TEST BANK for Principles of Human ANatomy, 15th Edition by Gerard J. Tortora, Mark Nielsen

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pha15 Chapter Number: 01 Question type: Multiple Choice 1) The levels of structural organization from least complex to most complex are as follows a) chemical, cellular, organ, tissue, system b) cellular, organ, chemical, tissue, system c) chemical, cellular, tissue, organ, system d) chemical, system, tissue, cellular, organ Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 1.2 Identify the organ systems and major organs of the human body and describe their locations and functions.

Study Objective 2: SO 1.2.1 Describe the levels of structural organization that make up the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.2 Levels of Body Organization and Body Systems 2) The four basic types of tissues in the body are a) skeletal, muscular, epithelial, nervous b) connective, muscle, nervous, epithelial c) vascular, nervous, epithelial, connective d) muscle, nervous, skeletal, connective Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 1.2 Identify the organ systems and major organs of the human body and describe their locations and functions.

Study Objective 2: SO 1.2.1 Describe the levels of structural organization that make up the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.2 Levels of Body Organization and Body Systems 3) The kidney is _____ to the stomach.

a) anterior b) superior c) distal d) dorsal Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.4 Define each directional term used to describe the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec Exhibit 1.A Directional Terms 4) The word that best describes the position of the gallbladder relative to the ascending colon is a) contralateral b) ipsilateral c) inferior d) intermediate Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.4 Define each directional term used to describe the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec Exhibit 1.A Directional Terms 5) In the anatomical position, the palms of the hands face a) forward b) posteriorly c) laterally d) medially Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.1 Describe the orientation of the human body in the anatomical position.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Basic Anatomical Terminology 6) An accident report submitted by an officer who is a former anatomy student contains the following statement: "The victim suffered a severe blow to the mental region." This means a) the victim had a severe wound to the skull bones b) the victim's brain was obviously injured c) the victim was struck on the chin d) the victim witnessed a shocking event Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.2 Relate the common names to the corresponding anatomical descriptive terms for various regions of the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Basic Anatomical Terminology 7) A _____ section of the body would separate the body into right and left halves, a) median b) coronal c) transverse d) cross Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.3 Define the anatomical planes, the anatomical sections, and the directional terms used to describe the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Basic Anatomical Terminology 8) Name the major body cavity that would be sectioned if a transverse plane were passed through the umbilicus. a) pelvic b) thoracic c) vertebral canal

d) abdominal Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Evaluation Study Objective 1: SO 1.5 Describe the major body cavities, the organs they contain, and their associated linings.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Body Cavities 9) Which of the following cavities contains a serous membrane? a) cranial cavity b) peritoneal cavity c) pericardial cavity d) vertebral canal e) b and c Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 1.5 Describe the major body cavities, the organs they contain, and their associated linings.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Body Cavities 10) The heart is surrounded by the a) pericardial cavity b) thoracic cavity c) mediastinum d) pleural cavity Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 1.5 Describe the major body cavities, the organs they contain, and their associated linings.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Body Cavities 11) Which of the following statements is false?

a) The diaphragm separates the abdominal cavity from the pelvic cavity. b) The esophagus is located in the mediastinum. c) The vertebral canal contains the spinal cord. d) The pleural cavities, surrounding the lungs, are part of the thoracic cavity.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 1.5 Describe the major body cavities, the organs they contain, and their associated linings.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Body Cavities 12) The word "dorsum" may be used to describe the 1. back of the hand 2. anterior surface of the body 3. top of the foot a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 2 and 3 d) 1 and 3 Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.2 Relate the common names to the corresponding anatomical descriptive terms for various regions of the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Basic Anatomical Terminology 13) The region referred to as the cheek or buccal region is a) inferior to the orbit b) inferior to the mentum c) superior to the eyebrow d) lateral to the otic region Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Evaluation

Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.4 Define each directional term used to describe the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Basic Anatomical Terminology 14) The two organ systems that have the primary responsibility for regulating body activities are a) lymphatic and endocrine b) nervous and endocrine c) nervous and lymphatic d) endocrine and respiratory Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 1.2 Identify the organ systems and major organs of the human body and describe their locations and functions.

Study Objective 2: SO 1.2.2 Outline the 11 systems of the human body, list the organs present in each, and explain their general functions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.2 Levels of Body Organization and Body Systems 15) A transverse plane 1. is also known as the coronal plane 2. is also known as a horizontal plane or cross-sectional plane 3. divides the body into right and left sections a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) both 2 and 3 are correct Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.3 Define the anatomical planes, the anatomical sections, and the directional terms used to describe the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Basic Anatomical Terminology

16) Name the first form of medical imaging used to look at gross structures inside the body. It has been used in medicine since the 1940s and provides ‘pictures’ of internal structures in twodimensional images where bones appear white, hollow structures (e.g. lungs) appear black, and structures of intermediate density (e.g. skin, fat, and muscle) appear as varying shades of gray. a) magnetic resonance imaging b) computed tomography c) radiography d) ultrasound scanning Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 1.9 Describe the principles of medical imaging procedures and their importance in the evaluation of organ functions and the diagnosis of disease.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.9 Medical Imaging 17) The transformation of a single fertilized human egg cell into the myriad of cells in a unique individual is a good example of what human life process? a) metabolism b) responsiveness c) growth and differentiation d) movement Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 1.3 Define the important life processes of humans.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.3 Life Processes 18) Food proteins are broken down into amino acids. The amino acids serve as building blocks that can then be used to build new proteins that make up muscles and bones. This is a good example of what human life process? a) movement b) reproduction c) differentiation d) metabolism Answer: d

Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 1.3 Define the important life processes of humans.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.3 Life Processes 19) From the following list, which would be considered a “symptom” of an illness rather than a “sign?” a) respiratory rate b) heart rate c) pain d) fever Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Evaluation Study Objective 1: SO 1.7 Distinguish between a symptom and a sign of a disease.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.7 The Human Body and Disease 20) Which of the following imaging procedures is best used to study the physiology of body structures, such as metabolism of the brain or heart? a) sonography b) MRI c) CT d) PET Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 1.9 Describe the principles of medical imaging procedures and their importance in the evaluation of organ functions and the diagnosis of disease.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.9 Medical Imaging Question type: True/False 21) Gross anatomy involves the microscopic study of the structure of tissues.

Answer: False

Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 1.1 Define anatomy and physiology and name several branches of anatomy.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.1 Anatomy Defined Question type: Multiple Choice 22) Which of the following is an important function of the lymphatic system? a) containing maturation sites for cells that protect against microbial disease b) generation of action potentials c) regulation of body activities through the production of hormones d) transportation of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the lungs and body tissues Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 1.2 Identify the organ systems and major organs of the human body and describe their locations and functions.

Study Objective 2: SO 1.2.2 Outline the 11 systems of the human body, list the organs present in each, and explain their general functions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.2 Levels of Body Organization and Body Systems 23) The antebrachial region is distal to which region? a) the antecubital region b) the carpal region c) the digital region d) the palmar region Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.4 Define each directional term used to describe the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec Exhibit 1.A Directional Terms 24) Which of the following best describes the relationship between the patellar region and the inguinal region?

a) The patellar region is medial to the inguinal region. b) The patellar region is superior to the inguinal region. c) The patellar region is distal to the inguinal region. d) The patellar region is proximal to the inguinal region.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.4 Define each directional term used to describe the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec Exhibit 1.A Directional Terms 25) The knee is proximal to which body part? a) the ankle b) the hip c) the thigh d) the groin Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.4 Define each directional term used to describe the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec Exhibit 1.A Directional Terms 26) Choose the best description of the relationship between the hypogastric and the left hypochondriac region. a) the hypogastric region is anterior to the left hypochondriac region. b) the hypogastric region is inferior to the left hypochondriac region. c) the hypogastric region is lateral to the left hypochondriac region. d) the hypogastric region is proximal to the left hypochondriac region.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application

Study Objective 1: SO 1.6 Name and describe the abdominopelvic regions and the abdominopelvic quadrants.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.6 Abdominopelvic Regions and Quadrants 27) A college professor is describing how to do a dissection. She tells her students to make an incision starting at the umbilical region, moving upward and ending in the superior abdominopelvic region. Which region would the incision end in? a) the epigastric region b) the hypochondriac region c) the hypogastric region d) the inguinal region Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 1.6 Name and describe the abdominopelvic regions and the abdominopelvic quadrants.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.6 Abdominopelvic Regions and Quadrants Question type: True/False 28) The mediastinum contains the heart, lungs, trachea, esophagus, and major blood vessels.

Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 1.5 Describe the major body cavities, the organs they contain, and their associated linings.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Body Cavities Question type: Multiple Choice 29) Name the serous membrane that is associated with the lungs. a) pericardial membrane b) peritoneal membrane c) pleural membrane d) thoracic membrane

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 1.5 Describe the major body cavities, the organs they contain, and their associated linings.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Body Cavities 30) The descending colon of the large intestine extends from the left lumbar region into the a) left hypochondriac region b) left inguinal region c) hypogastric region d) epigastric region Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 1.6 Name and describe the abdominopelvic regions and the abdominopelvic quadrants.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.6 Abdominopelvic Regions and Quadrants 31) The life process that deals with the body’s ability to detect and react to changes in its internal and external environment is referred to as a) differentiation b) growth c) metabolism d) responsiveness Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 1.3 Define the important life processes of humans.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.3 Life Processes Question type: True/False 32) A patient suffering from a sinus infection would be treated for a systemic illness.

Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 1.7 Distinguish between a symptom and a sign of a disease.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.7 The Human Body and Disease Question type: Multiple Choice 33) The system of measurement used standardly in the sciences which is based on units of 10 is called the a) imperial system b) metric system c) SI system d) US customary units Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 1.10 Explain the importance of measurements in the evaluation of the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.10 Measuring the Human Body 34) One component of the digestive system is a) the kidneys b) the pharynx c) the spleen d) the trachea Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 1.2 Identify the organ systems and major organs of the human body and describe their locations and functions.

Study Objective 2: SO 1.2.2 Outline the 11 systems of the human body, list the organs present in each, and explain their general functions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.2 Levels of Body Organization and Body Systems

35) All of the following are functions of the lymphatic system EXCEPT a) carrying lipids from the gastrointestinal tract to the blood b) containing sites for proliferation of B cells c) regulating the acid-base balance of body fluids d) returning proteins and fluids to the blood Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 1.2 Identify the organ systems and major organs of the human body and describe their locations and functions.

Study Objective 2: SO 1.2.2 Outline the 11 systems of the human body, list the organs present in each, and explain their general functions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.2 Levels of Body Organization and Body Systems 36) During a dissection, a student must remove a serous membrane that is covering the surface of the heart. This membrane is the a) parietal pericardium b) parietal pleura c) visceral pericardium d) visceral pleura Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 1.5 Describe the major body cavities, the organs they contain, and their associated linings.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Body Cavities Question type: Essay 37) Detective I. M. Smart (a former anatomy student) was called to investigate a murder scene. The victim was lying in a supine position, his glazed eyes staring skyward, legs together with toes pointing upward, arms by his sides, palms facing upward. Smart concluded that the victim was found in the anatomical position. Was he correct? Why or why not?

Answer:

Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.1 Describe the orientation of the human body in the anatomical position.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Basic Anatomical Terminology Solution: No, he is not correct. In the anatomical position, the body is in an upright position.

Question type: Multiple Choice 38) A plane was used to separate an organ into right and left sections. The right side of the organ measured 15cm. The left side of the organ measured 12cm. Which type of plane was used to separate this organ? a) coronal plane b) median sagittal plane c) paramedian plane d) transverse plane Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.3 Define the anatomical planes, the anatomical sections, and the directional terms used to describe the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Basic Anatomical Terminology 39) Identify the abdominopelvic region labeled “A” in this picture.

a) epigastric region

b) hypogastric region c) right hypochondriac region d) right inguinal region Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 1.6 Name and describe the abdominopelvic regions and the abdominopelvic quadrants.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.6 Abdominopelvic Regions and Quadrants Question type: Essay 40) Explain why measurements are important when evaluating the status of the human body.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 1.10 Explain the importance of measurements in the evaluation of the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.10 Measuring the Human Body Solution: Measurements enable us to describe the body and understand how it works. They allow medical professionals to determine the dosages of medication and to quantify variables such as weight, temperature, girth, etc Question type: Multiple Choice 41) A patient presents to the emergency room complaining of intense pain in the right leg. This would best be described as a a) sign b) symptom Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 1.7 Distinguish between a symptom and a sign of a disease.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.7 The Human Body and Disease

Question type: Essay 42) A patient being imaged by MRI is not allowed to have any metal on him. Why? Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 1.9 Describe the principles of medical imaging procedures and their importance in the evaluation of organ functions and the diagnosis of disease.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.9 Medical Imaging Solution: This is very dangerous since the body is exposed to a high-energy magnetic field in order to cause protons to arrange themselves in relation to the field.

Question type: Multiple Choice 43) What type of section was performed on this torso?

a) cross b) coronal (frontal) c) median d) transverse Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.3 Define the anatomical planes, the anatomical sections, and the directional terms used to describe the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Basic Anatomical Terminology

Question type: Text Entry 44) A system consists of related _____ that have a common function.

Answer: organs Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 1.2 Identify the organ systems and major organs of the human body and describe their locations and functions.

Study Objective 2: SO 1.2.1 Describe the levels of structural organization that make up the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.2 Levels of Body Organization and Body Systems Solution: organs Question type: Multiple Choice 45) The system responsible for movement of limbs, maintenance of posture, and production of heat is the a) endocrine b) lymphatic c) muscular d) skeletal Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 1.2 Identify the organ systems and major organs of the human body and describe their locations and functions.

Study Objective 2: SO 1.2.2 Outline the 11 systems of the human body, list the organs present in each, and explain their general functions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.2 Levels of Body Organization and Body Systems

46) The _____ system enables the body to detect and respond to environmental change through the propagation of impulses. a) cardiovascular b) endocrine c) lymphatic d) nervous Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 1.2 Identify the organ systems and major organs of the human body and describe their locations and functions.

Study Objective 2: SO 1.2.2 Outline the 11 systems of the human body, list the organs present in each, and explain their general functions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.2 Levels of Body Organization and Body Systems Question type: Text Entry 47) Regulatory chemicals produced by endocrine glands are called _____.

Answer: hormones Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 1.2 Identify the organ systems and major organs of the human body and describe their locations and functions.

Study Objective 2: SO 1.2.2 Outline the 11 systems of the human body, list the organs present in each, and explain their general functions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.2 Levels of Body Organization and Body Systems Solution: hormones Question type: Multiple Choice 48) The anatomical term inferior best describes the relationship between a) the right inguinal region of the abdomen as compared to the right lumbar region b) the epigastric region of the abdomen as compared to the right hypochondriac region c) the right hypochondriac region as compared to the left hypochondriac region d) the umbilical region as compared to the right lumbar region

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 1.6 Name and describe the abdominopelvic regions and the abdominopelvic quadrants.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.6 Abdominopelvic Regions and Quadrants Question type: Text Entry 49) In the anatomical position, the thumb is _____ to the index finger.

Answer: lateral Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.1 Describe the orientation of the human body in the anatomical position.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Basic Anatomical Terminology Solution: lateral Question type: Multiple Choice 50) Which type of a plane through the left eyeball produces equal right and left portions of the eyeball? a) coronal (frontal) b) midsagittal c) paramedian d) transverse Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.3 Define the anatomical planes, the anatomical sections, and the directional terms used to describe the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Basic Anatomical Terminology

51) Name the membrane that covers the surface of the lungs. a) parietal peritoneum b) visceral peritoneum c) parietal pleura d) visceral pleura Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 1.5 Describe the major body cavities, the organs they contain, and their associated linings.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Body Cavities Question type: Text Entry 52) Organs such as the kidneys that are located behind the parietal peritoneum are described as _____ organs.

Answer: retroperitoneal Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 1.5 Describe the major body cavities, the organs they contain, and their associated linings.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Body Cavities Solution: retroperitoneal Question type: Multiple Choice 53) Which cavity would the large intestine be found in? a) abdominopelvic cavity b) cranial cavity c) pleural cavity d) thoracic cavity Answer: a Difficulty: Easy

Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 1.5 Describe the major body cavities, the organs they contain, and their associated linings.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Body Cavities 54) Choose the region of the abdominopelvic cavity that the gallbladder lies in. a) epigastric region b) left hypochondriac region c) right lateral region d) umbilical region Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 1.6 Name and describe the abdominopelvic regions and the abdominopelvic quadrants.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.6 Abdominopelvic Regions and Quadrants 55) A branch of anatomy which studies the microscopic structure of tissues is a) embryology b) histology c) imaging anatomy d) surface anatomy Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 1.1 Define anatomy and physiology and name several branches of anatomy.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.1 Anatomy Defined 56) The spleen is an organ of the a) cardiovascular system b) digestive system c) lymphatic system d) nervous system Answer: c Difficulty: Easy

Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 1.2 Identify the organ systems and major organs of the human body and describe their locations and functions.

Study Objective 2: SO 1.2.2 Outline the 11 systems of the human body, list the organs present in each, and explain their general functions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.2 Levels of Body Organization and Body Systems 57) Oil glands are a component of the a) digestive system b) integumentary system c) muscular system d) skeletal system Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 1.2 Identify the organ systems and major organs of the human body and describe their locations and functions.

Study Objective 2: SO 1.2.2 Outline the 11 systems of the human body, list the organs present in each, and explain their general functions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.2 Levels of Body Organization and Body Systems 58) The spinal cord is a component of the a) cardiovascular system b) integumentary system c) nervous system d) skeletal system Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 1.2 Identify the organ systems and major organs of the human body and describe their locations and functions.

Study Objective 2: SO 1.2.2 Outline the 11 systems of the human body, list the organs present in each, and explain their general functions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.2 Levels of Body Organization and Body Systems 59) The ureter belongs to the

a) digestive system b) integumentary system c) lymphatic system d) urinary system Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 1.2 Identify the organ systems and major organs of the human body and describe their locations and functions.

Study Objective 2: SO 1.2.2 Outline the 11 systems of the human body, list the organs present in each, and explain their general functions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.2 Levels of Body Organization and Body Systems 60) All of the following are functions of the urinary system EXCEPT a) absorption of nutrients b) elimination of wastes c) maintenance of the acid-base balance d) regulation of the production of red blood cells Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 1.2 Identify the organ systems and major organs of the human body and describe their locations and functions.

Study Objective 2: SO 1.2.2 Outline the 11 systems of the human body, list the organs present in each, and explain their general functions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.2 Levels of Body Organization and Body Systems 61) The serous membrane on the external surface of the small intestine is the a) parietal peritoneum b) visceral peritoneum c) parietal pleura d) visceral pleura Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application

Study Objective 1: SO 1.5 Describe the major body cavities, the organs they contain, and their associated linings.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.5 Body Cavities 62) A white blood cell such as a lymphocyte is an example of which level of body organization? a) cellular level b) chemical level c) system level d) tissue level Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 1.2 Identify the organ systems and major organs of the human body and describe their locations and functions.

Study Objective 2: SO 1.2.1 Describe the levels of structural organization that make up the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.2 Levels of Body Organization and Body Systems 63) The sum of all of the organs which aid in pumping and circulating blood through the body reflect what level of organization? a) cellular level b) chemical level c) system level d) tissue level Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 1.2 Identify the organ systems and major organs of the human body and describe their locations and functions.

Study Objective 2: SO 1.2.1 Describe the levels of structural organization that make up the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.2 Levels of Body Organization and Body Systems 64) The salivary glands belong to which level of body organization? a) cellular level

b) chemical level c) organ level d) tissue level Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 1.2 Identify the organ systems and major organs of the human body and describe their locations and functions.

Study Objective 2: SO 1.2.1 Describe the levels of structural organization that make up the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.2 Levels of Body Organization and Body Systems 65) Which letter is pointing to the cephalic region?

a) L b) M c) G d) J Answer: d

Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.2 Relate the common names to the corresponding anatomical descriptive terms for various regions of the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Basic Anatomical Terminology 66) Which letter is pointing to the antecubital region?

a) K b) I c) L d) E Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.2 Relate the common names to the corresponding anatomical descriptive terms for various regions of the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Basic Anatomical Terminology 67) Which letter is pointing to the carpal region?

a) E b) J c) H d) L Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.2 Relate the common names to the corresponding anatomical descriptive terms for various regions of the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Basic Anatomical Terminology

68) Which letter is pointing to the axillary region?

a) F b) D c) I d) G Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.2 Relate the common names to the corresponding anatomical descriptive terms for various regions of the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Basic Anatomical Terminology

69) Which letter is pointing to the digital region?

a) E b) C c) D d) H Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.2 Relate the common names to the corresponding anatomical descriptive terms for various regions of the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Basic Anatomical Terminology

70) Which letter is pointing to the crural region?

a) F b) I c) A d) L Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.2 Relate the common names to the corresponding anatomical descriptive terms for various regions of the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Basic Anatomical Terminology

71) Which letter is pointing to the tarsal region?

a) F b) D c) E d) G Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.2 Relate the common names to the corresponding anatomical descriptive terms for various regions of the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Basic Anatomical Terminology

72) Which letter is pointing to the plantar region?

a) E b) D c) F d) K Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.2 Relate the common names to the corresponding anatomical descriptive terms for various regions of the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Basic Anatomical Terminology

73) Which letter is pointing to the thoracic region?

a) C b) F c) K d) M Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.2 Relate the common names to the corresponding anatomical descriptive terms for various regions of the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Basic Anatomical Terminology

74) Which letter is pointing to the coxal region?

a) A b) D c) K d) I Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.2 Relate the common names to the corresponding anatomical descriptive terms for various regions of the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Basic Anatomical Terminology

75) Which letter is pointing to the mental region?

a) H b) B c) J d) L Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 1.4 Describe the human body using the anatomical position and specific anatomical terminology.

Study Objective 2: SO 1.4.2 Relate the common names to the corresponding anatomical descriptive terms for various regions of the human body.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.4 Basic Anatomical Terminology 76) Aging is a normal process characterized by a progressive decline in the body’s ability to restore a) homeostasis b) immunity c) blood pressure d) tissue integrity

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 1.8 Describe some of the general anatomical and physiological changes that occur with aging.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.8 Aging 77) The changes associated with aging are apparent in a) all body systems b) the integumentary system c) the lymphatic system d) the nervous system Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 1.8 Describe some of the general anatomical and physiological changes that occur with aging.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.8 Aging 78) Which of the following are NOT changes that occur in the body due to aging? a) decreased incidence of heart disease b) loss of bone mass c) increased susceptibility to cancer d) enlarged prostate Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 1.8 Describe some of the general anatomical and physiological changes that occur with aging.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.8 Aging 79) The study of the function of body parts is termed a) anatomy b) embryology

c) histology d) physiology Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective: SO 1.1 Define anatomy and physiology and name several branches of anatomy.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.1 Anatomy Defined 80) All of the following are examples of aging EXCEPT a) diminished reflexes b) enlarged prostate c) increased kidney function d) wrinkled skin Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 1.8 Describe some of the general anatomical and physiological changes that occur with aging.

Section Reference 1: Sec 1.8 Aging

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pha15 Chapter Number: 02 Question type: Multiple Choice 1) Extracellular fluid includes all of the following EXCEPT a) interstitial fluid. b) plasma. c) cytosol. d) lymph.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Cytoplasm 2) In passive processes, substances move across the plasma membrane 1. with the use of ATP 2. up (or against) a concentration gradient 3. down (or along) a pressure gradient 4. equally in all directions a) 3 only b) 2 only c) 1, 2, 3 d) 2, 3, 4 Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 2.2 Describe the structure, function and transport mechanisms of the plasma membrane.

Study Objective 2: SO 2.2.2 Outline the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 The Plasma Membrane

3) Which of the following is true regarding receptor-mediated endocytosis? a) A macrophage engulfs whole bacteria or viruses. b) A ligand binds specifically with a receptor on the extracellular surface of the plasma membrane. c) Tiny droplets of liquid are taken into the cell. d) Membrane-enclosed vesicles fuse with the plasma membrane and release contents to the outside.

Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Evaluation Study Objective 1: SO 2.2 Describe the structure, function and transport mechanisms of the plasma membrane.

Study Objective 2: SO 2.2.2 Outline the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 The Plasma Membrane 4) Which of the following structures is not bounded by a membrane? a) ribosome b) lysosome c) nucleus d) Golgi complex Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Cytoplasm 5) Which of the following statements correctly describes the rough endoplasmic reticulum? a) Rough endoplasmic reticulum has inclusions associated with it; therefore it assists in the production of cytosol. b) Rough endoplasmic reticulum has lysosomes associated with it; therefore it assists in the production of lipids. c) Rough endoplasmic reticulum has ribosomes associated with it; therefore it assists in the production of lysosomes. d) Rough endoplasmic reticulum has ribosomes associated with it; therefore it assists in the production of proteins.

Answer: d

Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Cytoplasm 6) Organelles that are similar to small lysosomes, contain enzymes, and that are important in detoxification are called a) ribosomes. b) mitochondria. c) peroxisomes. d) centrosomes.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Cytoplasm 7) A normal human body cell contains _____ chromosomes and a normal unfertilized human oocyte (egg) contains _____ chromosomes. a) 23, 13 b) 22, 22 c) 46, 23 d) 46, 46 Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 2.5 Describe the stages, events and significance of somatic and reproductive cell division.

Study Objective 2: SO 2.5.2 Discuss the stages, events, and significance of reproductive cell division.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.5 Cell Division 8) All of the following are located in the nucleus EXCEPT

a) histones. b) chromatin. c) endosome. d) nucleolus.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 2.4 Describe the structure and functions of the nucleus.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.4 Nucleus 9) What two processes must occur in order for a cell to divide to produce two new cells? a) mitosis and meiosis b) nuclear division and cytokinesis c) anabolism and catabolism d) autophagy and endocytosis Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 2.5 Describe the stages, events and significance of somatic and reproductive cell division.

Study Objective 2: SO 2.5.1 Discuss the stages, events, and significance of somatic cell division.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.5 Cell Division 10) The stages of the cell cycle occur in the following order a) G1, S, G2, mitosis. b) S, G1, G2, interphase. c) G1, G2, S, mitosis. d) G1, G2, S, interphase.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 2.5 Describe the stages, events and significance of somatic and reproductive cell division.

Study Objective 2: SO 2.5.1 Discuss the stages, events, and significance of somatic cell division.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.5 Cell Division

11) All of the following are events which occur during prophase of mitosis EXCEPT a) the nucleolus and the nuclear membrane disintegrate. b) each chromosome replicates so that it becomes a double-stranded structure. c) centrosomes start to form the mitotic spindle. d) chromosomes become visible due to the shortening and condensation of chromatin.

Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 2.5 Describe the stages, events and significance of somatic and reproductive cell division.

Study Objective 2: SO 2.5.1 Discuss the stages, events, and significance of somatic cell division.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.5 Cell Division 12) Which of the following contributes to aging? a) increased synthesis of protein b) viral invasion of cells c) free radical damage to protein and DNA d) decreased autoimmune response Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 2.7 Describe the cellular changes that occur with aging.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.7 Aging and Cells 13) Which of the following is not a function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum in the liver? a) It removes toxic wastes. b) It contains calcium ions which are released to cause contraction. c) It releases glucose into the blood. d) It synthesizes glycoproteins with the help of ribosomes.

Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Evaluation Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Cytoplasm 14) Proteins that will be exported from the cell are produced by a) ribosomes inside mitochondria. b) ribosomes found in lysosomes. c) ribosomes attached to rough endoplasmic reticulum. d) ribosomes attached to smooth endoplasmic reticulum.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Cytoplasm 15) The process that results in the destruction of the “webbing” found between the digits of the hand and foot in early human fetal development is called a) necrosis. b) metaplasia. c) apoptosis. d) dysplasia.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 2.5 Describe the stages, events and significance of somatic and reproductive cell division.

Study Objective 2: SO 2.5.1 Discuss the stages, events, and significance of somatic cell division.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.5 Cell Division 16) A cell is recognized as “self” or “non-self” by its a) mitochondria. b) rough endoplasmic reticulum. c) glycocalyx. d) lysosomes.

Answer: c

Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 2.2 Describe the structure, function and transport mechanisms of the plasma membrane.

Study Objective 2: SO 2.2.1 Describe the structure and functions of the plasma membrane.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 The Plasma Membrane 17) When charged, medium-sized molecules like glucose and amino acids move across a membrane from high to low concentration, the following process has occurred. a) simple diffusion b) osmosis c) active transport involving membrane proteins d) facilitated diffusion involving membrane proteins Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Evaluation Study Objective 1: SO 2.2 Describe the structure, function and transport mechanisms of the plasma membrane.

Study Objective 2: SO 2.2.2 Outline the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 The Plasma Membrane Question type: Multiple Select 18) Choose all of the options which are characteristic of a cell’s nucleus. Select all that apply. a) Assembly of amino acids into proteins occurs in the nucleus. b) Detoxification occurs in the nucleus. c) Chromosomes are housed within the nucleus. d) Assembly of ribosomes occurs in the nucleus.

Answer: c, d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 2.4 Describe the structure and functions of the nucleus.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.4 Nucleus Question type: Multiple choice

19) The basic framework of the plasma membrane consists of predominantly a) DNA. b) phospholipids. c) proteins. d) ribosomal RNA. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 2.2 Describe the structure, function and transport mechanisms of the plasma membrane Study Objective 2: SO 2.2.1 Describe the structure and functions of the plasma membrane.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 The Plasma Membrane 20) Which of the following is an example of intracellular fluid? a) cytosol b) blood plasma c) interstitial fluid d) lymph plasma Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Cytoplasm 21) Energy in the form of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is required for which type of transport of molecules across cell membranes? a) active transport b) diffusion c) facilitated diffusion d) osmosis Answer: a Difficulty: Easy

Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 2.2 Describe the structure, function and transport mechanisms of the plasma membrane.

Study Objective 2: SO 2.2.2 Outline the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 The Plasma Membrane 22) The reverse of endocytosis is a) exocytosis. b) phagocytosis. c) pinocytosis. d) transcytosis.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 2.2 Describe the structure, function and transport mechanisms of the plasma membrane.

Study Objective 2: SO 2.2.2 Outline the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 The Plasma Membrane 23) Diffusion and osmosis are a) both examples of active processes that require energy in the form of adenosine triphosphate (ATP). b) both examples of passive processes that occur primarily due to the kinetic energy of molecules. c) an example of an active process (diffusion) and an example of a passive process (osmosis). d) an example of an active process (osmosis) and an example of a passive process (diffusion).

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 2.2 Describe the structure, function and transport mechanisms of the plasma membrane.

Study Objective 2: SO 2.2.2 Outline the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 The Plasma Membrane Question type: True/False

24) All cells of the body have at least one nucleus.

Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 2.4 Describe the structure and functions of the nucleus.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.4 Nucleus Question type: Multiple Choice 25) Identify the function of the Golgi complex. a) aid movement of organelles within the cell b) digest substances that enter a cell via endocytosis c) modify, sort, and package proteins d) synthesize fatty acids and steroids Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Cytoplasm 26) A patient has a bacterial infection. The patient’s white blood cells perform phagocytosis on the bacteria. Which organelle will help to degrade the bacteria once phagocytized? a) endoplasmic reticulum b) golgi complex c) lysosome d) mitochondria Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Cytoplasm

27) Which answer reflects components of the cytoskeleton listed in order of increasing diameter? a) microfilaments, intermediate filaments, microtubules b) microfilaments, microtubules, intermediate filaments c) microtubules, intermediate filaments, microfilaments d) intermediate filaments, microfilaments, microtubules Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Cytoplasm 28) The mitotic spindle consists of a) intermediate filaments. b) microfilaments. c) microtubules. d) microvilli.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Cytoplasm 29) Which of the following contributes to the stiffening and loss of elasticity that occur in aging tissues? a) autolysis b) autophagy c) glucose bonding to proteins in tissues d) shortening of telomeres Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Evaluation

Study Objective 1: SO 2.7 Describe the cellular changes that occur with aging.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.7 Aging and Cells Question type: True/False 30) A neoplasm can result from uncontrolled cell division.

Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 2.7 Describe the cellular changes that occur with aging.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.7 Aging and Cells Question type: Multiple Choice 31) Integral proteins which allow ions such as K+ to enter or leave the cell are called a) carriers. b) enzymes. c) ion channels. d) receptors.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 2.2 Describe the structure, function and transport mechanisms of the plasma membrane.

Study Objective 2: SO 2.2.1 Describe the structure and functions of the plasma membrane.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 The Plasma Membrane 32) How many daughter cells form from the original starting cell as a result of meiosis? a) 1 b) 2 c) 4 d) 16 Answer: c

Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 2.5 Describe the stages, events and significance of somatic and reproductive cell division.

Study Objective 2: 2.5.2 Describe the stages, events, and significance of reproductive cell division.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.5 Cell Division Question type: Multiple select 33) Choose all of the answers that are characteristics of the plasma membrane. Select all that apply. a) composed primarily of carbohydrates b) fluid mosaic c) phospholipid bilayer d) selectively permeable Answer: b, c, d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 2.2 Describe the structure, function and transport mechanisms of the plasma membrane.

Study Objective 2: SO 2.2.1 Describe the structure and functions of the plasma membrane.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 The Plasma Membrane Question type: Essay 34) Explain how the rough endoplasmic reticulum, smooth endoplasmic reticulum, and Golgi complex interact. Use specific examples of materials produced by each.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Cytoplasm Solution: Ribosomes on the RER synthesize proteins destined for export from the cell, use by other organelles, or incorporation into the plasma membrane. Once these proteins are made on the ribosomes, they pass through the RER where sugars or lipids might be added. They then travel via vesicles to the Golgi where further processing, alterations, and packaging occurs. They are released

within vesicles from the Golgi to travel to their final destination. The SER is found only in certain cells and has specialized functions. For instance, SER in the liver is involved with converting glucose to glycogen (and vice versa) and detoxifies drugs. SER in skeletal muscle stores calcium ions necessary for muscle contraction.

Question type: Multiple Choice 35) Integral membrane proteins have open channels, allowing water to move passively through the plasma membrane. This process occurs during a) active transport. b) facilitated diffusion. c) phagocytosis. d) osmosis.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 2.2 Describe the structure, function and transport mechanisms of the plasma membrane.

Study Objective 2: SO 2.2.2 Outline the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 The Plasma Membrane Question type: Multiple Select 36) Choose all of the options that are active transport processes. Select all that apply. a) diffusion b) phagocytosis c) osmosis d) receptor-mediated endocytosis Answer: b, d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 2.2 Describe the structure, function and transport mechanisms of the plasma membrane.

Study Objective 2: SO 2.2.2 Outline the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 The Plasma Membrane Question type: Multiple Choice 37) A pair of identical strands of chromosomes are referred to as a) centromeres. b) chromatids. c) chromatin. d) kinetochores.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 2.5 Describe the stages, events and significance of somatic and reproductive cell division.

Study Objective 2: SO 2.5.1 Discuss the stages, events, and significance of somatic cell division..

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.5 Cell Division 38) A runner is preparing to run a 5K. The marathon will require a lot of energy in the form of adenosine triphosphate (ATP). Which organelle will be most important in the creation of ATP for the runner? a) mitochondria b) nucleus c) rough endoplasmic reticulum d) smooth endoplasmic reticulum Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Cytoplasm Question type: Essay 39) Explain the difference between an oncogene and a proto-oncogene.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 2.6 Describe cellular differences in size and shape.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.6 Cellular diversity Solution: Proto-oncogenes are normal genes that regulate growth and development. Through a series of mutations or changes the proto-oncogenes become cancer-causing genes called oncogenes that have the ability to transform a normal cell into a cancerous cell.

Question type: Multiple Choice 40) The letter A is pointing to the

a) mitochondria. b) nucleus. c) rough endoplasmic reticulum. d) smooth endoplasmic reticulum.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Cytoplasm

41) The letter B is pointing to a

a) cilium. b) flagellum. c) intermediate filament. d) microtubule.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Cytoplasm

42) The letter C is pointing to the

a) mitochondria. b) nucleolus. c) smooth endoplasmic reticulum. d) rough endoplasmic reticulum.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 2.4 Describe the structure and functions of the nucleus Section Reference 1: Sec 2.4 Nucleus

43) The letter D is pointing to the

a) golgi complex. b) lysosome. c) ribosome. d) rough endoplasmic reticulum.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Cytoplasm

44) The letter E is pointing to a

a) golgi complex. b) lysosome. c) mitochondrion. d) ribosome.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Cytoplasm Question type: Text Entry 45) The plasma membrane is composed of two layers of _____ molecules with _____ molecules scattered throughout.

Answer: phospholipid, protein Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Knowledge

Study Objective 1: SO 2.2 Describe the structure, function and transport mechanisms of the plasma membrane.

Study Objective 2: SO 2.2.1 Describe the structure and functions of the plasma membrane..

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 The Plasma Membrane Solution: phospholipid, protein Question type: Multiple Choice 46) Movement of water between interstitial fluid and intracellular fluid occurs via the process of a) active transport. b) facilitated diffusion. c) osmosis. d) receptor-mediated endocytosis.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 2.2 Describe the structure, function and transport mechanisms of the plasma membrane.

Study Objective 2: SO 2.2.2 Outline the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 The Plasma Membrane Question type: Multiple Select 47) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum is the site of production of (Select all that apply.) a) fatty acids. b) steroids. c) proteins. d) carbohydrates.

Answer: a, b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Cytoplasm

Question type: Multiple Choice 48) The process in which cell division results in two daughter cells that are identical to the original cell is called a) mitosis. b) meiosis.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 2.5 Describe the stages, events and significance of somatic and reproductive cell division.

Study Objective 2: SO 2.5.1 Discuss the stages, events, and significance of somatic cell division.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.5 Cell Division 49) The process in which lysosomes digest their host cell is called a) autolysis. b) autophagy. c) phagocytosis. d) pinocytosis.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Cytoplasm 50) The contents in the innermost, fluid-filled region of a mitochondrion is the a) cristae. b) matrix. c) external mitochondrial membrane. d) internal mitochondrial membrane.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy

Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Cytoplasm 51) The only human cell that has a flagellum is the a) epithelial cell. b) muscle cell. c) oocyte. d) sperm.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Cytoplasm Question type: Multiple Select 52) Somatic cell division involves the process of (Select all that apply.) a) cytokinesis. b) mitosis. c) meiosis.

Answer: a, b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 2.5 Describe the stages, events and significance of somatic and reproductive cell division.

Study Objective 2: SO 2.5.1 Discuss the stages, events, and significance of somatic cell division.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.5 Cell Division Question type: Multiple Choice

53) This figure illustrates a transport process known as

a) exocytosis. b) phagocytosis. c) receptor-mediated endocytosis. d) transcytosis.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 2.2 Describe the structure, function and transport mechanisms of the plasma membrane.

Study Objective 2: SO 2.2.2 Outline the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 The Plasma Membrane 54) The transport process that moves oxygen from the air sacs in the lungs into surrounding blood vessels is called a) active transport. b) diffusion. c) facilitated diffusion. d) osmosis.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application

Study Objective 1: SO 2.2 Describe the structure, function and transport mechanisms of the plasma membrane.

Study Objective 2: SO 2.2.2 Outline the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 The Plasma Membrane 55) The process that allows digestive cells to secrete enzymes is called a) active transport. b) exocytosis. c) pinocytosis. d) receptor-mediated endocytosis.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 2.2 Describe the structure, function and transport mechanisms of the plasma membrane.

Study Objective 2: SO 2.2.2 Outline the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 The Plasma Membrane 56) A mechanism that involves the formation of pseudopods in order to move solid particles into cells is called a) phagocytosis. b) pinocytosis. c) receptor-mediated endocytosis. d) transcytosis.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 2.2 Describe the structure, function and transport mechanisms of the plasma membrane.

Study Objective 2: SO 2.2.2 Outline the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 The Plasma Membrane 57) Most body cells can engulf small droplets of extracellular fluid through a process called

a) exocytosis. b) phagocytosis. c) pinocytosis. d) osmosis.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 2.2 Describe the structure, function and transport mechanisms of the plasma membrane.

Study Objective 2: SO 2.2.2 Outline the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 The Plasma Membrane 58) Which process maintains the unequal distribution of potassium and sodium ions across a nerve cell membrane? a) active transport b) diffusion c) facilitated diffusion d) osmosis Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 2.2 Describe the structure, function and transport mechanisms of the plasma membrane.

Study Objective 2: SO 2.2.2 Outline the processes that transport substances across the plasma membrane.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.2 The Plasma Membrane

59) Which letter identifies the powerhouse of the cell?

a) B b) E c) F d) G Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Cytoplasm

60) Which letter identifies the rough endoplasmic reticulum?

a) A b) B c) E d) H Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Cytoplasm

61) Which letter identifies an organelle that may contain more than 40 digestive enzymes used to break down the contents of vesicles?

a) F b) B c) A d) C Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Cytoplasm

62) Which letter identifies the organelle in the liver responsible for detoxification?

a) A b) B c) H d) I Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Cytoplasm

63) Which letter identifies microvilli?

a) H b) E c) D d) B Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Cytoplasm

64) Which letter identifies the site of protein synthesis?

a) G b) F c) D d) B Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Cytoplasm 65) A patient is on the drug phenobarbital. Higher and higher dosages of the drug are needed to achieve the original effect. This could result in an increased possibility of overdose and increased drug dependence.” This described drug-tolerance is due to increasing amounts of a) lysosomes. b) mitochondria. c) rough endoplasmic reticulum. d) smooth endoplasmic reticulum.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium

Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Cytoplasm 66) Meiosis II ends with a) two haploid gametes that are genetically different than the original starting cell. b) two diploid gametes that are genetically different than the original starting cell. c) four haploid gametes that are genetically different than the original starting cell. d) four diploid gametes that are genetically different than the original starting cell.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 2.5 Describe the stages, events and significance of somatic and reproductive cell division.

Study Objective 2: SO 2.5.2 Describe the stages, events, and significance of reproductive cell division.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.5 Cell Division Question type: Multiple Select 67) Choose the option(s) that describe the function of microtubules. Select all that apply. a) packaging and transport of proteins b) responsible for movement of chromosomes during cell division c) structural and functional components of cilia and flagella d) synthesis of lipids Answer: b, c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Cytoplasm Question type: Multiple Choice 68) Which of the following are involved in muscle contraction?

a) microfilaments b) microtubules c) lysosomes d) peroxisomes Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Cytoplasm 69) Name the organelle that acts as the site of protein synthesis. a) centrosome b) lysosome c) peroxisome d) ribosome Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 2.3 Describe the structure and function of cytoplasm, cytosol, and organelles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.3 Cytoplasm

70) Which letter indicates interphase, the period during which DNA is replicated?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 2.5 Describe the stages, events and significance of somatic and reproductive cell division.

Study Objective 2: SO 2.5.1 Discuss the stages, events, and significance of somatic cell division.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.5 Cell Division

71) In which phase are chromosomes visible as 46 structures that are not aligned?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 2.5 Describe the stages, events and significance of somatic and reproductive cell division.

Study Objective 2: SO 2.5.1 Discuss the stages, events, and significance of somatic cell division.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.5 Cell Division

72) The nucleoli disappear during which phase?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 2.5 Describe the stages, events and significance of somatic and reproductive cell division.

Study Objective 2: SO 2.5.1 Discuss the stages, events, and significance of somatic cell division.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.5 Cell Division

73) Which letter indicates metaphase?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 2.5 Describe the stages, events and significance of somatic and reproductive cell division.

Study Objective 2: SO 2.5.1 Discuss the stages, events, and significance of somatic cell division.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.5 Cell Division

74) During which phase do centromeres divide so that the sister chromatids separate?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 2.5 Describe the stages, events and significance of somatic and reproductive cell division.

Study Objective 2: SO 2.5.1 Discuss the stages, events, and significance of somatic cell division.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.5 Cell Division

75) Identify the letter that indicates telophase.

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 2.5 Describe the stages, events and significance of somatic and reproductive cell division.

Study Objective 2: SO 2.5.1 Discuss the stages, events, and significance of somatic cell division.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.5 Cell Division 76) The basic structural and functional units of the body are a) atoms.

b) cells. c) organs. d) tissues.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 2.1 Name and describe the three principal parts of a cell.

Study Objective 2: SO 2.1.1 Define a cell and cell biology.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.1 A Generalized Cell 77) The three principal parts of a cell include a) the cytosol, the cytoplasm, and the organelles. b) the nucleus, the mitochondria, and the ribosomes. c) the plasma membrane, the cytoplasm, and the nucleus. d) the plasma membrane, the cytoplasm, and the mitochondria.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 2.1 Name and describe the three principal parts of a cell.

Study Objective 2: SO 2.1.2 Name and describe the three principal parts of a cell.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.1 A Generalized Cell 78) A molecule of DNA contains several hereditary units called a) centromeres. b) genes. c) histones. d) nucleoli.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 2.1 Name and describe the three principal parts of a cell.

Study Objective 2: SO 2.1.2 Name and describe the three principal parts of a cell.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.1 A Generalized Cell Question type: Multiple Select

79) Emily is told that an abnormal growth of cells has metastasized. This means that it (Select all that apply.) a) is benign. b) is malignant. c) has spread to multiple body sites. d) is confined to one spot on the body.

Answer: b, c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 2.6 Describe cellular differences in size and shape.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.6 Cellular Diversity Question type: Multiple Choice 80) Which of the following refers to a cancer of the blood-forming organs, characterized by abnormal growths of leukocytes? a) carcinoma b) leukemia c) melanoma d) sarcoma Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 2.6 Describe cellular differences in size and shape.

Section Reference 1: Sec 2.6 Cellular Diversity

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pha15 Chapter Number: 03 Question type: Multiple Choice 1) Dermatan sulfate, proteoglycans, hyaluronic acid, and chondroitin sulfate can be found in a) ground substance of connective tissues b) basement membranes of epithelial tissues c) vesicles of adipocytes d) ducts of salivary glands Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 3.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 3.5.1 Describe the general features of connective tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.5 Connective Tissue 2) Epithelial tissues can be classified into various categories according to a) cell shape and number of layers b) type of fibers and number of layers c) presence or absence of blood vessels d) location in the body Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 3.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 3.4.1 Describe the general features of epithelial tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Epithelial Tissue 3) Which of the following is a false statement about epithelium? a) Cell junctions are plentiful in epithelial tissue. b) Epithelial tissue is a highly vascular tissue. c) Epithelial cells are replaced continuously by mitosis. d) Epithelial tissues consist of cells arranged in single or multiple layers.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 3.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 3.4.1 Describe the general features of epithelial tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Epithelial Tissue 4) Which of the following statements about stratified squamous epithelium is true? a) It consists of two or more layers of cells. b) It has flat cells in all layers. c) Cell division occurs in the superficial layers. d) The surface cells are always keratinized.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 3.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 3.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Epithelial Tissue 5) In which type of exocrine glands are portions of cells containing secretions pinched off from the main cell body? a) holocrine glands b) merocrine glands c) apocrine glands d) eccrine glands Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 3.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 3.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Epithelial Tissue 6) Which is the most common type of exocrine gland?

a) holocrine glands b) merocrine glands c) apocrine glands d) unicellular glands Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 3.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 3.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Epithelial Tissue 7) Which of the following statements about the classification of glandular epithelium is true? a) A simple gland is one that has an unbranched duct. b) All compound glands have acinar secretory portions. c) Unicellular glands are also classed as simple glands. d) Glands with ducts are called tubular glands.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 3.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 3.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Epithelial Tissue 8) Which of the following is a vascularized tissue? a) adipose tissue b) hyaline cartilage c) keratinized stratified squamous epithelium d) simple cuboidal epithelium Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 3.3 Outline the main differences between epithelial and connective tissues.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.3 Comparison Between Epithelial and Connective Tissue

Question type: Multiple Select 9) Choose all of the options that connective tissue may contain. (Select all that apply.) a) fibroblasts b) plasma cells c) macrophages and mast cells d) basement membrane Answer: a, b, c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 3.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 3.5.1 Describe the general features of connective tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.5 Connective Tissue Question type: Multiple Choice 10) The extracellular matrix of loose connective tissue is produced by a) plasma cells b) macrophages c) mast cells d) fibroblasts Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 3.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 3.5.2 Outline the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.5 Connective Tissue 11) All three types of fibers (collagen, elastic, and reticular) are found in which of the following tissues? a) reticular connective tissue b) hyaline cartilage

c) tendons d) areolar connective tissue Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 3.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 3.5.2 Outline the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.5 Connective Tissue 12) The flexible connective tissue that joins the anterior extremity of a rib to the breast bone (sternum) is a) dense regular connective tissue b) hyaline cartilage c) elastic cartilage d) fibrocartilage Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Evaluation Study Objective 1: SO 3.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 3.5.2 Outline the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.5 Connective Tissue 13) All of the following are related to bone EXCEPT a) lacunae b) osteocytes c) perichondrium d) lamellae Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 3.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 3.5.2 Outline the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.5 Connective Tissue

14) The tissue that contains erythrocytes, leukocytes, and plasma belongs to which tissue group? a) epithelial tissue b) connective tissue c) muscle tissue d) nervous tissue Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 3.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 3.5.2 Outline the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.5 Connective Tissue 15) The osteonic canal contains a) red marrow b) yellow marrow c) blood vessels and nerves d) matrix Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 3.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 3.5.2 Outline the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.5 Connective Tissue 16) An epithelial membrane consists of a) epithelium only b) epithelium plus connective tissue c) epithelium plus blood vessels d) epithelium plus nervous tissue Answer: b Difficulty: Easy

Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 3.6 Describe the properties of the various types of membranes.

Study Objective 2: SO 3.6.2 Describe the classification of membranes.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.6 Membranes 17) The membrane covering the outer surface of the heart is a _____ membrane. a) mucous b) serous c) synovial d) parietal Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Boom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 3.6 Describe the properties of the various types of membranes.

Study Objective 2: SO 3.6.2 Describe the classification of membranes.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.6 Membranes 18) The membrane covering the outer surface of the lungs is called the a) parietal pleura b) parietal peritoneum c) visceral pleura d) visceral peritoneum Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 3.6 Describe the properties of the various types of membranes.

Study Objective 2: SO 3.6.2 Describe the classification of membranes.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.6 Membranes Question type: Multiple Select 19) Skeletal muscle fibers (cells) have the following anatomical characteristic(s): (Select all that apply.) a) numerous nuclei b) striations

c) cylindrical unbranched fibers d) intercalated discs Answer: a, b, c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 3.7 Describe the general features of the various types of muscular tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 3.7.2 Compare the structure, location, and mode of control of skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscle tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.7 Muscular Tissue 20) Cardiac muscle cells (fibers) have the following anatomical characteristic(s): (Select all that apply.) a) several nuclei b) parallel unbranched fibers c) striations d) intercalated discs Answer: c, d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 3.7 Describe the general features of the various types of muscular tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 3.7.2 Compare the structure, location, and mode of control of skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscle tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.7 Muscular Tissue Question type: Multiple Choice 21) Which type of muscle tissue is involuntary and contains desmosomes and gap junctions in structures called intercalated discs? a) skeletal b) cardiac c) smooth Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge

Study Objective 1: SO 3.7 Describe the general features of the various types of muscular tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 3.7.2 Compare the structure, location, and mode of control of skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscle tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.7 Muscular Tissue 22) Neuroglia are cells in nervous tissue that a) generate nerve impulses b) conduct nerve impulses c) nourish, support, and protect neurons d) release neurotransmitters Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 3.8 Describe the structural features and functions of nervous tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.8 Nervous Tissue 23) The four basic types of tissues that make up the human body are a) nervous, epithelial, skeletal, connective b) connective, epithelial, neuroglia, nervous c) muscular, nervous, epithelial, connective d) nervous, cardiac, smooth, skeletal Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 3.1 Name the four basic types of tissues that make up the human body, and state the characteristics of each.

Study Objective 2: SO 3.1.2 Name the four basic types of tissues that make up the human body, and state the characteristics of each.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.1 Types of Tissues 24) Which of the following would take the longest time to heal? a) cartilage b) adipose c) bone d) stratified squamous epithelium

Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 3.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 3.5.2 Outline the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.5 Connective Tissue 25) Microvilli are most likely to be found in which type of tissue? a) simple squamous epithelium b) simple columnar epithelium c) adipose d) stratified squamous epithelium Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 3.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 3.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Epithelial Tissue 26) A function of fibroblasts is to a) produce the protein fibers found in the matrix of connective tissue b) secrete histamine in response to foreign invaders c) undergo phagocytosis to rid the body of harmful substances d) provide stability to epithelial tissue Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 3.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 3.5.1 Describe the general features of connective tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.5 Connective Tissue Question type: Multiple Select

27) What factors account for the observation that tissues heal faster and leave less obvious scars in the young than in the aged? (Select all that apply.) a) better nutritional state in the young b) young tissues have less blood supply c) cells have a higher metabolic rate in the young d) cells divide less quickly in the young Answer: a, c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 3.9 Describe the effects of aging on tissues.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.9 Aging and Tissues 28) Choose the items that are characteristics of pseudostratified columnar epithelium. (Select all that apply.) a) it consists of one layer of cells b) it consists of multiple layers of cells c) may be ciliated or nonciliated d) contains keratin Answer: a, c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 3.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 3.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Epithelial Tissue 29) Which of the following types of epithelium contains mucous-secreting goblet cells? (Select all that apply.) a) simple squamous epithelium b) simple cuboidal epithelium c) simple columnar epithelium d) pseudostratified columnar epithelium Answer: c, d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application

Study Objective 1: SO 3.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 3.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Epithelial Tissue Question type: True/False 30) Stratified epithelium is an effective protective layer because cells in the basal layer reproduce quickly to replace surface cells that are shed.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 3.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 3.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Epithelial Tissue 31) Closely packed cells and fibers are characteristic of connective tissue.

Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 3.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 3.5.1 Describe the general features of connective tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.5 Connective Tissue Question type: Multiple Choice 32) Which of the following is an example of dense regular connective tissue? a) fascia around muscles b) fat c) heart valves d) tendons and certain ligaments Answer: d Difficulty: Easy

Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 3.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 3.5.2 Outline the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.5 Connective Tissue Question type: True/False 33) Dense connective tissue is termed dense because of the thick consistency of the fluid ground substance.

Answer: False Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Evaluation Study Objective 1: SO 3.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 3.5.2 Outline the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.5 Connective Tissue Question type: Multiple Choice 34) All of the following membranes contain epithelium EXCEPT a) cutaneous membranes b) mucous membranes c) serous membranes d) synovial membranes Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 3.6 Describe the properties of the various types of membranes.

Study Objective 2: SO 3.6.2 Describe the classification of membranes.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.6 Membranes 35) The basic structural unit of compact bone is called a(n) a) central canal b) lacuna

c) lamella d) osteon Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 3.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 3.5.2 Outline the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.5 Connective Tissue 36) An epithelial membrane that lines cavities of the body that are not open to the external environment is a a) cutaneous membrane b) mucous membrane c) serous membrane d) synovial membrane Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 3.6 Describe the properties of the various types of membranes.

Study Objective 2: SO 3.6.2 Describe the classification of membranes.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.6 Membranes 37) The membrane that lines the cavities of freely movable joints is called a a) cutaneous membrane b) mucous membrane c) serous membrane d) synovial membrane Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 3.6 Describe the properties of the various types of membranes.

Study Objective 2: SO 3.6.2 Describe the classification of membranes.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.6 Membranes

38) Which of the following bind smooth muscle cells together and also allows them to contract in unison? a) nuclei b) gap junctions c) intercalated discs d) striations Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 3.7 Describe the general features of the various types of muscular tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 3.7.2 Compare the structure, location, and mode of control of skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscle tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.7 Muscular Tissue 39) The structure in most neurons that carries nerve impulses away from the cell body to other cells is called a) an axon b) a dendrite c) a neuroglia c) a neurotransmitter Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 3.8 Describe the structural features and functions of nervous tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.8 Nervous Tissue Question type: True/False 40) Stratified squamous epithelium contains the protein keratin, which makes it tough, hard, and dry.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 3.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 3.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Epithelial Tissue Question type: Multiple Choice 41) Branched, short processes in neurons that receive information are called a) axons b) dendrites c) neuroglia d) neurotransmitters Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 3.8 Describe the structural features and functions of nervous tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.8 Nervous Tissue Question type: Multiple Select 42) Choose all of the options that are general features that all types of epithelium have in common.

(Select all that apply.) a) has an apical (free) surface on one side since it forms coverings and linings throughout the body b) has a basement membrane in between it and the underlying connective tissue c) contains cells held together by cell junctions d) is highly vascular Answer: a, b, c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 3.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 3.4.1 Describe the general features of epithelial tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Epithelial Tissue Question type: Multiple Choice

43) Which statement best describes urothelium (transitional epithelium)? a) It consists of multiple layers and can be found in the conjunctiva of the eye. b) It consists of multiple layers and can be found in the sweat glands. c) It consists of one layer and can be found in the respiratory tract. d) It consists of one layer and can be found in the urinary bladder.

Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 3.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 3.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Epithelial Tissue 44) Which of the following associations between exocrine gland type and specific example is correct? a) apocrine glands-mammary glands b) eccrine glands-goblet cells c) holocrine glands-salivary glands d) merocrine glands-sebaceous glands Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 3.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 3.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Epithelial Tissue 45) Contrast the general features of connective tissues with those of epithelial tissues. a) Connective tissue has a lot of cells with little extracellular space while epithelial tissue has few cells with a lot of extracellular material. b) Connective tissue is avascular while epithelial tissue is highly vascular. c) Epithelial tissue forms coverings and linings while connective tissue is sandwiched between two other types of tissues. d) Epithelial tissue is associated with nerve endings while connective tissue is not.

Answer: c

Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 3.3 Outline the main differences between epithelial and connective tissues.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.3 Comparison between epithelial and connective tissue 46) Which connective tissue cell is matched correctly with its function? a) mast cell-secretion of fibers b) macrophage-phagocytosis of bacteria and cell debris c) osteocytes- formation of cartilage d) plasmocytes-storage of triglycerides Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 3.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 3.5.2 Outline the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.5 Connective Tissue Question type: Multiple Select 47) Choose all of the characteristics of spongy bone. (Select all that apply.) a) contains canaliculi b) contains osteons c) contains osteocytes in lacunae d) contains trabeculae Answer: a, c, d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 3.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 3.5.2 Outline the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.5 Connective Tissue Question type: Multiple Choice

48) Which connective tissue is matched with its correct structure and correct function? a) Areolar connective tissue-consists of cells filled with triglycerides, functions to reduce heat loss through skin. b) Dense irregular connective tissue-consists of elastic fibers and chondrocytes; functions to provide strength and elasticity. c) Dense regular connective tissue-consists of reticular fibers and reticular cells; functions to filter old blood cells. d) Elastic connective tissue-consists of elastic fibers and fibroblasts; functions to allow stretching of organs.

Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 3.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 3.5.2 Outline the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.5 Connective Tissue 49) Which muscle tissue is involuntary? a) cardiac muscle only b) skeletal muscle only c) cardiac muscle and smooth muscle d) skeletal muscle and smooth muscle Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 3.7 Describe the general features of the various types of muscular tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 3.7.2 Compare the structure, location, and mode of control of skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscle tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.7 Muscular Tissue 50) Which membrane would be found covering organs in the abdominal cavity? a) parietal pericardium b) visceral pericardium c) parietal peritoneum d) visceral peritoneum Answer: d

Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 3.6 Describe the properties of the various types of membranes.

Study Objective 2: SO 3.6.2 Describe the classification of membranes.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.6 Membranes 51) Proteins that bridge an intercellular space to form a gap junction are called a) cadherins b) connexins c) integrins d) plaque Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 3.2 Describe the structure and functions of the five main types of cell junctions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.2 Cell Junctions 52) Which type of muscle tissue is located within the walls of blood vessels? a) cardiac muscle b) skeletal muscle c) smooth muscle Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 3.7 Describe the general features of the various types of muscular tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 3.7.2 Compare the structure, location, and mode of control of skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscle tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.7 Muscular Tissue 53) Contrast endocrine glands and exocrine glands. a) Endocrine glands secrete hormones into extracellular fluid which then diffuse into the bloodstream; exocrine gland secretions are released into ducts. b) Endocrine glands secrete hormones into ducts; exocrine gland secretions are released into extracellular fluid and then diffuse into the bloodstream.

c) Exocrine glands secrete hormones into ducts; endocrine glands produce secretions such as digestive enzymes which diffuse directly into the bloodstream. d) Exocrine glands secrete hormones into extracellular fluid which then diffuse into the bloodstream; endocrine gland secretions are released into ducts.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 3.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 3.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Epithelial Tissue 54) Which type of connective tissue fibers help to make the tissue flexible and strong in tension and are the most abundant protein in the body? a) collagen fibers b) elastic fibers c) reticular fibers d) stromal fibers Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 3.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 3.5.1 Describe the general features of connective tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.5 Connective Tissue 55) The matrix of which tissue is rich in calcium and phosphorus? a) bone b) epithelial c) muscle d) nervous Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 3.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 3.5.2 Outline the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.5 Connective Tissue 56) Osteocytes reside in small spaces called a) bone canaliculi b) bone lacunae c) bone lamellae d) trabeculae Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 3.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 3.5.2 Outline the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.5 Connective Tissue 57) Which type of cell consists of a cell body and long cytoplasmic processes called axons and dendrites? a) goblet cell b) neuron c) osteocyte d) squamous epithelial cell Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 3.8 Describe the structural features and functions of nervous tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.8 Nervous Tissue Question type: Multiple Select 58) Choose all of the options which are types of cartilage in the body. (Select all that apply.) a) areolar cartilage b) elastic cartilage c) fibrous cartilage d) hyaline cartilage

Answer: b, c, d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 3.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 3.5.2 Outline the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.5 Connective Tissue 59) Microorganisms such as bacteria would have an entry point into the body if which of these membranes were damaged? (Select all that apply.) a) cutaneous membrane b) mucous membrane c) serous membrane d) synovial membrane Answer: a, b Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 3.6 Describe the properties of the various types of membranes.

Study Objective 2: SO 3.6.2 Describe the classification of membranes.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.6 Membranes Question type: Multiple Choice 60) Which type of muscle cells have peripherally located nuclei? a) cardiac b) skeletal c) smooth Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 3.7 Describe the general features of the various types of muscular tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 3.7.2 Compare the structure, location, and mode of control of skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscle tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.7 Muscular Tissue

61) Which muscle tissue contains cells that have each end tapered to a point? a) cardiac b) skeletal c) smooth Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 3.7 Describe the general features of the various types of muscular tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 3.7.2 Compare the structure, location, and mode of control of skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscle tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.7 Muscular Tissue 62) Identify the cell and name what it produces.

a) goblet, mucus b) fibroblast, reticular fibers c) neuron, neurotransmitters d) osteocyte, haversian canals Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 3.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 3.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Epithelial Tissue 63) The name of this tissue is

a) adipose tissue b) areolar connective tissue c) dense regular connective tissue c) reticular connective tissue Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 3.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 3.5.2 Outline the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.5 Connective Tissue 64) Choose the locations in the body where the pictured tissue exists.

a) aponeuroses and ligaments b) fascia and heart valves c) papillary region of dermis of skin and around blood vessels d) stroma of liver and spleen and reticular lamina of the basement membrane

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 3.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 3.5.2 Outline the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.5 Connective Tissue 65) The major fiber type in this tissue is

a) collagen fiber b) elastic fiber c) hyaline fiber d) reticular fiber Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 3.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 3.5.2 Outline the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.5 Connective Tissue Question type: Multiple Select

66) Choose two locations in the body where you would find the tissue pictured below. (Select all that apply.)

a) fibrous pericardium of heart b) ends of long bones c) lung tissue d) walls of arteries Answer: c, d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 3.5 Describe the properties of the various types of connective tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 3.5.2 Outline the structure, location, and function of the various types of connective tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.5 Connective Tissue Question type: Multiple Choice

67) Name the type of cellular junction.

a) desmosome b) gap junction c) hemidesmosome d) tight junction Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 3.2 Describe the structure and functions of the five main types of cell junctions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.2 Cell Junctions

68) What is the main feature of this type of junction?

a) cadherins b) integrins c) connexons d) adhesion belts Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 3.2 Describe the structure and functions of the five main types of cell junctions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.2 Cell Junctions 69) Name the type of cellular junction.

a) adhering junction

b) desmosome c) gap junction d) hemidesmosome Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 3.2 Describe the structure and functions of the five main types of cell junctions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.2 Cell Junctions

70) What is the main feature of this type of junction?

a) cadherins b) integrins c) connexons d) adhesion belts Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 3.2 Describe the structure and functions of the five main types of cell junctions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.2 Cell Junctions

71) Name the type of cellular junction.

a) adhering junction b) gap junction c) desmosome d) tight junction Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 3.2 Describe the structure and functions of the five main types of cell junctions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.2 Cell Junctions Question type: Multiple Select

72) Choose the locations that this type of cell junction would be found in. (Select all that apply.)

a) the urinary bladder b) the lining of the stomach c) cardiac muscle d) the lining of the intestines Answer: a, b, d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 3.2 Describe the structure and functions of the five main types of cell junctions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.2 Cell Junctions Question type: Multiple Choice

73) Name the type of cellular junction.

a) adhering junction b) desmosome c) gap junction d) hemidesmosome Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 3.2 Describe the structure and functions of the five main types of cell junctions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.2 Cell Junctions

74) Name the transmembrane glycoproteins that join the cells in this type of junction.

a) cadherins b) connexins c) integrins d) plaques Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 3.2 Describe the structure and functions of the five main types of cell junctions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.2 Cell Junctions

75) Name the type of cellular junction.

a) adhering junction b) desmosome c) hemidesmosome d) tight junction Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 3.2 Describe the structure and functions of the five main types of cell junctions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.2 Cell Junctions 76) A patient undergoes a biopsy to check for cancer in a body tissue. The physician who examines the biopsied tissues is a(n) a) dermatologist b) endocrinologist c) gastroenterologist d) pathologist Answer: d

Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 3.1 Name the four basic types of tissues that make up the human body, and state the characteristics of each.

Study Objective 2: SO 3.1.1 Define histology and pathologist.

Section Reference 1: Sec. 3.1 Types of Tissues 77) Which of the four main types of body tissues is composed of cells specialized for generation of force? a) connective tissue b) epithelial tissue c) muscle tissue d) nervous tissue Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 3.1 Name the four basic types of tissues that make up the human body, and state the characteristics of each.

Study Objective 2: SO 3.1.2 Name the four basic types of tissues that make up the human body, and state the characteristics of each.

Section Reference 1: Sec. 3.1 Types of Tissues 78) A flat sheet of pliable tissues that covers or lines parts of the body is a(n) a) connective tissue b) connexin c) integrin d) membrane Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 3.6 Describe the properties of the various types of membranes.

Study Objective 2: SO 3.6.1 Define a membrane.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.6 Membranes 79) Which type of tissue consists of cells called myocytes? a) connective tissue

b) epithelial tissue c) muscle tissue d) nervous tissue Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 3.7 Describe the general features of the various types of muscle tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 3.7.1 Describe the general features of muscle tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.7 Muscular tissue 80) Which abundant sugar in the body plays a role in aging by forming crosslinks between protein molecules? a) fructose b) galactose c) glucose d) sucrose Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 3.9 Describe the effects of aging on tissues.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.9 Aging and Tissues Question type: Multiple Select 81) Which of the following are characteristics associated with aging of the tissues? (Select all that apply.) a) decreased incidence of mucous membrane disorders b) decreased incidence of joint pain c) higher rates of bone fractures d) higher susceptibility for bruising Answer: c, d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 3.9 Describe the effects of aging on tissues.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.9 Aging and Tissues

Question type: Multiple Choice 82) Identify this part of an epithelial tissue.

a) apical surface b) basal surface c) basement membrane d) lateral surface Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 3.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 3.4.1 Describe the general features of epithelial tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Epithelial tissue 83) Identify this tissue and choose where it would be found in the body.

a) simple cuboidal epithelium; found in small ducts of many glands b) simple squamous epithelium; found in the air sacs of lungs c) stratified cuboidal epithelium; found in the ducts of sweat glands

d) stratified squamous epithelium; found in the superficial layers of skin Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: 3.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissue.

Study Objective 2: 3.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Epithelial tissue 84) Identify this tissue and choose where it would be found in the body.

a) stratified cuboidal epithelium; found in the male urethra b) stratified squamous epithelium; found in the superficial layer of skin c) stratified columnar epithelium; found in part of the conjunctiva of the eye d) pseudostratified columnar epithelium; found in upper respiratory tract airways Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: 3.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissue.

Study Objective 2: 3.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Epithelial tissue

85) Name this type of multicellular exocrine gland.

a) compound acinar b) compound tubular c) simple acinar d) simple tubular Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: 3.4 Describe the properties of the different types of epithelial tissue.

Study Objective 2: 3.4.2 List the location, structure, and function of each different type of epithelial tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 3.4 Epithelial tissue

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pha15 Chapter Number: 04 Question type: Multiple Choice 1) There is a three-day window during which a woman is most likely to become pregnant. It extends from two days before ovulation to one day after and occurs because a) sperm are viable for up to three days in the female reproductive tract. b) a secondary oocyte is viable for about 24 hours after ovulation and sperm are viable for about 48 hours in the female reproductive tract. c) it takes three days for the sperm to reach the secondary oocyte. d) it takes three days for the secondary oocyte to reach the uterus.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Embryonic Period 2) The normal site of fertilization is the a) uterine tube. b) peritoneal cavity. c) uterine cavity. d) cervical canal.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Embryonic Period 3) Place the following in the correct order: 1. aided by enzymes on their surface, sperm penetrate the cells of the corona radiata 2. acrosomal reactions are triggered when sperm bind to receptors in the zona pellucida 3. syngamy occurs when a sperm cell binds to receptors on the oocyte’s plasma membrane

4. acrosomal enzymes from many sperm digest through the zona pellucida 5. zygote is formed a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 b) 1, 2, 4, 3, 5 c) 4, 2, 1, 5, 3 d) 2, 4, 1, 5, 3 Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Evaluation Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Embryonic Period 4) Dizygotic (fraternal) twins result from a) fertilization of two secondary oocytes by two different sperm. b) fertilization of one secondary oocyte by two sperm. c) fertilization of two secondary oocytes by the same sperm. d) early splitting of a zygote to produce two individuals.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Embryonic Period 5) Cleavage a) begins about twelve hours after fertilization. b) is completed in the first two hours following fertilization. c) increases the number of cells of the embryo. d) increases the size of the embryo.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application

Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Embryonic Period 6) All major body systems have begun to develop by the end of a) week 2. b) week 4. c) week 6. d) week 8.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Embryonic Period 7) About 8 days after fertilization, the trophoblast develops into two layers in the region of contact between the blastocyst and endometrium. The layer known as the syncytiotrophoblast secretes enzymes that assist the embryo in penetrating the endometrium. a) both statements are true b) both statements are false c) the first statement is true; the second is false d) the second statement is true; the first is false Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Evaluation Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Embryonic Period 8) The period of development called the embryonic period is _____ in length. a) 2 weeks b) 1 month c) 2 months d) 3 months

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Embryonic Period 9) The three primary germ layers develop from the _____ of the blastocyst. a) syncytiotrophoblast b) cytotrophoblast c) blastocyst cavity (blastocele) d) embryoblast (inner cell mass) Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Embryonic Period 10) Which of the following is the most important event during the third week of development? a) heart becomes four-chambered b) gastrulation c) blood cells form in liver d) limb bud development Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Embryonic Period 11) The placenta allows which of the following to pass into fetal blood?

1. maternal blood cells 2. most microorganisms 3. many drugs

4. viruses that cause AIDS, German measles, and chickenpox 5. alcohol a) 1, 3, 4, 5 b) 3, 4, 5 c) 1, 2, 4, 5 d) 1, 2 Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Embryonic Period 12) Which part of a sperm contains enzymes used to penetrate the protective layers of an ovulated oocyte? a) flagellum b) midpiece c) acrosome d) neck Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Embryonic Period 13) Which of the following would be an expected change in the mother during pregnancy? a) decreased blood volume b) decrease in heart rate c) decreased frequency of urination d) decrease in motility of the gastrointestinal tract Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 4.4 Describe the effects of pregnancy on various body systems.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.4 Maternal Changes During Pregnancy 14) The structure(s) responsible for delivering oxygenated blood to the embryo (and later the fetus) from the placenta is/are the a) umbilical arteries. b) umbilical vein. c) allantois. d) yolk sac.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Embryonic Period 15) Fusion of the neural folds produces the _____, which will eventually give rise to the brain and spinal cord. a) neural plate b) neural groove c) primary vesicles d) neural tube Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Embryonic Period 16) A type of stem cell that can differentiate into a group of closely related cells is called a) multipotent. b) pluripotent. c) totipotent. d) unipotent.

Answer: a

Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Embryonic Period 17) The most common site for ectopic pregnancies is the a) ovaries. b) abdominal cavity. c) deciduas. d) uterine tube.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Embryonic Period 18) On the diagram, 2 is pointing to the

a) maternal arteriole. b) fetal blood vessels. c) umbilical cord. d) intervillous space.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension

Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Embryonic Period 19) On the diagram, 3 is pointing to

a) intervillous space. b) fetal blood vessels. c) umbilical cord. d) chorionic villi.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Embryonic Period 20) On the diagram, 1 is pointing to

a) intervillous space containing maternal blood. b) fetal blood vessels. c) umbilical cord. d) chorionic villi.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Embryonic Period 21) On the diagram, 4 is pointing to

a) intervillous space. b) fetal blood vessels. c) umbilical cord. d) chorionic villi.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Embryonic Period 22) What is the correct order of the events of true labor? a) stage of expulsion, placental stage, stage of dilation

b) embryonic period, fetal period, labor c) stage of dilation, stage of expulsion, placental stage d) fertilization, cleavage, implantation Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 4.5 Explain the events associated with the three stages of labor.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.5 Labor 23) Each somite differentiates into three regions: a myotome, a dermatome, and a sclerotome.

Which of the following statements is incorrect? a) Myotomes develop into the cardiac muscle of the heart. b) Sclerotomes give rise to the vertebrae and ribs. c) Dermatomes form connective tissue, including the dermis of the skin. d) Myotomes develop into the skeletal muscles of the neck, trunk, and limbs.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Embryonic period 24) Arrange the following in the correct order of heart development. a) cardiogenic mesenchyme; heart primordial tubes; S-shaped heart tube b) heart primordial tubes; S-shaped heart tube; cardiogenic mesenchyme c) cardiogenic mesenchyme; S-shaped heart tube; heart primordial tubes d) S-shaped heart tube; cardiogenic mesenchyme; heart primordial tubes Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Embryonic period

25) Which structure plays an important role in induction, with one tissue stimulating the specialization of an adjacent tissue? a) cloacal membrane b) dermatome c) notochord d) sclerotome Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Embryonic Period 26) The fusion of the haploid male and female pronuclei to produce a diploid nucleus is the result of a) cleavage. b) gastrulation. c) neurulation. d) syngamy.

Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Evaluation Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Embryonic Period 27) The morula enters the uterine cavity on a) day 1. b) day 2. c) day 4. d) day 10.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Embryonic Period 28) The three main parts of the blastocyst are the a) blastocyst cavity (blastocele), blastomeres, and morula. b) blastocyst cavity (blastocele), blastomeres, and zygote. c) blastocyst cavity (blastocele), inner cell mass (embryoblast), and morula. d) blastocyst cavity (blastocele), inner cell mass (embryoblast), and trophoblast.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Embryonic Period 29) A layer of the trophoblast that has no distinct cell boundaries and that secretes enzymes to help the blastocyst penetrate the uterine lining is the a) chorion. b) cytotrophoblast. c) hypoblast. d) syncytiotrophoblast.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Embryonic Period 30) How many blood vessels does the umbilical cord contain? a) one b) two c) three d) four Answer: c Difficulty: Easy

Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Embryonic Period 31) How does the embryonic disc change during gastrulation? a) A single layered embryonic disc is transformed into a bilaminar embryonic disc. b) A bilaminar embryonic disc is transformed into a trilaminar embryonic disc. c) A bilaminar embryonic disc is transformed into a single layered embryonic disc. d) A trilaminar embryonic disc is transformed into a bilaminar embryonic disc.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Embryonic Period Question type: Multiple Select 32) The ectoderm of the embryonic disc eventually gives rise to (Select all that apply.) a) the epidermis of the skin. b) the epithelium of the oral and nasal cavities. c) nervous tissue. d) skeletal and cardiac muscle tissue.

Answer: a, b, c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Embryonic Period Question type: Multiple Choice 33) The first two months of pregnancy is referred to as the

a) embryonic period. b) fetal period. c) gestation period. d) zygote period.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the events of human development and the female reproductive organs involved.

Study Objective 2: SO 4.1.1 Describe the sequence of events involved in development.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Principles of Development Question type: True/False 34) The number of somites that develop over a given period can be correlated to the approximate age of the embryo.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Embryonic period Question type: Multiple Choice 35) Identify the correct order of events leading up to and including fertilization. a) sperm are attracted to the uterine tube by chemotaxis, capacitation occurs, sperm nucleus is injected into oocyte, pronuclei fuse to form zygote b) pronuclei form, pronuclei fuse to form zygote, sperm enter the uterine tube, capacitation occurs c) pronuclei form, sperm reach the oocyte but must undergo capacitation, the acrosome spills its enzymes, the oocyte membrane changes d) sperm are attracted to the uterine tube by chemotaxis, the acrosome spills its enzymes, pronuclei fuse to form zygote, capacitation occurs Answer: a

Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Evaluation Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Embryonic Period Question type: Multiple Select 36) Which of the following are functions of the amniotic fluid? Select all that apply. a) Allows maternal red blood cells to enter the fetal circulation. b) Helps regulate fetal body temperature. c) Prevents adhesions between the skin of the fetus and surrounding tissues. d) Serves as a shock absorber for the fetus.

Answer: b, c, d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Embryonic Period Question type: Multiple Choice 37) Complete dilation of the cervix occurs when the cervix is dilated to a) 4 cm. b) 7 cm. c) 10 cm. d) 12 cm.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 4.5 Explain the events associated with the three stages of labor.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.5 Labor Question type: Multiple Select

38) Which is formed from a single fertilized ovum with separation of the zygote into two embryos? Select all that apply. a) dizygotic twins b) fraternal twins c) identical twins d) monozygotic twins Answer: c, d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Embryonic Period Question type: Multiple Choice 39) Place the following events in the correct order.

1. cleavage 2. embryonic development 3. fetal period 4. fertilization 5. implantation 6. labor 7. placental development a) 4, 1, 5, 2, 7, 3, 6 b) 4, 5, 1, 2, 3, 7, 6 c) 1, 4, 3, 5, 2, 7, 6 d) 1, 4, 5, 7, 2, 3, 6 Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Embryonic Period 40) The clear glycoprotein layer between the corona radiata and the oocyte’s plasma membrane is the

a) corona radiata. b) morula. c) trophoblast. d) zona pellucida.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Embryonic Period 41) The cells of the embryo produced by cleavage are called a) blastocyts. b) blastomeres. c) embryoblasts. d) trophoblasts.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Embryonic Period 42) Capacitation a) is something that happens to the embryo to increase cell division. b) is something that happens to the fetus to promote growth and development. c) is something that happens to the oocyte to prepare it for fertilization. d) is something that happens to the sperm to prepare it to fuse with the oocyte.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Embryonic Period

43) Implantation usually occurs on the a) anterior wall of the fundus or body of the uterus. b) inferior wall of the fundus or body of the uterus. c) posterior wall of the fundus or body of the uterus. d) superior wall of the fundus or body of the uterus.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Embryonic Period 44) Differentiation of the tissue of the embryo into the three primary germ layers begins a) before implantation but after cleavage. b) before implantation but after development of the amnion. c) after implantation but before angiogenesis. d) after implantation but before development of the blastocyst.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Embryonic Period 45) In a pregnant woman, nausea and vomiting may be caused by a) decreased total body water. b) decreased storage of nutrients. c) increasing levels of hCG. d) increasing pressure on the pelvis.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 4.4 Describe the effects of pregnancy on various body systems.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.4 Maternal Changes During Pregnancy

46) The portion of the endometrium that will cover the embryo after implantation is called the a) basal decidua. b) capsular decidua. c) parietal decidua. d) visceral decidua.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Embryonic Period 47) The maternal part of the placenta is formed from the a) basal decidua. b) capsular decidua. c) parietal decidua. d) visceral decidua.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Embryonic Period 48) The structure(s) responsible for carrying deoxygenated fetal blood to the placenta is/are the a) allantois. b) umbilical arteries. c) umbilical veins. d) yolk sac.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension

Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Embryonic Period 49) The placenta is formed from the basal layer of endometrium of the mother and the a) chorionic villi of the embryo. b) connecting stalk of the embryo. c) extraembryonic coelom. d) extraembryonic mesoblast.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Embryonic Period 50) The embryo is referred to as a fetus after which month of development? a) the first month b) the second month c) the third month d) after the first trimester Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Embryonic Period 51) The stage of labor in which the afterbirth is expelled is called the a) stage of dilation. b) stage of expulsion. c) placental stage.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy

Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 4.5 Explain the events associated with the three stages of labor.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.5 Labor 52) A solid ball of cells resulting from cleavage is a a) blastomere. b) corona radiata. c) morula. d) trophoblast.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Embryonic Period 53) The name for a fertilized ovum that contains one nucleus is a a) fetus. b) hypoblast. c) pronuclei. d) zygote.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Embryonic Period 54) A hollowed-out ball of cells that implants into the endometrial lining is the a) blastocyst. b) morula. c) trophoblast. d) zygote.

Answer: a

Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Embryonic Period 55) The primitive endoderm is called a(n) a) blastomere. b) epiblast. c) hypoblast. d) trophoblast.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Embryonic Period 56) Which structure forms the outer covering of the blastocyst? a) blastomere b) epiblast c) hypoblast d) trophoblast Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Embryonic Period 57) The portion of the blastocyst that develops into the embryo is the a) cytotrophoblast. b) embryoblast. c) epiblast. d) syncytiotrophoblast.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Embryonic Period 58) The germ layer that forms the epithelial lining of the digestive canal (excluding the oral cavity and anal canal) is the a) ectoderm. b) endoderm. c) gastroderm. d) mesoderm.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Embryonic Period 59) If disruption of the formation of this germ layer occurred, formation of cardiac muscle tissue may be impaired. a) ectoderm b) endoderm c) mesoderm d) myoderm Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Evaluation Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Embryonic Period 60) The heart forms and begins to beat during the a) first month of embryonic development.

b) second month of embryonic development. c) third month of embryonic development. d) fourth month of embryonic development.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Embryonic Period 61) Bone formation begins during the a) first month of embryonic development. b) second month of embryonic development. c) third month of embryonic development. d) fourth month of embryonic development.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Embryonic Period 62) The fetus assumes an upside-down position at a) 9-12 weeks. b) 17-20 weeks. c) 26-29 weeks. d) 30-34 weeks.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 4.3 Describe the major events of the fetal period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.3 Fetal Period 63) Hair on the fetal head becomes visible

a) at 5-8 weeks. b) at 9-12 weeks. c) at 13-16 weeks. d) at 17-20 weeks.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 4.3 Describe the major events of the fetal period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.3 Fetal Period 64) At the beginning of the fetal period, a) the fetal head is about half the length of the fetal body. b) the fetal lower limbs are about their final relative length. c) the fetal brain is about half the width of the fetal head. d) the fetal gender is undistinguishable from external genitals.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 4.3 Describe the major events of the fetal period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.3 Fetal Period 65) Over the course of pregnancy, the uterus increases from its pre-pregnancy mass primarily due to growth of the a) cervix. b) endometrium layer. c) myometrium layer. d) uterine tubes.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 4.4 Describe the effects of pregnancy on various body systems.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.4 Maternal Changes During Pregnancy

66) Which letter is pointing to the structure where the secondary oocyte is typically fertilized by the sperm?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the events of human development and the female reproductive organs involved.

Study Objective 2: SO 4.1.2 Identify the role of the female organs of reproduction in development.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Principles of Development

67) The letter C is pointing to the layer called the

a) cervix of uterus. b) endometrium. c) fundus of uterus. d) myometrium.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the events of human development and the female reproductive organs involved.

Study Objective 2: SO 4.1.2 Identify the role of the female organs of reproduction in development.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Principles of Development

68) Which letter is pointing to the layer in which the blastocyst implants?

a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: D Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the events of human development and the female reproductive organs involved.

Study Objective 2: SO 4.1.2 Identify the role of the female organs of reproduction in development.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Principles of Development

69) The cervical canal is letter

a) A. b) B. c) C. d) D. Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the events of human development and the female reproductive organs involved.

Study Objective 2: SO 4.1.2 Identify the role of the female organs of reproduction in development.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Principles of Development

70) The region indicated by the letter E is the

a) cervix of uterus. b) endometrium. c) fundus of uterus. d) myometrium.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the events of human development and the female reproductive organs involved.

Study Objective 2: SO 4.1.2 Identify the role of the female organs of reproduction in development.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Principles of Development 71) The hormone detected by a home pregnancy test is a) human chorionic gonadotropin. b) estrogen. c) luteinizing hormone. d) progesterone.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge

Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Embryonic Period 72) Which picture depicts a solid sphere of cells that enters the uterine cavity approximately 4-5 days after fertilization?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Embryonic Period

73) Which structure undergoes implantation into the uterine endometrium?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Embryonic Period

74) What process is occurring between structure A and structure B; and structure B and structure C?

a) capacitation b) cleavage c) gastrulation d) implantation Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Embryonic Period

75) Name the structure indicated by the pointer on structure E.

a) blastocyst b) blastocyst cavity c) embryoblast d) trophoblast Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Embryonic Period 76) Arrange the stages of pregnancy in order.

1. embryonic development 2. fetal development 3. fertilization 4. implantation a) 1, 2, 3, 4 b) 2, 3, 4, 1 c) 3, 4, 1, 2 d) 4, 3, 2, 1

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the events of human development and the female reproductive organs involved.

Study Objective 2: SO 4.1.1 Describe the sequence of events involved in development.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Principles of Development 77) Without this structure, the embryo or fetus might be more likely to be attacked by the mother’s immune system. a) chorion b) corona radiata c) embryonic disc d) parietal decidua Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 4.2 Explain the major developmental events that occur during the embryonic period.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.2 Embryonic Period 78) The fetal period technically begins at a) week nine. b) fertilization. c) second trimester. d) day eight.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the events of human development and the female reproductive organs involved.

Study Objective 2: SO 4.1.1 Describe the sequence of events involved in development.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Principles of Development 79) The weight of the fetus doubles during the

a) third trimester. b) second trimester. c) first trimester.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the events of human development and the female reproductive organs involved.

Study Objective 2: SO 4.1.1 Describe the sequence of events involved in development.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Principles of Development 80) The study of development from the fertilized egg through week eight is called a) developmental biology. b) embryology. c) gynecology. d) pediatrics.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the events of human development and the female reproductive organs involved.

Study Objective 2: SO 4.1.1 Describe the sequence of events involved in development.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Principles of Development Question type: Multiple Select 81) Prenatal development includes development of the (Select all that apply.) a) fetus. b) embryo. c) infant. d) secondary oocyte.

Answers: a, b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the events of human development and the female reproductive organs involved.

Study Objective 2: SO 4.1.1 Describe the sequence of events involved in development.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Principles of Development 82) During the reproductive years of a female, secondary oocytes are discharged from the (Select all that apply.) a) ovaries. b) uterus. c) uterine tubes. d) gonads.

Answers: a, d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the events of human development and the female reproductive organs involved.

Study Objective 2: SO 4.1.2 Identify the role of the female organs of reproduction in development.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Principles of Development Question type: Multiple Choice 83) The opening of the uterus to the vagina through which sperm must enter to fertilize a secondary oocyte is known as the a) cervix. b) fundus. c) uterine tubes. d) myometrium.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the events of human development and the female reproductive organs involved.

Study Objective 2: SO 4.1.2 Identify the role of the female organs of reproduction in development.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Principles of Development 84) During menstruation, part of the endometrium is shed along with the unfertilized

a) secondary oocyte. b) primary oocyte. c) zygote. d) myometrium.

Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Evaluation Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the events of human development and the female reproductive organs involved.

Study Objective 2: SO 4.1.2 Identify the role of the female organs of reproduction in development.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Principles of Development 85) In a human developmental biology class, you observe a fetus that has most of the organ systems formed. However, not all of the systems are functional yet. The fetus also has some distinct human features. This fetus is most likely in which trimester of development? a) first trimester b) second trimester c) third trimester d) fourth trimester Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Evaluation Study Objective 1: SO 4.1 Explain the events of human development and the female reproductive organs involved.

Study Objective 2: SO 4.1.1 Describe the sequence of events involved in development.

Section Reference 1: Sec 4.1 Principles of Development

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pha15 Chapter Number: 05 Question type: Multiple Choice 1) The integument consists of which of the following? a) skin and subcutaneous layer b) epidermis and dermis c) cutaneous membrane and underlying muscle d) papillary and reticular regions Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.2 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin 2) The greatest amount of keratin is found where? a) stratum basale b) stratum spinosum c) stratum corneum d) reticular region of the dermis Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.2 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin 3) Together, the skin, hair, nails, glands, and associated muscles and nerves are an example of a(n) a) tissue

b) organ c) system d) organism Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Compare the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin 4) Calluses form in areas that a) have excessive blood flow b) have insufficient nerve supply c) are subject to friction d) undergo slowed rate of mitosis Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.2 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin Question type: Multiple Select 5) Which of the following is found in the stratum basale? (Select all that apply.) a) cuboidal or columnar shaped cells b) squamous shaped cells c) keratinocytes d) melanocytes Answer: a, c, d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.2 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin Question type: Multiple Choice 6) Cells in the deepest layer of the epidermis divide to produce all other epidermal cells. From deepest to most superficial, the cells pass through the layers in what order?

1. stratum spinosum 2. stratum basale 3. stratum corneum 4. stratum lucidum (only in thick skin) 5. stratum granulosum a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 b) 2, 3, 1, 5, 4 c) 3, 2, 4, 1, 5 d) 2, 1, 5, 4, 3 Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.2 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin 7) As keratinocytes move to the surface a) they become multinucleate b) they divide to produce new skin cells c) they eventually die and are sloughed off d) they assume a columnar shape Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.2 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

8) Tattoos are created by injecting ink with a needle into the a) stratum basale b) dermis c) subcutaneous layer d) stratum corneum Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.3 Compare the composition of the papillary and reticular regions of the dermis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin 9) The ability of skin to stretch and recoil is due to the presence of a) elastic fibers in the epidermis b) adipose tissue in the dermis c) elastic fibers in the dermis d) basement membrane in the hypodermis Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.3 Compare the composition of the papillary and reticular regions of the dermis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin 10) Which of the following statements about skin color is false? a) Three pigments that are responsible for skin color are hemoglobin, carotene, and melanin. b) UV exposure leads to increased production of melanin. c) Melanin is produced in the organelles of epithelial cells and then migrates to the hypodermis. d) Carotene contributes a yellow-orange hue to the skin.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium

Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.4 Explain the anatomical basis of differences in skin color.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Ski Question type: Multiple Select 11) Functions of the skin include: (Select all that apply.) a) excretion of some wastes b) acting as a blood reservoir c) providing an alkaline pH to prevent the growth of microbes d) thermoregulation Answer: a, b, d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 5.4 Describe how the skin contributes to the regulation of body temperature, storage of blood, protection, sensation, excretion and absorption, and synthesis of vitamin D. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.4 Functions of the Skin Question type: Multiple Choice 12) All of the following develop from the embryonic epidermis EXCEPT a) sebaceous glands b) lamellated corpuscles c) sudoriferous glands d) hair Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Compare the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin 13) The narrow strip of epidermis found on the surface of the proximal border of a nail is called

a) eponychium (cuticle) b) free edge c) lunula d) hyponychium Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Compare the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin 14) Which of the following is characteristic of the growth of a scalp hair? a) Continuous steady growth until the hair is shed and replaced by a new hair. b) Alternating growth phases and resting phases throughout the life of the hair. c) A resting phase followed by a growth phase, which lasts until the hair is shed and replaced by a new hair. d) A growth phase followed by a resting phase, which lasts until the hair is shed and replaced by a new hair.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Compare the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin 15) Melanocytes synthesize melanin from which amino acid? a) tryptophan b) tyrosine c) tropomyosin d) thyroxine Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.4 Explain the anatomical basis of differences in skin color.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin 16) Which of the following statements is true? a) Melanoma is the most common form of skin cancer. b) Squamous cell carcinoma is the most likely form of skin cancer to metastasize. c) Basal cell carcinoma rarely metastasizes. d) Skin color and family history are not risk factors for skin cancer.

Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.4 Explain the anatomical basis of differences in skin color.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin 17) Orientation of which dermal fibers is responsible for “lines of cleavage” (tension lines) seen in the skin? a) reticular b) collagen c) elastic Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.3 Compare the composition of the papillary and reticular regions of the dermis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin 18) Which of the following contributes to the increased incidence of heat stroke in the elderly? a) decreased circulation b) decreased sudoriferous gland activity c) decreased number of melanocytes d) increased number of dendritic cells (Langerhans cells) Answer: b

Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 5.6 Describe the effects of aging on the integumentary system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.6 Aging and the Integumentary System 19) What word does the letter “B” stand for in the American Cancer Society’s ABCD guidelines for detecting malignant melanoma? a) big (greater than 6mm) b) brown/black pigmentation c) border is irregular d) blister Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.4 Explain the anatomical basis of differences in skin color.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin 20) Contraction of the _____ cause(s) “goose bumps.” a) hair follicle b) underlying skeletal muscle c) arrector pili muscle d) capillary loops in the papillary region of the dermis Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Compare the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin 21) Thick skin, containing all five layers of the epidermis, is found in areas of all of the following EXCEPT a) palms b) soles c) fingertips d) upper back

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 5.3 Compare structural and functional differences in thin and thick skin.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.3 Types of Skin 22) Which of the following gives rise to the epidermis? a) mesenchyme b) ectoderm c) mesoderm d) endoderm Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 5.5 Describe the development of the epidermis, its accessory structures, and the dermis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.5 Development of the Integumentary System 23) What is the correct order for the development of the dermis? a) mesoderm; mesenchyme; fibroblasts b) endoderm; mesenchyme; keratinocytes c) ectoderm; fibroblasts; melanocytes d) mesoderm; collagen; mesenchyme Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 5.5 Describe the development of the epidermis, its accessory structures, and the dermis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.5 Development of the Integumentary System 24) Which of the following terms best describes a bluish skin color most likely resulting from an inadequate amount of oxygen circulating in the blood? a) erythema b) cyanosis

c) albinism d) hirsutism Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.4 Explain the anatomical basis of differences in skin color.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the skin 25) Following a burn, charring and insensitivity to pain was found over the entire surface of the right lower limb, entire surface of right trunk and anterior surface of the right upper limb.

