa Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO 18.6 Describe the properties of the hypothalamus and pituitary gland and the relationships between them.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.6.1 Describe the locations of and relationships between the hypothalamus and pituitary gland.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.6 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland

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56) Which of the following bones (marked in the diagram) contains a depression which houses the endocrine gland shown in the diagram?

a) maxilla b) sphenoid bone c) mandible d) ethmoid bone e) temporal bone Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 18.6 Describe the properties of the hypothalamus and pituitary gland and the relationships between them.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.6.1 Describe the locations of and relationships between the hypothalamus and pituitary gland.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.6 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland

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57) Which of the following hormones is produced by the cells marked in the thyroid follicle shown in the histology picture?

a) calcitonin b) vasopressin c) triiodothyronine (T3) d) antidiuretic hormone (ADH) e) calcitriol Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 18.7 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid gland.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.7 Thyroid Gland

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58) Which of the following hormones is produced by the cells marked in the thyroid follicle shown in the histology picture?

a) calcitonin b) vasopressin c) triiodothyronine (T3) d) antidiuretic hormone (ADH) e) calcitriol Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 18.7 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid gland.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.7 Thyroid Gland

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59) What is the major function of the hormone produced by the cells marked in the thyroid follicle shown in the histology picture?

a) Involved in regulation of calcium homeostasis. b) Enhances contraction of smooth muscle cells in the uterus during delivery. c) In females, initiates development of oocytes. In males, stimulates sperm production. d) Stimulates the action of osteoclasts. e) Increases blood levels of Na+ and water.

Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 18.7 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid gland.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.7 Thyroid Gland

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60) Which of the following diseases results when the cells marked in the histology image are destroyed by the immune system?

a) Cushing’s disease b) Addison’s disease c) Acromegaly d) Type 1 diabetes e) Diabetes insipidus Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective 1: LO 18.10 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the pancreatic islets.

Learning Objective 2: LO Describe the disorders that affect the endocrine system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.10 Pancreatic Islets Section Reference 2: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances

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61) What endocrine abnormality does the individual on the left in the picture of identical twins have?

a) Goiter b) Graves’ Disease c) Type 2 diabetes d) Cushing’s syndrome e) Pituitary Gigantism Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 18.16 Describe the disorders that affect the endocrine system.

Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances

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62) The disorder shown in one of the identical twins seen in this figure is due to a hypersecretion of hormones by which endocrine gland?

a) Thyroid gland b) Pineal gland c) Parathyroid gland d) Pituitary gland e) Pancreas Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO Describe the disorders that affect the endocrine system.

Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances

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63) The patient shown is suffering from a disease called _____, caused by a pituitary hypersecretion of hGH during adulthood.

a) Goiter b) Graves’ Disease c) Acromegaly d) Cushing’s syndrome e) Gigantism Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO Describe the disorders that affect the endocrine system.

Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances

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64) Which of the following endocrine disorders is the individual shown in this picture suffering from?

a) Acromegaly b) Graves’ Disease c) Goiter d) Cushing’s syndrome e) Gigantism Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO Describe the disorders that affect the endocrine system.

Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances 65) Hypothyroidism during adulthood can produce which of the following disorders? a) Acromegaly b) Graves’ Disease c) Hypoglycemia d) Cushing’s syndrome e) Myxedema Answer: e

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO Describe the disorders that affect the endocrine system.

Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances Question type: Multiple Choice 66) The following is a possible progression of which of the following disorders: Inadequate dietary iodine intake à low level of thyroid hormone in blood à increased TSH secretion à thyroid gland enlargement. a) Acromegaly b) Tetany c) Goiter d) Cushing’s syndrome e) Addison’s disease Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: Describe the disorders that affect the endocrine system.

Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalance 67) Which of the following is an abnormal condition of excess androgen secretion, observed primarily in women, that is characterized by the presence of excessive body and facial hair in a male pattern? a) Acromegaly b) Tetany c) Hirsutism d) Gynecomastia e) Myxedema Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO Describe the disorders that affect the endocrine system.

Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances

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68) A condition characterized by excessive development of mammary glands in a male is called a) acromegaly. b) pheochromocytoma. c) hirsutism. d) gynecomastia. e) myxedema.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO Describe the disorders that affect the endocrine system.

Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances Question Type: Text Drop Down 69) Two of the hallmarks of hyperparathyroidism are [dropdown 1] and [dropdown 2] .

Dropdown1 choices: broken bones excessive thirst increased hair growth myxedema Answer 1: broken bones Dropdown 2 choices: bronze skin buffalo hump kidney stones rapid heart rate Answer 2: kidney stones Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 18.16 Describe the disorders that affect the endocrine system.

Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances\ Question type: Multiple Choice

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70) Hypersecretion of a hormone by the endocrine gland marked in the diagram results in a type of depression that affects some people during the winter months, when the day length is short.

This condition is known as

a) thyroid crisis (storm). b) general adaptation syndrome (GAS). c) seasonal affective disorder (SAD). d) Addisonian crisis. e) posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD).

Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 18.12 Describe the properties of the pineal gland and thymus.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.12.1 Describe the location, histology, hormone, and functions of the pineal gland.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.12 Pineal Gland and Thymus

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71) Seasonal affective disorder is due to hypersecretion of which of the following hormones by the endocrine gland marked in the diagram?

a) testosterone b) glucagon c) melatonin d) aldosterone e) vasopressin Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 18.12 Describe the properties of the pineal gland and thymus.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.12.1Describe the location, histology, hormone, and functions of the pineal gland.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.12 Pineal Gland and Thymus

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72) Which of the following hormones is produced by the endocrine gland marked in the diagram?

a) testosterone b) glucagon c) melatonin d) thymopoietin e) vasopressin Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 18.12 Describe the properties of the pineal gland and thymus.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.12.1 Describe the location, histology, hormone, and functions of the pineal gland.

Learning Objective 3: LO 18.12.2 Describe the role of the thymus in immunity.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.12 Pineal Gland and Thymus 73) All prostaglandins are derived from a 20-carbon precursor molecule called

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a) thromboxane. b) intrinsic factor. c) thymopoietin. d) arachidonic acid. e) cholesterol.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 18.13 Describe the hormonal properties of cells in tissues and organs that are not classified as endocrine glands.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.13.1 Outline the functions of each of the hormones secreted by cells in tissues and organs other than endocrine glands.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.13 Other Endocrine Tissues and Organs, Eicosanoids, and Growth Factors 74) Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is produced by the a) placenta. b) ovaries. c) testes. d) pituitary gland. e) hypothalamus.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 18.13 Describe the hormonal properties of cells in tissues and organs that are not classified as endocrine glands.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.13.1 Outline the functions of each of the hormones secreted by cells in tissues and organs other than endocrine glands.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.13 Other Endocrine Tissues and Organs, Eicosanoids, and Growth Factors 75) Leptin is a hormone produced by the a) placenta. b) ovaries. c) testes. d) pituitary gland. e) adipose tissue.

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Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 18.13 Describe the hormonal properties of cells in tissues and organs that are not classified as endocrine glands.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.13.1 Outline the functions of each of the hormones secreted by cells in tissues and organs other than endocrine glands.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.13 Other Endocrine Tissues and Organs, Eicosanoids, and Growth Factors 76) The anterior pituitary develops from which of the following germ layers during embryonic development? a) Mesoderm b) Endoderm c) Ectoderm d) A combination of two of the layers e) None of the answer selections are correct Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 18.15 Describe the development of endocrine glands.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.15 Development of the Endocrine System 77) The thyroid gland develops from which of the following germ layers during embryonic development? a) Mesoderm b) Endoderm c) Ectoderm d) A combination of two of the layers e) None of the answer selections are correct Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 18.15 Describe the development of endocrine glands.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.15 Development of the Endocrine Systems

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78) The adrenal medulla develops from which of the following germ layers during embryonic development? a) Mesoderm b) Endoderm c) Ectoderm d) A combination of two of the layers e) None of the answer selections are correct Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 18.15 Describe the development of endocrine glands.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.15 Development of the Endocrine System 79) Endocrine tissues that secrete steroid hormones are derived from a) mesoderm. b) endoderm. c) ectoderm. d) a combination of two or more layers. e) none of the layers that are listed.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 18.15 Describe the development of endocrine glands.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.15 Development of the Endocrine System 80) Which of the following glands is NOT an endocrine gland? a) pituitary gland b) thyroid gland c) adrenal gland d) sebaceous gland e) pineal gland Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 18.2 Distinguish between exocrine and endocrine glands.

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Section Reference 1: Sec 18.2 Endocrine Glands 81) Which of the following is NOT a common characteristic of an exocrine gland? a) Initially secretes its products into a duct. b) Secretes materials onto outer surface of the body. c) Secretes materials into the lumen of hollow organs. d) Its secretory products are carried in body fluids to distant target cells. e) All the answer selections describe characteristics of exocrine glands.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 18.2 Distinguish between exocrine and endocrine glands.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.2 Endocrine Glands 82) Since insulin released from the pancreas is carried in the bloodstream to distant target cells, like muscle cells, it is considered to be a(n) a) local hormone. b) circulating hormone. c) paracrine. d) autocrine. e) neurotransmitter.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 18.3 Describe how the various classes of hormones interact with target-cell receptors.

Learning Objective 2: LO 18.3.2 Compare the two chemical classes of hormones based on their solubility.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.3 Hormone Activity 83) Which of the following is an example of a hormone that is secreted from an endocrine gland in response to a chemical change in the blood? a) Parathyroid hormone release from the parathyroid gland. b) Insulin release from the pancreas. c) Glucagon release from the pancreas. d) ADH release from the posterior pituitary gland. e) All the answer selections are correct.

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Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO 18.5 Describe the mechanisms of control of hormone secretion.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.5 Control of Hormone Secretion 84) All the following hormones are produced and secreted by the ovaries EXCEPT a) estradiol. b) estrone. c) progesterone. d) inhibin. e) follicle-stimulating hormone.

Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 18.11 Describe the location, hormones, and functions of the male and female gonads.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.11 Ovaries and Testes 85) Which of the following is a protein hormone produced by the testes that inhibits secretion of follicle-stimulating hormone by the anterior pituitary gland? a) chorionic gonadotropin b) testosterone c) estradiol d) inhibin e) relaxin Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 18.11 Describe the location, hormones, and functions of the male and female gonads.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.11 Ovaries and Testes

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Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pap15 Chapter Number: 19 Shuffle: Yes Case Sensitive: No Question type: Multiple Choice 1) Which of the following is NOT a major function of the blood? a) Transportation of nutrients b) Regulation of blood pH c) Protection against infectious disease d) Transportation of heat e) Production of oxygen Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 19.1 Describe the functions and components of blood.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.1.1 Describe the functions of blood.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.1 Functions and Properties of Blood Question type: Multiple Choice 2) Which of the following is NOT a true statement regarding blood? a) The normal average temperature of blood is around 100.4o F. b) The normal pH range for blood is 7.35-7.45. c) Hemocytoblasts are a common component of circulating blood. d) The primary circulating blood cell is the RBC. e) Blood is a liquid connective tissue consisting of cells and a liquid extracellular matrix.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 19.1 Describe the functions and components of blood.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.1.2 Describe the physical characteristics and principal components of blood.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.1 Functions and Properties of Blood

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3) The hematocrit is a measure of the percentage of whole blood occupied by a) WBCs. b) platelets. c) RBCs. d) plasma. e) plasma proteins.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 19.1 Describe the functions and components of blood.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.1.2 Describe the physical characteristics and principal components of blood.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.1 Functions and Properties of Blood 4) What percentage of blood plasma is water? a) 95.1% b) 91.5% c) 88.5% d) 4.9% e) 8.5% Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 19.1 Describe the functions and components of blood.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.1.2 Describe the physical characteristics and principal components of blood.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.1 Functions and Properties of Blood 5) Which of the following plasma proteins plays a role in disease resistance? a) Albumin b) Globulins c) Fibrinogen d) Myoglobin e) Hemoglobin

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Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 19.1 Describe the functions and components of blood.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.1.2 Describe the physical characteristics and principal components of blood.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.1 Functions and Properties of Blood 6) Which of the following plasma proteins plays a role in blood clotting? a) Albumin b) Globulins c) Fibrinogen d) Prostaglandins Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 19.1 Describe the functions and components of blood.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.1.1 Explain the functions of blood.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.1 Functions and Properties of Blood Question type: Essay 7) Kwashiorkor, a protein deficiency disease typically seen in young children living in developing tropical nations, will have an effect on three different main areas of health related to the blood. Explain why the three areas are effected and which proteins are involved in these functions.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective 1: LO 19.1 Describe the functions and components of blood.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.1.1 Describe the functions of blood.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.1 Functions and Properties of Blood Solution: Due to the protein deficiency, three specific proteins will be affected. The first is albumin which makes up 54% of the proteins found in the blood. Albumin is involved in maintaining osmotic pressure which affects the exchange of fluids across capillary walls. A deficiency will cause a buildup of fluid in the interstitial spaces of the tissues and bloating will occur. The second protein is globulin (of which there are several) that makes up 38% of the

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proteins in the blood. Globulins are involved in the immune system which helps protect the body from invading bacteria and viruses. A deficiency of globulins will cause the individual to frequently suffer from infections. In addition, globulins transport iron, lipids and fat-soluble vitamins, so a deficiency will lead to other problems of malnutrition. The third protein is fibrinogen which makes up 7% of the blood proteins. This protein is intimately involved in blood clotting. A deficiency will lead to serious bleeding problems.