Approximately what percent of the body surface had burns and how would you classify the burn? a) 18%; second degree b) 27%, third degree c) 32%, partial thickness d) 40%, third degree Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Evaluation Study Objective 1: SO 5.4 Describe how the skin contributes to the regulation of body temperature, storage of blood, protection, sensation, excretion and absorption, and synthesis of vitamin D. Section Reference 1: 5.4 Functions of the Skin

26) Which of the following is correct regarding the papillae of hair? a) The papillae of hair arise from ectoderm in which blood vessels develop. b) The papillae of hair arise from mesoderm in which blood vessels develop. c) Blood vessels develop within the papillae of hair which then causes it to fill with ectoderm. d) Blood vessels develop within the papillae of hair which then causes it to fill with mesoderm.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 5.5 Describe the development of the epidermis, its accessory structures, and the dermis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.5 Development of the Integumentary System 27) The principal layers of skin are a) the epidermis and dermis b) the epidermis and subcutaneous layer c) the dermis and subcutaneous layer d) the epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous layer Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.1 Define integumentary system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin 28) Differences in skin color are mainly due to a) the amount of pigment that keratinocytes produce b) the amount of pigment that melanocytes produce c) the number of keratinocytes in the epidermis d) the number of melanocytes in the epidermis Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.4 Explain the anatomical basis of differences in skin color.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin 29) The cutaneous plexus is a) located in the epidermis and supplies cells of the epidermis and upper dermis with blood b) located at the junction of the dermis and subcutaneous tissue and supplies sweat glands and adipose tissue with blood c) located at the junction of the epidermis and dermis and supplies adipose tissue and hair follicles with blood d) located in the epidermis and supplies sweat glands and hair follicles with blood Answer: b

Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.3 Compare the composition of the papillary and reticular regions of the dermis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin Question type: Multiple Select 30) The integumentary system is composed of: (Select all that apply.) a) hair b) nails c) skin d) teeth Answer: a, b, c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.1 Define integumentary system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin Question type: Multiple Choice 31) Albinism is caused by a) a total lack of melanocytes b) a significant decrease in the number of melanocytes c) the inability to synthesize tyrosinase d) the inability to move melanin to the surface of the skin Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.4 Explain the anatomical basis of differences in skin color.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

32) Cells in the three most superficial layers of the epidermis a) are highly vascular and supplied by numerous epidermal blood vessels b) are avascular but receive a large supply of blood from blood vessels that originate in the dermis c) are highly vascular and supplied by blood vessels that originate in the subcutaneous layer d) are avascular and composed of many dead keratinocytes Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.2 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin 33) Blood is supplied to the capillary loops in the dermal papillae by a) the cutaneous arterial plexus b) small capillaries originating in the epidermis c) veins originating in the subcutaneous layer d) the papillary arterial plexus Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.3 Compare the composition of the papillary and reticular regions of the dermis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin 34) The deepest layer of the skin is called a) the hypodermis b) the papillary dermis c) the reticular dermis d) the subcutaneous layer Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis

Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.2 Compare the composition of the papillary and reticular regions of the dermis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the skin 35) Which type of cell is an immune cell residing in the epidermis? a) dendritic cell b) keratinocyte c) melanocyte d) Merkel cell Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.2 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin 36) The area of the skin that has 5 layers is called a) all skin has 5 layers b) intermediate skin c) thick skin d) thin skin Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.2 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin 37) Acne is an inflammation of a) melanocytes b) Merkel cells c) sebaceous glands d) sudoriferous glands

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Compare the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin 38) Fingernails consist of a) actively reproducing, keratinized epidermal cells b) dead, keratinized epidermal cells c) hardened dermal cells from the tissue of the nail root d) hardened glandular secretions from the tissue of the nail root Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Compare the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin 39) The lunula of a nail appears whiter than the rest of the nail due to a) a lack of carotene in the nails b) the thick structure of the stratum basale c) the presence of many flattened keratinized cells d) a thickened region of the stratum corneum Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Evaluation Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Compare the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of The Skin 40) Thin skin has a) fewer epidermal ridges than thick skin b) no hair follicles

c) more sudoriferous glands than thick skin d) fewer sebaceous glands than thick skin Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 5.3 Compare structural and functional differences in thin and thick skin.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.3 Types of Skin 41) Inadequate exposure to sunlight, such as might occur in a prison population, may result in a deficiency of which vitamin? a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 5.4 Describe how the skin contributes to the regulation of body temperature, storage of blood, protection, sensation, excretion and absorption, and synthesis of vitamin D. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.4 Functions of the Skin 42) Vernix caseosa a) arises from the mesenchyme and differentiates into fibroblasts in the fetus b) arises from the basal layer of the epidermis and stimulates the growth of fingernails in the fetus c) is secreted by sebaceous glands to protect the fetus from amniotic fluid d) is secreted by sudoriferous glands to make the fetus more slippery during delivery Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 5.5 Describe the development of the epidermis, its accessory structures, and the dermis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.5 Development of the Integumentary System

43) A teen went swimming and forgot to apply sunscreen. After the day at the pool, he experienced redness and blistering of the skin, but sweat glands were not injured and no function was loss. The teen experienced a) a first-degree burn b) a second-degree burn c) a third-degree burn Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 5.4 Describe how the skin contributes to the regulation of body temperature, storage of blood, protection, sensation, excretion and absorption, and synthesis of vitamin D. Section Reference 1: 5.4 Functions of the Skin 44) Most of the age-related changes associated with the integumentary system occur a) in melanocytes in the dermis b) in proteins in the dermis c) in melanocytes in the epidermis d) in proteins in the epidermis Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 5.6 Describe the effects of aging on the integumentary system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.6 Aging and the Integumentary System Question type: Multiple Select 45) Which of the following is correct about the epidermal layers? (Select all that apply.) a) The stratum granulosum is characterized by the presence of keratohyalin. b) The stratum basale is the most superficial layer of the epidermis. c) The stratum corneum contains squamous keratinocytes with no nuclei. d) The stratum lucidum is present in skin all over the body.

Answer: a, c Difficulty: Medium

Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.2 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin Question type: Multiple Choice 46) Which of the following contains dense irregular connective tissue as well as numerous blood vessels? a) papillary dermis b) reticular dermis c) stratum corneum d) stratum lucidum Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.3 Compare the composition of the papillary and reticular regions of the dermis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin Question type: Multiple Select 47) A 75-year-old woman ends up with a bacterial skin infection. Which of the following were likely contributors to this infection due to her age? (Select all that apply.) a) decreased amount of dendritic cells b) decreased size of sebaceous glands c) increased production of sweat d) increased size of melanocytes Answer: a, b Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 5.6 Describe the effects of aging on the integumentary system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.6 Aging and the Integumentary System

Question type: Multiple Choice 48) A patient has sustained damage to the skin that requires a skin graft for healing. Which part of the skin was likely damaged? a) stratum basale b) stratum corneum c) stratum lucidum d) stratum granulosum Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Evaluation Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.2 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin 49) A patient notices an odd mole on their forearm and makes an appointment with the dermatologist. The dermatologist notices that the mole is colored unevenly. In addition, the mole appears to be asymmetrical, with a scalloped border. The dermatologist believes that this originated from the patient’s melanocytes. After proper testing to verify, which would be the most likely diagnosis? a) this is a normal mole b) this is likely basal cell carcinoma c) this is likely malignant melanoma d) this is likely squamous cell carcinoma Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Evaluation Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.4 Explain the anatomical basis of differences in skin color.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin Question type: Multiple Select

50) Which leads to wrinkles as a normal consequence of aging? (Select all that apply.) a) collagen fibers in the dermis begin to increase in number and loosen b) elastic fibers lose some of their elasticity c) elastic fibers thicken into clumps d) fibroblasts decrease in number Answer: b, c, d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 5.6 Describe the effects of aging on the integumentary system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.6 Aging and the Integumentary System Question type: Multiple Choice 51) The layer of the epidermis containing the most layers of cells is the stratum a) basale b) corneum c) granulosum d) spinosum Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.2 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin 52) Surface patterns that develop on the skin of the hands and feet are due to the presence of a) dermal papillae and are called epidermal ridges b) tactile epithelial cells and are called epidermal ridges c) dermal papillae and are called tension lines d) tactile epithelial cells and are called tension lines Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis

Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.3 Compare the composition of the papillary and reticular regions of the dermis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin 53) Lipids that are responsible for reducing the passage of water through the skin are released by a) keratohyalin of keratinocytes b) keratohyalin of melanocytes c) lamellar granules of keratinocytes d) lamellar granules of melanocytes Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 5.4 Describe how the skin contributes to the regulation of body temperature, storage of blood, protection, sensation, excretion and absorption, and synthesis of vitamin D. Section Reference 1: Sec 5.4 Functions of the Skin 54) Keratohyalin granules are characteristic of the a) stratum basale layer of the epidermis b) stratum corneum layer of the epidermis c) stratum lucidum layer of the epidermis d) stratum granulosum layer of the epidermis Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.2 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin 55) A student is performing a lab regarding the integumentary system in class. During the lab, she is asked to feel a variety of materials, including some that are rough, smooth, bumpy, etc.

Which of the following helps her to detect these touch sensations? a) dermal capillary loops b) epidermal pegs

c) lamellar corpuscles d) tactile corpuscles Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.3 Compare the composition of the papillary and reticular regions of the dermis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin 56) The portion of the hair that projects from the surface of the skin is the a) hair bulb b) hair follicle c) hair root d) hair shaft Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Compare the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin 57) The concentric layers of a hair from external to internal are a) cuticle, cortex, medulla b) cortex, cuticle, medulla c) cuticle, medulla, cortex d) cortex, medulla, cuticle Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Compare the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin 58) Thin skin lacks which layer of the epidermis?

a) the stratum basale b) the stratum granulosum c) the stratum lucidum d) the stratum spinosum Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 5.3 Compare structural and functional differences in thin and thick skin.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.3 Types of Skin 59) Which of the following gives rise to sebaceous glands during fetal development? a) buds/downgrowths of the stratum basale b) dendritic cells invading the epidermis c) epidermal cells as outgrowths of hair follicles d) fatty molecules from the vernix caseosa Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 5.5 Describe the development of the epidermis, its accessory structures, and the dermis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.5 Development of the Integumentary System 60) In the fifth or sixth month of fetal development, hair follicles produce delicate fetal hair called a) lanugo, which is mostly shed prior to birth b) lanugo, which is primarily retained until after birth c) vernix caseosa, which is mostly shed prior to birth d) vernix caseosa, which is primarily retained until after birth Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Compare the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin

61) A mild sunburn is an example of a) a first-degree burn and involves only the epidermal layer of the skin b) a first-degree burn and involves the epidermal and dermal layer of the skin c) a second-degree burn and involves only the epidermal layer of the skin d) a second-degree burn and involves the epidermal and dermal layer of the skin Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 5.4 Describe how the skin contributes to the regulation of body temperature, storage of blood, protection, sensation, excretion and absorption, and synthesis of vitamin D. Section Reference 1: 5.4 Functions of the Skin 62) A buildup of the yellow pigment bilirubin in the skin, which gives a yellowish appearance to the skin and the whites of the eyes, and usually indicates liver disease is a) albinism b) alopecia c) cyanosis d) jaundice Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.4 Explain the anatomical basis of differences in skin color.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin Question type: Multiple Select 63) Sweat that evaporates from the skin before it is perceived as moisture is termed: (Select all that apply.) a) insensible perspiration b) sensible perspiration c) emotional sweating d) thermoregulatory sweating

Answer: a, d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Compare the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin Question type: Multiple Choice 64) Name the structure indicated by A.

a) capillary loop b) dermal papillae c) sebaceous gland d) tactile corpuscle Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Compare the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin

Question type: Multiple Select 65) Give two different names for the layer indicated by C. (Select all that apply.)

a) dermis b) epidermis c) hypodermis d) subcutaneous layer Answer: c, d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.2 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin Question type: Multiple Choice

66) Identify the specific structure indicated by B.

a) arrector pili muscle b) hair follicle c) hair root d) sensory nerve Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Compare the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin

67) Name the specialized receptor indicated by D.

a) cutaneous vascular plexus b) eccrine sweat gland c) lamellar corpuscle d) tactile corpuscle Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.3 Compare the composition of the papillary and reticular regions of the dermis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

68) Identify the specific layer in which cells begin dying.

a) A b) B c) G d) F Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.2 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

69) Identify the type of cell that has an immune function.

a) A b) B c) C d) F Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.2 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

70) Identify the cell type that produces melanin.

a) A b) B c) C d) E Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.2 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

71) Identify the layer sometimes referred to as stratum germinativum because of its role in forming new cells.

a) A b) D c) F d) G Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.2 Describe the layers of the epidermis and the cells that compose them.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

72) Identify the deepest layer of the skin.

a) A b) D c) F d) G Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 5.1 Describe the general structure of skin.

Study Objective 2: SO 5.1.3 Compare the composition of the papillary and reticular regions of the dermis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.1 Structure of the Skin

73) C is pointing to what structure?

a) cortex of the hair b) cuticle of the hair c) external root sheath d) internal root sheath Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Compare the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin

74) A is pointing to what structure?

a) cuticle of the hair b) hair matrix c) internal root sheath d) medulla of the hair Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Compare the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin

75) B is pointing to what structure?

a) cortex of the hair b) cuticle of the hair c) dermal root d) medulla of the hair Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Compare the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin 76) A student is preparing to give a speech in class when he experiences a cold sweat on his forehead. This is a) emotional sweating as a result of the apocrine sweat glands b) emotional sweating as a result of the eccrine sweat glands c) thermoregulatory sweating as a result of the apocrine sweat glands d) thermoregulatory sweating as a result of the eccrine sweat glands Answer: b

Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Compare the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin 77) Which of the following produces a waxy substance in the ears? a) apocrine sweat glands b) ceruminous glands c) eccrine sweat glands d) sebaceous glands Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 5.2 Compare the structure, distribution, and functions of hair, skin glands, and nails.

Section Reference 1: Sec 5.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pha15 Chapter Number: 06 Question type: Multiple Choice 1) Functions of the skeletal system do NOT include a) protection of vital organs such as heart, lungs, and brain. b) blood cell production. c) control of body temperature. d) energy storage in the form of adipose tissue.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 6.1 Describe the six main functions of the skeletal system.

Study Objective 2: SO 6.1.2 Describe the six main functions of the skeletal system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.1 Functions of Bone and the Skeletal System 2) Which of the following are true of yellow bone marrow?

1. It is the main site of blood cell production.

2. It is located in the medullary (marrow) cavities of long bones.

3. It is located in hipbones, sternum, ribs, and vertebrae.

4. It is a site of energy storage in the form of triglycerides.

5. It becomes more abundant relative to red bone marrow with increasing age due to the conversion of red bone marrow to yellow bone marrow. a) 1 and 3 b) 1 and 2 c) 1, 2, and 5 d) 2, 4, and 5 Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 6.1 Describe the six main functions of the skeletal system.

Study Objective 2: SO 6.1.2 Describe the six main functions of the skeletal system.

Study Objective 3: SO 6.3 Describe the parts of a long bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.1 Functions of Bone and the Skeletal System Section Reference 2: Sec 6.3 Anatomy of a Bone

3) Which of the following is not true of periosteum? a) It consists of two layers, the inner osteogenic and outer fibrous layers. b) It assists in fracture repair. c) It covers and protects the articular cartilages. d) It serves as a point of attachment for tendons and ligaments.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 6.3 Describe the parts of a long bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Anatomy of a Bone 4) The hardness of bone is due to crystallized inorganic mineral salts such as calcium phosphate.

The flexibility and tensile strength of bone are due to organic molecules such as collagen fibers. a) Both statements are true. b) The first statement is true; the second is false. c) The first statement is false; the second is true. d) Both statements are false.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 6.5 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 6.5.1 Explain why bone tissue is classified as a connective tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Histology of Bone Tissue 5) Osteocytes are the mature bone cells that develop directly from a) osteogenic cells. b) osteoblasts. c) osteoclasts. d) white blood cells.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 6.5 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 6.5.2 Describe the cellular composition of bone tissue and the functions of each component.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Histology of Bone Tissue 6) Which one of the following is characteristic of spongy bone tissue, but not of compact bone tissue? a) trabeculae b) osteons c) osteonic canal d) lamellae Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 6.5 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 6.5.3 Outline the structural and functional differences between compact and spongy bone tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Histology of Bone Tissue 7) The strength of the diaphysis of a long bone is due to 1. the presence of compact bone.

2. the longitudinal orientation of the osteons.

3. the presence of trabeculae. a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 1 and 2 are both correct Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 6.5 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 6.5.3 Outline the structural and functional differences between compact and spongy bone tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Histology of Bone Tissue 8) The areas between neighboring osteons contain a) interstitial lamellae.

b) circumferential lamellae. c) yellow bone marrow. d) red bone marrow.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 6.5 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 6.5.3 Outline the structural and functional differences between compact and spongy bone tissue.

Study Objective 3: SO 6.5.4 Describe the histological features of bone tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Histology of Bone Tissue 9) Intramembranous ossification is the process that a) produces most bones. b) produces the flat bones of the cranium. c) results in growth in length of long bones. d) is used to form the entire clavicle.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 6.7 Describe the process and purpose of bone remodeling.

Study Objective 2: SO 6.7.1 Distinguish between intramembranous ossification and endochondral ossification.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.7 Bone Formation 10) Put the following in correct order for endochondral ossification.

1. Mesenchymal cells of the embryo develop into cartilage-producing cells.

2. The periosteum (formerly perichondrium) begins to produce a thin layer of compact bone.

3. A hyaline cartilage model of the future bone is formed.

4. Cartilage in the midregion of the model becomes calcified.

5. Spongy bone tissue develops at the primary ossification center.

6. Secondary ossification centers produce spongy bone tissue of the epiphyses.

7. Medullary cavity is formed. a) 1, 3, 4, 2, 5, 7, 6 b) 7, 2, 3, 1, 4, 5, 6 c) 3, 1, 2, 6, 7, 4, 5 d) 1, 3, 2, 4, 6, 5, 7

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 6.7 Describe the process and purpose of bone remodeling.

Study Objective 2: SO 6.7.1 Distinguish between intramembranous ossification and endochondral ossification.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.7 Bone Formation Question type: Multiple Select 11) Appearance of the epiphyseal line means that (Select all that apply.) a) the bone will have no more lengthwise growth. b) the epiphyseal plate has been totally replaced by bone. c) all chondrocytes of the epiphyseal plate are actively reproducing. d) all osteoclasts in the bone are dead.

Answer: a, b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 6.7 Describe the process and purpose of bone remodeling.

Study Objective 2: SO 6.7.2 Explain the importance of the different types of bone formation during different phases of a person’s lifetime.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.7 Bone Formation Question type: Multiple Choice 12) Growth in length as a long bone develops involves a) intramembranous growth. b) interstitial growth. c) appositional growth. d) periosteal growth.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 6.7 Describe the process and purpose of bone remodeling.

Study Objective 2: SO 6.7.2 Explain the importance of the different types of bone formation during different phases of a person’s lifetime.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.7 Bone Formation 13) The nutrient artery of a long bone a) divides into branches that supply the marrow and the inner portion of the diaphysis. b) travels through Volkmann's (perforating) canals. c) supplies the marrow and bony tissue of the epiphysis. d) supplies the marrow and spongy bony tissue of the metaphyses.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 6.6 Describe the blood and nerve supply of bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.6 Blood and Nerve Supply of Bone Question type: Multiple Select 14) Normal bone growth and replacement depend on the presence of (Select all that apply.) a) the vitamins A, B12, C, and D. b) the minerals calcium, phosphorus, magnesium, and manganese. c) calcitonin, parathyroid hormone, human growth hormone, sex hormones, and thyroid hormones. d) osteoclasts, collagen fibers, and hyaline cartilage in the bone.

Answer: a, b, c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 6.11 Explain why minerals, vitamins, and hormones are important in bone growth.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.11 Factors Affecting Bone Growth Question type: Multiple Choice 15) A major change in bone tissue that occurs with aging and that leads to increased brittleness is a) demineralization.

b) decreased protein synthesis. c) increased bone remodeling. d) increased action of osteoblasts.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 6.10 Describe the effects of aging on bone tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.10 Aging and Bone Tissue 16) In the diagram of bone tissue, which label is on the osteonic canal?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 6.5 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 6.5.4 Describe the histological features of bone tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Histology of Bone Tissue Question type: Multiple Select

17) What bone disorder is best described as inadequate calcification of the extracellular matrix, usually caused by a vitamin D deficiency? Select all that apply. a) rickets b) osteomalacia c) achondroplasia d) Paget’s disease Answer: a, b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 6.5 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 6.5.4 Describe the histological features of bone tissue.

Study Objective 3: SO 6.11 Explain why minerals, vitamins, and hormones are important in bone growth.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Histology of Bone Tissue Section Reference 2: Sec 6.11 Factors Affecting Bone Growth Question type: Multiple Choice 18) A characteristic of osteocytes is that they a) maintain the daily metabolism of bone tissue. b) are responsible for the formation of matrix. c) undergo mitosis and develop into osteoblasts. d) are responsible for the destruction (resorption) of matrix and the release of calcium into the bloodstream.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 6.5 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 6.5.2 Describe the cellular composition of bone tissue and the functions of each component.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Histology of Bone Tissue 19) A characteristic of osteoclasts is that they a) maintain the daily metabolism of bone tissue. b) are responsible for the formation of matrix.

c) undergo mitosis and develop into osteoblasts. d) are responsible for the destruction (resorption) of matrix and the release of calcium into the bloodstream.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 6.5 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 6.5.2 Describe the cellular composition of bone tissue and the functions of each component.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Histology of Bone Tissue 20) A good description of a medullary (marrow) cavity is that it a) is located in spaces between trabeculae. b) allows movement of nutrients between osteocytes. c) is a region of bone that contains yellow bone marrow. d) is a region of bone that contains red bone marrow.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 6.3 Describe the parts of a long bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Anatomy of a Bone 21) A good description of a perforating canal is that it a) is located in spaces between trabeculae. b) allows movement of nutrients between osteocytes. c) contains yellow bone marrow. d) allows blood vessels and nerves to penetrate compact bone tissue.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 6.6 Describe the blood and nerve supply of bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.6 Blood and Nerve Supply of Bone 22) An osteon (haversian system) is

a) in a young bone, the site of growth in length. b) a structural unit of compact bone. c) a region of bone that contains yellow bone marrow. d) a region of bone that contains red bone marrow.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 6.5 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 6.5.3 Outline the structural and functional differences between compact and spongy bone tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Histology of Bone Tissue 23) A lamella is a) in a young bone, the site of growth in length. b) a structural unit of compact bone. c) a ring of bone matrix. d) a region of bone that contains red bone marrow.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 6.5 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 6.5.3 Outline the structural and functional differences between compact and spongy bone tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Histology of Bone Tissue 24) The epiphyseal plate is a) in a young bone, the site of growth in length. b) a structural unit of compact bone. c) a thin plate of bone in spongy bone. d) essential for growth in diameter of a long bone.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 6.3 Describe the parts of a long bone.

Study Objective 2: SO 6.7 Describe the process and purpose of bone remodeling.

Study Objective 3: SO 6.7.2 Explain the importance of the different types of bone formation during different phases of a person’s lifetime.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Anatomy of a Bone Section Reference 2: Sec 6.7 Bone Formation 25) Which of the following is an organic part of bone matrix that gives bone its flexibility and tensile strength? a) calcium b) osteoclasts c) osteocytes d) hydroxyapatites e) collagen Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 6.5 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 6.5.1 Explain why bone tissue is classified as a connective tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Histology of Bone Tissue 26) Canaliculi allow nutrients to diffuse to mature bone cells located within lacunae of the osteon. Which of the following are those mature bone cells? a) osteoblasts b) osteoclasts c) osteocytes d) osteogenic cells Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 6.5 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 6.5.2 Describe the cellular composition of bone tissue and the functions of each component.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Histology of Bone Tissue 27) Activity of which of these cells is responsible for the remodeling of the bony callus as the final step in fracture repair?

a) osteoblasts b) osteoclasts c) osteocytes d) osteogenic cells Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 6.8 Describe the process of fracture repair.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.8 Fractures 28) The femur and humerus contain a) red bone marrow in the proximal epiphysis. b) articular cartilage on the diaphysis. c) a growth area in the metaphysis of an adult bone. d) compact bone in the center of the epiphyses.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 6.3 Describe the parts of a long bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Anatomy of a Bone Question type: Multiple Select 29) Spongy bone is located (Select all that apply.) a) in the diaphysis of long bones. b) in the diploe of flat bones. c) in the ribs and sternum. d) short bones like the carpal bones.

Answer: b, c, d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 6.5 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 6.5.3 Outline the structural and functional differences between compact and spongy bone tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Histology of Bone Tissue Question type: Multiple Choice 30) Which of the following is a FALSE statement about bone surface markings? a) Most are not present at birth but develop as forces are exerted on bones and are most prominent during adult life. b) Processes and outgrowths are the result of tension from tendons and ligaments on the periosteum of a bone. c) Surface markings on skeletal remains may provide information related to age and sex. d) There are three major types of surface markings.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 6.4 Describe the principal surface markings on bones and the functions of each.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.4 Bone Surface Markings 31) Which of the following best describes a tuberosity? a) prominent border, ridge, or elongated projection for connective tissue attachment b) variable-sized, usually rough and bumpy surface for connective tissue attachment c) large projection for muscle attachment on the femur d) rounded articular projection on the neck of a bone Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 6.4 Describe the principal surface markings on bones and the functions of each.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.4 Bone Surface Markings 32) Which of the following best describes a trochanter? a) prominent border, ridge, or elongated projection for connective tissue attachment b) large, rounded, usually roughened surface for muscle attachment c) very large projection for muscle attachment on the femur d) rounded articular surface on the neck of a bone

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 6.4 Describe the principal surface markings on bones and the functions of each.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.4 Bone Surface Markings 33) Which of the following best describes a crest? a) prominent border, ridge, or elongated projection for connective tissue attachment b) large, rounded, usually roughened surface for muscle attachment c) smooth, flat, concave articular surface d) rounded articular surface on the neck of a bone Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 6.4 Describe the principal surface markings on bones and the functions of each.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.4 Bone Surface Markings 34) Which of the following best describes a condyle? a) prominent border, ridge, or elongated projection for connective tissue attachment b) sharp, slender projection on vertebrae c) large projection for muscle attachment on the femur d) large, round protuberance with a smooth articular surface at the end of a bone Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 6.4 Describe the principal surface markings on bones and the functions of each.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.4 Bone Surface Markings 35) Which of the following best describes a facet? a) sharp, slender projection on vertebrae b) large, rounded, usually roughened surface for muscle attachment

c) large projection for muscle attachment on the femur d) smooth, flat, slightly concave or convex surface Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 6.4 Describe the principal surface markings on bones and the functions of each.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.4 Bone Surface Markings 36) Which of the following best describes an epicondyle? a) prominence above a condyle b) tube-like passageway c) shallow depression d) rounded articular surface Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 6.4 Describe the principal surface markings on bones and the functions of each.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.4 Bone Surface Markings 37) Which of the following best describes a fossa? a) prominence above a condyle b) tube-like passageway c) shallow depression d) rounded articular surface Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 6.4 Describe the principal surface markings on bones and the functions of each.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.4 Bone Surface Markings 38) Which of the following best describes a meatus?

a) prominence above a condyle b) tube-like passageway c) shallow depression d) rounded articular surface Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 6.4 Describe the principal surface markings on bones and the functions of each.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.4 Bone Surface Markings 39) A thin membrane that lines the medullary cavity of the bone is the a) articular cartilage. b) endosteum. c) epiphyseal plate. d) periosteum.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 6.3 Describe the parts of a long bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Anatomy of a Bone 40) Bone matrix contains crystallized mineral salts called a) collagen. b) hydroxyapatite. c) perforating fibers. d) periosteum.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 6.5 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue Study Objective 2: SO 6.5.1 Explain why bone tissue is classified as a connective tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Histology of Bone Tissue

41) In matrix formation of bone, calcification a) precedes the secretion of collagen by osteoblasts. b) occurs when enough mineral salts are present to form crystals. c) occurs only in the presence of collagen fibers. d) is the same process that occurs with calcification within cartilage.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 6.5 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue Study Objective 2: SO 6.5.1 Explain why bone tissue is classified as a connective tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Histology of Bone Tissue 42) Microscopic canals that run longitudinally through bone tissue and that contain blood vessels and nerves are called a) canaliculi. b) lacunae. c) osteonic canals. d) trabeculae.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 6.5 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue Study Objective 2: SO 6.5.3 Outline the structural and functional differences between compact and spongy bone tissue.

Study Objective 3: SO 6.6 Describe the blood and nerve supply of bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Histology of Bone Tissue Section Reference 2: Sec 6.6 Blood and Nerve Supply of Bone 43) Small arteries, accompanied by nerves, in the diaphysis of a long bone are a) epiphyseal arteries. b) metaphyseal arteries. c) nutrient arteries. d) periosteal arteries.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy

Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 6.6 Describe the blood and nerve supply of bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.6 Blood and Nerve Supply of Bone 44) Put the following in correct order for intramembranous ossification.

1. The mesenchyme condenses and develops into the periosteum.

2. The extracellular matrix hardens.

3. Bone trabeculae fuse with one another to form spongy bone.

4. The ossification center forms and osteoblasts secrete the extracellular matrix. a) 1, 2, 3, 4 b) 1, 4, 2, 3 c) 4, 2, 3, 1 d) 4, 1, 3, 2 Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 6.7 Describe the process and purpose of bone remodeling.

Study Objective 2: SO 6.7.1 Distinguish between intramembranous ossification and endochondral ossification.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.7 Bone Formation 45) Which of the following is correct regarding endochondral ossification? a) Primary ossification proceeds from the external surfaces inward; secondary ossification proceeds from the interior outward toward the external surface of a bone. b) Primary ossification proceeds from the interior outward toward the external surface of a bone; secondary ossification proceeds from the external surfaces inward. c) Appositional growth means growth of the inner surface. d) Interstitial growth causes bone to become thicker.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 6.7 Describe the process and purpose of bone remodeling.

Study Objective 2: SO 6.7.1 Distinguish between intramembranous ossification and endochondral ossification.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.7 Bone Formation

46) Most bones develop in a process whereby hyaline cartilage models are replaced by bone tissue, called a) endochondral ossification. b) intramembranous ossification. c) primary ossification. d) secondary ossification.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 6.7 Describe the process and purpose of bone remodeling.

Study Objective 2: SO 6.7.1 Distinguish between intramembranous ossification and endochondral ossification.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.7 Bone Formation 47) As a long bone grows in length, a) new cartilage cells are produced on the epiphyseal side of the epiphyseal plate and bone replaces cartilage on the diaphyseal side of the plate. b) bone replaces cartilage on the epiphyseal side of the epiphyseal plate and new cartilage cells are produced on the diaphyseal side of the plate. c) new osteocytes are produced on the epiphyseal side of the epiphyseal plate and bone replaces cartilage on the diaphyseal side of the plate. d) bone replaces cartilage on the epiphyseal side of the epiphyseal plate and new osteocytes are produced on the diaphyseal side of the plate.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 6.7 Describe the process and purpose of bone remodeling.

Study Objective 2: SO 6.7.2 Explain the importance of the different types of bone formation during different phases of a person’s lifetime.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.7 Bone Formation 48) Bone remodeling a) only occurs in young children. b) may be triggered by exercise and change in diet. c) occurs at the same rate in all regions of the body. d) may be triggered by a change in weight.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 6.7 Describe the process and purpose of bone remodeling.

Study Objective 2: SO 6.7.3 Describe the process of bone remodeling.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.7 Bone Formation Question type: True/False 49) The bone tissue of the distal region of the femur is replaced about every 4 months, whereas some regions of the shaft of the femur may never be replaced.

Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 6.7 Describe the process and purpose of bone remodeling.

Study Objective 2: SO 6.7.3 Describe the process of bone remodeling.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.7 Bone Formation Question type: Multiple Choice 50) Which type of fracture involves the distal end of the lateral forearm bone (radius)? a) colles b) greenstick c) impacted d) pott Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 6.8 Describe the process of fracture repair.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.8 Fractures 51) The embryonic skeleton is first made of a) hyaline cartilage in the shape of bones. b) mesenchyme in the shape of bones.

c) bones that have not been ossified yet. d) mostly ossified bones.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 6.7 Describe the process and purpose of bone remodeling.

Study Objective 2: SO 6.7.1 Distinguish between intramembranous ossification and endochondral ossification.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.7 Bone Formation 52) A decrease in bone mass below normal, as occurs in osteoporosis, is called a) osteopenia. b) osteoarthritis. c) osteomalacia. d) osteocytosis.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 6.7 Describe the process and purpose of bone remodeling.

Study Objective 2: SO 6.7.3 Describe the process of bone remodeling.

Study Objective 3: SO 6.10 Describe the effects of aging on bone tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.7 Bone Formation Section Reference 2: Sec 6.10 Aging and Bone Tissue Question type: Multiple Select 53) Which of the following are risk factors for osteoporosis? Select all that apply. a) African ancestry b) cigarette smoking c) large body build d) more than 2 alcoholic drinks per day Answer: b, d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 6.7 Describe the process and purpose of bone remodeling.

Study Objective 2: SO 6.7.3 Describe the process of bone remodeling.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.7 Bone Formation Question type: Multiple Choice 54) The vertebrae are classed according to shape as a) flat bones. b) irregular bones. c) sesamoid bones. d) short bones.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 6.2 Classify bones on the basis of shape and location.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.2 Types of Bones Question type: Multiple Select 55) Two types of bones that are the most variable in number in the human body are (Select all that apply.) a) long bones. b) pneumatized bones. c) sesamoid bones. d) sutural bones.

Answer: c, d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 6.2 Classify bones on the basis of shape and location.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.2 Types of Bones Question type: Multiple Choice

56) In this diagram of a long bone, which label represents the place where cartilage will be replaced by bone at ages 14-24?

a) E b) F c) I d) J Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 6.3 Describe the parts of a long bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Anatomy of a Bone 57) Which of the following descriptions of the zones of cartilage of the epiphyseal plate is correct? a) calcified: columns of larger chondrocytes b) hypertrophic: chondrocytes divide and replace dead cells c) proliferating: attaches plate to bone of diaphysis d) resting: anchors the plate to the epiphysis Answer: d

Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 6.7 Describe the process and purpose of bone remodeling.

Study Objective 2: SO 6.7.2 Explain the importance of the different types of bone formation during different phases of a person’s lifetime.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.7 Bone Formation 58) Kidney failure might lead to a lack of which of the following due to inadequate production? a) vitamin A b) vitamin C c) vitamin D d) vitamin K Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Evaluation Study Objective 1: SO 6.11 Explain why minerals, vitamins, and hormones are important in bone growth.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.11 Factors Affecting Bone Growth 59) A doctor orders a bone scan on his patient. The bone scan shows “hot spots”. Which of the following is a possible diagnosis for the patient? a) bone cancer b) degenerative bone disease c) Paget’s disease d) rheumatoid arthritis Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Evaluation Study Objective 1: SO 6.5 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 6.5.4 Describe the histological features of bone tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Histology of Bone Tissue Question type: Multiple Select 60) 11-year-old Cole was sledding and fractured his leg. The orthopedic surgeon said that she would have to monitor bone growth in the leg. Why? Select all that apply.

a) He could have sustained damage to the epiphyseal plate, resulting in the fractured bone being shorter than normal. b) Damage to cartilage in the epiphyseal plate may accelerate closure of the plate, since cartilage is avascular. This would result in the fractured bone being shorter than normal. c) Damage to cartilage in the epiphyseal plate may delay closure of the plate, since cartilage is highly vascular. This would result in the fractured bone being longer than normal. d) He could have sustained damage to the epiphyseal plate, resulting in the fractured bone being longer than normal.

Answer: a, b Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Evaluation Study Objective 1: SO 6.7 Describe the process and purpose of bone remodeling.

Study Objective 2: SO 6.7.2 Explain the importance of the different types of bone formation during different phases of a person’s lifetime.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.7 Bone Formation Question type: Multiple Choice 61) Why might bedridden patients lose bone mass? a) Bedridden patients are more likely to have fractures which result in lost bone mass. b) Bedridden patients don’t get an adequate diet, leading to the loss of bone. c) Bedridden patients aren’t getting normal stresses placed on the bone, leading to the loss of bone minerals and decreased numbers of collagen fibers. d) Bedridden patients have increased stresses placed on the bone, leading to the loss of bone minerals and increased numbers of collagen fibers.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 6.9 Describe how exercise and mechanical strain affect bone tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.9 Exercise and Bone Tissue 62) The region of a long bone where the epiphysis and diaphysis join is called the a) endosteum. b) epiphyseal line. c) metaphysis. d) periosteum.

Answer: c

Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 6.3 Describe the parts of a long bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Anatomy of a Bone 63) The spaces in bone tissue that contain osteocyte cell bodiess are called a) canaliculi. b) lacunae. c) lamellae. d) trabeculae.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 6.5 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 6.5.3 Outline the structural and functional differences between compact and spongy bone tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Histology of Bone Tissue 64) The artery entering near the center of the diaphysis is the a) diaphyseal artery. b) epiphyseal artery. c) metaphyseal artery. d) nutrient artery.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 6.6 Describe the blood and nerve supply of bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.6 Blood and Nerve Supply of Bone 65) The process by which bone tissue replaces hyaline cartilage is a) endochondral ossification. b) intramembranous ossification. c) primary ossification. d) secondary ossification.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 6.7 Describe the process and purpose of bone remodeling.

Study Objective 2: SO 6.7.1 Distinguish between intramembranous ossification and endochondral ossification.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.7 Bone Formation 66) The process that produces flat bones of the skull and the majority of the lower jawbone is a) endochondral ossification. b) intramembranous ossification. c) primary ossification. d) secondary ossification.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 6.7 Describe the process and purpose of bone remodeling.

Study Objective 2: SO 6.7.1 Distinguish between intramembranous ossification and endochondral ossification.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.7 Bone Formation 67) The epiphyseal plate separates the epiphysis and diaphysis of a growing bone. The four zones of cartilage found here, in order from epiphyseal edge to diaphyseal edge are a) zone of resting cartilage, zone of proliferating cartilage, zone of hypertrophic cartilage, zone of calcified cartilage. b) zone of proliferating cartilage, zone of calcified cartilage, zone of hypertrophic cartilage, zone of resting cartilage. c) zone of calcified cartilage, zone of hypertrophic cartilage, zone of proliferating cartilage, zone of resting cartilage. d) zone of hypertrophic cartilage, zone of resting cartilage, zone of proliferating cartilage, zone of calcified cartilage.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 6.7 Describe the process and purpose of bone remodeling.

Study Objective 2: SO 6.7.2 Explain the importance of the different types of bone formation during different phases of a person’s lifetime.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.7 Bone Formation 68) The lifelong replacement and redistribution of bone matrix is referred to as a) bone activation. b) bone deposition. c) bone remodeling. d) bone resorption.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 6.7 Describe the process and purpose of bone remodeling.

Study Objective 2: SO 6.7.3 Describe the process of bone remodeling.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.7 Bone Formation 69) Without mechanical strain from exercise, a) bone does not remodel normally because bone resorption occurs more quickly than bone formation. b) bone does not remodel normally because bone resorption occurs more slowly than bone formation. c) bone does not remodel normally because bone resorption occurs at the same rate as bone formation. d) bone remodels normally, because exercise does not influence bone remodeling.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 6.9 Describe how exercise and mechanical strain affect bone tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.9 Exercise and Bone Tissue 70) A bone fracture in which the broken ends of the bone can be seen protruding from the skin is called a(n) a) compound fracture. b) simple fracture. c) comminuted fracture. d) impacted fracture.

Answer: a

Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 6.8 Describe the process of fracture repair.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.8 Fractures 71) In aging females, decreasing levels of estrogen accelerate the loss of which of the following from the bone tissue? a) calcium b) collagen fibers c) protein d) vitamin D Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 6.10 Describe the effects of aging on bone tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.10 Aging and Bone Tissue 72) On the basis of shape, the femur is an example of a(n) a) long bone. b) flat bone. c) irregular bone. d) sesamoid bone.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 6.2 Classify bones on the basis of shape and location.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.2 Types of Bones Question type: Multiple Select 73) Medications used to treat osteoporosis may be (Select all that apply.) a) antireabsorptive to inhibit osteoblasts. b) antireabsorptive to inhibit osteoclasts. c) bone-building to stimulate osteoblasts to build new bone.

d) bone-building to stimulate osteoclasts to build new bone.

Answer: b, c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 6.7 Describe the process and purpose of bone remodeling.

Study Objective 2: SO 6.7.2 Explain the importance of the different types of bone formation during different phases of a person’s lifetime.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.7 Bone Formation Question type: Multiple Choice 74) For bones to unite properly, the fractured ends must be brought into alignment. When the fractured ends of a bone are brought into alignment by manual manipulation, and the skin remains intact, this is called a) closed reduction. b) open reduction. c) bone remodeling. d) bone resorption.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 6.8 Describe the process of fracture repair.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.8 Fractures 75) According to shape classification, the phalanges of the fingers and toes are a) irregular bones. b) long bones. c) flat bones. d) sutural bones.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 6.2 Classify bones on the basis of shape and location.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.2 Types of Bones

76) The skeletal system consists of a) bones. b) bones and their cartilages. c) bones, cartilages, and muscles. d) bones, cartilages, tendons, and muscles.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 6.1 Describe the six main functions of the skeletal system.

Study Objective 2: SO 6.1.1 Define the skeletal system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.1 Functions of Bone and the Skeletal System 77) Abay is 65 years old. He loves to run and goes for a 2-mile run every morning. He also does weight-lifting exercises two times per week. Polly is also 65 years old. She doesn’t like to run or do weight-lifting exercises, but she loves to go on long walks with her grandchild every morning.

Which of these would be stimulating more bone remodeling? a) Abay’s activities result in more bone remodeling. b) Polly’s activities result in more bone remodeling. c) Both Abay and Polly would have equal amounts of bone remodeling because they are the same age. d) Both Abay and Polly would have equal amounts of bone remodeling because they are both exercising roughly the same amount.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 6.9 Describe how exercise and mechanical strain affect bone tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.9 Exercise and Bone Tissue

78) Which of the following labels represents the diaphysis?

a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 6.3 Describe the parts of a long bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Anatomy of a Bone

79) Which of the following labels represents the proximal epiphysis?

a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 6.3 Describe the parts of a long bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Anatomy of a Bone

80) Which of the following labels represents the endosteum?

a) E b) F c) G d) I Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 6.3 Describe the parts of a long bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.3 Anatomy of a Bone

81) In the diagram below, which label represents a space which would house an osteocyte?

a) B b) C c) D d) E Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 6.5 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 6.5.2 Describe the cellular composition of bone tissue and the functions of each component.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Histology of Bone Tissue

82) In the diagram below, which label represents something that is only present in spongy bone tissue?

a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 6.5 Compare the properties of compact and spongy bone tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 6.5.3 Outline the structural and functional differences between compact and spongy bone tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 6.5 Histology of Bone Tissue

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pha15 Chapter Number: 07 Question type: Multiple Choice 1) The girdles attach the limbs (appendages) to the axial skeleton. The girdles are considered to be part of the axial skeleton. a) Both statements are true. b) Both statements are false. c) The first statement is true; the second is false. d) The second statement is true; the first is false.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 7.1 Describe the organization of the musculoskeletal system.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.1.2 Describe how the skeleton is organized into axial and appendicular divisions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.1 Divisions of the Skeletal System 2) The frontal bone a) contributes to the sagittal suture b) forms part of the floor of the orbit c) articulates with the mandible d) forms the forehead Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age-related changes and sexual differences of the skull.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.4 Identify the location and surface features of the frontal bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull or Cranium Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.A Cranial Cavity Bones—Frontal Bone 3) Which skull bone has a mandibular fossa, mastoid process, styloid process, and zygomatic process?

a) temporal b) parietal c) zygomatic d) occipital Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age-related changes and sexual differences of the skull.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.6 Identify the location and surface features of the temporal bones.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull or Cranium Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.C Cranial Cavity Bones—Temporal Bones 4) Which of the following are NOT part of the ethmoid bone? a) olfactory foramina b) crista galli c) cribriform plate d) inferior nasal conchae Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age-related changes and sexual differences of the skull.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.9 Identify the location and surface features of the ethmoid bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull or Cranium Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.F Cranial Cavity Bones—Ethmoid Bone 5) The mandible has condylar processes and coronoid processes. a) Both are articular in function. b) Both are for muscle attachment. c) The condylar process is articular; the coronoid process is for muscle attachment. d) The condylar process is for muscle attachment; the coronoid process is articular.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis

Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age-related changes and sexual differences of the skull.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.12 Identify the location and surface features of the mandible.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull or Cranium Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.I Facial Bones—Mandible 6) Which of the following is FALSE for paranasal sinuses? They are a) lined with mucous membranes b) chambers for voice resonance c) located in zygomatic bones d) paired cavities Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age-related changes and sexual differences of the skull.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.2 Describe the following unique features of the skull: sutures, paranasal sinuses, and fontanels.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull or Cranium 7) Membrane-filled spaces between cranial bones of an infant skull are called a) sutures b) sinuses c) fontanels d) foramina Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age-related changes and sexual differences of the skull.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.2 Describe the following unique features of the skull: sutures, paranasal sinuses, and fontanels.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull or Cranium 8) The bone that consists of five fused bones, is triangular, and serves as one of the boundaries of the pelvic cavity is the

a) coccyx b) manubrium c) coxal bone d) sacrum Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the structural and functional features of each regional vertebra and the normal curves of the vertebral column.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.6 Identify the location and surface features of the sacral and coccygeal vertebrae.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Vertebral Column Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.M Vertebral Regions—Sacral and Coccygeal Vertebrae 9) Intercostal spaces a) are filled by costal cartilages b) contain muscles, blood vessels, and nerves c) are grooves on the inner surfaces of ribs d) contain bone marrow Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 7.5 Identify the bones of the thorax, including sternum and ribs, and their functions Study Objective 2: SO 7.5.3 Identify the location and surface features of the ribs.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.5 Thorax Section Reference 3: Exhibit 7.O Thoracic Skeleton—Ribs 10) What pair of skull bones contributes to a freely movable joint of the head? a) temporal and mandible b) zygomatic and maxilla c) frontal and sphenoid d) sphenoid and ethmoid Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge

Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age-related changes and sexual differences of the skull.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.1 Name the cranial cavity bones and facial bones and indicate the number of each.

Learning Objective 3: SO 7.2.12 Identify the location and surface features of the mandible.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull or Cranium Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.I Facial Bones—Mandible 11) Sutures would be found connecting which bones? a) mandible and hyoid b) temporal and mandible c) parietal and temporal d) frontal and occipital Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age-related changes and sexual differences of the skull.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.2 Describe the following unique features of the skull: sutures, paranasal sinuses, and fontanels.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull or Cranium 12) The fifth cranial nerve (trigeminal nerve) provides sensory information from the face. The three branches of the trigeminal nerve pass from the periphery of the face to the brain through three separate foramina. Which cranial bone contains the foramina for passage of branches of the trigeminal (V) nerve? a) ethmoid b) temporal c) sphenoid d) occipital Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age-related changes and sexual differences of the skull.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.8 Identify the location and surface features of the sphenoid bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull or Cranium Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.E Cranial Cavity Bones—Sphenoid Bone

13) Which portion of a vertebra DOES NOT surround the spinal cord to keep it protected from injury? a) body b) pedicle c) lamina d) transverse process Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the structural and functional features of each regional vertebra and the normal curves of the vertebral column.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.2 Describe the structural and functional features of the bones in the various regions of the vertebral column.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Vertebral Column 14) A physician needs to locate the subclavian artery. Which rib would serve as an important landmark to aid the physician? a) the first rib b) the second rib c) the third rib d) the fourth rib Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 7.5 Identify the bones of the thorax, including sternum and ribs, and their functions.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.5.3 Identify the location and surface features of the ribs.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.5 Thorax Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.O Thoracic Skeleton—Ribs 15) Which best describes the vomer bone? a) forms part of the bridge of the nose b) superior portion of nasal septum c) inferior portion of nasal septum d) palatine process forms most of the hard palate

e) contains the carotid and jugular foramina Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age-related changes and sexual differences of the skull.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.10 Identify the location of the nasal, lacrimal, palatine, inferior nasal conchae, and vomer.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull or Cranium Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.G Facial Bones—Nasal, Lacrimal, Palatine, Inferior Nasal Conchae, and Vomer 16) Which best describes the maxilla bone? a) lower jaw bone b) superior portion of nasal septum c) inferior and posterior portion of nasal septum d) palatine process forms most of the hard palate e) contains the carotid and jugular foramina Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age-related changes and sexual differences of the skull.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.11 Identify the location and surface features of the maxillae and zygomatic bones.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull or Cranium Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.H Facial Bones—Maxillae and Zygomatic Bones 17) Which best describes the lacrimal bone? a) forms part of the bridge of the nose b) superior portion of nasal septum c) inferior and posterior portion of nasal septum d) includes temporal process of zygomatic arch e) houses a structure that gathers tears Answer: e Difficulty: Medium

Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age-related changes and sexual differences of the skull.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.10 Identify the location of the nasal, lacrimal, palatine, inferior nasal conchae, and vomer.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull or Cranium Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.G Facial Bones—Nasal, Lacrimal, Palatine, Inferior Nasal Conchae, and Vomer 18) Which best describes the palatine bone? a) horizontal plate forms the posterior portion of the hard palate b) superior portion of nasal septum c) inferior and posterior portion of nasal septum d) includes temporal process of zygomatic arch e) houses a structure that gathers tears Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age-related changes and sexual differences of the skull.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.10 Identify the location of the nasal, lacrimal, palatine, inferior nasal conchae, and vomer.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull or Cranium Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.G Facial Bones—Nasal, Lacrimal, Palatine, Inferior Nasal Conchae, and Vomer 19) Which best describes the occipital bone? a) part of the bridge of the nose b) bears condyles that form the atlanto-occipital joints c) inferior and posterior portion of nasal septum d) includes temporal process of zygomatic arch e) sella turcica protects the pituitary gland Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s; Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age-related changes and sexual differences of the skull.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.7 Identify the location and surface features of the occipital bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull or Cranium Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.D Cranial Cavity Bones—Occipital Bone 20) Which best describes the sphenoid bone? a) forms part of the bridge of the nose b) bears condyles that form the atlanto-occipital joints c) inferior and posterior portion of nasal septum d) includes temporal process of zygomatic arch e) sella turcica protects the pituitary gland Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age-related changes and sexual differences of the skull.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.8 Identify the location and surface features of the sphenoid bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull or Cranium Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.E Cranial Cavity Bones—Sphenoid Bone 21) Which best describes the atlas? a) has small bodies b) has four foramina c) body has articular surfaces called costal facets d) has no body and no spinous process e) has a peg-like process called a dens Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the structural and functional features of each regional vertebra and the normal curves of the vertebral column.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.3 Identify the location and surface features of the cervical vertebrae.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Vertebral Column Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.J Vertebral Regions—Cervical Vertebrae 22) Which best describes a typical cervical vertebra? a) has a larger body than a thoracic vertebra b) contains transverse foramina

c) body has articular surfaces called costal facets d) has no body, no spinous process e) has a peg-like process called a dens Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the structural and functional features of each regional vertebra and the normal curves of the vertebral column.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.3 Identify the location and surface features of the cervical vertebrae.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Vertebral Column Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.J Vertebral Regions—Cervical Vertebrae 23) The body of a typical thoracic vertebrae a) articulates with costal cartilages. b) contains transverse foramina. c) body has articular surfaces called costal facets. d) has no body and no spinous process. e) has a peg-like process called a dens.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the structural and functional features of each regional vertebra and the normal curves of the vertebral column.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.4 Identify the location and surface features of the thoracic vertebrae.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Vertebral Column Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.K Vertebral Regions—Thoracic Vertebrae 24) Which best describes a lumbar vertebra? a) has a small body b) has four foramina c) body has articular surfaces called costal facets d) processes are thick and short e) articulates with the hip bone Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application

Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the structural and functional features of each regional vertebra and the normal curves of the vertebral column.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.5 Identify the location and surface features of the lumbar vertebrae.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Vertebral Column Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.L Vertebral Regions—Lumbar Vertebrae 25) Which best describes the term scoliosis? a) lateral bending of the vertebral column b) exaggeration of the cervical curve c) exaggeration of the thoracic curve d) exaggeration of the lumbar curve e) congenital defect in which the laminae fail to unite at the midline Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the structural and functional features of each regional vertebra and the normal curves of the vertebral column.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.1 Identify the regions and normal curves of the vertebral column.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Vertebral Column 26) Which best describes the term lordosis? a) lateral bending of the vertebral column b) exaggeration of the cervical curve c) exaggeration of the thoracic curve d) exaggeration of the lumbar curve e) congenital defect in which the laminae fail to unite at the midline Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the structural and functional features of each regional vertebra and the normal curves of the vertebral column.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.1 Identify the regions and normal curves of the vertebral column.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Vertebral Column 27) Which best describes the term spina bifida? a) lateral bending of the vertebral column

b) exaggeration of the cervical curve c) exaggeration of the thoracic curve d) exaggeration of the lumbar curve e) congenital defect in which the laminae fail to unite at the midline Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the structural and functional features of each regional vertebra and the normal curves of the vertebral column.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.2 Describe the structural and functional features of the bones in the various regions of the vertebral column.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Vertebral Column 28) The illustrated bone is the

a) atlas b) hyoid bone c) axis d) vomer Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 7.3 Describe the relationship of the hyoid bone to the skull and explain its function.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.3 Hyoid Bone

29) What type of vertebra is shown in here?

a) cervical b) thoracic c) lumbar d) sacral Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the structural and functional features of each regional vertebra and the normal curves of the vertebral column.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.4 Identify the location and surface features of the thoracic vertebrae.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Vertebral Column Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.K Vertebral Regions—Thoracic Vertebrae 30) Sites of muscle attachment on the occipital bone are called a) hypoglossal canals b) nuchal lines c) occipital condyles d) occipital protuberances Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge

Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age-related changes and sexual differences of the skull.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.7 Identify the location and surface features of the occipital bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull or Cranium Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.D Cranial Cavity Bones—Occipital Bone Question type: Multiple Select 31) The mandible articulates: (Select all that apply.) a) with the mandibular fossa of the occipital bone. b) with the mandibular fossa of the temporal bone. c) with the articular tubercle of the occipital bone. d) with the articular tubercle of the temporal bone.

Answer: b, d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age-related changes and sexual differences of the skull.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.12 Identify the location and surface features of the mandible.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull or Cranium Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.I Facial Bones—Mandible Question type: True/False 32) The maxillae articulate with every facial bone except the mandible.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age-related changes and sexual differences of the skull.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.11 Identify the location and surface features of the maxillae and zygomatic bones.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull or Cranium Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.H Facial Bones—Maxillae and Zygomatic Bones

33) The lateral walls of the nasal cavity are formed by the ethmoid, maxillae, and inferior nasal conchae.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age-related changes and sexual differences of the skull.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.9 Identify the location and surface features of the ethmoid bone.

Study Objective 3: SO 7.2.10 Identify the location of the nasal, lacrimal, palatine, inferior nasal conchae, and vomer.

Study Objective 4: SO 7.2.11 Identify the location and surface features of the maxillae and zygomatic bones.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull or Cranium Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.F Cranial Cavity Bones—Ethmoid Bone Section Reference 3: Exhibit 7.H Facial Bones—Maxillae and Zygomatic Bones Section Reference 4: Exhibit 7.G Facial Bones—Nasal, Lacrimal, Palatine, Inferior Nasal Conchae, and Vomer Question type: Multiple Choice 34) The nasal septum consists of septal cartilage plus portions of the a) ethmoid and vomer b) ethmoid and maxillae c) maxillae and vomer d) lacrimal and vomer Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age-related changes and sexual differences of the skull.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.9 Identify the location and surface features of the ethmoid bone.

Study Objective 3: SO 7.2.10 Identify the location of the nasal, lacrimal, palatine, inferior nasal conchae, and vomer.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull or Cranium Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.F Cranial Cavity Bones—Ethmoid Bone Section Reference 3: Exhibit 7.G Facial Bones—Nasal, Lacrimal, Palatine, Inferior Nasal Conchae, and Vomer

35) The posterior fontanel is at the junction of the future a) coronal and lambdoid sutures b) coronal and squamous sutures c) lambdoid and sagittal sutures d) squamous and sagittal sutures Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age-related changes and sexual differences of the skull.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.2 Describe the following unique features of the skull: sutures, paranasal sinuses, and fontanels.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull or Cranium 36) Which of the following articulates with a hip bone to form a sacroiliac joint? a) sacral promontory b) sacral auricular surface c) sacral crest d) sacral foramina Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the structural and functional features of each regional vertebra and the normal curves of the vertebral column.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.6 Identify the location and surface features of the sacral and coccygeal vertebrae.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Vertebral Column Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.M Vertebral Regions—Sacral and Coccygeal Vertebrae Question type: Multiple Select 37) Which of the following is correct when viewed from the front of the body? (Select all that apply.) a) the cervical curve is convex b) the lumbar curve is concave c) the thoracic curve is convex

d) the sacral curve is concave Answer: a, d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the structural and functional features of each regional vertebra and the normal curves of the vertebral column.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.1 Identify the regions and normal curves of the vertebral column.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Vertebral Column Question type: Multiple Choice 38) Which of the cervical vertebrae is called the vertebra prominens? a) first b) second c) fifth d) seventh Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the structural and functional features of each regional vertebra and the normal curves of the vertebral column.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.3 Identify the location and surface features of the cervical vertebrae.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Vertebral Column Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.J Vertebral Regions—Cervical Vertebrae 39) Joseph asks his son if he would like more milk. The little boy nods his head to indicate that he would like some more. Which of the following is responsible for the movement? a) atlanto-axial joint b) atlanto-occipital joint c) sacroiliac joint d) vertebrocostal joint Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application

Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the structural and functional features of each regional vertebra and the normal curves of the vertebral column.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.3 Identify the location and surface features of the cervical vertebrae.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 7.J Vertebral Regions—Cervical Vertebrae Question type: Multiple Select 40) The main parts of the sternum are the: (Select all that apply.) a) body b) manubrium c) sternal angle d) xiphoid process Answer: a, b, d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 7.5 Identify the bones of the thorax, including sternum and ribs, and their functions.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.5.2 Identify the location and surface features of the sternum Section Reference 1: Sec 7.5 Thorax Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.N Thoracic Skeleton—Sternum Question type: Multiple Choice 41) The main part of a rib is called the a) body or shaft b) head c) neck d) tubercle Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 7.5 Identify the bones of the thorax, including sternum and ribs, and their functions.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.5.3 Identify the location and surface features of the ribs.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.5 Thorax Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.O Thoracic Skeleton—Ribs

42) Which of the following is correct? a) The ethmoid bone has cribriform foramina, which are passageways for the olfactory nerve (I) b) The maxilla has a foramen ovale for passageway of a branch of the trigeminal nerve (V) c) The sphenoid bone has intraorbital foramen for passage of optic nerves (II) d) The temporal bone has hypoglossal foramen for passage of the accessory nerve (XI) Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age-related changes and sexual differences of the skull.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.9 Identify the location and surface features of the ethmoid bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull or Cranium 43) The adult vertebral column consists of a) 7 cervical vertebrae, 12 thoracic vertebrae, 5 lumbar vertebrae, 1 sacrum, and 1 coccyx b) 7 cervical vertebrae, 5 thoracic vertebrae, 12 lumbar vertebrae, 1 sacrum and 1 coccyx c) 12 cervical vertebrae, 7 thoracic vertebrae, 5 lumbar vertebrae, 1 sacrum, and 1 coccyx d) 12 cervical vertebrae, 5 thoracic vertebrae, 7 lumbar vertebrae, 1 sacrum, and 1 coccyx Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the structural and functional features of each regional vertebra and the normal curves of the vertebral column.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.2 Describe the structural and functional features of the bones in the various regions of the vertebral column.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Vertebral Column 44) Which is FALSE regarding processes found on vertebrae? a) two inferior articular processes articulate with adjacent vertebrae b) two superior articular processes articulate with adjacent vertebrae c) two spinous processes are for muscle attachment d) two transverse processes are for muscle attachment Answer: c

Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the structural and functional features of each regional vertebra and the normal curves of the vertebral column.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.2 Describe the structural and functional features of the bones in the various regions of the vertebral column.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Vertebral Column 45) Vertebrosternal ribs a) are called false ribs and include ribs #1-7 b) are called false ribs and include ribs #8-10 c) are called true ribs and include ribs #1-7 d) are called true ribs and include ribs #8-10 Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 7.5 Identify the bones of the thorax, including sternum and ribs, and their functions.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.5.3 Identify the location and surface features of the ribs.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.5 Thorax Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.O Thoracic Skeleton—Ribs Question type: Multiple Select 46) The two major divisions of the skeletal system are: (Select all that apply.) a) axial b) appendicular c) thoracic d) vertebral Answer: a, b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 7.1 Describe the organization of the musculoskeletal system.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.1.2 Describe how the skeleton is organized into axial and appendicular divisions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.1 Divisions of the Skeletal System

Question type: Multiple Choice 47) Which cranial bones contain no principal foramina? a) ethmoid bone b) occipital bone c) parietal bones d) sphenoid bone Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age-related changes and sexual differences of the skull.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.5 Identify the location and surface features of the parietal bones.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull or Cranium Section Reference 2: Sec 7.B Cranial Cavity Bones-Parietal Bones 48) Which portion of the sphenoid bone does the pituitary gland occupy? a) body b) sella turcica c) sphenoidal sinus d) tuberculum sellae Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age-related changes and sexual differences of the skull.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.8 Identify the location and surface features of the sphenoid bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull or Cranium Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.E Cranial Cavity Bones—Sphenoid Bone 49) If a squamous suture were separated (opened up), a parietal bone would be pulled away from a(n) a) lacrimal bone b) occipital bone

c) sphenoid bone d) temporal bone Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age-related changes and sexual differences of the skull.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.2 Describe the following unique features of the skull: sutures, paranasal sinuses, and fontanels.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull or Cranium 50) The illustrated bone is the

a) frontal bone b) ethmoid bone c) sphenoid bone d) temporal bone Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age-related changes and sexual differences of the skull.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.8 Identify the location and surface features of the sphenoid bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull or Cranium Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.E Cranial Cavity Bones—Sphenoid Bone

51) The illustrated bone is the

a) ethmoid bone b) lacrimal bone c) palatine bone d) sphenoid bone Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age-related changes and sexual differences of the skull.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.9 Identify the location and surface features of the ethmoid bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull or Cranium Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.F Cranial Cavity Bones—Ethmoid Bone

52) The illustrated bone is the

a) frontal bone b) mandible c) maxilla d) zygomatic bone Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age-related changes and sexual differences of the skull.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.12 Identify the location and surface features of the mandible.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull or Cranium Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.I Facial Bones—Mandible 53) Which of the following is a rounded projection posterior to the external auditory meatus that is a site of attachment for several neck muscles? a) The articular tubercle of the temporal bone. b) The mandibular fossa of the temporal bone. c) The mastoid process of the temporal bone. d) The zygomatic process of the temporal bone.

Answer: c

Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age-related changes and sexual differences of the skull.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.6 Identify the location and surface features of the temporal bones.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull or Cranium Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.C Cranial Cavity Bones—Temporal Bones 54) The hard palate is a bony partition formed by which bones? a) ethmoid, maxillae b) inferior nasal conchae, sphenoid c) maxillae, palatine d) palatine, lacrimal Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age-related changes and sexual differences of the skull.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.10 Identify the location of the nasal, lacrimal, palatine, and inferior nasal concha bones, and vomer.

Study Objective 3: SO 7.2.11 Identify the location and surface features of the maxillae and zygomatic bones.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull or Cranium Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.G Facial Bones-Nasal, Lacrimal, Palatine, Inferior Nasal Concha, and Vomer Exhibit 7.H Facial Bones—Maxillae and Zygomatic Bones 55) Of the eight bones that form the cranial cavity, which bones are paired bones? a) ethmoid, sphenoid b) frontal, occipital c) temporal, parietal d) zygomatic, vomer Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age-related changes and sexual differences of the skull.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.1 Name the cranial cavity bones and facial bones and indicate the number of each.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull or Cranium 56) Convex surfaces on either side of the foramen magnum that articulate with the atlas are called a) external occipital protuberances b) inferior nuchal lines c) occipital condyles d) superior nuchal lines Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age-related changes and sexual differences of the skull.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.7 Identify the location and surface features of the occipital bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull or Cranium Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.D Cranial Cavity Bones—Occipital Bone 57) The two bones that form the zygomatic arch are the a) ethmoid bone, lacrimal bone b) sphenoid bone, temporal bone c) temporal bone, zygomatic bone d) vomer bone, zygomatic bone Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age-related changes and sexual differences of the skull.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.11 Identify the location and surface features of the maxillae and zygomatic bones.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull or Cranium Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.H Facial Bones—Maxillae and Zygomatic Bones 58) The superior part of the nasal septum, the middle nasal conchae, and the crista galli are parts of the

a) ethmoid bone b) lacrimal bone c) palatine bone d) sphenoid bone Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age-related changes and sexual differences of the skull.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.9 Identify the location and surface features of the ethmoid bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull or Cranium Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.F Cranial Cavity Bones—Ethmoid Bone 59) Alveolar processes are features of which skull bones? a) frontal, temporal b) maxillae, mandible c) parietal, zygomatic d) occipital, sphenoid Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age-related changes and sexual differences of the skull.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.11 Identify the location and surface features of the maxillae and zygomatic bones.

Learning Objective 3: 7.2.12 Identify the location and surface features of the mandible.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull or Cranium Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.H Facial Bones—Maxillae and Zygomatic Bones Section Reference 3: Exhibit 7.I Facial Bones—Mandible 60) Which bone does not articulate with any other bones, but is a site of attachment for muscles of the tongue, pharynx and neck? a) atlas b) hyoid c) sternum d) vomer Answer: b

Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 7.3 Describe the relationship of the hyoid bone to the skull and explain its function.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.3 Hyoid Bone 61) Which bones of the skull are involved in each of the four main sutures of the cranial cavity? a) frontal b) parietal c) temporal d) occipital Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age-related changes and sexual differences of the skull.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.2 Describe the following unique features of the skull: sutures, paranasal sinuses, and fontanels.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull or Cranium 62) Which curves or the vertebral column are considered primary curves? a) cervical and lumbar b) cervical and thoracic c) lumbar and sacral d) sacral and thoracic Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the structural and functional features of each regional vertebra and the normal curves of the vertebral column.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.1 Identify the regions and normal curves of the vertebral column.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Vertebral Column 63) Which structure does a spinal nerve pass through to carry information between the spinal cord and other parts of the body?

a) foramen lacerum b) intervertebral foramen c) jugular foramen d) olfactory foramina Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the structural and functional features of each regional vertebra and the normal curves of the vertebral column.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.2 Describe the structural and functional features of the bones in the various regions of the vertebral column.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Vertebral column 64) Which part of the sacrum provides an inferior entrance into the vertebral canal, a site often used for injection of anaesthetic agents during labor? a) sacral ala b) sacral crest c) sacral foramina d) sacral hiatus Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the structural and functional features of each regional vertebra and the normal curves of the vertebral column.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.6 Identify the location and surface features of the sacral and coccygeal vertebrae.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Vertebral Column Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.M Vertebral Regions—Sacral and Coccygeal Vertebrae 65) The depressions on the superior border of the manubrium are called the a) body and xiphoid process b) clavicular notches and jugular notch c) sternoclavicular joints and sternocostal joints d) xiphoid process and sternal angle Answer: b Difficulty: Easy

Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 7.5 Identify the bones of the thorax, including sternum and ribs, and their functions.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.5.2 Identify the location and surface features of the sternum Section Reference 1: Sec 7.5 Thorax Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.N Thoracic Skeleton—Sternum 66) Which label indicates the transverse process of the vertebra?

a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the structural and functional features of each regional vertebra and the normal curves of the vertebral column.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.2 Describe the structural and functional features of the bones in the various regions of the vertebral column.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Vertebral Column

67) Which label indicates the spinous process of the vertebra?

a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the structural and functional features of each regional vertebra and the normal curves of the vertebral column.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.2 Describe the structural and functional features of the bones in the various regions of the vertebral column.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Vertebral Column

68) Which label indicates the vertebral foramen of the vertebra?

a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the structural and functional features of each regional vertebra and the normal curves of the vertebral column.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.2 Describe the structural and functional features of the bones in the various regions of the vertebral column.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Vertebral Column

69) Which two cranial bones unite to form the lambdoid suture?

a) A and B b) B and C c) D and E d) B and D e) A and D Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age-related changes and sexual differences of the skull.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.2 Describe the following unique features of the skull: sutures, paranasal sinuses, and fontanels.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull or Cranium

70) Which labeled bone is the zygomatic bone?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age-related changes and sexual differences of the skull.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.1 Name the cranial cavity bones and facial bones and indicate the number of each.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull or Cranium

71) What region are these vertebrae from?

a) cervical b) thoracic c) lumbar d) sacral e) coccygeal Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the structural and functional features of each regional vertebra and the normal curves of the vertebral column.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.1 Identify the regions and normal curves of the vertebral column.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Vertebral Column

72) Identify the tubercle of the rib.

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 7.5 Identify the bones of the thorax, including sternum and ribs, and their functions.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.5.3 Identify the location and surface features of the ribs.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.5 Thorax Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.O Thoracic Skeleton—Ribs

73) Which labeled landmark is the site for the pituitary gland?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age-related changes and sexual differences of the skull.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.8 Identify the location and surface features of the sphenoid bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull or Cranium Section Reference 2: Exhibit 7.E Cranial Cavity Bones—Sphenoid Bone

74) Which of the following exhibits an abnormal kyphotic curvature of the spine?

a) A b) B c) C Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 7.4 Describe the structural and functional features of each regional vertebra and the normal curves of the vertebral column.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.4.1 Identify the regions and normal curves of the vertebral column.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.4 Vertebral Column 75) Which of the following cranial bones does not contain a paranasal sinus?

a) Sphenoid b) Frontal c) Ethmoid d) Maxilla e) Occipital Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age-related changes and sexual differences of the skull.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.2 Describe the following unique features of the skull: sutures, paranasal sinuses, and fontanels.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull or Cranium Question type: Multiple Select 76) Which of the following are part of the musculoskeletal system? (Select all that apply.) a) bones b) joints c) muscles d) nerves Answer: a, b, c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 7.1 Describe the organization of the musculoskeletal system.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.1.1 Define the musculoskeletal system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.1 Divisions of the Skeletal System 77) Which of the following is true about the fetal skull? (Select all that apply.) a) it contains more bones than the adult skull b) it contains fontanels c) it contains paranasal sinuses d) it contains a fully fused occipital bone Answer: a, b

Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age-related changes and sexual differences of the skull.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.3 Outline the age-related changes and sexual differences in the skull.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull or Cranium 78) An unidentified body was found. Which of the following should the medical examiner keep in mind when trying to determine if the body belongs to a male or female? (Select all that apply.) a) gender discrimination based solely on the skull is not foolproof and should be used in conjunction with pelvic characteristics b) males will have less prominent landmarks than females at sites for muscle attachment c) males typically have a more pronounced supraorbital ridge d) the frontal squama of the female skull is typically more vertical and rounded than in the male Answer: a, c, d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 7.2 List all the bones, unique features, age-related changes and sexual differences of the skull.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.2.3 Outline the age-related changes and sexual differences in the skull.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.2 Skull or Cranium Question type: Multiple Choice 79) A pathologist is performing an autopsy. She determines that the cause of death was strangulation. A fracture in which bone might lead her to determine strangulation as the cause of death? a) hyoid b) sternum c) zygomatic d) vomer Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 7.3 Describe the relationship of the hyoid bone to the skull and explain its function.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.3 Hyoid Bone Question type: Multiple Select 80) Select all of the options which are part of the thoracic cage. (Select all that apply.) a) hyoid bone b) ribs and costal cartilages c) sternum d) thoracic vertebrae Answer: b, c, d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 7.5 Identify the bones of the thorax, including sternum and ribs, and their functions.

Study Objective 2: SO 7.5.1 Identify the bones of the thorax and their functions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 7.5 Thorax

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pha15 Chapter Number: 08 Question type: Multiple Choice 1) The coracoid process of the scapula is a) a site of muscle attachment. b) an extension of the scapular spine. c) the high point of the shoulder. d) an area through which the suprascapular nerve passes.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.3 Describe the location and surface features of the scapula.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.1 Skeleton of the Upper Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.B Pectoral Girdle—Scapula 2) Which of the following is true? a) The medial end of the clavicle is the sternal extremity. b) The curvature of the medial one-third of the clavicle is concave anteriorly. c) The clavicle articulates medially with the body of the sternum and laterally with the acromion of the scapula. d) The clavicle is typically smoother and straighter in males as compared to females.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.2 Describe the location and surface features of the clavicle.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.1 Skeleton of the Upper Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.A Pectoral Girdle—Clavicle 3) Which of the following is found on the anterior surface, above the capitulum of the humerus?

a) deltoid tuberosity b) radial fossa c) greater tubercle d) medial epicondyle Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.4 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the humerus.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.1 Skeleton of the Upper Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.C Skeleton of the Arm—Humerus 4) Which of the following is true of the radius? a) It is the medial bone of the forearm. b) Its head articulates with the distal end of the ulna. c) It articulates with the trochlear notch of the humerus. d) It is the shortest of the forearm bones.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.5 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the ulna and radius.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.1 Skeleton of the Upper Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.D Skeleton of the Forearm—Ulna and Radius 5) The bony landmarks commonly referred to as "knuckles" are the a) bases of proximal phalanges. b) heads of proximal phalanges. c) bases of metacarpals. d) heads of metacarpals.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension

Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.6 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the bones of the hand.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.1 Skeleton of the Upper Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.E Skeleton of the Hand 6) Which of these does not belong to the distal row of carpal bones? a) pisiform b) trapezoid c) trapezium d) capitate Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.6 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the bones of the hand.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.1 Skeleton of the Upper Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.E Skeleton of the Hand 7) The number of phalanges in one hand is a) 5. b) 10. c) 14. d) 15.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.6 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the bones of the hand.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.1 Skeleton of the Upper Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.E Skeleton of the Hand

8) Which of the following is NOT part of the ilium? a) greater sciatic notch b) inferior gluteal line c) lesser sciatic notch d) auricular surface Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the lower limb.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.2 Identify the locations and surface features of the three components of the hip bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Skeleton of the Lower Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.F Bones of the Pelvic Girdle 9) The cup-shaped depression formed by all three portions of the hip (coxal) bone is the a) false pelvis. b) obturator foramen. c) acetabulum. d) glenoid cavity.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the lower limb.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.2 Identify the locations and surface features of the three components of the hip bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Skeleton of the Lower Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.F Bones of the Pelvic Girdle Question type: Multiple Select 10) The male pelvis typically, as compared to the female pelvis, (Select all that apply.) a) has heavier bones. b) has a more curved iliac crest. c) has a heart-shaped pelvic inlet.

d) has a shallower false pelvis.

Answer: a, b, c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.4 Describe the principal differences between female and male pelves.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.4 Comparison of Female and Male Pelves Question type: Multiple Choice 11) The patellar surface, with which the patella articulates, is located on the a) proximal end of the tibia. b) distal end of the tibia. c) proximal end of the femur. d) distal end of the femur.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 8.6 Identify the location and surface features of the femur and patella.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.G Skeleton of the Thigh-Femur and Patella 12) Which of the following is an articular feature of the tibia? a) tibial tuberosity b) anterior border c) lateral condyle d) body of the tibia Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.7 Identify the location and surface features of the tibia and fibula.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.H Skeleton of the Leg—Tibia and Fibula 13) Which of the following is NOT a tarsal bone? a) navicular

b) hamate c) cuboid d) cuneiform Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 8.8 Identify the location and surface features of the bones of the foot.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.I Skeleton of the Foot 14) Using the following directional terms, decide which bone is being described: proximal to metacarpal 1; distal to the scaphoid bone; and lateral to the trapezoid bone. a) trapezium b) capitate c) hamate d) proximal phalanx Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.6 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the bones of the hand.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.1 Skeleton of the Upper Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.E Skeleton of the Hand 15) Using the following directional terms, decide which bone is being described: medial to metatarsal 3; proximal to proximal phalanx; distal to second (intermediate) cuneiform. a) cuboid b) lateral cuneiform c) metatarsal 2 d) metatarsal 4 Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 8.8 Identify the location and surface features of the bones of the foot.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.I Skeleton of the Foot

16) Using the following directional terms, decide which structure of the scapula is being described: lateral to the spine; inferior to the acromion; posterior to the coracoid process; proximal to the head of the humerus. a) inferior angle b) glenoid cavity c) supraspinous fossa d) acetabulum Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.3 Describe the location and surface features of the scapula.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.1 Skeleton of the Upper Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.B Pectoral Girdle—Scapula 17) Using the following directional terms, decide which structure of the pelvis is being described: medial to the ischium; inferior to the ilium; lateral to the pubic symphysis; medial to the acetabulum. a) pubis b) lesser sciatic notch c) auricular surface d) lesser trochanter Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the lower limb.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.2 Identify the locations and surface features of the three components of the hip bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Skeleton of the Lower Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.F Bones of the Pelvic Girdle 18) The clavicle a) articulates with the acromion and the manubrium.

b) is convex anteriorly in the lateral half. c) is flatter near the medial end. d) is anterior to the ribs.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.2 Describe the location and surface features of the clavicle.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.1 Skeleton of the Upper Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.A Pectoral Girdle—Clavicle 19) The scapula a) has three large nonarticular fossae that occupy a large portion of the surface of the bone. b) articulates with the thoracic region of vertebral column. c) articulates with the acromion and the manubrium. d) is anterior to the ribs.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.3 Describe the location and surface features of the scapula.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.1 Skeleton of the Upper Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.B Pectoral Girdle—Scapula 20) The ulna a) has a radial notch on its lateral surface. b) has a radial notch on its medial surface. c) articulates with the metacarpals. d) has an olecranon fossa on the anterior surface.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.5 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the ulna and radius.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.1 Skeleton of the Upper Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.D Skeleton of the Forearm—Ulna and Radius 21) The middle phalanx is a) absent in the thumb (pollex). b) found only in digit 3. c) articulates with the metacarpals. d) has an intercondylar fossa at the proximal end.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.6 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the bones of the hand.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.1 Skeleton of the Upper Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.E Skeleton of the Hand

22) Visible in this view of the femur is/are the

a) greater and lesser trochanters near the proximal end. b) intercondylar fossa at the proximal end. c) linea aspera. d) acetabulum.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.6 Identify the location and surface features of the femur and patella.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.G Skeleton of the Thigh-Femur and Patella

23) This is a(n)

a) anterior view of the tibia. b) posterior view of the tibia. c) anterior view of the femur. d) posterior view of the femur.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 8.6 Identify the location and surface features of the femur and patella.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.G Skeleton of the Thigh-Femur and Patella 24) The patella a) has an intercondylar fossa at the proximal end. b) is enclosed anteriorly and on both sides by a tendon. c) has an intercondylar eminence at the distal end. d) has an acetabulum.

Answer: b

Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 8.6 Identify the location and surface features of the femur and patella.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.G Skeleton of the Thigh-Femur and Patella 25) The tibia a) has a medial malleolus at the distal end. b) is the lateral bone of the leg. c) has a head. d) has an intercondylar fossa.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 8.7 Identify the location and surface features of the tibia and fibula.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.H Skeleton of the Leg—Tibia and Fibula 26) The talus a) is the smallest tarsal bone. b) is the most superior tarsal bone. c) is known as the “heel bone.” d) articulates with the cuboid.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 8.8 Identify the location and surface features of the bones of the foot.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.I Skeleton of the Foot 27) Which part of the scapula may be described as a lateral extension of the spine? a) acromion b) coracoid process c) glenoid cavity d) subscapular fossa Answer: a Difficulty: Easy

Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.3 Describe the location and surface features of the scapula.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.1 Skeleton of the Upper Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.B Pectoral Girdle—Scapula Question Type: True/False 28) The inferior surface of the clavicle is rougher than the superior surface, due, in part, to the presence of the conoid tubercle and the impression for the costoclavicular ligament.

Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.2 Describe the location and surface features of the clavicle.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.1 Skeleton of the Upper Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.A Pectoral Girdle—Clavicle Question type: Multiple Choice 29) What is the relationship between the anatomical neck and the surgical neck of the humerus? a) The anatomical neck is proximal to the surgical neck. b) The anatomical neck is distal to the surgical neck. c) The anatomical neck is anterior to the surgical neck. d) The anatomical neck is posterior to the surgical neck.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.4 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the humerus.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.1 Skeleton of the Upper Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.C Skeleton of the Arm—Humerus

30) What is the relationship between the capitulum and the trochlea of the humerus? a) The capitulum is lateral to the trochlea. b) The capitulum is medial to the trochlea. c) The capitulum is proximal to the trochlea. d) The capitulum is distal to the trochlea.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.4 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the humerus.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.1 Skeleton of the Upper Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.C Skeleton of the Arm—Humerus Question type: True/False 31) The olecranon, which forms the prominence of the elbow, is located on the distal end of the humerus.

Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.5 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the ulna and radius.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.1 Skeleton of the Upper Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.D Skeleton of the Forearm—Ulna and Radius 32) The head of the ulna is on the distal end of the bone.

Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.5 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the ulna and radius.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.1 Skeleton of the Upper Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.D Skeleton of the Forearm—Ulna and Radius

Question type: Multiple Choice 33) What is the name of the raised roughened area, just distal to the neck of the radius, that serves as a point of attachment for the tendon of the biceps brachii muscle? a) biceps tuberosity b) brachii tuberosity c) radial tuberosity d) ulnar tuberosity Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.5 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the ulna and radius.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.1 Skeleton of the Upper Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.D Skeleton of the Forearm—Ulna and Radius 34) A boxer’s fracture is a fracture of the a) second metacarpal. b) third metacarpal. c) fourth metacarpal. d) fifth metacarpal.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.6 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the bones of the hand.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.1 Skeleton of the Upper Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.E Skeleton of the Hand 35) The posterior inferior portion of the hip bone is the a) coxal bone.

b) ilium. c) ischium. d) pubis.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the lower limb.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.2 Identify the locations and surface features of the three components of the hip bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Skeleton of the Lower Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.F Bones of the Pelvic Girdle Question type: True/False 36) The greater (false) pelvis is superior to the pelvic inlet.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 8.3 Distinguish between the greater and lesser pelves and explain their clinical importance.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.3 Greater and Lesser Pelves Question type: Multiple Choice 37) The arcuate line of the ilium is continuous with the a) ischial spine of the ischium. b) lesser sciatic notch of the ischium. c) pectineal line of the pubis. d) superior ramus of the pubis.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the lower limb.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.2 Identify the locations and surface features of the three components of the hip bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Skeleton of the Lower Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.F Bones of the Pelvic Girdle 38) The intertrochanteric line is a) near the proximal end of the femur, on the anterior surface. b) near the proximal end of the femur, on the posterior surface. c) near the distal end of the femur, on the anterior surface. d) near the distal end of the femur, on the posterior surface.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 8.6 Identify the location and surface features of the femur and patella.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.G Skeleton of the Thigh-Femur and Patella Question type: True/False 39) The fibula, the lateral bone of the leg, is a weight-bearing bone.

Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.7 Identify the location and surface features of the tibia and fibula.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.H Skeleton of the Leg—Tibia and Fibula Question type: Multiple Choice 40) Which statement is correct? a) The pectoral girdle consists of 2 scapulae and 1 clavicle; the pelvic girdle consists of 2 hip bones; each upper limb has 35 bones. b) The pectoral girdle consists of 2 scapulae and 2 clavicles; the pelvic girdle consists of 2 hip bones; each upper limb has 30 bones. c) The pectoral girdle consists of 2 scapulae and 1 clavicle; the pelvic girdle consists of 2 hip bones; each lower limb has 40 bones.

d) The pectoral girdle consists of 2 scapulae and 2 clavicles; the pelvic girdle consists of 2 hip bones; each lower limb has 25 bones.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.1 Identify the bones of the skeleton of the upper limb and explain their functions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.1 Skeleton of the Upper Limb 41) Which is FALSE regarding the scapula, when describing features that are visible from the posterior aspect? a) A prominent ridge called the spine runs diagonally across the posterior surface of the scapula. b) The lateral end of the spine projects as a flattened, expanded process called the acromion. c) Superior to the acromion is a shallow depression called the glenoid cavity. d) The thin edge of the scapula closer to the vertebral column is called the medial border.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.3 Describe the location and surface features of the scapula.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.1 Skeleton of the Upper Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.B Pectoral Girdle—Scapula 42) Which of the following is FALSE regarding the articular surfaces of the hip bones? a) The acetabulum is where the ilium, ischium, and pubis articulate with the femur. b) The auricular surface is where the ilium articulates with the sacrum. c) The iliac fossa is where the ilium articulates with the femur. d) The pubic symphysis is where 2 pubic bones articulate with each other.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the lower limb.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.2 Identify the locations and surface features of the three components of the hip bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Skeleton of the Lower Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.F Bones of the Pelvic Girdle 43) Which accurately describes the differences in the sacrum when comparing the female and male pelves? a) The sacrum in the female is less curved anteriorly. b) The sacrum in the male is less curved anteriorly. c) The sacrum in the female is longer and narrower. d) The sacrum in the male is shorter and wider.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.4 Describe the principal differences between female and male pelves.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.4 Comparison of Female and Male Pelves Question type: Essay 44) Give an anatomical description of the femur as it would appear from the posterior aspect.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 8.6 Identify the location and surface features of the femur and patella.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.G Skeleton of the Thigh-Femur and Patella Solution: The femur, or thigh bone, is the longest, heaviest, and strongest bone in the body. The proximal end of the femur consists of a rounded head and the neck of the femur is a constricted region distal to the head. The body (shaft) of the femur angles medially. The greater trochanter and lesser trochanter are projections that serve as points of attachment for the tendons of some of the thigh and buttock muscles. The lesser trochanter is inferior and medial to the greater trochanter. A ridge called the intertrochanteric crest appears between the posterior surfaces of the greater trochanter and lesser trochanter. Inferior to the intertrochanteric crest on the posterior surface of the body of the femur is a vertical ridge called the gluteal tuberosity. It blends into another vertical ridge called the linea aspera. The expanded distal end of the femur includes the medial condyle and the lateral condyle. These articulate with the medial and lateral condyles of the tibia. Superior to the condyles are the medial epicondyle and the lateral epicondyle, to which ligaments of the knee joint attach. A depressed area between the condyles on the posterior surface is called the intercondylar fossa.

Question type: Multiple Choice 45) Which of these is boat shaped and is located anterior to the talus? a) calcaneus b) cuboid c) first cuneiform d) navicular Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 8.8 Identify the location and surface features of the bones of the foot.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.I Skeleton of the Foot 46) The greater tubercle of the humerus is separated from the lesser tubercle by the a) anatomical neck. b) intertubercular sulcus. c) medial epicondyle. d) olecranon fossa.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.4 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the humerus.

Section Reference 1: 8.1 Skeleton of the Upper Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.C Skeleton of the Arm—Humerus 47) The knuckle joints are formed by articulations between the metacarpals and the a) carpals. b) lunate. c) distal phalanges. d) proximal phalanges.

Answer: d

Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.6 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the bones of the hand.

Section Reference 1: 8.1 Skeleton of the Upper Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.E Skeleton of the Hand 48) The projection at the proximal end of the ulna that forms the prominence of the elbow is the a) coronoid process. b) olecranon. c) styloid process. d) trochlear notch.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.5 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the ulna and radius.

Section Reference 1: 8.1 Skeleton of the Upper Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.D Skeleton of the Forearm—Ulna and Radius 49) The head of the radius articulates with the a) coronoid process of the ulna. b) radial notch of the ulna. c) olecranon of the ulna. d) trochlear notch of the ulna.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.5 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the ulna and radius.

Section Reference 1: 8.1 Skeleton of the Upper Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.D Skeleton of the Forearm—Ulna and Radius

50) The ulna and radius share what feature at their distal ends? a) coronoid process b) radial notch c) olecranon d) styloid process Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.5 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the ulna and radius.

Section Reference 1: 8.1 Skeleton of the Upper Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.D Skeleton of the Forearm—Ulna and Radius 51) The largest of the carpal bones is the a) capitate. b) hamate. c) pisiform. d) trapezoid.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.6 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the bones of the hand.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.1 Skeleton of the Upper Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.E Skeleton of the Hand 52) A large depression on the medial surface of the ilium is called the a) greater sciatic notch. b) iliac crest. c) iliac fossa. d) iliac tuberosity.

Answer: c

Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the lower limb.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.2 Identify the locations and surface features of the three components of the hip bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Skeleton of the Lower Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.F Bones of the Pelvic Girdle 53) The hip (coxal) bones a) unite anteriorly with each other to form the pubic symphysis and articulate posteriorly with the sacrum. b) unite anteriorly with each other to form the pubic symphysis and articulate posteriorly with the lumbar vertebrae. c) articulate anteriorly with the pubic symphysis and articulate posteriorly with the sacrum. d) articulate anteriorly with the sacrum and articulate posteriorly with the lumbar vertebrae.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the lower limb.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.2 Identify the locations and surface features of the three components of the hip bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Skeleton of the Lower Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.F Bones of the Pelvic Girdle 54) The boundary between the false pelvis and the true pelvis is an oblique plane, the circumference of which is called the a) pecten pubis. b) pelvic axis. c) pelvic inlet. d) pelvic outlet.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis

Study Objective 1: SO 8.3 Distinguish between the greater and lesser pelves and explain their clinical importance.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.3 Greater and Lesser Pelves 55) The lateral side of the distal end of the fibula forms the a) head. b) lateral condyle. c) lateral malleolus. d) medial condyle.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 8.7 Identify the location and surface features of the tibia and fibula.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.H Skeleton of the Leg—Tibia and Fibula 56) The fibular notch is located at the distal end of the a) femur. b) fibula. c) patella. d) tibia.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 8.7 Identify the location and surface features of the tibia and fibula.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.H Skeleton of the Leg—Tibia and Fibula 57) Which bone is the only bone of the foot to articulate with the tibia and the fibula? a) calcaneus b) cuboid c) intermediate cuneiforms d) talus Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis

Study Objective 1: SO 8.8 Identify the location and surface features of the bones of the foot.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.I Skeleton of the Foot 58) The total number of phalanges in the body is a) 44. b) 46. c) 56. d) 60.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 8.8 Identify the location and surface features of the bones of the foot.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.I Skeleton of the Foot

59) The bone illustrated is the

a) clavicle. b) fibula. c) radius. d) ulna.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.2 Describe the location and surface features of the clavicle.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.1 Skeleton of the Upper Limb

Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.A Pectoral Girdle—Clavicle 60) The bone illustrated is the

a) clavicle. b) coxal bone. c) scapula. d) tibia.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.3 Describe the location and surface features of the scapula.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.1 Skeleton of the Upper Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.B Pectoral Girdle—Scapula

61) Identify the navicular bone.

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.8 Identify the location and surface features of the bones of the foot.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.I Skeleton of the Foot

62) Identify the medial malleolus.

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the lower limb.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.1 Identify the bones of the skeleton of the lower limb.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Skeleton of the Lower Limb

63) Identify the head of the humerus.

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.4 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the humerus.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.1 Skeleton of the Upper Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.C Skeleton of the Arm—Humerus

64) This is the

a) acromion process of the scapula. b) coracoid process of the scapula. c) ilium of the coxal bone. d) ischium of the coxal bone.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.3 Describe the location and surface features of the scapula.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.1 Skeleton of the Upper Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.B Pectoral Girdle—Scapula

65) Identify the ischial tuberosity.

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the lower limb.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.2 Identify the locations and surface features of the three components of the hip bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Skeleton of the Lower Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.F Bones of the Pelvic Girdle

66) Which label below depicts the separation of the true pelvis from the false pelvis?

a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 8.3 Distinguish between the greater and lesser pelves and explain their clinical importance.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.3 Greater and Lesser Pelves 67) Which of the following is FALSE regarding the male and female pelves? a) The ischial tuberosity in the female is shorter and farther apart. b) The ischial tuberosity in the male is longer and closer together. c) The pelvic outlet in the female is wider. d) The pubic arch in the male is greater than a 90o angle.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 8.4 Describe the principal differences between female and male pelves.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.4 Comparison of Female and Male Pelves

68) Which girdle does not articulate with the bones of the vertebrae? a) pectoral b) pelvic Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 8.5 Explain the principal differences between the pectoral and pelvic girdles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.5 Comparison of Pectoral and Pelvic Girdles 69) The pelvic girdle allows for a greater range of motion. The pectoral girdle offers more strength. a) Both statements are true. b) Both statements are false. c) The first statement is true; the second is false. d) The second statement is true; the first is false.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.5 Explain the principal differences between the pectoral and pelvic girdles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.5 Comparison of Pectoral and Pelvic Girdles 70) Which of the following forms the facial bones? a) cartilaginous neurocranium b) membranous neurocranium c) cartilaginous viscerocranium d) membranous viscerocranium Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.9 Describe the development of the skeletal system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.6 Development of the Skeletal System

Question type: True/False 71) The upper limb buds develop before the lower limb buds.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.9 Describe the development of the skeletal system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.6 Development of the Skeletal System Question type: Multiple Choice 72) Abnormal elevation of the medial longitudinal arch of the foot is a sign of which condition? a) clawfoot b) flatfoot Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.8 Identify the location and surface features of the bones of the foot.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.I Skeleton of the Foot 73) The fibula is a common source for bone grafting because the fibula a) is not a weight bearing bone. b) has more nutrient arteries compared to other bones. c) can undergo interstitial growth throughout an individual’s lifetime. d) undergoes intramembranous ossification.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 8.7 Identify the location and surface features of the tibia and fibula.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.H Skeleton of the Leg-Tibia and Fibula 74) The linea aspera is located a) on the anterior side of the femur.

b) on the posterior side of the femur. c) on the anterior side of the tibia. d) on the posterior side of the tibia.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 8.6 Identify the location and surface features of the femur and patella.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.G Skeleton of the Thigh-Femur and Patella 75) Which best describes the relationship between the coronoid process of the ulna and the head of the radius? a) The coronoid process of the ulna is medial to the head of the radius. b) The coronoid process of the ulna is lateral to the head of the radius. c) The coronoid process of the ulna is proximal to the head of the radius. d) The coronoid process of the ulna is distal to the head of the radius.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.5 Identify the location and surface landmarks of the ulna and radius.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.1 Skeleton of the Upper Limb Section Reference 2:Exhibit 8.D Skeleton of the Forearm—Ulna and Radius 76) Which statement is correct? a) The pectoral limb became more mobile because of its modifications as the steering limb; the pelvic limb became more stabile because of its role as the locomotor limb. b) The pectoral girdle articulates directly with the vertebral column; the pelvic girdle does not. c) The sockets for the free upper limb are deeper than the sockets for the free lower limb. d) The free lower limb has a greater range of motion then the free upper limb.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 8.5 Explain the principal differences between the pectoral and pelvic girdles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.5 Comparison of Pectoral and Pelvic Girdles

77) Endochondral ossification of the limb bones begins by the end of a) the fourth week after fertilization. b) the eighth week after fertilization. c) the twelfth week after fertilization. d) the sixteenth week after fertilization.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 8.9 Describe the development of the skeletal system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.6 Development of the Skeletal System 78) The function of which bone is to serve as an anterior strut to resist compression? a) the clavicle b) the humerus c) the radius d) the scapula Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.1 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the upper limbs.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.1.1 Identify the bones of the skeleton of the upper limb and explain their functions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.1 Skeleton of the Upper Limb 79) Which of the following is NOT a contributing factor leading to hip fractures in the elderly? a) cigarette smoking b) high body weight c) inadequate calcium and vitamin D d) inadequate physical activity Answer: b Difficulty: Easy

Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.2 Describe the surface features and functions of the bones of the lower limb.