Question type: Text Drop Down 8) The gas [dropdown 1] is said to have [dropdown 2] in the body’s everyday processes.

Dropdown 1 Choices: carbon dioxide hydrogen nitrogen oxygen Answer 1: nitrogen Dropdown 2 Choices: a role in carbohydrate metabolism a role in lipid metabolism a role in protein synthesis no known function Answer 2: no known function Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 19.1 Describe the functions and components of blood.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.1.2 Describe the physical characteristics and principal components of blood.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.1 Functions and Properties of Blood Question type: Multiple Choice 9) The process by which the formed elements of the blood develop is called a) hematospermia. b) hemopoiesis. c) thrombocytosis. d) hemostasis.

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e) polycythemia.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Conprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2 Explain the origin of blood cells.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.2 Formation of Blood Cells 10) A megakaryoblast will develop into a) a red blood cell. b) a white blood cell. c) a platelet. d) either a white blood cell or a platelet. e) none of these choices.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2 Explain the origin of blood cells.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.2 Formation of Blood Cells 11) During hemopoiesis, some of the myeloid stem cells will eventually develop into a) proerythroblasts. b) T lymphoblasts. c) B lymphoblasts. d) NK lymphoblasts. e) all of these choices.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2 Explain the origin of blood cells.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.2 Formation of Blood Cells Question type: Multiple Selection 12) Progressive liver failure may lead to serious bleeding problems due to

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a) reduced production of thrombopoietin b) a reduction in the production of platelets c) a reduction in the cholesterol production d) a reduction in the number of pluripotent stem cells Answer 1: a Answer 2: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2 Explain the origin of blood cells Section Reference 1: Sec 19.2 Formation of Blood Cells Question type: Multiple Choice 13) Which of the following hormones stimulates proliferation of red blood cells in red bone marrow? a) erythropoietin (EPO) b) thrombopoietin (TPO) c) human growth hormone (hGH) d) calcitonin (CT) e) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2 Explain the origin of blood cells.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.2 Formation of Blood Cells Question type: Multiple Choice 14) Approximately, how many hemoglobin molecules are found in each RBC? a) 50 million b) 100 million c) 280 million d) 320 million e) 430 million

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Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 19.3 Describe the structure, functions, life cycle, and production of red blood cells.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.3 Red Blood Cells Question type: Multiple Choice 15) Ferritin is a protein used to a) break down iron b) store iron in the liver, muscle and spleen. c) oxidize iron in the peroxisomes. d) synthesize iron. e) absorb iron across intestinal cells.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 19.3 Describe the structure, functions, life cycle, and production of red blood cells.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.3 Red Blood Cells Question type: Multiple Choice 16) The major function of red blood cells is a) nutrient transport. b) cytokine stimulation. c) blood cell proliferation. d) gas transport. e) disease resistance.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 19.3 Describe the structure, functions, life cycle, and production of red blood cells.

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Section Reference 1: Sec 19.3 Red Blood Cells Question type: Multiple Selection 17) Jaundice, a yellowing of the skin, is a condition caused by the deposition of bilirubin in the skin. It may be associated with a) excessive breakdown of red blood cells b) cancer of the bowel or pancreas c) blockage of bile drainage by gallstones d) increased atmospheric oxygen Answer 1: a Answer 2: b Answer 3: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective 1: LO 19.3 Describe the structure, functions, life cycle, and production of red blood cells.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.3 Red Blood Cells Question type: Multiple Choice 18) Towards the end of erythropoiesis in the bone marrow, a red blood cell loses its nucleus and becomes a a) proerythroblast. b) megakaryocyte. c) progenitor cell. d) mature erythrocyte. e) reticulocyte.

Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 19.3 Describe the structure, functions, life cycle, and production of red blood cells.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.3 Red Blood Cells

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Question type: Multiple Selection 19) Erythropoiesis may be stimulated by a) pulmonary disease that decreases available oxygen b) excessive bleeding c) traveling to high altitudes d) diving in deep water Answer 1: a Answer 2: b Answer 3: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective 1: LO 19.3 Describe the structure, functions, life cycle, and production of red blood cells.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.3 Red Blood Cells Question type: Multiple Choice 20) Which of the following blood cells is a phagocyte? a) Neutrophil b) Platelet c) Lymphocyte d) Basophil e) Erythrocyte Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 19.4 Describe the structure, functions, and production of white blood cells (WBCs).

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 White Blood Cells Question type: Multiple Choice 21) Which of the following blood components is involved in reducing blood loss from a damaged blood vessel?

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a) Erythrocyte b) Platelet c) Lymphocyte d) Basophil e) Neutrophil Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 19.5 Describe the structure, function, and origin of platelets.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.5 Platelets Question type: Multiple Choice 22) Which of the following blood cells releases granules that intensify the inflammatory response and promote hypersensitivity (allergic) reactions? a) Eosinophil b) Monocyte c) Lymphocyte d) Basophil e) Neutrophil Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 19.4 Describe the structure, functions, and production of white blood cells (WBCs).

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 White Blood Cells Question type: Multiple Choice 23) Which of the following blood cells phagocytizes antigen-antibody complexes and is effective against parasitic worms? a) Eosinophil b) Monocyte c) Lymphocyte d) Basophil

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e) Neutrophil Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 19.4 Describe the structure, functions, and production of white blood cells (WBCs).

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 White Blood Cells 24) Which of the following blood cells are the main soldiers in the immune system defense of the body against microbial invaders? a) Eosinophil b) Macrophage c) Lymphocyte d) Basophil e) Platelet Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 19.4 Describe the structure, functions, and production of white blood cells (WBCs).

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 White Blood Cells 25) Which of the following cells is NOT an agranular leukocyte? a) Monocytes b) Macrophage c) Lymphocyte d) Basophil e) All of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 19.4 Describe the structure, functions, and production of white blood cells (WBCs).

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 White Blood Cells

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Question type: Essay 26) Imagine that you are a doctor and your patient appears to have an infection. You are not sure if the infection is bacterial, viral, fungal or parasitic. Which blood test would you order and how would you determine the causative agent of the infection?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective 1: LO 19.5 Describe the structure, function, and origin of platelets.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.5 Platelets Solution: The complete blood count, or CBC, will give the doctor information about the relative percentages of all five white blood cells. A high count of specific white blood cells is usually associated with a specific type of infection. Neutrophils are most often associated with a bacterial infection, so an elevation of the neutrophil count in the absence of elevations of other white blood cell counts would indicate a bacterial infection. Lymphocytes are usually elevated when a viral infection is present as are monocytes, so an elevation of both would clearly indicate a viral infection. An elevation of just monocytes would most likely occur with a fungal infection. Eosinophils act to protect us against parasitic infections and, therefore, would be elevated when parasites are present.

Question type: Text Drop Down 27) The number of circulating white blood cells may be affected by several factors. A pregnant woman will often exhibit a reduction in the number of [dropdown 1] while an individual exposed to radiation will exhibit a reduction in the number of [dropdown 2].

Dropdown1 Choices: basophils lymphocytes monocytes neutrophils Answer 1: basophils Dropdown 2 Choices basophils eosinophils monocytes neutrophils Answer 2: neutrophils

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Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 19.4 Describe the structure, functions, and production of white blood cells (WBCs).

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 White Blood Cells Question type; Multiple Choice\ 28) The process of a white blood cell squeezing between endothelial cells to exit a blood vessel is called a) emigration. b) diaphysis. c) adhesion. d) opsonization. e) phagocytosis.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 19.4 Describe the structure, functions, and production of white blood cells (WBCs).

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 White Blood Cells 29) Which of the following chemical substances is NOT commonly released by mast cells? a) Heparin b) Histamine c) Nitric oxide d) Proteases e) All of these choices Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 19.4 Describe the structure, functions, and production of white blood cells (WBCs).

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 White Blood Cells Question type; Multiple choice

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30) Which of the following hormones stimulates the development of megakaryoblasts? a) Erythropoietin b) Thrombopoietin c) Nitric oxide d) Human growth hormone e) Heparin Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 19.5 Describe the structure, function, and origin of platelets.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.5 Platelets 31) Which of following correctly lists the sequence of steps that occur during hemostasis in response to a damaged blood vessel? a) vascular spasm, clotting, polycythemia b) hemolysis, vascular spasm, platelet plug formation c) emigration, clotting, hemolysis d) vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, clotting e) anemia, hemogenesis, platelet plug formation Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 19.7 Describe the events involved in hemostasis.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.7.1 Describe the three mechanisms that contribute to hemostasis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.7 Hemostasis 32) The intrinsic and extrinsic pathways of blood clotting are identical after formation of a) thromboplastin. b) prothrombinase. c) clotting factor XII. d) fibrin. e) tissue factor.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 19.7 Describe the events involved in hemostasis.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.7.2 Explain the various factors that promote and inhibit blood clotting.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.7 Hemostasis 33) Which of the following clotting factors is involved in strengthening and stabilizing a blood clot? a) Factor V b) Factor VII c) Factor XI d) Factor XIII e) Factor XIV Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 19.7 Describe the events involved in hemostasis.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.7.2 Explain the various factors that promote and inhibit blood clotting.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.7 Hemostasis 34) Which of the following situations could result in maternal antibodies attacking fetal blood cells during a second pregnancy? a) Mom is Rh negative and fetus is Rh negative b) Mom is Rh negative and fetus is Rh positive c) Mom is Rh positive and fetus is Rh negative d) Mom is Rh positive and fetus is Rh positive.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 19.8 Explain the importance of the classification of blood into blood groups and blood types.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.8.1 Distinguish between the ABO and Rh blood groups.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.8 Blood Groups and Blood Types Question type: Essay

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35) Deep vein thromboses, blood clots that build up in a deep vein, particularly the deep saphenous vein in the leg, are seen more frequently in long-distance truck drivers, passengers on airplanes who sit for the entire trip without getting up to walk and individuals who take long trips in cars without getting out to stretch. Explain why you think this happens and how it can be avoided.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective 1: LO 19.7 Describe the three mechanisms that contribute to hemostasis.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.7.2 Explain the various factors that promote and inhibit blood clotting.

Section Reference 1: 19.7 Hemostasis Solution: If blood flows too slowly (stasis) through a vessel, particularly a vein, clotting factors can accumulate locally in the area of reduced speed of flow. This high concentration of factors can initiate coagulation in the unbroken vessel leading to the formation of a thrombosis. If the clot, a thrombus, doesn’t dissolve spontaneously, the thrombus may dislodge and travel as an embolus to a distant site such as the heart, brain or lungs. Long-distance truck drivers, airplane passengers who don’t get up during a long flight and passengers in an automobile on long trips all expose themselves to a reduction of flow of the blood, particularly where the knee is flexed causing a kink in the blood vessels of the leg. This can lead to the formation of a clot. To avoid this, the individuals should pull their cars or trucks over to the side of the road, get out and walk around the vehicle periodically to ensure that blood flow to the legs is not impeded. Airplane passengers should get up and walk around the plane every hour, or so, to keep blood flow normal.

Question type: Multiple Choice 36) Which of the following opposes the action of thromboxane A2 by inhibiting platelet adhesion and release? a) Heparin b) Fibrinogen c) Plasmin d) Antithrombin e) Prostacyclin Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 19.7 Describe the events involved in hemostasis.

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Learning Objective 2: LO 19.7.2 Explain the various factors that promote and inhibit blood clotting.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.7 Hemostasis 37) Which of the following substances is an anticoagulant produced by mast cells and basophils? a) Heparin b) Fibrinogen c) Thromboxane A2 d) Prostacyclin e) Plasmin Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 19.7 Describe the events involved in hemostasis.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.7.2 Explain the various factors that promote and inhibit blood clotting.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.7 Hemostasis 38) Which of the cells in the diagram will eventually develop into macrophages?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 19.4 Describe the structure, functions, and production of white blood cells (WBCs).

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 White Blood Cells

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39) Which of the cells in the diagram will increase the number of nuclear lobes as they age?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 19.4 Describe the structure, functions, and production of white blood cells (WBCs).Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 White Blood Cells 40) Which of the cells in the diagram can be subdivided into categories of small and large versions of this cell type?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 19.4 Describe the structure, functions, and production of white blood cells (WBCs).

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Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 White Blood Cells 41) Which labeled cell in the diagram is a WBC?

a) A b) B c) C d) Both B and C e) A,B and C Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 19.1 Describe the functions and components of blood.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.1.1 Describe the functions of blood.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.1 Functions and Properties of Blood

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42) Which labeled cell in the diagram is a pluripotent stem cell?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) G Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2 Explain the origin of blood cells.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.2 Formation of Blood Cells

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43) Which letter in the diagram indicates the correct position of a myeloid stem cell?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) G Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2 Explain the origin of blood cells.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.2 Formation of Blood Cells

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44) Which labeled cell in the diagram will develop into platelets?

a) H b) J c) K d) L e) E Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2 Explain the origin of blood cells.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.2 Formation of Blood Cells

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45) What is this figure demonstrating?

a) Erythropoiesis b) RBC differentiation c) Emigration d) Clot formation e) Clot retraction Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 19.4 Describe the structure, functions, and production of white blood cells (WBCs).