Study Objective 2: SO 8.2.2 Identify the locations and surface features of the three components of the hip bone.

Section Reference 1: Sec 8.2 Skeleton of the Lower Limb Section Reference 2: Exhibit 8.F Bones of the Pelvic Girdle 80) Which arch is formed by the navicular, three cuneiforms, the bases of the five metatarsals, and is found between the medial and lateral aspects of the foot? a) lateral part of the longitudinal arch b) medial part of the longitudinal arch c) transverse arch Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 8.8 Identify the location and surface features of the bones of the foot.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 8.I Skeleton of the Foot

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pha15 Chapter Number: 09 Question type: Multiple Choice 1) Which of the following pairs of terms is most closely associated or matched? a) atlanto-occipital, fibrous joint b) vertebrocostal, fibrous joint c) talocrural (ankle), synovial joint d) tibiofibular, cartilaginous joint Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 9.1 Describe the structural and functional basis for the classifications of joints and the importance of ligaments.

Study Objective 2: SO 9.1.2 Describe the structural and functional basis for the classifications of joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.1 Joint Classifications 2) If a joint is enclosed in a tough connective tissue articular capsule and if it contains a joint cavity, it is classified as a) synovial. b) fibrous. c) cartilaginous. d) synchondrosis.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 9.1 Describe the structural and functional basis for the classifications of joints and the importance of ligaments.

Study Objective 2: SO 9.1.2 Describe the structural and functional basis for the classifications of joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.1 Joint Classifications 3) Which type of joint has the most movement?

a) fibrous b) synovial c) cartilaginous Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 9.1 Describe the structural and functional basis for the classifications of joints and the importance of ligaments.

Study Objective 2: SO 9.1.2 Describe the structural and functional basis for the classifications of joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.1 Joint Classifications 4) The articular surfaces of bones in a fibrous joint are held together by a(n) a) fibrous connective tissue b) fibrous cartilage c) articular capsule d) joint cavity.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 9.1 Describe the structural and functional basis for the classifications of joints and the importance of ligaments.

Study Objective 2: SO 9.1.2 Describe the structural and functional basis for the classifications of joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.1 Joint Classifications 5) A type of joint in which two bones are held together by a disc of fibrous cartilage is considered a a) symphysis b) synchondrosis c) suture d) synovial joint Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge

Study Objective 1: SO 9.3 Describe the structure of the two types of cartilaginous joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.3 Cartilaginous Joints 6) Epiphyseal plates of growing bones may be classified as a) cartilaginous joints. b) synovial joints. c) sutures. d) fibrous joints.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 9.3 Describe the structure of the two types of cartilaginous joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.3 Cartilaginous Joints 7) Which of the following statements about joint classification is true? a) It is based on level of mobility at the joint. b) Joints classified as synovial contain fibrous cartilage. c) Joints classified as cartilaginous contain an articular capsule. d) It is based on the way in which bones are connected.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 9.1 Describe the structural and functional basis for the classifications of joints and the importance of ligaments.

Study Objective 2: SO 9.1.2 Describe the structural and functional basis for the classifications of joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.1 Joint Classifications Question Type: Multiple Select 8) The articular cartilage (Select all that apply.) a) consists of two layers: an outer layer of dense fibrous connective tissue and an inner layer of loose connective tissue. b) firmly binds the articulating bones c) covers the surfaces of the articulating bones at a synovial joint.

d) helps absorb shock and reduces friction at a synovial joint.

Answer: c,d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 9.4 List the 6 types and describe the structural and accessory components of a synovial joint.

Study Objective 2: SO 9.4.1 Describe the structure of synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.4 Synovial Joints Question Type: Multiple Choice 9) Structures that are most responsible for holding bones together at a synovial joint are a) tendons. b) articular cartilages. c) synovial membranes. d) ligaments.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 9.4 List the 6 types and describe the structural and accessory components of a synovial joint.

Study Objective 2: SO 9.4.1 Describe the structure of synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.4 Synovial Joints 10) Articular discs of synovial joints a) are pads of hyaline cartilage. b) move freely within the joint cavity. c) are found in the space between the ends of the bones. d) are found in all synovial joints.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 9.4 List the 6 types and describe the structural and accessory components of a synovial joint.

Study Objective 2: SO 9.4.1 Describe the structure of synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.4 Synovial Joints 11) The surfaces of the bones at a gliding joint are involved in a) side-to-side movement. b) rotation. c) flexion and extension. d) circumduction.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints Question Type: Multiple Select 12) Which of the following terms could describe a joint at which flexion and extension are the only movements? (Select all that apply.) a) pivot joint b) hinge joint c) uniaxial joint d) biaxial joint Answer: b, c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 9.6 Describe the six subtypes of synovial joints..

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.6 Types of Synovial Joints Question Type: Multiple Choice 13) The action that moves the palm of the hand into anatomical position is a) pronation. b) supination. c) inversion. d) eversion.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints 14) Which of the following is a component of the articular capsule of the hip joint? a) transverse humeral ligament b) pubofemoral ligament c) glenoid labrum d) medial collateral ligament Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 9.8 Identify the major joints of the body by location, classification, and movements.

Study Objective 2: SO 9.12 Describe the anatomical components of the hip joint and the movements that can occur at this joint.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.8 Selected Joints of the Body Section Reference 2: Exhibit 9.D Hip Joint 15) The primary type of movement permitted at a pivot joint is a) rotation. b) circumduction. c) abduction and adduction. d) flexion .

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 9.6 Describe the six subtypes of synovial joints..

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.6 Types of Synovial Joints 16) Which of the following statements about aging and joints is false? a) Production of synovial fluid decreases.

b) Ligaments shorten and become less flexible. c) Articular cartilage thickens. d) Osteoarthritis is evident in almost everyone over age 70.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 9.15 Explain the effects of aging on joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.9 Aging and Joints 17) Concerning synovial joints, one may speculate that as mobility increases, _____ decreases. a) the thickness of articular cartilage b) the amount of synovial fluid c) range of motion (ROM) d) stability Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 9.1 Describe the structural and functional basis for the classifications of joints and the importance of ligaments.

Study Objective 2: SO 9.1.2 Describe the structural and functional basis for the classifications of joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.1 Joint Classifications Question Type: Multiple Select 18) What structure(s) of the synovial joint absorb(s) shock from external forces that are placed on it? (Select all that apply.) a) articular cartilage b) synovial fluid c) hyaline cartilage covering the articulating surface of bones d) interosseous membrane.

Answer: a,b,c, Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application

Study Objective 1: SO 9.4 List the 6 types and describe the structural and accessory components of a synovial joint.

Study Objective 2: SO 9.4.1 Describe the structure of synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.4 Synovial Joints Question Type: Multiple Choice 19) Alternating the turning of the palm of the hand toward the ceiling and then turning it toward the floor is a movement of the forearm. This movement a) includes pronation. b) includes eversion. c) occurs at the radiocarpal joint. d) includes depression.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints 20) A good description for a condyloid (ellipsoidal) joint is a) flat or slightly curved articulating surfaces. b) one articulating surface is convex and fits into the other surface which is concave. c) oval-shaped projection fits into an oval depression. d) one bone articulates with another like a rider in a saddle. e) the only synovial joint that allows triaxial movement.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 9.6 Describe the six subtypes of synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.6 Types of Synovial Joints 21) A good description for a plane joint is a) flat or slightly curved articulating surfaces. b) one articulating surface is convex and fits into the other surface which is concave. c) oval-shaped projection fits into an oval depression.

d) one bone articulates with another like a rider in a saddle. e) the only synovial joint that allows triaxial movement.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 9.6 Describe the six subtypes of synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.6 Types of Synovial Joints 22) A good description for a ball-and-socket joint is a) a bone rotates around its long axis as it articulates within a ring of bone and ligament. b) one articulating surface is convex and fits into the other surface which is concave. c) oval-shaped projection fits into an oval depression. d) one bone articulates with another like a rider in a saddle. e) the only synovial joint that allows triaxial movement.

Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 9.6 Describe the six subtypes of synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.6 Types of Synovial Joints 23) Which joint allows a gliding movement to occur? a) between tarsal bones b) knee joint c) hip joint d) between atlas and dens of axis e) between trapezium and first metacarpal Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints 24) Which joint shows a hinge motion? a) between tarsal bones

b) elbow joint c) hip joint d) between atlas and dens of axis e) between trapezium and first metacarpal Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 9.6 Describe the six subtypes of synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.6 Types of Synovial Joints 25) Which joint shows a pivot motion? a) between tarsal bones b) knee joint c) hip joint d) between atlas and dens of axis e) between trapezium and first metacarpal Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 9.6 Describe the six subtypes of synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.6 Types of Synovial Joints 26) Which joint could be called a saddle joint? a) wrist joint b) knee joint c) hip joint d) between atlas and dens of axis e) between trapezium and first metacarpal Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 9.6 Describe the six subtypes of synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.6 Types of Synovial Joints 27) Which joint shows the motions called elevation and depression?

a) temporomandibular b) knee c) intertarsal d) interphalangeal e) ankle (talocrural) Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints 28) Which joint shows the motions called inversion and eversion? a) temporomandibular b) knee c) intertarsal d) interphalangeal e) ankle (talocrural) Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints 29) Which joint is the most frequently injured of the major joints of the body? a) acromioclavicular b) knee c) intertarsal d) interphalangeal e) ankle (talocrural) Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 9.8 Identify the major joints of the body by location, classification, and movements.

Study Objective 2: SO 9.14 Describe the anatomical components of the ankle joint and explain the movements that can occur at this joint.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.8 Selected Joints of the Body Section Reference 2: Exhibit 9.F Ankle Joint 30) Which joint shows the motion called rotation? a) acromioclavicular b) wrist c) intertarsal d) interphalangeal e) radioulnar Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints 31) Which structure goes with the elbow joint? a) medial and lateral menisci b) glenoid labrum c) radial collateral ligament d) zona orbicularis e) acetabular labrum Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 9.8 Identify the major joints of the body by location, classification, and movements.

Study Objective 2: SO 9.11 Describe the anatomical components of the elbow joint and the movements that can occur at this joint.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.8 Selected Joints of the Body Section Reference 2: Sec Exhibit 9.C Elbow Joint 32) Which structure goes with the temporomandibular joint? a) sphenomandibular ligament b) glenoid labrum

c) radial annular ligament d) zona orbicularis e) acetabular labrum Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 9.8 Identify the major joints of the body by location, classification, and movements.

Study Objective 2: SO 9.9 Describe the anatomical components of the temporomandibular joint and explain the movements that can occur at this joint.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.8 Selected Joints of the Body Section Reference 2: Exhibit 9.A Temporomandibular Joint 33) Which structure goes with the knee joint? a) medial and lateral menisci b) glenoid labrum c) radial annular ligament d) zona orbicularis e) acetabular labrum Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 9.8 Identify the major joints of the body by location, classification, and movements.

Study Objective 2: SO 9.13 Describe the main anatomical components of the knee joint and explain the movements that can occur at this joint.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.8 Selected Joints of the Body Section Reference 2: Exhibit 9.E Knee Joint 34) Which structure goes with the glenohumeral joint? a) sphenomandibular ligament b) glenoid labrum c) radial annular ligament d) zona orbicularis e) acetabular labrum Answer: b

Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 9.8 Identify the major joints of the body by location, classification, and movements.

Study Objective 2: SO 9.10 Describe the anatomical components of the glenohumeral joint and the movements that can occur at this joint.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.8 Selected Joints of the Body Section Reference 2: Exhibit 9.B Glenohumeral joint 35) Which structure goes with the hip (coxal) joint? a) medial and lateral menisci b) glenoid labrum c) radial annular ligament d) zona orbicularis e) arcuate popliteal ligament Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 9.8 Identify the major joints of the body by location, classification, and movements.

Study Objective 2: SO 9.12 Describe the anatomical components of the hip joint and the movements that can occur at this joint.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.8 Selected Joints of the Body Section Reference 2: Exhibit 9.D Hip Joint 36) What are easily seen as thin dark areas between the white-appearing bone tissue in an x-ray of a young person’s skeleton? a) synovial joints b) interosseous membranes c) sutures d) synchondroses Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Evaluation Study Objective 1: SO 9.3 Describe the structure of the two types of cartilaginous joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.3 Cartilaginous Joints

37) Arthritis, the acute or chronic inflammation of a synovial joint, can be caused by overuse or infection in which joint? a) dentoalveolar b) pubic symphysis c) glenohumeral d) distal tibiofibular Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 9.4 List the 6 types and describe the structural and accessory components of a synovial joint.

Study Objective 2: SO 9.4.2 Outline the structure and function of bursae and tendon sheaths.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.4 Synovial Joints Question type: True/False 38) The joint between two bodies of adjacent vertebrae is a synchondrosis.

Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 9.3 Describe the structure of the two types of cartilaginous joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.3 Cartilaginous Joints 39) All symphyses occur in the midline of the body.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 9.3 Describe the structure of the two types of cartilaginous joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.3 Cartilaginous Joints 40) The joints between the sternum and ribs 2–7 are syndesmoses.

Answer: False Difficulty: Medium

Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 9.6 Describe the six subtypes of synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.6 Types of Synovial Joints 41) Synovial fluid is a viscous liquid that contains hyaluronic acid and fluid formed from blood plasma.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 9.4 List the 6 types and describe the structural and accessory components of a synovial joint.

Study Objective 2: SO 9.4.1 Describe the structure of synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.4 Synovial Joints 42) The glenohumeral joint is an example of a triaxial joint.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 9.6 Describe the six subtypes of synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.6 Types of Synovial Joints 43) Bursae are synovial sacs that are responsible for reducing friction during the movement of some joints.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 9.4 List the 6 types and describe the structural and accessory components of a synovial joint.

Study Objective 2: SO 9.4.2 Outline the structure and function of bursae and tendon sheaths.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.4 Synovial Joints 44) Interphalangeal joints are synovial joints at which flexion and extension occur.

Answer: True Difficulty: Medium

Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements At Synovial Joints 45) Both joints of the clavicle, the acromioclavicular and the sternoclavicular, are synovial joints.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 9.6 Describe the six subtypes of synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.6 Types of Synovial Joints 46) Abduction occurs when a bone moves toward the midline.

Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints 47) Bending the ankle so that the distal end of the foot moves downward is the movement called plantar flexion.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints 48) A separated shoulder is an injury to the glenohumeral joint itself.

Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 9.8 Identify the major joints of the body by location, classification, and movements.

Study Objective 2: SO 9.10 Describe the anatomical components of the glenohumeral joint and the movements that can occur at this joint.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.8 Selected Joints of the Body Section Reference 2: Exhibit 9.B Glenohumeral joint 49) Medial and lateral menisci are found in the joint cavity of the elbow.

Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 9.8 Identify the major joints of the body by location, classification, and movements.

Study Objective 2: SO 9.13 Describe the main anatomical components of the knee joint and explain the movements that can occur at this joint.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.8 Selected Joints of the Body Section Reference 2: Exhibit 9.E Knee Joint Question type: Essay 50) Define the terms suture and synovial joint and give an example of each.

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 9.1 Describe the structural and functional basis for the classifications of joints and the importance of ligaments.

Study Objective 2: SO 9.1.2 Describe the structural and functional basis for the classifications of joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.1 Joint Classifications Solution: Suture : an immovable joint at which the neighboring bones are united by a solid mass of connective tissue (e.g., epiphyseal plate or skull sutures); Synovial joint : a freely movable joint which contains a capsule that surrounds a synovial cavity (e.g., jaw, elbow, knee joints, etc.)

Question Type: Multiple Choice 51) The point of contact between bone and bone, cartilage or teeth is called a a) ligament. b) joint. c) tendon.

d) synovium.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 9.1 Describe the structural and functional basis for the classifications of joints and the importance of ligaments.

Learning Objective 2: LO 9.1.1 Define a joint Section Reference 1: Sec 9.1 Joint Classifications 52) Injury to the skull would result in damage to which type of joint? a) symphysis b) interosseous membrane c) plane d) suture Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 9.2 Describe the structure and functions of the two types of fibrous joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.2 Fibrous Joints 53) Which of the following ligaments can be found at the temporomandibular joint? a) Lateral b) Coracoclavicular c) Annular d) Anterior Cruciate Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 9.9 Describe the anatomical components of the temporomandibular joint and explain the movements that can occur at this joint.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 9.A Temporomandibular Joint Question type: Essay

54) Explain the benefits of using ice in the treatment of sprains.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 9.4 List the 6 types and describe the structural and accessory components of a synovial joint. .

Study Objective 2: SO 9.4.1Describe the structure of synovial joints. .

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.4 Synovial Joints Solution: Applying ice slows blood flow to the area, reduces swelling, and relieves pain.

Question type: Multiple Choice 55)Violet is a 75-year-old female patient experiencing frequent pain in a particular joint. Her range of motion at this joint is limited, and an MRI shows a reduction in articular cartilage as well as a shortening of ligaments at the joint. A test of fluid from the articular capsule shows inflammation in the joint. Which of the following is the most likely joint being examined? a) glenohumeral joint b) dentoalveolar joint c) coronal suture d) distal tibiofibular joint Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Evaluation Learning Objective 1: LO 9.15 Explain the effects of aging on joints.

Learning Objective 2: LO 9.4 List the 6 types and describe the structural and accessory components of a synovial joint.

Section Reference 1 Sec 9.9 Aging and Joints Section Reference 2: Sec 9.4 Synovial Joints Question type: Text entry 56) The general anatomical term for the regions of contact between bones is _____.

Answer: articulation Difficulty: Easy

Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 9.1 Describe the structural and functional basis for the classifications of joints and the importance of ligaments.

Study Objective 2: SO 9.1.2 Describe the structural and functional basis for the classifications of joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.1 Joint Classifications Solution: articulations 57) In order to fully understand kinesiology (study of movement), one would be advised to study _____ (scientific study of joints) first.

Answer: arthrology Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 9.1 Describe the structural and functional basis for the classifications of joints and the importance of ligaments.

Study Objective 2: SO 9.1.2 Describe the structural and functional basis for the classifications of joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.1 Joint Classifications Solution: arthrology 58) The distal tibiofibular joint, which allows some movement, is classified structurally as a(n) _____.

Answer: syndesmosis Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 9.2 Describe the structure and functions of the two types of fibrous joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.2 Fibrous Joints Solution: syndesmosis 59) The name of the type of joint where a tooth fits into a socket is _____.

Answer: Syndesmosis (gomphosis) Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 9.2 Describe the structure and functions of the two types of fibrous joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.2 Fibrous Joints Solution: gomphosis

60) Articular cartilage receives nutrients and oxygen from the _____ _____.

Answer: synovial fluid Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 9.4 List the 6 types and describe the structural and accessory components of a synovial joint.

Study Objective 2: SO 9.4.1 Describe the structure of synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.4 Synovial Joints Solution: synovial fluid 61) A structure that consists of parallel bundles of collagen fibers and is part of the fibrous membrane of some synovial joints is called a(n) _____.

Answer: ligament Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 9.4 List the 6 types and describe the structural and accessory components of a synovial joint.

Study Objective 2: SO 9.4.1 Describe the structure of synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.4 Synovial Joints Solution: ligament 62) The movement of the mandible in a forward direction parallel to the ground is called _____.

Answer: protraction Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints Solution: protraction 63) The joint that allows rotation of the head is the _____ joint.

Answer: atlanto-axial Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 9.5 Describe the types of movements that can occur at synovial joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.5 Types of Movements at Synovial Joints Solution: atlanto-axial 64) The knee joint, the largest joint, is actually three joints: two tibiofemoral joints and one _____ joint.

Answer: patellofemoral Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 9.8 Identify the major joints of the body by location, classification, and movements.

Study Objective 2: SO 9.13 Describe the main anatomical components of the knee joint and explain the movements that can occur at this joint.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.8 Selected Joints of the Body Section Reference 2: Exhibit 9.E Knee Joint Solution: patellofemoral 65) The _____ _____ligament limits hyperextension of the knee and prevents the anterior sliding of the tibia on the femur.

Answer: anterior cruciate Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 9.8 Identify the major joints of the body by location, classification, and movements.

Study Objective 2: SO 9.13 Describe the main anatomical components of the knee joint and explain the movements that can occur at this joint.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.8 Selected Joints of the Body Section Reference 2: Sec Exhibit 9.E Knee Joint Solution: anterior cruciate 66) The goal of arthroplasty is to relieve pain and increase _____.

Answer: range of motion Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 9.15 Explain the effects of aging on joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.9 Aging and Joints Solution: range of motion

Question type: Text entry 67) Name the joint shown.

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 9.8 Identify the major joints of the body by location, classification, and movements.

Study Objective 2: SO 9.12 Describe the anatomical components of the hip joint and the movements that can occur at this joint..

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.8 Selected Joints of the Body Section Reference 2: Exhibit 9.D Hip Joint Solution: hip (or coxal) joint Question type: Text entry

68) The arrow is pointing to the _____ ligament.

Answer: iliofemoral Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 9.8 Identify the major joints of the body by location, classification, and movements.

Study Objective 2: SO 9.12 Describe the anatomical components of the hip joint and the movements that can occur at this joint..

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.8 Selected Joints of the Body Section Reference 2: Exhibit 9.D Hip Joint Solution: iliofemoral

69) The arrow is pointing to the _____ ligament.

Answer: anterior cruciate Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 9.8 Identify the major joints of the body by location, classification, and movements.

Study Objective 2: SO 9.13 Describe the main anatomical components of the knee joint and explain the movements that can occur at this joint.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.8 Selected Joints of the Body Section Reference 2: Exhibit 9.E Knee Joint Solution: anterior cruciate Question Type: Multiple Choice 70) A complete tear of the lateral ligament might lead to displacement of which joint? a) glenohumeral joint b) temporomandibular joint c) hip joint d) knee joint Answer: b

Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 9.9 Describe the anatomical components of the temporomandibular joint and explain the movements that can occur at this joint.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 9.A Temporomandibular Joint Question type: Text entry 71) Name the joint shown below.

Answer: shoulder joint Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 9.8 Identify the major joints of the body by location, classification, and movements.

Study Objective 2: SO 9.10 Describe the anatomical components of the glenohumeral joint and the movements that can occur at this joint.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.8 Selected Joints of the Body Section Reference 2: Exhibit 9.B Glenohumeral joint Solution: glenohumeral joint

72) The arrow is pointing to the _____ ligament.

Answer: coracohumeral Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 9.8 Identify the major joints of the body by location, classification, and movements.

Study Objective 2: SO 9.10 Describe the anatomical components of the glenohumeral joint and the movements that can occur at this joint.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.8 Selected Joints of the Body Section Reference 2: Exhibit 9.B Glenohumeral joint Solution: coracohumeral

73) The arrows are pointing to the _____ ligaments.

Answer: glenohumeral Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 9.8 Identify the major joints of the body by location, classification, and movements.

Study Objective 2: SO 9.10 Describe the anatomical components of the glenohumeral joint and the movements that can occur at this joint.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.8 Selected Joints of the Body Section Reference 2: Exhibit 9.B Glenohumeral joint Solution: glenohumeral Question type: Multiple Choice 74) While Billy was outside playing he fell and dislocated the head of the radius. Which of the following are possible causes of dislocation? a) tearing of the annular ligament b) weakening of the ulnar collateral ligament c) rupture of the acetabular labrum d) strain of the calcaneal tendon

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 9.11 Describe the anatomical components of the elbow joint and explain the movements that can occur at this joint.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 9.C Elbow Joint Question type: Essay 75) Give the structural classification, list the possible movements, and name the articular surfaces of the bones for a) the glenohumeral joint, b) the metacarpophalangeal joints, c) the hip joint.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Evaluation Study Objective 1: SO 9.8 Identify the major joints of the body by location, classification, and movements.

Study Objective 2: SO 9.12 Describe the anatomical components of the hip joint and the movements that can occur at this joint..

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.8 Selected Joints of the Body Section Reference 2: Exhibit 9.D Hip Joint Solution: a) The glenohumeral joint is between the head of the humerus and the glenoid cavity of the scapula, and is synovial/ball and socket (diarthrotic functionally). Movements are flexion, extension, hyperextension, abduction, adduction, medial and lateral rotation, and circumduction of the arm. b) The metacarpophalangeal joints are between the heads of the metacarpals and bases of the proximal phalanges, and are synovial/condyloid (diarthrotic functionally). Movements are flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, and circumduction of fingers. c) The hip joint is between the head of the femur and the acetabulum of the coxal bone, and is synovial/ball and socket (diarthrotic functionally). Movements are flexion, extension, hyperextension, abduction, adduction, circumduction, and medial and lateral rotation of the thigh.

Question type: Multiple Choice 76)Which of the following movements are possible at the elbow joint? a) circumduction of arm b) abduction

c) pronation d) protraction Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 9.11 Describe the anatomical components of the elbow joint and explain the movements that can occur at this joint.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 9.C Elbow Joint 77) Jennifer sprained her ankle while playing soccer. Predict the most likely location of the sprain. a) medial collateral ligament b) tibionavicular ligament c) tibial collateral ligament d) lateral collateral ligament Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Synthesis Learning Objective 1: LO 9.14 Describe the anatomical components of the ankle joint and explain the movements that can occur at this joint.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 9.F Ankle Joint 78) Which of the following movements are possible at the ankle joint? a) pronation b) dorsiflexion c) adduction d) lateral rotation Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 9.14 Describe the anatomical components of the ankle joint and explain the movements that can occur at this joint.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 9.F Ankle Joint 79) How does the process of aging reduce the range of motion at a synovial joint?

a) increases length of ligaments b) replaces cartilage with interosseous membrane c) reduces production of synovial fluid d) increases production of epiphyseal cartilage Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Learning Objective 1: LO 9.15 Explain the effects of aging on joints.

Learning Objective 1: LO 9.7 Describe six factors that influence the type of movement and range of motion possible at a synovial joint.

Section Reference 1 Sec 9.9 Aging and Joints Section Reference 2: Sec 9.7 Factors Affecting Contact and Range of Motion at Synovial Joints 80) Which of the following would limit the range of motion at a synovial joint? a) shortened bone length b) increased ligament tension c) increased flexibility of tendons d) reduction in adipose tissue at the joint Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Learning Objective 1: LO 9.7 Describe six factors that influence the type of movement and range of motion possible at a synovial joint.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.7 Factors Affecting Contact and Range of Motion at Synovial Joints Question Type: Multiple Select 81) A change in which of these would affect range of motion at a synovial joint? (Select all that apply.) a) epiphyseal cartilage growth b) muscle tension c) ligament length d) interosseous ligament tension e) amount of adipose tissue Answer: b,c,e

Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Learning Objective 1: LO 9.7 Describe six factors that influence the type of movement and range of motion possible at a synovial joint.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.7 Factors Affecting Contact and Range of Motion at Synovial Joints Question Type: Multiple Choice 82) Which of the following statements about ligaments is TRUE? a) they help increase the range of motion b) they connect bone to cartilage c) they are tough cartilaginous structures that connect bones d) they help to stabilize joints Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Learning Objective 1: LO 9.1 Describe the structural and functional basis for the classifications of joints and the importance of ligaments.

Learning Objective 2: LO 9.1.3 Explain the importance of ligaments at joints.

Section Reference 1: Sec 9.1 Joint Classifications

© John Wiley & Sons, Inc. or the author. All rights reserved. Instructors who are authorized users of this course are permitted to download these materials and use them in connection with the course. Except as permitted herein or by law, no part of these materials should be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system, or transmitted, in any form or by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording or otherwise.

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pha15 Chapter Number: 10 Question type: Multiple Choice 1) The ability of muscular tissue to contract forcefully when stimulated is a) elasticity. b) extensibility. c) stability. d) contractility.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 10.1 Compare the three types of muscular tissue with regard to function and special properties.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.1 Overview of Muscular Tissue 2) The ability of muscular tissue to be stretched without being damaged is a) elasticity. b) extensibility. c) excitability. d) contractility.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 10.1 Compare the three types of muscular tissue with regard to function and special properties.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.1 Overview of Muscular Tissue 3) Which of the following is FALSE regarding skeletal muscle fibers (cells)? a) Each fiber is a single cell with a hundred or more nuclei. b) The cells are cylindrical and are arranged in parallel fashion. c) A skeletal muscle fiber may be up to 30 cm (12 in.) long.

d) The myofibrils are arranged at right angles to the long axis of the cell, creating cross striations.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.3 Describe the microscopic anatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Structure 4) Which of the following is TRUE of myosin?

1. It is located in the A band of the sarcomere.

2. It binds to tropomyosin during contraction.

3. It forms thick filaments.

4. The molecules are helix shaped. a) 1, 2, 3, 4 b) 1, 2, 3 only c) 1, 3 only d) 2, 4 only Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.3 Describe the microscopic anatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Structure 5) In skeletal muscle, the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) a) forms transverse (T) tubules. b) is similar to the Golgi complex. c) contains extracellular fluid. d) releases Ca2+ to trigger contraction.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge

Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.3 Describe the microscopic anatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Structure 6) The close association of a transverse (T) tubule and two terminal cisterns forms a a) sarcomere. b) triad. c) fasciculus. d) cross-bridge.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.3 Describe the microscopic anatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Structure 7) During contraction in a skeletal muscle fiber a) the thick filaments meet at the center of the sarcomere. b) the sarcomere length does not change. c) actin and myosin molecules contract, causing filaments to shorten. d) myosin cross-bridges (heads) move the thin filaments so that their ends meet or overlap in the center of the sarcomere.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 10.3 Explain the functions of skeletal muscle tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 10.3.2 Outline how a skeletal muscle fiber contracts and relaxes.

Section Reference 1: 10.3 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Function 8) Place the following events in the correct order.

1. ACh is released into the synaptic cleft.

2. Synaptic vesicles fuse with the plasma membrane.

3. A muscle action potential is triggered.

4. An action potential arrives at the synaptic end bulb.

5. ACh binds to receptors on the motor end plate.

a) 2, 4, 5, 1, 3 b) 4, 3, 1, 2, 5 c) 1, 2, 4, 3, 5 d) 4, 2, 1, 5, 3 Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 10.3 Explain the functions of skeletal muscle tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 10.3.2 Outline how a skeletal muscle fiber contracts and relaxes.

Section Reference 1: 10.3 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Function 9) An increase (hypertrophy) or decrease (atrophy) in muscle size is due to 1. increased or decreased numbers of muscle cells.

2. increased or decreased deposition of adipose tissue.

3. increased or decreased size of skeletal muscle fibers. a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) both 1 and 3 Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.3 Describe the microscopic anatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Structure 10) The skeletal muscle fibers that fatigue most easily are 1. red muscle fibers.

2. slow oxidative (type I) fibers.

3. fast glycolytic (type IIb) fibers. a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) both 1 and 3 Answer: c

Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 10.4 Compare the structure and function of the three types of skeletal muscle fibers.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.4 Types of Skeletal Muscle Fibers 11) Compared to skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle differs in that it a) contracts for shorter periods of time. b) has a short refractory period. c) has a different arrangement of thick and thin filaments. d) has branching cells.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 10.6 Describe the main structural and functional characteristics of cardiac muscle tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.6 Cardiac Muscle Tissue 12) The two types of smooth muscle tissue are a) visceral (single-unit) and parietal. b) red and white. c) visceral (single-unit) and multiunit. d) radial and circular.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 10.7 Describe the main structural and functional characteristics of smooth muscle tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.7 Smooth Muscle Tissue 13) As skeletal muscle ages, after age 30, which of the following does NOT occur? a) decrease in maximal strength b) decrease in the relative number of slow oxidative fibers c) replacement of muscle mass by fibrous connective tissue and adipose tissue d) slowing of muscle reflexes

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 10.9 Explain the effects of aging on skeletal muscle.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.9 Aging and Muscular Tissue 14) Neurotransmitter receptors are found where on the sarcolemma? a) transverse (T) tubules b) motor end plate c) sarcoplasmic reticulum d) muscle filaments Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 10.3 Explain the functions of skeletal muscle tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 10.3.2 Outline how a skeletal muscle fiber contracts and relaxes.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.3 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Function 15) Which is a FALSE statement? a) A muscle fiber (cell) contains myofibrils. b) A myofibril contains thick and thin filaments. c) Thick and thin filaments are arranged into sarcomeres. d) The darker, middle band of a sarcomere is called the I band.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.3 Describe the microscopic anatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Structure 16) The ______ protein has direct contact with actin in a muscle in the resting state, while the _____ protein has direct contact with actin in a muscle in the contracting state. a) tropomyosin; myosin

b) myosin; troponin c) titin; tropomyosin d) troponin; myomesin Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 10.3 Explain the functions of skeletal muscle tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 10.3.1 Describe the functions of skeletal muscle proteins.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.3 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Function 17) One sarcomere contains all of the following EXCEPT a) the H zone. b) myosin. c) myofibrils. d) the M line.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.3 Describe the microscopic anatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Structure Question type: True/False 18) During an isotonic contraction of a muscle, the muscle shortens while the tension in the muscle increases, as in straightening the legs when rising from a sitting position to a standing position.

Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 10.3 Explain the functions of skeletal muscle tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 10.3.3 Distinguish between isotonic and isometric contractions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.3 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Function

19) A somatic motor neuron is a nerve cell that stimulates a skeletal muscle fiber (cell) to contract.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.2 Explain the importance of connective tissue components, blood vessels, and nerves to skeletal muscles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Structure Question type: Multiple Choice 20) A bundle (fascicle) of skeletal muscle fibers (cells) is separated from neighboring bundles by a) endomysium. b) epimysium. c) fascia. d) perimysium.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.2 Explain the importance of connective tissue components, blood vessels, and nerves to skeletal muscles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Structure 21) Thick connective tissue around the periphery of a muscle which binds muscle fascicles together is a) endomysium. b) epimysium. c) fascia. d) perimysium.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy

Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.2 Explain the importance of connective tissue components, blood vessels, and nerves to skeletal muscles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Structure 22) A somatic motor neuron together with all the skeletal muscle fibers (cells) it stimulates is called a a) junctional fold. b) motor end plate. c) motor unit. d) neurovascular bundle.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 10.3 Explain the functions of skeletal muscle tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 10.3.2 Outline how a skeletal muscle fiber contracts and relaxes.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.3 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Function 23) The lighter, less dense area in the sarcomere which contains only thin filaments is the a) A band. b) I band. c) H zone. d) M line.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.3 Describe the microscopic anatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Structure 24) The contractile elements of skeletal muscle fibers (cells) are a) myofibrils. b) myoglobin.

c) sarcoplasmic reticulum. d) T tubules.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.3 Describe the microscopic anatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Structure Question type: True/False 25) Cardiac muscle fibers (cells) contain more mitochondria than do skeletal muscle fibers (cells).

Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 10.6 Describe the main structural and functional characteristics of cardiac muscle tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.6 Cardiac Muscle Tissue 26) Cardiac muscle tissue may be classified as either visceral (single-unit) or multiunit muscle tissue.

Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 10.6 Describe the main structural and functional characteristics of cardiac muscle tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.6 Cardiac Muscle Tissue Question type: Multiple Choice 27) Myoblasts that persist in mature skeletal muscle and that have a limited ability to regenerate muscle fibers are

a) myofibrils. b) myofilaments. c) sarcomeres. d) satellite cells.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.3 Describe the microscopic anatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Structure 28) A gap that separates the motor neuron and the muscle fiber is the a) axon terminal. b) junctional fold. c) motor end plate. d) synaptic cleft.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 10.3 Explain the functions of skeletal muscle tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 10.3.2 Outline how a skeletal muscle fiber contracts and relaxes.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.3 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Function Question type: Essay 29) List four functions of muscle tissue and in one sentence for each function, elaborate on the function or give an example to illustrate the function.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 10.1 Compare the three types of muscular tissue with regard to function and special properties.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.1 Overview of Muscular Tissue Solution: 1. Producing body movements: movement of bones as in walking, raising your hand, etc.

2. Stabilizing body positions: stabilize joints and maintain body positions; e.g. postural muscles.

3. Storing and moving substances within the body: for example, smooth muscle sphincters control movement of substances through digestive and urinary tracts.

4. Heat production: heat is a by-product of skeletal muscle contraction.

Question type: Multiple Choice 30) A structural protein that wraps around the length of a thin filament and anchors the thin filament to the Z disc is a) dystrophin. b) myomesin. c) nebulin. d) titin.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 10.3 Explain the functions of skeletal muscle tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 10.3.1 Describe the functions of skeletal muscle proteins.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.3 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Function Question type: Essay 31) Describe the four steps of the contraction cycle.

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 10.3 Explain the functions of skeletal muscle tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 10.3.2 Outline how a skeletal muscle fiber contracts and relaxes.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.3 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Function Solution: The answer should include the formation of cross-bridges, the roles of ATP and calcium, the role of troponin, and the movement of the actin filaments (See Figure 10.7).

Question type: Multiple Choice 32) Which type of muscle fiber would have the least amount of myoglobin?

a) fast glycolytic fibers b) fast oxidative-gylcolytic fibers c) slow oxidative fibers d) both types of fast fibers have the same amount of myoglobin Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 10.4 Compare the structure and function of the three types of skeletal muscle fibers.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.4 Types of Skeletal Muscle fibers 33) The ability to repeatedly generate spontaneous action potentials is called a) autorhythmicity. b) contractility. c) excitability. d) extensibility.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 10.6 Describe the main structural and functional characteristics of cardiac muscle tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.6 Cardiac Muscle Tissue 34) When examined microscopically, striations are visible in the a) cardiac and skeletal muscle tissues. b) smooth and skeletal muscle tissues. c) cardiac and smooth muscle tissues. d) skeletal muscle tissue ONLY. Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 10.1 Compare the three types of muscular tissue with regard to function and special properties.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.1 Overview of Muscular Tissue

35) Large dense irregular connective tissue sheets that wrap around groups of skeletal muscles are a) epimysium. b) perimysium. c) endomysium. d) fascia.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.2 Explain the importance of connective tissue components, blood vessels, and nerves to skeletal muscles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Structure 36) The connective tissue that surrounds and separates individual skeletal muscle fibers (cells) is called a) sarcolemma. b) fascia. c) endomysium. d) epimysium.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.2 Explain the importance of connective tissue components, blood vessels, and nerves to skeletal muscles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Structure 37) A tube-shaped invagination of the sarcolemma is a a) sarcomere. b) sarcoplasmic reticulum. c) T-tubule. d) terminal cistern.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.2 Describe the microscopic anatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Structure 38) The neurotransmitter released at a neuromuscular junction (in skeletal muscle) is a) acetylcholine. b) dopamine. c) norepinephrine. d) serotonin.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 10.3 Explain the functions of skeletal muscle tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 10.3.2 Outline how a skeletal muscle fiber contracts and relaxes.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.3 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Function 39) A small amount of tautness or tension in a skeletal muscle due to weak, involuntary contractions of its motor units is called a) muscle tone. b) an eccentric isotonic contraction. c) a concentric isotonic contraction.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 10.3 Explain the functions of skeletal muscle tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 10.3.2 Outline how a skeletal muscle fiber contracts and relaxes.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.3 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Function 40) Intercalated discs in cardiac muscle contain what type(s) of cell junctions? a) desmosomes and gap junctions b) tight junctions only

c) gap junctions and tight junctions d) hemidesmosomes Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 10.6 Describe the main structural and functional characteristics of cardiac muscle tissue Section Reference 1: Sec 10.6 Cardiac Muscle Tissue 41) Which kind of muscle fibers do NOT contain sarcomeres? a) smooth b) cardiac c) skeletal d) smooth and cardiac Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 10.7 Describe the main structural and functional characteristics of smooth muscle tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.7 Smooth Muscle Tissue 42) The muscle fibers that are oxidative and the most resistant to fatigue are the a) fast glycolytic fibers. b) fast oxidative-glycolytic fibers. c) slow oxidative fibers. d) slow oxidative and fast glycolytic.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 10.4 Compare the structure and function of the three types of skeletal muscle fibers.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.4 Types of Skeletal Muscle Fibers 43) Which type of tissue is endomysium made of?

a) areolar connective tissue plus adipose tissue b) dense irregular connective tissue c) dense regular connective tissue d) loose connective tissue (mostly reticular fibers) Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.2 Explain the importance of connective tissue components, blood vessels, and nerves to skeletal muscles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Structure 44) Which type of tissue is epimysium made of? a) areolar connective tissue plus adipose tissue b) dense irregular connective tissue c) dense regular connective tissue d) loose connective tissue (mostly reticular fibers) Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.2 Explain the importance of connective tissue components, blood vessels, and nerves to skeletal muscles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Structure 45) Which type of tissue is perimysium made of? a) areolar connective tissue plus adipose tissue b) dense irregular connective tissue c) dense regular connective tissue d) loose connective tissue (mostly reticular fibers) Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge

Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.2 Explain the importance of connective tissue components, blood vessels, and nerves to skeletal muscles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Structure 46) Identify the characteristics of skeletal muscle tissue. a) voluntary, striated b) involuntary, striated c) voluntary, nonstriated d) involuntary, nonstriated Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 10.1 Compare the three types of muscular tissue with regard to function and special properties.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.1 Overview of Muscular Tissue 47) Identify the characteristics of smooth muscle tissue. a) voluntary, striated b) involuntary, striated c) voluntary, nonstriated d) involuntary, nonstriated Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 10.1 Compare the three types of muscular tissue with regard to function and special properties.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.1 Overview of Muscular Tissue Question type: Multiple Select 48) Which of the following are characteristics of smooth muscle tissue? Select all that apply. a) no transverse tubules b) no muscle tone

c) fibers connect by gap junctions d) fibers are smaller than skeletal muscle fibers Answer: a, c, d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 10.7 Describe the main structural and functional characteristics of smooth muscle tissue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.7 Smooth Muscle Tissue Question type: Multiple Choice 49) Identify the description of a synaptic vesicle. a) membrane-enclosed sac that stores neurotransmitter b) a small space that separates the cell membrane of a motor neuron from the sarcolemma of a skeletal muscle cell c) a region where communication occurs between two neurons or a neuron and a target cell d) deep grooves in the motor end plate Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 10.3 Explain the functions of skeletal muscle tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 10.3.2 Outline how a skeletal muscle fiber contracts and relaxes.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.3 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Function 50) Identify the description of a motor end plate. a) region of sarcolemma at the neuromuscular junction b) portion of axon terminal membrane that releases acetylcholine into the cleft c) a region where communication occurs between two neurons or a neuron and a target cell d) a somatic motor neuron plus all of the skeletal muscle fibers it stimulates Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 10.3 Explain the functions of skeletal muscle tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 10.3.2 Outline how a skeletal muscle fiber contracts and relaxes.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.3 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Function

51) Identify the description that matches acetylcholine receptors. a) integral transmembrane proteins of axon membrane; bind with acetylcholine b) integral transmembrane proteins of motor end plate; bind with acetylcholine Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 10.3 Explain the functions of skeletal muscle tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 10.3.2 Outline how a skeletal muscle fiber contracts and relaxes.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.3 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Function 52) Identify the description that matches fast oxidative-glycolytic fibers. a) largest in diameter b) smallest in diameter Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 10.4 Compare the structure and function of the three types of skeletal muscle fibers.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.4 Types of Skeletal Muscle Fibers 53) Identify the description that matches slow oxidative fibers. a) adapted for intense movements of short duration, such as weight lifting b) adapted for maintaining posture and endurance-type activities Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 10.4 Compare the structure and function of the three types of skeletal muscle fibers.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.4 Types of Skeletal Muscle Fibers

54) Identify the structure that is labeled A in the image below.

a) epimysium b) ligament c) perimysium d) tendon Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.1 Describe the gross anatomy of a skeletal muscle.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Structure

55) The connective tissue covering this structure labeled B is the

a) sarcolemma. b) endomysium. c) perimysium. d) epimysium.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.1 Describe the gross anatomy of a skeletal muscle.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Structure

56) The connective tissue covering this structure labeled C is the

a) sarcolemma. b) endomysium. c) perimysium. d) epimysium.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.1 Describe the gross anatomy of a skeletal muscle.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Structure

57) Identify this organelle of the muscle fiber (cell) labeled A.

a) Golgi complex b) sarcoplasmic reticulum c) nucleus d) mitochondrion Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.3 Describe the microscopic anatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Structure 58) In this muscle fiber, identify the organelle labeled B.

a) myofibril b) sarcoplasmic reticulum c) nucleus d) mitochondrion Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.3 Describe the microscopic anatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Structure 59) All of the following are features of this muscle fiber (cell) structure labeled C, EXCEPT

a) invagination of the sarcolemma. b) open to the outside of the cell. c) muscle action potentials are able to propagate through. d) cytoplasm of a muscle fiber.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.3 Describe the microscopic anatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Structure

Question type: True/False 60) This band labeled A will shorten during muscle contraction.

Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 10.3 Explain the functions of skeletal muscle tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 10.3.2 Outline how a skeletal muscle fiber contracts and relaxes.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.3 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Function 61) This band labeled B will shorten during muscle contraction.

Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 10.3 Explain the functions of skeletal muscle tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 10.3.2 Outline how a skeletal muscle fiber contracts and relaxes.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.3 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Function

62) This structure labeled C extends from M-line to M-line. There is no image present.

Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.3 Describe the microscopic anatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Structure Question type: Multiple Choice 63) The proteins found in the A band of a sarcomere is/are a) actin and myosin. b) actin, myosin, titin, troponin, and tropomyosin. c) myosin and titin. d) tropomyosin and troponin.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 10.3 Explain the functions of skeletal muscle tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 10.3.1 Describe the functions of skeletal muscle proteins.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.3 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Function 64) For contraction of a muscle to begin, what event must occur at the sarcolemma? a) blockage of reuptake channels b) exocytosis of vesicles storing neurotransmitters c) intracellular calcium levels increase after potassium entry d) acetylcholine binding and opening of sodium channels

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 10.3 Explain the functions of skeletal muscle tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 10.3.2 Outline how a skeletal muscle fiber contracts and relaxes.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.3 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Function Question type: Multiple Select 65) Which types of muscle tissues exhibit autorhythmicity? Select all that apply. a) cardiac b) skeletal c) smooth Answer: a, c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 10.1 Compare the three types of muscular tissue with regard to function and special properties.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.1 Overview of Muscular Tissue Question type: Multiple Choice 66) Track and field athletes specializing in the 100 meter dash will train their bodies for explosive power when pushing off the starting blocks. Which type of muscle fiber is being isolated during strength training to generate this explosive power? a) slow oxidative fibers b) fast oxidative glycolytic fibers c) fast glycolytic fibers Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 10.4 Compare the structure and function of the three types of skeletal muscle fibers.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.4 Types of Skeletal Muscle Fibers

67) After years of living a sedentary life, you start a couch-to-13.1K training regimen. This change in activity includes daily long distance runs. These distance runs are inducing changes in which muscle fiber types? a) slow oxidative fibers into fast oxidative glycolytic fibers b) fast oxidative glycolytic fibers into fast glycolytic fibers c) fast glycolytic fibers into fast oxidative glycolytic fibers d) fast glycolytic fibers into slow oxidative fibers Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 10.5 Describe the effects of exercise on different types of skeletal muscle fibers.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.5 Exercise and Skeletal Muscle Tissue 68) Body building increases the size and strength of which type of muscle fiber? a) slow oxidative fibers b) fast oxidative glycolytic fibers c) fast glycolytic fibers Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 10.5 Describe the effects of exercise on different types of skeletal muscle fibers.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.5 Exercise and Skeletal Muscle Tissue 69) Strength training has a positive impact on the body by all of the following EXCEPT a) increasing bone strength. b) raising resting metabolic rate. c) reducing feelings of stress and fatigue. d) decreasing amount of time for lactic acid to be produced in the muscle.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension

Study Objective 1: SO 10.5 Describe the effects of exercise on different types of skeletal muscle fibers.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.5 Exercise and Skeletal Muscle Tissue 70) Stretching before a workout a) is the best way to increase flexibility of muscles. b) is the best way to increase muscle tone. c) may cause injury to a cold muscle and won’t increase flexibility of muscles. d) increases the amount of time before lactic acid is produced.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 10.5 Describe the effects of exercise on different types of skeletal muscle fibers.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.5 Exercise and Skeletal Muscle Tissue 71) Most muscles of the body are derived from a) ectoderm. b) endoderm. c) mesoderm.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 10.8 Describe the development of muscles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.8 Development of Muscles 72) Paired, cube-like structures which give rise to the skeletal muscles of the thoracic and abdominal walls as well as the appendages are a) dense bodies. b) intermediate filaments. c) somites. d) somitomeres.

Answer: c

Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 10.8 Describe the development of muscles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.8 Development of Muscles Question type: True/False 73) Age associated muscle decline is irreversible.

Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 10.9 Explain the effects of aging on skeletal muscle.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.9 Aging and Muscular Tissue Question type: Multiple Choice 74) Which type of muscle develops from the mesodermal cells that envelope the developing gastrointestinal tract, viscera, and blood vessels? a) cardiac muscle b) smooth muscle c) skeletal muscle Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 10.8 Describe the development of muscles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.8 Development of Muscles 75) Which group of muscles usually weaken first impacting the daily activities of individuals over 65? a) muscles of the abdomen b) muscles of the lower limb c) muscles of the thorax d) muscles of the upper limb Answer: b

Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 10.9 Explain the effects of aging on skeletal muscle.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.9 Aging and Muscular Tissue 76) Acetylcholinesterase is an enzyme that a) breaks down acetylcholine. b) causes the release of acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft. c) initiates the action potential. d) stimulates muscle contraction.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 10.3 Explain the functions of skeletal muscle tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 10.3.2 Outline how a skeletal muscle fiber contracts and relaxes.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.3 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Function 77) Which protein is composed of heads and tails, is a motor protein in all types of muscle tissue, and is the main component of thick filaments? a) actin b) myomesin c) myosin d) troponin Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 10.3 Explain the functions of skeletal muscle tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 10.3.1 Describe the functions of skeletal muscle proteins.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.3 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Function 78) Which accurately describes the organization within a skeletal muscle from largest to smallest? a) skeletal muscle, muscle fascicle, muscle fiber, myofibril, myofilament b) muscle fascicle, skeletal muscle, myofibril, muscle fiber, myofilament c) muscle fiber, muscle fascicle, skeletal muscle, myofilament, myofibril

d) myofilament, muscle fiber, myofibril, muscle fascicle, skeletal muscle Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 10.2 Describe the importance of skeletal muscle components and the microanatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Study Objective 2: SO 10.2.3 Describe the microscopic anatomy of a skeletal muscle fiber.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.2 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Structure 79) In excitation-contraction coupling, an action potential traveling along a T-tubule will cause a) the release of acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft. b) the release of acetylcholinesterase into the synaptic cleft. c) the release of Ca2+ into the sarcoplasm. d) the release of Na+ into the sarcoplasm.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 10.3 Explain the functions of skeletal muscle tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 10.3.2 Outline how a skeletal muscle fiber contracts and relaxes.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.3 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Function 80) A patient has never received the tetanus vaccine. The patient was gardening and cut her finger on a rose thorn, allowing the bacteria Clostridium tetani into the wound. Which of the following might she experience? a) flaccid muscles leading to heart failure b) hypotonia c) rigidity of the muscles leading to difficulty breathing d) spastic paralysis Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 10.3 Explain the functions of skeletal muscle tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 10.3.2 Outline how a skeletal muscle fiber contracts and relaxes.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.3 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Function

81) John is doing bicep curls. As he curls his arm up, lifting the weight, which type of muscle contraction is occurring? a) concentric isotonic contraction b) eccentric isotonic contraction c) isometric contraction Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 10.3 Explain the functions of skeletal muscle tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 10.3.3 Distinguish between isotonic and isometric contractions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.3 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Function 82) Holding a book with an outstretched arm would be an example of a(n) a) concentric isotonic contraction. b) eccentric isotonic contraction. c) isometric contraction.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 10.3 Explain the functions of skeletal muscle tissue.

Study Objective 2: SO 10.3.3 Distinguish between isotonic and isometric contractions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.3 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Function 83) All of the following are characteristics of muscular dystrophy EXCEPT a) causes degeneration of skeletal muscle fibers. b) mostly affects females. c) becomes apparent in young children. d) the gene that codes for dystrophin is mutated.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 10.4 Compare the structure and function of the three types of skeletal muscle fibers.

Section Reference 1: Sec 10.4 Types of Skeletal Muscle Fibers

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pha15 Chapter Number: 11 Question type: Multiple Choice 1) Historically, the insertion of a muscle referred to: 1. an attachment in a limb proximal to the origin.

2. an attachment that does not move when the muscle contracts.

3. the movable point of attachment of a muscle.

4. attachment of a muscle to a bone. a) 1, 2, 3, 4 b) 1, 2, 4 only c) 1, 3 only d) 3, 4 only Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 11.1 Describe how skeletal muscles produce movement.

Study Objective 2: SO 11.1.1 Describe the relationship between bones and skeletal muscles in producing body movements.

Section Reference 1: Sec 11.1 How Skeletal Muscles Produce Movements 2) The mechanical advantage of a muscle depends upon how close to the joint it is attached. A muscle attached farther away will produce a more powerful movement than one attached nearer the joint. a) Both statements are true. b) Both statements are false. c) Statement 1 is true; statement 2 is false. d) Statement 2 is true; statement 1 is false.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 11.1 Describe how skeletal muscles produce movement.

Study Objective 2: SO 11.1.2 Define lever and fulcrum, and compare the three types of levers based on location of the fulcrum, effort, and load.

Section Reference 1: Sec 11.1 How Skeletal Muscles Produce Movements

3) The deltoid muscle is named according to a) orientation of muscle fascicles relative to the body’s midline. b) relative shape of the muscle. c) relative size of the muscle. d) location.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 11.2 Explain seven features used in naming skeletal muscles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 11.2 How Skeletal Muscles Are Named 4) Regarding characteristics used to name muscles, which of the following is incorrectly matched? a) rectus–straight b) platys–circular c) biceps–two proximal tendons d) brevis–short Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 11.2 Explain seven features used in naming skeletal muscles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 11.2 How Skeletal Muscles Are Named 5) Which of the following is/are TRUE? 1. Synergists are muscles that oppose the agonist.

2. Agonists work together while the antagonists work in oppostion.

3. The biceps brachii and the triceps brachii are an antagonistic pair. a) 1, 2, 3 b) 2, 3 only c) 1, 2 only d) 2 only Answer: b Difficulty: Easy

Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 11.1 Describe how skeletal muscles produce movement.

Study Objective 2: SO 11.1.4 Explain how the prime mover, antagonist, synergist, and fixator in a muscle group work together to produce movements.

Section Reference 1: Sec 11.1 How Skeletal Muscles Produce Movements 6) Which of the following pairs of terms is most closely matched? a) orbicularis oculi; shapes lips for speech b) corrugator supercilii; surprise c) platysma; pouting d) zygomaticus major; frown Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 11.4 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the muscles of facial expression.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.A Muscles of the Head That Produce Facial Expressions Question type: Multiple Select 7) The extrinsic muscles of the eyeball are innervated by: (Select all that apply.) a) oculomotor (III) nerves. b) abducens (VI) nerves. c) trochlear (IV) nerves. d) optic (II) nerves Answer: a, b, c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 11.5 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the eye muscles that move the eyeballs and upper eyelids.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.B Muscles of the Head That Move the Eyeballs and Upper Eyelids Question type: Multiple Choice

8) Two muscles that have an inferior attachment on the angle and ramus of the mandible, and that elevate the mandible are: 1. masseter 2. medial pterygoid 3. lateral pterygoid 4. temporalis a) 1, 2 b) 2, 3 c) 3, 4 d) 1, 4 Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 11.6 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the muscles that move the mandible and assist in mastication and speech.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.C Muscles That Move the Mandible and Assist in Mastication and Speech 9) The diagastric, stylohyoid, mylohyoid, and geniohyoid muscles have which of the following in common? a) inferior attachment on the body of the hyoid bone b) superior attachment on the body of the hyoid bone c) depress the hyoid bone d) elevate the tongue Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 11.8 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the musclesof the anterior neck that assist in deglutition and speech.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.E Muscles of the Anterior Neck That Assist in Deglutition and Speech 10) Which muscle extends from the sternum to the thyroid cartilage and acts to depress the larynx? a) sternothyroid b) sternohyoid c) omohyoid

d) thyrohyoid Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 11.8 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the musclesof the anterior neck that assist in deglutition and speech.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.E Muscles of the Anterior Neck That Assist in Deglutition and Speech 11) The following muscles all have attachments to ribs or their costal cartilages. Which of them are NOT used to produce the movements of normal breathing?

1. external intercostals 2. internal intercostals 3. external obliques 4. internal obliques 5. diaphragm a) 2, 3, 4 b) 3, 4 c) 1, 3, 5 d) 2, 4 Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Evaluation Study Objective 1: SO 11.14 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the muscles of the thorax that assist in breathing Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.K Muscles of the Thorax That Assist in Breathing 12) The central portion of the diaphragm is an aponeurosis that serves as the tendon of insertion for the diaphragm. The tendon is called a) linea alba. b) central tendon. c) intermediate tendon. d) rectus sheath.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge

Study Objective 1: SO 11.14 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the muscles of the thorax that assist in breathing Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.K Muscles of the Thorax That Assist in Breathing 13) Which of the muscles of the pelvic floor constricts the anus, urethra, and vagina? a) pubococcygeus b) iliococcygeus c) coccygeus d) both pubococcygeus and iliococcygeus Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 11.15 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the muscles of the pelvic floor that support the pelvic viscera and function as sphincters.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.L Muscles of the Pelvic Floor That Support the Pelvic Viscera and Function as Sphincters 14) The perineum consists of a) an anterior anal triangle and a posterior urogenital triangle b) an anterior urinary triangle and a posterior genital triangle c) an anterior urogenital triangle and a posterior anal triangle d) an anterior genital triangle and a posterior urinary triangle Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 11.16 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the muscles of the perineum.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.M Muscles of the Perineum 15) The pectoralis minor muscle a) has a distal attachment on the greater tubercle of the humerus. b) has a distal attachment on the acromion of the scapula. c) may have a proximal attachment from ribs 3 to 5. d) has a proximal attachment from the clavicle and sternum.

Answer: c

Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 11.17 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the muscles of the thorax that move the pectoral girdle.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.N Muscles of the Thorax That Move the Pectoral Girdle 16) Which of the following pairs of terms does not correctly match muscle with innervation? a) subclavius; subclavian nerve b) rhomboid major; dorsal scapular nerve c) serratus anterior; long thoracic nerve d) trapezius; median pectoral nerve Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 11.17 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the muscles of the thorax that move the pectoral girdle.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.N Muscles of the Thorax That Move the Pectoral Girdle 17) The greater tubercle of the humerus is the distal attachment for which of the following muscles? a) infraspinatus b) deltoid c) subscapularis d) coracobrachialis Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 11.18 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the muscles of the thorax that move the humerus.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.O Muscles of the Thorax and Shoulder That Move the Humerus 18) Of the muscles that move the forearm, two have proximal attachments on the scapula. They are the biceps brachii and the a) brachialis b) brachioradialis.

c) triceps brachii d) anconeus.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 11.19 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the muscles of the arm that move the radius and ulna.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.P Muscles of the Arm That Move the Radius and Ulna 19) Which muscle originates from the medial epicondyle of the humerus AND turns the forearm (pronates) so that the palm faces posteriorly? a) pronator quadratus b) pronator teres c) anconeus d) supinator Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 11.19 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the muscles of the arm that move the radius and ulna.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.P Muscles of the Arm That Move the Radius and Ulna 20) Whereas superficial flexors in the anterior compartment of the forearm originate from the _____ epicondyle of the humerus, the superficial extensors in the posterior compartment of the forearm originate from the _____ epicondyle of the humerus. a) lateral; medial b) lateral; lateral c) medial; lateral d) medial; medial Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 11.20 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the muscles of the forearm that move the wrist, hand, and digits.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.Q Muscles of the Forearm That Move the Wrist, Hand, and Digits

21) The extensor digitorum extends the phalanges. The extensor digiti minimi extends the distal phalanges only. a) Both statements are true. b) Both statements are false. c) The first statement is true; the second is false. d) The second statement is true; the first is false.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 11.20 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the muscles of the forearm that move the wrist, hand, and digits.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.Q Muscles of the Forearm That Move the Wrist, Hand, and Digits 22) The erector spinae is a group of muscles of the back, including which three of the following groups?

1. iliocostalis 2. spinalis 3. segmental 4. longissimus 5. scalene a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 2, 4 c) 2, 3, 5 d) 1, 4, 5 Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 11.12 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the muscles that move the vertebral column.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.I Muscles of the Neck and Back That Move the Vertebral Column 23) The psoas major and iliacus muscles have a common insertion on the femur. These two muscles are involved in

a) flexion of the thigh b) extension of the thigh c) adduction of the thigh d) abduction of the thigh Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 11.22 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the muscles of the gluteal region that move the femur.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.S Muscles of the Gluteal Region That Move the Femur 24) Which of the following statements regarding the quadriceps femoris is correct? a) Rectus femoris has a proximal attachment from the anterior inferior iliac spine. b) Vastus lateralis has a distal attachment on the lateral condyle of the tibia. c) All four muscles flex the thigh. d) Vastus medialis has a proximal attachment from the lesser trochanter.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 11.23 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the muscles that move the femur, tibia, and fibula.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.T Muscles of the Thigh That Move the Femur, Tibia, and Fibula 25) The muscles of the posterior compartment of the thigh a) flex the thigh and extend the leg b) extend the thigh and flex the leg c) adduct the thigh and flex the leg d) abduct the thigh and extend the leg Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 11.23 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the muscles that move the femur, tibia, and fibula.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.T Muscles of the Thigh That Move the Femur, Tibia, and Fibula

26) Muscles that insert via the calcaneal tendon do NOT include a) plantaris b) gastrocnemius. c) tibialis posterior d) soleus.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 11.24 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the muscles of the leg that move the foot and toes.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.U Muscles of the Leg That Move the Foot and Toes 27) Which two muscles provide a good example of an “antagonistic pair”? a) biceps brachii and brachialis b) semitendinosus and semimembranosus c) vastus medialis and vastus lateralis d) fibularis (peroneus) longus and tibialis anterior Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 11.24 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the muscles of the leg that move the foot and toes.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.U Muscles of the Leg That Move the Foot and Toes 28) Which two muscles provide good examples for use of the term “synergists”? a) latissimus dorsi and pectoralis major b) flexor carpi ulnaris and extensor carpi ulnaris c) biceps femoris and semitendinosis d) gastrocnemius and tibialis anterior Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 11.23 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the muscles that move the femur, tibia, and fibula.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.T Muscles of the Thigh That Move the Femur, Tibia, and Fibula

Question type: True/False 29) Muscles with either parallel or fusiform arrangements of fasciculi tend to have longer fibers than pennate muscles.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 11.1 Describe how skeletal muscles produce movement.

Study Objective 2: SO 11.1.3 Identify the types of muscle fascicle arrangements in a skeletal muscle, and relate the arrangements to strength of contraction and range of motion.

Section Reference 1: Sec 11.1 How Skeletal Muscles Produce Movements 30) The range of movement at a joint depends upon the point of attachment of the muscle and the length of its fibers.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 11.1 Describe how skeletal muscles produce movement.

Study Objective 2: SO 11.1.3 Identify the types of muscle fascicle arrangements in a skeletal muscle, and relate the arrangements to strength of contraction and range of motion.

Section Reference 1: Sec 11.1 How Skeletal Muscles Produce Movements Question type: Multiple Choice 31) Paralysis of the muscles of mastication may be an indication of damage to the a) trochlear (IV) cranial nerve b) trigeminal (V) cranial nerve c) abducens (VI) cranial nerve d) facial (VII) cranial nerve Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension

Study Objective 1: SO 11.6 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the muscles that move the mandible and assist in mastication and speech.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.C Muscles That Move the Mandible and Assist in Mastication and Speech Question type: Multiple Select 32) The inferior constrictor, middle constrictor, and superior constrictor are muscles (Select all that apply.) a) that move the wall of the pharynx, assisting with the movement of food and liquid into the esophagus b) that elevate the larynx, allowing the epiglottis to seal the respiratory passageway c) that are innervated by the glossopharyngeal (IX) nerve d) that are innervated by branches of the vagus (X) nerve Answer: a, d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 11.10 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the muscles of the pharynx that assist in deglutition and speech.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.G Muscles of the Pharynx That Assist in Deglutition and Speech 33) The sternocleidomastoid muscle has an inferior attachment on (Select all that apply.) a) the clavicular head b) the manubrium of the sternum c) the mastoid process of the temporal bone d) the occipital bone Answer: a, b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 11.11 Describe the origin, insertion action, and innervation of the muscles that move the head.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.H Muscles of the Neck That Move the Head 34) The rectus sheath and linea alba are formed by the aponeuroses of the (Select all that apply.)

a) external obliques b) internal obliques c) rectus abdominis d) transversus abdominis Answer: a, b, d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 11.13 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the muscles that protect abdominal viscera and move the vertebral column.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.J Muscles of the Abdomen That Protect Abdominal Viscera and Move the Vertebral Column Question type: Multiple Choice 35) Which muscle maintains erection of the penis in the male and the clitoris in the female? a) compressor urethrae b) deep transverse perineal c) ischiocavernosus d) superficial transverse perineal Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 11.16 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the muscles of the perineum.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.M Muscles of the Perineum Question type: True/False 36) The scalenes have an inferior attachment on the first and second ribs and s superior attachment on the third through sixth thoracic vertebrae.

Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 11.12 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the muscles that move the vertebral column.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.I Muscles of the Neck and Back That Move the Vertebral Column Question type: Multiple Choice 37) Carpal tunnel syndrome may result from repetitive activities that involve flexion of the wrist and compression of the a) median nerve b) ulnar nerve c) tendon of flexor digitorum profundus d) tendon of flexor digitorum superficialis Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 11.21 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the muscles of the palm that move the digits—the intrinsic muscles of the hand.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.R Muscles of the Palm That Move the Digits—Intrinsic Muscles of the Hand Question type: Multiple Select 38) Which of the following muscles invert the foot? (Select all that apply.) a) fibularis brevis b) fibularis longus c) tibialis anterior d) tibialis posterior Answer: c, d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 11.24 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the muscles of the leg that move the foot and toes.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.U Muscles of the Leg That Move the Foot and Toes Question type: Multiple Choice

39) The trapezius holds the scapula in place during abduction of the arm. The trapezius, in this example, is a(n) a) agonist b) antagonist c) fixator d) synergist Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 11.1 Describe how skeletal muscles produce movement.

Study Objective 2: SO 11.1.4 Explain how the prime mover, antagonist, synergist, and fixator in a muscle group work together to produce movements.

Section Reference 1: Sec 11.1 How Skeletal Muscles Produce Movements Question type: Essay 40) List the muscles that act on the mandible to open the mouth and those that act on the mandible to close the mouth. Which set of muscles is more forceful? Why? Answer: Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Evaluation Study Objective 1: SO 11.6 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the muscles that move the mandible and assist in mastication and speech.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.C Muscles That Move the Mandible and Assist in Mastication and Speech Solution: Masseter, temporalis, and medial pterygoid close the mouth. Lateral pterygoid, digastric, mylohyoid, and geniohyoid open the mouth. Closing the mouth is more forceful.

Masseter and temporalis are large, powerful muscles whose main action is to elevate the mandible. All muscles that act to depress the mandible have other primary actions.

41) Explain why an astronaut “must work hard to open their mouth” while in space but an elderly person asleep in a chair, for example, has their mouth open.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Synthesis

Study Objective 1: SO 11.6 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the muscles that move the mandible and assist in mastication and speech.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.C Muscles That Move the Mandible and Assist in Mastication and Speech Solution: The force of gravity is at work on the sleeping elderly person to open the mouth as the masseter, temporalis and medial pteygoid muscles (which close the mouth) are relaxed. The astronaut, however, is in a zero gravity environment and without the assistance of gravity needs to make an additional effort to open the mouth.

Question type: Multiple Choice 42) The three muscles listed below work in rotation of the head. Which muscle would be the antagonist? a) longissimus capitis b) splenius capitis c) sternocleidomastoid Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 11.11 Describe the origin, insertion action, and innervation of the muscles that move the head.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.H Muscles of the Neck That Move the Head 43) Which muscle of the medial compartment of the thigh adducts the thigh at the hip joint and is usually innervated by the femoral nerve? a) adductor brevis b) adductor longus c) gracilis d) pectineus Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 11.23 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the muscles that move the femur, tibia, and fibula.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.T Muscles of the Thigh That Move the Femur, Tibia, and Fibula

44) To produce movement, a bone acts as a lever and the joint acts as the a) belly b) effort c) fulcrum d) load Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 11.1 Describe how skeletal muscles produce movement.

Study Objective 2: SO 11.1.2 Define lever and fulcrum, and compare the three types of levers based on location of the fulcrum, effort, and load.

Section Reference 1: Sec 11.1 How Skeletal Muscles Produce Movements 45) A circular muscle that decreases the size of an opening is a(n) a) extensor b) flexor c) sphincter d) tensor Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 11.1 Describe how skeletal muscles produce movement.

Study Objective 2: SO 11.1.3 Identify the types of muscle fascicle arrangements in a skeletal muscle, and relate the arrangements to strength of contraction and range of motion.

Section Reference 1: Sec 11.1 How Skeletal Muscles Produce Movements 46) The aponeurosis (sheet-like tendon) that unites the frontal belly (frontalis) and occipital belly (occipitalis) muscles is called the a) corrugator supercilii b) galea aponeurotica c) levator labii superioris d) orbicularis oris Answer: b Difficulty: Easy

Bloom’s: Knoweldge Study Objective 1: SO 11.4 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the muscles of facial expression.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.A Muscles of the Head That Produce Facial Expressions 47) All muscles of facial expression are innervated by the a) trigeminal (V) nerve b) facial (VII) nerve c) glossopharyngeal (IX) nerve d) vagus (X) nerve Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 11.4 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the muscles of facial expression.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.A Muscles of the Head That Produce Facial Expressions 48) The muscle that acts on your left eyeball to move it as you read this line is the a) lateral rectus b) medial rectus c) inferior rectus d) superior rectus Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 11.5 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the eye muscles that move the eyeballs and upper eyelids.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.B Muscles of the Head That Move the Eyeballs and Upper Eyelids 49) Which muscle might be seen as “socially unacceptable” muscle, since it’s action is to protract the tongue? a) genioglossus b) hyoglossus c) palatoglossus d) styloglossus

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 11.7 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the muscles that move the tongue and assist in mastication and speech.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.D Muscles of the Head That Move the Tongue and Assist in Mastication and Speech 50) Which muscle is a landmark that separates the anterior and posterior triangles of the neck? a) longissimus capitis b) spinalis capitis c) sternocleidomastoid d) trapezius Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 11.11 Describe the origin, insertion action, and innervation of the muscles that move the head.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.H Muscles of the Neck That Move the Head 51) Which muscle of the larynx acts as a sphincter to control the size of the inlet of the larynx? a) cricothyroid b) lateral cricoarytenoid c) oblique arytenoid d) posterior cricoarytenoid Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 11.9 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the musclesof the larynx that assist in speech.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.F Muscles of the Larynx That Assist in Speech 52) The fibers of the external oblique muscle are directed a) anteriorly and laterally

b) at right angles c) inferiorly and medially d) transversely toward the abdominal wall Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 11.13 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the muscles that protect abdominal viscera and move the vertebral column.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.J Muscles of the Abdomen That Protect Abdominal Viscera and Move the Vertebral Column 53) All perineal muscles are innervated by branches of which nerve? a) axillary nerve b) femoral nerve c) obturator nerve d) pudendal nerve Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 11.16 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the muscles of the perineum.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.M Muscles of the Perineum 54) Which of the following muscles make up the rotator cuff?

1. deltoid 2. infraspinatus 3. subscapularis 4. supraspinatus 5. teres major 6. teres minor a) 1, 2, 3, 4 b) 2, 3, 4, 6 c) 1, 3, 4, 5 d) 2, 4, 5, 6 Answer: b Difficulty: Medium

Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 11.18 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the muscles of the thorax that move the humerus.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.O Muscles of the Thorax and Shoulder That Move the Humerus 55) Muscles that extend the forearm are located on the a) anterior surface of the humerus b) posterior surface of the humerus c) anterior surface of the ulna d) posterior surface of the ulna Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 11.19 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the muscles of the arm that move the radius and ulna.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.P Muscles of the Arm That Move the Radius and Ulna 56) A muscle that flexes and adducts the wrist is the a) flexor carpi radialis b) flexor carpi ulnaris c) flexor digitorum d) palmaris longus Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 11.20 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the muscles of the forearm that move the wrist, hand, and digits.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.Q Muscles of the Forearm That Move the Wrist, Hand, and Digits 57) The three intrinsic muscles of the hand that produce thumb movements are, as a group, called a) hypothenar muscles b) intermediate muscles c) midpalmar muscles d) thenar muscles

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 11.21 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the muscles of the palm that move the digits—the intrinsic muscles of the hand.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.R Muscles of the Palm That Move the Digits—Intrinsic Muscles of the Hand 58) The principal muscle used for extending the thigh, as in climbing stairs, is the a) iliacus b) gluteus maximus c) gluteus minimus d) piriformis Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 11.22 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the muscles of the gluteal region that move the femur.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.S Muscles of the Gluteal Region That Move the Femur

59) The muscle indicated by line G

a) depresses the scapula b) abducts the scapula c) inserts on the lateral border d) is innervated by the dorsal scapular nerve e) is the swimmer’s muscle Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 11.17 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the muscles of the thorax that move the pectoral girdle.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.N Muscles of the Thorax That Move the Pectoral Girdle Question type: Multiple Select

60) The muscle indicated by line D can (Select all that apply.)

a) extend the vertebral column b) flex the vertebral column c) compress the abdomen to aid in defecation d) pull ribs inferiorly during inhalation Answer: b, c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 11.13 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the muscles that protect abdominal viscera and move the vertebral column.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.J Muscles of the Abdomen That Protect Abdominal Viscera and Move the Vertebral Column Question type: Multiple Choice

61) What muscle is indicated by line B?

a) biceps brachii b) brachialis c) deltoid d) triceps brachii Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 11.19 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the muscles of the arm that move the radius and ulna.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.P Muscles of the Arm That Move the Radius and Ulna

62) The muscle indicated by line A is the

a) psoas major b) gracilis c) obturator externus d) iliacus Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 11.22 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the muscles of the gluteal region that move the femur.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.S Muscles of the Gluteal Region That Move the Femur

63) The muscle indicated by line B

a) has a proximal attachment on the ilium and a distal attachment on the femur b) has a proximal attachment on the ilium and a distal attachment on the tibia c) has a proximal attachment on the ischium and a distal attachment on the femur d) has a proximal attachment on the ischium and a distal attachment on the tibia Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 11.22 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the muscles of the gluteal region that move the femur.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.S Muscles of the Gluteal Region That Move the Femur

64) What muscle is indicated by line B?

a) gracilis b) rectus femoris c) sartorius d) vastus medialis Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 11.23 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the muscles that move the femur, tibia, and fibula.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.T Muscles of the Thigh That Move the Femur, Tibia, and Fibula

65) What muscle is indicated by line B?

a) biceps femoris b) gracilis c) semimembranosus d) semitendinosus Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 11.23 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the muscles that move the femur, tibia, and fibula.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.T Muscles of the Thigh That Move the Femur, Tibia, and Fibula

66) What muscle is indicated by line D?

a) biceps femoris b) gracilis c) semimembranosus d) semitendinosus Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 11.23 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the muscles that move the femur, tibia, and fibula.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.T Muscles of the Thigh That Move the Femur, Tibia, and Fibula

67) What muscle is indicated by line A?

a) biceps femoris b) fibularis longus c) gastrocnemius d) soleus Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 11.24 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the muscles of the leg that move the foot and toes.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.U Muscles of the Leg That Move the Foot and Toes

68) What is a principal action of the muscle indicated by line B?

a) flexes great toe b) dorsiflexes foot c) flexes leg d) flexes toes Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 11.24 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the muscles of the leg that move the foot and toes.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.U Muscles of the Leg That Move the Foot and Toes 69) What is the action of the rectus femoris? a) extends leg b) adducts toes c) dorsiflexes foot d) flexes leg e) flexes toes

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 11.23 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the muscles that move the femur, tibia, and fibula.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.T Muscles of the Thigh That Move the Femur, Tibia, and Fibula 70) What is the action of the flexor digitorum brevis? a) extends leg b) adducts toes c) dorsiflexes foot d) abducts toes e) flexes toes Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 11.25 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the intrinsic muscles of the foot that move the toes.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.V Intrinsic Muscles of the Foot That Move the Toes 71) What is the action of the plantar interossei? a) extend leg b) adduct toes c) dorsiflex foot d) abduct toes e) flex toes Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 11.25 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the intrinsic muscles of the foot that move the toes.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.V Intrinsic Muscles of the Foot That Move the Toes 72) Which best describes the latissimus dorsi? a) swimmer’s muscle

b) trumpeter’s muscle c) most important breathing muscle d) boxer’s muscle e) “workhorse” of the elbow flexors Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 11.18 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the muscles of the thorax that move the humerus.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.O Muscles of the Thorax and Shoulder That Move the Humerus 73) Which would best describe the buccinator? a) swimmer’s muscle b) trumpeter’s muscle c) most important breathing muscle d) boxer’s muscle e) “workhorse” of the elbow flexors Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 11.4 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the muscles of facial expression.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.A Muscles of the Head That Produce Facial Expressions 74) Which best describes the sartorius? a) swimmer’s muscle b) tailor’s muscle c) lateral hamstring d) boxer’s muscle e) “workhorse” of the elbow flexors Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 11.23 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the muscles that move the femur, tibia, and fibula.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.T Muscles of the Thigh That Move the Femur, Tibia, and Fibula

75) The most common type of lever in the body is the a) first-class lever b) second-class lever c) third-class lever Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 11.1 Describe how skeletal muscles produce movement.

Study Objective 2: SO 11.1.2 Define lever and fulcrum, and compare the three types of levers based on location of the fulcrum, effort, and load.

Section Reference 1: Sec 11.1 How Skeletal Muscles Produce Movements 76) All of the following names are based on muscle size EXCEPT a) brevis b) latissimus c) oblique d) vastus Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 11.2 Explain seven features used in naming skeletal muscles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 11.2 How Skeletal Muscles Are Named 77) A circular shaped muscle may have which term as part of its name? a) gracilis b) orbicularis c) pectinate d) piriformis Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 11.2 Explain seven features used in naming skeletal muscles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 11.2 How Skeletal Muscles Are Named

Question type: Multiple Select 78) Grouping muscles can aid in learning about them because (Select all that apply.) a) muscles within a group may have common attachments b) muscles within a group may have common actions at joints c) muscles within a group may be innervated by the same nerve d) muscles within a group will all have the same shape Answer: a, b, c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 11.3 Identify the principal skeletal muscles.

Study Objective 2: SO 11.3.1 Describe why organizing muscles in groups is beneficial.

Section Reference 1: Sec 11.3 Principal Skeletal Muscles Question type: Multiple Choice 79) Identify the muscle at label D.

a) deltoid b) pectoralis major c) platysma d) rectus abdominis

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 11.3 Identify the principal skeletal muscles.

Study Objective 2: SO 11.3.1 Describe why organizing muscles in groups is beneficial.

Section Reference 1: Sec 11.3 Principal Skeletal Muscles 80) Identify the muscle at label A.

a) deltoid b) pectoralis major c) platysma d) rectus abdominus Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 11.3 Identify the principal skeletal muscles.

Study Objective 2: SO 11.3.1 Describe why organizing muscles in groups is beneficial.

Section Reference 1: Sec 11.3 Principal Skeletal Muscles

81) Identify the muscle at label A.

a) brachioradialis b) fibularis longus c) rectus femoris d) soleus e) tibialis anterior Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 11.3 Identify the principal skeletal muscles.

Study Objective 2: SO 11.3.1 Describe why organizing muscles in groups is beneficial.

Section Reference 1: Sec 11.3 Principal Skeletal Muscles

82) Identify the muscle at label C.

a) brachioradialis b) fibularis longus c) rectus femoris d) soleus e) tibialis anterior Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 11.3 Identify the principal skeletal muscles.

Study Objective 2: SO 11.3.1 Describe why organizing muscles in groups is beneficial.

Section Reference 1: Sec 11.3 Principal Skeletal Muscles

83) Identify the muscle at label D.

a) brachioradialis b) fibularis longus c) rectus femoris d) soleus e) tibialis anterior Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 11.3 Identify the principal skeletal muscles.

Study Objective 2: SO 11.3.1 Describe why organizing muscles in groups is beneficial.

Section Reference 1: Sec 11.3 Principal Skeletal Muscles 84) External strabismus results when a lesion in which nerve causes the eyeball to move laterally when at rest, and an inability to move it medially and inferiorly? a) optic (II) nerve b) oculomotor (III) nerve c) trochlear (IV) nerve d) trigeminal (V) nerve Answer: b

Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 11.5 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the eye muscles that move the eyeballs and upper eyelids.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.B Muscles of the Head That Move the Eyeballs and Upper Eyelids 85) Which muscles have both of their attachments within the tongue? a) extrinsic tongue muscles b) intrinsic tongue muscles Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 11.7 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the muscles that move the tongue and assist in mastication and speech.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.D Muscles of the Head That Move the Tongue and Assist in Mastication and Speech 86) Which muscle has an inferior attachment on the hyoid bone? a) genioglossus b) hyoglossus c) palatoglossus d) styloglossus Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 11.7 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the muscles that move the tongue and assist in mastication and speech.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.D Muscles of the Head That Move the Tongue and Assist in Mastication and Speech 87) Which is innervated by the facial (VII) nerve? a) omohyoid b) sternohyoid c) sternothyroid d) stylohyoid

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 11.8 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the musclesof the anterior neck that assist in deglutition and speech.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.E Muscles of the Anterior Neck That Assist in Deglutition and Speech 88) Infrahyoid muscles are a) extrinsic muscles of the larynx b) intrinsic muscles of the larynx Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 11.9 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the musclesof the larynx that assist in speech.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.F Muscles of the Larynx That Assist in Speech 89) Intrinsic muscles of the larynx are innervated by a branch of the a) glossopharyngeal (IX) nerve b) vagus (X) nerve c) accessory (XI) nerve d) hypoglossal (XII) nerve Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 11.9 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the musclesof the larynx that assist in speech.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.F Muscles of the Larynx That Assist in Speech 90) Which of the following is fan-shaped and helps to propel food into the esophagus? a) inferior pharyngeal constrictor b) middle pharyngeal constrictor c) superior pharyngeal constrictor

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 11.10 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the muscles of the pharynx that assist in deglutition and speech.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.G Muscles of the Pharynx That Assist in Deglutition and Speech 91) Which muscle helps to close the nasopharynx while swallowing? a) inferior pharyngeal constrictor b) palatopharyngeus c) salpingopharyngeus d) stylopharyngeus Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 11.10 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the muscles of the pharynx that assist in deglutition and speech.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.G Muscles of the Pharynx That Assist in Deglutition and Speech 92) Which muscle has a superior attachment on the occipital bone and works to extend the head? a) longissimus capitis b) longissimus thoracis c) spinalis capitis d) spinalis thoracis Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 11.12 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the muscles that move the vertebral column.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.I Muscles of the Neck and Back That Move the Vertebral Column Question type: Multiple Select

93) The levator ani is divisible into three parts including which muscles? (Select all that apply.) a) iliococcygeus b) ischiococcygeus c) pubococcygeus d) puborectalis Answer: a, c, d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 11.15 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the muscles of the pelvic floor that support the pelvic viscera and function as sphincters.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.L Muscles of the Pelvic Floor That Support the Pelvic Viscera and Function as Sphincters Question type: Multiple Choice 94) Which muscle helps to maintain fecal continence? a) iliococcygeus b) ischiococcygeus c) pubococcygeus d) puborectalis Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 11.15 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the muscles of the pelvic floor that support the pelvic viscera and function as sphincters.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.L Muscles of the Pelvic Floor That Support the Pelvic Viscera and Function as Sphincters 95) All of the following muscles are innervated by the ulnar nerve EXCEPT a) abductor digiti minimi b) flexor digiti minimi brevis c) opponens digiti minimi d) opponens pollicis Answer: d

Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 11.21 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the muscles of the palm that move the digits—the intrinsic muscles of the hand.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.R Muscles of the Palm That Move the Digits-Intrinsic Muscles of the Hand 96) Which of the following is a plantar muscle of the foot that is innervated by the lateral plantar nerve? a) abductor digiti minimi b) abductor hallucis c) extensor digitorum brevis d) extensor hallucis brevis Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 11.25 Describe the attachments, action, and innervation of the intrinsic muscles of the foot that move the toes.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 11.V Intrinsic Muscles of the Foot That Move the Toes

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pha15 Chapter Number: 12 Question type: Multiple Choice 1) The components of the cardiovascular system include 1 interstitial fluid 2 blood vessels 3 heart 4 yellow bone marrow 5 blood a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 b) 2, 3, 4, 5 only c) 2, 3, 5 only d) 1, 2, 3, 5 only Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 12.1 Outline the functions of blood.

Study Objective 2: SO 12.1.1 Define cardiovascular system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.1 Functions of Blood 2) Blood functions to 1 protect against its excessive loss after injury 2 play a role in pH regulation 3 protect against UV radiation damage 4 protect against disease 5 assist with regulation of body temperature a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 b) 1, 3, 4, 5 only c) 1, 2, 4, 5 only d) 2, 4, 5 only Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 12.1 Outline the functions of blood.

Study Objective 2: SO 12.1.2 Describe the functions of blood.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.1 Functions of Blood 3) Which of the following is NOT a physical characteristic of blood? a) pH range of 7.25 to 7.55 b) temperature of 38ºC (100.4 ºF) c) average volume of 5–6 liters (1.5gal) in a male d) about 8% of body weight Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 12.2 List the principal physical characteristics of blood.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.2 Physical Characteristics of Blood 4) Which of the following statements about factors involved in the formation of blood cells is FALSE? a) Cytokines called colony-stimulating factors and interleukins regulate the formation and activities of cells involved in nonspecific defense and immunity. b) Thrombopoietin produced in the kidney regulates the clotting activities of platelets. c) Erythropoietin and thrombopoietin may be referred to as both hormones and hemopoietic growth factors. d) All of these choices are TRUE. Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 12.4 Explain the origin of blood cells.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.4 Formation of Blood Cells 5) Sites of hemopoiesis in the adult include all of the following EXCEPT a) liver. b) sternum. c) head of humerus. d) head of femur.

Answer: a

Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 12.4 Explain the origin of blood cells.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.4 Formation of Blood Cells 6) The heme portion of hemoglobin contains iron that binds reversibly with oxygen. In addition to oxygen and carbon dioxide transport, hemoglobin functions in blood pressure regulation by ferrying nitric oxide throughout the body. a) Both statements are true. b) Both statements are false. c) The first statement is true; the second is false. d) The second statement is true; the first is false.

Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 12.5 Describe the structure, function, and production of red blood cells and the basis for ABO and RH grouping.

Study Objective 2: SO 12.5.1 Describe the structure and functions of red blood cells.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.5 Red Blood Cells 7) The life span of a red blood cell is approximately a) 30 days (one month). b) 60 days (two months). c) 90 days (three months). d) 120 days (four months).

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 12.5 Describe the structure, function, and production of red blood cells and the basis for ABO and RH grouping.

Study Objective 2: SO 12.5.1 Describe the structure and functions of red blood cells.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.5 Red Blood Cells 8) All of the following can occur as a result of fetal-maternal Rh incompatibility EXCEPT a) agglutination of fetal RBCs. b) hemolysis of fetal RBCs.

c) hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN). d) damage to the mother’s RBCs. Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 12.5 Describe the structure, function, and production of red blood cells and the basis for ABO and RH grouping.

Study Objective 2: SO 12.5.3 Explain the basis for the ABO and Rh grouping systems.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.5 Red Blood Cells 9) Reduction of oxygen-carrying capacity is a condition referred to as a) leukemia. b) polycythemia. c) blood doping. d) anemia.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 12.5 Describe the structure, function, and production of red blood cells and the basis for ABO and RH grouping.

Study Objective 2: SO 12.5.1 Describe the structure and functions of red blood cells.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.5 Red Blood Cells 10) Pernicious anemia and megaloblastic anemia are two conditions that result from inadequate absorption of a) iron. b) vitamin C. c) calcium. d) vitamin B12.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 12.5 Describe the structure, function, and production of red blood cells and the basis for ABO and RH grouping.

Study Objective 2: SO 12.5.1 Describe the structure and functions of red blood cells.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.5 Red Blood Cells

Question type: Multiple Select 11) Which of the following lead(s) to an increase in the rate of RBC production? Select all that apply. a) hypoxia b) thrombopoietin c) erythropoietin d) polycythemia Answer: a, c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 12.5 Describe the structure, function, and production of red blood cells and the basis for ABO and RH grouping.

Study Objective 2: SO 12.5.2 Explain how red blood cells are produced.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.5 Red Blood Cells Question type: Multiple Choice 12) A, B, and Rh(D) are examples of what chemical component found on the surface of red blood cells?

1 antibodies 2 antigens 3 plasma proteins a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) both 1 and 3 Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 12.5 Describe the structure, function, and production of red blood cells and the basis for ABO and RH grouping.

Study Objective 2: SO 12.5.3 Describe the basis for the ABO and Rh grouping systems.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.5 Red Blood Cells

13) Which of the following is NOT considered a type of leukemia? a) Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) b) Acute myelogenous leukemia (AML) c) Sickle-cell disease (SCD) d) Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 12.6 Describe the structure, function, and differential blood cell count for white blood cells.

Study Objective 2: SO 12.6.1 Describe the structure and functions of white blood cells.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.6 White Blood Cells 14) Monocytes migrate into body tissues to become phagocytic cells called a) macrophages. b) fibroblasts. c) lymphocytes. d) polymorphs.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 12.6 Describe the structure, function, and differential blood cell count for white blood cells.

Study Objective 2: SO 12.6.1 Describe the structure and functions of white blood cells.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.6 White Blood Cells Question type: Multiple Select 15) Neutrophils provide weapons against bacteria in the form of (Select all that apply.) a) lysozymes. b) defensins. c) strong oxidants. d) histamine.

Answer: a, b, c

Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 12.6 Describe the structure, function, and differential blood cell count for white blood cells.

Study Objective 2: SO 12.6.1 Describe the structure and functions of white blood cells.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.6 White Blood Cells Question type: Multiple Choice 16) The white blood cells that typically increase in number in response to allergic conditions or parasitic infections are the a) neutrophils. b) eosinophils. c) basophils. d) monocytes.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 12.6 Describe the structure, function, and differential blood cell count for white blood cells.

Study Objective 2: SO 12.6.1 Describe the structure and functions of white blood cells.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.6 White Blood Cells 17) Platelets a) have a longer life span than red blood cells. b) develop from worn out red blood cells. c) are more numerous than red blood cells. d) promote blood clotting and blood vessel repair.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 12.7 Describe the structure, function, and origin of platelets.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.7 Platelets 18) Levels of which granular leukocyte are increased immediately following a tissue injury?

a) neutrophils b) erythrocytes c) thrombocytes d) monocytes Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 12.6 Describe the structure, function, and differential blood cell count for white blood cells.

Study Objective 2: SO 12.6.1 Describe the structure and functions of white blood cells.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.6 White Blood Cells 19) Following a routine CBC (complete blood count), the hematocrit for Ms. Smith, a 46-yearold female, is 32%. This would most likely be indicative of what condition? a) polycythemia b) anemia c) leukemia d) None, this value is within normal limits Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 12.3 Describe the principal components of blood and the importance of hematocrit.

Study Objective 2: SO 12.3.2 Explain the importance of hematocrit.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.3 Components of Blood 20) A hematocrit of 54% or higher is an indication of a) anemia. b) leukemia. c) normal hematocrit. d) polycythemia.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 12.3 Describe the principal components of blood and the importance of hematocrit.

Study Objective 2: SO 12.3.2 Explain the importance of hematocrit.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.3 Components of Blood Question type: True/False 21) The temperature of blood is slightly less than normal body temperature.

Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 12.2 List the principal physical characteristics of blood.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.2 Physical Characteristics of Blood 22) Blood is heavier, thicker, and less viscous than water.

Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 12.2 List the principal physical characteristics of blood.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.2 Physical Characteristics of Blood Question type: Multiple Select 23) A cell called a myeloblast would be a precursor to which types of cells? Select all that apply. a) basophil b) eosinophil c) lymphocyte d) neutrophil Answer: a, b, d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 12.4 Explain the origin of blood cells.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.4 Formation of Blood Cells Question type: True/False

24) During fetal development, blood cells may arise from tissue in the thymus, spleen, liver, and red bone marrow.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 12.4 Explain the origin of blood cells.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.4 Formation of Blood Cells Question type: Multiple Choice 25) The numbers of which cells may vary in response to immune challenges? a) megakaryocytes b) platelets c) red blood cells d) white blood cells Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 12.6 Describe the structure, function, and differential blood cell count for white blood cells.

Study Objective 2: SO 12.6.1 Describe the structure and functions of white blood cells.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.6 White Blood Cells 26) Most erythropoietin of the newborn is produced in the a) bone marrow. b) kidney. c) liver. d) spleen.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 12.5 Describe the structure, function, and production of red blood cells and the basis for ABO and RH grouping.

Study Objective 2: SO 12.5.2 Explain how red blood cells are produced.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.5 Red Blood Cells Question type: Multiple Select 27) Hemoglobin transports which of the following? Select all that apply. a) carbon dioxide b) nitric oxide c) oxygen d) water Answer: a, b, c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 12.5 Describe the structure, function, and production of red blood cells and the basis for ABO and RH grouping.

Study Objective 2: SO 12.5.1 Describe the structure and functions of red blood cells..

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.5 Red Blood Cells Question type: True/False 28) The ABO blood grouping system is based on two antigens: AB and Rh. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 12.5 Describe the structure, function, and production of red blood cells and the basis for ABO and RH grouping.

Study Objective 2: SO 12.5.3 Describe the basis for the ABO and Rh grouping systems.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.5 Red Blood Cells Question type: Multiple Select 29) Which of the following cells would be classified as granulocytes? Select all that apply. a) basophils b) eosinophils

c) neutrophils d) monocytes Answer: a, b, c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 12.6 Describe the structure, function, and differential blood cell count for white blood cells.

Study Objective 2: SO 12.6.1 Describe the structure and functions of white blood cells..

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.6 White Blood Cells Question type: Multiple Choice 30) A cell that responds to foreign invaders by producing antibodies is a a) B cell. b) monocyte. c) NK cell. d) T cell.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 12.6 Describe the structure, function, and differential blood cell count for white blood cells.

Study Objective 2: SO 12.6.1 Describe the structure and functions of white blood cells.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.6 White Blood Cells Question type: True/False 31) Only 2% of leukocytes are circulating in the blood at any one time; the rest are in lymph, lymphoid organs, skin, and lungs.

Answer: False Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Evaluation Study Objective 1: SO 12.6 Describe the structure, function, and differential blood cell count for white blood cells.

Study Objective 2: SO 12.6.1 Describe the structure and functions of white blood cells.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.6 White Blood Cells Question type: Multiple Choice 32) A type of cell that typically has a nucleus with two or more lobes, and therefore is also called a polymorphonuclear leukocyte is a a) basophil. b) lymphocyte. c) monocyte. d) neutrophil.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 12.6 Describe the structure, function, and differential blood cell count for white blood cells.

Study Objective 2: SO 12.6.1 Describe the structure and functions of white blood cells.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.6 White Blood Cells 33) A megakaryocyte can break into approximately how many platelets? a) 100-200 b) 200-300 c) 1000-2000 d) 2000-3000 Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 12.7 Describe the structure, function, and origin of platelets.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.7 Platelets Question type: True/False 34) Increased mitochondria can be found in mature erythrocytes in order to produce more ATP required for gas transport to and from all cells of the body.

Answer: False

Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 12.5 Describe the structure, function, and production of red blood cells and the basis for ABO and RH grouping.

Study Objective 2: SO 12.5.1 Describe the structure and functions of red blood cells..

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.5 Red Blood Cells Question type: Multiple Choice 35) How many antigens are in the ABO blood grouping system? a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 12.5 Describe the structure, function, and production of red blood cells and the basis for ABO and RH grouping.

Study Objective 2: SO 12.5.3 Describe the basis for the ABO and Rh grouping systems.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.5 Red Blood Cells 36) In cases of sickle-cell disease, a patient has a) an abnormal form of hemoglobin. b) abnormally shaped white blood cells. c) a lower than normal platelet count. d) a higher than normal hematocrit Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 12.5 Describe the structure, function, and production of red blood cells and the basis for ABO and RH grouping.

Study Objective 2: SO 12.5.1 Describe the structure and functions of red blood cells.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.5 Red Blood Cells

Question type: Essay 37) Describe the three main functions of blood.

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 12.1 Outline the functions of blood.

Study Objective 2: SO 12.1.2 Describe the functions of blood.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.1 Functions of Blood Solution: a) transportation of oxygen, carbon dioxide, nutrients, wastes, heat, and hormones b) regulation of pH, body temperature, and water content of cells c) protection against blood loss and disease Question type: Multiple Choice 38) Which component of blood plasma contributes to colloid osmotic pressure? a) albumin b) enzymes c) fibrinogen d) immunoglobulin Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 12.3 Describe the principal components of blood and the importance of hematocrit.

Study Objective 2: SO 12.3.1 Describe the principal components of blood.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.3 Components of Blood Question type: Essay 39) Describe the anatomical features of a mature red blood cell that suits it for its functions of gas transport.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard

Bloom’s: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 12.5 Describe the structure, function, and production of red blood cells and the basis for ABO and RH grouping.

Study Objective 2: SO 12.5.1 Describe the structure and functions of red blood cells.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.5 Red Blood Cells Solution: a) It has the shape of a biconcave disc which helps make the cell flexible, and the cytoplasm is all in close proximity to the cell surface. b) It lacks a nucleus and some organelles such as endoplasmic reticulum and thus has more space for gas transport. c) The cytosol contains hemoglobin (33% of cell weight). d) There are no mitochondria, and therefore the cell metabolizes anaerobically, and does not use up any of the carried oxygen.

Question type: Multiple Select 40) Athletes who engage in the illegal practice of blood doping (Select all that apply.) a) may have blood that is more difficult for the heart to pump. b) may experience decreased blood pressure. c) may have an increased risk of stroke. d) may experience anemia.

Answer: a, c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 12.5 Describe the structure, function, and production of red blood cells and the basis for ABO and RH grouping.

Study Objective 2: SO 12.5.2 Explain how red blood cells are produced.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.5 Red Blood Cells 41) Common characteristics of the different types of anemia include (Select all that apply.) a) fatigue. b) heat intolerance. c) pale skin. d) reduced hematocrit.

Answer: a, c, d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 12.5 Describe the structure, function, and production of red blood cells and the basis for ABO and RH grouping.

Study Objective 2: SO 12.5.1 Describe the structure and functions of red blood cells.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.5 Red Blood Cells Question type: Multiple Choice 42) Normal globin is composed of a) one alpha and one delta chain. b) two alpha and two beta chains. c) two beta and two delta chains. d) one gamma and one delta chain.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 12.5 Describe the structure, function, and production of red blood cells and the basis for ABO and RH grouping.

Study Objective 2: SO 12.5.1 Describe the structure and functions of red blood cells.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.5 Red Blood Cells 43) Which of the following is a chemical released by neutrophils which pokes holes in bacterial cell membranes? a) defensins b) heparin c) histamine d) hydrogen peroxide Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 12.6 Describe the structure, function, and differential blood cell count for white blood cells.

Study Objective 2: SO 12.6.1 Describe the structure and functions of white blood cells.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.6 White Blood Cells 44) The study of blood and blood-forming tissues is called a) hematology. b) microbiology. c) pathology.

d) immunology.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 12.1 Outline the functions of blood.

Study Objective 2: SO 12.1.2 Describe the functions of blood.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.1 Functions of Blood 45) The molecules that are the most abundant and also the smallest of the plasma proteins are the a) actins. b) albumins. c) fibrinogens. d) globulins.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 12.3 Describe the principal components of blood and the importance of hematocrit.

Study Objective 2: SO 12.3.1 Describe the principal components of blood.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.3 Components of Blood 46) The process of blood cell formation is called a) erythropoiesis. b) hematopoiesis. c) leukopoiesis. d) thrombopoiesis.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 12.4 Explain the origin of blood cells.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.4 Formation of Blood Cells Question type: Multiple Select

47) A damaged, old red blood cell is removed from the circulation by resting macrophages.

Which organs would those macrophages reside in? Select all that apply. a) liver b) pancreas c) spleen d) stomach Answer: a, c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 12.5 Describe the structure, function, and production of red blood cells and the basis for ABO and RH grouping.

Study Objective 2: SO 12.5.1 Describe the structure and functions of red blood cells.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.5 Red Blood Cells Question type: Multiple Choice 48) Giancarlo is experiencing hypoxia. His kidneys will produce which hormone to help to correct the problem? a) erythropoietin b) growth hormone c) insulin d) thrombopoietin Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 12.5 Describe the structure, function, and production of red blood cells and the basis for ABO and RH grouping.

Study Objective 2: SO 12.5.2 Explain how red blood cells are produced.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.5 Red Blood Cells 49) B cells develop into a) eosinophils whose function is to produce heparin. b) helper T cells whose function is to kill virally infected cells. c) NK cells whose function is to produce defensins and poke holes in bacterial membranes. d) plasma cells whose function is to produce antibodies that help destroy bacteria and inactivate their toxins.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 12.6 Describe the structure, function, and differential blood cell count for white blood cells.

Study Objective 2: SO 12.6.1 Describe the structure and functions of white blood cells.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.6 White Blood Cells 50) The white blood cells that are the first to respond to tissue destruction caused by bacteria are the a) basophils. b) lymphocytes. c) monocytes. d) neutrophils.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 12.6 Describe the structure, function, and differential blood cell count for white blood cells.

Study Objective 2: SO 12.6.1 Describe the structure and functions of white blood cells.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.6 White Blood Cells 51) A white blood cell count below normal is called a) leukocytosis. b) leukopenia. c) lymphocytosis. d) lymphopenia.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 12.6 Describe the structure, function, and differential blood cell count for white blood cells.

Study Objective 2: SO 12.6.2 Define differential white blood cell count.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.6 White Blood Cells

52) Which type of cell is responsible for the rejection of transplanted organs? a) basophil b) B cell c) eosinophil d) T cell Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 12.6 Describe the structure, function, and differential blood cell count for white blood cells.

Study Objective 2: SO 12.6.1 Describe the structure and functions of white blood cells.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.6 White Blood Cells 53) Several different chemicals released by microbes and inflamed tissues attract phagocytes, a phenomenon called a) chemotaxis. b) diapedesis. c) emigration. d) hematopoiesis.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 12.6 Describe the structure, function, and differential blood cell count for white blood cells.

Study Objective 2: SO 12.6.1 Describe the structure and functions of white blood cells.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.6 White Blood Cells 54) Which type of stem cell gives rise to erythrocytes, platelets, granular leukocytes, and monocytes? a) lymphoid b) myeloid c) pluripotent Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge

Study Objective 1: SO 12.4 Explain the origin of blood cells.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.4 Formation of Blood Cells 55) What type of cells may be referred to as colony-forming units (CFUs)? a) mature erythrocytes b) mature leukocytes c) progenitor cells d) stem cells Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 12.4 Explain the origin of blood cells.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.4 Formation of Blood Cells 56) Which type of stem cell would give rise to a B cell? a) lymphoid b) myeloid c) pluripotent Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 12.4 Explain the origin of blood cells.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.4 Formation of Blood Cells 57) Which type of stem cell gives rise to all formed elements of blood? a) lymphoid b) myeloid c) pluripotent Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 12.4 Explain the origin of blood cells.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.4 Formation of Blood Cells

58) Which would be the best method of determining the level of oxygen in a patient’s blood? a) arterial stick b) heel stick c) venipuncture Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 12.3 Describe the principal components of blood and the importance of hematocrit.

Study Objective 2: SO 12.3.1 Describe the principal components of blood.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.3 Components of Blood 59) Which plasma component helps to catalyze chemical reactions? a) albumins b) electrolytes c) enzymes d) vitamins Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 12.3 Describe the principal components of blood and the importance of hematocrit.

Study Objective 2: SO 12.3.1 Describe the principal components of blood.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.3 Components of Blood 60) A student is looking at a blood smear in the microscope. The student sees a biconcave, discshaped cell that contains no nucleus. The student should identify the cell as a(n) a) eosinophil. b) lymphocyte. c) platelet. d) red blood cell.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium

Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 12.5 Describe the structure, function, and production of red blood cells and the basis for ABO and RH grouping.

Study Objective 2: SO 12.5.1 Describe the structure and functions of red blood cells.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.5 Red Blood Cells 61) A patient has been exposed to gamma radiation which has destroyed the patient’s red bone marrow. Which type of condition might the patient experience? a) aplastic anemia b) hemolytic anemia c) megaloblastic anemia d) thalassemia Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 12.5 Describe the structure, function, and production of red blood cells and the basis for ABO and RH grouping.

Study Objective 2: SO 12.5.1 Describe the structure and functions of red blood cells.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.5 Red Blood Cells 62) A cell that has large granules in the cytoplasm, stains red-orange with acidic dyes and typically contains a two or three lobed nucleus is a(n) a) basophil. b) eosinophil. c) monocyte. d) neutrophil.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 12.6 Describe the structure, function, and differential blood cell count for white blood cells.

Study Objective 2: SO 12.6.1 Describe the structure and functions of white blood cells.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.6 White Blood Cells 63) A cell that contains a multilobed nucleus and fine lilac granules is a(n) a) basophil.

b) eosinophil. c) monocyte. d) neutrophil.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 12.6 Describe the structure, function, and differential blood cell count for white blood cells.

Study Objective 2: SO 12.6.1 Describe the structure and functions of white blood cells.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.6 White Blood Cells 64) When T cells attack the recipient’s tissues following a bone marrow transplant, the recipient is experiencing a) aplastic anemia. b) graft-versus-host disease. c) sickle-cell disease. d) thalassemia.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 12.8 Explain the importance of bone marrow transplants and stem cell transplants.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.8 Stem Cell Transplants from Bone Marrow and Cord-Blood 65) The component labeled A

a) is called the buffy coat and comprises approximately 60% of the blood volume.

b) is called the plasma and comprises approximately 55% of the blood volume. c) is the red blood cell portion and comprises approximately 40% of the blood volume. d) is the white blood cell portion and comprises approximately 70% of the blood volume.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 12.3 Describe the principal components of blood and the importance of hematocrit.

Study Objective 2: SO 12.3.1 Describe the principal components of blood.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.3 Components of Blood 66) Approximately what percentage of a centrifuged sample of whole blood is occupied by red blood cells?

a) 15% b) 35% c) 45% d) 55% Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 12.3 Describe the principal components of blood and the importance of hematocrit.

Study Objective 2: SO 12.3.1 Describe the principal components of blood.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.3 Components of Blood

67) Which cell is involved in the condition known as Polycythemia?

a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 12.3 Describe the principal components of blood and the importance of hematocrit.

Study Objective 2: SO 12.3.2 Explain the importance of hematocrit.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.3 Components of Blood

68) Which cell type would be most likely to multiply uncontrollably in the condition known as Leukemia?

a) A b) B c) C d) A and C Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 12.6 Describe the structure, function, and differential blood cell count for white blood cells.

Study Objective 2: SO 12.6.1 Describe the structure and functions of white blood cells.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.6 White Blood Cells

69) Which cell type initiates a series of reactions resulting in blood clotting?

a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 12.7 Describe the structure, function, and origin of platelets.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.7 Platelets 70) Red blood cells and white blood cells are directly involved in which two functions of blood? a) protection and regulation b) regulation and transportation c) transportation and protection Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 12.1 Outline the functions of blood.

Study Objective 2: SO 12.1.2 Describe the functions of blood.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.1 Functions of Blood 71) What is the major function of plasma fibrinogen?

a) carrying oxygen and carbon dioxide b) regulating blood clotting c) regulating osmotic pressure d) storing energy as ATP Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 12.3 Describe the principal components of blood and the importance of hematocrit.

Study Objective 2: SO 12.3.1 Describe the principal components of blood.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.3 Components of Blood 72) Your patient has chronically low B lymphocyte and T lymphocyte levels but sufficient erythrocyte and platelet levels. Which cell is most likely developing incorrectly? a) lymphoid stem cell b) myeloid stem cell c) T lymphoblast cells d) pluripotent stem cell Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 12.4 Explain the origin of blood cells.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.4 Formation of Blood Cells 73) A group of tests that would include a test for measuring glucose levels is called a a) basic metabolic panel. b) blood enzyme test. c) CBC. d) lipoprotein panel.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 12.3 Describe the principal components of blood and the importance of hematocrit.

Study Objective 2: SO 12.3.1 Describe the principal components of blood.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.3 Components of Blood

74) Which type of stem cell transplant is less likely to cause graft-versus-host-disease? a) bone marrow transplant b) cord-blood transplant Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 12.8 Explain the importance of bone marrow transplants and stem cell transplants.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.8 Stem Cell Transplants from Bone Marrow and Cord-Blood Question type: True/False 75) If the total volume of blood in a test tube was 10 mL and the volume of red blood cells was 3 mL, the hematocrit value is 3%.

Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 12.3 Describe the principal components of blood and the importance of hematocrit.

Study Objective 2: SO 12.3.2 Explain the importance of hematocrit.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.3 Components of Blood Question type: Multiple Choice 76) A cell near the end of erythrocyte development, but not yet a mature erythrocyte is called a(n) a) colony forming unit. b) erythroblast. c) proerythroblast. d) reticulocyte.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy

Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 12.5 Describe the structure, function, and production of red blood cells and the basis for ABO and RH grouping.

Study Objective 2: SO 12.5.2 Explain how red blood cells are produced.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.5 Red Blood Cells 77) A patient has no A antigens and no B antigens on their red blood cells. This patient is blood type a) A. b) B. c) AB. d) O. Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 12.5 Describe the structure, function, and production of red blood cells and the basis for ABO and RH grouping.

Study Objective 2: SO 12.5.3 Describe the basis for the ABO and RH grouping systems.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.5 Red Blood Cells 78) A patient is blood type B. This patient would have which antibodies? a) anti-A b) anti-B Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 12.5 Describe the structure, function, and production of red blood cells and the basis for ABO and RH grouping.

Study Objective 2: SO 12.5.3 Describe the basis for the ABO and RH grouping systems.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.5 Red Blood Cells 79) All of the following are benefits of stem cells from a cord-blood transplant over a traditional bone marrow transplant EXCEPT a) they are more abundant than stem cells in red bone marrow. b) they are less likely to cause graft-versus-host disease. c) they are less likely to transmit infections.

d) they are more difficult to collect than stem cells in red bone marrow.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 12.8 Explain the importance of bone marrow transplants and stem cell transplants.

Section Reference 1: Sec 12.8 Stem Cell Transplants From Bone Marrow and Cord-Blood

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pha15 Chapter Number: 13 Question type: Multiple Choice 1) Desmosomes and gap junctions are found in a) endocardium. b) chordae tendineae. c) epicardium. d) intercalated discs.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Identify the hearts’ internal and external structures, explaining how each contributes to the function of the heart.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.2 Identify the layers of the heart wall.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Structure and Function of the Heart 2) An external boundary between the superior atria and inferior ventricles is formed by the a) fossa ovalis b) foramen ovale c) coronary sulcus d) interventricular sulcus Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Identify the hearts’ internal and external structures, explaining how each contributes to the function of the heart.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.3 Discuss the external and internal anatomy of the chambers of the heart.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Structure and Function of the Heart 3) Which of the following vessels deliver blood to the right atrium?

1 superior vena cava 2 inferior vena cava

3 pulmonary veins 4 coronary sinus 5 pulmonary arteries a) 1, 2, 3, 4 only b) 1, 4, 5 only c) 1, 2, 4 only d) 2, 3 only Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Identify the hearts’ internal and external structures, explaining how each contributes to the function of the heart.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.3 Discuss the external and internal anatomy of the chambers of the heart.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Structure and Function of the Heart 4) What is the term for the severe pain that usually accompanies a heart attack? a) myocardial ischemia b) myocardial infarction c) angina pectoris d) hypoxia Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 13.3 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart and the systemic, pulmonary and coronary circulations.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.3.2 Describe the arteries and veins of the coronary circulation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.3 Circulation of Blood 5) Regarding a myocardial infarction (MI), heart tissue distal to an arterial obstruction dies and is replaced by a) contractile cardiac muscle tissue b) noncontractile scar tissue c) adipose tissue d) hyaline cartilage Answer: b

Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 13.3 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart and the systemic, pulmonary and coronary circulations.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.3.2 Describe the arteries and veins of the coronary circulation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.3 Circulation of Blood 6) Which of the following vessels carries blood away from the heart? a) coronary sinus b) pulmonary vein c) inferior vena cava d) pulmonary artery Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 13.3 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart and the systemic, pulmonary and coronary circulations.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.3.1 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart and through the systemic and pulmonary circulations.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.3 Circulation of Blood 7) There are four valves in the heart: 1 left atrioventricular (bicuspid or mitral) 2 right atrioventricular (tricuspid) 3 pulmonary semilunar 4 aortic semilunar What is the correct order in which blood flows through these valves, starting in the right atrium? a) 1, 4, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2, 4 c) 2, 3, 1, 4 d) 2, 4, 1, 3 Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 13.3 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart and the systemic, pulmonary and coronary circulations.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.3.1 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart and through the systemic and pulmonary circulations.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.3 Circulation of Blood 8) The atrioventricular (AV) valve in the left side of the heart is known as the a) bicuspid (mitral) b) pulmonary semilunar. c) tricuspid. d) aortic semilunar.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Identify the hearts’ internal and external structures, explaining how each contributes to the function of the heart.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.3 Discuss the external and internal anatomy of the chambers of the heart.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Structure and Function of the Heart 9) Which of the following pairs of terms is/are NOT correctly matched? a) left atrioventricular valve; oxygenated blood b) right atrioventricular valve; deoxygenated blood c) pulmonary semilunar valve; deoxygenated blood d) aortic semilunar valve; deoxygenated blood Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 13.3 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart and the systemic, pulmonary and coronary circulations.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.3.1 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart and through the systemic and pulmonary circulations.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.3 Circulation of Blood 10) Which of the following are branches of the left coronary artery?

1 marginal branch 2 circumflex branch 3 anterior interventricular branch 4 posterior interventricular branch

a) 1, 2, 3 b) 2, 4 c) 1, 3 only d) 2, 3 only Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 13.3 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart and the systemic, pulmonary and coronary circulations.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.3.2 Describe the arteries and veins of the coronary circulation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.3 Circulation of Blood 11) Which vessel does NOT supply blood to the wall of the right ventricle? a) anterior interventricular branch b) posterior interventricular branch c) marginal branch d) circumflex branch Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 13.3 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart and the systemic, pulmonary and coronary circulations.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.3.2 Describe the arteries and veins of the coronary circulation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.3 Circulation of Blood 12) A vascular sinus, such as the coronary sinus, is best described as a) a thin-walled vein that has no smooth muscle to alter its diameter. b) a thin-walled artery that has no smooth muscle to alter its diameter. c) a connection between blood vessels that allows for multiple routes of blood flow. d) a blood-filled connective tissue.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 13.3 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart and the systemic, pulmonary and coronary circulations.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.3.2 Describe the arteries and veins of the coronary circulation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.3 Circulation of Blood 13) Which condition of the heart is caused by scar formation? a) mitral stenosis b) tricuspid stenosis c) patent (open) ductus arteriosus d) increased number of trabeculae carneae Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Identify the hearts’ internal and external structures, explaining how each contributes to the function of the heart.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.6 List the structure and function of each valve of the heart.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Structure and Function of the Heart 14) The vascular sinus in the coronary sulcus on the posterior surface of the heart, which empties into the right atrium, is called the a) right coronary artery. b) anterior interventricular artery. c) middle cardiac vein. d) coronary sinus.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 13.3 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart and the systemic, pulmonary and coronary circulations.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.3.2 Describe the arteries and veins of the coronary circulation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.3 Circulation of Blood 15) All of the following are examples of an arrhythmia EXCEPT a) bradycardia b) tachycardia c) fibrillation d) stenosis

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 13.4 Describe the structure and function of the cardiac conduction system, the electrocardiogram as a diagnostic tool and the innervation of the heart.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.4.2 Define an electrocardiogram and indicate its diagnostic importance.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.4 Cardiac Conduction System and Innervation 16) The spread of depolarization from the sinoatrial (SA) node through the two atria is recorded on an electrocardiogram (ECG) as the a) QRS wave b) U wave c) P wave d) T wave Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 13.4 Describe the structure and function of the cardiac conduction system, the electrocardiogram as a diagnostic tool and the innervation of the heart.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.4.2 Define an electrocardiogram and indicate its diagnostic importance.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.4 Cardiac Conduction System and Innervation 17) When auscultating heart sounds, S2 is caused by blood turbulence associated with closure of a) the AV valves at the beginning of ventricular diastole b) the Semilunar valves at the beginning of ventricular systole c) the AV valves at the beginning of ventricular systole d) the Semilunar valves at the beginning of ventricular diastole Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 13.6 Describe how heart sounds are produced.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.6 Heart Sounds 18) When auscultating heart sounds, S1 is caused by blood turbulence associated with closure of

a) the AV valves soon after ventricular diastole begins b) the Semilunar valves soon after ventricular systole begins c) the AV valves soon after ventricular systole begins d) the Semilunar valves soon after ventricular diastole begins Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 13.6 Describe how heart sounds are produced.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.6 Heart Sounds 19) Chronic pericarditis can lead to a buildup of pericardial fluid which results in a lifethreatening condition known as a) cardiac tamponade b) mitral valve prolapse c) murmur d) rheumatic fever Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Identify the hearts’ internal and external structures, explaining how each contributes to the function of the heart.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.1 Describe the structure of the pericardium.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Structure and Function of the Heart Question type: True/False 20) Partial obstruction of blood flow in the coronary arteries may cause myocardial infarction.

Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 13.3 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart and the systemic, pulmonary and coronary circulations.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.3.2 Describe the arteries and veins of the coronary circulation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.3 Circulation of Blood

Question type: Multiple Choice 21) Pericardial fluid is located in a space external (superficial) to the a) parietal pericardium b) visceral pericardium Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Identify the hearts’ internal and external structures, explaining how each contributes to the function of the heart.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.1 Describe the structure of the pericardium.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Structure and Function of the Heart 22) The fibrous pericardium is composed of a) dense irregular connective tissue b) dense regular connective tissue c) elastic connective tissue d) loose connective tissue Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Identify the hearts’ internal and external structures, explaining how each contributes to the function of the heart.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.1 Describe the structure of the pericardium.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Structure and Function of the Heart Question type: True/False 23) Desmosomes function to hold cardiac muscle fibers (cells) firmly together.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge

Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Identify the hearts’ internal and external structures, explaining how each contributes to the function of the heart.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.2 Identify the layers of the heart wall.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Structure and Function of the Heart Question type: Multiple Choice 24) A thin spot or depression in the interatrial septum is the a) chordae tendineae b) fossa ovalis c) ligamentum arteriosum d) trabeculae carneae Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Identify the hearts’ internal and external structures, explaining how each contributes to the function of the heart.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.3 Discuss the external and internal anatomy of the chambers of the heart.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Structure and Function of the Heart Question type: True/False 25) The coronary sinus carries oxygenated blood.

Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 13.3 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart and the systemic, pulmonary and coronary circulations.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.3.2 Describe the arteries and veins of the coronary circulation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.3 Circulation of Blood 26) The pulmonary veins carry deoxygenated blood to the lungs.

Answer: False

Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 13.3 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart and the systemic, pulmonary and coronary circulations.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.3.1 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart and through the systemic and pulmonary circulations.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.3 Circulation of Blood 27) The coronary arteries carry oxygenated blood to the myocardium.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 13.3 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart and the systemic, pulmonary and coronary circulations.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.3.2 Describe the arteries and veins of the coronary circulation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.3 Circulation of Blood Question type: Multiple Choice 28) The tricuspid valve is located at the a) left atrioventricular opening b) right atrioventricular opening Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Identify the hearts’ internal and external structures, explaining how each contributes to the function of the heart.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.3 Discuss the external and internal anatomy of the chambers of the heart.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Structure and Function of the Heart 29) Chordae tendineae assist the cusps of which valves in preventing backflow of blood? a) atrioventricular valves b) semilunar valves Answer: a

Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Identify the hearts’ internal and external structures, explaining how each contributes to the function of the heart.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.6 List the structure and function of each valve of the heart Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Structure and Function of the Heart Question type: True/False 30) A heart murmur is not always an indication of a serious health problem.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 13.6 Describe how heart sounds are produced.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.6 Heart Sounds Question type: Multiple Choice 31) Two arteries connect to provide an alternate route for blood to get to an organ. The connections are called a) anastomoses b) desmosomes c) intercalated discs d) subendocardial conducting networks Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 13.3 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart and the systemic, pulmonary and coronary circulations.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.3.2 Describe the arteries and veins of the coronary circulation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.3 Circulation of Blood 32) The middle cardiac vein in the posterior interventricular sulcus drains

a) the areas of the heart supplied by the inferior interventricular branch of the right coronary artery b) both ventricles and the left atrium as supplied by the left coronary artery c) the right atrium and the right ventricle d) the right ventricle and opens up into the right atrium Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 13.3 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart and the systemic, pulmonary and coronary circulations.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.3.2 Describe the arteries and veins of the coronary circulation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.3 Circulation of Blood Question type: True/False 33) The heart cannot contract without signals from the autonomic nervous system.

Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 13.4 Describe the structure and function of the cardiac conduction system, the electrocardiogram as a diagnostic tool and the innervation of the heart.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.4.3 Describe the innervation of the heart.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.4 Cardiac Conduction System and Innervation Question type: Multiple Select 34) Impulses from the a) parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system slow down heart rate b) parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system increase heart rate c) sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system slow down heart rate d) sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system increase heart rate Answer: a, d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis

Study Objective 1: SO 13.4 Describe the structure and function of the cardiac conduction system, the electrocardiogram as a diagnostic tool and the innervation of the heart.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.4.3 Describe the innervation of the heart.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.4 Cardiac Conduction System and Innervation Question type: Multiple Choice 35) On day 21 following fertilization, the paired primordial tubes unite to form the a) bulbus cordis b) cardiogenic cords c) endocardial cushions d) primitive heart tube Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 13.8 Describe the development of the heart.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.8 Development of the Heart Question type: True/False 36) The heart is the first organ to function in an embryo, beginning to pump blood on day 22 following fertilization.

Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 13.8 Describe the development of the heart.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.8 Development of the Heart 37) Heart murmurs in children are rare and usually are considered life-threatening.

Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 13.6 Describe how heart sounds are produced.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.6 Heart Sounds

Question type: Multiple Choice 38) Most often a heart murmur in an adult indicates a) a damaged pericardium b) a dysfunctional SA node c) myocardial ischemia d) a valve disorder Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 13.6 Describe how heart sounds are produced.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.6 Heart Sounds Question type: Essay 39) Surface projection refers to outlining the shape and location of an organ using landmarks on the surface of the organ body. Describe the surface projection of the heart.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the anatomical location of the heart.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.1.2 Trace the outline of the heart on the surface of the chest Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Location and Surface Projection of the Heart Solution: See Figure 13.1d.

1. superior right point: 3 cm to the right of the midline, at the superior border of the third right costal cartilage 2. superior left point: 3 cm to the left of the midline, at the inferior border of the second left costal cartilage (A line connecting these two points corresponds to the base of the heart.)

3. inferior left point: 9 cm to the left of the midline, in the fifth left intercostal space. This corresponds to the apex of the heart. (A line connecting the superior and inferior left points corresponds to the left border of the heart.)

4. inferior right point: 3 cm to the right of the midline, at the superior border of the sixth right costal cartilage (A line connecting the inferior left and right points corresponds to the inferior surface of the heart. A line connecting the inferior and superior right points corresponds to the right border of the heart.)

Question type: Multiple Choice 40) Which is the current acronym used in CPR? a) ABC (airway, breathing, chest compressions) b) BAC (breathing, airway, chest compressions) c) CAB (chest compressions, airway, breathing) Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the anatomical location of the heart.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.1.2 Trace the outline of the heart on the surface of the chest.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Location and Surface Projection of the Heart Question type: Essay 41) Trace the path of a drop of blood from the time it enters the heart via the superior vena cava until it is in the arch of the aorta.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 13.3 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart and the systemic, pulmonary and coronary circulations.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.3.1 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart and through the systemic and pulmonary circulations.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.3 Circulation of Blood Solution: The route described should contain, in order, the following: SVC, right atrium, right ventricle, pulmonary trunk, pulmonary artery, (capillaries in) lungs, pulmonary vein, left atrium, left ventricle, ascending aorta, arch of aorta.

Question type: Multiple Select 42) Select functions of the fibrous skeleton of the heart. (Select all that apply.) a) depolarization for muscle contraction b) electrical insulation between the atria and ventricles

c) point of attachment for cardiac muscle fibers d) prevention of overstretching of valves as blood passes through Answer: b, c, d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Identify the hearts’ internal and external structures, explaining how each contributes to the function of the heart.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.5 Describe the functions of the fibrous skeleton of the heart.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Structure and Function of the Heart 43) Compare and contrast a skeletal muscle cell and a cardiac muscle cell. (Select all that apply.) a) both cardiac muscle cells and skeletal muscle cells are striated b) cardiac muscle cells are branched while skeletal muscle cells are non-branching c) skeletal muscle cells are involuntarily controlled while cardiac muscle cells are voluntarily controlled d) skeletal muscle cells have larger and more numerous mitochondria than cardiac muscle cells Answer: a, b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Identify the hearts' internal and external structures, explaining how each contributes to the function of the heart.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.2 Identify the layers of the heart wall.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Structure and Function of the Heart Question type: Multiple Choice 44) Which best describes the order of propagation of a cardiac action potential?

1. AV bundle 2. AV node 3. right and left bundle branches 4. SA node 5. Subendocardial conducting network a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 b) 2, 4, 3, 5, 1 c) 4, 2, 1, 3, 5 d) 5, 3, 4, 2, 1

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 13.4 Describe the structure and function of the cardiac conduction system, the electrocardiogram as a diagnostic tool and the innervation of the heart.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.4.1 Explain the structural and functional features of the cardiac conduction system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.4 Cardiac Conduction System and Innervation Question type: Multiple Select 45) Paul experienced heart pain and it scared him to get in shape. He began doing aerobic exercise several times per week. What changes can he expect to make? (Select all that apply.) a) decreased heart rate b) decreased size of his heart c) increased amount of blood ejected from the ventricles per minute d) increased capillary networks in skeletal muscle Answer: a, c, d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 13.7 Explain how the heart is affected by exercise.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.7 Exercise and The Heart Question type: Multiple Choice 46) The part of the heart that is the pointed end and is formed by the tip of the left ventricle is the a) apex b) auricle c) base d) fibrous skeleton Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the anatomical location of the heart.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.1.1 Describe the location of the heart.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Location and Surface Projection of the Heart 47) The study of the heart and heart disease is called a) cardiology b) hematology c) pneumatology d) rheumatology Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the anatomical location of the heart.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.1.1 Describe the location of the heart.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Location and Surface Projection of the Heart 48) The pericardial cavity is found between the epicardium and the a) parietal layer of the serous pericardium b) visceral layer of the serous pericardium Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Identify the hearts' internal and external structures, explaining how each contributes to the function of the heart.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.1 Describe the structure of the pericardium.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Structure and Function of the Heart 49) Each atrium has what structure, which functions to increase the effective volume of the atrium? a) auricle b) chordae tendineae c) semilunar valve d) trabeculae carneae Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension

Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Identify the hearts' internal and external structures, explaining how each contributes to the function of the heart.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.3 Discuss the external and internal anatomy of the chambers of the heart.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Structure and Function of the Heart 50) The anterior and posterior interventricular sulci are external features that mark the location of the a) foramen ovale b) fossa ovalis c) interatrial septum d) interventricular septum Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Identify the hearts' internal and external structures, explaining how each contributes to the function of the heart.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.3 Discuss the external and internal anatomy of the chambers of the heart.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Structure and Function of the Heart 51) Atrioventricular (AV) valve cusps are connected by strong cords called a) auricles b) chordae tendineae c) papillary muscles d) trabeculae carneae Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Identify the hearts' internal and external structures, explaining how each contributes to the function of the heart.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.6 List the structure and function of each valve of the heart.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Structure and Function of the Heart 52) Which branch of the left coronary artery is located in the coronary sulcus? a) anterior interventricular

b) circumflex c) left anterior descending d) marginal Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 13.3 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart and the systemic, pulmonary and coronary circulations.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.3.2 Describe the arteries and veins of the coronary circulation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.3 Circulation of Blood

53) Which vessel, in the anterior interventricular sulcus, drains the areas of the heart supplied by the left coronary artery (left and right ventricles and left atrium)? a) anterior cardiac vein b) great cardiac vein c) middle cardiac vein d) small cardiac vein Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 13.3 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart and the systemic, pulmonary and coronary circulations.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.3.2 Describe the arteries and veins of the coronary circulation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.3 Circulation of Blood 54) During embryonic development, which percentage of the cardiac muscle fibers become autorhythmic cells? a) 1% b) 10% c) 20% d) 23% Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge

Study Objective 1: SO 13.4 Describe the structure and function of the cardiac conduction system, the electrocardiogram as a diagnostic tool and the innervation of the heart.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.4.1 Explain the structural and functional features of the cardiac conduction system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.4 Cardiac Conduction System and Innervation Question type: Multiple Select 55)Which of the following describes the epicardium? (Select all that apply.) a) continuous with the lining of the blood vessels attached to the heart b) composed of mesothelium and connective tissue c) external layer of the wall of the heart d) responsible for the pumping action of the heart Answer: b, c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Identify the hearts' internal and external structures, explaining how each contributes to the function of the heart.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.2 Identify the layers of the heart wall.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Structure and Function of the Heart 56) Which of the following describes the myocardium? (Select all that apply.) a) composed of cardiac muscle tissue b) continuous with the endothelial lining of the large blood vessels c) covers the valves of the heart d) thickest layer of the heart wall Answer: a, d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Identify the hearts' internal and external structures, explaining how each contributes to the function of the heart.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.2 Identify the layers of the heart wall.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Structure and Function of the Heart 57) Which of the following describes the endocardium? (Select all that apply.)

a) continuous with the lining of the blood vessels attached to the heart b) covers the valves of the heart c) layer next to pericardial cavity d) minimizes surface friction as blood passes through the heart Answer: a, b, d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Identify the hearts' internal and external structures, explaining how each contributes to the function of the heart.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.2 Identify the layers of the heart wall.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Structure and Function of the Heart 58) Which of the following describes the SA node? (Select all that apply.) a) conducts action potentials from the atria to the ventricles b) located in the interatrial septum c) located in the right atrial wall d) sends wave of depolarization throughout atria Answer: c, d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 13.4 Describe the structure and function of the cardiac conduction system, the electrocardiogram as a diagnostic tool and the innervation of the heart.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.4.1 Explain the structural and functional features of the cardiac conduction system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.4 Cardiac Conduction System and Innervation 59) Which of the following describes the atrioventricular bundle? (Select all that apply.) a) also known as the bundle of His b) also known as Purkinje fibers c) carries depolarization wave through the interventricular septum toward apex of heart d) the electrical connection between the atria and the ventricles Answer: a, d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis

Study Objective 1: SO 13.4 Describe the structure and function of the cardiac conduction system, the electrocardiogram as a diagnostic tool and the innervation of the heart.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.4.1 Explain the structural and functional features of the cardiac conduction system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.4 Cardiac Conduction System and Innervation Question type: Multiple Choice 60) The pulmonary trunk a) carries deoxygenated blood away from the heart b) carries deoxygenated blood toward the heart c) carries oxygenated blood away from the heart d) carries oxygenated blood toward the heart Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 13.3 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart and the systemic, pulmonary and coronary circulations.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.3.1 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart and through the systemic and pulmonary circulations.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.3 Circulation of Blood 61) The aorta a) carries deoxygenated blood away from the heart b) carries deoxygenated blood toward the heart c) carries oxygenated blood away from the heart d) carries oxygenated blood toward the heart Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 13.3 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart and the systemic, pulmonary and coronary circulations.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.3.1 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart and through the systemic and pulmonary circulations.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.3 Circulation of Blood

62) The pulmonary vein a) carries deoxygenated blood away from the heart b) carries deoxygenated blood toward the heart c) carries oxygenated blood away from the heart d) carries oxygenated blood toward the heart Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 13.3 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart and the systemic, pulmonary and coronary circulations.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.3.1 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart and through the systemic and pulmonary circulations.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.3 Circulation of Blood 63) The pulmonary vein enters the a) right atrium b) left atrium c) right ventricle d) left ventricle Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 13.3 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart and the systemic, pulmonary and coronary circulations.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.3.1 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart and through the systemic and pulmonary circulations Section Reference 1: Sec 13.3 Circulation of Blood 64) The right ventricle a) receives oxygenated blood b) receives deoxygenated blood Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension

Study Objective 1: SO 13.3 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart and the systemic, pulmonary and coronary circulations.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.3.1 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart and through the systemic and pulmonary circulations.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.3 Circulation of Blood 65) Which label is pointing to the ventricle with the thickest myocardium?

a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Identify the hearts' internal and external structures, explaining how each contributes to the function of the heart.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.4 Relate the thickness of the chambers of the heart to their functions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Structure and Function of the Heart

66) Which label is pointing to a ventricle that only has to pump blood a short distance to the lungs?

a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Identify the hearts' internal and external structures, explaining how each contributes to the function of the heart.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.4 Relate the thickness of the chambers of the heart to their functions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Structure and Function of the Heart 67) In a normal cardiac cycle, the contraction phase of a heart chamber is termed a) diastole b) systole Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge

Study Objective 1: SO 13.5 Describe the phases associated with a cardiac cycle.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.5 Cardiac Cycle (Heartbeat) 68) During the relaxation period of the cardiac cycle, pressure in the ventricular chambers drop.

This change in pressure causes blood to flow from the a) ventricles towards the aorta and pulmonary trunk. b) ventricles towards the atria. c) pulmonary trunk and aorta towards the ventricles. d) atria towards the vena cava Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 13.5 Describe the phases associated with a cardiac cycle.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.5 Cardiac Cycle (Heartbeat) 69) Most of the ventricular filling occurs during which phase of the cardiac cycle? a) atrial systole b) relaxation period c) ventricular systole Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 13.5 Describe the phases associated with a cardiac cycle.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.5 Cardiac Cycle (Heartbeat) 70) During which phase of the cardiac cycle are the AV valves closed? a) atrial systole b) relaxation period c) ventricular systole Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 13.5 Describe the phases associated with a cardiac cycle.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.5 Cardiac Cycle (Heartbeat)

71) Regular exercise can lead to a reduction in all of the following EXCEPT: a) blood pressure. b) anxiety. c) depression. d) cardiac output.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 13.7 Explain how the heart is affected by exercise.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.7 Exercise and the Heart 72) Loops and folds form in which two regions in the primitive heart? a) sinus venosus and primitive atrium b) primitive atrium and primitive ventricle c) primitive ventricle and bulbus cordis d) bulbus cordis and truncus arteriosus Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 13.8 Describe the development of the heart.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.8 Development of the Heart Question type: Multiple Select 73) Which structure in the developing heart forms from the primitive atrium? (Select all that apply.) a) anterior wall of the right atrium b) anterior wall of the left atrium c) left auricle d) left ventricle Answer: a, b, c Difficulty: Easy

Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 13.8 Describe the development of the heart.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.8 Development of the Heart Question type: Multiple Choice 74) Which type of molecule removes excess cholesterol from body cells and transports it to the liver? a) low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) b) high-density lipoproteins (HDLs) Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 13.7 Explain how the heart is affected by exercise.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.7 Exercise and The Heart 75) The inferior surface of the heart can be described as all of the following EXCEPT a) resting on the diaphragm. b) medial to the apex. c) left of midline d) facing the right lung Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 13.1 Describe the anatomical location of the heart.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.1.1 Describe the location of the heart.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.1 Location and Surface Projection of the Heart 76) When the inside of a membrane becomes less negative than the resting membrane potential, which of the following is occurring? a) depolarization b) polarization c) repolarization Answer: a

Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 13.4 Describe the structure and function of the cardiac conduction system, the electrocardiogram as a diagnostic tool and the innervation of the heart.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.4.2 Define an electrocardiogram and indicate its diagnostic importance.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.4 Cardiac Conduction System and Innervation 77) Depolarization through the ventricles is reflected by which wave of the ECG? a) P b) QRS c) T Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 13.4 Describe the structure and function of the cardiac conduction system, the electrocardiogram as a diagnostic tool and the innervation of the heart.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.4.2 Define an electrocardiogram and indicate its diagnostic importance.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.4 Cardiac Conduction System and Innervation 78) A patient has lesions in the walls of the left coronary artery called plaques. This patient has a) atherosclerosis b) heart murmur c) mitral valve prolapse d) myocardial infarction Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 13.7 Explain how the heart is affected by exercise.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.7 Exercise and the Heart 79) Which of the following is an amino acid which may induce blood vessel damage by promoting platelet aggregation? a) C-reactive protein

b) fibrinogen c) homocysteine d) lipoprotein (a) Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 13.7 Explain how the heart is affected by exercise.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.7 Exercise and the Heart 80) Which label represents the right atrioventricular valve?

a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 13.2 Identify the hearts' internal and external structures, explaining how each contributes to the function of the heart.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.2.6 List the structure and function of each valve of the heart.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.2 Structure and Function of the Heart

81) Which structure will carry oxygenated blood away from the heart?

a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 13.3 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart and the systemic, pulmonary and coronary circulations.

Study Objective 2: SO 13.3.1 Outline the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart and the systemic and pulmonary circulations.

Section Reference 1: Sec 13.3 Circulation of Blood

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: PHA 15 Chapter Number: 14 Question type: Multiple Choice 1) Epithelial tissue forms part of which layer(s) of an artery wall?

1. tunica intima (interna) 2. tunica media 3. tunica externa a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1 only c) 1, 3 only d) 1, 2 only Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Contrast the structure and function of all types of blood vessels.

Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.1 Describe the basic structure of a blood vessel.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels 2) Elastic arteries a) are medium-sized arteries. b) restrict blood flow due to the force needed to stretch their walls. c) are also called distributing arteries. d) include the largest diameter arteries in the body.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Contrast the structure and function of all types of blood vessels.

Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.4 Distinguish between elastic (conducting) arteries and muscular (distributing) arteries.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels 3) The layer(s) of an artery wall that is/are responsible for vasoconstriction and vasodilation is/are the 1. tunica interna (intima) 2. tunica media 3. tunica externa

a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 1 and 3 d) 2 and 3 Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Contrast the structure and function of all types of blood vessels.

Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.1 Describe the basic structure of a blood vessel.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels 4) The thinnest-walled blood vessels in the body are a) capillaries. b) veins. c) venules. d) arterioles.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Contrast the structure and function of all types of blood vessels.

Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.2 Contrast the structure of arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels 5) Which of the following has the most abundant capillary networks? a) epidermis of the skin. b) lens of the eye. c) tendons. d) liver.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Contrast the structure and function of all types of blood vessels.

Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.3 Compare the functions of arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels

6) Blood flows through the following vessels in what order?

1. arteriole 2. capillary 3. metarteriole 4. venule a) 1, 2, 3, 4 b) 1, 3, 2, 4 c) 4, 2, 3, 1 d) 3, 1, 2, 4 Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Contrast the structure and function of all types of blood vessels.

Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.3 Compare the functions of arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels 7) A direct route from an arteriole to a venule is called a(n) a) fenestration. b) intercellular cleft. c) pinocytic vesicle. d) thoroughfare channel.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Contrast the structure and function of all types of blood vessels.

Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.2 Contrast the structure of arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels 8) A difference between veins and arteries is a) arteries have three layers (tunics); veins have only two layers (tunics). b) venous blood is under more pressure than is arterial blood. c) arteries have their own blood supply (vasa vasorum); veins do not. d) the tunica interna (intima) and tunica media are thinner in veins than in arteries.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Contrast the structure and function of all types of blood vessels.

Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.2 Contrast the structure of arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels 9) Which type of blood vessel(s) contain(s) the largest volume of blood when the body is at rest? a) arteries and arterioles b) veins and venules c) heart d) systemic capillaries Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Contrast the structure and function of all types of blood vessels.

Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.3 Compare the functions of arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels 10) Which of the following statements about sinusoids is FALSE? a) Their walls have large intercellular clefts that allow proteins and blood cells to pass between tissue and the bloodstream. b) Sinusoids are found in the liver, spleen and red bone marrow. c) Sinusoids function as capillaries, but are wider and more winding than other capillaries. d) Sinusoids have smaller fenestrations than other capillaries.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Contrast the structure and function of all types of blood vessels.

Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.5 Describe the types of capillaries and their functions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels 11) Blood in systemic circulation travels through which path?

1. arteries 2. capillaries 3. left ventricle 4. right atrium 5. veins a) 1, 3, 5, 2, 4 b) 4, 5, 1, 2, 3 c) 3, 1, 2, 5, 4 d) 3, 5, 4, 1, 2

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 14.2 Explain the importance of the systemic, pulmonary and hepatic portal circulation and the changes in the fetal circulatory structures after birth.

Study Objective 2: SO 14.2.1 Define systemic circulation and explain its function.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.2 Circulatory Routes - Systemic Circulation 12) Blood in pulmonary circulation travels through which path? a) left atrium, arteries, capillaries, veins, right ventricle b) left ventricle, arteries, capillaries, veins, right atrium c) right atrium, arteries, capillaries, veins, left ventricle d) right ventricle, arteries, capillaries, veins, left atrium Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 14.16 Explain why pulmonary circulation is important.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.4 Circulatory Routes - The Pulmonary Circulation 13) The branches of the arch of the aorta, in correct order from the right side of the body to the left side of the body, are 1. brachiocephalic trunk 2. left common carotid 3. left subclavian a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 1, 3 d) 3, 2, 1 Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 14.5 Identify the three principal arteries that branch from the aortic arch.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.C The Arch of the Aorta 14) What is the correct route that a drop of blood would follow as it flows through the following vessels?

1. inferior vena cava

2. thoracic aorta 3. renal artery 4. abdominal aorta 5. renal vein a) 1, 3, 5, 4, 2 b) 2, 3, 5, 4, 1 c) 2, 3, 4, 5, 1 d) 2, 4, 3, 5, 1 Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 14.6 Identify the visceral and parietal branches of the thoracic aorta.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.D Thoracic Aorta 15) What is the correct route that a drop of blood would follow as it flows through the following vessels?

1. external iliac artery 2. popliteal artery 3. anterior tibial artery 4. common iliac artery 5. femoral artery 6. dorsalis pedis (right dorsal artery of foot) artery a) 1, 4, 5, 3, 6, 2 b) 4, 1, 5, 2, 3, 6 c) 4, 1, 2, 5, 3, 6 d) 6, 3, 2, 1, 5, 4 Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 14.8 Identify the two major branches of the common iliac arteries.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.F Arteries of the Pelvis and Lower Limbs 16) What is the correct route that a drop of blood would follow as it flows through the following vessels?

1. superior vena cava 2. internal jugular vein 3. sigmoid sinuses 4. subclavian vein 5. brachiocephalic vein

a) 3, 2, 4, 5, 1 b) 1, 2, 5, 3, 4 c) 2, 3, 1, 4, 5 d) 3, 2, 5, 4, 1 Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 14.10 Identify the three major veins that drain blood from the head.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.H Veins of the Head and Neck 17) What is the correct route that a drop of blood would follow as it flows through the following vessels?

1. ulnar vein 2. palmar venous arch 3. brachial vein 4. subclavian vein 5. axillary vein 6. brachiocephalic vein a) 2, 1, 3, 5, 4, 6 b) 2, 1, 3, 4, 5, 6 c) 2, 3, 1, 5, 4, 6 d) 6, 5, 4, 3, 1, 2 Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 14.11 Identify the principal veins that drain the upper limbs.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.I Veins of the Upper Limbs 18) The gastric, pancreatic, and splenic veins are part of the a) coronary circulation. b) hepatic portal circulation. c) pulmonary circulation. d) fetal circulation only.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 14.15Describe the importance of the hepatic portal circulation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.3 Circulatory Routes - The Hepatic Portal Circulation

19) Which of the following is NOT a part of the hepatic portal system? a) splenic vein b) superior mesenteric vein c) hepatic veins d) inferior mesenteric vein Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 14.15 Describe the importance of the hepatic portal circulation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.3 Circulatory Routes - The Hepatic Portal Circulation 20) Pulmonary circulation differs from systemic circulation in that a) blood passes first through veins, then capillaries, and then arteries. b) arteries carry deoxygenated blood and veins carry oxygenated blood. c) all of the blood in pulmonary circulation is oxygenated blood. d) low oxygen levels cause pulmonary vessels to dilate, but cause systemic vessels to constrict.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 14.16 Explain why pulmonary circulation is important.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.4 Circulatory Routes - The Pulmonary Circulation 21) Trace the path of a drop of blood through pulmonary circulation, starting as it leaves the heart.

1. left atrium 2. right ventricle 3. pulmonary vein 4. pulmonary artery 5. pulmonary capillaries 6. pulmonary trunk a) 1, 6, 3, 5, 4, 2 b) 1, 6, 4, 5, 3, 2 c) 2, 6, 3, 5, 4, 1 d) 2, 6, 4, 5, 3, 1 Answer: d Difficulty: Medium

Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 14.16 Explain why pulmonary circulation is important.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.4 Circulatory Routes - The Pulmonary Circulation 22) Which of the following is NOT considered a change in the cardiovascular system due to aging? a) 50% decrease in renal blood flow b) decreased compliance (elasticity) of the aorta c) decreased size of cardiac muscle cells (fibers) d) an increase in maximum heart rate Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 14.19 Explain the effects of aging on the cardiovascular system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.7 Aging and the Cardiovascular System 23) Which position is most likely to place the greatest pressure on the inferior vena cava, thereby hindering the return of venous blood from the lower limb (causing swelling)? a) person lying in the supine position b) person lying in the prone position c) person with his/her neck hyperextended d) person with his/her ankle in dorsiflexion Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Evaluation Study Objective 1: SO 14.9 Identify the three systemic veins that return deoxygenated blood to the heart.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.G Veins of the Systemic Circulation 24) A thrombus (blood clot) formed in the knee during knee surgery has the potential to travel to the lung causing a pulmonary embolism (PE) via which of the following circulatory route? a) popliteal vein; anterior tibial vein; dorsalis pedal vein b) popliteal vein; common iliac vein; inferior vena cava; pulmonary trunk c) popliteal vein; femoral vein; superior vena cava; aorta d) popliteal vein; common iliac vein; external iliac vein; internal iliac vein Answer: b Difficulty: Medium

Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 14.14 Identify the principal superficial and deep veins that drain the lower limbs.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.L Veins of the Lower Limbs 25) Blindness or other visual disturbances will arise following a blockage of the posterior cerebral arteries. These arteries branch directly from the a) internal carotid arteries. b) basilar artery. c) vertebral arteries. d) external carotid arteries.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 14.5 Identify the three principal arteries that branch from the aortic arch.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.C The Arch of the Aorta 26) Which artery can be palpated inferior to the hamstring tendons, superior to the heads of the gastrocnemius muscle and deep posterior to the patella? a) inguinal b) iliac c) popliteal d) dorsalis pedis Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 14.8 Identify the two major branches of the common iliac arteries.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.F Arteries of the Pelvis and Lower Limbs Question type: True/False 27) Obstruction (blockage) in the radial artery will restrict ALL blood flow to the hand resulting in “blue fingernails” (a tell-tale sign of cyanosis).

Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 14.5 Identify the three principal arteries that branch from the aortic arch.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.C The Arch of the Aorta Question type: Multiple Choice 28) The injection of a solution into a varicose vein to damage the tunica intima and occlude the vein is called a) ambulatory phlebectomy. b) endovenous laser ablation. c) sclerotherapy. d) stripping.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Contrast the structure and function of all types of blood vessels.

Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.3 Compare the functions of arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels 29) Which layer of a blood vessel contains smooth muscle and elastic fibers? a) tunica externa (adventitia) b) tunica intima (interna) c) tunica media Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Contrast the structure and function of all types of blood vessels.

Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.1 Describe the basic structure of a blood vessel.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels Question type: Multiple Select 30) Select the three different types of capillaries. Select all that apply. a) continuous capillaries b) elastic capillaries c) fenestrated capillaries d) sinusoids

Answer: a, c, d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Contrast the structure and function of all types of blood vessels.

Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.5 Describe the types of capillaries and their functions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels Question type: True/False 31) A blockage in an end artery is more serious than in an anastomosing artery.

Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Contrast the structure and function of all types of blood vessels.

Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.2 Contrast the structure of arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels Question type: Multiple Choice 32) At about the level of the fourth lumbar vertebra, the abdominal aorta divides into a) left and right common iliac arteries. b) left and right inferior phrenic arteries. c) left and right renal arteries. d) left and right subclavian arteries.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 14.7 Identify the visceral and parietal branches of the abdominal aorta Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.E Abdominal Aorta 33) The blood that sustains lung tissue is supplied by the a) fetal circulation. b) hepatic portal circulation. c) pulmonary circulation. d) systemic circulation.

Answer: d

Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 14.2 Explain the importance of the systemic, pulmonary and hepatic portal circulation and the changes in the fetal circulatory structures after birth.

Study Objective 2: SO 14.2.1 Define systemic circulation and explain its function.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.2 Circulatory Routes - Systemic Circulation Question type: True/False 34) The superior and inferior vena cavae are both located to the right of the midline of the body.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 14.9 Identify the three systemic veins that return deoxygenated blood to the heart.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.G Veins of the Systemic Circulation Question type: Multiple Choice 35) Blood in an umbilical artery travels from a) the fetus to the placenta. b) the placenta to the fetus.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 14.17 Describe the fate of the fetal structures once postnatal circulation begins.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.5 Circulatory Routes - The Fetal Circulation Question type: True/False 36) Drugs used to treat hypertension include calcium channel blockers, vasodilators, diuretics, and ACE inhibitors.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge

Study Objective 1: SO 14.19 Explain the effects of aging on the cardiovascular system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.7 Aging and the Cardiovascular System Question type: Multiple Choice 37) Which blood vessel consists of only endothelium and basement membrane? a) artery b) capillary c) vein Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Contrast the structure and function of all types of blood vessels.

Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.2 Contrast the structure of arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels Question type: Multiple Select 38) The aorta is (Select all that apply.) a) a conducting artery. b) a distributing artery. c) an elastic artery. d) a muscular artery.

Answer: a, c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Contrast the structure and function of all types of blood vessels.

Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.4 Distinguish between elastic (conducting) arteries and muscular (distributing) arteries.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels Question type: Essay 39) Diagram a portion of a capillary network, labeling the features that are found between the arteriole and the venule. Draw the smooth muscle fibers in a representative area that indicates where they are

located. Label the zone of oxygenated blood. State the function of each portion or feature of the capillary network that you have labeled.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Contrast the structure and function of all types of blood vessels.

Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.2 Contrast the structure of arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels Solution: The diagram should be similar to Fig. 14.2. The arteriole supplies oxygenated blood, which is delivered to the capillary by a branch called a metarteriole. When the smooth muscle precapillary sphincters are relaxed, blood will flow into a true capillary from the metarteriole, or sometimes directly from an arteriole. Venules receive the deoxygenated blood from the capillaries. There exists a thoroughfare route from arteriole to venule, through which the blood will flow when the precapillary sphincters are closed. Smooth muscle is present in the walls of the arterioles, and proximal metarterioles to control blood flow.

40) Describe the routes by which blood is supplied to the brain.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 14.5 Identify the three principal arteries that branch from the aortic arch.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.C The Arch of the Aorta Solution: The right and left vertebral arteries branch from the subclavian arteries, travel through the transverse foramina of C6 – C1, then through the foramen magnum. They join within the skull to form the basilar artery which supplies the cerebellum and pons and inner ear before joining the cerebral arterial circle (Circle of Willis) at the base of the brain near the sella turcica.

Each of the common carotid arteries divides into internal and external carotid arteries just superior to the larynx. The internal carotids pass through the carotid foramina of the temporal bone, then branch and anastomose with the basilar artery to form the cerebral arterial circle (Circle of Willis). Blood from the branches of the internal carotids supply most of the cerebrum.

Question type: Multiple Choice 41) In the formation of blood vessels, angioblasts aggregate to form isolated masses and cords throughout the embryo called a) blood islands. b) hemangioblasts. c) mesoderm. d) stem cells.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 14.18 Describe the development of blood vessels and blood.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.6 Development of Blood Vessels and Blood Question type: Multiple Select 42) Hypertension causes which effects on the kidneys? Select all that apply. a) blockage of kidney venules b) increased secretion of erythropoietin c) increased secretion of renin d) narrowing of the lumen of kidney arterioles Answer: c, d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 14.19 Explain the effects of aging on the cardiovascular system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.7 Aging and the Cardiovascular System Question type: Multiple Choice 43) Contraction of smooth muscle in the vessel wall produces a) vasoconstriction which is a decrease in the diameter of the vessel lumen. b) vasodilation which is a decrease in the diameter of the vessel lumen. c) vasoconstriction which is an increase in the diameter of the vessel lumen. d) vasodilation which is an increase in the diameter of the vessel lumen.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Contrast the structure and function of all types of blood vessels.

Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.1 Describe the basic structure of a blood vessel.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels 44) The thickest layer of an artery wall is the tunica a) externa.

b) interna. c) media. d) intima.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Contrast the structure and function of all types of blood vessels.

Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.2 Contrast the structure of arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels 45) The hollow center of a blood vessel is called the a) basement membrane. b) elastic membrane. c) endothelium. d) lumen.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Contrast the structure and function of all types of blood vessels.

Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.1 Describe the basic structure of a blood vessel.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels 46) Arteries that do not anastomose are known as a) venules. b) end arteries. c) arterioles. d) sinuses.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Contrast the structure and function of all types of blood vessels.

Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.2 Contrast the structure of arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels Question type: True/False

47) Arteries that anastomose are able to provide a collateral circulation to a tissue in order to prevent necrosis.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Contrast the structure and function of all types of blood vessels.

Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.2 Contrast the structure of arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels Question type: Multiple Choice 48) The most distal muscle cells of which structure regulates blood flow into the capillary? a) venules b) metarteriole c) sinusoids d) thoroughfare channels Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Contrast the structure and function of all types of blood vessels.

Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.2 Contrast the structure of arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels 49) Which layer of veins extends to form valves that help prevent the backflow of blood? a) tunica intima (interna) b) tunica media c) tunica externa Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Contrast the structure and function of all types of blood vessels.

Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.2 Contrast the structure of arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels 50) The first two vessels to branch from the ascending aorta are the

a) brachiocephalic and left common carotid. b) right common carotid and right subclavian. c) right coronary and left coronary. d) right coronary and brachiocephalic.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 14.4 Identify the two primary arterial branches of the ascending aorta.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.B Ascending Aorta 51) The superior mesenteric artery branches from the a) ascending aorta. b) abdominal aorta. c) arch of the aorta. d) thoracic aorta.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 14.7 Identify the visceral and parietal branches of the abdominal aorta Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.E Abdominal Aorta 52) The largest diameter vein in the body is the a) inferior vena cava. b) superior vena cava. c) internal jugular vein. d) coronary sinus.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 14.9 Identify the three systemic veins that return deoxygenated blood to the heart.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.G Veins of the Systemic Circulation 53) The common iliac vein is formed by the union of which veins? a) femoral; internal iliac b) internal jugular; subclavian

c) external iliac; internal iliac d) popliteal; great saphenous Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 14.14 Identify the principal superficial and deep veins that drain the lower limbs.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.L Veins of the Lower Limbs Question type: True/False 54) The umbilical cord contains three blood vessels; one umbilical vein and two umbilical arteries.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 14.17 Describe the fate of the fetal structures once postnatal circulation begins.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.5 Circulatory Routes - The Fetal Circulation Question type: Multiple Choice 55) In the fetus, what two structures allow most blood to bypass the lungs? a) fossa ovalis and ligamentum arteriosum b) foramen ovale and ductus arteriosus c) fossa ovalis and ductus arteriosus d) foramen ovale and ligamentum arteriosum Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 14.17 Describe the fate of the fetal structures once postnatal circulation begins.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.5 Circulatory Routes - The Fetal Circulation 56) The superior mesenteric vein empties into the a) popliteal vein. b) hepatic vein. c) hepatic portal vein. d) superior vena cava.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 14.15 Describe the importance of the hepatic portal circulation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.3 Circulatory Routes - The Hepatic Portal Circulation 57) Direct branches of which arteries contribute to the palmar arches? a) brachial; basilic b) basilic; cephalic c) radial; brachial d) ulnar; radial Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 14.5 Identify the three principal arteries that branch from the aortic arch.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.C The Arch of the Aorta 58) Identify the artery which is located in the cervical transverse foramina. a) vertebral b) internal carotid c) basilar d) external carotid Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 14.5 Identify the three principal arteries that branch from the aortic arch.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.C The Arch of the Aorta 59) The brachiocephalic trunk gives rise directly to the a) left subclavian artery. b) right subclavian artery. c) left vertebral artery. d) right internal carotid artery.

Answer: b

Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 14.5 Identify the three principal arteries that branch from the aortic arch.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.C The Arch of the Aorta 60) The basilar artery is formed by the union of the a) right and left anterior cerebral arteries. b) right and left common carotid arteries. c) right and left internal carotid arteries. d) right and left vertebral arteries.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 14.5 Identify the three principal arteries that branch from the aortic arch.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.C The Arch of the Aorta 61) Which organ is supplied with blood by the renal artery? a) liver b) spleen c) pancreas d) kidney Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 14.7 Identify the visceral and parietal branches of the abdominal aorta Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.E Abdominal Aorta 62) The diaphragm muscle and the pleura covering the diaphragm are supplied with blood by the a) bronchial arteries. b) esophageal arteries. c) subcostal arteries. d) superior phrenic arteries.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 14.6 Identify the visceral and parietal branches of the thoracic aorta.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.D Thoracic Aorta 63) Blood supply for the pancreas, spleen and stomach comes from which artery? a) hepatic b) inferior mesenteric c) superior mesenteric d) splenic Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 14.7 Identify the visceral and parietal branches of the abdominal aorta Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.E Abdominal Aorta 64) The lumbar arteries supply blood to the a) diaphragm and suprarenal glands. b) pancreas and duodenum. c) spinal cord and meninges. d) upper part of the rectum.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 14.7 Identify the visceral and parietal branches of the abdominal aorta Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.E Abdominal Aorta 65) Which two arteries most significantly contribute to the cerebral arterial circle (Circle of Willis) supplying blood to the brain? a) vertebral and external carotid b) internal carotid and posterior cerebral c) external carotid and internal jugular d) basilar and internal carotid Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 14.5 Identify the three principal arteries that branch from the aortic arch.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.C The Arch of the Aorta

66) The internal jugular vein drains the a) brain and meninges. b) cervical vertebrae. c) oral cavity and pharynx. d) parotid gland and scalp.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 14.10 Identify the three major veins that drain blood from the head.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.H Veins of the Head and Neck 67) Venous blood from the buttocks, urinary bladder, uterus, and prostate gland is returned via the a) internal iliac vein. b) femoral vein. c) great saphenous vein. d) external iliac vein.

Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 14.13 Identify the principal veins that drain the abdomen and pelvis.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.K Veins of the Abdomen and Pelvis 68) Venous blood from the suprarenal gland is returned via the a) superior mesenteric vein. b) suprarenal vein. c) azygos vein. d) gastric vein.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 14.13 Identify the principal veins that drain the abdomen and pelvis.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.K Veins of the Abdomen and Pelvis Question type: True/False

69) The great saphenous vein drains the medial aspect of the leg and thigh, the groin, external genitals, and abdominal wall.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 14.14 Identify the principal superficial and deep veins that drain the lower limbs.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.L Veins of the Lower Limbs Question type: Multiple Choice 70) Venous blood from the liver reaches the inferior vena cava via the a) hepatic veins. b) splenic vein. c) hepatic portal vein. d) superior mesenteric vein.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 14.15 Describe the importance of the hepatic portal circulation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.3 Circulatory Routes - The Hepatic Portal Circulation 71) This blood vessel tissue layer is responsible for all of the following EXCEPT

a) regulating blood flow and blood pressure.

b) helping to limit the loss of blood when vessels are damaged. c) regulating the diameter of the lumen wall. d) guiding cell movements during tissue repair of blood vessel walls.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 14.1 Contrast the structure and function of all types of blood vessels Study Objective 2: SO 14.1.1 Describe the basic structure of a blood vessel.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels 72) Which of these vessels of the neck contributes directly to the formation of the basilar artery?

a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 14.5 Identify the three principal arteries that branch from the aortic arch.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.C The Arch of the Aorta

73) Which of the vessels of the neck are NOT direct branches of the arch of the aorta?

a) B and C b) B and D c) C and D d) D and E Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 14.5 Identify the three principal arteries that branch from the aortic arch.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.C The Arch of the Aorta 74) Which of the veins of the upper limb is commonly punctured for an injection, transfusion, or removal of a blood sample? a) brachial b) radial c) ulnar d) median cubital e) cephalic Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 14.11 Identify the principal veins that drain the upper limbs.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.I Veins of the Upper Limbs

75) The left testicular (or ovarian) vein drains into

a) A; whereas the right testicular (or ovarian) vein drains into B. b) B; whereas the right testicular (or ovarian) vein drains into C. c) D; whereas the right testicular (or ovarian) vein drains into E. d) C; whereas the right testicular (or ovarian) vein drains into A. Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 14.13 Identify the principal veins that drain the abdomen and pelvis.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.K Veins of the Abdomen and Pelvis 76) Since it has lost some of its oxygen, blood in veins is a) blue. b) dark red. c) red. d) purple.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 14.2 Explain the importance of the systemic, pulmonary and hepatic portal circulation and the changes in the fetal circulatory structures after birth.

Study Objective 2: SO 14.2.1 Define systemic circulation and explain its function.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.2 Circulatory Routes-Systemic Circulation Question type: Multiple Select

77) Functions of the systemic circulation include (Select all that apply.) a) carrying oxygenated blood to body organs. b) carrying deoxygenated blood to body organs. c) carrying deoxygenated blood from body organs. d) carrying oxygenated blood to the lungs through nutrient arteries.

Answer: a, c, d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 14.2 Explain the importance of the systemic, pulmonary and hepatic portal circulation and the changes in the fetal circulatory structures after birth.

Study Objective 2: SO 14.2.1 Define systemic circulation and explain its function.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.2 Circulatory Routes-Systemic Circulation Question type: Multiple Choice 78) Which part of the aorta branches into two coronary arteries that supply blood to the myocardium of the heart? a) abdominal aorta b) ascending aorta c) aortic arch d) thoracic aorta Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 14.3 Identify the four principal divisions of the aorta, and locate the major arterial branches arising from each division.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.A The Aorta and Its Branches 79) Which part of the aorta descends and ends at the level of the intervertebral disc between the fourth and fifth thoracic vertebrae? a) abdominal aorta b) ascending aorta c) aortic arch d) thoracic aorta Answer: c

Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 14.3 Identify the four principal divisions of the aorta, and locate the major arterial branches arising from each division.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.A The Aorta and Its Branches 80) All of the following are branches of the thoracic aorta EXCEPT a) bronchial arteries. b) mediastinal arteries. c) renal arteries. d) subcostal arteries.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 14.3 Identify the four principal divisions of the aorta, and locate the major arterial branches arising from each division.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.A The Aorta and Its Branches 81) The artery that supplies blood to the right ventricle of the heart is the a) anterior interventricular artery. b) circumflex artery. c) LAD artery. d) marginal artery.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 14.4 Identify the two primary arterial branches of the ascending aorta.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.B Ascending Aorta

82) Identify the right coronary artery.

a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 14.4 Identify the two primary arterial branches of the ascending aorta.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.B Ascending Aorta

83) Identify the circumflex artery.

a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 14.4 Identify the two primary arterial branches of the ascending aorta.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.B Ascending Aorta 84) Which delivers blood to connective tissues and lymph nodes in the thorax? a) esophageal arteries b) mediastinal arteries c) posterior intercostal arteries d) superior phrenic arteries Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 14.6 Identify the visceral and parietal branches of the thoracic aorta.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.D Thoracic Aorta

85) Which artery supplies blood to the external genitalia? a) anterior tibial artery b) external iliac artery c) internal iliac artery d) femoral artery Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 14.8 Identify the two major branches of the common iliac arteries.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.F Arteries of the Pelvis and Lower Limbs 86) Identify the internal jugular vein.

a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 14.10 Identify the three major veins that drain blood from the head.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.H Veins of the Head and Neck 87) Which vein begins near the base of the armpit?

a) axillary vein b) basilic vein c) cephalic vein d) median cubital vein Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 14.11 Identify the principal veins that drain the upper limbs.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.I Veins of the Upper Limbs Question type: Multiple Select 88) The azygos system consists of (Select all that apply.) a) accessory hemiazygos vein. b) azygos vein. c) cephalic vein. d) hemiazygos vein.

Answer: a, b, d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 14.12 Identify the components of the azygos system of veins.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.J Veins of the Thorax Question type: Multiple Choice 89) Veins of the azygos system empty into the a) coronary sinus. b) inferior vena cava. c) superior vena cava.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 14.12 Identify the components of the azygos system of veins.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.J Veins of the Thorax

90) Which vein drains the left side of the lower thoracic wall? a) accessory hemiazygos vein b) azygos vein c) brachiocephalic vein d) hemiazygos vein Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 14.12 Identify the components of the azygos system of veins.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 14.J Veins of the Thorax 91) The development of blood vessels begins in the a) ectoderm. b) endoderm. c) mesoderm.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 14.18 Describe the development of blood vessels and blood.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.6 Development of Blood Vessels and Blood 92) Blood vessels develop from a) angioblasts, while blood cells develop from multipotent stem cells. b) angioblasts, while blood cells develop from hemangioblasts. c) multipotent stem cells, while blood cells develop from angioblasts. d) multipotent stem cells, while blood cells develop from hemangioblasts.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 14.18 Describe the development of blood vessels and blood.

Section Reference 1: Sec 14.6 Development of Blood Vessels and Blood

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pha15 Chapter Number: 15 Question type: Multiple Choice 1) Which of the following statements about the lymphatic system is FALSE? a) Lymphatic vessels return excess interstitial fluid to the blood. b) Lymphatic tissue initiates highly specific responses directed against particular microbes. c) Lymphatic vessels transport water-soluble vitamins from the blood to the digestive tract. d) T and B cells, assisted by macrophages, recognize foreign cells, cancer cells and toxins.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Identify the various components and major functions of the lymphoid system.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.2.2 Describe the functions of the lymphoid system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Lymphatic System Structure and Functions 2) Lymphatic vessels in the skin generally follow veins. Lymphatic vessels in the viscera generally follow arteries. a) Both statements are true. b) Both statements are false. c) The first statement is true; the second is false. d) The second statement is true; the first is false.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 15.3 Explain how lymph is formed and flows through lymphatic vessels.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.3.1 Describe the organization of lymphatic vessels.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.3 Lymphatic Vessels and Lymph Circulation 3) The thoracic (left lymphatic) duct begins as a dilation called the a) intestinal plexus b) hemiazygos trunk

c) cisterna chyli d) thoracic ampulla Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 15.3 Explain how lymph is formed and flows through lymphatic vessels.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.3.1 Describe the organization of lymphatic vessels.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.3 Lymphatic Vessels and Lymph Circulation 4) Tissues that lack lymphatic capillaries include all of the following EXCEPT a) cartilage b) cornea of the eye c) red bone marrow d) subcutaneous tissue Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 15.3 Explain how lymph is formed and flows through lymphatic vessels.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.3.1 Describe the organization of lymphatic vessels.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.3 Lymphatic Vessels and Lymph Circulation Question type: Multiple Select 5) Choose the secondary lymphoid organs. (Select all that apply.) a) bone marrow b) spleen c) thymus d) tonsils Answer: b, d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 15.4 Compare the structure and functions of the primary and secondary lymphoid organs and tissues.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.4.1 Distinguish between primary and secondary lymphoid organs.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.4 Lymphatic Organs and Tissues

Question type: Multiple Choice 6) The composition of lymph most closely resembles a) intracellular fluid. b) plasma. c) interstitial fluid. d) synovial fluid.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Identify the various components and major functions of the lymphoid system.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.2.1 Describe the components of the lymphoid system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Lymphatic System Structure and Functions 7) A correct sequence for fluid flow in the body is a) arteries, lymphatic capillaries, lymphatic ducts, heart, veins, blood capillaries, interstitial spaces. b) blood capillaries, interstitial spaces, lymphatic capillaries, lymphatic ducts, veins, heart, arteries. c) lymphatic capillaries, interstitial spaces, lymphatic ducts, veins, heart, arteries, blood capillaries. d) veins, heart, arteries, lymphatic ducts, interstitial spaces, lymphatic capillaries, blood capillaries.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 15.3 Explain how lymph is formed and flows through lymphatic vessels.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.3.2 Explain the formation and flow of lymph.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.3 Lymphatic Vessels and Lymph Circulation 8) The lymphatic system transports what type of dietary molecule from the gastrointestinal tract to the blood? a) carbohydrates

b) lipids c) proteins d) nucleic acids Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Identify the various components and major functions of the lymphoid system.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.2.2 Describe the functions of the lymphoid system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Lymphatic System Structure and Functions 9) Which statement regarding lymph formation is TRUE? a) Most blood plasma proteins pass freely into interstitial fluid and then into lymph. b) Lymph refers to the fluid both inside lymphatic vessels and the fluid between tissue cells. c) About three liters of excess filtered fluid drains into lymphatic vessels each day. d) Fluid filters directly from blood capillaries to lymphatic capillaries.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 15.3 Explain how lymph is formed and flows through lymphatic vessels.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.3.2 Explain the formation and flow of lymph.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.3 Lymphatic Vessels and Lymph Circulation 10) The right lymphatic duct drains lymph into the bloodstream at the junction of the right internal jugular vein and the a) right bronchomediastinal vein b) superior vena cava c) right brachiocephalic vein d) right subclavian vein Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 15.3 Explain how lymph is formed and flows through lymphatic vessels.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.3.1 Describe the organization of lymphatic vessels.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.3 Lymphatic Vessels and Lymph Circulation

11) Which of the following is NOT an important factor that assists the flow of lymph through lymphatic vessels? a) valves in lymphatic vessels b) skeletal muscle contractions c) gravity d) respiratory movements Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 15.3 Explain how lymph is formed and flows through lymphatic vessels.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.3.2 Explain the formation and flow of lymph.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.3 Lymphatic Vessels and Lymph Circulation 12) The right lymphatic duct receives lymph from all of the following EXCEPT the a) right upper limb. b) right side of the chest. c) right side of the body inferior to the ribs. d) right side of the head and neck.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 15.3 Explain how lymph is formed and flows through lymphatic vessels.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.3.1 Describe the organization of lymphatic vessels.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.3 Lymphatic Vessels and Lymph Circulation 13) The thoracic (left lymphatic) duct receives lymph from all of the following EXCEPT the a) left lower limb. b) right upper limb. c) right side of the body inferior to the ribs. d) left side of the head and neck.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 15.3 Explain how lymph is formed and flows through lymphatic vessels.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.3.1 Describe the organization of lymphatic vessels.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.3 Lymphatic Vessels and Lymph Circulation 14) The lining of the respiratory, digestive, reproductive, and urinary tracts contains lymphatic tissue of the type called a) lymphatic nodules. b) lymph nodes. c) lacteals. d) white pulp.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 15.4 Compare the structure and functions of the primary and secondary lymphoid organs and tissues.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.4.2 Describe the roles of the thymus, lymph nodes, spleen, and lymphoid nodules.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.4 Lymphatic Organs and Tissues 15) Name the type of cell that protects us from disease by producing antibodies. a) plasma T cells b) regulatory B cells c) plasmocyte B cells d) cytotoxic T cells Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 15.4 Compare the structure and functions of the primary and secondary lymphoid organs and tissues.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.4.2 Describe the roles of the thymus, lymph nodes, spleen, and lymphoid nodules.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.4 Lymphatic Organs and Tissues 16) Which of the following can result from either excess filtration or inadequate reabsorption at blood capillaries? a) sepsis b) edema

c) adenitis d) lymphedomas Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 15.4 Compare the structure and functions of the primary and secondary lymphoid organs and tissues.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.4.2 Describe the roles of the thymus, lymph nodes, spleen, and lymphoid nodules.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.4 Lymphatic Organs and Tissues 17) Which of the following is NOT a function of the spleen? a) Within the red pulp, T cells become immunocompetent. b) Within the white pulp, B and T cells carry out immune functions. c) Within the red pulp, macrophages remove worn out blood cells and platelets. d) Within the white pulp, macrophages destroy blood-borne pathogens.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 15.4 Compare the structure and functions of the primary and secondary lymphoid organs and tissues.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.4.2 Describe the roles of the thymus, lymph nodes, spleen, and lymphoid nodules.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.4 Lymphatic Organs and Tissues 18) Lymphatic organs that have a hilum are the a) spleen and lymph nodes. b) tonsils and appendix. c) tonsils and lymph nodes. d) spleen and thymus gland.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 15.4 Compare the structure and functions of the primary and secondary lymphoid organs and tissues.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.4.2 Describe the roles of the thymus, lymph nodes, spleen, and lymphoid nodules.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.4 Lymphatic Organs and Tissues 19) Which of the following statements about lymph nodes is FALSE? a) Afferent lymphatic vessels direct lymph out of the lymph node, along the convex surface. b) One or two efferent lymphatic vessel(s) is/are attached at the hilum, along with blood vessels. c) The outer cortex contains lymphatic nodules (follicles). d) Cells found in the lymph node include T cells, B cells, and macrophages.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 15.4 Compare the structure and functions of the primary and secondary lymphoid organs and tissues.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.4.2 Describe the roles of the thymus, lymph nodes, spleen, and lymphoid nodules.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.4 Lymphatic Organs and Tissues 20) Which of the following is a primary lymphatic organ? a) spleen b) thymus c) lymph node d) MALT Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 15.4 Compare the structure and functions of the primary and secondary lymphoid organs and tissues.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.4.1 Distinguish between primary and secondary lymphoid organs.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.4 Lymphatic Organs and Tissues 21) The parenchyma (functional part) of the spleen consists of a) fibroblasts. b) trabeculae. c) a capsule. d) red pulp and white pulp.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 15.4 Compare the structure and functions of the primary and secondary lymphoid organs and tissues.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.4.2 Describe the roles of the thymus, lymph nodes, spleen, and lymphoid nodules.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.4 Lymphatic Organs and Tissues 22) Which body site contains stem cells that become lymphocytes? a) the thymus b) red bone marrow c) the spleen d) lymph nodes Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 15.4 Compare the structure and functions of the primary and secondary lymphoid organs and tissues.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.4.2 Describe the roles of the thymus, lymph nodes, spleen, and lymphoid nodules.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.4 Lymphatic Organs and Tissues 23) Lymph enters a lymph node via a) afferent vessels and exits through efferent vessels b) efferent vessels and exits through afferent vessels c) medullary sinuses and exits through trabecular sinuses d) subcapsular sinuses and exits through medullary sinuses Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 15.4 Compare the structure and functions of the primary and secondary lymphoid organs and tissues.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.4.2 Describe the roles of the thymus, lymph nodes, spleen, and lymphoid nodules.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.4 Lymphatic Organs and Tissues

Question type: Multiple Select 24) Which lymph nodes drain the trachea and bronchi? (Select all that apply.) a) anterior mediastinal nodes b) anterior phrenic nodes c) inferior tracheobronchial nodes d) superior tracheobronchial nodes Answer: c, d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 15.5 Identify the locations and drainage regions of the principal groups of lymph nodes.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.5.2 Identify the principal lymph nodes of the thorax.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.5 Principal Groups of Lymph Nodes Section Reference 2: Exhibit 15.B Principal Lymph Nodes of the Thorax Question type: Multiple Choice 25) The lymphatic vessels arise from a) ectoderm. b) endoderm. c) mesoderm.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 15.6 Outline the development of lymphoid tissues.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.6 Development of Lymphatic Tissues 26) The removal of the axillary lymph nodes during a breast cancer surgery would result in widespread edema in which region? a) neck b) upper limb c) lower limb d) abdomen

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 15.5 Identify the locations and drainage regions of the principal groups of lymph nodes.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.5.3 Identify the principal lymph nodes of the upper limbs.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.5 Principal Groups of Lymph Nodes Section Reference 2: Exhibit 15.C Principal Lymph Nodes of the Upper Limbs 27) Which of the following axillary group nodes is most responsible for draining the entire upper limb? a) lateral nodes b) pectoral (anterior) nodes c) subscapular (posterior) nodes d) central (intermediate) nodes Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 15.5 Identify the locations and drainage regions of the principal groups of lymph nodes.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.5.3 Identify the principal lymph nodes of the upper limbs.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.5 Principal Groups of Lymph Nodes Section Reference 2: Exhibit 15.C Principal Lymph Nodes of the Upper Limbs 28) Which of the following is a set of lymph nodes that are on the thoracic aspect of the diaphragm and divided into three sets? a) bronchopulmonary nodes b) intercostal nodes c) phrenic nodes d) pulmonary nodes Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 15.5 Identify the locations and drainage regions of the principal groups of lymph nodes.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.5.2 Identify the principal lymph nodes of the thorax.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.5 Principal Groups of Lymph Nodes

Section Reference 2: Exhibit 15.B Principal Lymph Nodes of the Thorax 29) Sinusitis, nasal congestion, sore throat, coughing as well as other upper respiratory conditions will produce swollen lymph nodes of which group? a) cervical b) submandibular c) parotid d) axillary Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 15.5 Identify the locations and drainage regions of the principal groups of lymph nodes.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.5.1 Identify the principal lymph nodes of the head and neck.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.5 Principal Groups of Lymph Nodes Section Reference 1: Exhibit 15.A Principal Lymph Nodes of the Head and Neck 30) The largest group of lymph nodes in the neck is the a) superficial cervical lymph nodes b) submandibular lymph nodes c) submental lymph nodes d) deep cervical lymph nodes Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 15.5 Identify the locations and drainage regions of the principal groups of lymph nodes.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.5.1 Identify the principal lymph nodes of the head and neck.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.5 Principal Groups of Lymph Nodes Section Reference 1: Sec Exhibit 15.A Principal Lymph Nodes of the Head and Neck 31) The palatine tonsils and pharyngeal tonsil (adenoid) are aggregates of lymphoid tissue located in the a) nasal cavity b) pharynx (throat) c) larynx (voice box)

d) trachea (windpipe) Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 15.4 Compare the structure and functions of the primary and secondary lymphoid organs and tissues.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.4.2 Describe the roles of the thymus, lymph nodes, spleen, and lymphoid nodules.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.4 Lymphatic Organs and Tissues 32) T lymphocytes gain competence and maturity under the control of a hormone produced and secreted from the a) red bone marrow b) medullary cavity of bones c) lymph nodes d) thymus Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 15.4 Compare the structure and functions of the primary and secondary lymphoid organs and tissues.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.4.2 Describe the roles of the thymus, lymph nodes, spleen, and lymphoid nodules.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.4 Lymphatic Organs and Tissues Question type: True/False 33) Increased pressure in the interstitial fluid and the presence of anchoring filaments facilitate the movement of interstitial fluid into the lymphatic capillaries.

Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Identify the various components and major functions of the lymphoid system.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.2.2 Describe the functions of the lymphoid system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Lymphatic System Structure and Functions

34) Tissues that lack lymphatic capillaries include avascular tissues.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Identify the various components and major functions of the lymphoid system.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.2.2 Describe the functions of the lymphoid system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Lymphatic System Structure and Functions 35) Lymphatic capillaries merge to form larger vein-like vessels called lymphatic vessels.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 15.2 Identify the various components and major functions of the lymphoid system.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.2.1 Describe the components of the lymphoid system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.2 Lymphatic System Structure and Functions Question type: Multiple Select 36) Edema, or excess accumulation of interstitial fluid, (Select all that apply.) a) is due to anchoring filaments causing closure of the spaces between lymphatic endothelial cells b) can result from increased capillary blood pressure causing more fluid to be filtered c) may be due to bacterial damage to the capillary causing leakiness of capillary walls d) might be a result of decreased concentration of blood plasma proteins Answer: b, c, d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 15.4 Compare the structure and functions of the primary and secondary lymphoid organs and tissues.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.4.2 Describe the roles of the thymus, lymph nodes, spleen, and lymphoid nodules.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.4 Lymphatic Organs and Tissues

Question type: Multiple Choice 37) A condition where the skin overlying a swollen lymph node becomes red and tender is a) lymphadenitis b) lymphadenopathy c) lymphocytosis d) lymphoma Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 15.5 Identify the locations and drainage regions of the principal groups of lymph nodes.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.5.1 Identify the principal lymph nodes of the head and neck.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.5 Principal Groups of Lymph Nodes Question type: True/False 38) Within the lymphatic system, lymph flows, in order, through the following structures: lymphatic capillaries, lymphatic vessels, lymph nodes, lymph trunks, lymphatic ducts.

Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 15.3 Explain how lymph is formed and flows through lymphatic vessels.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.3.2 Explain the formation and flow of lymph.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.3 Lymphatic Vessels and Lymph Circulation Question type: Multiple Select 39) Tonsils are examples of (Select all that apply.) a) lymphatic nodules b) lymph nodes c) lymphatic vessels d) MALT

Answer: a, d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 15.4 Compare the structure and functions of the primary and secondary lymphoid organs and tissues.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.4.2 Describe the roles of the thymus, lymph nodes, spleen, and lymphoid nodules.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.4 Lymphatic Organs and Tissues Question type: Multiple Choice 40) The largest single mass of lymphatic tissue in the body is the a) cervical lymph nodes b) lumbar lymph nodes c) spleen d) tonsils Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 15.4 Compare the structure and functions of the primary and secondary lymphoid organs and tissues.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.4.2 Describe the roles of the thymus, lymph nodes, spleen, and lymphoid nodules.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.4 Lymphatic Organs and Tissues Question type: True/False 41) The flow of lymph through a lymph node is slowed by the anatomical arrangement of many afferent vessels bringing lymph into the node and only one or two efferent vessels transporting lymph out of the lymph node.

Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 15.4 Compare the structure and functions of the primary and secondary lymphoid organs and tissues.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.4.2 Describe the roles of the thymus, lymph nodes, spleen, and lymphoid nodules.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.4 Lymphatic Organs and Tissues Question type: Multiple Select 42) The facial group of lymph nodes includes the (Select all that apply.) a) buccal nodes b) infraorbital nodes c) mandibular nodes d) parotid nodes Answer: a, b, c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 15.5 Identify the locations and drainage regions of the principal groups of lymph nodes.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.5.1 Identify the principal lymph nodes of the head and neck.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.5 Principal Groups of Lymph Nodes Section Reference 2: Exhibit 15.A Principal Lymph Nodes of the Head and Neck Question type: True/False 43) Each lobe of the thymus gland consists of an outer cortex and an inner medulla.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 15.4 Compare the structure and functions of the primary and secondary lymphoid organs and tissues.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.4.2 Describe the roles of the thymus, lymph nodes, spleen, and lymphoid nodules.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.4 Lymphatic Organs and Tissues 44) The actual size of the thymus gland, defined by its connective tissue capsule, does not change over time.

Answer: True

Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 15.4 Compare the structure and functions of the primary and secondary lymphoid organs and tissues.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.4.2 Describe the roles of the thymus, lymph nodes, spleen, and lymphoid nodules.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.4 Lymphatic Organs and Tissues Question type: Multiple Select 45) The stroma (framework tissue) of the spleen consists of reticular fibers and the (Select all that apply.) a) capsule b) fibroblasts c) trabeculae d) white pulp Answer: a, b, c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 15.4 Compare the structure and functions of the primary and secondary lymphoid organs and tissues.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.4.2 Describe the roles of the thymus, lymph nodes, spleen, and lymphoid nodules.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.4 Lymphatic Organs and Tissues Question type: True/False 46) The lymphatic vessels arise from the same type of embryonic tissue as do veins.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 15.6 Outline the development of lymphoid tissues.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.6 Development of Lymphatic Tissues Question type: Multiple Select

47) HIV (Select all that apply.) a) is a very strong virus and can stay active for long periods of time outside of the body b) is transmitted via insect bites c) can be eliminated from medical devices by exposing the devices to heat d) can be eliminated from personal care items by cleaning them with household bleach Answer: c, d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 15.7 Describe the effects of aging on the lymphoid system and on the immune response.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.7 Aging and the Lymphatic System 48) The thoracic (left lymphatic) duct (Select all that apply.) a) receives lymph from the cisterna chyli anterior to the second lumbar vertebra b) is the smallest lymphatic duct c) receives lymph plasma from the left jugular and left subclavian trunks d) drains lymph from the entire body below the diaphragm Answer: a, c, d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 15.3 Explain how lymph is formed and flows through lymphatic vessels.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.3.1 Describe the organization of lymphatic vessels.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.3 Lymphatic Vessels and Lymph Circulation Question type: Multiple Choice 49) Which of the following is located near the heads of ribs at posterior parts of intercostal spaces and drains the posterolateral aspect of the thoracic wall? a) anterior phrenic nodes b) bronchopulmonary nodes c) intercostal nodes d) posterior phrenic nodes Answer: c

Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: 15.5 Identify the locations and drainage regions of the principal groups of lymph nodes.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.5.2 Identify the principal lymph nodes of the thorax.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.5 Principal Groups of Lymph Nodes Section Reference 2: Exhibit 15.B Principal Lymph Nodes of the Thorax Question type: Multiple Select 50) Which nodes are part of the axillary group of lymph nodes? (Select all that apply.) a) central nodes b) lateral nodes c) pectoral nodes d) subclavicular nodes Answer: a, b, c, d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 15.5 Identify the locations and drainage regions of the principal groups of lymph nodes.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.5.3 Identify the principal lymph nodes of the upper limbs.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.5 Principal Groups of Lymph Nodes Section Reference 2: Exhibit 15.C Principal Lymph Nodes of the Upper Limbs Question type: Multiple Choice 51) Which lymph nodes drain the rectum and prostate? a) gastric nodes b) lumbar nodes c) mesenteric nodes d) sacral nodes Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension

Study Objective 1: SO 15.5 Identify the locations and drainage regions of the principal groups of lymph nodes.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.5.4 Identify the principal lymph nodes of the abdomen and pelvis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.5 Principal Groups of Lymph Nodes Section Reference 2: Exhibit 15.D Principal Lymph Nodes of the Abdomen and Pelvis Question type: Multiple Select 52) All of the following are effects of aging on the lymphatic system EXCEPT (Select all that apply.) a) production of more autoantibodies b) increased production of antibodies to fight bacteria c) T cells become less responsive to antigens d) response to vaccines is decreased Answer: a, c, d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 15.7 Describe the effects of aging on the lymphoid system and on the immune response.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.7 Aging and the Lymphatic System Question type: Multiple Choice 53) Lymphatic capillaries differ from blood capillaries in that they are closed-ended and they have a a) slightly larger diameter than blood capillaries b) slightly smaller diameter than blood capillaries Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 15.3 Explain how lymph is formed and flows through lymphatic vessels.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.3.1 Describe the organization of lymphatic vessels.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.3 Lymphatic Vessels and Lymph Circulation 54) Fluid enters lymphatic capillaries when the pressure in the interstitial fluid spaces is a) greater than the pressure inside the lymphatic capillary

b) lesser than the pressure inside the lymphatic capillary Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 15.3 Explain how lymph is formed and flows through lymphatic vessels.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.3.2 Explain the formation and flow of lymph.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.3 Lymphatic Vessels and Lymph Circulation 55) Lymphatic capillaries in intestinal villi are called a) MALT b) cisterna chyli c) lacteals d) afferent vessels Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 15.3 Explain how lymph is formed and flows through lymphatic vessels.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.3.1 Describe the organization of lymphatic vessels.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.3 Lymphatic Vessels and Lymph Circulation 56) Breathing assists the flow of lymph; lymph flows from the abdominal region to the thoracic region every time you a) exhale b) inhale Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 15.3 Explain how lymph is formed and flows through lymphatic vessels.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.3.2 Explain the formation and flow of lymph.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.3 Lymphatic Vessels and Lymph Circulation Question type: Multiple Select 57) The intestinal trunk drains lymph from the (Select all that apply.) a) intestines

b) pancreas c) stomach d) thoracic wall Answer: a, b, c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 15.3 Explain how lymph is formed and flows through lymphatic vessels.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.3.1 Describe the organization of lymphatic vessels.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.3 Lymphatic Vessels and Lymph Circulation Question type: True/False 58) Following a splenectomy (surgical removal of a ruptured spleen), some of the spleen’s functions can be handled by red bone marrow and the liver.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 15.4 Compare the structure and functions of the primary and secondary lymphoid organs and tissues.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.4.2 Describe the roles of the thymus, lymph nodes, spleen, and lymphoid nodules.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.4 Lymphatic Organs and Tissues Question type: Multiple Choice 59) Lymph from the right upper extremity flows through the right lymphatic duct, then into the a) right brachiocephalic vein b) jugular trunk c) subclavian trunk d) subclavian vein Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 15.3 Explain how lymph is formed and flows through lymphatic vessels.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.3.1 Describe the organization of lymphatic vessels.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.3 Lymphatic Vessels and Lymph Circulation Question type: True/False 60) The thoracic duct drains lymph into venous blood at the junction of the left internal jugular vein and left subclavian vein.

Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 15.3 Explain how lymph is formed and flows through lymphatic vessels.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.3.1 Describe the organization of lymphatic vessels.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.3 Lymphatic Vessels and Lymph Circulation Question type: Multiple Choice 61) The principal lymphatic trunks include all of the following EXCEPT the a) jugular b) subclavian c) bronchomediastinal d) cervical Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 15.3 Explain how lymph is formed and flows through lymphatic vessels.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.3.1 Describe the organization of lymphatic vessels.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.3 Lymphatic Vessels and Lymph Circulation 62) Which two principal lymphatic trunks join to form the cisterna chyli? a) jugular and cervical b) intestinal and lumbar c) bronchomediastinal and subclavian d) lumbar and bronchomediastinal Answer: b Difficulty: Medium

Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 15.3 Explain how lymph is formed and flows through lymphatic vessels.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.3.1 Describe the organization of lymphatic vessels.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.3 Lymphatic Vessels and Lymph Circulation Question type: True/False 63) Afferent lymphatic vessels have valves that open away from a lymph node so that they direct the flow of lymph out of the node.

Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 15.4 Compare the structure and functions of the primary and secondary lymphoid organs and tissues.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.4.2 Describe the roles of the thymus, lymph nodes, spleen, and lymphoid nodules.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.4 Lymphatic Organs and Tissues 64) Lymphatic vessels develop from lymphatic sacs, which arise from developing veins, which are derived from mesoderm.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 15.6 Outline the development of lymphoid tissues.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.6 Development of Lymphatic Tissues Question type: Multiple Choice 65) The lymph nodes of the abdomen are divided into a) cervical and axillary groups b) inguinal and popliteal groups c) phrenic and sternal groups d) visceral and parietal groups Answer: d Difficulty: Medium

Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 15.5 Identify the locations and drainage regions of the principal groups of lymph nodes.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.5.4 Identify the principal lymph nodes of the abdomen and pelvis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.5 Principal Groups of Lymph Nodes Section Reference 2: Exhibit 15.D Principal Lymph Nodes of the Abdomen and Pelvis Question type: True/False 66) The elderly tend to respond poorly to vaccines because of decreased production of autoantibodies.

Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 15.7 Describe the effects of aging on the lymphoid system and on the immune response.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.7 Aging and the Lymphatic System Question type: Multiple Choice 67) Which of the following is NOT one of the tonsils which form a tonsillar ring at the junction of the oral cavity and oropharynx and at the junction of the nasal cavity and nasopharynx? a) palatine tonsils b) pharyngeal (adenoid) tonsil c) cervical tonsils d) lingual tonsils Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 15.4 Compare the structure and functions of the primary and secondary lymphoid organs and tissues.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.4.2 Describe the roles of the thymus, lymph nodes, spleen, and lymphoid nodules.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.4 Lymphatic Organs and Tissues Question type: Multiple Select

68) MALT refers to lymphatic tissue scattered in the (Select all that apply.) a) respiratory tract b) urinary tract c) gastrointestinal tract d) skin Answer: a, b, c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 15.4 Compare the structure and functions of the primary and secondary lymphoid organs and tissues.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.4.2 Describe the roles of the thymus, lymph nodes, spleen, and lymphoid nodules.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.4 Lymphatic Organs and Tissues Question type: Multiple Choice 69) Extension(s) of the thymus capsule which penetrates inward dividing each lobe of the gland into lobules is/are a) trabeculae b) white pulp c) red pulp d) lacteals Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 15.4 Compare the structure and functions of the primary and secondary lymphoid organs and tissues.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.4.2 Describe the roles of the thymus, lymph nodes, spleen, and lymphoid nodules.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.4 Lymphatic Organs and Tissues 70) HIV is a retrovirus, which means that its genetic information is carried in a) DNA b) RNA

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 15.7 Describe the effects of aging on the lymphoid system and on the immune response.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.7 Aging and the Lymphatic System 71) This structure serves as the beginning of the

a) azygos vein b) thoracic duct c) left bronchomediastinal trunk d) right lymphatic duct Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 15.3 Explain how lymph is formed and flows through lymphatic vessels.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.3. Describe the organization of lymphatic vessels.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.3 Lymphatic Vessels and Lymph Circulation Question type: Multiple Select

72) The parenchyma (functional portion) of this organ is comprised of (Select all that apply.)

There should be an arrow added to the image pointing to the spleen, because there are many organs visible in the image.

a) fibroblasts b) red pulp c) reticular fibers d) white pulp Answer: b, d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 15.4 Compare the structure and functions of the primary and secondary lymphoid organs and tissues.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.4.2 Describe the roles of the thymus, lymph nodes, spleen, and lymphoid nodules.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.4 Lymphatic Organs and Tissues Question type: Multiple Choice

73) Which of the following lymph nodes is responsible for draining the chin, lips, nose, nasal cavity, cheeks, gums, inferior surface of palate, and anterior portion of tongue?

a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 15.5 Identify the locations and drainage regions of the principal groups of lymph nodes.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.5.1 Identify the principal lymph nodes of the head and neck Section Reference 1: Sec 15.5 Principal Groups of Lymph Nodes Section Reference 2: Exhibit 15.A Principal Lymph Nodes of the Head and Neck

74) Which of the following nodes belong to the largest group of nodes in the neck forming a chain extending from the base of the skull to the root of the neck?

a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 15.5 Identify the locations and drainage regions of the principal groups of lymph nodes.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.5.1 Identify the principal lymph nodes of the head and neck Section Reference 1: Sec 15.5 Principal Groups of Lymph Nodes Section Reference 2: Exhibit 15.A Principal Lymph Nodes of the Head and Neck 75) More than 75% of the lymph drainage of the breast is to this set of nodes. In breast cancer, it is possible that cancer cells leave the breast and lodge in these nodes. From here, metastasis may

develop in other axillary nodes. Which nodes are these statements discussing?

a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 15.5 Identify the locations and drainage regions of the principal groups of lymph nodes.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.5.3 Identify the principal lymph nodes of the upper limbs.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.5 Principal Groups of Lymph Nodes Section Reference 2: Exhibit 15.C Principal Lymph Nodes of the Upper Limbs Question type: Multiple Select 76) Pathogens are disease-producing (Select all that apply.) a) bacteria b) viruses c) cancers

d) tissues Answer: a, b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Explain the concept of immunity.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.1 Define immunity.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 The Concept of Immunity Question type: Multiple Choice 77) The lack of resistance to disease is known as a) susceptibility b) immunity c) autoimmunity d) prophylacticity Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Explain the concept of immunity.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.1 Define immunity Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 The Concept of Immunity 78) Defenses that are present from birth and always protecting us against disease in general are a) innate b) adaptive c) resistant d) dependent on B and T lymphocytes Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Explain the concept of immunity.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.2 Compare the two basic types of immunity.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 The Concept of Immunity

79) Which arm of immunity is slower to develop? a) adaptive b) innate c) nonspecific d) fever Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Explain the concept of immunity.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.2 Compare the two basic types of immunity.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 The Concept of Immunity Question type: Multiple Select 80) Identify parts of the first line of defense. (Select all that apply.) a) antibodies b) mucous membranes c) natural killer cells d) skin Answer: b, d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Explain the concept of immunity.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.2 Compare the two basic types of immunity.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 The Concept of Immunity Question type: Multiple Choice 81) This type of immunity is the type of immunity that mounts an attack on a specific type of pathogen. a) adaptive b) innate c) nonspecific d) fever

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Explain the concept of immunity.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.2 Compare the two basic types of immunity Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 The Concept of Immunity Question type: Multiple Select 82) Select all of the responses characteristic of the second line of defense with innate immunity.

(Select all that apply.) a) fever b) antimicrobial substances c) inflammation d) immune memory Answer: a, b, c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Explain the concept of immunity.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.2 Compare the two basic types of immunity.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 The Concept of Immunity 83) Which types of cells are utilized during a specific, targeted attack against a pathogen? (Select all that apply.) a) T lymphocytes b) B lymphocytes c) microbe cell d) natural killer cells Answer: a, b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Explain the concept of immunity.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.2 Compare the two basic types of immunity.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 The Concept of Immunity

Question type: Multiple Choice 84) When a 22-year-old female patient was seen in the clinic, she was told by her health care provider that she is especially susceptible to microbial invasion at this time and should be careful. Which condition/symptom below is consistent with the statement given by the provider? a) She could have a large cut requiring stitches in her left arm. b) She could have a very high temperature. c) She may have been on antibiotics for more than two weeks. d) She may have a high T and B lymphocyte count.

Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Evaluation Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Explain the concept of immunity.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.2 Compare the two basic types of immunity.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 The Concept of Immunity Question type: Multiple Select 85) If the first and second lines of defense are breached and microbes successfully invade the tissues and body cells, then what might happen? (Select all that apply.) a) B and T lymphocytes will initiate a response. b) Antibodies may be produced. c) The response will be specific to the microbe that has invaded. d) The person may develop a memory for this microbe.

Answer: a, b, c, d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Explain the concept of immunity.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.2 Compare the two basic types of immunity Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 The Concept of Immunity 86) The ability to ward off damage or disease is (Select all that apply.) a) immunity b) resistance c) susceptibility

d) the first line of defense Answer: a, b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 15.1 Explain the concept of immunity.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.1.1 Define immunity.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.1 The Concept of Immunity Question type: Multiple Choice 87) Organs drained by the pancreaticosplenic nodes include all of the following EXCEPT a) esophagus b) pancreas c) spleen d) stomach Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 15.5 Identify the locations and drainage regions of the principal groups of lymph nodes.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.5.4 Identify the principal lymph nodes of the abdomen and pelvis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.5 Principal Groups of Lymph Nodes Section Reference 2: Exhibit 15.D Principal Lymph Nodes of the Abdomen and Pelvis 88) A patient has an infection in the knee. Which lymph nodes will drain the fluid and contain cells to help fight the infection? a) deep inguinal nodes b) ileocolic nodes c) popliteal nodes d) superficial inguinal nodes Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 15.5 Identify the locations and drainage regions of the principal groups of lymph nodes.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.5.5 Identify the principal lymph nodes of the lower limbs.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.5 Principal Groups of Lymph Nodes Section Reference 2: Exhibit 15.E Principal Lymph Nodes of the Lower Limbs 89) Select the lymph nodes that are located medially to the femoral vein. a) deep inguinal nodes b) ileocolic nodes c) popliteal nodes d) superficial inguinal nodes Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 15.5 Identify the locations and drainage regions of the principal groups of lymph nodes.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.5.5 Identify the principal lymph nodes of the lower limbs.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.5 Principal Groups of Lymph Nodes Section Reference 2: Exhibit 15.E Principal Lymph Nodes of the Lower Limbs 90) Which lymph nodes run parallel to the saphenous vein? a) deep inguinal nodes b) ileocolic nodes c) popliteal nodes d) superficial inguinal nodes Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 15.5 Identify the locations and drainage regions of the principal groups of lymph nodes.

Study Objective 2: SO 15.5.5 Identify the principal lymph nodes of the lower limbs.

Section Reference 1: Sec 15.5 Principal Groups of Lymph Nodes Section Reference 2: Exhibit 15.E Principal Lymph Nodes of the Lower Limbs

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pha15 Chapter Number: 16 Question type: Multiple Choice 1) A small mass of nervous tissue, consisting primarily of neuron cell bodies, outside of the brain and spinal cord is a a) nucleus. b) nerve. c) tract. d) ganglion.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe the organization of the nervous system including its structures and basic functions.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.2 List the structures and basic functions of the nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Overview of the Nervous System 2) Efferent (or motor) impulses travel from the a) effectors to the central nervous system. b) central nervous system to effectors. c) receptors to the central nervous system. d) central nervous system to receptors.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe the organization of the nervous system including its structures and basic functions.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.3 Describe the organization of the nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Overview of the Nervous System 3) Afferent (or sensory) impulses travel from the a) effectors to the central nervous system.

b) central nervous system to effectors. c) receptors to the central nervous system. d) central nervous system to receptors.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe the organization of the nervous system including its structures and basic functions.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.3 Describe the organization of the nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Overview of the Nervous System Question type: Multiple Select 4) The peripheral nervous system includes (Select all that apply.) a) cranial nerves and their branches. b) spinal nerves and their branches. c) ganglia. d) the brain.

Answer: a, b, c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe the organization of the nervous system including its structures and basic functions.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.3 Describe the organization of the nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Overview of the Nervous System Question type: Multiple Choice 5) Which of the following convey information from the central nervous system (CNS) to skeletal muscles only? a) sympathetic motor neurons b) parasympathetic motor neurons c) somatic motor neurons d) afferent motor neurons Answer: c

Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe the organization of the nervous system including its structures and basic functions.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.4 Explain the functional organization of the peripheral nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Overview of the Nervous System 6) A main difference between neurons (nerve cells) and neuroglia (glia) is a) neuroglia are found only in the central nervous system. b) mature neurons do not normally divide; neuroglia do. c) neurons are more numerous than neuroglia. d) neurons are generally smaller than neuroglia.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue 7) Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding oligodendrocytes? a) They are smaller than astrocytes. b) They form myelin sheaths around central nervous system axons. c) They line the fluid-filled ventricles of the brain. d) They are not as numerous as astrocytes.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Identify the types of neuroglia and their functions.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.3.1 List the types of neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Histology and Function of Neuroglia 8) The following are all functions of astrocytes EXCEPT

a) they help maintain the blood-brain barrier. b) they synthesize neurotransmitters. c) they participate in brain development. d) they help maintain proper K+ balance.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Identify the types of neuroglia and their functions.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.3.2 Describe the functions of neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Histology and Function of Neuroglia Question type: Multiple Select 9) A synapse is a functional junction between (Select all that apply.) a) two neurons. b) a neuron and a muscle cell. c) a neuron and a glandular cell. d) a neuron and an osteocyte.

Answer: a, b, c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue Question type: Multiple Choice 10) The axon hillock is the part of a neuron that a) passes nerve impulses directly to another cell. b) connects the axon to the neuron cell body. c) gives rise to axon collaterals. d) stores neurotransmitters in vesicles.

Answer: b

Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue 11) Dendrites are processes of a neuron that a) carry nerve impulses away from the neuron cell body. b) are usually myelinated. c) are usually longer than axons. d) are short and highly branched.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue 12) When compared to unmyelinated axons, myelinated axons 1. are electrically insulated 2. are gray in color 3. have a faster speed of nerve impulse conduction 4. are more prevalent in adults a) 1, 2, 3, 4 b) 1, 3, 4 only c) 2, 3, 4 only d) 1, 2, 4 only Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue 13) A nerve is a structure that may contain 1. axons 2. blood vessels 3. neuron cell bodies 4. connective tissue 5. myelin 6. oligodendrocytes a) 1, 2, 4, 5 b) 1, 3, 5, 6 c) 1, 4, 5 only d) 2, 3, 4 Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe the organization of the nervous system including its structures and basic functions.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.2 List the structures and basic functions of the nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Overview of the Nervous System 14) White matter includes a) ganglia. b) a thin outer layer of most of the brain. c) nuclei in the brain. d) tracts in the spinal cord.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.2 Distinguish between gray matter and white matter.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue 15) Which of the following pairs of terms is most closely matched?

a) gray matter, myelinated axons of the peripheral nervous system b) white matter, neuron cell bodies in a ganglion c) gray matter, Schwann cells (neurolemmocytes) in the peripheral nervous system d) white matter, tracts in the central nervous system Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Identify the types of neuroglia and their functions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Histology and Function of Neuroglia 16) At a synapse between the axon of one neuron and the dendrite of another neuron, the axon would be part of a a) presynaptic neuron and the dendrite would be part of a postsynaptic neuron. b) visceral neuron and the dendrite would be part of a somatic neuron. c) postsynaptic neuron and the dendrite would be part of a presynaptic neuron. d) somatic neuron and the dendrite would be part of a visceral neuron.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Identify the types of neuroglia and their functions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Histology and Function of Neuroglia 17) Diverging circuits allow for transmission of nerve impulses from a) several neurons to one neuron. b) one neuron to several neurons. c) a unipolar neuron to a multipolar neuron. d) a multipolar neuron to a unipolar neuron.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.4 Identify the structure and function of the various types of neural circuits in the nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.4 Neural Circuits

18) Regeneration of nerve fibers in the central nervous system is highly unlikely due to all of the following EXCEPT a) there are no neurolemmas (sheaths of Schwann). b) oligodendrocytes inhibit axon regeneration. c) astrocytes rapidly form a physical barrier of scar tissue. d) microglial cells inhibit dendritic growth.

Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 16.5 Define regeneration and explain the concept of neurogenesis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.5 Regeneration and Neurogenesis 19) In order to flex your fingers, which type of impulse will the flexor digitorum superficialis muscle need to receive? a) efferent (motor) b) afferent (sensory) c) visceral d) autonomic Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe the organization of the nervous system including its structures and basic functions.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.4 Explain the functional organization of the peripheral nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Overview of the Nervous System 20) Accidentally stepping on a nail with the sole of your foot causes you quite a bit of discomfort. Which type of pathway is involved in relaying information about the nail to the central nervous system? a) efferent (motor) b) afferent (sensory) c) visceral d) autonomic Answer: b

Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe the organization of the nervous system including its structures and basic functions.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.4 Explain the functional organization of the peripheral nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Overview of the Nervous System 21) Which structure of the neuron is included in the neuromuscular junction? a) the axon terminal b) the axon hillock c) the cell body (perikaryon) d) the dendrites Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.3 Define a neuromuscular junction.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue 22) Which structure of the neuron will contain the greatest number of neurotransmitter receptors? a) the Nissl bodies b) the axoplasm c) the synaptic vesicles d) the dendrites Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue

23) Which neuroglia would be most responsible for helping to prevent pathogens and toxins from entering the brain from the blood? a) Schwann cells (neurolemmocytes) b) astrocytes c) oligodendrocytes d) ependymal cells Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue 24) Select the best description of dendrites. a) stored in synaptic vesicles b) accumulates as yellow-brown granules as the cell ages c) the receiving portion of a neuron d) usually myelinated Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue 25) Select the best description of the ependymal cells. a) form myelin sheaths in the central nervous system b) help maintain the blood-brain barrier c) surround neurons in peripheral nervous system ganglia d) form lining of brain ventricles Answer: d

Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Identify the types of neuroglia and their functions.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.3.2 Describe the functions of neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Histology and Function of Neuroglia 26) Select the best description of the oligodendrocytes. a) form myelin sheaths in the central nervous system b) help maintain the blood-brain barrier c) form myelin sheaths in the peripheral nervous system d) surround neurons in peripheral nervous system ganglia Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Identify the types of neuroglia and their functions.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.3.2 Describe the functions of neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Histology and Function of Neuroglia 27) Select the best description of axon terminals. a) stored in synaptic vesicles b) join axon to cell body c) fine processes at the ends of an axon d) side branches along the length of an axon Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue 28) Select the best description of astrocytes. a) form myelin sheaths in the central nervous system b) help maintain the blood-brain barrier c) form myelin sheaths in the peripheral nervous system

d) surround neurons in peripheral nervous system ganglia Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Identify the types of neuroglia and their functions.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.3.2 Describe the functions of neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Histology and Function of Neuroglia 29) Which of the following neuroglia would be found in the peripheral nervous system? a) satellite cells b) astrocytes c) oligodendrocytes d) microglia Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Identify the types of neuroglia and their functions.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.3.1 List the types of neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Histology and Function of Neuroglia 30) Select the best description of the microglia. a) help maintain the blood-brain barrier b) phagocytes of the central nervous system c) phagocytes of the peripheral nervous system d) form lining of brain ventricles Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Identify the types of neuroglia and their functions.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.3.2 Describe the functions of neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Histology and Function of Neuroglia 31) Select the best description of the Schwann cells (neurolemmocytes). a) form myelin sheaths in the central nervous system

b) help maintain the blood-brain barrier c) form myelin sheaths in the peripheral nervous system d) surround cell bodies in peripheral nervous system ganglia Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Identify the types of neuroglia and their functions.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.3.2 Describe the functions of neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Histology and Function of Neuroglia 32) Select the best description of the satellite cells. a) form myelin sheaths in the central nervous system b) help maintain the blood-brain barrier c) surround cell bodies in peripheral nervous system ganglia d) form lining of brain ventricles Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Identify the types of neuroglia and their functions.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.3.2 Describe the functions of neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Histology and Function of Neuroglia 33) Select the best description of neurotransmitter molecules. a) stored in synaptic vesicles b) accumulate as yellow-brown granules as the cell ages c) fine processes at the ends of axons d) usually short and branched Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.5 Define a neurotransmitter and provide several examples.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue

34) Select the best description of Nissl bodies. a) form(s) part of the cytoskeleton b) rough endoplasmic reticulum c) accumulate as yellow-brown granules as the cell ages d) usually short and branched Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue 35) Select the best description of lipofuscin. a) form(s) part of the cytoskeleton b) rough endoplasmic reticulum c) accumulates as yellow-brown granules as the cell ages d) usually short and branched Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue 36) Select the best description of an axon. a) accumulates as yellow-brown granules as the cell ages b) contains a nucleus surrounded by cytoplasm c) receiving or input portion of a neuron d) carries nerve impulses toward another neuron, a muscle fiber, or a gland cell Answer: d Difficulty: Easy

Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue 37) Select the best description of nerve fiber. a) may refer to either an axon or dendrite b) joins axon to cell body c) fine processes at the ends of axons d) contains a nucleus surrounded by cytoplasm Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue Question type: True/False 38) The efferent (motor) portion of the autonomic division of the peripheral nervous system consists of sympathetic and parasympathetic parts.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe the organization of the nervous system including its structures and basic functions.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.4 Explain the functional organization of the peripheral nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Overview of the Nervous System Question type: Multiple Select

39) Neurons that originate in the central nervous system and that function to carry information to smooth, skeletal, or cardiac muscle are (Select all that apply.) a) afferent neurons. b) efferent neurons. c) motor neurons. d) sensory neurons.

Answer: b, c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe the organization of the nervous system including its structures and basic functions.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.2 Describe the organization of the nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Overview of the Nervous System Question type: Multiple Choice 40) The afferent (sensory) portion of the somatic nervous system carries sensory information from the a) central nervous system to the eyes and ears. b) eyes and ears to the central nervous system. c) central nervous system to skeletal muscles. d) receptors in skeletal muscles to the central nervous system.

Answer: b, d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe the organization of the nervous system including its structures and basic functions.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.4 Explain the functional organization of the peripheral nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Overview of the Nervous System 41) The afferent (sensory) portion of the autonomic nervous system carries sensory information from the a) central nervous system to receptors in the viscera. b) receptors in the viscera to the central nervous system. c) central nervous system to smooth muscle.

d) receptors in smooth muscle to the central nervous system.

Answer: b, d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe the organization of the nervous system including its structures and basic functions.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.4 Explain the functional organization of the peripheral nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Overview of the Nervous System Question type: True/False 42) A significant difference between neurons and neuroglia is that mature neuroglia can divide whereas mature neurons generally cannot divide.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue Question type: Multiple Choice 43) Neuroglia which originate in red bone marrow are a) astrocytes. b) microgliocytes. c) oligodendrocytes. d) Schwann cells.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Identify the types of neuroglia and their functions Study Objective 2: SO 16.3.1 List the types of neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Histology and Function of Neuroglia Question type: True/False 44) Dendrites conduct signals toward the neuron cell body; the axon conducts nerve impulses away from the neuron cell body.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue Question type: Multiple Choice 45) The portion of the plasma membrane of a neuron that surrounds the axoplasm is called the a) axolemma. b) axon collateral. c) axon hillock. d) axon terminal arborization.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue 46) The name given to rough endoplasmic reticulum in neurons is a) lipofuscin granules. b) neurolemma. c) Nissl bodies.

d) perikaryon.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue 47) A patient is having symptoms indicative of a nervous system disorder. The patient should see a a) cardiologist. b) dermatologist. c) nephrologist. d) neurologist.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe the organization of the nervous system including its structures and basic functions.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.1 Distinguish between neurology and neurologist.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Overview of the Nervous System 48) A neurolemma (sheath of Schwann) is a characteristic of cells located in the a) central nervous system. b) peripheral nervous system. c) both the central nervous system and the peripheral nervous system. d) neither the central nervous system nor the peripheral nervous system.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Identify the types of neuroglia and their functions.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.3.1 List the types of neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Histology and Function of Neuroglia

49) The vast majority of neurons in the body are a) afferent neurons. b) interneurons. c) motor neurons. d) sensory neurons.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe the organization of the nervous system including its structures and basic functions.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.3 Describe the organization of the nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Overview of the Nervous System Question type: True/False 50) Most unipolar neurons are sensory neurons that transmit information along afferent pathways to the central nervous system.

Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue 51) Gray matter is only located in the brain.

Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Identify the types of neuroglia and their functions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Histology and Function of Neuroglia 52) Neurogenesis, the birth of new neurons, does NOT happen in adult humans.

Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 16.5 Define regeneration and explain the concept of neurogenesis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.5 Regeneration and Neurogenesis Question type: Multiple Select 53) Select all options that are indicative of the sympathetic division of the nervous system. Select all that apply. a) “Fight or flight” responses b) “Rest and digest” responses c) Part of the autonomic division d) Part of the somatic division Answer: a, c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe the organization of the nervous system including its structures and basic functions.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.4 Explain the functional organization of the peripheral nervous system Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Overview of the Nervous System Question type: Essay 54) Draw and label a typical (multipolar) neuron, using correct anatomical terms.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue

Solution: Refer to Figure 16.3. The labels should include correct use of the following terms: axon hillock, axolemma, axoplasm, initial segment, trigger zone, mitochondria, microtubules, neurofibrils, axon collaterals, axon terminals, synaptic end bulbs, synaptic vesicles, myelin sheath.

Question type: Multiple Select 55) Bipolar neurons (Select all that apply.) a) have one axon and one main dendrite. b) have two axons and two main dendrites. c) are found in the retina of the eye. d) are found in the olfactory area of the brain.

Answer: a, c, d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue 56) Several presynaptic neurons synapse with a single postsynaptic neuron. This statement describes (Select all that apply.) a) a converging circuit. b) a diverging circuit. c) a parallel after-discharge circuit. d) a simple series circuit.

Answer: a, c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 16.4 Identify the structure and function of the various types of neural circuits in the nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.4 Neural Circuits 57) Identify conditions necessary for the regeneration of the processes of a neuron in the peripheral nervous system. Select all that apply.

a) astrocytes must be inhibited b) oligodendrocytes must be active c) Schwann cells must be functional d) the cell body must be intact Answer: c, d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.5 Define regeneration and explain the concept of neurogenesis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.5 Regeneration and Neurogenesis 58) The three basic functions of the nervous system are (Select all that apply.) a) integrative function. b) motor function. c) restorative function. d) sensory function.

Answer: a, b, d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe the organization of the nervous system including its structures and basic functions.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.2 List the structures and basic functions of the nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Overview of the Nervous System 59) The two principal divisions of the nervous system are the (Select all that apply.) a) autonomic nervous system. b) central nervous system. c) peripheral nervous system. d) somatic nervous system.

Answer: b, c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe the organization of the nervous system including its structures and basic functions.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.3 Describe the organization of the nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Overview of the Nervous System

Question type: Multiple Choice 60) The efferent (motor) portion of the somatic nervous system is a) involuntary. b) voluntary.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 16.1 Describe the organization of the nervous system including its structures and basic functions.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.1.4 Explain the functional organization of the peripheral nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.1 Overview of the Nervous System 61) One class of neuroglial cells is cuboidal to columnar cells arranged in a single layer that possess microvilli and cilia that line fluid-filled spaces in the CNS. These neuroglia are called a) astrocytes. b) ependymal cells. c) microglial cells. d) oligodendrocytes.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Identify the types of neuroglia and their functions.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.3.1 List the types of neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Histology and Function of Neuroglia 62) An oligodendrocyte contributes to the myelin sheath of a) one axon. b) several axons.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy

Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Identify the types of neuroglia and their functions.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.3.2 Describe the functions of neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Histology and Function of Neuroglia 63) A Schwann cell (neurolemmocyte) contributes to the myelin sheath of a) one axon. b) several axons.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Identify the types of neuroglia and their functions.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.3.2 Describe the functions of neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Histology and Function of Neuroglia 64) Breathing and short-term memory are thought to be the result of which type of neural circuit? a) diverging circuit b) parallel after-discharge circuit c) reverberating circuit d) simple series circuit Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.4 Identify the structure and function of the various types of neural circuits in the nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.4 Neural Circuits 65) A bundle of axons in the central nervous system is called a a) ganglion. b) nerve. c) nucleus. d) tract.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy

Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Identify the types of neuroglia and their functions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Histology and Function of Neuroglia 66) A neuron in which the axon and dendrite fuse to make a single process that divides into two branches a short distance from the cell body is a a) bipolar neuron. b) multipolar neuron. c) pseudounipolar neuron.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue 67) The name of the structure indicated by the arrow in the diagram is

a) axon hillock.

b) axolemma. c) cell body. d) neurofibril.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue 68) The name of the structure indicated by the arrow in the diagram is

a) axon collateral. b) axon hillock. c) Nissl bodies. d) myelin sheath gap (node of Ranvier).

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy

Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue 69) The name of the structure indicated by the arrow in the diagram is

a) axolemma. b) axoplasm. c) axon terminal. d) neurolemma.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue

70) The name of the structures indicated by the arrow in the diagram is

a) axons. b) axon hillocks. c) dendrites. d) neurofibrils.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue 71) The name of the structure indicated by the arrow in the diagram is

a) axon. b) axon collateral. c) cell body. d) dendrite.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue

72) The name of the cell type indicated by the (a) in the diagram is

a) bipolar neuron. b) multipolar neuron. c) pseudounipolar neuron. d) unipolar neuron.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue 73) The name of the cell type indicated by the (b) in the diagram is

a) bipolar neuron. b) multipolar neuron.

c) pseudounipolar neuron. d) unipolar neuron.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue 74) The name of the cell type indicated by the (c) in the diagram is

a) bipolar neuron. b) multipolar neuron. c) pseudounipolar neuron. d) single polar neuron.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue

75) The cell type that represents most sensory neurons is the one labeled

a) A. b) B. c) C. Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.1 Compare the histological characteristics and functions of neurons and neuroglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue 76) The neurotransmitter released at the neuromuscular synapse is a) acetylcholine. b) dopamine. c) GABA. d) serotonin.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters and synapses.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.3 Define a neuromuscular junction.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue

Question type: Multiple Select 77) Which of the following is/are accurate? Select all that apply. a) Neuroglia are smaller than neurons. b) Neuroglia are more numerous than neurons. c) Neuroglia generate nerve impulses and neurons do not. d) Neuroglia can fill in spaces formerly occupied by neurons.

Answer: a, b, d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Identify the types of neuroglia and their functions Study Objective 2: SO 16.3.2 Explain the functions of neuroglia Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Histology and Function of Neuroglia 78) Which neuroglia are located exclusively in the PNS? Select all that apply. a) Schwann cells b) satellite cells c) microglia d) astrocytes Answer: a, b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Identify the types of neuroglia and their functions Study Objective 2: SO 16.3.1 Describe the types of neuroglia Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Histology and Function of Neuroglia 79) Neuroglia of the CNS include (Select all that apply.) a) astrocytes. b) ependymal cells. c) microglia. d) satellite cells.

Answer: a, b, c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis

Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Identify the types of neuroglia and their functions Study Objective 2: SO 16.3.1 Describe the types of neuroglia Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Histology and Function of Neuroglia Question type: Multiple Choice 80) The largest and most numerous of the CNS neuroglia are a) astrocytes. b) ependymal cells. c) microglia. d) Schwann cells.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Identify the types of neuroglia and their functions Study Objective 2: SO 16.3.1 Describe the types of neuroglia Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Histology and Function of Neuroglia 81) In which type of synapse are the neurons bound tightly by gap junctions? a) chemical synapse b) electrical synapse Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters, and synapses.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.4 Distinguish between electrical and chemical synapses.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue 82) Processes of what neuroglial cells wrap around endothelial cells of CNS blood capillaries to form the blood-brain barrier? a) astrocytes b) oligodendrocytes c) Schwann cells d) microglia Answer: a

Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Identify the types of neuroglia and their functions Study Objective 2: SO 16.3.2 Explain the functions of neuroglia Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Histology and Function of Neuroglia 83) The type of neuroglia in the CNS that regulates the concentration of ions, such as K+, for nerve impulse generation is a/an a) astrocyte. b) oligodendrocyte. c) Schwann cell. d) microgliocyte.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Identify the types of neuroglia and their functions Study Objective 2: SO 16.3.2 Explain the functions of neuroglia Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Histology and Function of Neuroglia 84) Which type of neuroglia forms and maintains the protective covering around the axons of the CNS? a) oligodendrocytes b) microglia c) ependymal cells d) astrocytes Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Identify the types of neuroglia and their functions Study Objective 2: SO 16.3.2 Explain the functions of neuroglia Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Histology and Function of Neuroglia 85) Which neuroglia form a single layer that possesses microvilli and cilia to circulate cerebrospinal fluid? a) ependymal cells

b) astrocytes c) Schwann cells d) microglia Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Identify the types of neuroglia and their functions Study Objective 2: SO 16.3.2 Explain the functions of neuroglia Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Histology and Function of Neuroglia 86) A patient reports to her psychiatrist that she has alternating periods of feeling normal with feeling depressed. This would best be described as a) bipolar disorder. b) dysthymia. c) major depression. d) seasonal affective disorder.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters, and synapses.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.5 Define a neurotransmitter and provide several examples.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue 87) Demyelination occurs when a) the myelin sheath is destroyed around axons. b) gray matter is converted to white matter. c) oligodendrocytes produce excessive amounts of myelin. d) microglia absorb myelin.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Identify the types of neuroglia and their functions Study Objective 2: SO 16.3.2 Explain the functions of neuroglia Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Histology and Function of Neuroglia

88) A neuropeptide which is the body’s natural painkiller is a) dopamine. b) endorphin. c) glutamate. d) serotonin.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters, and synapses.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.5 Define a neurotransmitter and provide several examples.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue 89) A disease caused by the destruction of myelin sheaths is a) Alzheimer’s. b) depression. c) multiple sclerosis. d) seasonal affective disorder.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 16.4 Identify the structure and function of the various types of neural circuits in the nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.4 Neural Circuits Question type: Multiple Select 90) Which neuroglia surround neuron axons? Select all that apply. a) oligodendrocytes b) Schwann cells c) ependymal cells d) microglial cells Answer: a, b Difficulty: Easy

Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Identify the types of neuroglia and their functions Study Objective 2: SO 16.3.1 Describe the types of neuroglia Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Histology and Function of Neuroglia Question type: Multiple Choice 91) An increase in the concentration of which ion inside of the synaptic end bulb triggers exocytosis of synaptic vesicles? a) Ca2+ b) Clc) K+ d) Na+ Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 16.2 Describe the structure, location and function of neurons, neuroglia, the neuromuscular junction, neurotransmitters, and synapses.

Study Objective 2: SO 16.2.4 Distinguish between electrical and chemical synapses.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.2 Histology of Nervous Tissue 92) Which neuroglia are thin and regulate the exchange of materials between the interstitial fluids and neuron cell bodies? a) satellite cells b) ependymal cells c) microglial cells d) oligodendrocytes Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Identify the types of neuroglia and their functions Study Objective 2: SO 16.3.2 Explain the functions of neuroglia Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Histology and Function of Neuroglia Question type: Multiple Select

93)Which type(s) of neuroglia is/are associated with myelin sheaths? Select all that apply. a) oligodendrocytes b) Schwann cells c) microglial cells d) satellite cells Answer: a, b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Identify the types of neuroglia and their functions Study Objective 2: SO 16.3.2 Explain the functions of neuroglia Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Histology and Function of Neuroglia Question type: Multiple Choice 94) In the PNS, what structure aids in regeneration of the axon? a) axoplasm b) enteric plexuses c) neurolemma d) Nissl bodies Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Identify the types of neuroglia and their functions Study Objective 2: SO 16.3.2 Explain the functions of neuroglia Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Histology and Function of Neuroglia Question type: Multiple Select 95) Which of the following are found in gray matter of nervous tissue? Select all that apply. a) neuron cell bodies b) myelinated axons c) neuroglia d) dendrites Answer: a, c, d

Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Identify the types of neuroglia and their functions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Histology and Function of Neuroglia Question type: Multiple Choice 96) In lab you examine a nervous system tissue slide and identify satellite cells around unipolar neuron cell bodies. Which of the following classifications would be correct? a) gray matter ganglion of PNS b) gray matter nucleus of CNS c) white matter tract of PNS d) white matter nerve of CNS Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Identify the types of neuroglia and their functions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Histology and Function of Neuroglia 97) During a histological study of nervous tissue from the CNS, myelin is observed surrounding the axons of the neurons. Based on the presence of the myelin, what other conclusion can be made for this specimen? a) oligodendrocytes are present b) Schwann cells are present c) microglial cells are present d) ependymal cells are present Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Evaluation Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Identify the types of neuroglia and their functions Study Objective 2: SO 16.3.2 Explain the functions of neuroglia Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Histology and Function of Neuroglia 98) During a histological survey of nervous tissue, columnar cells with cilia and microvilli were observed under the microscope. What is the most likely source of the tissue sample?

a) brain ventricles b) white matter of spinal cord c) gray matter of brain d) ganglion of PNS Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Evaluation Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Identify the types of neuroglia and their functions Study Objective 2: SO 16.3.1 Describe the types of neuroglia Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Histology and Function of Neuroglia 99) After an injury where nervous tissue is damaged, a certain type of neuroglial cell will begin removing the damaged tissue. What is the neuroglia and where does it originate? a) microglial cells; red bone marrow b) microglial cells; brain c) satellite cells; thymus gland d) satellite cells; myelin sheaths Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Evaluation Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Identify the types of neuroglia and their functions Study Objective 2: SO 16.3.2 Explain the functions of neuroglia Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Histology and Function of Neuroglia 100) A professor evaluating a student’s histology lab report noted that the student identified the observed tissue sample source as the brain of a sheep. However, in that same report the student described another observation that is inconsistent with that first observation. Which of the following observations would be incorrect for a tissue sample from a sheep brain? a) presence of satellite cells b) presence of ciliated columnar ependymal cells c) presence of myelin sheaths d) presence of microglial cells Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Synthesis

Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Identify the types of neuroglia and their functions Study Objective 2: SO 16.3.1 Describe the types of neuroglia Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Histology and Function of Neuroglia Question type: Multiple Select 101) Both types of neuroglia that produce and maintain a myelin sheath in nervous tissue are abundant in adults. Which of the following accurately describes how they differ? Select all that apply. a) One oligodendrocyte can associate with multiple axons whereas multiple Schwann cells associate with a single axon. b) Oligodendrocytes are only in CNS whereas Schwann cells are only in PNS. c) Oligodendrocytes are found exclusively in gray matter whereas Schwann cells are found exclusively in white matter. d) Oligodendrocytes produce cerebrospinal fluid and myelin whereas Schwann cells only produce myelin.

Answer: a, b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 16.3 Identify the types of neuroglia and their functions Study Objective 2: SO 16.3.1 Describe the types of neuroglia Section Reference 1: Sec 16.3 Histology and Function of Neuroglia

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pha15 Chapter Number: 17 Question type: Multiple Choice 1) Which of the following contain cell bodies of interneurons? a) posterior (dorsal) gray horns b) anterior (ventral) gray horns c) posterior (dorsal) root ganglia d) lateral gray horns Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the protective structures and the external anatomy of the spinal cord.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.3 Describe the external anatomy of the spinal cord.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy 2) The conus medullaris is a) the junction between the medulla and the spinal cord. b) the tapering end of the spinal cord inferior to the lumbar enlargement. c) the inner portion of the spinal cord, seen in cross section. d) the attachment of a spinal nerve to the spinal cord.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the protective structures and the external anatomy of the spinal cord.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.2 Explain the external features of the spinal cord.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy 3) The inferior extension of the pia mater that anchors the spinal cord to the coccyx is called the a) cauda equina b) filum terminale

c) denticulate ligament d) conus medullaris Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the protective structures and the external anatomy of the spinal cord.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.2 Explain the external features of the spinal cord.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy 4) The white matter of the spinal cord a) contains ascending (sensory) and descending (motor) tracts. b) is surrounded by gray matter. c) is subdivided into regions called horns. d) contains cell bodies called nuclei.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the protective structures and the external anatomy of the spinal cord.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.3 Describe the external anatomy of the spinal cord.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy Question type: Multiple Select 5) The gray matter of the spinal cord (Select all that apply.) a) is subdivided into regions called horns. b) is surrounded by white matter. c) contains neuronal cell bodies. d) contains areas called funiculi.

Answer: a, b, c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the protective structures and the external anatomy of the spinal cord.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.3 Describe the external anatomy of the spinal cord.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy Question type: Multiple Choice 6) The central canal of the spinal cord is located in the center of the a) anterior (ventral) white commissure. b) anterior (ventral) gray horns. c) posterior (dorsal) white columns. d) gray commissure.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the protective structures and the external anatomy of the spinal cord.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.3 Describe the external anatomy of the spinal cord.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy Question type: Multiple Select 7) Lateral gray horns are present in segments of the which region(s) of the spinal cord? (Select all that apply.) a) cervical b) thoracic c) lumbar d) midsacral Answer: b, c, d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the protective structures and the external anatomy of the spinal cord.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.3 Describe the external anatomy of the spinal cord.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy Question type: Multiple Choice

8) The senses of pain and temperature are conveyed to the brain by a) direct tracts. b) indirect tracts. c) lateral spinothalamic tracts. d) posterior funiculi.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 17.7 Describe the structure and function of the reflex arc, and the major motor and sensory tracts of the spinal cord.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.7.1 Describe the functions of the major sensory and motor tracts of the spinal cord.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.3 Spinal Cord Functions 9) Motor impulses that help maintain muscle tone and posture are conveyed from the brain through the spinal cord by the a) direct pathways. b) indirect pathways. c) spinothalamic tracts. d) posterior columns.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 17.7 Describe the structure and function of the reflex arc, and the major motor and sensory tracts of the spinal cord.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.7.1 Describe the functions of the major sensory and motor tracts of the spinal cord.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.3 Spinal Cord Functions 10) A typical reflex arc involves the following components: 1. sensory neuron 2. motor neuron 3. sensory receptor 4. integrating center 5. effector The correct order is:

a) 3, 1, 4, 2, 5 b) 3, 4, 1, 2, 5 c) 3, 2, 1, 5 d) 3, 4, 2, 5 Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 17.7 Describe the structure and function of the reflex arc, and the major motor and sensory tracts of the spinal cord.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.7.2 Describe the functional components of a reflex arc and the ways reflexes maintain homeostasis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.3 Spinal Cord Functions 11) Which of the following could serve as an effector for a somatic reflex? a) skeletal muscle b) smooth muscle c) cardiac muscle d) gland Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 17.7 Describe the structure and function of the reflex arc, and the major motor and sensory tracts of the spinal cord.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.7.2 Describe the functional components of a reflex arc and the ways reflexes maintain homeostasis.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.3 Spinal Cord Functions 12) The roots of which spinal nerves make up the cauda equina?

1. Thoracic 2. Lumbar 3. Sacral 4. Coccygeal a) 1, 2, 3, 4 b) 2, 3, 4 only c) 3, 4 only d) 4 only

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the protective structures and the external anatomy of the spinal cord.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.2 Explain the external features of the spinal cord.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy 13) Which of the following statements is FALSE for spinal nerves? a) The two largest branches of a spinal nerve are the anterior (ventral) ramus and the posterior (dorsal) ramus. b) All spinal nerves are mixed nerves. c) The outer covering of a spinal nerve is the epineurium. d) Every pair of spinal nerves exits through the intervertebral foramina above the vertebra that has the same name and number as the nerves.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 17.2 Describe the structural components, organization, and distribution of nerves including the clinical significance of dermatomes versus cutaneous fields.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.2.2 Identify the components, connective tissue coverings, and branching of a spinal nerve.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.2 Spinal Nerves 14) Which of the following is FALSE regarding the sciatic nerve? It a) arises from the lumbar plexus. b) splits at about the level of the knee into tibial and common fibular nerves. c) is the largest nerve in the body. d) sends branches to the hamstring muscles.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 17.6 Describe the origin and distribution of the sacral and coccygeal plexuses.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 17.D Sacral and Coccygeal Plexuses

15) The main plexuses formed by the anterior (ventral) rami of spinal nerves are a) thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal b) cervical, brachial, lumbar, and sacral c) cervical, lumbar, sacral, and inguinal d) cervical, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 17.2 Describe the structural components, organization, and distribution of nerves including the clinical significance of dermatomes versus cutaneous fields.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.2.3 Describe the distribution of nerves of the cervical, brachial, lumbar, and sacral plexuses.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.2 Spinal Nerves 16) Spinal nerves T2-T12 differ from all other spinal nerves in that a) they do not branch to form rami. b) they are autonomic nerves. c) the anterior (ventral) rami do not contribute to a plexus. d) the posterior (dorsal) rami form a plexus.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 17.2 Describe the structural components, organization, and distribution of nerves including the clinical significance of dermatomes versus cutaneous fields.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.2.2 Identify the components, connective tissue coverings, and branching of a spinal nerve.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.2 Spinal Nerves 17) Which of the following is NOT a correct description of the location of the brachial plexus? a) on the neck alongside the first four cervical vertebrae b) passes above the first rib posterior to the clavicle c) extends inferiorly and laterally on either side of the last few cervical and first thoracic vertebrae d) enters the axilla Answer: a

Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 17.4 Describe the origin, distribution, and effects of damage to the brachial plexus.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 17.B Brachial Plexus.

18) Which of the following is NOT a correct description of the lumbar plexus? a) lateral to the first four lumbar vertebrae b) posterior to the quadratus lumborum muscle c) between the two heads of the psoas major muscle d) supplies the anterolateral abdominal wall Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 17.5 Describe the origin and distribution of the lumbar plexus.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 17.C Lumbar Plexus.

19) Which peripheral nerves are responsible for cutaneous sensation from the skin of the anterior abdominal wall as well as motor innervation to anterior abdominal wall muscles? a) median and musculocutaneous nerves b) sciatic and sural nerves c) intercostal (thoracic) nerves d) inferior and superior gluteal nerves Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 17.2 Describe the structural components, organization, and distribution of nerves including the clinical significance of dermatomes versus cutaneous fields.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.2.2 Identify the components, connective tissue coverings, and branching of a spinal nerve.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.2 Spinal Nerves Question type: Multiple Select 20) The spinal cord is protected by which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

a) vertebral column b) meninges c) cerebrospinal fluid d) plexuses Answer: a, b, c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the protective structures and the external anatomy of the spinal cord.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.1 Describe the protective structures of the spinal cord.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy Question type: Multiple Choice 21) Which of the following contains sensory information ONLY? a) anterior (ventral) root b) anterior (ventral) ramus c) posterior (dorsal) root d) posterior (dorsal) ramus Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 17.2 Describe the structural components, organization, and distribution of nerves including the clinical significance of dermatomes versus cutaneous fields.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.2.2 Identify the components, connective tissue coverings, and branching of a spinal nerve.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.2 Spinal Nerves 22) What is the best description of the epidural space? a) contains a protective cushion of fat and connective tissue b) between arachnoid mater and pia mater c) between dura mater and arachnoid mater d) contains interstitial fluid e) contains cerebrospinal fluid Answer: a

Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the protective structures and the external anatomy of the spinal cord.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.1 Describe the protective structures of the spinal cord.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy 23) What is the best description of the subarachnoid space? a) contains a protective cushion of fat and connective tissue b) between arachnoid mater and pia mater c) between dura mater and the wall of vertebral canal d) between dura mater and arachnoid mater e) contains interstitial fluid Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the protective structures and the external anatomy of the spinal cord.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.1 Describe the protective structures of the spinal cord.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy 24) What is the best description of the pia mater? a) contains a protective cushion of fat and connective tissue b) most superficial meninx c) thick strong layer composed of dense, irregular connective tissue d) contains blood vessels that supply oxygen and nutrients to the spinal cord e) consists of collagen and elastic fiber network; has no blood vessels Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the protective structures and the external anatomy of the spinal cord.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.1 Describe the protective structures of the spinal cord.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy 25) What is the best description of the arachnoid mater?

a) meninx closest to the bone of the vertebral column b) between subarachnoid space and pia mater c) contains a protective cushion of fat and connective tissue d) contains blood vessels that supply oxygen and nutrients to the spinal cord e) consists of collagen and elastic fiber network; has no blood vessels Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the protective structures and the external anatomy of the spinal cord.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.1 Describe the protective structures of the spinal cord.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy 26) What is the best description of the dura mater? a) meninx closest to the bone of the vertebral column b) between arachnoid mater and pia mater c) between pia mater and spinal cord d) contains blood vessels that supply oxygen and nutrients to the spinal cord e) consists of collagen and elastic fiber network; has no blood vessels Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the protective structures and the external anatomy of the spinal cord.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.1 Describe the protective structures of the spinal cord.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy 27) Select the structure(s) served by the axillary nerve. a) deltoid muscle b) extensors of the wrist c) flexors of the wrist d) biceps brachii e) diaphragm Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis

Study Objective 1: SO 17.4 Describe the origin, distribution, and effects of damage to the brachial plexus.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 17.B Brachial Plexus.

28) Select the structure(s) served by the radial nerve. a) deltoid muscle b) triceps brachii c) flexors of the wrist d) skin of superior portion of the chest and shoulder e) diaphragm Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 17.4 Describe the origin, distribution, and effects of damage to the brachial plexus.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 17.B Brachial Plexus.

29) Select the structure(s) served by the median nerve. a) quadriceps femoris muscle b) extensors of the wrist c) flexors of the wrist d) skin of superior portion of the chest and shoulder e) diaphragm Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 17.4 Describe the origin, distribution, and effects of damage to the brachial plexus.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 17.B Brachial Plexus.

30) Select the structure(s) served by the supraclavicular nerve. a) quadriceps femoris muscle b) extensors of the wrist c) flexors of the wrist d) skin of superior portion of the chest and shoulder e) diaphragm

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 17.3 Describe the origin and distribution of the cervical plexus.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 17.A Cervical Plexus 31) Select the structure(s) served by the phrenic nerve. a) quadriceps femoris muscle b) adductor muscles of thigh c) flexors of the wrist d) skin of superior portion of the chest and shoulder e) diaphragm Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 17.3 Describe the origin and distribution of the cervical plexus.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 17.A Cervical Plexus 32) Select the muscle(s) served by the femoral nerve. a) extensor muscles of knee joint b) adductor muscles of thigh c) gluteus maximus d) gastrocnemius and soleus muscles e) tibialis anterior and fibularis (peroneal) muscles Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 17.5 Describe the origin and distribution of the lumbar plexus.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 17.C Lumbar Plexus.

33) Select the muscle(s) served by the obturator nerve. a) anterior muscles of thigh (quadriceps and sartorius) b) adductor muscles of thigh c) gluteus maximus

d) gastrocnemius and soleus muscles e) tibialis anterior and fibularis (peroneal) muscles Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 17.5 Describe the origin and distribution of the lumbar plexus.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 17.C Lumbar Plexus.

34) Select the muscle(s) served by the tibial nerve. a) anterior muscles of thigh (quadriceps and sartorius) b) adductor muscles of thigh c) gluteus maximus d) gastrocnemius and soleus muscles e) tibialis anterior and fibularis (peroneal) muscles Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 17.6 Describe the origin and distribution of the sacral and coccygeal plexuses.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 17.D Sacral and Coccygeal Plexuses.

35) Select the muscle(s) served by the inferior gluteal nerve. a) anterior muscles of thigh (quadriceps and sartorius) b) adductor muscles of thigh c) gluteus maximus d) gastrocnemius and soleus muscles e) tibialis anterior and fibularis (peroneal) muscles Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 17.6 Describe the origin and distribution of the sacral and coccygeal plexuses.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 17.D Sacral and Coccygeal Plexuses.

36) Select the muscle(s) served by the common fibular nerve.

a) anterior muscles of thigh (quadriceps and sartorius) b) adductor muscles of thigh c) gluteus maximus d) gastrocnemius and soleus muscles e) tibialis anterior and fibularis tertius muscles Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 17.6 Describe the origin and distribution of the sacral and coccygeal plexuses.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 17.D Sacral and Coccygeal Plexuses.

37) From which plexus does the long thoracic nerve arise? a) brachial b) cervical c) lumbar d) sacral e) thoracic Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 17.4 Describe the origin, distribution, and effects of damage to the brachial plexus.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 17.B Brachial Plexus.

38) From which plexus does the great auricular nerve arise? a) brachial b) cervical c) lumbar d) sacral e) thoracic Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 17.3 Describe the origin and distribution of the cervical plexus.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 17.A Cervical Plexus.

39) From which plexus does the femoral nerve arise? a) brachial b) cervical c) lumbar d) sacral e) thoracic Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 17.5 Describe the origin and distribution of the lumbar plexus.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 17.C Lumbar Plexus.

40) From which plexus does the phrenic nerve arise? a) brachial b) cervical c) lumbar d) sacral e) thoracic Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 17.3 Describe the origin and distribution of the cervical plexus.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 17.A Cervical Plexus.

41) From which plexus does the superior gluteal nerve arise? a) brachial b) cervical c) lumbar d) sacral e) thoracic Answer: d Difficulty: Medium

Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 17.6 Describe the origin and distribution of the sacral and coccygeal plexuses.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 17.D Sacral and Coccygeal Plexuses.

42) From which plexus does the ulnar nerve arise? a) brachial b) cervical c) lumbar d) sacral e) thoracic Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 17.4 Describe the origin, distribution, and effects of damage to the brachial plexus.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 17.B Brachial Plexus.

43) From which plexus does the pudendal nerve arise? a) brachial b) cervical c) lumbar d) sacral e) thoracic Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 17.6 Describe the origin and distribution of the sacral and coccygeal plexuses.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 17.D Sacral and Coccygeal Plexuses.

44) From which plexus does the iliohypogastric nerve arise? a) brachial b) cervical c) lumbar d) sacral

e) thoracic Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 17.5 Describe the origin and distribution of the lumbar plexus.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 17.C Lumbar Plexus.

45) From which plexus does the axillary nerve arise? a) brachial b) cervical c) lumbar d) sacral e) thoracic Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 17.4 Describe the origin, distribution, and effects of damage to the brachial plexus.

Section Reference 1: Sec Exhibit 17.B Brachial Plexus.

Question type: True/False 46) The epidural space found between the dura mater and the wall of the vertebral canal contains a protective cushion of fat and connective tissue.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the protective structures and the external anatomy of the spinal cord.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.1 Describe the protective structures of the spinal cord.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy Question type: Multiple Choice

47) Which of the following is a connective tissue covering which holds nerve fibers together into fascicles? a) endoneurium b) epineurium c) perineurium d) supraneurium Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 17.2 Describe the structural components, organization, and distribution of nerves including the clinical significance of dermatomes versus cutaneous fields.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.2.1 Explain the basic structure of a nerve.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.2 Spinal Nerves Question type: Multiple Select 48) Which of the following structures help to anchor the spinal cord and protect it against sudden displacement? (Select all that apply.) a) denticulate ligaments b) filum terminale c) gray commissure d) white commissure Answer: a, b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the protective structures and the external anatomy of the spinal cord.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.1 Describe the protective structures of the spinal cord.

Study Objective 3: SO 17.1.2 Explain the external features of the spinal cord.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy Question type: True/False 49) The anterior median fissure of the spinal cord is shallower and narrower than the posterior median sulcus.

Answer: False

Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the protective structures and the external anatomy of the spinal cord.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.3 Describe the external anatomy of the spinal cord.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy 50) All segments of the spinal cord contain lateral, posterior (dorsal), and anterior (ventral) gray horns.

Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the protective structures and the external anatomy of the spinal cord.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.3 Describe the external anatomy of the spinal cord.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy Question type: Multiple Choice 51) Cell bodies of motor neurons that supply smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, or glands via the autonomic nervous system can be found in the a) anterior gray horns b) lateral gray horns c) posterior gray horns d) ventral gray horns Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the protective structures and the external anatomy of the spinal cord.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.3 Describe the external anatomy of the spinal cord.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy 52) The most common cause of spinal nerve root damage is a) cancer b) herniated intervertebral disc

c) infectious disease d) trauma Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 17.2 Describe the structural components, organization, and distribution of nerves including the clinical significance of dermatomes versus cutaneous fields.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.2.2 Identify the components, connective tissue coverings, and branching of a spinal nerve.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.2 Spinal Nerves Question type: True/False 53) The femoral nerve is a branch of the sciatic nerve.

Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 17.5 Describe the origin and distribution of the lumbar plexus.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 17.C Lumbar Plexus.

Question type: Multiple Select 54) Complete paralysis of the diaphragm occurs if the spinal cord is crushed or destroyed a) just below the C5 region b) just above the C3 region c) above the origin of the phrenic nerves d) below the origin of the long thoracic nerve Answer: b, c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 17.3 Describe the origin and distribution of the cervical plexus.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 17.A Cervical Plexus.

Question type: True/False

55) Complete anesthesia of a dermatome typically requires blocking of only one pair of spinal nerves because there is never overlap between neighboring dermatomes.

Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 17.2 Describe the structural components, organization, and distribution of nerves including the clinical significance of dermatomes versus cutaneous fields.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.2.4 Compare the clinical significance of dermatomes and cutaneous fields.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.2 Spinal Nerves Question type: Essay 56) Describe, in order, from superficial (outermost) to deep (innermost), the structures, tissues, and fluids that provide protection for the spinal cord.

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the protective structures and the external anatomy of the spinal cord.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.1 Describe the protective structures of the spinal cord.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy Solution: 1. vertebral column, 2. vertebral ligaments, 3. epidural space with adipose tissue, 4. dura mater of dense irregular connective tissue, 5. subdural space with interstitial fluid, 6. arachnoid mater of collagen and elastic fibers, 7. subarachnoid space with cerebrospinal fluid, 8. denticulate ligaments, extensions of pia mater, attach cord to dura mater, 9 pia mater of thin fibrous connective tissue.

Question type: Multiple Choice 57) A patient received an injection into the triceps muscle. The patient is struggling to extend the wrist and fingers. This patient most likely has an injury to the a) lateral pectoral nerve b) median nerve c) radial nerve

d) thoracodorsal nerve Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 17.4 Describe the origin, distribution, and effects of damage to the brachial plexus.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 17.B Brachial Plexus 58) Which of the following nerve injuries may occur due to pressure on the nerve by the fetal head during pregnancy? a) femoral nerve injury b) iliohypogastric nerve injury c) perforating cutaneous nerve injury d) obturator nerve injury Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 17.5 Describe the origin and distribution of the lumbar plexus.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 17.C Lumbar Plexus 59) Which area of the body is served by the brachial plexus? a) anterolateral abdominal wall and parts of the lower limbs b) diaphragm and skin of the head and neck c) lower limbs and perineum d) shoulders and upper limbs Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 17.2 Describe the structural components, organization, and distribution of nerves including the clinical significance of dermatomes versus cutaneous fields.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.2.3 Describe the distribution of nerves of the cervical, brachial, lumbar, and sacral plexuses.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.2 Spinal Nerves 60) The adult spinal cord extends from the

a) midbrain inferiorly to the superior border of the first lumbar vertebra b) pons inferiorly to the superior border of the third lumbar vertebra c) medulla oblongata inferiorly to the superior border of the second lumbar vertebra d) medulla oblongata inferiorly to the superior border of the fourth lumbar vertebra Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the protective structures and the external anatomy of the spinal cord.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.2 Explain the external features of the spinal cord.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy 61) Cerebrospinal fluid is found between two layers of the meninges, in a space called the a) subarachnoid space b) subpial space c) epidural space d) subdural space Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the protective structures and the external anatomy of the spinal cord.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.1 Describe the protective structures of the spinal cord.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy 62) The two main routes for sensory information traveling up the spinal cord to the brain are a) direct tracts and indirect funiculi b) spinothalamic tracts and posterior funiculi c) reticulospinal tracts and vestibulospinal funiculi d) corticospinal tracts and corticobulbar funiculi Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 17.7 Describe the structure and function of the reflex arc, and the major motor and sensory tracts of the spinal cord.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.7.1 Describe the functions of the major sensory and motor tracts of the spinal cord.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.3 Spinal Cord Functions 63) The two main routes for motor information traveling down the spinal cord are a) corticospinal pathways and posterior column pathways b) anterior spinocerebellar pathways and posterior spinocerebellar pathways c) gracilis fasciculus pathways and cuneate fasciculus pathways d) direct pathways and indirect pathways Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 17.7 Describe the structure and function of the reflex arc, and the major motor and sensory tracts of the spinal cord.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.7.1 Describe the functions of the major sensory and motor tracts of the spinal cord.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.3 Spinal Cord Functions 64) Which of the following contain cell bodies of sensory neurons? a) anterior (ventral) gray horns b) posterior (dorsal) gray horns c) spinal (posterior (dorsal) root) ganglia d) lateral gray horns Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 17.2 Describe the structural components, organization, and distribution of nerves including the clinical significance of dermatomes versus cutaneous fields.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.2.2 Identify the components, connective tissue coverings, and branching of a spinal nerve.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.2 Spinal Nerves 65) Motor neurons that supply skeletal muscles have cell bodies in a) anterior (ventral) gray horns of the spinal cord and their axons exit the cord via a posterior (dorsal) root

b) posterior (dorsal) gray horns of the spinal cord and their axons exit the cord via a posterior (dorsal) root c) anterior (ventral) gray horns of the spinal cord and their axons exit the cord via an anterior (ventral) root d) posterior (dorsal) gray horns of the spinal cord and their axons exit the cord via an anterior (ventral) root Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the protective structures and the external anatomy of the spinal cord.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.3 Describe the external anatomy of the spinal cord.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy Question type: Multiple Select 66) Which of the following is correct about the organization of the spinal nerves? a) there are 31 pairs of spinal nerves b) there are 8 pairs of cervical nerves c) there are 5 pairs of thoracic nerves d) there are 12 pairs of lumbar nerves Answer: a, b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 17.2 Describe the structural components, organization, and distribution of nerves including the clinical significance of dermatomes versus cutaneous fields.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.2.1 Explain the basic structure of a nerve.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.2 Spinal Nerves Question type: Multiple Choice 67) Which of the following is NOT a branch of a spinal nerve? a) ramus communicans (plural: rami communicantes) b) meningeal branch c) lateral ramus d) anterior (ventral) ramus

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 17.2 Describe the structural components, organization, and distribution of nerves including the clinical significance of dermatomes versus cutaneous fields.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.2.2 Identify the components, connective tissue coverings, and branching of a spinal nerve.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.2 Spinal Nerves 68) Which plexus serves the skin and muscles of the head, neck, and superior part of the shoulders and chest? a) cervical b) brachial c) thoracic d) lumbar Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 17.2 Describe the structural components, organization, and distribution of nerves including the clinical significance of dermatomes versus cutaneous fields.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.2.3 Describe the distribution of nerves of the cervical, brachial, lumbar, and sacral plexuses.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.2 Spinal Nerves 69) An area of skin that provides sensory input to the CNS via one pair of spinal nerves or the trigeminal (V) nerve is a a) cutaneous field b) dermatome c) ganglion d) ramus Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 17.2 Describe the structural components, organization, and distribution of nerves including the clinical significance of dermatomes versus cutaneous fields.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.2.4 Compare the clinical significance of dermatomes and cutaneous fields.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.2 Spinal Nerves

70) The meninx indicated by the arrow is the

a) pia mater b) arachnoid mater c) dura mater Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the protective structures and the external anatomy of the spinal cord.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.1 Describe the protective structures of the spinal cord.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy

71) The meninx indicated by the arrow line is the

a) pia mater b) arachnoid mater c) dura mater Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the protective structures and the external anatomy of the spinal cord.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.1 Describe the protective structures of the spinal cord.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy

72) The meninx indicated by the arrow line is the

a) pia mater b) arachnoid mater c) dura mater Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 17.1 Describe the protective structures and the external anatomy of the spinal cord.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.1.1 Describe the protective structures of the spinal cord.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.1 Spinal Cord Anatomy

73) The part of the spinal nerve indicated by the arrow is the

a) posterior (dorsal) root b) posterior (dorsal) ramus c) anterior (ventral) root d) anterior (ventral) ramus Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 17.2 Describe the structural components, organization, and distribution of nerves including the clinical significance of dermatomes versus cutaneous fields.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.2.2 Identify the components, connective tissue coverings, and branching of a spinal nerve.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.2 Spinal Nerves

74) The part of the spinal nerve indicated by the arrow is the

a) anterior (ventral) root b) posterior (dorsal) root c) communicating rami d) spinal nerve Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 17.2 Describe the structural components, organization, and distribution of nerves including the clinical significance of dermatomes versus cutaneous fields.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.2.2 Identify the components, connective tissue coverings, and branching of a spinal nerve.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.2 Spinal Nerves

75) The structure(s) indicated by the arrow is/are the

a) anterior (ventral) ramus b) posterior (dorsal) ramus c) communicating rami d) posterior (dorsal) root Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 17.2 Describe the structural components, organization, and distribution of nerves including the clinical significance of dermatomes versus cutaneous fields.

Study Objective 2: SO 17.2.2 Identify the components, connective tissue coverings, and branching of a spinal nerve.

Section Reference 1: Sec 17.2 Spinal Nerves

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pha15 Chapter Number: 18 Question type: Multiple Choice 1) Which of the following is NOT an extension of the dura mater? a) falx cerebelli b) falx cerebri c) tentorium cerebelli d) epidural space Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 18.2 Describe the brain’s protective coverings, the formation and flow of cerebrospinal fluid, and the brain’s blood supply.

Study Objective 2: SO 18.2.1 Explain how the brain is protected.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.2 Protection and Blood Supply 2) Choroid plexuses are specialized capillaries in the CNS that 1. are covered by ependymal cells.

2. are located in the walls of the ventricles.

3. are located in the dural venous sinuses.

4. are the sites for reabsorption of CSF. 5. are derived from the arachnoid layer of the meninges. a) 3, 4, 5 b) 1, 2, 4, 5 c) 1, 2 d) 2, 3, 4 Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 18.2 Describe the brain’s protective coverings, the formation and flow of cerebrospinal fluid, and the brain’s blood supply.

Study Objective 2: SO 18.2.2 Describe the formation and circulation of cerebrospinal fluid.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.2 Protection and Blood Supply.

3) The blood-cerebrospinal fluid barrier a) is the same thing as the blood-brain barrier. b) is due mainly to tight junctions between endothelial cells of the capillaries throughout the brain tissue. c) protects the neurons of the brain and spinal cord from potentially harmful substances in the blood. d) is another name for cranial meninges.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 18.2 Describe the brain’s protective coverings, the formation and flow of cerebrospinal fluid, and the brain’s blood supply.

Study Objective 2: SO 18.2.2 Describe the formation and circulation of cerebrospinal fluid.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.2 Protection and Blood Supply.

Question type: Multiple Select 4) Circumventricular organs in the wall of the third ventricle lack a blood-brain barrier. This enables them to (Select all that apply.) a) facilitate the circulation of cerebrospinal fluid in the ventricles. b) monitor the chemical composition of the blood. c) secrete cerebrospinal fluid into the ventricles. d) coordinate homeostatic activities of the endocrine and nervous systems.

Answer: b, d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 18.5 Describe the components and functions of the thalamus, hypothalamus, epithalamus, and circumventricular organs.

Study Objective 2: SO 18.5.2 Define circumventricular organs and their functions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.5 The Diencephalon Question type: Multiple Choice

5) Which of the following is an incorrect statement about a feature of the medulla oblongata? a) The inferior cerebellar peduncles are fiber tracts that connect the olives of the medulla to the cerebellum. b) The vestibular nuclear complex is found mostly in the medulla. c) Pyramids contain the main sensory tracts that pass through the brain stem from the spinal cord; they are visible on the dorsal surface of the medulla. d) Vital reflex centers for control of heart rate, breathing rate, and blood pressure are located in the medulla.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 18.3 Describe the structure and functions of the medulla oblongata, pons, midbrain, and reticular formation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.3 The Brain Stem and Reticular Formation.

6) The regions of the brain stem involved in the control of respiration are the a) medulla and pons. b) pons and midbrain. c) midbrain and medulla. d) midbrain, pons, and medulla.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 18.3 Describe the structure and functions of the medulla oblongata, pons, midbrain, and reticular formation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.3 The Brain Stem and Reticular Formation.

7) The tectum of the midbrain bears four rounded elevations a) called substantia nigra. b) that control all subconscious muscle activities. c) that transmit all sensory and motor information between the upper and lower brain regions. d) that control reflex movements in response to visual and auditory stimuli.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 18.3 Describe the structure and functions of the medulla oblongata, pons, midbrain, and reticular formation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.3 The Brain Stem and Reticular Formation.

Question type: Multiple Select 8) The cerebellar peduncles conduct information into and out of the cerebellum. Identify the correct statement(s). Select all that apply. a) the superior cerebellar peduncles contain axons that extend from the cerebellum to the red nuclei of the midbrain. b) the inferior cerebellar peduncles contain only motor fibers. c) the middle cerebellar peduncles contain only afferent (sensory) fibers. d) the middle cerebellar peduncles carry impulses for voluntary movements to the pons.

Answer: a, d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 18.4 Describe the structure and functions of the cerebellum and include the location and importance of the cerebellar peduncles.

Study Objective 2: SO 18.4.2 Explain the location and importance of the cerebellar peduncles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.4 The Cerebellum Question type: Multiple Choice 9) A midsagittal section of the brain would pass through all of the following EXCEPT a) longitudinal fissure. b) corpus callosum. c) falx cerebri. d) transverse cerebral fissure.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium

Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 18.6 Describe the features and locations of the components of the cerebrum.

Study Objective 2: SO 18.6.1 Describe the cortex, cerebral gyri, sulci, and fissures.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.6 The Cerebrum 10) The postcentral gyrus is in the a) parietal lobe of the cortex and contains the primary somatosensory area. b) parietal lobe of the cortex and contains the primary motor area. c) frontal lobe of the cortex and contains the primary somatosensory area. d) frontal lobe of the cortex and contains the primary motor area.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 18.6 Describe the features and locations of the components of the cerebrum.

Study Objective 2: SO 18.6.2 Outline the lobes of the cerebrum and indicate their locations.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.6 The Cerebrum 11) The corpus callosum allows information to travel between cerebral hemispheres. Therefore the corpus callosum contains a) association tracts. b) commissural tracts. c) gray matter tracts. d) projection tracts.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 18.6 Describe the features and locations of the components of the cerebrum.

Study Objective 2: SO 18.6.3 Describe the tracts that comprise the cerebral white matter.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.6 The Cerebrum Question type: Multiple Select

12) Which of the following statements about the basal nuclei is/are TRUE? Select all that apply. a) The caudate nucleus consists of the globus pallidus and the putamen. b) The corpus striatum consists of the caudate nucleus, globus pallidus, and the putamen. c) The putamen and caudate nucleus regulate muscle tone required for specific movements. d) The corpus striatum controls subconscious contractions of skeletal muscles.

Answer: b, d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 18.6 Describe the features and locations of the components of the cerebrum.

Study Objective 2: SO 18.6.4 Identify the nuclei that comprise the corpus striatum.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.6 The Cerebrum Question type: Multiple Choice 13) Which of the following is NOT a part of the hypothalamus? a) preoptic region b) tuberal region c) supraoptic region d) intermediate mass Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 18.5 Describe the components and functions of the thalamus, hypothalamus, epithalamus, and circumventricular organs.

Study Objective 2: SO 18.5.1 Describe the components and functions of the thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.5 The Diencephalon 14) The infundibulum is the anatomical link between the brain and the pituitary gland, and therefore it is the primary link between the nervous and endocrine systems. Structures contained in the infundibulum consist of which of the following?

a) A tract that transports hormones from the paraventricular and supraoptic nuclei to the posterior pituitary. b) Small blood vessels that transport regulating hormones from the median eminence of the hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary. c) Both choices are correct. d) Neither choice is correct.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 18.5 Describe the components and functions of the thalamus, hypothalamus, epithalamus, and circumventricular organs.

Study Objective 2: SO 18.5.1 Describe the components and functions of the thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.5 The Diencephalon 15) Loss of taste in the anterior region of the tongue may be an indication of damage to which cranial nerve? a) facial VII b) trigeminal V c) glossopharyngeal IX d) vagus X Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 18.14 Identify the origins of the facial (VII) nerve in the brain, the foramen through which it exits the skull, and its function.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 18.E Facial (VII) Nerve 16) Inability to control eyeball movement may indicate damage to which cranial nerve(s)?

1. trochlear IV 2. optic II 3. oculomotor III 4. trigeminal V 5. abducens VI a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 b) 2, 3, 4, 5

c) 1, 2, 4 d) 1, 3, 5 Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 18.12 Identify the origins of the oculomotor (III), trochlear (IV), and abducens (VI) nerves in the brain, the foramen through which each exits the skull, and their functions.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 18.C Oculomotor (III), Trochlear (IV), and Abducens (VI) Nerves 17) A block of which nerve would provide anesthesia to the lower teeth and chin? a) maxillary branch of cranial nerve V b) mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve c) glossopharyngeal nerve (IX) d) cranial nerve VII Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 18.13 Identify the origin of the trigeminal (V) nerve from the brain, describe the foramina through which each of its three major branches exits the skull, and explain the function of each branch.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 18.D Trigeminal (V) Nerve 18) In what lobe of the cerebrum would you find the primary visual area? a) occipital lobe b) temporal lobe c) parietal lobe d) frontal lobe Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 18.7 Describe the location and functions of the sensory, association and motor areas of the cerebral cortex and the importance of hemispheric lateralization, brain wave activity and the effects of learning on the nervous system.

Study Objective 2: SO 18.7.1 Outline the locations and functions of the sensory, association, and motor areas of the cerebral cortex.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.7 Functional Organization of the Cerebral Cortex.

19) In what lobe of the cerebrum would you find the motor speech area (Broca's area)? a) occipital lobe b) temporal lobe c) parietal lobe d) frontal lobe Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 18.7 Describe the location and functions of the sensory, association and motor areas of the cerebral cortex and the importance of hemispheric lateralization, brain wave activity and the effects of learning on the nervous system.

Study Objective 2: SO 18.7.1 Outline the locations and functions of the sensory, association, and motor areas of the cerebral cortex.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.7 Functional Organization of the Cerebral Cortex.

20) In what lobe of the cerebrum would you find the primary motor area? a) occipital lobe b) temporal lobe c) parietal lobe d) frontal lobe Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 18.7 Describe the location and functions of the sensory, association and motor areas of the cerebral cortex and the importance of hemispheric lateralization, brain wave activity and the effects of learning on the nervous system.

Study Objective 2: SO 18.7.1 Outline the locations and functions of the sensory, association, and motor areas of the cerebral cortex.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.7 Functional Organization of the Cerebral Cortex.

21) In what lobe of the cerebrum would you find the primary auditory area?

a) occipital lobe b) temporal lobe c) parietal lobe d) frontal lobe Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s; Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 18.7 Describe the location and functions of the sensory, association and motor areas of the cerebral cortex and the importance of hemispheric lateralization, brain wave activity and the effects of learning on the nervous system.

Study Objective 2: SO 18.7.1 Outline the locations and functions of the sensory, association, and motor areas of the cerebral cortex.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.7 Functional Organization of the Cerebral Cortex.

22) In what part of the brain would you find the oval shaped swellings called olives? a) midbrain b) medulla oblongata c) hypothalamus d) cerebrum Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 18.3 Describe the structure and functions of the medulla oblongata, pons, midbrain, and reticular formation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.3 The Brain Stem and Reticular Formation.

23) In what part of the brain would you find the cerebral peduncles? a) midbrain b) medulla oblongata c) hypothalamus d) cerebrum Answer: a Difficulty: Easy

Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 18.3 Describe the structure and functions of the medulla oblongata, pons, midbrain, and reticular formation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.3 The Brain Stem and Reticular Formation.

24) In what part of the brain would you find the corpus striatum? a) midbrain b) medulla oblongata c) hypothalamus d) cerebrum Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 18.6 Describe the features and locations of the components of the cerebrum.

Study Objective 2: SO 18.6.4 Identify the nuclei that comprise the corpus striatum.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.6 The Cerebrum 25) In what part of the brain would you find the medial and lateral geniculate nuclei? a) thalamus b) medulla oblongata c) hypothalamus d) cerebrum Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 18.5 Describe the components and functions of the thalamus, hypothalamus, epithalamus, and circumventricular organs.

Study Objective 2: SO 18.5.1 Describe the components and functions of the thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.5 The Diencephalon 26) In what part of the brain would you find the insula? a) thalamus

b) medulla oblongata c) hypothalamus d) cerebrum Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 18.6 Describe the features and locations of the components of the cerebrum.

Study Objective 2: SO 18.6.2 Outline the lobes of the cerebrum and indicate their locations.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.6 The Cerebrum 27) In what part of the brain would you find the hippocampus? a) thalamus b) limbic system c) hypothalamus d) cerebellum Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 18.6 Describe the features and locations of the components of the cerebrum.

Study Objective 2: SO 18.6.5 List the structures of the limbic system and describe their functions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.6 The Cerebrum 28) In what part of the brain would you find the arbor vitae? a) thalamus b) limbic system c) cerebellum d) pons Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge

Study Objective 1: SO 18.4 Describe the structure and functions of the cerebellum and include the location and importance of the cerebellar peduncles.

Study Objective 2: SO 18.4.1 Describe the structure and functions of the cerebellum.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.4 The Cerebellum 29) Which is a function of the olfactory (I) nerve? a) conveys nerve impulses related to smell b) conveys nerve impulses related to vision c) causes movement of eyelid and eyeball; constriction of pupil d) causes movement of eyeball via superior oblique muscle Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 18.10 Identify the termination of the olfactory (I) nerve in the brain, the foramen through which it passes, and its function.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 18.A Olfactory (I) Nerve 30) Which is a function of the vestibulocochlear (VIII) nerve? a) conveys sensory impulses from the facial region and anterior scalp b) turns eyeball laterally via lateral rectus muscle c) conveys impulses from the taste buds on the anterior two-thirds of the tongue d) conveys impulses associated with hearing and equilibrium Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 18.15 Identify the origin of the vestibulocochlear (VIII) nerve in the brain, the foramen through which it exits the skull, and the functions of each of its branches.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 18.F Vestibulocochlear (VIII) Nerve 31) Which is a function of the glossopharyngeal (IX) nerve? a) Conveys impulses from taste buds on the posterior one-third of the tongue. b) Conveys impulses to visceral, cardiac, and skeletal muscles. c) Conveys motor impulses to laryngeal and pharyngeal muscles, and to the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles.

d) Controls movement of the tongue during speech and swallowing.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 18.16 Identify the origin of the glossopharyngeal (IX) nerve in the brain, the foramen through which it exits the skull, and its function.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 18.G Glossopharyngeal (IX) Nerve 32) Which is a function of the trigeminal (V) nerve? a) Conveys sensory impulses from the facial region and anterior scalp. b) Turns eyeball laterally via lateral rectus muscle. c) Causes movement of eyelid and eyeball; constriction of pupil. d) Causes movement of eyeball via superior oblique muscle.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 18.13 Identify the origin of the trigeminal (V) nerve from the brain, describe the foramina through which each of its three major branches exits the skull, and explain the function of each branch.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 18.D Trigeminal (V) Nerve 33) Which is a function of the hypoglossal (XII) nerve? a) Conveys impulses from taste buds on the posterior one-third of the tongue. b) Conveys impulses to visceral, cardiac, and skeletal muscles. c) Conveys motor impulses to laryngeal and pharyngeal muscles, and to the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles. d) Controls movement of the tongue during speech and swallowing.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 18.19 Identify the origin of the hypoglossal (XII) nerve in the brain, the foramen through which it exits the skull, and its function.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 18.J Hypoglossal (XII) Nerve

34) Which is a function of the abducens (VI) nerve? a) Conveys sensory impulses from the facial region and anterior scalp. b) Turns eyeball medially via medial rectus muscle. c) Causes movement of eyelid and eyeball, constriction of pupil. d) Causes movement of eyeball via lateral rectus muscle.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 18.12 Identify the origins of the oculomotor (III), trochlear (IV), and abducens (VI) nerves in the brain, the foramen through which each exits the skull, and their functions.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 18.C Oculomotor (III), Trochlear (IV), and Abducens (VI) Nerves 35) Which is a function of the facial (VII) nerve? a) Conveys nerve impulses related to smell. b) Turns eyeball laterally via lateral rectus muscle. c) Conveys impulses responsible for contraction of the stylohyoid muscle. d) Conveys impulses associated with hearing and equilibrium.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 18.14 Identify the origins of the facial (VII) nerve in the brain, the foramen through which it exits the skull, and its function.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 18.E Facial (VII) Nerve 36) Which is a function of the vagus (X) nerve? a) Conveys impulses from taste buds on the posterior one-third of the tongue. b) Conveys impulses to visceral, cardiac, and skeletal muscles. c) Conveys motor impulses to laryngeal and pharyngeal muscles, and to the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles. d) Controls movement of the tongue during speech and swallowing.

Answer: b

Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 18.17 Identify the origin of the vagus (X) nerve in the brain, the foramen through which it exits the skull, and its function.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 18.H Vagus (X) Nerve 37) Which is a function of the accessory (XI) nerve? a) Conveys impulses from taste buds on the posterior one-third of the tongue. b) Conveys impulses to visceral, cardiac, and skeletal muscles. c) Conveys motor impulses to the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles. d) Controls movement of the tongue during speech and swallowing.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 18.18 Identify the origin of the accessory (XI) nerve in the spinal cord, the foramina through which it first enters and then exits the skull, and its function.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 18.I Accessory (XI) Nerve Question type: Multiple Select 38) Select the structures which are part of the brainstem. Select all that apply. a) cerebellum b) medulla oblongata c) midbrain d) pons Answer: b, c, d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 18.1 Describe how the brain develops and relates to the different parts of the postnatal brain and identify the major parts of the brain.

Study Objective 2: SO 18.1.2 Identify the major parts of the brain.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.1 Development and General Structure of the Brain 39) Which of the following readily pass through the blood-brain barrier? Select all that apply.

a) carbon dioxide b) glucose c) nicotine d) proteins Answer: a, b, c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 18.2 Describe the brain’s protective coverings, the formation and flow of cerebrospinal fluid, and the brain’s blood supply.

Study Objective 2: SO 18.2.3 Outline the blood supply of the brain.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.2 Protection and Blood Supply.

Question type: Multiple Choice 40) Pigmented nuclei in the midbrain which control subconscious muscle activities are a) gracile nuclei. b) inferior colliculi. c) pontine nuclei. d) substantia nigra.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 18.3 Describe the structure and functions of the medulla oblongata, pons, midbrain, and reticular formation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.3 The Brain Stem and Reticular Formation.

Question type: True/False 41) The transverse fissure separates the cerebrum from the cerebellum.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge

Study Objective 1: SO 18.4 Describe the structure and functions of the cerebellum and include the location and importance of the cerebellar peduncles.

Study Objective 2: SO 18.4.1 Describe the structure and functions of the cerebellum.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.4 The Cerebellum 42) The lateral cerebral sulcus primarily separates the temporal lobe from the parietal lobe.

Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 18.6 Describe the features and locations of the components of the cerebrum.

Study Objective 2: SO 18.6.2 Outline the lobes of the cerebrum and indicate their locations.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.6 The Cerebrum 43) The pineal gland is attached to the hypothalamus by the infundibulum.

Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 18.5 Describe the components and functions of the thalamus, hypothalamus, epithalamus, and circumventricular organs.

Study Objective 2: SO 18.5.1 Describe the components and functions of the thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.5 The Diencephalon 44) All cranial nerves are mixed nerves.

Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 18.9 Identify the cranial nerves by name, number, and type, and give the function of each.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.9 Cranial Nerves Question type: Essay

45) Discuss the location of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in relation to the basic functions of CSF; i.e., how does location facilitate function?

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 18.2 Describe the brain’s protective coverings, the formation and flow of cerebrospinal fluid, and the brain’s blood supply.

Study Objective 2: SO 18.2.2 Describe the formation and circulation of cerebrospinal fluid.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.2 Protection and Blood Supply.

Solution: Cerebrospinal fluid completely surrounds the brain and spinal cord, in the subarachnoid space, acting as a shock absorber. Its location next to the pia mater in the subarachnoid space at the surface of the brain and spinal cord allow cerebrospinal fluid to influence and maintain ionic composition of fluid surrounding the central nervous system neurons. Cerebrospinal fluid can also deliver nutrients to and remove wastes from the central nervous system tissue as CSF flows throughout the ventricular system and is absorbed back into the bloodstream.

46) Describe the route traveled by cerebrospinal fluid from production until it is reabsorbed into venous blood.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 18.2 Describe the brain’s protective coverings, the formation and flow of cerebrospinal fluid, and the brain’s blood supply.

Study Objective 2: SO 18.2.2 Describe the formation and circulation of cerebrospinal fluid.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.2 Protection and Blood Supply.

Solution: Beginning with a choroid plexus in a lateral ventricle, the route should include all ventricles, passageways, spaces, etc., as in Figure. 18.5b.

Question type: Multiple Choice 47) Neuroglia that secrete chemicals to maintain strength of the tight junctions in the bloodbrain barrier are a) astrocytes. b) microglia.

c) oligodendrocytes. d) Schwann cells.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 18.2 Describe the brain’s protective coverings, the formation and flow of cerebrospinal fluid, and the brain’s blood supply.

Study Objective 2: SO 18.2.3 Outline the blood supply of the brain.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.2 Protection and Blood Supply.

48) Nuclei that act as relay stations for reflexes regarding the sense of smell and which are located in the posterior hypothalamic area are a) arcuate nuclei. b) dorsomedial nuclei. c) mammillary nuclei. d) supraoptic nuclei.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 18.5 Describe the components and functions of the thalamus, hypothalamus, epithalamus, and circumventricular organs.

Study Objective 2: SO 18.5.1 Describe the components and functions of the thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.5 The Diencephalon Question type: Essay 49) List, in order from anterior to posterior, the 12 pairs of cranial nerves. Indicate whether each is sensory, motor, or mixed in function. State a main function for each nerve.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 18.9 Identify the cranial nerves by name, number, and type, and give the function of each.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.9 Cranial Nerves Solution: Refer to Table 18.4 Question type: Multiple Choice 50) Which of the following gives rise to the diencephalon? a) mesencephalon b) prosencephalon c) rhombencephalon d) telencephalon Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 18.1 Describe how the brain develops and relates to the different parts of the postnatal brain and identify the major parts of the brain.

Study Objective 2: SO 18.1.1 Describe how the brain develops and relates to the different parts of the postnatal brain.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.1 Development and General Structure of the Brain 51) A broad region where gray matter and white matter show a netlike arrangement in the brain stem and the inferior part of the diencephalon, and whose function is to influence muscle tone and to cause arousal from sleep are collectively referred to as the a) reticular formation. b) medial lemniscus. c) cerebral peduncles. d) cerebellar peduncles.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 18.3 Describe the structure and functions of the medulla oblongata, pons, midbrain, and reticular formation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.3 The Brain Stem and Reticular Formation.

52) Which of the following is incorrectly matched regarding the midbrain?

a) inferior colliculi; reflex centers for sudden movements of the head and trunk in response to auditory stimuli. b) superior colliculi; reflex centers for movements of the eyes, head and neck in response to visual stimuli. c) red nucleus; origin of the tectospinal tract. d) substantia nigra; production of the neurotransmitter dopamine.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 18.3 Describe the structure and functions of the medulla oblongata, pons, midbrain, and reticular formation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.3 The Brain Stem and Reticular Formation.

53) Which lobe(s) of the cerebellum controls subconscious movement of skeletal muscles? a) anterior and posterior b) flocculonodular c) anterior and flocculonodular d) posterior and flocculonodular Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 18.4 Describe the structure and functions of the cerebellum and include the location and importance of the cerebellar peduncles.

Study Objective 2: SO 18.4.1 Describe the structure and functions of the cerebellum.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.4 The Cerebellum Question type: Multiple Select 54) Which hypothalamic nuclei regulate food intake? Select all that apply. a) arcuate b) mammillary c) paraventricular d) supraoptic

Answer: a, c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 18.5 Describe the components and functions of the thalamus, hypothalamus, epithalamus, and circumventricular organs.

Study Objective 2: SO 18.5.1 Describe the components and functions of the thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.5 The Diencephalon Question type: Multiple Choice 55) Which of the following is NOT a branch of the trigeminal (V) nerve? a) mandibular b) ophthalmic c) temporal d) maxillary Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 18.13 Identify the origin of the trigeminal (V) nerve from the brain, describe the foramina through which each of its three major branches exits the skull, and explain the function of each branch.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 18.D Trigeminal (V) Nerve 56) The cranial nerve which conveys parasympathetic control of most organs of the thoracic and abdominal cavities is a) accessory (XI) nerve. b) glossopharyngeal (IX) nerve. c) facial (VII) nerve. d) vagus (X) nerve.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge

Study Objective 1: SO 18.17 Identify the origin of the vagus (X) nerve in the brain, the foramen through which it exits the skull, and its function.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 18.H Vagus (X) Nerve 57) The structure indicated by the arrow is the

a) pons. b) midbrain. c) thalamus. d) medulla oblongata.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 18.3 Describe the structure and functions of the medulla oblongata, pons, midbrain, and reticular formation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.3 The Brain Stem and Reticular Formation.

58) The structure indicated by the arrow arises from the

a) telencephalon. b) mesencephalon. c) metencephalon. d) diencephalon.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 18.1 Describe how the brain develops and relates to the different parts of the postnatal brain and identify the major parts of the brain.

Study Objective 2: SO 18.1.1 Describe how the brain develops and relates to the different parts of the postnatal brain.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.1 Development and General Structure of the Brain.

59) The structure indicated by the arrow is involved with which function?

a) vision b) hearing c) taste d) smell Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 18.10 Identify the termination of the olfactory (I) nerve in the brain, the foramen through which it passes, and its function.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 18.A Olfactory (I) Nerve

60) The structure indicated by the arrow

a) is where the rubrospinal tract begins. b) is where the corticospinal tract decussates. c) is where the spinothalamic tract crosses. d) is where third-order neurons of the posterior (dorsal) column tract originate.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 18.3 Describe the structure and functions of the medulla oblongata, pons, midbrain, and reticular formation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.3 The Brain Stem and Reticular Formation.

61) The structure indicated by the arrow is separated from the occipital lobe of the cerebrum by the

a) transverse fissure. b) longitudinal fissure. c) central sulcus. d) lateral sulcus.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 18.4 Describe the structure and functions of the cerebellum and include the location and importance of the cerebellar peduncles.

Study Objective 2: SO 18.4.1 Describe the structure and functions of the cerebellum.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.4 The Cerebellum

62) The structure indicated by the arrow is separated from the occipital lobe of the cerebrum by a fold of the dura mater referred to as the

a) transverse fissure. b) longitudinal fissure. c) falx cerebri. d) tentorium cerebelli.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 18.4 Describe the structure and functions of the cerebellum and include the location and importance of the cerebellar peduncles.

Study Objective 2: SO 18.4.1 Describe the structure and functions of the cerebellum.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.4 The Cerebellum

63) The structure indicated by the arrows is the

a) cerebral peduncle. b) medullary pyramid. c) vermis. d) cerebellar peduncle.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 18.4 Describe the structure and functions of the cerebellum and include the location and importance of the cerebellar peduncles.

Study Objective 2: SO 18.4.2 Explain the location and importance of the cerebellar peduncles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.4 The Cerebellum

64) The structure indicated by the arrow is the

a) central sulcus. b) lateral sulcus. c) transverse fissure. d) longitudinal fissure.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 18.6 Describe the features and locations of the components of the cerebrum.

Study Objective 2: SO 18.6.1 Describe the cortex, cerebral gyri, sulci, and fissures.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.6 The Cerebrum

65) What collection of commissural fibers is located deep in this structure?

a) association tracts b) corpus callosum c) internal capsule d) projections tracts Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 18.6 Describe the features and locations of the components of the cerebrum.

Study Objective 2: SO 18.6.3 Describe the tracts that comprise the cerebral white matter.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.6 The Cerebrum

66) The structure indicated by the arrow is primarily involved with which of the following?

a) smell b) vision c) motor control d) sensory perception Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 18.7 Describe the location and functions of the sensory, association and motor areas of the cerebral cortex and the importance of hemispheric lateralization, brain wave activity and the effects of learning on the nervous system.

Study Objective 2: SO 18.7.1 Outline the locations and functions of the sensory, association, and motor areas of the cerebral cortex.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.7 Functional Organization of the Cerebral Cortex.

67) Which area is located where the arrow is pointing?

a) primary breathing area b) primary sensory area c) primary cardiovascular area d) primary speech area Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 18.7 Describe the location and functions of the sensory, association and motor areas of the cerebral cortex and the importance of hemispheric lateralization, brain wave activity and the effects of learning on the nervous system.

Study Objective 2: SO 18.7.1 Outline the locations and functions of the sensory, association, and motor areas of the cerebral cortex.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.7 Functional Organization of the Cerebral Cortex.

68) The structure indicated by the arrow sends information directly to the cerebellum via the

a) superior cerebellar peduncles. b) middle cerebellar peduncles. c) inferior cerebellar peduncles.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 18.4 Describe the structure and functions of the cerebellum and include the location and importance of the cerebellar peduncles.

Study Objective 2: SO 18.4.2 Explain the location and importance of the cerebellar peduncles.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.4 The Cerebellum

69) The structure indicated by the arrow separates what two cerebral lobes?

a) temporal and parietal b) frontal and parietal c) temporal and occipital d) occipital and parietal Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 18.6 Describe the features and locations of the components of the cerebrum.

Study Objective 2: SO 18.6.2 Outline the lobes of the cerebrum and indicate their locations.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.6 The Cerebrum

70) The structure indicated by the arrow is separated from the frontal lobe by the

a) central sulcus. b) falx cerebri. c) lateral cerebral sulcus. d) transverse fissure.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 18.6 Describe the features and locations of the components of the cerebrum.

Study Objective 2: SO 18.6.2 Outline the lobes of the cerebrum and indicate their locations.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.6 The Cerebrum

71) The structure indicated by the arrow is primarily involved in

a) motor movements. b) sensory activities. c) speech. d) vision.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 18.7 Describe the location and functions of the sensory, association and motor areas of the cerebral cortex and the importance of hemispheric lateralization, brain wave activity and the effects of learning on the nervous system.