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 White Blood Cells

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46) What does this figure represent?

a) Erythropoiesis b) RBC differentiation c) Emigration d) Clot formation e) Clot retraction Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 19.7 Describe the events involved in hemostasis.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.7.1 Describe the three mechanisms that contribute to hemostasis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.7 Hemostasis 47) Which of the following antibodies would you find in the plasma of a person with type O blood? a) anti-A

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b) anti-B c) anti-A and anti-B d) No antibodies to ABO blood group antigens e) Not enough information to answer Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 19.8 Explain the importance of the classification of blood into blood groups and blood types.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.8.1 Distinguish between the ABO and Rh blood groups.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.8 Blood Groups and Blood Types 48) What blood type is a person if their plasma contains ONLY anti-A agglutinin? a) A b) B c) O d) AB e) Not enough information is provided to answer question.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 19.8 Explain the importance of the classification of blood into blood groups and blood types.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.8.1 Distinguish between the ABO and Rh blood groups.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.8 Blood Groups and Blood Types Question type: Essay 49) List and briefly describe the major functions of blood.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 19.1 Describe the functions and components of blood.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.1.1 Describe the functions of blood.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.1 Functions and Properties of Blood

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Solution: 1) Transportation of oxygen, carbon dioxide, nutrients, wastes, hormones and heat; 2) Regulation of pH via buffers, body temperature via properties of water in plasma, and water balance via osmotic pressure created by plasma proteins; 3) Protection via clotting, antibodies, phagocytosis, and complement.

50) Describe the negative feedback loop that controls the rate of erythropoiesis. Under what circumstances would you expect the rate of erythropoiesis to increase? How would it be possible to tell if the rate of erythropoiesis is elevated?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 19.3 Describe the structure, functions, life cycle, and production of red blood cells.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.3 Red Blood Cells Solution: Hypoxia in the kidney leads to secretion of erythropoietin, which targets proerythroblasts in red bone marrow to mature into reticulocytes, which enter circulation to become red blood cells thus increasing the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood. Tissue hypoxia is induced by any form of anemia (reduced oxygen-carrying capacity of blood), or when oxygen levels in the external environment are low (e.g., high altitudes). High levels of reticulocytes in the circulation are a strong indicator of increased erythropoiesis.

51) Explain the proposed role of hemoglobin in the regulation of blood flow and blood pressure.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 19.3 Describe the structure, functions, life cycle, and production of red blood cells.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.3 Red Blood Cells Solution: The gaseous hormone nitric oxide (NO), produced by the endothelial cells that line blood vessels, binds to hemoglobin. Under some circumstances, hemoglobin releases NO. The released NO causes vasodilation, an increase in blood vessel diameter that occurs when the smooth muscle in the vessel wall relaxes. Vasodilation improves blood flow and enhances oxygen delivery to cells near the site of NO release. At the same time, vasodilation lowers blood pressure due to the decreased resistance to flow created by the wider lumen diameter.

52) Why does damaged endothelium present an increased risk of blood clotting?

Answer:

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 19.7 Describe the events involved in hemostasis.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.7.2 Explain the various factors that promote and inhibit blood clotting.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.7 Hemostasis Solution: Blood may come in contact with collagen in the surrounding basal lamina, which activates clotting factor XII, ultimately leading to the formation of fibrin clots. Platelets also adhere to collagen exposed by damage to the endothelium and begin their release reaction Question type: Multiple Choice 53) When blood from a normal adult is centrifuged, as shown in the figure, which of the following components occupies the greatest volume?

a) plasma b) red blood cells c) platelets d) buffy coat e) white blood cells Answer: a Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 19.1 Describe the functions and components of blood.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.1.2 Describe the physical characteristics and principal components of blood.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.1 Functions and Properties of Blood 54) What is the normal concentration range of the formed element that comprises the blood component labeled III in the figure?

a) 400,000–1 million cells/μL b) 150–200 cells/μL c) 4.8–5.4 million cells/μL d) 150,000–400,000 cells/μL e) 5,000–10,000 cells/μL Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 19.1 Describe the functions and components of blood.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.1.2 Describe the physical characteristics and principal components of blood.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.1 Functions and Properties of Blood

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55) Which of the following blood cell types normally comprises the highest percentage of the blood component labeled II in the figure?

a) eosinophils b) monocytes c) lymphocytes d) neutrophils e) basophils Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO 19.1 Describe the functions and components of blood.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.1.2 Describe the physical characteristics and principal components of blood.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.1 Functions and Properties of Blood

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56) Which of the following blood cell types normally comprises the smallest percentage of the blood component labeled II in the figure?

a) eosinophils b) monocytes c) lymphocytes d) neutrophils e) basophils Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective 1: LO 19.1 Describe the functions and components of blood.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.1.2 Describe the physical characteristics and principal components of blood.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.1 Functions and Properties of Blood

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57) Which of the following types of proteins is present at the highest percentage in the blood component labeled I in the figure?

a) globulin b) albumin c) fibrinogen d) thrombin e) keratin Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO 19.1 Describe the functions and components of blood.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.1.2 Describe the physical characteristics and principal components of blood.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.1 Functions and Properties of Blood

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58) Which of the following types of proteins is present at the lowest percentage of the blood component labeled I in the figure?

a) globulin b) albumin c) fibrinogen d) all of the proteins listed are found in equal percentages e) none of proteins listed are found in component I Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO 19.1 Describe the functions and components of blood.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.1.2 Describe the physical characteristics and principal components of blood.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.1 Functions and Properties of Blood 59) Which of the following precursor cells eventually gives rise to neutrophils? a) Megakaryoblast b) Proerythroblast c) T lymphoblast d) Monoblast e) Myeloblast

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Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2 Explain the origin of blood cells.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.2 Formation of Blood Cells Question type: Multiple Choice 60) Which of the following precursor cells eventually gives rise to the platelets? a) Megakaryoblast b) Proerythroblast c) T lymphoblast d) Monoblast e) Myeloblast Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2 Explain the origin of blood cells.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.2 Formation of Blood Cells Question type: Text Drop Down 61) An individual with leukemia requires a bone marrow transplant. The donor may be a person who gives the recipient stem cells that are in the bone marrow from his or her [dropdown 1] or the stem cells may come from a(n) [dropdown 2].

Dropdown 1 Choices: femur hip bone humerus skull Answer 1: hip bone Dropdown 2 Choices blood transfusion large muscle

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liver umbilical cord Answer 2: umbilical cord Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode Synthesis Learning Objective 1: LO 19.6 Explain the importance of bone marrow transplants and stem cell transplants.

Section Reference 1: Section 19.6 Stem Cell Transplants from Bone Marrow and Cord Blood\ Question type; Multiple Choice 62) Which of the following formed elements found in the blood are derived from reticulocytes? a) Platelets b) Erythrocytes c) T lymphocytes d) Monocytes e) Basophils Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2 Explain the origin of blood cells.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.2 Formation of Blood Cells Question type: Multiple Selection 63) Umbilical cord stem cells a) are easier to collect than bone marrow stem cells b) are more likely to cause a graft-versus-host reaction c) are more abundant than bone marrow stem cells d) are less likely to transmit infections Answer 1: a Answer 2: c Answer 3: d Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 19.6 Explain the importance of bone marrow transplants and stem cell transplants.

Section Reference 1: Section 19.6 Stem Cell Transplants from Bone Marrow and Cord Blood Question type: Multiple Choice 64) Which of the following precursor cells gives rise to agranular leukocytes? a) Proerythroblast b) Megakaryoblast c) Lymphoblast d) Myeloblast e) None of the selections are correct.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2 Explain the origin of blood cells.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.2 Formation of Blood Cells Question type: Multiple Choice 65) Which of the following precursor cells gives rise to granular leukocytes? a) Proerythroblast b) Megakaryoblast c) Lymphoblast d) Myeloblast e) None of the selections are correct.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 19.2 Explain the origin of blood cells.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.2 Formation of Blood Cells

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66) A high count of which of the white blood cells shown in the figure may indicate bacterial infection, stress, or inflammation?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 19.4 Describe the structure, functions, and production of white blood cells (WBCs).

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 White Blood Cells Question type: Multiple Choice 67) A high count of which of the white blood cells shown in the figure may indicate viral infections?

a) A & B b) B & C c) C & D d) D & E e) E & C Answer: d

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Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective 1: LO 19.4 Describe the structure, functions, and production of white blood cells (WBCs).

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 White Blood Cells Question type: Multiple Choice 68) A high count of which of the white blood cells shown in the figure may indicate parasitic infection or autoimmune disease?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 19.4 Describe the structure, functions, and production of white blood cells (WBCs)..

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 White Blood Cells Question type: Multiple Choice

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69) A high count of which of the white blood cells shown in the figure may indicate cancer or hypothyroidism?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO 19.4 Describe the structure, functions, and production of white blood cells (WBCs).

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 White Blood Cells 70) A high count of which of the white blood cells shown in the figure may indicate fungal infection?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation

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Learning Objective 1: LO 19.4 Describe the structure, functions, and production of white blood cells (WBCs).

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 White Blood Cells Question type: Multiple Choice 71) A low count of which of the white blood cells shown in the figure may indicate pregnancy, ovulation, or hyperthyroidism?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO 19.4 Describe the structure, functions, and production of white blood cells (WBCs).

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 White Blood Cells Question type: Multiple Choice 72) A low count of which of the white blood cells shown in the figure may indicate radiation exposure, or systemic lupus erythematosus?

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a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO 19.4 Describe the structure, functions, and production of white blood cells (WBCs).Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 White Blood Cells 73) Low counts of which two cell types shown in the figure may result from treatment with cortisol?

a) A & B b) B & C c) C & D d) D & E e) E & C Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective 1: LO 19.4 Describe the structure, functions, and production of white blood cells (WBCs).

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 White Blood Cells Question type: Multiple Choice 74) Serum is a) the same as plasma. b) plasma without the clotting factors.

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c) the same as lymph. d) formed during the first step in blood clotting. e) pulmonary interstitial fluid.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 19.7 Describe the events involved in hemostasis.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.7.2 Explain the various factors that promote and inhibit blood clotting.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.7 Hemostasis Question type: Multiple Choice 75) Reduced vitamin B12 absorption from the small intestine due to reduced intrinsic factor production in the stomach results in condition called a) hemorrhagic anemia. b) aplastic anemia. c) megaloblastic anemia. d) pernicious anemia. e) iron deficiency anemia.

Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective 1: LO 19.8 Explain the importance of the classification of blood into blood groups and blood types.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.8.2 Explain why it is so important to match donor and recipient blood types before administering a transfusion.

Section Reference 1: 19.8 Blood Groups and Blood Types Question type: Multiple Choice 76) Destruction of red bone marrow due to radiation results in a) hemorrhagic anemia. b) aplastic anemia. c) megaloblastic anemia. d) pernicious anemia.

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e) iron deficiency anemia.

Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective 1: LO 19.8 Explain the importance of the classification of blood into blood groups and blood types.

Section Reference 1: 19.8 Blood Groups and Blood Types Question type: Multiple Choice 77) A condition in which inadequate intake of vitamin B12 or folic acid causes production of large abnormal red blood cells is called a) hemorrhagic anemia. b) aplastic anemia. c) megaloblastic anemia. d) pernicious anemia. e) iron deficiency anemia.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 19.9 Describe the homeostatic imbalances that affect blood.

Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect Blood 78) Anemia is defined as a) a condition where blood does not clot properly. b) a condition where blood cells are lysed by the immune response. c) a condition where there is excessive bleeding. d) a condition in which the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood is reduced. e) none of these choices.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 19.9 Describe the homeostatic imbalances that affect blood.

Section Reference 1: Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect Blood

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Question type: Essay 79) List and briefly describe the three mechanisms used to reduce blood loss from a damaged blood vessel.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 19.7 Describe the events involved in hemostasis.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.7.1 Describe the three mechanisms that contribute to hemostasis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.7 Hemostasis Solution: 1) Vascular spasm occurs when circularly arranged smooth muscles in arteriole walls contract to reduce blood loss. 2) Platelet plug formation starts when platelets make contact with collagen fibers from a damaged vessel. This initiates a series of reactions, which leads to platelet activation and the release of their vesicular content that ultimately attracts more platelets to the area, eventually leading to the formation of a plug over the damaged area. 3) Blood clotting involves a cascade of enzymatic reactions following platelet plug formation. The clot enables the damaged vessel to heal and repair properly.

Question type: Multiple Choice 80) The average life span of an erythrocyte in the circulation is a) 4 to 5 years. b) 4 to 5 hours. c) 5 to 9 days. d) 120 days. e) 120 weeks.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 19.3 Describe the structure, functions, life cycle, and production of red blood cells.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.3 Red Blood Cells Question type: Multiple Choice

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81) Which of the following are characteristics of BOTH erythrocytes and platelets? a) no nucleus b) large segmented nucleus c) cytoplasmic granules d) lifespan of 5 to 9 days e) develop from myeloblasts Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 19.5 Describe the structure, function, and origin of platelets.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.5 Platelets Question type: Multiple Choice 82) Which of the following formed elements in blood is removed by fixed macrophages in the spleen and liver after only 5 to 9 days in the circulation? a) erythrocytes b) platelets c) monocytes d) basophils e) eosinophils Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 19.5 Describe the structure, function, and origin of platelets.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.5 Platelets Question type: Multiple Choice 83) A cord-blood transplant involves obtaining the stem cells to transplant into the diseased patient from a) the spermatic cord of a donor’s testes. b) the spinal cord of the patient. c) the umbilical cord of a donor shortly after birth. d) the irradiated bone marrow of the patient. e) the spinal cord of an aborted fetus.

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Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 19.6 Explain the importance of bone marrow transplants and stem cell transplants.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.6 Stem Cell Transplants from Bone Marrow and Cord Blood Question type: Multiple Selection 84) If type A blood is infused into a patient with type O blood, which of the following adverse reactions would you expect to observe in the patient? a) Agglutination (clumping) of the transfused blood cells. b) Complement-induced hemolysis of the transfused blood cells. c) Released hemoglobin clogging the filtration membrane of the kidneys. d) There would be no adverse reactions as these blood types are compatible.

Answer 1: a Answer 2: b Answer 3: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 19.8 Explain the importance of the classification of blood into blood groups and blood types.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.8.2 Explain why it is so important to match donor and recipient blood types before administering a transfusion.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.8 Blood Groups and Blood Types Question type: Multiple Choice 85) Which of the following blood types is a person whose blood cells were agglutinated by both anti-A serum and anti-B serum, but not by anti-Rh serum? a) AB negative b) AB positive c) O negative d) O positive e) None of the selections are correct

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Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 19.8 Explain the importance of the classification of blood into blood groups and blood types.

Learning Objective 2: LO 19.8.2 Explain why it is so important to match donor and recipient blood types before administering a transfusion.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.8 Blood Groups and Blood Types

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Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pap15 Chapter Number: 21 Shuffle: Yes Case Sensitive: No Question type: Multiple Choice 1) Which of the following blood vessels carries blood away from the heart to other organs? a) arteries b) capillaries c) venules d) arterioles e) veins Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 21.1 Describe the relationships among the different blood vessels and the movement of blood through them.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.1.2 Outline the vessels through which the blood moves in its passage from the heart to the capillaries and back.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.1 Structure and Function of Blood Vessels Question type: Multiple Choice 2) Which of the following blood vessels carries blood from the tissues back to the heart? a) arteries b) arterioles c) aorta d) veins e) capillaries Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 21.1 Describe the relationships among the different blood vessels and the movement of blood through them.

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Learning Objective 2: LO 21.1.2 Outline the vessels through which the blood moves in its passage from the heart to the capillaries and back.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.1 Structure and Function of Blood Vessels Question type: Multiple Choice 3) Which layer of the arterial wall is responsible for vasoconstriction? a) tunica interna b) tunica media c) tunica externa d) tunica albuginea e) tunica fascia Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 21.1 Describe the relationships among the different blood vessels and the movement of blood through them.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.1.1 Contrast the structure and function of arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.1 Structure and Function of Blood Vessels

4) A blockage in the proximal portion of the right subclavian artery will not only affect circulation to the right arm, but also to the a) left arm b) left ventricle c) right ventricle d) left vertebral artery e) left common carotid artery Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 21.10 Identify the three principal arteries that branch from the arch of the aorta.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.10 The Arch of the Aorta 5) The bronchial arteries arise from the

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a) left subclavian artery b) brachiocephalic trunk c) right subclavian artery d) left common carotid artery e) thoracic aorta Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 21.11 Identify the visceral and parietal branches of the thoracic aorta.

Reference Section 1: Sec 21.11 Thoracic Aorta 6) A blockage in the external iliac artery will reduce blood flow to the a) external iliac artery b) common iliac artery c) femoral artery d) abdominal aorta e) ileal artery Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 21.13 Identify the two major branches of the common iliac ateries.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.13 Arteries of the Pelvis and Lower Limbs 7) In resting individuals, which vessels serve as a large blood reservoir from which blood can be quickly diverted to other vessels as needed? a) Arteries and arterioles b) Arterioles and capillaries c) Venules and capillaries d) Veins and venules e) Aorta and veins Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 21.1 Describe the relationships among the different blood vessels and the movement of blood through them.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.1.3 Distinguish between pressure reservoirs and blood reservoirs.

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Section Reference 1: Sec 21.1 Structure and Function of Blood Vessels 8) In order to supply nourishment to liver tissue, which vessel must deliver blood to the organ? a) hepatic artery b) hepatic vein c) hepatic portal vein d) superior mesenteric artery e) splenic artery Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 21.20 Describe the importance of the hepatic portal system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.20 Circulatory Routes: The Hepatic Portal Circulation

9) If a patient is confined to bed and is unable to walk at all, which of the following will be seriously affected? a) blood flow to the lungs b) blood flow to the kidneys c) the circulation returning from the lower body d) circulation in the jugular veins d) blood flow to the intestines Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 21.19 Identify the principal superficial and deep veins that drain the lower limbs.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.19 Veins of the Lower Limbs 10) Capillaries are also referred to as a) exchange vessels. b) vasoconstrictors. c) vasodilators. d) pressure reservoirs. e) distributing vessels.

Answer: a

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 21.1 Describe the relationships among the different blood vessels and the movement of blood through them.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.1.2 Outline the vessels through which the blood moves in its passage from the heart to the capillaries and back.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.1 Structure and Function of Blood Vessels Question Type: Essay 11) How might drugs that inhibit angiogenesis and are used to treat tumors, increase the risk of a heart attack in an older individual with atherosclerosis?

Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective 1: LO 21.1 Describe the relationships among the different blood vessels and the movement of blood through them.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.1.3 Distinguish between pressure reservoirs and blood reservoirs.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.1 Structure and Function of Blood Vessels Solution: Angiogenesis, the growth of new blood vessels, is an important process in developing collateral circulation around partially obstructed (due to atherosclerotic plaque) coronary arteries.

These new blood vessels act to conduct blood to cardiac muscle tissue when the circulation in the original vessels is impaired by the plaques. If angiogenesis is inhibited in an effort to “starve” a tumor, the new blood vessel growth in the heart may also be inhibited thus leading to a greater risk of a heart attack if the original coronary artery becomes completely clogged.

Question type: Text Drop Down 12) The layer of a blood vessel that is in direct contact with the blood is the [dropdown 1] while the layer of the vessel that is made up of smooth muscle and elastic fibers is the [dropdown 2].

Dropdown 1 choices: tunica albuginea tunica externa tunica interna tunica media tunica vasculosa Answer 1: tunica interna

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Dropdown 2 choices:: tunica albuginea tunica externa tunica interna tunica media tunica vasculosa Answer 2: tunica media Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 21.1 Describe the relationships among the different blood vessels and the movement of blood through them.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.1.1 Contrast the structure and function of arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules and veins Section Reference 1: Sec 21.1 Structure and Function of Blood Vessels Question type: Multiple Choice 13) Which of the following is the most important method of capillary exchange? a) diffusion b) facilitated diffusion c) bulk flow d) primary active transport e) secondary active transport Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2 Discuss the pressures that cause movement of fluids between capillaries and interstitial spaces.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.2 Capillary Exchange 14) Which of the following structures is used to control the flow of blood through a capillary bed? a) thoroughfare channels b) precapillary sphincters c) postcapillary sphincters d) venules

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e) valves in veins Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 21.1 Describe the relationships among the different blood vessels and the movement of blood through them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.1 Structure and Function of Blood Vessels Question type: Multiple Choice 15) Which of the following types of tissues contains continuous capillaries? a) skeletal muscle b) smooth muscle c) connective tissue d) lungs e) all of these choices Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 21.1 Describe the relationships among the different blood vessels and the movement of blood through them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.1 Structure and Function of Blood Vessels Question type: Multiple Choice 16) The alternate route of blood flow to a body part through an anastomosis is called a) a thoroughfare channel. b) a blood reservoir. c) a detour route. d) collateral circulation. e) microcirculation.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application

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Learning Objective 1: LO 21.1 Describe the relationships among the different blood vessels and the movement of blood through them.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.1.2 Outline the vessels through which the blood moves in its passage from the heart to the capillaries and back.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.1 Structure and Function of Blood Vessels 17) The largest driving force for pulling fluid from the interstitial spaces back into the capillaries is a) interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure. b) interstitial fluid osmotic pressure. c) blood colloid osmotic pressure. d) blood hydrostatic pressure. e) glomerular hydrostatic pressure.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2 Discuss the pressures that cause movement of fluids between capillaries and interstitial spaces.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.2 Capillary Exchange Question type: Multiple Choice 18) The pressure-driven movement of fluids and solutes from blood into interstitial fluid is called a) reabsorption. b) filtration. c) bulk flow. d) osmosis. e) transcytosis.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2 Discuss the pressures that cause movement of fluids between capillaries and interstitial spaces.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.2 Capillary Exchange Question type: Multiple Choice

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19) The volume of blood that circulates through the systemic (or pulmonary) blood vessels per minute is called a) stroke volume. b) tidal volume. c) cardiac output. d) cardiac reserve. e) total peripheral resistance.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 21.3 Describe the relationship between blood volume, pressure, and flow.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.3.1 Explain the factors that regulate the volume of blood flow.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Hemodynamics: Factors Affecting Blood Flow 20) Cardiac output is dependent on both a) heart rate and stroke volume. b) stroke volume and systemic vascular resistance. c) heart rate and systemic vascular resistance. d) blood type and stroke volume. e) blood pressure and heart rate Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 21.3 Describe the relationship between blood volume, pressure, and flow.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.3.2 Explain how blood pressure changes throughout the cardiovascular system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Hemodynamics: Factors Affecting Blood Flow Question type: Multiple Selection 21) Vascular resistance depends on which of these factors? Select all that apply. a) size of the blood vessel lumen b) blood viscosity

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c) total blood vessel length d) glucose content of the blood Answer 1: a Answer 2: b Answer 3: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 21.3 Describe the relationship between blood volume, pressure, and flow.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.3.3 Describe the factors that determine mean arterial pressure and systemic vascular resistance.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Hemodynamics: Factors Affecting Blood Flow Question type: Multiple Choice 22) Which of the following would NOT result in an increase in arterial blood pressure? a) Increased blood volume b) Increased sympathetic stimulation c) Increased heart rate d) Increased stroke volume e) Increased arteriolar vasodilation Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 21.4 Describe how blood pressure is regulated.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.4 Control of Blood Pressure and Blood Flow 23) Which of the following would NOT result in an increase in systemic vascular resistance? a) Decreased diameter of systemic arterioles b) Increased blood viscosity c) Decreased length of the systemic circulatory route d) Increased vasoconstriction of systemic arterioles e) Increased red blood cell count Answer: c Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 21.3 Describe the relationship between blood volume, pressure, and flow.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.3.3 Describe the factors that determine mean arterial pressure and systemic vascular resistance.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Hemodynamics: Factors Affecting Blood Flow 24) The right common carotid artery branches directly off the a) left common carotid artery b) left subclavian artery c) brachiocephalic trunk d) right subclavian artery e) right coronary artery Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 21.10 Identify the three principal arteries that branch from the arch of the aorta.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.10 The Arch of the Aorta 25) Which of the following is NOT a contribution of the cardiovascular system to other body systems? a) Blood delivers clotting factors and WBCs that aid in hemostasis when skin is damaged. b) Blood delivers calcium and phosphate ions that are needed for building bone extracellular matrix. c) Blood carries carbon dioxide to body tissues and removes oxygen for use by other organs. d) Blood carries newly absorbed nutrients and water to the liver. e) Blood circulates cells and chemicals that carry out immune functions.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 21.25 Describe how the cardiovascular system contributes to homeostasis Section Reference 1: Sec Focus on Homeostasis: The Cardiovascular System

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26) The cardiovascular center is located a) in the thoracic cavity. b) in the cerebral cortex. c) in the cerebellum. d) in the medulla oblongata. e) in the hypothalamus.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 21.4 Describe how blood pressure is regulated.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.4 Control of Blood Pressure and Blood Flow

27) The most common disorder affecting the heart and blood vessels is a) hypotension b) aneurysm c) infarction d) arrhythmia e) hypertension Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 21.26 Describe the disorders that affect blood vessels Reference Section 1: Sec Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Cardiovascular System

28) Pericardial arteries supply blood to the a) outer heart muscle b) tissue of the aorta c) tissue of the pulmonary trunk d) tissues of the pericardial sac e) all of these Answer: d Difficulty: Easy

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Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 21.11 Identify the visceral and parietal branches of the thoracic aorta.