Study Objective 2: SO 18.7.1 Outline the locations and functions of the sensory, association, and motor areas of the cerebral cortex.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.7 Functional Organization of the Cerebral Cortex.

72) The structure indicated by the arrow is separated from the cerebellum by the

a) central sulcus. b) transverse fissure. c) longitudinal fissure. d) falx cerebelli.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 18.4 Describe the structure and functions of the cerebellum and include the location and importance of the cerebellar peduncles.

Study Objective 2: SO 18.4.1 Describe the structure and functions of the cerebellum.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.4 The Cerebellum 73) During development, most of the protective structures of the brain, that is, most of the bones of the skull, associated connective tissues, and meningeal membranes arise from a) the neural crest. b) the neural tube. c) the diencephalons. d) the rhombencephalon.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension

Study Objective 1: SO 18.1 Describe how the brain develops and relates to the different parts of the postnatal brain and identify the major parts of the brain.

Study Objective 2: SO 18.1.1 Describe how the brain develops and relates to the different parts of the postnatal brain.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.1 Development and General Structure of the brain 74) The Reticular Activating System receives input from ALL of the following types of stimuli except a) visual. b) auditory. c) smell. d) pain.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 18.3 Describe the structure and functions of the medulla oblongata, pons, midbrain, and reticular formation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.3 The Brain Stem and Reticular Formation.

75) Loss of cholinergic neurons (which release ACh), and the presence of beta-amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles are the hallmark features of what disease? a) Alzheimer’s disease b) Cerebral Palsy c) Epilepsy d) TIA Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 18.8 Describe the effects of aging on the nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.8 Aging and the Nervous System 76) Pedro is a budding young scientist. His scientific skills are primarily a function of the a) left cerebral hemisphere. b) right cerebral hemisphere.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 18.7 Describe the location and functions of the sensory, association and motor areas of the cerebral cortex and the importance of hemispheric lateralization, brain wave activity and the effects of learning on the nervous system.

Study Objective 2: SO 18.7.2 Explain what is meant by hemispheric lateralization.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.7 Functional Organization of the Cerebral Cortex 77) What is meant by the term hemispheric lateralization? a) there are two main parts of the brain b) there is a functional asymmetry to the cerebral hemispheres c) the parietal lobes are on the lateral part of the brain d) neurons cross over and affect a part of the body on a different side from their origination Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 18.7 Describe the location and functions of the sensory, association and motor areas of the cerebral cortex and the importance of hemispheric lateralization, brain wave activity and the effects of learning on the nervous system.

Study Objective 2: SO 18.7.2 Explain what is meant by hemispheric lateralization.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.7 Functional Organization of the Cerebral Cortex 78) Diagnosis of epilepsy could be enhanced by using which of the following to measure brain waves? a) ECG b) EEG c) EKG d) EMG Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension

Study Objective 1: SO 18.7 Describe the location and functions of the sensory, association and motor areas of the cerebral cortex and the importance of hemispheric lateralization, brain wave activity and the effects of learning on the nervous system.

Study Objective 2: SO 18.7.3 Describe the importance of brain waves.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.7 Functional Organization of the Cerebral Cortex Question type: Multiple Select 79) Which of the following declines with age? Select all that apply. a) brain mass b) number of neurons c) number of synaptic contacts d) capacity for sending impulses Answer: a, c, d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 18.8 Describe the effects of aging on the nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.8 Aging and the Nervous System Question type: Multiple Choice 80) Which condition may be related to abnormal tau proteins? a) Alzheimer’s disease b) Obsessive-Compulsive disorder c) Parkinson’s disease d) Schizophrenia Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 18.8 Describe the effects of aging on the nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.8 Aging and the Nervous System Question type: Multiple Select

81) The special sensory cranial nerves are (Select all that apply.) a) I. b) II. c) V. d) VIII. Answer: a, b, d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 18.9 Identify the cranial nerves by name, number, and type, and give the function of each.

Section Reference 1: Sec 18.9 Cranial Nerves Question type: Multiple Choice 82) Olfactory bulbs rest on a) the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone. b) the lacrimal fossa of the lacrimal bone. c) the perpendicular plates of the palatine bone. d) the sella turcica of the sphenoid bone.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 18.10 Identify the termination of the olfactory (I) nerve in the brain, the foramen through which it passes, and its function.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 18.A Olfactory (I) Nerve 83) The optic (II) nerve is a) entirely motor. b) mixed. c) entirely sensory.

Answer: c

Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 18.11 Identify termination of the optic (II) nerve in the brain, the foramen through which it exits the skull, and its function.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 18.B Optic (II) Nerve 84) Jennifer is blind due to multiple sclerosis. Jennifer has a) anopia. b) anosmia. c) diplopia. d) strabismus.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 18.11 Identify termination of the optic (II) nerve in the brain, the foramen through which it exits the skull, and its function.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 18.B Optic (II) Nerve 85) Cranial nerve II passes through the a) foramen ovale. b) foramen rotundum. c) olfactory foramina. d) optic foramen.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 18.11 Identify termination of the optic (II) nerve in the brain, the foramen through which it exits the skull, and its function.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 18.B Optic (II) Nerve 86) The oculomotor (III), trochlear (IV), and abducens (VI) nerves are a) motor nerves. b) mixed nerves.

c) sensory nerves.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 18.12 Identify the origins of the oculomotor (III), trochlear (IV), and abducens (VI) nerves in the brain, the foramen through which each exits the skull, and their functions.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 18.C Oculomotor (III), Trochlear (IV), and Abducens (VI) Nerves 87) Damage to the facial (VII) nerve due to Lyme disease may cause facial paralysis called a) anosmia. b) Bell’s Palsy. c) ptosis. d) strabismus.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 18.14 Identify the origins of the facial (VII) nerve in the brain, the foramen through which it exits the skull, and its function.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 18.E Facial (VII) Nerve 88) Which branch of the vestibulocochlear (VIII) nerve carries impulses for hearing? a) the cochlear branch b) the vestibular branch Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 18.15 Identify the origin of the vestibulocochlear (VIII) nerve in the brain, the foramen through which it exits the skull, and the functions of each of its branches.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 18.F Vestibulocochlear (VIII) Nerve 89) Lael is experiencing vertigo. He may have experienced damage to which nerve?

a) facial (VII) nerve b) oculomotor (III) nerve c) trigeminal (V) nerve d) vestibulocochlear (VIII) nerve Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 18.15 Identify the origin of the vestibulocochlear (VIII) nerve in the brain, the foramen through which it exits the skull, and the functions of each of its branches.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 18.F Vestibulocochlear (VIII) Nerve Question type: Multiple Select 90) Sensory axons of the glossopharyngeal (IX) nerve arise from which of the following? Select all that apply. a) baroreceptors in the carotid sinus b) chemoreceptors in the carotid bodies c) proprioceptors from some swallowing muscles d) skin of the external ear Answer: a, b, c, d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 18.16 Identify the origin of the glossopharyngeal (IX) nerve in the brain, the foramen through which it exits the skull, and its function.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 18.G Glossopharyngeal (IX) Nerve Question type: Multiple Choice 91) Sensory axons of the glossopharyngeal (IX) nerve pass through the a) foramen ovale. b) foramen rotundum. c) jugular foramen. d) olfactory foramina.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 18.16 Identify the origin of the glossopharyngeal (IX) nerve in the brain, the foramen through which it exits the skull, and its function.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 18.G Glossopharyngeal (IX) Nerve 92) Which cranial nerve contains branchial motor neurons which arise from the medulla oblongata and supply muscles of the pharynx? a) accessory (XI) nerve b) glossopharyngeal (IX) nerve c) trochlear (IV) nerve d) vagus (X) nerve Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 18.17 Identify the origin of the vagus (X) nerve in the brain, the foramen through which it exits the skull, and its function.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 18.H Vagus (X) Nerve 93) A patient has a stroke which damages the accessory (XI) nerve. This person would have difficulty a) blinking the eyes. b) making facial expressions. c) raising the shoulders. d) smelling.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 18.18 Identify the origin of the accessory (XI) nerve in the spinal cord, the foramina through which it first enters and then exits the skull, and its function.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 18.I Accessory (XI) Nerve 94) The accessory (XI) nerve ascends through the

a) foramen magnum. b) foramen ovale. c) jugular foramen. d) olfactory foramen.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 18.18 Identify the origin of the accessory (XI) nerve in the spinal cord, the foramina through which it first enters and then exits the skull, and its function.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 18.I Accessory (XI) Nerve Question type: Multiple Select 95) Injury to the hypoglossal (XII) nerve results in which of the following? Select all that apply. a) anosmia b) dysarthria c) dysphagia d) tachycardia Answer: b, c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 18.19 Identify the origin of the hypoglossal (XII) nerve in the brain, the foramen through which it exits the skull, and its function.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 18.J Hypoglossal (XII) Nerve Question type: Multiple Choice 96) The hypoglossal (XII) nerve is a a) motor nerve. b) mixed nerve. c) sensory nerve.

Answer: a

Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 18.19 Identify the origin of the hypoglossal (XII) nerve in the brain, the foramen through which it exits the skull, and its function.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 18.J Hypoglossal (XII) Nerve

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pha15 Chapter Number: 19 Question type: Multiple Choice 1) Which of the following statements is TRUE for the autonomic division of the peripheral nervous system? a) Sensory signals are usually consciously perceived. b) The effect of motor neurons is always excitatory. c) Autonomic motor neurons only secrete Acetylcholine (ACh). d) The output part of the autonomic division consists of the sympathetic and parasympathetic parts.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 19.1 Compare the structures and functions of the somatic and autonomic divisions of the peripheral nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.1 Comparison of Somatic and Autonomic Divisions of the Peripheral Nervous System.

2) Which of the following statements about the autonomic division is FALSE? a) Structurally, the autonomic division consists of two main components: a sensory (input) component and a motor (output) component. b) Autonomic division motor (output) pathways typically contain two motor neurons in series. c) The motor (output) portion of the autonomic division has three subsets: parasympathetic, sympathetic, and somatic. d) Autonomic division stimulation may result in excitation or inhibition of smooth muscle or cardiac muscle, or a change in secretory activity in glands.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 19.1 Compare the structures and functions of the somatic and autonomic divisions of the peripheral nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.1 Comparison of Somatic and Autonomic Divisions of the Peripheral Nervous System.

3) Somatic motor neurons synapse with which of the following? a) an autonomic ganglion b) the adrenal medulla c) directly with a visceral effector d) directly with skeletal muscle cells Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 19.1 Compare the structures and functions of the somatic and autonomic divisions of the peripheral nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.1 Comparison of Somatic and Autonomic Divisions of the Peripheral Nervous System.

4) The motor neurons of a sympathetic autonomic motor pathway have the following route: 1.gray ramus 2.anterior root of spinal nerve 3.axon collaterals 4.white ramus 5.nerve to a visceral effector 6.sympathetic trunk ganglion a) 2, 4, 6, 3, 5, 1 b) 2, 1, 6, 3, 4, 5 c) 2, 3, 1, 6, 4, 5 d) 2, 3, 4, 6, 1, 5 Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 19.3 Describe the sympathetic division of the central nervous system including the origin of the division, location of the ganglia, and the different pathways to their effectors.

Study Objective 2: SO 19.3.3 List the synapses between the preganglionic and postganglionic motor neurons of the sympathetic part and the different pathways of the postganglionic neurons to their effector organs.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.3 Structure of the Sympathetic Part.

5) White rami are associated only with thoracic spinal nerves and the first two or three lumbar spinal nerves. Gray rami are associated with all 31 pairs of spinal nerves.

a) Both statements are true. b) Both statements are false. c) The first statement is true; the second is false. d) The second statement is true; the first is false.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 19.3 Describe the sympathetic division of the central nervous system including the origin of the division, location of the ganglia, and the different pathways to their effectors.

Study Objective 2: SO 19.3.3 List the synapses between the preganglionic and postganglionic motor neurons of the sympathetic part and the different pathways of the postganglionic neurons to their effector organs.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.3 Structure of the Sympathetic Part.

6) Which of the following is NOT part of the sympathetic part of the autonomic division? a) gray rami b) splanchnic nerves c) celiac ganglion d) submandibular ganglion Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 19.3 Describe the sympathetic division of the central nervous system including the origin of the division, location of the ganglia, and the different pathways to their effectors.

Study Objective 2: SO 19.3.3 List the synapses between the preganglionic and postganglionic motor neurons of the sympathetic part and the different pathways of the postganglionic neurons to their effector organs.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.3 Structure of the Sympathetic Part.

7) Which of the following is NOT a parasympathetic terminal ganglion? a) pterygopalatine b) otic c) celiac d) submandibular

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 19.4 Describe the origin of the parasympathetic part of the autonomic division of the peripheral nervous system and the location of the ganglia.

Study Objective 2: SO 19.4.2 Describe the location of the parasympathetic ganglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 Structure of the Parasympathetic Part.

8) Autonomic plexuses in the thorax, abdomen and pelvis may contain all of the following EXCEPT a) sympathetic ganglia. b) axons of sympathetic and parasympathetic neurons. c) axons of autonomic sensory neurons. d) somatic motor neurons.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 19.2 Describe the autonomic nervous system including the development of the autonomic motor pathways, preganglionic and postganglionic neurons and anatomy of the autonomic ganglia.

Study Objective 2: SO 19.2.3 Describe the anatomy of the autonomic ganglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways 9) Which of the following responses is a result of sympathetic stimulation? a) decreased heart rate b) decreased diameter (constriction) of the pupils c) increased digestive secretions d) increased rate and depth of breathing Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 19.6 Describe the major responses and reactions of the body to stimulation by the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the ANS. Study Objective 2: SO 19.6.1 Describe the major responses of the body to stimulation by the sympathetic part.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.6 Functions of the ANS.

10) Autonomic neurons that secrete the neurotransmitter acetylcholine a) are called adrenergic. b) include all postganglionic neurons. c) include all preganglionic neurons. d) all sympathetic postganglionic neurons.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 19.5 Describe the neurotransmitters and receptors involved in autonomic responses.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.5 ANS Neurotransmitters and Receptors.

11) Acetylcholine in the autonomic division a) is found only in the parasympathetic division. b) is not rapidly broken down by acetylcholinesterase (AChE) as it is in the somatic nervous system. c) has effects for a very brief time, compared to the effects of other autonomic neurotransmitters. d) always has excitatory effects.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 19.5 Describe the neurotransmitters and receptors involved in autonomic responses.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.5 ANS Neurotransmitters and Receptors.

12) The neurotransmitter acetylcholine binds with which of the following types of receptors?

1. alpha 2. beta 3. nicotinic 4. muscarinic a) 1, 2, 3, 4 b) 1, 2 only c) 3, 4 only d) 3 only Answer: c

Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 19.5 Describe the neurotransmitters and receptors involved in autonomic responses.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.5 ANS Neurotransmitters and Receptors.

13) Activation of nicotinic receptors by acetylcholine (ACh) triggers which response in a postsynaptic cell? a) always excitatory b) always inhibitory c) can be excitatory or inhibitory d) no response as ACh does not activate nicotinic receptors Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 19.5 Describe the neurotransmitters and receptors involved in autonomic responses.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.5 ANS Neurotransmitters and Receptors.

14) Alpha and beta receptors are found in the sympathetic part of the autonomic division. They exist on postganglionic neurons and on visceral effectors. a) Both statements are true. b) Both statements are false. c) The first statement is true; the second is false. d) The second statement is true; the first is false.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 19.5 Describe the neurotransmitters and receptors involved in autonomic responses.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.5 ANS Neurotransmitters and Receptors.

15) Which of the following is/are innervated ONLY by the sympathetic part?

1. arrector pili muscles 2. kidney arterioles 3. sweat glands

4. spleen 5. suprarenal medulla a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 b) 2, 3, 5 only c) 1, 3, 4 only d) 2, 4, 5 only Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 19.6 Describe the major responses and reactions of the body to stimulation by the sympathetic and parasympathetic parts of the autonomic division.

Study Objective 2: SO 19.6.1 Describe the major responses of the body to stimulation by the sympathetic part.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.6 Functions of the ANS. 16) Arrange the following components of an autonomic reflex arc in the proper order: 1. preganglionic motor neuron 2. receptor 3. integrating center (interneurons) 4. postganglionic motor neuron 5. visceral effector 6. autonomic ganglion 7. sensory neuron a) 7, 2, 1, 3, 4, 6, 5 b) 1, 2, 7, 3, 6, 5, 4 c) 2, 1, 3, 7, 4, 6, 5 d) 2, 7, 3, 1, 6, 4, 5 Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 19.7 Describe the components of an autonomic reflex and the relationship of the hypothalamus to the ANS. Study Objective 2: SO 19.7.1 Describe the components of an autonomic reflex.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.7 Integration and Control of Autonomic Functions.

17) Bronchoconstriction brought on by various allergens is a a) sympathetic response

b) parasympathetic response c) visceral afferent response d) somatic response Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 19.6 Describe the major responses and reactions of the body to stimulation by the sympathetic and parasympathetic parts of the autonomic division.

Study Objective 2: SO 19.6.2 Explain the reactions of the body to stimulation by the parasympathetic part.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.6 Functions of the ANS. 18) Vasoconstriction of peripheral blood vessels is a(n) a) cholinergic response b) parasympathetic response c) adrenergic response d) voluntary response Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 19.6 Describe the major responses and reactions of the body to stimulation by the sympathetic and parasympathetic parts of the autonomic division.

Study Objective 2: SO 19.6.1 Describe the major responses of the body to stimulation by the sympathetic part.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.6 Functions of the ANS. 19) Spinal nerve C4 receives postganglionic sympathetic axons (fibers) from a) terminal ganglia b) gray rami communicantes c) white rami communicantes d) dorsal root ganglia Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis

Study Objective 1: SO 19.3 Describe the sympathetic part of the autonomic division of the peripheral nervous system including the origin of the division, location of the ganglia, and the different pathways to their effectors.

Study Objective 2: SO 19.3.3 List the synapses between the preganglionic and postganglionic motor neurons of the sympathetic part and the different pathways of the postganglionic neurons to their effector organs.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.3 Structure of the Sympathetic Part.

20) Select the best description of the middle cervical ganglion a) contains sympathetic preganglionic axons b) sympathetic; sends impulses along postganglionic axons to heart c) receives sympathetic preganglionic axons via thoracic splanchnic nerves d) contains sympathetic preganglionic cell bodies e) contains parasympathetic preganglionic cell bodies Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 19.3 Describe the sympathetic part of the autonomic division of the peripheral nervous system including the origin of the division, location of the ganglia, and the different pathways to their effectors.

Study Objective 2: SO 19.3.3 List the synapses between the preganglionic and postganglionic motor neurons of the sympathetic part and the different pathways of the postganglionic neurons to their effector organs.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.3 Structure of the Sympathetic Part.

21) Select the best description of a white ramus. a) contains sympathetic preganglionic axons b) sympathetic; sends impulses along postganglionic axons to heart c) receives sympathetic preganglionic axons via thoracic splanchnic nerves d) contains sympathetic preganglionic cell bodies e) contains parasympathetic preganglionic cell bodies Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 19.3 Describe the sympathetic part of the autonomic division of the peripheral nervous system including the origin of the division, location of the ganglia, and the different pathways to their effectors.

Study Objective 2: SO 19.3.3 List the synapses between the preganglionic and postganglionic motor neurons of the sympathetic part and the different pathways of the postganglionic neurons to their effector organs.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.3 Structure of the Sympathetic Part.

22) Select the best description of the autonomic nuclei in the brain stem. a) carry parasympathetic impulses to terminal ganglia in most organs of the ventral cavity b) sympathetic; send impulses along postganglionic axons to heart c) receive sympathetic preganglionic axons via thoracic splanchnic nerves d) contain sympathetic preganglionic cell bodies e) contain parasympathetic preganglionic cell bodies Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 19.4 Describe the origin of the parasympathetic part of the autonomic division of the peripheral nervous system and the location of the ganglia.

Study Objective 2: SO 19.4.1 Explain the central nervous system origin of the parasympathetic part.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 Structure of the Parasympathetic Part.

23) Select the best description of the celiac ganglion. a) contains sympathetic preganglionic axons b) sympathetic; sends impulses along postganglionic axons to heart c) receives sympathetic preganglionic axons via thoracic splanchnic nerves d) contains sympathetic preganglionic cell bodies e) contains parasympathetic preganglionic cell bodies Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 19.3 Describe the sympathetic part of the autonomic division of the peripheral nervous system including the origin of the division, location of the ganglia, and the different pathways to their effectors.

Study Objective 2: SO 19.3.2 Describe the location of the sympathetic ganglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.3 Structure of the Sympathetic Part.

24) Select the best description of the thoracic and lumbar lateral gray horns.

a) contain sympathetic preganglionic axons b) sympathetic; send impulses along postganglionic axons to heart c) receive sympathetic preganglionic axons via thoracic splanchnic nerves d) contain sympathetic preganglionic cell bodies e) contain parasympathetic preganglionic cell bodies Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 19.3 Describe the sympathetic part of the autonomic division of the peripheral nervous system including the origin of the division, location of the ganglia, and the different pathways to their effectors.

Study Objective 2: SO 19.3.1 Explain the central nervous system origin of the sympathetic part.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.3 Structure of the Sympathetic Part.

25) Select the best description of the axons that leave the brain as part of the vagus (X) nerves. a) carry parasympathetic impulses to terminal ganglia in most organs derived from the embryonic gut tube. b) sympathetic; send impulses along postganglionic axons to heart c) receive sympathetic preganglionic axons via thoracic splanchnic nerves d) contain sympathetic preganglionic cell bodies e) contain parasympathetic preganglionic cell bodies Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 19.4 Describe the origin of the parasympathetic part of the autonomic division of the peripheral nervous system and the location of the ganglia.

Study Objective 2: SO 19.4.1 Explain the central nervous system origin of the parasympathetic part.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 Structure of the Parasympathetic Part.

26) Select the best description of the otic ganglia. a) carry parasympathetic impulses to terminal ganglia in most organs of the body cavity b) send impulses via parasympathetic postganglionic axons to the parotid salivary glands c) receive sympathetic preganglionic axons via thoracic splanchnic nerves d) innervate the smooth muscle of the eyeball via parasympathetic axons e) send postganglionic parasympathetic axons to the lacrimal glands Answer: b

Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 19.4 Describe the origin of the parasympathetic part of the autonomic division of the peripheral nervous system and the location of the ganglia.

Study Objective 2: SO 19.4.2 Describe the location of the parasympathetic ganglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 Structure of the Parasympathetic Part.

27) Select the best description of the ciliary ganglia. a) carry parasympathetic impulses to terminal ganglia in most organs of the body cavity b) send impulses via parasympathetic postganglionic axons to the parotid glands c) receive sympathetic preganglionic axons via thoracic splanchnic nerves d) innervate the smooth muscle of the eyeball via parasympathetic axons e) send postganglionic parasympathetic axons to the lacrimal glands Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 19.4 Describe the origin of the parasympathetic part of the autonomic division of the periphral nervous system and the location of the ganglia.

Study Objective 2: SO 19.4.2 Describe the location of the parasympathetic ganglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 Structure of the Parasympathetic Part.

28) Select the best description of the pterygopalatine ganglia. a) carry parasympathetic impulses to terminal ganglia in most organs of the ventral cavity b) send impulses via parasympathetic postganglionic axons to the parotid glands c) receive sympathetic preganglionic axons via thoracic splanchnic nerves d) innervate the smooth muscle of the eyeball via parasympathetic axons e) send postganglionic parasympathetic axons to the lacrimal glands Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 19.4 Describe the origin of the parasympathetic part of the autonomic division of the peripheral nervous system and the location of the ganglia.

Study Objective 2: SO 19.4.2 Describe the location of the parasympathetic ganglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 Structure of the Parasympathetic Part.

29) Select the best description of the parasympathetic preganglionic neurons.

a) Cell bodies are in the lateral gray horns of all thoracic and first two or three lumbar spinal segments. b) Axons tend to be short. c) Cell bodies are in sympathetic trunk ganglia (vertebral chain ganglia) or prevertebral ganglia. d) Cell bodies are in the brain stem nuclei of the oculomotor (III), facial (VII), glossopharyngeal (IX), and vagus (X) nerves. e) Axons are unmyelinated.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 19.4 Describe the origin of the parasympathetic part of the autonomic division of the peripheral nervous system and the location of the ganglia.

Study Objective 2: SO 19.4.1 Explain the central nervous system origin of the parasympathetic part.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 Structure of the Parasympathetic Part.

30) Select the best description of the sympathetic preganglionic neurons. a) Cell bodies are in the lateral gray horns of all thoracic and first two or three lumbar spinal segments. b) Axons are unmyelinated. c) Cell bodies are in sympathetic trunk ganglia (vertebral chain ganglia) or prevertebral ganglia. d) Cell bodies are in the brain stem nuclei of the oculomotor (III), facial (VII), glossopharyngeal (IX), and vagus (X) nerves. e) Axons tend to be long.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 19.3 Describe the sympathetic part of the autonomic division of the peripheral nervous system including the origin of the division, location of the ganglia, and the different pathways to their effectors Study Objective 2: SO 19.3.1 Explain the central nervous system origin of the sympathetic division.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.3 Structure of the Sympathetic Part.

31) Select the best description of the sympathetic postganglionic neurons. a) Cell bodies are in the lateral gray horns of all thoracic and first two or three lumbar spinal segments.

b) Axons tend to be short. c) Cell bodies are in sympathetic trunk ganglia (vertebral chain ganglia) or prevertebral ganglia. d) Cell bodies are in the brain stem nuclei of the oculomotor (III), facial (VII), glossopharyngeal (IX), and vagus (X) nerves. e) Axons are myelinated.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 19.3 Describe the sympathetic part of the autonomic division of the peripheral nervous system including the origin of the part, location of the ganglia, and the different pathways to their effectors Study Objective 2: SO 19.3.3 List the synapses between the preganglionic and postganglionic motor neurons of the sympathetic part and the different pathways of the postganglionic neurons to their effector organs.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.3 Structure of the Sympathetic Part.

32) Select the best description of the sympathetic preganglionic neurons. a) Cell bodies are in the lateral gray horns of all thoracic and all lumbar spinal segments. b) Axons tend to be relatively short. c) Cell bodies are in sympathetic trunk ganglia (vertebral chain ganglia) or prevertebral ganglia. d) Cell bodies are in the brain stem nuclei of the oculomotor (III), facial (VII), glossopharyngeal (IX), and vagus (X) nerves. e) Axons tend to be long.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 19.3 Describe the sympathetic division of the central nervous system including the origin of the division, location of the ganglia, and the different pathways to their effectors Study Objective 2: SO 19.3.1 Explain the central nervous system origin of the sympathetic part.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.3 Structure of the Sympathetic Part.

33) Select the best description of the parasympathetic postganglionic neurons. a) Cell bodies are in terminal ganglia. b) Axons are myelinated. c) Cell bodies are in sympathetic trunk ganglia (vertebral chain ganglia) or prevertebral ganglia. d) Cell bodies are in the brain stem nuclei of the oculomotor (III), facial (VII), glossopharyngeal (IX), and vagus (X) nerves.

e) Axons tend to be long.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 19.4 Describe the origin of the parasympathetic part of the autonomic division of the peripheral nervous system and the location of the ganglia.

Study Objective 2: SO 19.4.2 Describe the location of the parasympathetic ganglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 Structure of the Parasympathetic Part.

Question type: True/False 34) Preganglionic sympathetic axons (fibers) enter the sympathetic trunk ganglia via white rami communicantes.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 19.3 Describe the sympathetic part of the autonomic division of the peripheral nervous system including the origin of the part, location of the ganglia, and the different pathways to their effectors Study Objective 2: SO 19.3.3 List the synapses between the preganglionic and postganglionic motor neurons of the sympathetic part and the different pathways of the postganglionic neurons to their effector organs.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.3 Structure of the Sympathetic Part.

35) A lateral gray horn could be found in the S2 (second sacral) spinal cord segment.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 19.4 Describe the origin of the parasympathetic part of the autonomic division of the peripheral nervous system and the location of the ganglia.

Study Objective 2: SO 19.4.1 Explain the central nervous system origin of the parasympathetic part.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 Structure of the Parasympathetic Part.

Question type: Multiple Choice

36) Dual innervation means a) that an organ is stimulated by both the somatic and the autonomic nervous systems. b) that an organ contains both preganglionic and postganglionic motor neurons. c) that an organ receives impulses from both sympathetic and parasympathetic neurons. d) an organ has a nerve entering it and a nerve exiting it Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 19.1 Compare the structures and functions of the somatic and autonomic divisions of the peripheral nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.1 Comparison of Somatic and Autonomic Divisions of the Peripheral Nervous System.

37) The sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system a) has craniosacral outflow; the parasympathetic division has thoracolumbar outflow b) has thoracolumbar outflow; the parasympathetic division has craniosacral outflow Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 19.3 Describe the sympathetic part of the autonomic division of the peripheral nervous system including the origin of the division, location of the ganglia, and the different pathways to their effectors.

Study Objective 2: SO 19.3.1 Explain the central nervous system origin of the sympathetic part.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.3 Structure of the Sympathetic Part Question type: True/False 38) Sympathetic preganglionic axons are, in general, longer than parasympathetic preganglionic axons.

Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 19.6 Describe the major responses and reactions of the body to stimulation by the sympathetic and parasympathetic parts of the autonomic division.

Study Objective 2: SO 19.6.2 Explain the reactions of the body to stimulation by the parasympathetic part.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.6 Functions of the ANS. Question type: Multiple Choice 39) The superior, middle and inferior cervical ganglia are examples of a) prevertebral ganglia b) sympathetic trunk ganglia c) parasympathetic preganglionic neurons d) parasympathetic postganglionic neurons Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 19.3 Describe the sympathetic part of the autonomic division of the peripheral nervous system including the origin of the division, location of the ganglia, and the different pathways to their effectors.

Study Objective 2: SO 19.3.2 Describe the location of the sympathetic ganglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.3 Structure of the Sympathetic Part.

Question type: True/False 40) The cell bodies of all autonomic nervous system postganglionic axons are located in autonomic ganglia.

Answer: False (some are in the wall of the digestive organs) Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 19.2 Describe the autonomic nervous system including the development of the autonomic motor pathways, preganglionic and postganglionic neurons and anatomy of the autonomic ganglia.

Study Objective 2: SO 19.2.3 Describe the anatomy of the autonomic ganglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways Question type: Multiple Choice

41) In general, the postganglionic axons of prevertebral ganglia of the sympathetic division innervate (stimulate) effectors a) above the diaphragm b) below the diaphragm Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 19.3 Describe the sympathetic part of the autonomic division of the peripheral nervous system including the origin of the division, location of the ganglia, and the different pathways to their effectors.

Study Objective 2: SO 19.3.3 List the synapses between the preganglionic and postganglionic motor neurons of the sympathetic part and the different pathways of the postganglionic neurons to their effector organs.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.3 Structure of the Sympathetic Part.

Question type: Multiple Select 42) Examples of prevertebral ganglia include (Select all that apply.) a) aorticorenal ganglion b) celiac ganglion c) mesenteric ganglion d) otic ganglion Answer: a, b, c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 19.3 Describe the sympathetic part of the autonomic division of the peripheral nervous system including the origin of the division, location of the ganglia, and the different pathways to their effectors.

Study Objective 2: SO 19.3.2 Describe the location of the sympathetic ganglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.3 Structure of the Sympathetic Part.

Question type: True/False 43) Parasympathetic preganglionic neuron cell bodies are located in the brain stem and in the lateral gray horns of the second through fourth sacral segments of the spinal cord.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 19.4 Describe the origin of the parasympathetic part of the autonomic division of the peripheral nervous system and the location of the ganglia.

Study Objective 2: SO 19.4.1 Explain the central nervous system origin of the parasympathetic part.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 Structure of the Parasympathetic Part.

44) Parasympathetic postganglionic axons are very short because the terminal ganglia are very close to the structures they innervate (stimulate).

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 19.4 Describe the origin of the parasympathetic part of the autonomic division of the peripheral nervous system and the location of the ganglia.

Study Objective 2: SO 19.4.2 Describe the location of the parasympathetic ganglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 Structure of the Parasympathetic Part.

Question type: Multiple Choice 45) The lacrimal glands receive a) parasympathetic innervation b) sympathetic innervation c) both parasympathetic and sympathetic innervation Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 19.6 Describe the major responses and reactions of the body to stimulation by the sympathetic and parasympathetic parts of the ANS. Study Objective 2: SO 19.6.2 Explain the reactions of the body to stimulation by the parasympathetic part.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.6 Functions of the ANS. Question type: Multiple Select 46) Select the receptors that interact with acetylcholine (ACh). (Select all that apply.)

a) adrenergic receptors b) beta receptors c) muscarinic receptors d) nicotinic receptors Answer: c, d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 19.5 Describe the neurotransmitters and receptors involved in autonomic responses.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.5 ANS Neurotransmitters and Receptors.

Question type: True/False 47) A single sympathetic preganglionic axon has many axon collaterals (branches) that can synapse with 20 or more postganglionic neurons. This divergence helps explain how sympathetic responses can affect most body parts simultaneously.

Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 19.3 Describe the sympathetic part of the autonomic division of the peripheral nervous system including the origin of the division, location of the ganglia, and the different pathways to their effectors.

Study Objective 2: SO 19.3.1 Explain the central nervous system origin of the sympathetic division.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.3 Structure of the Sympathetic Part.

48) All adrenergic alpha receptors are ALWAYS excitatory.

Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 19.5 Describe the neurotransmitters and receptors involved in autonomic responses.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.5 ANS Neurotransmitters and Receptors.

Question type: Multiple Choice

49) Which fetal cells become preganglionic neurons in the autonomic motor pathway? a) migrating crest cells b) ventrolateral tube cells Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 19.2 Describe the autonomic nervous system including the development of the autonomic motor pathways, preganglionic and postganglionic neurons, and anatomy of the autonomic ganglia.

Study Objective 2: SO 19.2.1 Outline the development of the autonomic motor pathways and explain how it relates to their adult anatomy.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways 50) The major control and integration center of the autonomic nervous system is the a) hypothalamus b) midbrain c) pons. d) thalamus Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 19.7 Describe the components of an autonomic reflex and the relationship of the hypothalamus to the ANS. Study Objective 2: SO 19.7.2 Explain the relationship of the hypothalamus to the ANS. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.7 Integration and Control of Autonomic Functions.

51) Which ganglia receive preganglionic axons from a branch of the facial (VII) nerve and sends postganglionic axons to the salivary glands? a) ciliary ganglia b) otic ganglia c) pterygopalatine ganglia d) submandibular ganglia Answer: d

Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 19.4 Describe the origin of the parasympathetic part of the autonomic division of the peripheral nervous system and the location of the ganglia.

Study Objective 2: SO 19.4.1 Explain the central nervous system origin of the parasympathetic part.

Study Objective 3: SO 19.4.2 Describe the location of the parasympathetic ganglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 Structure of the Parasympathetic Part.

Question type: Essay 52) Which division of the autonomic nervous system is responsible for preparing the body for an emergency situation? Describe the responses of the body that collectively are referred to as the fight-or-flight response.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 19.6 Describe the major responses and reactions of the body to stimulation by the sympathetic and parasympathetic parts of the ANS. Study Objective 2: SO 19.6.1 Describe the major responses of the body to stimulation by the sympathetic part.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.6 Functions of the ANS. Solution: The sympathetic part produces the fight-or-flight responses which are summarized in Table 19.3.

Question type: Multiple Choice 53) Which of the following is activated by acetylcholine, and may cause excitation or inhibition of the postsynaptic cell? a) alpha receptors b) beta receptors c) muscarinic receptors d) nicotinic receptors Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis

Study Objective 1: SO 19.5 Describe the neurotransmitters and receptors involved in autonomic responses.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.5 ANS Neurotransmitters and Receptors.

Question type: Essay 54) Compare and contrast the anatomy of the motor pathways of the sympathetic and parasympathetic parts of the autonomic division and list the neurotransmitters released at each synapse in each pathway.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 19.6 Describe the major responses and reactions of the body to stimulation by the sympathetic and parasympathetic parts of the ANS. Study Objective 2: SO 19.6.2 Explain the reactions of the body to stimulation by the parasympathetic part.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.6 Functions of the ANS. Solution: See Table 19.2.

Question type: Multiple Choice 55) The neuron in the autonomic nervous system that lies completely outside the CNS is the a) preganglionic neuron b) postganglionic neuron Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 19.2 Describe the autonomic nervous system including the development of the autonomic motor pathways, preganglionic and postganglionic neurons, and anatomy of the autonomic ganglia.

Study Objective 2: SO 19.2.2 Compare preganglionic and postganglionic neurons of the autonomic nervous division of the peripheral nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways Question type: Multiple Select

56) The motor output component of the autonomic division of the peripheral nervous system has which divisions? (Select all that apply.) a) parasympathetic b) somatic c) sympathetic Answer: a, c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 19.1 Compare the structures and functions of the somatic and autonomic divisions of the peripheral nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.1 Comparison of Somatic and Autonomic Divisions of the Peripheral Nervous Systems.

Question type: Multiple Choice 57) The largest autonomic plexus is the a) cardiac plexus b) celiac plexus c) hypogastric plexus d) renal plexus Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 19.2 Describe the autonomic nervous system including the development of the autonomic motor pathways, preganglionic and postganglionic neurons and anatomy of the autonomic ganglia.

Study Objective 2: SO 19.2.3 Describe the anatomy of the autonomic ganglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways Question type: Multiple Select 58) The major autonomic plexuses of the thorax are the (Select all that apply.) a) cardiac plexus b) celiac plexus

c) mesenteric plexus d) pulmonary plexus Answer: a, d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 19.2 Describe the autonomic nervous system including the development of the autonomic motor pathways, preganglionic and postganglionic neurons and anatomy of the autonomic ganglia.

Study Objective 2: SO 19.2.3 Describe the anatomy of the autonomic ganglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways Question type: Multiple Choice 59) A substance, such as a drug, that binds to and activates a receptor by mimicking a neurotransmitter is an a) agonist b) antagonist Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 19.5 Describe the neurotransmitters and receptors involved in autonomic responses.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.5 ANS Neurotransmitters and Receptors 60) Which portion of the sympathetic trunk innervates (stimulates) the heart, sweat glands of the head, the smooth muscle of the eye, and blood vessels in the head? a) cervical b) lumbar c) thoracic d) sacral Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension

Study Objective 1: SO 19.3 Describe the sympathetic part of the autonomic division of the peripheral nervous system including the origin of the division, location of the ganglia, and the different pathways to their effectors.

Study Objective 2: SO 19.3.3 List the synapses between the preganglionic and postganglionic motor neurons of the sympathetic part and the different pathways of the postganglionic neurons to their effector organs.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.3 Structure of the Sympathetic Part.

Question type: Multiple Select 61) The facial (VII) cranial nerves carry parasympathetic preganglionic axons to which pair(s) of terminal ganglia? (Select all that apply.) a) ciliary b) otic c) pterygopalatine d) submandibular Answer: c, d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 19.4 Describe the origin of the parasympathetic part of the autonomic division of the peripheral nervous system and the location of the ganglia.

Study Objective 2: SO 19.4.2 Describe the location of the parasympathetic ganglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 Structure of the Parasympathetic Part.

Question type: Multiple Choice 62) An exaggerated response of the sympathetic part of the ANS occurring after spinal cord injury at or above the level of T6 is a) autonomic dysreflexia b) autonomic neuropathy c) dysautonomia d) Raynaud phenomenon Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge

Study Objective 1: SO 19.6 Describe the major responses and reactions of the body to stimulation by the sympathetic and parasympathetic parts of the ANS. Study Objective 2: SO 19.6.1 Describe the major responses of the body to stimulation by the sympathetic part.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.6 Functions of the ANS 63) Splanchnic nerves carry sympathetic axons from a) a sympathetic trunk ganglion to a prevertebral ganglion b) a prevertebral ganglion to a sympathetic trunk ganglion c) a paravertebral ganglion to a vertebral ganglion d) a prevertebral ganglion to a paravertebral ganglion Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 19.3 Describe the sympathetic part of the autonomic division of the peripheral nervous system including the origin of the division, location of the ganglia, and the different pathways to their effectors.

Study Objective 2: SO 19.3.3 List the synapses between the preganglionic and postganglionic motor neurons of the sympathetic part and the different pathways of the postganglionic neurons to their effector organs.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.3 Structure of the Sympathetic Part.

64) The cranial nerve that carries most of the parasympathetic outflow is the a) facial (VII) nerve b) glossopharyngeal (IX) nerve c) oculomotor (III) nerve d) vagus (X) nerve Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 19.4 Describe the origin of the parasympathetic part of the autonomic division of the peripheral nervous system and the location of the ganglia.

Study Objective 2: SO 19.4.1 Explain the central nervous system origin of the parasympathetic part.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 Structure of the Parasympathetic Part.

65) Cassie’s fingers and toes look blue after exposure to the cold due to deoxygenated blood in capillaries. After warming, her fingers and toes become red. She is experiencing a) autonomic dysreflexia b) autonomic neuropathy c) dysautonomia d) Raynaud phenomenon Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s : Application Study Objective 1: SO 19.5 Describe the neurotransmitters and receptors involved in autonomic responses.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.5 ANS Neurotransmitters and Receptors 66) Autonomic innervation (stimulation) from which division results in vasoconstriction of blood vessels in the dermis of the skin? a) sympathetic b) parasympathetic c) somatic d) parasympathetic and sympathetic Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 19.6 Describe the major responses and reactions of the body to stimulation by the sympathetic and parasympathetic parts of the ANS. Study Objective 2: SO 19.6.1 Describe the major responses of the body to stimulation by the sympathetic part.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.6 Functions of the ANS. 67) Autonomic neurons that release the neurotransmitter norepinephrine are called a) cholinergic neurons b) dopaminergic neurons c) seratonergic neurons d) adrenergic neurons Answer: d Difficulty: Easy

Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 19.5 Describe the neurotransmitters and receptors involved in autonomic responses.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.5 ANS Neurotransmitters and Receptors.

68) Which part of the autonomic division is mostly responsible for regulating restorative, energyconserving body activities? a) sympathetic b) parasympathetic c) somatic Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 19.6 Describe the major responses and reactions of the body to stimulation by the sympathetic and parasympathetic parts of the ANS. Study Objective 2: SO 19.6.2 Explain the reactions of the body to stimulation by the parasympathetic part.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.6 Functions of the ANS. 69) Which fetal cells develop into postganglionic neurons in the autonomic motor pathway? a) migrating crest cells b) ventrolateral tube cells Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 19.2 Describe the autonomic nervous system including the development of the autonomic motor pathways, preganglionic and postganglionic neurons, and anatomy of the autonomic ganglia.

Study Objective 2: SO 19.2.1 Outline the development of the autonomic motor pathways and explain how it relates to their adult anatomy.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.2 Anatomy of Autonomic Motor Pathways 70) The posterior and lateral portions of the hypothalamus control which part of the autonomic division of the peripheral nervous system? a) sympathetic b) parasympathetic

c) somatic Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 19.7 Describe the components of an autonomic reflex and the relationship of the hypothalamus to the ANS. Study Objective 2: SO 19.7.2 Explain the relationship of the hypothalamus to the ANS. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.7 Integration and Control of Autonomic Functions.

71) The anterior and medial portions of the hypothalamus control which part of the autonomic division of the peripheral nervous system? a) sympathetic b) parasympathetic c) somatic Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 19.7 Describe the components of an autonomic reflex and the relationship of the hypothalamus to the ANS. Study Objective 2: SO 19.7.2 Explain the relationship of the hypothalamus to the ANS. Section Reference 1: Sec 19.7 Integration and Control of Autonomic Functions.

72) In the figure below, which letter represents the celiac ganglion (one of the four major prevertebral ganglia)?

a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 19.3 Describe the sympathetic part of the autonomic division of the peripheral nervous system including the origin of the division, location of the ganglia, and the different pathways to their effectors.

Study Objective 2: SO 19.3.2 Describe the location of the sympathetic ganglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.3 Structure of the Sympathetic Part.

73) Which letter points to the greater splanchnic nerve which synapses with postganglionic cell bodies in the celiac ganglion?

a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 19.3 Describe the sympathetic part of the autonomic division of the peripheral nervous system including the origin of the division, location of the ganglia, and the different pathways to their effectors.

Study Objective 2: SO 19.3.3 List the synapses between the preganglionic and postganglionic motor neurons of the sympathetic part and the different pathways of the postganglionic neurons to their effector organs.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.3 Structure of the Sympathetic Part.

74) Which letter points to the right vagus (X) nerve which supplies parasympathetic fibers to most of the trunk viscera?

a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 19.4 Describe the origin of the parasympathetic part of the autonomic division of the peripheral nervous system and the location of the ganglia.

Study Objective 2: SO 19.4.1 Explain the central nervous system origin of the parasympathetic part.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.4 Structure of the Parasympathetic Part.

75) Which letter points to the right sympathetic trunk ganglion which receives preganglionic axons from thoracic and lumbar spinal cord segments?

a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 19.3 Describe the sympathetic part of the autonomic division of the peripheral nervous system including the origin of the division, location of the ganglia, and the different pathways to their effectors.

Study Objective 2: SO 19.3.2 Describe the location of the sympathetic ganglia.

Section Reference 1: Sec 19.3 Structure of the Sympathetic Part.

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pha15 Chapter Number: 20 Question type: Multiple Choice 1) Which of the following pairs of terms is incorrectly matched? a) exteroceptors; at or near the surface of the body b) proprioceptors; in walls of blood vessels c) cutaneous receptors; in skin and mucous membranes d) interoceptors; in internal organs (viscera) Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 20.1 Explain the different classifications of sensory receptors and how sensations occur.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.1.3 Explain the different ways sensory receptors can be classified.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.1 Overview of Sensations 2) Which of the following has encapsulated nerve endings? a) hair root plexus b) tactile menisci c) tactile corpuscles (Meissner corpuscle) d) photoreceptor Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 20.2 Describe the location and function of the receptors for touch, temperature, pain and proprioception.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.2.1 Describe the location and function of the receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.2 Somatic Sensations 3) For perception to occur, sensory nerve impulses must reach which of the following levels of the CNS?

a) spinal cord b) brain stem c) thalamus d) cerebral cortex Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 20.1 Explain the different classifications of sensory receptors and how sensations occur.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.1.2 Describe the conditions necessary for a sensation to occur.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.1 Overview of Sensations Question type: Multiple Select 4) The receptors for pain (Select all that apply.) a) are free nerve endings. b) may be stimulated by chemicals released by injured tissues. c) respond to any type of stimulus if it is of sufficient intensity. d) are called kinesthetic receptors.

Answer: a, b, c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 20.2 Describe the location and function of the receptors for touch, temperature, pain and proprioception.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.2.1 Describe the location and function of the receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.2 Somatic Sensations Question type: Multiple Choice 5) Which of the following receptor types has the slowest adaptation rate? a) lamellated (pacinian) corpuscle b) hair root plexus c) nociceptor d) joint kinesthetic receptor

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 20.2 Describe the location and function of the receptors for touch, temperature, pain and proprioception.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.2.1 Describe the location and function of the receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.2 Somatic Sensations 6) Which of the following cutaneous receptors are responsible for fine touch?

1. cutaneous mechanoreceptors 2. bulbous corpuscle (Ruffini corpuscle) 3. lamellar corpuscle (Pacinian corpuscle) 4. Tactile corpuscle (Meissner corpuscle) a) 1, 2, 3, 4 b) 1, 3 c) 2, 4 d) 1, 4 Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 20.2 Describe the location and function of the receptors for touch, temperature, pain and proprioception.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.2.1 Describe the location and function of the receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.2 Somatic Sensations 7) Which of the following is NOT a proprioceptor? a) hair root plexus b) joint kinesthetic receptor within synovial joint capsules c) tendon organ within tendons d) muscle spindle within skeletal muscles Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 20.2 Describe the location and function of the receptors for touch, temperature, pain and proprioception.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.2.2 Identify the receptors for proprioception and describe their functions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.2 Somatic Sensations 8) Which of the following consists of nerve endings wrapped around intrafusal muscle fibers? a) tendon organs b) hair cells of the inner ear c) muscle spindles d) joint kinesthetic receptors Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 20.2 Describe the location and function of the receptors for touch, temperature, pain and proprioception.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.2.2 Identify the receptors for proprioception and describe their functions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.2 Somatic Sensations 9) From the following list of spinal cord pathways, choose the ones that are together responsible for carrying all conscious sensory information in the spinal cord 1. spinothalamic 2. gracile fasciculus 3. spinocerebellar 4. posterior column-medial lemniscus 5. cuneate fasciculus a) 1,2, 4, 5 b) 2, 5 c) 3, 4 d) 1, 3 Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 20.3 Describe the structures and functions of the different somatic sensory pathways.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.3.2 Describe the neuronal components and functions of the posterior column–medial lemniscus pathway.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways

10) Third-order neurons a) have axons that end in the thalamus. b) carry nerve impulses from the spinal cord and brain stem to the thalamus. c) have axons that decussate in the spinal cord or brain stem. d) carry nerve impulses to the primary somatosensory area in the postcentral gyrus.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 20.3 Describe the structures and functions of the different somatic sensory pathways.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.3.1 Describe the general components of a sensory pathway.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways 11) Which of the following is a sensation that is NOT carried by the spinothalamic pathways? a) pain b) itch c) tickle d) proprioception Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 20.3 Describe the structures and functions of the different somatic sensory pathways.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.3.1 Describe the general components of a sensory pathway.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways Question type: Multiple Select 12) Pyramidal pathways (Select all that apply.) a) innervate skeletal muscles only. b) contain upper motor neurons and lower motor neurons. c) extend from the cerebral cortex, through the medulla, and then to their destination, either through cranial nerves or through spinal cord tracts and spinal nerves. d) innervate skeletal muscles, smooth muscle, and glands.

Answer: a, b, c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 20.4 Identify the locations and functions of neurons within the somatic motor pathways and explain how the different parts of the brain contribute to movement.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.4.2 Compare the locations and functions of the direct and indirect motor pathways.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.4 Somatic Motor Pathways Question type: Multiple Choice 13) Corticobulbar tracts carry information that coordinates the voluntary movement of all of the following except a) facial muscles. b) eyes. c) skilled movements of the hands. d) muscles of speech and chewing.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 20.4 Identify the locations and functions of neurons within the somatic motor pathways and explain how the different parts of the brain contribute to movement.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.4.2 Compare the locations and functions of the direct and indirect motor pathways.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.4 Somatic Motor Pathways 14) The group of tracts called the lateral corticospinal tracts, anterior corticospinal tracts, and corticobulbar tracts a) are the direct motor pathways. b) are the anterolateral pathways. c) are the indirect motor pathways. d) are the direct and indirect motor pathways.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension

Study Objective 1: SO 20.4 Identify the locations and functions of neurons within the somatic motor pathways and explain how the different parts of the brain contribute to movement.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.4.2 Compare the locations and functions of the direct and indirect motor pathways.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.4 Somatic Motor Pathways 15) Upper motor neurons of the indirect pathways begin in the a) cerebral cortex. b) brain stem. c) thalamus. d) spinal cord.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 20.4 Identify the locations and functions of neurons within the somatic motor pathways and explain how the different parts of the brain contribute to movement.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.4.2 Compare the locations and functions of the direct and indirect motor pathways.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.4 Somatic Motor Pathways 16) Final common pathways consist of a) upper motor neurons. b) lower motor neurons. c) upper and lower motor neurons. d) interneurons.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 20.4 Identify the locations and functions of neurons within the somatic motor pathways and explain how the different parts of the brain contribute to movement.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.4.1 Identify the locations and functions of the different types of neurons in the somatic motor pathways.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.4 Somatic Motor Pathways 17) Which groups of neurons provide input to lower motor neurons?

1. local circuit neurons 2. upper motor neurons

3. basal nuclei neurons 4. cerebellar neurons a) 1, 2, 3, 4 b) 1, 3, 4 c) 1 and 3 only d) 1 and 2 only Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 20.4 Identify the locations and functions of neurons within the somatic motor pathways and explain how the different parts of the brain contribute to movement.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.4.1 Identify the locations and functions of the different types of neurons in the somatic motor pathways.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.4 Somatic Motor Pathways 18) Muscles of the wrist would receive motor innervation carried in which spinal cord tract? a) lateral corticospinal b) anterior corticospinal c) rubrospinal d) tectospinal Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 20.4 Identify the locations and functions of neurons within the somatic motor pathways and explain how the different parts of the brain contribute to movement.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.4.2 Compare the locations and functions of the direct and indirect motor pathways.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.4 Somatic Motor Pathways 19) Somatic afferent fibers relaying information regarding the position of the ankle joint a) travel in the lateral corticospinal tract. b) travel in the anterior corticospinal tract. c) synapse in the gracile nucleus of the medulla. d) do NOT synapse in the thalamus.

Answer: c

Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 20.3 Describe the structures and functions of the different somatic sensory pathways.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.3.2 Describe the neuronal components and functions of the posterior column–medial lemniscus pathway.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways 20) Select the best description for the function of the posterior column-medial lemniscus. a) impulses for conscious proprioception and most tactile sensations b) impulses for pain and temperature sensations c) impulses for itch, tickle, crude touch, and pressure sensations d) impulses for subconscious proprioception e) impulses for coordination of precise voluntary movements of the hands and feet Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 20.3 Describe the structures and functions of the different somatic sensory pathways.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.3.2 Describe the neuronal components and functions of the posterior column–medial lemniscus pathway.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways 21) Select the best description for the function of the anterior and posterior spinocerebellar tracts. a) impulses for conscious proprioception and most tactile sensations b) impulses for pain and temperature sensations c) impulses for itch, tickle, crude touch and pressure sensations d) impulses for subconscious proprioception e) impulses for coordination of precise voluntary movements of the hands and feet Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 20.3 Describe the structures and functions of the different somatic sensory pathways.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.3.3 Explain the basics for mapping the primary somatosensory cortex.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways

22) Select the best description for the function of the lateral spinothalamic tract. a) impulses for conscious proprioception and most tactile sensations b) impulses for pain and temperature sensations c) impulses for itch, tickle, crude touch and pressure sensations d) impulses for subconscious proprioception e) impulses for coordination of precise voluntary movements of the hands and feet Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 20.3 Describe the structures and functions of the different somatic sensory pathways.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.3.1 Describe the general components of a sensory pathway.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways 23) Select the best description for the function of the anterior spinothalamic tract. a) impulses for conscious proprioception and most tactile sensations b) impulses for pain and temperature sensations c) impulses for itch, tickle, crude touch and pressure sensations d) impulses for subconscious proprioception e) impulses for coordination of precise voluntary movements of the hands and feet Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 20.3 Describe the structures and functions of the different somatic sensory pathways.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.3.1 Describe the general components of a sensory pathway.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways 24) Select the best description for the function of the tectospinal tract. a) impulses for coordination of movements of the trunk and proximal parts of the limbs b) impulses that move the head and eyes in response to visual or auditory stimuli c) conveys nerve impulses from motor cortex to skeletal muscles of head and neck to coordinate precise, voluntary movements d) impulses for subconscious proprioception e) impulses for precise voluntary movements of the hands and feet Answer: b

Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 20.4 Identify the locations and functions of neurons within the somatic motor pathways and explain how the different parts of the brain contribute to movement.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.4.2 Compare the locations and functions of the direct and indirect motor pathways.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.4 Somatic Motor Pathways 25) Select the best description for the function of the lateral corticospinal tract. a) impulses for coordination of movements of the trunk and proximal parts of the limbs b) impulses that move the head and eyes in response to visual stimuli c) conveys nerve impulses from motor cortex to skeletal muscles of head and neck to coordinate precise, voluntary movements d) impulses for subconscious proprioception e) impulses for precise voluntary movements of the hands and feet Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 20.4 Identify the locations and functions of neurons within the somatic motor pathways and explain how the different parts of the brain contribute to movement.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.4.2 Compare the locations and functions of the direct and indirect motor pathways.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.4 Somatic Motor Pathways 26) Select the best description for the function of the corticobulbar tract. a) impulses for coordination of movements of the trunk and proximal parts of the limbs b) impulses that move the head and eyes in response to visual stimuli c) conveys nerve impulses from motor cortex to skeletal muscles of head and neck to coordinate precise, voluntary movements d) impulses for subconscious proprioception e) impulses for precise voluntary movements of the hands and feet Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 20.4 Identify the locations and functions of neurons within the somatic motor pathways and explain how the different parts of the brain contribute to movement.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.4.2 Compare the locations and functions of the direct and indirect motor pathways.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.4 Somatic Motor Pathways 27) Select the best description for the function of the anterior corticospinal tract. a) impulses for coordination of movements of the trunk and proximal parts of the limbs b) impulses that move the head and eyes in response to visual stimuli c) conveys nerve impulses from motor cortex to skeletal muscles of head and neck to coordinate precise, voluntary movements d) impulses for subconscious proprioception e) impulses for precise voluntary movements of the hands and feet Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 20.4 Identify the locations and functions of neurons within the somatic motor pathways and explain how the different parts of the brain contribute to movement.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.4.2 Compare the locations and functions of the direct and indirect motor pathways.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.4 Somatic Motor Pathways Question type: Multiple Select 28) General senses include (Select all that apply.) a) sense of smell. b) sense of taste. c) somatic senses. d) visceral senses.

Answer: c, d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 20.1 Explain the different classifications of sensory receptors and how sensations occur.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.1.1 Define sensation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.1 Overview of Sensations Question type: True/False

29) Modality of receptors refers to the fact that a receptor will only respond if a stimulus is of sufficient strength.

Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 20.1 Explain the different classifications of sensory receptors and how sensations occur.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.1.1 Define sensation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.1 Overview of Sensations Question type: Multiple Choice 30) Rapidly adapting touch receptors found in hairless skin are a) bulbous corpuscles. b) tactile menisci. c) tactile corpuscles. d) lamellar corpuscles.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 20.2 Describe the location and function of the receptors for touch, temperature, pain and proprioception.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.2.1 Describe the location and function of the receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.2 Somatic Sensations 31) Visceral pain occurs when nociceptors in a) internal organs are stimulated. b) joints are stimulated. c) skeletal muscles are stimulated. d) tendons are stimulated.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy

Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 20.2 Describe the location and function of the receptors for touch, temperature, pain and proprioception.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.2.1 Describe the location and function of the receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.2 Somatic Sensations Question type: Multiple Select 32) Which receptors are free nerve endings? Select all that apply. a) itch b) pain c) temperature d) vibration Answer: a, b, c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 20.2 Describe the location and function of the receptors for touch, temperature, pain and proprioception.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.2.1 Describe the location and function of the receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.2 Somatic Sensations Question type: True/False 33) Stimulation of nociceptors in the skin gives rise to superficial somatic pain.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 20.2 Describe the location and function of the receptors for touch, temperature, pain and proprioception.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.2.1 Describe the location and function of the receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.2 Somatic Sensations

34) Ascending somatic sensory pathways to the cerebral cortex consist of thousands of sets of three neurons: first-order neurons, second-order neurons, and third-order neurons.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 20.3 Describe the structures and functions of the different somatic sensory pathways.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.3.1 Describe the general components of a sensory pathway.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways Question type: Multiple Choice 35) Proprioception is a) the sense that provides an awareness of body positions and movements of parts of the body. b) the sense that would respond to vibrations if you were using a high-powered drill. c) the sense that you would feel after release of prostaglandins. d) the sense that you would feel if you touched a hot stove.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 20.2 Describe the location and function of the receptors for touch, temperature, pain and proprioception.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.2.2 Identify the receptors for proprioception and describe their functions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.2 Somatic Sensations Question type: True/False 36) Identifying a paper clip by feeling it or reading Braille are both examples of stereognosis.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 20.3 Describe the structures and functions of the different somatic sensory pathways.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.3.2 Describe the neuronal components and functions of the posterior column–medial lemniscus pathway.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways Question type: Multiple Choice 37) The gracile fasciculus and cuneate fasciculus are found in the a) anterior column of the spinal cord. b) lateral column of the spinal cord. c) medial column of the spinal cord. d) posterior column of the spinal cord.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 20.3 Describe the structures and functions of the different somatic sensory pathways.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.3.2 Describe the neuronal components and functions of the posterior column–medial lemniscus pathway.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways 38) Proprioceptive information may be conveyed to the cerebellum via sensory neurons that travel in a) corticobulbar pathways. b) posterior column-medial lemniscus pathways. c) spinocerebellar tracts. d) spinothalamic tracts.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 20.3 Describe the structures and functions of the different somatic sensory pathways.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.3.3 Explain the basics for mapping the primary somatosensory cortex.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways 39) Which neurons transmit signals from somatic receptors along cranial and spinal nerves into the brain stem and spinal cord respectively?

a) first-order b) second-order c) third-order Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 20.3 Describe the structures and functions of the different somatic sensory pathways.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.3.1 Describe the general components of a sensory pathway.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways Question type: Multiple Select 40) Decussation of sensory pathways occurs (Select all that apply.) a) in the brainstem. b) in the cerebellum. c) in the spinal cord. d) in the thalamus.

Answer: a, c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 20.3 Describe the structures and functions of the different somatic sensory pathways.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.3.1 Describe the general components of a sensory pathway.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways Question type: True/False 41) The majority of commands from the motor cortex to skeletal muscles travel via the anterior corticospinal tracts in the spinal cord.

Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis

Study Objective 1: SO 20.4 Identify the locations and functions of neurons within the somatic motor pathways and explain how the different parts of the brain contribute to movement.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.4.2 Compare the locations and functions of the direct and indirect motor pathways.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.4 Somatic Motor Pathways 42) The anterior corticospinal tracts cross over to the opposite side at the level of the medulla oblongata.

Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 20.4 Identify the locations and functions of neurons within the somatic motor pathways and explain how the different parts of the brain contribute to movement.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.4.2 Compare the locations and functions of the direct and indirect motor pathways.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.4 Somatic Motor Pathways Question type: Multiple Select 43) Select all options that are indirect pathways. Select all that apply. a) corticospinal tract b) reticulospinal tract c) rubrospinal tract d) tectospinal tract Answer: b, c, d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 20.4 Identify the locations and functions of neurons within the somatic motor pathways and explain how the different parts of the brain contribute to movement.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.4.2 Compare the locations and functions of the direct and indirect motor pathways.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.4 Somatic Motor Pathways Question type: True/False 44) Bradykinesia, hypokinesia, tremor, and increased muscle tone are all symptoms of Parkinson’s disease.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 20.4 Identify the locations and functions of neurons within the somatic motor pathways and explain how the different parts of the brain contribute to movement.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.4.3 Explain how the corpus striatum, brainstem, and cerebellum contribute to movements.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.4 Somatic Motor Pathways Question type: Multiple Select 45) Which analgesics work by blocking formation of prostaglandins? Select all that apply. a) aspirin b) ibuprofen c) morphine d) Novocaine Answer: a, b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 20.2 Describe the location and function of the receptors for touch, temperature, pain and proprioception.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.2.1 Describe the location and function of the receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.2 Somatic Sensations Question type: Essay 46) A mosquito bites you on the wrist. Even before you look at the spot, your CNS has informed you of what has happened, and where. What neuronal events have occurred between the time the insect began to bite and the moment when you became aware?

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 20.3 Describe the structures and functions of the different somatic sensory pathways.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.3.1 Describe the general components of a sensory pathway.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways Solution: 1. Stimulation: activation of sensory neurons 2. Creation of a nerve impulse in a first-order sensory neuron 3. Conduction of nerve impulse to the CNS via the first-order neuron 4. Nerve impulse reaches the region in the CNS where it is transformed into a conscious perception.

Question type: Multiple Select 47) Receptors can be classified using which system(s)? Select all that apply. a) by microscopic appearance b) by order (first-order, second-order, third-order) c) by receptor location d) by type of stimulus detected Answer: a, c, d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 20.1 Explain the different classifications of sensory receptors and how sensations occur.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.1.3 Explain the different ways sensory receptors can be classified.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.1 Overview of Sensations Question type: Essay 48) What is referred pain? Using an example, explain how referred pain occurs.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 20.2 Describe the location and function of the receptors for touch, temperature, pain and proprioception.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.2.1 Describe the location and function of the receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.2 Somatic Sensations Solution: Pain impulses from the viscera are often interpreted as coming from the skin either near to, or more removed from, the affected organ. The most common example is the pain of a

heart attack. The area to which the pain is referred (medial aspect of left arm, skin over the left side of the chest) is served by the T1-T5 region of the cord, which also serves the heart.

Question type: Multiple Choice 49) Identify a proprioceptor that protects tendons and muscles from damage due to excessive muscle tension. a) muscle spindles b) nociceptors c) joint kinesthetic receptors d) tendon organs Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 20.2 Describe the location and function of the receptors for touch, temperature, pain and proprioception.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.2.2 Identify the receptors for proprioception and describe their functions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.2 Somatic Sensations Question type: Essay 50) Construct a diagram showing the locations of the neuronal components of the anterolateral (spinothalamic) pathways and describe the functions of the pathways.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 20.3 Describe the structures and functions of the different somatic sensory pathways.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.3.1 Describe the general components of a sensory pathway.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways Solution: See Fig. 20.4(b) and Table 20.3.

Question type: Multiple Select

51) Identify the spinal tract(s) that carry conscious sensory information. Select all that apply. a) anterior spinothalamic tract b) lateral spinothalamic tract c) posterior column-medial lemniscus pathway d) spinocerebellar pathway Answer: a, b, c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 20.3 Describe the structures and functions of the different somatic sensory pathways.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.3.2 Describe the neuronal components and functions of the posterior column–medial lemniscus pathway.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways Question type: Multiple Choice 52) A nerve impulse travels from a nucleus which receives input about head movements from the inner ear to ipsilateral skeletal muscles of the trunk. This statement describes the a) reticulospinal pathway. b) rubrospinal pathway. c) tectospinal pathway. d) vestibulospinal pathway.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 20.4 Identify the locations and functions of neurons within the somatic motor pathways and explain how the different parts of the brain contribute to movement.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.4.2 Compare the locations and functions of the direct and indirect motor pathways.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.4 Somatic Motor Pathways 53) Barbara is overwhelmed with the smell of essential oils at a flea-market booth selling the oils. Which of Barbara’s receptors is detecting the smell? a) chemoreceptors b) mechanoreceptors c) osmoreceptors

d) photoreceptors Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 20.1 Explain the different classifications of sensory receptors and how sensations occur.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.1.3 Explain the different ways sensory receptors can be classified.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.1 Overview of Sensations 54) The conscious awareness and interpretation of a sensation is a) modality. b) adaptation. c) perception. d) integration. e) proprioception.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 20.1 Explain the different classifications of sensory receptors and how sensations occur.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.1.1 Define sensation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.1 Overview of Sensations 55) The conscious or subconscious awareness of changes in the external or internal conditions of the body is a) sensation. b) adaptation. c) perception. d) reception.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 20.1 Explain the different classifications of sensory receptors and how sensations occur.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.1.1 Define sensation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.1 Overview of Sensations

56) Which of the following is classified as a special sense? a) touch b) pain c) equilibrium d) vibration Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 20.1 Explain the different classifications of sensory receptors and how sensations occur.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.1.1 Define sensation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.1 Overview of Sensations 57) Deep somatic pain arises from stimulation of what type of receptor in skeletal muscles and joints? a) proprioceptors b) nociceptors c) photoreceptors d) thermoreceptors e) osmoreceptors Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 20.2 Describe the location and function of the receptors for touch, temperature, pain and proprioception.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.2.1 Describe the location and function of the receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.2 Somatic Sensations 58) Warm thermal receptors are located in the a) dermis of the skin. b) epidermis of the skin. c) stratum basale. d) stratum corneum.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 20.2 Describe the location and function of the receptors for touch, temperature, pain and proprioception.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.2.1 Describe the location and function of the receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.2 Somatic Sensations

59) Receptors for pressure and vibration that consist of an oval multi-layered capsule surrounding a dendrite, and that are located in the skin as well as subcutaneous and submucosal tissues, are called a) lamellar corpuscles (pacinian corpuscles). b) tactile corpuscles (Meissner corpuscles). c) tactile menisci. d) bulbous (Ruffini corpuscles).

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 20.2 Describe the location and function of the receptors for touch, temperature, pain and proprioception.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.2.1 Describe the location and function of the receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.2 Somatic Sensations 60) Which of the following provides input to only small areas of the somatosensory cortex? a) face b) hand c) legs d) lips Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 20.3 Describe the structures and functions of the different somatic sensory pathways.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.3.3 Explain the basics for mapping the primary somatosensory cortex.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways 61) Which of the following are proprioceptors located at the junction of a tendon and a muscle? a) muscle spindles b) lamellar corpuscles (pacinian corpuscles) c) tendon organs d) extrafusal fibers Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 20.2 Describe the location and function of the receptors for touch, temperature, pain and proprioception.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.2.2 Identify the receptors for proprioception and describe their functions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.2 Somatic Sensations 62) The cell bodies of which sensory neurons are located in the thalamus? a) first-order b) second-order c) third-order d) fourth-order Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 20.3 Describe the structures and functions of the different somatic sensory pathways.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.3.1 Describe the general components of a sensory pathway.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways 63) Axons of which neurons cross over to the other side in the brain or spinal cord before ascending to the thalamus? a) first-order b) second-order c) third-order d) fourth-order

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 20.3 Describe the structures and functions of the different somatic sensory pathways.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.3.1 Describe the general components of a sensory pathway.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways 64) Which pathway conducts impulses for conscious proprioception and most tactile sensations? a) anterior corticospinal b) posterior column-medial lemniscus c) spinothalamic d) tectospinal Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 20.3 Describe the structures and functions of the different somatic sensory pathways.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.3.2 Describe the neuronal components and functions of the posterior column–medial lemniscus pathway.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.3 Somatic Sensory Pathways Question type: Multiple Select 65) Incoming sensory information is integrated; that is, it is processed and interpreted and a course of action is taken. At which of the following locations does the integration process occur? Select all that apply. a) spinal cord and brain stem b) cerebellum c) cerebral cortex d) pons Answer: a, b, c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 20.5 Explain how sensory input and motor output are integrated in the central nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.5 Integration of Sensory Input and Motor Output.

Question type: Multiple Choice 66) Lower motor neurons that carry information from the CNS to skeletal muscle fibers form the a) final common pathway. b) medial lemniscus pathway. c) corticobulbar pathway. d) anterolateral pathway.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 20.4 Identify the locations and functions of neurons within the somatic motor pathways and explain how the different parts of the brain contribute to movement.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.4.1 Identify the locations and functions of the different types of neurons in the somatic motor pathways.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.4 Somatic Motor Pathways 67) Which of the following contain intrafusal fibers? a) hair root plexuses b) joint kinesthetic receptors c) muscle spindles d) tendon organs Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 20.2 Describe the location and function of the receptors for touch, temperature, pain and proprioception.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.2.2 Identify the receptors for proprioception and describe their functions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.2 Somatic Sensations Question type: True/False 68) The major control region for planning and initiating voluntary movements is the primary motor area (precentral gyrus) of the cortex.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 20.4 Identify the locations and functions of neurons within the somatic motor pathways and explain how the different parts of the brain contribute to movement.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.4.1 Identify the locations and functions of the different types of neurons in the somatic motor pathways.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.4 Somatic Motor Pathways Question type: Multiple Choice 69) Gamma motor neurons are responsible for the innervation of which fibers of the muscle spindle? a) extrafusal b) intrafusal Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 20.2 Describe the location and function of the receptors for touch, temperature, pain and proprioception.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.2.2 Identify the receptors for proprioception and describe their functions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.2 Somatic Sensations 70) Which of the following proprioceptors contain dendrites of slowly adapting sensory neurons?

1. muscle spindles 2. tendon organs 3. joint kinesthetic receptors a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 1 and 2 Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis

Study Objective 1: SO 20.2 Describe the location and function of the receptors for touch, temperature, pain and proprioception.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.2.2 Identify the receptors for proprioception and describe their functions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.2 Somatic Sensations 71) Which of the following proprioceptors have a thin capsule of connective tissue enclosing a few bundles of collagen fibers? a) muscle spindles b) tendon organs c) joint kinesthetic receptors d) muscle spindles and tendon organs Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 20.2 Describe the location and function of the receptors for touch, temperature, pain and proprioception.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.2.2 Identify the receptors for proprioception and describe their functions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.2 Somatic Sensations 72) Identify the referred pain site for the kidneys.

a) A b) B c) C

d) D Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 20.2 Describe the location and function of the receptors for touch, temperature, pain and proprioception.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.2.1 Describe the location and function of the receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.2 Somatic Sensations 73) Identify the referred pain site for the heart.

a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 20.2 Describe the location and function of the receptors for touch, temperature, pain and proprioception.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.2.1 Describe the location and function of the receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.2 Somatic Sensations

74) Identify the referred pain site for the liver and gallbladder.

a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 20.2 Describe the location and function of the receptors for touch, temperature, pain and proprioception.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.2.1 Describe the location and function of the receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.2 Somatic Sensations

75) Identify the referred pain site for the stomach.

a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 20.2 Describe the location and function of the receptors for touch, temperature, pain and proprioception.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.2.1 Describe the location and function of the receptors for tactile, thermal, and pain sensations.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.2 Somatic Sensations Question type: Multiple Select 76) Parts of the corpus striatum which send feedback to upper motor neurons in the motor cortex are (Select all that apply.) a) caudate nucleus. b) globus pallidus. c) putamen. d) substantia nigra.

Answer: b, d

Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 20.4 Identify the locations and functions of neurons within the somatic motor pathways and explain how the different parts of the brain contribute to movement.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.4.3 Explain how the corpus striatum, brainstem, and cerebellum contribute to movements.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.4 Somatic Motor Pathways Question type: Multiple Choice 77) Which part of the brain is instrumental in sending out corrective feedback for movements? a) brainstem b) cerebellum c) cerebral cortex d) corpus striatum Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 20.4 Identify the locations and functions of neurons within the somatic motor pathways and explain how the different parts of the brain contribute to movement.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.4.3 Explain how the corpus striatum, brainstem, and cerebellum contribute to movements.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.4 Somatic Motor Pathways 78) If you are laughing at a funny joke, which part of the brain is integrating that movement? a) brainstem b) cerebellum c) cerebral cortex d) corpus striatum Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 20.5 Explain how sensory input and motor output are integrated in the central nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.5 Integration of Sensory Input and Motor Output

79) June was told to walk with a book on her head to encourage good posture and balance. The part of her brain responsible for integrating the posture and balance would be the a) brainstem. b) cerebellum. c) cerebral cortex. d) corpus striatum.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 20.5 Explain how sensory input and motor output are integrated in the central nervous system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.5 Integration of Sensory Input and Motor Output 80) As you read this test question, your eyes are making a) bradykinetic movements. b) hypokinetic movements. c) stereognoses. d) saccades.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 20.4 Identify the locations and functions of neurons within the somatic motor pathways and explain how the different parts of the brain contribute to movement.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.4.3 Explain how the corpus striatum, brainstem, and cerebellum contribute to movements.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.4 Somatic Motor Pathways 81) Injury to the lower motor neurons, causing paralysis on the same side of the body is a) flaccid paralysis. b) spastic paralysis.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension

Study Objective 1: SO 20.4 Identify the locations and functions of neurons within the somatic motor pathways and explain how the different parts of the brain contribute to movement.

Study Objective 2: SO 20.4.1 Identify the locations and functions of the different types of neurons in the somatic motor pathways.

Section Reference 1: Sec 20.4 Somatic Motor Pathways

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pha15 Chapter Number: 21 Question type: Multiple Choice 1) All of the following describe mucus found on the surface of the olfactory epithelium EXCEPT a) is produced by glands beneath the olfactory epithelium. b) makes it possible for odorants to react with the olfactory receptors. c) is produced in increased amounts in response to stimulation by the facial (VII) nerves. d) is distributed by Gustatory microvilli Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 21.1 Describe the structures and the neural pathway involved in olfaction.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.1.1 Describe the structure of the olfactory receptors and other cells involved in olfaction.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.1 Olfaction: Sense of Smell 2) The olfactory epithelium occupies the superior part of the a) nasal cavity b) pupil c) retina d) tongue Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 21.1 Describe the structures and the neural pathway involved in olfaction.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.1.1 Describe the structure of the olfactory receptors and other cells involved in olfaction.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.1 Olfaction: Sense of Smell

3) Place the following in the correct order for the transmission of olfactory information that results in odor perception.

1. olfactory bulbs 2. olfactory tract 3. temporal cortex 4. olfactory (I) nerves 5. frontal cortex a) 4, 1, 2, 3, 5 b) 4, 2, 1, 3, 5 c) 2, 1, 4, 3, 5 d) 2, 4, 1, 3, 5 Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 21.1 Describe the structures and the neural pathway involved in olfaction.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.1.2 Outline the neural pathway for olfaction.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.1 Olfaction: Sense of Smell Question type: Multiple Select 4) Taste buds of a young adult are located on the a) epiglottis b) pharynx c) tongue and soft palate d) larynx Answer: a, b, c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 21.2 Describe the gustatory receptors and the neural pathway for gustation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.2 Gustation: Sense of Taste Question type: Multiple Choice

5) The cranial nerves containing neurons of the gustatory pathway are: 1. facial (VII) nerve 2. vagus (X) nerve 3. glossopharyngeal (IX) nerve 4. trigeminal (V) nerve 5. abducens (VI) nerve a) 1, 3, 5 b) 2, 3, 4 c) 1, 2, 3 d) 1, 4, 5 Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 21.2 Describe the gustatory receptors and the neural pathway for gustation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.2 Gustation: Sense of Taste 6) All of the following are accessory structures of the eye EXCEPT a) palpebrae b) lacrimal apparatus c) intrinsic muscles d) eyelashes Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Identify the accessory structures of the eye, the structural components of the eyeball, and the neural pathway for vision.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.1 List and describe the accessory structures of the eye.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Vision 7) A layer of dense connective tissue that covers the entire eyeball except the cornea is called a) choroid b) conjunctiva c) sclera

d) uvea Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Identify the accessory structures of the eye, the structural components of the eyeball, and the neural pathway for vision.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.2 Describe the structural components of the eyeball.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Vision 8) Which of the following statements about the cornea is TRUE? a) The outer surface is keratinized simple squamous epithelium. b) The outer surface is nonkeratinized simple squamous epithelium. c) The connective tissue layer of the cornea is avascular. d) It contains proteins called crystallins.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Identify the accessory structures of the eye, the structural components of the eyeball, and the neural pathway for vision.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.2 Describe the structural components of the eyeball.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Vision 9) Which of the following types of cells is the first to receive a light ray as it travels through the retina? a) bipolar cell b) ganglion cell c) pigmented epithelium d) photoreceptor cell Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Identify the accessory structures of the eye, the structural components of the eyeball, and the neural pathway for vision.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.2 Describe the structural components of the eyeball.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Vision 10) The vitreous body a) is produced by the ciliary processes. b) undergoes constant replacement. c) is the main contributor to intraocular pressure. d) plays an important role in maintaining the shape of the eye Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Identify the accessory structures of the eye, the structural components of the eyeball, and the neural pathway for vision.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.2 Describe the structural components of the eyeball.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Vision 11) Which of the following is NOT a feature of the external ear? a) auditory tube b) helix c) lobule d) external auditory canal Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 21.4 Describe the anatomy of the ear, the events needed for hearing and equilibrium, and the neural pathways for both events.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.4.1 Describe the anatomy of the structures in the three principal regions of the ear.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.4 Hearing and Equilibrium 12) In what order do the following structures vibrate as sound is transmitted?

1. stapes 2. tympanic membrane 3. vestibular window 4. incus 5. malleus

a) 5, 1, 4, 2, 3 b) 3, 4, 5, 1, 2 c) 2, 1, 5, 4, 3 d) 2, 5, 4, 1, 3 Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 21.4 Describe the anatomy of the ear, the events needed for hearing and equilibrium, and the neural pathways for both events.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.4.2 Explain the principal events involved in hearing.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.4 Hearing and Equilibrium 13) Which of the following is primarily responsible for the sensation of hearing? a) spiral organ b) ampulla c) saccule d) utricle Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 21.4 Describe the anatomy of the ear, the events needed for hearing and equilibrium, and the neural pathways for both events.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.4.1 Describe the anatomy of the structures in the three principal regions of the ear.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.4 Hearing and Equilibrium 14) The vestibular apparatus is located in the a) middle ear. b) anterior cavity of the eye. c) nasal cavity. d) internal ear.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy

Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 21.4 Describe the anatomy of the ear, the events needed for hearing and equilibrium, and the neural pathways for both events.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.4.1 Describe the anatomy of the structures in the three principal regions of the ear.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.4 Hearing and Equilibrium Question type: Multiple Select 15) The facial (VII) nerve and vestibulocochlear (VIII) nerve both travel through the facial canal of the petrous portion of the temporal bone. A tumor located in this canal will potentially interfere with the special sense(s) of a) taste b) hearing c) equilibrium d) sight Answer: a, b, c Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Evaluation Study Objective 1: SO 21.2 Describe the gustatory receptors and the neural pathway for gustation.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.4 Describe the anatomy of the ear, the events needed for hearing and equilibrium, and the neural pathways for both events.

Study Objective 3: SO 21.4.3 Outline the auditory pathway.

Study Objective 4: SO 21.4.5 Identify the equilibrium pathway.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.2 Gustation: Sense of Taste Section Reference 2: Sec 21.4 Hearing and Equilibrium Question type: Multiple Choice 16) Obstruction or blockage of the nasolacrimal duct will prevent drainage of tears into the a) aqueous humor b) vitreous humor c) nasal cavity d) ciliary body

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Identify the accessory structures of the eye, the structural components of the eyeball, and the neural pathway for vision.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.1 List and describe the accessory structures of the eye.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Vision 17) Select the best description for the vallate (circumvallate) papillae. a) largest type; all contain taste buds b) distributed in V-shaped row on the anterior portion of the tongue c) mushroom shaped; evenly distributed over the tongue d) contain no taste buds Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 21.2 Describe the gustatory receptors and the neural pathway for gustation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.2 Gustation: Sense of Taste 18) Select the best description for the filiform papillae. a) largest type; all contain taste buds b) distributed in V-shaped row on the anterior portion of the tongue c) mushroom shaped; evenly distributed over the tongue d) contain no taste buds Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 21.2 Describe the gustatory receptors and the neural pathway for gustation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.2 Gustation: Sense of Taste 19) Select the best description for the fungiform papillae.

a) largest type; all contain taste buds b) distributed in V-shaped row on the anterior portion of the tongue c) mushroom shaped; evenly distributed over the tongue d) contain no taste buds Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 21.2 Describe the gustatory receptors and the neural pathway for gustation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.2 Gustation: Sense of Taste 20) Select the best description for the lacrimal glands. a) near the external opening of the external auditory canal b) embedded in tarsal plate of eyelid c) superior and lateral to the eyeball d) in connective tissue underneath the olfactory epithelium e) at the base of the follicles of the eyelashes Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Identify the accessory structures of the eye, the structural components of the eyeball, and the neural pathway for vision.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.1 List and describe the accessory structures of the eye.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Vision 21) Select the best description for the ceruminous glands. a) near the external opening of the external auditory canal b) embedded in tarsal plate of eyelid c) superior and lateral to the eyeball d) in connective tissue underneath the olfactory epithelium e) at the base of the follicles of the eyelashes Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension

Study Objective 1: SO 21.4 Describe the anatomy of the ear, the events needed for hearing and equilibrium, and the neural pathways for both events.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.4.1 Describe the anatomy of the structures in the three principal regions of the ear.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.4 Hearing and Equilibrium 22) Select the best description for the olfactory (Bowman's) gland. a) near the external opening of the external auditory canal b) embedded in tarsal plate of eyelid c) superior and lateral to the eyeball d) in connective tissue underneath the olfactory epithelium e) at the base of the follicles of the eyelashes Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 21.1 Describe the structures and the neural pathway involved in olfaction.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.1.1 Describe the structure of the olfactory receptors and other cells involved in olfaction.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.1 Olfaction: Sense of Smell 23) Select the best description for the sebaceous ciliary glands. a) near the external opening of the external auditory canal b) embedded in tarsal plate of eyelid c) superior and lateral to the eyeball d) in connective tissue underneath the olfactory epithelium e) at the base of the follicles of the eyelashes Answer: e Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Identify the accessory structures of the eye, the structural components of the eyeball, and the neural pathway for vision.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.1 List and describe the accessory structures of the eye.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Vision

Question type: True/False 24) The perception of taste will be significantly altered by obstructions of the nasal cavity (e.g. nasal congestion).

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 21.2 Describe the gustatory receptors and the neural pathway for gustation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.2 Gustation: Sense of Taste Question type: Multiple Choice 25) Olfactory receptors, which are specialized neurons, are replaced regularly by the a) amacrine cells b) basal epithelial cells c) columnar epithelial cells d) mitral cells Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 21.1 Describe the structures and the neural pathway involved in olfaction.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.1.1 Describe the structure of the olfactory receptors and other cells involved in olfaction.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.1 Olfaction: Sense of Smell 26) Olfactory sensory neurons are a) bipolar neurons b) multipolar neurons c) unipolar neurons Answer: a

Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 21.1 Describe the structures and the neural pathway involved in olfaction.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.1.1 Describe the structure of the olfactory receptors and other cells involved in olfaction.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.1 Olfaction: Sense of Smell Question type: True/False 27) Large papillae that always contain taste buds and that are found in a V-shaped row on the posterior region of the tongue are called vallate (circumvallate) papillae.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 21.2 Describe the gustatory receptors and the neural pathway for gustation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.2 Gustation: Sense of Taste Question type: Multiple Choice 28) The mucous membrane lining the inner aspect of the eyelids is the a) bulbar conjunctiva b) chalazion c) lacrimal caruncle d) palpebral conjunctiva Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Identify the accessory structures of the eye, the structural components of the eyeball, and the neural pathway for vision.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.1 List and describe the accessory structures of the eye.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Vision

29) In the retina, which is more numerous? a) cones b) rods Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Identify the accessory structures of the eye, the structural components of the eyeball, and the neural pathway for vision.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.2 Describe the structural components of the eyeball.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Vision Question type: True/False 30) Infection of the tarsal glands creates a pus-filled swelling called a sty.

Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Identify the accessory structures of the eye, the structural components of the eyeball, and the neural pathway for vision.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.1 List and describe the accessory structures of the eye.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Vision 31) The space within the eye between the lens and the cornea is the anterior segment.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Identify the accessory structures of the eye, the structural components of the eyeball, and the neural pathway for vision.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.2 Describe the structural components of the eyeball.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Vision Question type: Multiple Choice

32) In bright light, impulses from a) parasympathetic neurons cause a constriction of the pupil due to contraction of the sphincter pupillae muscle fibers of the iris b) sympathetic neurons cause a constriction of the pupil due to contraction of the dilator pupillae muscle fibers of the iris c) parasympathetic neurons cause a constriction of the pupil due to contraction of the dilator pupillae muscle fibers of the iris d) sympathetic neurons cause a constriction of the pupil due to contraction of the sphinter pupillae muscle fibers of the iris Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Identify the accessory structures of the eye, the structural components of the eyeball, and the neural pathway for vision.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.2 Describe the structural components of the eyeball.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Vision 33) The bony labyrinth contains a) endolymph; the membranous labyrinth contains perilymph b) perilymph; the membranous labyrinth contains endolymph Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 21.4 Describe the anatomy of the ear, the events needed for hearing and equilibrium, and the neural pathways for both events.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.4.1 Describe the anatomy of the structures in the three principal regions of the ear.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.4 Hearing and Equilibrium Question type: Multiple Select 34) Sensory input from the vestibular apparatus is transmitted to which regions of the brain? a) cerebellum

b) hypothalamus c) medullar oblongata d) pons Answer: a, c, d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 21.4 Describe the anatomy of the ear, the events needed for hearing and equilibrium, and the neural pathways for both events.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.4.5 Identify the equilibrium pathway.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.4 Hearing and Equilibrium Question type: True/False 35) The vestibular apparatus consists of the organs responsible for hearing and equilibrium.

Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 21.4 Describe the anatomy of the ear, the events needed for hearing and equilibrium, and the neural pathways for both events.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.4.4 List the receptor organs for equilibrium, and describe how they function.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.4 Hearing and Equilibrium Question type: Multiple Choice 36) Identify the most common cause of blindness in the United States, which results from abnormal build-up of aqueous humor in the anterior cavity of the eye. a) age-related macular disease b) cataracts c) glaucoma d) presbyopia Answer: c Difficulty: Easy

Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Identify the accessory structures of the eye, the structural components of the eyeball, and the neural pathway for vision.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.2 Describe the structural components of the eyeball.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Vision 37) Which of the following produce the supporting epithelial cells for gustatory receptors? a) basal epithelial cells b) gustatory epithelial cells c) lingual papillae d) vallate papillae Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 21.2 Describe the gustatory receptors and the neural pathway for gustation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.2 Gustation: Sense of Taste Question type: Essay 38) Describe the various pathways for gustatory sensations from different regions of the oral cavity and pharynx to the primary gustatory cortex.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 21.2 Describe the gustatory receptors and the neural pathway for gustation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.2 Gustation: Sense of Taste Solution: 1. Facial (VII) nerve serves the anterior two-thirds of the tongue.

2. Glossopharyngeal (IX) nerve serves the posterior one-third of the tongue.

3. Vagus (X) nerve serves the pharynx and epiglottis.

All impulses arrive in the medulla, then project to the limbic system and hypothalamus or to the thalamus and thence to the primary gustatory cortex of the parietal lobe.

Question type: Multiple Choice

39) Choose the letter that has the individual layers of the wall of the eyeball, arranged from outermost to innermost layer. a) fibrous layer, vascular layer, retina b) vascular layer, retina, fibrous layer c) retina, fibrous layer, vascular layer d) retina, vascular layer, fibrous layer Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Identify the accessory structures of the eye, the structural components of the eyeball, and the neural pathway for vision.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.2 Describe the structural components of the eyeball.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Vision Question type: Essay 40) List the layers of cells in the neural portion of the retina in the order in which light passes through them. Compare this to the order of nerve impulses through the retina.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Identify the accessory structures of the eye, the structural components of the eyeball, and the neural pathway for vision.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.2 Describe the structural components of the eyeball.

Study Objective 3: SO 21.3.3 Outline the neural pathway for vision.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Vision Solution: See Anatomy of the Eyeball, Fig. 21.7, Microscopic structure of the retina 41) Summarize the events that occur as sound waves enter the external ear and are transmitted through the middle and inner ears to produce sensations of hearing. Accompany your summary with labeled sketches that illustrate the anatomical features in your answer.