Reference Section 1: Sec 21.11 Thoracic Aorta 29) Which of the following hormones would NOT stimulate changes that lead to an increase in arterial blood pressure? a) Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) b) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) c) Aldosterone d) Angiotensin II e) Norepinephrine Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 21.4 Describe how blood pressure is regulated.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.4 Control of Blood Pressure and Blood Flow

30) Blood flow passing through the posterior aspect of the knee is achieved through the a) tibial arteries b) popliteal arteries c) common iliac arteries d) internal iliac arteries e) external iliac arteries Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 21.13 Identify the two major branches of the common iliac arteries Reference Section 1: Sec 21.13 Arteries of the Pelvis and Lower Limbs

Question type: Essay 31) Compare and contrast the processes of diffusion, transcytosis and bulk flow in the process of capillary exchange.

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Answer: Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2 Discuss the pressures that cause movement of fluids between capillaries and interstitial spaces.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.2 Capillary Exchange Solution: Diffusion through capillaries is the simple movement of molecules such as oxygen, carbon dioxide, glucose and other substances through capillary walls from higher to lower concentrations. The substances cross the capillary walls through intercellular clefts or fenestrations or through endothelial cells. Transcytosis is a process by which some material crosses capillary walls. These substances in the blood plasma become enclosed within pinocytic vesicles that must enter the endothelial cells lining the capillaries by endocytosis. Once inside the cells, the vesicles cross the cells and exit by exocytosis. The process is used mainly for large, lipid-insoluble molecules that cannot cross capillary walls in any other way. Bulk flow is another passive process whereby large numbers of ions, molecules or particles in a fluid move together in the same direction. The speed of this movement is faster than that achieved by simple diffusion and occurs based on pressure whereby the substances move from areas of higher pressure to areas of lower pressure. The movement continues as long as a pressure gradient continues to exist. Diffusion is used more for solute exchange between blood and interstitial fluid. However, bulk flow regulates the relative volumes of blood and interstitial fluid related to filtration and reabsorption.

Question type: Multiple Choice 32) The circulatory system aids in the homeostasis of the skeletal system by a) delivering calcium b) delivering phosphate c) transporting hormones for bone metabolism d) transporting hormones for production of red blood cells e) all of the above Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 21.25 Describe how the cardiovascular system contributes to homeostasis Section Reference 1: Sec Focus on Homeostasis: The Cardiovascular System

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33) Nutrients from digested food enter the liver via the a) hepatic portal circulation b) hepatic vein c) abdominal aorta d) inferior vena cava e) renal veins Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 21.20 Describe the importance of the hepatic portal system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.20 Circulatory Routes: The Hepatic Portal System 34) Abnormal conditions such as atherosclerosis and patent (open) ductus arteriosus cause a large increase in the a) blood colloid osmotic pressure. b) net filtration pressure c) pulse pressure. d) blood hydrostatic pressure. e) interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 21.5 Define pulse, and systolic, diastolic, and pulse pressures.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.5 Checking Circulation 35) The branches from the ascending aorta that supply blood to the cardiac muscle are the a) circumflex arteries b) coronary arteries c) anterior descending arteries d) interventricular arteries e) pulmonary arteries Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: LO 21.9 Identify the two primary arterial branches of the ascending aorta

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Section Reference 1: 21.9 Ascending Aorta Question type: True/False 36) Direct pressure from the outside of the neck onto the carotid sinuses should stimulate the carotid sinus reflex and slow the heart rate and lower blood pressure.

Answer: True Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective 1: LO 21.4 Describe how blood pressure is regulated.

Section Reference 1: SO 21.4 Control of Blood Pressure and Blood Flow Question type: True/False 37) Massaging the neck over the carotid sinus might lead to a reduction in blood pressure due to nerve impulses traveling through the glossopharyngeal (IX) nerves arriving at the medulla oblongata.

Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 21.4 Describe how blood pressure is regulated.

Section Reference 1: SO 21.4 Control of Blood Pressure and Blood Flow Question type: Question Type: Multiple Choice

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38) Which of the labeled layers in the diagram of the arterial wall consists mainly of elastic fibers and smooth muscle fibers?

a) A b) B c) C d) A and B e) A, B and C Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 21.1 Describe the relationships among the different blood vessels and the movement of blood through them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.1 Structure and Function of Blood Vessels

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39) Which of the labeled layers in the diagram of the arterial wall is composed of a simple squamous epithelium, a basement membrane and a layer of elastic tissue?

a) A b) B c) C d) A and B e) A, B, and C Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 21.1 Describe the relationships among the different blood vessels and the movement of blood through them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.1 Structure and Function of Blood Vessels

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40) Which labeled structure in the figure is a metarteriole?

a) A b) B c) D d) F e) E Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 21.1 Describe the relationships among the different blood vessels and the movement of blood through them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.1 Structure and Function of Blood Vessels 41) A blockage to one or both of the inferior phrenic veins will cause a backup of blood into which structure? a) the liver b) the kidney c) the heart d) the diaphragm e) the spleen

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Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective: LO 21.18 Identify the principal veins that drain the abdomen and pelvis.

Section reference 1: 21.18 Veins of the Abdomen and Pelvis 42) Which labeled structure in the figure is precapillary sphincter?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 21.1 Describe the relationships among the different blood vessels and the movement of blood through them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.1 Structure and Function of Blood Vessels

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43) Which of the capillaries shown in the figure has an incomplete or absent basement membrane?

a) A b) B c) C d) A and B e) A, B, and C Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 21.1 Describe the relationships among the different blood vessels and the movement of blood through them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.1 Structure and Function of Blood Vessels

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44) Which of the types of capillaries shown in the figure is commonly found in the kidneys, villi of the small intestine, choroid plexuses, and some endocrine glands?

a) A b) B c) C d) A and B e) B and C Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 21.1 Describe the relationships among the different blood vessels and the movement of blood through them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.1 Structure and Function of Blood Vessels

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45) What physiological process is depicted in this figure?

a) Venous blood blockage b) Skeletal muscle pump c) Respiratory pump d) Thoroughfare channels e) Anastomosis Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 21.3 Describe the factors that affect blood volume, pressure, and flow.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Hemodynamics: Factors Affecting Blood Flow Question type: Essay

46) How might an individual who develops a blood clot that totally blocks a coronary artery still survive with a minimal amount of damage to the cardiac muscle supplied by that artery?

Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis

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Learning Objective 1LO 21.1 Describe the relationships among the different blood vessels and the movement of blood through them.

Section Reference 1; Sec 21.1 Structure and Function of Blood Vessels Solution: Complete blockage of an end artery will totally interrupt the blood flow to the cardiac muscle supplied by that artery, thus leading to necrosis (death) of that tissue. However, if collateral circulation has developed associated with an artery, the artery is not considered an end artery and there will be several alternate routes for the blood to flow into the tissue that receives blood from that artery. This supply of blood will help the tissue to receive the oxygen and nutrients needed to avoid being damaged by the blood clot.

Question type: Multiple Choice 47) Which of the following would NOT occur in response to hypovolemic shock? a) Activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone (RAA) system. b) Secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) c) Activation of the sympathetic division of the ANS. d) Release of atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP). e) Release of local vasodilators.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 21.6 Describe the body's attempt to restore homeostasis in response to shock.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.6 Shock and Homeostasis 48) All the veins of the systemic circulation eventually drain into the a) superior vena cava. b) inferior vena cava. c) coronary sinus. d) superior and inferior vena cava. e) superior and inferior vena cava and coronary sinus.

Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 21.7 Define systemic circulation and explain its importance.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.7 Circulatory Routes: Systemic Circulation

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49) The pulmonary trunk divides into a) brachiocephalic trunk and left subclavian artery b) right and left subclavian arteries. c) right and left pulmonary veins. d) right and left pulmonary arteries. e) right and left common carotid arteries.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 21.21 Explain why the pulmonary circulation is important.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.21 Circulatory Routes: The Pulmonary Circulation 50) If the foramen ovale doesn’t close at birth, the result will be a) overloading the lungs with blood b) excessive volume in the pulmonary trunk c) a reduction of volume in the aorta d) introducing deoxygenated blood into the systemic circulation e) no change in the content of the systemic or pulmonary circulations Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective 1: LO 21.22 Describe the fate of the fetal structure once postnatal circulation begins.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.22 Circulatory Routes: The Fetal Circulation

Question type: Essay 51) What change in blood pressure would be expected following tissue trauma and why would it occur?

Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective 1: LO 21.4 Describe how blood pressure is regulated.

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Section Reference 1: Sec 21.4 Control of Blood Pressure and Blood Flow Solution: Damage to tissues will cause the release of various chemicals. Tissue trauma or inflammation causes the release of kinins and histamine, both of which have a vasodilatory effect on blood vessels. This would lead to a reduction in blood pressure due to decreased resistance in the vessels. If the chemicals released after injury or inflammation are thromboxane A2, superoxide radicals, serotonin, or endothelins, the response is vasoconstriction which will cause an increase in blood pressure.

Question type: Multiple Choice 52) Which of the following vessels supplies blood to the intestines? a) Radial artery b) Subclavian artery c) Mesenteric artery d) Coronary artery e) Popliteal artery Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 21.12 Identify the visceral and parietal branches of the abdominal aorta Section Reference 1: Sec 21.12 Abdominal Aorta

Question type: Essay 53) Some patients who are suffering from hypertension (high blood pressure) are prescribed medications that are in the category of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors.

Explain why these drugs are used to combat hypertension.

Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective 1: LO 21.4 Describe how blood pressure is regulated.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.4 Control of Blood Pressure and Blood Flow Solution: When blood volume falls or there is a decrease in blood flow to the kidneys, juxtaglomerular cells secrete renin. This chemical works with angiotensin-converting enzyme to convert the precursor of the hormone angiotensin II into this hormone. Angiotensin II raises

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blood pressure by acting as a powerful vasoconstrictor and by stimulating the secretion of aldosterone which directs the kidneys to reabsorb sodium and water. With the increase in volume of the blood, pressure increases as well. Inhibiting ACE interferes with this process, thus preventing an increase in blood pressure and fluid buildup in the blood stream.

Question type: Multiple Choice 54) Which of the following vessels drains blood from the lower leg? a) Jugular vein b) Superior vena cava c) Tibial vein d) Coronary vein e) Inferior mesenteric vein Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 21.19 Identify the principal superficial and deep veins that drain the lower limbs.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.19 Veins of the Lower Limbs 55) Which of the following vessels drains blood from the head and neck? a) Median cubital vein b) Inferior vena cava c) Axillary vein d) Femoral vein e) Jugular vein Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 21.15 Identify the three major veins that drain blood from the head.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.15 Veins of the Head and Neck 56) Which of the following vessels carries the venous blood from the lower body into the right atrium? a) Inferior vena cava

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b) Superior vena cava c) Tibial vein d) Coronary vein e) Iliac vein Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 21.14 Identify the three systemic veins that return deoxygenated blood to the heart.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.14 Veins of the Systemic Circulation 57) When the umbilical cord is tied after birth, the umbilical arteries close by filling in with a) placental fluid. b) platelet plugs. c) connective tissue. d) smooth muscle. e) epithelial tissue.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 21.22 Describe the fate of the fetal structures once postnatal circulation begins.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.22 Circulatory Routes: The Fetal Circulation Question type: Essay 58) Describe the vessel wall characteristics of the five main types of blood vessels that blood travels through from the time it leaves the left ventricle until it returns to the right atrium.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 21.1 Describe the relationships among the different blood vessels and the movement of blood through them.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.1.2 Outline the vessels through which the blood moves in its passage from the heart to the capillaries and back.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.1 Structure and Function of Blood Vessels

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Solution: Blood is carried away from the heart in arteries. All arteries have an outer tunica externa (mostly elastic and collagen fibers), an inner tunica media (mostly smooth muscle and elastic fibers) and a lining called the tunica interna (endothelial tissue). Large diameter arteries have more elastic fibers than smooth muscle in their walls and conduct blood to regions of the body, e.g. the subclavian artery carries blood toward the upper extremity. As arteries enter a body region, they branch and their diameters decrease. Their walls have proportionately more smooth muscle than elastic tissue. These arteries are called muscular or distributing arteries, e.g. the radial artery. Branching of the blood vessels continues until the vessels are nearly microscopic arterioles. Arterioles have little elastic tissue, but can change diameter quickly because of the smooth muscle in their wall. Thus, they are the major sites of regulation of blood pressure and distribution. Arterioles feed into capillary beds. Capillaries are the sites of exchange between the tissues and the blood. Venules drain the capillaries and begin the path back to the heart. Venules merge to form veins (and ultimately, the vena cavae) that carry the blood to the heart. Veins have much less smooth muscle than arteries. Veins also have valves that help prevent backflow of blood.

59) In a freak accident, an overheated and dehydrated roofer falls off the roof and onto a mirror that is being brought into a construction site. The mirror breaks and cuts several blood vessels, including the femoral artery. What will happen to the roofer’s net filtration pressure (NFP) in his capillary beds? Why? Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2 Discuss the pressures that cause movement of fluids between capillaries and interstitial spaces.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.2 Capillary Exchange Solution: If the roofer overheated, he probably had already lost a significant volume of body fluid through perspiration as his body tried to cool off. That loss would account for the dehydration. Loss of fluid without significant loss of solutes causes the blood colloidal osmotic pressure (BCOP) to increase. The cuts the roofer suffered would cause hemorrhaging and a loss of blood hydrostatic pressure (BHP). If the BHP goes down and the BCOP goes up, the net filtration pressure (NFP) should decrease because NFP = (BHP + IFOP) – BCOP. [IFOP is the interstitial fluid osmotic pressure, which is so much smaller than the BHP or BCOP that it usually doesn’t change NFP.] 60) Identify and discuss the factors that contribute to systemic vascular resistance.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 21.3 Describe the factors that affect blood volume, pressure, and flow.

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Learning Objective 2: LO 21.3.3 Describe the factors that determine mean arterial pressure and systemic vascular resistance.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Hemodynamics: Factors Affecting Blood Flow Solution: 1) Blood viscosity is dependent on the ratio of formed elements and proteins to plasma.

In general, increased viscosity, via increased formed elements or decreasing plasma volume, increases resistance. 2) Total blood vessel length is directly proportional to resistance; thus, increasing the length of the circuit (by adding new blood vessels to serve added tissue) increases resistance. 3) Diameter/radius of blood vessels, which is primarily controlled by the ANS, has a major effect on resistance. Increased vessel diameter decreases resistance, thus increasing flow.

In general, changes in the diameter of small vessels (e.g. arterioles) have a greater effect because more surface area is in contact with blood.

61) Describe the route of an RBC traveling from the heart to the left elbow and back to the heart.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective 1: LO 21.1 Describe the relationships among the different blood vessels and the movement of blood through them.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.1.2 Outline the vessels through which the blood moves in its passage from the heart to the capillaries and back.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.1 Structure and Function of Blood Vessels Solution: From the heart, the RBC will enter the ascending aorta and then the aortic arch. The RBC will exit the aorta through the left subclavian artery, continue on that route through the axillary artery and into the brachial artery. At the elbow, the blood cell will exit into one of the small distributing arteries, move into a capillary bed, and then into venules in the elbow region.

The RBC will then probably enter the median cubital vein and move into either the basilic or the cephalic vein. The basilic vein drains into the brachial vein, which drains into the axillary vein.

The cephalic vein drains directly into the axillary vein. From axillary vein, the RBC will travel into the subclavian and brachiocephalic veins before entering the superior vena cava. The SVC will take the RBC back to the heart.

Question type: Text Drop Down 62) The tunica interna of [dropdown 1] is thin with a fenestrated internal elastic lamina that disappears distally, while the tunica interna of [dropdown 2] is made of endothelium and a basement membrane with no internal elastic lamina.

Dropdown 1 choices: arterioles elastic arteries muscular arteries

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muscular venules veins Answer 1: arterioles Dropdown 1 choices: arterioles elastic arteries muscular arteries muscular venules veins Answer 2: veins Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 21.1 Describe the relationships among the different blood vessels and the movement of blood through them.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.1.1 Contrast the structure and function of arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins.

Section Reference 1: SO 21.1 Structure and Function of Blood Vessels Question type: Multiple Choice

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63) Which vessel in the figure is labeled “B”?

a) right ulnar artery b) right subclavian artery c) right radial artery d) right brachial artery e) right axillary artery Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 21.8 Describe the four principal aortic divisions and the arterial branches that arise from each.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.8.2 Locate the major arterial branches arising from each division Section Reference 1: SO 21.8 The Aorta and Its Branches Question type: Multiple Choice

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64) Which vessel in the figure is labeled “A”?

a) right subclavian artery b) right radial artery c) right common carotid artery d) right brachial artery e) right axillary artery Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 21.8 Describe the four principal aortic divisions and the arterial branches that arise from each.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.8.2 Locate the major arterial branches arising from each division Section Reference 1: SO 21.8 The Aorta and Its Branches Question type: Multiple Choice

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65) Which vessel in the figure is labeled “B”?

a) left femoral vein b) left great saphenous vein c) left popliteal vein d) left anterior tibial vein e) left fibular vein Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 21.14 Identify the three systemic veins that return deoxygenated blood to the heart.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.14 Veins of the Systemic Circulation

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66) Which vessel in the figure is labeled “C”?

a) left femoral vein b) left great saphenous vein c) left popliteal vein d) left anterior tibial vein e) left fibular vein Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 21.14 Identify the three systemic veins that return deoxygenated blood to the heart.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.14 Veins of the Systemic Circulation

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67) Which vessel in the figure is labeled “F”?

a) left femoral vein b) left great saphenous vein c) left popliteal vein d) left anterior tibial vein e) left small saphenous vein Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 21.14 Identify the three systemic veins that return deoxygenated blood to the heart.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.14 Veins of the Systemic Circulation

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68) Which vessel in the figure is labeled “C”?

a) accessory hemiazygos vein b) hemiazygos vein c) left gonadal vein d) right renal vein e) right suprarenal vein Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 21.18 Identify the principal veins that drain the abdomen and pelvis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.18 Veins of the Abdomen and Pelvis

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69) Which vessel in the figure is labeled “D”?

a) accessory hemiazygos vein b) hemiazygos vein c) right renal vein d) right suprarenal vein e) pericardial vein Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 21.18 Identify the principal veins that drain the abdomen and pelvis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.18 Veins of the Abdomen and Pelvis

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70) Which vessel in the figure is labeled “G”?

a) accessory hemiazygos vein b) hemiazygos vein c) right suprarenal vein d) pericardial vein e) azygos vein Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 21.17 Identify the components of the azygos system of veins.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.17 Veins of the Thorax Question type: Multiple Selection 71) In the fetal heart, several structures allow blood from the left and right sides to mix. When the newborn takes its first breath, these structures must close to ensure that oxygenated blood from the left side does not mix with deoxygenated blood from the right side. Which of the following closed structures prevent this mixing between the systemic and pulmonary circulation after the umbilical cord is cut? Select all that apply.

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a) fossa ovalis b) ligamentum arteriosum c) ligamentum venosum d) ligamentum teres Answer 1: a Answer 2: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 21.22 Describe the fate of the fetal structures once postnatal circulation begins.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.22 Circulatory Routes: The Fetal Circulation Question type: Essay 72) What is the main difference between the pulmonary and systemic circulations with respect to their autoregulatory response to a drop in blood O2 level?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 21.4 Describe how blood pressure is regulated.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.4 Control of Blood Pressure and Blood Flow Solution: In the systemic circulation, low O2 causes dilation of the blood vessel walls. This will lead to an increase in O2 delivery to tissues. In the pulmonary circulation, the opposite occurs in response to low levels of O2. The pulmonary vessels constrict to ensure blood only goes to those alveoli that are receiving a rich O2 supply and avoids poorly ventilated sacs.

Question type: Multiple Choice 73) During embryonic development, blood vessels are formed by a) endodermal cells. b) pluripotent stem cells. c) angioblasts. d) fibroblasts. e) osteoblasts.

Answer: c

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 21.23 Describe the development of blood vessels and blood.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.23 Development of Blood Vessels and Blood 74) During embryonic development, blood cells are formed from a) endodermal cells. b) pluripotent stem cells. c) angioblasts. d) fibroblasts. e) osteoblasts.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 21.23 Describe the development of blood vessels and blood. Section Reference 1: Sec 21.23 Development of Blood Vessels and Blood Question type: Essay 75) What is a portal vein? Describe the hepatic portal circulation.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 21.18 Identify the principal veins that drain the abdomen and pelvis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.18 Veins of the Abdomen and Pelvis Solution: A vein that carries blood from one capillary network to another is called a portal vein.

The hepatic portal circulation carries venous blood from the gastrointestinal organs and spleen to the liver. It receives blood from GI organs and the spleen and delivers it to the liver. After a meal, it is very rich in nutrients absorbed from the GI tract.

Question type: Multiple Choice 76) Normal blood pressure for a young adult male is less than a) 120/80.

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b) 130/90. c) 80/120. d) 100/80. e) 150/85.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 21.5 Define pulse, and systolic, diastolic, and pulse pressures.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.5 Checking Circulation 77) Which of the following types of blood vessels have high, pulsing blood pressure? a) arterioles b) capillaries c) venules d) veins e) vena cavae Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 21.5 Define pulse, and systolic, diastolic, and pulse pressures.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.5 Checking Circulation 78) What would the mean arterial pressure be for an individual with a blood pressure of 120/80? a) 40 b) 93.3 c) 13.3 d) 120 e) 200 Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 21.3 Describe the factors that affect blood volume, pressure, and flow.

Learning Objective 2: LO21.3.2 Describe the factors that determine mean arterial pressure and systemic vascular resistance.

Section Reference 2: Sec 21.3 Hemodynamics: Factors Affecting Blood Flow

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79) Which of the following effectors would NOT be activated as described below in response to hypovolemic shock? a) Adrenal cortex releases aldosterone. b) Kidneys conserve salt and water. c) Heart rate increases. d) Decreased blood flow to the kidneys. e) Heart contractility increases.

Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO 21.6 Describe the body's attempt to restore homeostasis in response to shock.

Learning Objective 2: LO 21.6.3 Explain how the body’s response to shock is regulated by negative feedback.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.6 Shock and Homeostasis 80) The pulmonary circulatory route carries blood from the a) right atrium to the right ventricle. b) right ventricle to the left atrium. c) left atrium to the left ventricle. d) left ventricle to the right atrium. e) left ventricle to the coronary sinus.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 21.21 Explain why pulmonary circulation is important.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.21 Circulatory Routes: The Pulmonary Circulation

81) Emphysema is a chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) that causes progressive destruction of alveoli (air sacs) in the lungs leading to a decreased ability to exhale. How does this disease affect carbon dioxide levels in the blood? a) they are unaffected b) they increase c) they decrease d) the result varies with each individual

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e) first, they increase, then they decrease Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 21.21 Explain why pulmonary circulation is important.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.21 Circulatory Routes: The Pulmonary Circulation 82) Into which of the following categories would an individual with a blood pressure of 145/95 be placed? a) Normal b) High normal c) Prehypertension d) Stage 1 hypertension e) Stage 2 hypertension Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 21.26 Describe the disorders that affect blood vessels Section Reference 1: Sec Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Cardiovascular System 83) Which of the following categories of hypertension drugs lower blood pressure by blocking formation of angiotensin II, which results in vasodilation and decreased aldosterone secretion? a) Diuretics b) ACE inhibitors c) Beta blockers d) Calcium channel blockers e) Anabolic steroids Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 21.26 Describe the disorders that affect blood vessels Section Reference 1: Sec Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Cardiovascular System Question type: Multiple Selection

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84) Which of the following veins drains the muscles, bones and skin of the hand of the forearm?

Select all that apply. a) axillary veins b) ulnar veins c) radial veins d) brachial veins Answer 1: b Answer 2: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 21.16 Identify the principal veins that drain the upper limbs.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.16 Veins of the Upper Limbs Question type: Multiple Choice 85) The chemical histamine causes capillary walls to become more permeable. Excess histamine secretion, as might be seen in allergic responses, might lead to a) decreased blood flow b) edema c) increased pain sensation d) blood clotting e) hypertension Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 21.2 Discuss the pressures that cause movement of fluids between capillaries and interstitial spaces.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.2 Capillary Exchange

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Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pap15 Chapter Number: 22 Shuffle: Yes Case Sensitive: No Question type: Multiple Choice 1) Which of the following is NOT a function of the lymphatic and immune system? a) Draining excess interstitial fluid b) Maintaining water homeostasis in the body c) Transporting dietary lipids d) Carrying out immune responses e) All of these are functions of the lymphatic and immune system Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 22.2 Relate the structures of the lymphatic system to its functions.

Learning Objective 2: LO . 22.2.2 Describe the functions of the lymphatic system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.2 Lymphatic System Structure and Function

2) What is the major difference between lymph and interstitial fluid? a) Composition of electrolytes b) White blood cells are present in lymph c) Location d) Types of proteins present e) Red blood cells are present in interstitial fluid Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 22. 22.2 Relate the structures of the lymphatic system to its functions.

Learning Objective 2: LO 22.2.1 List the components of the lymphatic system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.2 Lymphatic System Structure and Function 3) Lack of resistance is also known as:

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a) Pathogenic b) Innate c) Specific d) Susceptibility e) Lymphatic Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 22.1 Explain the concept of immunity.

Section Reference 1: 22.1 The Concept of Immunity Question type: Essay 4) Describe how lymphatic capillaries are one-way only vessels.

Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO22.3 Explain the circulation of lymph through lymphatic vessels.

Learning Objective 2: LO22.3.2 Explain the formation and flow of lymph Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Lymphatic Vessels and Lymph Circulation Solution: The ends of the endothelial cells in the wall of the lymphatic capillary overlap. When pressure is higher in the interstitial fluid than in the lymph, the cells separate slightly allowing interstitial fluid into the vessel. When pressure is greater inside, the cells are tightly packed, not allowing the lymph to cross back into the interstitial fluid.