Answer:

Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 21.4 Describe the anatomy of the ear, the events needed for hearing and equilibrium, and the neural pathways for both events.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.4.2 Explain the principal events involved in hearing.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.4 Hearing and Equilibrium Solution: See Mechanism of Hearing, Fig 21.14, Stimulation of auditory receptors in the right ear Question type: Multiple Select 42) A hair bundle in the ear consists of (Select all that apply.) a) an ampulla b) a kinocilium c) a macula d) stereocilia Answer: b, d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 21.4 Describe the anatomy of the ear, the events needed for hearing and equilibrium, and the neural pathways for both events.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.4.4 List the receptor organs for equilibrium, and describe how they function.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.4 Hearing and Equilibrium Question type: Multiple Choice 43) The olfactory (I) nerves terminate in these masses of gray matter which are located on the inferior surface of the brain, superior to the ethmoid bone. a) olfactory bipolar cells b) olfactory utricles c) olfactory bulbs d) olfactory maculae Answer: c

Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 21.1 Describe the structures and the neural pathway involved in olfaction.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.1.2 Outline the neural pathway for olfaction.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.1 Olfaction: Sense of Smell 44) The second-order neurons of the olfactory pathway are a) mitral cells b) olfactory cortex c) olfactory sensory neurons d) olfactory tract Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 21.1 Describe the structures and the neural pathway involved in olfaction.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.1.2 Outline the neural pathway for olfaction.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.1 Olfaction: Sense of Smell 45) The olfactory (I) nerves consist of approximately 40 bundles of axons of olfactory neurons that extend through foramina in the cribriform plate of the a) sphenoid bone b) ethmoid bone c) frontal bone d) temporal bone Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 21.1 Describe the structures and the neural pathway involved in olfaction.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.1.2 Outline the neural pathway for olfaction.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.1 Olfaction: Sense of Smell 46) The sense of taste is scientifically called

a) gustation b) olfaction c) deglutition d) tactition Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 21.2 Describe the gustatory receptors and the neural pathway for gustation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.2 Gustation: Sense of Taste Question type: True/False 47) The rough appearance of the upper surface of the tongue is due to the presence of numerous papillae.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 21.2 Describe the gustatory receptors and the neural pathway for gustation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.2 Gustation: Sense of Taste Question type: Multiple Choice 48) Lacrimal fluid contains water, mucus, salts, and a bactericidal enzyme called a) lysozyme b) cerumen c) perilymph d) endolymph Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension

Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Identify the accessory structures of the eye, the structural components of the eyeball, and the neural pathway for vision.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.1 List and describe the accessory structures of the eye.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Vision 49) In bright light, a) the sphincter pupillae muscle of the iris contracts, causing an increase in the size of the pupil b) the dilator pupillae muscle of the iris contracts, causing a decrease in the size of the pupil c) the ciliary muscle of the iris contracts, causing a decrease in the size of the pupil d) the sphincter pupillae muscle of the iris contracts, causing a decrease in the size of the pupil Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Identify the accessory structures of the eye, the structural components of the eyeball, and the neural pathway for vision.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.2 Describe the structural components of the eyeball.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Vision 50) Ciliary processes produce the a) aqueous humor of the eye b) lens of the eye c) retina of the eye d) vitreous humor of the eye Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Identify the accessory structures of the eye, the structural components of the eyeball, and the neural pathway for vision.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.2 Describe the structural components of the eyeball.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Vision 51) The elevation located in the medial commissure of the eye that contains sudoriferous (sweat) and sebaceous (oil) glands is called the a) tarsal plate

b) conjunctiva c) lacrimal caruncle d) lacrimal sac Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Identify the accessory structures of the eye, the structural components of the eyeball, and the neural pathway for vision.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.1 List and describe the accessory structures of the eye.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Vision 52) The macula contains a depression which contains only cone photoreceptors, called the a) scleral venous sinus b) choroid c) ciliary body d) fovea centralis Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Identify the accessory structures of the eye, the structural components of the eyeball, and the neural pathway for vision.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.2 Describe the structural components of the eyeball.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Vision Question type: Multiple Select 53) The auditory tube (Select all that apply.) a) connects the tympanic cavity with the nasopharynx b) consists of bone and elastic cartilage c) is normally closed at its lateral end d) opens during yawning to allow for air flow Answer: a, b, d Difficulty: Medium

Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 21.4 Describe the anatomy of the ear, the events needed for hearing and equilibrium, and the neural pathways for both events.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.4.1 Describe the anatomy of the structures in the three principal regions of the ear.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.4 Hearing and Equilibrium Question type: Multiple Choice 54) The complex series of canals known as the labyrinth makes up the a) internal (inner) ear b) middle ear c) external (outer) ear Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 21.4 Describe the anatomy of the ear, the events needed for hearing and equilibrium, and the neural pathways for both events.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.4.1 Describe the anatomy of the structures in the three principal regions of the ear.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.4 Hearing and Equilibrium 55) In the wall of the utricle and saccule, the gelatinous layer of the macula that rests on the hair cells contains calcium carbonate crystals called a) otoliths b) crystallins c) kinocilia d) stereocilia Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 21.4 Describe the anatomy of the ear, the events needed for hearing and equilibrium, and the neural pathways for both events.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.4.4 List the receptor organs for equilibrium, and describe how they function.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.4 Hearing and Equilibrium 56) The organs responsible for equilibrium are collectively known as the a) cochlear apparatus b) ciliary apparatus c) labyrinth apparatus d) vestibular apparatus Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 21.4 Describe the anatomy of the ear, the events needed for hearing and equilibrium, and the neural pathways for both events.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.4.4 List the receptor organs for equilibrium, and describe how they function.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.4 Hearing and Equilibrium 57) The structure indicated by the arrow is the

a) choroid b) pupil

c) retina d) sclera Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Identify the accessory structures of the eye, the structural components of the eyeball, and the neural pathway for vision.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.2 Describe the structural components of the eyeball.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Vision 58) The structure indicated by the arrow is the

a) choroid b) pupil c) retina d) sclera Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Identify the accessory structures of the eye, the structural components of the eyeball, and the neural pathway for vision.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.2 Describe the structural components of the eyeball.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Vision 59) The structure indicated by the arrow is the

a) choroid b) pupil c) retina d) sclera Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Identify the accessory structures of the eye, the structural components of the eyeball, and the neural pathway for vision.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.2 Describe the structural components of the eyeball.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Vision

60) The structure indicated by the arrow is the

a) cornea b) iris c) lens d) pupil Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Identify the accessory structures of the eye, the structural components of the eyeball, and the neural pathway for vision.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.2 Describe the structural components of the eyeball.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Vision

61) The structure indicated by the arrow is the

a) cornea b) iris c) lens d) pupil Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Identify the accessory structures of the eye, the structural components of the eyeball, and the neural pathway for vision.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.2 Describe the structural components of the eyeball.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Vision

62) The structure indicated by the arrow is the

a) cornea b) iris c) lens d) pupil Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Identify the accessory structures of the eye, the structural components of the eyeball, and the neural pathway for vision.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.2 Describe the structural components of the eyeball.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Vision

63) The structure indicated by the arrow is the

a) cornea b) iris c) lens d) pupil Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Identify the accessory structures of the eye, the structural components of the eyeball, and the neural pathway for vision.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.2 Describe the structural components of the eyeball.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Vision

64) The structure indicated by the arrow is the

a) ciliary process b) fovea centralis c) medial rectus muscle d) posterior segment Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Identify the accessory structures of the eye, the structural components of the eyeball, and the neural pathway for vision.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.2 Describe the structural components of the eyeball.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Vision

65) The structure indicated by the arrow is the

a) ciliary process b) fovea centralis c) medial rectus muscle d) posterior segment Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Identify the accessory structures of the eye, the structural components of the eyeball, and the neural pathway for vision.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.2 Describe the structural components of the eyeball.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Vision

66) The structure indicated by the arrow is the

a) incus b) malleus c) semicircular canal d) stapes Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 21.4 Describe the anatomy of the ear, the events needed for hearing and equilibrium, and the neural pathways for both events.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.4.1 Describe the anatomy of the structures in the three principal regions of the ear.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.4 Hearing and Equilibrium

67) The structure indicated by the arrow is the

a) incus b) malleus c) semicircular canal d) stapes Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 21.4 Describe the anatomy of the ear, the events needed for hearing and equilibrium, and the neural pathways for both events.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.4.1 Describe the anatomy of the structures in the three principal regions of the ear.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.4 Hearing and Equilibrium

68) The structure indicated by the arrow is the

a) incus b) malleus c) semicircular canal d) stapes Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 21.4 Describe the anatomy of the ear, the events needed for hearing and equilibrium, and the neural pathways for both events.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.4.1 Describe the anatomy of the structures in the three principal regions of the ear.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.4 Hearing and Equilibrium

69) The structure indicated by the arrow is the

a) incus b) malleus c) semicircular duct d) stapes Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 21.4 Describe the anatomy of the ear, the events needed for hearing and equilibrium, and the neural pathways for both events.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.4.1 Describe the anatomy of the structures in the three principal regions of the ear.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.4 Hearing and Equilibrium

70) The structure indicated by the arrow is the

a) cochlea b) cochlear duct c) saccule d) utricle Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 21.4 Describe the anatomy of the ear, the events needed for hearing and equilibrium, and the neural pathways for both events.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.4.1 Describe the anatomy of the structures in the three principal regions of the ear.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.4 Hearing and Equilibrium

71) The structure indicated by the arrow is the

a) cochlea b) cochlear duct c) saccule d) utricle Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 21.4 Describe the anatomy of the ear, the events needed for hearing and equilibrium, and the neural pathways for both events.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.4.1 Describe the anatomy of the structures in the three principal regions of the ear.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.4 Hearing and Equilibrium

72) The structure indicated by the arrow is the

a) cochlear b) cochlear duct c) cochlear window d) semicircular canal Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 21.4 Describe the anatomy of the ear, the events needed for hearing and equilibrium, and the neural pathways for both events.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.4.1 Describe the anatomy of the structures in the three principal regions of the ear.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.4 Hearing and Equilibrium

73) The structure indicated by the arrow is the

a) cochlea b) cochlear window c) saccule d) vestibular window Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 21.4 Describe the anatomy of the ear, the events needed for hearing and equilibrium, and the neural pathways for both events.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.4.1 Describe the anatomy of the structures in the three principal regions of the ear.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.4 Hearing and Equilibrium

74) The structure indicated by the arrow is the

a) cochlea b) cochlear duct c) saccule d) utricle Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 21.4 Describe the anatomy of the ear, the events needed for hearing and equilibrium, and the neural pathways for both events.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.4.1 Describe the anatomy of the structures in the three principal regions of the ear.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.4 Hearing and Equilibrium

75) The structure indicated by the arrow is the

a) cochlea b) cochlear duct c) saccule d) utricle Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 21.4 Describe the anatomy of the ear, the events needed for hearing and equilibrium, and the neural pathways for both events.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.4.1 Describe the anatomy of the structures in the three principal regions of the ear.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.4 Hearing and Equilibrium 76) James views a beautiful piece of artwork. Choose the correct sequence as his visual impulses follow the pathway into the brain.

1. occipital lobe 2. optic nerve 3. optic radiations 4. optic tract 5. retina

a) 2, 3, 5, 4, 1 b) 3, 5, 4, 1, 2 c) 4, 5, 2, 1, 3 d) 5, 2, 4, 3, 1 Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Identify the accessory structures of the eye, the structural components of the eyeball, and the neural pathway for vision.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.3 Outline the neural pathway for vision.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Vision Question type: Multiple Select 77) Select the locations where axons from the cochlear nuclei terminate. (Select all that apply.) a) inferior colliculus of the midbrain b) medial geniculate nucleus of the thalamus c) primary auditory cortex of the cerebral cortex d) superior olivary nucleus of the pons Answer: a, d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 21.4 Describe the anatomy of the ear, the events needed for hearing and equilibrium, and the neural pathways for both events.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.4.3 Outline the auditory pathway.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.4 Hearing and Equilibrium Question type: Multiple Choice 78) The optic grooves arise from the a) ectoderm b) endoderm c) mesoderm

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 21.5 Describe the development of the eyes and ears.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.5 Development of the Eyes and Ears 79) The internal ear develops first as a thickening of the surface ectoderm known as the a) otic pits b) otic placodes c) otic vesicles d) pharyngeal pouch Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 21.5 Describe the development of the eyes and ears.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.5 Development of the Eyes and Ears 80) The tympanic cavity develops from the a) otic pits b) otic vesicles c) pharyngeal grooves d) pharyngeal pouch Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 21.5 Describe the development of the eyes and ears.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.5 Development of the Eyes and Ears 81) As Daniel ages, he loses some elasticity in the lens of his eye. This results in a) cataracts b) detached retina c) glaucoma d) presbyopia

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 21.6 Describe the age-related changes of the eyes and the ears.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.6 Aging and the Special Senses 82) All of the following are changes that can occur to the eye with aging except a) the iris fades b) the lens loses some of its elasticity c) the pupils become smaller d) the sclera becomes thin and flimsy Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 21.6 Describe the age-related changes of the eyes and the ears.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.6 Aging and the Special Senses 83) Ringing in the ears may become more common with age. This ringing is called a) otitis externa b) otitis media c) presbycusis d) tinnitus Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 21.6 Describe the age-related changes of the eyes and the ears.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.6 Aging and the Special Senses 84) Maria has been on steroids for an extended period of time due to a medical condition. This may lead to a) age-related macular disease causing dysfunction of the retina b) clouding of the lens leading to cataracts

c) glaucoma due to obstructed blood vessels d) loss of elasticity in the lens leading to presbyopia Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 21.3 Identify the accessory structures of the eye, the structural components of the eyeball, and the neural pathway for vision.

Study Objective 2: SO 21.3.2 Describe the structural components of the eyeball.

Section Reference 1: Sec 21.3 Vision

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pha15 Chapter Number: 22 Question type: Multiple Choice 1) Which of the following is a space or fluid in which you would NOT expect to find a hormone? a) blood plasma b) interstitial fluid c) duct d) capillaries Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 22.1 Distinguish between exocrine glands and endocrine glands.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.1 Endocrine Glands Defined 2) The ability of a hormone to affect the activities of a particular cell depends on that cell having specific receptors with which the hormone molecules can bind. The number of receptors present in a target cell is a constant, invariable number. a) Both statements are true. b) Both statements are false. c) The first statement is true; the second is false. d) The second statement is true; the first is false.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 22.2 Describe how hormones interact with target-cell receptors.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.2 Hormones 3) Which of the following hormones has the ovaries and testes as its target tissue? a) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) b) relaxin (RLX) c) inhibin d) progesterone

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 22.3 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the hypothalamus and pituitary gland.

Study Objective 2: SO 22.3.2 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the anterior pituitary.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland 4) The part of the brain that is the main link between the nervous system and the endocrine system is the a) thalamus due to its control over secretory activities of the pituitary gland. b) hypothalamus due to its control over secretory activities of the thyroid gland. c) brainstem due to its control over secretory activities of the thyroid gland. d) hypothalamus due to its control over secretory activities of the pituitary gland.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 22.3 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the hypothalamus and pituitary gland.

Study Objective 2: SO 22.3.1 Explain why the hypothalamus is classified as an endocrine gland.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland 5) The hypophyseal portal veins a) supply blood to the primary plexus capillaries in the base of the hypothalamus. b) carry hypothalamic hormones to the anterior pituitary. c) receive anterior pituitary hormones as they are secreted. d) receive posterior pituitary hormones via the plexus of the infundibular process.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 22.3 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the hypothalamus and pituitary gland.

Study Objective 2: SO 22.3.1 Explain why the hypothalamus is classified as an endocrine gland.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland

6) Which of the following are NOT direct targets of anterior pituitary hormones? a) mammary glands b) kidneys c) thyroid gland d) adrenal cortex Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 22.3 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the hypothalamus and pituitary gland.

Study Objective 2: SO 22.3.2 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the anterior pituitary.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland 7) The two lobes of the thyroid gland are joined by a mass of tissue called the a) isthmus. b) parathyroid. c) infundibulum. d) follicle.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 22.5 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid and parathyroid glands.

Study Objective 2: SO 22.5.1 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid gland.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.5 Thyroid Gland and Parathyroid Glands 8) Thyroxine (T4) is a hormone that a) is produced by parafollicular cells (C thyrocytes). b) is secreted along with T3 into the follicles of the thyroid gland. c) is also known as triiodothyronine. d) causes myxedema when produced in excess.

Answer: b

Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 22.5 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid and parathyroid glands.

Study Objective 2: SO 22.5.1 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid gland.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.5Thyroid Gland and parathyroid glands 9) Which of the following is a suprarenal (adrenal) gland hormone that is essential for life? a) aldosterone b) norepinephrine (NE) c) insulin d) epinephrine Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 22.6 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the adrenal glands.

Study Objective 2: SO 22.6.1 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the suprarenal cortex.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.6 Suprarenal (Adrenal) Glands 10) Which of the following pairs of terms is INCORRECTLY matched? a) insulin; secreted by beta cells b) glucagon; secreted by alpha cells c) somatostatin; secreted by delta cells d) pancreatic polypeptide; inhibits secretion of insulin and glucagon Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 22.7 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the pancreas.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.7 Pancreas 11) Estrogens are produced by cells in the 1. ovaries.

2. placenta.

3. adrenal cortex. a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) both 1 and 2 Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 22.8 Describe the location, hormones, and endocrine functions of the male and female gonads.

Study Objective 2: SO 22.9 Outline the functions of the hormones secreted by cells in tissues and organs other than endocrine glands.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.8 Ovaries and Testes Section Reference 2: Sec 22.9 Other Endocrine Tissues 12) The hormone inhibin is produced by the: 1. ovaries.

2. testes.

3. pancreas. a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) both 1 and 2.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 22.8 Describe the location, hormones, and endocrine functions of the male and female gonads.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.8 Ovaries and Testes 13) Which of the following are NOT a part of the pancreatic islets (islets of Langerhans)? a) acini b) alpha cells c) beta cells d) delta cells

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 22.7 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the pancreas.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.7 Pancreas 14) The hormone that functions to promote development and maintenance of male secondary sex characteristics is a) follicle-stimulating hormone. b) testosterone. c) luteinizing hormone. d) human growth hormone.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 22.8 Describe the location, hormones, and endocrine functions of the male and female gonads.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.8 Ovaries and Testes 15) The endocrine gland that produces hormones that mediate the proliferation and maturation of T cells of the immune system is the a) pancreas. b) pineal. c) thymus. d) thyroid.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 22.4 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the pineal gland and the role of the thymus in immunity.

Study Objective 2: SO 22.4.2 Describe the role of the thymus in immunity.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.4 Pineal Gland and Thymus 16) The following gland arises from ectoderm

a) thyroid. b) pancreas. c) thymus. d) suprarenal (adrenal) medulla.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 22.10 Describe the development of endocrine glands.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.10 Development of the Endocrine System 17) “Tired OR Wired” can be thought of as a quick reference to thyroid gland dysfunctions.

Thyroid gland disturbances will directly affect which homeostatic condition? a) sodium levels b) levels of circulating corticosteroids c) metabolic rate d) maturation of T lymphocytes Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 22.5 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid and parathyroid glands.

Study Objective 2: SO 22.5.1 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid gland.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.5 Thyroid Gland and Parathyroid Glands 18) A basilar skull fracture which injures the hypophyseal fossa (seat of the sella turcica) of the sphenoid bone will directly affect the release of a) antidiuretic hormone (ADH) also called vasopressin. b) calcitonin. c) aldosterone. d) estrogen.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 22.3 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the hypothalamus and pituitary gland.

Study Objective 2: SO 22.3.3 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the posterior pituitary.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland 19) Which endocrine gland is part of the epithalamus? a) pituitary b) hypothalamus c) pineal d) thymus Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 22.4 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the pineal gland and the role of the thymus in immunity.

Study Objective 2: SO 22.4.1 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the pineal gland.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.4 Pineal Gland and Thymus 20) Alpha and beta cells in the endocrine portion of the pancreas 1. can be found in the pancreatic islets (islets of Langerhans) 2. secrete their hormones into the pancreatic duct 3. secrete hormones that regulate calcium levels in the body 4. are responsible for maintaining homeostatic levels of glucose 5. aid in the production of enzymes used for protein digestion a) 1 and 2 b) 2, 3 and 5 c) 4 only d) 1 and 4 Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 22.7 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the pancreas.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.7 Pancreas 21) Which endocrine gland receives its blood supply from suprarenal arteries?

a) thymus b) ovary c) suprarenal (adrenal) d) testicle Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 22.6 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the adrenal glands.

Study Objective 2: SO 22.6.1 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the suprarenal cortex.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.6 Suprarenal (Adrenal) Glands Question type: True/False 22) The nervous system responds to change very quickly, but an individual response is very brief; whereas, the endocrine system's response takes longer to take effect, but it lasts for a longer period of time.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 22.1 Distinguish between exocrine glands and endocrine glands.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.1 Endocrine Glands Defined 23) The quantity of hormone produced by an endocrine gland varies, but the number of receptors on its target tissues remains stable.

Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 22.2 Describe how hormones interact with target-cell receptors.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.2 Hormones Question type: Multiple Choice 24) The anterior and posterior regions of the pituitary gland (hypophysis) both develop from

a) ectoderm. b) endoderm. c) mesoderm.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 22.10 Describe the development of endocrine glands.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.10 Development of the Endocrine System 25) The type of cell that makes up most of the volume of a normal parathyroid gland and is primarily responsible for producing parathyroid hormone (PTH) is a(n) a) alpha cell. b) chief cell. c) follicular cell. d) oxyphil cell.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 22.5 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid and parathyroid glands.

Study Objective 2: SO 22.5.2 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the parathyroid glands.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.5 Thyroid Gland and Parathyroid Glands Question type: True/False 26) The parafollicular cells (C thyrocytes) of the thyroid gland produce thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH).

Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 22.5 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid and parathyroid glands.

Study Objective 2: SO 22.5.1 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid gland.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.5 Thyroid Gland and Parathyroid Glands 27) Cortisol, the main glucocorticoid from the zona fasciculata, depresses the immune response and inflammation.

Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 22.6 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the adrenal glands.

Study Objective 2: SO 22.6.1 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the suprarenal cortex.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.6 Suprarenal (Adrenal) Glands 28) Hormones of the suprarenal medulla help prolong the fight-or-flight response (sympathetic part of the autonomic division of the peripheral nervous system).

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 22.6 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the adrenal glands.

Study Objective 2: SO 22.6.2 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the suprarenal medulla.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.6 Suprarenal (Adrenal) Glands Question type: Multiple Select 29) Endocrine portions of the pancreas are (Select all that apply.) a) acini. b) alpha cells. c) beta cells. d) delta cells.

Answer: b, c, d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension

Study Objective 1: SO 22.7 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the pancreas.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.7 Pancreas Question type: Multiple Choice 30) Thymosin and other thymic hormones influence the maturation of which type of cell in the thymus gland? a) B-cells (B-lymphocytes) b) eosinophils c) monocytes d) T-cells (T-lymphocytes) Answer : d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 22.4 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the pineal gland and the role of the thymus in immunity.

Study Objective 2: SO 22.4.2 Describe the role of the thymus in immunity.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.4 Pineal Gland and thymus Question type: True/False 31) The pituitary (hypophysis) and suprarenal glands are similar in that each gland has two distinct regions: one that develops from ectoderm, and one that develops from endoderm.

Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 22.10 Describe the development of endocrine glands.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.10 Development of the Endocrine System Question type: Essay 32) List the five different types of secretory cells in the anterior pituitary (adenohypophysis) together with the names of the hormones secreted by each.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 22.3 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the hypothalamus and pituitary gland.

Study Objective 2: SO 22.3.2 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the anterior pituitary.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland Solution: 1. somatotrophs-hGH 2. Prolactin cell-PRL 3. corticotrophs-ACTH and MSH 4. thyrotrophs-TSH 5. gonadotrophs-FSH and LH Question type: Multiple Choice 33) An anterior pituitary hormone that influences the activity of another endocrine gland is a(n) a) activating hormone. b) inhibiting hormone. c) releasing hormone. d) tropic hormone.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 22.3 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the hypothalamus and pituitary gland.

Study Objective 2: SO 22.3.2 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the anterior pituitary.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland Question type: Essay 34) Name the cells that are responsible for producing the hormones of the posterior pituitary (neurohypophysis). Name the hormones together with their target tissues.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium

Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 22.3 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the hypothalamus and pituitary gland.

Study Objective 2: SO 22.3.3 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the posterior pituitary.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland Solution: Posterior pituitary hormones are produced by the neurosecretory cells in the paraventricular and supraoptic nuclei of the hypothalamus. The axons of these cells form the hypothalamohypophyseal tract, which carries the hormones into the posterior pituitary where they are stored in vesicles in the axon terminals. The two hormones and their target tissues are: OT (uterus and mammary glands), and ADH (kidneys).

35) Name the secretory cells of the thyroid gland, describe their location, list the hormones produced, and state the target cells of the hormones.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 22.5 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid and parathyroid glands.

Study Objective 2: SO 22.5.1 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid gland.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.5 Thyroid Gland and Parathyroid Glands Solution: Follicular cells in the walls of the follicles produce thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), which affect metabolism in almost all body cells. Parafollicular cells (C cells) in the outer regions of the follicle walls, or between follicles, produce calcitonin which helps lower blood calcium levels by inhibiting bone osteoclasts resorption.

Question type: Multiple Choice 36) Which of the following is the major integrating link between the nervous and endocrine systems? a) hypothalamus b) anterior pituitary c) thalamus d) pineal e) posterior pituitary Answer: a Difficulty: Easy

Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 22.3 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the hypothalamus and pituitary gland.

Study Objective 2: SO 22.3.1 Explain why the hypothalamus is classified as an endocrine gland.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland 37) Hormones affect a target cell by binding to what on the cell membrane or in its interior? a) specific carbohydrates b) specific cholesterols c) specific lipids d) specific receptors Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 22.2 Describe how hormones interact with target-cell receptors.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.2 Hormones 38) The infundibulum attaches the a) anterior pituitary to the posterior pituitary. b) pituitary gland to the thalamus. c) hypothalamus to the pituitary gland. d) posterior pituitary to the pineal gland. e) thyroid gland to the parathyroid gland.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 22.3 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the hypothalamus and pituitary gland.

Study Objective 2: SO 22.3.1 Explain why the hypothalamus is classified as an endocrine gland.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland 39) The pituitary gland consists of two anatomically and functionally separate portions; the smaller a) posterior pituitary is composed of glandular tissue. b) posterior pituitary is composed of neural tissue. c) anterior pituitary is composed of glandular tissue.

d) anterior pituitary is composed of neural tissue.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 22.3 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the hypothalamus and pituitary gland.

Study Objective 2: SO 22.3.3 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the posterior pituitary.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland 40) Hypothalamic hormones travel via the primary plexus, the hypophyseal portal veins, and the secondary plexus, where they diffuse into the a) anterior pituitary. b) posterior pituitary. c) neurohypophysis. d) thalamus.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 22.3 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the hypothalamus and pituitary gland.

Study Objective 2: SO 22.3.1 Explain why the hypothalamus is classified as an endocrine gland.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland 41) Parafollicular cells (C thyrocytes) of the thyroid gland produce the hormone a) parathormone which helps to regulate potassium levels in the blood. b) calcitonin which helps to regulate sodium levels in the blood. c) calcitonin which helps to regulate calcium levels in the blood. d) PTH which helps to regulate calcium levels in the blood.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 22.5 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid and parathyroid glands.

Study Objective 2: SO 22.5.1 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid gland.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.5 Thyroid Gland and Parathyroid Glands 42) Thyroid hormones (T3 and T4) are produced by a) parafollicular cells (C cells). b) chief (principal) cells. c) follicular cells. d) oxyphil cells.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 22.5 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid and parathyroid glands.

Study Objective 2: SO 22.5.1 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid gland.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.5 Thyroid Gland and Parathyroid Glands Question type: True/False 43) Parathyroid hormone (Parathormone) is produced by the follicular cells of the parathyroid gland.

Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 22.5 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid and parathyroid glands.

Study Objective 2: SO 22.5.2 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the parathyroid glands.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.5 Thyroid Gland and Parathyroid Glands Question type: Multiple Choice 44) The suprarenal (adrenal) gland functions as two separate endocrine glands: the suprarenal cortex and the suprarenal medulla. Which one’s effects mimic the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system? a) suprarenal medulla

b) suprarenal cortex Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 22.6 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the adrenal glands.

Study Objective 2: SO 22.6.2 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the suprarenal medulla.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.6 Suprarenal (Adrenal) Glands 45) Hormones that regulate sodium and potassium levels in the blood are secreted by the which region of the suprarenal cortex? a) zona reticularis b) zona fasciculata c) medullary zone d) zona glomerulosa Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 22.6 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the adrenal glands.

Study Objective 2: SO 22.6.1 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the suprarenal cortex.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.6 Suprarenal (Adrenal) Glands 46) Cells of the suprarenal (adrenal) gland that have the same embryonic origin as all sympathetic postganglionic neurons are a) follicular cells. b) medullary cells. c) chief (principal) cells. d) chromaffin cells.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 22.6 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the adrenal glands.

Study Objective 2: SO 22.6.2 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the suprarenal medulla.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.6 Suprarenal (Adrenal) Glands Question type: Multiple Select 47) Which of the following contributes to osteoporosis? Select all that apply. a) decrease in calcitonin b) increase in calcitonin c) decrease in PTH d) increase in PTH Answer: a, d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 22.11 Describe the effects of aging on the endocrine system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.11 Aging and the Endocrine System 48) The two hormones produced by the testes are (Select all that apply.) a) inhibin. b) relaxin. c) somatostatin. d) testosterone.

Answer: a, d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 22.8 Describe the location, hormones, and endocrine functions of the male and female gonads.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.8 Ovaries and Testes Question type: Multiple Choice 49) The pineal gland is located near the roof of the a) third ventricle of the brain. b) lateral ventricle of the brain.

c) second ventricle of the brain. d) fourth ventricle of the brain.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 22.4 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the pineal gland and the role of the thymus in immunity.

Study Objective 2: SO 22.4.1 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the pineal gland.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.4 Pineal Gland and Thymus 50) The pineal gland hormone that helps regulate the body's biological clock is a) TSH. b) thryroxine. c) melanin. d) melatonin.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 22.4 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the pineal gland and the role of the thymus in immunity.

Study Objective 2: SO 22.4.1 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the pineal gland.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.4 Pineal Gland and thymus 51) Milk production in the mammary glands is initiated by a) prolactin (PRL). b) relaxin. c) inhibin. d) antidiuretic hormone (ADH).

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 22.3 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the hypothalamus and pituitary gland.

Study Objective 2: SO 22.3.2 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the anterior pituitary.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland 52) Calcitonin is secreted by a) acini. b) beta cells. c) follicular cells. d) parafollicular cells.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 22.5 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid and parathyroid glands.

Study Objective 2: SO 22.5.1 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid gland.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.5 Thyroid Gland and Parathyroid Glands 53) Somatotrophs are cells located in the a) posterior pituitary which secrete oxytocin (OT). b) anterior pituitary which secrete thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH). c) hypothalamus which secrete adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). d) anterior pituitary which secrete human growth hormone (hGH).

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 22.3 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the hypothalamus and pituitary gland.

Study Objective 2: SO 22.3.2 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the anterior pituitary.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland 54) Parafollicular (C cells) cells secrete a) parathyroid hormone (PTH) and are located in the parathyroid gland. b) antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and are located in the suprarenal gland. c) calcitonin and are located in the thyroid gland.

d) thyroxine (T4) and are located in the pituitary gland.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 22.5 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid and parathyroid glands.

Study Objective 2: SO 22.5.1 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid gland.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.5 Thyroid Gland and Parathyroid Glands 55) Which cells secrete epinephrine and norepinephrine (NE)? a) follicular b) parafollicular c) chromaffin d) beta Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 22.6 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the adrenal glands.

Study Objective 2: SO 22.6.2 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the suprarenal medulla.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.6 Suprarenal (Adrenal) Glands 56) Thyrotrophs secrete TSH, the hormone that controls the a) suprarenal cortex. b) parathyroid gland. c) thymus gland. d) thyroid gland.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 22.3 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the hypothalamus and pituitary gland.

Study Objective 2: SO 22.3.2 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the anterior pituitary.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland 57) The cells that secrete follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) are a) gonadotrophs. b) delta cells. c) acini. d) islets.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 22.3 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the hypothalamus and pituitary gland.

Study Objective 2: SO 22.3.2 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the anterior pituitary.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland 58) In the pancreas, alpha cells secrete a) pancreatic juice. b) T4. c) insulin. d) glucagon.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 22.7 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the pancreas.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.7 Pancreas 59) In the suprarenal cortex, zona glomerulosa cells secrete a) androgens. b) calcitonin. c) cortisol. d) aldosterone.

Answer: d

Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 22.6 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the adrenal glands.

Study Objective 2: SO 22.6.1 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the suprarenal cortex.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.6 Suprarenal (Adrenal) Glands 60) In the pancreas, beta cell secrete a) glucagon. b) insulin. c) pancreatic polypeptide. d) somatostatin.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 22.7 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the pancreas.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.7 Pancreas 61) Adipose cells secrete a) gastrin which functions to increase appetite. b) GIP which functions to increase appetite. c) leptin which functions to suppress appetite. d) renin which functions to suppress appetite.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 22.9 Outline the functions of the hormones secreted by cells in tissues and organs other than endocrine glands.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.9 Other Endocrine Tissues

62) What is the name of the endocrine gland indicated by the arrow?

a) pituitary b) pancreas c) thymus d) thyroid Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 22.4 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the pineal gland and the role of the thymus in immunity.

Study Objective 2: SO 22.4.2 Describe the role of the thymus in immunity.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.4 Pineal Gland and Thymus

63) The arrows are pointing to which of the following?

a) superior hypophyseal artery b) hypophyseal portal veins c) inferior hypophyseal artery d) posterior hypophyseal veins Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 22.3 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the hypothalamus and pituitary gland.

Study Objective 2: SO 22.3.1 Explain why the hypothalamus is classified as an endocrine gland.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland

64) The arrow is pointing to which structure?

a) paraventricular nucleus b) supraoptic nucleus c) infundibular venous plexus d) axons of neurosecretory cells Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 22.3 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the hypothalamus and pituitary gland.

Study Objective 2: SO 22.3.3 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the posterior pituitary.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland

65) What is the endocrine gland labeled with the arrow?

a) pituitary b) thymus c) pancreas d) thyroid Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 22.5 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid and parathyroid glands.

Study Objective 2: SO 22.5.1 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid gland.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.5 Thyroid Gland and Parathyroid Glands

66) What is the endocrine gland labeled with the arrow?

a) suprarenal gland b) pineal gland c) thymus d) testis Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 22.6 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the adrenal glands.

Study Objective 2: SO 22.6.1 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the adrenal cortex.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.6 Adrenal Glands Question type: Multiple Select 67) Aging in the suprarenal glands causes (Select all that apply.) a) decreased production of aldosterone. b) decreased production of cortisol. c) decreased production of epinephrine. d) decreased production of norepinephrine.

Answer: a, b

Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 22.11 Describe the effects of aging on the endocrine system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.11 Aging and the Endocrine System Question type: True/False 68) Exocrine glands release their secretions into ducts, lumen of an organ, and blood vessels.

Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 22.1 Distinguish between exocrine glands and endocrine glands.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.1 Endocrine Glands Defined Question type: Multiple Choice 69) If hormone levels are low, the plasma membrane of a target cell will a) decrease the number of receptors in its membrane. b) increase the number of receptors in its membrane.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 22.2 Describe how hormones interact with target-cell receptors.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.2 Hormones Question type: True/False 70) Seasonal affective disorder (SAD) is thought to be due to the underproduction and/or release of melatonin from the pineal gland.

Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application

Study Objective 1: SO 22.4 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the pineal and the role of the thymus in immunity.

Study Objective 2: SO 22.4.1 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the pineal gland.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.4 Pineal Gland and Thymus Question Type: Multiple Choice 71) Parathyroid hormone (PTH) release affects target cells in which two organs? a) thymus and thyroid b) bone and kidney c) liver and brain d) pancreas and thyroid Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 22.5 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid and parathyroid glands.

Study Objective 2: SO 22.5.2 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the parathyroid glands.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.5 Thyroid Gland and Parathyroid Glands 72) All of the following are correct regarding the endocrine and nervous systems EXCEPT a) nervous system actions take place within milliseconds; the endocrine system actions take seconds to days. b) neurotransmitters are released locally; hormones are transported through the blood. c) nervous system target cells are muscles, gland, and neurons; endocrine target cells can be any cell in the body. d) duration of action for the nervous system is long-term; duration of action for the endocrine system is short-term.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 22.2 Describe how hormones interact with target-cell receptors.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.2 Hormones

73) Secretin and cholecystokinin target which abdominopelvic gland? a) spleen b) pancreas c) gallbladder d) small intestine Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 22.9 Outline the functions of the hormones secreted by cells in tissues and organs other than endocrine glands.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.9 Other Endocrine Tissues 74) All of the following hormone levels decline with age EXCEPT a) human growth hormone. b) thyroid stimulating hormone. c) calcitonin. d) estrogen.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 22.11 Describe the effects of aging on the endocrine system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.11 Aging and the Endocrine System 75) Which cell of the pituitary gland releases hormones that target the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex? a) somatotroph b) thyrotroph c) gonadotroph d) lactotroph e) corticotroph Answer: e Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 22.3 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the hypothalamus and pituitary gland.

Study Objective 2: SO 22.6 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the adrenal glands.

Study Objective 3: 22.6.1 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the suprarenal cortex.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland Section Reference 2: Sec 22.6 Suprarenal (Adrenal) Glands 76) Which of the following forms a sheath around the infundibular stalk? a) pars distalis b) pars nervosa c) pars tuberalis Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 22.3 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the hypothalamus and pituitary gland.

Study Objective 2: SO 22.3.2 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the anterior pituitary.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland 77) Growth hormone stimulates tissues to produce a) estrogen. b) IGF’s. c) melatonin. d) renin.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 22.3 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the hypothalamus and pituitary gland.

Study Objective 2: SO 22.3.2 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the anterior pituitary.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland 78) Dipika’s cortisol levels are low. The levels of which hormone will rise to stimulate the suprarenal cortex to release cortisol?

a) adrenocorticotropic hormone b) follicle-stimulating hormone c) growth hormone d) prolactin Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 22.3 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the hypothalamus and pituitary gland.

Study Objective 2: SO 22.3.2 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the anterior pituitary.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland 79) Acromegaly is caused by hypersecretion of a) adrenocorticotropic hormone. b) follicle-stimulating hormone. c) growth hormone. d) prolactin.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 22.3 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the hypothalamus and pituitary gland.

Study Objective 2: SO 22.3.2 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the anterior pituitary.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland 80) ADH a) decreases urine volume. b) increases urine volume.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 22.3 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the hypothalamus and pituitary gland.

Study Objective 2: SO 22.3.3 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the posterior pituitary.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland Question type: Multiple Select 81) Target cells for oxytocin are in the (Select all that apply.) a) breasts. b) fallopian tubes. c) ovaries. d) uterus.

Answer: a, d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 22.3 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the hypothalamus and pituitary gland.

Study Objective 2: SO 22.3.3 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the posterior pituitary.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.3 Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland 82) Thyroid hormones include (Select all that apply.) a) calcitonin. b) tetraiodothyronine. c) triiodothyronine. d) TSH. Answer: a, b, c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 22.5 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid and parathyroid glands.

Study Objective 2: SO 22.5.1 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid gland.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.5 Thyroid Gland and Parathyroid Glands 83) PTH (Select all that apply.)

a) decreases blood Ca2+. b) increases blood Ca2+. c) decreases blood Mg2+. d) increases blood Mg2+.

Answer: b, d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 22.5 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid and parathyroid glands.

Study Objective 2: SO 22.5.2 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the parathyroid glands.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.5 Thyroid Gland and Parathyroid Glands 84) Which of the following are functions of the parathyroid glands? Select all that apply. a) decrease blood HPO42b) decreases blood Ca2+ c) promote formation of the active form of Vitamin D d) promote formation of the active form of Vitamin K Answer: a, d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 22.5 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid and parathyroid glands.

Study Objective 2: SO 22.5.2 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the parathyroid glands.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.5 Thyroid Gland and Parathyroid Glands Question type: Multiple Choice 85) Autoimmune hyperthyroidism is a) Cushing’s syndrome. b) Hashimoto’s disease. c) Graves disease. d) myxedema.

Answer: c

Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 22.5 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid and parathyroid glands.

Study Objective 2: SO 22.5.1 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the thyroid gland.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.5 Thyroid Gland and Parathyroid Glands 86) Michael is experiencing mental lethargy, anorexia, hypoglycemia, and muscle weakness.

Blood tests reveal decreased sodium levels and increased potassium levels. It is discovered that he has antibodies attacking the suprarenal cortex. Michael will likely be diagnosed with a) Addison’s disease. b) Cushing’s syndrome. c) Graves disease. d) pheochromocytoma.

Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Evaluation Study Objective 1: SO 22.6 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the adrenal glands.

Study Objective 2: SO 22.6.1 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the suprarenal cortex.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.6 Suprarenal (Adrenal) Glands 87) Maylin has been working a long shift and had to skip lunch. Her glucose levels are low.

Which hormone will help her body convert glycogen into glucose to help give her the energy needed to finish work? a) glucagon b) insulin c) pancreatic polypeptide d) somatostatin Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 22.7 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the pancreas.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.7 Pancreas

88) Patients with diabetes mellitus will have hyperglycemia due to insufficient levels of which hormone? a) glucagon b) insulin c) pancreatic polypeptide d) somatostatin Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 22.7 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the pancreas.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.7 Pancreas 89) Which type of diabetes mellitus is referred to as non-insulin-dependent diabetes? a) Type 1 b) Type 2 Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 22.7 Describe the location, histology, hormones, and functions of the pancreas.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.7 Pancreas 90) A hormone secreted by the kidney that helps to raise blood pressure is a) atrial natriuretic peptide. b) erythropoietin. c) renin. d) secretin.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 22.9 Outline the functions of the hormones secreted by cells in tissues and organs other than endocrine glands.

Section Reference 1: Sec 22.9 Other Endocrine Tissues

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pha15 Chapter Number: 23 Question type: Multiple Choice 1) The portions of the respiratory system that are capable of gas exchange include all of the following EXCEPT a) respiratory bronchioles b) alveolar ducts c) pulmonary alveoli d) trachea Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 23.3 Explain how the structure and functions of the larynx, trachea, and bronchi make breathing possible.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.3.5 Explain how the anatomy of the lungs makes breathing possible.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Lower Respiratory System Anatomy 2) The upper respiratory system includes all of the following EXCEPT a) choanae b) nose c) pharynx d) trachea Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 23.2 Describe the structure and function of the nose and pharynx.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.2.1 Describe the anatomy and histology of the nose.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.2 Upper Respiratory System Anatomy 3) The floor of the nasal cavity a) is formed by the hard palate. b) separates the internal nose from the external nose.

c) is formed entirely by the palatine processes of the maxillae. d) is also called the nasal septum.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 23.2 Describe the structure and function of the nose and pharynx.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.2.1 Describe the anatomy and histology of the nose.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.2 Upper Respiratory System Anatomy 4) Which of the following does NOT form part of the nasal septum? a) cartilage b) vomer c) perpendicular plate of ethmoid d) inferior nasal conchae Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 23.2 Describe the structure and function of the nose and pharynx.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.2.1 Describe the anatomy and histology of the nose.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.2 Upper Respiratory System Anatomy 5) Functions of the nose include 1. olfactory (smell) reception 2. resonance of speech sounds 3. filtration of incoming air 4. warming of incoming air 5. moistening of incoming air a) 1, 3, 4 only b) 3, 4, 5 only c) 1, 3, 4, 5 only d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 23.2 Describe the structure and function of the nose and pharynx.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.2.1 Describe the anatomy and histology of the nose.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.2 Upper Respiratory System Anatomy 6) Olfactory epithelium a) lines the superior nasal conchae and adjacent nasal septum. b) is the mucous membrane lining of the nasal cavity. c) lines the superior, middle, and inferior nasal meatuses. d) lines the oropharynx.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 23.2 Describe the structure and function of the nose and pharynx.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.2.1 Describe the anatomy and histology of the nose.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.2 Upper Respiratory System Anatomy 7) Which of the following are openings into the nasopharynx?

1. auditory (eustachian) tubes 2. fauces 3. internal nares 4. external nares 5) nasolacrimal ducts a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3 only c) 4, 5 d) 2, 3 only Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 23.2 Describe the structure and function of the nose and pharynx.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.2.1 Describe the anatomy and histology of the nose.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.2 Upper Respiratory System Anatomy Question type: Multiple Select 8) The epiglottis (Select all that apply.) a) consists of a leaf-shaped piece of elastic cartilage.

b) is attached to the thyroid cartilage. c) serves to route food and liquids into the esophagus. d) is the largest cartilage of the larynx Answer: a, b, c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 23.3 Explain how the structure and functions of the larynx, trachea, and bronchi make breathing possible.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.3.1 Identify the features and purpose of the larynx.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Lower Respiratory System Anatomy Question type: Multiple Choice 9) Which of the following is a TRUE statement concerning the larynx? a) The extrinsic muscles of the larynx connect the cartilages to each other. b) During swallowing, the larynx rises, causing the epiglottis to form a lid over the opening into the larynx, closing it off. c) The lining of the larynx inferior to the vocal folds is stratified squamous epithelium. d) The cricoid cartilage is paired.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 23.3 Explain how the structure and functions of the larynx, trachea, and bronchi make breathing possible.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.3.1 Identify the features and purpose of the larynx.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Lower Respiratory System Anatomy 10) An internal ridge where the trachea divides into right and left primary bronchi is the a) carina b) epiglottis c) rimi vestibuli d) cupula Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension

Study Objective 1: SO 23.3 Explain how the structure and functions of the larynx, trachea, and bronchi make breathing possible.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.3.4 Identify the functions of each bronchial structure.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Lower Respiratory System Anatomy 11) Which of the following is FALSE of the trachea? a) The pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium of the mucosa contains goblet cells and basal cells. b) It is a tubular passageway, posterior to the esophagus. c) Its wall contains 16-20 C-shaped rings of hyaline cartilage. d) The outer layer of the wall of the trachea, the adventitia, is a layer of areolar connective tissue that joins the trachea to surrounding tissues.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 23.3 Explain how the structure and functions of the larynx, trachea, and bronchi make breathing possible.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.3.3 Describe the anatomy and histology of the trachea.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Lower Respiratory System Anatomy 12) A bony landmark that identifies the point at which the trachea gives rise to primary bronchi is the a) suprasternal notch b) level of first rib c) superior border of the fifth thoracic vertebra d) sternoclavicular joint Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 23.3 Explain how the structure and functions of the larynx, trachea, and bronchi make breathing possible.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.3.4 Identify the functions of each bronchial structure.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Lower Respiratory System Anatomy 13) The first portion(s) of the respiratory tract to enter lung tissue is/are the a) trachea

b) primary bronchi c) secondary (lobar) bronchi d) tertiary (segmental) bronchi Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 23.3 Explain how the structure and functions of the larynx, trachea, and bronchi make breathing possible.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.3.4 Identify the functions of each bronchial structure.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Lower Respiratory System Anatomy 14) Which of the following do NOT contain cartilage?

1. tertiary (segmental) bronchi 2. alveolar ducts 3. respiratory bronchioles 4. terminal bronchioles a) 1, 2, 3, 4 b) 2, 3, 4 only c) 2, 3 only d) 2, 4 only Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 23.3 Explain how the structure and functions of the larynx, trachea, and bronchi make breathing possible.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.3.4 Identify the functions of each bronchial structure.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Lower Respiratory System Anatomy Question type: Multiple Select 15) The base of a lung (Select all that apply.) a) is the inferior surface. b) is concave. c) lies just superior to the diaphragm. d) fits over the concave area of the diaphragm Answer: a, b, c

Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 23.3 Explain how the structure and functions of the larynx, trachea, and bronchi make breathing possible.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.3.5 Explain how the anatomy of the lungs makes breathing possible.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Lower Respiratory System Anatomy Question type: Multiple Choice 16) Which of the following features of the lungs face(s) the heart?

1. costal surface 2. hilum 3. base 4. mediastinal (medial) surface a) 1, 2 b) 3, 4 c) 2, 4 d) 1 only Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 23.3 Explain how the structure and functions of the larynx, trachea, and bronchi make breathing possible.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.3.5 Explain how the anatomy of the lungs makes breathing possible.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Lower Respiratory System Anatomy.

Question type: Multiple Select 17) Compared to the left lung, the right lung (Select all that apply.) a) is broader. b) is shorter. c) has one more lobe. d) is the only lung with an oblique fissure.

Answer: a, b, c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis

Study Objective 1: SO 23.3 Explain how the structure and functions of the larynx, trachea, and bronchi make breathing possible.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.3.5 Explain how the anatomy of the lungs makes breathing possible.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Lower Respiratory System Anatomy Question type: Multiple Choice 18) The cardiac notch is a feature of the a) right lung b) left lung c) heart d) diaphragm Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 23.3 Explain how the structure and functions of the larynx, trachea, and bronchi make breathing possible.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.3.5 Explain how the anatomy of the lungs makes breathing possible.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Lower Respiratory System Anatomy 19) Each segmental bronchus supplies a region of a lung called a(n) a) bronchopulmonary segment b) lobule c) lobe d) alveolar sac Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 23.3 Explain how the structure and functions of the larynx, trachea, and bronchi make breathing possible.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.3.4 Identify the functions of each bronchial structure.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Lower Respiratory System Anatomy 20) As a molecule of oxygen passes from pulmonary alveolar air into the blood it passes through the layers of the respiratory membrane in what order?

1. epithelial basement membrane

2. capillary basement membrane 3. Pulmonary alveolar epithelial wall 4. capillary endothelial wall a) 3, 1, 2, 4 b) 4, 3, 2, 1 c) 1, 3, 2, 4 d) 3, 1, 4, 2 Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 23.3 Explain how the structure and functions of the larynx, trachea, and bronchi make breathing possible.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.3.5 Explain how the anatomy of the lungs makes breathing possible.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Lower Respiratory System Anatomy 21) Which of the following is FALSE regarding the diaphragm? a) It is skeletal muscle. b) It receives innervation from the phrenic nerves. c) In the relaxed state, the diaphragm moves inferiorly and flattens out. d) When contracted, it increases the vertical diameter of the thoracic cavity.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 23.4 Describe pulmonary ventilation, external and internal respiration, inhalation and exhalation.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.4.2 Describe how inhalation and exhalation occur.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.4 Mechanics of Pulmonary Ventilation (Breathing) Question type: Multiple Select 22) Which of the following must occur for air to enter the lungs during inhalation (inspiration)?

(Select all that apply.) a) The principal muscles of inhalation (inspiration) contract. b) The volume of the lungs increases. c) The pressure in the lungs falls below atmospheric pressure. d) The parietal pleura is pulled inward.

Answer: a, b, c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 23.4 Describe pulmonary ventilation, external and internal respiration, inhalation and exhalation.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.4.2 Describe how inhalation and exhalation occur.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.4 Mechanics of Pulmonary Ventilation (Breathing) Question type: Multiple Choice 23) For deep, forceful inhalation, accessory muscles of inhalation (inspiration) are: 1. external intercostals 2. internal intercostals 3. sternocleidomastoids 4. scalenes 5. pectoralis majors 6. pectoralis minors a) 1, 3, 4, 5 b) 3, 4, 6 c) 1, 4, 5, 6 d) 2, 3, 5 Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 23.4 Describe pulmonary ventilation, external and internal respiration, inhalation and exhalation.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.4.2 Describe how inhalation and exhalation occur.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.4 Mechanics of Pulmonary Ventilation (Breathing) 24) The principal muscles of inhalation (inspiration) are a) the diaphragm and internal intercostals b) the internal intercostals and external intercostals c) the diaphragm and sternocleidomastoids d) the diaphragm and external intercostals Answer: d

Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 23.4 Describe pulmonary ventilation, external and internal respiration, inhalation and exhalation Study Objective 2: SO 23.4.2 Describe how inhalation and exhalation occur.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.4 Mechanics of Pulmonary Ventilation (Breathing) Question type: Multiple Select 25) Normal exhalation (expiration) is due to (Select all that apply.) a) the pressure in the lungs falls below atmospheric pressure b) the inward pull of surface tension due to the film of pulmonary alveolar fluid c) recoil of elastic fibers in the lungs d) relaxation of inhalation (inspiratory) muscles Answer: b, c, d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 23.4 Describe pulmonary ventilation, external and internal respiration, inhalation and exhalation Study Objective 2: SO 23.4.2 Describe how inhalation and exhalation occur.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.4 Mechanics of Pulmonary Ventilation (Breathing) Question type: Multiple Choice 26) Chemoreceptors are very sensitive to changes in CO2 concentration in the blood. Increased CO2 levels result in messages to the respiratory center to decrease the rate and depth of ventilation. a) Both statements are true. b) Both statements are false. c) The first statement is true; the second is false. d) The second statement is true; the first is false.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 23.5 Explain the function of the respiratory center and the factors that regulate the rate and depth of respiration.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.5.2 Describe the various factors that regulate the rate and depth of breathing.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.5 Regulation of Breathing 27) Which cranial bone(s) is/are most responsible for the skeletal framework of the nasal cavity? a) sphenoid b) nasal c) ethmoid d) inferior conchae Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 23.2 Describe the structure and function of the nose and pharynx.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.2.1 Describe the anatomy and histology of the nose.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.2 Upper Respiratory System Anatomy 28) The pharyngeal tonsil (adenoid) and the auditory (eustachian) tubes are located in the a) laryngopharynx b) nasopharynx c) oropharynx Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 23.2 Describe the structure and function of the nose and pharynx.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.2.2 Outline the structure and function of the pharynx.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.2 Upper Respiratory System Anatomy Question type: True/False 29) Openings of the internal nose include the choanae (internal nares) and the ducts that connect to all paranasal sinuses.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension

Study Objective 1: SO 23.2 Describe the structure and function of the nose and pharynx.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.2.1 Describe the anatomy and histology of the nose.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.2 Upper Respiratory System Anatomy 30) The posterior (bony) portion of the nasal septum consists of the vomer and perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone. The anterior portion is formed by the septal nasal cartilage.

Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 23.2 Describe the structure and function of the nose and pharynx.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.2.1 Describe the anatomy and histology of the nose.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.2 Upper Respiratory System Anatomy Question type: Multiple Choice 31) An important landmark in determining the site for a tracheostomy is the a) arytenoid cartilages b) cricoid cartilage c) corniculate cartilages d) cuneiform cartilages Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 23.3 Explain how the structure and functions of the larynx, trachea, and bronchi make breathing possible.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.3.1 Identify the features and purpose of the larynx.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Lower Respiratory System Anatomy Question type: True/False 32) The true vocal cords are folds of mucous membrane called ventricular folds.

Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge

Study Objective 1: SO 23.3 Explain how the structure and functions of the larynx, trachea, and bronchi make breathing possible.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.3.2 List the structures of voice production.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Lower Respiratory System Anatomy 33) The vocal folds (true vocal cords) of adult females are usually thinner and vibrate more rapidly than those of adult males, thus female voices usually have a higher pitch range than males.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 23.3 Explain how the structure and functions of the larynx, trachea, and bronchi make breathing possible.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.3.2 List the structures of voice production.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Lower Respiratory System Anatomy 34) The trachea is a tubular passageway for air, inferior to the larynx and anterior to the esophagus.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 23.3 Explain how the structure and functions of the larynx, trachea, and bronchi make breathing possible.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.3.3 Describe the anatomy and histology of the trachea.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Lower Respiratory System Anatomy 35) An examination of the wall of the airways in the bronchial tree from bronchi to pulmonary alveoli would reveal that cartilage decreases in quantity and disappears, while the amount of smooth muscle increases.

Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 23.3 Explain how the structure and functions of the larynx, trachea, and bronchi make breathing possible.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.3.4 Identify the functions of each bronchial structure.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Lower Respiratory System Anatomy

Question type: Multiple Select 36) Compare the right and left main bronchus. (Select all that apply.) a) the right main bronchus is more vertical b) the left main bronchus is longer c) the right main bronchus is more narrow d) an aspirated object is more likely to lodge in the left main bronchus Answer: a, b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 23.3 Explain how the structure and functions of the larynx, trachea, and bronchi make breathing possible.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.3.4 Identify the functions of each bronchial structure.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Lower Respiratory System Anatomy Question type: Multiple Choice 37) The horizontal fissure is superior to the a) superior lobe of the right lung b) middle lobe of the right lung c) inferior lobe of the right lung Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 23.3 Explain how the structure and functions of the larynx, trachea, and bronchi make breathing possible.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.3.5 Explain how the anatomy of the lungs makes breathing possible.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Lower Respiratory System Anatomy 38) The cardiac notch is a feature located on the a) medial aspect of the left lung b) medial aspect of the right lung c) superior aspect of the left lung d) superior aspect of the right lung

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 23.3 Explain how the structure and functions of the larynx, trachea, and bronchi make breathing possible.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.3.5 Explain how the anatomy of the lungs makes breathing possible.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Lower Respiratory System Anatomy Question type: Multiple Select 39) The two types of pulmonary alveolar epithelial cells are (Select all that apply.) a) alveolar macrophages b) alveolar neutrophils c) pneumocyte type II d) pneumocyte type I Answer: c, d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 23.3 Explain how the structure and functions of the larynx, trachea, and bronchi make breathing possible.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.3.5 Explain how the anatomy of the lungs makes breathing possible.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Lower Respiratory System Anatomy Question type: Multiple Choice 40) Which of the following involves the physical movement of air between the alveoli and atmospheric air? a) external respiration b) internal respiration c) pulmonary respiration d) pulmonary ventilation Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension

Study Objective 1: SO 23.4 Describe pulmonary ventilation, external and internal respiration, inhalation and exhalation Study Objective 2: SO 23.4.1 Distinguish among pulmonary ventilation, external respiration, and internal respiration.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.4 Mechanics of Pulmonary Ventilation (Breathing) Question type: True/False 41) The two portions of the respiratory center in the pons are the dorsal respiratory group and the ventral respiratory group.

Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 23.5 Explain the function of the respiratory center and the factors that regulate the rate and depth of respiration.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.5.1 Explain the role of the respiratory center in breathing.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.5 Regulation of Breathing Question type: Multiple Select 42) Compare the development of different regions of the respiratory system. (Select all that apply.) a) endoderm gives rise to the epithelium of the bronchi b) endoderm gives rise to the connective tissue of the respiratory system c) mesoderm gives rise to the cartilage of the respiratory system d) mesoderm gives rise to the epithelial lining of the larynx Answer: a, c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 23.7 Describe the development of the respiratory system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.7 Development of the Respiratory System Question type: True/False

43) Loss of elasticity of lungs and chest wall results in a decrease of as much as 50% of lung capacity by age 70.

Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 23.8 Describe the effects of aging on the respiratory system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.8 Aging and the Respiratory System Question type: Essay 44) Describe the location of each of the three regions of the pharynx.

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 23.2 Describe the structure and function of the nose and pharynx.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.2.2 Outline the structure and function of the pharynx.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.2 Upper Respiratory System Anatomy Solution: 1. Nasopharynx: posterior to nasal cavity from choanae to soft palate 2. Oropharynx: posterior to oral cavity, from soft palate to hyoid 3. Laryngopharynx: from hyoid bone to esophagus and larynx Question type: Multiple Choice 45) Which of the following is INCORRECTLY matched? a) laryngopharynx-no cilia and no goblet cells b) main bronchi-contains both cilia and goblet cells c) pulmonary alveoli-consist of simple squamous epithelial tissue, no goblet cells d) terminal bronchioles-consist of ciliated simple columnar cells and goblet cells Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 23.3 Explain how the structure and functions of the larynx, trachea, and bronchi make breathing possible.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.3.4 Identify the functions of each bronchial structure.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Lower Respiratory System Anatomy

46) Choose the cartilage that consists of two fused plates that form the upper anterior and lateral walls of the larynx and is the largest of the laryngeal cartilages. a) arytenoid cartilage b) corniculate cartilage c) epiglottic cartilage d) thyroid cartilage Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 23.3 Explain how the structure and functions of the larynx, trachea, and bronchi make breathing possible.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.3.1 Identify the features and purpose of the larynx.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Lower Respiratory System Anatomy Question type: Essay 47) Describe the route traveled by a molecule of oxygen in inhaled (inspired) air from the time it enters the right external naris (nostril) until it reaches a pulmonary alveolus in the apex of the left lung.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 23.2 Describe the structure and function of the nose and pharynx.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.2.2 Outline the structure and function of the pharynx.

Study Objective 3: SO 23.3 Explain how the structure and functions of the larynx, trachea, and bronchi make breathing possible.

Study Objective 3: SO 23.3.5 Explain how the anatomy of the lungs makes breathing possible.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.2 Upper Respiratory System Anatomy Section Reference 2: Sec 23.3 Lower Respiratory System Anatomy Solution: Described route should include: vestibule, nasal cavity, internal nares, three regions of the pharynx, larynx, trachea, left primary bronchus, superior left secondary bronchus, left apical tertiary bronchus, bronchiole in apical segment, terminal bronchiole in lobule, respiratory bronchiole, alveolar duct, alveolus.

Question type: Multiple Choice

48) Which type of pulmonary alveolar cell indirectly prevents the pulmonary alveoli from collapsing by producing surfactant? a) alveolar macrophages b) fibroblasts c) pneumocyte type I d) pneumocyte type II Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 23.3 Explain how the structure and functions of the larynx, trachea, and bronchi make breathing possible.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.3.5 Explain how the anatomy of the lungs makes breathing possible.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Lower Respiratory System Anatomy.

49) Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding the respiratory membrane? a) the respiratory membrane is very thick, about the thickness of 10 red blood cells stacked together b) it contains a capillary basement membrane, often fused to an epithelial basement membrane c) the surface area measures approximately 70 meters squared d) the pulmonary alveolar wall contains pneumocytes type I and II as well as alveolar macrophages Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 23.3 Explain how the structure and functions of the larynx, trachea, and bronchi make breathing possible.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.3.5 Explain how the anatomy of the lungs makes breathing possible.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Lower Respiratory System Anatomy.

50) A cluster of neurons which can be described as a “rhythm generator” for breathing is a) dorsal respiratory group b) pneumotaxic center c) pre-Botzinger complex d) ventral respiratory group Answer: c

Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 23.5 Explain the function of the respiratory center and the factors that regulate the rate and depth of respiration.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.5.1 Explain the role of the respiratory center in breathing.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.5 Regulation of Breathing 51) The internal nose communicates posteriorly with the nasopharynx through the a) vomer b) Choanae (internal nares) c) conchae d) external nares Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 23.2 Describe the structure and function of the nose and pharynx.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.2.1 Describe the anatomy and histology of the nose.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.2 Upper Respiratory System Anatomy 52) Little 3-yr-old Timmy puts his finger into his nose to “pick” his nose. The place he puts his finger is called the a) choanae b) nasal cavity c) nasal septum d) nasal vestibule Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 23.2 Describe the structure and function of the nose and pharynx.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.2.1 Describe the anatomy and histology of the nose.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.2 Upper Respiratory System Anatomy 53) The auditory (eustachian) tubes open into the a) nasopharynx b) oropharynx

c) laryngopharynx d) hypopharynx Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 23.2 Describe the structure and function of the nose and pharynx.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.2.2 Outline the structure and function of the pharynx.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.2 Upper Respiratory System Anatomy 54) Aaliyah eats a cheeseburger for lunch. The food will travel into the oropharynx, and then which structure will direct the food into the esophagus? a) choanae b) laryngopharynx c) nasopharynx d) thyrohyoid membrane Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 23.2 Describe the structure and function of the nose and pharynx.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.2.2 Outline the structure and function of the pharynx.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.2 Upper Respiratory System Anatomy 55) “Adam's apple” is the common name for the a) cricoid cartilage of the larynx b) corniculate cartilage of the larynx c) laryngeal prominence d) laryngeal vestibule Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 23.3 Explain how the structure and functions of the larynx, trachea, and bronchi make breathing possible.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.3.1 Identify the features and purpose of the larynx.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Lower Respiratory System Anatomy

56) The paired laryngeal cartilages that, along with intrinsic laryngeal muscles, move the vocal folds (true vocal cords) in speech production are the a) cricoid cartilages b) thyroid cartilages c) arytenoid cartilages d) epiglottic cartilages Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 23.3 Explain how the structure and functions of the larynx, trachea, and bronchi make breathing possible.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.3.1 Identify the features and purpose of the larynx.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Lower Respiratory System Anatomy Question type: True/False 57) Cilia in the upper respiratory tract beat so as to move mucus and trapped dust in a superior direction.

Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 23.3 Explain how the structure and functions of the larynx, trachea, and bronchi make breathing possible.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.3.1 Identify the features and purpose of the larynx.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Lower Respiratory System Anatomy 58) Cilia in the lower respiratory tract beat so as to move mucus and trapped dust in a superior direction.

Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 23.3 Explain how the structure and functions of the larynx, trachea, and bronchi make breathing possible.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.3.1 Identify the features and purpose of the larynx.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Lower Respiratory System Anatomy

59) Sympathetic stimulation results in constriction of bronchioles.

Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 23.3 Explain how the structure and functions of the larynx, trachea, and bronchi make breathing possible.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.3.4 Identify the functions of each bronchial structure.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Lower Respiratory System Anatomy.

Question type: Multiple Choice 60) Type II pulmonary alveolar cells secrete this substance, which reduces the tendency of the alveoli to collapse: a) mucus b) surfactant c) serous fluid d) carbon dioxide Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 23.3 Explain how the structure and functions of the larynx, trachea, and bronchi make breathing possible.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.3.5 Explain how the anatomy of the lungs makes breathing possible.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Lower Respiratory System Anatomy.

61) Each lung may be subdivided into 10 small compartments called a) lobules; each supplied by a branch of the bronchial tree called a secondary (lobar) bronchus b) bronchopulmonary segments; each supplied by a branch of the bronchial tree called a tertiary (segmental) bronchus c) bronchopulmonary segments; each supplied by a branch of the bronchial tree called a respiratory bronchus d) lobules; each supplied by a branch of the bronchial tree called a tertiary (segmental) bronchus Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis

Study Objective 1: SO 23.3 Explain how the structure and functions of the larynx, trachea, and bronchi make breathing possible.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.3.5 Explain how the anatomy of the lungs makes breathing possible.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Lower Respiratory System Anatomy.

62) Which of the following branch off the aorta and bring oxygen rich blood to the lungs? a) Coronary arteries b) Pulmonary arteries c) Bronchial arteries d) Pulmonary veins Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 23.3 Explain how the structure and functions of the larynx, trachea, and bronchi make breathing possible.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.3.5 Explain how the anatomy of the lungs makes breathing possible.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Lower Respiratory System Anatomy.

63) Which of the following is INCORRECTLY matched? a) pulmonary ventilation; breathing b) external (pulmonary) respiration; gas exchange between air in pulmonary alveoli and blood in pulmonary capillaries c) internal (tissue) respiration; gas exchange between systemic capillary blood and tissue cells d) external (pulmonary) respiration; the blood loses O2 and gains CO2 Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 23.4 Describe pulmonary ventilation, external and internal respiration, inhalation and exhalation Study Objective 2: SO 23.4.1 Distinguish among pulmonary ventilation, external respiration, and internal respiration.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.4 Mechanics of Pulmonary Ventilation (Breathing) 64) Which of the following describe the correct neurons and brain location responsible for the rate of normal quiet breathing? a) dorsal respiratory group in the medulla oblongata

b) pneumotaxic center in the medulla oblongata c) pontine respiratory group in the pons d) ventral respiratory group in the pons Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 23.5 Explain the function of the respiratory center and the factors that regulate the rate and depth of respiration.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.5.2 Describe the various factors that regulate the rate and depth of breathing.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.5 Regulation of Breathing Question type: True/False 65) The two processes of pulmonary ventilation (breathing) are internal (tissue) respiration and external (pulmonary) respiration.

Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO SO 23.4 Describe pulmonary ventilation, external and internal respiration, inhalation and exhalation Study Objective 2: SO 23.4.1 Distinguish among pulmonary ventilation, external respiration, and internal respiration.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.4 Mechanics of Pulmonary Ventilation (Breathing) Question type: Multiple Choice 66) Inspiratory neurons of the medulla which cause contraction of the diaphragm via signals sent through the phrenic nerves are called the a) dorsal respiratory group b) pontine respiratory group c) ventral respiratory group Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension

Study Objective 1: SO 23.5 Explain the function of the respiratory center and the factors that regulate the rate and depth of respiration.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.5.1 Explain the role of the respiratory center in breathing.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.5 Regulation of Breathing 67) Infants born before how many weeks are severely at risk for respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) due to lack of sufficient surfactant in alveoli? a) 26-28 b) 28-30 c) 32-34 d) 34-36 Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 23.7 Describe the development of the respiratory system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.7 Development of the Respiratory System 68) Which of the following cartilages forms the anterior wall of the larynx? a) thyroid b) arytenoid c) epiglottis d) corniculate Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 23.3 Explain how the structure and functions of the larynx, trachea, and bronchi make breathing possible.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.3.1 Identify the features and purpose of the larynx.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Lower Respiratory System Anatomy 69) Which of the following cartilages of the larynx is anchored to the trachea inferiorly? a) cricoid b) thyroid c) epiglottis d) arytenoid

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 23.3 Explain how the structure and functions of the larynx, trachea, and bronchi make breathing possible.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.3.1 Identify the features and purpose of the larynx.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Lower Respiratory System Anatomy 70) Contraction of which muscles would move the vocal folds together? a) diaphragm b) lateral cricoarytenoid muscles c) sternocleidomastoid muscle d) trachealis muscle Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 23.3 Explain how the structure and functions of the larynx, trachea, and bronchi make breathing possible.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.3.2 List the structures of voice production.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Lower Respiratory System Anatomy 71) All of the following are part of the respiratory system EXCEPT a) bronchi b) ethmoid bone c) larynx d) trachea Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the respiratory system.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.1 Define the respiratory system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy Question type: True/False

72) The trachea is lined with pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium with goblet cells.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 23.3 Explain how the structure and functions of the larynx, trachea, and bronchi make breathing possible.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.3.3 Describe the anatomy and histology of the trachea.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Lower Respiratory System Anatomy Question type: Multiple Select 73) Select the options which describe the structural classifications of the respiratory system.

(Select all that apply.) a) lower respiratory system b) upper respiratory system c) conducting zone d) respiratory zone Answer: a, b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the respiratory system.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.2 Explain how the respiratory organs are classified structurally and functionally.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy Question type: Multiple Choice

74) Which cartilages are indicated in the figure?

a) nasal b) lateral c) septal d) alar Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 23.2 Describe the structure and function of the nose and pharynx.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.2.1 Describe the anatomy and histology of the nose.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.2 Upper Respiratory System Anatomy

75) What is the name of the area indicated?

a) nasopharynx b) sphenoidal sinus c) oropharynx d) frontal sinus Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 23.2 Describe the structure and function of the nose and pharynx.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.2.2 Outline the structure and function of the pharynx.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.2 Upper Respiratory System Anatomy

76) In this sagittal section, the arrow is pointing to which structure of the larynx?

a) thyrohyoid membrane b) tracheal cartilage c) vocal fold (true vocal cord) d) cuneiform cartilage Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 23.3 Explain how the structure and functions of the larynx, trachea, and bronchi make breathing possible.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.3.1 Identify the features and purpose of the larynx.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Lower Respiratory System Anatomy

77) In this posterior view of the larynx sectioned coronally, which cartilage is indicated?

a) epiglottis b) cricoid c) thyroid d) cuneiform Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 23.3 Explain how the structure and functions of the larynx, trachea, and bronchi make breathing possible.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.3.1 Identify the features and purpose of the larynx.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Lower Respiratory System Anatomy

78) In this lateral view of the right lung, the arrow is pointing to which structure?

a) hilum b) cardiac notch c) apex d) horizontal fissure Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 23.3 Explain how the structure and functions of the larynx, trachea, and bronchi make breathing possible.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.3.5 Explain how the anatomy of the lungs makes breathing possible.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Lower Respiratory System Anatomy.

Question type: Multiple Select 79) Muscle(s) that contract during normal, resting inhalation are the (Select all that apply.) a) diaphragm b) external intercostals c) pectoralis minor d) sternocleidomastoid Answer: a, b

Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 23.4 Describe pulmonary ventilation, external and internal respiration, inhalation and exhalation.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.4.2 Describe how inhalation and exhalation occur.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.4 Mechanics of Pulmonary Ventilation (Breathing) Question type: Multiple Choice 80) During forceful inhalation, a) the ventral respiratory group receives signals from the dorsal respiratory group b) the dorsal respiratory group receives signals from the ventral respiratory group c) the pontine respiratory group receives signals from the dorsal respiratory group d) the dorsal respiratory group receives signals from the pontine respiratory group Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 23.5 Explain the function of the respiratory center and the factors that regulate the rate and depth of respiration.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.5.2 Describe the various factors that regulate the rate and depth of breathing.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.5 Regulation of Breathing Question type: Multiple Select 81) Peripheral chemoreceptors which send signals to the respiratory center to control breathing, are located in the (Select all that apply.) a) aortic bodies b) carotid bodies c) central nervous system d) spinal cord Answer: a, b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 23.5 Explain the function of the respiratory center and the factors that regulate the rate and depth of respiration.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.5.2 Describe the various factors that regulate the rate and depth of breathing.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.5 Regulation of Breathing 82) A person cannot hold their breath indefinitely because (Select all that apply.) a) buildup of CO2 stimulates the dorsal respiratory group b) buildup of H+ stimulates the dorsal respiratory group c) nerve impulses are sent along the phrenic muscle to resume breathing d) nerve impulses are sent along the sternocleidomastoid to resume breathing Answer: a, b, c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 23.5 Explain the function of the respiratory center and the factors that regulate the rate and depth of respiration.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.5.2 Describe the various factors that regulate the rate and depth of breathing.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.5 Regulation of Breathing 83) The respiratory zone consists of (Select all that apply.) a) alveolar ducts b) alveolar saccules c) respiratory bronchioles d) terminal bronchioles Answer: a, b, c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 23.1 Describe the anatomy, histology, and functions of the respiratory system.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.1.2 Explain how the respiratory organs are classified structurally and functionally.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.1 Respiratory System Anatomy 84) The respiratory centers for controlling breathing are located in the (Select all that apply.) a) cerebellum b) cerebrum c) medulla oblongata

d) pons Answer: c, d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 23.5 Explain the function of the respiratory center and the factors that regulate the rate and depth of respiration.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.5.1 Explain the role of the respiratory center in breathing.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.5 Regulation of Breathing Question type: Multiple Choice 85) This type of noninvasive medical treatment is indicated for cases of sleep apnea. a) CPAP b) endotracheal intubation c) mechanical ventilator d) tracheostomy Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 23.3 Explain how the structure and functions of the larynx, trachea, and bronchi make breathing possible.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.3.3 Describe the anatomy and histology of the trachea.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Lower Respiratory System Anatomy.

86) Attached to the entire surface of the interior of the thoracic chamber is a delicate epithelial tissue known as the a) parietal pericardium b) visceral pericardium c) parietal pleura d) visceral pleura Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 23.3 Explain how the structure and functions of the larynx, trachea, and bronchi make breathing possible.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.3.5 Explain how the anatomy of the lungs makes breathing possible.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Lower Respiratory System Anatomy 87) The serous membrane surrounding the lung and in direct contact with the lung is referred to as the a) parietal pericardium b) visceral pericardium c) parietal pleura d) visceral pleura Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 23.3 Explain how the structure and functions of the larynx, trachea, and bronchi make breathing possible.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.3.5 Explain how the anatomy of the lungs makes breathing possible.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Lower Respiratory System Anatomy 88) When muscles contract during exercise a) they consume large amounts of CO2 and produce large amounts of O2 b) they consume large amounts of O2 and produce large amounts of CO2 Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 23.6 Describe the effects of exercise on the respiratory system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.6 Exercise and the Respiratory System 89) At the onset of exercise, an abrupt increase in breathing is due to neural changes that send excitatory impulses to the a) dorsal respiratory group b) pontine respiratory group c) ventral respiratory group Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 23.6 Describe the effects of exercise on the respiratory system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.6 Exercise and the Respiratory System 90) During moderate exercise, a) the depth of breathing changes more than the breathing rate b) the breathing rate changes more than the depth of breathing c) the breathing rate and depth of breathing both increase the same amount d) the breathing rate and depth of breathing both decrease the same amount Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 23.6 Describe the effects of exercise on the respiratory system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.6 Exercise and the Respiratory System 91) This structure gives rise to the trachea. a) fourth pharyngeal arch b) laryngotracheal diverticulum c) neural crest tissue d) splanchnic mesoderm Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 23.7 Describe the development of the respiratory system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.7 Development of the Respiratory System Question type: Multiple Select 92) As people age, they become more susceptible to pneumonia due to (Select all that apply.) a) a decrease in alveolar macrophages b) an increase in alveolar macrophages c) diminished ciliary action d) increased ciliary action Answer: a, c Difficulty: Easy

Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 23.8 Describe the effects of aging on the respiratory system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.8 Aging and the Respiratory System 93) With advancing age, (Select all that apply.) a) airways of the respiratory system become more rigid b) tissues of the respiratory system become more elastic c) lung capacity decreases d) oxygen levels in the blood decrease Answer: a, c, d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 23.8 Describe the effects of aging on the respiratory system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.8 Aging and the Respiratory System Question type: Multiple Choice 94) Influenza is primarily a a) digestive system disease b) endocrine system disease c) lymphatic system disease d) respiratory system disease Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 23.2 Describe the structure and function of the nose and pharynx.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.2.1 Describe the anatomy and histology of the nose.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.2 Upper Respiratory System Anatomy 95) Malignant mesothelioma is most frequently caused by a) allergies b) asbestos c) cigarette smoke d) viral infection

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 23.3 Explain how the structure and functions of the larynx, trachea, and bronchi make breathing possible.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.3.5 Explain how the anatomy of the lungs makes breathing possible.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Lower Respiratory System Anatomy Question type: Multiple Select 96) Cigarette smoke (Select all that apply.) a) may result in COPD b) may result in lung cancer c) constricts terminal bronchioles due to the effects of nicotine d) causes decreased mucus secretion and swelling of the bronchioles Answer: a, b, c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 23.3 Explain how the structure and functions of the larynx, trachea, and bronchi make breathing possible.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.3.5 Explain how the anatomy of the lungs makes breathing possible.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.3 Lower Respiratory System Anatomy 97) Coronaviruses can cause (Select all that apply.) a) influenza b) MERS c) SARS d) COVID-19 Answer: b, c, d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 23.4 Describe pulmonary ventilation, external and internal respiration, inhalation and exhalation.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.4.2 Describe how inhalation and exhalation occur.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.4 Mechanics of Pulmonary Ventilation (Breathing)

98) Signs or symptoms of infection with the SARS-CoV-2 virus may include (Select all that apply.) a) cough b) chest pain c) no symptoms in some people d) shortness of breath Answer: a, b, c, d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 23.4 Describe pulmonary ventilation, external and internal respiration, inhalation and exhalation.

Study Objective 2: SO 23.4.2 Describe how inhalation and exhalation occur.

Section Reference 1: Sec 23.4 Mechanics of Pulmonary Ventilation (Breathing)

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pha14 Chapter Number: 24 Question type: Multiple Choice 1) The layer of areolar connective tissue underlying the epithelium of the mucosa of the digestive canal is called the a) adventitia. b) lamina propria. c) submucosa. d) peritoneum.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 24.2 Describe the layers that form the wall of the digestive canal.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.2 Layers of the Digestive Canal 2) The peritoneal fold situated as a "fatty apron" anterior to the small intestine is the a) mesentery. b) falciform ligament. c) lesser omentum. d) greater omentum.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 24.3 Describe the peritoneum and its folds.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.3 Peritoneum 3) The structure attached to the soft palate that helps close off the nasopharynx during swallowing is the a) fauces. b) uvula. c) epiglottis. d) tongue.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 24.4 Describe the locations, structures, and functions of the salivary glands, tongue, and teeth and compare the deciduous and permanent dentitions.

Study Objective 2: SO 24.4.1 Identify the locations of the salivary glands, and describe the functions of their secretions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.4 Mouth 4) Which of the following is an intrinsic muscle of the tongue? a) superior longitudinal lingual b) hyoglossus c) genioglossus d) styloglossus Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 24.4 Describe the locations, structures, and functions of the salivary glands, tongue, and teeth and compare the deciduous and permanent dentitions.

Study Objective 2: SO 24.4.2 Describe the structure and functions of the tongue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.4 Mouth 5) The salivary glands whose ducts open on either side of the lingual frenulum are the a) parotid glands. b) sublingual glands. c) submandibular glands. d) buccal glands.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 24.4 Describe the locations, structures, and functions of the salivary glands, tongue, and teeth and compare the deciduous and permanent dentitions.

Study Objective 2: SO 24.4.1 Identify the locations of the salivary glands, and describe the functions of their secretions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.4 Mouth

6) The bonelike substance that attaches the root of a tooth to the periodontal ligament is a) dentin. b) enamel. c) cement. d) gingiva.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 24.4 Describe the locations, structures, and functions of the salivary glands, tongue, and teeth and compare the deciduous and permanent dentitions.

Study Objective 2: SO 24.4.3 Identify the parts of a typical tooth, and compare the deciduous and permanent dentitions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.4 Mouth 7) The functions of the esophagus include a) secretion of enzymes. b) mixing of food and secretions. c) absorption of H2O and small nutrients. d) secretion of mucus.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 24.6 Describe the location, histology and digestive role of the esophagus.

Study Objective 2: SO 24.6.2 Explain the function of the esophagus in the digestive process.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.6 Esophagus Question type: Multiple Select 8) The stomach occupies the following abdominal region(s) (Select all that apply.) a) umbilical. b) left hypochondriac. c) epigastric. d) hypogastric Answer: a, b, c

Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 24.7 Describe the location, anatomy, histology, and functions of the stomach.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.7 Stomach Question type: Multiple Choice 9) Place the following in the correct order, as found in the muscularis layer of the stomach, from outermost to innermost 1. oblique layer 2. circular layer 3. longitudinal layer a) 2, 1, 3 b) 3, 1, 2 c) 1, 2, 3 d) 3, 2, 1 Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 24.7 Describe the location, anatomy, histology, and functions of the stomach.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.7 Stomach 10) The part(s) of the stomach responsible for the production of gastric juice is/are a) rugae. b) gastric glands. c) fundus. d) serosa Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 24.7 Describe the location, anatomy, histology, and functions of the stomach.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.7 Stomach

11) The head of the pancreas is located closest to the a) curve of the duodenum. b) lesser curvature of the stomach. c) inferior surface of the liver. d) medial surface of the spleen.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 24.8 Describe the location, structure and the digestive role of the pancreas.

Study Objective 2: SO 24.8.1 Describe the location and structure of the pancreas.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.8 Pancreas 12) A portal triad in the liver consists of which three basic structures? a) a common bile duct, and branches of the right and left hepatic ducts. b) a branch of the hepatic portal vein, a branch of the hepatic artery, and a bile duct. c) branches of the hepatic portal vein, hepatic vein, and hepatic artery. d) branches of the hepatic artery, central vein, and hepatic vein.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 24.9 Describe the location, structure and the digestive role of the liver and gall bladder.

Study Objective 2: SO 24.9.1 Describe the location and structure of the liver and gallbladder.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.9 Liver and Gallbladder 13) Which liver cells produce bile? a) stellate reticuloendothelial cells b) phagocytes c) hepatocytes d) endothelial cells Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge

Study Objective 1: SO 24.9 Describe the location, structure and the digestive role of the liver and gall bladder.

Study Objective 2: SO 24.9.1 Describe the location and structure of the liver and gallbladder.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.9 Liver and Gallbladder 14) Bile helps accomplish which of the following?

1. chemical (enzymatic) breakdown of protein 2. emulsification of large lipid globules 3. absorption of digested lipids 4. maintenance of an alkaline pH in the duodenum a) 1, 2, 3, 4 b) 1, 2, 3 c) 2, 3 d) 1, 3, 4 Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 24.9 Describe the location, structure and the digestive role of the liver and gall bladder.

Study Objective 2: SO 24.9.2 Explain the roles of the liver and gallbladder in the digestive process.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.9 Liver and Gallbladder 15) Which of the following is NOT a function of the gallbladder? a) concentrate bile b) store bile c) eject bile into the cystic duct d) synthesize bile Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 24.9 Describe the location, structure and the digestive role of the liver and gall bladder.

Study Objective 2: SO 24.9.2 Explain the roles of the liver and gallbladder in the digestive process.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.9 Liver and Gallbladder

16) The sphincter of the hepatopancreatic ampulla (sphincter of Oddi) directly controls the flow of bile between a) the liver and the gallbladder. b) the liver and the common bile duct. c) the gallbladder and the cystic duct. d) the common bile duct and the duodenum.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 24.9 Describe the location, structure and the digestive role of the liver and gall bladder.

Study Objective 2: SO 24.9.2 Explain the roles of the liver and gallbladder in the digestive process.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.9 Liver and Gallbladder 17) Peristaltic contractions a) occur in the stomach, esophagus, small intestine, and large intestine. b) are primarily responsible for mixing the food with the digestive juices. c) are of similar strength throughout the digestive canal. d) move bile through the gallbladder.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 24.10 Describe the location, structure and the digestive role of the small intestine.

Study Objective 2: SO 24.10.2 Identify the functions of the small intestine.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.10 Small Intestine 18) Which of the following is an anatomical feature of the small intestine that serves to increase the surface area for digestion and absorption? a) lacteals b) microvilli c) rugae d) mucosal folds Answer: b

Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 24.10 Describe the location, structure and the digestive role of the small intestine.

Study Objective 2: SO 24.10.1 Describe the location and structure of the small intestine.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.10 Small Intestine 19) Which of the following does NOT drive the contents of the colon into the rectum? a) peristalsis b) mass peristalsis c) segmentation d) haustral churning Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 24.11 Describe the location, structure and the digestive role of the large intestine.

Study Objective 2: SO 24.11.2 Explain the functions of the large intestine.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.11 Large Intestine 20) Contraction of which of the following aid in defecation?

1. external anal sphincter 2. circular colon muscles 3 longitudinal rectal muscles 4. internal anal sphincter 5. diaphragm 6. abdominal muscles a) 2, 3, 5, 6 b) 1, 2, 3, 4 c) 1, 2, 4 d) 3, 5, 6 Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 24.11 Describe the location, structure and the digestive role of the large intestine.

Study Objective 2: SO 24.11.2 Explain the functions of the large intestine.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.11 Large Intestine

21) Advancing a gastric tube from the oral cavity to the oropharynx requires passing through the a) fauces. b) parotid gland. c) choanae. d) inferior meatus.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 24.4 Describe the locations, structures, and functions of the salivary glands, tongue, and teeth and compare the deciduous and permanent dentitions.

Study Objective 2: SO 24.4.1 Identify the locations of the salivary glands, and describe the functions of their secretions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.4 Mouth 22) Which dome-shaped region of the stomach is located under the diaphragm? a) fundus b) cardia c) greater curvature d) pylorus Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 24.7 Describe the location, anatomy, histology, and functions of the stomach.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.7 Stomach 23) Bile secreted from the gallbladder and pancreatic juice secreted from the pancreas enter which portion of the digestive canal? a) cecum b) duodenum c) ileum d) jejunum Answer: b

Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 24.8 Describe the location, structure and the digestive role of the pancreas.

Study Objective 2: SO 24.8.1 Describe the location and structure of the pancreas.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.8 Pancreas 24) Antacid tablets (e.g. TUMS, ROLAIDS) are used to help neutralize the acidity of gastric contents. What cells are responsible for this acidity? a) chief b) mucus c) rugae d) parietal Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 24.7 Describe the location, anatomy, histology, and functions of the stomach.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.7 Stomach 25) Enzymatic breakdown of food is a form of a) absorption. b) chemical digestion. c) mechanical digestion. d) propulsion.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 24.1 Identify the organs and the basic processes performed by the digestive system.

Study Objective 2: SO 24.1.2 Describe the basic processes performed by the digestive system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.1 Overview of the Digestive System Question type: True/False 26) In the wall of the digestive canal, the mucosa and muscularis layers both contain smooth muscle.

Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 24.2 Describe the layers that form the wall of the digestive canal.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.2 Layers of the Digestive Canal 27) The palatine tonsils are located in the uvula, at the posterior border of the soft palate.

Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 24.4 Describe the locations, structures, and functions of the salivary glands, tongue, and teeth and compare the deciduous and permanent dentitions.

Study Objective 2: SO 24.4.1 Identify the locations of the salivary glands, and describe the functions of their secretions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.4 Mouth Question type: Multiple Choice 28) The tongue is attached to the floor of the oral cavity by a fold of mucous membrane called the a) fauces. b) labial frenulum. c) lingual frenulum. d) oral vestibule.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 24.4 Describe the locations, structures, and functions of the salivary glands, tongue, and teeth and compare the deciduous and permanent dentitions.

Study Objective 2: SO 24.4.2 Describe the structure and functions of the tongue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.4 Mouth Question type: True/False 29) The secretory activity of the salivary glands is controlled via vasoconstriction and

vasodilation of their blood vessels.

Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 24.4 Describe the locations, structures, and functions of the salivary glands, tongue, and teeth and compare the deciduous and permanent dentitions.

Study Objective 2: SO 24.4.1 Identify the locations of the salivary glands, and describe the functions of their secretions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.4 Mouth Question type: Multiple Choice 30) In the permanent dentition, the teeth that have two cusps and commonly one root are the a) canines. b) mandibular molars. c) maxillary molars. d) premolars (bicuspids).

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 24.4 Describe the locations, structures, and functions of the salivary glands, tongue, and teeth and compare the deciduous and permanent dentitions.

Study Objective 2: SO 24.4.3 Identify the parts of a typical tooth, and compare the deciduous and permanent dentitions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.4 Mouth Question type: Multiple Select 31) The muscularis layer of the esophagus contains (Select all that apply.) a) skeletal muscle superiorly. b) smooth muscle inferiorly. c) skeletal muscle and smooth muscle in the intermediate section. d) smooth muscle over the entire structure.

Answer: a, b, c

Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 24.6 Describe the location, histology and digestive role of the esophagus.

Study Objective 2: SO 24.6.1 Describe the location and histology of the esophagus.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.6 Esophagus Question type: True/False 32) The greater curvature of the stomach is closer to the liver than is the lesser curvature.

Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 24.7 Describe the location, anatomy, histology, and functions of the stomach.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.7 Stomach 33) The four main regions of the stomach are cardia, fundus, cecum, and pylorus.

Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 24.7 Describe the location, anatomy, histology, and functions of the stomach.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.7 Stomach Question type: Multiple Choice 34) The opening of the accessory pancreatic duct (duct of Santorini) into the duodenum is a) inferior to the opening of the hepatopancreatic ampulla (ampulla of Vater). b) superior to the opening of the hepatopancreatic ampulla (ampulla of Vater).

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 24.8 Describe the location, structure and the digestive role of the pancreas.

Study Objective 2: SO 24.8.1 Describe the location and structure of the pancreas.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.8 Pancreas Question type: True/False 35) As a result of the action of pancreatic enzymes, the following are digested in the lumen of the small intestine: carbohydrates (starches), proteins, triglycerides (fats and oils), nucleic acids.

Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 24.8 Describe the location, structure and the digestive role of the pancreas.

Study Objective 2: SO 24.8.2 Explain the role of the pancreas in digestion.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.8 Pancreas Question type: Multiple Select 36) Most pancreatic tissue (Select all that apply.) a) is endocrine in function. b) is exocrine in function. c) is arranged in cell clusters called acini. d) is arranged in cell clusters called islets.

Answer: b, c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 24.8 Describe the location, structure and the digestive role of the pancreas.

Study Objective 2: SO 24.8.1 Describe the location and structure of the pancreas.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.8 Pancreas Question type: True/False 37) The pancreas is the largest internal organ and heaviest gland of the body.

Answer: False

Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 24.9 Describe the location, structure and the digestive role of the liver and gall bladder.

Study Objective 2: SO 24.9.1 Describe the location and structure of the liver and gallbladder.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.9 Liver and Gallbladder 38) The hepatic veins deliver nutrient-rich blood to the sinusoids of the liver.

Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 24.9 Describe the location, structure and the digestive role of the liver and gall bladder.

Study Objective 2: SO 24.9.1 Describe the location and structure of the liver and gallbladder.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.9 Liver and Gallbladder Question type: Multiple Select 39) Mucus in the small intestine is secreted by (Select all that apply.) a) absorptive cells in the mucosa. b) duodenal glands (Brunner’s glands) in the submucosa. c) goblet cells in the mucosa. d) S cells in the intestinal glands.

Answer: b, c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 24.10 Describe the location, structure and the digestive role of the small intestine.

Study Objective 2: SO 24.10.1 Describe the location and structure of the small intestine.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.10 Small Intestine Question type: True/False 40) Paneth cells, circular folds (plicae circulares), brush border enzymes and lacteals are all characteristics of the small intestine.

Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 24.10 Describe the location, structure and the digestive role of the small intestine.

Study Objective 2: SO 24.10.1 Describe the location and structure of the small intestine.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.10 Small Intestine Question type: Multiple Choice 41) Pouches of the large intestine that give it a puckered appearance are called a) haustra. b) epiploic (omental) appendices. c) lamina propria. d) teniae coli.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 24.11 Describe the location, structure and the digestive role of the large intestine.

Study Objective 2: SO 24.11.1 Describe the anatomy and structure of the large intestine.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.11 Large Intestine Question type: True/False 42) From the primitive gut, the endodermal layer gives rise to the epithelial lining and glands of most of the digestive canal, whereas the smooth muscle and connective tissue develop from the mesodermal layer.

Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 24.12 Describe the development of the digestive system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.12 Development of the Digestive System

Question type: Multiple Choice 43) Which label is pointing to a structure made of calcified connective tissue which makes up the majority of the tooth?

a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 24.4 Describe the locations, structures, and functions of the salivary glands, tongue, and teeth and compare the deciduous and permanent dentitions.

Study Objective 2: SO 24.4.3 Identify the parts of a typical tooth, and compare the deciduous and permanent dentitions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.4 Mouth Question type: Essay 44) Describe the teeth of the permanent dentition in order from anterior to posterior.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard

Bloom’s: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 24.4 Describe the locations, structures, and functions of the salivary glands, tongue, and teeth and compare the deciduous and permanent dentitions.

Study Objective 2: SO 24.4.3 Identify the parts of a typical tooth, and compare the deciduous and permanent dentitions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.4 Mouth Solution: Refer to Fig. 24.7: Dentitions and times of eruptions.

Question type: Multiple Choice 45) Identify the pyloric antrum.

a) A b) B c) C d) D Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 24.7 Describe the location, anatomy, histology, and functions of the stomach.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.7 Stomach Question type: Essay

46) Trace the route most commonly traveled by pancreatic juice, from its production until it is in the lumen of the intestine.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 24.8 Describe the location, structure and the digestive role of the pancreas.

Study Objective 2: SO 24.8.1 Describe the location and structure of the pancreas.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.8 Pancreas Solution: Pancreatic juice may travel through the following: acini, small ducts, pancreatic duct, hepatopancreatic ampulla, major duodenal papilla.

47) Describe the route traveled by bile from the time it is secreted until it enters the duodenum.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 24.9 Describe the location, structure and the digestive role of the liver and gall bladder.

Study Objective 2: SO 24.9.1 Describe the location and structure of the liver and gallbladder.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.9 Liver and Gallbladder Solution: Bile travels through bile canaliculi, bile ducts, right or left hepatic duct, common hepatic duct, common bile duct (or cystic duct for storage in the gall bladder), hepatopancreatic ampulla.

48) Describe the route traveled by chyme from the time it leaves the ileum until it is expelled as feces from the body. As you mention the regions of the large intestine, state which are retroperitoneal.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 24.11 Describe the location, structure and the digestive role of the large intestine.

Study Objective 2: SO 24.11.1 Describe the anatomy and structure of the large intestine.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.11 Large Intestine Solution: The following terms should be included: ileocecal valve, cecum, ascending colon (retroperitoneal), right colic (hepatic) flexure, transverse colon, left colic (splenic) flexure,

descending colon (retroperitoneal), sigmoid colon, rectum, anal canal, anus (internal involuntary sphincter, external voluntary sphincter).

Question type: Multiple Choice 49) What is the structure indicated in the figure?

a) stomach b) pancreas c) esophagus d) pharynx Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 24.1 Identify the organs and the basic processes performed by the digestive system.

Study Objective 2: SO 24.1.1 Identify the organs of the digestive system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.1 Overview of the Digestive System 50) Identify the structure indicated in the figure.

a) gallbladder b) sigmoid colon c) greater omentum d) lesser omentum Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 24.3 Describe the peritoneum and its folds.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.3 Peritoneum 51) What structure is the arrow is pointing to?

a) parotid duct b) mylohyoid duct c) submandibular duct d) sublingual duct Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 24.4 Describe the locations, structures, and functions of the salivary glands, tongue, and teeth and compare the deciduous and permanent dentitions.

Study Objective 2: SO 24.4.1 Identify the locations of the salivary glands, and describe the functions of their secretions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.4 Mouth 52) What is the structure the arrow is pointing to?

a) rugae b) fundus c) cardia d) pyloric sphincter Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 24.7 Describe the location, anatomy, histology, and functions of the stomach.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.7 Stomach Question type: True/False 53) The digestive canal is found in the thoracic, abdominal and pelvic cavities.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 24.1 Identify the organs and the basic processes performed by the digestive system.

Study Objective 2: SO 24.1.1 Identify the organs of the digestive system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.1 Overview of the Digestive System

Question type: Multiple Choice 54) The length of the digestive canal is longer after death because of a lack of a) ascites. b) motility. c) peristalsis. d) tonus.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 24.1 Identify the organs and the basic processes performed by the digestive system.

Study Objective 2: SO 24.1.1 Identify the organs of the digestive system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.1 Overview of the Digestive System 55) Which of the following is an accessory digestive organ? a) tongue b) esophagus c) small intestine d) large intestine Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 24.1 Identify the organs and the basic processes performed by the digestive system.

Study Objective 2: SO 24.1.1 Identify the organs of the digestive system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.1 Overview of the Digestive System 56) The release of hydrochloric acid (HCl) into the lumen of the stomach is which basic process of digestion? a) ingestion b) secretion c) absorption d) defecation

e) mastication Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 24.1 Identify the organs and the basic processes performed by the digestive system.

Study Objective 2: SO 24.1.2 Describe the basic processes performed by the digestive system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.1 Overview of the Digestive System 57) Which of the following substances need to undergo digestion before being absorbed into the cells lining the digestive canal? a) water b) vitamins c) minerals d) proteins e) cholesterols Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 24.1 Identify the organs and the basic processes performed by the digestive system.

Study Objective 2: SO 24.1.2 Describe the basic processes performed by the digestive system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.1 Overview of the Digestive System 58) The type of epithelial tissue found in the mouth, pharynx, esophagus, and anal canal is a) keratinized stratified squamous epithelium. b) nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium. c) simple columnar epithelium. d) stratified columnar epithelium.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 24.2 Describe the layers that form the wall of the digestive canal.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.2 Layers of the Digestive Canal

Question type: True/False 59) The esophagus is not suspended in a cavity and therefore will not have a true serous membrane.

Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 24.2 Describe the layers that form the wall of the digestive canal.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.2 Layers of the Digestive Canal 60) The cells of the serous layer of the alimentary canal come in contact with food.

Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 24.2 Describe the layers that form the wall of the digestive canal.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.2 Layers of the Digestive Canal Question type: Multiple Choice 61) Which of the following lines the wall of the abdominal cavity? a) mucosa b) parietal peritoneum c) serosa d) visceral peritoneum Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 24.3 Describe the peritoneum and its folds.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.3 Peritoneum 62) The greater omentum attaches to which two organs in the abdominopelvic cavity? a) liver and lesser curvature of the stomach b) greater curvature of the stomach and transverse colon

c) ascending colon and duodenum d) pancreas and kidney Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 24.3 Describe the peritoneum and its folds.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.3 Peritoneum 63) Which structure of the peritoneum is the only one to attach to the anterior body wall? a) lesser omentum b) greater omentum c) mesentery d) falciform ligament e) mesocolon Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 24.3 Describe the peritoneum and its folds.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.3 Peritoneum 64) Which type of papillae of the tongue lack taste buds and are used to detect touch rather than taste? a) fungiform papillae b) vallate (circumvallate) papillae c) foliate papillae d) filiform papillae Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 24.4 Describe the locations, structures, and functions of the salivary glands, tongue, and teeth and compare the deciduous and permanent dentitions.

Study Objective 2: SO 24.4.2 Describe the structure and functions of the tongue.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.4 Mouth 65) Which region of the digestive canal receives a bolus from oral cavity and passes it into the

esophagus? a) oropharynx b) laryngopharynx c) nasopharynx d) oropharynx and laryngopharynx e) oropharynx and nasopharynx Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 24.5 Describe the structure and function of the pharynx.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.5 Pharynx Question type: Multiple Choice 66) Food that has been chewed and then passes into the pharynx is referred to as a) a bolus. b) chyme. c) cecum. d) lipase.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 24.5 Describe the structure and function of the pharynx.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.5 Pharynx Question type: Multiple Select 67) The esophagus lies (Select all that apply.) a) anterior to the trachea. b) posterior to the trachea. c) inferior to the pharynx. d) superior to the pharynx.

Answer: b, c

Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 24.5 Describe the structure and function of the pharynx.

Study Objective 2: SO 24.6 Describe the location, histology and digestive role of the esophagus.

Study Objective 3: SO 24.6.1 Describe the location and histology of the esophagus.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.5 Pharynx Section Reference 2: Sec 24.6 Esophagus Question type: Multiple Choice 68) The upper esophageal sphincter is composed of skeletal muscle. The lower esophageal sphincter is composed of smooth muscle. a) Both statements are true. b) Both statements are false. c) The first statement is true; the second is false. d) The second statement is true; the first is false.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 24.6 Describe the location, histology and digestive role of the esophagus.

Study Objective 2: SO 24.6.2 Explain the function of the esophagus in the digestive process.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.6 Esophagus Question type: True/False 69) Substances secreted from the pancreas gives pancreatic juice a slightly alkaline pH which buffers the acids in the chyme.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 24.8 Describe the location, structure and the digestive role of the pancreas.

Study Objective 2: SO 24.8.2 Explain the role of the pancreas in digestion.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.8 Pancreas Question type: Multiple Choice

70) The majority of nutrient digestion and absorption occurs in the a) large intestine. b) mouth. c) small intestine. d) stomach.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 24.10 Describe the location, structure and the digestive role of the small intestine.

Study Objective 2: SO 24.10.2 Identify the functions of the small intestine.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.10 Small Intestine 71) In the small intestine, segmentation begins with the contraction of this muscle layer. a) longitudinal b) circular c) oblique Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 24.10 Describe the location, structure and the digestive role of the small intestine.

Study Objective 2: SO 24.10.2 Identify the functions of the small intestine.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.10 Small Intestine 72) Which of the following substances are not absorbed in the large intestine? a) water b) vitamins c) soluble fiber d) electrolytes Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension

Study Objective 1: SO 24.11 Describe the location, structure and the digestive role of the large intestine.

Study Objective 2: SO 24.11.2 Explain the functions of the large intestine.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.11 Large Intestine 73) The cecum directs waste into which structure of the large intestine? a) descending colon b) transverse colon c) ascending colon d) sigmoid colon Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 24.11 Describe the location, structure and the digestive role of the large intestine.

Study Objective 2: SO 24.11.1 Describe the anatomy and structure of the large intestine.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.11 Large Intestine 74) During fetal development, which structure develops from the foregut? a) appendix b) jejunum c) pharynx d) sigmoid colon e) anal canal Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 24.12 Describe the development of the digestive system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.12 Development of the Digestive System Question type: Multiple Select 75) Common changes in the digestive organs in the elderly include (Select all that apply.) a) decreased motility. b) increased mucosal secretions.

c) loss of tone of the muscle layer. d) malabsorption.

Answer: a, c, d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 24.13 Describe the effects of aging on the digestive system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.13 Aging and the Digestive System Question type: Multiple Choice 76) The oral cavity develops from the a) hindgut. b) midgut. c) proctodeum. d) stomodeum.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 24.12 Describe the development of the digestive system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.12 Development of the Digestive System Question type: Multiple Select 77) Colorectal cancer (Select all that apply.) a) ranks second to lung cancer in males as far as deadliest malignancy. b) is not influenced by genetics. c) may include symptoms of diarrhea. d) may be screened for by checking for blood in the feces.

Answer: a, c, d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 24.13 Describe the effects of aging on the digestive system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.13 Aging and the Digestive System

78) Aging may lead to which of the following? Select all that apply. a) difficulty swallowing b) hiatal hernia c) loss of taste d) increased sensitivity to mouth irritation Answer: a, b, c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 24.13 Describe the effects of aging on the digestive system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.13 Aging and the Digestive System Question type: Multiple Choice 79) Mumps usually causes enlargement of which glands? a) parotid glands b) sublingual glands c) submandibular glands Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 24.4 Describe the locations, structures, and functions of the salivary glands, tongue, and teeth and compare the deciduous and permanent dentitions.

Study Objective 2: SO 24.4.1 Identify the locations of the salivary glands, and describe the functions of their secretions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.4 Mouth 80) The enzymatic digestion of protein begins in the a) large intestine. b) mouth. c) small intestine. d) stomach.

Answer: d

Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 24.7 Describe the location, anatomy, histology, and functions of the stomach.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.7 Stomach 81) Parker eats a hamburger for dinner which is full of a lot of protein. Which enzyme will begin the process of digesting the protein? a) gastric lipase b) pepsin c) pancreatic lipase d) salivary amylase Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 24.7 Describe the location, anatomy, histology, and functions of the stomach.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.7 Stomach Question type: Multiple Select 82) Select the enzyme(s) from the pancreas which digest protein. Select all that apply. a) carboxypeptidase b) chymotrypsin c) pepsin d) trypsin Answer: a, b, d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 24.8 Describe the location, structure and the digestive role of the pancreas.

Study Objective 2: SO 24.8.2 Explain the role of the pancreas in digestion.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.8 Pancreas Question type: Multiple Choice

83) Which is typically spread by the fecal-oral route? a) hepatitis A b) hepatitis B c) hepatitis C d) hepatitis D Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 24.9 Describe the location, structure and the digestive role of the liver and gallbladder.

Study Objective 2: SO 24.9.2 Explain the roles of the liver and gallbladder in the digestive process.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.9 Liver and Gallbladder 84) Which organ serves the largest role in detoxification of alcohol? a) gallbladder b) liver c) small intestine d) stomach Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 24.9 Describe the location, structure and the digestive role of the liver and gallbladder.

Study Objective 2: SO 24.9.2 Explain the roles of the liver and gallbladder in the digestive process.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.9 Liver and Gallbladder 85) The middle portion of the small intestine is the a) cecum. b) duodenum. c) ileum. d) jejunum.

Answer: d

Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 24.10 Describe the location, structure and the digestive role of the small intestine.

Study Objective 2: SO 24.10.1 Describe the location and structure of the small intestine.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.10 Small Intestine Question type: Multiple Select 86) Carbohydrate digesting enzymes of the small intestine include (Select all that apply.) a) aminopeptidase. b) lactase. c) maltase. d) sucrase.

Answer: b, c, d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 24.10 Describe the location, structure and the digestive role of the small intestine.

Study Objective 2: SO 24.10.2 Identify the functions of the small intestine.

Section Reference 1: Sec 24.10 Small Intestine

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pha14 Chapter Number: 25 Question type: Multiple Choice 1) Which of the following is NOT true regarding the location of the kidneys? a) They are partially protected by the floating ribs (11th and 12th pairs). b) The left kidney is slightly lower than the right. c) They are located between the peritoneum and the posterior wall of the abdomen. d) They are situated between the levels of the last thoracic and third lumbar vertebrae.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 25.2 Describe the kidneys’ internal and external gross anatomical features, microscopic structures, and pathway of blood flow.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.2.1 Describe the external gross anatomical features of the kidneys.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.2 Anatomy of the Kidneys 2) The right kidney is slightly lower than the left due to the position of which organ? a) spleen b) pancreas c) lung d) liver Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 25.2 Describe the kidneys’ internal and external gross anatomical features, microscopic structures, and pathway of blood flow.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.2.1 Describe the external gross anatomical features of the kidneys.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.2 Anatomy of the Kidneys 3) The concave border of the kidney faces the a) vertebral column b) diaphragm

c) pelvis d) urinary bladder Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 25.2 Describe the kidneys’ internal and external gross anatomical features, microscopic structures, and pathway of blood flow.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.2.1 Describe the external gross anatomical features of the kidneys.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.2 Anatomy of the Kidneys 4) Three layers of tissue surround each kidney. They are, in order from innermost (deepest) to outermost (most superficial): 1. fibrous capsule 2. visceral peritoneum (serosa) 3. perirenal fat capsule 4. renal fascia a) 1, 3, 4 b) 2, 3, 4 c) 1, 3, 2 d) 4, 3, 1 Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 25.2 Describe the kidneys’ internal and external gross anatomical features, microscopic structures, and pathway of blood flow.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.2.1 Describe the external gross anatomical features of the kidneys.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.2 Anatomy of the Kidneys 5) Which of the following structures would not be located entering/exiting the renal hilum? a) blood vessel b) lymphatic vessel c) nerve d) urethra Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension

Study Objective 1: SO 25.2 Describe the kidneys’ internal and external gross anatomical features, microscopic structures, and pathway of blood flow.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.2.2 Explain the internal gross anatomical features of the kidneys.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.2 Anatomy of the Kidneys 6) Trace the route of an oxygenated red blood cell from the time it passes into the kidney in a renal artery until it enters a venule as a deoxygenated red blood cell by placing the following vessels in their correct order: 1. segmental artery 2. arcuate artery 3. interlobar artery 4. peritubular capillary 5. afferent arteriole 6. peritubular venule 7. efferent arteriole 8. cortical radiate artery 9. glomerulus a) 1, 3, 2, 8, 5, 9, 7, 4, 6 b) 3, 2, 1, 8, 4, 7, 9, 5, 6 c) 1, 8, 2, 3, 7, 9, 5, 4, 6 d) 1, 2, 3, 8, 5, 9, 7, 6, 4 Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 25.2 Describe the kidneys’ internal and external gross anatomical features, microscopic structures, and pathway of blood flow.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.2.3 Trace the path of blood flow through the kidneys.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.2 Anatomy of the Kidneys 7) A nephron consists of two parts a) renal corpuscle and renal tubule b) glomerulus and glomerular capsule c) proximal and distal convoluted tubules d) glomerulus and collecting duct Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the histology of each of the parts of a nephron.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.3.1 Describe the parts of a nephron.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 The Nephron 8) Which of the following structures is NOT a portion of a nephron? a) vasa recta b) nephron loop (loop of Henle) c) distal convoluted tubule d) proximal convoluted tubule Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the histology of each of the parts of a nephron.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.3.1 Describe the parts of a nephron.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 The Nephron 9) The visceral layer of the glomerular capsule (Bowman’s capsule) a) forms the outermost (superficial) wall of the capsule b) contains cells called podocytes c) consists of extracellular material d) contains both connective tissue and simple squamous epithelium Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the histology of each of the parts of a nephron.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.3.2 Compare the histology of the different parts of a nephron.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 The Nephron 10) Cortical nephrons lack one portion of the renal tubule that is found in juxtamedullary nephrons, the a) thick segment of the ascending limb of the nephron loop (loop of Henle). b) thin segment of the ascending limb of the nephron loop (loop of Henle). c) proximal convoluted tubule. d) distal convoluted tubule.

Answer: b

Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the histology of each of the parts of a nephron.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.3.1 Describe the parts of a nephron.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 The Nephron 11) The two portions of a nephron that commonly contribute to the juxtaglomerular apparatus are the a) glomerulus and distal convoluted tubule b) descending limb of nephron loop (loop of Henle) and efferent arteriole c) final part of ascending limb of nephron loop (loop of Henle) and afferent arteriole d) glomerulus and collecting duct Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the histology of each of the parts of a nephron.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.3.2 Compare the histology of the different parts of a nephron.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 The Nephron 12) Juxtaglomerular cells a) have receptors for both antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and aldosterone b) are found in the macula densa c) are modified smooth muscle fibers (cells) in the wall of the afferent arteriole d) are found in the distal convoluted tubules and collecting duct Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the histology of each of the parts of a nephron.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.3.2 Compare the histology of the different parts of a nephron.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 The Nephron 13) Normally, urine is prevented from backing up into the ureters from a full bladder due to a) gravity b) hydrostatic pressure from the renal pelvis c) sphincters (anatomical valves) at the junctions of the ureters and bladder d) physiological valves where pressure in the bladder compresses oblique openings into the

ureters Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 25.5 Describe the structure and function of the ureters, urinary bladder and urethra including the gender differences in the urethral structure.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.5.1 Describe the structure and function of the ureters.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.5 Urine Transportation, Storage, and Elimination 14) The urinary bladder is posterior to the pubic symphysis in males. In females, the urinary bladder is posterior to the vagina. a) Both statements are true. b) Both statements are false. c) The first statement is true; the second is false. d) The second statement is true; the first is false.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 25.5 Describe the structure and function of the ureters, urinary bladder and urethra including the gender differences in the urethral structure.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.5.2 Explain the histology of the urinary bladder and its role in micturition.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.5 Urine Transportation, Storage, and Elimination 15) The internal urethral sphincter is formed by circular smooth muscle. The external urethral sphincter is derived from voluntary skeletal muscle. a) Both statements are true. b) Both statements are false. c) The first statement is true; the second is false. d) The second statement is true; the first is false.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 25.5 Describe the structure and function of the ureters, urinary bladder and urethra including the gender differences in the urethral structure.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.5.2 Explain the histology of the urinary bladder and its role in

micturition.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.5 Urine Transportation, Storage, and Elimination Question type: Multiple Select 16) The lining of the male urethra contains (Select all that apply.) a) transitional epithelium b) pseudostratified columnar epithelium c) stratified squamous epithelium d) stratified cuboidal epithelium Answer: a, b, c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 25.5 Describe the structure and function of the ureters, urinary bladder and urethra including the gender differences in the urethral structure.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.5.3 Indicate the differences in structure in the urethras of males and females, and explain how they affect the organ’s function.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.5 Urine Transportation, Storage, and Elimination Question type: Multiple Choice 17) The shortest portion of the male urethra is the a) spongy urethra b) membranous urethra c) prostatic urethra d) penile urethra Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 25.5 Describe the structure and function of the ureters, urinary bladder and urethra including the gender differences in the urethral structure.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.5.3 Indicate the differences in structure in the urethras of males and females, and explain how they affect the organ’s function.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.5 Urine Transportation, Storage, and Elimination

18) Which of the following structures normally transport blood?

1. glomerular (Bowman’s) capsule 2. glomerulus 3. efferent arteriole 4. nephron loop (loop of Henle) 5. collecting duct 6. vasa recta a) 1, 4 and 5 b) 2, 3 and 6 c) 4 and 5 only d) 3 and 6 only Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 25.2 Describe the kidneys’ internal and external gross anatomical features, microscopic structures, and pathway of blood flow.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.2.3 Trace the path of blood flow through the kidneys.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.2 Anatomy of the Kidneys 19) In severe cases of urinary incontinence, a suprapubic catheter (a tube placed in the bladder from the anterior abdominal wall) is used to aid in voiding urine. With the placement of this catheter, urine does not pass through the a) nephron b) ureters c) urethra d) renal pelvis Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 25.5 Describe the structure and function of the ureters, urinary bladder and urethra including the gender differences in the urethral structure.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.5.2 Explain the histology of the urinary bladder and its role in micturition.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.5 Urine Transportation, Storage, and Elimination 20) Which structure(s) is/are made of skeletal muscle? a) detrusor muscle (intermediate muscularis)

b) internal urethral sphincter c) external urethral sphincter d) detrusor muscle (intermediate muscularis) and external urethral sphincter Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 25.5 Describe the structure and function of the ureters, urinary bladder and urethra including the gender differences in the urethral structure.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.5.2 Explain the histology of the urinary bladder and its role in micturition.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.5 Urine Transportation, Storage, and Elimination 21) A patient who suffers from chronic bladder infections could eventually develop a more serious kidney infection. Which structure is responsible for the spread of the inflammation? a) urethra b) physiological valve between bladder and ureter c) external urethral sphincter d) internal urethral sphincter Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 25.5 Describe the structure and function of the ureters, urinary bladder and urethra including the gender differences in the urethral structure.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.5.1 Describe the structure and function of the ureters.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.5 Urine Transportation, Storage, and Elimination Question type: True/False 22) The urinary system consists of two kidneys, two urethras, one urinary bladder, and one ureter.

Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 25.1 Describe the major structures of the urinary system and the functions they perform.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.1 Overview of the Urinary System

23) The ureters transport urine from the kidneys to the urinary bladder.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 25.1 Describe the major structures of the urinary system and the functions they perform.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.1 Overview of the Urinary System Question type: Multiple Select 24) The kidneys produce two hormones (Select all that apply.) a) calcitonin b) calcitriol c) erythropoietin d) growth hormone Answer: b, c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 25.1 Describe the major structures of the urinary system and the functions they perform.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.1 Overview of the Urinary System Question type: True/False 25) The kidneys release glucose into the blood to maintain normal blood glucose levels.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 25.1 Describe the major structures of the urinary system and the functions they perform.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.1 Overview of the Urinary System

26) The kidneys are located within the peritoneum cavity of the abdomen.

Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 25.2 Describe the kidneys’ internal and external gross anatomical features, microscopic structures, and pathway of blood flow.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.2.1 Describe the external gross anatomical features of the kidneys.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.2 Anatomy of the Kidneys Question type: Multiple Select 27) A renal papilla (Select all that apply.) a) is located at the base (wider end) of each renal pyramid b) is located at the apex (narrower end) of each renal pyramid c) points toward the hilum of a kidney d) points toward the renal cortex of a kidney Answer: b, c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 25.2 Describe the kidneys’ internal and external gross anatomical features, microscopic structures, and pathway of blood flow.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.2.2 Explain the internal gross anatomical features of the kidneys.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.2 Anatomy of the Kidneys Question type: Multiple Choice 28) The renal corpuscle, proximal convoluted tubule, and distal convoluted tubule of a nephron are located within the a) renal cortex b) renal medulla Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the histology of each of the parts of a nephron.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.3.1 Describe the parts of a nephron.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 The Nephron Question type: True/False 29) The kidneys contain more cortical nephrons than juxtamedullary nephrons.

Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the histology of each of the parts of a nephron.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.3.1 Describe the parts of a nephron.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 The Nephron 30) All nephron loops (loops of Henle) receive their blood supply from the vasa recta.

Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the histology of each of the parts of a nephron.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.3.1 Describe the parts of a nephron.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 The Nephron 31) The renal cortex contains the renal corpuscles and most parts of the renal tubules except for the nephron loops (loops of Henle) of the juxtamedullary nephrons.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the histology of each of the parts of a nephron.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.3.1 Describe the parts of a nephron.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 The Nephron 32) Approximately 50% of the resting cardiac output is received by the kidneys.

Answer: False Difficulty: Medium

Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 25.2 Describe the kidneys’ internal and external gross anatomical features, microscopic structures, and pathway of blood flow.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.2.3 Trace the path of blood flow through the kidneys.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.2 Anatomy of the Kidneys Question type: Multiple Choice 33) Which process rids the body of some materials such as hydrogen ions and ammonium ions and some drugs such as penicillin? a) tubular reabsorption b) tubular secretion Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 25.4 Describe the three major processes in urine formation and where each occurs in the nephron and collecting ducts.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.4.3 Identify the events of tubular secretion and where they occur.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.4 Functions of Nephrons Question type: True/False 34) The distal (last) region of a ureter has only two layers of smooth muscle in the muscularis.

Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 25.5 Describe the structure and function of the ureters, urinary bladder and urethra including the gender differences in the urethral structure.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.5.1 Describe the structure and function of the ureters.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.5 Urine Transportation, Storage, and Elimination 35) There are three openings into the urinary bladder: a pair of ureteral openings and an internal urethral orifice.

Answer: True

Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 25.5 Describe the structure and function of the ureters, urinary bladder and urethra including the gender differences in the urethral structure.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.5.2 Explain the histology of the urinary bladder and its role in micturition.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.5 Urine Transportation, Storage, and Elimination 36) The female urethra opens between the clitoris and the vaginal opening.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 25.5 Describe the structure and function of the ureters, urinary bladder and urethra including the gender differences in the urethral structure.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.5.3 Indicate the differences in structure in the urethras of males and females, and explain how they affect the organ’s function.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.5 Urine Transportation, Storage, and Elimination Question type: Multiple Choice 37) When do the fetal kidneys begin excreting urine? a) first month b) third month c) fifth month d) seventh month Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 25.6 Describe the development of the urinary system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.6 Development of the Urinary System Question type: Essay 38) List the functions of the urinary system.

Answer:

Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 25.1 Describe the major structures of the urinary system and the functions they perform.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.1 Overview of the Urinary System Solution: 1) Regulation of blood ionic composition. 2) Regulation of blood pH. 3) Regulation of blood volume. 4) Enzymatic regulation of blood pressure. 5) Maintenance of blood osmolarity.

6) Production of hormones. 7) Regulation of blood glucose level. 8) Excretion of wastes and foreign substances. In addition, the ureters and urethra transport urine; the urinary bladder is a site of temporary storage.

Question type: Multiple Choice 39) The indentation on the concave border of each kidney is the renal a) capsule b) cortex c) hilum d) medulla Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 25.2 Describe the kidneys’ internal and external gross anatomical features, microscopic structures, and pathway of blood flow.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.2.1 Describe the external gross anatomical features of the kidneys.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.2 Anatomy of the Kidneys 40) An enzyme released by the kidney which indirectly causes an increase in blood pressure is a) aldosterone b) calcitriol c) erythropoietin d) renin Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 25.1 Describe the major structures of the urinary system and the functions they perform.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.1 Overview of the Urinary System Question type: Essay 41) Describe the layers through which a substance will pass when moving from glomerular blood into filtrate of the capsular space.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 25.4 Describe the three major processes in urine formation and where each occurs in the nephron and collecting ducts.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.4.4 Describe the filtration membrane.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.4 Functions of Nephrons Solution: (1.) Endothelial fenestrations of the glomerulus: large pores that allow passage of solutes, but prevent blood cells and platelets from entering the filtrate. (2.) Basement membrane of the glomerulus: glycoprotein matrix and fibrils between the endothelium and the visceral layer of the glomerular capsule; prevents passage of larger negatively charged plasma proteins into the filtrate. (3.) Slit membranes between pedicels of podocytes (cells of the visceral layer of the glomerular capsule): the slit membrane prevents the filtration of medium-sized proteins 42) Urine formation involves three processes. Define them and name the regions of the nephron and blood supply involved in each process.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 25.4 Describe the three major processes in urine formation and where each occurs in the nephron and collecting ducts.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.4.1 Explain the role of the nephrons and collecting ducts in glomerular filtration.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.4.2 Outline the steps of tubular reabsorption and explain where it occurs.

Study Objective 3: SO 25.4.3 Identify the events of tubular secretion and where they occur.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.4 Functions of Nephrons Solution: In glomerular filtration (1), blood enters the glomerulus via the afferent arteriole.

Blood cells and other larger solutes stay in the blood and leave the glomerulus via the efferent arteriole. The efferent arteriole becomes the peritubular capillary which runs along the tubule.

Filtrate formed in the glomerular (Bowman’s) capsule flows through the three parts of the renal tubule (PCT, nephron loop (loop of Henle), DCT). In the process of reabsorption (2), items in the filtrate stay in the body as they move from the tubule to the blood in the peritubular capillaries.

In the process of tubular secretion (3), excess ions or drugs like penicillin that were too large to filter, but need to be removed from the body as urine, move from the blood in the peritubular capillaries to the filtrate in the tubule. Processed filtrate (not reabsorbed) passes to a collecting duct and becomes urine.

Question type: Multiple Choice 43) Three coats make up the wall of the urinary bladder. They are, in order from innermost (deepest) to outermost (most superficial): 1. adventitia and serosa 2. intermediate muscular layer 3.mucosa a) 1, 2, 3 b) 3, 2, 1 c) 2, 3, 1 d) 2, 1, 3 Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 25.5 Describe the structure and function of the ureters, urinary bladder and urethra including the gender differences in the urethral structure.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.5.2 Explain the histology of the urinary bladder and its role in micturition.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.5 Urine Transportation, Storage, and Elimination 44) What is the structure that is indicated on the diagram?

a) right renal artery b) left renal vein c) left ureter d) left urethra Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 25.1 Describe the major structures of the urinary system and the functions they perform.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.1 Overview of the Urinary System 45) What structure is the arrow pointing to?

a) suprarenal gland b) perirenal fat capsule c) quadratus lumborum d) peritoneum Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 25.2 Describe the kidneys’ internal and external gross anatomical features, microscopic structures, and pathway of blood flow.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.2.1 Describe the external gross anatomical features of the kidneys.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.2 Anatomy of the Kidneys 46) What is the structure indicated in the photo of a kidney?

a) renal pelvis b) minor calyx c) renal vein d) major calyx Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 25.2 Describe the kidneys’ internal and external gross anatomical features, microscopic structures, and pathway of blood flow.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.2.2 Explain the internal gross anatomical features of the kidneys.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.2 Anatomy of the Kidneys 47) What is the structure indicated in the illustration?

a) mesangial cells b) pedicels c) parietal layer of capsule d) macula densa Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the histology of each of the parts of a nephron.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.3.2 Compare the histology of the different parts of a nephron.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 The Nephron 48) What is the structure or area that the arrow is pointing to?

a) peritoneum b) internal urethral sphincter c) detrusor muscle d) trigone Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 25.5 Describe the structure and function of the ureters, urinary bladder and urethra including the gender differences in the urethral structure.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.5.2 Explain the histology of the urinary bladder and its role in micturition.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.5 Urine Transportation, Storage, and Elimination Question type: True/False 49) The renal cortex is deep to the renal medulla.

Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 25.2 Describe the kidneys’ internal and external gross anatomical

features, microscopic structures, and pathway of blood flow.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.2.2 Explain the internal gross anatomical features of the kidneys.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.2 Anatomy of the Kidneys Question type: Multiple Choice 50) The kidney has a) more major calyces than minor calyces b) more minor calyces than major calyces Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 25.2 Describe the kidneys’ internal and external gross anatomical features, microscopic structures, and pathway of blood flow.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.2.2 Explain the internal gross anatomical features of the kidneys.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.2 Anatomy of the Kidneys 51) The major blood vessel that supplies the kidney with blood from the heart is the a) arcuate vein b) interlobar artery c) renal artery d) renal vein Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 25.2 Describe the kidneys’ internal and external gross anatomical features, microscopic structures, and pathway of blood flow.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.2.3 Trace the path of blood flow through the kidneys.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.2 Anatomy of the Kidneys Question type: True/False 52) The proximal convoluted tubule cells have microvilli on their apical surface to assist in reabsorption and secretion.

Answer: True

Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the histology of each of the parts of a nephron.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.3.2 Compare the histology of the different parts of a nephron.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 The Nephron Question type: Multiple Choice 53) Aldosterone and antidiuretic hormone target the principal cells of the a) collecting duct b) distal convoluted tubule c) nephron loop d) proximal convoluted tubule Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the histology of each of the parts of a nephron.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.3.2 Compare the histology of the different parts of a nephron.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 The Nephron 54) Painful urination, as may occur with aging, is called a) dysuria b) hematuria c) nocturia d) polyuria Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 25.7 Outline the effects of aging on the urinary system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.7 Aging and the Urinary System Question type: True/False 55) The filtration membrane consists of the glomerulus and the podocytes that surround the glomerulus.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 25.4 Describe the three major processes in urine formation and where each occurs in the nephron and collecting ducts.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.4.4 Describe the filtration membrane.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.4 Functions of Nephrons Question type: Multiple Choice 56) When mesangial cells relax, a) the surface area of the glomerulus increases causing glomerular filtration to increase b) the surface area of the glomerulus decreases causing glomerular filtration to decrease c) the surface area of the glomerulus increases causing glomerular filtration to decrease d) the surface area of the glomerulus decreases causing glomerular filtration to increase Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 25.4 Describe the three major processes in urine formation and where each occurs in the nephron and collecting ducts.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.4.1 Explain the role of the nephrons and collecting ducts in glomerular filtration.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.4 Functions of Nephrons Question type: True/False 57) Potassium ions (K+) secreted from tubule cells into the tubular fluids help control blood pH. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 25.4 Describe the three major processes in urine formation and where each occurs in the nephron and collecting ducts.

Study Objective 3: SO 25.4.3 Identify the events of tubular secretion and where they occur.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.4 Functions of Nephrons

Question type: Multiple Choice 58) The portion of the renal cortex that extends between the renal pyramids are the a) renal papilla b) renal columns c) renal medulla d) papillary duct Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 25.2 Describe the kidneys’ internal and external gross anatomical features, microscopic structures, and pathway of blood flow.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.2.2 Explain the internal gross anatomical features of the kidneys.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.2 Anatomy of the Kidneys 59) The first branch of the renal artery is the a) arcuate artery b) interlobar artery c) segmental artery d) efferent arteriole Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 25.2 Describe the kidneys’ internal and external gross anatomical features, microscopic structures, and pathway of blood flow.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.2.3 Trace the path of blood flow through the kidneys.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.2 Anatomy of the Kidneys 60) At the base of each renal pyramid, the interlobar arteries arch between the medulla and cortex to become the a) cortical radiate arteries b) arcuate arteries c) segmental arteries d) renal arteries

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 25.2 Describe the kidneys’ internal and external gross anatomical features, microscopic structures, and pathway of blood flow.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.2.3 Trace the path of blood flow through the kidneys.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.2 Anatomy of the Kidneys 61) Peritubular capillaries surround parts of the nephron in the renal cortex. The vasa recta surrounds portions of the nephron in the renal medulla. a) Both statements are true. b) Both statements are false. c) The first statement is true; the second is false. d) The second statement is true; the first is false.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 25.2 Describe the kidneys’ internal and external gross anatomical features, microscopic structures, and pathway of blood flow.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.2.3 Trace the path of blood flow through the kidneys.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.2 Anatomy of the Kidneys 62) Which segment of the renal tubule is composed of simple squamous epithelium? a) proximal convoluted tubule (CT) b) nephron loop: descending limb and thin ascending limb c) nephron loop: thick ascending limb d) distal convoluted tubule Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the histology of each of the parts of a nephron.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.3.2 Compare the histology of the different parts of a nephron.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 The Nephron 63) The movement of water and solutes across glomerulus into the glomerular capsule is

a) glomerular filtration b) tubular reabsorption c) tubular secretion Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 25.4 Describe the three major processes in urine formation and where each occurs in the nephron and collecting ducts.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.4.1 Explain the role of the nephrons and collecting ducts in glomerular filtration.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.4 Functions of Nephrons 64) The movement of water and solutes from the kidney tubules into the bloodstream is a) glomerular filtration b) tubular reabsorption c) tubular secretion Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 25.4 Describe the three major processes in urine formation and where each occurs in the nephron and collecting ducts.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.4.2 Outline the steps of tubular reabsorption and explain where it occurs.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.4 Functions of Nephrons 65) Which of the following substances would be least likely to pass through the fenestrations in the endothelial cells of the glomerulus? a) sodium ions b) water c) proteins d) glucose Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 25.4 Describe the three major processes in urine formation and where each occurs in the nephron and collecting ducts.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.4.1 Explain the role of the nephrons and collecting ducts in glomerular filtration.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.4 Functions of Nephrons 66) Which of the following is least likely to affect filtration in the glomerulus? a) efferent arteriole diameter is smaller than afferent arteriole b) large surface area of the glomerulus c) fenestrations cause the membrane to be leaky d) low blood pressure in the glomerulus Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Evaluation Study Objective 1: SO 25.4 Describe the three major processes in urine formation and where each occurs in the nephron and collecting ducts.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.4.1 Explain the role of the nephrons and collecting ducts in glomerular filtration.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.4 Functions of Nephrons 67) Which of the following is least likely to affect urine flow in the ureters? a) peristaltic contractions b) hydrostatic pressure c) blood pressure d) gravity Answer: c Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Evaluation Study Objective 1: SO 25.5 Describe the structure and function of the ureters, urinary bladder and urethra including the gender differences in the urethral structure.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.5.1 Describe the structure and function of the ureters.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.5 Urine Transportation, Storage, and Elimination 68) The internal urethral sphincter is composed of which arrangement and type of muscle fibers?

1. circular 2. longitudinal 3. oblique 4. smooth 5. skeletal

a) 1 and 4 b) 2 and 4 c) 2 and 5 d) 1, 2, and 5 e) 1, 3 and 5 Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 25.5 Describe the structure and function of the ureters, urinary bladder and urethra including the gender differences in the urethral structure.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.5.1 Describe the structure and function of the ureters.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.5 Urine Transportation, Storage, and Elimination 69) A layer of material between the endothelium of the glomerulus and the podocytes which contains a negatively charged glycoprotein matrix, which repels larger negatively charged proteins is the a) basement membrane b) filtration slits c) mesangial cells d) pedicels Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 25.4 Describe the three major processes in urine formation and where each occurs in the nephron and collecting ducts.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.4.1 Explain the role of the nephrons and collecting ducts in glomerular filtration.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.4 Functions of Nephrons 70) The movement of substances through the epithelial cells and then into the peritubular capillaries is a) intercellular reabsorption b) intracellular reabsorption c) paracellular reabsorption d) transcellular reabsorption Answer: d

Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 25.4 Describe the three major processes in urine formation and where each occurs in the nephron and collecting ducts.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.4.2 Outline the steps of tubular reabsorption and explain where it occurs.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.4 Functions of Nephrons 71) Excess excretion of glucose in the urine is called a) dysuria b) glucosuria c) polyuria d) proteinuria Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 25.4 Describe the three major processes in urine formation and where each occurs in the nephron and collecting ducts.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.4.2 Outline the steps of tubular reabsorption and explain where it occurs.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.4 Functions of Nephrons 72) Waste passes from the renal pelvis into this structure, which removes the waste from the kidney. a) renal medulla b) renal pyramid c) ureter d) urethra Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 25.5 Describe the structure and function of the ureters, urinary bladder and urethra including the gender differences in the urethral structure.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.5.1 Describe the structure and function of the ureters.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.5 Urine Transportation, Storage, and Elimination

73) What does the inner lining of the ureter secrete to prevent the cells lining the ureter from being damaged by urine? a) calcitriol b) enzymes c) mucous d) renin Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 25.5 Describe the structure and function of the ureters, urinary bladder and urethra including the gender differences in the urethral structure.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.5.1 Describe the structure and function of the ureters.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.5 Urine Transportation, Storage, and Elimination 74) A common effect of aging is increased frequency of urination at night, termed a) dysuria b) glucosuria c) nocturia d) polyuria Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 25.7 Outline the effects of aging on the urinary system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.7 Aging and the Urinary System Question type: True/False 75) The mass of the kidney decreases in size as an individual ages.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 25.7 Outline the effects of aging on the urinary system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.7 Aging and the Urinary System

Question type: Multiple Choice 76) The functional unit of the kidney is the a) glomerular capsule b) convoluted tubules c) nephron d) renal medulla Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the histology of each of the parts of a nephron.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.3.1 Describe the parts of a nephron.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 The Nephron 77) The first kidney to form in fetal development is the a) mesonephros b) metanephros c) pronephros Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 25.6 Describe the development of the urinary system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.6 Development of the Urinary System 78) Filtration of blood plasma occurs at the a) renal corpuscle b) renal tubule c) nephron loop d) collecting duct Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the histology of each of the parts of a nephron.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.3.1 Describe the parts of a nephron.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 The Nephron 79) One single collecting duct receives fluid from a) several distal convoluted tubules b) several proximal convoluted tubules c) one distal convoluted tubule d) one proximal convoluted tubule Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the histology of each of the parts of a nephron.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.3.1 Describe the parts of a nephron.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 The Nephron 80) Collecting ducts in the renal cortex and renal medulla drain directly into a) papillary ducts b) nephron loops c) distal convoluted tubules d) glomerular capsules Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the histology of each of the parts of a nephron.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.3.1 Describe the parts of a nephron.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 The Nephron 81) Which sequence accurately describes the correct path of fluid flowing through the nephron? a) glomerular capsule, renal tubule, collecting duct b) collecting ducts, renal tubule, glomerular capsule c) renal tubule, collecting duct, glomerular capsule d) renal tubule, glomerular capsule, collecting duct Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis

Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the histology of each of the parts of a nephron.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.3.1 Describe the parts of a nephron.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 The Nephron 82) A mesodermal outgrowth which develops from the distal portion of the mesonephric duct is the a) cloaca b) ureteric bud c) urogenital ridges d) urogenital sinus Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 25.6 Describe the development of the urinary system.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.6 Development of the Urinary System Question type: Multiple Select 83) Which description is correct for cortical nephrons? (Select all that apply.) a) They make up approximately 80-85% of all nephrons in the kidney. b) They have relatively short nephron loops. c) Their renal corpuscles are found in the renal medulla. d) They receive blood from the vasa recta.

Answer: a, b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the histology of each of the parts of a nephron.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.3.1 Describe the parts of a nephron.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 The Nephron Question type: Multiple Choice 84) The nephrons with long nephron loops and renal corpuscles next to the medulla are known as a) cortex nephrons

b) cortical nephrons c) juxtamedullary nephrons d) medullary nephrons Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the histology of each of the parts of a nephron.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.3.1 Describe the parts of a nephron.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 The Nephron 85) Contractile cells that help regulate glomerular filtration are a) intercalated cells b) juxtaglomerular cells c) mesangial cells d) principal cells Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 25.4 Describe the three major processes in urine formation and where each occurs in the nephron and collecting ducts.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.4.4 Describe the filtration membrane.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.4 Functions of Nephrons 86) How many layers of epithelial cells line the entire wall of the nephron from glomerular capsule to collecting duct? a) one b) two c) ten d) more than 25 Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the histology of each of the parts of a nephron.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.3.2 Compare the histology of the glomerular capsule, renal tubule, and collecting duct.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 The Nephron

87) Between the parietal and visceral layers of the glomerular capsule is a space known as the a) basement membrane b) capsular space c) lamina propria d) macular densa Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the histology of each of the parts of a nephron.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.3.2 Compare the histology of the glomerular capsule, renal tubule, and collecting duct.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 The Nephron Question type: Multiple Select 88) Which areas of the nephron consist of simple cuboidal epithelium? (Select all that apply.) a) proximal convoluted tubule b) descending limb of nephron loop c) thick ascending limb of nephron loop d) collecting duct Answer: a, c, d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the histology of each of the parts of a nephron.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.3.2 Compare the histology of the glomerular capsule, renal tubule, and collecting duct.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 The Nephron 89) Simple squamous epithelium is found in what part of the nephron? (Select all that apply.) a) glomerular capsule b) descending limb of nephron loop c) collecting duct d) distal convoluted tubule

Answers: a, b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the histology of each of the parts of a nephron.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.3.2 Compare the histology of the glomerular capsule, renal tubule, and collecting duct.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 The Nephron 90) The juxtaglomerular apparatus consists of what structures? (Select all that apply.) a) macula densa b) juxtaglomerular cells c) nephron loops d) collecting ducts Answers: a, b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the histology of each of the parts of a nephron.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.3.2 Compare the histology of the glomerular capsule, renal tubule, and collecting duct.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 The Nephron Question type: Multiple Choice 91) Principal cells in the distal convoluted tubules contain receptors for antidiuretic hormone and a) aldosterone b) thyroid hormone c) relaxin d) oxytocin Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the histology of each of the parts of a nephron.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.3.2 Compare the histology of the glomerular capsule, renal tubule, and collecting duct.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 The Nephron

92) If nephrons are damaged, a) other nephrons in the kidney can compensate to some degree b) additional nephrons can be produced to replace those that do not function c) they can typically be repaired before they fail to function completely d) distal convoluted tubule can regrow and connect to a different collecting duct Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the histology of each of the parts of a nephron.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.3.2 Compare the histology of the glomerular capsule, renal tubule, and collecting duct.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 The Nephron Question type: Multiple Select 93) Which of these components would be found in both juxtamedullary and cortical nephrons?

(Select all that apply.) a) nephron loop b) proximal and distal convoluted tubule c) renal corpuscle d) vasa recta Answer: a, b, c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the histology of each of the parts of a nephron.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.3.1 Describe the parts of a nephron.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 The Nephron Question type: Multiple Choice 94) Modified simple squamous cells that have pedicels and form the visceral layer of the glomerular capsule are a) intercalated cells b) macula densa

c) parenchyma d) podocytes Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the histology of each of the parts of a nephron.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.3.2 Compare the histology of the glomerular capsule, renal tubule, and collecting duct.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 The Nephron 95) If red blood cells and proteins are detected in urine, it may indicate that a) the filtration membrane in the glomerulus is not functioning properly. b) the microvilli of the proximal convoluted tubules are not reabsorbing properly. c) the collecting ducts are not secreting properly. d) parietal cells are not responding to antidiuretic hormone.

Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Evaluation Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the histology of each of the parts of a nephron.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.3.2 Compare the histology of the glomerular capsule, renal tubule, and collecting duct.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 The Nephron Question type: Multiple Select 96) During an anatomy lab exam, Ava observed an unlabeled slide that she recognized as being a portion of a juxtamedullary nephron. She noted simple squamous epithelium along a narrow tube. What part(s) of the nephron could Ava have identified as having this type of cell lining?

(Select all that apply.) a) descending limb of a cortical nephron loop b) thin ascending limb of a juxtamedullary nephron loop c) distal convoluted tubule of a cortical nephron d) proximal convoluted tubule of a juxtamedullary nephron Answer: a, b Difficulty: Medium

Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the histology of each of the parts of a nephron.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.3.2 Compare the histology of the glomerular capsule, renal tubule, and collecting duct.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 The Nephron Question type: Multiple Choice 97) Which conclusion would be correct based on the observation that the number of nephrons in a 25-year-old male is the same as when that individual was 5 years old? a) the individual has had no kidney damage between 5 years and 25 years of age b) the individual has had significant kidney damage at some point between 5 years and 25 years of age c) the individual’s kidneys are improving their function even as the kidney continues to age d) the individual’s kidneys are likely receiving reduced blow flow which prevents the nephrons from growing in number Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the histology of each of the parts of a nephron.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.3.2 Compare the histology of the glomerular capsule, renal tubule, and collecting duct.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 The Nephron 98) A kidney can have up to 1 million nephrons, the functional unit of the kidneys. The filtrate that is produced by a series of processes, including filtration, reabsorption and secretion eventually empties from many nephrons into a series of ducts, cup-like structures and eventually into a single cavity called the renal pelvis. Which of these structures would be the least abundant but still contain filtrate rather than urine? a) papillary ducts b) collecting ducts c) minor calyxes d) major calyxes Answer: a Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the histology of each of the parts of a nephron.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.3.1 Describe the parts of a nephron.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 The Nephron 99) The nephron has two main parts: a renal corpuscle and renal tubule. The collecting duct and papillary ducts are part of the kidney but are not part of the nephron. Even though nephrons are the functional units of kidneys, these other parts of the kidney assist the actual nephrons with regulation of urine production. Which of the following cells involved in regulation of kidney function and maintenance of homeostasis is NOT part of the nephron? a) juxtaglomerular cells b) intercalated cells c) podocytes d) macula densa cells Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the histology of each of the parts of a nephron.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.3.2 Compare the histology of the different parts of a nephron.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 The Nephron Question type: Multiple Select 100) Jack observed microvilli on the epithelium of some renal tubular cells. What does this indicate about the function of that epithelium in this section of the nephron? (Select all that apply.) a) reabsorption likely occurs b) secretion likely occurs c) filtration likely occurs d) phagocytosis likely occurs Answer: a, b Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Evaluation Study Objective 1: SO 25.3 Describe the histology of each of the parts of a nephron.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.3.2 Compare the histology of the glomerular capsule, renal tubule, and collecting duct.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.3 The Nephron

Question type: Multiple Choice 101) Identify the structure labeled A.

a) collecting duct b) renal column c) renal papilla d) renal sinus Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 25.2 Describe the kidneys’ internal and external gross anatomical features, microscopic structures, and pathway of blood flow.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.2.2 Explain the internal gross anatomical features of the kidneys.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.2 Anatomy of the Kidneys 102) Identify the structure labeled D.

a) collecting duct b) renal column c) renal papilla d) renal sinus Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 25.2 Describe the kidneys’ internal and external gross anatomical features, microscopic structures, and pathway of blood flow.

Study Objective 2: SO 25.2.2 Explain the internal gross anatomical features of the kidneys.

Section Reference 1: Sec 25.2 Anatomy of the Kidneys

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pha14 Chapter Number: 26 Question type: Multiple Choice 1) Spermatogenesis results in a) two new cells with 23 chromosomes each. b) four new cells with 23 chromosomes each. c) two new cells with 46 chromosomes each. d) four new cells with 46 chromosomes each.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 26.1 Describe the location, structure and function of the scrotum and testes including the process of spermatogenesis and the parts of a mature sperm.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.1.3 Discuss the process of spermatogenesis in the testes.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.1 Male Genital (Reproductive) System 2) All of the following describe the dartos muscle EXCEPT a) causes wrinkling of the skin of the scrotum. b) is found in the scrotal septum. c) relaxes in response to warmth, contracts in response to cold. d) consists of small bands of skeletal muscle that descend through the spermatic cord.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 26.1 Describe the location, structure and function of the scrotum and testes including the process of spermatogenesis and the parts of a mature sperm.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.1.1 Describe the location, structure, and functions of the scrotum.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.1 Male Genital (Reproductive) System 3) Descent of the testes into the scrotum normally occurs a) near the end of the seventh month of fetal development.

b) in the ninth month of fetal development. c) shortly after birth. d) at puberty.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 26.1 Describe the location, structure and function of the scrotum and testes including the process of spermatogenesis and the parts of a mature sperm.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.1.2 Explain where the testes are located and outline their functions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.1 Male Genital (Reproductive) System 4) Which of the following pairs of terms is most closely matched? a) tunica vaginalis; testes b) tunica albuginea; uterus c) germinal epithelium; spermatic cord d) corpus luteum; penis Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 26.1 Describe the location, structure and function of the scrotum and testes including the process of spermatogenesis and the parts of a mature sperm.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.1.2 Explain where the testes are located and outline their functions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.1 Male Genital (Reproductive) System 5) The blood-testis barrier a) consists of tight junctions between interstitial (Leydig) cells. b) is the basement membrane of the seminiferous tubules. c) protects sperm antigens from exposure to the cells of the immune system. d) is made of cells connected by gap junctions.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 26.1 Describe the location, structure and function of the scrotum and testes including the process of spermatogenesis and the parts of a mature sperm.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.1.3 Discuss the process of spermatogenesis in the testes.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.1 Male Genital (Reproductive) System

6) Spermatogenesis and oogenesis are the only processes in the body where a) mitosis occurs. b) meiosis occurs. c) replication occurs. d) mutation occurs.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 26.1 Describe the location, structure and function of the scrotum and testes including the process of spermatogenesis and the parts of a mature sperm.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.1.3 Discuss the process of spermatogenesis in the testes.

Study Objective 3: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis.

Study Objective 4: SO 26.2.2 Discuss the process of oogenesis in the ovaries.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.1 Male Genital (Reproductive) System Section Reference 2: Sec 26.2 Female Genital (Reproductive) System 7) The male reproductive duct that would be 3-4 meters long if straightened out, but is tightly coiled is the a) rete testis. b) duct of epididymis. c) ductus (vas) deferens. d) ejaculatory duct.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 26.1 Describe the location, structure and function of the scrotum and testes including the process of spermatogenesis and the parts of a mature sperm.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.1.2 Explain where the testes are located and outline their functions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.1 Male Genital (Reproductive) System 8) Place the following ducts in the correct order, from the site of sperm production to the point of exit from the body.

1. ductus (vas) deferens 2. straight tubules 3. prostatic urethra

4. duct of epididymis 5. ejaculatory duct 6. efferent ductules 7. spongy (penile) urethra 8. rete testis 9. membranous urethra a) 6, 1, 8, 2, 4, 3, 5, 7, 9 b) 2, 8, 6, 4, 1, 5, 3, 9, 7 c) 5, 6, 2, 8, 4, 1, 9, 3, 7 d) 6, 8, 2, 4, 1, 3, 5, 9, 7 Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 26.1 Describe the location, structure and function of the scrotum and testes including the process of spermatogenesis and the parts of a mature sperm.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.1.3 Discuss the process of spermatogenesis in the testes.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.1 Male Genital (Reproductive) System 9) The midventral mass of erectile tissue in the penis is a a) corpus spongiosum penis. b) corpora cavernosum penis. c) spongy urethra. d) tunica albuginea.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 26.1 Describe the location, structure and function of the scrotum and testes including the process of spermatogenesis and the parts of a mature sperm.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.1.2 Explain where the testes are located and outline their functions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.1 Male Genital (Reproductive) System 10) The bulb of the penis is formed by the proximal (near point of attachment) ends of the corpora cavernosa penis. It is attached to the inferior ramus of the pubis. a) Both statements are true. b) Both statements are false. c) The first statement is true; the second is false. d) The second statement is true; the first is false.

Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Evaluation Study Objective 1: SO 26.1 Describe the location, structure and function of the scrotum and testes including the process of spermatogenesis and the parts of a mature sperm.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.1.2 Explain where the testes are located and outline their functions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.1 Male Genital (Reproductive) System 11) The tunica albuginea of an ovary a) is a layer of loose connective tissue that divides the ovaries into lobes. b) is the outermost covering of the ovary. c) is the tissue that contains and surrounds a developing oocyte. d) is a tissue layer located deep to the ovarian mesothelium.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.1 Describe the location and functions of the ovaries.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Genital (Reproductive) System 12) The corpus luteum a) develops from a corpus albicans. b) develops prior to ovulation. c) is the zone of the ovary that contains ovarian follicles. d) contains the remnants of a tertiary ovarian follicle.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.1 Describe the location and functions of the ovaries.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Genital (Reproductive) System 13) The uterine tubes

1. are the typical site of fertilization 2. are also called oviducts 3. are lined by cells that have microvilli called fimbriae 4. have a section called the ampulla which makes up about the lateral two-thirds of the length of the tubes 5. attach the ovaries firmly to the uterus a) 1, 2, 3, 4 b) 1, 3, 5 c) 2, 4, 5 d) 1, 2, 4 only Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.3 Describe the location and functions of the uterine tubes.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Genital (Reproductive) System 14) Which of the following is NOT a type of ligament that helps maintain the position of the uterus? a) suspensory ligament b) round ligament c) cardinal (lateral cervical) ligament d) broad ligament Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.4 Describe the location and functions of the uterus.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Genital (Reproductive) System 15) Which of the following is NOT true of the basal layer of the endometrium? a) It is the permanent layer of the endometrium and it gives rise monthly to a new functional layer after each menstruation. b) It is supplied with blood by the spiral arterioles. c) It is the layer of the endometrium closest to the myometrium.

d) It is composed of a highly cellular endometrial stroma.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.4 Describe the location and functions of the uterus.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Genital (Reproductive) System 16) The vulva (pudendum) a) is the recess in the superior portion of the vagina that surrounds the cervix. b) is the female external genitalia. c) consists of an anterior urogenital triangle and a posterior anal triangle. d) is a ligament of the uterus.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.6 List and describe the components of the vulva.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Genital (Reproductive) System 17) All of the following occur with the onset of menopause EXCEPT a) primary follicles become less responsive to FSH and LH. b) GnRH release patterns change. c) estrogen and progesterone levels decline. d) FSH and LH levels decline.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 26.6 Describe the effects of aging on the genital systems.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.6 Aging and the Reproductive Systems 18) The female gamete (ovum) is not formed until meiosis II is completed when

a) the secondary oocyte has been fertilized by the sperm. b) the first polar body has been resorbed. c) the tertiary ovarian follicle has erupted from the ovary. d) menstruation has happened around day 28.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.2 Discuss the process of oogenesis in the ovaries.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Genital (Reproductive) System 19) Where is the diaphragm, the female birth control barrier, placed? a) at the hymen in the vulva b) in the vestibule c) surrounding the opening of the cervix d) in the endometrium of the uterus Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 26.4 Compare the effectiveness of the various types of birth control methods and distinguish between spontaneous and induced abortions.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.4.1 Explain the differences among the various types of birth control methods and compare their effectiveness.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.4 Birth Control Methods and Abortion 20) Which uterine layer is most responsive to the hormone oxytocin, which increases contractions and leads to expulsion of the fetus? a) endometrium b) myometrium c) perimetrium d) serosa Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive

structures including the process of oogenesis.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.4 Describe the location and functions of the uterus.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Genital (Reproductive) System 21) Which structure would NOT be a component of the spermatic cord? a) ductus (vas) deferens b) cremaster muscle c) pampiniform plexus d) bulbourethral gland Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 26.1 Describe the location, structure and function of the scrotum and testes including the process of spermatogenesis and the parts of a mature sperm.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.1.2 Explain where the testes are located and outline their functions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.1 Male Genital (Reproductive) System 22) A prostate tumor is most likely to interfere with a) micturition (flow of urine through prostatic urethra). b) spermatogenesis. c) spermiogenesis. d) erection.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 26.1 Describe the location, structure and function of the scrotum and testes including the process of spermatogenesis and the parts of a mature sperm.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.1.2 Explain where the testes are located and outline their functions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.1 Male Genital (Reproductive) System Question type: True/False 23) The scrotum provides an environment for the testes that is normally two to three degrees Celsius higher than normal core body temperature.

Answer: False

Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 26.1 Describe the location, structure and function of the scrotum and testes including the process of spermatogenesis and the parts of a mature sperm.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.1.1 Describe the location, structure, and functions of the scrotum.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.1 Male Genital (Reproductive) System 24) Tight junctions between nurse cells prevent an immune response against developing spermatozoa.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 26.1 Describe the location, structure and function of the scrotum and testes including the process of spermatogenesis and the parts of a mature sperm.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.1.3 Discuss the process of spermatogenesis in the testes.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.1 Male Genital (Reproductive) System 25) Spermatogonia are diploid (2n chromosome number) stem cells that are dormant until puberty, when they undergo mitosis and differentiate into diploid primary spermatocytes.

Answer: True Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 26.1 Describe the location, structure and function of the scrotum and testes including the process of spermatogenesis and the parts of a mature sperm.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.1.3 Discuss the process of spermatogenesis in the testes.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.1 Male Reproductive System Question type: Multiple Choice 26) The inferior portion of the epididymis, from which the ductus (vas) deferens emerges, is called the a) body. b) head. c) tail.

Answer: c

Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 26.1 Describe the location, structure and function of the scrotum and testes including the process of spermatogenesis and the parts of a mature sperm.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.1.2 Explain where the testes are located and outline their functions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.1 Male Genital (Reproductive) System 27) Fructose, which is an energy source for sperm, is a component of the secretions of the a) bulbourethral glands. b) Cowper’s glands. c) prostate gland. d) seminal glands.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 26.1 Describe the location, structure and function of the scrotum and testes including the process of spermatogenesis and the parts of a mature sperm.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.1.2 Explain where the testes are located and outline their functions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.1 Male Genital (Reproductive) System Question type: True/False 28) The ovarian ligament anchors the ovaries to the uterus.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.1 Describe the location and functions of the ovaries.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Genital (Reproductive) System Question type: Multiple Choice 29) Several layers of cells which surround and nourish a developing oocyte in the ovary are

a) corpus albicans. b) follicular cells. c) granulosa cells. d) tunica albuginea.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.1 Describe the location and functions of the ovaries.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Genital (Reproductive) System Question type: True/False 30) In the uterine tubes, peristaltic contractions of the muscularis assist the movement of the oocyte or fertilized ovum into the uterus.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.3 Describe the location and functions of the uterine tubes.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Genital (Reproductive) System Question type: Multiple Select 31) The three layers of the wall of the uterus are (Select all that apply.) a) basal metrium. b) endometrium. c) myometrium. d) perimetrium.

Answer: b, c, d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge

Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.4 Describe the location and functions of the uterus.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Genital (Reproductive) System Question type: Multiple Choice 32) Ejection of milk from the mammary glands is stimulated by the hormone a) FSH. b) LH. c) progesterone. d) oxytocin.

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.7 Describe the location and functions of the mammary glands.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Genital (Reproductive) System Question type: True/False 33) After ovulation, a corpus hemorrhagicum develops into a corpus luteum under the influence of luteinizing hormone (LH).

Answer: True Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 26.3 Describe ovulation and the uterine and ovarian events during the different phases of the female reproductive cycle.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.3.3 Compare the ovarian and uterine events during the preovulatory and postovulatory phases.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.3 Female Reproductive Cycle 34) The embryonic mesonephric (Wolffian) ducts develop into the ducts of the male reproductive system and the uterine tubes of the female reproductive system.

Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 26.5 Describe the development of the male and female reproductive systems.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.5 Development of the Reproductive Systems 35) SRY is a gene of the X chromosome that controls development of gonads and external genitalia.

Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 26.5 Describe the development of the male and female reproductive systems.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.5 Development of the Reproductive Systems 36) Breast self-examination, mammography, and ultrasound are all important techniques in the detection of breast cancer.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.7 Describe the location and functions of the mammary glands.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Genital (Reproductive) System Question type: Essay 37) Describe the location and the functions of nurse (Sertoli) cells.

Answer: Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 26.1 Describe the location, structure and function of the scrotum and testes including the process of spermatogenesis and the parts of a mature sperm.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.1.3 Discuss the process of spermatogenesis in the testes.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.1 Male Genital (Reproductive) System Solution: The nurse (Sertoli) cells are large cells interspersed among the spermatogenic cells of the seminiferous tubules. A single cell will extend from the basement membrane (where it is joined to neighboring sustentacular cells by tight junctions) to the lumen of the tubule. The functions include: formation of the blood-testis barrier; phagocytosis of the excess cytoplasm from spermatogenesis; nourishment and support of spermatocytes, spermatids, and sperm; mediation of the effects of testosterone and FSH; and secretion of the hormone inhibin, which helps control the process of spermatogenesis by inhibiting the secretion of FSH by the pituitary.

Question type: Multiple Choice 38) Which of the following is correctly matched? a) Spermatogenesis-process by which seminiferous tubules produce sperm. b) Spermatogonia- sperm released from nurse cells. c) Spermiogenesis-name for stem cells in the male genital system. d) Spermiation-maturation of haploid spermatids into sperm.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 26.1 Describe the location, structure and function of the scrotum and testes including the process of spermatogenesis and the parts of a mature sperm.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.1.3 Discuss the process of spermatogenesis in the testes.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.1 Male Genital (Reproductive) System 39) A doughnut-shaped gland that is inferior to the urinary bladder and which slowly increases in size from birth to puberty is the a) bulbourethral gland. b) Cowper’s gland. c) prostate gland. d) seminal gland.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 26.1 Describe the location, structure and function of the scrotum and testes including the process of spermatogenesis and the parts of a mature sperm.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.1.2 Explain where the testes are located and outline their functions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.1 Male Genital (Reproductive) System

Question type: Essay 40) Describe the gross anatomy of the uterus and accompany your answer with a labeled diagram.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.4 Describe the location and functions of the uterus.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Genital (Reproductive) System Solution: The uterus is situated between the urinary bladder and the rectum, the uterus is the size and shape of an inverted pear. Anatomical subdivisions of the uterus include the following: (1) a dome-shaped portion superior to the uterine tubes called the fundus, (2) a tapering central portion called the body, and (3) an inferior narrow portion called the cervix that opens into the vagina.

Between the body of the uterus and the cervix is the isthmus, a constricted region. The interior of the body of the uterus is called the uterine cavity, and the interior of the narrow cervix is called the cervical canal.

Question type: Multiple Select 41) Choose the correct statement(s) regarding a mammary gland. Select all that apply. a) consists of 15-20 lobes separated by adipose tissue b) contains glandular alveoli c) contraction of myoepithelial cells propels milk toward the nipples d) the gland is a modified ceruminous gland Answer: a, b, c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.7 Describe the location and functions of the mammary glands.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Genital (Reproductive) System

Question type: Essay 42) Describe the events in the uterus during the preovulatory and postovulatory phases of one menstrual cycle.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 26.3 Describe ovulation and the uterine and ovarian events during the different phases of the female reproductive cycle.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.3.3 Compare the ovarian and uterine events during the preovulatory and postovulatory phases.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.3 Female Reproductive Cycle Solution: 1. Preovulatory phase: Endometrial cells of the basal layer, under the influence of estrogen from developing ovarian follicles, divide to produce a new stratum functional and compact layers. Endometrial glands and spiral arterioles develop as the endometrium thickens.

2. Postovulatory phase: Due to the influence of estrogen and progesterone from the corpus luteum, the endometrial glands grow and begin secretion of glycogen, and the endometrium becomes thicker and more vascularized.

Question type: Multiple Choice 43) Testosterone is secreted by cells in the testes called a) ampulla cells. b) interstitial (Leydig) cells. c) nurse (Sertoli) cells. d) spermatogenic cells.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 26.1 Describe the location, structure and function of the scrotum and testes including the process of spermatogenesis and the parts of a mature sperm.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.1.2 Explain where the testes are located and outline their functions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.1 Male Genital (Reproductive) System 44) What is the structure indicated in the figure?

a) urinary bladder b) testis c) bulbourethral gland d) prostate Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 26.1 Describe the location, structure and function of the scrotum and testes including the process of spermatogenesis and the parts of a mature sperm.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.1.2 Explain where the testes are located and outline their functions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.1 Male Genital (Reproductive) System 45) Name the structure indicated in the figure.

a) body b) acrosome c) neck d) tail Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 26.1 Describe the location, structure and function of the scrotum and testes including the process of spermatogenesis and the parts of a mature sperm.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.1.4 Describe the structure and functions of each part of a mature sperm.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.1 Male Genital (Reproductive) System 46) What structure is indicated in the diagram?

a) ovary b) uterus c) vagina d) clitoris Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.6 List and describe the components of the vulva.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Genital (Reproductive) System

47) What structure is indicated?

a) secondary follicle b) corpus luteum c) tertiary follicle d) corpus albicans Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.1 Describe the location and functions of the ovaries.

Study Objective 3: SO 26.2.2 Discuss the process of oogenesis in the ovaries.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Genital (Reproductive) System 48) What is the name of the structure indicated in the diagram?

a) fimbriae of uterine tube b) isthmus of uterine tube c) cervix of uterus d) fundus of uterus Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.4 Describe the location and functions of the uterus.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Genital (Reproductive) System 49) Which of the following is NOT a structure of the male reproductive tract? a) epididymis b) ductus deferens c) oviducts d) seminal vesicle Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 26.1 Describe the location, structure and function of the scrotum and testes including the process of spermatogenesis and the parts of a mature sperm.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.1.2 Explain where the testes are located and outline their functions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.1 Male Genital (Reproductive) System

Question type: True/False 50) The external ridge of tissue that separates the scrotum into two pouches is the scrotal septum.

Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 26.1 Describe the location, structure and function of the scrotum and testes including the process of spermatogenesis and the parts of a mature sperm.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.1.1 Describe the location, structure, and functions of the scrotum.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.1 Male Genital (Reproductive) System Question type: Multiple Select 51) The cremaster muscle (Select all that apply.) a) is a bundle of smooth muscle fibers. b) is a series of bands of skeletal muscle. c) is an extension of the internal oblique muscle. d) is found in the subcutaneous tissue of the scrotum.

Answer: b, c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 26.1 Describe the location, structure and function of the scrotum and testes including the process of spermatogenesis and the parts of a mature sperm.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.1.1 Describe the location, structure, and functions of the scrotum.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.1 Male Genital (Reproductive) System Question type: Multiple Choice 52) The nucleus of a sperm is contained a) in the end piece of a mature sperm. b) in the head of a mature sperm. c) in the middle piece of a mature sperm. d) in the tail of a mature sperm.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 26.1 Describe the location, structure and function of the scrotum and testes including the process of spermatogenesis and the parts of a mature sperm.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.1.4 Describe the structure and functions of each part of a mature sperm.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.1 Male Genital (Reproductive) System 53) An example of a molecule which is released from the acrosome of a mature sperm to help the sperm penetrate the membrane of a secondary oocyte is a) ATP. b) fructose. c) hyaluronidase. d) mucous.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 26.1 Describe the location, structure and function of the scrotum and testes including the process of spermatogenesis and the parts of a mature sperm.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.1.4 Describe the structure and functions of each part of a mature sperm.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.1 Male Genital (Reproductive) System 54) Primary oocytes enter which phase of Meiosis I prior to puberty? a) prophase b) anaphase c) telophase d) metaphase Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.2 Discuss the process of oogenesis in the ovaries.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Genital (Reproductive) System

55) During a woman’s reproductive lifetime, she will ovulate approximately how many mature oocytes? a) 400 b) 40,000 c) 200,000 d) 2 million Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.2 Discuss the process of oogenesis in the ovaries.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Genital (Reproductive) System 56) Which portion of the uterine tube is more medial to all other sections? a) infundibulum b) fimbriae c) isthmus d) ampulla Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.3 Describe the location and functions of the uterine tubes.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Genital (Reproductive) System 57) The peg cells of the uterine tube a) provides nutrition to the ovum. b) help move a fertilized ovum. c) create the peristaltic contractions. d) assist in the implantation of the ovum in the uterus.

Answer: a

Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.3 Describe the location and functions of the uterine tubes.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Genital (Reproductive) System 58) The pH of the vagina is a) acidic. b) basic. c) neutral.

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.5 Explain the functions of the vagina.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Genital (Reproductive) System 59) The vagina is situated a) anterior to the urinary bladder and urethra. b) posterior to the urinary bladder and urethra. c) medial to the urinary bladder and urethra. d) lateral to the urinary bladder and urethra.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.5 Explain the functions of the vagina.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Genital (Reproductive) System 60) The vagina is composed of which type of epithelium? a) nonkeratinized stratified squamous b) keratinized stratified squamous c) simple squamous

d) simple columnar Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.5 Explain the functions of the vagina.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Genital (Reproductive) System 61) Which of the following structures are not found in the vesiblule of the vulva? a) vaginal orifice b) external urethral orifice c) hymen d) clitoris Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.6 List and describe the components of the vulva.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Genital (Reproductive) System 62) Which phase of the female reproductive cycle is characterized by a discharge of the endometrium after ovarian progesterone levels decline? a) menstrual phase b) preovulatory phase c) postovulatory phase d) ovulation Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 26.3 Describe ovulation and the uterine and ovarian events during the different phases of the female reproductive cycle.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.3.2 Describe the uterine events during menstruation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.3 Female Reproductive Cycle

63) The formation of gametes in the ovaries is termed a) atresia. b) oogenesis. c) ovulation. d) peristalsis.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.2 Discuss the process of oogenesis in the ovaries.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Genital (Reproductive) System 64) The funnel-shaped infundibulum of each uterine tube ends in a fringe of fingerlike projections called a) an ampulla. b) a cervix. c) fimbriae. d) fundus.

Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.3 Describe the location and functions of the uterine tubes.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Genital (Reproductive) System 65) The tubular, muscular canal extending from the exterior of the body to the uterine cervix is the a) mons pubis. b) uterine tube. c) vagina. d) vulva.

Answer: c

Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.5 Explain the functions of the vagina.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Genital (Reproductive) System Question type: Multiple Select 66) Dendritic cells in the vagina (Select all that apply.) a) are antigen-presenting cells. b) are mucous-secreting cells. c) participate in the transmission of viruses during intercourse. d) participate in peristalsis to move sperm toward the ovary.

Answer: a, c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.5 Explain the functions of the vagina.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Genital (Reproductive) System Question type: True/False 67) The uterine tube is composed of inner circular layer and outer longitudinal layer of smooth muscle.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.3 Describe the location and functions of the uterine tubes.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Genital (Reproductive) System Question type: Multiple Choice

68) The female homologous structure to the male scrotum is the a) clitoris. b) labia majora. c) labia minora. d) mons pubis.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.6 List and describe the components of the vulva.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female Genital (Reproductive) System 69) Which hormone, released from the anterior pituitary, targets the ovarian follicles and causes the release of estrogen? a) androgen b) follicle stimulating hormone c) luteinizing hormone d) progesterone Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 26.3 Describe ovulation and the uterine and ovarian events during the different phases of the female reproductive cycle.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.3.1 Define the female reproductive cycle.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.3 Female Reproductive Cycle Question type: True/False 70) During ovulation, a secondary oocyte is released around day 14 of the reproductive cycle.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 26.3 Describe ovulation and the uterine and ovarian events during the

different phases of the female reproductive cycle.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.3.4 Define ovulation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.3 Female Reproductive Cycle Question type: Multiple Select 71) When taken in combination, which of the following reduces the likelihood of implantation of a fertilized egg by blocking progesterone receptors in the uterus? Select all that apply. a) depo-provera b) mifepristone c) misopostol d) ortho evra Answer: b, c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 26.4 Compare the effectiveness of the various types of birth control methods and distinguish between spontaneous and induced abortions.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.4.2 Distinguish between spontaneous and induced abortion.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.4 Birth Control Methods and Abortion Question type: True/False 72) An example of an induced abortion is a miscarriage.

Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 26.4 Compare the effectiveness of the various types of birth control methods and distinguish between spontaneous and induced abortions.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.4.2 Distinguish between spontaneous and induced abortion.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.4 Birth Control Methods and Abortion Question type: Multiple Choice 73) Which type of birth control prevents fertilization by blocking sperm entry into the uterine tube and has a long-term effectiveness of 10 years?

a) morning-after pill b) spermicide c) intrauterine device d) vaginal pouch Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 26.4 Compare the effectiveness of the various types of birth control methods and distinguish between spontaneous and induced abortions.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.4.1 Describe the various types of birth control methods and compare their effectiveness.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.4 Birth Control Methods and Abortion 74) A side effect of menopause is hot flashes and heavy sweating which coincide with the release of which hormone? a) gonadotropin releasing hormone b) follicle stimulating hormone c) leutinizing hormone d) growth hormone Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 26.6 Describe the effects of aging on the reproductive systems.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.6 Aging and the Reproductive Systems 75) The genital tubercle of a 5 week embryo will become which structures in a 10 week embryo? a) glans penis and clitoris b) urethral folds and labioscrotal swellings c) perineum and anus d) scrotum and vestibule Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 26.5 Describe the development of the male and female reproductive systems.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.5 Development of the Reproductive Systems Question type: Multiple Select 76) Benign prostatic hyperplasia (Select all that apply.) a) causes the prostate gland to decrease in size. b) may cause a sensation of incomplete emptying. c) may cause frequent urination and nocturia. d) occurs in two-thirds of males over 60.

Answer: b, c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 26.6 Describe the effects of aging on the genital systems.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.6 Aging and the Reproductive Systems Question type: Multiple Choice 77) What structure is indicated by the arrow?

a) cervix

b) ovary c) uterine tube d) uterus Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 26.2 Describe the location and function of the female reproductive structures including the process of oogenesis.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.2.1 Describe the location and functions of the ovaries.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.2 Female (Genital) Reproductive System 78) Identify the structure indicated by the arrow.

a) ductus deferens b) ejaculatory duct c) epididymis d) glans penis Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 26.1 Describe the location, structure, and function of the scrotum and

testes including the process of spermatogenesis and the parts of a mature sperm.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.1.2 Explain where the testes are located and outline their functions.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.1 Male (Genital) Reproductive System 79) Changes in the endometrium to prepare for the arrival of a fertilized ovum make up the a) ovarian cycle. b) uterine cycle.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 26.3 Describe ovulation and the uterine and ovarian events during the different phases of the female reproductive cycle.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.3.1 Define the female reproductive cycle.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.3 Female Reproductive Cycle 80) Due to a declining level of progesterone and estrogen leading up to menstruation, a) FSH levels increase causing uterine spiral arterioles to constrict. b) FSH levels decrease causing uterine spiral arterioles to dilate. c) prostaglandins are released causing uterine spiral arterioles to constrict. d) prostaglandins are released causing uterine spiral arterioles to dilate.

Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 26.3 Describe ovulation and the uterine and ovarian events during the different phases of the female reproductive cycle.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.3.2 Describe the uterine events during menstruation.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.3 Female Reproductive Cycle 81) A portion of which of the following is removed in a vasectomy? a) ductus deferens b) epididymis c) ejaculatory duct d) testes Answer: a

Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 26.4 Compare the effectiveness of the various types of birth control methods and distinguish between spontaneous and induced abortions.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.4.1 Explain the differences among the various types of birth control methods and compare their effectiveness.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.4 Birth Control Methods and Abortion 82) A naturally occurring miscarriage is referred to as a(n) a) induced abortion. b) spontaneous abortion. c) miscarriage is never referred to as abortion.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 26.4 Compare the effectiveness of the various types of birth control methods and distinguish between spontaneous and induced abortions.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.4.2 Distinguish between spontaneous and induced abortion.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.4 Birth Control Methods and Abortion 83) Which of the following is a sexually transmitted infection caused by a protozoa? a) chlamydia b) gonorrhea c) HPV d) trichomoniasis Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 26.4 Compare the effectiveness of the various types of birth control methods and distinguish between spontaneous and induced abortions.

Study Objective 2: SO 26.4.2 Distinguish between spontaneous and induced abortion.

Section Reference 1: Sec 26.4 Birth Control Methods and Abortion

Package Title: Testbank Course Title: pha14 Chapter Number: 27 Question type: Multiple Choice 1) Tragus, helix, lobule, and concha are features of the a) ear b) nose c) eye d) neck Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.2 Describe the surface features of the head.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.A Surface Anatomy of the Head 2) Which of the following statements is FALSE? a) The upper and lower eyelids (palpebrae) are lined by conjunctiva. b) The lacrimal caruncle is located at the lateral union of the upper and lower eyelids (palpebrae). c) Eyelashes consist of hairs that are usually arranged in two or three rows. d) Sclera is the "white" of the eye.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.2 Describe the surface features of the head.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.A Surface Anatomy of the Head 3) Padma slept in an uncomfortable position and woke up with a stiff neck. Inflammation of which muscle is the likely cause? a) erector spinae b) latissimus dorsi

c) sternocleidomastoid d) trapezius Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.3 Describe the surface features of the neck.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.B Surface Anatomy of the Neck 4) The triangle of auscultation is bordered by two muscles of the back a) latissimus dorsi and teres major. b) erector spinae and teres major. c) trapezius and infraspinatus. d) trapezius and latissimus dorsi.

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.4 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the trunk— back, chest, abdomen, and pelvis.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.C Surface Anatomy of the Trunk 5) The sternal angle, a surface landmark of the chest a) lies at the junction of the clavicles and manubrium. b) can be used to locate the costal cartilages of the second ribs. c) is a depression on the superior border of the manubrium. d) is found at the inferior end of the sternum.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.4 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the trunk— back, chest, abdomen, and pelvis.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.C Surface Anatomy of the Trunk

6) The arch of the aorta is posterior to the a) manubrium of sternum. b) sternal angle. c) body of sternum. d) costal margin.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.4 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the trunk— back, chest, abdomen, and pelvis.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.C Surface Anatomy of the Trunk 7) All of the following are characteristics of McBurney's point EXCEPT a) it is inferior and lateral to the umbilicus b) it is superior and medial to the right anterior superior iliac spine c) it is closer to the right anterior superior iliac spine than it is to the umbilicus d) it is an important landmark in diagnosing pancreatitis Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.4 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the trunk— back, chest, abdomen, and pelvis.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.C Surface Anatomy of the Trunk 8) The cubital fossa a) contains the ulnar nerve b) contains the axillary artery c) is posterior to the olecranon d) contains the tendon of the biceps brachii muscle Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.5 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the upper limb.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.D Surface Anatomy of the Upper Limb Question type: Multiple Select 9) Which of the following statements about the femoral triangle is TRUE? (Select all that apply.) a) Hernias frequently occur in this area. b) It is bordered by the inguinal ligament superiorly, the sartorius muscle laterally, and the adductor longus muscle medially. c) It contains the femoral artery, vein, and nerve, and is an important arterial pressure point. d) it contains the lumbar lymph nodes Answer: a, b, c Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.6 Describe the surface features of the various regions of the lower limb.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.E Surface Anatomy of the Lower Limb Question type: Multiple Choice 10) The popliteal fossa is bordered by which of the following muscles?

1. biceps femoris 2. semimembranosus 3. adductor magnus 4. gastrocnemius 5. semitendinosus a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 b) 1, 2, 4, 5 only c) 1, 3, 4, 5 only d) 2, 4, 5 only Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination

Study Objective 2: SO 27.6 Describe the surface features of the various regions of the lower limb.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.E Surface Anatomy of the Lower Limb 11) The sternal angle of the sternum is an external landmark for which of the following? a) the costal cartilage of the third rib b) the fourth intercostal space c) the right and left primary bronchi d) the larynx Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.4 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the trunk— back, chest, abdomen, and pelvis.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.C Surface Anatomy of the Trunk 12) Which neck structures would be palpated in the anterior cervical region?

1. trapezius muscle 2. common carotid artery 3. cricoid cartilage a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 2 and 3 Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.3 Describe the surface features of the neck.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.B Surface Anatomy of the Neck 13) Which surface anatomy feature consists of the inferior edges of the costal cartilages of ribs 710? At its superior end is the xiphisternal joint. a) costal margin b) manubrium

c) iliac crest d) jugular notch Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.4 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the trunk— back, chest, abdomen, and pelvis.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.C Surface Anatomy of the Trunk 14) The aponeurosis of the external oblique muscle on its inferior border attaches laterally to the anterior superior iliac spine and medially to the pubic tubercle. The ligament that is formed by this aponeurosis is a structure along which hernias frequently occur. What is the name of this ligament? a) the linea alba b) the inguinal ligament c) McBurney’s ligament d) the tendinous intersection Answer: b Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.4 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the trunk— back, chest, abdomen, and pelvis.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.C Surface Anatomy of the Trunk 15) The iliac crest is used as a landmark to find which common site for intramuscular injection (IM)? This location poses little chance of injury to the sciatic nerve. a) deltoid b) vastus lateralis c) gluteus medius d) gastrocnemius Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.6 Describe the surface features of the various regions of the lower limb.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.E Surface Anatomy of the Lower Limb 16) Which of the following is INCORRECTLY matched? a) mental region-region of the chin b) occipital region-forms the base of the skull c) oral region-includes the mouth, cheeks, and eyebrows d) parietal region-forms the crown of the skull Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.2 Describe the surface features of the head.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.A Surface Anatomy of the Head Question type: True/False 17) The trachea (windpipe) can be palpated posterior to the suprasternal (jugular) notch of the sternum.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.4 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the trunk— back, chest, abdomen, and pelvis.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.C Surface Anatomy of the Trunk 18) The point at which the trachea (windpipe) divides into right and left primary bronchi may be determined by locating the sternal angle.

Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.4 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the trunk— back, chest, abdomen, and pelvis.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.C Surface Anatomy of the Trunk Question type: Multiple Choice 19) In the abdomen, the inferior vena cava is located a) to the right of the abdominal aorta b) to the left of the abdominal aorta c) inferior to the abdominal aorta d) superior to the abdominal aorta Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.4 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the trunk— back, chest, abdomen, and pelvis.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.C Surface Anatomy of the Trunk Question type: True/False 20) The scapulae are on the back, at the level of ribs 2 through 7.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.4 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the trunk— back, chest, abdomen, and pelvis.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.C Surface Anatomy of the Trunk Question type: Multiple Choice 21) Which muscle forms the anterior axillary fold? a) deltoid

b) latissimus dorsi c) pectoralis major d) serratus anterior Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.4 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the trunk— back, chest, abdomen, and pelvis.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.C Surface Anatomy of the Trunk Question type: True/False 22) The ulnar nerve passes through a groove behind the lateral epicondyle of the humerus.

Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.5 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the upper limb.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.D Surface Anatomy of the Upper Limb 23) In the anatomical position, the thenar eminence of the palm is medial to the hypothenar eminence.

Answer: False Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.5 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the upper limb.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.D Surface Anatomy of the Upper Limb Question type: Multiple Choice 24) The depression between the two buttocks is the a) femoral triangle

b) gluteal cleft c) gluteal fold d) ischial tuberosity Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.6 Describe the surface features of the various regions of the lower limb.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.E Surface Anatomy of the Lower Limb 25) Which of the following forms the superior border of the femoral triangle? a) adductor longus muscle b) femoral nerve c) inguinal ligament d) sartorius muscle Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.6 Describe the surface features of the various regions of the lower limb.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.E Surface Anatomy of the Lower Limb Question type: Essay 26) Name and locate the four points (surface markings) that can be used to determine the location and size of the heart.

Answer: Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.4 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the trunk— back, chest, abdomen, and pelvis.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.C Surface Anatomy of the Trunk

Solution: 1. inferior left point (apex): at the 5th intercostal space, 9 cm to the left of the midline 2. inferior right point: at the lower border of the costal cartilage of the right 6th rib, about 3 cm to the right of the midline 3. superior right point: at the upper border of the costal cartilage of the right 3rd rib, about 3 cm right of the midline4. superior left point: at the lower border of the costal cartilage of the left 2nd rib, about 3 cm to the left of the midline 27) Describe the locations of the muscles of the thigh that are visible as superficial landmarks.

Answer: Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.6 Describe the surface features of the various regions of the lower limb.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.E Surface Anatomy of the Lower Limb Solution: The locations of the sartorius, quadriceps femoris, adductor longus, and hamstring muscles are described on pages 993-994 and Figure 27.17.

Question type: Multiple Choice 28) The ramus, body, and angle of the mandible can be palpated at the a) auricular and nasal regions of the head b) buccal and mental regions of the head c) occipital and orbital regions of the head d) parietal and zygomatic regions of the head Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.2 Describe the surface features of the head.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.A Surface Anatomy of the Head 29) Thomas doesn’t like the look of his nose. He thinks that the anterior border which connects the tip of the nose to the superior attachment at the forehead looks too convex and wavy. The part of his nose that he doesn’t like is called the a) apex

b) dorsum nasi c) nostril d) root Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.2 Describe the surface features of the head.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.A Surface Anatomy of the Head Question type: Multiple Select 30) The posterior axillary fold is formed by which muscles? (Select all that apply.) a) infraspinatus b) latissimus dorsi c) serratus anterior d) teres major Answer: b, d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.4 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the trunk— back, chest, abdomen, and pelvis.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.C Surface Anatomy of the Trunk Question type: Multiple Choice 31) Which of the lumbar vertebrae is a landmark for performing a spinal tap (lumbar puncture) and is intersected by the surpracristal line? a) first b) second c) third d) fourth Answer: d

Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.4 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the trunk— back, chest, abdomen, and pelvis.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.C Surface Anatomy of the Trunk 32) Tony has been working out at the gym and has a well-developed, V-shaped muscle on the trunk of his body. This muscle is the a) biceps brachii b) latissimus dorsi c) pectoralis major d) trapezius Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.4 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the trunk— back, chest, abdomen, and pelvis.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.C Surface Anatomy of the Trunk Solution: pectoralis major 33) The nipples are superficial to which intercostal space? a) first b) second c) third d) fourth Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.4 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the trunk— back, chest, abdomen, and pelvis.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.C Surface Anatomy of the Trunk 34) A vein found at the elbow which crosses the cubital fossa obliquely and is used for venipuncture (blood withdrawal for analysis) and transfusions is the

a) basilic vein b) cephalic c) median cubital vein d) radial vein Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.5 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the upper limb.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.D Surface Anatomy of the Upper Limb 35) This muscle forms the bulk of the anterior surface of the arm. a) biceps brachii b) brachialis c) brachioradialis d) triceps brachii Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.5 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the upper limb.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.D Surface Anatomy of the Upper Limb 36) The tendon of this muscle is visible when the wrist is slightly flexed and the base of the thumb and little finger are drawn together. a) brachioradialis b) flexor carpi ulnaris c) flexor digitorum superficialis d) palmaris longus Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.5 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the upper limb.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.D Surface Anatomy of the Upper Limb Question type: Multiple Select 37) The three bony prominences found in the elbow region are the (Select all that apply.) a) lateral epicondyle b) medial epicondyle c) olecranon d) radial fossa Answer: a, b, c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.5 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the upper limb.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.D Surface Anatomy of the Upper Limb Question type: Multiple Choice 38) When the thumb is bent backward, a depression forms between the tendons of the extensor pollicis brevis and extensor pollicis longus called the a) anatomical snuffbox b) cubital fossa c) hypothenar eminence d) thenar eminence Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.5 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the upper limb.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.D Surface Anatomy of the Upper Limb

39) A venous loop that drains blood into the cephalic vein and can be displayed by pressing the blood vessels at the wrist as the hand is opened and closed is the a) dorsal venous arch b) hypothenar eminence c) flexor carpi ulnaris d) thenar eminence Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.5 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the upper limb.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.D Surface Anatomy of the Upper Limb 40) The bony projection on the anterior surface near the proximal end of the leg where the patellar ligament inserts is the a) lateral condyle of the tibia b) medial condyle of the tibia c) popliteal fossa d) tibial tuberosity Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.6 Describe the surface features of the various regions of the lower limb.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.E Surface Anatomy of the Lower Limb

41) If a patient folds the arms across the chest and bends forward, the lung sounds can be heard (at the triangular area shown in the figure) in the intercostal space between which two ribs?

a) between ribs 1 and 2 b) between ribs 2 and 3 c) between ribs 4 and 5 d) between ribs 6 and 7 Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.4 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the trunk— back, chest, abdomen, and pelvis.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.C Surface Anatomy of the Trunk Question type: Multiple Select 42) The hamstrings include the (Select all that apply.) a) biceps femoris muscle b) gastrocnemius muscle c) semimembranosus muscle

d) semitendinosus muscle Answer: a, c, d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.6 Describe the surface features of the various regions of the lower limb.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.E Surface Anatomy of the Lower Limb Question type: Multiple Choice 43) The region at the base of the skull is the a) auricular region b) buccal region c) occipital region d) temporal region Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.2 Describe the surface features of the head.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.A Surface Anatomy of the Head 44) The buccal region is a) a region of the cheek b) a region of the external ear c) a region of the mouth d) a region on the sides of the skull Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.2 Describe the surface features of the head.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.A Surface Anatomy of the Head

45) This feature of the neck is commonly called the “Adam’s apple”. a) hyoid bone b) sternocleidomastoid muscle c) thyroid cartilage d) philtrum Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.3 Describe the surface features of the neck.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.B Surface Anatomy of the Neck 46) Which region is indicated by label A?

a) buccal region b) frontal region c) mental region d) temporal region Answer: d Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension

Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.2 Describe the surface features of the head.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.A Surface Anatomy of the Head 47) The external ear is in the a) buccal region. b) auricular region. c) nasal region. d) mental region.

Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.2 Describe the surface features of the head.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.A Surface Anatomy of the Head 48) If you moved your fingers from side to side over the superior aspect of the scalp you would palpate which suture? a) sagittal suture b) coronal suture c) squamous suture d) lambdoid suture Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.2 Describe the surface features of the head.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.A Surface Anatomy of the Head 49) The most prominent bony landmark on the region at the base of the skull is the a) external occipital protuberance b) mastoid process c) mandible d) zygomatic arch Answer: a

Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.2 Describe the surface features of the head.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.A Surface Anatomy of the Head 50) Which muscle can be felt superior to the nose near the medial end of the eyebrow? a) occipitofrontalis b) corrugator supercilii c) zygomaticus major d) depressor labii inferioris Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.2 Describe the surface features of the head.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.A Surface Anatomy of the Head 51) Yellowing of the this normally white structure is a sign of jaundice. a) iris b) pupil c) sclera d) conjunctiva Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.2 Describe the surface features of the head.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.A Surface Anatomy of the Head 52) The site of the union of the upper and lower eyelids closest to the nasal region is the a) medial commissure b) lateral commissure c) palpebral fissure d) lacrimal caruncle

Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.2 Describe the surface features of the head.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.A Surface Anatomy of the Head 53) When placing your little finger in your external auditory canal and opening and closing your mouth, which portion of the mandible can be palpated? a) mastoid process b) pinna c) condylar process d) ramus Answer: c Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.2 Describe the surface features of the head.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.A Surface Anatomy of the Head 54) The tragus is a cartilaginous projection a) anterior to the external auditory canal b) posterior to the external auditory canal c) inferior to the external auditory canal d) superior to the external auditory canal Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.2 Describe the surface features of the head.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.A Surface Anatomy of the Head Question type: True/False

55) A portion of the ear that does not contain cartilage is the lobule.

Answer: True Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.2 Describe the surface features of the head.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.A Surface Anatomy of the Head Question type: Multiple Choice 56) Which structure is indicated by label B?

a) ala b) apex c) philtrum d) root Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.2 Describe the surface features of the head.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.A Surface Anatomy of the Head

57) What is indicated by label D?

a) ala b) apex c) philtrum d) root Answer: a Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.2 Describe the surface features of the head.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.A Surface Anatomy of the Head 58) The hyoid bone is located a) inferior to the thyroid cartilage b) superior to the thyroid cartilage c) anterior to the thyroid cartilage d) posterior to the thyroid cartilage Answer: b Difficulty: Easy

Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.3 Describe the surface features of the neck.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.B Surface Anatomy of the Neck 59) The landmark used for a tracheotomy is the a) hyoid bone b) cricoid cartilage c) thyroid gland d) vertebral spines Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.3 Describe the surface features of the neck.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.B Surface Anatomy of the Neck 60) This muscle divides the neck into anterior and posterior triangles. a) trapezius b) sternocleidomastoid c) anterior scalene d) pectoralis major Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.3 Describe the surface features of the neck.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.B Surface Anatomy of the Neck 61) Jake has a deep cut on his arm and is losing blood quickly. Pressure can be applied on this artery to stop bleeding to prevent him from losing too much blood from his arm. a) internal jugular artery b) external carotid artery c) external jugular vein d) subclavian artery

Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Application Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.3 Describe the surface features of the neck.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.B Surface Anatomy of the Neck 62) This pulse felt anterior to the sternocleidomastoid and inferior to the angle of the mandible is from which artery? a) internal jugular artery b) external carotid artery c) external jugular vein d) subclavian artery Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.3 Describe the surface features of the neck.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.B Surface Anatomy of the Neck 63) The vertebra prominens is spinous process of which vertebrae? a) fifth cervical vertebrae b) sixth cervical vertebrae c) seventh cervical vertebrae d) second thoracic vertebrae Answer: c Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.3 Describe the surface features of the neck.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.B Surface Anatomy of the Neck 64) The hyoid bone resides at the same transverse sectional level as the a) fourth cervical vertebrae. b) fifth cervical vertebrae.

c) sixth cervical vertebrae. d) sixth and seventh cervical vertebrae.

Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.3 Describe the surface features of the neck.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.B Surface Anatomy of the Neck 65) The common carotid artery bifurcates into the internal and external carotid arteries at the a) fourth cervical vertebrae. b) fifth cervical vertebrae. c) sixth cervical vertebrae. d) sixth and seventh cervical vertebrae.

Answer: b Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.3 Describe the surface features of the neck.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.B Surface Anatomy of the Neck 66) A transverse section at the atlas would intersect all of the following EXCEPT: a) uvula b) upper teeth c) palatine tonsil d) thyroid cartilage Answer: d Difficulty: Hard Bloom’s: Synthesis Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.3 Describe the surface features of the neck.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.B Surface Anatomy of the Neck 67) The most laterally palpable bony structure in the body is the

a) acromion b) humerus c) greater tubercle d) iliac crest Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.5 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the upper limb.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.D Surface Anatomy of the Upper Limb 68) The apex of the axilla is surrounded by all of the following EXCEPT: a) clavicle b) scapula c) first rib d) chest wall Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.5 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the upper limb.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.D Surface Anatomy of the Upper Limb 69) The projection on the distal end of the medial bone of the forearm is the a) head of the ulna b) styloid process of the radius c) medial epicondyle of the humerus d) lateral epicondyle of the humerus Answer: a Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.5 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the upper limb.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.D Surface Anatomy of the Upper Limb 70) The groove on the medial side of the biceps brachii contains the a) axillary artery b) brachial artery c) carotid artery d) subclavian artery Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Knowledge Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.5 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the upper limb.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.D Surface Anatomy of the Upper Limb Question type: True/False 71) The tendon of the flexor carpi ulnaris is on the medial aspect of the forearm.

Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.5 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the upper limb.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.D Surface Anatomy of the Upper Limb 72) The knuckles are the dorsal aspect of the metacarpophalangeal and interphalangeal joints as well as the heads of the metacarpals II-V. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.5 Describe the surface anatomy of the various regions of the upper limb.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.D Surface Anatomy of the Upper Limb

73) The head of the tibia can be palpated on the lateral side of the popliteal fossa.

Answer: False Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.6 Describe the surface features of the various regions of the lower limb.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.E Surface Anatomy of the Lower Limb Question type: Multiple Choice 74) Pulses from the dorsalis pedis artery can be palpated lateral to the a) calcaneal tendon b) dorsal venous arch c) extensor digitorum longus tendon d) extensor hallucis longus tendon Answer: d Difficulty: Medium Bloom’s: Analysis Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.6 Describe the surface features of the various regions of the lower limb.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.E Surface Anatomy of the Lower Limb Question type: Multiple Select 75) Health-care professionals use surface anatomy to (Select all that apply.) a) count lymphocyte levels b) count the pulse c) measure blood pressure d) palpate the location to draw blood Answer: b, c, d

Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Section Reference 1: Sec 27.1 Overview of Surface Anatomy Question type: Multiple Choice 76) Which can be seen at the midpoint of the anterior aspect of the thigh? a) biceps femoris b) rectus femoris c) vastus lateralis d) vastus medialis Answer: b Difficulty: Easy Bloom’s: Comprehension Study Objective 1: SO 27.1 Explain how surface anatomy can be used in a physical examination.

Study Objective 2: SO 27.6 Describe the surface features of the various regions of the lower limb.

Section Reference 1: Exhibit 27.E Surface Anatomy of the Lower Limb