Question type: Multiple Choice 5) What causes lymph from the small intestines to appear white? a) Proteins b) WBC c) RBC d) Lipids e) Carbohydrates Answer: d Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 22.3 Explain the circulation of lymph through lymphatic vessels.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Lymphatic Vessels and Lymph Circulation 6) Which of the following is NOT considered an organ of the immune system? a) Spleen b) Lymph node c) Red bone marrow d) Thymus e) Pancreas Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO22.4 Distinguish between primary and secondary lymphatic organs.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.4 Lymphatic Organs and Tissues 7) The left subclavian vein receives lymph from the a) Left axillary vein b) Lumbar trunk c) Jugular trunk d) Thoracic duct e) Right lymphatic duct Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO22.3 Explain the circulation of lymph through lymphatic vessels.

Learning Objective 2: LO22.3.2 Explain the formation and flow of lymph.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Lymphatic Vessels and Lymph Circulation 8) The skeletal muscle and respiratory pumps are used in the a) Lymphatic system b) Cardiovascular system c) Immune system d) Lymphatic and Immune systems only e) Lymphatic, Immune and Cardiovascular systems

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Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO22.3 Explain the circulation of lymph through lymphatic vessels.

Learning Objective 2: LO22.3.2 Explain the formation and flow of lymph.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Lymphatic Vessels and Lymph Circulation 9) Which organ produces a hormone that promotes maturation of T cells? a) Spleen b) Lymph node c) Red bone marrow d) Thymus e) Pancreas Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO22.4 Distinguish between primary and secondary lymphatic organs.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.4 Lymphatic Organs and Tissues 10) In which part of the thymus are T cells thought to die? a) Capsule b) Trabeculae c) Epithelial cells d) Thymic (Hassall’s) corpuscles e) T cells do not die in the thymus Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO22.4 Distinguish between primary and secondary lymphatic organs.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.4 Lymphatic Organs and Tissues 11) An individual in a coma who is not able to move, will most likely have a reduction in activity of the a) respiratory pump b) skeletal muscle pump

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c) both the skeletal muscle and respiratory pumps d) lymphocytes e) macrophages Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 22.3 Explain the circulation of lymph through lymphatic vessels.

Learning Objective 2: LO 22.3.2 Explain the formation and flow of lymph. Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Lymphatic Vessels and Lymph Circulation 12) The level of thymic hormones a) remains the same throughout an individual’s lifetime b) is highest just after puberty c) is highest at maturity d) is highest in old age e) is highest in childhood Answer: e Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO 22.4 Distinguish between primary and secondary lymphatic organs.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.4 Lymphatic Organs and Tissues Question type: Multiple Selection 13) Lymphatic capillaries, because of their greater permeability than blood capillaries, can readily absorb which molecules that are NOT easily absorbed by blood capillaries? Select all that apply. a) proteins b) lipids c) interstitial fluid d) carbohydrates Answer 1: a Answer 2: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension

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Learning Objective 1: LO22.3 Explain the circulation of lymph through lymphatic vessels.

Learning Objective 2: LO22.3.2 Explain the formation and flow of lymph.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Lymphatic Vessels and Lymph Circulation Question type: Multiple Choice 14) Which of the following is a function of the lymphatic system? a) Drain excessive interstitial fluid b) Transport dietary lipids c) Carry out immune responses d) All of these are functions of the lymphatic system e) None of these are functions of the lymphatic system Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO22.2 Relate the structures of the lymphatic system to its functions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.2 Lymphatic System Structure and Function 15) Which of the following is a function of the spleen? a) Removes worn out blood cells b) Circulates lymph c) Cleanses interstitial fluid d) Cleanses lymph e) Traps microbes with mucus Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO22.4 Distinguish between primary and secondary lymphatic organs.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.4 Lymphatic Organs and Tissues 16) Which of these does NOT provide a physical or chemical barrier? a) Macrophages b) Saliva c) Urine d) Mucus

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e) Stratified squamous epithelium Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO22.6 Describe the components of innate immunity.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.6 Innate Immunity Question type: Essay 17) List the types of barriers used in innate defense.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO22.6 Describe the components of innate immunity.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.6Innate Immunity Solution: Barriers used by the innate defense include epidermis, mucus, hairs, cilia, lacrimal apparatus, saliva, urine, vaginal secretions, sebum, perspiration and gastric juices.

Question type: Multiple Choice 18) Which of these provides a non-specific second line of defense? a) Macrophages b) T lymphocytes c) B lymphocytes d) Memory B cells e) Stratified squamous epithelium Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO22.6 Describe the components of innate immunity.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.6 Innate Immunity 19) Which anti-microbial substances reduce viral replication in uninfected cells?

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a) Transferrins b) Perforins c) Complement proteins d) Defensins e) Interferons Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO22.6 Describe the components of innate immunity.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.6 Innate Immunity 20) Which anti-microbial substances promote cytolysis, phagocytosis and inflammation? a) Transferrins b) Perforins c) Complement proteins d) Defensins e) Interferons Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO22.6 Describe the components of innate immunity.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.6 Innate Immunity Question type: Multiple Selection 21) By which processes do bacteria evade phagocytosis? Select all that apply. a) prevention of adherence by a capsule b) production of leukocidin toxins c) inhibition of fusion of phagosomes and lysosomes d) production of broad spectrum defensins Answer 1: a Answer 2: b Answer 3: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

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Learning Objective 1: LO22.6 Describe the components of innate immunity.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.6 Innate Immunity Question type: Multiple Choice 22) Which of the following is NOT a sign of inflammation? a) Redness b) Pain c) Heat d) Mucus production e) Swelling Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO22.6 Describe the components of innate immunity.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.6 Innate Immunity 23) Which of the following intensifies the effect of interferons and promotes the rate of repair? a) Complement system b) Acute inflammation c) Fever d) Chronic inflammation e) Pus formation Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO22.6 Describe the components of innate immunity.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.6 Innate Immunity 24) Which of these chemicals do NOT induce vasodilation, increased permeability, and increased fluid flow to an infection site? a) Histamines b) Kinins c) Perforin d) Leukotrienes

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e) Complement proteins Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO22.6 Describe the components of innate immunity.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.6 Innate Immunity 25) When B and T cells are fully developed and mature, they are described as being a) Immunocompetent b) Pluripotent c) Endogenous d) Exogenous e) Immunogenic Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO22.7 Identify the components and functions of adaptive (specific) immunity and compare cell-mediated and antibody-mediated immunity.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.7 Adaptive Immunity 26) Which of the following induces the production of a specific antibody? a) Phagocytosis b) Antigen c) Antibody d) Defensin e) Immunoglobulin Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO22.7 Identify the components and functions of adaptive (specific) immunity and compare cell-mediated and antibody-mediated immunity.

Learning Objective 2: LO22.7.2 Explain the relationship between an antigen and an antibody.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.7 Adaptive Immunity

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27) Which of the following stimulates an immune response ONLY when it is attached to a larger carrier molecule? a) Epitope b) Antigen c) Hapten d) MHC antigen e) CD8 Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO22.7 Identify the components and functions of adaptive (specific) immunity and compare cell-mediated and antibody-mediated immunity.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.7 Adaptive Immunity 28) Genetic recombination generates diversity in what specific part of the immune system? a) Antigen receptors b) MALT c) Hapten d) Interleukins e) Epitopes Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO22.7 Identify the components and functions of adaptive (specific) immunity and compare cell-mediated and antibody-mediated immunity.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.7 Adaptive Immunity 29) Which class of cells includes macrophages, B cells and dendritic cells? a) Antigen presenting cells b) Primary lymphocytes c) Plasma cells d) Memory cells e) Helper cells Answer: a Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO22.7 Identify the components and functions of adaptive (specific) immunity and compare cell-mediated and antibody-mediated immunity.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.7 Adaptive Immunity 30) To become activated, which of the following requires being bound to a foreign antigen AND simultaneous costimulation? a) B cell b) T cell c) Interferon d) MHC antigen e) Antigen presenting cell Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective 1: LO22.8 Identify the components and functions of the cell-mediated immune response.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.8 Cell-Mediated Immunity Question type: Text Drop Down 31) Together [dropdown 1] trap(s) and [dropdown 2] remove microbes and dust from the upper respiratory tract.

Dropdown 1 choices: tonsils interferons phagocytes mucus sebum Answer 1: mucus Dropdown 2 choices: cilia saliva lysozyme lacrimal apparatus granzymes Answer 2: cilia

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO22.6 Describe the components of innate immunity.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.6 Innate Immunity Question type: Multiple Choice 32) Which cells display CD4 proteins and interact with MHC Class II antigens? a) Cytotoxic T cells b) Helper T Cells c) Plasma cells d) MHC antigens e) B cells Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO22.8 Identify the components and functions of the cell-mediated immune response.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.8 Cell-Mediated Immunity 33) Which chemical released by cytotoxic T cells fragments DNA? a) Perforin b) Tumor antigen c) Interferons d) Lymphotoxin e) Toxin T Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO22.8 Identify the components and functions of the cell-mediated immune response.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.8 Cell-Mediated Immunity Question type: Essay

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34) List the five actions of antibodies.

Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO22.9 Identify the components and functions of the antibody-mediated immune response.

Learning Objective 2: LO22.9.2List the chemical characteristics and actions of antibodies.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.9 Antibody-Mediated Immunity Solution: Antibodies can act as a neutralizing agent, they can immobilize bacteria, agglutinate and precipitate the antigen, activate the complement and enhance phagocytosis.

Question type: Multiple Choice 35) Which class of antibodies is mainly found in sweat, tears, breast milk and GI secretions? a) IgG b) IgA c) IgM d) IgD e) IgE Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 22.9 Identify the components and functions of the antibody-mediated immune response.

Learning Objective 2: LO22.9.2 List the chemical characteristics and actions of antibodies.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.9 Antibody-mediated Immunity 36) Which of the following C3 activation pathways involves antigen-antibody complexes leading to inflammation, enhancement of phagocytosis and lysis of microbes? a) Classical pathway b) Alternative pathway c) Apoptosis d) Lectin pathway e) Opsonization Answer: d

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Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO22.9 Identify the components and functions of the antibody-mediated immune response.

Learning Objective 2: LO22.9.3 Explain how the complement system operates.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.9 Antibody-mediated Immunity 37) Which complement system action makes microbes more susceptible to phagocytosis? a) Opsonization b) Cytolysis c) Inflammation d) Neutralization e) Cascade activation Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO22.9 Identify the components and functions of the antibody-mediated immune response.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.9 Antibody-mediated Immunity 38) The development of self-tolerance through B cell and T cell inactivation after antigen recognition without the second costimulation signal involves which process? a) apoptosis b) anergy c) deletion d) reactivity e) selectivity Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO22.10 Describe how self-recognition and self-tolerance develop.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.10 Self-Recognition and Self-Tolerance 39) In the diagram, where do pluripotent stem cell originate?

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a) A b) B c) C d) D e) None of these choices Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective 1: LO22.4 Distinguish between primary and secondary lymphatic organs.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.4 Lymphatic Organs and Tissues

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40) In the diagram, where do T cells mature? REPLACE WITH FIGURE 22.1

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) None of these choices Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO22.4 Distinguish between primary and secondary lymphatic organs.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.4 Lymphatic Organs and Tissues Question type: Essay 41) An individual who has had a splenectomy is scheduled to undergo a dental procedure.

Describe what preventive measures the dentist is likely to take prior to performing the procedure and explain why?

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Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis Learning Objective 1: LO22.4 Distinguish between primary and secondary lymphatic organs.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.4 Lymphatic Organs and Tissues Solution: Because an individual who has undergone a splenectomy is more susceptible to infections, and because the mouth contains millions of different bacteria that will likely enter the bloodstream following a dental procedure that causes bleeding in the mouth, the patient will have to take prophylactic antibiotics to protect against a systemic infection. The dentist will prescribe a broad-spectrum antibiotic that has been proven effective against most common bacterial infections of an oral origin.

Question type: Essay 42) What process does this diagram represent?

Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO22.3 Explain the circulation of lymph through lymphatic vessels.

Learning Objective 2: LO22.3.2 Explain the formation and flow of lymph.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Lymphatic Vessels and Lymph Circulation

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Solution: The formation of lymph from interstitial fluid into a lymphatic capillary through the spaces between overlapping endothelial cells.

Question type: Multiple Choice 43) In the diagram which vessel drains lymph from the upper right side of the body into venous blood at the right subclavianvein.

a) B b) C c) F d) G e) E Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO22.3 Explain the circulation of lymph through lymphatic vessels.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Lymphatic Vessels and Lymph Circulation 44) In the diagram, which region would include B cells, follicular dendritic cells and macrophages?

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a) B b) C c) D d) E e) F Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO22.4 Distinguish between primary and secondary lymphatic organs.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.4 Lymphatic Organs and Tissues 45) In the diagram, which region would include B cells, plasma cells and macrophages?

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a) B b) C c) D d) E e) None of these choices Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO22.4 Distinguish between primary and secondary lymphatic organs.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.4 Lymphatic Organs and Tissues Question type: Essay

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46) Describe what process is happening in the diagram.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO22.7 Identify the components and functions of adaptive (specific) immunity and compare cell-mediated and antibody-mediated immunity.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.7 Adaptive Immunity Solution: The diagram represents processing and presenting of exogenous antigen by an antigenpresenting cell.

Question type: Multiple Choice 47) What class of disorders, including AIDS and SCID, involves the destruction of B and T cells resulting in the inability of the immune system to protect the body from pathogens? a) immunodeficiency diseases b) allergic reactions c) autoimmune diseases d) histocompatibility rejections e) inflammatory diseases Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

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Learning Objective 1: LO22.14 Describe the disorders that affect the lymphatic system.

Section Reference 1: Sec Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Lymphatic System and Immunity 48) An acute (Type I) allergic response can lead to: a) delayed hypersensitivity b) autoimmunity c) anaphylactic shock d) passive immunity e) immunodeficiency Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 22.14 Describe the disorders that affect the lymphatic system.

Section Reference 1: Sec Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Lymphatic System and Immunity 49) Exposure to an infectious agent during your day-to-day activities leads to: a) Naturally acquired passive immunity b) Naturally acquired active immunity c) Passively acquired active immunity c) Both choices a and b d) Both choices b and c Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO22.9 Identify the components and functions of the antibody-mediated immune response.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.9 Antibody-Mediated Immunity 50) Which class of antibodies in the blood and lymph indicates a recent invasion? a) IgA b) IgE c) IgM d) IgD e) IgG

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Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO22.9 Identify the components and functions of the antibody-mediated immune response.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.9 Antibody-Mediated Immunity Question type: Multiple Selection 51) Which of the following can stimulate artificially acquired active immunity ? Select all that apply. a) administration of a vaccine b) administration of previously produced antibodies c) administration of a toxin that has been heat treated to inactivate it d) catching a cold from work or school Answer 1: a Answer 2: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO22.9 Identify the components and functions of the antibody-mediated immune response.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.9 Antibody-Mediated Immunity Question type: Multiple Choice 52) Which of the following cells is part of the body’s second line of defense? a) Mucous cells b) Dendritic cells c) B and T Lymphocytes d) Natural killer cells e) None of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium

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Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO22.6 Describe the components of innate immunity.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.6 Innate Immunity 53) Which of the following cells exists in the greatest variety in the immune system? a) Natural killer cell b) Monocyte c) RBC d) Lymphocyte e) Macrophage Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO 22.7 Identify the components and functions of adaptive (specific) immunity and compare cell-mediated and antibody-mediated immunity.

Learning Objective 2: LO 22.7.1 Describe how T cells and B cells arise and function in adaptive immunity.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.7 Adaptive Immunity 54) The primary response will peak how long after an exposure? a) less than 1 day b) 2–7 days c) 10–17 days d) 20–30 days e) Over a month Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 22.9 Identify the components and functions of the antibody-mediated immune response.

Learning Objective 2: LO 22.9.4 Distinguish between a primary response and a secondary response to infection.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.9 Antibody-Mediated Immunity 55) Which type of immunity defends against any type of invader? a) Nonspecific

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b) Specific c) Cell mediated d) Antibody mediated e) Adaptive Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 22.1 Explain the concept of immunity.

Learning Objective 2: LO 22.1.2Compare the two basic types of immunity.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.1 The Concept of Immunity 56) The ability of an antigen to react specifically with the antibodies or cells it has provoked is called a) Specificity b) Immunogenicity c) Reactivity d) Antigen processing e) Antigen presentation Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 22.7 Identify the components and functions of adaptive (specific) immunity and compare cell-mediated and antibody-mediated immunity.

Learning Objective 2: LO 22.7.2 Explain the relationship between an antigen and an antibody.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.7 Adaptive Immunity 57) Which of the following is a small hormone that can stimulate or inhibit many normal cell functions? a) Immunoglobulin b) Kinin c) Cytokine d) MHC e) Hapten Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension

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Learning Objective 1: LO 22.7 Identify the components and functions of adaptive (specific) immunity and compare cell-mediated and antibody-mediated immunity.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.7 Adaptive Immunity 58) Which structure in the figure is the main duct for the return of a majority of lymph to the blood?

a) A b) F c) G d) C e) H Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO22.3 Explain the circulation of lymph through lymphatic vessels.

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Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Lymphatic Vessels and Lymph Circulation 59) Which structure in the figure is a lymphatic vessel?

a) B b) C c) D d) J e) G Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO22.3 Explain the circulation of lymph through lymphatic vessels.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Lymphatic Vessels and Lymph Circulation

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60) Which structure in the figure is the cisterna chyli?

a) J b) C c) F d) H e) A Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO22.3 Explain the circulation of lymph through lymphatic vessels.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Lymphatic Vessels and Lymph Circulation

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61) Which structure in the figure is the right lymphatic duct?

a) D b) C c) F d) H e) A Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO22.3 Explain the circulation of lymph through lymphatic vessels.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Lymphatic Vessels and Lymph Circulation 62) Lymph flowing from A to E will travel through the irregular channels with reticular fibers in what sequence?

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a) B – C – D b) B – D – C c) C – B – D d) D – C – B e) D – B – C Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO22.4 Distinguish between primary and secondary lymphatic organs.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.4 Lymphatic Organs and Tissues 63) The structure in this figure would be classified as

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a) secondary lymphatic organ b) primary lymphatic organ c) lymphatic nodule d) follicular nodule e) germinal nodule Answer 1: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO22.4 Distinguish between primary and secondary lymphatic organs.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.1 Lymphatic Organs and Tissues 64) What are the major differences between the lymph in vessel E compared to vessel A? Select all that apply.

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a) presence of antibodies b) amount of foreign substances c) presence of activated T cells d) direction of valves relative to node e) amount of memory B cells Answer 1: a Answer 2: b Answer 3: c Answer 4: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO22.4 Distinguish between primary and secondary lymphatic organs.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.4 Lymphatic Organs and Tissues 65) In the figure, B, C & D are identifying which component of the lymph node?

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a) sinuses b) stroma c) capsule d) parenchyma e) valves Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO22.4 Distinguish between primary and secondary lymphatic organs.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.4 Lymphatic Organs and Tissues

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66) What type of cell is located in area B in the figure?

a) B cells b) dendritic cells c) macrophages d) T cells e) plasma cells Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO22.4 Distinguish between primary and secondary lymphatic organs. .

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.4 Lymphatic Organs and Tissues Question Type: Multiple Selection

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67) What types of cells are located in area D in the figure? Select all that apply.

a) B cells b) T cells c) plasma cells d) macrophages e) follicular dendritic cells Answer 1: a Answer 2: d Answer 3: e Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO22.4 Distinguish between primary and secondary lymphatic organs Section Reference 1: Sec 22.4 Lymphatic Organs and Tissues

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Question Type: Multiple Choice 68) Plasma cells are located in which area in the figure?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) None of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Analysis

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Learning Objective 1: LO22.4 Distinguish between primary and secondary lymphatic Section Reference 1: Sec 22.4 Lymphatic Organs and Tissues 69) Which type of adaptive immunity will result from intravenous injection of immunoglobulins? a) naturally acquired active immunity b) naturally acquired passive immunity c) artificially acquired active immunity d) artificially acquired passive immunity e) None of these choices Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO22.9 Identify the components and functions of the antibody-mediated immune response.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.9 Antibody-Mediated Immunity 70) Which type of adaptive immunity will result from mother-to-baby IgA transfer via breast feeding? a) naturally acquired active immunity b) naturally acquired passive immunity c) artificially acquired active immunity d) artificially acquired passive immunity e) None of these choices Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO22.9 Identify the components and functions of the antibody-mediated immune response.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.9 Antibody-Mediated Immunity 71) Naturally acquired passive immunity is associated with which of the following? a) Vaccination b) Exposure to a microbe resulting in antibody formation c) Receiving booster shots

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d) Transfer of IgG from mother to fetus e) Intravenous injection of antibodies Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO22.9 Describe the steps in an antibody-mediated immune response.

Learning Objective 2: LO22.9.4 Distinguish between a primary response and a secondary response to infection.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.9 Antibody-Mediated Immunity 72) Which cells increase the permeability of blood vessels by releasing histamine? a) neutrophils b) eosinophils c) lymphocytes d) mast cells e) macrophages Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO22.6 Describe the components of innate immunity.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.6 Innate Immunity 73) Which cytokine released by macrophages acts on the hypothalamus to raise the body temperature during fever? a) Interleukin-1 b) Interleukin-2 c) Interleukin-4 d) Gamma interferon e) Perforin Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO22.7 Identify the components and functions of adaptive (specific) immunity and compare cell-mediated and antibody-mediated immunity.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.7 Adaptive Immunity

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74) Antigens that induce an allergic reaction are called a) lymphotoxins b) perforins c) granulysins d) cytokines e) allergens Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO22.14 Describe the disorders that affect the lymphatic system.

Section Reference 1: Sec Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Lymphatic System and Immunity 75) Which cell must be activated in order to achieve virtually all cell mediated immune responses? a) Cytotoxic T Cells b) B lymphocytes c) Helper T cells d) Eosinophils e) Mast cells Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO 22.8 Identify the components and functions of the cell-mediated immune response.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.8 Cell-mediated Immunity 76) Which of the following is NOT an effect of aging on the immune system? a) Increased susceptibility to infections b) Increased susceptibility to malignancies c) Decreased response to vaccines d) Increased response of T cells to antigens e) Decreased production of antibodies Answer: d

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Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO22.12 Describe the effects of aging on the immune system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.12 Aging and the Immune System 77) Which of the following is an effect of stress on the immune system? a) Increased activity of T lymphocytes b) Increased activity of B lymphocytes c) Hypersensitivity of the immune system d) Inhibition of the immune system e) Increased production of antibodies Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO22.11 Describe the effects of stress on immunity.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.11 Stress and Immunity 78) Which cells of the immune system are the primary targets of the HIV virus? a) B cells b) helper T cells c) cytotoxic T cells d) antigen-presenting cells e) all of these cells are affected by HIV Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO22.14 Describe the disorders that affect the lymphatic system.

Section Reference 1: Sec Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Lymphatic System and Immunity Question type: Multiple Choice 79) Which type of allergic reaction is the most common type? a) Type I (anaphylactic) reaction b) Type II (cytotoxic) reaction c) Type III (immune-complex) reactions

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d) Type IV (cell-mediated) reactions e) All of these types are common allergic reactions.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 22.14 Describe the disorders that affect the lymphatic system.

Section Reference 1: Sec Disorders: Homeostatic Imbalances that Affect the Lymphatic System and Immunity.

80) Which of the following organ systems is NOT aided by the MALT (mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue)? a) Respiratory system b) Digestive system c) Muscular system d) Urinary system e) Reproductive system Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO22.4 Distinguish between primary and secondary lymphatic organs Section Reference 1: Sec 22.4 Lymphatic Organs and Tissues 81) Which of the following is an INCORRECT matching of immune system cells and their functions? a) Macrophage – process and presentation of foreign antigens to T cells b) Dendritic cell – processes and presents antigen to T and B cells c) B cells – process and presents antigen to helper T cells d) Plasma cell – produces and secretes antibodies e) All of these are correct matching of the cells and their functions Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO22.10 Describe how self-recognition and self-tolerance develop.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.10 Self-Recognition and Self-Tolerance

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Question Type: Essay 82) Describe the ways to acquire adaptive immunity.

Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO22.9 Identify the components and functions of the antibody-mediated immune response.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.9 Antibody-Mediated Immunity Solution: Naturally acquired active immunity is acquired following exposure to a microbe, antigen recognition by B and T cells and costimulation leading to formation of antibodysecreting plasma cells, cytotoxic T cells, and B and T memory cells. Naturally acquired passive immunity occurs when IgG antibodies are transferred from mother to fetus across the placental barrier or IgA antibodies are transferred from mother to infant during breast-feeding. Artificially acquired active immunity is acquired via antigens introduced during vaccinations. Artificially acquired passive immunity is acquired via intravenous injection of immunoglobulins.

Question type: Text Drop Down 83) As part of our second line of defense, [dropdown 1] promotes lysis and phagocytosis of microbes while [dropdown 2] protects uninfected cells from viral replication.

Dropdown 1 choices: interferons (IFNs) antimicrobial proteins (AMPs) natural killer (NK) cells phagocytes complement system proteins Answer 1: complement system proteins Dropdown 2 choices: interferons (IFNs) antimicrobial proteins (AMPs) natural killer (NK) cells phagocytes complement system proteins Answer 2: interferons (IFNs) Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

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Learning Objective 1: LO22.6 Describe the components of innate immunity.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.6 Innate Immunity Question type: Multiple Selection 84) A tonsillectomy may be recommended when the patient has suffered with which of the following symptoms for more than three months despite treatment? Select all that apply. a) obstructed air pathways b) difficulty swallowing c) difficulty talking d) change in taste Answer 1: a Answer 2: b Answer 3: c Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO22.4 Distinguish between primary and secondary lymphatic organs.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.4 Lymphatic Organs and Tissues Question type: True/False 85) The presence of more abundant efferent than afferent lymph vessels associated with each lymph node slows the one-way flow of lymph in the series of lymphatic sinuses for more efficient immune response.

Answer: False Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO22.4 Distinguish between primary and secondary lymphatic organs.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.4 Lymphatic Organs and Tissues

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